1.

A patient complains of dizziness, thirst, difficult swallowing, and impaired vision of

close objects. Objectively: respiratory rate is increased, pupils are dilated, general
agitation, talkativeness, though the speech is indistinct. BP is 110/70 mm Hg, heart rate
is 110/min. Given symptoms can indicate overdosage of the following drug:
A. Atropine
B. Morphine
C. Ephedrine
D. Aminazine
E. Caffeine

2. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are widely used as psychopharmacological drugs. They

change the level of nearly all neurotransmitters in synapses, with the following
neurotransmitter being the exception:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Noradrenaline
C. Adrenaline
D. Dopamine
E. Serotonin

3. After a nephrectomy the patient developed enteroparesis. What cholinergic agent with
anticholinesterase action should be prescribed in this case?
A. Proserin
B. Carbacholine
C. Aceclidine
D. Pilocarpine
E. Acetylcholine

4. At the 2-3 day after the gastric resection the patient’s intestinal peristalsis failed to
restore. What should the patient be prescribed to stimulate the function of his
gastrointestinal tract?
A. Proserin
B. Platyphyllin
C. Cyclodol (Trihexyphenidyl)
D. Atropine
E. Dithyline (Suxamethonium chloride)

5. A patient was prescribed atropine sulfate to treat intestinal colic. What concomitant
disease can be a contraindication for this drug?
A. Glaucoma
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Hypotension
E. Vertigo

1
6. During gastric resection the patient received mixed anesthesia with tubocurarin chloride
muscle relaxant; to restore spontaneous respiration the patient received proserin. What
pharmacological group does this drug belong to?
A. Cholinesterase inhibitors
B. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Muscarinic antagonists
E. Muscarinic agonists

7. Cholinomimetics may cause all following side-effects, except:

A. Constipation and urinary retention
B. Bradycardia
C. Bronchospasm
D. Hypersalivation
E. Sweating

8. The following information concerning anticholinesterases is correct, except:

A. Reactivators of cholinesterase are used in Belladonna poisoning
B. They are used for treatment of paralysis
C. They are used for de-curarization
D. Galanthamine penetrates through blood-brain barrier
E. Poisoning with irreversibly acting anticholinesterases is treated by reactivators of
cholinesterase

9. Neostigmine is characterized by:

A. Effectiveness in the treatment of paralysis and myastenia
B. High ability to penetrate central nervous system
C. Irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
D. Effectiveness in the treating of gastric ulcer
E. Its ability to cause block of ganglia

10. Pilocarpine is:

A. Used for the treatment of glaucoma
B. M-cholinoblocking drug
C. Used for investigation of eye bottom
D. Used for selection of glasses
E. Used in patients with bronchial asthma

11. In the case of Belladonna poisoning neostigmine (proserinum) will antagonize the
following symptoms, except:
A. Hallucination
B. Palpitation
C. Dryness of mouth
D. Blurring of vision
E. Urinary retention

12. The patient is suffering from myastenia gravis. The drug for his treatment is:

2
 A. Pyridostigmine
B. Lobeline
C. Atropine
D. Platyphylline
E. Pilocarpine

13. The patient is suffering from paralysis after the stroke. The drug for his treatment is:
A. Galanthamine
B. Lobeline
C. Atropine
D. Platyphylline
E. Pilocarpine

14. A patient with glaucoma is prescribed with M-cholinomimetic. This drug is:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Nicotine
C. Lobeline
D. Butylscopolamine
E. Platyphylline

15. Pilocarpine was prescribed to treat glaucoma. It is from the group of:
A. M-cholinergic agonists
B. M,N-cholinergic agonists
C. N-cholinergic agonists
D. Anticholinesterases
E. M-cholinoblockers

16. Lobeline was given intravenously in the respiratory arrest. It is from the group of:
A. N- cholinergic agonists
B. M-cholinergic agonists
C. M-, N-cholinergic agonists
D. Anticholinesterases
E. M-cholinoblockers

17. Lobeline:
A. Stimulates N-cholinergic receptors
B. Stimulates M-cholinergic receptors
C. Stimulates M- and N-cholinergic receptors
D. Is depolarizing myorelaxant
E. Is ganglionic blocker.

18. Stimulation of respiration by lobeline is due to stimulation of N-cholinergic receptors:

A. In Zona carotis
B. In the brain
C. In the adrenal medulla
D. In the skeletal muscles
3
 E. In the ganglia

19. An overdose of tubocurarine should be treated with:

A. Neostigmine
B. Reactivators of cholinesterase
C. Lobeline
D. Atropine
E. Apomorphine

20. True information, concerning the location of cholinergic receptors, is:

A. M-cholinergic receptors are situated in the central nervous system
B. M-cholinergic receptors are situated in the exocrinal glands
C. M-cholinergic receptors are situated in the smooth muscles
D. M-cholinergic receptors are situated in the myocardium
E. All of listed

21. True information, concerning the location of N-cholinergic receptors, is:

A. N-cholinergic receptors are situated in the brain
B. N-cholinergic receptors are situated in the ganglia
C. N-cholinergic receptors are situated in the skeletal muscles
D. N-cholinergic receptors are situated in Zona carotis
E. All of listed

22. True information, concerning cholinergic receptors, is:

A. M-cholinoreceptors are stimulated by muscarine and inhibited by atropine
B. N-cholinoreceptors are stimulated and inhibited by tubocurarine
C. N- cholinoreceptors are stimulated by ganglionic blockers
D. M- and N-cholinergic receptors are not located in the brain
E. N-cholinoreceptors are not stimulated and inhibited by nicotine.

23. Duration of action of N-cholinomimetics after intravenous administration is:

A. 3-5 minutes
B. 3-5 hours
C. 3-5 days
D. They do not act after intravenous administration
E. They never are given intravenously

24. Nicotine is characterized by all, except:

A. It is used in clinic to treat asphyxia
B. It is an alkaloid of tobacco
C. In a low dose it stimulates N-cholinoreceptors
D. In a high dose it inhibits N-cholinoreceptors
E. It causes tolerance and substance dependence.

4
25. In complex treatment of the child suffering from cerebral palsy, a doctor decided to
include anticholinesterase drug moderately improving mental development. What drug
is prescribed to the child?
A. Galanthamine
B. Proserinum
C. Neostigmine
D. Pilocarpine
E. Lobeline.

26. A patient after the stroke has paralysis of the hand and leg. To restore the movements
of the paralyzed extremities the patient was treated with cholinomimetic. Which of the
listed drugs was used for this purpose?
A. Neostigmine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Lobeline
D. Muscarine
E. Nicotine

27. A patient with glaucoma is prescribed with M-cholinomimetic as eye membranes. Its
usage in clinic is limited by strong systemic activity and toxicity. Which drug is
prescribed?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Neostigmine
C. Lobeline
D. Platyphylline
E. Galanthamine

28. A patient with acute intoxication with gaseous poison had respiratory arrest. Lobeline
was given intravenously to this patient and spontaneous breathing was restored in 1-2
minutes. Which pharmacological group is lobeline from?
A. N- cholinomimetics
B. M-cholinomimetics
C. Direct M-, N-cholinomimetics
D. Anticholinesterases
E. M-cholinoblockers

29. For testing refraction of the eye atropine was instilled into the conjunctival sac. On
completion of the procedure another cholinergic drug was used to counteract midriasis
and cycloplegia caused by atropine. What was this drug?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Lobeline
C. Butylscopolamine
D. Pirenzepine
E. None of listed.

5
30. A patient suffering from myasthenia is treated with neostigmine. The therapy has been
complicated by nausea, diarrhea, hypersalivation, and sweating. Stimulation of which
cholinergic receptors is responsible for these side-effects?
A. Peripheral M-cholinoreceptors
B. Central M-cholinoreceptors
C. Central N-cholinoreceptors
D. Peripheral M-cholinoreceptors and peripheral N-cholinoreceptors of muscular
subtype
E. Peripheral N-cholinoreceptors of ganglionic subtype

31. It is necessary to prescribe a medication to a patient with glaucoma. Which

anticholinesterase drug (tertiary amine) isn't used in ophthalmology due to its irritative
influence on the eye conjunctiva?
A. Galanthamine
B. Atropine
C. Physostigmine
D. Neostigmine
E. Carbachol.

32. A child poisoned with mushrooms, namely fly agarics, has been taken to the
toxicological department with hypersalivation, vomiting, spastic pains in the abdomen,
and hallucinations. Which alkaloid containing in these mushrooms produces M-
cholinoreceptors hyperstimulation?
A. Muscarine
B. Nicotine
C. Lobeline
D. Atropine
E. Galantamine

33. A farmer processed plants in his garden with insecticidal solution without personal
protection equipment. After the work salivation, short breathing, stomachache, and
diarrhea have began. Intoxication with orgnophosphates has been diagnosed. Which
preparation should be used for emergency help?
A. Alloxim
B. Neostigmine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Lobeline
E. Tannin

34. Atropine blocks M-cholinoreceptors, so it has:

A. Receptor mechanism of action
B. Genom-tropic mechanism of action
C. Membrane-tropic mechanism of action
D. Enzyme-tropic mechanism of action
E. None of the listed groups.

35. Atropine causes:

6
 A. Cycloplegia
B. Improvement of accommodation
C. Miosis
D. A decrease of intraocular pressure
E. Any ocular effects

36. Atropine exerts:

A. A decrease in gastric secretion
B. Spasm of smooth muscles
C. Bradycardia
D. An increase in salivation
E. An increase in sweat secretion

37. Atropine is M-cholinoblocker, which causes:

A. Dilation of bronchi
B. Spasm of bronchi
C. Hypersecretion of bronchial glands
D. An increase in motility of the gut
E. An increase in the tone of urinary bladder

38. Atropine blocks:

A. M-cholinoreceptors of all subtypes
B. M1-cholinoreceptors
C. N-cholinoreceptors of all subtypes
D. N-cholinoreceptors of ganglionic subtype
E. N-cholinoreceptors of muscular subtype.

39. Atropine is:

A. Non-celective cholinoblocker
B. Selective cholinoblocker
C. Non-selective adrenergic agonist
D. Selective adrenergic agonist
E. Non-selective adrenergic antagonist

40. Atropine is used to treat

A. Colic
B. Intestinal atonia
C. Atonia of the urinary bladder
D. Glacouma
E. Tachycardia

41. Indications to use of atropine are all, except:

A. Atonia of the gut after the surgery
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Colic
D. Bradycardia
7
 E. Preanesthetic medication

42. Ipratpopium bromide is designed for the treatment of:

A. Bronchial asthma
B. Belladonna poisoning
C. Gastric peptic ulcer
D. Ocular diseases
E. Spasms of the gut

43. The dentist had to reduce salivation during the operation. Which pharmacological
group will he use?
A. M-cholinomimetics
B. M-cholinoblockers
C. Adrenomimetics
D. Adrenoblockers
E. M-,N-cholinomimetics

44. Side-effects of atropine are all, except:

A. Frequent urination
B. Constipation
C. Urinary retention
D. Dry mouth
E. Tachycardia

45. The most long lasting cycloplegia is caused by:

A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Platyphylline
D. Tropicamide
E. Pilocarpine

46. Pirenzepine is beneficial in the treatment of:

A. Gastric peptic ulcer
B. Colic
C. Bronchospasm
D. Atrio-ventricular block
E. Some acute poisonings

47. M-cholinoblockers, which may cause dry mouth as a side-effect, are all, except:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Hyoscine
C. Atropine
D. Butylscopolamine
E. Platyphylline

48. M-cholinoblockers do not cause such side effect-effect as:

A. Hypersalivation
B. Dry mouth
8
 C. Tachycardia
D. Blurred vision
E. Urine retention

49. Belladonna poisoning is diagnosed in a patient. The antidote is:

A. Neostigmine
B. Lobeline
C. Atropine
D. Platyphylline
E. Pilocarpine

50. Myorelaxation caused by tubocurarine is due to:

A. Blockage of N-cholinergic receptors in the skeletal muscles
B. Blockage of N-cholinergic receptors in the central nervous system
C. Blockage of N-cholinergic receptors in the adrenal medulla
D. Blockage of N-cholinergic receptors in Zona carotis
E. Blockage of N-cholinergic receptors in the ganglia

51. Tubocurarine is:

A. Nondepolarizing myorelaxant
B. Depolarizing myorelaxant
C. Local anesthetic
D. Local anesthetic
E. Anticholinesterase

52. Myorelaxation by tubocurarine is used:

A. In surgeries under the general anesthesia
B. In diagnostic investigations
C. In shock and collapse
D. In surgeries under the local anesthesia
E. In all listed cases
53. Succinylcholine (Dithylinum) is:
A. Depolarizing myorelaxant
B. Anti-depolarizing myorelaxant
C. Anticholinesterase
D. Myorelaxant of central action
E. General anesthetic

54. Succinylcholine (Dithylinum):

A. Is depolarizing myorelaxant
B. Local anesthetics
C. May cause long-lasting apnea in some patients
D. Myorelaxant for short surgeries
E. All listed

55. If succinylcholine has caused apnea, emergence help is:

A. Blood transfusion and apparatus lungs ventilation
B. Neostigmine
C. Reactivators of cholinesterase
D. Forced diuresis
E. Adrenalin (intracardialy)

9
56. Succinylcholine causes long-lasting apnoea in patients with:
A. Deficit of pseudocholinesterase
B. Deficit of monoaminoxidase
C. Deficit of catechol-orto-methyl-transferase
D. Deficit of glucose-6-phospodehydrogenase
E. Deficit of cyclooxygenase

57. Ganglionic blockers:

A. Block N-cholinoreceptors in the parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia
B. Block N-cholinoreceptors in the parasympathetic ganglia
C. Block N-cholinoreceptors in the sympathetic ganglia
D. Block N-cholinoreceptors in the skeletal muscles
E. Block central N-cholinoreceptors

58. Ganglionic blockers are used in all cases, except:

A. Collapse
B. Colic
C. Acute hypertension
D. Controlled hypotension in the surgeries
E. Bronchial asthma attack
59. Postural hypotension caused by ganglia blocker is a result of:
A. Dilation of blood vessels and redistribution of blood
B. Relaxation of smooth muscles in the gut
C. Relaxation of smooth muscles in the bronchi
D. Inhibition of gastric secretion
E. Lowering of the intraocular pressure
60. Only one preparation belongs to ganglionic blockers:
A. Hexamethonium
B. Succinylcloline
C. Tubocurarine
D. Atropine
E. Pipecuronium
61. Acute poisoning with organophosphates should be treated by:
A. Alloxim
B. Neostigmine
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Pilocarpine
E. Lobeline.

62. Only one of the listed drugs is indirect-acting cholinomimetic:

A. Neostigmine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Lobeline
D. Carbachol
E. Acetylcholine.

63. All mentioned M-cholinoblockers have natural origin, except:

A. Pirenzepine
B. Atropine
C. Scopolamine
10
 D. Platyphylline
E. Belladonna extract.

64. Prifinium bromide is used for the treatment of child with vomiting and spastic pain in
the abdomen. Which group of cholinergic drugs is it from?
A. M-cholinoblockers
B. N-cholinoblockers
C. M-cholinomimetics
D. N-cholinomimetics
E. Anticholinesterases.

65. All listed preparations are myorelaxants, except:

A. Hexamethonium
B. Tubocurarine
C. Pipecuronium
D. Rocuronium
E. Succinylcholine.

66. Ephedrine exerts all effects, except:

A. Produces atrio-ventricular block
B. Releases stored noradrenaline from nerve terminals
C. Produces bronchodilation
D. Stimulates central nervous system
E. Rises systolic blood pressure.

67. Dobutamine is selective beta-adrenomimetic for treatment of:

A. Acute heart failure
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypertension
E. Angina pectoris.

68. Salbutamol is:

A. Bronchodilator
B. Indicated in tachyarrhythmia
C. Natural catecholamine
D. Depressant of heart function
E. Cardioselective adrenomimetic

69. Adrenaline is used to treat all diseases and conditions, except:

A. Angina pectoris
B. Attack of bronchial asthma
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Anaphylactic shock
E. Heart arrest.

11
70. Adrenergic agonist, used to prevent premature labor, is;
A. Partusisten
B. Dobutamine
C. Ephedrine
D. Epinephrine
E. Norepinephrine.

71. Adrenаline is used for prolongation of local anesthesia due to:

A. Constriction of blood vessels
B. Dilation of bronchi
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Inhibition of the gut motility
E. Stimulation of the heart work.

72. Alpha-adrenomimetics cause:

A. An increase in blood pressure
B. Cycloplegia
C. Miosis
D. Bronchodilation
E. Hyperglycemia.

73. Alpha-adrenomimetics, applied topically on the mucous membrane, cause:

A. Vasoconctriction and decrease in exudation
B. An increase in blood pressure
C. Spasm of accomodation and miosis
D. Dilation of bronchi
E. Elevation of glucose level in the blood.

74. All, concerning pharmacokinetics of adrenaline, is true, except:

A. It is well absorbed in the gut
B. It is administered subcutaneously
C. It is used topically
D. It is destroyed in the blood
E. Its duration of action is 15-30 minutes.

75. Adrenalin (topically) stops capillary bleeding due to:

A. Constriction of blood vessels
B. Dilation of bronchi
C. Stimulation of heart contractions
D. An increase in glucose level in the blood
E. An increase in blood pressure.

76. Adrenalin belongs to:

A. Alpha, beta-adrenomimetics
12
 B. Alpha -adrenomimetics
C. Beta-adrenomimetics
D. Sympathomimetics
E. Sympatholytics.

77. Adremomimetic for intracardial administration in the heart arrest is:

A. Adrenalin
B. Noradrenaline
C. Ephedrine
D. Dobutamine
E. Salbutamol.

78. Indirect-acting adrenomimetic with psychomotor stimulant action is:

A. Ephedrine
B. Adrenalin
C. Noradruenaline
D. Fenoterol
E. Salbutamol.

79. Adrenergic agonist, caused tolerance and drug dependence, is:

A. Ephedrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Phenylephrin
D. Halazoline
E. Naphazoline.

80. A patient has bronchial asthma co-existing with tachycardia. In this case the best
preparation is:
A. Salbutamol
B. Orciprenaline
C. Norepinephrine
D. Epinephrine
E. Ephedrine.

81. Adrenergic agonist, used only as nasal drops, is:

A. Naphazoline
B. Phenylephrin
C. Norepinephrine
D. Epinephrine
E. Ephedrine.

82. True information, concerning the location of adrenoceptors, is:

A. All mentioned
B. Alpha1-adrenoceptors are located in the blood vessels
C. Alpha2-adrenoceptors are located on the presynaptic membrane of all sympathetic
synapses
13
 D. Beta1 -adrenoceptors are located in the heart
E. Beta2 -adrenoceptors are located in the bronchi.
83. True information, concerning adrenoceptors, is:
A. All mentioned
B. Alpha1-adrenoceptors are located in the blood vessels and constrict them
C. Beta2 -adrenoceptors are located in the blood vessels and dilate them
D. Beta1 -adrenoceptors are located in the heart and stimulate heart work
E. Beta2 -adrenoceptors are located in the bronchi and dilate them.
84. Naphazoline (Naphthizinum) is for the treatment of:
A. Acute rhinitis
B. Collapse
C. Shock
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Anaphylaxis.

85. Ephedrine, contrary to adrenalin, can cause:

A. Drug dependence
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypertension
D. Tremor
E. Restlessness.
86. Anaphylactic shock develops after the injection of procaine to a patient. Which
adrenergic agent must be urgently administered in anaphylaxis?
A. Adrenaline hydrochloride
B. Phenylephrin
C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
D. Noradrenaline hydrotartrate
E. Naphazoline.
87. To perform fundoscopy an ophthalmologist instilled in the eye an agent capable to
cause midriasis without cycloplegia. What preparation was instilled into the
conjunctival sac?
A. Phenylephrin
B. Noradrenaline
C. Atropine
D. Pilocarpine
E. Fenoterol.
88. A patient is in collaptoid state. Phenylephrin is administered to him with a purpose to
normalize blood pressure. What is its mechanism of action?
A. Stimulation of alpha1-adrenoceptors
B. Stimulation of beta1-adrenoceptors
C. Stimulation of beta2-adrenoceptors
D. Stimulation of alpha2-adrenoceptors Stimulation of all types of adrenoceptors.
89. A doctor was called to the patient with attack of bronchospasm. This patient also has
angina pectoris. What drug should be chosen for emergency help?
Salbutamol
Ephedrine
Adrenaline Halazoline Dobutanine.

90. Adrenergic agonist was given to a patient with anaphylaxis. It stimulates all types of
adrenoceptors, dilates bronchi, increases the frequency and force of heart beats,

14
 elevates blood pressure, and inhibits release of mediators of allergy. What drug is it?
A. Adrenaline hydrochloride
B. Noradrenaline hydrotartrate
C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
D. Partusisten (Fenoterol)
E. Phenylephrin (Mesatonum).

91. A patient has collapse caused by an overdose of ganglia blocker. What drug is the most
effective for emergence help in this situation?
A. Phenylephrin
B. Dobutamine
C. Adrenaline
D. Halazoline
E. Naphazoline.

92. Nasal bleeding has developed in the young woman. A doctor imposed a tampon with a
drug from the group of adrenergic agonists, and the bleeding stopped. What drug was
used?
A. Adrenaline hydrochlorid
B. Noradrenaline hydrotartrate
C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
D. Partusisten (Fenoterol)
E. Salbutamol.

93. A patient has hypoglycemic coma caused by insulin overdose. Beside the
administration of glucose adrenergic drug was administered to him. From which of
adrenoceptor agonists is it possible to expect the maximal therapeutic effect in the
given situation?
A. Adrenaline
B. Phenylephrin
C. Ephedrine
D. Noradrenaline
E. Dobutamine

94. An anesthesiologist prepares local anesthesia and adds adrenaline to the solution of
lidocaine. His purpose is the prolongation of anesthesia. Which pharmacological effect
of epinephrine is a background of such its use?
A. Constriction of blood vessels
B. Dilation of bronchi
C. Stimulation of heart contractility
D. Stimulation of lipolysis
E. Inhibition of gut motility.

95. A patient with spasmotic bronchitis was prescribed ephedrine, but during the first day
of treatment tablets of ephedrine lost their positive effect. Which side-effect of
ephedrine can we see in this case?
A. Tachyphylaxis
15
 B. Tolerance
C. Drug dependence
D. Doping-effect
E. Hypersensitivity.

96. Propranolol is effective in the treatment of hypertension due to:

A. A decrease of cardiac output
B. An increase in peripheral vascular tone
C. Inhibition of norepinephrine release from presynaptic membrane
D. Myotropic action
E. Action on the central nervous system.

97. Side-effects of sympatholytics are all, except:

A. Dry mouth
B. Hypotension
C. Enlarging of salivary glands
D. Gastritis
E. Disturbances of sleeping.

98. Non-selective alpha-adrenoblockers are used for all, except:

A. Diagnostics of pheochromocytoma

B. Treatment of pheochromocytoma

C. Treatment of Raynaud's disease (spasms of blood vessels)

D. Treatment of hypertension.

E. Treatment of angina pectoris.

99. A decrease in vascular tone, following reserpine administration, is due to:

A. Depletion of noradrenaline store
B. Antagonism of noradrenaline action
C. Inhibition of monoaminoxidase
D. Inhibition of noradrenaline synthesis
E. Direct relaxation of smooth muscle in the blood vessels.

100. The following statement, concerning prazosin, is not correct:

A. It blocks alpha2-adrenoceptors
B. It is antihypertensive agent
C. It causes vasodilation
D. It does not cause tachycardia
E. It blocks alpha1-adrenoceptors.

101. The following statement, concerning prazosin, is not correct:

A. It blocks alpha2-adrenoceptors
B. It is antihypertensive agent
C. It causes vasodilation
16
 D. It does not cause tachycardia
E. It blocks alpha1-adrenoceptors.

102. All the following are indications for the clinical use of propranolol, except:
A. Spasms of blood vessels
B. Hypertension
C. Tachyarrhythmia
D. Angina pectoris
E. Myocardial infarction.

103. Alpha-adrenoblockers may cause the following side-effect:

A. Postural hypotension
B. Reflex bradycardia
C. Reflex tachycardia
D. A decrease in the intestinal motility
E. Hypersalivation

104. Alpha-adrenoblockers can cause the following side-effects, except:

A. Constipation
B. Postural hypotension
C. An increase of the intestinal motility
D. Inhibition of ejaculation.
105. Tachycardia, accompanied the use of non-selective alpha-adrenoblocker, is due to:
A. Blockage of presynaptic alpha 2-adrenoceptors
B. Blockage of postsynaptic alpha1-adrenoceptors
C. Blockage of postsynaptic alpha 2-adrenoceptors
D. Sympatholytic action
E. Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.

106. Beside cardio-vascular diseases, doxazosin is effective in:

A. Non-malignant hyperplasia of prostate
B. Renal failure
C. Inflammation of urinary bladder
D. Renal colic
E. Prostatitis.

107. Propranolol is:

A. Non-selective beta-adrenoblocker
B. Cardio-selective beta-adrenoblocker
C. Non-selective alpha-adrenoblocker
D. Alpha, beta-adrenoblocker
E. Sympatholytic.

108. Side-effect of propranolol, caused by the blockage of beta2-adrenoceptors, is:

A. Spasm of bronchi
B. Bradycardia
17
 C. A decrease of cardiac output
D. Somnolence

E. Depression.

109. Adverse reaction of propranolol, caused by the blockage of beta1-adrenoceptors is:

A. Bradycardia
B. Spasm of bronchi
C. Pain in the stomach
D. Somnolence Depression.

E. Somnolence Depression.

110. Indications to use of propranolol include all diseases, except:

A. Congestive heart failure
B. Angina pectoris
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Migraine.

111. Contrary to propranolol, metoprolol:

A. Blocks beta1-adrenoceptors only
B. Blocks beta2-adrenoceptors only
C. Blocks alpha- and beta-adrenoceptors
D. Blocks alpha - adrenoceptors only
E. Does not influence any adrenergic receptors.

112. Interaction of labetalol with adrenoceptorts may be described as:

A. Action on beta-adrenoceptors is more than the action on alpha-adrenoceptors
B. Action on alpha-adrenoceptors is more than the action on beta-adrenoceptors
C. Action on beta1-adrenoceptors is more than the action on beta2-adrenoceptors
D. Action on all types of adrenergic receptors is similar
E. Action on adrenergic receptors has not clinical importance.

113. Preparations from the group of alpha, beta-adrenoblockers are:

A. Labetalol and carvedilol
B. Propranolol and talinolol
C. Metoprolol and atenolol
D. Prazosin and doxazosin
E. Reserpine and guanetidine.

114. Sympatholytics are:

A. Presynaptically-acting antiadrenergic drugs
B. Postsynaptically-acting antiadrenergic drugs
C. Re-uptake inhibitors
D. Group of adrenoblockers
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 E. Group of adrenergic agonists.

115. Sympatholytic with central neuroleptic effect is only:

A. Reserpine
B. Ephedrine
C. Guanetidine
D. Phentolamine
E. Phenylephrin.

116. Reserpine is:

A. Sympatholytic
B. Non-selective beta-adrenoblocker
C. Cardio-selective beta-adrenoblocker
D. Non-selective alpha-adrenoblocker
E. Alpha, beta-adrenoblocker.

117. An elderly patient has mild hypertension and is prone to bronchospasm. Which
antiadrenergic drug is contraindicated to this patient?
A. Propranolol
B. Prazosin
C. Metoprolol
D. Doxazosin
E. Atenolol.

118. A doctor has prescribed selective alpha1-adrenoceptor blocker for the treatment of
hypertensive patient. Which drug belongs to this group?
A. Prazosin
B. Metoprolol
C. Propranolol
D. Atenolol
E. Reserpine.

119. A 40-year-old woman, suffering from hyperthyroidism, complains of palpitation.

What drug should be prescribed for normalization of the heart rate?
A. Propranolol
B. Prazozin
C. Doxazosin
D. Reserpine
E. Methyldopa.

120. Propranolol is prescribed to a patient with angina pectoris. In which way it limits
ischemia in the heart?
A. It reduces oxygen demand of myocardium
B. It decreases heart rate
C. It decreases heart output
D. It reduces minute volume of the heart
E. It lowers blood pressure.
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121. Elderly man has moderate hypertension co-existing with adenoma of prostate. A
physician has prescribed him antiadrenergic drug effective in both these diseases. What
preparation has been prescribed?
A. Doxazosin
B. Prazozin
C. Propranolol
D. Talinolol
E. Metoprolol.

122. Beta-adrenoblocker is prescribed to the patient with heart arrhythmia. This drug has
cardioselective action on beta1-receptors. What is the name of the mentioned drug?
A. Atenolol
B. Doxazosin
C. Prazosin
D. Propranolol
E. Labetalol.
E. Other reason.

124. Propranolol was prescribed for the treatment of angina pectoris, but bradycardia and
bronchospasm had been developed. What drug from the same group may be used for
replacement of the first remedy?
A. Metoprolol
B. Labetalol
C. Prazosin
D. Doxazosin
E. Reserpine.

125. Prazosin belongs to:

A. Selective alpha-adrenoblockers
B. Non-selective beta-adrenoblockers
C. Cardio-selective beta-adrenoblockers
D. Non-selective alpha-adrenoblockers
E. Alpha, beta–adrenoblockers.

126. Ocular effect of beta-adrenoblockers:

A. Lowering of intra-ocular pressure
B. Miosis
C. Midriasis
D. Spasm of accomodation
E. Paralysis of accomodation.
127. Metoprolol is antiadrenargic drug from the group of:
A. Cardio-selective beta-adrenoblockers
B. Selective alpha-adrenoblockers
C. Non-selective beta-adrenoblockers
D. Non-selective alpha-adrenoblockers
E. Alpha, beta–adrenoblockers.

128. Targets for drugs action in the adrenergic synapse are:

A. All listed
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 B. Deposition of norepinephrine
C. Re-uptake of norepinephrine
D. Presynapic receptors
E. Postsynaptic receptors.

129. Preparation with catecholamine structure is:

A. Adrenaline
B. Salbutamol
C. Fenotrol
D. Phenylephrin
E. Ephedrine.
130. Ephedrine is more stable in the body than adrenalin, because it is:
A. An alkaloid
B. Natural catecholamine
C. Synthetic catecholamine
D. Guanetidine derivative
E. None of listed.
131. A patient has caught cold. He complains of runny nose. Nasal drops from which
pharmacological group are suitable to treat acute rhinitis in this case?
A. Alpha-adrenomimetics
B. Beta-adrenomimetics
C. Alpha-adrenoblockers
D. Beta-adrenoblockers
E. Sympatholytics.

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