Solutions for Homework 4

HU Wei
October 21, 2019

Solution 1. Since the sequence doesn’t converge to 0, we have, there is r0 > 0 such that
for any N > 0 there is m > N such that |am | > r0 . Because an is a Cauchy sequence, we
may take N0 > 0 such that for any n, m > N0 , |an − am | < r0 /2. Take any m0 > N0 with
|am0 | > r0 . We then have for any n > N0 , either,

an = am0 + an − am0 > r0 + (−r0 /2) = r0 /2,

or,
an = am0 + an − am0 < −r0 + r0 /2 = −r0 /2.
Obvious, an is either all positive or all negative for n > N0 .

Solution 2. Suppose (ak ) ∼ (a0k ), (bk ) ∼ (b0k ), then since they all are Cauchy sequence, they
can be bounded by some M > 0, i.e.,

|ak |, |a0k |, |bk |, |b0k | ≤ M k ∈ N.

Let’s prove (ak bk ) ∼ (a0k b0k ), or equivalently, we shall prove (a0k b0k − ak bk ) converges to 0: By

|a0k b0k − ak bk | = |a0k b0k − a0k bk + a0k bk − ak bk | ≤ M (|bk − b0k | + |a0k − ak |),

one easily deduce (a0k b0k − ak bk ) converges to 0 from the facts that (a0k − ak ) converges to 0
and (b0k − bk ) converges to 0.

Solution 3. Denote x = [ak ], y = [bk ], z = [ck ]. Then x < y implies bk − ak > r1 for some
r1 > 0, N1 > 0 and all k > N1 . Then we have,

bk + ck − (ak + ck ) = bk − ak > r1 ,

for k > N1 , which by definition is,

x+z <y+z

Solution 4. Suppose a > 0, otherwise we may consider (−an ), (−bn ) instead.

1. First, one can easily mimic the proof in Exercise 1 to prove that there is N1 > 0 such
that ak > a/2 for k > N1 .

1
 1
2. Then, for k > N1 , we have bk = ak
, so

1 a − ak 1 2
|bk − | = | |= |a − ak | ≤ 2 |a − ak |.
a a · ak a · ak a

a2
3. For any r > 0, there is N2 such that for all n > N2 we have |ak − a| ≤ 2
r.

1 2 a2
|bk − | ≤ 2 r = r
a a 2
holds for k > N = max{N1 , N2 }. This proves (bk ) converges to a1 .