Course: SR BIPC (CHAINA & ELITE) PART TEST -1 Date: 05-01-2019

Duration: 3 Hrs NEET MODEL Max. Marks: 720 M

Note: Important Instructions
 Duration of test is 3 hours and question paper contains 180 questions. The
maximum marks are 720.
 Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every
wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
 The candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the
appropriate bubble with the help of Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct
answer(s) of the question attempted
SYLLABUS
BOTANY Diversity in the Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Morphology
of flowering plants
ZOOLOGY Human Physiology
PHYSICS Units and measurement, Motion in a straight line, Motion in a plane, Laws of
Motion, Work power energy, System of particles and rotational motion, Gravitation
CHEMISTRY Atomic structure, Periodic classification of elements, Chemical bonding,
Stoichiometry, States of matter, Chemical & Ionic equilibrium, Thermodynamics,
Hydrogen and its compound

PHYSICS
1. The period of oscillation of a simple of -0.004 cm, the correct diameter of
L the ball is
pendulum is T  2 . Measured 1) 0.521 cm 2) 0.525 cm
g
3) 0.053 cm 4) 0.529 cm
value of L is 20.0 cm known to 1 mm 4. A car is moving with speed 30 m/sec
accuracy and time for 100 on a circular path of radius 500m.
oscillations of the pendulum is Its speed is increasing at the rate of
found to be 90 s using a wrist watch 2 m/sec2, What is the acceleration of
of 1 s resolution. The accuracy in the care .
the determination of g is 1) 2 m/sec2 2) 2.7 m/sec2
1) 2.7% 2) 3.1% 3) 1.8 m/sec2 4) 9.8 m/sec2
3) 1.4% 4) 5%
  aZ
2. In a system of units if force (F), 5. In the relation P  e k P is pressure,
acceleration (A) and time(T) are 
taken as fundamental units then the Z is the distance, k is Boltzmann’s
dimensional formula of energy is constant and  is the temperature.
1) FA2T 2) FAT 2 The dimensional formula of  will be
3) F 2 AT 4) FAT 1)  M 0 L2T 0  2)  M 1 L2T 1 
3. A student measured the diameter of
3)  M 1 L0T 1  4)  M 0 L2T 1 
a small steel ball using screw gauge
of least count 0.001 cm. The main 6. A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a
scale reading is 5 mm and zero of sphere of radius R. A very small
circular scale division coincides with spherical ball slips on this wire. The
25 divisions above the reference time taken by this ball to slip from A
level. If screw gauge has a zero error to B is
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 1) P1 2) P2 3) P3 4) P4
11. An object moving with a speed of
6.25m/s, is decelerated at a rate
d
given by  2.5  where  is the
dt
2 gR cos  instantaneous speed. The time taken
1) 2) 2 gR
g cos  g by the object, to come to rest, would
be
R gR
3) 2 4) 1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 4s 4) 8s
g g cos  12. A particle is projected from ground
7. All the graphs below are intended to at some angle with the horizontal.
represent the same motion. One of Let P be the point at maximum
them does it incorrectly. Pick it up. height H. At what height above the
point P should the particle be aimed
to have range equal to maximum
height?
1) H 2) 2H 3) H/2 4) 3H
13. There are two values of time for
1) 2) which a projectile is at the same
height. The sum of these two times
is equal to (T=time of flight of the
projectile)
1) 3 T/2 2) 4 T/3
3) 3 T/4 4) T
3) 4)
14. Two particles are thrown
8. A ship A is moving Westwards with a
horizontally in opposite directions
speed of 10kmh 1 and a ship B 100km with velocities u and 2u from the
south of A, is moving Northwards top of a high tower. The time after
with a speed of 10kmh 1 . The time which their radius of curvature will
after which the distance between be mutually perpendicular is
them becomes shortest, is u u 1 u 1u
1) 5h 2) 5 2h 1) 2 2) 2 3) 4)
g g 2g 2g
3) 10 2h 4) 0h 15. The acceleration-velocity graph of a
9. If a freely falling body travels in the particle moving in a straight line is
last second a distance equal to the shown in fig. Then the slope of the
distance travelled by it in the first velocity-displacement graph
three second, the time of the travel
is
1) 6 sec 2) 5sec
3) 4 sec 4) 3 sec
10. Figure shows a planet in an elliptical
orbit around the Sun s. Where is the
kinetic energy of the planet 1) increases linearly
maximum? 2) decreases linearly
3) is constant
4) increases parabolically
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16. Two blocks A and B of masses m and body collision is shown in fig. the
2m, respectively, are held at rest instantaneous force is maximum
such that the spring is in natural corresponding to point
length. Find out the accelerations of
both the blocks just after release.

1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S
21. A man weighing 80 kg is standing in
a trolley weighing 320 kg. The
trolley is resting on frictionless
g g horizontal rails. If the man starts
1) g , g  ,  2)
3 3 walking on the trolley with a speed
3) 0, 0 4) g , c of 1 m/s, then after 4 sec his
17. A small block of mass m rests on a displacement relative to the ground
smooth wedge of angle  . With what will be
horizontal acceleration a should the 1) 5 m 2) 4.8 m
wedge be pulled, as shown in fig, so 3) 3.2 m 4) 3.0 m
that the block falls freely? 22. A horizontal platform is rotating
with uniform angular velocity
around the vertical axis passing
through its centre. At some instant
of time a viscous fluid of mass ‘m’ is
dropped at the centre and is allowed
to spread out and finally fall. The
angular velocity during this period
1) g cos  2) g sin  1) Decreases continuously
3) g cot  4) g tan  2) Decreases initially and increases
18. A satellite of mass m revolves again
around the earth of radius R at a 3) Remains unaltered
height x from its surface. If g is the 4) Increases continuously
acceleration due to gravity on the 23. One solid sphere A and another
surface of the earth, the orbital hollow sphere B are of same mass
speed of the satellite is and same outer radii. The moment of
gR inertia about their diameters are
1) gx 2) respectively I A and I B such that
Rx
2 2
1 1) I A  I B 2) I A  I B
gR  gR  2
3) 4)   3) I A  I B 4) I A / I B  d A / d B
R x  R x 24. A solid cylinder rolls down an
19. If a man at the equator would weigh inclined plane of height 3 m and
(3/5)th of his weight, the angular reaches the bottom of plane with
speed of the earth is
angular velocity of 2 2 rad .s 1 . The
2g g radius of cylinder must be
1) 2)
5R R Take g  10ms 2 
R 2R
3) 4) 1) 5cm 2) 0.5cm
g 5g
3) 10 cm 4) 5m
20. The variation of momentum with
time of one of the body in a two
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25. Consider a system of two identical block comes to rest after collision.
balls, each of mass M connected by a When the initial velocity of the
light rigid rod as shown in the figure. lighter block is V, then the value of
If an impulse J  MV is imparted to coefficient of restitution (e) will be
the body at one of its ends, what 1) 0.5 2) 0.25
would be angular velocity of the 3) 0.8 4) 0.4
system. 30. A time dependent force F  6t acts on
a particle of mass l kg. If the particle
starts from rest, the work done by
the force during the first 1 sec. Will
be
1) V / L 2) 2V / L 1) 18 J 2) 4.5 J
3) V / 3 L 4) V / 4 L 3) 22 J 4) 9 J
26. Consider a system of two particles 31. A shell initially at rest explodes into
having masses m1 and m2 . If the two pieces of equal mass, then the
two pieces will
particle of mass m1 is pushed towards 1) Be at rest
the centre of mass of particles 2) Move with different velocities in
through a distance d, by what different directions
distance would be particle of mass 3) Move with the same velocity in
m2 should be moved so as to keep opposite directions
the centre of mass of particles at the 4) Move with the same velocity in same
original position direction
m1 m 32. A body of mass M is moving with a
1) d 2) 1 d uniform speed of 10m/s on
m1  m2 m2
frictionless surface under the
m
3) d 4) 2 d influence of two forces F1 and F2 as
m1
shown in the figure . The net power
27. In rotational motion of a rigid body, of the system is
all particles move with
1) Same linear & angular velocity
2) Same linear and different angular
velocity
3) With different linear velocities and 1) 10F1F2 M 2) 10  F1  F2  M
same angular velocities
4) With different linear velocities and 3)  F1  F2  M 4) Zero
different angular velocities 33. The potential energy of a weight less
28. A mass m hangs with the help of a spring compressed by a distance a is
string wrapped around a pulley on a proportional to
frictionless bearing. The pulley has 1) a 2) a 2
mass m and radius R. Assuming 3) a 2 4) a 0
pulley to be a perfect uniform 34. A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is
circular disc, the acceleration of the stationary at the top of a hill of
mass m, if the string does not slip height 100 m. It slides down a
on the pulley, is smooth surface to the ground, then
3 climbs up another hill of height 30
1) g 2) g
2 m and finally slides down to a
2 g horizontal base at a height of 20 m
3) g 4) above the ground. The velocity
3 3
29. A moving block having mass m, attained by the ball is (g = 10m/s2)
collides with another stationary 1) 10 m / s 2) 10 30 m / s
block having mass 4m. The lighter 3) 40 m / s 4) 20 m / s
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35. A particle is placed at the origin and
a force F  kx is acting on it (where k
is positive constant). If U  0   0 , the
graph of U  x  versus x will be (where
U is the potential energy function)
1) 2)
3)
36. Work done by a frictional force is
1) Negative 2) Positive
3) Zero 4) All of the above
37. A body moves along a circular path
of radius 10 m and the coefficient of
friction is 0.5. what should be its
angular speed in rad/s if it is not
slip from the surface  g  9.8ms 2 
1) 5 2) 10 3) 0.1 4) 0.7
38. Which one of the following
statements is incorrect
1) Rolling friction is smaller than
sliding friction
2) Limiting value of static friction is
directly proportional to normal
reactions
3) Frictional force opposes the relative
motion
4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
dimensions of length
39. An object start sliding on a
frictionless inclined plane and from
same height another object start
falling freely
1) Both will reach with same speed
2) Both will reach with same
acceleration
3) Both will reach in same time
4) None of above
40. Two equal masses each m are hung
from a balance whose scale pans
differ in vertical height by h. The
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error in weighing in terms of density
of the earth  is
1
1)  G  mh 2)  G  mh
3
8 4
3)  G  mh 4)  G  mh
3 3
41. A simple pendulum oscillates in a
vertical plane. When it passes
through the mean position, the
tension in the string is 3 times the
weight of the pendulum bob. What is
the maximum displacement of the
pendulum with respect to the
vertical
1) 300 2) 450
3) 600 4) 900
4) 42. A block of 1 kg is stopped against a
wall by applying a force F
perpendicular to the wall. If   0.2
then minimum value of F will be
1) 980 N 2) 49 N
3) 98 N 4) 490 N
43. A mass m rests on another mass M.
The co-efficient of static friction
between B the surfaces of m and M is
 . M rests on a smooth frictionless
horizontal plane. The maximum
force applied horizontally on M for
which m will move along with M
without slipping is
1) mg   mg 2)  M  m   g
mM
3) g 4)  mg
M m
44. Two masses m1  1 kg and m2  2 kg are
connected by alight inextensible
string and suspended by means of a
weightless pulley as shown in the
figure. Assuming that both the
masses start from rest, the distance
travelled by the centre of mass in
two seconds is  Take g  10ms 2 
 2 1
3)m 4) m
3 3
45. In order to shift a body of mass m
from a circular orbit of radius 3R to
a higher orbit of radius 5R around
the earth, the work done is
3GMm GMm
1) 2)
5R 2R
2 GMm GMm
3) 4)
15 R 5R

20 40
1) m 2) m
9 9
CHEMISTRY
46. A 1L flask contains 32 g O2 gas at 2PT1 1 2P1
1) 2)
270 C . What mass of O2 must be T1  T2 T1  T2
released to reduce the pressure in T1 2PT
1 2
the flask to 12.315 atm. 3) 4)
2 PT
1 2 T1  T2
1) 8 g 2) 16 g
3) 24 g 4) 12 g 50. The following graph corresponds to
47. 1 g H 2 and ‘x’ g O2 gas exert a total
pressure of 5 atm. At a given
temperature partial pressure of O2
gas is 4 atm. Then number of moles
of O2 in the mixture is
1) 1 mole 2) 2 mole
3) 3 mole 4) 4 mole 1) PCl5 g   PCl3 g   Cl2 g 
48. For one mole of an ideal gas, the 2) N 2 g   3H 2 g   2 NH3 g 
slope of V vs T curve at constant
pressure of 2 atm is ‘X’ L mole-1K-1. 3) H 2 g   I 2 g   2HI  g 
The value of the ideal universal gas 4) N 2 g   O2 g   2 NO g 
constant ‘R’ in terms of ‘X’ is
1) X L.atm.mole-1K-1 51. In the following two plots,  2 is
2) 2X atm. L-1mole-1K-1 plotted against the distance ‘r’ from
3) 2X L.atm.mole-1K-1 nucleus
X
4) L.atm.mole-1K-1
2
49. Two closed vessels of equal volume
containing air at pressure P1 and
temperature T1 are connected to
each other through a narrow tube. If
the temperature in one of the
vessels is now maintained at T1 and Select correct statements regarding
that in another at T2 , what will be A and B
1) A is for 1s and B is for 2s orbital
the pressure in the vessels?
2) A is for 2s and B is for 1s orbital
3) A is for 2s and B is for 2p orbital
4) A is for 2p and B is for 2s orbital

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52. The ratio of the velocity of light and nature
the velocity of electron in the first 4) Li   Na   K   Cs  - Ionic radius
orbit of H-atom is 58. Electronic configuration of some
( h  6.625 1027 erg.s, m  9.11028 g , elements is given in column I and
r  0.529 108 cm ) their electron gain enthalpies are
given in column II. Match the
1
1) 137 2) electronic configuration with
137 electron gain enthalpy.
1 Column I Column II
3) 4) 13700
13700 (Electron (Electron gain
53. The time period of a light is 2 1010 s. configuration) enthalpy in
The wavelength for this wave is KJ/mole)
1) 0.06m 2) 6m A 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 I -53
3) 0.03m 4) 0.3m B 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s1 II -328
54. The energy required to excite an
electron of H-atom from first orbit to C 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 III -141
second orbit is D 1s 2 s 2 p
2 2 4
IV +48
3 1) A  I, B  II, C  III, D  IV
1) of its ionisation energy
4 2) A  II, B  III, C  I, D  IV
1 3) A  IV, B  I, C  III, D  II
2) of its ionisation energy
2 4) A  IV, B  I, C  II, D  III
1 59. Which of the following element have
3) of its ionisation energy
4 maximum atomic volume?
3 1) K 2) Ca
4) of its ionisation energy 3) Fe 4) Br
2
55. The uncertainty in position for an 60. The more stable species among the
 following is
electron is where ‘  ’ is the 1) Lig  2) N (g )
4
de Broglie wavelength. The 3) Be(g ) 4) Mg(g )
uncertainty in the velocity will be
V 61. Which of the following will have the
1) 2) V
2 molecular shape of trigonal
V bipyramid?
3) 3V 4)
4 1) PF3Cl2 2) IF5
56. Listed below are the electronic 3) BrF5 4) SbF22
configuration of four elements.
Arrange the elements in the 62. In PO4 3 ion the formal charge on the
increasing order of their metallic oxygen atom of P-O bond is
character. 1) +1 2) -1
I.  Ar  3d 10 4 s 2 II.  Ar  4s 2 3) -0.75 4) +0.75
63. Which combination will give the
III.  Ar  3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 6 5s 2 IV.  Ar  3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 5 strongest ionic bond?
1) I < II < III < IV 2) II < I < III < IV 1) Na  and Cl  2) Mg 2 and Cl 
3) III < II < I < IV 4) IV < I < II < III
3) Na  and O2 4) Mg 2 and O 2 
57. Which of the following order is
wrong? 64. HCN and HNC molecules have equal
1) NH 3  PH3  ASH 3 - Acidic nature number of
1) lone pairs and  bonds only
2) Li  Be  B  C - IE1 2)  bonds and  bonds only
3) Al2O3  MgO  Na2O  K 2O - Basic 3)  bonds and lone pairs only
4) lone pairs,  bonds and  bonds
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65. Among the following species, which 71. 1 mole each of CO g  , H 2O g  , H 2 g  and
has the minimum bond length?
CO2 g  are placed in 1 L flask at 250 C .
1) B2 2) C2
When the following equilibrium is
3) F2 4) O2 
setup CO g   H 2O g   CO2 g   H 2 g 
66. Following reaction is occurring in an
automobile K P  9 . Hence CO2 present at
2C8 H18 g   25O2 g   16CO2 g   18 H 2O g  equilibrium is
The sign of H , S and G would be 1) 0.5 mole 2) 1.5 mole
3) 0.25 mole 4) 3.0 mole
1) , ,  2) ,  , 
72. In which of the following, the
3) ,  ,  4) , ,  increase in pressure favours the
67. In the following changes A to B, E1 backward reaction
(change in internal energy of path I) 1) Formation equilibrium of ammonia
and E2 (change in internal energy of from N2(g) and H2(g)
path II) are related to each other by 2) synthesis of SO3 g  by contact process
A 3) Formation equilibrium of Fe3O4 by
the action of steam on iron
I 4) Production of syn gas by coal
gasification
P II 73. Given a gas phase reaction.
2 A g   B g   C g   D g 
B Which of the following changes will
effect the value of KC?
V 1) addition of inert gas
1) E1  E2 2) E2  E1 2) addition of catalyst
3) addition of reactants
3) E1  E2 4) increasing in temperature
4) temperature is also required to
correlate them. 74. K C for 2A  B + C is 2 × 10 -3 . At given
68. 1 mole of an ideal gas for which
3 time ,  A =  B = C =3 ×10-4 M, then ,
CV  R is heated reversibly at a reaction quotient ( QC ) is related to
2
constant pressure of 1 atm from K C as
250 C to 1000 C . The H (in cal) is Q
1) 187.5 2) 37.5 1) QC = KC 2) C = 500
KC
3) 225 4) 375
Q
69. In the following reaction, 3) C = 3 ×10-14 4) (Q C ) (K C ) = 3 ×10 -4
4 NO2 g   O2 g   2 N 2O5 g  ; H  110 KJ . If KC
75. Peq for NH 4 COONH 2(s)  2 NH 3(g) + CO 2(g)
N 2O5 s  is formed instead of N 2O5 g  in
at certain temperature is 0.9 atm.
the reaction, the enthalpy change (in Then partial pressure of ammonia
KJ) would be (enthalpy of at equilibrium in atm is
sublimation of N 2O5 s  is +53 KJ/mole) 1) 0.9 2) 0.81
1) -216 2) -162 3) 0.03 4) 0.6
3) +108 4) +216 76. Catalyst used in water gas shift
70. 2 moles ‘He’ is mixed with 2 gms of reaction is
H2. The molar heat capacity at 1) Cobalt 2) Nickel
constant pressure for the mixture is 3) Iron chromate 4) ZnO
14 R 17 R 17 R 17 R
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 3 6 8
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77. The weight of H 2O2 present in 80 ml 22 7
1) 2)
of 10 V H 2O2 solution is nearly 3 3
1) 3.2 g 2) 4.2 g 14 8
3) 4)
3) 2.4 g 4) 3.6 g 3 3
78. A gaseous mixture containing 5 ml 84. Match the following
of a gaseous hydrocarbon ( C x H y ) and Column –I Column –II
I femto P 109
30 ml of O2 was exploded. The
II yotta Q 1015
volume of reaction mixture obtained
was found to be 25 ml. On adding III giga R 1018
KOH, the volume of unrected O2 was IV atto S 1024
15ml .If all the volumes are 1) I-Q, II-P, III-R, IV-S
measured at NTP, then value of ‘y’ is 2) I-S, II-Q, III-P, IV-R
1) 2 2) 4 3) I-Q, II-S, III-P, IV-R
3) 8 4) 6 4) I-R, II-S, III-P, IV-Q
79. A sample of hard water containing 85. If the value of Avagadro number is
Ca2 ions only treated with calgon. 6.023 1023 mol 1 and the value of
The complex formed during the Boltzmann constant is
removal of hardness is 1.380  1023 JK 1 , then the number of
Ca3 P6O18 2 significant figures in the calculated
1) 2)  Ca3 P6O18 
value of universal gas constant is
2 2
3)  Na4CaP6O18  4)  Na2CaP6O18  1) 3 2) 2
3) 4 4) 5
80. Ortho and para hydrogen have
1) identical chemical and physical 86. M  OH  x has K sp  4 10 12 and
properties solubility 104 M . Hence ‘x’ is
2) identical physical properties but 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
different chemical properties M
3) different physical and chemical 87. What volume of NaOH is added in
10
properties M
4) identical chemical properties but 50 ml acetic acid solution to get
different physical properties 10
a buffer solution having highest
81. H 2O2 oxidises MnO2 to MnO4 in basic
buffer capacity.
medium. H 2O2 and MnO2 react in 1) 50 ml 2) 25 ml
molar ratio of 3)10 ml 4) 40 ml
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 88. 0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted
3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2 with 100cm3 of water. The pH of
82. In Chromite ore, the oxidation resulting solution is
number of iron and chromium 1)10 2) 8
respectively are 3) 9 4)12
1) +3, +2 2) +3, +6 H
89. P of CH 3COOH solution is 4.2. It is
3) +2, +3 4) +2, +6 diluted by 10 times. Then pH of
83. In a closed vessel, 5 moles of A2 g  resultant solution is
and 7 moles of B2 g  are reacted in the 1) 4.5 2) 5
3) 4.7 4) 6.2
following manner 90. A salt is sparingly soluble, if its
A2 g   3B2 g   2 AB3 g  solubility is
What is the total number of moles of 1) <0.1 M 2) >0.1M
gases present in the container at the 3) <0.01M 4) >0.001M
end of the reaction?

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 BOTANY
91. Identify the set of prizes widely 96. The common characteristics
regarded as the Triple crown of between Tomato and Potato will be
biology received by Ernst Mayer. maximum at the level of their
1) Balzanprize, Crafordprize, 1) Division 2) Class
Indianprize of biology 3) Order 4) Family
2) Crafordprize, Laskeraward, 97. Sequence of Taxonomic categories
International prize of biology is
3) Balzanprize, Corporationprize, 1) Class—Phylum—Tribe—Family—
International prize of biology Genus—Species
4) Balzan prize, Crafordprize, 2) Division—Class—Family—Tribe—
International prize of biology Order—Genus—Species
92. Taxon is a 3) Division—Class—Order—Family—
1) Group of related species Tribe—Genus—Species
2) Group of living organism 4) Phylum—Order—Class—Tribe—
3) Group related families Family—Genus—Species
4) Taxonomic group of any ranking 98. ICTV Stands for
93. Which one of the following is not a 1) International code on Taxonomy of
correct statement virus
1) Botanical gardens have collection of 2) Indian committee on Taxonomy of
living plants for reference virus
2) Key is a Taxonomic aid for 3) International committee on
Identification of specimens Taxonomy of virus
3) A museum has collection of 4) Indian code on Taxonomy of virus
photographs of plants and animals 99. Study the following lists
4) Herbarium house dried pressed The correct match is
and preserved plant specimens List – I List – II
94. Study the four statements (A-D) A) Flora I) Identification of
given below and select the correct names of species
one out of them found in an area
A) Definition of Biological species was B) Manuals II) Preserving Plantnts
given by Ernst Mayer and Animal
2) Photoperiod does not affect specimens
reproduction in plants C) Monographs III) Information on any
3)Binomial Nomenclature system was one taxon
given by R.H Whittaker D) Keys IV) Analytical in nature
4) In unicellular Organisms, V) Actual account of
reproduction is Synonymous with Habitat and
growth distribution of
plants of a given
95. Match column I with Column II area
A B C D
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II 1) II I III IV
A Family I Sapindales 2) V I III II
B Order II Angiosperm 3) III V I IV
C Class III Anacardiaceae 4) V I III IV
D Division/Phylum IV Polymoniales 100. Identify the correct statements
V Dicotyledonae A) Petridophytes are used as soil
1) A-III , B-V, C-IV, D-II binders
2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II B) Salvinia is a heterosporous
3) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III Pteridophyte
4) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II
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 C) Multicellular Jacketed and stalked 107. In Pteridophytes Fusion of
sex organs are present in Gametes takes place in
pteridophytes 1) External medium
D) Paraphysis are in Multicellular 2) Antheredium
sterile hairs intermixed with 3) Sporangium
Sporangia of Funaria 4) Archegonium
1) A, B Only 2) A, B, D 108. The first seeded plants are the
3) A, B, C 4) C and D Only 1) Bryophytes 2) Algae
101. Statement-I : The Sporophyte in 3) Gymnosperms 4) Pteridoplytes
mosses more elabrote than that in 109. Which one of the following wrong
liverworts about chara
Statements-II: Moses contain 1) Upper oogonium and lower round
peristomial teeth for Spore dispersal antheridium
1) Both I and II are correct 2) Globule and nocule present on the
2) Both I and II are incorrect same plant
3) I is correct and II is incorrect 3) Upper antheredium an lower
4) I is incorrect and II is correct oogonium
102. Find out the mismatch pair 4) globule is male reproductive
1) Carrageen-Redalgae structure
2) Algin – Brownalgae 110. Read the following statements and
3) Agar- Chlorella identify the correct ones
4) Single cell protein – Spirulina A) Mosses and Lichens are the first
103. _________ is used by Gardners to organisms to colonise a bare rock
keep cut plants moist during B) Selaginella is a homosporous
Transportation and propagation pteridophyte
1) Marchantia 2) Sphagnum C) Coralloid root in cycas have VAM
3) Equisetum 4) Funaria D) Main plant body in bryophytes is
104. In mosses the sex organs are gametophyte Where as in pteridophyte
present in the it is Sporophyte
1) Protonema stage E) In gymnosperms, male and female
2) Sporophytic stage gametophytes are present with in
3) Leafy stage sporangia located on sporophyte
4) Both 1 and 2 1) A, C and D 2) A, D, and E
105. Classification of organisms on the 3) B, C and E 4) B, C and D
basis of fossil record that play 111. Identify the following diagrams
important role in elucidation of
evolutionary relationship is
1) Earliest systems
2) Plylogenetic systems
3) Marphotaxonomy
4) Artificial system
106. Find set of features related to
Funaria
a) Protonema b) Prothallus
c) Gametophore
d) Prostrate thallus body
e) NCC in Antheredium
f) Haplodiplontic A B C
g) True plant organs in sporophyte 1) Ulothrix Fucus Porphyra
h) Fragmentation 2) Ulothrix Laminaria Porphyra
1) b d e g 2) a d f g 3) Ulothrix Dictyota Porphyra
3) a e f g h 4) a c f h
4) Volvox Dictyota Porphyra
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112. How many Organisms in the list 118. Which one single organism or the
given below are autotrophs pair of organisms is correctly
Lactobacillius, Nostoc, Eudorina, assigned to its or their named
Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, taxonomic group
Streptomyces, Saccharomycess, 1) Paramecium and plasmodium
Trypanosoma , Porphyra, Wolffia belong to the same kingdom as that of
1) Four 2) Five penicillium
3) Six 4) Three 2) Lichens is a composite organism
113. The thalloid body of a slimemould formed from a symbiotic association
(myxomycetes) is known of an alga and a protozoan
1) Plasmodium 2) Fruitingbody 3) Yeast used in making bread and
3) Mycelium 4) Protonema beer is a fungus
114. Which one of the following 4) Nostoc and anabaena examples of
statement is wrong protista
1) Golden algae are also called 119. Which one of the following
desmids statements about mycoplasma is
2) Cyanobacteria are also called wrong?
Bluegreen algae 1) They are Pleomorphic
3) Phycomycetes are also called 2) They cause disease in plants
algalfungi 3) They are sensitive to penicillin
4) Dueteromycetes are also called 4) They are also called PPLO
perfectfungi 120. A free living nitrogen fixing
115. Select the wrong statement cyanobacterium which can also
1) Diatoms are chief producers in the from symbiotic association with the
oceans water fern Azolla is
2) The walls of diatoms are 1) Chlorella 2) Nostoc
indestructible 3) Tolypothrix 4) Anabaena
3) Diatoms are macroscopic and 121. Select the correct combination of
stagnant in water statements
4) Diatomaceonus earth is formed by i) Methanogene are archebacteria
the cellwalls of diatoms which produce methane in marshy
116. Which one of the wrong pairing for area
the disease and its caused organism ii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
1) Black rust of wheat- Puccinia bacteria a synthesize cellulose from
graminis glucose
2) Loose smut of wheat- Ustilago nuda iii) Actinomycetes Frankia can fix
3) Root not of vegetables- Meloidogyne atmospheric nitrogen in symbiotic
sp state
4) Lateblight of potato-Alternaria iv) Mycoplasmos lack a cell wall and
solani cansurvive without oxygen
117. Select the wrong statement 1) ii and iii 2) i, ii and iv
1) The term ‘Contagium vivum 3) i, ii and iv 4) ii, iii and iv
fluidum’ was coined by M.W 122. Oxygen is not produced during
Beijerinek photosynthesis by
2) Mosaie disease in Tobacco and 1) Cycas 2) Nostoc
AIDS in human being are caused by 3) Chlorobium 4) Chara
viruses 123. 1:1, 1:2 and 2:1 ration of carpels
3) W.M.Stanley showed that viruses and locules are may found in the
could be crystallized flowers of following members of
4) The viroids were discovered by solanaceae respectively
D.J.Ivanowsky 1) Dolichos, Datura and Capsicum
2) Solanum, Datura and Brassica

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 3) Capscium, Solanum and Datura
4) Solanum, Datura and Capsicum
124. Match the following 3)
List – I List – II
A) Spanish dagger I) Colchicum 4)
B) Bluedye II) Withania 130. Which plant will lose its economic
C) Aswagandha III) Yucca value, if its fruit are produced by
D) Chemical Mutagen IV Indigofera induced parthenocarpy
The correct match is 1) Orange 2) Banana
A B C D 3) Grape 4) Pomegranate
1) III IV II I 131. Among flowers of Calotropis, Tulip,
2) III IV I II Sesbania, Asparagus, Colchicum,
3) I IV II III Sweetpea, Petunia, Indigofera,
4) I IV III II Mustard, Soyabean, Tobacco and
125. In an inflorescence where flowers groundnut How many plants have
are borne laterally in an acropetal corolla with valvate aestivation
succession, the position of the 1) Six 2) Seven
youngest flower bud shall be 3) Eight 4) Five
1) Proximal 2) Infercalory 132. How many plants among chinarose,
3) Distal 4) Anywheare Ocimum, sunflower, Mustard,
126. Match the following Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and
LIST-I LIST-II Nerium have opposite phyllotaxy
A Aleurone layer I Without
1) Three 2) Four
fertilization
3) Five 4) Two
B Parthenocarpic II Nutrition
fruit 133. How many plants among
C Ovule III Double pea,solanum,chilli,citrus,chinarose,
fertilization dianthus,primerose,sunflower,
D Endosperm IV Seed Tagentus, tridax, Allium and
1) A-I, B-II, C-III,D-IV Cucumber have unilocular ovary
2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 1) Seven 2) Nine
3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III 3) Eight 4) Ten
4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 134. Identify the following parts in the
127. How many plants among Indigofera, given diagram
sesbania, salvia, allium, aloe,
mustard, groundnut, radish gram
and turnip have stamens with
different length in their flower?
1) Three 2) Four
3) Five 4) Six
128. Exstipulate leaves are present in
1) Indigofera 2) Trifolium
3) Petunia 4) Crotalaria
129. The correct floral formula of mekoi

1)
A B C D
1) Head Sheath Collar Tail Fibre
2)
2) Head Collar Sheath Tail Fibre
3) Head Tail Fibre Sheath Collar
4) Tail Fibre Sheath Collar Head

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135. Identify the following floral leaves
in the given diagram A B C D
1 Androecium Corolla Calyx Gynoecium
2 Calyx Corolla Androecium Gynoecium
3 Androecium Corolla Gynoecium Calyx
4 Calyx Corolla Gynoecium Androecium

ZOOLOGY
136. The human tongue is attached to   A
Pepsinogen   Pepsin
the floor of the oral cavity by a   B
Proteins  Proteoses +C
small fold of tissue called
A B C
1) Frenulum linguae
2) Foramen Caecum 1 HCO3 Pepsin Peptones
3) Sulcus terminalis 2 HCl Pepsin Peptones
4) Foramen ovale
3 HCl Peptones Pepsin
137. Arrange the layers of alimentary
canal from inside to the outside 4 HCO3 Pepsin
Water soluble
sequentially peptides
1) Serosa  Muscularis  142. Identify the three major parts of
Submucosa  Mucosa the stomach labelled as A, B and C:
2) Mucosa  Sub-mucosa  Circular
muscularis  longitudinal
muscularis  Serosa.
3) Submucosa  Muscularis 
Mucosa  Serosa
4) Mucosa  Sub-mucosa 
Longitudinal muscularis  Circular
muscularis
138. A person went to the doctor with A B C
affected liver and yellowish skin 1 Oesophagus Fundus Pyloric
and eyes due to the deposition of opens into
the bile pigments. He/She likely to this part
be suffering from 2 Pyloric Cardiac Fundus
1) Jaundice 2) Diarrhoea 3 Fundus Oesophagus Pyloric
3) Tetanus 4) Dysentery opens into
139. The duct of gall bladder is this part
1) Whorton’s duct 2) cystic duct 4 Fundus Pyloric Cardiac
3) Stenson’duct 4) hepatic duct 143. The partial pressure of oxygen in
140. Glisson’s capsule human alveolar air is
1) is the characteristic feature of 1) 40 mm Hg 2) 45 mm Hg
mammalian heart 3) 104 mm Hg 4) 159 mm Hg
2) represents lymphatic chambers 144. The rate of breathing in a normal
3) is a thin connective tissue sheath healthy human is :
that covers each hepatic lobule 1) 12-16 times/minute
4) both 1 and 3 2) 16-32 times/ minute
141. Identify A, B, C in the reaction 3) 2-6 times/ minute
steps of digestion in the stomach. 4) 2-3 times/ minute

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145. Identify the respiratory capacities membrane
marked as A, B, C and D in the E. Alveolar epithelial cells
group shown below 1) A  B  C  D  E
2) B  C  A  E  D
3) D  C  A  B  E
4) C  D  B  A  E
150. Individuals with O-blood group
1) Have both anti-A and anti-B
antibodies in their plasma
2) Lack both anti-A and anti-B
antibodies in their plasma
3) Have anti-A lack anti-B antibodies
in their plasma
4) Lack anti-A but possess anti-B
A B C D antibodies their plasma
1 VC ERV IC EC 151. Cardiac output
2 ERV VC IC EC 1) Is the volume of blood pumped out
3 ERV IC EC VC by each ventricle per minute
4 IC ERV EC IC 2) Averages 5 litres in a healthy
146. If 1 gm of Hb carries 1.34mL of O2 individual
and 100mL of blood has 15 gm Hb 3) Both 1 and 2
then, how much O2 will be carried 4) Volume of blood pumped by each
ventricle in each cardiac cycle
approximately by 100 mL of arterial
152. Find out the events in cardiac cycle
blood?
mentioned as X, Y and Z in the pic
1) 40 mL 2) 20 mL
chart given below:
3) 50 mL 4) 100 mL
147. Study the diagram given below and
choose the correct option.

X Y Z
1 Complete Atrial systole Ventricular
cardiac systole
1) It shows chloride shift
diastole
2) It shows Hamburger’s effect 2 Atrial systole Ventricular Complete
3) It shows Bohr’s effect systole cardiac
4) More than one option is applicable diastole
for the given diagram 3 Ventricular Atrial systole Complete
148. The membrane which covers the systole cardiac
diastole
lungs and provide protection is : 4 Complete Ventricular Atrial systole
1) Pleura 2) Epicardium cardiac systole
3) Epineurium 4) Pericardium diastole
149. Choose the correct sequence of CO2 153. ECG depicts the depolarisation and
diffusion: repolarisation processes during the
A. Capillary endothelial cells cardiac cycle. In the ECG of a
B. Capillary basement membrane normal healthy individual one of
C. Thin interstitial space the following waves is not
D. Alveolar epithelial basement represented:

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Everything that you go through prepares you for the next level.
 1) Depolarisation of atria 159. Read the following statements:
2) Repolarisation of atria i) Free at one end and are joined to Z-
3) Depolarisation of ventricles line at other end
4) Repolarisation of ventricle ii) Do not slide during muscle
154. Find the correct pathway of blood contraction
in the kidney iii) Free at both the ends
i. Peritubular capillary and vasa recta iv) Consists of three proteins-actin,
ii. Renal vein tropomyosin and troponin
iii. Efferent arteriole v) Cross – arms are present so, these
iv. Renal artery have rough surface
v. Glomerulus How many of the above statements
vi. Afferent arteriole correspond to actin (A) and myosin
1) i  ii  iv  iii  vi  v (M) ?
2) iv  vi  v  i  ii  iii 1) A=3, M=2 2) A=2, M=3
3) iv  v  vi  i  iii  ii 3) A=4, m=1 4) A=1, M=4
4) iv  vi  v  iii  i  ii 160. The skull is composed of two sets
155. Dialysing unit (artificial kidney) of bones: cranial and facial, that
contains a fluid which is almost total to A bones. Cranial bones
same as plasma except that it has: are B where as facial bones are
1) High glucose 2) High urea
3) No urea 4) High uric acid C in number. D U-shaped
156. Which of the following does not bone called hyoid is present at the
favour the formation of large base of the buccal cavity and is also
quantities of dilute urine? included in the skull. Each middle
1) Caffeine 2) Renin ear contains _E__ bones: malleus ,
3) Atrial natriuretic factor 4) Alcohol incus and stapes, collectively called
157. Match the column: ear ossicles :
Column – I Column-II A B C D E
A Ciliary i Limbs, jaws, tongue 1) 8 22 14 1 3
movement 2) 22 8 14 1 6
B Muscular ii Passage of ova 3) 22 8 14 1 3
movement through female 4) 29 8 14 1 6
reproductive tract 161. Acromion process is found in:
C Flagellar iii Macrophages and 1) Skull 2) Pelvic girdle
movement leucocytes 3) Pectoral girdle 4) Sperm head
D Amoeboid iv sperms 162. The shoulder blade is :
movement 1) Scapula 2) Femur
1) A=i, B=ii, C=iv, D=iii 3) Humerus 4) Clavicle
2) A=iii, B=i, C=iv, D=ii
3) A=ii, B=i, C=iv, D=iii
4) A=ii, B=iv, C=I, D=iii
158. The actin binding sites are present
on:
1) Tropomyosin 2) Myosin
3) Troponin 4) Actin protein

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Everything that you go through prepares you for the next level.
163. Which one of the following options 169. Foramen of Monro is an aperture
is incorrect? between
1) Hinge joint – between Humerus and 1) Third and fourth ventricles
Pectoral girdle 2) Rhinocoel and diacoel
2) Pivot joint – between atlas and axis 3) Lateral and third ventricles
3) Gliding joint – between the carpals 4) Diacoel and metacoel.
4) Saddle joint – between carpal and 170. Which of the following has very
metacarpal of thumb convoluted surface in order to
164. Progressive degeneration of skeletal provide the additional space for
muscle, mostly due to genetic many more neurons?
disorder occurs in 1) Rhinocel 2) Cerebellum
1) Myasthenia gravis 3) Spinal cord
2) Muscular dystrophy 4) Branched dendrites of a neuron
3) Arthritis 4) Tetany 171. Broca’s area is connected with
165. The functional unit of contractile 1) Sensation of smell
system of a striated muscle is 2) Learning and reasoning
1) Sarcomere 2) Z-band 3) Speech
3) Cross bridge 4) Myofibril 4) Receiving impulse from eye
166. One of the following causes skeletal 172. Cavity present in the spinal cord is
muscle to fatigue termed as
1) Pyruvic acid 2) Lactic acid 1)Central canal 2) Fovea
3) O2 4) A.D.P 3) Volkmann’s canal 4) Neural canal
167. Recognise the figure and find out 173. Study following statements and
the correct matching. choose the correct answer
Statement – I : Fovea is thinned - out
portion of the retina.
Statement – II : Fovea is the point
1) a – F actin, b – troponin, c – where the resolution is the greatest.
tropomyosin 1) Both I and II are correct
2) b – F actin, c – troponin, a – 2) Both I and II are incorrect
tropomyosin 3) I is correct and II is incorrect
3) c – F actin, a – troponin, b – 4) I is incorrect and II is correct
tropomyosin 174. The binding of the
4) b – F actin, a – troponin, c – neurotransmitter with the
tropomyosin receptors opens ion channels
168. The heavy meromyosin (HMM) allowing the entry of ions which
component, i.e the head and short can generate a new potential in the
arm projects outwards at regular 1) pre – synaptic membrane
distance and angle from each other 2) post – synaptic membrane
from the surface of a polymerised 3) Synaptic cleft
myosin filament and is known as 4) Synaptic vesicles
1) Neuromuscular Junction 175. The difficulty in seeing distant
2) Motor unit objects clearly is
3) Cross bridge 4) Cross arm 1) Aphasia 2) Agnosia
3) Hypermetropia 4) Myopia

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Everything that you go through prepares you for the next level.
176. Mis -matched from the following 1) I & II 2) II & III
1) Glucagon Hyperglycemic hormone 3) I & III 4) I, II & III
2) Insulin Stimulates gluconeogenesis 179. Match the following and select the
3) Insulin Stimulates glycogenesis correct answer.
4) Diabetes Associate with loss of Column I Column II
glucose through urine A T4 I Hypothalamus
177. After ovulation, the ruptured B PTH II Thyroid
follicle is converted into a C GnRH III Pituitary
structure called D LH IV parathyroid
1) Corpus albicans A B C D
2) Corpora bigemina 1) II I IV III
3) Corpora quadrigemina 2) IV II III I
4) Corpus luteum 3) II IV I III
178. Incorrect statement from the 4) I II III IV
following regarding hormones 180. Thymosins promote
I. Erythropoietin stimulates 1) Differentiation of T-lymphocytes
formation of all types of formed 2) Production of antibodies
elements. 3) 1 & 2
II. Epinephrine is an amino – acid 4) Absorption of calcium from renal
derivative. tubules
III. Cyclic AMP is not a secondary
messenger.

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