UNIT- I

1. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of

a software system? Internship Management

2. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays b) Product competition

c) Testing d) Staff turnover

3. Identify the sub-process of process improvement: Process analysis

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

a) Project Management b) Manager life cycle

c) Project Management Life Cycle d) All of the mentioned

5. Which one is not a size measure for software product?: Cyclomatic

Complexity

6. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team b) project

c) customers d) project manager

7. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?: project design

8. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive
plan for software development can be established.: process

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction b) Process analysis

c) De-processification d) Process distribution

10. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the
project?: Senior managers
 11. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or
an application?: Practitioners

12. PM-CMM stands for

a) people management capability maturity model

b) process management capability maturity model

c)product management capability maturity model

d) project management capability maturity model

13. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive

plan for software development can be established. : process
14. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the
project?: Senior managers
15. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or
an application?: Practitioners
16. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner
that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but
also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm?:
open paradigm

17. Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem

and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little
active communication among themselves?

a) random paradigm b) open paradigm

c) closed paradigm d) synchronous paradigm

18. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual

initiative of the team members?: synchronous paradigm
19. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance?: Market
20. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to
control change without seriously impeding justifiable change: Baselines
21. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) all the mentioned
22. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process: Version
control

23. Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait?

a) Problem solving b) Managerial identity

c) Influence and team building d) None of the mentioned

24. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance,
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance,
d) all the mentioned
25. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the
project? Senior Managers
26. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or
an application: Practitioners

27. Which software engineering team has no permanent leader?

a) Controlled decentralized (CD) b) Democratic decentralized (DD)

c) Controlled Centralized (CC) d) None of the mentioned

28. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity: Project Management

29. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner
that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but
also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm?
Open Paradigm
30. Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique?

a) Formal approaches b) Formal, interpersonal procedures

c) Informal, interpersonal procedures d) All of the mentioned

31. Which of the following is not a Version management feature: Build script
generation

32. Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information
systems project is in jeopardy?

a) Software people don’t understand their customers needs

b) Changes are managed poorly

c) Sponsorship is gained

d) Users are resistant

33. Which of the following is not a build system feature: storage management
34. Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a
system: base line
35. Which of the following is a part of system release?
a) electronic and paper documentation describing the system
b) packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release
c) an installation program that is used to help install the system on target
hardware
d) all the mentioned above
36. A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is
known as: Mainline

37. SPMP stands for

a) Software Project Manager’s Plan

b) Software Project Management Plan

c) Software Product Management Plan

d) Software Product Manager’s Plan

38. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of
a new codeline from a version in an existing codeline”? : Branching
39. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include: attributes only
40. Select the statement true for activity diagrams?
a) They can be used to discover parallel activities
b) They are used to depict workflow for a particular business activity
c) Activity diagram do not tell who does what and are difficult to trace back
to object models
d) all the mentioned above
41. Constraints can be represented in UML by: {text}

SPM- UNIT-II

PROCESS AND PROJECT METRICS

1. Which of the following is not project management goal: Avoiding customer

complaints.
2. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for: project
3. Cost of poor quality = rework effort/ total effort x 100.
4. Defect density for a project = Total number of defects/ project size in
KLOC or FP
5. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the
requirements have been established?:An early design model
6. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a
software development project?: Hardware and software costs, Effort costs,
Travel and training costs, all of the mentioned.
7. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?: cost of lunch
time food.
8. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered
software?:Function-related metrics
9. Cost of quality: It is a measure of the performance of quality initiatives in
an organization.

10. Cost of poor quality: It is the cost of implementing imperfect processes

and products

11. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?:Project Management

12. The intent of project metrics is:minimization of development schedule and
assessing project quality on ongoing basis
13. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?: Efficiency
14. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?: Efficiency
15. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the_:numbers of
lines of code
16. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a
potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right:Empirical
estimation models
17. The environment that supports the software project is called: SEE
18. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools:
Predicting clients demands
19. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the
system versions that have been released for customer use: release
management
20. Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and
components are recorded and maintained:configuration control
21. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the
planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software
engineering tasks: Software Project scheduling.
22. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for
quality certification in:ISO 9000, CMM,CMM1, all the above
23. Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and
benefits of proposed changes? :Change Management
24. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as:EVA
25. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project? 40-20-40
26. The expected value for the estimation variable (size), S, can be computed as
a weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and pessimistic
(Spess) estimates given as: EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6
27. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as:
FP
28. If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured
in: LOC
29. CLSS stands for: conveyor line sorting system
30. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all
important software functions which is known as: Decompostion
31. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a
function of LOC or FP?: Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
32. expected value for the estimation variable (size), S, can be computed as a
weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and pessimistic
(Spess) estimates given as:EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6
33. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on: cost, time, schedule , none
of the mentioned.
34. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining
function point in FPA?:Number of error
35. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as:
Project Management Life Cycle.
36. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be
carried out with automated testing to discover software problems: agile
method
37. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance? Market
38.  Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process? Efficiency
39.  Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?Number of
Inherited Objects
40. Process Metrics metrics that pertain to Process Quality.
41. Project Metrics are metrics that relate to Project Quality.
42. Product Metrics are metrics that pertain to Product Quality.
 43. Organizational Metrics metrics measure the impact of organizational
economics, employee satisfaction, communication, and organizational growth
factors of the project.
44. Schedule Variance: Any difference between the scheduled completion of an
activity and the actual completion is known as Schedule Variance.
45. Effort variance = (Actual Effort – Planned Effort)/ Planned Effort x 100.

46. Size Variance: Difference between the estimated size of the project and the
actual size of the project (normally in KLOC or FP).

47. Productivity (Project): Is a measure of output from a related process for a

unit of input.

48. Productivity (for test case execution) = Actual number of test cases / actual
effort expended in testing.

SPM UNIT III

ESTIMATION FOR SOFTWARE PROJECTS

1. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project? : budget estimates

2. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a
software development project: Hardware and software costs, Effort costs, Travel
and training costs, All of the mentioned

3. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some

software metric to the project cost.: Algorithmic cost modelling
4. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy
application domain have been completed?: Estimation by analogy
5. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software: Function-
related metrics
6. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable
components or program code that is automatically generated by design or
program translation tools: A reuse model.
7. COCOMO stands for: Constructive cost model
8. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized,
the basic software architecture has been established: Early design stage model
9. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when
prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction,
assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were
paramount.: Application composition model
10. COCOMO was developed initially by: B.W.Bohem
11. Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?:
popularity
12. PM-CMM stands for: people management capability maturity model
13. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a
specification is available: True
14. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is
termed as: Defined responsibilities
15. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and
deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project: Task set
16. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any
given time in Software Scheduling is known as: Effort Validation
17. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the
software process should be applied on a project: Adaption Criteria
18. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and
efficacy of estimates: Project size
19. Which of the following is the task of project indicators: help in assessment of
status of ongoing project & track potential risk
20. What describes the data and control to be processed: Software scope
21. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are
meaningful is known as: Control Chart
22. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
 a) errors found before software delivery
b) defects found after delivery to user
c) Both.
23. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance: Market
24. CLSS stands for: conveyor line sorting system
25. Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information
domain characteristics: Function point sizing

26. COCOMO-II was developed at: University of Southern California

27. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II: Early design estimation model
28. Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost
drivers?
a) The software may be purchased off-the-shelf
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” software components should be used
c) Customer-built software should be developed
d) all of the mentioned
29. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate:
The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time,
and dollars.
30. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as:
External Process
31. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a
potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right: Empirical estimation
model.
32. Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost
drivers?: Personnel Factor
33. Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem?: Putnam
and Myers
34. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components,
scripting or database programming?: An application-composition model
35. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.:
Parkinson’s Law
36. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by: Henry Gantt
37. Usability can be measured in terms of______________________
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
d) All the mentioned.
38. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools:
Predicting clients demands

39. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of
good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy:
True
40. A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards
achieving the goals of a project: Project
41. The project life cycle consists of _______________________
a) Understanding the scope of the project
b) Objectives of the project
c) Formulation and planning various activity
d) All of the above
42. Five dimensions that must be managed on a project: Features, Quality, Cost,
Schedule, Staff
43. What is the first activity in Software Project Planning: Determination of software
scope
44. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a
function of LOC or FP: Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
45. The empirical data that support most estimation models are derived from a vast
sample of projects: False
46. How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model: Three
47. Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of
Function Point (FP) decomposition: External process
48. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as: FP
49. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system: Internship management
 UNIT – IV

1. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management? :

Testing
2. As a tester which of the following will come under product risk if you are
testing an e-commerce website?: Failure to transfer a user to secure
gateway while paying
3. A 66.6% risk is considered as: high
4. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?:
Critical
5. Which of the following is the task of project indicators: help in assessment of
status of ongoing project & track potential risk
6. Risk Mitigation is a Risk _______ Activity. Risk Monitoring is a _____ Activity.:
Avoidance, Project tracking.
7. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) all the mentioned.
8. Which one is not a risk management activity?: Risk generation
9. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the
potential magnitude of that loss? : risk exposure
10. Which of the following techniques will ensures that the impact of risk will be
less?: Risk Contingency Technique
11. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project
documents available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical
fashion. What is this document called?: Risk Breakdown Structure.
12. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?:
Technical risk
13. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?: Business risk
14. Which of the following is not a business risk?: lack of documented
requirements or software scope
15. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project
plan?: risk projection
16. Which of the following statements is true about risks?: Risk register
documents all the risks in detail.
17. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or
modified?: Product size risk
18. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the
marketplace?: Business impact risks
19. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when
you learn more about the risk?: Risk monitoring
20. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment
where the software is being developed?: Organizational risk
21. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware
technologies that are used to develop the system? : Technology risk
22. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive
traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?:
Requirement changes
23. What is associated with the Product Risk?: TEST object
24. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be
reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) all the mentioned
25. Why is decomposition technique required?
a) Software project estimation is a form of problem solving
b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a software project is too complex
c) none of the mentioned
26. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of
uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its
intended use.”?: Performance risk
27. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a: Project manager
28. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform
as expected?: Product risk
29. Every risk has 100% likelihood.: False
30. What is Risk?: Negative consequence that could occur
31. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a
change of organizational management with different priorities.”?:
Management Change
32. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying
technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?:
Technology change
33. RE represents ______ . : Risk Exposure
34. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be
reduced: minimization strategies
35. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?: Uncertainty and Loss
36. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components,
data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an
executable system: System Building
37. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management
tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) none of the mentioned
38. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity:
Risk management
39. Reactive Risk Management is sometimes described as ___________ .: Fire
Fighting mode
40. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability
and impact?: Perform Qualitative risk analysis
41. Which of the following processes has risk register as the primary output?:
Identify Risks.
42. Five of the processes in Project Risk Management are from which process
group? Planning.