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grile Drept - 2009

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Sunday, July 12, 2009

Criminal Law, the license - July 2009

License July - 2009

Criminal Law General Part

1) What are the essential features of the crime?

objective and subjective side side a.
b. guilt, liability and punishment
c. socially dangerous deed committed by the criminal law and guilt
d. criminal offense under the law, unreasonable and attributable to a person
r=c
2) What is meant by socially dangerous act which for the purposes of criminal law?
a. an act or omission which is one of the values of prejudice
shown in art. 1 Cp.
b. any act or omission which affect one of the values shown in art. 1 Cp. punishment
which is necessary for imposition of a sentence
c. any action which affect one of the values mentioned in Article 1 Cp. And that
punishment is necessary to apply a penalty
d. any action which affect one of the values listed in
Constitution
R=b
3) Who actually assesses the seriousness of a crime?
a. the court when the criminal case resolved
b. legislature when he complained in a criminal law
c. administration of the prison where the convict is released
conditioning
d. Participants in Criminal Proceedings
r=a
4) What are the facts which constitute crimes under applicable penalties and criminals?
a. criminal laws and government decisions
b. special laws, government decisions and decrees of the President of Romania
c. only in criminal law
d. the decision of the Presidency
r=c
5) What are the factors that make up the guilt?
a. the intellectual factor in the form of provision or the possibility of providing
the subject of socially dangerous consequences
b. volitional factor which is the subject of his action will produce a reality and socially
dangerous consequences
the intellectual and volitional factor factor c.
d. volitional factors and undue influence
r=c
6) When there is guilt for an act or omission which presents a danger
a. the act or omission that is committed socially dangerous only intentional
b. when the action or inaction that is socially dangerous or negligent misrepresentation
c. when the action or inaction that is socially dangerous act committed with direct
intention and praeterintenţie
d. the action or inaction that is socially dangerous act committed with intent only
qualified by purpose
r=b
7) When there is direct intention as a form of guilt?
a. If the offender provides the result of his act, no one accepts, believing without reason,
that it will not happen
b. If the offender provides the result of his act, and though no one pursues its production
accepted
c. If the offender provides the result of his act, and aims at producing the desired, by
committing acts that
d. If the offender provides the result of his act, not an accepted and no one aims
r=c
8) When there is indirect intent as a form of guilt?
a. If the offender provides the result of his act, and though no one pursues its production
accepted
b. If the offender provides the result of his act, no one accepts, believing without reason
that it will not happen
c. If the result does not provide for his act, although it should and could provide
d. If the offender provides the result of his act, and although it is aimed, deems, without
reason, that it will not happen
r=a
9) When there is fault with the provision as a form of guilt?
a. If the offender provides the result of his act and although not a production support his
aims
b. If the offender does not provide the result of his act and even be able to provide it
c. If the offender provides the result of his act and accepts its production
d. If the offender provides the result of his act, it's designed to produce and believe
without reason, that this result will not occur
r=d
10) When there is a simple fault or mistake as a form of guilt?
a. If the offender does not provide the result of his act and it could not provide
b. If the offender provides the result of his act and although it supports the production's
aims
c. If the offender does not provide the result of his act, although it should and could
provide
d. If the offender provides the result of his act, and although not follow him, without
cause that he deems will not happen
r=c
11) In which situations are praeterintentia as a form of guilt?
a. the offender does not provide even be the result of his act and it could provide
b. the offender provides the result of his act and although it is aimed, its production
accepted
c. the offender wants and supports the production of dangerous consequences, but in
reality the fault is more serious consequences occur (which is that they require, but
without reason thought that will not occur or did not set , although it could and should
have foreseen)
d. do not predict the outcome of his act, although it should and could provide
r=c
12) When an offense is an aggravated content or qualified?
a. it contains only the conditions for its existence in the typical form
b. it is committed by a recidivist offender
c. when the necessary conditions for the existence besides its typical configuration, and
other circumstances of aggravation include
d. active when the subject is qualified
r=c

13) What is the legal subject of a crime?

a. property stolen or destroyed by the perpetration
b. the aim of committing criminal act
c. social relations harmed or endangered by the perpetration
d. The person against whom the action or inaction is directed
r=c
14) What are the conditions for an individual to be an active subject of a crime?
a. have a minimum age required by law, be responsible and be able to decide freely and
unconstrained on offense
b. to have freedom of will and action and should be considered criminally responsible
c. to have the minimum age required by law and should be considered criminally
responsible
d. individual text to be circumstantial
r=a
15) Who is generally passive subject of a crime?
a. State
b. natural or legal person who has been produced by the offense River
c. only legal person who has suffered harm produced by the offense
d. only individual who has suffered harm produced by the offense
r=a
16) What is included in the objective side of crime?
a. material element, the causal and the immediate consequence
b. material element, and the causal guilty
c. action or inaction, the immediate consequence and guilt
d. the terms complex causes of crime and report
r=a
17) What is evidenced by the immediate consequence that a crime occurs?
a. only in a harmful or detrimental results
b. be a result or in a state of danger
c. the consequences of subsequent offense
d. a visible consequence
r=b
18) If the question of which crimes to prove a causal relationship in criminal law?
a. formal crime
b. formal attitude offenses
c. behavior crimes and crimes formal results
d. offenses results
r=d
19) What is the motive of a crime?
a. the objective pursued by the perpetrator of the crime committed
b. feeling or impulse (desire, tendency, passion) that leads to the birth of the idea in the
mind of the perpetrator of an offense
c. mental attitude of the perpetrator that precedes and accompanies the offense and its
aftermath
d. social values that they protect the rules of criminal indictments
r=b
20) What means to commit a crime?
a. that feeling (desire, tendency, passion) that leads to the birth of the idea in the mind of
the offender committing a specific crime
b. objective pursued by committing the criminal act
c. mental attitude of the perpetrator that precedes and accompanies criminal offense and
its consequences
d. social values that they protect the rules of criminal indictments
r=b
21) What external covers the period of committing an intentional crime?
a. Preparation stage acts, stage acts of execution and follow-up phase
b. acts preparatory phase, the attempt, stage performance and stage acts of consequences
c. acts preparatory phase, and phase of the attempt crime fait
d. the attempt and the crime fait phase and follow-up phase
r=a
22) What is the thesis adopted by the Romanian Criminal Code in respect of acts
preparatory arrangements?
a. sentence criminalize preparatory acts
b. sentence partial criminalization of preparatory acts
c. sentence only criminalization of preparatory acts
d. sentence neincriminării preparatory acts
r=d
23) When no attempt perfect?
a. where the offender begins execution of the objective side of the material element of the
offense, but during the course of execution is interrupted and can not be the end
dusănpână
b. when the perpetrator runs entirely objective side of the material element of the offense
and still not produce the result sought
c. when the perpetrator has all the necessary conditions in terms of resources to be used
and the material object of the offense because the offense designed to consume, however
it is not consumed because of how badly they have been used by the offender or other
means causes
d. when the perpetrator has all the necessary conditions in terms of resources to be used
and the material object of the offense because the offense designed to consume, however
it is not consumed because of how absurd the design of the offense
r=b
24) When there is imperfect attempt?
a. when the perpetrator runs entirely objective side of the material element of the crime
and yet not produce the result sought
b. when the perpetrator even has all the necessary conditions in terms of resources that
will be used as a material object's offense designed to be consumed, yet the offense is not
consumed, because of how badly they have been used by the offender or other means
causes
c. when the perpetrator begins execution of the objective side of the material element of
the offense, but during the course of execution is interrupted and can not be carried
through
d. when the perpetrator runs entirely objective side of the material element of the crime
and still not produce the result sought because of how bad design
r=c
25) When there is improper attempt?
a. when the nature of the means used is apt to produce results, but in the particular case in
relation to the conditions proved to be insufficient or defective, or when you accidentally
missing material object in the place where the offender is believed is
b. When the means used to commit the offense, by nature, was not fit under any
circumstances to produce the result sought by the defendant
c. when the offense designed not consumed because of unable to produce results, the
means used by the offender, or because the subject material was missing from where it
was believed that it is
d. when the perpetrator runs entirely objective side of the material element of the crime
and still not produce the result sought because of how bad design
r=c

26) When there are relatively improper attempt?

a. where the offender has all the necessary conditions in terms
means to be used and the material object of the crime for it to be consumed, yet the
offense is not eating because of how badly the media have been used by the offender or
other causes
b. where the nature of the means used by the perpetrator of the offense is apt to produce
results, but in this specific case, in relation to existing conditions, proved to be
insufficient or defective, or when the subject lacked the substantive offense incidentally
the place where he knew that is
c. when the offense is unable due to consumption of the means used by nature that was
not fit under any circumstances to produce the result sought by the defendant
d. when the offender is unable due to consumption of designing how absurd crime
r=b
27) When there is absolutely improper attempt?
a. When the means used by nature did not fit in any circumstances to produce the result
sought by the defendant
b. where the nature of the means used is apt to produce results, but in this specific case, in
relation to existing conditions, proved to be insufficient or defective, or when you
accidentally missing material object in the place where the perpetrator believed that is
c. when the perpetrator runs entirely objective side of the material element of the offense
and still not produce the result sought
d. when the nature of the means used is apt to produce results, but in the particular case in
relation to the conditions proved to be insufficient or defective, or the situation when the
material object accidentally missing from the place where the perpetrator believed that is
r=a
28) Which is not possible attempted crime?
a. the offense with intent indirect
b. the crimes continue
c. complex offenses
d. to the offense of misconduct
r=d
29) When no attempt is punished?
a. only when the perpetrator to commit the crime withdrew enforced, before the
prosecution to discover
b. when the offender has prevented the discovery that the production of income before
c. when the perpetrator was reconciled with the person injured
d. when the offender is to be divested that prevented the outcome before the discovery
that
r=d
30) What action do not show the seriousness of a crime?
a. deeds that undermine social minimum value that was directed against
b. the act committed is clearly irrelevant
c. act is clearly no important because it reduced product damage
d. act committed which produces a minimum amount of social prejudice against whom it
was directed, is clearly devoid of practical importance, and by its content is no threat to
society
r=d
31) What are the penalties of an administrative nature under criminal law?
a. reprimand, warning, reprimand and fine
b. observation, reprimand, fine
c. work in community service, reprimand with warning and fine
d. reprimand, warning, reprimand, community service
r=a
32) What are natural forms of crime unit?
a. simple offense, offense and offense continued diverted
b. simple offense, the offense and the offense still continued
c. simple offense, offense and offense diverted complex
d. simple offense, offense and offense continues diverted
r=d
33) What is the date an offense continue?
a. when the commit action / inaction lasting enough to have a significant criminal
b. when the result occurred
c. ceased when the action / inaction criminal
d. when the offender started realization of the material element of the crime
r=c
34) When a crime is still exhausted?
A. Upon termination of action / inaction criminal
b. at the time of the result
c. crime coincides with the time consuming
d. coincides with the time of the offense
r=a
35) What is the time to be applied against the benefit of pardon for an offense continue?
a. When there are no criminal activity
b. When the offense consumption
c. time of outcome
d. time of the discovery
r=a
36) What are the legal forms of crime unit?
a. simple offense, offense and offense continues diverted
b. complex offense, the offense continues, progressive and crime
offense usually
c. complex offense, the offense continues, progressive offense
d. complex offense, the offense continued, crime and crime generally progressive
r=d
37) When an offense is continued?
a. when a person commits at different intervals, but with the same intention or omission
which has the same content each offense
b. when a person commits at different time intervals actions or inactions which are each a
criminal offense before he was finally convicted for any of them
c. when the action / inaction which form the material element of the objective side is
extended in time, the natural way, even after time consuming
d. when a person commits at different time intervals or omission which presents each of
the content of the same kind of crime
r=a
38) What is the date when the offense is deemed to continue
a. that the first act or omission committed
b. that the performance of the second act or omission constituting the offense continued
c. the date on when the last action or inaction results
d. that the commission or omission constituting the last offense continued
r=d
39) What is the time in respect of which amnesty is applied for the benefit of continued
committing a crime?
a. time consuming offense
b. time of outcome
c. date of the last act or omission
d. date of a final conviction
r=c
40) When a crime is complex?
A. When the content falls as a constituent or as an aggravating circumstance act or
omission which is itself an offense under the criminal law
b. only when its contents come as a constituent of an action or omission that constitutes
in itself an offense under the criminal law
c. the material element of the objective side is repeated several times in the same
circumstances
d. when a person commits at different time intervals or omission which presents each of
the content of different crimes
r=a
41) What are the types of multiple offenses?
a. criminal participation, competition of crime and recidivism
b. contest the crime, recidivism and natural diversity of
c. competition offenses, recidivism and the plurality of intermediate
d. The term plurality, competition law criminal recidivism
r=c
42) When there is competition for crime?
a. only when two or more crimes were committed by a single action, the same person
b. when two or more crimes were committed by the same person by a single event or
action or inaction separate before being finally convicted for any of them
c. only when two or more crimes were committed in separate actions or inactions of the
same person, before being finally convicted for any of them
d. only when two or more crimes were committed by a single action of two or more
persons
r=b

43) When there is concurrence of crimes?

a. when an act or omission committed by the same person, because of circumstances that
has occurred and the consequences it has produced the same constitutive elements of
crimes
b. when an act or omission committed by the same person, because of circumstances that
has occurred and the consequences it has produced, meets the elements of different
crimes
c. if more crimes have been committed by the same person as many different actions or
inactions prior to being finally convicted for any of them
d. only when an action committed by the same person because of circumstances that has
occurred and the consequences it has produced the same constitutive elements of crimes
r=c
44) When are ideal concurrence of crimes?
a. when an act or omission committed by the same person, because of circumstances that
has occurred and the consequences it has produced several constitutive elements of
crimes
b. when many crimes were committed by the same person, before being finally convicted
for any of them
c. when an act or omission committed by the same person, because
circumstances in which it occurred and the consequences it has produced, meets
constituents of the same crime
d. when an act committed by the same person due to circumstances that occurred and the
consequences it has produced several constitutive elements of crimes
r=a
45) When there postcondamnatorie relapse?
a. when, after a final conviction to a fine or prison sentence of more than six months, the
convicted again commits a crime with intent, the sentence before, during execution, or
able to escape, and the punishment provided for the second offense is imprisonment
exceeding one year
b. when a final after a conviction to imprisonment exceeding six months, the convicted
again commits a crime with intent, the sentence before, during execution, or in a state of
escape and punishment provided for the second offense is imprisonment exceeding one
year
c. when a final after a conviction to imprisonment exceeding one year, not convicted
again commits a crime with intent, the sentence before, during execution, or in a state of
escape and punishment provided for the second offense is imprisonment exceeding six
months
d. when a decision becomes final after the sentencing to imprisonment of less than six
months, the convicted commits a new crime of negligence, the sentence before, during
execution, or in a state of escape and punishment provided for the second offense is
imprisonment exceeding one year
r=b
46) There relapse if a person has been sentenced to imprisonment exceeding six months
for committing an intentional crime, but a stay of execution, and test period commits a
deliberate crime for which the law provides for imprisonment of more than one year?
a. no relapse state
b. no relapse postcondamnatorie
c. no relapse postexecutorie
d. There are several intermediate
r=b
47) There where relapse after definitive sentence of life imprisonment, the sentence
before, during or able to escape execution, the convicted again commits a crime with
intent, for which the law provides for a term of imprisonment than one year or life
imprisonment?
a. there is no relapse, as has been sentenced to maximum
b. no relapse postcondamnatorie
c. the law provides such a situation
d. There are series of offenses
r=b
48) What are the conditions for being the first term of relapse
postcondamnatorii?
a. there is a conviction for committing an intentional crime to imprisonment exceeding
six months or life imprisonment
b. there is a final conviction for an offense intended to imprisonment of at least 6 months
or life imprisonment
c. there is a final conviction for committing an intentional crime, to imprisonment
exceeding six months or life imprisonment
d. to have a conviction for committing a crime intentionally committed to prison more
than six months or life imprisonment
r=c
49) When there postexecutorie relapse?
a. after serving a sentence of imprisonment exceeding six months, the convicted again
commits a crime with intent for which the law provides for imprisonment of more than
one year
b. after serving a sentence of imprisonment exceeding six months, the convicted again
commits a crime with intent, for which the law provides for imprisonment of more than 3
months
c. after serving a sentence of imprisonment exceeding six months, the convicted again
commits a crime with intent, for which the law provides for imprisonment of more than 6
months
d. to have a conviction for an offense committed during minority to imprisonment
exceeding six months or life imprisonment
r=a
50) What will be retained by the court if the first term of the high recidivism
postexecutorii consisting of execution of sentence of imprisonment exceeding six months
for committing an intentional crime, the rehabilitation period has been fulfilled?
a. that this conviction can not be the first term of relapse
b. that it may be the first sentence of the offending term
postcondamnatorii
c. conviction on this issue is controversial in the legal literature specialist
d. that this conviction can be the first plurality of intermediate-term crime
r=a
51) What if the first term is composed of small recurrences postcondamnatorie?
a. term of imprisonment of three up to one year for committing intentional crimes
b. conviction became final three to prison for up to six months for committing intentional
crimes
c. The term of imprisonment of three up to six months for committing intentional crimes
d. The final remaining three convictions to prison for up to six months for intentionally
committed a crime
r=b
52) What is the basis of criminal liability?
a. a crime
b. committing an offense under criminal law
c. only the seriousness of an offense
d. the existence of guilt
r=a
53) What specific forms of participation it is direct and immediate contribution to commit
the crime by the criminal law?
a. instigation
b. coauthors
c. accomplice
d. offender
r=b
54) What form of ownership will be retained if the person who promises before
committing the offense that will conceal proceeds from, but after having done it, not even
you promise?
a. tăinuitor
b. has no significant criminal
c. because of the lack of social danger
d. collusion
r=d
55) What will be retained if the person before committing the offense of the offense, the
offender promises that it will help?
a. to facilitate criminal offense
b. has no significant criminal
c. tăinuitor
d. collusion
r=a
56) What are the conditions for self-defense attack?
a. material, direct, immediate, unjustly, directed against the defender, and that of another
person or seriously endanger the rights of the defender or universal interest
b. material directly, immediately and unjustly
c. material directly and unfairly
d. material directly proportional immediately
r=b
57) Against whom should be directed to attack in self-defense case?
a. of which appear to another person or against a universal interest
b. those who defend themselves or another person, a good general or important interest
c. those who defend themselves or another person
d. one who defends another person or against an important asset
r=a
58) Who is at risk and how risk should be for self-defense?
a. the person or rights of the defender or universal interest
b. is seriously jeopardized the rights of the person or attacked, his property
c. is seriously jeopardized the rights of the person or attacked, his property or interest in
universal
d. is severely compromised or attacked a person or rights of universal interest
r=d
59) will benefit from self-defense after disarming the aggressor continues person hitting
the victim with a knife fight back causing her death?
a. will benefit from self-defense, as provided by art. 44 para. 2 C.p.
b. will not benefit from the provisions of art. 44 Penal Code. But will be put into question
the application of statutory mitigating circumstance of provocation
c. will benefit from self-defense as provided by art. 44 para. 3 C.p.
d. will benefit from self-defense as provided by art. 44 para. 1 C.p.
r=b
60) The fact that the worst offender when he met săvârsii act may constitute an
aggravating circumstance?
a. left to the discretion of the court if it count as an aggravating circumstance
b. may constitute an aggravating circumstance
c. does not constitute an aggravating circumstance
d. The first term of recidivism can be
r=c
61) If criminal participation, the personal circumstances of one of the participants have an
impact on other participants?
a. an impact on other participants
b. have an impact only insofar as they have been known to all
c. shall be without prejudice to other participants
d. an impact on all participants even if they did not know the personal circumstances of a
participant
r=c
62) If criminal participation, actual circumstances have an impact on all participants?
a. does not have an impact on all participants
b. an impact on all participants
c. have an impact on the participants even if they have not known or have not provided
d. have an impact on the participants only if they have known or have provided
r=d
63) When the one sentenced to 8 years imprisonment for an intentional crime can be
released on parole?
a. After serving fraction of the punishment prescribed by law
b. After serving the penalty shown in the law, has been diligently at work, disciplined and
gave solid evidence of referral, taking into account his criminal history and
c. after the commission considered proposals that all the conditions
d. if it is a recidivist, the penalty only after full completion
r=b
64) Which of the below mentioned sanctions are criminal penalties?
a. penalties, educational measures and safety measures
b. only penalties and educational measures
c. penalties, educational measures, safety measures and disciplinary sanctions
d. penalties, educational measures, safeguards and penalties for contraventions
r=a
65) What term is composed of test case execution of which the penalty is imprisonment
was suspended?
a. the amount of penalty imposed, plus a period of one year
b. the amount of penalty imposed, plus a period equal to half of the sentence imposed
c. the amount of penalty imposed, plus a period of three years
d. the amount of penalty imposed, plus a period of two years
r=d
66) Which of the penalties listed are the main punishment?
a. life imprisonment
b. jail from 15 days to 30 years
c. fine of 50 lei to 100,000 lei
d. imprisonment from 30 days to 25 years
r=a
67) When you start banning the execution of additional penalty of rights?
a. after imprisonment, after full pardon or the rest of punishment or penalty after
prescription
b. After issuing a final decision
c. after the convict was released from imprisonment
d. imprisonment when sentenced
r=a
68) the conditional suspension of penalty points and ordered suspension of safeguards
against the defendant?
a. yes
b. suspended all security measures except expulsion
c. attract only security measure of hospital care
d. do
r=d
69) If juveniles aged between 14 and 16 years of committing criminal acts under the law
shall be held criminally liable?
a. Never respond in terms of criminal
b. criminally liable if it proves to have committed criminal acts with discernment
c. to this category of persons who commit offenses under the criminal law protection
measures shall be taken only under the laws in force
d. to them only educational measures may be taken
r=b
70) What is the excess excusable?
a. statutory mitigating circumstance
b. Exemption from criminal liability because
c. because that removes the criminal nature of the act
d. aggravating
r=a
71) What is the reason that caused the danger from which the security measure of
prohibition has an office or profession?
a. nedemnitatea person who committed the act under the criminal law
b. exercising improperly or profession
c. seriousness
d. lack of fitness showed that the person who committed an offense under the criminal
law to conduct activities in accordance with the requirements due to the offender
r=d
72) Who can apply the security measure of expulsion?
A person convicted for national security
b. a person convicted for drug trafficking and
c. Persons declared non grata
d. foreign citizen and stateless person who does not reside in the country who have
committed a crime
r=d
73) What are the penalties that may apply to minors who commit crimes?
a. whose imprisonment and fine limits prescribed by law shall be reduced by half
b. jail
v. fine
d. life imprisonment and imprisonment, in which case the limits are reduced by half
r=a
74) What to do if sentenced to life imprisonment at the age of 60 years during the
penalty?
a. shall be deducted from the sentence served and still running 30 years imprisonment
b. jail penalty of 25 years
c. life imprisonment is replaced by imprisonment for 25 years
d. penalty of 30 years imprisonment
r=c
75) By whom is made legal individualization of punishment?
a. by the legislature in the preparation phase of the criminal law incriminating
b. the court decide the case upon which it was invested
c. the administration of the detention of the convicted
d. by the judge with the prosecutor
r=b
76) The court may order the suspension of enforcement under surveillance for a sentence
of three years arising from the resultant merging of three concurrent sentences for three
crimes committed in 2005, where previously
in May 2004 he suffered a conviction of one year imprisonment for the crime of
manslaughter?
a. no
b. can be retained but only if extenuating circumstances
c. Yes, if it considers that the conviction is a warning pentrucondamnat delivery and that
it will not even commit crimes without penalty enforcement
d. may, but only if convicted of injury fully covered
r=c
77) What are the effects of aggravating circumstances when the accused person?
a. The court may impose a penalty up to the special maximum and if the peak is scant, if
the prison can add a bonus of up to five years may not exceed one third of the peak, and
if a fine may be applied increase of more than one third of the maximum special
b. If the court applies a gain of up to five years imprisonment and fines apply if an
increase of more than one third of the maximum special
c. The court increased the sentence to the special maximum
d. court always applies particularly an increase over the maximum 3 years
r=a
78) How does the court if it finds that the period of conditional release period and until
the end of the sentence, the convict has committed a new crime of rape and one of
deprivation of liberty?
a. has or maintaining release or revocation in relation to the seriousness of the offense,
and in the latter case, blends penalties laid down for rape and deprivation of liberty before
the rest of the sentence executed, and then the resultant penalty, apply a increase up to 5
years
b. always have parole revocation and penalties for crimes committed later merges with
the rest of the sentence executed earlier and then apply a bonus of up to 5 years
c. has parole revoked if the offender is a recidivist
d. parole revocation and has not executed the remainder of the previous sentence with
resultant fixed penalty for the crime of rape and, respectively, for the deprivation of
liberty
r=a
79) What goods are subject to special confiscation?
a. goods that have served in any way, the crime
b. goods that can not found the search warrant HOME
c. goods found on the defendant after the crime
d. The value of the goods found on the accused after committing the crime, when,
subsequently, their alienation is found
r=a
80) When can the court order prohibiting the Revnic the family home for a period of up
to two years?
a. conviction to imprisonment for at least a year for strikes or other acts of violence
causing physical and mental suffering, when committed against family members and ask
the injured party is found that its presence in the family home is a serious danger to other
members family
b. in case of conviction to imprisonment for strikes or other acts of violence causing
physical and mental suffering
c. where the penalty of fine or jail sentence for hitting or violence causing physical and
mental suffering committed against family members
d. if the defendant is a recidivist offenses of the same kind
r=a

License in July 2009

CRIMINAL LAW SPECIAL SECTION

1) What is the material object of the offense of murder?

a. Suppression of the victim lives
b. lethal action
c. deceased body
d. the person's body in life
r=d
2) What does the murder committed with premeditation - art. 175 points. a) Penal Code.?
a. resolution externalizing criminal offense of preparing acts
b. Previous forethought simply in the act
c. the flow of time between taking the decision to commit the crime and its commission,
even if the perpetrator has not prepared a
d. passage of time between the adoption decision to kill its materialization
r=a
3) murder committed in the material interest - art. 175 points. b) Penal Code. includes:
a. binding material interest needs
b. achievement of used material even if the motive was jealousy
c. The material sought is legitimate interest served
d. satisfaction or interest pursued
r=d
4) The material element of the offense of murder is:
a. committee only acts
b. only acts omissions
c. The committee acts or omissions
d. threat victim
r=c
5) the aggravation of the offense circumstanŃiale elements of first degree murder is?
a. during night
b. cruelty
c. person who has a gun, a narcotic substance or paralyzing
d. premeditation
r=b

6) the aggravation of the offense circumstanŃiale elements of first degree murder are:
a. neputinŃă status of the victim to defend himself
b. The victim is a spouse or close relative
c. active subject consisting of two or more persons together
d. pregnant woman
r=d
7) What is the proper legal classification of crime have been killed in the same
circumstances, with intent, two people?
a. A crime of aggravated murder
b. A crime of murder
c. two crimes of murder in the contest just
d. a crime of aggravated murder
r=a
8) The conditions necessary for the apprehension of the offense of infanticide?
a) suppression of a newborn life committed by a parent
b) the commission immediately after birth
c) mother to be in a state of turmoil caused by the birth
d) the active subject is necircumstanŃiat, could be any woman
a. a + b
b. b + c
c. + d
d. b + d
r=b
9) form of infanticide is guilty of the offense required:
a. fault
b. indirect intention
c. praeterintenŃia
d. intention
r=d
10) îmbibaŃie legal alcohol limit exceeding of which give rise to liability of persons
driving vehicles on public roads carelessly killing a person is:
a. 1.00 g / l of pure alcohol in the blood
b. 0.40 g / l of pure alcohol in the blood
c. 0.60 g / l of pure alcohol in the blood
d. 0.80 g / l of pure alcohol in the blood
r=d

11) For the existence of serious bodily injury offense is required:

a. sluŃirea
b. endangering the life of the person
c. loss of feel or body
d. bodily integrity or health injury requiring medical treatment to cure more than 60 days

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. a + b + c
d. b + c + d
r=c
12) The act of one who intentionally strikes the same occasion, two persons are:
a. a crime or other violence impactor
b. a negligent injury
c. a crime of violence or other shaped impactor continued
d. second impactor or other violence crimes in the contest
r=d
13) forms participations to commit criminal offense of rape are:
a. coauthors
b. incitement and complicity
c. authors, instigating, aiding
d. coauthored and abetting
r=c
14) The subjective aspect of rape that resulted in death or suicide victim is:
a. intent
b. praeterintenŃia
c. fault
d. indirect intention
r=b
15) Time consumption is the offense of theft:
deprive the victim of good a.
b. preparation for taking action
c. commencement of acts of embezzlement
d. împosedării good that the author
r=d

16) Understanding between the perpetrators to the crime of concealment is:

a. main offense previously or concurrently
b. co-principal offense
c. above the main offense
d. posterior primary offense
r=d
17) involves serious injury:
a. loss of feel or body
b. sluŃirea
c. loss of hearing
d. loss of knowledge

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. a + c
d. c + d
r=a
18) The attempt is possible to:
a. murder
b. Causing death
c. manslaughter
d. negligent injury
r=a
19) Deprivation of liberty is worse:
a. the formal qualities simulation
b. an armed person
c. Simulation of qualities lying
d. during night

a. a + b
b. a + c
c. b + c
d. a + d
r=a
20) The material element of association to commit the crime is
a. forming a joint initiation
b. supporting an association
c. joining an association
d. establishment of an association

a. a + b
b. a + b + c
c. a + c + d
d. a + d
r=b
21) The circumstances which increase liability for the offense of violation
Address:
a. during night
b. use of qualities lying
c. simulating formal qualities
d. during a calamităŃi

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. b + d
e. a + b + d
r=a
22) quality people for the crime of incest is:
a. brothers and sisters
b. relatives in direct line
c. family members
d. relatives

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. a + b + d
d. b + d
r=a
23) The subjective aspect of the offense of sexual harassment:
a. intent
b. praeterintenŃia
c. indirect intention
d. direct intention
r=d
24) material object of the offense of theft is:
a. things abandoned by their owner (res derelictae)
b. things that do not belong to someone (res nullius)
c. energy that has an economic value
d. human body or certain body parts as man is alive
r=c
25) circumstanŃiale elements of aggravation for aggravated burglary are:
a. a movable taking two or more persons
b. theft of property during a calamităŃi
c. theft of property from a person unable to express the will or to defend
d. all of the above
r=d
26) rip praeterintenŃie remain committed when:
a. resulted in injury to the victim
b. had any of the consequences shown in art. 182
C. resulted in the victim's death
d. has been committed by threats întrebuinŃare

a. a + c
b. a + b
c. b + c
d. a + d
r=c
27) The material element of the offense of robbery, the variant type is:
a) theft întrebuinŃarea followed by threats to keep stolen property
b) Theft of insults întrebuinŃare
c) Theft in the victim unconscious state or to defend neputinŃă
d) theft followed by violence to remove traces întrebuinŃarea offense

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. b + d
d. a + d
r=d

28) aggravating circumstances for the offense of robbery are:

a. committing a means of transport
b. a housing commission or its dependinŃe
c. one of the consequences shown in art. Penal Code 181.
d. efracŃia
a. a + b
b. b + c
c. b + d
d. c + d
r=a
29) the appropriation of another's movable, is owned by any title
the offense:
a. theft
b. fraudulent management
c. Embezzlement
d. abuse of trust
r=d
30) Form of guilty to the offense of abuse of trust is
a. intent or negligence
b. praeterintenŃie
c. direct or indirect intent
d. fault
r=c
31) variant is aggravating fraudulent management:
a. the act is committed in order to gain a material benefit
b. The act is committed when property management or conservation
c. damages are caused by bad faith
d. act is committed with intent
r=a
32) material object of the offense of fraudulent management is:
a. only a movable
b. a universality of movable and / or property
c. only a sum of money
d. only one property
r=b
33) material object of the offense of deception is to:
a. only one property
b. only a movable
v. an action or inacŃiune
d. a movable or immovable
r=d
34) circumstanŃiale elements of aggravation of the offense of deception are:
a. produce very serious consequences
b. committed by using false names or qualities
c. commission in order to obtain a material benefit unfairly
d. pricinuirea of damage

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. c + d
d. a + b + c
r=a
35) The detailed regulations of the material element of the offense
embezzlement are:
a. receiving, trafficking, use of assets managed or administered
b. ownership, destruction, use of assets managed or administered
c. ownership, trafficking, use of assets managed or administered
d. acquisition of degradation, the use of assets managed or administered
r=c
36) What are crimes against property that is sanctioned
attempt?
a. abuse of trust
b. deception
c. Embezzlement
d. fraudulent management

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. + d
d. c + d
r=b
37) The object of the offense to destroy material is:
a. an action or inacŃiune
b. only a movable
c. a movable or immovable
d. only one property
r=c

38)) What are the forms of the offense of possession disorder?

a) depletion occurs either when the offender has ceased the unlawful action on its own
initiative or on the sentence pronunŃării
b) an attempt is possible, but not criminalized
c) the consumption takes place instantaneously when the perpetrator enters building
d) the material element is the action of entering without right
in a building

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. b + d
d. a + d
r=a
39) Subject of the substantive offense of possession disorder is:
a. unauthorized occupancy of a building owned by another
b. a movable or immovable
c. property
d. a movable
r=c
40) The detailed regulations of the material element of the offense of concealment are:
a. demanding a good knowledge of it comes from committing an act
criminal
b. receipt of property knowing that it comes from committing a criminal act
c. conversion of property knowing that it comes from committing a criminal act
d. theft of property knowing that it comes from committing a criminal act

a. a + d
b. b + c
c. a + b + c
d. b + d
r=b

41) the sentence imposed tăinuitorului legal limit in relation to that

planned for the property from which the offender is
a. tăinuitorului reduce the penalty imposed if the offender from which good mitigating
circumstances were detained
b. tăinuitorului penalty imposed can not be greater than that which
applied offender from which good
c. tăinuitorului penalty imposed can not exceed the penalty prescribed by law for the
crime of which comes from hidden object
d. tăinuitorului penalty imposed exceed the penalty provided by law
for concealed the crime from which good
r=c
42) Form of guilty to concealment is
a. intention or fault
b. only with direct intent
c. only with indirect intent
d. direct or indirect intention
r=d
43) material object of the offense of assault in the variant type are:
a. Public officials outraged body
b. missing material object
c. only a good mobile is the passive subject
d. a movable or immovable
r=b
44) The legal act of hitting a policeman was in a year
funcŃiunii if it has exceeded the powers of service is:
a. impactor or other violence
b. in the contest with the crime of assault or other violence impactor
c. outrage
d. negligent injury
r=a
45) In what conditions are present variants of the offense of aggravated assault?
a. if the act is committed by two or more persons
b. if the public servant who carries out a function involving the state authority is year in
year funcŃiunii
c. if the victim is engaged against an impactor or other injury or violence or a serious
injury
d. if the act is committed by two or more persons together
r=c

46) What form of committing the crime is guilty of theft or destruction of documents?
a. only form intentions
b. both form intentions, as well as fault
c. only as fault
d. only in the way of direct intentions
r=b
47) What is the immediate consequence to the crime of abuse of office against
public interests?
a. a proper course of a significant disorder of the units covered by art. 145 of the Penal
Code. or to destroy its heritage
b. a result, but not required to retain the existence of damage
c. in a result and it is necessarily resulted in a loss
d. a state of danger

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. + d
d. c + d
r=a
48) The form of guilt for the offense of negligent service is:
a. such intention, as well as fault
b. only intention
c. only fault
d. only praeterintenŃia
r=c
49) The material element of the offense of bribery is:
a. nerespingerea promise of benefits
b. accepting the promise of benefits
c. promise or offer money
d. giving money or other benefits

a. a + b
b. c + d
c. + d
d. b + d
r=a

50) When the crime of bribery consume?

a. In time of damage
b. only when the offender in possession of undue advantage
c. the time of the offending action or inacŃiunii
d. after completing an act concerning the duties of their employment
r=c
51) What is the legal nature of coercion by the briber who
bribe?
a. a cause for punishment
b. a mitigating circumstance
c. a question of reducing the penalty
d. a special case that removes the criminal nature of the act
r=d
52) When there is action feature material element of the offense of bribery reported to
whether or not the act of service by the bribed?
a. while committing only whether or not the act of
service
b. is accomplished only after carrying out the act or default of service
c. can perform either before or after performing service or failure to act
d. just before completion commits the act or default of service
r=d
53) Legal nature of the denunciation by the act before he bribed
prosecution body has been asked is:
a. a case for reducing the penalty
b. a case to remove the criminal nature of the act
c. A special issue of punishment
d. a general question of punishment
r=c
54) What time goods are received by officials of the offense provided for in art. 256 of
the Penal Code. (Receiving undue advantages)?
a. goods were received by officials after having completed a document on a prior
understanding
b. the goods were received by officials after having completed an act in virtue of its
function
c. the goods were received by officials before performing any act that was bound to its
function
d. goods were received by officials after he met an act contrary
service duties
r=b
55) The form of guilt for the offense of trafficking in influence is
a. indirect intention
b. direct intention qualified by purpose
c. praeterintenŃia
d. direct or indirect intention

56) Act to terminate slanderous referral is made by:

a. Complaint
b. terminate
c. petition
d. statement
a. a + b
b. b + d
c. a + c
d. c + d
r=a
57) Production ticluirea or false evidence in support of the charges
is unfair:
a. perjury
b. promoting offender
c. nedenunŃarea of crime
d. slanderous denunciation
r=d
58) Withdrawal of false evidence before arresting the defendant or
all cases before a decision or pronouncement of any other solutions that
result of false testimony?
a. a case of removing the criminal nature of the act
b. a reduction that the penalty under Art. 76 Penal Code
c. A special issue of impunity
d. a general question regarding the removal of criminal liability
r=c
59) forms of criminal participants in the crime of perjury
are:
a. only as a provocation and complicităŃii
b. only in the form of feeling as
c. only in the form of provocation and coautoratului
d. coauthors, instigating, aiding
r=a
60) Helping the offender, after he had with the previous understanding
deed, for thwarting the prosecution of judgment or
penalty is:
a. an accomplice to that crime
b. concealment
c. encourage the offender
d. nedenunŃarea of crime
r=a
61) Form of guilty which is committed to promote the offender is
a. direct intention qualified by purpose
b. praeterintenŃia
c. fault with foresight
d. direct or indirect intention
r=d
62) Maintaining intentional state of arrested / detained after the expiry of the mandate of
arrest / execution of the sentence is
a. illegal deprivation of liberty
b. abuse of office against the interests of persons
c. unjust repression
d. unlawful arrest
r=d
63) aggravating circumstances for the offense of criminal responsibility
escape are:
a. the act is committed by use of violence, weapons or other instruments
b. The act is committed by two or more persons together
v. the act is committed during night
d. act is committed by using false qualities
a. a + b
b. b + c
c. b + d
d. a + d
r=a
64) Form of guilty of the offense provided for in art. 262 of the Penal Code.
(NedenunŃarea of crime)
a. intention or fault
b. fault
c. Direct or indirect intention
d. indirect intention
r=a
65) The material element of the offense of forgery of currency or other
values are achieved:
a. only by counterfeiting (forgery)
b. or by counterfeiting or by altering
c. only alteration (transformation)
d. occasion only institution empowered to issue that amount
r=b
66) The material element of the offense of false material in official documents
is:
a. falsifying an official document, during its preparation by
incorrect recording of facts or circumstances, or failure
consemnării data or circumstances
b. falsifying a document under hand
c. use of an official document to produce legal consequences
d. falsification of official document writing or by counterfeiting or alteration of the
underwriting in any way
r=d
67) The material element of the offense of forgery (Article 289 of the Penal Code.) Is
through:
a. solely by commissions
b. The official document preparation only occasion
c. both by omission, as well as through the Commission
d. only by omission

a. a + b
b. b + c
c. c + d
d. a + d
r=b
68) What is the legal classification of the crime of forgery of a document under
Private signature and using fake it by the author?
a. the crime of false documents under private
b. the crime of forgery
c. The offense of false documents in competition with private signature
the crime of forgery
d. an act of criminal law nesancŃionată
r=a
69) element of the offense of procuring material consists of:
a. instigation to prostitution
b. facilitating the practice of prostitution
c. drawing benefits from engaging in prostitution
d. trafficking for prostitution

a. a + b + c + d
b. b + c
c. + d
d. a + b
r=a
70) Form of guilt for committing the crime of association is:
a. intent
b. fault
c. praeterintenŃia
d. intent or negligence
r=a
71) form is guilty of pimping specific offense:
a. fault
b. intent or negligence
c. praeterintenŃia
d. intention
r=d
Published by lorinnedef to 07:43 0 comments

Saturday, February 7, 2009

Administrative Litigation in 2009 - the grid with answers

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1) of the administrative features are:

a. is the main legal form of government activity
b. is an express manifestation of will, subject to a regime of bilateral and public power
c. no legal effect, ie does not create, modify or extinguish legal relationships of
administrative law

ANS: A

2) Are the characteristics of the administrative act:

a. administrative act is, in principle, irrevocable
b. administrative act is adopted / issued by a public authority for law enforcement
organization and its performance in concrete
c. The administrative act must be appended to the binding

ANS: B

3) The principle that the administrative act requires the following:

a. administrative act only to obey the conditions existing at the time of opportunity / its
adoption
b. administrative act to be issued / adopted within the legal competence of the superior
authority
c. match the quality of administrative and constitutional law and enforcement under
which it was issued

ANS: C

4) The principles underlying administrative and judicial proceedings are:

a. adversarial principle and the principle of the right to defense
b. principle of subordination of the judicial administrative-judicial activities
c. the principle of availability

ANS: A

5) The applicant may bring an action for administrative review to:

a. court at the defendant public authority
b. The choice between the court of the domicile / registered office and the applicant at the
public authority
c. First at the court of public authority at the residence of the defendant and the plaintiff
subsequently

ANS: B

6) Two-tier system of administrative litigation jurisdiction in the matter is covered in:

a. France, Belgium, Italy, Germany
b. Romania and Spain
England v Finland

ANS: A
7) the constitutional basis of administrative litigation is
a. only art. 52 of the Constitution, republished
b. only art. 126 par. (6) of the Constitution, republished
c. art. 52 and art. 126 par. (6) of the Constitution, republished

ANS: C

8) Claims administration refers to:

a. all disputes between the public and private, specialized courts resolved
b. activity exerted control over the executive authorities
c. often settled by appeal procedure prior gracefully or hierarchical

ANS: A

9) The Public Ministry participates in administrative disputes in the following situations:

a. notify the competent administrative court, it considers that by issuing an administrative
act is legal harms legitimate public interest
b. in any stage of processing requests in administrative, annulment of an administrative
act individually
c. the administrative court has, by default, placing in question the Public Ministry for the
Protection of rights and legitimate interests

ANS: A

10) If the actions promoted by the National Agency of Civil Servants prior proceedings:
optional a.
b. Mandatory
c. can be followed along with the administrative action

ANS: A

11) might be injured, for the purposes of litigation and administrative law:
a. a group of individuals with legal personality, the owner of rights and public interests
b. social organizations claiming harm through an administrative act of a legitimate public
interest
c. a group of individuals without legal personality, the owner of rights and legitimate
public interest

ANS: B

12) The term "public authority" under the provisions of the law is contentious matters:
a. any organ of state or territorial-administrative units operating in the public power
system, to meet the general public interest
b. any political party represented in the Romanian Parliament
c. individuals who have the status of public utility or provides a public service, the public
power system

ANS: A

13) The written form of the administrative act is required to:

a. publication in the Official Gazette
b. performance and observance by those to whom they are addressed
c. the possibility of revocation by the issuing body or the superior

ANS: B

14) Right to administrative supervision is exercised by:

a. Prefect
b. Government
c. National Agency for Fiscal Administration

ANS: A

15) The Prefect may challenge in administrative:

a. government decisions
b. it considers unlawful acts issued by local authorities
c. acts of central government authorities

ANS: B

16) National Agency of Civil Servants may appeal administrative:

a. central authorities under the provisions of Labor Code
b. the central and local acts that violate laws on civil service
c. public or local authorities acts which undermine the public interest.

ANS: B

17) The conditions of admissibility of the request for referral of illegality are, according
to art. 4 of the Administrative Litigation Law:
a. subject to the objection of illegality to pursue a unilateral administrative
b. there before another trial court in connection with the same administrative
c. resolving the dispute on the merits does not depend on administrative act which is
alleged illegality

ANS: A
18) features a procedure for resolving the exception of illegality are:
a. the power vested with the trial court settlement belongs to the proceedings by
b. illegality is judged by the emergency, summoning the parties and the issuer of the
administrative
c. appeal against first instance is declared the solution within the 15 days specified by the
Code of Civil Procedure
ANS: B

19) There may be appealed to the administrative court:

a. administrative provisions concerning the relationship between courts and Parliament
b. order of the Chief of public appointments
c. acts of military command

ANS: C

20) shall be exempt from judicial review of court litigation:

a. administrative acts are subject to special administrative jurisdictions
b. administrative provisions for amendment or abolition of which is provided by an
organic law, a judicial process
c. administrative acts, with excess power for the application of state of siege

ANS: B

21) special administrative courts have the following characteristics:

a. Mandatory
b. are governed by the principle of speed
c. Optional

ANS: C

22) Situations that may generate conflicts resolved by the administrative courts are the
following:
a. issue an administrative act considered harmful
b. unjustified refusal of a public authority to approve a government decision
c. an agreement between a public and a member of the Government

ANS: A

23) prior complaint may be filed under Art. 7 of the Administrative Litigation Law, by:
A person injured in a right or legitimate interest in a unilateral administrative
b. The injured person has opted for judicial administrative procedure provided by special
law
c. the person is considered injured by a normative administrative act subject to the law of
another

ANS: A

24) prior complaint in nature:

a. Optional
b. binding
c. initiating administrative court
ANS: B

25) The term of the prior complaint form is, according to the provisions of the
Administrative Litigation Law:
a. 30 days from the issuance of individual administrative act
b. administrative act unilaterally at any time
c. 30 days of the individual administrative act

ANS: C

26) In the case of administrative complaint means:

a. Contract Lapse
b. attempt a reconciliation, according to the Code of Civil Procedure relating to trade
disputes
c. or termination of the contract administrative law

ANS: B

27) The term of six months to formulate administrative complaint prior to the contract
begin:
a. its conclusion, in disputes relating to the agreement
b. the date of termination of contractual obligations, disputes relating to the execution of
c. the effective date of the contract legal

ANS: A

28) Legal nature of the term of 6 months to the document, provided by art. 7 para. 7 of
the Administrative Litigation Law is:
a. revocation
b. Limitation
c. Recommendation

ANS: B

29) the substance of the exercise of administrative action are:

a. contested administrative act to be legal, or treated in typical form
b. contested to emanate from a social body that protects the public interest values
c. contested to hurt a right recognized by law or legitimate interest in private or public

ANS: C

30) are the formal and procedural exercise of administrative action:

a. completion of the procedure prior formulating graceful appeal and / or hierarchical
administrative appeal
b. referral to the direct action of the competent administrative court
c. injured person to seek a reasonable administrative court

ANS: A

31) Are the conditions for the exercise of administrative action:

a. placing the action within 30 days of the complaint or the response to the unjustified
refusal to deal with the application
b. contested administrative act is not exempted from the control of the administrative
court
c. take action to set aside an individual administrative act

ANS: B

32) Any person aggrieved may request administrative court:

a. cancellation of all or part of the administrative act
b. The revocation of the administrative
c. reducing the damage caused by harmful administrative act

ANS: A

33) Any person aggrieved may request administrative court and:

a. declare unconstitutional a government decree
b. repair damages
c. Order the defendant to the withdrawal of the administrative authority deleterious

ANS: B

34) The administrative court may hear the following solutions:

a. the applicant to respond to demand favorable settlement purposes
b. to pay monetary damages and / or injury in case of cancellation of the administrative
c. comply with law enforcement has been issued an administrative act

ANS: B

35) Disputes concerning administrative contracts, the administrative court may deal with
are:
a. only the sign and execute contracts related administrative
b. the duration of the contract for administrative
c. about the stage preceding the conclusion, as well as in connection with the conclusion,
amendment, interpretation, enforcement and administrative termination

ANS: C
36) the principles for settling disputes covering administrative contract is:
a. The principle of legal
b. usually subordinate to the principle of freedom of contract principle of priority of
public interest
c. the principle of contractual freedom

ANS: B

37) Conditions for exercise of administrative action by the person injured by ordinances
or provisions of the ordinance are:
a. principal reliance on the plea of unconstitutionality
b. placing the main action, with the exception of unconstitutionality
c. The principal object of the action to declare the unconstitutionality of the ordinance or
the provision of the ordinance

ANS: B

38) Any person aggrieved by ordinances or provisions of the ordinance may require
administrative court and:
a. cancellation of administrative acts issued under the ordinance
b. a decision to replace court declared the ordinance unconstitutional
c. annul the ordinance and amend issuer act

ANS: A

39) The power to resolve the substantive material litigation or administrative acts of local
authorities is concluded:
a. Administrative and fiscal courts
b. administrative and fiscal divisions of the courts of appeal in disputes on taxes and their
accessories worth 500,000 lei
c. a court exercising jurisdiction full control

ANS: B

40) administrative and fiscal divisions of the Courts of Appeals have jurisdiction to hear:
a. in the first instance, disputes over administrative acts issued by local authorities
b. the court of appeal, appeals against sentences handed down by departments of civil and
commercial courts
c. disputes on taxes, contributions, customs duties and their accessories worth over
500,000 lei

ANS: C

41) administrative disputes be settled:

a. triple system instance (fund, appeal, appeal)
b. the double level of jurisdiction (fund and appeal)
c. first and last resort, when administrative and fiscal section of the High Court of
Cassation and Justice

ANS: B
42) The local jurisdiction in contentious administrative matters is:
a. Exclusive
b. Alternative
c. Mandatory

ANS: B

43) In her complaint, the injured party may require:

a. annul the administrative act
b. issue another administrative act
c. review of normative or administrative act individually

ANS: C

44) Legal nature of the terms of 6 months and 1 year according to art. 11 para. (A) and
(2) of the Administrative Litigation Law is:
a. both are the limitation periods
b. both terms are of recommendation
c. The term of limitation is 6 months and 1 year is the limitation period

ANS: C

45) are exempt from the 6-month period provided for in art. 11 para. (A) of the
Administrative Litigation Law:
a. actions of regulatory administrative acts
b. administrative actions brought against judicial acts
c. actions brought by the prefect, the Ombudsman, the Public Ministry and the National
Agency of Civil Servants

ANS: A

46) Upon receipt of the action, the administrative court is required:

a. Require the authority whose act is challenged to communicate the urgency that act
b. summoning the parties have
c. The head of the authority to amend the public if the authority does not send within the
deadline required by the court works

ANS: A

47) Suspension of the administrative act under art. 14 of the Administrative Litigation
Law may be ordered:
a. on proof of referral to court action for annulment of the administrative
b. you are met and provided that the case justified the need for better prevention of
imminent damage
c. at the request of the Ministry of Public
ANS: B

48) Suspension of the administrative law enforcement occurs:

a. is issued a new administrative act lawfully
b. when the court upheld the substance of the action for annulment of the administrative
c. when attacked by the Prefect or the National Agency of Civil Servants a document
issued by the central government or local authorities, by virtue of administrative
trusteeship

ANS: C

49) The administrative court may hear the following solutions:

a. to cancel all or part of individual administrative or legislative act
b. to compel public authority to revoke the administrative act harmful
c. to amend the person or entity receiving an administrative measure

ANS: A

50) If a dispute concerning the administrative contracts, the court may hear the following
solutions:
a. requires public authorities to terminate the contract
b. replaces the consent of a party when public interest so requires
c. set a deadline for termination

ANS: B

51) The conditions for bringing proceedings for damages are separated by:
a. action must be brought within one year from the date on which the injured party knew
or ought to know the extent of damage
b. to fund court failed to rule on the request for damages incidental
c. when the application for compensation was rejected as unfounded by the court seised
of an action for annulment of the administrative
ANS: A
52) vested with the administrative court hearing an appeal lodged against a decision
given in the first instance, take one of the following:
a. dismiss the appeal as inadmissible
b. modify or quash the contested decision
c. send the case to the public authority that issued the contested administrative act

ANS: B

53) The Court of Appeal will give a solution to the disposal referred back to in the
following situations:
a. the substantive court decided the case under a public policy exception
b. the court first resolved, unlawfully merits
c. Always be found unlawful and disprove the contested sentence

ANS: A

54) The reason for the revision of the solutions given by administrative courts:
a. trial discovered, in the absence of a party who was not legally cited
b. when it violated the principle of precedence of Community law, governed by art. 148.
2, in conjunction with art. 20 para. 2 of the Constitution
c. the settlement of the case depends on a new document

ANS: B

55) The requirement of publication in the Official Gazette for the following judgments
are handed down in contentious administrative matters:
a. decisions which cancels a unilateral administrative
B. The explanation of the device of a court ruling
c. final and irrevocable decisions annulling in whole or in part an administrative act of
normative

ANS: C

56) irrevocable court decision on admission to the administrative court proceedings must
be made:
a. upon request
b. 6-month period provided for in art. 11 of the Administrative Litigation Law
c. within 30 days from the date the decision becomes irrevocable

ANS: C

57) Failure to comply with any final judicial decision by a public authority may bring:
a. driver sanctioning authority or person bound by a fine
b. order the public authority to pay the central bank benchmark interest
c. contravention of the responsibility required by court

ANS: A

58) The significance of the concept of "abuse of power" is under the Administrative
Litigation Law:
a. the right of discretion of public authorities, within the powers conferred by law
b. the right of discretion of public authorities in violation of the rights and liberties
c. exercise of discretion of public authorities law, in violation of orders issued by superior
body

ANS: B

59) The institution of the Federal Administrative Court, the administrative court of
jurisdiction, there are:
a. France
b. Germany
c. Italy

ANS: B

60) The administrative jurisdiction having the most similarity to that of Romania is:
a. at the Spanish
b. at France's
c. that of Italy

ANS: A

61) The first self-regulatory organization and functioning of the Romanian administrative
litigation was conducted in the period:
a. 1866-1905, after adopting the first Constitution
b. After adoption of the Constitution of 1923
c. by Law no. 1 / 1967 of the Administrative Litigation

ANS: B

62) State Council, which functioned in the period 1864-1866, after the Union
principalities, have the following responsibilities:
a. court
b. Settlement of disputes between the government and individuals on administrative acts
c. only body with executive powers of the country

ANS: B

63) The Administrative Litigation Law of 23 December 1925, were exempt from judicial
review:
a. provisions governing
b. royal decrees
c. acts PM

ANS: A

64) If the issuing authority finds that it is illegal act has the following options:
a. superior body to seek revocation of the act
b. to revoke the administrative act himself after he entered the civil circuit
c. require administrative court set aside its own act, whether it has produced legal effects

ANS: C
65) Can be passive standing administrative disputes:
a. an official who is guilty of refusing to resolve a claim relating to a subjective right or
legitimate interest
b. a third party against individual administrative act, the public authority issuing calls for
cancellation of their act
c. or just people who are addressed directly, the administrative act considered harmful

ANS: A

66) criteria for determining the material competence of the administrative court are:
a. test the legal nature of the contested administrative act
b. criterion value for administrative acts dealing with the taxes, contributions, customs
duties and accessories thereof
c. test how adopting / issuing the administrative act

ANS: B

67) are exempt from stamp duty and stamp judicial court under the Administrative
Litigation Law:
a. all administrative appeals in
b. actions brought by the prefect
c. actions brought by public officials under the Law no. 188/1999

ANS: B

68) The effects of illegality exception are:

a. The court shall order the cancellation of both, and to declare the illegality of
b. judicial decision that has been resolved illegality effect erga omnes "
c. outcome on the question of illegality take effect only between the parties dispute

ANS: C
69) The principles recommended by the Committee of Ministers of the Council of Europe
member governments with regard to security against possible harmful effects of
administration of the act are:
a. the applicant given the opportunity to seek judicial authority before it to rule, to seek
interim measures of protection against the administrative act
b. interim protective measures may include withdrawal of the administrative
c. The procedure followed before the judicial authority to be covered in a reasonable time

ANS: A

70) unjustified refusal to settle a claim are:

a. explicit expression, with excess power demand will not solve
b. refusal expressed by an official report on processing an application
c. often unjustified refusal to receive the request for resolution
ANS: A

71) prior complaint may be filed under Art. 7 of the Administrative Litigation Law, by:
3.c.
A person injured in a right or legitimate interest in a unilateral administrative
b. The injured person has opted for judicial administrative procedure provided by special
law
c. the person is considered injured by a normative administrative act subject to the law of
another

ANS: A

72) When the injured person sought annulment of the administrative act simultaneously
without requiring compensation in the period of limitation for claims begin:
a. the date of issuance of the administrative
b. the date when it knew or ought to know the extent of damage
c. the date when the court decision annulling the administrative act has become
irrevocable

ANS: B

73) to enforce a court decision is administrative:

a. The court ruled that the substantive decision
b. The court of appeal which merits retrial
c. court whose decision was final and irrevocable

ANS: A

74) A presidential decree declaring a state of siege:

a. can be contested at the administrative court
b. can not be appealed to the administrative court
c. could be challenged in court only to administrative abuse of power

ANS: C

75) Following the deliberation of the case, the court may give the following solutions:
a. to cancel, in whole or in part, the administrative act
b. to decide to take administrative action instead of
c. The authority to compel defendant to rectify the act challenged

ANS: A

76) The illegality may be raised:

a. Only the first instance
b. only the court of appeal
c. both at first instance and appeal stage

ANS: C

77) The phrase "imminent injury" means, according to art. 2. (1). n) of the Administrative
Litigation Law:
a. foreseeable future pecuniary
b. serious disruption, existing at the time of issuing the administrative act, the operation
of a public authority
c. birth injury, and present certain

ANS: A
78) The institution of administrative litigation is one of the areas that the legislature has
reserved:
a. The ordinary rules of law
b. the decision of government regulation
c. regulation of the organic law

ANS: C

79) are deemed administrative acts, according to Law 554/2004 the following contracts
entered into by the government:
a. contracts for the sale purchase
b. Procurement
c. lease contracts

ANS: B

80) The deadline for initiating court actions dealing with the administrative contracts
begin:
a. minutes after the end of completion of the conciliation procedure
b. the date of termination of contract disputes relating to the agreement
c. the date fixed by contract, the parties agree

ANS: A

81) Introduction of appeal:

a. suspend execution
b. does not suspend execution
c. only suspend execution until the start of debate on the merits

ANS: A

82) in the administrative appeal is lodged within:

a. 15 days from notification
b. 30 days of ordering or communication
c. 10 days of pronouncement, or communication

ANS: A

83) shall be exercised in hierarchical appeal:

a. same authority which issued the administrative act subject to appeal
b. the hierarchically superior body which issued the document that caused injury
c. specialized administrative review body

ANS: B

84) The court executing the administrative contentious matters is:

a. the court, as the court of common law
b. The court resolved the dispute by the administrative fund
c. Department administrative tribunal

ANS: B

85) against an individual administrative act subject to the law may bring an action:
a. Only the person whom it is addressed
and b. another person if the act by issuing him any harm any individual right or legitimate
interest
c. Advocate, the Office

ANS: B

86) referred to enforcement of Article 22 of the Administrative Litigation Law, shall be

made within;
a. the legal
b. after investing with judicial, common law
c. 30de days later than the date of the final decision - unless specified otherwise within

ANS: B

87) may be appealed in administrative:

a. Only the normative acts
b. only individual acts
c. both normative acts and individual acts

ANS: C

88) prior complaint has the following characteristics:

A. As a general rule, is binding
b. can be done simultaneously with the promotion in the administrative actinunii
c. is mandatory for all actions to the administrative courts

ANS: A

89) The Ombudsman may bring an administrative action if:

a. administrative authority unlawful act or refusal to perform his legal duties can not be
removed except by court
b. in any situation where it finds it necessary
c. appreciate that you violated a law or a legitimate interest

ANS: A

90) In case of unjustified refusal to settle a claim, the court referral period begins to run
from date:
a. application
b. communication unjustified refusal of the application solution
c. there is no deadline, and may request the court whenever

ANS: B

91) Government Emergency Ordinances, and those taken under an enabling law may be
appealed:
a. the administrative court, accompanied by an action of the unconstitutionality, as far as
the main object is not finding unconstitutionality of the ordinance or the provisions of
Ordinance
b. can not be appealed to the administrative court
c. can only be appealed to the Constitutional Court

ANS: A

92) Administrative acts can be challenged in court legislative administrative review

within:
a. six months required by law
b. always
c. one year period provided by law

ANS: B

93) administrative and fiscal sections of the Courts of Appeal will hear, in the first
instance:
a. litigation relating to administrative acts relating to taxes, contributions, customs duties
exceeding 500,000 lei
b. disputes relating to administrative acts issued by local authorities
c. disputes related to administrative action contested by the prefect

ANS: A
94) in the administrative action will be introduced to:
a. required to address the defendant
b. address complainant binding
c. the applicant's residence or domicile of the defendant

ANS: C

95) The rule must be respected, according to Administrative Litigation Law to resolve
disputes relating to administrative contracts is:
a. The principle of contractual freedom prevails
b. principle of contractual freedom is subordinated to the principle of priority of public
interest
c. generally outweigh the principle of priority interest

ANS: B
96) When the subject is the administrative action in an administrative contract, the court
may order:
a. canceled in whole or in part
b. Declare jurisdiction of the court file and send commercial law
c. can compensate either party consent

ANS: A

97) Failure, within, an irrevocable decision of the administrative court points:

a. a fine of 20% of the gross minimum wage for each day of delay savings leader who
opposes the decision authority
b. a fine of 10% of the gross minimum wage for each day of delay savings leader who
opposes the decision authority
c. a fine of 15% of the gross minimum wage for each day of delay savings leader who
opposes the decision authority

ANS: A

98) court decision which declared a local council decision to publish:

a. Official Gazette
b. County Gazette
c. there is no requirement Publishing

ANS: B

99) The Administrative Litigation Law, the act not to execute a final and irrevocable
decision of an administrative court:
a. The offense may be
b. is a contravention
c. constitute misconduct disciplinary
ANS: A

100) Failure to comply with final and irrevocable decision of a court of administrative
law has consequences:

a. only be punished with fine

b. the sanctioning
c. punishable with imprisonment

ANS: C

101) may invoke the exception of illegality:

a. The applicant only
b. by either party
c. only the court

ANS: B

102) may invoke the exception of illegality:

a. before any court
b. only to the common law court
c. only in extraordinary review

ANS: A

103) By raising the objection of illegality can be invoked:

a. only unlawful administrative action legal
b. only the illegality of an individual administrative act
c. legislative or administrative action or illegality of an individual

ANS: C

104) solution to the competent court to judge the exception of illegality may be appealed:

a. Appeal within 5 days of communication

b. is final and irrevocable
c. appeal within 15 days from notice

ANS: A

105) against the orders made by administrative courts:

a. there is the possibility of using extraordinary review
b. may be used only appeal for annulment
c. can not be used than the appeal of the appeal

ANS: A

106) The Public Prosecutor may refer to the administrative court:

a. when it deems that violations of rights, freedoms and legitimate interests of individuals
is due to individual unilateral administrative acts issued by public authorities with excess
power
b. at the request of the interested party
c. when the injured party is a minor

ANS: A

107) The "person aggrieved" means under Art. 2. (1). of the Administrative Litigation
Law:
a. any person or entity holds a right or a legitimate interest
b. The person injured by a private legal person
c. injury right or legitimate interest to be produced by an administrative act or a failure to
resolve requests within the statutory

ANS: C

108) A civil servant who drafted, signed or issued the administrative act or as the case
may be guilty of refusing to process an application is aa following options:
a. you can call in warranty or hierarchical officer who ordered the
b. Call a warranty during which public authority is committed
c. has no locus standi to make such a request

ANS: A

109) The stamp duty required for requests made under the Administrative Litigation Law
is:
a. No one provided by law. 146/1997 on judicial stamp, with subsequent amendments, for
reasons of money unrated
b. not paid stamp duty
c. stamp duty is determined by the administrative court, according to the object of

ANS: A

110) refers to objective Claims:

a. invested judge to investigate the possibility of the administrative compliance with the
objective law, the law
b. possibility that the judge invested with the request to determine whether or not the
plaintiff has suffered an injury to his subjective rights
c. the judge can order the removal or modification of the administrative
ANS: A

111) refers to subjective Claims:

a. invested judge to investigate the possibility of the administrative compliance with the
objective law, the law
b. invested and competent judge can determine the existence and extent of subjective
rights owned by applicant
c. can invest and competent judge to settle case of cancellation or modification of the
administrative act has

ANS: B
112) Administrative Claims of cancellation is
a. litigation in which the judge is invested will have to investigate with the objective law
of the administrative compliance with the law
b. litigation in which the judge is competent and will be invested to establish the
existence and extent of subjective rights owned by applicant
c. litigation in which the judge is competent to pronounce the cancellation or amendment
found to be unlawful administrative act

ANS: C

113) In France, the administrative court has been entrusted for the first time by a law in
1790:
a. of administrative tribunals that were part of the public administration system, headed
by the State Council
b. common law courts
c. Administrative Courts of Appeal

ANS: A

114) The social bodies concerned shall mean:

a. all public authorities that carry out social projects
b. governmental structures, unions, associations, foundations and others who have the
object of protecting the rights of different classes of citizens or, as appropriate, the proper
functioning of the administrative public services
c. all public authorities have the good operation of the main activities of public
administrative services

ANS: B

115) designates the notion of prior complaint:

a. request filed before the administrative court
b. request that a person injured in his right to apply for compensation;
c. request by calling the issuing public authority or the upper hierarchy, as appropriate, to
review an administrative act of individual or normative in the sense of its revocation or
modification
ANS: C

116) If attacked by Prefect admistrative acts and the National Agency of Civil Servants,
appealed administrative act is suspended:
a. opera legis
b. its suspension is left to the discretion of the court
c. only at the request of the interested party, under Act 14 and 15 of no.554/2004, as
amended and supplemented

ANS: A

117) The administrative acts of public authorities concerning their relations with the
Parliament can be challenged:
a. the administrative claim court, but only for abuse of power
b. can not be appealed to an administrative court
c. at common law court, by way of exception of illegality

ANS: B

118) Special Administrative Jurisdictions are:

a. Mandatory
b. subject to court fees provided by Lg.146/1997
c. are voluntary and free

ANS: C

119) provided within 6 months prior to the procedure is:

a. a period of decline
b. a recommendation within
c. a prescription within

ANS: C
120) Natural and legal persons of private law can make that claim heads, defending a
legitimate public interest in the following ways:
a. via the main action
b. by way of exception
c. only alternative, to the extent that harm legitimate public interest follows logically
from violating the legitimate interest of the subjective or private

ANS: C

121) The person injured in a right recognized by law or a legitimate interest in a

unilateral administrative act may require:
a. damage payments
b. damages
c. repairs for damages

ANS: C

122) After the pronouncement of the Constitutional Court on the unconstitutionality of

the ordinance or the provisions of the ordinance, the administrative court shall:
a. rule on the merits in the Council Chamber
b. because of the role call and settle the dispute according to the Constitutional Court
decision
c. strike call and give due time, summoning the parties

ANS: C

123) If the plaintiff chose the court can address the defendant lacked territorial claim:
a. only to the first hearing
b. can not claim lacked territorial
c. to end debate

ANS: B

124) Ordinances or provisions of the ordinance that is claimed to be unconstitutional, and

regulatory administrative acts which are considered to be unlawful may be appealed:
a. within six months of becoming aware
b. ever
c. the general limitation period of three years.

ANS: B

125) Decisions rendered by administrative courts will be issued and motivate within:
a. 15 days of pronouncement
b. more than 60 days after the pronouncement
c. later than 30 days after the pronouncement

ANS: C

126) When the injured person sought annulment of the administrative act simultaneously
without requiring compensation in the period of limitation for claims begin:
a. the date of issuance of the administrative
b. the date when it knew or ought to know the extent of damage
c. the date when the court decision annulling the administrative act became irrevocable

ANS: B

127) At the moment, until the establishment of administrative and tax courts,
administrative disputes are solved by:
a. common law courts
b. the administrative departments of the courts
c. Courts of Appeals

ANS: B

128) In terms of material competence of public administration body to adopt or issue

administrative acts are:
a. administrative action whose effect throughout the country, and decisions taken by the
Government
b. general administrative acts
c. specialized administrative acts, which affects one or more fields

ANS: B

129) is the judicial administrative act:

a. administrative act issued by an administrative authority having jurisdiction
b. administrative act issued by a procedure based on the rights of the defense and the
contradictory
c. administrative act issued by an administrative authority is vested by an organic law,
with special administrative powers of jurisdiction

ANS: C

130) of individual administrative act shall take effect:

a. the date of the document handed over by the person concerned
b. at a time provided in the act, prior to that was served or delivered
c. within 30 days from the issuance date of adoption or act

ANS: A

131) An administrative act may be revoked by:

a. superior administrative body that has adopted or issued to date has established the
illegality of the act
b. product until the act legal effect, entering into civil circulation by issuing body
c. within six months from the date of entry into force of the act

ANS: B

132) form of the control activity of the government:

a. legislative control exercised by presidents of both Houses of Parliament
b. executive-administrative control executed by the Romanian Government and the
President of Romania, as chief executive
c. judicial review exercised by the administrative courts on the opportunity

ANS: B
133) hierarchical control is exercised by the Controlling Authority-controlled organs and
can have a character:
a. General, including all aspects of authority control
b. staff, aimed at those guilty of unlawful issuance of an administrative act
v. specialized, being exercised by special organs

ANS: A

134) Supervision by administrative tribunals is a form of control concerns the legality of

certain categories of administrative acts being carried out by:
a. courts in the Court System
b. authorities vested with powers of jurisdiction in the special administrative government
system
c. judicial courts of the judicial system

ANS: B

135) Review by the Ombudsman to:

a. work of the Chamber of Deputies and Senate, the President of Romania, the
Government, the Court of Auditors and the Legislative Council
b. the work of Deputies, Senators, Judges of the High Court of Cassation and Justice and
the Constitutional Court which, by their actions have harmed the rights and interests of
citizens
c. the activity of public administration, public services and institutions, public institutions
which, by their actions have undermined the rights and liberties

ANS: C
136) are general features of judicial review:
a. judicial control is exercised over all administrative authorities, as to the legality of
administrative acts adopted or issued
b. judicial review concerns the legality, appropriateness and efficiency and effectiveness
of administrative acts
c. judicial control is exercised ex officio by administrative courts

ANS: A

137) Claims objective is:

a. litigation in which vested judge must be objective and impartial
b. litigation in which the judge is empowered to investigate administrative act solely
compliance with the law without personal research of rights and legitimate interests
v. exercised the Ombudsman, as a result of control made according to law, based on a
complaint from an individual

ANS: B

138) is the administrative court for annulment of administrative litigation in which:

a. vested judge is competent to rule on the existence and extent of damage, whether or not
occurred as a result of the contested administrative act
b. judge is competent to give sworn cancellation or modification found unlawful
administrative act without investigating the existence or extent of damage
c. vested judge is competent to rule on the existence and extent of damage, but only if
they were produced and are the result of the administrative act that it is repealed or
amended

ANS: B

139) First Administrative Litigation Law was adopted:

a. by the Constitution of 1866
b. After the entry into force of the Constitution of 1923
c. prior to the adoption by referendum of the Constitution of 1991

ANS: B

140) In France, at present, the administrative court is done through:

a. public administration
b. Council of State and lower administrative courts
c. the administrative courts, which have led the French Supreme Administrative Court

ANS: B

141) Anglo-American legal system, administrative disputes are within the jurisdiction:
a. specialized administrative courts in the areas of government activity
b. Administrative Courts
c. common law courts

ANS: C

142) Administrative Litigation System in Romania, operating under the Law

no.554/2004, is closer to the corresponding existing system:
a. The European Union
b. France
v. Spain

ANS: C

143) Under the current system operates as a specialized administrative courts in

Romania:
a. administrative and fiscal departments of the High Court of Cassation and Justice
b. administrative and fiscal departments of the Courts of Appeal
c. administrative tribunals

ANS: B
144) may apply to the administrative court and:
A person injured in his rights or legitimate interest by the unconstitutional provisions of
laws
b. a person injured in his rights or legitimate interests ordinances or provisions of
ordinances declared unconstitutional
c. person injured in his rights or legitimate interest by an administrative authority revoked
or repealed

ANS: B

145) are subject to referral to the administrative court, in administrative proceedings:

a. Advocate, when that it may intervene on behalf of injured
b. Prefect, after review of the guardianship authority may appeal to the administrative
court of the unlawful acts of local authorities
c. National Agency of Civil Servants may challenge administrative acts of the central and
local government authorities that violate public law and public servants function

ANS: C

146) Subject of the administrative dispute may be:

a. administrative contracts concluded between private
b. administrative-judicial acts, which may be appealed directly to the administrative court
within 15 days from notice
c. ordinances and ordinances adopted by the Government under article 115 of the
Constitution, republished

ANS: B

147) are the formal and procedural exercise of administrative action:

a. provided subjects for the proceedings prior to initiating the graceful appeal
b. provided administrative court that the complaint be made within six months of receipt
of the complaint solution
c. provided the injured person acting president to address the administrative court

ANS: B

148) Are competent to judge the substantive contentious matters:

a. cutting the administrative and fiscal tribunals for disputes involving administrative data
from the central public authorities
b. cutting the administrative and fiscal tribunals for disputes involving taxes,
contributions, customs duties and their accessories, up to 500,000 lei;
c. cutting the administrative and fiscal courts of appeal for disputes which concern the
taxes, contributions, customs duties and their accessories, up to 500,000 lei.

ANS: B
149) The applicant may appeal the action and will notify:
a. at the court of public authority
b. his home court
c. either of those two instances, the choice

ANS: C

150) Suspension of the administrative law occurs when the administrative act is
challenged:
a. the person injured
b. Prefect
c. Ombudsman

ANS: B

151) When the request for suspension is formed under the provisions of Article 14 of
Law no.554/2004, the court shall order the suspension of administrative act to:
a. graceful appeal settlement
b. referral to the administrative court
c. pending court as to the action for annulment of the administrative

ANS: C
152) When the request for suspension is formed under the provisions of Article 15 of
Law no.554/2004, the court may suspend the contested administrative act to:
a. settlement of the action for annulment of the contested administrative act
b. until the final and irrevocable settlement demand annulment of the act aimed at
administrative
c. appeal to the court referral

ANS: B

153) In the period 1866-1905, the administrative court has evolved in the sense that:
a. administrative disputes have been given specific courts
b. have been left for the Council of State
c. have been entered in the court of common law

ANS: C

154) From 1905 to 1925, except during 1910-1912, the legality of administrative acts:
a. have held the common law courts, where common law rules
b. pleaded specialized administrative courts
c. Section III ruled the High Court of Cassation and Justice, which could be brought via
direct action

ANS: C
155) from 1925 to 1948 period after the entry into force of Law in 1925, the
administrative court was characterized by the fact that:
a. private disputes between the administration and were given the responsibility of public
administration system of specialized courts, administrative tribunals on the French model
b. The administrative courts have assumed full jurisdiction over the legality of
administrative acts
c. The administrative courts have assumed full jurisdiction over administrative disputes,
the English model

ANS: B
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