In This Issue

Regulars
Editorial 1547
Science and Technology 1548
February 2008 Latest General Knowledge 1551
Year—10 Issue—120 Inspiring Young Talent—Topper BHU (Med.)
Rank-22, 2007—Lokesh Kumar Garg 1555
Science Tips 1557

Physics
Sound-III 1560
Nuclear Physics-III 1566
Editor Typical Model Paper 1572
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Chemistry
Chemistry of Alkali Metals 1583
Chemical Thermodynamics 1589
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the publishers. CBSE Medical Entrance (Mains) Examination, 2007 1643

Edited, printed and published by Mahendra

Other Features
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 To Our Readers
Dear Readers,
The February issue of your favourite magazine Competition Science Vision is
in your hands. Like all previous issues, this issue is also full of examination-oriented
reading material for your pre-medical tests. The issue has been designed to pay you
rich dividends in your examinations. It focusses on improving your performance and
giving you an extra-edge over other competitors.
If you want to get the best out of a book you must look for the best that is in it. If
you have the positive attitude, you will highly be benefited by CSV and its unparalleled
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Read CSV regularly and intelligently. It gives you the power to master
your career and shape your destiny.
We take this opportunity to send our warmest new year greetings to you. May it
be a peaceful, prosperous and very successful year for you.
With best wishes for your bright future.
Sincerely yours.
Mahendra Jain
(Editor)

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C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1546

 We generally meet two classes
of people. Some people appear to be
happy and gay always, while others
present sorrowful and funereal looks.
The former are always full of hope
and optimism, while the latter are
always dejected and pessimist. They
always think that they will meet
success nowhere and their no work
will be done. The optimistic person is
always full of hope and enthusiasm
for his work, he always feels light in
his life. The dejected person does not
want to take up any work. According
to him his work will not be completed.
He always worships darkness and
hopelessness in life. The optimistic
person sees a ray of light and hope
even in darkness. He knows that
hope is immortal. His labours never
go waste.
The person who starts work with
hope and determination, gets means
and ways to complete it and new
horizons get opened before him and
the path of progress is always open
before him. If some difficulties and
obstructions come in the way, he
gives them a fight with full force
because hope continuously inspires
him to reach the goal. Even when he
does not meet success, he looks at it
as a passing phase and does not
leave hope. He knows that only he
falls who rides a horse. He gets up
and again and rides the horse. For
fear of falling if the riding of the horse
is abandoned and for fear of death if
life is not lived then what would be
the plight of the human society, which
can be easily imagined. In
Mahabharat it is said that all the top
warriors like Bhishm, Dron and Karn
were killed. Even then Duryodhan
was hopeful of winning the battle
because he thought that Shalya might
deliver the goods and win the war.
·grs HhÆes grs nzks. d`.s Z ok f(fnoaxrs
vk'kk c¥orh jktuΩ 'kY;ks tksIpfr
ik≥MokuΩ‚\
Even after the departure of all his
companions he did not lose courage
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1547 / 2
and continued to fight to the end. He
lost the war and the empire but no one
would say that he was a coward.
After sending all his friends and
relations into the jaws of death, he did
not beg for life and lived like a
dejected man.
In the modern time the fight for
Indian freedom is a glaring example of
undying hope and getting victory in
the end. The fight for Indian freedom
was suppressed many times and often
appeared to be a failure. But the
freedom fighters always remained
devoted to their cause and were
always hopeful of getting to the goal.
In the end victory smiled on them and
Bharat became a free country.
Hope makes a man full of
enthusiasm for work while a
dejected man becomes almost
a dead person and suffers from
inferiority complex. Those who
want to do progress must get
rid of these maladies and be
prepared to face difficulties and
remove the speed breakers on
the road to success.
The man without hope creates
an atmosphere of darkness all about
him and becomes like a dead log,
with the result that he becomes totally
inactive. He neither hopes to get
success nor he becomes successful.
So far as his ledger of success is
concerned it remains totally blank.
Pointing to the persons without hope
the great thinker Swet Martin has said
that the life without hope destroys all
the valuable elements of life and
there is no place in civilization for a
person who is dejected and without
hope. Civilization is the collective
tressure of achievements. One who is
without hope is afraid of proceeding
towards achievements. Dejection
makes him so weak and coward that
he becomes indifferent to achive-
ments and progress. Hope is both of
cause and effect of good action.
Dejection is a great sin. By losing
hope we destroy our good actions
and earn sin. Dejection is like that
devil who is always in search of doing
our destruction. Those who are
optimistic have courage to face failure
every now and then and they have
also to suffer pangs of dejection, but
their dejection is momentary; their
dejection does not deter them from
the path of hope. In the words of the
great novelist Prem Chand, dejection
shows them the right path and works
as a stare of the blind man.
There is a group of such unsuc-
cessful persons as considered them-
selves incapable and powerless. In
short they were always seized of
inferiority complex. Such persons are
generally those people who have
been discouraged at every step in
their childhood.
Inferiority complex gives rise to
the feeling of pity. A man of inferiority
complex is always afraid of taking up
any great work. He always considers
himself helpless and powerless and
he considers that the society will give
him recognition on his face value
without looking at his actions. We
should remember these words of
Mahaprabhu Shankaracharya that “So
long as you consider yourself to be
an object of pity, you will always
remain a beggar and will not be able
to do anything worthy of achieve-
ment.
Actionlessness makes a man
victim of inferiority complex and
dejection makes the man actionless.
The combination of dejection and
actionlessness do not allow a person
to proceed on the path of progress.
In short, dejection does not allow
a person to fight the difficulties and
face the path of progress. Those who
want to progress and achieve some-
thing should not suffer from dejection
and inferiority complex. They should
be always prepared to face difficulties
and remove the impediments that
come on the road of success.
●●●
 Violent Black Holes
Radiating High-Energy
Cosmic Rays
Pierre Auger Observatory, loca-
ted in Argentina, is the largest cosmic
ray observatory in the world. A team
of researchers from 17 countries used
the Auger Observatory and found that
the sources of the highest-energy
particles that reach the Earth are not
distributed uniformly across the sky.
Instead, these results link the origins
of these mysterious particles to the
locations of nearby galaxies that have
active nuclei in their centres.
These nuclei called Active Galac-
tic Nuclei (AGN), have long been
considered sites where high-energy
particles-production might take place.
They swallow gas, dust and other
matter from their host galaxies and
spew out particles and energy.
The research team announced
that Active Galactic Nuclei—thought to
be powered by super massive black
holes that devour large amounts of
matter—are the most likely candi-
date for the source of the highest
energy cosmic rays that hit the Earth.
While most galaxies have black
holes at their centres, only a fraction
of all galaxies have an AGN accord-
ing to this international research
group. The exact mechanism of how
AGNs can accelerate particles, to
energies 100 million times higher than
the most powerful particle accele-
ration on Earth, is still a mystery.
Cosmic rays are comprised of
protons and atomic nuclei, which
travel across the universe at close
to the speed of light. When these
particles smash into the upper atmos-
phere of our planet, they create a
cascade of secondary particles called
an ‘air glower’ that can spread across
40 or more square kilometres as they
reach the Earth’s surface.
“We find the southern hemi-
sphere sky as observed in ultra-high-
energy cosmic rays is non-uniform.
This is a fundamental discovery. In
the next few years our data will permit
us to identify the exact source of these
cosmic rays and how they accelerate
these particles. These enormously
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1548
energetic particles are very rare, but
they pack a real punch. We have
taken a big step forward in solving the
mystery of nature and origin of the
highest-energy cosmic rays”, says
Professor Cronin, the leader of the
research group.
This discovery is a major step
towards understanding some of the
most extreme processes in the uni-
verse.
Interceptor Missile
Defence : A Great
Success
In a test, carried out on Decem-
ber 6, 2007, a new, fully solid inter-
ceptor missile developed by the
Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) successfully
destroyed a Prithvi missile fired five
minutes earlier. The interceptor
named, Advanced Air Defence (AAD-
02), homed on to the target missile,
though the latter climbed five kilo-
metres higher than the expected alti-
tude. Interception was just like
hitting a bullet with a bullet. The
interceptor scored a ‘direct hit’ and
destroyed the target missile over the
Bay of Bengal. The interceptor cros-
sed the target missile at the correct
point. The target missile went into
fragments thereafter.
A milestone : The trajectories of the tar-
get missile and the interceptor missile
and the interception point on display
on the consoles of the Mission Control
Centre at Wheeler Island, off the Orissa
coast. (Right) : The interceptor missile
roaring off from Wheeler Island.
It is a single-stage missile, powe-
red by solid propellants. It is 7·5
metres tall and weighs around 1·2
tonnes. It had a diameter of less than
0·5 metre. Data showed that the radio-
frequency seeker, used for the first
time against ballistic missile, had
acquired the target in real time, while
the homing guidance too worked
perfectly. The new technologies used
in AAD-02 included electro-mechani-
cal acurators, homing guidance, the
inertial navigation system, unique
rocket motors with high specific
impulse and specially developed jet
vanes for control of the interceptor
during the boost phase.
This success has boosted the
confidence of the scientists in net-
working the array radars, optics, com-
mand, control and communication
systems to track an incoming missile
in real time, validate all the software
computation and send the command
to the seeker to home in on the tar-
get. The mission signified the DRDO’s
capability to network massive soft-
ware with hardware actuation.
The target missile is a modified
single-stage Prithvi missile, fuelled by
liquid propellants. It is 11 metres tall
and weighs 5 tonnes. Its diameter is
one metre.
In April 2008, the DRDO would
launch two interceptor missiles to
intercept a single incoming target
missile in both exo-atmosphere (over
40 km altitude) and endo-atmosphere
(below 30 km altitude).
Our this interceptor missile (AAD-
02) is better than the PAC-3 (Patriod
Advanced Capability) of the U.S. in
terms of range and altitude. The direct
hit compared very well with the PAC-
3 in terms of accuracy.
Neighbouring Pakistan has in its
armoury a range of missiles that can
carry nuclear warheads. With a 700
kg. payload, it is estimated that the
Ghaznavi could have a range of about
350 km, the Shaheen-1 of about 495
km, the Ghauri of over 920 km and
the Shaheen-2 of more than 1100
km. The longer the range of missile,
the faster the warhead is propelled
and the more difficult become the
problems of interception. India’s
unease with so many dangerous mis-
siles right next door, and that too in a
country showing alarming signs of
instability, explains its eagerness to
have some form of defence against
these missiles. So an impenetrable
missile shield against a nuclear-
armed neighbour is a very tall order
indeed.
Rapid Acceleration in
Human Evolution
Humans are evolving more
quickly than at any time in history. In
the past 5,000 years, humans have
evolved up to 100 times more quickly
than any time since the split with the
ancestors of modern chimpanzees 6
million years ago. This research is
carried out by a team of researcher of
University of Wisconsin led by Pro-
fessor Hawks.
In fact, people today are geneti-
cally more different from people living
5,000 years ago. The genetic changes
have related to numerous different
human characteristics. The research
also suggests that human races in
different parts of the world are becom-
ing more genetically distinct, although
this is likely to reverse in future as
populations become mixed.
The changes have been driven
by the colossal growth in the human
population—from a few million to 6·5
billion in the past 10,000 years—with
people mixing into new environments
to which they needed to adapt.
The researchers analysed data
from the international haplotype map
of the human genome, and analysed
genetic markers in 270 people from
four groups Han Chinese, Japanese,
Africa’s Yoruba and northern Euro-
peans. They found that at least 7 per
cent of the human genes undergone
recent evolution. The changes include
lighter skin and blue eyes in northern
Europe and partial resistance to
disease such as malaria among some
African populations, according to the
research published in the Proceed-
ings of the National Academy of
Sciences, Washington.
Many Chinese and African adults
cannot digest lactose in milk, but
across Europe a lactose-tolerance
gene is now widespread. The surge
in global population has also led to
faster evolution since more mutations
occur.
The central finding is that human
evolution is happening very fast–
faster than any of us thought. Most of
the acceleration is in the last 10,000
years, basically corresponding to
population growth after agriculture is
invented.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1550
Rover Probes ‘Mars was now, the rocks that Spirit has exa-
Habitable’ mined have largely been volacanic
NASA’s Mars rover, ‘Spirit’, has
proved an invaluable science tool,
turning up evidence of a once habit-
able environment. Meanwhile, images
from Mars Reconnaissance orbiter
have largely unravelled the mystery
of geological patterns called ‘Spiders’
that appear around each spring of
south pole. ‘Spirit’ rover is cracking open the rock
basalt. Whichever conditions produ-
ced it, this concentration of silica is
probably the most significant dis-
covery by Spirit rover for revealing a
habitable niche that existed on Mars
in the past.
Stem Cells Developed
from Skin Cells
New Find : Images from the Mars
orbiter help unravel mystery of patterns Stem cells are the versatile cells
called ‘spiders’ around its south pole that have the ability to grow into any
kind of tissue—skin, heart, liver, any
In November 2007, the scien-
organ. These are precursor cells that
tists noticed a bright spot in the trail of
overturned dirt. They turned ‘Spirit’ can give rise to multiple tissue types.
around for a closer look, finding high Stem cells have a remarkable poten-
levels of silica, the main ingredient of tial to develop into different cells types
window glass. Then they aimed the within the body. Serving as a sort of
rover at a nearby rock, wanting to repair system, they can divide without
break it apart to determine if the silica limit to replenish other cells for as
was just a surface coating or if the long as a person or animal is alive.
rock was silica all the way through.
As per instruction by the scientists, a
rock was cracked open by the Spirit’s
charge. The interior of that rock,
which the scientists in formally named
‘Innocent Bystander’, turned out to be
rich in silica.
On Earth, such high concentra-
tions of silica can form in only two
places : a hot spring where the silica
is dissolved away and deposited
elsewhere or a fumarole, an environ-
ment often near a volcano, where
acidic stream rises through cracks.
Pluripotent : A scientific team from the
The acids dissolve other minerals,
University of Wisconsin-Madison crea-
leaving mostly silica. On Earth both
ted genetic modifications in skin cells,
environments team with life. Spirit’s
twin ‘opportunity’, which has been pictured here, to induce the cells into
what scientists call a pluripotent state—
exploring a spot on the other side of a condition that is essentially the same
Mars, has found the evidence of an as that of embryonic stem cells. Resear-
environment once steeped in acidic chers reported on November 20, 2007,
ground water. The discovery of silica that they have transformed ordinary
for the first time is the evidence that human skin cells into batches of cells
Spirit has been signs of widespread that look and act like embryonic stem
water in its surroundings, a 90 mile- cells—but without using cloning tech-
nology and without making embryos.
wide impact crater known as Gusev
Crater. Stem cells have two important
Gusev was chosen as landing characteristics that distinguish them
site because it looks as if it were once from other cells. When a stem cell
a lake with what appears to be river divides, each ‘daughter’ cell can either
channels flowing away from it. But, till (Continued on Page 1556 )
 AWARDS
Nano National Award—C.N.R.
Rao, Chairman, Science Advisory
Council to the Prime Minister and
Honorary President of Jawaharlal
Centre for Advanced Scientific
Research (JNCASR) was conferred
the first Nano National Award for his
outstanding achievements and
sustained works in the field of
nanotechnology.
Business Leader Award, 2007
—CNBC-TV 18 has announced the
winners of the India Business Leader
Awards 2007. Business Leader Award
winners are—Mukesh Ambani
(Reliance Group), Ratan Tata (Tata
Group) and Indra Nooyi (PepsiCo).
CNBC-TV also celebrated the spirit of
enterprise of leaders in fields such as
politics and entertainment by recog-
nising Pranab Mukherjee and Shah
Rukh Khan.
Asian Television Award—
Television journalist Karan Thapar is
awarded the Asian Television Award
for the ‘Best Current Affairs
Presenter’ in Asia in Singapore. Mr.
Thapar is the only South Asian
anchor to have ever won the award.
He won this award for his ‘Devil’s
Advocate’ series on CNN-IBN.
International Children’s Peace
Prize, 2007—A 16-year-old girl of
Zambia won the 2007 International
Children’s Peace Prize for her efforts
to help educate children in Zambia.
The Award includes Euro (€) 1,00,000
grant. The winner, Thandiwe Chama,
is from Lusaka. When she was eight,
she began lobbying for better school
facilities after her school was closed
because of shortage of teachers.
Atmaram Prize—President
Pratibha Patil gave away the presti-
gious Atmaram Prize for developing
scientifc technical literature in Hindi to
Mahendra Madhup of Jaipur. Dr.
Madhup has specialisation in agri-
culture and edits a monthly journal
‘Sharad Krishi’.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1551
FIFA World Player of the Year
Award 2007—Brazil’s midfielder,
‘Kaka’ (25), completed a virtual sweep,
on December 18, 2007 in Zurich, by
winning FIFA’s World Player of the
Year Award, 2007.
For Kaka, it is third accolade this
year; he also won European football’s
Golden Ball and World Soccer
magazine’s Player of the Year Award.
BCCI’s Award 2007—India’s top
cricketers—men and women—figured
in the Board of Control for Cricket in
India’s Awards 2007 function held in
Mumbai on December 16, 2007. Nari
Contractor was honoured with
Lifetime Achievement Award.
The awardees are—
Lifetime achievement award—
Nari Contractor, Rs. 15 Lakh.
Polly Umrigar award for out-
standing performance in inter-
national cricket—Sachin Tendulkar,
Rs. 5 lakh.
Best performance in domestic
cricket—Mumbai Cricket Association
(Trophy).
Felicitation award to Arjuna
Award winners—Anju Jain and
Anjum Chopra.
ICC Woman cricketer of 2007—
Jhulan Goswami, Rs. 1 lakh.
Felicitation awards—Sachin
Tendulkar (for crossing 11,000 runs in
Test cricket and 15,000 runs in ODIs);
Rahul Dravid (for crossing 10,000
runs in ODIs); Anil Kumble (for cros-
sing 550 wickets in Tests and being
appointed captain of the Indian team).
Madhavrao Scindia award for
the highest run-getter in Ranji
Trophy 2007—Robin Uthappa, Rs. 1
lakh.
Madhavrao Scindia award for
the highest wicket-taker in Ranji
Trophy 2007—Ranadeb Bose, Rs. 1
lakh.
M. A. Chidambaram Trophy for
the best under-15 player—Mandeep
Singh (Punjab), Rs. 50,000.
M. A. Chidambaram Trophy for
the best under-17 player—K. Ajay
Rana (Himachal Pradesh), Rs.
50,000.
M. A. Chidambaram Trophy for
the best under-19 player—Ajinkya
Rahane (Mumbai), Rs. 50,000.
M. A. Chidambaram Trophy for
the best under-22 player—A. S. Bali
(Delhi), Rs. 50,000.
M. A. Chidambaram Trophy for
the best woman cricketer—Jaya
Sharma, Rs. 50,000—Special Corre-
spondent.
Anand and Dola honoured—
Government of India awarded a cash
amount of Rs. 10 lakh each to
Vishwanathan Anand and Dola
Banerjee in appreciation of their out-
standing achievements. Anand won
the World Chess Championship in
Mexico City, while Dola won Archery
World Cup Finals in women’s recurve
division in Dubai.
BOOKS
Indian Clerk—David Leavitt (The
book is packed with informations,
insights and historical facts about
Ramanujan. For the story of
Ramanujan, the ordinary clerk from
Madras in colonial India, whose extra-
ordinary mathematical genius would
take him to Cambridge and catapult
him to immortality in a white men’s
world, is no less intriguing that the
academic politics of the time).
India’s New Middle Class—
Leela Fernandes (The book is a
courageous attempt at researching a
subject, the new Indian Middle Class,
which is intrinsically problematic and
intractable, at both the conceptual
and empirical levels).
From Jinnah to Jihad—Arvin
Bahi (Pakistan’s Kashmir quest and
the limits of realism).
Globalization and Develop-
ment—Ashwini Deshpande (A hand-
book of new perspectives).

DAYS
January 12—National Youth Day
January 21—Army Day
January 26—Republic Day, Inter-
national Customs Day
January 30—Martyr’s Day
PERSONS IN THE NEWS
Dmitry Medvedev (Next Russian
President)—President Vladimir Putin
of Russia has made his choice of
successor to lead Russia after he
steps down in March 2008 : his
trusted ally and close associate of 17
years, First Deputy Prime Minister
Dmitry Medvedev, will run for Presi-
dent in the March 2, 2008 election.
The United Russian Party formally
named his as its candidate. The fact
that Mr. Medvedev is Mr. Putin’s
chosen successor renders the presi-
dential election a one-horse race. Mr.
Putin is leaving to his successor a
resurgent country with a roaring
economy, a restored global role and a
stable political system—a solid basis
for the further rejuvenation of the
Russian Federation.
Putting their Heads Together : Russian
President Vladimir Putin (Right) with
First Deputy Prime Minister Dmitry
Medvedev.
Vikram Pandit (New CEO of Citi-
group—World’s Largest Bank)—
Nagpur born NRI, Vikram Pandit (50)
may have taken over as the CEO of
the Citigroup in the middle of its worst
crisis and many see it as a rescue
mission. He had joined Citigroup only
a few months ago.
Vikram Pandit replaces Charles
‘O’ Chuck Prince-III, who was forced
out of the bank in November 2007.
Charles had reported bank’s loss of $
17 billion amid a massive financial
crisis. Pandit is an ex-Morgan Stanley
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1552
president. He is the first person of
Indian origin to scale such stratopheric
heights in the financial world.
Challenging Job : Vikram Pandit, new
CEO of Citigroup.
Citigroup has operations in more
than 100 countries, with 3,00,000
employees and $ 2 trillion in assets.
Lal Krishna Advani—Bhartiya
Janata Party on December 10, 2007
announced that senior leader and
Leader of the Opposition in the Lok
Sabha, L. K. Advani, will be its Prime
Ministerial candidate in the next Lok
Sabha election. This brings to an end
of a perceived leadership tussle in the
party. 2007 has been the year of
caution and political correctness for
the Prime Minister in waiting. He
might be all of 80 years old–five years
older than the Congress incumbent—
but he is fit octogenarian with plenty
of fight in him. It will be costly if not
fatal, for the BJP’s political opponents
to underestimate the strategy, tactics
and mobilisational capabilities of the
Shadow Prime Minister. Mr. Advani’s
nomination is a significant move on
nation’s political chessboard.
Indians living in South-East Asia
Myanmar: 25,00,000
Thailand: 90,000
Vietnam: 299
India
Cambodia: 300
Malaysia: 20,50,000
Singapore : 4,00,000
Indian Ocean
Indonesia: 82,000
Source: Lok Sabha Unstarred Question # 5740
PLACES IN THE NEWS
Malaysia—Indians were brought
to Malaysia by Britons as indentured
labour to work in rubber plantations.
At present Indian minority constitutes
8% of Malaysia’s total population. 50
years ago, Britain granted indepen-
dence to Malaysia. Most of Indian
Malaysians are Tamilians.
Bilateral relations between India
and Malaysia have been excellent.
But India and Indians were well within
their rights to communicate their quiet
over Malaysia’s harsh handling of
political demonstrations by Malaysian
Indians with legitimate grievances. The
demonstrators, were met with tear
gas shells and water cannons and are
now facing serious criminal charges,
were protesting the failure of colonial
Britain, at the time of Malaysian
independence, to protect the rights of
ethnic Indians. Organised under the
umbrella of the Hindu Rights Action
Force (Hindraf) they were trying to
link their ‘marginalisation’ in Malaysia
directly to that failure. There is little
doubt about Indian Tamils being a dis-
advantaged ethnic group or minority in
Malaysia. They have their longstand-
ing grievances. These include the
absence of equal opportunities for
minorities, affirmative action in favour
of majority Malay, a bigoted unofficial
policy of temple demolition and the
increasing adoption of laws based on
Sharia.
Malaysia, a dynamic economic
performer, needs seriously to address
and resolve issues of equality, discri-
mination and minority rights.
Philippines: 50,000
Ocean
KBK
 Dantewada (Chhattisgarh)—The manner, in which
300 prisoners detained in Dantewada jail escaped, points
to an enormous security lapse—one caused by dangerous
mix of negligence and incompetence. It is shocking that
so many detenus—over 100 of them either naxalites or
their sympathisers—could have fled in a operation that
lasted just 15 minutes. It is specially outrageous that such
an incident could have occurred in a maximum-security
prison such as Dantewada, that it was pulled off without
any apparent help from the outside.

The pre-meditated strike took place around 4·35 p.m.

when a naxalite commander Sujit Kumar over-powered a
guard and snatched his weapon. Then he fired and injured
three guards. The naxal inmates snatched six rifles and a
wireless set before fleeing.

Protecting the Climate at Bali—The conference of

the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) held in Bali (Indonesia) overcame considerable
wrangling and produced the Bali Action Plan, a basis but
promising road map to 2009, when major economies must
decide on new actions to reduce greenhouse gas
emissions. All countries will need bold initiatives on
emission cuts beyond 2012, when existing Kyoto Protocol
commitments expire. Bali resolution accepts the scientific
evidence and emphasises the ‘urgency’ for combating
climate change.
Developed nations as per Bali plan, adopt ‘‘measur-
able, reportable and verifiable emission limits and reduc-
tions’’, while developing countries can emphasise mitiga-
tion rather than emission reduction. The U.S., which emits
the most Green-house Gases (GHGs) and i s a Kyoto
Sceptic, obviously felt compelled to endorse the Bali plan
under global moral pressure.
UNFCCC has agreed, as part of the road map, to
help, protect and expand forests through special funding.
This provision can fund forestry schemes and generate
income for rural and tribal communities.
29th SAARC Ministers Meeting—SAARC Council of
Ministers signed the declaration of the meeting in New
Delhi on December 7, 2007. The meeting resolved to

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1553

operationalise the SAARC Develop-
ment Fund, initially on the basis of
India’s unilateral commitment of $ 100
million. The fund was envisaged to
have a corpus of $ 300 million and
India had made the offer even before
the fund was conceptualised. The
amount would be earmarked for social
projects.
The meeting also saw a SAARC
declaration on climate change. The
declaration said the way forward must
include provision of adequate
resources to tackle climate change
without detracting from the funds for
development effective access and
funding assistance for transfer of
environment-friendly technologies
and adoption of binding GHG (Green-
house Gas emission) reduction com-
mitment by developed countries with
effective timeframes.
SPORTS
1,160 Flats in Commonwealth
Games Villages—The Delhi Develop-
ment Authority has declared that it
will build a residential complex of 1,160
flats in the Commonwealth Games
Village to accommodate athletes
coming over to participate in the
events in 2010. The Games Village is
being built on the Yamuna river bed
near the mammoth Akshardham
Temple in East Delhi.
Cricket
Cricket is included in Olympic
Games after 100 years—The Inter-
national Cricket Council (ICC) has
welcomed the decision by the Inter-
national Olympic Committee (IOC) to
return cricket into the Olympic Move-
ment after a gap of more than 100
years. This will lead to closer colla-
boration between the ICC and IOC.
Cricket is already a part of Asian
Games programme and will be seen
in the 2010 Guangzhou Games.
Gary Kirsten is India’s new
coach—BCCI on December 5, 2007
confirmed the appointment of former
South African
cricketer, Gary
Kirsten, as India’s
new coach. His
tenure will be for
two years starting
since March 1,
2008. Gary will be
with Indian team in Gary Kirsten
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1554
Australia as a consultant for a couple victory in the A1GP at the Zhuhai
of weeks probably after the second International Circuit in China on
test match. December 16, 2007. He staved off a
stiff challenge from New Zealand’s
Jaysuriya quits Test Cricket—
Jonny Reid to post his maiden A1GP
Sri Lanka’s highest scorer in both
forms of cricket, Sanath Jaisuriya,
declared to retire from Test cricket.
Jaisuriya’s 6,973 runs from 110 Tests
and 12,207 runs in 403 one-dayers
are the highest by any Sri Lankan
batsman. This 38 year old left-hander
batsman has also claimed 97 Test
and 307 one-day wickets with his left
arm spin.
Murali is the highest wicket-
taker—Sri Lankan spinner Muttiah
Muralitharan broke Shane Warne’s
all-time test wickets record of 708
during the first Test against England
in Kandy on December 3, 2007.
Proud Moment : Narain Karthikeyan
India-Pakistan Test series—
feature race victory. It was Narain’s
India triumphed in a home Test series first podium finish after a gap of nearly
against Pakistan after 27 years with a three-and-a-half years in any form of
1-0 verdict in the three—Test Indian racing. Narain comes from Coimba-
Oil series. tore.
Bad light helped Pakistan hold Final standings (Top five) :
on for a draw as Indian captain Anil Feature race—(1) Narain Karthikeyan
Kumble threatened to pull his side to (India) 1 : 0830·759, (2) Jonny Reid
victory with a burst of wickets on the (New Zealand) 1 : 0831·261, (3) Adrian
last day of third and final Test in
Zaugg (South Africa), (4) Michael
Bangalore on December 12, 2007.
Ammermüller (Germany), (5) Oliver
Leg-spinner Kumble took five for Jarvis (Great Britain).
60 off 14 overs after setting Pakistan
●●●
an unlikely victory target of 374 from
48 overs, but the light intervened with
the tourists clinging on at 167 for UPKAR’S
seven.
India-Australia series—Indian
cricket team is now in Australia.
Skipper Anil Kumble and Harbhajan
Singh are the lone spinners in Indian
side which lacks a left-arm spinner.
Major P. N. Joshi (Retd.)
Pathan is the only all-rounder. Dinesh
Rs. 105/-
Karthik and Sehwag are the openers.
M. S. Dhoni and Karthik are the
batsman wicket keepers.
By
The Squad
Code 916
Anil Kumble (Capt.), M. S. Dhoni
(Vice-Capt.), Waseem Jaffer, Dinesh
Karthik, Virendra Sehwag, Rahul Dravid,
Sachin Tendulkar, Saurabh Ganguly,
V.V.S. Laxman, Yuvraj Singh, Irfan
Pathan, Harbhajan Singh, Zaheer Khan, It Includes
R. P. Singh, Ishant Sharma and Pankaj
Singh.
❖ Intelligence Tests ❖ Psycho-
logical Tests ❖ GTO’s Tests
Motor Race ❖ The Interviews Techniques
❖ Pilot’s Aptitude Tests
A1GP Motor Race—Narain
Karthikeyan (31) drove Team India to UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2

“Hardwork, better understanding of exam.
pattern, Blessings of God and family members
are the main elements of my success.”
[‘Competition Science Vision’ arranged an exclusive interview with Sri Lokesh Kumar Garg who
has the credit of being selected in BHU (Med.) and in nearly half a dozen other institutes. For his
brilliant success, he deserves all praise and our heartiest congratulations. This important interview is
presented here in its original form.]
CSV—Congratulations on your
brilliant success.
Lokesh—Thank you, sir.
CSV—Before knowing your result
what did you think about those who
achieve top positions ?
Lokesh—My opinion about
toppers has always been that they are
sincere, hard-working, determined and
keep the faith in God and themselves.
CSV—Achieving top position has
come as a surprise to you or were
you confident of achieving it ?
Lokesh—I was hopeful about my
success but I was never sure to be
selected in so many exams simul-
taneously.
CSV—What do you think is the
secret of your success ?
Lokesh—Blessings of God and
family, hardwork, never have die atti-
tude and better understanding about
pattern of exams.
CSV—In how many attempts did
you get this success ?
Lokesh—It was my first attempt
in BHU-PMT and AFMC and second
attempt in IIT-JEE, AIEEE, CBSE-
PMT and MP-PMT.
CSV—What were the shortcom-
ings in your preparation in the earlier
attempts ? How did you make up for
them this time ?
Lokesh—In earlier attempts, I
was not prepared for facing com-
petitive exams. This attempt was quite
to the point.
CSV—From where did you get
the inspiration of choosing a medical
career ?
Lokesh—From my father and my
friends.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1555
Inspiring Young Talent
Topper BHU (Med.) Rank 22, 2007
CSV—From when did you start
the preparation for it ?
Lokesh—I had started my pre-
paration two months after the board
exam of 12th class.
……Competition Science Vision
is a standard magazine and a
‘must read’ for medical aspirants.
Its each issue is prepared accord-
ing to the latest pattern of exams.
—Lokesh
CSV—What planning did you
make for preparation ? Please tell
something in detail.
Lokesh—Initially I tried to under-
stand the basic concepts of the
subject and completed topics one by
one with patience. I didn’t get nervous
and bettered my position gradually.
CSV—How much time did you
devote daily and regularly for Physics,
Chemistry, Zoology and Botany ?
Lokesh—I never stick to the strict
time division according to subjects.
One should read according to the
necessity of topic and practice rotation
of subjects to avoid boredom. Apart
from PCB, I also gave some time for
Mathematics.
CSV—Out of the above four
subjects, to which subject did you give
more weightage and why ?
—Lokesh Kumar Garg
Lokesh—I put more weightage
on Physics as it is the subject in which
you can make difference with other
candidates specially in medical
entrance exams.
CSV—Did you make complete
study of all the topics or of some
selective topics ?
Lokesh—Complete study of all
the topics is always better. But I
focussed more on topics having more
weightage in exams. Furthermore,
paper of CBSE-PMT mains require
selective intensive study.
CSV—How did you give final
touches to your preparation ?
Lokesh—At the completion of
syllabus, I gave many mock tests and
revised formulae for Chemistry and
Physics. For Biology, I read important
topics many times from NCERT book.
CSV—Did you prepare notes ?
Lokesh—Yes, I prepared short
notes by writing all concepts and
formulae of topic at the end of
chapter.
Bio-Data
Name—Lokesh Kumar Garg
Father’s Name—Sri P.L. Garg
Mother’s Name—Smt. Uma Garg
Educational Qualifications—
H.S./Std. X—89·6% (J.N.V. Hatta,
Madhya Pradesh), 2004.
Inter/Std. XII—75·6% (J.N.V. Hatta,
Madhya Pradesh), 2006.
Special Achievements—
● BHU-PMT (Mains)—AIR 22
● Selected in AFMC (written,
interview, physical)
● MP-PMT—Rank 73
● CBSE-PMT—AIR 2352
● IIT-JEE—AIR 3396
● AIEEE—AIR 7100
● State Rank—354
 CSV—What was your attitude for
solving numerical questions ? What
weightage did you give them ?
Lokesh—I used to proceed step
by step for such questions. Making
small diagram is also helpful. You
should remember proper formula and
apply it with proper units.
CSV—How much time is suffi-
cient for preparing for this examina-
tion ?
Lokesh—I think, one year of
dedicated study is enough to clear
any medical entrance exam.
Personal Qualities
Hobbies—Cricket, Philately
Ideal Person—Dr. A.P.J. Abdul
Kalam
Strong Point—My emotions
Weak Point —I am too introvert
CSV—From what level of educa-
tion should an aspirant begin prepa-
ring for it ?
Lokesh—In ideal conditions, one
should start his preparation imme-
diately after 10th class.
CSV—Please mention various
books in each subject and magazines
on which you based your prepara-
tion ?
Lokesh—I mainly relied on
coaching notes and Pradeep’s books
for preparation. In magazines, I read
CSV regularly.
CSV—Did you take coaching in
your preparation ?
Lokesh—Yes, I took coaching at
ALLEN Career Institute, Kota.
CSV—What help do the science
magazines render in the preparation
for this examination ?
Lokesh—These magazines pro-
vide vital guidelines and useful facts
for aspirants.
CSV—What will be your criterion
for selecting a magazine for these
examinations ?
Lokesh—Magazine should be
state-of-art to the latest pattern of
exams.
CSV—What is your opinion about
our Competition Science Vision ? How
much helpful and useful do you find
it ?
Lokesh—CSV is standard maga-
zine and a ‘must read’ for medical
aspirants. I read interviews of toppers
in CSV and found these so much
energetic and helpful.
CSV—Please suggest in what
way CSV can be made more useful
for medical aspirants.
Lokesh—I think, CSV should be
made more useful by publishing more
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1556
short-tricks and memorizing tech-
niques in it.
CSV—Please mention your posi-
tion in the merit list as well as the
marks obtained in different subjects.
What was your aggregate percentage
of marks ?
Lokesh— BHU-PMT (Mains)
Physics—78
Chemistry—64
Zoology—64
Botany—65
Total Marks—250
Percentage—67·75%
AIR—22
IIT-JEE
Score—247
AIR—3396
AIEEE
Score—226
AIR—7100
State Rank—354
MP-PMT
Rank—73
Physics + Chemistry = 90·82
Biology = 90·00
180·82
Percentage = 90·41%
CSV—What books/magazines/
newspapers did you read for G.K.
preparations ?
Lokesh—I read newspapers
(Times of India) regularly.
CSV—To whom would you like
to give the credit for your success ?
Lokesh—I give full credit to my
loving parents and teachers who
gave me support and courage to crack
the exams.
CSV—Please tell us something
about your family.
Lokesh—My father is a lecturer
and mother is a housewife.
CSV—What in your frank opinion
has been the biggest mistake in your
preparation for this test ?
Lokesh—As I joined IIT Roorkee,
I think I should have chosen only one
stream, either Maths or Bio.
CSV—What message would you
like to give for our readers of CSV ?
Lokesh—Read only standard
text. Make your study circle. Improve
your receptive power. Be honest
toward yourself. Your family and the
God. Always put your cent-per cent
efforts.
●●●
(Continued from Page 1550 )
remain as an unspecialized cell that
can renew itself for long periods
through cell division, or under certain
physiological or experimental condi-
tions can be induced to become
specialised cell like the beating cell of
a heart, muscle or an insulin-produc-
ing cell of the pancreas, a red blood
cell or even a brain cell. Scientists
primarily work with two kinds of stem
cells from animals and human :
embryonic and adult stem cells.
For treating incurable and gene-
tic diseases, there is extreme shor-
tage of stem cells.
Solar System is not
Round but Dented
NASA’s Voyager-2 spacecraft
has found that our solar system is not
round but is ‘dented’ by the local
intersteller magnetic field of deep
space. The data was gathered by the
spacecraft on its 30 year journey into
the edge of the solar system when it
crossed into a sweeping region called
the Termination shock. It showed
that the southern hemisphere of the
solar system’s heliosphere is being
pushed in or ‘dented’.
Brought to Light : The southern hemi-
sphere of the solar system’s helios-
phere is ‘dented’
Voyager-2 is the second space-
craft to enter this region of the solar
system, behind Voyager-1, which
entered the northern region of helio-
seath. The Termination shock is
turbulent area far beyond the Pluto’s
orbit where the solar winds emanat-
ing from the sun are significantly
slowed as they run up against the thin
gas of intersteller space.
Solar winds blow in all directions
from our sun, and shape what was
once thought to be a bubble around
the solar system called the helio-
sphere.
‘Voyager-2’ entered the Termi-
nation Sock almost one billion miles
closer within the southern hemi-
sphere of the heliosphere of the solar
system than Voyager-1 previously
had.
●●●
 14. What is the electronic configuration of sodium ?
Physics ➠ Na (Atomic number = 11) 1s2 2s2 2p 6 3s1
→
15. At any point on the equatorial line, the dipole field E
1. Zero vector or null vector is a vector which has zero is
magnitude and an arbitrary direction. It is represented ➠ In the direction opposite to that of
as →
→ dipole moment p
➠ 0 16. Latent heat of ice is 3·34 × 105 J/kg. Express it in
2. What is the forbidden energy gap for a diamond cal/gm
crystal ? 3·34 × 105
➠ 6 eV ➠ L = 3·34 × 105 J/kg = 103
J/gm
3. The equilibrant and the resultant vectors are 3·34 × 105
➠ Equal in magnitude but opposite in direction = cal/gm = 80 cal/gm
103 × 4·2
4. NOR gate is a combination of
17. The amount of work required to reverse an electric
➠ OR and NOT gates dipole from the direction of electric field is
5. If the horizontal range of a projectile for two angles α ➠ 2 pE
and β is the same, then α + β should be equal to 18. The kinetic energy of an ideal gas at absolute zero
➠ 90°° is
6. What is 1 coulomb equal to in electrostatic units ? ➠ Zero
➠ 1 coulomb = 3 × 109 e.s.u. 19. Assuming earth to be a spherical conductor of radius
6400 km, its capacitance will be
7. If the greatest height to which you can throw a ball is
h, then what is the maximum horizontal distance to ➠ 711 µF
which you throw the ball ? 20. What does F × v represent ?

[ v2 v2
➠ 2h Note : h = 2g ‚ Rmax = g = 2h ] Distance Work
➠ F × v = Force × Time = Time = Power
8. What is International Ampere ?
➠ The International Ampere is that unvary-
ing current which will deposit 0·0011183 Chemistry
grams of silver per second from a solu-
tion of silver nitrate of a specified nature
21. The property of O 2 molecules which is almost
in cell of given specifications.
identical to that of Xe atom is
9. Two balls are thrown with same initial velocity at
➠ Ionization energy
angles 25° and 45° with the horizontal. Which ball will
22. The relation between standard free energy change
come to the ground earlier ?
and equilibrium constant is as
➠ The ball thrown at 25°°
➠ ∆G°° = – 2·303 RT log Kc
[Note : Time of flight is proportional to
23. The gas which diffuses fastest through glass and
sin θ when v and g are constant]
plastic materials is
10. What is a low frequency choke ?
➠ Helium
➠ It is an iron core inductor and is appli-
cable for frequency 50 Hz. It is used in 24. The function of a system which takes both enthalpy
the filter circuit of the rectifier. and entropy into account is called
11. The net charge of an electric dipole is ➠ Free energy
➠ Zero 25. The sorption of hydrogen by metals is termed as
12. Calculate the diameter of the K orbit of He. ➠ Occlusion
n2 1 ° 26. First organic compound (Carbamide) was prepared
➠ r = 0·529 × Z = 0·529 × 2 ⇒ 2r = 0·529 A
by heating a mixture of two inorganic salts
13. The S. I. unit of electric dipole moment p is ➠ Potassium cyanate + Ammonium sulphate
➠ Cm (coulomb-metre) 27. The balance which is used for magnetic measure-
[Note : It is not mC which represents milli ments of compounds is known as
coulomb] ➠ Gouy balance

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1557

28. A vitamin whose deficiency causes lengthening the
time of blood clotting is
➠ Vitamin K
29. The movement of ions from a sol across the mem-
brane can be expedited by applying electrical field
and this process is called
➠ Electrodialysis
30. When chlorobenzene is heated with chloral in pre-
sence of conc. H2SO4, the product formed is—
➠ pp ′ dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane or D.D.T.
31. A salt whose aqueous solution is used in marking
linen, is
➠ Silver nitrate (AgNO3)
32. When methanol is heated with salicylic acid, in pre-
sence of conc. H2SO4, the product is known as
➠ Methyl salicylate or oil of winter green
33. A solid substance in which certain physical properties
are different in different directions is termed as
➠ Anisotropic
34. The process which is used to make iron soft and
ductile is known as
➠ Annealing
35. An apparatus used for measuring the change in
volume of gases during chemical reactions is known
as
➠ Eudiometer
36. For isoelectronic species as the positive charge
increases, the size
➠ Decreases
37. The process of removing an adsorbed material from
an adsorbent by washing it in a liquid is known as
➠ Elution
38. Organic liquids which have very high boiling point or
those which decompose at or below their boiling
points can be purified by
➠ Vacuum distillation
39. A trade name of an aluminium-based alloy of high
reflectivity for light and UV radiation which contains
1-2% Cu and 5–30% Mg, is
➠ Magnelium
40. A synthetic rubber obtained by co-polymerisation of
butadiene and styrene in presence of Na is known as
➠ Buna-S
Zoology
41. What is called an artery in mammals that arise from
an arch of the aorta and divides to form the right
carotid and right subclavian arteries ?
➠ Innominate artery
42. Which term is designated to the maintenance of inter-
nal conditions ?
➠ Homeostasis
43. What is called a movement response to air or water
current ?
➠ Rheotaxis
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1558
44. What kind of RNA is involved in protein synthesis ?
➠ Messenger RNA
45. Which enzyme is involved in light production in certain
insects ?
➠ Luciferase
46. By which process, glucose diffuses rapidly across the
plasma membrane ?
➠ Facilitated diffusion
47. What is called a square grid that shows all the pos-
sible genotypes of the progeny, resulting from a mat-
ing between organisms with known genotypes ?
➠ Punnet square
48. Which kind of base sequences of eukaryotic genes
play role in protein synthesis ?
➠ Exons
49. What is called a double wrapping of DNA around
histone proteins to form a packing unit in the chromo-
some ?
➠ Nucleosome
50. By which process, the diffusion of water takes place
across a membrane ?
➠ Osmosis
51. Which lymphatic capillary in a villus of the small intes-
tine, receives fats, cholesterol and fat-soluble vita-
mins ?
➠ Lacteal
52. Which process is involved in the formation of
m-RNA ?
➠ Transcription
53. Which term is used for the capacity of the human
body to maintain stable internal condition ?
➠ Homeostasis
54. What is called the three-base sequence in m-RNA ?
➠ Codon
55. What is called an embryological connection between
the hepatic portal vein and inferior vena cava that
allows blood to bypass the foetal liver ?
➠ Ductus venosus
56. Which kind of cartilage is found in human external
pinna ?
➠ Elastic cartilage
57. Which extra embryonic membrane directly surrounds
the developing human embryo and forming a fluid-
filled protective covering ?
➠ Amnion
58. Which cells produce the matrix of cartilage ?
➠ Chondroblasts
59. Which paired male reproductive glands open into the
urethra at the base of the penis and release a buffer-
ing and lubricating fluid ?
➠ Bulbourethral glands
60. What is called the noncellular layer below the epithe-
lial cells ?
➠ Basement membrane
 Botany

61. What helps fragmentation of hypha in fungi ?

➠ Helps in multiplication
(where each fragment grows into new mycelium)
62. How many ascospores are contained in a single
ascus ?
➠ 4 or 8
63. What is called an outgrowth of micropylar end of
castor seed ?
➠ Caruncle
64. Who coined the term ‘metabolism’ for all chemical
processes carried on in cells ?
➠ Schwann
65. Why is mercury used in anaerobic respiration experi-
ment ?
➠ Because it does not react with CO2
66. What causes antiparallel nature of DNA strands ?
➠ H-bonds
67. During which phase of cell cycle protein synthesis
occurs ?
➠ Interphase
68. What type of phyllotaxy is found in Calotropis
procera ?
➠ Opposite phyllotaxy
69. Which chromosomal fragments are most often prone
to deletion ?
➠ Chromosome without centromere
70. What is called the basal part of the ligule of Selagi-
nella ?
➠ Glossopodium
71. What measures a ‘potometer’ ?
➠ Transpiration
72. What causes Synchitrium endobioticum in potato ?
➠ Wart disease of potato
73. To which category of hydrophytes does Vallisneria
belong ?
➠ Submerged hydrophyte
74. What is the botanical name of ‘Little blue stem’ ?
➠ Schyzacharium scoparium
75. Which trace element causes ‘Khaira’ disease of rice ?
➠ Zinc (Zn)
76. Which plant of pteridophyte is commonly called
‘resurrection plant’ ?
➠ Selaginella
77. Which cell organelle produces lysosomes ?
➠ Golgi apparatus
78. Which type of meristem is responsible for growth in
thickness of plant body ?
➠ Lateral meristem
79. Which kind of base sequences of eukaryotic genes
play role in protein synthesis ?
➠ Exons
80. What happens as the electrons move down the elec-
tron transport chain (ETS) ?
➠ Energy is released
●●●

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1559

 Stationary Waves Graphical Representation of Stationary
Waves
(i) When two progressive waves of equal wavelength
and amplitude moving in opposite directions in a medium
with the same speed superpose on each other, a new II
I
wave is formed that does not seem to proceed in any
direction. Such a wave is called the stationary wave. t

(ii) A stationary wave does not transmit energy in the II

medium. I
t

Important
I II
Let the wave moving in positive x-direction be represented by
2π t
y1 = a sin λ (vt –x)

and the wave moving in negative x-direction be given by II

2π I
y2 = a sin λ (vt + x) t
Then the resultant wave due to superposition is given by
y = y1 + y2
2πx 2πvt t
= 2a cos λ sin λ
2πvt
= A sin λ

(iii) The amplitude of the stationary wave is given by Characteristics of Stationary Waves
2πx
A = 2a cos (i) Some points of the medium are always stationary
λ i.e., their amplitude is zero. These are called nodes.
(iv) The points where the amplitude of the resultant
(ii) In between the nodes there are points with
wave is maximum are called the antinodes. For anti-
maximum displacements. These are called antinodes.
nodes
λ 3λ (iii) The distance between two consecutive nodes or
x = 0, , λ, , …… nearest antinodes is λ/2· The distance between a node
2 2
and the nearest antinode is λ/4·
and A = ± 2a.
(v) The points where the amplitude of the resultant (iv) Excluding nodes every point of the medium exe-
wave is minimum are called the nodes. For nodes cutes simple harmonic motion about its mean position.

λ 3λ 5λ (v) The amplitudes of all the particles of the medium

x = , , , ……
4 4 4 are not same. Amplitude at the nodes is zero and at
and A = 0. antinodes maximum.

(vi) The distance between two consecutive nodes or
antinodes is λ/2.
(vii) Stationary waves can be produced by the super-
position of both the longitudinal and transverse waves.
(viii) Longitudinal stationary waves are formed in
flutes and air columns.
(vi) All the points occurring between two nodes
vibrate in the same phase. They reach their respective
positions of maximum displacement simultaneously and
also pass through their mean position at the same time.
(vii) Like progressive waves the stationary wave do
not proceed forward.

(ix) Transverse stationary waves are formed in sono- (viii) The variations of pressure and density are maxi-
meter, sitar, gitar and strings. mum at nodes but are minimum at antinodes.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1560

 Comparison of Progressive and Stationary Waves (iii) In fig. (c), a pulse passes from a heavy spring on
the left to a light spring. Partial reflection and transmission
Progressive Waves Stationary Waves
again occur but the reflected pulse is not turned upside
1. These waves move in 1. These waves do not move down.
medium with a definite in any direction and remain
speed. confined within two boun- (iv) In fig. (d), the left-hand of the long narrow spring
daries. is fastened to a length of a thin string and is in effect free.
2. All the medium particles in 2. All the medium particles in Here almost the whole of the incident pulse is reflected
these waves vibrate with these waves, except the right way up i.e., a crest is reflected as a crest and
equal amplitude and time- nodes, vibrates with equal
no phase change occurs.
period. time-periods but different
amplitudes.
Phase Changes in Longitudinal Waves
3. The phase of each particle 3. All the particles between
changes continuously. two consecutive nodes are (i) Phase changes also occur when longitudinal
in same phase but the waves are reflected, as can be shown by sending pulses
particles on the opposite along a slinky spring to ‘denser’ and ‘less dense’ boun-
sides of the node are in daries, i.e., to fixed and free ends. At a fixed end a
opposite phase. compression is reflected as a compression, at a free it
4. None of the particles is 4. Node particles are perma- is reflected as a rarefaction.
permanently stationary. In nently stationary; the rest
(ii) Similar effects are obtained when sound waves
the position of maximum are momentarily stationary
displacement every parti- in the position of maximum are reflected in pipes with closed and open ends; a com-
cle is momentarily statio- displacement. pression is reflected as a compression at a closed end
nary. and as a rarefaction at an open end.
5. The compressions and 5. Compressions and rarefac-
rarefactions move onward tions produce alternately at
Important Points
with a definite speed. definite places.
● When a transverse wave on a spring is reflected at a
6. Same changes of pressure 6. Changes of pressure and
‘denser’ medium, there is a phase change of 180°.
and density occur at all density are maximum at
points of medium. nodes but minimum (zero) ● The phase change occurs in the case of the spring with
at antinodes. one end fixed for example, because there can be no
displacement of the fixed end, it must be a node. The
7. These waves transmit 7. These waves do not trans-
incident and reflected waves, therefore, cause equal and
every in the medium. mit energy in the medium.
opposite displacements at the fixed end so that they
superpose to give resultant zero displacement as shown
Reflection and Phase Changes in Mechanical in the figure below—
Waves Fixed end
Incident wave
The behaviour of a wave at a boundary can be
studied by sending pulses along a long narrow spring as
shown in figure below :

1 Reflected wave
Heavy spring Light spring
Fixed end
2

(a) (c) N N N N N

1 Vibrations of Air Columns

Heavy spring Light spring Light thread Spring
2
(b) (d)
(i) In fig. (a), the left-hand end of the spring is fixed
and a transverse upward pulse travelling towards it is
reflected as a trough. A phase change of 180°° or π rad
has occurred and there is a phase difference of half a
wavelength (λ/2) between the incident and reflected
pulse.
(ii) In fig. (b), the left-hand end of the spring is atta-
ched to a heavier spring and at the boundary the pulse is
partly transmitted and partly reflected, the reflected
pulse being inverted.
(i) An organ pipe is a pipe that sets in vibration the air
enclosed in it when the air is blown into it. As a result
sound is produced in it.
(ii) Organ pipes are of two types—closed end organ
pipe and open end organ pipe.
(iii) A closed end organ pipe has one of its ends
closed and the other open.
(iv) An open end organ pipe has both its ends open.
(v) In a closed end pipe a node is always formed at
the closed end and an antinode is formed at the open
end.
(vi) Longitudinal stationary waves are formed in an
organ pipe.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1561

 (vii) Various stages of resonance in a closed end This frequency is called the fundamental frequency
organ pipe are represented in the following diagrams : or the fundamental note or the first harmonic.
A A A v v
(xvi) If l = λ2 then n2 = = = 2n1.
λ2 l
N
This frequency is called the second harmonic or
N first overtone.
λ1 3λ2 5λ3 3λ3 2l v 3v
t (xvii) If l = then λ3 = ∴ n3 = = = 3n1
4 4 4 2 3
N λ3 2l
This frequency is called the third harmonic or
second overtone.
(xviii) Both the odd and even harmonics are produced
in an open end organ pipe. That is,
N N N n1 : n2 : n3 : …… : : 1 : 2 : 3 : ……
(viii) If the length of the pipe (xix) The sound emitted by an open end organ pipe is
λ1 musical.
l = then λ1 = 4l
4
v v End Correction
∴ Frequency, n1 = =
λ1 4l (i) In an organ pipe antinode is formed a bit above the
This frequency is called fundamental frequency or open end as shown below by distance e.
fundamental note or first harmonic. e A e A
3λ2 4l
(ix) If l = then λ2 =
4 3
v 3v
∴ Frequency, n2 = = = 3 n1
λ2 4l
This frequency is called third harmonic or first over-
tone.
λ λ
5λ3 4l l l N
(x) If l = then λ3 = 4 2
4 5
v 5v
∴ Frequency, n3 = = = 5n1.
λ3 4l
This frequency is called fifth harmonic or second
overtone.
(xi) Only odd harmonics can be produced in a closed
end organ pipe. That is,
N e A
n1 : n2 : n3 ! …… : : 1 : 3 : 5 : ……
(xii) Longitudinal stationary waves are formed in an (ii) The length of the vibrating air column is a little
open end organ pipe too. greater than the length of the pipe.
(xiii) The antinodes are formed at both the ends of an (iii) The distance from the free end of the pipe to the
open pipe. antinode is called the end-correction represented by e.
(xiv) Various stages of resonance in an open organ (iv) Length of air column in closed end pipe = l + e.
pipe have been represented in the following diagrams : Length of air column in open end pipe = l + 2e.
A A A (v) If r be the radius of pipe then the end-correction
e = 0·6r.
N (vi) Frequency of the fundamental note of closed end
N pipe
A
v
n1 =
λ1 3λ3 4(l + 0·6r )
l N A λ2 N
2 2 and the frequency of the fundamental note of the open
end pipe
A
v
N n2 = ·
2(l + 1·2r )
N
(vii) The frequency of the fundamental note of open
A A A end pipe is not exactly the double of that of the closed end
pipe but is a bit less.
λ1
(xv) If l = then λ1 = 2l Resonance Tube
2
v v (i) Resonance tube is a closed organ pipe with an air
∴ Frequency, n1 = =
λ1 2l column of variable length.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1562

 (ii) By resonance tube we can determine the speed of (v) If a string of length l vibrates in one loops then
sound in air and the frequency of tuning fork. λ1 = 2l and frequency
(iii) When the frequency of the air column of reso-
v 1 T
nance tube becomes equal to that of the tuning fork, n1 = = ·
2l 2l m
resonance occurs and the amplitude of vibrations of air
column becomes very large. A loud sound is heard in This frequency is called the fundamental note or
such a case. first harmonic.
A A (vi) If the string vibrates in two loops, then
λ v
l 4 λ = l and n2 = = 2n1.
N l2 N 3λ l
4
This frequency is called the first overtone or second
harmonic.
N
(vii) If the string vibrates in three loops, then
3λ3 2l
= l ⇒ λ3 =
2 3
(iv) If the lengths of air column at first and second 3v
resonance be l1 and l2 respectively, then ∴ n3 = = 3n1.
2l
λ This frequency is called the second overtone or
l1 + e =
4 third harmonic.
3λ (viii) Both the odd and even harmonics are emitted
and l2 + e =
4 from a stretched string. That is,
∴ λ = 2(l2 – l1) n1 : n2 : n3 : …… : : 1 : 2 : 3 : ……
Speed of sound v = 2n(l2 – l1)
l2 – 3l1 Laws of Transverse Vibrations in a Stretched
and end-correction e = String
2
(v) Speed of sound at 0°C is given by v 0 = v t – 0·61t 1
(i) Law of length : n ∝ ; if T and m are constant.
where v t is the speed of sound at t °C. l
(ii) Law of tension : n ∝ T ; if l and m are constant.
Vibrations of Stretched String 1
(iii) Law of mass : n ∝ ; if T and l are constant.
(i) The vibrations of a thin, long and perfectly elastic m
string are transverse stationary. 1
(ii) On both the ends of string there are nodes, and an (iv) Law of radius : n ∝ ; if T, l and the density d
r
antinode is there in the middle. of the string are constant; r being the radius of
(iii) The speed of transverse wave in a stretched string.
string is given by 1
(v) Law of density : n ∝ ; if T, l and r are con-
T d
v = stant.
m
where T and m are respectively the tension and mass per Melde’s Experiment
unit length of the string.
(iv) Modes of vibration in a stretched string are as (i) Melde’s experiment is a simple and beautiful
under : example for the demonstration of stationary waves and
l the harmonics of their transverse vibrations.
(ii) Melde’s experiment is performed by two methods.
A
N N (iii) Transverse arrangement of vibrations :

λ λ1 (a) In this arrangement the tuning fork is held such

2 2 that the direction of its vibration is perpendicular
to the direction of length of string.
N A A N
N (b) In this arrangement the frequencies of the tuning
fork and the string are equal.
λ λ
= λ2
2 2 (c) If the tension T in the string is adjusted such that
p loops are produced in the string of length l, then
N A A A N
N N p 2T = 4n 2l 2m = Constant,
λ λ λ 3λ3 where m is the mass per unit length of the string.
2 2 2 2 This is Melde’s law.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1563 / 3

 (iv) Longitudinal arrangement of vibrations : (b) In this arrangement p 2T = n 2l 2m = Constants.
(a) In this arrangement the tuning fork is held such (c) Here the frequency of string is half the frequency
that the direction of its vibration is along the
length of the string. of tuning fork.

SOME IMPORTANT SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. An open end organ pipe emits a note l = 1m

of frequency 256 Hz which its fundamental. What
T 32
would be the smallest frequency produced by a v = = = 400 ms–1
m 0·0002
closed end pipe of the same length ?
Solution : For open end organ pipe 1 T
v Also, n =
2l m
n =
2l
1
v = × 400 = 200 Hz
256 = 1×1
2l
⇒ v = 512l Example 5. The length of the sonometer wire bet-
ween two fixed ends is 100 cm. Where should the two
For closed end organ pipe
bridges be placed to divide the wire into three seg-
v 512l ments whose frequencies are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 ?
n = = = 128 Hz
4l 4l
1
Example 2. An air column with a tuning fork of Solution : In a sonometer n ∝
l
frequency 256 Hz gives resonance at column lengths
33·4 cm and 101·8 cm. Deduce (i) the end correction, Since n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 2 : 3
and (ii) the speed of sound in air. 1 1 1
l2 – 3l1 Hence, l1 : l2 : l3 = : : =6:3:2
1 2 3
Solution : (i) e =
2 6
101·8 – 3 × 33·4 ∴ l1 = × 100 = 54·54 cm
11
=
2 3
101·8 – 100·2 l2 = × 100 = 27·27 cm
= 11
2
1·6 2
= = 0·8 cm l3 = × 100 = 18·18 cm
2 11
(ii) λ = 2 (l2 – l1)2 Example 6. A tuning fork and an air column at
= 2 (101·8 – 33·4) = 136·8 cm 51°° C produce 4 beats in one second when sounded
= 1·368 m together. The same tuning produces 1 beat per second
when the temperature of the air column is reduced to
v = nλ = 256 × 1·368 = 350·2 ms–1
16°° C. Determine the frequency of the tuning fork.
Example 3. A pipe 30 cm long is open at both
ends. Which harmonic mode of the pipe is resonantly Solution : When temperature decreases, speed of
excited by a 1·1 kHz source ? v ,
sound in air also decreases. Since ν = hence n
(Given speed of sound = 330 ms–1) λ
decreases. Since the number of beats per second is less
Solution : Frequency of the nth harmonic for an open
nv at lower temperature, therefore, we conclude that the
end pipe is νn = where n = 1, 2, 3, …… v = 330 ms–1, frequency of the air column is higher than the frequency of
2l
l = 0·3 m the tuning fork.
n × 330 Let ν be the frequency of the tuning fork. Then at
∴ νn = = 550 ns–1
2 × 0·3 51°C, frequency of air column = (n + 4) where n is the
Now, 550n = 1100 frequency of the tuning fork. At 16°C, the frequency of air
⇒ n = 2 (second harmonic) column = (n + 1)
Example 4. A wire is under tension of 32N and v 51 (n + 4) λ
∴ =
length between the two bridges is 1 m. A 10 m length v 16 (n + 1) λ
of the sample of the wire has mass of 2g. Deduce the
speed of transverse waves on the wire and frequency 273 + 51 n+4
=
of the fundamental. 273 + 16 n+1
Solution : T = 32 N, n+4 324 18
⇒ = =
2 × 10–3 n+1 289 17
m = kg m–1
10 18n + 18 = 17n + 68
= 0·0002 kg m –1 ⇒ n = 50 Hz

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1564


1. The length of an organ pipe open
at both ends is 0·5 m. Calculate
the fundamental frequency of the
pipe if the speed of sound in air
is 350 m/s. If one end of the pipe
is closed, then what will be its
fundamental frequency ?
(A) 175 Hz, 350 Hz
(B) 300 Hz, 150 Hz
(C) 350 Hz, 175 Hz
(D) 150 Hz, 350 Hz
2. A resonance tube is resonated
with a tuning fork of frequency
512 s –1. Two successive lengths
of the resonated air-column are
16·0 cm and 51·0 cm. The
experiment is performed at room
temperature 40°C. Calculate the
speed of sound and end-correc-
tion at 0°C—
(A) 334 ms –1, 1·5 cm
(B) 334 ms –1, 2·1 cm
(C) 350 ms –1, 1·5 cm
(D) 350 ms –1, 2·1 cm
3. A wire of length 1·5 m under
tension emits a fundamental note
of frequency 120 Hz. (a) What
would be its fundamental fre-
quency if the length is increased
by half its length under the same
tension (b) By how much should
the length be shortened so that
the frequency is increased three-
fold ?
(A) 90 Hz, 1·0 m
(B) 80 Hz, 1·0 m
(C) 80 Hz, 0·5 m
(D) 100 Hz, 0·5 m
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
4. A string A has thrice the length,
thrice the diameter, thrice the
tension and thrice the density of
another wire B. Which overtone of
A will have the same frequency
as the fundamental of B ?
(A) 9th (B) 8th
(C) 6th (D) 10th
5. A steel rod 100 cm long is
clamped at its middle. The funda-
mental frequency of longitudinal
vibrations of the rod is given to
be 2·53 kHz. What is the speed
of sound in steel ?
(A) 2·53 km/s
(B) 253 km/s
(C) 5·06 km/s
(D) None of these
6. A pipe 20 cm long is closed at
one end. Which harmonic mode
of the pipe is resonantly excited
by a 425 Hz source ? Will this
same source be in resonance
with the pipe if both ends are
open ?
(Speed of sound = 340 ms–1)
(A) First harmonic, No
(B) Second harmonic, No
(C) Third harmonic, No
(D) None of these
7. The pitch of the fundamental tone
of an open organ pipe 66 cm long
is the same as that of a stretched
string 20 cm long vibrating trans-
versely. If the mass per unit of
the string is 0·01 kg/m. Find the
tension in the string in kg-wt—
(Speed of sound in air = 330 ms–1)
(A) 100 kg-wt (B) 102 kg-wt
(C) 15·0 kg-wt (D) 10·2 kg-wt
8. Two perfectly identical wires are
in unison. When the tension in
one wire is increased by 1%, then
on sounding together, 3 beats are
heard in 2 second. What is the
frequency of each wire ?
(A) 350 Hz (B) 256 Hz
(C) 300 Hz (D) None of these
9. Two tuning forks A and B when
sounded together give 4 beats/s.
A is unison with the note emitted
by a 0·96 m length of a sono-
meter wire under a certain
tension. B is in unison with 0·97
m length of the same wire under
the same tension. Calculate the
frequency of the fork—
(A) 388 Hz (B) 512 Hz
(C) 256 Hz (D) 540 Hz
10. Two tuning forks A and B when
sounded together give 8 beats/
sec. Fork A resonates with a
closed column of air 16 cm long
and B with an open column 32·5
cm long. Calculate their frequen-
cies—
(A) 520 Hz, 512 Hz
(B) 512 Hz, 504 Hz
(C) 256 Hz, 248 Hz
(D) None of these

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

1. (C) 2. (A) Also, 3n1 × l3 = n1l1 p 3T
3l3 = 1·5 nA =
1 T 3l × 3D π×3ρ
3. (B) v = ⇒ l3 = 0·5 m
2l m Since nA = nB , we get
The wire should be shortened by
Since T and m are constant, p = 9
1·5 – 0·5 = 1·0 m
hence i.e., 8th overtone.
1 T
n1l1 = n2l2 = n3l3 4. (B) n = λ
2l πr 2ρ 5. (C) l = = 1m
2
n2 ( )
l1 +
l1
2
= n1 l1 =
1
2lr
1
πρ
⇒ λ = 2m
3
n = n1 1 T
2 2 =
lD πρ
2 A N A
n2 = × 120
3 1 T
nB =
= 80 Hz l×D πρ (Continued on Page 1674 )

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1565

Important Concepts
Einstein’s mass energy equivalence relation—
Einstein on the basis of his relativity theory has proved
that if a substance loses an amount ∆m of its mass, an
equivalent amount ∆E of energy is produced where
∆E = (∆m) × c2
where c is the speed of light.
This is called Einsteins mass-energy relation.
In view of this the laws of conservation of mass and
the conservation of energy have been unified into a single
law which states that the total (mass + energy) of the
universe is conserved.
Atomic mass unit (amu)—The unit chosen to
express extremely small masses of atoms, nuclei and
fundamental particles (electrons, protons, neutrons etc.) is
called ‘atomic mass unit’ (amu).
1 amu is defined as one-twelfth part of the mass
of carbon (6C12) atom. This definition makes the mass of
12
6C atom exactly equal to 12·00000…amu.
The mass of 1 gm-atom of carbon is 12 gm and it
contains N = 6·02 × 1023 atoms.
1 and neutrons combine to form the nucleus, an amount of
∴ 1 amu = (mass of 1 carbon atom)
12
1 12
= ×
12 N
1
= gram
N
1 in a nucleus and energy must be supplied to the nucleus
= to separate the constituent nucleons to large distances.
6·02 × 1023
= 1·66 × 10–24 gram
= 1·66 × 10–27 kg.
Unit electron volt—Electron volt is the unit of energy.
1 electron volt is the energy which an electron
acquires when it is accelerated through a potential
difference of 1 volt.
1 eV = (1·6 × 10–19 coulomb) × 1 volt
= 1·6 × 10–19 joule
Larger units are kilo electron volt (keV), million elec-
tron volt (MeV) and billion electron volt (BeV).
1 keV = 103 eV = 1·6 × 10–16 joule
1 MeV = 106 eV = 1·6 × 10–13 joule
1 BeV = 109 eV = 1·6 × 10–10 joule
Energy equivalent to 1 amu mass—
∆E = (∆m) × c2
= (1·66 × 10–27) × (3·0 × 108)2
= 1·49 × 10–10 joule
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1566
But
1·6 × 10–19 joule = 1 electron volt (eV)
1·49 × 10–10
∴ ∆E = eV
1·6 × 10–19
= 0·931 × 109 eV
= 931 MeV (million electron volt)
∴ 1 amu = 931 MeV
Mass defect—The mass of the atomic nucleus is
slightly less than the sum of the masses of the
nucleons (i.e. protons and neutrons) present in the
nucleus. This mass difference is called mass-defect
(∆m).
Thus ∆m = (Mass of protons + Mass of neutrons)
– Mass of the nucleus
For an atom ZXA
∆m = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn] – mN
where mN is the mass of the nucleus.
The significance of mass defect is that when protons
mass ∆m disappears and an equivalent amount of energy
(∆m) × c2 is liberated. It is due to this energy that protons
and neutrons remain bound in the nucleus.
Binding energy—The nucleons are bound together
The amount of energy needed to do this is called the
binding energy of the nucleus. Thus, the binding energy
of a nucleus is the energy required to take its
nucleons away from one another.
Physical Constants
Mass of proton, mp = 1·673 × 10–27 kg
= 1·00728 amu
Mass of neutron, mn = 1·675 × 10–27 kg
= 1·00867 amu
1 amu = 931 MeV
Mass defect for α-particle (2He4)
= 0·03040 amu
Binding energy of α-particle
= 28·3 MeV
= 7·07 MeV per nucleon
Binding energy of deuteron (nucleus of deuterium 1H2)
= 2·25 MeV
= 1·12 MeV per nucleon
 The binding energy of a nucleus is generally expres-
sed as binding energy per nucleon. It is a measure of the
stability of nucleus. Higher the binding energy per nuc-
leon, more stable is the nucleus.
Binding energy curve—A graph between the bind-
ing energy per nucleon and the mass number of nuclei is
called the binding energy curve. This is shown in the
figure below :
9.0
Binding energy per nucleon (MeV)
O16 56
8.0 C12
Fe
4 F18
He N14
7.0
6.0
Li7
5.0
4.0
3.0
2.0
H2
1.0
0.0
0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200 220 240
Mass number (A)
Important Conclusions
1. The nuclei having mass number around 60 (for
example Fe with A = 56) have maximum binding energy
per nucleon (≈ 8·7 MeV). These nuclei are most stable.
2. For heavier nuclei, the binding energy per nucleon
gradually decreases. For uranium A = 238 it is about 7·6
MeV.
3. For nuclei having mass number below 56 also, the
binding energy decreases and below A = 20, it decreases
very rapidly. For example, for heavy hydrogen (A = 2) it is
only 1 MeV. It shows that nuclei of A < 20 are relatively
less stable.
4. The special positions of He4, C12 and O16 on the
curve indicate that these nuclei are more stable than their
neighbouring nuclei.
5. The binding energy per nucleon of very light and
very heavy nuclei is generally less than that of the nuclei
in the middle. Thus if a very heavy nucleus (e.g.,
uranium) is broken into comparatively lighter nuclei,
then the binding energy per nucleon will increase.
Hence a large quantity of energy will be liberated in this
process. This phenomenon is called ‘nuclear fission’.
6. Similarly, if two or more very light nuclei (e.g.,
nuclei of 1H2) are combined into a relatively heavier
nucleus (e.g., 2He 4), then also the binding-energy per
nucleon will increase. In this process also energy is
liberated. The phenomenon is called ‘nuclear fusion’.
Nuclear fission—It is the process in which a heavy
unstable nucleus breaks into two nuclei of nearly same
mass with the liberation of energy. Nuclear fission was
discovered by two German scientists Otto-Hahn and
Strassman.
235
92 U + 0n1 → (92U236) → 56Ba141 + 36Kr92 + 3(0n1)
It is not necessary that the fission products are Ba
and Kr. Other nuclei may also be produced.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1567
Important Features of Nuclear Fission
1. The mass of the compound nucleus must be greater
than the sum of masses of fission products.
2. The binding energy per nucleon for compound nucleus
must be less than that of the fission products.
3. Energy liberated is equivalent to difference in masses
of the nuclei before and after fission.
4. The energy release in the fission of U235 is estimated
to be about 200 MeV per fission (or about 0·9 MeV per nuc-
U238 leon).
5. The energy obtained by fission of 1 gm of uranium is
about 5 × 10 23 MeV. So much energy is obtained from explo-
sion of 20 tones of T.N.T. From this energy about 2 × 10 4
kWh electrical energy can be produced.
6. 92U238 is fissionable only by fast neutrons (1·2 MeV
energy) whereas 92U235 is fissionable by slow neutrons
(1 eV) or thermal neutrons (0·025 eV) as well as fast neutrons.
7. Each of the three neutrons carries an energy of about 2
MeV. The fast neutrons will escape and will not cause the
fission of U235 nuclei. In order to utilise them to cause fission
of three other nuclei of U235, these neutrons have to be
slowed down.
8. On an average 2·5 neutrons are emitted per fission.
9. Energy is released in the form of kinetic energy of
fission fragments. Some of the energy is also released in the
form of γ-rays, heat energy, sound energy and light energy.
10. The pressure and temperature are very high in the
fission process.
11. The elements formed lie nearly in the middle of the
periodic table.
12. Fission fragments are radioactive and they decay to
stable products by emitting α-, β- and γ-rays.
Chain reaction in nuclear fission—In the nuclear
fission of each uranium nucleus 2 or 3 fresh neutrons are
liberated which under favourable conditions fission other
uranium nuclei. This establishes a chain of nuclear fission
which continues until the whole uranium is consumed. In
the chain reaction, the number of nuclei undergoing
fission increases very fast producing tremendous amount
of energy.
Difficulties in chain reaction—(i) The major part of
natural uranium is the isotope U238 the isotope U235 is
very little (only 0·7%). U 238 can be fissioned only by fast-
neutrons (energy more than 1 MeV). The neutrons of
energy less than this are absorbed by U 238 . U235 can be
fissioned with slow as well as fast neutrons. Though the
low-energy neutrons can fission U235, but the probability
of their absorption by U238 is much more. Thus the fresh
neutrons released in the fission of ordinary uranium are
not able to continue the chain reaction.
(ii) The second difficulty in the maintenance of chain
reaction is that the fast neutrons liberated by the fission of
U235 nucleus travel a distance of about 10 cm in the subs-
tance before they are slowed down and fission other
nuclei. If the uranium block to be fissioned is of small size,
the most of the neutrons will escape before fissioning any
nucleus, and the chain reaction will stop. Therefore to
continue the chain-reaction, the size of the fissionable
substance should be bigger than a certain critical size.
 Removal of diffculties—There are two ways to over- a very short time as a violent explosion. This happens in a
come the above difficulties : nuclear bomb.
(i) The first is to separate the lighter isotope U235 from In controlled chain-reaction, the fission is so con-
the ordinary uranium by diffusion method and to carry out trolled by artificial means that only one of the neutrons
the fission of U235 . The fission of U235 is possible by neu- produced in each fission is able to cause further fission.
trons of any energy (very high or very low). In this case The rate of reaction remains constant. Thus the rate of
the chain reaction will continue. But this process is very fission is kept constant. Therefore, this process is slow
expensive and cumbersome. and the energy release is steady which can be utilised for
useful purposes. Nuclear reactors are based on this pro-
(ii) The second method is to slow down the neutrons
cess.
so that their energy remains about 0·03 eV. Then the
probability of their absorption by U238 becomes very low
while the probability of their fissioning U 235 becomes high. Parts of a Modern Nuclear Reactor
This slowing down of the neutrons is achieved by use of
moderators. Fuel—It is the substance used for fission. U 235 or Pu 239
is used for this purpose.
(iii) The second difficulty mentioned above is removed
Moderator—It is used to slow down neutrons. Heavy
by taking the critical size of the fissionable substance. water, graphite or beryllium-oxide is used for this purpose.
Critical size—Suppose, Heavy water is best moderator.
r = radius of the fissionable piece Coolant—Heat energy released in reactor is removed by
coolant. For this purpose air, water or CO2 is flown in the
N = Number of neutrons produced by primary fission.
reactor. Heat removed is utilised in producing steam which is
A = Number of neutrons absorbed by the substance used to drive turbines to produce electricity.
without causing fission. Controller—It controls the rate of fission in a reactor.
L = Number of neutrons escaping the substance. Cadmium rods are used for this purpose. These rods are
fixed in reactor-walls. When they are pushed into the reactor,
Then obviously the fission rate decreases and when they are pulled out, the
N ∝ r 3 = k 1r 3, A ∝ r 3 = k 2r 3, L ∝ r 2 = k 3r 2 fission grows. Cadmium is a very good absorber of neu-
trons.
N–A
Case I. If N < A + L or <1 Shield—To protect the workers from the injurious radia-
L
tion emitted in the reactor, thick concrete walls are erected
There will be no fission and the chain reaction will around the reactor.
stop.
N–A Breeder reactors—The reactors in which energy is
Case II. If N > A + L or > 1.
L produced by fission of U235 by slow neutrons are called
Then fission will continue and the chain reaction will ‘thermal reactors’. Since the major part in ordinary uranium
be maintained. is of U238 (U235 is only 0·7%), therefore, the fission of U235
N–A k 1 r3 – k 2 r3 is very costly. This will also lead to an early depletion of
Now, = uranium reserves.
L k 3 r2
k1 – k2 It is known that besides U235, Pu 239 is also a fission-
= × r = kr able substance. But Pu239 is not a naturally occurring
k3
where k is a new constant. isotope. It is produced from U 238 .
Hence for chain reaction to continue. 238 β β
92 U + n → 92U239 → 93 Np
239 →
94 Pu
239
N–A
> 1
L If more than one neutron can be absorbed by U238
or kr > 1 per fission, then we produce more fuel than what we
1 consume. Thus apart from nuclear energy these reactors
⇒ r > give us fresh nuclear fuel which often exceeds the nuclear
k
Hence for the chain-reaction to continue, the size (r ) fuel used. Hence they are called ‘Breeder reactors’.
of the substance to be fissioned should be larger than a Note—In these reactors, in addition to Pu239 , U233
critical value ()1
k
. The value ()
1
k
is called the ‘critical (fissionable fuel) is also produced from Th232.
Nuclear fusion—When two lighter nuclei moving
size’ of the substance. If the size of the substance is even
at very high speeds fuse together to form a single
slightly less than the critical size, the chain-reaction shall
stop. heavier nucleus, then this phenomenon is called
nuclear fusion. The mass of the nucleus obtained after
Uncontrolled and controlled chain-reactions—In
uncontrolled chain-reaction, more than one of the neu- fusion is less than the sum of the masses of the nuclei
trons produced in fission cause further fissions so that the which are fused together. The lost mass is obtained in the
number of fissions increases very rapidly. Thus this is a form of energy.
very fast reaction and the whole substance is fissioned in Hydrogen bomb is based on phenomenon of nuclear
a few moments liberating a huge quantity of energy within fusion.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1568

 As an example, in the fusion of two nuclei of deute- At a Glance
rium (heavy hydrogen), following reactions take place
2 Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
1H + 1H2 → 1H3 + 1H1 + 4·0 MeV (energy)
1. Neutrons are required for Protons are required for it.
The nucleus of tritium (1H3) so formed can again fuse
it.
with a deuterium nucleus :
2. It is possible at normal It is possible at extremely high
3 + 1H2 → 2He 4 + 0n1 + 17·6 MeV (energy)
1H temperature and pressure. temperature and pressure.
The net result of these two reactions is that 3 deute- 3. For this the energy relea- For this the energy released
rium nuclei fuse together to form a helium nucleus and sed per nucleon per nucleon
liberate 21·6 MeV energy. ∆E 200 ∆E 27
= 235 ≈ 0·8 MeV = 4 = 6·75 MeV
A A
Source of solar energy—The sun is continuously
4. Fissionable materials are The materials used in it are
emitting huge amount of energy since millions of years.
expensive. cheap (e.g., hydrogen)
Emission of such a large amount of energy by chemical
reactions is not possible. The source of huge solar Nuclear Fission Radioactive
energy is the fusion of lighter nuclei. At present, it is Disintegration
believed that proton-porton cycle is more probable in the
1. Fission is not a spontane- It is a spontaneous process. It
sun (instead of carbon cycle). In this cycle (also),
ous process. It is produ- cannot be started, stopped,
hydrogen nuclei fuse together to form of helium nucleus
ced by bombarding the accelerated or retarded by
through the following reactions :
nuclei of fissionable mate- any chemical or physical pro-
2[ 1H1 + 1H1 → 1H
2 + +1β0 + υ + 0·4 MeV] rial by neutrons. cess.
2[ 1H1 + 1H2 → 2He
3 + 5·5 MeV] 2. In this process a heavy In radioactive decay the un-
He 3 + 3 He 4 2(1H1) unstable nucleus breaks stable nuclei spontaneously
2 2He → 2 + + 12·9 MeV
into two nuclei of almost emit light particle (α- and β-)
Adding we get
same mass. Energy is and energy is obtained in the
4(1H1) → 2He
4 + 2(+1β0) + 2υ + 24·7 MeV obtained in the form of form of γ-rays.
In full cycle 24·7 MeV energy is liberated. kinetic energy of these
fragments, heat, light and
At a Glance sound.
3. Tremendous amount of Energy obtained in radio-
Uses of Nuclear Reactor energy is obtained in fis- active disintegration is very
1. To generate electricity. sion process. less.
2. To produce Pu239. Fast Breeder Test Thermal Reactor
3. To produce a neutron beam of high energy for neutron Reactor
bombardment.
1. In this liquid sodium is In this water is used as coo-
4. To produce artificially radioactive isotopes for medical,
used as coolant. lant.
industrial and biological uses.
5. To generate power for driving the engines and the propul- 2. The fuel used is a mixture The fuel used is natural ura-
sion of ships, submarines and air crafts, thus replacing of plutonium and natural nium.
steam, coal and petrol. uranium.
3. 60–70% fraction of natural Only 1·2% fraction of natural
Research Atomic Reactors uranium is used. uranium is used.

1. Apsara—This is 1MW reactor situated in Mumbai. An 4. The chain reaction is The chain reaction is main-
alloy of uranium and aluminium is used as fuel in it. This is maintained by fast neu- tained by slow neutrons.
also known as swimming pool type reactor. trons.
2. Cirus—It is a 40MW reactor, made in collaboration with 5. Number of neutrons pro- The number of neutrons pro-
Canada and is used to produce radioactive isotopes. duced per fission is more. duced per fission is less.
3. Zerlina—0 MW reactor. Atom Bomb Hydrogen Bomb
4. Purnima—0 MW reactor.
1. It is based on fission pro- It is based on fusion process.
cess.
Power Reactors
2. In it critical size is impor- There is no limit to size.
1. Tarapur (Maharashtra) 400 MW tant.
2. Rana Pratap Sagar (Rajasthan) 400 MW 3. In this, explosion is possi- In this extremely high tempe-
3. Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu) 220 MW ble at normal temperature rature and pressure is requi-
4. Narora (U.P.) 200 MW and pressure. red to explode it.
5. Kaiga (Karnataka) 200 MW 4. In this, harmful radiations In this harmful radiations are
6. Kakarapar (Gujarat) 200 MW are produced. not produced.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1569

 SOME TYPICAL SOLVED EXAMPLES

Example 1. Find the binding energy per nucleon Given the binding energy per nucleon of 1H2 and
for 3Li7 if mass of 3Li7 is 7·01653 amu 2 He 4is 1·125 MeV and 7·2 MeV respectively.
[Given : mp = 1·00759 amu, mn = 1·00898 amu] Solution : B.E. per nucleon of ∆E = 1·125 MeV
Solution : The binding energy per nucleon ∴ E = A × ∆E
∆E
E = = 2 × 1·125 MeV
A
= 2·25 MeV
∆m × 931
=
A
MeV ∴ B.E. of two 1 H2 = 2 × 2·25 MeV
∆m = (3 mp + 4 mn) – Mass of 3Li7 Ed = 4·5 MeV

= (3 × 1·00759 + 4 × 1·00898) – 7·01653 B.E. of α-particle = 4 × 7·2 MeV

= 0·04216 amu Eα = 28·8 MeV
0·04216 × 931 ∴ Energy released = Eα – Ed
E = = 28·8 – 4·5
7
39·25 = 24·3 MeV
= = 5·6 MeV per nucleon
7
Example 5. If 200 MeV energy is released in the
Example 2. If the mass defect in the formation of fission of a single nucleus of 92U235, how many fission
helium from hydrogen is 0·5%, then find the energy must occur per second to produce a power of 1 kW ?
obtained in kWh, in forming helium from 1 kg of
Solution : Energy released per second (power)
hydrogen.
= 1 kW = 103 Js –1
Solution : ∆E = ∆mc2
Energy released per fission
0·5
∆m = × 1 = 0·005 kg = 200 MeV
100
2 = 200 × 1·6 × 10–13 J
∆E = 0·005 × (3 × 108)
= 4·5 × 1014 joule or watt-sec ∴ No. of fissions per second
103
4·5 × 1014 =
= 200 × 1·6 × 10–13
60 × 60
= 3·125 × 1013
= 1·25 × 1011 watt-hour
Example 6. The energy supplied to a city by state
= 1·25 × 108 kWh
electricity board is 40 million kilowatt-hour. If this
Example 3. The mass of helium nucleus is less energy could be obtained by the conversion of matter,
than that of its constituent particles by 0·03 amu. Find how much mass would have to be annihilated ?
the binding energy per nucleon of 2He 4 nucleus.
Solution : Energy supplied to the city
Solution : ∆m = 0·03 amu
= 40 × 106 kWh
No. of nucleons A = 4
= 40 × 106 × 36 × 10 5 joule
0·03 × 931
∆E =
4
= 7 MeV Now E = ∆m.c2
E 4 × 36 × 10 12
Example 4. How much energy is released in the ∆m = 2 =
following reaction ? c (3 × 10 8)2

1H
2 + 1H2 = 2He
4 = 16 × 10–4 kg = 1·6 gm

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. m, mn and mp are the masses of 2. An element A is converted to C 3. The nucleus with maximum bind-
A
ZX nucleus, neutron and proton through following reactions : ing energy per nucleon out of the
respectively. If the nucleus is A → B + 2He 4 following is—
broken into its constituents, (A) 92U238 (B) 2He 4
then— B → C + 2e– (C) 8O 16 (D) 26Fe 56
(A) m > [(A – Z)mn + Zmp] Then— 4. The following nuclear reaction
(A) A and C are isobars represents
(B) m < [(A – Z)mn + Zmp] 14 1 15
(B) A and C are isotopes 7N + 1H → 8 O + 7·3 MeV
(C) m = [(A – Z)mn + Zmp] (C) A and B are isobars (A) Nuclear fusion
(D) m = [Zmn + (A – Z)mp] (D) A and B are isotopes (B) Nuclear fission

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1570

 (C) Scattering of particles
(D) Element transformation
5. The binding energies per nuc-
leon of deuterium and helium are
1·1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively.
When two deuterons fuse to form
a helium nucleus, the amount of
energy released will be—
(A) 23·6 MeV (B) 7 MeV
(C) 6 MeV (D) 200 MeV
6. The most suitable material for
moderator in a nuclear reactor
is—
(A) D2O (B) Cd
(C) B (D) 92U235
7. The energy of thermal neutrons
is nearly—
(A) 0·25 MeV (B) 0·025 MeV
(C) 200 MeV (D) 0·025 joule
8. The first atomic reactor was
made by—
(A) Hahn (B) Strassma
(C) Fermi (D) Bethe
9. The fissionable material used in
the bomb dropped at the city of
Nagasaki of Japan was—
(A) Plutonium (B) Uranium
(C) Thorium (D) Neptunium
10. When the number of nucleons in
the nucleus increases, the bind-
ing energy per nucleon—
(A) Decreases continuously with
A the number of neutrons
(B) Increases continuously with
A down the speed of neutrons
1. (B) The mass of nucleus is less
than the sum of the masses of its
constituent particles.
2. (B) In the first reaction Z becomes
(Z – 2) and A becomes (A – 4).
In the second reaction (Z – 2)
becomes Z again and (A – 4)
remains unchanged. Thus for A
and C, Z is the same and A
differs i.e., they are isotopes.
3. (D) The nuclei having mass
number ≈ 60 (for example, Fe
whose mass no. is 56) have
maximum binding energy per
nucleon (about 8·7 MeV).
4. (A)
5. (A) 1H2 + 1H2 → 2He 4
Net initial binding energy
= 4 × 1·1 = 4·4 MeV
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1571
(C) Remains constant with A
(D) First increases with A and
then decreases
11. The source of soloar energy is—
(A) Fission of helium
(B) Chemical reaction
(C) Burning of carbon
(D) Fusion of hydrogen nuclei
12. Average binding energy of nuc-
leons is—
(A) 8 eV (B) 8 MeV
(C) 8 BeV (D) 8 joule
13. The energy equivalent to 1 kg of
matter is about—
(A) 1011 joule (B) 1014 joule
(C) 1017 joule (D) 1020 joule
14. The controller rods in the nuclear
reactor are made of—
(A) Cadmium (B) Uranium
(C) Graphite (D) Plutonium
15. Which of the following is the
main source of energy emission
in the stars ?
(A) Chemical reaction
(B) Fusion of heavy nuclei
(C) Fission of heavy nuclei
(D) Fusion of lighter nuclei
16. In a nuclear reactor—
(A) Moderator is used to control
(B) Moderator is used to slow
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
Net final binding energy
= 4 × 7 = 28 MeV
∴Energy released
= 28 – 4·4 = 23·6 MeV
6. (A) Heavy water (D2O) is the best
moderator.
7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (D)
12. (B)
13. (C) ∆E = ∆m × c2
= 1 × (3 × 10 8)2
= 9 × 1016 joule
≈ 1017 joule
14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C)
0·3
18. (B) ∆m = × 1 = 0·003 kg
100
∆E = ∆mc2
= 0·003 × (3 × 108)2
= 2·7 × 1014 joule
(C) Controller rods are used to
slow down the speed of
neutrons
(D) Coolant is used to control
the number of neutrons
17. The equation
4(1H1) → 2He
4 + 2e– + 26 MeV
represents—
(A) β-decay (B) γ-decay
(C) Fusion (D) Fission
18. The mass defect in a nuclear
fusion reaction is 0·3 per cent.
What amount of energy will be
liberated in one kg fusion reac-
tion ?
(A) 5·2 × 1014 joule
(B) 2·7 × 1014 joule
(C) 2·7 × 1014 kWh
(D) None of these
19. Enriched uranium is better fuel
for a reactor because it has grea-
ter proportion of—
(A) Slow neutrons
(B) Fast neutrons
(C) 92U235
(D) 92U238
20. In a nuclear reactor—
(A) Rate of reaction may be
controlled by boron steel
rods
(B) Fast neutrons are slowed
down by cadmium rods
(C) Plutonium is used as coolant
(D) Hydrogen is used as fuel
19. (C) Ordinary uranium is U238. The
isotope U235 is only 0·7% in it. In
enriched uranium the isotope
U235 is increased from 0·7% to
2·3%.
20. (A) ●●●

Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
PHYSICS
1. For a glass prism ( µ = 3 ) , the
angle of minimum deviation is
equal to the angle of the prism.
The angle of prism is—
(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
2. A stone is just released from the
window of a train moving along a
horizontal straight track. The
stone will hit the ground following
a—
(A) Parabolic path
(B) Hyperbolic path
(C) Straight line path
(D) Circular path
3. In Ingen Housz’s experiment, the
wax melts upto 4 cm and 10 cm
on the iron and the silver rods
respectively. If K for silver is
taken as 1, then its value for iron
is—
(A) 0·4 (B) 0·16
(C) 2·5 (D) 6·25
4. The magnitude of displacement
of a point of a wheel (of radius r)
initially in contact with the ground
when the wheel rolls forward
half-revolution along a straight
line is—
(A) 2r (B) r π2 + 4
(C) 2 πr (D) r π2 + 1
5. A refrigerator with its power on
and door open, is kept in a closed
room. The temperature of the
room—
(A) Rises
(B) Falls
(C) Remains constant
(D) Rises or falls depending on
the area of room
6. A man moves on a cycle with a
velocity of 4 km/hr. The rain
appears to fall to him with a
velocity of 3 km/hr vertically. The
actual velocity of rain is—
4
(A) 7 km hr–1 (B) km hr–1
3 10. Assertion (A) : A black-hole is an
3 astronomical entity that cannot
(C) km hr –1 (D) 5 km hr–1
4 be seen by telescope.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1572
Reason (R) : The gravitational
field on a black hole is so strong
that it does not allow even light to
escape.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
11. Assertion (A) : In the process of
refraction of light, the speed, the
7. An electric heater, assumed to wavelength and the intensity of
be a black body has a tempera- light change.
ture of 727°C. If its temperature Reason (R) : The change of the
is raised to 1727°C, the amount speed of light results in the
of energy radiated per unit time change of its frequency.
now as compared with that in the (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
first case will be—
12. Assertion (A) : When some
(A) Twice
metals are cooled towards
(B) Four times absolute zero, a transition tem-
(C) Sixteen times perature is reached at which the
(D) Hundred times resistance suddenly falls to zero.
8. A particle of mass m is moving in Reason (R) : Some specially
a horizontal circle of radius r, developed metal compounds
under a centripetal force equal to have transition temperatures
(– k /r 2) where k is a constant. above 100 K.
The total energy of the particle (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
is—
13. Assertion (A) : With rise of tem-
k k
(A) (B) – perature the resistance of a metal
2r r
increases.
k
(C) – (D) None of these Reason (R) : When the tempera-
2r
ture of the metal rises, the atoms
Directions—In each of the of lattice vibrate more vigorously.
following questions (From Q. 9 to 16), Free electrons collide with the
a statement of Assertion (A) is given lattice more frequently.
and a corresponding statement of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Reason (R) is given just below it. Of
the statements, mark the correct 14. Assertion (A) : A monoatomic
answer as : gas has only 3 degrees of free-
dom.
(A) If both A and R are true and
R is the correct explanation Reason (R) : Monoatomic gas
of A cannot have rotational degrees
of freedom at all temperatures.
(B) If both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
of A 15. Assertion (A) : Time taken for a
(C) If A is true but R is false hot container to cool from 50°C to
(D) If A is false but R is true 40°C is more than that to cool
(E) If both A and R are wrong from 60°C to 50°C.
9. Assertion (A) : If the image Reason (R) : Rate of cooling
formed by a mirror is virtual, erect depends only on the temperature
and enlarged, then it is definitely of the surroundings.
a concave mirror only. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Reason (R) : The convex mirror 16. Assertion (A) : In adiabatic com-
can never produce an enlarged pression the internal energy and
virtual image. temperature of the system gets
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) decreased.
Reason (R) : The adiabatic com-
pression is a slow process.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
17. A planet is revolving round the (C) The molecular agitation 27. An A. C. voltage of
sun in an elliptical orbit. The increases at constant pres- V = 220 2 sin (ωt + π/2 )
maximum and the minimum dis- sure
will be read as by a hot wire volt-
tances of the planet from the sun (D) The molecular agitation
meter—
are 3 × 10 12 m and 2 × 10 10 m decreases at constant
respectively. The speed of the volume (A) 220 2V (B) 2V
planet when it is nearest to the 22. An air column in an organ pipe, (C) 220 V (D) 440 V
sun is 2 × 10 7 m/s. What is the which is closed at one end, will 28. In Young’s double slit experi-
speed of the planet when it is be in resonance with a vibrating ment the fringe-width is 0·4 mm.
farthest from the sun ? tuning fork of frequency 264 Hz, If the whole apparatus be immer-
(A) 1·33 × 105 m/s if the length of the column is— sed in a liquid of refractive index
(For sound v = 330 m/sec) 4
, then the new fringe-width will
(B) 3 × 105 m/s (A) 31·25 cm (B) 62·25 cm
3
become—
(C) 1·5 × 107 m/s (C) 93·75 cm (D) 125·75 cm
(A) 0·3 mm (B) 0·4 mm
(D) 2·66 × 105 m/s 23. The velocities of sound in an
ideal gas at temperatures T1 and (C) 0·53 mm (D) 450 micron
18. An earth satellite is moved from T2 are v 1 and v 2 respectively. If 29. Three identical resistances each
one circular orbit to another orbit the rms speeds of the same gas of 10Ω are connected as shown
of larger radius. The quantity at the same temperatures T1 and in figure. The maximum power
which increases for the satellite T2 are v 1′ and v 2′ respectively, that can be consumed by indivi-
as a result of this change is— then— dual resistor is 20 watt. Then the
(A) Gravitational potential v2 maximum power consumed by
(A) v 2′ = v1′
energy v1 the combination is—
v1 10Ω
(B) Angular speed (B) v 2′ = v1′
v2 10Ω
(C) Linear speed
v2 A 10Ω B
(D) Centripetal acceleration (C) v 2′ = v 1′
v1 (A) 60 watt (B) 15 watt
19. Two glass plates, one upon the
v1 (C) 30 watt (D) 40 watt
other with a little water in bet- (D) v 2′ = v 1′
ween them can not be separated v2 30. A star emitting light of wave-
easily because of— 24. What will be the angle between ° is moving towards
length 6000 A
(A) Viscosity two plane mirrors when a ray of the earth with a speed of 3·0 ×
light, incident on one and parallel 106 m/s. The apparent wave-
(B) External pressure
to the other, emerges parallel to length of emitted light is—
(C) Surface tension the first after reflection at the
(D) None of these second ? (c = 3 × 10 8 m/s)

20. The initial pressure and volume (A) 30° (B) 45° °
(A) 6060 A °
(B) 5940 A
of a gas are P and V respec- (C) 60° (D) 90°
°
(C) 5500 A °
(D) 6500 A
tively. First its volume is expan- 25. A Carnot’s engine works as a
ded to 4V by isothermal process refrigerator between 250 K and 31. Consider the following statements
and then its volume is restored 300 K. If it receives 750 calories in case of specific heat of
to V by adiabatic process. The of heat from the reservoir at lower gases—
final pressure of the gas is— temperature, the amount of heat 1. Specific heat of a gas is zero
(γ = 1·5) rejected at the higher temperature when it undergoes an adia-
is— batic change.
(A) 8P (B) 4P
(A) 900 cal (B) 625 cal 2. Specific heat of a gas is infi-
(C) P (D) 2P
(C) 750 cal (D) 1000 cal nite when it undergoes iso-
21. The specific heat of a gas at 26. A real image of a distant object thermal change.
constant pressure is greater than is formed by a plano-convex lens 3. The difference between prin-
its specific heat at constant on its optical axis. Spherical cipal specific heats is the
volume because— aberration is— same for all gases.
(A) At constant pressure work is (A) Absent
4. The ratio of principal specific
done in expanding the gas (B) Smaller if the curved surface heats is the same for all
against constant external of the lens faces the object gases.
pressure (C) Smaller if the plane surface
Of these correct statements are—
(B) At constant volume work is of the lens faces the object
done when pressure increa- (D) The same whichever side of (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 4
ses the lens faces the object (C) 1, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1573

 → → principal quantum number n 41. Pressure (P) volume (V) plots for
32. A conductor PQ with PQ = r as— two gases during adiabatic pro-
→ Z2 Z4 cess are shown. Plot 1 and 2
moves with a velocity v in a uni- (A) 2 (B) 4 correspond to—
n n
form magnetic field of induction
Z
→ (C) (D) None of these
B . The e.m.f. in the conductor n
is— 37. If a very short pulse of white light
were to travel through a piece of P
→ → →
(A) ( v × B )· r glass, the colour which would exit 1
→ → → the glass first is— 2
(B) v ·( r × B ) (A) Green (B) Red
→ → → (C) Yellow (D) Violet V
(C) B ·( r × v )
38. In the circuit shown in figure, (A) He and O 2 (B) O2 and He
→ → →
(D)  r × ( v × B )  power developed across 1Ω, 2Ω
(C) He and Ar (D) O2 and N 2
and 3Ω resistance is in the ratio
33. At an instant, the ratio of the of— 42. When separation between two
amounts of radioactive subs- 1Ω charges is increased, the electric
tances is 2 : 1. If their half lives potential energy of the charges—
i i
be respectively 12 and 16 hours, (A) Increases
then after 2 days, the amounts of 3Ω
the substances left over will be in 2Ω (B) Decreases
the ratio— (A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 4 : 2 : 27 (C) Remains the same
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 6 : 4 : 9 (D) 2 : 1 : 27 (D) May increase or decrease
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4 43. The moment of inertia of a flat
39. A ray of light is incident at an
34. If an electron enters into a space angle i on a surface of a prism of annular ring of mass M, inner
between the plates of a parallel radius r and outer radius R about
small angle A and emerges nor-
a perpendicular axis through its
plate capacitor at an angle α with mally from the opposite face. If
centre is—
the plates and leaves at an angle the refractive index of the material
1
β to the plates. The ratio of its of the prism is µ, the angle of (A) M (R – r )2
2
K.E. while entering the capacitor incidence i is nearly—
to that while leaving it will be— 1
(A) A/µ (B) A/2µ (B) M (R2 + r 2)
2
 cos α 2  cos β 2 (C) µA (D) µA/2 (C) M (R2 – r 2)
(A)  cos β (B)  cos α
    1
40. Figure shows an equilateral tri- (D) M (R2 – r 2)
 sin α 2  sin β  2 2
(C)  sin β  (D)  sin α angular loop PQR of side l and
    carrying a current i. A uniform 44. The drift velocity of the free elec-
magnetic field B exists in direc- trons in a conducting wire carry-
35. An AC voltage V is applied across ing a current is v. If in a wire of
a R–C series combination. At the tion parallel to PQ. Which state-
the same metal, but of double
instant during the cycle when the ment is incorrect about the
the radius, the current be 2i, then
current in the circuit becomes magnitude of forces acting on the drift velocity of the electrons
zero— the sides of the triangle ? will be—
(A) The voltage across the resis- R v v
tor is equal and opposite to (A) (B)
4 2
the voltage across the B (C) v (D) 4v
capacitor i i
1 45. In the circuit shown in the figure,
(B) Energy equal to CV 2 is switch is turned on at t = 0,
2
stored in the capacitor then—
(C) Energy equal to CV2 is P Q S
2kΩ
i
stored in the capacitor
(A) On PQ, F = 0 R1
(D) Energy stored in the capa- + 10µF
citor is zero 3 12V
(B) On QR, F = ilB
2 − 2 kΩ R2 R3 2kΩ
36. In hydrogen and hydrogen-like
atoms the ratio of difference of 3
(C) On RP, F = ilB
energies E4n – E2n and E2n – En 2 1. At t = 0, current supplied by
varies with atomic number Z and (D) None of these battery is 4 mA.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1574

 2. At t = 0, current in R3 is 2 mA. 47. The 5Ω resistor in the given cir- 49. A convex lens and a convex
3. In the steady state current cuit produces 10 calories per mirror are placed co-axially at a
supplied by battery is 3 mA. second. The heat per second in distance of 10 cm from each
4. In the steady state current in 6Ω resistor will be— other. The focal length of the lens
R3 is zero. is 15 cm. If an object is placed on
4Ω
the axis at a distance of 20 cm
Of these statements correct are—
from the lens, it is found that the
(A) Only 1, 4 A image coincides with the object.
6Ω
(B) Only 2, 3 The radius of curvature of the
5Ω mirror is—
(C) All the statements 1, 2, 3
and 4 B (A) 60 cm (B) 55 cm
(D) None of the statements (C) 50 cm (D) 45 cm
(A) 6 cal (B) 2 cal
46. In a radioactive material, after a (C) 3 cal (D) 10 cal 50. The given truth table belongs
time interval equal to the recipro- to—
48. Which of the following processes
cal of decay constant, the un-
is not related to radioactive A Y
decayed atoms are—
decay ? 0 1
(A) 63·2% of their initial number (A) Positron emission 1 0
(B) 50% of their initial number (B) Electron capture
(C) 36·8% of their initial number (C) Nuclear fusion (A) XOR gate (B) NOT gate
(D) None of these (D) α-decay (C) NOR gate (D) NO gate

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

1. (A) µ =
sin ( )
A+δ
2 6. (D)
→ ^
v RM = 3(– j )
9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A)
14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (E)
sin A/2 → → 17. (A) In planetary motion angular
= vR – vM
Since δ = A, we get momentum remains constant,
→ ^ ^ i.e.,
sin A ∴ vR = – 3 j + 4 i
3 = mv1r1 = mv2r2
sin A/2 ⇒ vR = 32 + 42
v 1 r1
2 sin A/2 cos A/2 = 5 km hr–1 v2 =
= r2
sin A/2 7. (C) T1 = 727 + 273 = 1000 K
2 × 107 × 2 × 10 10
A 3 T2 = 1727 + 273 = 2000 K =
cos = = cos 30° 3 × 1012
2 2
A/2 = 30°
H2
H1
= ()
T2 4
T1 = 1·33 × 105 m/s

∴
2. (A)
A = 60°
2
= ( )
2000 4
1000
= 16
18. (A)
19. (C) The thin layer of water wets
mv k the plates over an almost
3. (B) Iron l1 = 4 cm, 8. (C) = 2
r r circular area which is concave
k1 = ? 1 k outwards as shown in figure.
K.E. = mv2 = …(i)
2 2r r
Silver l2 = 10 cm,
Force acting on the particle is d
k2 = 1 conservative in nature. Hence
In Ingen Housz experiment du
F = – The excess pressure p inside the
dr
k1 l1 2 or du = – Fdr
liquid film over the outside atmos-
= 2 pheric pressure is given by
k2 l2 r

k1 =
(4)2
× 1 = 0·16
U = – ∫ ∞
Fdr
p = T ( ) 1 2
–
(10)2 r
r d
k
4. (B) Point has two displacements
πr and 2r in two mutually per-
= ∫ ∞
r2
dr
Since r >> d,
1
r
can be neglected
pendicular directions. The resul- k in comparison to 2/d.
⇒ U = –
tant displacement r
2T
Total energy Hence p = –
= (πr)2 + (2r)2 k k d
K.E. + P.E. = – Thus, the excess pressure inside
2r r
= r π2 + 4 k the film is less than the outside
= –
5. (A) 2r atmospheric pressure (as is clear

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1575

 from –ve sign) by 2T/d . The 25. (A) In Carnot’s engine 30. (B) Since the star is moving
excess pressure of atmosphere T1 Q1 towards earth, frequency of light
on the two plates pushes them = emitted by the star will increase
T2 Q2
closer together. Smaller the value or its wavelength will decrease.
of d, greater will be the force 250 750
= v
required to pull them apart. 300 Q2 Now, ∆λ = ·λ
c
20. (D) For isothermal process ⇒ Q2 = 900 cal 3·0 × 106
= °
× 6000A
P1V1 = P2V2 26. (B) Spherical aberration is small 3 × 108
or PV = P2 (4V) when the deviation is shared by
= 60A°
P the two faces of the lens.
⇒ P2 = Therefore, apparent wavelength
4
For adiabatic process s
λ′ = λ – ∆λ
P2V2γ = P3V3γ = 6000 – 60
Fm Fp °
P = 5940A
(4V)γ = P3(V)γ
4 31. (C)
⇒ P3 = P(4)γ – 1 32. (A) Imagine a unit charge inside
s′ the conductor. As the conductor
= P(4)0·5 = 2P
Fp →
21. (A) Fm moves with velocity v , the
22. (A) For an organ pipe closed at charge inside it will experience a
one end, in fundamental mode Longitudinal axial spherical aber- → → →
of vibration force F = v × B . If this unit
ration s is smaller than s′.
λ charge is moved from one end of
l = 27. (C) V0 = 220 2 the conductor to its other end, its
4
220 2 →
⇒ λ = 4l ∴ Vrms = = 220 V displacement is r . Hence, the
v 2
n = work done on it is
λ λa
28. (A) µ = →→
330 λl W = F· r
= = 264
4×l λl 1 3 → → →
⇒ = = = ( v × B )· r
330 λa µ 4
⇒ l = This by definition is the e.m.f.
4 × 264 D across the conductor.
Now fringe width β = λ
= 0·3125 m d 33. (A) Let the substances be A
= 31·25 cm β ∝ λ for a given arrangement and B
23. (A) For sound βl λl For A, mass = 2m
= No. of half lives = 4
βa λa
v2
v1
=
T2
T1 ⇒
1
βl = βa ×
µ
NA = 2m × ()
1 4
2
For rms speeds m
3 =
8
v 2′ T2 = 0·4 ×
4 For B, mass = m
=
v 1′ T1 = 0·3 mm No. of half lives = 3

⇒ v 2′ = v 1′·
v2
v1
29. (C) Maximum current than be
sent through resistances is
NB = m × ()
1 3
2
24. (C) Conditions of the problem are 20 = I 2 × 10 m
=
shown in the figure from which it 8
is clear that ⇒ I = 2A NA
∴ = 1
M2 Clearly, therefore, max. current NB
through each bulb combined in 34. (B) Let u and v be the velocity of
parallel is the electron when entering and
A
θ 1 1 when leaving the capacitor res-
C D = 2A = A pectively.
θ 2 2
θ Since component of velocity
Therefore, max. power consumed parallel to the plates remains un-
θ 1 2 1 2 changed, we have
O
θ
B
θ
M1 =
( ) 2
× 10 +
( ) 2 u cos α = v cos β
θ + θ + θ = 180° × 10 + ( 2)2 × 10 u cos β
⇒ =
⇒ θ = 60° = 5 + 5 + 20 = 30 W v cos α

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1576

 Hence, the required ratio 42. (D) At t = 0,
1
mu2 u 2  cos β 2 43. (B) Face area of annular ring Total resistance
2
1
2
mv 2 =
v ()
=  
 cos α = π (R2 – r 2)
2+
2×2
= 3 kΩ
Mass per unit area of the disc 2+2
35. (C) When current is zero, poten- 12
tial drop across resistance is M ∴ I = = 4 mA
= 3 × 103
zero. Hence all the voltage π (R2 – r 2)
appears across the capacitor. V At t = 0. This current divides into
is RMS voltage, so that its peak two equal parts. Hence current in
R3 is 2 mA.
voltage is 2 V .
r In the steady state, current sup-
Hence energy stored in the capa-
plied by battery
citor O R 12
1 2 = = 3 mA
= C ( 2 V ) = CV 2 4 × 103
2
E1 E1 In the steady state, condenser
– blocks the current.
E4n – E2n 16n2 4n2
36. (D) = Imagine the disc to be made up a Hence in this state current in R 3
E2n – En E1 E1
– number of thin circular rings and is zero.
4n2 n2
1 consider one such ring of radius 46. (C) N = N0e – λt
= = Constant x and thickness dx. 1
4 Putting t =
37. (B) Speed of light in glass is Mass of this element λ
maximum for red colour as seen M N = N0e–1
= 2πx dx
from the relation. π (R2 – r 2) N0
c =
2 Mx e
v = = dx
µ (R2 – r 2) 1
= N
38. (B) At point A current i devides 2·718 0
Its moment of inertia about an
itself in the inverse ratio of resis- = 0·368 N 0
axis passing through O and per-
tance. pendicular to its plane i.e., N = 36·8% of N 0.
1Ω 2 Mx 47. (C) Heat produced in 5Ω resistor
= . dx . x 2
i i1 = 2i /3 i (R2 – r 2) = 10 cal/sec = 42 J/s
A i2 = i /3 B 2 Mx 3 V2
= dx ∴ = 42
(R2 – r 2) 5
2Ω
Hence moment of inertia of the
2i i ⇒ V = 42 × 5
Thus i1 = and i2 = annular disc
3 3 2M R This is the potential difference
H ∝ i 2R =
(R2 – r 2)
=
r∫ x3 dx between points A and B. Heat
produced in 6Ω resistor
∴ H1 : H2 : H3 = 2
2M
R – r2 4 r [ ]
x4 R
= I2 × R
=
3()
2i 2
×1:
i
3 () 2
× 2 : i2 × 3
=
2M
R2 – r 2 [ ]
R4 –
4
r4
 42 × 5
2

= 4 : 2 : 27 = × 6 cal
 10 
39. (C) A = r1 + r2 = r + 0 2M 1
= . . [(R2 + r 2) = 12·6 J
⇒ r = A R2 – r 2 2
(R2 – r 2)] 12·6
i = = 3 cal
µ = 1 4·2
r = M (R2 + r 2)
when angles are small 2 48. (C)
⇒ i = µr = µA 44. (B) Drift velocity of free electrons 49. (C) The rays emerging from the
i lens are directed towards the
40. (D) On PQ, F = i B l sin 0 = 0 vd =
ne A centre of curvature of the mirror,
On QR, F = i B l sin 120° i i.e., these are normally incident
=
ne π r 2 on the mirror and retrace their
3
= iB l i path to form the image coincident
2 vd ∝ 2
r with the object
On RP, F = i B l sin 120° when i and r are both doubled
3 v L
= iB l vd = O M C
2 2
41. (B) For monoatomic gas γ 45. (C) At t = 0 the capacitor acts as
20 cm 60 cm
(= Cp/Cv ) is larger than that for a a short whereas in the steady
diatomic gas. state it acts as open circuit. (Continued on Page 1633 )

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1577

 11. A particle executing SHM along
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
a straight line has a velocity
4 cm s–1 when at a distance of
3 cm from its mean position and
PHYSICS 3 cm s–1 when at a distance
of 4 cm from it. The time taken
by the particle to travel 2·5 cm
from equilibrium position is—
1. The range of a particle when 7. Assertion (A) : A cyclist always
bends inwards while negotiating (A) 0·25 sec (B) 0·5 sec
launched at an angle of 15° with
the horizontal is 1·5 km. What is a curve. (C) 0·75 sec (D) 1·0 sec
the range of the projectile when Reason (R) : By bending he 12. The network shown in the figure
launched at an angle of 45° to lowers his centre of gravity. is a part of a circuit. If at a certain
the horizontal ? Of these statements— instant, the current 5A and is
(A) 6·0 km (B) 0·75 km (A) Both A and R are true and R decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s,
then VB – VA is—
(C) 1·5 km (D) 3·0 km is the correct explanation of
A. 1Ω 5 mH
+
2. A large tank has two holes in the A B
(B) Both A and R are true but R
wall. One is a square hole of side
is not the correct explanation 15 V
L at a depth y from the top and
of A.
the other is a circular hole of (A) 20V (B) 10V
radius R at a depth 4y from the (C) A is true but R is false
(C) 15V (D) 5V
top. When the tank is completely (D) A is false but R is true
filled with water, the quantities of 13. A satellite goes along an ellipti-
8. Brakes of very small contact area
water flowing out per second cal path around earth. The rate
are not used although friction is
from both the holes are the of change of area swept by the
independent of area, because
same. Then the radius R is equal line joining earth and satellite is
friction—
to— proportional to—
(A) Resists motion
L (A) r (B) r 2
(A) (B) 2πL (B) Causes wear and tear
(C) r 1/2 (D) r 3/2
2π (C) Depends on the nature of
materials 14. An ideal fluid is—
L
(C) L (D) (D) Sliding friction operates in (A) One which obeys Newton’s
2π
this case law of viscosity
3. A spherical ball rolls on a table → ^ (B) One which satisfies conti-
without slipping. The fraction of 9. Work done when a force F = i + nuity equation
its total energy associated with ^ ^
2 j + 3k acting on a particle takes (C) One which flows through
rotation is—
→ ^ ^ ^ pipes with least friction
3 3 it from the point r1 = ( i + j + k)
(A) (B) (D) Frictionless and incompres-
5 7 → ^ ^ ^ sible
2 2 to the point r2 = ( i – j + 2k) is—
(C) (D)
5 7 (A) – 3J (B) – 1 J 15. A sphere is at a temperature
(C) Zero (D) 2J 600K. Its cooling rate is R in an
4. In which of the following pro-
external environment of 200K.
cesses, does the internal energy 10. In the circuit shown in the figure When its temperature falls to
of an ideal gas remain constant ? B is a battery of e.m.f. E and 400K, its cooling rate R′ will be—
(A) Adiabatic (B) Isochoric
3 16
(C) Isobaric (D) Isothermal K1 K2 (A) R (B) R
B
16 3
V
5. The unit of ‘Poynting vector’ is— 1
6Ω 12 Ω (C) R (D) None of these
(A) Watt per second 3
(B) Watt per metre square internal resistance r. When key 16. A transformer transforms—
(C) Watt (square metre–1)(sec)–1 K1 is closed and K2 is open, the (A) Energy (B) Frequency
(D) Watt/metre cube ideal voltmeter shows a reading (C) Power (D) Voltage
18V. When key K 2 is closed and
6. At 0 K intrinsic semiconductor K1 is open, the reading of the 17. At 0K which of the following pro-
behaves as— voltmeter is 24V. When K1 and perties of a gas will be zero ?
(A) A perfect insulator K2 are both open, the voltmeter (A) Kinetic energy
(B) A semiconductor reading is— (B) Potential energy
(C) A super conductor (A) 12V (B) 36V (C) Vibrational energy
(D) A perfect conductor (C) 24V (D) 8V (D) Density

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1578

18. Cores are laminated to— 23. A microscope is focussed on a 31. The ratio of magnetic field at the
(A) Reduce eddy currents mark at the bottom of a beaker. centre of a current carrying cir-
(B) Reduce hysteresis The microscope is then raised cular coil to its magnetic moment
through 1·5 cm. To what height is x. If the current and radius both
(C) Better assembly
must water be poured into the are doubled the new ratio will
(D) Increase current drawn beaker to bring the mark again become—
19. A string is cut into three parts, into focus ? (A) 2x (B) 4x
having fundamental frequencies (A) 4·5 cm (B) 6·0 cm x x
n1, n2 and n3 respectively. The (C) (D)
(C) 8·0 cm (D) 12 cm 4 8
original fundamental frequency n
24. Which phaser is correct for a 32. What will be the wave velocity, if
is related to these frequencies
series RC circuit ? the radar gives 54 waves per
as—
(A) V (B)
minute and wavelength of given
1 1 1 1 V
(A) = + + I wave is 10 m ?
n n1 n2 n3 I
I (A) 4 ms– 1 (B) 6 ms– 1
(B) n = n1 + n2 + n3 (C) 9 ms– 1 (D) None of these
(C) V (D) V
n1 + n 2 + n 3
(C) n = 33. Which one of the following
3
I graphs represents the variation
(D) n = n1 × n2 × n3 of voltage V across the inductor
25. A ray of light is inclined to one L with time t in a series L-R
20. The switches that must be closed
face of a prism at an angle of 50°. circuit ?
for obtaining resistance of 2Ω
If the angle of the prism is 60°
are—
and the ray is deviated through V
S1 S2 an angle of 42°, then the angle (A) (B) V
1 4Ω 5Ω 10 Ω O t O t
which the emergent ray makes
with second face of the prism is—
10 Ω
(A) 30° (B) 62° V
4Ω (C) V (D)
S3 (C) 50° (D) 28° O t O t
26. A sonometer wire 65 cm long is
S4 34. GaAs is—
in resonance with a tuning fork of
frequency N. If the length of the (A) Element semiconductor
wire is decreased by 1 cm and it (B) Alloy semiconductor
is vibrated with same tuning fork, (C) Bad conductor
A B 8 beats are heard per second. (D) Metallic semiconductor
(A) S1 and S4 (B) S2 and S4 The value of N is— 35. The figure shows the energy
(C) S2 and S3 (D) S1 and S2 (A) 256 Hz (B) 384 Hz levels of a certain atom. When
(C) 480 Hz (D) 512 Hz the system moves from 2E level
21. The equation of a simple harmo- to E, a photon of wavelength λ is
27. Two lenses of powers + 4D and
nic progressive wave is emitted. The wavelength of the
– 2D are placed 10 cm apart.
y = 8 sin (0·628 x – 12·56 t) The focal length of the combina- photon produced during its
where y and x are in cm and t in tion is— 4E
transition from level to E is—
second. (A) – 75 cm (B) – 35·7 cm 3

The phase difference between (C) 35·7 cm (D) 75 cm 2E

two particles at a distance of 2·0 4E
28. An aeroplane flying 490 m above 3
cm apart at any instant is— the ground level at 100 m/s E
(A) 90° (B) 72° releases a block. How far on the
ground will it strike ?
(C) 0° (D) 270° (A) 0·1 km (B) 1 km
O
22. In a double slit experiment the (C) 2 km (D) None of these
λ 3λ
distance between the slits is d. 29. Sound waves cannot exhibit— (A) (B)
The screen is at a distance D 3 4
(A) Interference
from the slits. If a bright fringe is 4λ
(B) Diffraction (C) (D) 3λ
formed opposite to a slit, find its 3
order— (C) Reflection
36. When a load of 5 kg is hung on a
d D (D) Polarisation
(A) (B) wire, then extension of 0·3 m
2Dλ 2d λ 30. A diode is used as a— takes place. Work done is—
d2 dD (A) Rectifier (B) Amplifier (A) 7·5 J (B) 6·0 J
(C) (D)
2Dλ 2λ (C) Detector (D) Modulator (C) 15·0 J (D) 5·0 J

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1579 / 4

37. The K α X-ray emission of tung-
sten occurs at λ = 0·021 nm. The
energy difference between K and
L levels in this atom is about—
(A) 0·51 MeV (B) 1·2 MeV
(C) 59 keV (D) 13·6 eV
38. A gas behaves as an ideal gas
at—
(A) Low pressure and high tem-
perature
(B) High pressure and low tem-
perature
(C) High pressure and high tem-
perature
(D) Low pressure and low tem-
perature
39. An electrolysis experiment is
stopped and the battery termi-
nals are reversed—
(A) The electrolysis will stop
(B) The rate of liberation of
material at the electrodes
will increase
(C) The rate of liberation of
material will remain the
same
(D) Heat will be produced at a
greater rate
40. A person is standing on a rota-
ting stool spreading his arms. He
suddenly contracts his arms.
His—
(A) Moment of inertia increases
(B) Angular momentum decrea-
ses
(C) Angular momentum increa-
ses
(D) Angular velocity increases
41. A compass needle which is
allowed to move in a horizontal
plane is taken to a geomagnetic
pole. It—
(A) Will stay in north-south
direction
(B) Will stay in east-west direc-
tion
u 2 sin 2α
1. (D) Range R =
g L
R2 sin 2α 2
∴ =
R1 sin 2α 1
sin 90°
R2 = 1·5 .
sin 30°
= 1·5 × 2 = 3·0 km
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1580
(C) Will become rigid showing
no movement
(D) Will stay in any position
42. Longest wavelength of Balmer
° . What will be the
series is 6563 A
shortest wavelength of this
series?
°
(A) 912 A °
(B) 4861 A
(C) 3646 A° °
(D) 4341 A
43. A proton and an electron are
placed in a uniform electric
field—
(A) The electric forces acting on
them will be equal
(B) The magnitudes of the
forces will be equal
(C) The accelerations will be
equal
(D) The magnitudes of their
accelerations will be equal
44. Which of the prisms is used to
study infra red spectrum ?
(A) Crown glass (B) Flint glass
(C) Rock salt (D) Nicol
45. Which of the following is not the
property of ionic solids ?
(A) They are good conductors of
electricity
(B) They are strong but non-
directional
(C) They have high melting
points
(D) They are transparent to
visible light
46. In an scattering experiment num-
ber of scattered particles at 90°
is 56. What will be their number
when scattered at 60° ?
(A) 256 (B) 224
(C) 95 (D) 102
47. In the four statements given
below the only one correct state-
ment is—
(A) β-radioactivity is the process
in which an electron is emit-
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
2. (A) The volume of water flowing
out per second
= Velocity × Area of cross-
section of the hole
= vA
According to problem
v 1A1 = v 2A2
ted from an unstable atom
whose atomic number Z
remains unchanged.
(B) γ-radioactivity is the process
in which the daughter nuc-
leus has atomic-number 1
unit more than that of the
parent nucleus.
(C) α-radioactivity is the process
in which an unstable atom
emits the nucleus of a helium
atom
(D) α-radioactivity is the process
in which a heavy atom emits
electromagnetic radiation of
very high frequency.
48. A large drop is made from two
similar smaller drops each char-
ged to 100 volt. The voltage on
the bigger drop is—
(A) 100 × 2– 2/3 volt
(B) 100 × 22/3 volt
(C) 100 × 21/3 volt
(D) 100 volt
49. A diode is connected to 200 V
a.c. mains in series with a
capacitor as shown in the figure.
The final voltage V across the
capacitor is—
200 V V
a.c.
200
(A) 200 V (B) V
2
(C) 200 2 V (D) None of these
50. On increasing the height of a
satellite, its time period will—
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain unchanged
(D) Increase or decrease de-
pends on height
2gy × L 2 = 2g × 4y . πR 2
⇒ R =
2π
1
3. (D) (K.E.)linear = mv2
2
1 2
(K.E.)rot. = Iω
2
 1 2 v2 Also, 4 = ω 25 – 9 all other resistance. Hence equi-
= · mr 2 × 2
2 5 r valent resistance in the circuit will
1 ⇒ ω = 1 rad/sec.
be 2Ω.
= mv2 Now, y = a sin ωt
5 21. (B) y = 8 sin (0·628 x – 12·56 t)
1 1 2·5 = 5 sin ωt Comparing it with standard wave
Total energy = mv2 + mv2
2 5 π equation
7 ⇒ ωt =
6
=
10
1
mv2
∴ t =
π
6
sec
y = a sin
λ (
2πx 2πt
–
T )
(K.E.) rot. mv2 We get
5 2 3·14
= = = ≈ 0·5 sec. 2π
Total K.E. 7 7 6 = 0·628
mv2 λ
10 12. (C) Proceeding in the direction of
4. (D) In isothermal change, tem- current 0·628
⇒ λ =
perature remains constant. 2 × 3·14
5. (B) Poynting vector
VA – VB = IR – E + L ()
dI
dt = 0·1 m = 10 cm
→ → = 1 × 5 – 15 + 5 Phase difference
= E ×B 2π
× 10– 3 (– 10)3 ∆φ = × ∆x
volt amp-turn λ
= × = – 15V
metre metre 2π
∴ VB – VA = 15V = × 2·0
= watt/m2 10
1 2
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 13. (C) Area EPQ = EP × PQ = ×π
2 5
→ → → 1
9. (B) W = F ·( r2 – r1 ) 2
= r. r d θ = × 180° = 72°
2 5
→ → ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
r2 – r1 = ( i – j + 2k) – ( i + j + k) Q 22. (C) Fringe width
^ ^ dθ
P Dλ
= – 2j + k β =
E
d
→ → → If nth bright fringe is opposite S 1
∴ W = F ·( r2 – r1 )
on the screen, then
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ Rate at which area is swept
= ( i + 2 j + 3k)·(– 2 j + k)
= –4+3=–1J 1 2dθ ↑
= r
2 dt
10. (B) When both keys are open, the S1
1 2
ideal voltmeter will read the e.m.f. = r ω d/2
2
E of the battery. S
1 2 v D ↑
V = E – Ir = r ·
2 r S2
( ) E r
1
= E– = vr
R+r 2
ER 1 GM
= = ·r d
R+r 2 r nβ =
6E 2
Hence 18 = 1 d
6+r = GMr n =
2 2β
12E 1/2
and 24 = Rate ∝ r d d d2
12 + r = × =
18 6E 12 + r 14. (D) 2 Dλ 2Dλ
Dividing = × 15. (A) According to Stefan’s law
24 6 + r 12E R
23. (B) µ =
⇒ r = 6Ω R′ (400)4 – (200)4 A
=
6+r R (600)4 – (200)4 R
Now E = 18 =
6 3 R – 1·5
⇒ R′ = R
6+6 16
= 18 = 36V 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (A)
6
1
11. (B) v 1 = ω a2 – x 12 , 19. (A) For a string n ∝ since T and
l A
m are constant. O′
O'
v 2 = ω a2 – x 22 R
L = l1 + l2 + l3 1.5 Cm
cm
v1 a2 – x 12 1 1 1 1
= ∴ = + +
v2 a2 – x 22 n n1 n 2 n 3 O

4 a2
–9 20. (A) Closing S1 and S4 will put in 4 R
or = =
3 a2 – 16 circuit two resistances of 4Ω each 3 R – 1·5
⇒ a = 5 cm connected in parallel and exclude ⇒ R = 6·0 cm

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1581

24. (C) In C–R circuit current I leads 29. (D) 30. (A) Note
the applied voltage V by a phase B hc
31. (D) x = E = hν=
angle φ given by M λ
tan φ =
VC
VR
=
XC
R = ( )( )
µ0i
2r
1
iπr2
(4·14 × 10–15 eV-s) ×
(3 × 108 m/s)
1/ωC 1 =
= ⇒ x ∝ λ(in nm)
R r3
12·42 × 10–7 eV-m
Hence when radius and current =
25. (D) δ = (i – r) + (i′ – r ′ ) λ(in nm)
both are doubled this ratio
= i + i′ – (r + r′ ) x 1242 eV - nm
becomes · =
= i + i′ – A 8 λ(in nm)
32. (C) Frequency
A
54 – 1 38. (A) A low pressure and high tem-
n = s , perature molecular attraction be-
60
o 60
δ comes negligible and the gas
D λ = 10 m
Q R behaves as an ideal gas.
i i
o
r r' ∴ v = nλ 39. (C)
50 θ
P A S 54 40. (D) On contracting (i.e. pulling
E = × 10 = 9 ms– 1
60 inside) the arms, the moment of
B C di inertia of the man decreases.
33. (D) VL = L.
dt Therefore by conservation of
42 = (90° – 50°) + i ′ – 60° R
⇒ i′ = 62° = L.
R ()
i0 e
–
L
t angular momentum, the angular
velocity increases since
L
∴ θ = 90° – 62° = 28° R J = Iω
26. (D) For a sonometer = i Re
0
() –
L
t
41. (D)
R 42. (C) λL for Balmer series corre-
nl = constant
= Ee
()
–
L
t
sponds to transition of electron
Decreasing length increases fre-
quency, so the frequency of At t = 0, V L is maximum and from n = 3 to n = 2 and is given
sonometer wire is N for l1 = 65 falls off exponentially to zero (as by
cm and N + 8 for l2 = 64 cm
n1 l2
the current approaches its maxi-
mum steady value).
1
λL
= R (1 1
–
22 3 2 )
= 34. (B) Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) 36
n2 l1 ⇒ λL =
semiconductor is used in light- 5R
N 64
⇒ = emitting-diodes (LEDs) and semi- Shortest wavelength λS corres-
N+8 65
conductor lasers. ponds to transition from n = ∞ to
⇒ N = 512 Hz hc
35. (D) ∆E = 2E – E = E = n = 2.
27. (C) For two lenses separated by
a distance, power is given by
∆E′ =
4E
–E = =
E hc
λ 1
λS
= R [1 1
–
22 ∞ 2 ]
P = P1 + P2 – d × P1P2 3 3 λ′ 4
⇒ λS =
= + 4 – 2 – 0·1 × 4 × (– 2) hc hc R
or = λS 4 5R 5
= 4 – 2 + 0·8 3λ λ′ ∴ = × =
λL R 36 9
= + 2·8 D ⇒ λ′ = 3λ
5
100 36. (A) Work done ⇒ λS = × 6563
F = cm 9
2·8 1.
= Force × Extension = 3646 A °
= 35·7 cm 2
1 1 43. (B) Electric force
28. (B) s = ut + αt 2 = × 5 × 10 × 0·3 F = qE
2 2
1 = 7·5 joule Acceleration
= 0 + gt 2 hc qE
2 37. (C) ∆E = α =
m
λ
2s 44. (C)
t = 1242 eV - nm
g = 45. (A) Reasons—
λ(in nm) (A) Ionic solids do not have free
2 × 490 1242 eV - nm
= ∴ EK – EL = electrons. Hence they are
9·8 0·021 nm poor conductors of electri-
= 10 sec 1242 city. On dissolving in water,
= eV
Horizontal distance covered in 10 0·021 ions become free and con-
sec = 59 × 103 eV duct electricity.
= 100 × 10 m = 1 km = 59 k eV (Continued on Page 1674 )

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1582

 CHEMISTRY OF ALKALI METALS
Introduction
● Group I consists of the elements : Lithium (Li), Sodium
(Na), Potassium (K), Rubidium (Rb), Caesium (Cs) and
Francium (Fr).
● Francium (Fr) is radioactive, its longest-lived isotope
223 has a half-life of only 21 minutes.
87 Fr
87Fr223 → 88 Ra 223 e0
+ – 1 (beta decay)
● All these elements are collectively known as alkali-
metals after the Arabic word al-qis meaning plant
ashes since ashes of plants are particularly rich in
carbonates of sodium and potassium.
● Alkali metals belong to s-block of long form of periodic
table as all of these have valence shell electronic con-
figuration, ns 1.
● The elements are all metals, excellent conductors of
electricity and typically soft and highly reactive.
● Sodium and its compounds are by far the most impor-
tant and most familiar of all alkali metals and their
compounds.
● Commercial production of sodium is carried out with the
help of Downs cell.
Occurrence and Abundance
● Lithium (Li) is the thirty-fifth most abundant element by
weight and is mainly found as silicate minerals,
spodumene LiAl (SiO3)2 and Lepidolite, (Li, Na, K)2
Al2 (SiO3)3 (F.OH)2.
● Sodium and potassium are the seventh and eighth
most abundant elements respectively by weight in the
earth’s crust.
■ NaCl and KCl occur in large amounts in sea water.
The largest source of Na is the rock salt (NaCl).
Sea water contains nearly 3% NaCl.
■ Various salts including, Na2B4O7.10H2O (borax),
Na 2CO3.NaHCO3.2H2O (trona), NaNO3 (Chile salt
petre) and Na2SO4.10H2O (mirabilite) are found as
natural deposits.
■ Potassium occurs mainly as deposit of KCl
(sylvine), a mixture of KCl and NaCl (sylvinite) and
the double salt KCl.MgCl2.6 H 2O (carnallite).
● There is no convenient source of rubidium and only one
of caesium and hence these elements are obtained as
by-products from lithium processing.
● Francium does not occur appreciably in nature due to
its transitory existence.
General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
(A) Atomic Properties
● Electronic configuration—All the elements have one
valence electron (ns 1) over the electronic configuration
of inert gases. The outermost s-electron is very well
screened from the nuclear charge in these elements.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1583
● Atomic and ionic size—Alkali metal atoms have
largest sizes in a particular period in periodic table.
With increase in atomic number atomic size gradually
increases down the group. The monovalent ions (M+)
are smaller than the parent atoms.
● Ionization enthalpy—The ionization enthalpies of
these elements are considerably low and decrease
down the group from Li to Cs. This is due to the large
atomic size which out do the increasing nuclear charge.
(B) Physical Properties
● All the alkali metals are silvery white, soft and light
elements. Due to large size, these elements have low
density which increases down the group from Li to Cs.
However, potassium is lighter than sodium. Lithium is
the lightest metal known.
● Photoelectric effect—When exposed to sun-light, the
higher alkali metals (K and Cs) eject electrons due to
their low ionization potential. Hence K and Cs are used
in photoelectric cells.
● Flame-colouration—Alkali metals and their salts
impart characteristic colours to an oxidising flame.
Metal → Li Na K Rb Cs
Colour → Crimson Yellow Violet Red violet Blue
(Purple)
λ (nm) → 670·8 589·2 766·5 780·0 455·5
● Mobility and electrical conductivity of ions in
aqueous solution :
■ Alkali metal ions exist as hydrated ions M+ (H2O)x
in the aqueous solution.
■ The degree of hydration decreases with increase in
ionic size from Li+ to Cs+, i.e., Li+ ion is the mostly
hydrated [Li (H2O)6] +.
■ The mobility of ions and electrical conductivity of
ions in aqueous solution are inversely proportional
to the size of hydrated ions. Hence among alkali
metal ions, the lithium ion has lowest mobility and
electrical conductivity. The mobility of ions and
electrical conductivity decrease in the order
Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
● Reducing character—The increasing order of redu-
cing character in gaseous state depends upon ioniza-
tion energy (IE) of atoms and hence expected order is
as :
Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
IE (kJ mol– 1) 520 496 419 403 376
■ The reducing character of any metal in solution is
best expressed in terms of its Standard electrode
potential (E°) which depends on its (I) sublimation
(II) ionization and (III) hydration enthalpies.
 E° (V) at 298 K Li Na K Rb
for M+(aq) + e – → M (s) } – 3·050 – 2·714 – 2·925 – 2·99 – 3·02
Hence in aqueous solution the increasing order of
reducing tendency is as :
Na < K < Rb < Cs < Li
With the smallest size of its ion lithium has highest
hydration enthalpy which accounts for its highest
negative value of E° and its highest reducing
power.
(C) Chemical Properties
● Alkali metals are highly reactive metals and the reac-
tivity gradually increases down the group.
● Reaction with water—Alkali metals react with water
liberating hydrogen. The reaction becomes increasingly
violent on descending the group. Na and K always
catch fire
2M + H2O → 2 MOH + H2↑
■ The standard electrode potential, E° and Gibbs
free energy, ∆G are related by equation
∆G = – n FE° (n = No. of electrons removed)
(F = Faraday constant)
■ The reaction Li+ + e – → Li has the largest negative
E° value, and hence the largest positive ∆G value.
Thus, this reaction does not occur spontaneously.
However, the reverse reaction Li → Li + + e – has
largest negative value of ∆G, so Li liberates more
energy than other metals when it reacts with water.
■ In view of above fact, it is rather surprising that Li
reacts with water less violently as compared to Na
and K. The explanation lies in the kinetics, i.e., the
rate at which reaction proceeds rather than in the
thermodynamics, i.e., the total energy liberated.
■ Potassium has low melting point (63°C) as com-
pared to Li (181°C) and the heat of reaction is just
sufficient to make it melt or vaporise. The molten
metal spreads out and exposes a large surface to
the water, so it reacts even faster, gets even hotter
and catches fire. Same explanation holds good for
vigorous reaction of water with Rb and Cs.
● Reaction with air—All alkali metals tarnish in air due
to the formation of oxide or hydroxide on the surface.
When heated in excess of air they form oxides Li2O,
Na 2O2, KO2, RbO 2 and CsO2 respectively.
■ Lithium shows exceptional behaviour in reacting
with air forming a mixture of oxide and nitride.
4 Li + O2 → 2 Li 2O
6 Li + N2 → 2 Li 3N
■ Li3N is an ionic compound and is a ruby red solid.
It reacts with water giving ammonia.
Li3N + 3 H2O → 3 LiOH + NH3↑
● Reaction with hydrogen—When heated with hydro-
gen, they form the hydrides of the formula M+H– (MH).
They are ionic solids with high melting point.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1584
Cs
■ Hydrides of alkali metals are salt-like and react
with proton donors like alcohols, gaseous ammonia
and alkynes. Decreasing order of stability of these
hydrides is as
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
■ Hydrides react with water liberating hydrogen. LiH
is used as a source of hydrogen for military pur-
poses and for filling meteorological balloons.
LiH + H2O → Li (OH) + H2↑
■ Some complex hydrides like Li [AlH 4], Na [BH 4]
and K [BH 4] are also known. These are powerful
reducing agents and are widely used in organic
chemistry.
● Reaction with liquid ammonia—Alkali metals dissolve
in liquid NH3, the solubility is as high as 5M. These
solutions are coloured and metastable.
■ The dilute solutions are blue but the colour changes
to bronze with increasing concentration. The blue
colour of dilute solution is attributed to the presence
of solvated electrons.
M + (x + y ) NH3 → [M (NH3)x ] + + [e (NH3)y ] –
Solvated electron
■ In concentrated solutions, ammoniated metal ions
are bound by free unpaired electrons. If the blue
solution is allowed to stand, the colour slowly fades
until it disappears due to the formation of metal
amide.
1
M+(am) + e –(am) + NH3(l) → MNH2(am) + H2(g)
2
(am denotes solution in ammonia)
■ Blue solutions are paramagnetic, whereas bronze
solutions are diamagnetic.
■ At concentration above 3M, solutions are copper-
bronze coloured and have metallic lustre (expanded
metals) because metal ion clusters are formed.
■ These solutions of metals in liquid ammonia con-
duct electricity better than any salt in any liquid and
their conductivity is similar to that of pure metals.
The conduction is mainly due to the presence of
solvated electrons.
■ These solutions of alkali metals in liquid ammonia
act as powerful reducing agents for many com-
pounds and coordination complexes and they may
even reduce an aromatic ring.
Abnormal Behaviour of Lithium
● The anomalous behaviour of Lithium (Li) is mainly due
to the exceptionally small size of its atom and ion (Li+).
Its ionic potential is greatest of all alkali metal ions.
Charge
Ionic potential =
Radius
● High polarising power of Li+ results in increased cova-
lent nature of its compounds which in turn is respon-
sible for their solubility in non-polar (organic) solvents.
● The main points of difference between lithium and rest
of alkali metals are summarised as follows :
■ Li is much harder, its m.p. and b.p. are higher than
other alkali metal.
■ Li is least reactive but the strongest reducing agent
in aqueous solution among all alkali metals. On
 combustion in air it forms mainly monoxide (Li 2O)
and nitride (Li 3N), unlike other alkali metals.
■ Li2CO3 is the least stable of all alkali metal carbo-
nates and hence it decomposes on heating unlike
other carbonates.
∆ and Na2O are pure white solids, but surprisingly K2O is
Li2CO3 → Li2O + CO2↑
■ LiHCO3 does not exist as a solid while other
bicarbonates exist as solid.
■ LiCl is deliquescent and crystallises as a hydrate,
LiCl.2H2O. Other alkali metal chlorides do not form
such hydrates.
■ Lithium unlike other alkali metals forms no acetylide
on reacting with acetylene.
■ LiNO3 on heating decomposes to give NO2 and O2
while nitrates of other alkali metals form nitrites and
O2 under similar conditions.
∆ reacts with CO 2 in the air it has been used to purify air
4 LiNO3 → 2 Li 2O + 4 NO2 + O2
∆ in submarines and confined spaces, as it removes CO 2
2 NaNO 3 → 2 NaNO 2 + O2
■ Fluoride, oxalate and phosphate salts of lithium are
sparingly soluble in water while corresponding salts
of all other alkali metals are soluble.
■ Lithium shows diagonal relationship with magne-
sium (Mg), the second element of second group.
Lithium resembles more with Mg as compared to
the elements of its own group because both Li and
Mg have almost same ionic potential.
Fajans’ Rules
● Partial covalent characters in ionic compounds are
developed due to the polarization of the anion by
cation. As a result of this effect the electron density
between two nuclei increases.
● The covalent characters in an ionic compound are
governed by following factors, which are collectively
known as Fajans’ rules.
■ Large anion—Larger the anion, greater is its
polarization and more are the covalent characters.
For example, among KF, KCl, KBr and KI, KI has
highest covalent character and KF has the least.
■ Small cation—Smaller the cation, greater is its
polarising power for anion and more are the cova-
lent characters. For example : among LiCl, NaCl,
KCl and RbCl; LiCl has highest covalent character
and RbCl has least.
■ Pseudo inert gas configuration of cation—Of the
two cations, having same charge and size, one with
the pseudo inert gas configuration (mostly transi-
tion metal ions) has more polarizing power than the
cation having inert gas configuration. For example :
° forms more covalent
Ag + (Ionic radius = 1·26 A)
°
AgCl as compared to KCl (K + radius = 1·33 A).
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1585
General Characteristics of Some Important Com-
pounds of Alkali Metals
(a) Oxides
● The monoxides are ionic, e.g., (2 Li+ and O2–). Li2O
pale yellow, Rb2O is bright yellow and Cs 2O is orange.
● The crystal structures of Li2O, Na 2O, K2O and Rb 2O
are anti-fluorite structures. Cs2O has anti-CdCl2 layer
structure.
● Sodium forms mainly peroxide (Na2O2) with some
Na 2O and all others form mainly superoxides (MO2)
with traces of monoxides.
● The peroxides contain [—O—O—]2– ion and hence
they are all diamagnetic and strong oxidising agents.
● Na 2O2 is pale yellow and is used industrially for
bleaching wool, pulp, paper and fabric. Because it
and produces O2.
2 Na2O2 + 2 CO2 → 2 Na2CO3 + O2
● The superoxides (MO2) contain [O2] – ion, which has an
unpaired electron. Hence they are paramagnetic and
are all coloured. LiO2 and NaO 2 are yellow, KO2 is
orange, RbO 2 is brown and CsO2 is orange.
● Superoxides are even stronger oxidising agents as
compared to peroxides and give both H2O2 and O 2 with
either water or acids.
1
KO2 + 2 H2O → KOH + H2O2 + O 2
2
● KO2 is used in space capsules, submarines and breath-
ing masks because it both produces dioxygen and
removes CO2.
4 KO 2 + 2 CO2 → 2 K2CO3 + 3 O2
● The stability of peroxides and superoxides increases
with increase in metal ion size.
Na 2O2 < K2O2 < Rb2O2 < Cs2O2
NaO 2 < KO2 < RbO2 < CsO2
(b) Halides
● All the halides, MX have negative enthalpies of forma-
tion which indicates that thermodynamically it is pos-
sible to form these halides from elements directly.
● The most negative enthalpies of formation occurs with
fluorides. For any given metal, the value decreases in
the order
Fluoride > Chloride > Bromide > Iodide
NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI
Thus fluorides are most stable and iodides, the least
stable.
● The enthalpies of formation of chlorides, bromides and
iodides become more negative on descending the
group. This trend is observed in most of the salts. The
stability increases in the order :
NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl
NaBr < KBr < RbBr < CsBr
NaI < KI < RbI < CsI
Note : Opposite trend is found in case of fluorides. LiF
is the most stable and CsF is the least stable.
● The melting points and boiling points always follow the
trend.
Fluoride > Chloride > Bromide > Iodide
NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI
● All halides are soluble in water. The lowest solubility of
LiF is due to its highest lattice energy whereas the low
solubility of CsI is due to small hydration energy of its
two ions.
(c) Salts of oxo-acids
● Since alkali metals are the most electropositive, they
form salts with all oxo-acids. They are generally soluble
in water and thermally stable.
● Carbonates and bicarbonates are highly stable. As the
electropositive character increases down the group,
the stability of carbonates (M2CO3) and bicarbonates
(MHCO3) increases down the group. Lithium is excep-
tional in so far as its carbonate is not stable and bicar-
bonate does not exist as a solid.
Thermal stability and solubility in water follow the
following trend—
Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < Cs2CO3
NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < RbHCO3 < CsHCO3.
● NaHCO3 is not very soluble in water and, therefore, it
makes a basis for the Solvay process of manufacture
of sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.10H2O). K2CO3 cannot
be prepared by Solvay process because KHCO3 is
fairly soluble in water as compared to NaHCO 3.
Points to Remember
● Lithium can not be stored in kerosene oil because it is very
light and hence floats over surface. Hence it is kept
wrapped in paraffin wax. Other alkali metals can be stored
in kerosene oil.
● Microcosmic salt, Na (NH4) HPO4.4 H2O, is some times
used in place of borax for performing bead test for coloured
basic radicals.
● All alkali metals except Li, dissolve in mercury forming ● Following are some important compounds of alkali metals
amalgams with evolution of heat. These amalgams are
used as reducing agents in organic chemistry.
● Polyhalide formation—Alkali metal halides react with halo- (i)
gens and interhalogens forming ionic polyhalides.
KI + I2 → KI 3
KBr + ICl → K [BrICl]
KF3 + BrF3 → K [BrF 4]
● All alkali metal sulphates form alums (except Li2SO4).Li2SO4
is not isomorphous with other sulphates.
● Sodium-lead (Na-Pb) alloy is used in the preparation of
antiknock compound, Pb (C2H5)4.
● Liquid sodium is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors.
● Lithium metal is used as scavenger in the metallurgical
operations to remove oxygen and nitrogen; because Li
reacts with both O2 and N2.
● When the concentration of alkali metals in liquid ammonia is
increased beyond 3M, the solvated electron undergoes a
pairing process.
[2e (NH3)x]– [e2 (NH3)x]2–
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1586
● Except lithium bicarbonate, all other bicarbonates form
carbonates on heating.
2 NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
Uses of Alkali Metals and their Compounds
● Lithium stearate, C 17H35COOLi, is used in making
automobile grease.
● Lithium is alloyed with Pb to make white metal which
is used to make bearings for motor engines.
● Armour plates are made from Li-Mg alloy.
● Large amounts of Na 2SO4 are used to make soaps,
detergents, paper, textiles and glass.
● NaOCl is used as a bleach and a disinfectant. NaHCO3
is used in baking powder.
● The largest use of sodium is to make Na.Pb alloy
needed to make PbEt4 and PbMe4. These organolead
compounds are used as anti-knock additives to petrol.
● KOH is used to make potassium phosphates and also
soft soaps (potassium stearate), both of which are used
in liquid detergents.
● KNO 3 is used in most of the explosives. Roughly 95%
of potassium salts are used as fertilizers for plants.
● KBr finds an extensive use in photography.
● Sodium vapour is used to fill street lamps, which emits
a characteristic yellowish-orange glow.
● Caesium is used in vapour form in the atomic clock, the
vibration of its atoms acting as a regulator.
● High thermal conductivity of Na makes it a very effec-
tive heat-transfer medium.
Hence, while dilute solutions are paramagnetic, the concen-
trated solutions become diamagnetic.
● A granular material prepared from quick-lime and NaOH solu-
tion followed by heating to dryness, is known as sodalime. It
is used as an absorbent for CO2 and in decarboxylation
organic reactions.
which are most often known by common and commercial
names :
Na2CO3, Soda ash
(ii) K2CO3, Pearl ash
(iii) A mixture of Na O and dil. HCl, Oxone or Soda-bleach
2 2
(iv) Na2CO3.NaHCO3.2 H2O, Sodium sesquicarbonate, used
for wool washing
(v) NaCl, Rock salt
(vi) Na2SO4.10 H2O, Glauber’s salt
(vii) NaNO3, Chile salt petre
(viii) Na2B4O7.10 H2O, Borax
(ix) Na3[AlF6], Cryolite
● Some complexes of alkali metals with crown ethers and
cryptands are known. Complexes with cryptands are known
as cryptates. The term cryptate comes from the fact that
metal ion remains hidden in the structure.
● Base consisting of a soluble metal hydroxide, is known as
alkali. Alkali metals form caustic alkalies.
 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is the 11. Which of the following compounds (C) KO2
lightest metal known in whole of is the most deliquescent in (D) None of these
periodic table ? nature ?
21. The ionization potentials of alkali-
(A) Aluminium (A) LiCl (B) NaCl
metals are in order
(B) Tin (C) KCl (D) RbCl
Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li
(C) Lithium 12. Which of the following compounds
but Li is the strongest reducing
(D) Beryllium has highest covalent characters ?
agent. The strongest reducing
2. Alkali metals in each period of (A) NaF (B) NaCl nature of Li is attributed to—
the periodic table have— (C) NaBr (D) NaI (A) Small size and high ioniza-
(A) Smallest atomic radii tion energy
13. A colourless salt imparts yellow
(B) Highest electronegativity colour to Bunsen flame and its (B) Small size and high heat of
(C) Highest melting point aqueous solution does not hydration
(D) Lowest ionization potential change the colour of litmus paper.
(C) Small size and low heat of
3. The strongest metal-metal bond The salt is—
hydration
exists in— (A) K2CO3 (B) Na 2CO3
(D) None of these
(A) Lithium (B) Sodium (C) NaCl (D) CH3COONa
(C) Potassium (D) Caesium 22. Which of the following nuclear
14. Which of the following compounds
reactions gives francium ?
4. Which of the following com- has highest electrovalent charac-
pounds does not exist in the solid ters ? (A) Alpha decay of actinium
state ? (A) LiCl (B) BeCl 2 (B) Beta decay of actinium
(A) Na 2CO3 (B) NaHCO3 (C) MgCl2 (D) KCl (C) Gamma decay of actinium
(C) Li2CO3 (D) LiHCO3
15. Which of the following halides has (D) Alpha decay of uranium
5. Which of the following is the the highest lattice energy and
lightest element ? highest stability ? 23. Which of the following compounds
is extensively used in explo-
(A) Potassium (B) Sodium (A) LiF (B) LiCl
sives ?
(C) Rubidium (D) Caesium (C) LiBr (D) LiI
(A) K2SO4 (B) Na 2SO4
6. When metallic sodium is heated 16. Which of the following ions has
(C) KNO 3 (D) K2CO3
in presence of sufficient oxygen, the highest conductivity ?
which of the following compounds (A) Li+ (B) Na + 24. Sodium metal can be stored in—
is mainly formed ? (C) K+ (D) Rb + (A) Kerosene oil
(A) Na 2O (B) Na 2O2
17. Which of the following halides has (B) Benzene
(C) NaO (D) NaO 2
the highest melting point ?
(C) Toluene
7. Which of the following compounds (A) NaF (B) NaCl
is better used as a source of oxy- (D) All of these
(C) NaBr (D) NaI
gen in space capsules, sub- 25. Which of the following is the
marines and in breathing masks ? 18. Ionic potential of Li+ is almost
equal to that of— incorrect statement ?
(A) Na 2O2 (B) K2O
(A) Mg2+ ion (A) Lithium has highest ioniza-
(C) Li2O (D) KO2
tion potential among alkali
(B) Rb + ion
8. Which of the following hydrides of metals
alkali metals possesses the (C) Cs+ ion
(B) Lithium is the lightest metal
highest enthalpy of formation ? (D) Both (B) and (C)
known
(A) LiH (B) NaH 19. The heat of hydration of alkali (C) Lithium is the strongest
(C) PbH (D) CsH metal ions decreases in order : reducing agent among alkali
9. Which of the following ions has Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ metals
lowest ionic mobility in aqueous Which metal will react with water (D) Lithium chloride is totally
solution ? at the highest rate ? insoluble in water
(A) Cs+ (B) Rb + (A) Li (B) Na 26. A dilute solution of sodium metal
(C) K + (D) Li+ (C) K (D) Rb in liquid ammonia is strongly
10. The metal which acts as 20. Which among the following reducing on account of—
strongest reducing agent in compounds is paramagnetic in (A) Sodium amide
aqueous solution, is— nature ? (B) Solvated cation
(A) Lithium (B) Sodium (A) K2O2 (C) Solvated electron
(C) Potassium (D) Rubidium (B) BaO2 (D) Both (B) and (C)

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1587

27. Which of the following sodium
salts is used for performing bead
test in qualitative analysis ?
(A) Borax
(B) Microcosmic salt
(C) Potash alum
(D) Both (A) and (B)
28. Which of the following alkali metal
ions is the best conductor of
electricity ?
(A) Li+ (B) Na +
(C) K + (D) Cs+
29. Which of the following ions has
the biggest size in aqueous solu-
tion ?
(A) Li+ (B) Na +
(C) Rb + (D) Cs+
30. A ruby red compound of an alkali
metal when reacts with water
gives ammonia. The compound
is—
(A) NaN3 (B) LiNO2
(C) Li3N (D) LiN3
31. Which of the following will be
diamagnetic in nature ?
(A) A dilute solution of Na in
liquid ammonia
(B) A concentrated solution of
Na in liquid ammonia
(C) Sodium metal
(D) None of these
32. Anhydrous form of sodium carbo-
nate is commercially known as—
(A) Washing soda
(B) Salt soda
(C) Pearl ash
(D) Soda ash
33. Squashes are preserved
adding—
(A) Sodium sulphate
(B) Sodium metabisulphite
(C) Microcosmic salt
(D) None of these
34. Dry powder fire extinguishers
contain—
(A) Soda ash and sand
(B) Baking soda and sand
(C) Pearl ash and sand
(D) Sand only
35. The reactivity of sodium with
water is made used in—
(A) Drying alcohol
(B) Drying ammonia
(C) Drying benzene
(D) None of these
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1588
36. Which of the following is the by- 42. What is the percentage of NaCl in
product during the manufacture sea water ?
of Na 2CO3 by Solvay process ? (A) 10 per cent
(A) Lime stone (B) 5 per cent
(B) Calcium chloride (C) 3 per cent
(C) Ammonia (D) 15 per cent
(D) Carbon dioxide 43. Molten sodium is used in nuclear
37. Which of the following properties reactors to—
of lithium is more similar to that (A) Absorb neutrons
of other alkali metals as com- (B) Slow down the neutrons
pared to that of magnesium ? (C) Absorb the heat
(A) Oxidation state (D) Absorb radioisotopes
(B) Electronegativity 44. The fire caused by combustion of
(C) Solubility of hydroxide alkali metals can be extinguished
by—
(D) All of these
(A) Water
38. In which of the following proper- (B) Kerosene
ties lithium resembles more with (C) Carbon tetrachloride
magnesium as compared to other (D) None of these
alkali metals ?
45. Which of the following substan-
(A) Direct reaction with atmos- ces is formed when CO is passed
pheric nitrogen over solid NaOH heated at
(B) Greater solubility of its bicar- 200°C ?
bonate than carbonate (A) Sodium carbonate
(C) Absence of peroxide in the (B) Sodium bicarbonate
product of reaction with (C) Sodium acetate
excess oxygen (D) Sodium formate
(D) All of these
46. In the disproportionation of chlo-
39. Which of the following is the rine with NaOH, the main reaction
wrong statement regarding fran- products are—
cium (Fr) ? (A) NaCl and NaClO4
(A) It has bcc type of lattice (B) NaCl and NaOCl
(B) The main product of combus- (C) NaCl and NaClO2
tion of Fr metal in air is FrO2 (D) None of these
(C) Melting point of Fr is highest 47. When sodium chloride is dis-
of all alkali metals solved in water—
(D) Melting point of FrCl is lowest (A) Na + ion is oxidised
by of all chlorides of other alkali (B) Na + ion is hydrolysed
metals
(C) Cl– ion is hydrolysed
40. The compound Cs BrCl2 con- (D) Both Na + and Cl– ions are
tains— hydrated
(A) Cs3+ and Cl – and Br– ions 48. Which of the following is the
(B) Cs+ and BrCl 2– ions correct increasing order of solu-
(C) Cs2+ and 2 Cl– and Br2 bility in water ?
(A) CaCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3
(D) None of these
(B) KHCO3 < NaHCO3 < CaCO3
41. Which is the correct statement of (C) NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < CaCO3
the following ?
(D) CaCO3 < KHCO3 < NaHCO3
(A) E° red of Li is more positive
than that of Rb 49. Soda is—
(A) NaHCO3.Na2CO3
(B) E°ox of Li is more negative
(B) NaOH
than that of Rb
(C) Na 2CO3.10 H 2O
(C) Rb is the stronger reducing
agent than lithium (D) Na 2CO3
(D) None of these (Continued on Page 1603 )
 CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS
Introduction
Thermodynamics is the branch of science which
deals with the energy changes accompanying all types of
physical and chemical processes. The word ‘thermody-
namics’ implies flow of heat.
● Importance of thermodynamics—It is a funda-
mental subject of great importance in physical
chemistry. Most of the important laws of physical
chemistry like van’t Hoff law of dilute solutions,
distribution law, Raoult’s law, law of chemical equili-
brium, the phase rule and the laws of thermo-
chemistry can be deduced from the laws of thermo-
dynamics. It also helps to lay down the criteria for
predicting feasibility or spontaneity of a process
under a given set of conditions. It also helps to
predict the yields of products.
● Limitations—Laws of thermodynamics apply only to
matter in bulk and to no individual atoms or mole-
cules. In other words, the laws of thermodynamics
apply to behaviour of assemblages of a vast number
of molecules and not to individual molecules. It also
does not tell anything about the rate at which a given
process may proceed and gives no information about
the mechanism or path taken by a process.
Terminology of Thermodynamics
1. System
A system is that part of the universe which is under
thermodynamic study and the rest of universe is known as
surroundings.
A system can be of three types.
(a) Isolated system—A system which can exchange
neither energy nor matter with its surroundings.
(b) Closed system—A system which can exchange
energy but not matter with its surroundings.
(c) Open system—A system which can exchange
matter as well as energy with its surroundings.
2. Macroscopic Properties
The properties associated with a macroscopic system
(i.e., consisting of large number of particles) are called
macroscopic properties. These properties are pressure,
volume, temperature, density, surface tension etc.
3. Thermodynamic Equilibrium
A system in which the macroscopic properties do not
undergo any change with time is said to be in
thermodynamic equilibrium. It implies the existence of
three kinds of equilibria in the system (a) Thermal
equilibrium, (b) Mechanical equilibrium and (c) Chemical
equilibrium.
4. Extensive and Intensive Properties
Properties of a substance which depend on the
quantity of matter (or amount of the substance) are called
extensive properties. Examples : mass, volume, enthalpy,
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1589
free energy, heat capacity etc. Properties which do not
depend on the quantity of matter are called intensive
properties. Examples : pressure, temperature, surface
tension, viscosity, specific heat etc.
5. State of a System
The conditions for existence of a particular system
when its macroscopic properties have definite values. A
system to be in a state must have definite values
assigned to its macroscopic properties such as tem-
perature, pressure, volume and composition. These four
properties are called thermodynamic properties or
parameters or state variables.
6. State Functions
The thermodynamic parameters which depend only
upon the initial and final states of the system and are
independent of how the change is accomplished are
called state functions. Examples : internal energy,
enthalpy, entropy, pressure, temperature etc.
Thermodynamic Processes and their Types
The operation by which a system changes from one
state to another is called a process. The following types of
processes are known—
(a) Isothermal—Temperature of the system
remains constant during each stage of the
process.
(b) Adiabatic—Process in which no heat enters or
leaves the system during any step of the
process.
(c) Isobaric—Process in which the pressure of the
system remains constant during each step of the
process.
(d) Isochoric—Those processes in which the
volume remains constant.
(e) Cyclic—When a process in a given state goes
through a number of different steps and finally
returns to its initial state.
Internal Energy (E) and Change in Internal
∆ E)
Energy (∆
The total energy stored in a substance by virtue of its
chemical nature is called its internal energy (E) or intrinsic
energy. E is a state function, i.e., its value depends upon
state of the substance but does not depend upon how the
state is achieved. The various energies which contribute
towards internal energy are translational energy of the
molecule (Et), rotational energy of the molecule (Er),
vibrational energy of the molecule (Ev ), electronic energy
(Ee), nuclear energy (En ) and interaction energy of
molecule (E i )
E = Et + Er + Ev + Ee + En + Ei
The absolute value of internal energy cannot be
determined but the change in internal energy, which
occurs during chemical reaction, can be determined by
∆E = ΣEproducts – ΣEreactants
 For exothermic reactions ∆E is negative
because ΣEreactants > ΣEproducts
For endothermic reactions ∆E is positive
because ΣEproducts > ΣEreactants
Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
The law states that if two bodies X and Y are
separately in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they all
will be in thermal equilibrium with each other. This law
introduces the concept of temperature. It is the underlying
principle in the measurement of temperature.
First Law of Thermodynamics
This law was given by Meyer and Helmholtz in 1840.
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, however, it
can be transformed from one form to another. This is also
known as the law of conservation of energy. The law is
based on the cumulative experience of ages that it is
impossible to construct a perpetual motion machine, i.e., a
machine which can produce energy without expenditure of
energy.
For the mathematical expression, let us assume that
a system having internal energy E1 absorbs a certain
amount of heat energy (q).
∴ Its internal energy = q + E1
Let an amount of work w be done on it, so that its
internal energy changes to E 2
∴ E2 = E1 + q + w
or E2 – E1 = q + w
∴ ∆E = q + w …(1)
(Change in internal energy) = (Heat absorbed) +
(Work done on the system)
When work is done by the system
∆E = q – w
Similarly q will be positive sign when heat is absorbed
and negative sign when heat is evolved from the system.
For a cyclic process, where initial and final states are
same,
E2 = E1
Hence, ∆E = 0
and q = w
For the change in volume (∆V) during the process at
constant pressure P, the work is referred to as pressure–
volume work and its expression is given as (– P∆V)
Thus w = – P∆V
∴ ∆E = q – P∆V …(2)
or q = ∆E + P∆V
If during the change, the volume remains constant,
then no work is done
i.e., P∆V = 0
Hence, qv = ∆E
Thus, change in internal energy represents the heat
change taking place during the process occurring at
constant volume and constant temperature.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1590
∆H)
Enthalpy (H) and Enthalpy Change (∆
Enthalpy is the heat content of a system at constant
temperature and pressure. It is the sum of internal energy
and volume energy of a system.
Mathematically, H = E + PV
where PV = volume energy of a system.
If pressure is kept constant
∴ ∆H = ∆E + P∆V
The change in enthalpy may be expressed as—
∆H = H(products) – H (reactants)
= Hp – H r
The enthalpy change of a reaction is equal to the
heat absorbed or evolved during a reaction at constant
temperature and constant pressure.
From first law of thermodynamics, we know that for
expansion work
∆E = q – P∆V
∴ ∆H = q – P∆V + P∆V
∴ ∆H = q(p) (Pressure being constant)
A Closer Look
● For exothermic reactions
∆E or ∆H = – ve
● For endothermic reactions—
∆E or ∆H = + ve
● A process which is carried out so slowly that the
system remains in equilibrium at every stage is called
reversible process.
● Mechanical work is said to be done when there is a
change in volume of the system at a constant
temperature and pressure.
● The relation of unit mechanical work to thermal unit is
called mechanical equivalent of heat. Its numerical
value is 4·185 × 10 7 erg = 4·185 joule. Thus, for
expenditure of 4·185 × 107 erg = 4·185 joule of
mechanical energy, one calorie of heat is produced.
Hence,
1 calorie > 1 joule > 1 erg
● Heat change taking place at constant volume and
constant temperature is represented by ∆E i.e.,
change in internal energy.
● Heat change taking place at constant pressure and
constant temperature is represented by ∆H, i.e.
change in enthalpy.
Thus, enthalpy change (∆H) represents, the heat
change taking place during the process occurring at
constant temperature and constant pressure.
Thermochemistry—A study of heat or energy
changes accompanying a chemical reaction is termed as
thermochemistry. An equation which indicates the amount
of heat evolved or absorbed in the reaction process is
called a thermochemical equation. It must essentially (a)
be balanced, (b) give the value of ∆E or ∆H (c) mention
the physical state of the reactants and products.
Heat of reaction—It is defined as “the amount of
heat evolved or absorbed when the number of gram
molecules of the substance as specified by the equation
have completely reacted.” For example—
C(s) + O2 → CO2 + 393·5 kJ
(g) (g)
∆H = – 393·5 kJ
 According to the equation when 1 gram atom (12 g) A Closer Look
of solid carbon reacts with 1 mole (32 g) of oxygen gas to
● If Ep > Er , reaction will be endothermic, ∆E will be
give 1 mole (44 g) of CO2 at 25°C and at atmospheric
positive.
pressure, 393·5 kJ (94380 calories) of heat is evolved.
● If E p < Er, reactions will be exothermic, ∆E will be
This is thus the heat of above reaction.
negative.
Heat of reaction at constant volume—Let us
● The value of ∆V is negligible in the reactions involving
consider a chemical reaction taking place at constant solids and liquids. Hence, for such reactions
temperature and constant volume. In such case w = 0 and P∆V = 0
hence, from first law (viz., ∆E = q – w) and ∆H = ∆E
∆E = qV That is heat of reaction at constant pressure is equal
to that at constant volume
Suppose E r and Ep are the internal energies of
reactants and products respectively, then—
∆E = Ep – Er
●
( )d∆H
dt
. p
= ∆Cp

∆E = Ep – Er = qv
and
( )d∆E
dt
. v
= ∆Cv

= Heat of reaction at constant volume are known as Kirchhoff’s equations which show
Thus the heat of reaction at constant volume and at a variation of heat of reaction at constant pressure and
given temperature is given by the difference in the internal constant volume respectively.
energies of the products and the reactants. ● Kirchhoff’s equation shows that change in heat of
Heat of reaction at constant pressure—For the reaction at constant pressure or volume per degree
change of temperature is shown by differences in
reaction at constant pressure and temperature
heat capacities of products and reactants at constant
∆H = qp pressure or volume.
If Hp and Hr are the enthalpies of the products and ● If molar heat capacities of products and reactants are
reactants respectively, then same, then the heat of reaction is independent of
temperature.
∆H = Hp – H r
● The molar heat capacities of solids are almost equal
∆H = Hp – H r = qp to each other and hence heat of reactions involving
= Heat of reaction at constant pressure solids are almost independent of temperature.
Thus, the heat of reaction at constant pressure and at
Types of Heat of Reactions
a given temperature is given by the difference in the
enthalpies of the products and reactants. (1) Heat of formation—The quantity of heat evolved
Relation between heat of reaction at constant or absorbed when one mole of a compound is formed
∆ E) and constant pressure (∆
volume (∆ ∆ H) from its elements. It is expressed as ∆Hf ·e.g.,
∆H = ∆E + P∆V 1
H2(g) + O → H2O(l) , ∆Hf = – 68 k cal
2 2(g)
= ∆E + ∆nRT
(2) Heat of combustion—The quantity of heat
∆n = Difference in number of moles of gaseous evolved when one mole of a substance is completely
products and gaseous reactants. oxidised e.g.,
R = Gas constant, T = Temperature in kelvin.
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
If ∆n = 0 ∆H = ∆E
∆H = – 213 k cal
If ∆n = Positive ∆H > ∆E The heat of combustion is very useful in—
If ∆n = Negative ∆H < ∆E (a) Calculating the heat of formation which is
otherwise not possible in many cases.
Variation of heat of reaction with temperature—
The variation of heat of reaction with temperature is given (b) Calculating the calorific value of fuels.
by Kirchhoff’s equation (c) Elucidating the structure of organic compounds.
∆E2 – ∆E1 = ∆Cv (T2 – T 1) (3) Heat of solution—The quantity of heat evolved
and ∆H2 – ∆H1 = ∆Cp (T2 – T 1) or absorbed when one mole of a solute is dissolved
completely in a large excess of water, so that the further
where ∆Cv is difference in heat capacities of products and dilution does not produce any heat change e.g.,
reactants at constant volume and ∆Cp is difference in heat
HCl(g) + nH2O → HCl(aq), ∆H = –39·3 k cal
capacities of products and reactants at constant pressure.
Heat of reaction depends on— (4) Heat of neutralisation—The quantity of heat
(i) Physical state and the amount of substance evolved when one equivalent (equivalent mass) of an acid
is completely neutralised by one equivalent (equivalent
(ii) Temperature
mass) of a base in dilute solution e.g.,
(iii) In the case of reactions involving gases whether
the reaction is taking place at constant volume or at HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
constant pressure. ∆H = –13·68 k cal

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1591

 The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and a
strong base is always – 13·7 k cal. On the basis of
electrolytic dissociation theory, it has been clearly
explained that this heat of neutralisation is merely the heat
of formation of water from H + of an acid and OH– of a
base.
H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l), ∆H = –13·7 k cal
The heat of neutralisation in case of a weak acid or a
weak base is somewhat less than – 13·7 k cal because
some of the energy is used up in dissociating these weak
electrolytes. The difference in the value gives the
dissociation energy of the weak acid or a weak base.
The heat of neutralisation of CH3COOH by NaOH is
found to be –13·2 k cal. The decrease in heat of
neutralisation is due to the fact that some heat is utilised
in dissociation of weak acid (CH3COOH). Thus, the heat
of dissociation (x) of acetic acid is—
– 13·7 + x = – 13·2
or x = 0·5 k cal.
Similarly, the heat of dissociation of weak base
(NH4OH) in its neutralisation by HCl is
13·7 – 12·3 = 1·4 k cal.
(The heat of neutralisation of NH4OH by HCl is – 12·3)
(5) Heat of dissociation or Ionisation—The quantity
of heat absorbed when one mole of a substance
completely dissociates into its ions. e.g.,
H2O(l) → H+ + OH– , ∆H = 13·7 k cal
(6) Heat of dilution—The quantity of heat evolved or
absorbed when solution containing one mole of a solute is
diluted from one concentration to another.
KCl(s) + 20H2O → KCl (20H2O),
∆H1 = +3·8 k cal
KCl(s) + 200H2O → KCl (200H2O),
∆H2 = +4·44 k cal
∴ Heat of dilution = ∆H2 – ∆H1
= 0·64 k cal
(7) Heat of precipitation—The quantity of heat
evolved in the precipitation of one mole of a sparingly
soluble substance on mixing dilute solutions of suitable
electrolytes e.g.,
Ba2+(aq) + SO42–(aq) → BaSO4(s), ∆H = 4·66 k cal
Laws of Thermochemistry
(1) Lavoisier and Laplace law—This law states that
the amount of heat required to decompose a compound
into its elements is always equal to the heat of formation
of that compounds from its elements.
In other words the heat evolved in a particular
reaction is equal to heat absorbed when reaction is
reversed.
This thermochemical equation can be reversed only
by changing the sign of heat evolved or absorbed.
For example—
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ∆H = –94·05 k cal
CO2(g) → C(s) + O2(g); ∆H = +94·05 k cal
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1592
(2) Hess’s law of constant heat summation—It
states that “the amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a
chemical change is the same whether the process takes
place in one step or in several steps”. For e.g., A system
changes from state ‘A’ to state ‘B’ in one step.
A → B+Q
Now suppose the system changes from state A to B
in three steps
D
C
A B
A → C + q1
C → D + q2
D → B + q3
Then according to Hess’s law
Q = q1 + q2 + q3
Applications—(1) By using Hess’s law, thermo-
chemical equations may be multiplied, added, divided or
subtracted just like ordinary algebraic equations.
(2) Hess’s law helps us to calculate the heat of
formation, heat of combustion of compounds.
(3) Hess’s law is used in calculating the heat of
transition, i.e., conversion of one allotropic form into
another.
Bond energy—It may be defined as the energy
required to break a bond between two atoms, in one mole
of a gaseous substance, forming gaseous atoms. For a
diatomic molecule like H 2 that has only one bond, the
dissociation energy of the molecule is identical to the
bond energy. It may be noted that in molecules involving
more than one bonds of the same type one takes an
average value. e.g., in CH4 there are 4 C—H bonds. The
breaking of each of these C—H bonds is associated with
a different enthalpy change. Hence C—H bond energy is
taken as the average value. e.g.,
CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g) ; ∆H = 398 k cal
According to definition, the average bond energy of
398
C—H bonds = 99·5 k cal.
4
Bond energies are used in the determination of
enthalpies of reactions, enthalpies of formation of
compounds and determination of resonance energy.
Limitations of First Law : Need for the Second
Law of Thermodynamics
(1) The first law states that during a process one form
of energy can be changed into another form but the total
amount of energy remains the same. However, it does not
predict whether the process in question can occur
spontaneously or not and if so in which direction.
(2) The first law states that energy of one form can be
converted into an equivalent amount of energy of another
form. However, in experience it has been observed that
although various forms of energy can be completely
transformed into other; but heat energy cannot be
completely converted into equivalent amount of work
without producing some changes elsewhere.
Second Law of Thermodynamics
A Closer Look
Second law can be stated in various ways as—
● Units of entropy change (∆
∆S)
(a) It is impossible to construct a machine working in q
∆S = , thus
cycles which can convert heat completely into an T
equivalent amount of work without producing any calorie
In C.G.S. units, ∆S = = cal deg–1
additional changes elsewhere (Planck’s definition). degree
joules
(b) It is impossible to construct a heat engine In S.I. units, ∆S =
degrees in kelvin
operating in cycles which can perform work at the
= J-K–1
expense of heat obtained from a thermal reservoir
(Kelvin’s statement) ● An irreversible spontaneous reaction is accom-
panied by an increase in the value of ∆S i.e., for such
(c) It is impossible for a self acting machine unaided a reaction, ∆S has a positive value.
by any external agency to transform heat from a colder q
∆S >
body to a hotter body (Clausius statement). T
or ∆S > 0
Although second law has been stated in a number of
ways but all statements are modifications of the same ● A non spontaneous reaction is accompanied by a
fundamental concept “work can always be converted decrease in the value of ∆S i.e., for such a reaction
into heat but the conversion of heat into work does ∆S has a negative value.
not always takes place under all conditions.” ● For a reversible spontaneous reaction ∆S is equal
to zero i.e.,
Carnot Cycle or Carnot Engine qrev
∆S = T =0
In 1924, S. Carnot (a French engineer) observed that
● When a solid melts
maximum conversion of heat into work occurs in a cyclic ∆Hfusion
process in which all the necessary steps are carried out ∆Sfusion = Melting temperature
reversibly. Such a reversible cycle is called Carnot cycle ∆Hvaporisation
and the engine working on the basis of this cycle is called ∆Svaporisation = Temperature of vaporisation
Carnot engine or heat engine. ● In general ∆S for any phase transition
Efficiency of a heat engine is defined as the fraction ∆H
= Transitiontransition
of heat absorbed by the engine which it can convert into temperature
work. ● All periodic machines working reversibly between the
It is expressed as same temperatures of source and sink have same
q 2 – q1 efficiency.
η =
q2 ● If an isothermal change is carried out reversibly, it
T2 – T 1 leads to maximum work of expansion. Therefore,
= reversible machine will give maximum efficiency.
T2
w ● The fraction of heat absorbed by a machine which it
=
q2 can convert into work or other energy is called the
efficiency of the machine.
η is efficiency, q2 is heat absorbed by the engine at
higher temperature equal to T2 and q1 is the heat evolved ● First law—The total amount of energy in nature is
by the engine at lower temperature T1. Since, (T2 – T1)/T2 constant.
is always less than unity, the efficiency of a heat engine is ● Second law—The total amount of entropy in nature
always less than unity. In fact no heat engine has so far is increasing.
been constructed whose efficiency is equal to unity. ● Entropy always increases in the direction of spon-
Entropy (S)—The concept of entropy was introduced taneous change.
by Clausius in 1854. It is a thermodynamic state quantity ● Entropy change in isothermal expansion of an ideal
i.e., It is a measure of the randomness or disorder of the gas is given by
V2
molecules of the system. The change in entropy, ∆S for
any process is given by the equation
∆S = nR ln
V1 ( )
● Entropy of mixing of ideal gases is given by
∆S = Sfinal – Sinitial
∆Smix = –(n 1R ln N1 + n2R ln N2 ……)
When Sfinal > Sinitial, ∆S is positive. where N1 and N2 are the mole fractions of gases and
“A change in a system which is accompanied by an n1 and n2 are number of moles of gases.
increase in entropy tends to be spontaneous.” We know that
∆E = q – w; ∆E = q – P∆V
When a system is allowed to change from one state
to another state, the heat q, is absorbed or evolved during q = ∆E + P∆V
the change depending upon the way, the change is q (∆E + P∆V)
∆S = T =
carried out. T

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1593

 Giving +ve sign to heat absorbed (q1) and –ve sign to When a reversible process occurs the entropy
heat evolved (q2) by a system, then for a reversible cycle remains constant, ∆Suniverse = 0.
q1 q2
+ = – Since, the entire universe is undergoing spontaneous
T1 T2 change, the second law can be most concisely stated as
q1 q2 “the entropy of the system is constantly increasing”.
or + = 0
T1 T2
. . Free Energy (G) and Work Function (A)
Thus, for reversible cycle the summation of q /T terms Entropy change is considered in terms of other
is equal to zero. Thus functions which can be determined more easily. Two such
q state functions are free energy and work function,
Σ = 0
T represented by G and A respectively. These are defined
For infinitesimal changes, equation is by the equations,
dq A = E – TS …(1)
Σ = 0
T and G = H – TS …(2)
Now, we know that dq and T are thermodynamic where A → Helmholtz work function
functions whose change measured by dq /T is independent G → Gibbs free energy
of path of change of system. This function is called entropy E → Internal energy
(S).
H → Enthalpy
If SA is the entropy in the initial state A and SB is the
S → Entropy
entropy in the final state B, then the change in entropy,
∆S, is given by the equation T → Temperature
∆S = SB – SA Since, E, H and S depend upon the state of a system,
B the functions A and G also depend upon the state of the
dq
= ∫ A
T
system,
∴ ∆A = ∆E – T∆S …(3)
For each infinitesimally small change
and ∆G = ∆H – T∆S …(4)
dq
dS = If the study is carried out reversibly at constant
T
temperature T, and that the heat absorbed is equal to qrev.
At constant temperature for a finite change, dS the increase in entropy
becomes ∆S and dq becomes q qrev
q ∆S =
∴ ∆S = T
T
Substituting it in equation (3), we get
Like ∆H and ∆E, the entropy change (∆S) is a definite
∆A = ∆E – qrev …(5)
quantity and it depends upon initial and final state of a
system. From first law of thermodynamics (∆E = q – w) we
have
For an adiabatic change, q = 0 hence, ∆S = 0. Such
–w rev = ∆E – qrev …(6)
type of change is called isoentropic change.
Combining equations (5) and (6), we get
Entropy is an extensive property and its value
depends upon the amount of the substance involved. –∆A = wrev …(7)
As the process is carried out reversibly, w represents
Standard entropy (S°)—Standard entropy is the
the maximum work. Thus decrease in the function (–∆A)
entropy of 1 mole of a substance in its pure state at 1 atm.
gives the maximum work obtainable from a system during
pressure and 25° C.
a given change. Thus, A is known as work function.
Statement of Second Law of Thermodynamics in Free energy—At constant pressure, we know
Terms of Entropy Change ∆H = ∆E + P∆V
It states that whenever a spontaneous process takes ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
place, it is accompanied by an increase in the total energy
of the universe, thus ∆G = ∆E + P∆V – T∆S
∆Suniverse = ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurroundings or ∆G = ∆A + P∆V [from equation (3)]
The second law as stated above tells us that when an or ∆G = –w rev + P∆V [from equation (7)]
irreversible spontaneous process occurs, the entropy of or –∆G = wrev – P∆V
the system and the surroundings increases.
Thus, –∆G gives the maximum work obtainable from
In other words ∆Suniverse > 0. a system other than that due to change of volume at

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1594

constant temperature and pressure. The work other than ∆H ∆S ∆G = ∆H – T∆
∆S Remarks
that due to change of volume is called the net work.
(1) Negative Positive Negative Reaction is spon-
Thus, net work = wrev – P∆V = –∆G taneous at all tem-
peratures.
So, –∆G is a measure of the maximum net work that (2) Positive Negative Positive Reaction is non-
can be obtained from a system at constant temperature spontaneous at all
temperatures.
and pressure. The function G, is due to Gibbs and is
known as Gibbs free energy or simply free energy. (3) Negative Negative Negative at low Spontaneous at
temperature low temperatures.
The free energy change (∆G) for a chemical reaction positive at high Non-spontaneous at
is given by temperature high temperatures.
(4) Positive Positive Positive at low Non-spontaneous at
∆G = Σ(∆Gproducts) – Σ(∆Greactants)
temperature low temperatures.
Negative at high Spontaneous at high
temperature temperatures.
A Closer Look
Work function (A) and free energy (G) are extensive Relation between the standard free energy change
properties. For a n isothermal process, these can be ∆ G°°) and equilibrium constant (K) of a reaction
(∆
written as
∆G° = – RT l n K
∆A = ∆E – T∆S …(i)
∆G = ∆H – T∆S …(ii) or ∆G° = – 2·303 RT log K
Subtraction (i) from (iii)
If R is taken as 8·314 JK –1 mol–1
∆G – ∆A = ∆H – ∆E
If ∆H is measured at constant pressure ∆G° = – 2·303 × 8·314 T log K
Then ∆H – ∆E = P∆V = – 19·147 T log K
Therefore, ∆G = ∆A + P∆V
Third law of thermodynamics—This law helps in
‘A’ is known as Helmholtz function and ‘G’ is known
determining the absolute values of entropy of various
as Gibbs function.
substances. For a crystalline substance at 0 K, there is
Gibbs and Helmholtz equations
perfect order, consequently, the disorder or entropy of
δ(∆A)
(1) ∆A – ∆E = T ( )
δT
V
substance at absolute zero is zero. This law was
δ(∆G) propounded by Nernst in 1906. It states as—
(2) ∆G – ∆H = T ( δT )
p “At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of
Gibbs equation perfectly crystalline substance is zero.”
∆G = ∆H – T∆S It may be stated in a number of other ways—
“At any pressure, the entropy of any crystalline solid
For a system at equilibrium, (∆G)T, P = 0.
in thermodynamic equilibrium at absolute zero is always
All spontaneous processes taking place at zero.”
constant temperature and pressure are accompanied “It is rather impossible to reduce the temperature of
by a decrease in free energy i.e., ∆G is negative. A any system to absolute zero by any process.”
process is thermodynamically not feasible when ∆G As the absolute temperature reaches zero, increase
is positive. Thus, depending on the sign of ∆H and in entropy for isothermal process in crystalline state
T∆S, the following four cases may be studied. approaches zero as the limit.

SOME IMPORTANT EXAMPLES WITH SOLUTIONS

Example 1. In a certain process, 678 J of heat is Example 2. Given the following information
absorbed by a system while 290 J of work is done on
A+B → C+D, ∆ H°° = – 10·0 k cal
the system. What is the change in internal energy
for the process ? C + D → E, ∆ H°° = 15·0 k cal
Solution : q = + 678 J
Calculate ∆H°° for each of the following reactions :
Since, work is done on the system, w has a positive
value (a) C + D → A + B
w = + 290 J (b) 2C + 2D → 2A + 2B
∴ ∆E = q + w = 678 + 290 = 968 J (c) A + B → E

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1595 / 5

 Solution : Adding two equations
(a) Since, the reaction is the reverse of the first HF → H+ + F–
given so the sign of ∆H° becomes positive ∆H° = 13·4 + (–16·4)
+ 10·0 k cal. = – 3·0 k cal.
(b) Since there are twice the number of moles of Example 6. For the reaction at 298 K,
each reactant, the value of ∆ H° will also be 2A + B → C
doubled. ∆ H = 100 k cal
∴ ∆H° = 20·0 k cal and ∆ S = 0·050 k cal/K
(c) Adding the two equations given Assuming ∆ H and ∆ S to be constant over the
A+B → C+D temperature range, at what temperature will the
reaction become spontaneous ?
+C+D → E
Solution :
A+B → E The reaction will just be spontaneous when
∆H° = –10 + 15 ∆G = 0
= + 5·0 k cal ∆G = ∆H – T∆S = 0
Example 3. The reaction of cyanamide NH2CN(s) ∆H = T∆S
with oxygen was run in a bomb calorimeter and ∆E ∆H
∴ T =
was found to be –742·7 kJ/mol of NH2 CN(s) at 298 K. ∆S
Calculate ∆H298 for the reaction. 100 k cal
=
3 0·050 k cal/K
NH2CN(s) + O 2(g) → N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) = 2000 K
2
Solution : Example 7. What is the standard free energy
3 change for the melting of 3·0 mol of water at 0°° C ?
The number of moles of gaseous reactant (O2) is ,
2 Determine the entropy change for this process. Is the
the number of moles of gaseous products (N 2 + CO2) is 2. entropy greater for the liquid than that of the solid ?
∆H = ∆E + P∆V ∆ Hfusion = 1·435 k cal/mol)
(∆
= ∆E + ∆nRT Solution :
3 1 ∆G° is 0 for this reversible process
∆n = 2 – =
2 2 ∆G = ∆H – T∆S = 0
∆H = – 742·7 kJ + (0·500 mol) (8·314 J/mol K) ∆H
(298 K) ∆S =
T
= – 742·7 kJ + 1240 J (˙.˙ 1240 J = 1·240 kJ) + 1435 cal/mol
=
= – 741·46 kJ 273 K

Example 4. What is the enthalpy change when = 5·26 cal/mol K

1·00 g of water is frozen at 0°° C ? (5·26 cal/mol K) (3·0 mol) = 15·78 cal/K.
∆ Hfusion = 1·435 k cal/mol)
(∆ The entropy is greater for the liquid as seen by the
positive sign of ∆ S. The melting of a solid into liquid
Solution :
results into increase in randomness or increase in
Freezing is just the reverse of melting, hence, the entropy.
enthalpy change must be – 1·435 k cal/mol
Example 8. ∆ G°° f for the formation of HI(g) from its
1435 cal/mol
∆H = – gaseous elements is –10·10 kJ/mol at 500 K when the
18·0 g/mol partial pressure of HI is 10·0 atm, and that of I 2 is
= –79·7 cal/g 0·001 atm. What must the partial pressure of hydrogen
Therefore, 79·7 cal of heat is liberated when 1·00 g of be at this temperature to reduce the magnitude of ∆G
water is frozen at 0°C and 1·00 atm. pressure. for the reaction to 0 ?
Example 5. The heat released on neutralisation of Solution :
CsOH with all strong acids is 13·4 k cal/mole. The heat 1 1
H + I → HI, ∆G° = –10·10 kJ at 500 K
released on neutralization of CsOH with HF(weak acid) 2 2 2 2
is 16·4 k cal/mol. Calculate ∆ H°° of ionization of HF in When ∆G = 0, the reaction is at equilibrium
water. – ∆G° = RTln K
Solution :
= 2·303 RT log K
(1) H2O OH– + H+, ∆H° = + 13·4 k cal
–∆G°
(2) OH– + HF → H2O + F–, ∆H° = –16·4 k cal log K =
2·303 RT

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1596

 + 10·10 × 103 J Example 10. An athlete is given 100 g of glucose
= (C6H12O6) of energy equivalent to 1560 kJ. He utilises
(2·303) (8·31 J/K) (500 K)
50 per cent of this gained energy in the event. In order
= 1·055
to avoid storage of energy in the body, calculate the
P(HI) mass of water he would have to perspire. The enthalpy
K = 11·36 =
[P (H2)]1/2 [P(I2)]1/2 of evaporation of water is 44 kJ/mole.
10·0 Solution :
=
(10–3)1/2 [P(H2)]1/2 Net amount of energy given to athlete = 1560 kJ
100 1560 × 50
P(H2) = Energy lost in an event =
(10–3) (11·36)2 100
= 780 kJ
= 775 atm.
Energy left out = 1560 – 780 kJ = 780 kJ
Example 9. Calculate the entropy change when 1
mole of an ideal gas expands reversibly from an initial Now, consider the evaporation of water
volume of 2 litres to a final volume of 20 litres at 25°° C. H2O(l) → H2O(g); ∆H = 44 kJ mole–1
Solution : Thus, for consumption of 44 kJ of energy the amount
V2 of water evaporated = 18 g.
We know that ∆S = n R ln
V1 ∴ For consumption of 780 kJ of energy the amount of
20 water to be evaporated
= 2·303 n R log
2 18
= × 780 g
= 2·303 × 1 × 8·314 × 1 44
= 19·15 J/mol K = 319·09 g

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The heat change taking place 5. The enthalpies of the elements in (C) ∆H < T∆S
during the reaction at a particular their standard states are assu-
(D) ∆H = Zero
temperature which does not med to be—
involve any change of volume is (A) Zero at 298 K 10. The property which can be
represented by— (B) Unity at 298 K classified as an intensive pro-
(A) ∆G (B) ∆H (C) Zero at all temperatures perty is—
(C) ∆E (D) ∆n (D) Zero at 273 K (A) Mass
6. 2C (s) + 2O2(g) → 2CO2(g) (B) Temperature
2. Which of the following proceeds
with the positive value of ∆S ? ∆H = –188 k cal (C) Volume
1 The heat of combustion of carbon (D) Heat capacity
(A) SO2(g) + O 2(g) → SO3(g) (s) is—
2 11. If for H2(g) = 2H(g) ; ∆H = 104 k cal
(A) – 188·0 k cal
(B) HCl(g) → H(g) + Cl(g) the heat of atomisation of hydro-
(B) + 188 k cal
gen is—
(C) Freezing of ice-cream (C) – 94·0 k cal
(D) + 94·0 k cal (A) 52 k cal (B) 104 k cal
(D) None of these
(C) 208 k cal (D) None of these
3. In which of the following reac- 7. The occurrence of a reaction is
tions heat of neutralisation has impossible when— 12. 2·1 g of Fe combines with S
highest numerical value ? (A) ∆H is +ve and ∆S is +ve evolving 3·77 kJ. The heat of
formation of FeS in kJ/mole is—
(A) NH4OH and HCl (B) ∆H is –ve and ∆S is +ve
(B) CH3COOH and NaOH (A) –3·77 (B) –1·79
(C) ∆H is +ve and ∆S is –ve
(C) NH4OH and CH 3COOH (C) –100·5 (D) None of these
(D) ∆H is –ve and ∆S is –ve
(D) NaOH and HCl 13. The temperature of 5 ml of a
8. Hess’s law deals with— strong acid increases by 5°C
4. At constant T and P, which one
of the following statements is (A) Change in heat of reaction when 5 ml of a strong base are
correct for the reaction ? (B) Rate of reactions added to it. If 10 ml of each are
1 (C) Equilibrium constants mixed, temperature should in-
CO(g) + O 2(g) → CO2(g) (D) Influence of pressure on crease by—
2
(A) ∆H = ∆E volume of a gas (A) 5°
(B) ∆H < ∆E 9. For a reversible reaction at (B) 10°
(C) ∆H > ∆E equilibrium— (C) 15°
(A) ∆H = T∆S (D) Cannot be known
(D) ∆H is independent of physi-
cal state of reactants (B) ∆H > T∆S (Continued on Page 1603 )

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1597

Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations (C) Hunsdiecker reaction
(D) Liebermann’s reaction
13. Formal change at chlorine in
CHEMISTRY ClF3—
(A) 0 (B) + 1
1
(C) + (D) + 3
3
1. Number of electrons present in The formula of the gas would
1·6g of methane— be— 14. For a given value of l, a single
(A) 6·02 × 1022 (B) 6·02 × 1023 (A) CH2 (B) C2H4 line in the normal spectrum will
(C) C3H6 (D) C4H8 appear as …… lines if a magne-
(C) 6·02 × 1021 (D) 3·01 × 1022 tic field is applied.
7. 214·2g sugar syrup contains (A) 2l (B) 2l + 1
2. Which of the following are aro-
34·2g of sugar. Mole fraction of
matic compound ? (C) 2l – 1 (D) l + 1
sugar in the syrup is—
CHO 15. A finely divided state of the cata-
| (A) 0·0099 (B) 0·0990
(C) 0·9000 (D) 0·1000 lyst is more efficient because—
N (A) It preferentially decreases
(a) (b) Cu Cl
8. 2HC —
— 2 2
— CH → X the surface area
N NH 4Cl
O (B) More surface area is avail-
X + HCl → Y
able
Compounds X and Y are respec-
(C) More energy is stored in the
(c) (d) tively—
.. catalyst
S (A) 1, 3-butadiene, 2-chloro-1-
(D) Positive charge is acquired
buten-3-yne
O 16. Formula to evaluate effective
(B) 1-butene-3-yne, chloroprene
The correct answer is— nuclear charge is—
(C) Butenyne, chloropicrine
(A) a, c (B) a, b, c (A) Z – S (B) Z + S
(D) Vinyl acetylene, chloroprene
(C) ZS –1 (D) Z · S
(C) a, b, d (D) c, d
9. A system is supplied 500 calorie [Here Z = Atomic number and
3. The wavelength associated with of heat energy and system does
S = Shielding constant]
an electron moving with a velocity 350 calorie of work on the sur-
17. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO 5
of 1010 cm/sec— roundings. What is the energy
is—
change of the system ?
(h = 6·62 × 10 –27 ergs-sec) (A) + 3 (B) + 10
(A) 150 cal (B) 850 cal
(A) 7·27 × 10–10 cm (C) + 6 (D) + 2·5
(C) 350 cal (D) 500 cal
(B) 7·27 × 10–9 cm 18. For the reaction
10. Which of the following is a cyclic
(C) 2·57 × 10–10 cm ether ? N2 + 3H2 2NH3

(D) 3·86 × 10–9 cm (A) Ethyl ether at 500°C the value of Kp is

(B) Vinyl ether 1·44 × 10–5. The value of Kc will
4. Select the positive ion which be—
(C) Phenyl ether
comes under the purview of
Bronsted acid but not considered (D) Tetrahydrofuran (A) (1·44 × 10–5) × (0·082 × 773)2
as Lewis acid— 11. N2O4 is 25% dissociated at 30°C (B) (0·082 × 10–5) (1·44 × 10–5)
(A) NH+4 (B) Al3+ and 1 atm pressure. The equili- (C) (1·44 × 10–5) (0·082 × 773)–2
brium constant K p at this tem-
(C) Cu 2+ (D) Ag+ (D) (1·44 × 10–5) (0·082 × 500)–2
perature is—
5. A 1000 ml sample of a gas at (A) 0·267 atm 19. The electronic configuration of
– 73°C and 2 atm is heated to (B) 2·67 atm element A is 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
123°C and pressure is reduced to while of element B is 1s2, 2s22p5.
(C) 2·67 × 10–2 atm
0·5 atm. The final volume of the The formula of the compound
gas is— (D) 2·67 × 10–3 atm containing A and B will be—
O (A) AB (B) A2B
(A) 2000 ml (B) 4000 ml
|| (C) AB2 (D) A2B6
(C) 6000 ml (D) 8000 ml 12. For the elimination of —C —
group of amide following reaction 20. In pure water ionic product of
6. It was found from the chemical
is used— water is correctly evaluated by
analysis of a gas that its one
(A) Hofmann hypobromite reac- using—
carbon atom is linked to two
hydrogen atoms. At S.T.P. its tion (A) [H3O+] 2
density is 1·25 grams per litre. (B) Kolbe reaction (B) [H+] + [OH–]

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1598

 (C) [H3O+] [OH–] –1 29. Which of the following is correct (C) Roasting
(D) [OH–] [H+] –1 composition of water gas ? (D) Concentration
(A) CO + Cl2
21. Pair of amphiprotic species is— 37. The Belistein test is a rapid test
(B) CO + H2
(A) H2CO3 and HCO3– used for organic compounds to
(C) CO + N2 detect—
(B) H2CO3 and H 2O
(D) CO + H2 + N2 (A) Phosphorous
(C) CO32– and H 3O+
(D) HCO3– and H 2O 30. The van der Waals equation at (B) Sulphur
low pressure may be written as : (C) Halogens
22. pH of 0·2 F HClO4 is—
(A) 0·70
(C) 13·3
(B) 1·0
(D) None of these
( a
V )
P + 2 V = RT
(D) Nitrogen
38. Match List-I with List-II and
The compressibility factor would choose the correct answer from
23. The incorrect statement is— be— the codes given below :
(A) Calamine and siderite are
carbonates (A) (
1–
a
RTV ) (
(B) 1 –
RTV
a ) (i)
List I
NaNO3
(B) Argentite and cuprite are
oxides
(C) Zinc blende and iron pyrities
(C) ( 1+
a
RTV ) (
(D) 1+
RTV
a ) (ii)
(iii)
Na(NH4)HPO4
NaHCO3
31. Number of atoms in a molecule of (iv) Na 2CO3·10H2O
are sulphides
sulphur is—
(D) Malachite and azurite are List II
(A) 3 (B) 4
ores of copper (a) Baking soda
(C) 8 (D) Infinite
24. On adding NH4Cl to NH4OH solu- (b) Chile salt petre
32. The specific conductivity of 0·01
tion the pH of the solution (c) Microcosmic salt
mole/dm3 aqueous acetic acid at
would— (d) Washing soda
300 K is 19·5 × 10–5 ohm–1 cm–1
(A) Increase and the limiting molecular con- Code
(B) Decrease ductivity of acetic acid at the (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) Remain unchanged same temperature is 390 ohm–1 (A) a b c d
(D) None of these cm2 mole–1. The degree of dis- (B) b c a d
sociation of acetic acid is—
25. Which of the following has lowest (C) c a b d
(A) 0·5 (B) 0·05
melting point ? –5
(D) d a b c
(C) 5 × 10 (D) 5 × 10–7
(A) Li (B) Na 39. In which of the following the bond
33. In a given sample of bleaching length between carbon and car-
(C) K (D) Cs
powder the percentage of avail- bon is equal—
26. The position of Cs+ ion in CsCl able chlorine is 49. The volume (A) 2-butene (B) Benzene
structure will be— of chlorine obtained if 10 g of
(C) 1-butene (D) Propyne
(A) At the corners of the cube sample is treated with HCl at
STP is approximately— 40. The metallic lustre exhibited by
(B) At the centre of each face of sodium is explained by—
(A) 1·5 litre (B) 3·0 litre
the cube (A) Diffusion of sodium ions
(C) 15·0 litre (D) 150 litre
(C) At the body centre of the (B) Oscillation of loose electrons
cube 34. pH of a buffer made by HA and
(C) Excitation of free protons
NaA is 4. The concentration of
(D) At the edge centre of the HA is 1·0 M. What is the con- (D) Existence of body centered
cube centration of NaA ? cubic lattice
27. Sodalime is used extensively in [Given K a = 10–5] 41. In an industrial process, coke is
decarboxylation reaction to (A) 1·0 M (B) 0·01 M heated with quick lime in an elec-
obtain alkanes. Sodalime is— (C) 0·1 M (D) 1·5 M tric furnace and the cooled pro-
(A) NaOH duct is then treated with water to
35. K4Fe(CN)6 is named as—
produce—
(B) NaOH and CaO (A) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II) (A) Acetylene (B) Ethylene
(C) CaO (B) Potassium ferricyanate (C) Ethane (D) Methane
(D) Na 2CO3 (C) Potassium ferricyanide
42. A substance on heating gives
28. Solid alcohol is the colloidal (D) Prussian blue
oxygen, turns acidified KI solu-
solution of— 36. The process of converting tion violet and reduces acidified
(A) Calcium nitrate hydrated alumina to anhydrous KMnO 4 solution. Hence, the sub-
(B) Calcium chloride alumina is called— stance is—
(C) Calcium carbonate (A) Calcination (A) SO3 (B) KNO 3
(D) Calcium acetate (B) Smelting (C) H2O2 (D) All of these

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1599

43. Acetylene when treated with dil.
HCl at 60°C in presence of HgCl 2
produces—
(A) Methyl chloride
(B) Vinyl chloride
(C) Acetaldehyde
(D) Formaldehyde
44. The chemical composition of
glass is—
(A) K2SiO3 CaSiO4·4SiO 2
(B) Na 2SiO3 CaSiO3·4SiO 2
(C) Na 2SiO3 MgSiO3·4SiO 2
(D) Na 2SiO3 K 2SiO3·4SiO 2
45. Which of the following will not
give iodoform test ?
(A) Ethanol
(B) Ethanal
(C) Isopropyl alcohol
(D) Benzyl alcohol
46. Which one of the following is cal-
cium superphosphate ?
(A) Ca(H2PO4)2
(B) Ca 3(PO4)2 + 2CaSO4
(C) CaSO 4 + CaO
(D) Ca(H2PO4)2H2O + CaSO4
47. Formaldehyde reacts with ammo-
nia to give—
(A) Hexamethylene tetramine
(B) Formaldehyde ammonia
(C) Formalin
(D) Hydrobenzamide
48. On heating ozone its volume—
(A) Increases to 1·5 times
(B) Decreases to half
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) Becomes double
49. The pairs of bases in DNA are
held together by—
(A) Hydrogen bonds
(B) Ionic bonds
(C) Phosphate groups
(D) Oxygen linkage
50. For Ar and CO2 the ratio of the
molar heat capacities C p /Cv
would be respectively—
(A) 1·66, 1·66 (B) 1·66, 1·33
(C) 1·40, 1·66 (D) 1·40, 1·40

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

1·6 At S.T.P. 1 mole of a gas occupies 22·4 litre
1. (B) Number of moles in 1·6g CH4 = = 0·1
16 ∴ Molar mass = 22·4 × 1·25
Number of molecules of CH 4 = 0·1 × 6·02 × 1023 = 28 g
Each CH4 molecule contains 6 + 4 = 10 electrons Molecular weight = 28
Number of electrons present in 1·6g CH 4 Formula of the gas = (CH2)n
= 0·1 × 6·02 × 10 23 × 10 ∴ (12 + 2)n = 28
= 6·02 × 1023 or n = 2
CHO Therefore, gas is C 2H4.
N 7. (A) Wt. of sugar syrup = 214·2 g
2. (C) Compounds ; and
.. Wt. of sugar = 34·2 g
N S
∴ Wt. of water = 214·2 – 34·2
are aromatic as they contain 6π electrons, i.e.,
= 180 g
conjugate systems of three double bonds.
34·2
3. (A) Mass of electron = 9·1 × 10–28g Moles of sugar =
342
= 0·1
Velocity of electron = 1010 cm/sec 180
Moles of water = = 10
h = 6·62 × 10–27 erg.sec. 18
Moles of sugar
h 6·62 × 10–27 Mole fraction of sugar =
λ = = Total number of moles
mv 9·1 × 10–28 × 1010
0·1
= = 0·0099
= 7·27 × 10–10 cm 10 + 0·1
Cu Cl
4. (A) Bronsted acid is proton donor in solution (whereas 8. (B) 2 HC —— 2 2
— CH → CH2 — — CH—C ——
— CH
NH 4Cl
Lewis acids are electrons pair acceptor Acetylene Monovinyl acetylene
NH4+ + H2O NH3 + H3O+ (two molecules) (X)
Hence NH 4+ is Bronsted acid. — CH—C —
CH2 — — CH + HCl → CH2 —
— — CH—CCl —
— CH2
5. (D) P1 = 2 atm P2 = 0·5 atm (X) (Y)
V1 = 1000 ml V2 = ? 2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene
(chloroprene)
T1 = – 73°C = 200 K T2 = 123°C = 400 K
9. (A) Heat supplied to the system q = + 500 calorie
P1V1 P2V2 2 × 1000 0·5 × V2
= ∴ = Work done (by the system) on the surroundings
T1 T2 200 400
W = 350 calorie
2 × 1000 × 400
V2 = = 8000 ml Energy change = 500 – 350
200 × 0·5
= 150 calorie
6. (B) One carbon atom is linked with two carbon atoms.
 Note : Heat supplied to the system q = + ve 
The empirical formula is CH2.
 Work done by the system on surroundings 
Density at S.T.P. = 1·25 g/lit W = – ve

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1600

 17. (C) CrO5 is oxodiperoxochromium(VI). It has two per-
10. (D) Tetrahydrofuran is a cyclic ether.
oxide bonds (4 oxygen atoms have oxidation state-1
O each)
11. (A) N2O4 2NO 2 O.N. of Cr = x (Say)
(a – 0·25a) 0·5 a at ( ) O

Total moles at ( ) = a – 0·25a + 0·5a = 1·25a O O

Cr
Total pressure = 1 atm O O
x + 4(–1) + 1(–2) = 0
0·75a
PN2O4 = × 1 atm x = +6
1·25a
18. (A) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
0·5a
PNO 2 = × 1 atm Kp = 1·44 × 10–5
1·25a
2
P NO 2 (0·5a)2 1·25a Kp = Kc (RT)∆n
Kp = = × ∆n = 2 – (1 + 3) = – 2
PN2O4 (1·25a)2 0·75a
(0·5)2 T = 500 + 273 = 773 K
= = 0·267 atm R = 0·082 litre atm/K –1 mole–1
1·25 × 0·75
Kp 1·44 × 10–5
12. (A) Hofmann hypobromite reaction is used to eliminate Kc = =
O (RT)∆n (0·082 × 773)–2
|| Kc = (1·44 × 10–5)(0·082 × 773)2.
—C— group of amide.
O 19. (C) Electronic Outer Valency
|| configuration electrons
CH3—C—NH2 + Br2 + KOH → CH3CONHBr + KBr A 1s 2, 2s 2 2p6, 3s 2 2 2
+ H 2O B 1s 2 2s2 2p5 7 1
O A B
|| Valency
CH3—C—NHBr + KOH → CH3NCO + KBr + H2O 2 1
Formula of compound is AB2.
CH3NCO + 2 KOH → CH3NH2 + K2CO3 20. (A) In pure waters which is neutral
CH3CONH2 + Br2 + 4 KOH → CH3NH2 + 2 KBr [H3O+] = [OH–] …(1)
Ionic product of water
+ K2CO3 + 2 H2O Kw = [H3O+] [OH–] …(2)
1 From equations (1) and (2)
13. (A) Formal charge = V – N – B
2 Kw = [H3O+] 2
V = Valence electrons of the free atom 21. (D) Amphiprotic species are those which can accept
N = Number of non-bonding electrons or donate a proton
B = Number of bonding electrons –H+ + H+
.. . . .. CO32– ← HCO3– → H2CO3
F –H
+
+ H+
. . . . OH– ← H2O → H3O+
.. . . ..
F
In . . . . Cl F
. . formal charge at chlorine. 22. (A) 0·2 F HClO4 = 0·2 M HClO4
1 (Since the given formula is molecular formula of per-
= 7–4– ×6=0
2 chloric acid)
Here V = 7, N = 4, B = 6. HClO4 H+ + ClO4–
14. (B) For a given value of l, m l can have values – l to +l 0·2 M 0·2 M
inclusive zero, i.e., total values of ml = 2l + 1. Thus in HClO4 being strong acid ionises completely
magnetic field for a given value of l, a single line will [H+] = 0·2 M = 2 × 10 –1 M
appear as 2l + 1 lines. pH = – log 2 × 10–1
15. (B) The catalytic activity of a heterogeneous catalyst = 1 – 0·3010 ≈ 0·7.
depends on its free valencies. In finely divided state
23. (B)
the surface area is increased to a large extent and
thereby free valencies are also increased Calamine
Siderite }
ZnCO3 Carbonate
FeCO3 ores
Option A is
correct
Ni Ni Ni Ni Cuprite Cu 2O Oxide ore Option B is
Subdivision + Ag2S incorrect
Argentite Sulphide ore
Ni Ni Ni Ni (Not an oxide
ore)
16. (A) Effective nuclear charge
Zeff = Z–S (or σ) Iron pyrites }
Zinc blende ZnS Sulphide
FeS 2 ores
Option C is
correct
Z = Atomic number
S (or σ) = Screening constant
Malachite CuCO3·Cu(OH)2
Azurite } Ores Option D is
Cu(OH)2·2CuCO 3 of Cu correct

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1601

24. (B) NH4OH NH4+ + OH– 33. (A) In bleaching powder (CaOCl2 ) the available
NH4Cl NH4+ + Cl– chlorine is 49%, i.e., 100g bleaching powder give 49
g Cl2
NH4OH being weak base ionises feebly. In presence
10 g sample of bleaching powder yields 4·9 g Cl2
of NH4 Cl its dissociation is further supressed. In
4·9
solution [OH –] is decreased. pH is also decreased. Mole of Cl2 =
71
25. (D) Energy binding the atoms of alkali metals is rela-
4·9
tively low on account of a single electron in valence Volume of Cl 2 at STP = × 22·4
71
shell. The melting points decrease in moving down
the group from Li to Cs as the cohesive force = 1·5 lit (Approx.)
decreases 34. (C) pH of acidic buffer is given by Henderson eqn.
Li Na K Cs [Salt]
pH = p Ka + log
[Acid]
m.p. (°C) 181 98 63 28·5
pH = 4,
26. (C) CsCl crystal has body centered cubic lattice
p Ka = – log Ka = – log 10–5 = 5,
structure in which Cl– ions are at the corners of the
cube and Cs + is present at the centre of the cube. [Acid] = 1·0 M
[Salt]
∴ 4 = 5 + log
1·0
—Cs + log [Salt] = – 1
—Cl – 1
log [Salt] = log
10
∴ [Salt] = 0·1 M
35. (A) IUPAC name of K4 Fe(CN)6 is potassium hexa-
27. (B) Sodalime is the mixture of NaOH and CaO. cyanoferrate(II).
28. (D) Colloidal solution of calcium acetate in alcohol
36. (A) Heating of the ore below its fusion temperature in
sets as jelly and is termed as solid alcohol.
absence of air is called calcination. This step expels
29. (B) Water gas is the mixture of CO and H2 in 1 : 1
organic matter and moisture from the ore.
ratio.
Al2O3·2H2O → Al2O3 + 2H2O
30. (A) van der Waals equation at low pressure is Hydrated alumina Anhydrous alumina

( a
)
P + 2 V = RT
V
37. (C) The Balestein test is performed to detect halogens
in organic compound.
a
PV + = RT A copper wire is heated in the Bunsen flame till it does
V
not impart any green colour to flame. The heated end
PV a
+ = 1 is dipped in the organic compound and heated again.
RT RTV
Formation of a green or bluish green flame due to for-
PV
RT
= (1–
a
RTV ) mation of volatile cupric halides indicates the pres-
ence of some halogen in organic compound.
PV 38. (B) NaNO3 Chile salt petre
= z (Compressibility factor)
RT
Na(NH4)HPO4 Microcosmic salt
∴ z = (1–
a
RTV ) NaHCO3
Na 2CO3·10H2O
Baking soda
Washing soda
31. (C) Molecular formula of sulphur molecule is S8. It has
staggered ring structure 39. (B) In benzene each carbon atom is sp 2 hybridized
and further due to resonance C—C bond lengths are
S S S
equal
S S
S
←→
S S
32. (B) k V = 19·5 × 10–5 ohm–1 cm–1
40. (B) In metallic sodium outer shell electron is loosely
C = 0·01 mole/dm3, V = 100 × 1000 cm3 mole–1 attached to the Kernel of the atom. To and fro oscil-
µV = k V × V = 19·5 × 10 –5 × 105 lation of these loose electrons cause lustre of sodium
= 19·5 ohm –1 cm2 mole–1 metal.
C(Coke) H O
µ∞ = 390 ohm–1 cm2 mole–1. 2
41. (A) CaO → CaC2 → C2H2
Acetic acid being monobasic acid its equivalent con- Calcium Acetylene
ductance is equal to molar conductance. carbide
(λV = µV and λ∞ = µV ). The degree of dissociation ∆
42. (C) 2H 2O2 → 2H 2O + O2
λV 19·5
α = = = 0·05 H2O2 + 2KI → 2KOH + I2
λ∞ 390 (Acidified) (Violet)

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1602

 2KMnO 4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 (Continued from Page 1588 )
+ 3H2O + 5O 50. Which of the following has the highest pH in water ?
[H2O2 + O → H2O + O2] × 5 (A) NaCl (B) NaHCO3 (C) Na 2CO3 (D) KCl
51. The correct order of solubility of lithium halides in non-
2KMnO 4 + 3H2SO4 + 5H2O2 →
polar solvents is—
K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 5O2
(A) LiF > LiI > LiBr > LiCl (B) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF
CH HgCl2 CH2
43. (B) ||| + HCl → || (C) LiCl > LiF > LiI > LiBr (D) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI
333K
CH CHCl ANSWERS
Acetylene Vinyl chloride
44. (B) Ordinary glass is a mixture of sodium and calcium 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (D)
silicates Na2SiO3·CaSiO3·4SiO 2. 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D)
15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (B)
45. (D) Ethanol (C2H5OH), Ethanal (CH3CHO) and iso-
propyl alcohol (CH 3 CHOHCH3) contain either 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (D)
CH3CHOH or CH 3CO group and hence give iodoform 29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (C)
test. Benzyl alcohol (C 6H5CH2OH) does not process 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B) 41. (D) 42. (C)
this grouping. Its iodoform test is negative. 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (C)
50. (C) 51. (B) ●●●
46. (D) It is a mixture of primary (or mono) calcium phos-
phate and gypsum Ca(H2PO4)2·H2O + CaSO 4·2H2O. (Continued from Page 1597 )
It is used as phosphate fertilizer. 14. In which case of mixing of a strong acid and a base
47. (A) Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to yield each of 1N concentration, temperature increase is the
urotropine (hexamethylene tetramine) highest ?
(A) 20 ml acid and 30 ml alkali
6HCHO + 4NH3 → (CH2)6N4 + 6H2O
Hexamethylene
(B) 10 ml acid and 40 ml alkali
tetramine (C) 25 ml acid and 25 ml alkali
(D) 35 ml acid and 15 ml alkali
 H2C
N
CH2  15. The dissociation energy of CH4 and C2H6 are 360
 CH2
 and 620 k cal/mole respectively. The bond energy of

 N
CH2 CH2
 C—C is—
(A) 260 k cal/mole (B) 180 k cal/mole
 N N 

(C) 130 k cal/mole (D) 80 k cal/mole
16. In the process of ice melting at –15°C—
CH2
(A) ∆G < 0 (B) ∆G > 0
48. (A) 2O 3 → 3O2
(C) ∆G = 0 (D) It cannot be predicted
2 Vol. 3 Vol.
17. For an adiabatic process which of the following is
Vol. of O2 3 correct ?
= = 1·5.
Vol. of O3 2 (A) q = 0 (B) ∆E = q (C) q = +w (D) P∆V = 0
On heating ozone is decomposed to oxygen and 18. In a closed vessel 2 moles of CO and 1 mole O 2 are
volume is increased to 1·5 times. ignited to get CO2. If ∆ H and ∆E are the change in
49. (A) In DNA pairs of bases are held together with H- enthalpy and change in internal energy respectively,
bonding. then—
50. (B) For gases (A) ∆H < ∆E (B) ∆H > ∆E
5  x = 0 for monoatomic  (C) ∆H = ∆E (D) Not definite
Cp = R+x  x = R for diatomic 
2 19. The relationship which describes variation of vapour
 3 
3 
 x = R for polyatomic gases pressure with temperature is called—
Cv =
2
R+x 2  (A) Hess’s law
For Ar (monoatomic gas) (B) Arrhenius equation
5 (C) Clausius-Clapeyron equation
Cp R (D) Kirchhoff’s equation
2
= = 1·66
Cv 3 20. Two moles of an ideal gas expand spontaneously into
R
2 a vacuum. The work done is—
For CO2 (polyatomic gas) (A) Zero (B) 2 J (C) 4 J (D) 8 J
5 3
R+ R ANSWERS
Cp 2 2 4
= = = 1·33. 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C)
Cv 3 3 3
R+ R
2 2 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C)
●●● 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A) ●●●

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1603

 of the acid and water layer 1·843
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
g of the acid. The distribution co-
efficient between water and ether
is—
CHEMISTRY (A) 7·25 (B) 72·5
(C) 0·725 (D) 725
16. Find the oxidation state of sul-
1. The molecular mass of CO2 is 44 9. A gas is filled in a balloon of 80 phur in H 2SO4—
a.m.u. and Avogadro number is litres at 10 atm. If the whole gas
(A) + 6 (B) + 4
6·02 × 10 23. Mass of one mole- is filled in small balloons of 3 litres
cule of CO 2 is— at 1·11 atm and at same tempera- (C) + 2 (D) + 3
ture, find the number of small
(A) 7·31 × 10–23 g 17. If edge length of a bcc crystal of
balloons required— an element is a cm. M is the
(B) 3·65 × 10–23 g
(A) 150 (B) 240 atomic mass and N 0 is the
(C) 1·01 × 10–23 g Avogadro number. Then the
(C) 100 (D) 250
(D) 2·01 × 10–23 g density of the crystal is—
10. What is Bond order in case of
2. A compound contains 38·8% C, O2+ ? 2×M 4×M
16% H and 45·2% N. The empiri- (A) (B)
a 3N0 a 3N0
cal formula of the compound will (A) 2·5 (B) 2
a3 M 2N 0
be— (C) 1·5 (D) 3 (C) (D)
2N 0 Ma 3
(A) CH5N (B) C2H5N
11. The reaction between A and B is
(C) CHN (D) CH10N2 18. Which of the following is correct
first order with respect to A and
– β–
3. The number of σ and π bonds in second order with respect to B. If for 60Co → ?
1-butene-3 yne are— the concentration of A is halved 61 Co 60 Ni
(A) (B)
(A) 5σ + 5π (B) 7σ + 3π and the concentration of B is
(C) 59 Ni (D) 60 Cu
doubled, the rate of reaction will
(C) 8σ + 2π (D) 6σ + 4π be— 19. A is named as
4. Find the temperature of hydro- (A) Same as the initial value
gen gas which has the same (IUPAC)—
(B) Three times the initial value
velocity as that of oxygen at a (A) Vinyl acetyline
temperature of 0°C— (C) Double the initial value
(B) 1-butene-3-yne
273 (D) Half the initial value
(A) K (B) 273 × 8K (C) 1-butyne-3-ene
16 12. In the reaction (D) Both (B) and (C) are true
273
(C) K (D) 273 × 4K 2C (s) + O2(g) 2CO (g)
32 20. 100 ml 0·1 (N) HCl is mixed with
5. Which is the oxidant in the follow- the partial pressure of CO and 100 ml of 0·2 (N) NaOH, then the
ing reaction ? O2 is 8 atm. and 4 atm. respec- resulting concentration of the
5KI + KIO3 + 6HCl tively, then find its equilibrium solution is—
constant—
→ 3I2 + 6KCl + 3H 2O (A) 0·05 (N) (B) 5 (N)
(A) I 2 (B) KIO 3 (A) 16 (B) 24
(C) 2 (N) (D) 0·1 (N)
(C) KI (D) None of these (C) 8 (D) 2
21. C4H4O4 can be—
6. Which is the correct electronic 13. When 48250 C of electricity is
configuration of Cr (chromium) ? passed through an aqueous solu- (A) A cyclic ester
(A) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1 3d 5 tion of NiI2 (Ni = 58·8) the mass (B) cis-and trans-diabasic acid
(B) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 4 of Ni metal deposited would be— (C) gem-α, β unsaturated dia-
(C) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 6 (A) 7·3 g (B) 14·7 g basic acid
(D) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1 3d 8 (D) All correct
(C) 22·0 g (D) 29·4 g
7. CuSO 4 is not stored in aluminium
14. 1M solution of a weak monobasic 22. For detection of sulphur in an
bottles because—
acid has a pH value of 6, then its organic compound, sodium nitro-
(A) Cu gets oxidised
dissociation constant will be— prusside is added to the las-
(B) Cu 2+ gets reduced
(A) 10–4 (B) 400 saigne’s filtrate. The ppt.
(C) Al gets reduced
(D) CuSO 4 is decomposed obtained is—
(C) 10–8 (D) None of these
(A) Purple colour
8. Which of the following is not 15. When succinic acid was shaken
linear ? (B) Black colour
with a mixture of 100 ml water
(A) BeCl 2 (B) HCN and 50 ml ether, it was found that (C) Blood-red colour
(C) ZnCl2 (D) H2O ether layer consisted of 0·127 g (D) White colour

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1604

23. Chlorine in vinyl chloride is less 32. Product obtained by heating (C) Aqueous solution electro-
reactive because— C2H5Br in presence of dry silver lysis
(A) sp 2 hybridized carbon has oxide is— (D) Thermite reduction
more acidic character than (A) C2H5OC2H5 (B) C2H5COOH
40. The boiling point of phenols are
sp 3 hybridized carbon (C) C2H5OH (D) C2H5CHO higher than the hydrocarbons of
(B) C—Cl bond develops partial
33. Carboxylic acid reacts with dia- comparable masses. It is due
double bond character
zomethane to yield— to—
(C) Of resonance
(A) Amines (B) Alcohols (A) More polarising power
(D) All are correct
(C) Esters (D) Amides (B) Presence of hydrogen bond-
24. Which of the following compound ing
34. The reduction of aldehyde and
is optically active ? (C) Due to resonance stabilised
ketones to the corresponding
(A) CH3CH2COOH (D) Due to acidic character
hydrocarbons with amalgamated
(B) CH3CHOHCOOH
zinc and concentrated HCl is 41. Mineral of aluminium that does
(C) HOOC·CH2·COOH called— not contain oxygen is—
(D) CH3·CO·COOH (A) Wolff-Kishner reduction (A) Corundum (B) Diaspore
25. Which of the following can act as (B) Clemmensen reduction (C) Bauxite (D) Cryolite
a nucleophile as well as elec- (C) Coupling reduction
trophile ? (D) Cross-Cannizzaro reaction 42. In the manufacturing of polymer,
(A) BF 3 (B) FeCl3 neoprene called artificial rubber,
35. After partial roasting, the sulphide the monomer present is—
(C) ZnCl2 (D) C2H5MgBr
of copper is reduced by—
26. Which of the following free radical (A) Butene
(A) Cyanide process
is most stable ? (B) Electrolysis (B) Propene
(A) Primary (B) Methyl (C) Reduction with carbon (C) Styrene
(C) Secondary (D) Tertiary (D) Self reduction (D) 2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene
27. When butene-1 is mixed with 36. Write the product obtained 43. Graphite conducts electricity
HBr, the major reaction product from— because of—
is— 2 Br + NaOH
CH3CH2CONH2 → (A) Weak vander Waals forces
(A) 1, 2-dibromobutane
(A) CH3CH2NH2 between layers
(B) 1-bromobutane
(B) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (B) Covalent bonding between
(C) 2-bromobutane
(C) CH3NH2 carbon atoms of layers
(D) None of these
(D) CH3CH2OH
(C) Delocalized electrons in each
28. Number of oxygen molecules
37. Tailing of mercury is a laboratory layer
requires in the combustion of
C4H10 is— test for— (D) sp 2 hybridization of carbon
13 (A) O3 (B) Hg atoms in each layer
(A) O (B) 8O2 (C) Cl2 (D) O2
2 2 44. Which of the following is correct
15 11 38. The major product obtained for electron affinity ?
(C) O (D) O
2 2 2 2 when benzene reacts with (A) F > Cl > Br > I
29. n-propyl bromide reacts with CH3CH2CH2Cl in presence of
anhydrous AlCl3 is— (B) Cl > F > Br > I
ethanoic KOH to form—
(A) Propane CH2CH2C H3 (C) Cl > Br > I > F
(B) Propene (A) (D) None of these
(C) Propyne 45. In P4O6 the number of oxygen
(D) Propyl alcohol CH3 atoms bonded to each P atom
30. Lindlar’s catalyst contains— | is—
C—CH 3
(A) Pd supported over CaCO3 (A) 1·5 (B) 2
(B) |
(B) Hg supported over PbSO 4 CH3 (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Ni supported over CuSO4 C H (CH 3)2 46. Which one require lowest bond
(D) Ni supported over CdSO4 (C) dissociation energy ?
31. The end product of the reaction (A) H—F (B) H—Br
Cu NaOH (D) None of these
CH3OH → X → B (C) H—Cl (D) H—I
300°C 39. Which of the following process is
47. Most of the elementry gases are
(A) Alkane used in the extractive metallurgy
obtained by chemical reaction of
(B) Carboxylic acid of magnesium ?
their compounds. For example,
(C) Sodium salt of carboxylic acid (A) Fused salt electrolysis Cl2 is obtained by allowing KMnO4
(D) Ketone (B) Self reduction to react with hydrochloric acid.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1605

 fluorine, however, can be 48. Concentration of ores is related (B) KCl solution
obtained only by the electrolysis to— (C) K2CO3 solution
of a fluoride. This is because— (A) Froth floatation
(D) K2SO4 solution
(A) Fluorine is highly reactive gas (B) Roasting
(C) Calcination 50. Coordination number and oxida-
(B) Fluorine is strongest chemi-
(D) Thermal decomposition tion number of Cr in K3Cr(C2O4)3
cal oxidising agent
49. Cu 2+ ion would be reduced to are respectively—
(C) Fluorine is highly poisonous cuprous ion if their solutions are
(D) It is easy to electrolyse a treated with an aqueous— (A) 6 and + 3 (B) 4 and –2
fluoride (A) KI solution (C) 3 and 0 (D) 3 and + 3

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

1. (A) Mass of 1 mole (= 6·02 × 1023 molecules) of CO2 Concentration of A is halved and B is doubled the
= 44g rate

∴ Mass of one molecule =

44
6·02 × 1023
g r′ = k
1
2 { }
[A] {2[B]} 2 …(2)

= 7·31 × 10–23 g Equation (2) is divided by (1)

2. (A)
H H r′
=
k{ }1
2
[A] {2[B]} 2
| | r k[A] [B]2
3. (B) H—C ≡ C—C = C—H 1
4 3 2 1 = × (2)2 = 2
2
1-butene-3-yne
r ′ = 2r
No. of σ bonds = 7 12. (A)
No. of π bonds = 3 13. (B) w = ZIt
4. (A) Q = It
5. (B) In oxidising agent O.N. of key atom is decreased. = 48250 C
In the reaction E 58·8
5KI + KIO3 + 6HCl → 3I2 + 6KCl + 3H 2O Z = =
96500 2 × 96500
+5 0
O.N. of iodine atom in KIO3 decreases from + 5 to
zero. KIO3 is oxidising agent.
( E=
2 )
Ionic wt. of Ni2+

6. (A) 58·8
w = × 48250 = 14·7 g
7. (B) Standard reduction potential of copper (E° Cu2+/Cu 2 × 96500
14. (D)
= + 0·34 V) is much higher than aluminium (E°Al3+/Al =
15. (A) Concentration of succinic acid in water layer
– 1·66 V) 1·843
Cu 2+ ions are reduced when placed its solution in Al = g/ml
100
container. Concentration of succinic acid in ether layer
8. (D) 0·127
= g/ml
9. (B) Gas law equation is PV = nRT 50
Concentration in
PV
∴ n = Distribution coefficient (K) water layer
RT between water and ether = Concentration in
Moles of gas in larger balloon ether layer
10 × 80 1·843 50
n = K = ×
RT 100 0·127
= 7·25
Moles of gas in smaller balloon
16. (A)
3 × 1·11 Mass
n′ = 17. (A) Density =
RT Volume
No. of smaller balloons filled Unit cell content (Z) in bcc = 2
10 × 80 Molar mass = M g
= = 240·24 2M
3 × 1·11 Mass of unit cell = g
N0
≈ 240
Edge length of unit cell = a
10. (A) Volume of unit cell = a 3
11. (C) The rate law equation for the reaction 2M
∴ Density =
r = k[A] [B]2 …(1) N0a 3

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1606

18. (B) 33. (C) Carboxylic acid reacts with diazomethane to yield
 CH
1 2  methyl esters.
 2— — CH  RCOOH + CH2N2 → RCOOCH3 + N2
19. (B)  3  Methyl ester
 
C ≡ CH 34. (B)
According to IUPAC double bond carbon is given 35. (D) By partial roasting sulphide ore of copper is par-
lowest number. tially oxidised to Cu 2O. Now self reduction of sulphide
IUPAC name is 1-butene-3-yne. occurs as follows :
20. (A) Cu 2S + 2 Cu2O → 6 Cu + SO2
21. (D) (i) Glycol oxalate O 36. (A)
37. (A) Mercury loses its meniscus in contact with ozone.
CH2 CO (cyclic ester)
This is termed as tailing of mercury. This is because
of oxidation of Hg in presence of O 3 to suboxide.
CH2 CO
2 Hg + O3 → Hg2O + O2
O It is the laboratory test for O3.
H COOH H COOH 38. (C)
C C 39. (A) Magnesium is highly electropositive having a high
(ii)
and
C C value of oxidation potential E° Mg|Mg2+ = 2·36 V. It can
be reduced by electrolysis of its fused salt.
H COOH HOOC H
Mg2+ + 2e → Mg (Cathode)
cis trans
2 Cl– → Cl2 + 2e (Anode)
COOH
(iii) CH2 —
—C
COOH
( gem-α‚ β unsaturated
dibasic acid ) 40. (B)
41. (D) Corundum (Al2O3)
22. (A) Diaspore (Al2O3.H2O)
23. (C) Less reactivity of chlorine in vinyl chloride is due to Bauxite (Al2O3.2H2O)
resonance in the compound. Cryolite (Na3AlF6)
+ Thus, ore cryolite does not contain oxygen.
CH2 —
— CH—Cl ←→ CH2—CH —
— Cl–
42. (D)
24. (B) 43. (C) Graphite has hexagonal planar structure. Each
25. (D) Grignard reagent can act as nucleophile as well carbon atom is sp 2 hybridized. The fourth valence
as an electrophile electron present in unhybridized orbital is delocalised,
δ– δ– which is responsible for conduction of electricity.
R—MgX + A—B → R—A + MgX 44. (B)
δ– δ+ H OH 45. (C) P4O6 has the structure shown in fig. It is evident
+ –
C—— O + R—MgX → C— O MgX from the fig. that each phosphorus atom is linked with
| three oxygen atoms.
R P

↓
:O

:
:O
:

OH
C—OH + Mg :O:
P P
| X
:O:

R
:

:O
:O

26. (D)
:

27. (C) CH3 CH2CH —

— CH2 + HBr P
→ CH3 CH2 CHBr CH3 46. (D)
2-bromobutane
(According to Markownikoff’s rule) 47. (B) Fluorine has highest reduction potential (E°1/2F2|F–
28. (A) = + 2·87 V). It can only be oxidised from F– → F2 by
29. (B) When n-propyl bromide reacts with ethanoic KOH electrolysis of its fused salt (fluorides).
elemination reaction takes place. 48. (A)
alc. KOH
CH3CH2CH2Br → CH3—CH — — CH2 49. (A) Cu2+ ion is reduced to cuprous ion by KI.
– HBr
Propene
[CuSO4 + 2KI → CuI2 + K2SO4] × 2
30. (A)
Cu 2 CuI 2 → 2 CuI + I2
31. (C) CH3OH → HCHO
300°C
NaOH 2 CuSO4 + 4KI → 2CuI + I2 + 2K2SO4
→ HCOONa + CH3OH
(Cannizzaro reaction) 50. (A)
32. (A) ●●●

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1607

Introduction
● Connective tissues have great variety in terms of their
structure, composition and function and are abundan-
tly distributed in the body.
● A characteristic cell type is the fibroblast, producing
fibres of the protein collagen and elastin, providing
tensile strength and elasticity respectively.
● Another protein, reticulin, is associated with polysac-
charides in the basement membranes, and surround-
ing fat cells in adipose tissue.
● Loose connective tissue (Areolar tissue) binds many
other tissues together.
● Collagen fibres align along the direction of tension, as
in tendons and ligaments.
● The viscosity of many connective tissues is due to
‘space-filling’ hyaluronic acid.
● The Peritoneum, Pleura and Pericardium are modi-
fied connective tissues as are the bone and cartilage.
● Besides support, connective tissue is defensive, due
to largely presence of histiocytes (macrophages),
which may be as numerous as fibroblasts.
● Connective tissues are frequently well vascularized
and permeated by tissue fluid.
Classification of Connective Tissues
Connective Tissues Proper
Cartilage
Hyaline Fibrous
Cartilage Cartilage
White Fibrocartilage
Areolar Adipose
Tissue Tissue
Connective Tissue Proper
● The connective tissue proper has a soft gel-like matrix
composed of proteoglycans, which are complex
carbohydrates linked to proteins. They are of five
major types : Areolar, Adipose, white fibrous, yellow
elastic and reticular.
● Areolar tissue is the most widely distributed connec-
tive tissue in the body. They are also called loose
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1608
connective tissue. It fixes the skin with the muscles,
attaches blood vessels and nerves with the surround-
ing tissues. It forms the dermis of the skin and sub-
mucosa in the wall of the alimentary canal.
● The areolar tissue consists of a transparent jelly-like
matrix containing numerous fibres, cells and mucin.
● The white fibres occur in bundles called fascia and
are formed of collagen.
● Collagen is a rope-like protein that can bend but not
stretch. These fibres are abundant in tendons, which
join muscles to bones, and ligaments join muscles
together.
● In genetic disorder called ‘Ehlers–Danlos Syndrome’,
weakened collagen fibres in ligaments cause the
bones of body joints to dislocate easily.
● The yellow fibres are fewer and thicker than the
white fibres. They are straight and occur singly.
● Yellow fibres are flexible, elastic and branched, the
branches join with one another to form an irregular
network. They are formed of a protein called elastin,
which is resistant to boiling.
● Yellow fibres provide elasticity to the tissue. Collagen
fibres formed at the injured site help in tissue repair.
Skeletal Tissues Vascular Tissues
Bone Blood Lymph
Compact Bone Spongy Bone
Calcified
Cartilage
Elastic Cartilage
White Fibrous Yellow Elastic Reticular
Tissue Tissue Tissue
Cells Present in Connective Tissue Matrix
● Fibroblasts are the principal cells of the areolar
tissues. They have abundant euchromatin, nuclei,
rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.
● When the tissue matures and stops growing, the cells
become less active and are called Fibrocytes. They
are small and contain acidophilic cytoplasm.
● Macrophages or histiocytes are almost as nume- ● Yellow elastic tissue consists mainly of a loose
rous as the fibroblasts. They are large, long-lived network of yellow elastic fibres. The fibres are much
amoeboid cells. They are capable of phagocytosis. thicker but similar to those of areolar tissue. The
Phagocytosis permits them to engulf and digest dead fibroblasts are irregularly scattered.
human cells and combat bacteria, viruses and other ● Elastic connective tissue has numerous bundles of
foreign pathogens that may cause disease. elastic fibres, which impart their characteristics to the
● Mast cells secrete substances involved in defense entire tissue, allowing it to stretch without deforming
against foreign material or cells. One of these subs- permanently.
tances—heparin, prevents blood clotting in the ● Elastic tissue is found in the walls of body organs that
blood vessels. Another secreted substance—hista- regularly change shape, such as the stomach, the
mine, causes blood vessels to enlarge in diameter lungs, the blood vessels and even the heart. Elastic
and become leaky. Both of these substances tissue are also found in vocal cords and in the liga-
encourage white blood cells to move out of the blood ments that connect the bones of the spine.
vessels into the tissue to fight infection.
● Adipose tissue is connective tissue and functions as Differences between Tendons and
storage. It differs from fibrous connective tissues in Ligaments
that it has very little ground substance and few fibres.
It contains cells called adipocytes which are specia- Tendons Ligaments
lized to store fat. 1. Are composed of white 1. Are composed of yellow
● Brown adipose tissue (brown fat) comprises cells fibrous tissue. elastic tissue.
whose granular cytoplasm is due to high concentra- 2. Fibroblasts lie in almost 2. Fibroblasts lie scattered.
tion of cytochromes and whose function appears to continuous rows.
release heat in the neonatal mammals. Distributed 3. Are tough and inelastic. 3. Are strong but elastic.
around neck and between scapulae in hibernating 4. Connect skeletal mus- 4. Connect bones with one
mammals. cles with bones. another. Also connect
● White adipose tissue is distributed widely in the other parts together or
body. support an organ.
● The stored fat is largely composed of triglyceride. ● Reticular connective tissue has a finely branched
● White fibrous tissue is specially rich in white colla- network of reticular fibres. It provides an internal
gen fibres. These are similar but thicker than those framework of the cells that perform the functions of
found in the areolar tissue. This tissue is very tough soft organs, for example, the liver, spleen, lymph-
and inelastic. It has two forms—cords and sheets. nodes and tonsils. It also forms the lamina propria of
● White fibres run parallel to form cords, called ten- the gut wall. The reticular cells are phagocytic and
dons. They are arranged in bundles bound together form defense mechanism of the body.
by areolar tissue. ● Skeletal tissues have a tough matrix. They form a
● The white fibres lie criscross in one plane to form rigid framework, which supports the body, protects
sheets. It occurs in the pericardium of heart, dura- the more vital organs, provides hand surface for the
mater of the brain and spinal cord, sclerotic coat and attachment of the tendons of the muscles and helps
cornea of the eye ball, capsule of the kidney, peri- in locomotion in collaboration with the muscles. There
chondrium of cartilage and periosteum of bone. are two types of skeletal tissue : Cartilage and bone.
● Cartilage has a high concentration of collagen fibres
Differences between White and Yellow like dense connective tissue. However, the ground
Fibres substance of cartilage has a unique chemical com-
White Fibres Yellow Fibres
position and special properties that permit it to absorb
large amounts of bound water. This bound water
1. Are abundant, very 1. Are fewer, thicker and makes cartilage resistant to compression.
fine and wavy. straight.
2. Occur in bundles 2. Occur singly.
● Cartilage lacks blood vessels, nerves and lymphatic
called fascia. vessels in its extracellular matrix. Due to absence of
3. Are inelastic and un- 3. Are elastic and bran- blood vessels, the injuries to cartilage are slow to
branched. ched, branches join to heal.
form a network. ● Chondroblast cells of cartilage become chondrocytes
4. Formed of a protein 4. Formed of a protein when surrounded by ground substance within the
called collagen. called elastin. lacunae.
5. Digested by pepsin. 5. Digested by trypsin.
● The amorphous matrix (chondrin) contains glycopro-
6. Provide tenacity to the 6. Provide elasticity to the
tissues. tissues.
teins, basophilic chondroitin and fine collagen fibres,
7. Composed of micro- 7. Not composed of
varying proportions of which determine whether it is
fibrils having alternat- microfibrils and lack hyaline, elastic, or fibrocartilage.
ing light and dark striations. ● The surface of cartilage is surrounded by irregular
bands. connective tissue forming the perichondrium.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1609

● The blood vessels that nourish cartilage are all loca- ● The substance of bone is distinguishable into
ted in perichondrium. There are three types of carti- 3 regions—periosteum, matrix and endosteum.
lage present in the body, i.e., hyaline cartilage, fibro- Marrow cavity contains bone marrow.
cartilage and elastic cartilage. ● Periosteum covers the bone externally and is a
● Hyaline cartilage is both flexible and strong. Front tough sheath composed of white fibrous tissue.
part of nose is made of hyaline cartilage. It also Tendons of the muscles are attached to this sheath.
covers the ends of many bones, providing a slippery ● Bundles of Collagen fibres, called Sharpey-Schafer
surface for the movement of joints. fibres, from the periosteum penetrates the bone to
● It joins the ribs to the breast bone (sternum). provide a firm connection between the two and as a
firm base for tendon insertions.
● Fibrocartilage is tougher and less flexible than hya-
● The periosteum contains blood vessels, which send
line cartilage. Its collagen fibres are thicker and are
branches into the bone for providing nourishment. It
arranged in dense bundles.
also contains active bone-forming cells, the Osteo-
● Fibrocartilage joins bones together in areas where blasts, which produce new bone material.
considerable stress may occur. ● Endosteum lines the marrow cavity. It is composed
● Pads of fibrocartilage form the intervertebral discs of white fibrous tissue and contains the bone-forming
between vertebral, where it acts as cushions. cells, which produce new bone material. The long
● Elastic cartilages is more elastic and flexible than bones thus grow in thickness from two sides.
any other type of cartilage. It readily recovers its ● Matrix of bone is dense and hard. It is formed of a
shape after distortion. This cartilage is found in pinna protein called Ossein.
(external ear) and external auditory canal of the ear, ● Ossein is the collagen of bone and forms a streng-
epiglottis, eustachian tubes. thening framework in the matrix.
● Bone is a living connective tissue composed of a ● The hardness and rigidity of bone comes from the
hard matrix material and bone cells. minerals primarily calcium and phosphate, which
precipitate out of body fluids coating the collagen
● If a bone is kept in an acid for some time, its inorga- fibres.
nic part is dissolved and organic part is left behind. ● The main minerals (salts) include calcium phosphate,
Such a bone is said to be decalcified. calcium carbonate, sodium chloride and magnesium
● Small bones are solid, while long bones have a phosphate.
cavity, the bone marrow cavity. ● Bones thus contains both inorganic and organic
matter.
Differences between Bone and Cartilage ● The matrix occurs as layers, the lamellae, which are
largely arranged in concentric rings around narrow
Bone Cartilage longitudinal cavities—the Haversian Canals.
1. Matrix is composed of 1. Matrix is composed of ● In the lamellae are found small fluid-filled spaces, the
a tough, inflexible a firm, but flexible bone lacunae, which give off fine radiating channels
material, the ossein. material, the chondrin. called Canaliculi.
2. Matrix is always 2. Matrix may be free of ● A Haversian canal together with its lamellae, lacunae
impregnated with cal- or impregnated with and canaliculi forms a Haversian system or Osteon.
cium salts. calcium salts. ● The Haversian canals are interconnected by trans-
3. Bone cells lie in lacu- 3. Cartilage cells lie in verse channels, the Volkmann’s canals.
nae singly. lacunae singly or in ● In compact bone, the numerous bone cells or osteo-
groups of two or four. cytes are embedded in a solid non-living matrix of
4. Osteocytes are irregu- 4. Chondroblasts are oval calcium phosphate that is deposited on collagen
lar and give off bran- and devoid of proces- fibres.
ching processes in the ses.
● The osteocytes closer to the blood vessels obtain
developing bone.
nutrients by diffusion and pass them to more distant
5. Lacunae give off cana- 5. Lacunae lack canali-
osteocytes by means of their slender cellular exten-
liculi. culi.
sions.
6. There are outer and 6. There are no special
inner layers of special cartilage-forming cells.
● Spongy bones also contain osteocytes, but they are
bone-forming cells, the Cartilage grows by not arranged around Haversian canals. The bony
osteoblasts, that pro- division of all chondro- bars and plates of spongy bone are not wider than a
duce new osteocytes, blasts. few cells, therefore, each osteocyte has intimate
which secrete new access to red marrow for the exchange of nutrient
lamellae of matrix. and wastes.
7. Matrix occurs largely in 7. Matrix occurs in a ● Bone removing cells are called osteoclasts. Osteo-
concentric lamellae. homogenous mass. clasts are located on the surface of bone and remove
8. Bone is highly vas- 8. Cartilage is nonvas- bone by secreting enzymes and dissolve the solid
cular. cular. calcium phosphate. As a result calcium and phos-
9. Bone may have bone 9. No such tissue is pre- phate ions are released in the blood when insufficient
marrow at the centre. sent. calcium and phosphate dietary is consumed.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1610

Types of Bone ● Spongy bones form vertebrae, flat skull bones, and
● In compact bone, osteocytes are located in lacunae ends of long bones (epiphyses), typified by the pre-
that are arranged in concentric circles within Haver- sence of traberculae.
sian system.
Types of Bones According to their Source of For-
● Compact bone forms outer cylinder of shafts of long
mation
bones of limbs and is typified by Haversian system.
Its cavity contains yellow bone marrow. ● The process of bone formation is called ossification.
● Spongy bone is present at the end of long bones Bones are of the following types according to their
and has entirely different structure. source of formation—
(1) Cartilaginous or replacing bones—These
Differences between Compact and bones develop from the pre-existing cartilage
Spongy Bones and particularly replace the cartilage. They are
Compact Bone Spongy Bone also called endochondrial bones. Examples—
Humerus, Femur.
1. Forms shaft (diaphysis) 1. Forms epiphyses of
of long bones. long bones, besides (2) Investing or dermal or membranous bones—
forming skull bones, These bones develop in the dermis of the integu-
vertebrae and ribs. ment as thin plate and sink to get attached over
2. Lamellae arranged in 2. Lamellae arranged as
the original cartilaginous endoskeleton. Example
regular Haversian sys- interlacing network.
tems. —Frontal, nasal, vomers and parietal of the skull.
3. No gaps between 3. Small spaces occur (3) Sesamoid bones—These bones are formed in
lamellae, hence com- between lamellae, the tendons at the joints. Example—Patella
pact bone. hence spongy bone.
(Knee-cap).
4. Marrow cavity present. 4. Marrow cavity lacking.
5. Marrow cavity has 5. Spaces between (4) Visceral bones—These bones are formed in
yellow marrow. lamellae contain red organs dissociated from rest of the skeleton.
marrow. Examples—in the heart of some ruminants and
6. Marrow stores fat. 6. Marrow produces red called os cordis. Bone also develops as os
corpuscles and granu- penis in the copulatory organs of most bats,
lar white corpuscles. insectivores and rodents. Small bone also deve-
● Spongy bone contains numerous bony bars and lops as os palpebae in the eye lids of crocodile.
plates separated by irregular spaces. These spaces ● Blood is a liquid connective tissue. Blood contains
contain red bone marrow. approximately 22% solids and 78% water.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
11. Protein chondrin is found in— 15. The mast cells are found in— (B) Investing bone
(A) Blood (A) Adipose tissue (C) Cartilage bone
(B) Areolar tissue (B) Yellow fibrous tissue (D) Reticular bone
(C) Bone (C) Areolar tissue 19. The bone of mammals contains
(D) Cartilage (D) White fibrous tissue longitudinal Haversian canals,
16. The camel’s hump is composed which are connected by trans-
12. Which of the following proteins,
of a tissue which provides water verse canals, called—
is not found in the connective
tissue ? when oxidized. It is— (A) Inguinal canal
(A) Collagen (B) Elastin (A) Areolar tissue (B) Bidder’s canal
(B) Adipose tissue (C) Volkmann’s canal
(C) Ossein (D) Actin
(C) Muscular tissue (D) None of these
13. Ligaments join—
(D) None of these 10. The pericardium of heart is com-
(A) Muscle to bone
17. The formation of cartilage is posed of—
(B) Bone to bone
known as— (A) Areolar tissue
(C) Skin to muscles
(A) Chondrogenesis (B) Reticular tissue
(D) Nerves to muscles
(B) Diapendesis (C) White fibrous tissue
14. Osteoclasts are associated (C) Haemopoisis (D) Yellow fibrous tissue
with— (D) Ossification
(A) Bone formation 18. A bone which is formed by the
ANSWERS
(B) Bone breakdown transformation of the connective 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C)
(C) Muscle formation tissue, called— 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C)
(D) Bone regeneration (A) Replacing bone ●●●

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1611

 Lamarckism
Lamarckism is also known as the theory of inheri-
tance of acquired characters. Lamarckism is the first
theory of evolution, and was proposed by Jean Baptiste
de Lamarck (1744–1829), a French biologist. Although the
outline of the theory was brought to notice in 1801, but his
famous book 'Philosophic Zoologique' was published in
1809, in which he discussed his theory in detail. Lamarck
coined the terms 'invertebrates' and 'Annelida'. The
term 'Biology' was given by Lamarck and Treviranus.
Lamarck also introduced the term 'Vertebrates'.
Lamarckian Postulates or Laws
The complete theory of evolution given by Lamarck
(Lamarckism) is popularly known as the inheritance of
acquired characters in organisms. It is in the form of four
postulates or laws, as follows :
01. The internal forces of life tend to increase the size of
an organism, i.e. the whole body and also the diffe-
rent parts upto a limit determined by life itself.
02. The formation of a new organ or a part in the body is
the result of a new need or new want, which has
arisen and continues to be left by the organism.
03. The development of an organ and its power of action
is directly proportional to its use, continuous and
constant use strengthening the organ, while disuse
results in its degeneration.
04. All the changes, which organisms acquire during their
life time are transmitted to their offsprings by the
process of inheritance. It means changes are cumula-
tive over a period of time.
The fourth principle that is acquired characters are
inherited, is the most attractive and controversial law, now
known as 'Lamarckian doctrine'.
A more precise account of Lamarck’s theory may be
given by the following factors, which according to him,
played an essential role in evolution :
(1) Role of environmental factors—Lamarck be-
lieved that various factors like soil, food, temperature etc.
causing changes in environment act directly in case of
plants, while indirectly in case of animals (since they
possess nervous system). The environment influence
leads to change in their habits which results in unusual
activity of an organ or structure. Lamarck, thus assumed
that living organisms react to external conditions and
become modified.
(2) Effects of needs or physical wants—Lamarck
thought that change of habits may bring about the modi-
fication of existing organs or may initiate the formation of
new organ.
(3) Use and disuse—The continuous and constant
use of organs make them efficient and lead to their better
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1612
development, while disuse for a long time make them
undeveloped and ultimately lead to their degeneration.
(4) Competition—There is a sort of competition in
nature to avoid overcrowding on earth. The stronger orga-
nisms try to destroy the weaker ones. The smaller multiply
faster, while larger ones slowly, thus a balance is main-
tained.
(5) Inheritance of acquired characters—The favou-
rably structural changes gained by an individual due to
use or disuse during its life time is preserved and are
passed on to its offsprings. These changes become more
and more pronounced if they are exposed to similar stress
of the environment as was faced by their ancestors or
parents. Such cumulative effects will finally result in the
appearance of new species.
Cross breeding—These various peculiarities pro-
duced in the organisms will always appear in successive
generations (provided breeding is confined to such unions
only). As a result, crosses between individuals not acqui-
ring these peculiarities, result in the disappearance of
such characters acquired in particular circumstances.
Isolation—The separation of various generations
brings about their different features, which in the course of
evolution, become specialized into particular species.
Analysis of Lamarck’s Theory
First law—The first law of Lamarck is merely the
growth process of the organism with which most scientists
agree. The increase in size in living beings is common
due to metabolic activities, which are controlled by vital
forces of life.
Second law—This law of development of an organ
due to its need is unacceptable to the modern evolu-
tionists. Nobody can believe that any organ can develop
due to the need of its presence.
Third law—The principle of use and disuse of organs
were based on direct observation of nature. Some of the
examples are as follows—
(1) Ancestors of modern horse lived in soft ground in
forests and were plantigrade. These forests were later
replaced by dry grass plains, and these had to graze on
hard grass and to walk on dry land. These changes in
habit were followed by changes in premolars and molars,
reduction in number of digits and lengthening of legs.
Thus the foot was gradually changed to unguligrade,
suited for swift running over hard ground.
(2) The continuous stretching of neck for several
generations by giraffe to catch high located leaves and
fruits of tall trees, caused the lengthening of its neck. This
was due to continuous use of particular organ (neck) that
enabled them to eat the food.
(3) The muscles on the upper part of the body of a
blacksmith are well developed due to constant use.
 (4) The whales lost their hindlimbs as the conse-
quences of the inherited effect of disuse.
(5) Snakes have elongated body accompanied by
loss of limbs. The continuous creeping through holes and
crevices made limbs continuously useless, hence finally
degenerated.
Besides these, there are other examples, like vesti-
gial organs in living animals due to disuse; claws in
carnivores, sensitive skin and tactile points on the ventral
side of the body; callosities of palm in hard workers;
webbed feet in swimming birds, etc., exemplifying
Lamarckian theory.
The transmission of acquired characters is the impor-
tant principle usually termed as the ‘Lamarckian doctrine’.
The acquired characters use hereditary or not, i.e.,
whether any structural change induced, in the body by
use or disuse or by a change in surrounding environment
can affect the germplasm in such a way that offspring will
acquire these structural modifications or not, is debatable.
Significance of Lamarckism
Lamarckian theory was simple and it had some
appeal, as it provided a way in which changes in orga-
nisms could come about. It was the first completely com-
prehensive mechanistic theory that was offered. Further-
more, it was the theory that lent itself to predictions and,
therefore, to testing. Thus, Lamarckian theory enjoyed
popular acceptance for near about 70 years, because it
was exemplified by many common examples. Most per-
sons know that exercise results in larger muscles.
Criticism of Lamarckism
The Lamarckian doctrine has been criticised much.
Cuvier and Weisman were the great critics of Lamarckism.
The following are the main objections against the inheri-
tance of acquired characters—
(1) Experiment by Weismann—August Weismann,
a German biologist was the main opposer of the inheri-
tance of acquired characters. He put forward the theory
of continuity of germplasm. According to Weismann,
the characters influencing the germ cells are only inheri-
ted. There is a continuity germplasm (Protoplasm of germ
cells) but the somatoplasm (protoplasm of somatic cells)
is not transmitted to the next generation, hence it does not
carry characters to next generation. Weismann cut off tails
of rats for about 80 generations and allowed the mutilated
parents to breed, but tailless rats were never born. It
means that acquired character was not inherited.
(2) Experiment by Loeb—Loeb produced artificial
parthenogenesis in the sea urchin’s egg with the help of
chemical stimuli. Similar eggs, were produced in corres-
ponding environments in brine shrimp Artemia salina but
none of their generation showed acquired characters.
(3) Indian traditions—Boring of ears and nostrils in
Indians has been continued from centuries among human
beings, but their offsprings do not show any trace of holes
in ears and nostrils.
(4) Experiment by Pavlov—Pavlov was a Russian
scientist, who wanted to show the inheritance of learning.
He trained the mice to come for food on hearing a bell.
But it was found that this training was necessary for each
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1613
and every generation. This clearly proved that acquired
characters are not inherited.
(5) Experiment by Castle and Phillips—Recently
Castle and Phillips performed transplantation experiments
to show the environment has no effect on heredity. They
took a black female guinea pig, its ovary was removed
and transplanted into the body of white female guinea pig.
The white female (with the ovary from black female) was
mated with a white male guinea pig. He found that all the
offsprings of this pair were black. This clearly showed that
environment has no effect on heredity. Hence, this again
disapproves Lamarckism. However some later workers
have found that in certain cases environment has some
effect on heredity.
Likewise, there are numerous cases non-hereditary
nature of acquired characters. Hence, it is obvious that
variations due to mutilations and diseases are not inhe-
rited; otherwise, non of us would have existed without
some trace of hereditary crippling.
Neo-Lamarckism
The evolutionist who support the Lamarckian doctrine
of inheritance of acquired characters come under the
heading of Neo-Lamarckism. Among the notable suppor-
ters of New-Lamarckism are Cope, Giard, Packard, Spen-
cer and McBride. They tried to modify Lamarckism in
order to make it acceptable. These Neo-Lamarckians con-
sidered that adaptation is universal. It arises as a result of
casual relationship of structure, function and environment.
Changed environmental conditions alter habits of orga-
nisms, hence, in response to new habits, organisms
acquire new structures in place of old structures. Conse-
quently, variations among animals have become distinct.
These variations have finally become engrained in the
heredity of the race. The kind of argument is, in fact, a
modified version of Lamarckian principles, because it has
omitted Lamarck’s view that of general perfecting ten-
dency in evolution.
Thus modern modified form of Lamarckism is known
as Neo-Lamarckism. Weismann’s theory is also not very
satisfactory. In some cases the characters are also trans-
mitted through somatic cells, e.g., regeneration in some
animals like earthworms and vegetative propagation in
plants. It means that somatic cells also contain all the
characters. Environment can influence the form, size
colour etc., of the organism, which may be inherited to the
next generation. Tower exposed the young ones of potato
beetles to abnormal conditions of temperature and mois-
ture and allowed them to breed. He observed marked
changes in the next generation of beetles. Morgan
exposed normal fruit flies (Drosophila) to X-rays in a
particular surrounding and found some remarkable
changes in the offspring, which were also transmitted to
the next generation. Agar reared water fleas in a culture
of green flagellates and found that some abnormalities
were developed in their structures. The parthenogentic
eggs of such individuals when kept in ordinary water and
allowed to hatch, produced individuals with the same
abnormalities. Guyer and Smith broke the lens of eye a
male rabbit by means of a needle. The surrounding blood
capillaries penetrated the damaged area. The made rabbit
was allowed to mate a normal female who gave birth to
seven young ones, four of which had defective eyes. It is
clear that the antibodies induce mutation in genes con-
trolling eye development. It indicates that the acquired
characters can be inherited, if the body changes produce
antibodies which in turn induce changes in the genes
concerned with the character.
The radioactive rays, certain chemicals and hor-
mones can influence the chromosomes and genes of the
germ cells and can bring about the changes in the next
generation. It is also believed that somatic changes may
be affecting the germ cells through some means.
Thus Neo-Lamarckism proposes that—
1. Environment influences the organism and
change its heredity.
2. Some of the variations acquired by an individual
can be transmitted to the next generation.
3. Internal vital force and appentency do not play
any role in evolution.
4. Only those variations are transferred to the next
generation which also affect germ cells or where
somatic cells give rise to germ cells.
Conclusion
The above objections and evidences on the inheri-
tance of acquired characters are unconvincing and un-
satisfactory. The main theories in this regard are ‘Mneme
theory of Semon’ and ‘Centro-epigenesis theory of
Rignano’. Semon holds that every condition of life or
functional activity of organism leaves a permanent record
of itself in the form of ‘engramme’. If these conditions are
continued for long period, these engrammes affect here-
dity and become inheritable; but if they are of short
duration, they do not inherit. It is clearly established that
only those characters, which can affect germplasm
(germinal or blastogenic) can be inherited, while other
characters (somatic or somatogenic) affecting body cells
do not transmit to their offsprings.
Differences between Lamarckism and Neo-
Lamarckism
Lamarckism Neo-Lamarckism
1. It is the original theory given 1. It is a modification of the
by Lamarck. original theory of Lamarck
in order to make it more
suitable to modern know-
ledge.
2. The theory lays stress on 2. Neo-Lamarckism does not
internal vital force, appe- give any importance to
tency and use and disuse these factors.
of organs.
3. It believes that change in 3. The theory stresses on the
environment brings about a direct effect of changed en-
conscious reaction in ani- vironment on the orga-
mals. nisms.
4. According to Lamarckism 4. Normally only those modi-
the acquired characters are fications are transferred to
passed on to the next the next generation which
generation. influence germ cells or
where somatic cells give
rise to germ cells.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1614
Darwinism
Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection
Charles Darwin was an English naturalist. In 1831,
Darwin got an opportunity to travel on H.M.S. Beagle (a
ship in which Charles Darwin sailed around the world) for
a voyage of world exploration. The voyage lasted for five
years. During that period Darwin explored the fauna and
flora of a number of continents and islands. Later Beagle
was sailed to the Galapagos Islands, where Darwin
observed great variations among the organisms that lived
on these islands. The common birds of Galapagos
Islands, the finches were markedly different from the
finches of mainland. In fact Darwin took idea from the
finches found on the Galapagos Islands for his theory of
natural selection.
Alfred Russel Wallace, another English naturalist,
who travelled widely, and studied the fauna and flora of
South America and South East Asia. Evolutionary ideas
similar to those of Darwin developed in Wallace’s mind.
He expressed these ideas in an essay titled ‘On the
Tendency of Varieties of Depart Indefinitely from the
Original Type’. Wallace sent his essay to Darwin. By the
time Darwin received Wallace’s essay, he had developed
a clear idea about organic evolution. The thinking of both
Darwin and Wallace in respect of organic evolution was
similar. Finally in 1859, Darwin published his observations
and conclusions under the name ‘Origin of Species’.
Darwin’s this publication became very popular and
changed people’s thinking about organic evolution.
The Main Features of the Theory of Natural
Selection are as Follows
(1) Overproduction (Prodigality or Fecundity)—All
organisms possess enormous fertility. The productivity of
all living organisms is far beyond the ultimate numbers,
which can possibly survive. The space and the available
food supply remain the same, while their quantity
increases enormously, i.e., in geometric ratio. It is the
innate desire of all living beings to produce their own pro-
geny for the continuity of race.
For example; insects lay hundreds of eggs. Plants
produce thousands of seeds. A female rabbit gives birth to
six young one in one time. If all the rabbits survived and
multiply at this rate, their number would be very large after
sometime. It is assumed that elephant is the slowest
breeder, which matures at the age of 30 years and lives
for about 90 years. Each female gives rise to about six
offsprings and if all survived, in 750 years a single pair
would produce about 19 million elephants. Thus some
organisms produce more offsprings and others produce
fewer offsprings. This is called differential reproduction.
All this indicates that every species of animals and
plants has an extraordinary power of production, and for
controlling this over productivity, these should be some
efficient check. Darwin and Wallace both recognized the
natural check and called it the struggle for existence.
(2) Struggle for existence—As a result of geome-
trical multiplication of individuals, the food and space
remain almost constant, with the result that a struggle
inevitably follows for existence. This struggle for existence
may be between the individuals of the same species
(intraspecific struggle) or between different species (inter-
specific struggle) or due to environmental factors (struggle
with the environment of inanimate nature). Consequently
it is of three types—
(i) Intraspecific struggle—It is the struggle bet-
ween the individuals of the same species or in
closely related forms to gain upper hand. It is the
most severe check, because their requirements
like food, shelter, breeding places are similar.
Many human wars are the examples of intra-
specific struggle. Cannibalism (eating the indivi-
duals of its own species) is another example of
this type of struggle.
(ii) Interspecific struggle—This struggle is more
frequent occurring between the individuals of
different species living together. Individuals of the
species compete with individuals of other spe-
cies, normally for food and shelter.
(iii) Environmental struggle—It is the struggle bet-
ween the organisms and the environmental fac-
tors, such as drought, heavy rains, extreme heat
or cold, earthquake, disease etc. Thus climate
and other natural factors also help in restricting
the number of individuals of particular species.
(3) Variations—The fact that no two organisms or
parts of the organisms are exactly alike, no matter how
closely related, is a commonly observed phenomenon.
These differences are called variations. It is the basic
prerequisite and progressive factor for evolution, because
without variations, no change could occur and evolution
would be impossible. But all the variations are not signi-
ficant from evolutionary point of view. Some of them are
changes occurred temporarily in the soma of the orga-
nisms and are not inherited to the offsprings. Only those
variations which can be inherited can take part in the
evolution of species. These variations are called heritable
variations. Changes occurred in the genes, or the chromo-
somes of the germplasm are the only heritable variations.
Darwin observed the various useful variations which
are selected by individuals and thus evolution results.
Darwin assumed variations as axiomatic without describ-
ing their real nature and origin in plants and animals. Thus
according to Darwin, the variations are continuous and
those which are helpful in the adaptations of an organism
towards its surroundings would be passed on to the next
generation, while the others disappear.
(4) Survival of the fittest and natural selection—
The organisms which are provided with favourable varia-
tions would survive, because they are the fittest to face
their surroundings, while others are destroyed. Originally it
was an idea of Herbert Spencer, who used the phrase ‘the
survival of the fittest’ first time. While Darwin named it as
‘Natural Selection’. The survival of the fittest is the result
of natural selection, which enforces adaptations. In the
course of long periods those best fitted and suitable
individuals survive and become adjusted to nature. Nature
being the super power selects only those adapted orga-
nism which have accumulated variations. Darwin illustra-
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1615
ted the survival of the fittest by natural selection by taking
example of Lamarck’s giraffe. Giraffe showed great varia-
tions in the length of their neck and legs. Due to scarcity
of grass on the land, these had to eat the leaves of tall
trees. Naturally giraffe with long neck and longer legs had
an advantage over those with shorter necks and legs,
since these could get enough food easily, had better
chances of survival and others having shorter necks and
legs gradually became extinct. Due to variations and
inheritance, the successive generations gradually became
better adapted to their environment. These adaptations
are preserved and accumulated in the organisms of a
species and ultimately lead to the origin of new species.
The environment is ever changing due to which further
changes occur and new adaptations appear in the
organisms. The descendants after several generations
become quite distinct from their ancestors. In this way
new species appear.
Some of the variations exhibited by living things make
it easier for them to survive, others are handicaps which
bring about the elimination of their possessors. The idea
of ‘the survival of the fittest’ is the core of the theory of
natural selection.
Evidences in Favour of Natural Selection
(1) Rate of reproduction—Rate of reproduction is
many times higher than the rate of survival in all
organisms.
(2) Limitation of resources—Food, space and other
resources are limited.
(3) Struggle for existence—Competition or struggle
for existence is seen in all organisms.
(4) Abundance of variations—Variations are so
abundant in nature that no two individuals of a species are
similar, not even the monozygotic twins.
(5) Production of new varieties of plants and
animals by sexual selection—When man can produce
various new varieties of plants and animals in a short
period, nature with its vast resources and long time at its
disposal can easily produce new species by selection.
(6) Mimicry and protective colouration—They are
found in certain animals and are products of natural selec-
tion.
(7) Pedigrees of some animals—Pedigrees of
horses, camels and elephants also support the Natural
Selection Theory.
Objections to the Theory of Natural Selection
(Darwinism)
Some of the objections to the theory of natural selec-
tion, which Darwin explained vaguely are the following—
(1) If species have descended as a result of grada-
tions, there should be innumerable transitional stages and
the species should not be so well defined as they are.
Darwin’s theory stresses upon small fluctuating variations
which are to a large extent noninheritable and can play no
part in evolution.
 (2) His theory does not explain the effect of use and
disuse and the presence of vestigial organs.
(3) He could not explain whether the instincts are
acquired and modified through natural selection or not.
(4) He did not differentiate between somatic and
germinal variations and considered all variations as heri-
table.
(5) Natural selection cannot account for degeneracy.
(6) One of the classical objections to natural selection
is that new variations would be lost by ‘dilution’ as the
individuals possessing them breed with others without
them.
Darwin indirectly accepted the Lamarckian idea of
inheritance of acquired characters in the form of ‘pange-
nesis hypothesis’, which cannot be accepted in the light of
knowledge of genetics.
Darwin’s Pangenesis Theory
To explain the inheritance of characters from parents
to the offspring, Darwin proposed the theory of pange-
nesis. It is now totally discarded. The following are the
main points of pangenesis hypothesis :
(1) All the somatic cells of the body not only multiply
by cell division but also give off minute particles through-
out their life called as pangenes or gemmules, which
wander throughout the body.
(2) There gemmules later on become concentrated in
the germ cells in both the sexes.
(3) Each germ cell is a minute replica of the parent’s
body and is capable of developing into the same kind of
body even in minute details.
(4) Each gemmule in the developing individual regu-
lates the development of the organ from which it origina-
ted from the parent.
(5) These gemmules are continuously produced at all
stages of development.
(6) Sometimes, certain gemmules might lie dormant
for several generations and then develop. It results in the
appearance of characteristics in the offsprings which were
born by their ancestors (atavism) and are not visible in the
parents.
(7) The weakest link in Darwin’s theory of natural
selection was his ignorance of the mechanism of heredity.
Galton—Made pangenesis hypothesis untenable by
presenting several experimental proofs. According to
pangenesis theory, every somatic cell is a germ cell pro-
ducing gemmules, while the actual germ cells are the
collection place for the gemmules coming from different
somatic cells. Thus this theory has no basis at all and has
been replaced by modern theory of germplasm put
forward by Weismann.
Neo-Darwinism
The modern theory of origin of species (evolution) is
called modern synthetic theory of evolution. It is combi-
nation of mutations, variations, heredity, isolation and
natural selection. It is the modified form of Darwin’s
theory of natural selection.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1616
(1) Mutations—Alteration in the chemistry of gene
(DNA molecule) is able to change its effect is called gene
mutation. They are discontinuous variations which develop
due to permanent changes in genotype. Mutation can pro-
duce drastic changes or can remain insignificant. There
are equal chances of a gene to mutate back to normal.
Most of the mutations are harmful or deleterious but not
all. Most of the mutants are recessive to normal gene and
these are able to express only in homozygous state. Thus
mutations produce variations in the offsprings.
(2) Variations and heredity—The nature of genetic
variations caused by reshuffling of genes during sexual
reproduction was very little known at the time of Darwin.
The phenomenon of meiosis causes random assortment
of genes during synapsis and rearrangement of maternal
and paternal chromosomes in both kinds of gametes.
Such a reassortment of genes in a large population with
large gene pool is the basis of appearance of new orga-
nisms.
Crossing-over of genes during meiosis also adds to
the variations and chromosomal aberrations like inversion,
translocation and polyploidy also result in the origin of
new species.
Heredity is the transmission of characteristics or
variations from parent to offsprings, is an important
mechanism of evolution. Organisms possessing here-
ditary characteristics that are helpful, either in the animal's
native environment or in some other environment that is
open to it, are favoured in the struggle for existence. Con-
sequently, the offsprings are able to benefit from the
advantageous characteristics of their parents.
(3) Genetic drift—It is the elimination of the genes of
certain characters when a section of population migrates
or dies of natural calamity. It changes gene frequency of
remaining population.
(4) Natural selection—If differential reproduction
(i.e., some individuals produce abundant offspring, some
only a few and still others none) continues for many
generations, genes of the individuals which produce more
offspring will become predominant in the gene pool of the
population. Thus natural selection occurs through differen-
tial reproduction in successive generations. Thus the
population becomes diverged either from the parent
population or from sister populations.
(5) Isolation—Isolation is a segregation or separation
of populations by some barriers which prevent inter-
breeding between related organisms. The reproductive
isolation between the populations due to certain barriers
leads to the formation of new species.
(6) Origin of new species—The populations of a
species present in different environments and are segre-
gated by geographical and physiological barriers, accu-
mulate different genetic differences due to mutations,
recombination, hybridization, genetic drift and natural
selection. The populations thus become different from
each other morphologically and genetically, and they
become reproductively segregated, forming new species.
Thus, new species arise by the establishment of some
reproductive barrier or isolation which checks the free
gene flow among populations of different environments.
 Differences between Darwinism and Neo-
Darwinism
Darwinism
(Natural Selection)
1. It is the original theory
given by Charles Darwin
(1859) to explain the origin
of new species.
2. According to this theory
accumulation of continuous
variations causes change in
individuals to form new
species.
3. It believes in the selection of
individuals on the basis of
accumulation of variations.
4. Darwinism does not believe
in isolation.
5. It can explain the origin of
new characters.
6. Darwinism cannot explain
the persistence of certain
forms in the unchanged
condition.
Difference between Neo-Darwinism and Neo-
Lamarckism
Neo-Darwinism
1. The theory explains that the 1. It is silent about high biotic
number of organisms of
different species remain the
same despite their high bio-
tic potential and ability to in-
crease by geometrical ratio.
2. It stresses the role of 2. The theory does not touch
struggle for existence and
natural selection in face of
limited resources.
3. It explains the role of varia- 3. The theory considers that
tions, their origin and accu-
mulation in the formation of
new species.
Neo-Darwinism
1. Neo-Darwinism is a modifi-
cation of the original theory
of Darwin to remove its
shortcomings.
2. Instead of continuous
variations, mutations are
believed to help form new
species.
3. Variations accumulate in the
gene pool and not in the
individuals.
4. Neo-Darwinism incorpora-
tes isolation as an essential
component of evolution.
5. The theory cannot explain
the origin of new charac-
ters.
6. The theory can explain the
occurrence of unchanged
forms over millions of years.
Neo-Lamarckism
potential and geometrical
increase in population.
these aspects of evolu-
tionary forces.
the change in environment
produces modifications
directly due to its effect on
germ cells or rarely indi-
rectly through somatic cells.
The modern synthetic theory of evolution is the result
of the work of a number of workers, namely R. A.
Dobzhansky, R. A. Fisher, J. B. S. Haldane, Sewall Wright,
Ernst Mayr and G. L. Stebbins. Mutations and natural
selection both are important for organic evolution. Darwin
and DeVries in their theory of organic evolution did not
consider the other factors which were essential beside
natural selection and mutation for organic evolution.
Stebbins in his book ‘Process of Organic Evolution’
discussed the synthetic theory and other factors which
were responsible for evolution.
Significant Facts of Evolution
● Alpheus S. Packard Jr. was the first to use the term
‘Neo-Lamarckism’.
● G. J. Romanes coined the term ‘Neo-Darwinism’.
● Dollo’s rule state that evolution is irreversible. The
generalization that evolution does not proceed back
along its own path, or repeat routes.
● Cope’s rule states that there is a tendency for animals
to increase in size during the long course of evolution.
● Bergmann’s rule states that in geographically variable
species of Homoiothermic animals, body size tends to
larger in cooler regions of a species range.
● Allen’s rule states that the extremities (tail, ears, feet,
bill) of endothermic animals tend to the relatively smaller
in cooler regions of a species range.
● Gause’s rule or the competitive exclusion rule states
that two species having the same ecological require-
ments cannot continue to occupy indefinitely the same
habitat.
● Gloger’s rule states that among warm blooded indivi-
duals living in warm and wet climates, develop more
melanin pigment, and are darker than those living in cold
climates.
● Jordan’s rule states that fishes inhabiting water of low
temperature tend to have more vertebrae.
● The sum total of all genes in a breeding population is
called gene pool.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The key point in Lamarck’s view 4. Who published the book ‘Origin (C) Geographical isolation
of organic evolution is— of Species by Natural Selection (D) Reproductive isolation
(A) Origin of species in 1859 ? 7. The unit of natural selection is
(B) Inheritance of acquired cha- (A) Lamarck (B) Oparin the—
racters (C) Wallace (D) Darwin (A) Individual (B) Family
(C) Overpopulation 5. The ultimate source of organic (C) Population (D) Species
(D) Natural selection evolution is— 8. The Darwinian fitness of an orga-
2. Co-discoverer of Darwinism (A) Mutation nism is a measure of—
was— (B) Sexual reproduction (A) Its ability, relative to others
(A) Ruskin (B) Buffon (C) Natural selection in the population, to pass its
(C) Malthus (D) Wallace (D) Hormonal action genes to the next genera-
3. Galapagos islands are associa- 6. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial Mela- tion
ted with the name of— nism’ demonstrates— (B) The number of offspring it
(A) Wallace (B) Malthus (A) Natural selection produces
(C) Darwin (D) Lamarck (B) Induced mutation (Continued on Page 1623 )
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1617
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations 17. Which of the following is liver-
produced growth-promoting an-
abolic peptides of vertebrate

ZOOLOGY blood serum ?

(A) Somatostatin
(B) Somatomedins
(C) Somatotrophin
1. Parapatric speciation is called— (C) Glyoxylate cycle (D) None of these
(A) Demes (B) Cline (D) Glycolysis
18. In females, which of the following
(C) Clisere (D) None of these 10. Septicemia is— is released during ovulation ?
2. Which particular fatty acid is not (A) Food poisoning (A) Primary oocyte
synthesized in the human body ? (B) Blood poisoning (B) Secondary oocyte
(A) Linoleic acid (C) Mental disorder (C) Oogonium
(B) Glycerol
(D) All the above (D) All the above
(C) Cholesterol
(D) None of the above 11. When enzyme molecule trans- 19. Chelicerate arthropods include—
forms substrate molecules per (A) Merostomata
3. Outermost sheath of connective unit time under maximum activity,
tissue that surrounds a skeletal (B) Arachnida
it is called—
muscle is— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Biological oxidation
(A) Epimer (B) Epimere (D) None of these
(B) Specific activity
(C) Epimerite (D) Epimysium
(C) Turnover number 20. The skin of human foetus is
4. The ‘soft spot’ on the top of an covered with thin silky hairs,
(D) Oxidation number
infant’s skull is called— called—
(A) Suture (B) Fontanel 12. Large arteries have more elastic (A) Fontanel
(C) Ligament (D) Fascia connective tissue and less
(B) Lanugo
smooth muscle, such as—
5. Dohle’s bodies are associated (C) Primary skin
with— (A) Aorta
(D) None of the above
(A) Neutrophils (B) Arterioles
(B) Erythrocytes 21. The disease ‘itai-itai’ is related
(C) Capillaries
with—
(C) Platelets (D) All the above
(D) None of these (A) Fragile bones
13. The disease caused by the defi- (B) Minamata
6. People who regularly run, jog or
ciency of parathormone hor- (C) Respiratory disorder
perform other aerobic exercises
mone is— (D) None of these
often develop a painful condition
called— (A) Cretinism
22. Polygenic inheritance occurs
(A) Tendinitis (B) Shinsplints (B) Tetany when—
(C) Sprain (D) All of these (C) Hypercalcemia (A) Several separate genes
7. Which of these displays immune (D) Myxoedema control a single phenotypic
tolerance ? 14. Staph food poisoning is related trait
(A) B-cells with— (B) A single gene controls a
(B) T-cells single phenotypic trait
(A) Salmonella bacteria
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Many genes control many
(B) Clostridium bacteria
phenotypic traits
(D) None of these (C) Staphylococcus bacteria (D) None of the above
8. Cardiac output is determined (D) None of the above
by— 23. L-arabinose is—
15. Manas biosphere reserve is (A) Restrictive enzyme
(A) Heart rate
famous for— (B) Pesticide
(B) Stroke volume
(A) Lions (B) Elephants (C) Monosaccharide
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Rhino (D) Wild buffalo (D) None of these
(D) None of the above
16. Which of the following helps in 24. The reaction in which glucose
9. The cycle of reactions that
consolidation of long-term me- and fructose combine to form
include glycogen conversion to
mory ? sucrose and water is—
lactic acid in muscles and lactic
acid conversion to glycogen in (A) Medulla and Pons (A) Exergonic
liver is called— (B) Hippocampus (B) Endergonic
(A) Glucosamine pathway (C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Spontaneous
(B) Cori cycle (D) None of the above (D) Both (A) and (B)

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1618

25. The release of which hormone is
inhibited when the stomach
acidity reaches pH 2 ?
(A) Secretin
(B) Gastrin
(C) Cholecystokinin
(D) All the above
26. Sum of constructive processes in
body cells is called—
(A) Catabolism
(B) Anabolism
(C) BMR
(D) All the above
27. Most of the chemical digestion
and absorption takes place in—
(A) Jejunum
(B) Ileum
(C) Colon
(D) Both (A) and (B)
28. Ratio of oxyhaemoglobin and
haemoglobin in the blood is
based upon—
(A) Oxygen tension
(B) Carbon dioxide tension
(C) Carbonate tension
(D) Bicarbonate tension
29. Which part of the brain regulates
food intake ?
(A) Pons varoli
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Medulla oblongata
(D) Crura cerebri
30. Dissociation curve is shifted to
right side when there is—
(A) Rise of pH
(B) Fall of pH
(C) Decreased CO2 concentra-
tion
(D) None of the above
31. Which of the following secretes
HCG hormone ?
(A) Placenta
(B) Pituitary gland
(C) Ovary
(D) Adrenal gland
32. β-oxidation is the process, which
occurs during—
(A) Fatty acid oxidation
(B) Protein digestion
(C) Carbohydrate oxidation
(D) Nucleic acid oxidation
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1619
33. Camouflage of Chameleon is 43. Achondroplasia is a disease
associated with— related with the defect in the
(A) Chromomere formation of—
(B) Chromoplast (A) Membrane (B) Mucosa
(C) Chromatophore (C) Cartilage (D) All of these
(D) Chromosome 44. Fabeliae bones are associated
with—
34. The free energy in the breaking
(A) Angular joints
down of glucose into CO2 and
H2O is— (B) Elbow joints
(C) Knee joints
(A) Negative and exergonic
(D) Neck region
(B) Positive and endergonic
45. Amoeba ingests food by—
(C) Only endergonic
(A) Circumfluence
(D) None of the above
(B) Circumvallation
35. Synovial fluid is found in— (C) Invagination
(A) Freely moveable joints (D) All the above
(B) Around the brain 46. If 30% of an organism’s DNA is
(C) Intercellular spaces thymine, then—
(D) Internal ear (A) 70% is purine
36. Parasympathetic effect is/are— (B) 20% is guanine
(C) 30% is adenine
(A) Lowers blood pressure
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct
(B) Slows heart rate
(C) Promotes digestion 47. Which of the following epidermal
layer cells die and worn off in
(D) All the above
humans ?
37. Pashmina wool is obtained (A) Stratum malpighi
from— (B) Stratum lucidum
(A) Sheep (B) Goat (C) Stratum granulosum
(C) Rabbit (D) Deer (D) Stratum corneum
38. Ecotone is characterised by— 48. The extra embryonic membranes
(A) Transition zone between of mammalian embryo are deri-
two vegetational types ved from—
(B) Terrestrial ecosystem (A) Formative cells
(C) Zone of transition between (B) Trophoblast
water and land (C) Follicle cells
(D) Forest ecosystem (D) Inner mass cells
39. Desmosomes are related with— 49. Which of the following gland is
(A) Cell excretion present in arms pit and pubic
(B) Cell adherence region in humans ?
(C) Cell division (A) Ecrine
(D) Cytolysis (B) Apocrine
40. Laennec’s disorder is related (C) Merocrine
(D) None of the above
with—
(A) Liver cirrhosis 50. Which of the snake is viviparous ?
(B) Hepatitis (A) Krait (B) Viper
(C) Jaundice (C) Cobra (D) Hydrophis
(D) All the above
41. Action potential on outer surface ANSWERS WITH HINTS
of plasma membrane is—
(A) Negative (B) Positive 1. (A) Parapatric speciation is that
(C) Neutral (D) Variable speciation which occurs in small,
local populations, called demes.
42. Heart pumps only impure blood
2. (A) Fat can be synthesized in the
in case of—
body from dietary carbohydrates
(A) Shark fish (B) Whale and proteins, but a particular
(C) Frog (D) Rat fatty acid called linoleic acid
 must be obtained from the
food, because it cannot be
synthesized by the body.
3. (D) Epimysium is the outermost
sheath of connective tissue that
surrounds a skeletal muscle. It
consists of irregularly distributed
collagenous, reticular and elastic
fibres, connective tissue cells
and fat cells.
4. (B) In a newborn infant, the bones
of the skull are still developing
and there are relatively wide
spaces between them. The
spaces contain tough sheets of
connective tissue that connect the
bones and are called fontanels.
5. (A) Dohle’s bodies are leukocyte
inclusions in the periphery of
neutrophils. They are present in
association with burns, infec-
tions, trauma and neoplastic
diseases.
6. (B)
7. (C) Immune tolerance is acquired
inability to react to particular self-
or non-self antigens. Both B-cells
and T-cells display tolerance
generally to their specific antigen
classes.
8. (C) Cardiac output is the volume
of blood pumped by each ven-
tricle in 1 minute. It is calculated
by multiplying the heart rate by
the stroke volume.
9. (B) Cori cycle refers to carbo-
hydrate metabolism, the break-
down of muscle glycogen, with
formation of lactic acid which
enters the bloodstream, and is
converted to liver glycogen, which
in turn breaks down into glucose.
This glucose is carried to muscle
where it is converted muscle gly-
cogen.
10. (B) Blood poisoning is a common
name for an infection of blood
that is also called septicemia or
toxemia.
11. (C) Number of substrate mole-
cules catalysed per minute by a
single enzyme molecule is called
turnover number (molecular acti-
vity).
12. (A) Large arteries, such as the
aorta, have more elastic connec-
tive tissue and less smooth
muscle. This arrangement allows
them to expand and receive the
surge of blood pumped with each
heart-beat.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1620
13. (B) Hormone parathormone is
secreted by parathyroid glands,
its deficiency causes tetany and
muscle cramps.
14. (C) Staph food poisoning, once
known as ptomaine poisoning,
results from toxins produced by
staphylococcus bacteria growing
on food.
15. (B)
16. (B) All informations first enters the
brain as short-term memories.
Then in a process called conso-
lidation, some short-term memo-
ries are transformed to long-term
storage. The hippocampus region
of the limbic system is associa-
ted with consolidation.
17. (B) Somatomedins are liver pro-
duced growth promoting (ana-
bolic) peptides of vertebrate
blood serum whose synthesis
and activity depends upon the
presence of growth hormone and
whose activity the mediate.
18. (B) As oogenesis continues, a
diploid primary oocyte undergoes
meiosis I, producing a functional
cell called a secondary oocyte
and a small nonfunctional polar
body. The polar body degene-
rates immediately. The secondary
oocyte begins meiosis II but
stops midway in the process at
metaphase II. It is this secondary
oocyte that is the immature ovum
released from the ovary at ovu-
lation.
19. (C) Chelicerates are natural
assemblage containing those
arthropods with chelicerate and
includes Merostomata and
Arachnida.
20. (B)
21. (A) The disease ‘itai-itai’ is
caused by cadmium poisoning
and causes fragile bones.
22. (A) 23. (C)
24. (B) In the reaction of glucose
and fructose to form sucrose and
water requires absorption of
energy from the surroundings,
therefore, called endergonic ?
25. (B) Normally gastrin release is
inhibited when stomach acidity
reaches pH 2, as a result the
further release of HCl and pepsi-
nogen is reduced or stopped.
26. (B) 27. (D)
28. (A) Haemoglobins are adapted for
maximal loading and unloading
of oxygen within the oxygen ten-
sion ranges.
29. (B) Food intake is regulated by
the hunger centre and the satiety
centre present in the hypothala-
mus.
30. (B) When pCO 2 and acidity
increases due to fall in pH,
oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into
oxygen and haemoglobin and the
sigmoid curve shifts to right.
31. (A) Placenta is also an endocrine
organ, secreting HCG, progeste-
rone, and estrogen. HCG sus-
tains progesterone production by
the corpus luteum in the mother’s
ovary.
32. (A)
33. (C) Chromatophores lie in the
skin with permanent radiating pro-
cesses containing pigments that
can be concentrated or dispersed
with in the cell under nervous
and/or hormonal stimulation,
affecting colour changes. They
often result in camouflage in
Chameleon.
34. (A) 35. (A)
36. (D) The endings of parasympa-
thetic nerves release acetyl-
choline, which slows heart rate,
lowers blood pressure and pro-
motes digestion.
37. (B) Pashmina wool is obtained
from the mountain goat. This
animal is found in Laddakh and
Tibet.
38. (A) Ecotone is the transition bet-
ween two or more diverse com-
munities, as between forest and
grassland.
39. (B)
40. (A) Cirrhosis is a chronic disease
of liver. When severe enough,
this leads to ammonia toxicity.
Most common form is that of nutri-
tional, also known as alcoholic,
Laennec’s or portal cirrhosis.
41. (A) 42. (A)
43. (C) Achondroplasia is a defect in
the formation of cartilage at the
epiphyses of long bones, pro-
ducing a form of dwarfism.
44. (C) 45. (D)
46. (D) Within each species, how-
ever, DNA has the constancy
required of the genetic material.
(Continued on Page 1642 )

Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
ZOOLOGY
1. Mitosome is associated with—
(A) Spermatozoon
(B) Liver
(C) Brain
(D) Pancreas
2. The application of genetic prin-
ciples for the improvement of
mankind is—
(A) Genetic engineering
(B) Biotechnology
(C) Eugenics
(D) Anthropology
3. Cavities unguium is also known
as—
(A) Leukonychia
(B) Leukopathia
(C) Leukopedesis
(D) Leukonecrosis
4. The common name of octopus
mollusc is—
(A) Devil fish (B) Cuttlefish
(C) Squid (D) None of these
5. Kaposi’s sarcoma is
associated with—
(A) AIDS
(B) Herpes
(C) Hepatitis-B
(D) All the above
6. Which of these derives most of
its water requirement from the
metabolism and does not drink
water ?
(A) Kangaroo rat
(B) Marine fishes
(C) Kangaroo
(D) Penguins
7. A form of bioregulation in which
one cell type of tissue influences
the activity of an adjacent cell
type, is called—
(A) Endocrine control
(B) Exocrine control
(C) Paracrine control
(D) None of these
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1621
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
16. Which of the following attacks
and destroys the large endopara-
sites, which are too large to be
engulfed by phagocytes ?
(A) Neutrophils
8. Viral disease Trachoma is asso- (B) Eosinophils
ciated with— (C) Lymphocytes
(A) Skin (B) Liver (D) Monocytes
(C) Eyes (D) Muscles
17. Colustrum is secretion from
9. Which organelle in the cell, other mammary glands during the first
than nucleus, contains DNA ? few days after the birth of a child,
(A) Centriole is the important source of—
(B) Golgi apparatus (A) Passive immunity
(C) Lysosome (B) Active immunity
(D) Mitochondria (C) Both (A) and (B)
10. The element phosphorus is (D) None of these
needed to produce— 18. Which of the following cellular
(A) RNA and DNA layer undergoes breakdown and
(B) ATP and GTP regeneration ?
(C) NAD and FAD (A) Corneal layer of eyes
(D) All the above (B) Endometrium of uterus
11. Blood vessels dilate and become (C) Both (A) and (B)
more permeable in response to (D) None of these
which of the following ? 19. Which of these is bile salt ?
(A) Histamine (B) Interferons (A) Glycocholate
(C) Pyrogens (D) Antibodies (B) Sodium taurocholate
12. The study of all the living and (C) Both (A) and (B)
relevant non-living components of (D) Bilirubin
a natural community and their 20. Atocia is—
relationship with each other, is
often (A) Female sterility
called—
(B) Nulliparity
(A) Synecology
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Autecology
(D) None of these
(C) Paraecology
(D) Synergism 21. Mammalian cervical vertebrae
can be identified by the presence
13. Introduction of Gambusia fish in of—
a pond to control mosquitoes, is
(A) Odontoid process
an example of—
(B) Transverse process
(A) Mechanical control
(C) Amphiplatyon centrum
(B) Biological control
(D) Large neural canal
(C) Systemic control
(D) None of these 22. Mesothelioma is—
14. The toxins produced by tetanus (A) Liver cancer
(B) Skin cancer
microbes affect—
(A) Voluntary muscles (C) Lung cancer
(B) Involuntary muscles (D) Breast cancer
(C) Both (A) and (B) 23. Perforated and plate-like mito-
(D) None of these chondrial cristae are found in—
15. Excess of which of the following (A) Paramecium
in human body is excreted in (B) Flight muscles of certain
urine ? insects
(A) Fat-soluble vitamins (C) Brown fat cells of rats
(B) Water-soluble vitamins (D) Liver cells in rats
24. The first organ receiving nutrient 33. The euphoric condition achieved 42. Canities unguium is also known
rich messenteric blood from intes- by joggers called ‘runner’s high’ as—
tine after absorption of chyle is— and is thought to be produced by (A) Leukonychia
(A) Liver (B) Heart high concentration in blood of— (B) Leukonecrosis
(C) Brain (D) Lungs (A) Endorphins (C) Leupathia
(B) Ach (D) Leukopedesis
25. Which of the following ecosys-
tems has the highest gross (C) Norepinephrine 43. Which of the following represents
primary productivity ? (D) Dopamine class Mastigophora ?
(A) Coral reef ecosystem 34. Tectum is dominant brain centre (A) Monocystis
in— (B) Paramecium
(B) Mangroves ecosystem
(A) Fishes (C) Trypanosoma
(C) Rain forest ecosystem (D) Amoeba
(B) Amphibians
(D) Grassland ecosystem
(C) Mammals 44. Which of the following is/are
26. Lacteals absorb— ketone bodies ?
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Lactic acid (A) Acetone
35. Which of the following mollusc is (B) Beta-hydroxy butyric acid
(B) Lactose cultivated for producing pearls ? (C) Acetoacetic acid
(C) Amino acids (A) Pinctada (B) Haliotis (D) All the above
(D) Fatty acids (C) Anodonta (D) Mytilus
45. Goldschmidt has classified evo-
27. Which of the following only amino 36. Which of these do not exist free in lution into micro-, macro-, and
acid is metabolized by brain ? human body ? mega-evolution. Which one of
(A) Alanine (A) Triglycerides the following is referred to as
(B) Fatty acids micro-evolution ?
(B) Glutamic acid
(A) Evolution at variety level
(C) Glutamine (C) Chloesterol
(B) Evolution at subspecies level
(D) Histidine (D) All the above
(C) Evolution at species and
37. The end of spinal cord in humans genus level
28. Drones in a colony of honeybees
is called— (D) Evolution at family level
originate by—
(A) Cauda equina
(A) Cyclic parthenogenesis 46. Loss of ability to speak due to
(B) Conus terminalis
(B) Arrhenotoky defect or paralysis of the vocal
(C) Filum terminale organs is called—
(C) Thelotoky (D) Funiculus (A) Alalia (B) Alaorina
(D) Diploid parthenogenesis
38. Heart lacks sinus venosus in— (C) Alate (D) Albidus
29. Which of the following snakes (A) Amphibians 47. Inherited Rh gene is found in—
makes nest ? (B) Fishes (A) Rh + individuals
(A) Viper (B) Krait (C) Mammals (B) Rh – individuals
(C) Coral snake (D) King cobra (D) None of these (C) AB blood group individuals
30. ‘A tube within a tube’ body plan is 39. Hay’s test is conducted to (D) O blood group individuals
met within— detect— 48. Which of the following lacks blood
(A) Hydra (B) Planaria (A) Bile pigments vessels ?
(C) Ascaris (D) Fasciola (B) Bile acids (A) Connective tissues
(C) Cholesterol (B) Epithelial tissues
31. Infection of Trypanosoma gam-
(D) Cholecystokinin (C) Muscular tissues
biense is initiated in a healthy
(D) None of these
person by— 40. Dane particles are associated
(A) Metacyclic form 49. Which constituent of certain flavo-
with—
proteins function as coenzyme in
(B) Stumpy form (A) Hepatitis A cellular oxidation ?
(C) Long slender form (B) Hepatitis B (A) Thiamine
(D) Intermediate form (C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Riboflavin
32. Foetal sex can be determined by (D) None of these (C) Cyanocobalamin
examining cells from amniotic (D) Tocopherol
41. Which of the following insect is
fluid, looking for— vector for Bubonic plague ? 50. Inducible enzyme is found in—
(A) Chiasmata (A) Xenopsylla (A) Certain vertebrates
(B) Barr body (B) Cimex (B) Microorganisms
(C) Sex chromosome (C) Pediculus (C) Mammals
(D) Kinetochores (D) Phlebotomus (D) None of these

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1622


ANSWERS WITH HINTS
1. (A) Mitosome is a body giving rise
to the middle piece of the sper-
matozoon.
2. (C)
3. (A) White spots or streaks on the
nails is called leukonychia, also
known as cavities unguium.
4. (A)
5. (A) Kaposi’s sarcoma is multiple
area of cell proliferation initially in
the skin and eventually in other
body sites. These lesions may
eventually become sarcomatous.
It is felt to be related to the
immunocompromised state that
accompanies AIDS.
6. (A) Different animals use diffe-
rent combinations of strategies to
conserve water. A kangaroo rat
does not drink water and derives
most of its water requirement
from metabolism.
7. (C) Paracrine control is a general
form of bioregulation in which one
cell type in a tissue selectively
influences the activity of an
adjacent cell type by secreting
chemicals that diffuse into the
tissue and act specifically on cells
of that area.
8. (C)
9. (D) Mitochondria are cytoplasmic
organelles of all eukaryotic cells.
Mitochondrion contains DNA.
Mitochondrial genetic code differs
from both nuclear and bacterial
codes.
10. (D) Phosphorus enters into the
composition of complex molecu-
les such as RNA, DNA, ATP,
GTP, NAD, FAD etc.
11. (A) Histamine is potent vasodila-
tor, formed by decarboxylation of
the amino acid histadine and
released by mast cells.
12. (A)
13. (B) Mosquito larvae in ponds are
destroyed by introduction of
larvivorous Gambusia fish. This
method of control is called bio-
logical control.
14. (A) 15. (B)
16. (B) One function of eosinophils is
to attack large endoparasites,
which cannot be engulfed by
phagocytes. Numerous eosino-
phils cluster around a large endo-
parasite and secrete powerful
digestive enzymes to destroy it.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1623
17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (C) Bile contains bile salts, such
as glycocholate and sodium
taurocholate. Bile also contains
pigments such as bilirubin.
20. (C)
21. (D) Cervical vertebrae are present
in neck region, which form a
flexible portion of the vertebral
column in mammals and are
usually seven in number. They
are all characterized by relatively
large neural canal.
22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (A)
25. (A) Due to availability of large
number of autotrophs per unit
area, coral reef ecosystem has
highest gross primary produc-
tivity.
26. (D)
27. (B) Glutamic acid is an amino
acid formed in the hydrolysis of
proteins. It is the only amino acid
metabolized by brain.
28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) The crithidial forms of Try-
panosoma gambiense multiply in
the lumen of salivary glands of
Tse-tse fly and transform into
metacyclic forms. When this fly
bites a healthy person, it transfers
the metacyclic forms along with
saliva into blood where they
initiate infection.
32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D)
35. (A) Pearl oysters are sedentary
bivalve mollusc. The Indian pearl
oyster is Pinctada vulgaris that is
known for producing precious
pearls.
36. (B)
37. (C) Filum terminale is a long,
slender filament at the end of
spinal cord.
38. (C)
39. (B) Hay’s test is conducted to
detect bile acids in urine.
40. (B) Dane particles are present in
the serum of patients with hepa-
titis B. They contain hepatitis B
surface (HBa Ag) and core (HBc
Ag) antigens.
41. (A) Xenopsylla is a genus of fleas
belonging to the family pulicidae,
order siphonoptera. Xenopsylla
cheopsis is a vector of bubonic
plague.
42. (A)
43. (C) Trypanosoma is flagellate
genus and belonging to subclass
Zoomastigophora of class
Mastigophora.
44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (A)
48. (B) Epitheliel tissues lack blood
vessels and obtain nutrition by
diffusion from neighbouring
tissues.
49. (B) Riboflavin is vitamin B2 and is
a constituent of flavoproteins that
function as coenzymes in cellular
oxidation and is essential for
tissue repair.
50. (B) Inducible enzyme is also
called adaptive enzyme. The
enzyme is produced by an orga-
nism only in the presence of its
substrate. Adaptive enzymes are
known only in microorganisms.
●●●
(Continued from Page 1617 )
(C) Its life span
(D) Its physical vigour
9. The unit of evolution is now
known to be the—
(A) Individual (B) Family
(C) Population (D) Species
10. The idea of common descent
was first suggested to Darwin by
his observations on—
(A) Geographic distribution of
species
(B) Human pedigree
(C) Comparative embryology
(D) All the above
11. According to Darwin, two different
areas within a continent have
different species because they
have different—
(A) Evolutionary mechanisms
(B) Ancestors
(C) Environments
(D) Evolutionary times
12. The struggle for existence is a
consequence of—
(A) Each organism leaving more
offspring than needed to
replace itself
(B) Innate competitive tenden-
cies
(C) The inevitable difficulty of
coping with climatic condi-
tions
(D) Territories and dominance
hierarchies
ANSWERS
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A)
6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (C) 12. (A)
●●●
 Topic on Botany
FAT (LIPIDS) METABOLISM
Introduction
● Fats, or lipids are best defined as a diverse group of
organic compounds found in plants, animals and
micro-organisms.
● Fats are produced in all actively metabolising plant
cells and serve a number of indispensable roles in
plants, particularly as reserve food substance.
● Fats and certain other compounds, more or less
closely related, are often called lipids.
● Characteristically, they are greasy to touch and inso-
luble in water but soluble in alcohol, ether, acetone
and other organic solvents.
● The proportion of lipids in food-stuffs varies from
0·2% in white potatoes to 70% in some nut kernels.
● Fats, such as olive oil, contain a mixture of fatty subs-
tances called triglycerides.
● Lipids made by cells are important not only because
they serve as an energy source but also because
they form the structural components.
Simple Classification of Lipids in Plants
1. Simple Lipids
● Simple lipids are esters of fatty acids with alcohol.
These are of following types—
(i) Fats
● Fats are esters of fatty acids with glycerol, i.e., fatty
acids are esterified with glycerol to form triglyce-
rides.
● These are true fats and are indispensable as reserve
food material and as a source of energy in living cells.
(ii) Waxes
● Waxes are esters of higher aliphatic fatty acids with
long chain of alcohols other than glycerols.
● Sometimes waxes are important components of
cuticle of epidermal cell walls.
● Waxes must : be solid at 68°F (20°C); be crystalline;
melt above 140° F (40°C) without decomposition;
have relatively low viscosity above the melting point;
have consistency and solubility properties that are
strongly dependent upon temperature.
● Waxes have been isolated from the outer layer of
bacteria, the roots, stems, leaves, fruit and flowers of
plants.
● Carnauba wax is extracted from an exudate on the
leaves of the carnuba palm (Copernicia prunifera ).
● Candelilla wax is obtained from a coating on the
stem of Euphorbia antisyphilitica, a leafless desert
shrub.
2. Compound Lipids
● Compound lipids are esters of fatty acids containing
groups in addition to alcohol and fatty acid radicals.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1624
—Kumar Pushkar
It may be of the following types—
(i) Phospholipids
● Phospholipids are fats containing phosphoric acid.
● Lecithin, the best known among phospholipids in
plant cells, is an essential structural material for living
cell membrane, where it maintains continuity between
the water and lipid phases inside and outside the cell.
● The function of certain enzymes depends upon their
attachment to lipids such as lecithin.
(ii) Galactolipids
● Galactolipids are the major lipid constituents of green-
leaf tissue.
● Monogalactosyl diglyceride and diglactosyl diglyceride
are commonly occurring galactolipids in chloroplasts.
Distribution of Fats in Plants
● Fats are widely distributed throughout the plant kingdom.
● Fats are especially found in abundance in reproductive
tissues (e.g., seeds and fruits) of certain higher plants
where they form important reserve food material such as
in cotyledons of sunflower, rape (Brassica napus), pea-
nuts (Arachis hypogaea) almonds (Prunus amygdalus)
and mesocarp of avocado pear (Persea americana).
● Certain cereal seeds such as wheat and barley
(Hordeum distichon) which store starch as chief
reserve food in their endosperm, have rich fat content in
their aleurone cell layers.
● Carnauba wax is found in the leaves of carnauba
palm (Copernicia prunifera).
Fatty Acids
● The fatty acids of naturally occurring lipids have an
even number of carbon (C) atoms because they are
synthesized from acetyl groups, each of which con-
tains two carbon atoms.
● Fatty acids with 16 (palmitic acid) and 18 (stearic acid)
carbon atoms are most commonly found in nature.
● Two typical fatty acids are palmitic and oleic fatty
acids.
Saturated Fatty Acids
● Typical naturally occurring saturated fatty acids are
chainlike (non-branched) compound with an even
number of carbon atoms.
● Several important short-chain fatty acids include
butyric acid (4C–atoms and caproic acid (6C–
atoms), octanoic acid (8C–atoms) and decanoic
acid (10C–atoms), which are present in palm oil.
Major Saturated Plant Fatty Acids
Number of C–atoms
Common Name
Lauric acid 12
Myristic acid 14
Palmitic acid 16
Stearic acid 18
Arachidic acid 20
Behenic acid 22
Unsaturated Fatty Acids
● Fatty acid molecules containing one or more double
bonds (—CH — — CH—) are called unsatured fatty
acids.
● Fatty acids with one double bond are called mono-
unsaturated fatty acids; those with two or more are
called polysaturated ones.
● Monounsaturated fatty acids comprise the largest
group of unsaturated fatty acids.
Major Unsaturated Fatty Acids of Plants
Common Name Number of Carbon Atoms
Palmitic acid 16
Oleic acid 18
Linoleic acid 18
α-Linoleic acid 18
Erucic acid 22
Breakdown of Fatty Acids
The long chain fatty acids are broken down by the
process of α-oxidation and β-oxidation. The latter pro-
duces acetyl CoA (2-carbon unit).
α -oxidation
● The long chain of fatty acid by this process is broken
down until it is reduced to 12 C–atoms.
● Fatty acids with less than 13 C–atoms are not affec-
ted by this process.
α-oxidation occurs in the following sequential series—
(i) In presence of an enzyme fatty acid peroxidase
and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), the fatty acid is
oxidatively decarboxylated to form an aldehyde.
In this process CO2 comes from carboxylic group
and oxidation occurs at α-carbon atom which is
converted into aldehyde group.
(ii) In presence of an enzyme fatty aldehyde dehy-
drogenase, the aldehyde is further oxidised to
form the new fatty acid containing one less car-
bon atom than in the original fatty acid. NAD+ is
reduced in this reaction.
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Aldehyde →
NAD + H2O
New fatty acid + NADH + H +
The new fatty acid will be oxidised again and again till
it consists of 12 C–atoms.
β-oxidation
● β-oxidation is the chief method of fatty acid degrada-
tion in plants.
● It takes place in mitochondria (and also in glyoxy-
somes) and involves sequential removal of 2C in the
form of acetyl CoA molecules from the carboxyl end
of fatty acid.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1625
● Because β-carbon (i.e., carbon atom number 3) of the
fatty acid is oxidised, it is called β -oxidation which
involves the following sequential steps—
(i) The first step involves the activation of fatty acid
in presence of an enzyme thiokinase and ATP.
CoASH is consumed and CoA derivative of fatty
acid is produced.
Thiokinase
Fatty acid + CoASH →
ATP + Mg2+
Fatty acyl-CoA + AMP + PPi
The AMP (Adenosine monophosphate), thus
produced, reacts with another ATP molecule to form
ZADP molecule, in presence of an enzyme adenylate
kinase.
Adenylate kinase
AMP + ATP 2ADP
(ii) In this step, two hydrogen atoms are removed
between α- and β-carbons, as a result α-, β-
unsaturated fatty acyl CoA is formed in presence
of FAD–containing enzyme acyl–CoA dehydro-
genase.
(iii) This step involves the addition of a water mole-
cule across the double bond to form corres-
ponding β-hydroxyacyl–CoA in presence of
enzyme enol hydrase.
(iv) In presence of NAD—specific β-hydroxyacyl–
CoA dehydrogenase enzyme, β-hydroxyacyl–
CoA is dehydrogenated. Two H–atoms are
removed from the β-carbon atom (β-oxidation)
which now bears a carbonyl function and β -keto
fatty acyl–CoA is formed.
(v) This is the final step which involves the thioclas-
tic cleavage of β-keto fatty acyl—CoA in presence
of an enzyme β-ketoacyl thiolase to form
an active 2C unit acetyl–CoA and a fatty acyl–
CoA molecule.
The fatty acyl–CoA so produced again re-enters
the β-oxidation losing further 2 carbon unit. This
sequence continues until whole molecule is
degraded.
Worth Remembering
● Each turn of β-oxidation generates one FADH2 [step (ii)],
one NADH + H+ [step (iv)] and one acetyl–CoA [step (v)].
● In the last turn of β-oxidation spiral, two acetyl–CoA
molecules are produced.
● Each turn of β-oxidation generates 5 ATPs. However, in
the first turn there is consumption of 2 ATP molecules [in
the step (i)] hence, in this turn there will be a net gain of
only 3 ATPs.
● A huge amount of energy is generated in the form of ATP
by mitochondrial oxidation of fatty acids through β-
oxidation spiral and TCA cycle. For example, one mole-
cule of palmitic acid (16–C atom) on complete oxidation
will produce 129 ATP molecules.
Fatty Acid Synthesis
● Although the reactions of β-oxidation of fatty acids are
reversible, the fatty acids are not formed by the
reverse reactions of β-oxidation.
● Long chain fatty acids are synthesized in plants from
active two carbon units, the acetyl–CoA.
● Synthesis of fatty acids from acetyl–CoA occurs in
sequential steps and takes place in the cytosol at the
endoplasmic reticulum. In each step the fatty acid
chain is increased by 2C–atoms. Each step involves
the following two reaction—
(i) In the first reaction, acetyl–CoA combines with
CO2 in presence of enzyme acetyl–CoA Carbo-
xylase to form malonyl–CoA. Mn2 + and biotin
are required as cofactors, while ATP provides
energy during this reaction.
Acetyl–CoA carboxylase
Acetyl–CoA + CO2 + ATP →
2+
Biotin‚ Mn
Malonyl–CoA + ADP + iP
(ii) In presence of an enzyme fatty acid synthetase
and coenzyme NADPH2, malonyl–CoA reacts
with another molecule of acetyl–CoA to form
butyryl–CoA (Coenzyme–A derivative of butric
acid).
Fatty acid synthetase
Malonyl–CoA + Acetyl–CoA →
2 NADPH 2
Butyryl–CoA + CO2 + H2O + 2NADP
Butyryl–CoA, in the next step, will combine with
malonyl–CoA to form CoA derivative of fatty acid
containing 6C–atoms. This process is repeated till
coenzyme–A derivative of long chain fatty acid (which
may contain upto 16–18 carbon atoms) is formed.
The reaction (ii) described above summarises a
number of reactions, involved in the synthesis of fatty
acid from acetyl–CoA and malonyl–CoA, which can
be grouped in the following heads—
(i) Initiation reaction—In this case acetyl–CoA
transfers its acetyl group to one of the —SH
group of multienzyme complex, i.e., fatty acid
synthetase.
(ii) Elongation and termination reactions—
● When the fatty acid residue has attained a desired
length the chain elongation stops and the cycle is not
repeated.
● The acyl group instead of being transferred to the
—SH of the enzyme is transferred to —SH group of
Co-enzyme–A (CoASH). Thus, CoA derivative of fatty
acid is produced.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Lipids or fats are a diverse group 5. Which one of the following is a (B) α-reduction
of organic compounds found in— polyunsaturated fatty acid ? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Plants (A) Linoleic acid (D) Fatty acid reduction
(B) Animals (B) Oleic acid
10. Fatty acid molecules containing
(C) Micro-organisms (C) Erucic acid
one or more double bonds
(D) All of the above (D) All of the above
(—CH — —CH—) are called—
2. In which of the following organic 6. Palmitoleic fatty acid is obtained (A) Saturated fatty acids
or inorganic compounds, lipids from— (B) Unsaturated fatty acids
are soluble ? (A) Olive oil (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Water (B) Marine algae (D) Stearic acid
(B) Alcohol (C) Pine oil
(C) Ether (D) Both (B) and (C) ANSWERS
(D) In both (B) and (C) 7. Triolein is a simple triglyceride 1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A)
3. Triglycerides are sometimes since it contains— 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B)
called— (A) One type of fatty acid ●●●
(A) Nature’s store house of (B) Two types of fatty acids
energy (C) Three types of fatty acids
(B) Enzymes (D) Four types of fatty acids
(C) Co-factors
8. How many fatty acids are found
(D) All of the above in each molecule of triglyceride ?
4. Which one of the following is a (A) Two (B) Three
saturated fatty acid ? (C) One (D) Four
(A) Lignoceric acid
9. The energy in fatty acid molecule
(B) Palmitic acid is transformed into ATP by a pro-
(C) Myristic acid cess known as—
(D) All of the above (A) β-oxidation

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1626

 There is no taxonomic category called algae, this term
has long been used in biology as a matter of convenience Zygote (2n)
to mean aquatic organisms that carry on photosynthesis.
In the ocean and fresh water lakes and ponds, algae are a
part of the phytoplankton, which photosynthesize and Zygospore (2n)
produce the food that maintains an entire community of Isogametes pairing
organisms.
(n) (n)
Green algae (Phylum–Chlorophyta) live in the ocean Diploid (2n)
but are more likely found in fresh water and can even be Fertilization Meiosis
Haploid ((n)
found on land, especially if moisture is available. Some,
however, have modifications that allow them on tree Sexual Reproduction
trunks even in bright sun.

Green Algae are Most Plant-like

Green algae are believed to be closely related to the
first plants because both of these groups : Gamete Zoospores (n)
(i) Have a cell wall that contains cellulose. formation

(ii) Possess chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b Eyespot

(iii) Store reserve food as starch inside the chloroplast.
(Other types of algae store reserve food outside the
chloroplast).
Flagellated Green Algae
Chlamydomonas is a unicellular green alga usually
less than 25 µm long that has been studied in detail. It has
a definite cell wall and single, large cup-shaped chloro-
plast that contains a pyrenoid, a dense body where
starch is synthesized. The chloroplast also contains a red-
pigmented eyespot (stigma), which is sensitive to light
where photosynthesis can occur. Two long whiplash
flagella project from the anterior end of this alga and curl
backward.
When growth conditions are favourable, Chlamydo-
monas reproduces asexually. The adult divides, forming
zygospores (flagellated spores) that resemble the parent
cell. A spore is a haploid that develops into a mature
adult under favourable conditions.
Under unfavourable conditions of growth, Chlamy-
domonas reproduces sexually. Two different mating types
of cells, morphologically similar but physiologically diffe-
rent acting as gametes come into contact and unite to
form a zygote. Later on, zygote is surrounded by a thick
wall and becomes a resistant zygospore. When a zygo-
spore germinates, it produces four zoospores by meiosis.
In most species gametes are isogamous (identical). In
other species, there may be anisogamy, where gametes
of different sizes are fused to form a zygote. Still in other
species a nonmotile egg specialized for storing food and
the motile sperms are specialized for seeking out an egg.
This condition is termed oogamy and the gametes as
heterogametes.
Nucleus
Flagellum
Chloroplast
Starch
granule Pyrenoid
Asexual Reproduction
Zoospore
Zoospore (n) formation
Fig. : The structure and life cycle of Chlamydomonas, a
motile green alga. During asexual reproduction, all
structures are haploid; during sexual reproduction,
meiosis follows the zygote stage, which is the diploid
part of the cycle.
Colonial Green Algae
A number of colonial forms occur among the flagella-
ted green algae. A Volvox colony is a hollow sphere with
thousands of cells arranged in a single layer surrounding
the watery interior. Each cell of a Volvox colony resem-
bles a Chlamydomonas cell. In Volvox, the cells coope-
rate in that the flagella beat in a coordinated fashion.
Some cells are specialized for reproduction and each of
these can divide asexually to form a new daughter colony.
This daughter colony resides for a time within the parental
colony, but then it leaves by releasing an enzyme that
dissolves away a portion of the parental colony, allowing it
to escape. Among these algae sexual reproduction occurs
by means of oogamy.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1627

 haploid filaments (new indi-
viduals). In Spirogyra,
sexual conjugation may be Cell wall
of two types; scalariform
and lateral conjugation.
Scalariform is of common Nucleus
occurrence and takes
place between the oppo- Pyrenoid
site cells of the two neigh-
bouring filaments. Lateral
conjugation is rarely found Chloroplast
and occurs between two
adjacent cells of the same
filament.
Ulothrix is a common,
fresh water, thread-like alga Fig. : Spirogyra, a filamen-
found in rather cold, flow- tous green alga, in
which each cell has a
ing water. The thallus is an ribbonlike chloroplast.
unbranched filament con- During conjugation
sisting of short, cylindric or the cell contents of
quadrate uninucleate cells. one filament enter the
cells of another fila-
The haploid filament repro- ment. Zygote forma-
Daughter Colonies duces both sexually as well tion follows.
Fig. : Volvox sp. asexually. Asexual reproduction takes place by vegetative
Parent colony with a number of daughter colonies. method of fragmentation and
Daughter sporulation. The spores are
colony
chiefly zoospores sometimes
aplanospores, both serve to
reduplicate the haploid Ulo-
thrix filament. The simple life
history of Ulothrix consisting of
a haploid plant body (filament)
Zygote with the zygote as the haploid
stage is called haplontic. It is
Egg characterized by zygotic meio-
sis.
200 µm Is Ulothrix a Colony or
a Multicellular Plant ? Nearly
all colonies of single-celled
algae are spherical or disc-like
or irregular. In several species,
Sperm successive cell divisions occur
in parallel planes so that a
chain of cells is formed. Such
Fig. : Volvox, a colonial green alga. The adult
colonies are filamentous. The
Volvox colony often contains daughter best example of this type of
colonies, which are asexually produced by colony is represented by Spi-
special cells. During sexual reproduction, rogyra. In Ulothrix, the basal
colonies produce a definite sperm and egg. cell may be colourless, some-
Filamentous Green Algae what modified in shape and
Filaments are end-to-end chains of cells that formed attached to the substratum. It
after cell divisions in only one plane. simply anchors the plant to its
Spirogyra a filamentous green alga, is found in green substrate, whereas the others
masses on the surfaces of ponds and streams. Being are capable of photosynthesis,
characteristically slimy, due to mucilaginous covering, it cell division and form either
is called water silk or pond scum. It possesses ribbon- spores or gametes. Because
like chloroplasts arranged as spiral bands within the cell. Rhizoidal
cell of this slight differentiation bet-
Conjugation, the temporary union of two individuals ween cells, a filament of
during which there is an exchange of genetic material,
Ulothrix represents a transition
occurs during sexual reproduction. The two filaments line
up next to each other, and the cell contents of one between filamentous colony of
filament move into the cells of other filament, forming single-celled plant and a very
diploid zygote. These zygote survive the winter and in simply constructed multicel-
the spring they undergo meiosis to produce new Fig. : Ulothrix filament. lular plant.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1628

 Oogamy does occur among the
filamentous green algae. The genus
Oedogonium contains filamentous
algae in which the cells are cylindrical
with netlike chloroplasts; during
sexual reproduction there is a definite
egg and sperm. Cap cell formation
is also reported in Oedogonium.
Antheridia
marine cosmopolitan genus. A few (A) Sperms and eggs are produ-
species are found in saline or fresh ced
water but grow in profusion in waters
(B) Generations look alike
polluted by organic matter or sewage.
Ulva has an alternation of genera- (C) Both (A) and (B)
tions like that of plants except that (D) Alternation of generation
both generations look exactly alike,
the gametes look alike (isogamy), 5. Both lateral and scalariform con-
and the spores are flagellated. In jugation occur in—
plants one generation is typically (A) Spirogyra
dominant over (lasts longer than) the
other, egg and sperm are produced (B) Ulva
(oogamy). Spores are without any (C) Volvox
flagellum. (D) Nostoc

6. Ribbon-like chloroplast is found

in—
Nucleus
Zygote
(A) Ulva
Vegetative
cell (B) Oedogonium and Ulva
Diploid (2n) (C) Spirogyra
Fertilization Meiosis
Oogonium Haploid (n) Plus (+)
(D) Volvox
gametophyte
Egg
7. Which of the following algae
Suffultory Spores
Gametes
shows colonial form ?
cell
(A) Chlamydomonas
Apical caps
(B) Volvox
(C) Spirogyra
Minus (–)
Gametophyte
(D) All of the above
Reticulate 8. Which of the following algae can
chloroplast Fig. : Ulva Life Cycle. change direction by regulating
Cell wall the strength ?
Pyrenoid OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (A) Volvox
(B) Nostoc
1. In Chlamydomonas—
Cap cell (C) Spirogyra
(A) Sexual reproduction occurs
(B) The adult is haploid (D) Chlamydomonas
(C) Spores survive times of 9. The pyrenoid of Spirogyra is
stress meant for—
(D) All of the above are correct (A) Protein synthesis
2. Which of these algae are not (B) Starch synthesis
flagellated ? (C) Amino acid synthesis
Basal (A) Chlamydomonas (D) All of the above
holdfast
(B) Volvox 10. Which of the following algae is
Flattened
(C) Spirogyra commonly known as sea
disc (D) Dinoflagellates lettuce ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
Fig. : Oedogonium. A monoecious 3. Which of these is not a green
filament. alga ? (B) Ulva
(A) Chlamydomonas (C) Spirogyra
Multicellular Green Algae (D) Volvox
(B) Volvox
Multicellular form of green algae (C) Spirogyra
is best represented by Ulva. Multicel - ANSWERS
(D) Fucus
lular Ulva is commonly called sea
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A)
lettuce because of its leafy appea- 4. Which of the following charac-
rance. The thallus is two cells thick teristic parts is found in Ulva but 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (B)
and can be a metre long. Ulva is a not in plants ? ●●●

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1629

Occurrence
● Club fungi (division = Basidiomycota 16,000 spe-
cies), which have septate hyphae, include the familiar
mushrooms growing on lawns and the shelf or
bracket fungi found on dead trees.
● Less well known are puffballs, bird’s nest fungi, and
stinkhorns.
● All the above structures are fruiting bodies called
basidiocarps.
● Basidiocarps contain the basidia, club-shaped struc-
tures which produce basidiospores and from which
this division takes its name.
● This big group of fungi includes both saprophytic and
parasitic species.
Mycelium
● The well-developed filamentous mycelium consists of
a mass of branched, septate hyphae generally
spreading in a fan-shaped manner.
● The mycelium generally is a weft of interlacing and
anastomasing hyphae. In a few genera, however, the
mycelial hyphae run parallel to one another and get
bundled together to form definite and conspicuous
thick cords of macroscopic size which are called
rhizomorphs.
● The mycelium of Basidiomycetes passes through
three distinct stages—primary, secondary and ter-
tiary before the fungus completes its life cycle.
● Most of the Basidiomycetes are heterothallic. It means
primary or homokaryotic mycelium in them is of two
distinct strains which are called plus (+) and minus (–)
strain.
Clamp Connection
● The dikaryotic cell divides repeatedly by conjugate
divisions to give rise to a secondary or dikaryotic
mycelium. During nuclear divisions of the dikaryotic
cell special structures called clamp connections are
formed.
A B C D E F
Fig. : (A–F). Basidiomycetes. Diagram illustrating the
formation of clamp connections.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1630
● The clamp connections are usually formed on the
terminal cells of the hyphae of the secondary myce-
lium.
● The presence of a hook-like clamp connection is a
safe criterion for distinguishing a secondary or dika-
ryotic mycelium from the primary or monokaryotic
mycelium.
● The clamp connections by some mycologists are con-
sidered homologous to the hooks of ascogenous
hyphae of the ascomycetes.
Diploidisation (Dikaryotisation)
● The process by which the primary mycelium is con-
verted into secondary mycelium or dikaryotic myce-
lium is called diploidisation or dikaryotisation. Dip-
loidisation may take place by the following methods—
(i) By hyphal fusion : In this case fusion occurs
between the vegetative cells of two neighbouring
hyphae.
(ii) By conjugation of basidiospores : In this case
two basidiospores of opposite strains meet and
conjugate.
(iii) By the fusion between a germinating basidio-
spore and a diploid cell of the basidium.
Secondary mycelium
Clamp
connec-
tion
Dikaryon
Primary mycelium
Fig. : Basidiomycetes. Sketch showing the formation of
a secondary mycelium from a dikaryotised cell
produced by somatogamous copulation between
two uninucleate cells of primary mycelia of oppo-
site strains.
 (iv) By the fusion between germinating oidium of one
strain with a cell of primary mycelium of the
opposite strain.
(v) By the fusion between two haploid cells of oppo-
site strains of the basidium.
Sexual Reproduction
● Club fungi usually reproduce sexually. But the deve-
lopment of sex organs, antheridia and ascogonia,
are universally absent throughout the class.
● The rudimentary differences in sex, shown at the time
of sexual fusion, are designated by plus (+) and
minus (–) signs. These signs are called sexual
strains.
● Fructifications are formed only if two mycelia of oppo-
site strains come into contact. The sexual process,
being extremely simplified, consists of three funda-
mental processes such as karyogamy, sexual
fusion or plasmogamy and meiosis.
(i) Karyogamy :
● The terminal binucleate or dikaryotic cells of the
hyphae of the secondary mycelium develop into basi-
dia.
● The two nuclei in the dikaryotic cell fuse. This fusion
is called karyogamy. The resultant diploid fusion
nucleus is called a synkaryon.
● The young basidium containing the synkaryon is
called probasidium which represents the transitory
diplophase.
Brand spores
Dikaryotic Diploid
C serve to propagate the dikaryophase in the life cycle.
B
A
Young
basidium
Basidio-
spore
F Brand
spore
D E
Fig. : (A–F). Basidiomycetes. Ustilago sp. (A) Dikaryotic
hypha forming brand spores; (B–C) Brand spores
(dikaryotic and diploid); (D) Germinated diploid
brand spore to form an epibasidium with four
haploid nuclei arranged in a row; (E) mature four-
celled epibasidium bearing basidiospores; (F)
Brand spore of Ustilago budding in a nutrient
solution (after Brefeld).
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1631
(ii) Plasmogamy :
● Plasmogamy is achieved by the union of two proto-
plasts whereby the sexual nuclei of opposite strains
come close together in a pair within the same cell.
● Plasmogamy in Basidiomycetes is achieved either by
somatogamy or by spermatisation.
● Two somatic hyphae of the primary mycelia of oppo-
site strains come in contact and lie side by side in the
fusion cell. This sexual union or plasmogamy by
fusion of somatic cells is called somatogamy.
● In the homothallic species plasmogamy occurs by the
formation of tubular connections between the somatic
cells of the same mycelium.
● Plasmogamy by the union of a spermatium with a
receptive hyphae (female organ) is known as sper-
matisation.
● Plasmogamy by spermatisation exclusively takes
place in the rusts which produce numerous tiny, uni-
nucleate, nonmotile spore-like bodies called sperma-
tia.
(iii) Meiosis :
● The synkaryon in the probasidium undergoes two
nuclear divisions which constitute meiosis.
● Meiosis restores the haploid condition in the life
cycle.
Asexual Reproduction
(i) By Conidia :
● Conidia are not of so common occurrence in Basidio-
mycetes. They are produced in the rusts, smuts and
some other Basidiomycetes.
● In smuts, conidia are budded off from the basidio-
spores and the mycelium.
● Conidia are produced by the dikaryotic mycelium and
(ii) By Oidia :
● Oidia are small, hyaline, thin-walled unicellular frag-
ments of the mycelium.
● Oidia may be uni or binucleate as they are produced
respectively by the breakage of primary or secondary
mycelium.
● Oidia serve a double function. They may either germi-
nate to form primary mycelia or bring about dipodisa-
tion. In the latter case the germinating oidium acts as
a spermatium and fuses with the somatic hyphal wall
of opposite strain.
(iii) By Fragmentation :
● Any part detached from parent cell containing coni-
diophores becomes able to form a new mycelium
(plant body).
 Basidiocarp and Basidia
● In the higher Basidiomycetes the secondary mycelium develops fruiting bodies called basidiocarps.
● The basidiocarps are usually massive aerial sporophores which bear basidia.
● The basidia, which are characteristic reproductive structures of Basidiomycetes, are of two types in general, the holoba-
sidium and phragmobasidium.
● Holobasidia are aseptate and thus unicellular, while phragmobasidium is a septate basidium.
● Holobasidia are characteristic of most of the Basidiomycetes particularly the gilled or fleshy fungi.
● Basidia are developed in a palisade-like layer on the basidiocarps. This fertile layer is called hymenium.
● Basidia produce basidiospores which are often wind blown, when they germinate, a new haploid mycelium is formed.
Pileus

Gills Pores
Epiba- Annulus
sidium

Stipe

Volva
Mycelium
Epibasidium

A
B
Hypobasidium

Hypobasidium

A D
C
B C Pileus
Basidiospores
Sporidia

Migrating Fruit body

nucleus

Sterigma

G Log of wood
Epibasidium Peridiole
Volva
Brand spore
D
E E F

Fig. : (A–E). Basidiomycetes. Different types of
basidia. (A) Stichobasidial type; (B) Chiasto-
basidial type; (C) Tuning-fork type; (D) Holo-
basidium; (E) Stichobasidial type with a
terminal cluster of septate, sickle-shaped
sporidia.
Fig. : (A–G). Basidiomycetes. Common types of basidiocarps. (A)
basidiocarp of Agaricus with gills on the underside of pileus;
(B) basidiocarp of Boletus with pores on the underside of
pileus; (C) basidiocarp of Lycoperdon; (D) basidiocarp of
Geaster; (E) fruit bodies of Cyathus; (F) mature fruit body of
Phallus; (G) fruit bodies of Fomes.

Rusts and Smuts are Parasitic Club ● Black stem rust of wheat uses barberry leaf (bushes)
Fungi as an alternate host.

● Rusts and Smuts are club fungi that parasitize Important Smut Diseases of Cereals
cereal crops such as corn, wheat, oats and rye.
● Rusts and smuts do not form basidiocarps. They Name of Loose Smut Covered Smut
spores produce, resembling soot. Cereals
● Some smuts enter seeds and exist inside the plant,
becoming visible only near maturity. Wheat Ustilago nuda (race of Tilletia caries
● In corn smuts, the mycelium grows between the corn Ustilago tritici )
kernels and secrets substances that cause the deve- Oat Ustilago avenae Ustilago hordei (a race
lopment of tumors on the ears of corn. of Ustilago kolleri )
● The life cycle of rusts, which may be particularly com- Barley Ustilago nuda Ustilago hordei
plex, often requires two different plant host species to
complete the cycle. Corn Ustilago maydis

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1632

 Economic Importance Differences between Rusts and Smuts
● Several members of basidiomycetes are of great Rusts
1. Rusts are intercellular and
economic importance because of their beneficial as obtain their nutrition by
well as harmful nature. means of haustoria. Clamp
connection on the secon-
● Some of them are causative agents of most destruc- dary mycelium are rare.
tive diseases of our cereal crops such as smut disea- 2. Wheat rusts are hetero-
ecious and others are
ses of corn, wheat, oats, barley as well as the wheat autoecious.
rust. 3. The dikaryotic mycelium
produces three kinds of
● Stem rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia graminis spores–uredospores and
tritici. teleutospores on primary
host and aeciospores on
the alternate host.
● Some of the higher basidiomycetes such as pore 4. The teleutospores are
fungi are the common wood rotters ; they destroy stalked, 2-celled and each
lumbar and timber. cell is binucleate.
5. Teleutospores are develo-
● Mushrooms, a good source of proteins, are of great ped from the terminal cells
of the mycelium.
economic value as food. 6. Each cell of the 2-celled
teleutospores produces an
● The young fleshy sporophores of many species of epibasidium which bears 4
puffballs (Lycoperdon and Clavatia) are also edible. basidiospores. They are
borne on sterigmata.
● Clavatia contains an anticancer substance Calvacin.
Smuts
1. The smuts may be inter-
cellular or intracellular
(Ustilago maydis). Hausto-
ria are present. Clamp con-
nections are common.
2. All smuts are autoecious.
3. Produces only one kind of
binucleate spores called
smut spores which may
be comparable to the teleu-
tospores of rusts.
4. The brand spores (teleuto-
spores) are unicellular and
binucleate.
5. Smut spores are formed
from the intercalary cells.
6. The single-celled, brand
spore, equivalent to teleuto-
spore, germinates to form
single epibasidium which
bears a variable numbers
of basidiospores.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which division of fungi is com- 6. Clamp connection is characteris- (C) Ustilago avenae
monly known as club fungi ? tic of certain group of— (D) All of the above
(A) Deuteromycetes (A) Fungi
ANSWERS
(B) Oomycota (B) Algae
(C) Basidiomycota (C) Bryophytes 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B)
(D) Zygomycetes (D) All of the above 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B)
●●●
2. Which of the following groups is/ 7. Anticancer substance calvacin is
are comprised of club fungi ? obtained from—
(Continued from Page 1577 )
(A) Truffles (A) Sac fungi For lens u = – 20 cm,
(B) Puffballs (B) Club fungi f = 15 cm,
(C) Mushrooms (C) Red algae v = ?
(D) All of the above 1 1 1
(D) Myxophycean cells – =
3. The part of mushroom that is v u f
8. In certain members of Basidio- 1 1 1
visible above the ground is a— + =
mycetes, the basidium bears four v 20 15
(A) Ascocarp
spores exogenously, each
(B) Basidiocarp ⇒ v = 60 cm
usually at the tip of a minute stalk
(C) Ascogonium known as— Radius of curvature of the mirror
(D) Zygospore (A) Conidiophore r = 60 – 10 = 50 cm
4. In which fungus is the dikaryotic (B) Basidiophore 50. (B) There is one input (A) and
stage longer lasting ? one output (Y) connected accord-
(C) Sterigmata
(A) Club fungi ing to Boolean expression
(D) Both (B) and (C) –
(B) Imperfect fungi A = Y
(C) Sac fungi 9. Puccinia graminis tritici causes—
read as ‘NOT A equals Y’ mean-
(D) Zygospore fungi (A) Black stem rust of wheat
ing that Y is negation (or inver-
5. Conidiospores are formed— (B) Loose smut of oat sion) of A.
(A) By sporangia (C) Covered smut of oat Since there are only two digits 0
(B) By sac, club and imperfect (D) Loose smut of barley and 1 in binary system, we have,
fungi 10. 'Loose smut of corn' is caused Y = 0 if A = 1 and Y = 1 if A = 0.
by— The logic symbol of NOT gate is
(C) When nutrients are in short
supply (A) Ustilago nuda A Y
(D) During sexual reproduction (B) Ustilago maydis ●●●

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1633

 11. Which of the process(es) is/are
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
referred to as translation ?
(A) Decoding of the triplet

BOTANY codons of mRNA by t RNA

(B) Decoding of amino acids to
proteins
(C) Decoding of the triplet
1. Match column-A (Name of disea- 5. Which of the following cell orga- codons by t RNA to m RNA
ses) with column-B (Causal nelles produces lysosomes ? (D) All of the above
agents), then select the correct (A) ER
answer from the options given 12. Leafless stem of onion which is
(B) Peroxisomes produced to bear flowers is
below—
(C) Golgi apparatus called—
Column-A
(D) None of the above (A) Scape (B) Torus
(Name of diseases)
6. Epidermis and Epiblema are pro- (C) Thalamus (D) Pedicel
(a) Powdery mildew of wheat
duced from— 13. Feathery stigma and versatile
(b) Flag smut of wheat
(A) Phellogen anthers are found in—
(c) Hill bunt of wheat
(B) Protoderm (A) Compositae
(d) Karnal bunt of wheat
(C) Procambium (B) Graminae
Column-B
(D) Calyptrogen (C) Leguminosae
(Causal agents)
7. Which of the following is the (D) All of the above
1. Urocystis tritici
characteristic of water storage 14. Genotoxicity refers to the detec-
2. Neovossia indica
tissue in xerophytes ? tion of agents that will damage—
3. Erysiphe graminis tritici
(A) Presence of large sized cells (A) Vitamins (B) Enzymes
4. Tilletia foetida
(B) Presence of thin cell walls (C) DNAs (D) Proteins
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) Presence of mucilage
(A) 3 2 4 1 15. Which one of the following fami-
(D) Presence of vacuole
(B) 3 4 2 1 lies is commonly known as night-
8. What happens when lactose is shade-family ?
(C) 3 1 4 2
present ? (A) Compositae
(D) 3 4 1 2
(A) The repressor becomes able (B) Malvaceae
2. An activator is often the subs- to bind to the operator (C) Both (A) and (B)
trate itself, and regulatory (B) Transcription of lac-Y, lac-Z, (D) Solanaceae
enzymes for which substrate and and lac-a genes occurs
modulator are identical are (C) The repressor becomes 16. The phospholipids are broken
called— unable to bind to the down to their residues by the
(A) Heterotropic operator action of enzymes called—
(B) Homotropic (D) Both (B) and (C) (A) Triose phosphate isomerase
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
(C) Feed-back inhibition 9. Which of the following organelles
(C) Peroxidase
(D) None of the above is usually absent in chloroplast of
algae ? (D) Malic dehydrogenase
3. The casparian strip is found—
(A) Lamellae 17. E. coli have the full complement
(A) Between xylem and phloem of enzymes for the glyoxylate
(B) Grana
(B) On four sides of endodermal and citric acid cycles in the—
(C) Pigments
cells (A) Mesosomes
(D) Quantasomes
(C) Within the secondary wall of (B) Mitochondria
parenchyma 10. Abiogenesis theory states that— (C) Cytosol
(A) Life originated due to spon- (D) Polysomes
(D) Between pericycle and
taneous generation
endodermis 18. At what phase of meiosis are
(B) Origin of life is due to pre-
4. The plant of Cycas, which existing organisms there two cells, each with sepa-
belongs to sporophytic genera- rated sister chromatids that have
(C) Origin of life occurred from
tion, is differentiated into— been moved to opposite spindle
blue-green algae like micro-
(A) Root, stem and leaves poles ?
organisms
(B) Male and female cones (A) Anaphase-I
(D) Origin of life is due to orga-
(C) Leaves only nic evolution owing to (B) Anaphase-II
(D) Sometimes leaves and chemical reactions in pre- (C) Metaphase-I
sometimes modified stems sence of light (D) Metaphase-II

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1634

19. Plants that retain their evergreen (C) Plastic (C) Both (A) and (B)
foliage throughout the year are (D) All of the above (D) None of the above
called—
27. Consider the following fruit— 35. Haploid plants can be obtained
(A) Draugh escaping plants
1. Apricot 2. Guava by culturing—
(B) Evergreen plants
3. Tomato 4. Papaya (A) Pollen grain
(C) Xerophytic plants
Which of these are berries ? (B) Endosperm
(D) All of the above
(A) 1 and 3 (C) Root apices
20. The term ‘allelomorphic’ means— (D) None of the above
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(A) Sex-linked characters
(C) 1, 3 and 4 36. During the fermentation of
(B) Sex determining chromo-
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 grapes for wine preparation, a
somes
reddish brown crystalline mass of
(C) A pair of contrasting charac- 28. Which of the following plants
acid potassium salt is obtained,
ters is/are more efficient at photo-
which is known as—
(D) Representatives of the same synthesis in hot, dry conditions ?
(A) Rochelle salt
gene locus (A) C3 plants
(B) Argol
21. The microbial metabolites relea- (B) C4 plants
(C) Pyruvic acid
sed or excreted by lysed cells (C) Both (A) and (B)
which in very low concentration (D) Glyceraldehyde
(D) Xerophytes
is directly toxic to cells of suscept 37. Members of a biological species
is defined as— 29. What is the source of energy that
are potentially able to—
(A) Susceptibility flows through the living world ?
(A) Express all the same genes
(B) Pathogen (A) Sun
(B) Introgress
(C) Detoxification (B) Green plants
(C) Complete
(D) Toxin (C) Photosynthesis
(D) Interbreed
22. The soil characteristic that deter- (D) Chemical bonds
mines the movement of water 30. An accumulation of CO2, ozone 38. Which of the following is the
through pore spaces is referred and other pollution-related gases earliest land plant ?
to as— in the lower atmosphere, trapping (A) Rhynia (B) Cordaites
(A) Soil water heat near the earth’s surface (C) Riccia (D) Pinus
(B) Soil permeability leading to global warming is
known as— 39. Exergonic reactions are usually—
(C) Soil temperature
(D) Porosity (A) Green house effect (A) Exothermic
(B) Biomass (B) Endothermic
23. Mycorrhiza establishes symbio-
sis between— (C) Energy pyramid (C) Both of the above
(A) Fungi and bryophytes (D) Autecology (D) Neither of the above
(B) Phaeophyceae and rhodo- 31. In protein synthesis of prokaryo- 40. A measure of the frequency of
phyceae tes, the initiation of polypeptide crossing-over between two linked
(C) Fungi and algae chain is induced by— chromosome marker loci in
(D) None of the above (A) Lysine (B) Sesine recombining meiotic product is
(C) Leucine (D) Methionine called—
24. Each ovule is attached on the
placenta by a small stalk called— 32. How many carbon atoms (C- (A) Map distance
(A) Funiculus (B) Nucellus atoms) are there in a molecule of (B) Loop distance
ribulose biphosphate (RuBP) ? (C) Chromosomal aberration
(C) Raphe (D) Hilum
(A) Two (B) Three (D) Chromosome distance
25. When two nuclei lie side by side
(C) Four (D) Five
after plasmogamy, this stage is 41. In the phosphorus cycle weather-
termed as— 33. POP is abbreviated for— ing makes phosphate available
(A) Haplophase (A) Pak occupied people first to—
(B) Karyogamy (B) Persistent organic pollutant (A) Producers
(C) Dikaryophase (C) Plant organising principle (B) Consumers
(D) Syngamy (D) Plants of pacific province (C) Tertiary consumers
34. Which of the following pheno- (D) Decomposers
26. Besides their utility as simple
fuels, fossil fuels also give rise to mena is associated with the 42. The shape of polypeptide is—
by-products such as— burning of fossil fuel ? (A) Important to its function
(A) Certain synthetic chemicals (A) Acid rain (B) Dependent upon the primary
(B) Drugs (B) Green house effect structure

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1635

 (C) Maintained by bonding bet-
ween parts of the polypep-
tide
(D) All of the above
43. In a certain dicotyledonous stem,
the fascicular cambium is a meri-
stematic tissue referred to as—
(A) Apical (B) Intercalary
(C) Lateral (D) Secondary
44. Nucleolus of the cell is a special
region of chromatin where—
(A) m-RNA is produced
(B) t-RNA is produced
(C) r-RNA is produced
(D) All of the above are pro-
duced
45. Which of the following plants is
commonly called ‘royal fern’ ?
(A) Campyloneurum scolopen-
drium
(B) Adiantum pedatum
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Osmunda regalis
46. The most important feature of all
living systems from the viewpoint
of their continuity is their capacity
to—
(A) Utilize oxygen to generate
energy
(B) Utilize solar energy for meta-
bolic activities
(C) Replicate the genetic infor-
mation
(D) Produce gametes
47. The C4 molecules, formed after
the CO 2 fixation by CAM plants,
are stored in—
(A) Vacuoles of mesophyll cells
(B) Cortex
(C) Endodermal casparian stripe
(D) All of the above
48. Transcription requires—
(A) Enzyme RNA polymerase
(B) Ribonucleoside triphosphate
(C) DNA template
(D) All of the above
49. At each trophic level of a food
chain (pyramid) the energy not
used or passed along is given off
as—
(A) Heat (B) Water
(C) Free energy (D) Matter
50. ‘Chemical cycling’ through an
ecosystem involves—
(A) Physical environments
(B) Biotic components
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1636
19. (B) Plants bearing evergreen
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
foliage throughout the year are
1. (A) called evergreen plants. Popu-
larly, needle-leaved trees (Pine,
2. (B) The modulators for allosteric
Juniper, etc.) are called ever-
enzymes may be either inhibitory
green plants.
or stimulatory. An activator is
often the substrate itself, and 20. (C) 21. (D) 22. (B)
regulatory enzymes for which 23. (D) Symbiosis is also established
substrate and modulator are by mycorrhiza, but in this case
identical and are called homo- symbiosis is always established
tropic. between fungus and the roots of
3. (B) The endodermal cells fit higher plants.
snugly together and are bordered 24. (A)
on four sides by a layer of imper- 25. (C) In certain classes of fungi
meable lignin and suberin known such as Ascomycetes and Basi-
as casparian strip. diomycetes, as a result of plas-
4. (A) mogamy (fusion of the proto-
5. (C) Lysosomes are membrane- plasm of two compatible gametes)
bound vesicles produced by a the nuclei of the opposite strains
Golgi apparatus that contain get themselves arranged in pairs
hydrolytic digestive enzymes. but do not fuse. This phase in life
6. (B) The outermost meristematic cycle is termed as dikaryophase
layer of the young growing region and the process is called dika-
is known as protoderm, which ryotization.
develops into epidermis and 26. (D)
epiblema. 27. (B) Apricot (Prunus persica) is a
7. (B) In xerophytes mostly water kind of drupe fruit.
storage tissues possess thin- 28. (B) C plants are more efficient at
4
walled cells having a few inter- photosynthesis than C 3 plants in
cellular spaces, e.g., Opuntia, hot, dry conditions.
Euphorbia etc.
29. (A) 30. (A)
8. (D)
31. (D) In prokaryotic protein syn-
9. (B) In the algal plastids (chloro-
thesis, the initiation of polypeptide
plasts) the thylakoids are only of
chain is always brought about by
one kind and restricted to the
an amino acid, methionine,
stack itself. They are not closely
which is coded by the codon
packed or fused as in the grana
AUG.
of higher plants.
32. (D)
10. (A) Abiogenesis theory of origin of
life stated that different types of 33. (B) POP is an abbreviation of
‘Persistent organic pollutants’.
organisms are formed automati-
The WHO estimates an annual
cally due to chemical reactions in
death toll of around 20000 due to
presence of high energy. The
spontaneous generation or abio- poisoning from POPs and other
genesis of life was visualized as pesticides.
beginning with either inorganic 34. (C)
materials or with putrefying orga- 35. (A) Haploid plants possess only
nic matter. one set of chromosomes. Haploid
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D) produced from microspores or
16. (A) pollen grains (anthers) are called
17. (C) Some bacteria, including E. androgenic haploids. Mahesh-
coli, have the full complement of wari and Guha (1964, 65) suc-
enzymes for the glyoxylate and cessfully reported anther cul-
citric acid cycles in the cytosol. tured plants from Datura innoxia.
E. coli can, therefore, grow with 36. (B) 37. (D)
acetate as its sole source of 38. (A) Rhynia, which belongs to
carbon and energy. division Psilophyta, was dis-
covered in 1917 by Kidston and
18. (B) During anaphase-II of
meiosis-II, the centromeres divide Lang from Rhynie chert bed
and the daughter chromosomes of Middle Devonian.
move towards the spindle poles. (Continued on Page 1639 )
 14. Root apical meristem cells are
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations
distinct from other root cells,
because of their—

BOTANY (A) Thick cell walls

(B) Triploid nuclei
(C) Enlarged water vacuoles
(D) Smaller size
1. Match column A (Types of inflo- (C) Roots of Digitaria in associa- 15. Protein that forms chromatin with
rescence) with column B (Exam- tion with Spirillum notatum DNA is—
ples) then select the correct (D) All of the above (A) Myosin (B) Actin
answer from the options given (C) Troponin (D) Histone
below : 6. Which of the following is an
artificial ecosystem ? 16. Ethnobotany is a branch of
Column A
(A) Grassland (B) Rice field botanical science which deals
(a) Cymose umbel (C) Lake (D) Forest with the study of—
(b) Thyrsus (A) Shrubs and trees
7. Which of the following insecti-
(c) Cymose corymb vorous plants are partial stem (B) Plants used by people, parti-
(d) Mixed panicle parasite ? cularly by primitive people
Column B (A) Viscum album (C) Plants of economic value
(B) Santalum album (D) All of the above
1. Grape vine
2. Allium cepa (C) Both (A) and (B) 17. Those plants which grow luxu-
(D) Botrichium riantly in rainy season and shed
3. Ligustrum
all the leaves in summer are
4. Ixora 8. Edible part of pomegranate is—
called—
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Fleshy thalamus
(A) Xerophytes
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) Fleshy aril
(B) Lianus
(C) Succulent testa
(B) 2 1 4 3 (C) Trophophytes
(D) Accrescent sepals
(C) 1 3 4 2 (D) None of the above
(D) 2 3 1 4 9. With which of the following
18. ‘SCP’ stands for—
tissues/cells, companion cells
2. In certain algae, the hapteron is (A) Single cell protein
are associated ?
a/an— (B) Special cell protein
(A) Collenchyma
(A) Attaching organ (C) Sweetener cell protein
(B) Medullary parenchyma
(B) Respiratory organ (D) Special cell for photosynthe-
(C) Sieve tube
(C) Reproduction type in which sis
(D) None of the above
sexual spores are involved 19. The transition between meiosis-I
(D) Apical zone 10. In older trees, the inner annual
and meiosis-II is known as—
rings are called—
3. Some plant tissues, that are (A) Interphase (B) Cell cycle
(A) Heartwood (B) Sapwood
modified for the storage of (C) Interkinesis (D) Cytokinesis
(C) Phloem (D) Dermatogen
starch, derive most of their 20. Epithem tissue is associated
energy from— 11. Soil showing permanently wilted
with—
(A) Photosynthesis plants has—
(A) Guttation
(B) Glycolysis (A) Capillary water
(B) Photorespiration
(C) Glyoxylate metabolism (B) Hygroscopic water
(C) Exudation
(D) Fermentation (C) Gravitational water
(D) None of the above
(D) Ground water
4. Plasmids that can integrate into 21. The exchange of genetic material
the bacterial DNA are called— 12. Parasitic fungi take their nutrition
between nonsister chromatids of
(A) Plasmogenes from their host with the help of—
a bivalent during meiosis-I is
(B) Neurogenes (A) Paraphyses known as—
(C) Episomes (B) Haustoria (A) Diakinesis
(D) Hydrogenes (C) Soredia (B) Hybridization
(D) None of the above (C) Both (A) and (B)
5. Which of the following associa-
tions fixes nitrogen through non- 13. In which of the following plant (D) Crossing-over
nodulation ? groups, the root is feebly deve- 22. Entropy is a state or condition of—
(A) Roots of maize associated loped and stem is soft with a (A) Energy
with spirillum notatum large number of air cavities ? (B) Matter
(B) Coralloid root of Cycas in (A) Xerophytes (B) Hydrophytes (C) Both (A) and (B)
association with Anabaena (C) Mesophytes (D) Helophytes (D) None of the above

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1637

23. Mushrooms are placed in divi- 31. The fertilizer named ‘Nitrolim’ is 40. The basic monomers used in
sion— prepared by the use of— DNA replication are—
(A) Ascomycota (A) N + P + K (A) Glucose
(B) Deuteromycota (B) CaC2 + P (B) Amino acids
(C) Basidiomycota (C) CaC2 + N2 (C) DNA nucleotides
(D) Zygomycota (D) None of the above (D) RNA nucleotides
24. Flavoproteins contain flavin 32. The average process of nitrogen 41. Who among the following pro-
nucleotide, which is/are— fixation, the reduction of NO3– in posed the signal hypothesis
(A) FMN the soil into molecular nitrogen is for selective translocation of
called— m RNAs ?
(B) FAD
(A) Chlorination (A) T. H. Morgan
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Ammonification (B) Blobel and Dobberstein
(D) None of the above
(C) Denitrification (C) Bateson and Punnett
25. The term meiosis-I and meiosis-II (D) Nitrification
(D) Watson and Crick
were used by—
33. Who coined the term ‘telomere’ ?
(A) Flemming 42. The rate of growth in plant is not
(A) Steffensen (B) Waldeyer
(B) Strasburger uniform throughout its length in
(C) Altman (D) Muller the apical meristems of—
(C) Gregoire
34. Soil particles, particularly clay and (A) Roots
(D) Mendel organic matter in soil, contain (B) Stems
26. Laticiferous vessels are found negative charges and attract posi-
(C) Both (A) and (B)
in— tively charged ions, such as—
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ca 2+ (D) None of the above
(A) Phloem tissue
(C) K + (D) All of these
(B) Cortex 43. The DHU arm of transfer RNA
35. The acid present in tomatoes is contains—
(C) Xylem tissue
(D) All of the above mainly— (A) Unusual pyrimidine nucleo-
(A) Citric acid (B) Oxalic acid tide
27. Ozone is produced naturally by (C) Tartaric acid (D) Lactic acid (B) Dihydrouracil
high energy solar radiation and
the activity of methane (CH 4) in 36. Genes not located within the (C) Both (A) and (B)
the presence of— nucleus are almost always found (D) None of the above
in the—
(A) Nitrogen oxide 44. The term mutation was intro-
(A) Cytoskeleton
(B) Sulphur dioxide duced by—
(B) Plastids
(C) Carbon monoxide (A) Hugo de Vries (B) Lamarck
(C) Cytosol
(D) Carbon dioxide (D) All of the above (C) Darwin (D) Morgan
28. Shifting cultivation requires— 37. Cladosporium is a/an— 45. Which of the following diseases
(A) Excessive soil erosion for (A) Fungus of stem is caused by the defi-
crop production ciency of Boron (B) ?
(B) Alga
(B) Alternate crop pattern on a (A) Black necrosis
(C) Cyanobacterium
particular area
(D) PPLO (B) Die-back disease
(C) Long time for the regenera-
tion of soil 38. Divergent palmate venation is (C) Whip-tail disease
(D) Huge amount of commercial found in— (D) None of the above
fertilizer (A) China-rose 46. Several ribosomes are often
(B) Cinnamon attached to and translating the
29. The chemical formula of caro-
(C) Zizyphus jujuba same m-RNA. The entire complex
tene obtained from carrot is—
(D) All of the above is called—
(A) C40H56
(B) C55H72N4 Mg 39. Genes that are similar in pheno- (A) Clover leaf (B) Anticodon
(C) C55H27N2 Mg typic effect when present sepa- (C) Codon (D) Polysome
rately but together interact to
(D) C55H72 N6 Mg 47. Which of the following properties
form a different phenotypes in
makes plasmids suitable vectors
30. The primary cell wall may con- the ratio of 9 : 7. Such genes are
for gene cloning ?
tain— known as—
(A) Plasmids are small circular
(A) Cellulose (A) Epistasis genes
DNA molecules with their
(B) Pectic compounds (B) Lethal genes own replication origin site
(C) Certain polysaccharides (C) Dominant epistatis genes (B) Plasmids often carry antibio-
(D) All of the above (D) Complementary genes tic resistance gene

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1638

 (C) Plasmids are small circular
DNA molecules that can
integrate with host chromo-
somal DNA
(D) Plasmids can shuttle bet-
ween prokaryotic and euka-
ryotic cells
48. A micromutation is—
(A) Change in gene
(B) Polyploidy
(C) Deletion of chromosome
(D) Addition of chromosome
49. The approximate size of mole-
cules that can pass through
plasma membrane is—
(A) 220—250 A°
° Plasmids that are used as
(B) 170—150 A
° together comprise chromatin,
(C) 150—125 A
°
(D) 8—10 A
50. Chlorophyll-c is found in—
(A) Brown algae
(B) Some flagellates
(C) Diatoms
(D) All of the above
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
1. (B)
2. (A) In certain algae, like Fucus,
hapteron is a special attaching
organ. It is also known as holdfast.
3. (B) Glycolysis is an almost uni-
versal central pathway of glucose
catabolism. Some plant tissues
that are modified for the storage
of starch (such as potato tubers)
derive most of their energy from
glycolysis.
4. (C)
5. (D) A large number of examples
are there where root nodules are
not formed but symbiotic nitrogen
fixation occurs. Other examples
(other than given example in the
options) are—Anthoceros asso-
ciated with Nostoc (a blue-green
alga).
6. (B)
7. (A) The partial stem parasite is
represented well by Viscum
album which parasitizes a
number of shrubs and trees.
8. (C)
9. (C) Companion cells extended
through the whole length of the
sieve tube but sometimes there
is a vertical file of two or more
companion cells next to each
tube cell.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1639
10. (A)
11. (A) The amount of water present
around the soil particles and held
by surface tension and attraction
force of water molecules is called
capillary water.
12. (B)
13. (B) Due to availability of water in
plenty, roots, the principal organs
of water absorption, in such
(hydrophytes) plants become of
secondary importance, and less
significant. The overall develop-
ment is usually very poor and
insignificant in most of the hydro-
phytes.
14. (D)
15. (D) DNA and histone (protein)
forming the bulk of the eukaryotic
chromosome. Histones are of
five major types—H1, H 2A, H 2B,
H3 and H 4.
16. (B) All those plants which are
used by primitive people for
various purposes, such as wor-
ship are studied in ethnobotany.
17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (D) As the lattice breaks down,
homologues are temporarily held
together by chiasmata, regions
where the non-sister chromatids
are attached due to crossing-
over. Then, homologues sepa-
rate and are distributed to diffe-
rent daughter cells.
22. (C) Entropy is a state or condition
not only of energy but also of
matter.
23. (C)
24. (C) Flavoproteins contain a highly,
sometimes covalently bound
flavin nucleotide, either FMN and
FAD.
25. (C) Gregoire (1904) called the
first division as meiosis-I and
second division as meiosis-II.
Because during meiosis nucleus
divides twice but chromosomes
only once.
26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (A)
30. (D) Primary cell wall consists
mainly of cellulose and pectic
substance and may also contain
other polysaccharides.
31. (C) 32. (C)
33. (D) The chromosome extremities
or terminal regions on either side
are called telomeres, the term
coined by Muller in 1938.
34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (A)
39. (D) 40. (C) 41. (B) 42. (C)
43. (C) The cloverleaf model of trans-
fer RNA (t-RNA) composed of a
series of stem-loop structures,
known as arms. The D or DHU
arm is a stem-loop structure con-
taining dihydrouracil, an un-
usual pyrimidine nucleotide.
44. (A)
45. (A) Boron (B) is a trace element
(microelement). Its deficiency
causes black necrosis of stem.
46. (D)
47. (A) Plasmids are small acces-
sory rings of DNA found in some
bacteria that carry genes not
present in bacterial chromosome.
vectors have been removed from
bacteria and have had a foreign
gene inserted into them.
48. (A) 49. (D)
50. (D) In brown algae, diatoms and
some flagellates, a chlorophyll
component has been isolated and
termed chlorophyll-c.
●●●
(Continued from Page 1636 )
39. (A) Exothermic refers to the
release of heat (∆H is negative).
Exothermic reactions are gene-
rally, but not always, exergonic.
40. (A) 41. (A) 42. (D)
43. (C) Lateral meristems are present
along the lateral sides of stem
and roots. Interstelar cambium
ring formed by intrafascicular and
interfascicular cambium and cork
cambium are examples of lateral
meristem.
44. (C) Chromatin (Chromosome) has
a special region called nucleolus
where ribosomal RNA (r-RNA) is
produced.
45. (D) 46. (C)
47. (A) CAM plants use PEPCase to
fix CO 2 at night, forming a C4
molecule, which is stored in large
vacuoles in their mesophyll cells
until the next day.
48. (D) The process of formation of
m-RNA from DNA is called
transcription, which involves
promotors (P), binding to the pro-
motors site, RNA chain initiation
and elongation, and RNA chain
termination.
49. (A)
50. (C) ‘Chemical cycling’ through
an ecosystem involves not only
the biotic components of an eco-
system but also the physical
environment.
●●●
Model Paper for Various Medical Entrance Examinations 15. The causal organism of ‘foot rot
of papaya’ is—
(A) Armillaria mellea

BOTANY (B) Phymatorichum omnivorum

(C) Ophiobolus graminis
(D) Pythium aphanidermatum

1. Match Column A (Types of Fruit) 7. The least number of t RNA 16. RQ is measured by—
with Column B (Common english molecules for each of the twenty (A) Auxanometer
name of fruits) then select the amino acids found in protein is— (B) Potometer
correct answer from the options (A) Four (B) Three (C) Ganong’s Respirometer
given below— (C) One (D) Two (D) Porometer
Column A Column B
8. Quantasome discovered by Park 17. Gynobasic style is chiefly found in
(a) Drupe 1. Strawberry and Biggins (1964) has— family—
(b) Pome 2. Plum (A) 100 chlorophyll molecules (A) Solanaceae
(c) Etaerio of 3. Brinjal (B) 300 chlorophyll molecules (B) Cucurbitaceae
achnes (C) 230 chlorophyll molecules
(C) Malvaceae
(d) Berry 4. Pear (D) 230 chlorophyll and about
(D) Labiatae
(a) (b) (c) (d) 50 carotenoid molecules
(A) 2 4 3 1 9. In pteridophytes, xylem consists 18. Fermentation is—
(B) 2 4 1 3 of— (A) Anaerobic respiration
(C) 2 1 4 3 (A) Tracheids (B) Aerobic respiration
(D) 2 3 4 1 (B) Xylem parenchyma (C) Incomplete oxidation of
(C) Both (A) and (B) carbohydrates
2. Ethnobotany is a branch of
(D) None of the above (D) Anaerobic complete oxida-
Botanical science which deals
10. Lock and Key theory (Template tion of carbohydrates
with—
(A) The study of plants used by theory) of enzyme action was 19. All the appendages which are
people (particularly by primi- given by— epidermal in origin are referred to
tive people) (A) Buchner (B) Fischer as—
(B) The study of plants of eco- (C) Koshland (D) Umberger (A) Trichomes
nomic value 11. The skeleton of the shoot is (B) Ground tissues
(C) The study of shrubs and formed by the—
(C) Mesophylls
trees (A) Root (B) Stem
(D) None of these (D) None of the above
(C) Leaf (D) Bud
3. Most of the history of life con- 12. Coenzyme is— 20. Net gain of ATP in glycolysis
cerns the evolution of— (A) Always a protein from one molecule of glucose
(A) Plants and animals is—
(B) Non-protein organic mole-
(B) Prokaryotes cule (A) 8 (B) 4
(C) Eukaryotes (C) A non-protein inorganic com- (C) 2 (D) 0
(D) Photosynthesizers pound
21. The ultimate biological unit which
4. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeo- (D) Often a metal
controls heredity is called—
botany is situated at— 13. True bulbs are found— (A) Gene (B) Genotype
(A) Lucknow (B) Delhi (A) Only among monocotyle-
(C) Kolkata (D) Kanpur (C) Genome (D) Chromosome
dons
5. An octamer of four histones (B) Only among dicotyledons 22. When yeast ferments glucose,
complexed with DNA is called— (C) Equally both in monocotyle- the products are—
(A) Nucleosome (B) Telomere dons and in dicotyledons (A) C2H5OH + Energy
(C) Satellite (D) Karyotype (D) Largely in dicotyledons and (B) C2H5OH + CO2 + Energy
6. Protoplasm term was used by rarely in monocotyledons (C) CO2 + H2O + Energy
Purkinje (1839) and Von Mohl 14. Glycolysis is found in cytoplasm (D) CH3OH + H2O + Energy
(1846). It was called as physical of virtually all types of aerobic/
basis of life by— anerobic cells. In this process, 23. The nucleus of a bacterium is—
(A) Julian Huxley glucose is converted into a com- (A) Absent
(B) Hugo de Vries pound which is— (B) Well-defined
(C) Dujardin (A) Citric acid (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Incipient
(D) Linnaeus (C) Acetyl CoA (D) PEP (D) Found always near the pili

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1640

24. Which intermediate compound 33. Transgenic bacteria perform ser- 42. Tannin is obtained from which
acts as connecting link between vices in the field of— part of Acacia nilotica—
glycolysis and Krebs cycle/link (A) Bioremediation (A) Leaves (B) Bark
between carbohydrate and fat (B) Protection and enhancement (C) Heart wood (D) Pods
metabolism ? of plants 43. Between the bark and the wood
(A) Acetyl CoA (C) Chemical production in a woody stem, there is a layer
(B) Cytochrome (D) All of the above of meristem called—
(C) OAA (A) Cork cambium
34. Gram stain is—
(D) Pyruvic acid (B) Vascular cambium
(A) Technique developed in
25. Gametophyte is the main plant (C) Apical meristem
black gram
body in— (D) Cell division zone
(B) A stain obtained from gram
(A) Angiosperms seeds 44. ‘Chipko Movement’ is the world’s
(B) Gymnosperms most known Eco-development
(C) A chemical for staining bac-
programme, started by S. L.
(C) Pteridophytes teria
Bahuguna in 1973. It is related
(D) Bryophytes (D) A trade mark with—
26. Number of meiotic divisions 35. The fruit of cereals is mostly (A) Conservation of forest
required to produce 100 macro- referred to as— (B) Afforestation
spores in angiosperm is— (A) Pome (B) Berry (C) Planting
(A) 25 (B) 100 (C) Caryopsis (D) Drupe (D) Population
(C) 50 (D) 125 45. Which of the following is a
36. Bacteria differ from viruses in the
27. How many nucleotides are pre- presence of— homopolysaccharide ?
sent in one turn of DNA helix ? (A) Cytoplasm (A) Dextran
(A) Ten (B) Thirteen (B) True nucleus (B) Glycogen
(C) Two (D) Four (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Causing disease
(D) Hyaluronic acid
28. A diploid somatic cell can divide (D) All of these
by— 46. Difference between angiosperm
37. Point mutation involves a change and gymnosperm is that in
(A) Meiosis but not mitosis in— gymnosperm—
(B) Mitosis but not meiosis (A) A single nucleotide (A) Ovules are absent
(C) Meiosis or Mitosis (B) A specific codon (B) Seeds are naked
(D) Amitosis only (C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Companion cells are absent
29. Intrafascicular cambium is situ- (D) None of the above (D) Sieve elements are absent
ated— 38. Natural system of classification is 47. Osmotic pressure of pure water
(A) Outside the vascular bundles good for practical purpose, who is—
(B) In between vascular bundles proposed natural classification of (A) Zero (B) 4
plants ? (C) 40 (D) 100
(C) Inside the vascular bundles
(A) Bentham and Hooker
(D) In the pith 48. Velamen in orchids helps in—
(B) Engler and Prantle
(A) Absorption of moisture from
30. In which stage chromosomes go (C) Linnaeus air
towards the opposite poles ? (D) Oswald Tippo (B) Absorption of water from soil
(A) Telophase (B) Metaphase
39. Pear fruit contains a lot of— (C) Guttation
(C) Prophase (D) Anaphase
(A) Stone cells (D) Clinging the weak plant
31. Plants with little or no secondary (B) Collenchyma 49. Phytoplanktons are more likely to
growth are— (C) Parenchyma be found in which zone of the
(A) Deciduous (B) Evergreen (D) Both (B) and (C) ocean ?
(C) Dicot (D) Herbaceous (A) Epipelagic zone
40. Phenomenon of heterothallism
32. Importance of meiosis lies in— (B) Bathypelagic zone
was first observed by—
(A) Bringing discontinuous varia- (C) Continental zone
(A) Alexopoulas
tions (D) Mesopelagic zone
(B) K. C. Mehta
(B) Maintaining constancy in the 50. The cord like tendrils in Smilax
(C) Blakeslee
number of chromosomes in are—
(D) None of these
the next generation (A) Stem tendrils
(C) Addition in number of chro- 41. Stilt roots are found in— (B) Leaf tendrils
mosomes (A) Sugarcane (B) Rice (C) Leaflet tendrils
(D) None of the above (C) Gram (D) Groundnut (D) Stipular tendrils

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1641


ANSWERS WITH HINTS
1. (B)
2. (A) All those plants which are
used by primitive people for
various purposes, such as
worship are studied in Ethno-
botany.
3. (B) Prokaryotes existed alone on
the surface of the earth for atleast
1·5 billion years. During this time
all the metabolic pathways found
in modern cells developed.
4. (A) 5. (A)
6. (A) Protoplasm is a polyphasic
crystallo-colloidal solution and
includes cytoplasm and nucleo-
plasm. Since in living organism
all processes of life occur in
protoplasm and hence Huxley
called it as physical basis of
life.
7. (C)
8. (D) Inner membrane of thylakoid
bears quantasomes (functional
unit of chloroplast). These are
called photosynthetic units
(PSU) where primary act of
photosynthesis (i.e. release of
electron) occurs. A quantasome
has 230 chlorophyll molecules
(160 chl. a + 70 chl. b) and about
50 carotenoid molecules.
9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B)
12. (B) Coenzymes are non protein
molecules that assist enzymes in
performing their reactions.
13. (A)
14. (B) In glycolysis one molecule of
hexose sugar (glucose/fructose,
a 6C compound) is splitted to
form two molecules of a 3C com-
pound, Pyruvic acid (CH 3CO.
COOH).
15. (D)
16. (C) R. Q. (Respiratory Quotient)
or respiratory ratio is the ratio of
CO2 evolved and O2 used during
respiration. It is measured by
Ganong’s Respirometer.
17. (D)
18. (C) Fermentation is incomplete
oxidation of carbohydrates. It can
be aerobic or anaerobic but is
more rapid in anaerobic condi-
tions.
19. (A) Outgrowths of diverse forms,
structures and functions develop
from the epidermis are referred
to as trichomes.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1642
20. (C) In glycolysis 4 ATP molecules
are produced and 2 are con-
sumed, therefore, net gain is
2 ATP.
21. (A)
22. (B) Reaction of fermentation is—
C6H12O6 →
Yeast
2 CO 2 + 2 C2H5OH + 56 k cal
23. (C) In bacterial cell, a well-defined
membrane bound nucleus is not
found, i.e., nuclear membrane,
nucleolus and chromosomes, like
a typical eukaryotic cell, are
absent. Such ill-defined nucleus
is termed incipient nucleus.
24. (A) Acetyl CoA is the connecting
link between glycolysis, Krebs
cycle and oxidation of fat.
25. (D)
26. (B) Macrospore : one meiosis pro-
duces one macrospore (egg).
27. (A) The distance between two
° and since
base pairs is 3·4 A,
each turn of DNA helix measures
° long, there are ten base
34 A
pairs at each turn.
28. (B) Mitosis occurs in somatic
cells. It is also called somatic
division.
29. (C)
30. (D) At anaphase stage of cell divi-
sion chromosomes move towards
opposite poles due to tractile
fibres arising from Kinetochore.
Acentric chromosomes (without
centromere) do not move as they
do not have centromere.
31. (D)
32. (B) Meiosis maintains the fixed
number of chromosomes in
sexually reproducing organisms.
It produces haploid gametes by
reducing the chromosome
number to half. These gametes
on fertilization restore diploidy.
33. (D) Transgenic bacteria perform
services in protecting plants and
the environments to increase
industrial production.
34. (C) Gram stain is a chemical
which is used for staining bac-
teria. All bacteria take crystal
violet stain. Gram stain was dis-
covered by Gram in 1884.
35. (C)
36. (A) In bacteria and Viruses true
nucleus is absent. However,
cytoplasm is found in bacteria,
while absent in viruses.
37. (C) Point mutations involve a
change in a single nucleotide
and, therefore, a change in a
specific codon. When one base is
substituted for another, the result
can be variable.
38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (A)
42. (C) Tannin is a secretion of heart
wood in Acacia nilotica, com-
monly called Babool.
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (C)
46. (B) In gymnosperms the seeds
are naked, whereas in angio-
sperms these are enclosed in
ovary (fruits).
47. (A)
48. (A) Velamen is composed of
layers of spongy tissues, which
help in the absorption of moisture
from air.
49. (A)
50. (D) In Smilax, stipules are modi-
fied into tendrils.
●●●
(Continued from Page 1620 )
Further, the percentage of ‘A’
equals the percentage of ‘T’ and
the percentage of ‘G’ equals the
percentage of ‘C’. The percent-
age of A + G equals 50% and the
percentage of T + C equals 50%.
These relationships are called
Chargaff’s rules.
47. (D) Stratum corneum is the outer
layer of epidermis of vertebrate
skin; cells undergo cornification
and die, becoming worn off.
48. (B) Trophoblast is epithelium sur-
rounding the mammalian blasto-
cyst, forming outer layer and
becoming part of extra embryo-
nic membranes.
49. (B) Apocrine glands are located in
the axillae and pubic region that
open into the hair follicles rather
than directly on the surface of the
skin.
50. (D) Hydrophis is marine aquatic
snake and is viviparous.
●●●
 Solved Paper
CBSE MEDICAL ENTRANCE (MAINS) EXAMINATION, 2007
(Based on Memory)
Paper I
Max. Marks : 100]
Physics
1. (a) How many photons of wavelength 439 nm
should strike on a perfectly reflecting surface in
1 second so that it may exert a force of 10 N ?
(b) Can water be boiled without heating ?
2. (a) Equation for two waves is given as y 1 = a sin
(ωt + φ1), y2 = a sin (ωt + φ2). If amplitude and
time period of resultant wave does not change
then calculate (φ 1 – φ 2).
(b) A solid sphere of radius a having charge q is
placed inside spherical shell of inner radius r,
outer radius R.
Find potential at distance x, where r < x < R.
3. (a) Prove that for a monoatomic gas ratio of specific
heat γ = 5/3.
(b) Give the truth table of the following :
A A
Y positive to negative terminal potential difference
B B
4. (a) Write the difference between nuclear force and
coulombic force.
(b) An airplane is moving horizontally with speed of
100 m/sec at height of 2000 m from ground. A
small object is detached from it and strikes the
ground. Calculate the angle from vertical with
which it strikes the ground.
(c) Which of the following quantities have same
dimensional formula ?
Angular momentum, impulse, energy, torque,
force and moment of inertia.
5. (a) From a table, a rod is hinged as shown in the
figure. When the support is withdrawn, calculate
the acceleration of centre of mass.
I separated by h metre. If t p is the time between p
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1643
[Time : 2 Hours
(b) There are two wires each produces frequency
of 500 Hz. By what percentage tension in one
wire is increased so that 5 beats per second
can be heard ?
6. (a) Find the force on conductor carrying current i as
shown in the figure.
b
i
I
a
x
I
(b) A conducting cone is given charge q. How will
the charge density and electric potential varies
at different points of cone ?
7. (a) When 4 amp current flows through battery from
is 12 V obtained, when 2 amp current passes
from negative to positive terminal of the battery
potential difference 9 V is obtained, calculate
emf and internal resistance of the battery.
(b) A small pulley of radius
20 cm and moment of
inertia 0·32 kg m2 is used
to hang a 2 kg mass with
the help of a massless
string. If this load is
released then calculate
2kg
acceleration of the block.
8. (a) Capacitance of 6 µF is charged by 6 V battery.
Now it is connected with inductor of 5 mH. Find
current in inductor when 1/3rd of total energy is
magnetic.
(b) An object is thrown vertically upward with some
speed. It crosses two points p, q which are
and highest point and coming back and tq is the
time between q and highest point and coming
back, relate acceleration due to gravity t p, t q
and h.
9. (a) Two coils m and n having 10 turns and 15 turns
respectively are placed close to each other.
When 2A current is passing through coil m,
 then flux linked in coil n is 1·8 × 10–4 weber per
turn. If 3A current is passed through coil n then,
calculate the flux linked per turn of coil m.
(b) A string having tension 360 N and mass/length
= 4 × 10–3 kg/m. It produces two consecutive
resonant frequencies with a tuning fork, which
are 375 Hz and 450 Hz. Find mass of string.
10. (a) In photoelectric effect a photon of wavelength
3300 Å is incident on metal surface of work
function 2·5 eV. Now emitted electrons enter in
a transverse magnetic field 6·7 × 10 –6 T and
turn in a circular path of radius 50 cm. Calculate
charge of electron from the given data.
(b) If temperature and magnetic field applied across
paramagnetic substance are tripled, how many
times intensity of magnetization of substance
will change ?
Chemistry
1. (a) Two silver rods are dipped in 1M HCl and 1M
HNO3. In which of the two acids will the silver
rods dissolve under standard conditions ?
0 NH2—CH—(CH2)3—COOH
Given : EAg/Ag = – 0·79 volt,
0 |
ENO 2/NO = + 0·96 volt.
(b) A 0·1M acetic acid solution ionizes to 1·2%.
What is its Ka ?
2. (a) Why NH3 is more soluble than PH3 in water ?
(b) Why BH3 dimerizes but BF3 does not ?
(c) The complex K[PtCl3C2H4] has 3 chlorine atoms
bonded to platinum. Why does the chlorine atom
lying opposite to ethene have higher bond
length ?
3. (a) An electron in which orbit of lithium ion will have
same energy as an electron in the second orbit
of hydrogen.
H+
(b) I 2 + CH3COCH3 → CH3COCH2I + HI
For the reaction, Rate = K[CH3COCH3] 1[H+] 1.
What is the order of the reaction with respect to
I 2 ? Also give the total order.
[I2] mol/lit [CH3COCH3] mol/lit [H+] mol/lit
3 × 10– 3 2·5 × 10– 2 1·5 × 10– 3
Rate mol/lit sec
2 × 10– 2
Also find the value and unit of the rate constant
from the data given above.
(c) For a photoelectron, the frequency is given by
the expression ν = 3·3 × 1015 (
1 1
–
22 n2 )· If
the wavelength of the photoelectron is 6600 A, °
what will be the value of ‘n’ ?
4. (a) Complete the reaction given below :
NOH
Beckmann’s Polymerize
→ A → Nylon 6
Rearrangement
Cyclohexanoxime
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1644
(b) Identify which of the following given compounds
is optically active ?
(i) 2-chloro 3-methyl pent-1, 4-diene
(ii) 3-methyl 3-hydroxy pentan 1, 5-diol
(iii) 2-chloro 2-methyl butane
(c) Convert :
(i) Ph—C ≡ CH → Ph—C—CH3
||
O
(ii) Ar—NH2 → ArNC
(d) An alkene C4H8 reacts with HBr both in the
presence and absence of peroxides to give the
same product. Identify the alkene.
5. (a) C4H10O is produced on reaction of an alkane
with H2 O/H2SO4, which is not resolvable into
optical isomers. Identify the compound.
(b) Make two possible dispeptides from the amino
acids given below :
NH2—(CH2)5—CH—CHOOH and
|
NH2
COOH
(c) The amino acid alanine when kept in a solution
with pH less than its isoelectric point it coagu-
lates at the cathode and if pH is greater than
isoelectric point it coagulates at anode. Explain
this phenomenon.
(d) Which out of 1-butene and 2-butene react easily
with Br2 in CS 2 and why ?
6. (a) Why 1-butyne gives sodium salt with NaNH2 but
2-butyne does not ?
(b) Draw the structures for DNA purines.
7. (a) For 0·5 M H2SO3 solution K a1= 1·8 × 10– 2 and
Ka2 = 8·3 × 10 – 5. Find the concentrations of H+,
HSO 3– and SO32– .
(b) N2O4 dissociates with a degree of dissociation
as 0·4. Establish Kχ. Relation between Kχ and
Kp and the value of Kp. Given total pressure = 1
atm and T = 315 K.
(c) 1 mole of nitrogen and 4 mole of hydrogen react
to form ammonia in a 20 litre vessel. 10 litres of
water are added and the vessel properly
shaken. What will be the pressure of the
residual gases ?
8. (a)
(b)
Why is F2 more reactive than Cl2 ?
Why is CrO42– more oxidizing than MoO 42– ?
(c) Out of (SiH3)2O and (CH3)2O which is more
basic and why ?
9. (a) The empirical formula of an insoluble com-
pound is PtCl2.(NH3)2. On churning this com-
pound with AgNO3 we get [Pt(NH3)4](NO3)2 and
Ag2[PtCl4]. What will be the molecular formula
of the compound will be ?
(b) Out of trimethylamine and triethyl phosphine,
which one has higher dipole moment ?
 10. (a) Why PO 43– ions exist but NO43– ions don’t ? V3 = potential at P due to the outer
(b) Why B 2 is paramagnetic but C2 is not ? Kq
surface of the shell =
R
(c) For an octahedral field splitting ∆0 > P when the
Kq K(– q) Kq Kq
pairing energy is less and ∆ 0 < P when pairing ∴ V = + + =
x x R R
energy is higher. Explain the spin magnetic
moments acquired by d 5 and d 6 configurations 3. (a) The ratio of specific heats, γ is given by
of metal ions in this field. 2
γ = 1+ ,
n
ANSWERS where n is the degree of freedom. We know
that the degree of freedom of a molecule is the
Physics number of independent ways in which it can
have energy. Also, a monoatomic molecule can
1. (a) Let n photons strike on the surface per second. move linearly but can’t rotate, so it can have
Then the force exerted by the photons, energy along three directions viz. x, y and z
F = n (∆p) → axes only.
pi
where ∆p = Change in momentum ∴ For a monoatomic gas, n = 3
per second 2 2
p→f
Hence, γ = 1+ =1+
n 3
→ → → → →
∆ p = pi – (– pf ) = pi + pf
5
→ h → → or γ =
3
| ∆ p | = 2pi = 2 × (˙.˙ | pi | = | pf |)
λ (b) From the figure the Boolean expression is
2h Fλ 
– –
∴ F = n× or n = Y = (A. B )
λ 2h
After simplification, we get
Here, F = 10 N, λ = 439 nm = 439 × 10–9 m,
= =
h = 6·625 × 10– 34 Js Y = A+B=A+B
 – –
Putting all these values, we get (˙.˙ A.B = A + B by absorptive law of Boolean
10 × 439 × 10 – 9 algebra)
n = = 3·313 × 10 27.
2 × 6·625 × 10– 34 ∴ The truth table is as given below :
(b) Water can be boiled without supplying heat if it
is kept inside a closed vessel and increasing Inputs Output
the pressure on its surface such as water in a A B Y
pressure cooker and also it can be boiled if
0 0 0
pressure is reduced in a vessel containing
water. 0 1 1
2. (a) Here, A 1 = a, A2 = a and A = a 1 0 1
We have, 1 1 1
A = A12 + A22 + 2A1A2 cos (φ 1 – φ 2)
4. (a) The differences between nuclear force and
or a2 = a2 + a2 + 2a.a cos (φ1 – φ 2) coulombic force are tabulated below :
or a2 = 2a2 + 2a2 cos (φ 1 – φ 2)
Nuclear Force Coulombic Force
or a2 = 2a2 [1 + cos (φ1 – φ 2)]
1 1. The force acting bet- 1. The force acting bet-
or = 1 + cos (φ1– φ2) ween the constituent ween two charged
2
1 particles of an atom particles is called
or cos (φ1 – φ 2) = – is called nuclear coulombic force.
2
force.
⇒ φ 1 – φ 2 = 120°
(b) Let the point at a distance x be P. 2. It is charge indepen- 2. It is charge depen-
dent. dent.
Then the potential at P
is given by 3. It is a short-range 3. It is a short as well as
V = V1 + V2 + V3 force. a long range force.
x P
a 4. It does not obey the 4. It obeys the inverse
where, V1 = potential q r inverse square law square law of dis-
at P due to the solid
Kq but it obeys inverse tance.
sphere = R law of r n where n is
x
a very large number.
V2 = potential at P due to the inner
5. It is stronger than 5. It is weaker than
K(– q)
surface of the shell = coulombic force. nuclear force.
x

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1645

 vx Torque acting on the rod about the axis of
(b) Let θ be the required angle. Then tan θ = ·

where, v x
vy
= horizontal component of velocity
rotation
= mg
l
2 ()
when the object strikes the Also, torque = Iα, where I = moment of inertia of
ground at B the rod about the axis of rotation
= ux + ax t = ux (˙.˙ ax = 0) ml 2
=
= 100 m/s 3
ux = 100 m/s If aCM be the acceleration of the centre of mass,
A aCM
then α =
(l /2)
uy = 0
∴ mg ()l
2
= Iα or
mgl ml 2 aCM
2
=
3
×
l /2
mgl 2ml 2.aCM
h = 2000m or =
2 3l
3gl 2 3g
vx ⇒ aCM = = ms– 2
B 4ml 2 4m
O
3 × 10
vy = ms– 2
v 4m
v y = vertical component of velocity at 15
∴ aCM = ms– 2
B = uy + ayt = gt 2m
(˙.˙ uy = 0, ay = + g) where m is the mass of the rod.
(b) We know that
1 1 2h
But h = uy t + a t 2 = gt 2 ⇒ t = n ∝ T
2 y 2 g
where, n = frequency and T = tension in the
2h wire.
∴ vy = g × = 2gh
g
n = KT 1/2
= 2 × 10 × 2000 = 200 ms– 1 where, K is the constant of proportionality.

∴ tan θ =
v x 100 1
= =
v y 200 2
∆T
T
= 2
∆n
n
,( )
where, ∆T is change in tension and ∆n change
∴ θ = tan – 1 () 1
2 in frequency.
∆T
(c) Clearly, % change in tension = × 100
T
[Angular momentum] = [ML2T– 1]
[Impulse]
[Energy]
=
=
[MLT– 1]
[ML2T–2]
= 2
∆n
n ( )
× 100

2×5
[Torque] = [ML2T– 2] = × 100 = 2
500
[Force] = [MLT– 2] 6. (a) Let us consider a current element d y at a
[Moment of Inertia] = [ML2] distance y from the wire carrying current I.
Hence, the dimensional formulae of energy and The magnetic field b
torque are same. acting on the current
5. (a) When the support is withdrawn, the rod will element due to infini- i
rotate about the axis passing through the hinged tely long conductor, l
dy
point. µ0
B =
l 2πy a
y
∴ Force acting on dy x
length,
d F = idy B I
Now, total force acting on the conductor of
length (l ),
l (x + l ) (x + l )
µ0I µ0Ii
l /2 F = ∫ idyB = ∫ idy =
l /2 x x 2πy 2π
mg
C.M. (x + l )

= ∫
x
()1
y
dy =
µ0Ii
2π
= [lny ]x
(x + l )

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1646

 µ0Ii mg
= = [ln(x +l ) – ln(x)] or a =
2π
( m+
I
)
r2
=
µ0Ii
2π
= [ ln](x + l )
x Putting the values of m, g, I and r, we get
2 × 10 20
or F =
2π
µ0Ii
= ln ( )1+
l
x
a =
[ 2+
0·32
(0·2)2
=
]
2+8
ms– 2

(b) We know that, charge density

q 20
σ = or q = (4πr 2)σ = ms– 2 ∴ 2ms– 2
10
4πr2
Also, the potential on the surface of a conductor 8. (a) Energy of capacitor,
of any configuration is constant, 1 1
EC = × CV2 = × (6 × 10 – 6) × (6) 2
q 2 2
i.e., = constant
4πε0r = 108 × 10 – 6 J
1 (4πr 2)σ When the capacitor is connected to the
or · = constant inductor, the magnetic energy,
4πε0 r
1 2
or r.σ = constant EB = Li
2
constant 1
or σ = ⇒σ∝ 1
r r or EB = × (5 × 10 – 3) i 2
3
Hence, the charge density varies inversely with
distance but potential remains constant. = (2·5 × 10– 3) i 2
7. (a) First case : In this case, the battery is being According to question,
charged. i = 4A 1
EB = × EC or (2·5 × 10– 3)i 2
∴ V = E + ir 2
1
where E = emf of battery and r = internal = × 108 × 10 – 6
3
resistance of the battery
108 × 10 – 6 43·2 × 10– 3
or 12 = E + 4r …(1) or i2 = =
3 × 2·5 × 10– 3 3
Second case : In this i = 2A
case, the battery is being = 14·40 × 10– 3 = 144 × 10– 4
discharged.
∴ i = 144 × 10 – 4 A
∴ V = E – ir or 9 = E – 2r …(2)
or i = 12 × 10 – 2 A
Subtracting (2) from (1), we get
3 1 (b) Let A be the highest point and h′ the distance
3 = 6r ⇒ r = = = 0·5 Ω between the point p and A. Here, A
6 2
Putting this value of r in (1), we get t p = time taken in going from p to
12 = E + (0·554) or E = 10 V A and again from A to p
q
∴ E = 10 V and r = 0·5 Ω ∴ Time taken in coming from h′
tp h
(b) Considering the rotational motion of the pulley, A to p =
we get 2 p
Similarly, time taken in falling from
Tr = Iα or Tr = I
a
r () A to q = ·
tq
2 O
where, a is the linear
2
acceleration of the
pulley in downward
direction. a
Now, h′ =
1
2
g ()
tp
2
=
gtp2
8
…(1)
2
∴ T = 2
Ia
r
…(1) T
T
and h′ – h =
1
2
g ()
tq
2
=
gtq2
8
…(2)

Now, considering the Subtracting (2) from (1), we get

m = 2kg
motion of the mass m gt p2 gt q2 g 2
(= 2 kg), we get mg h = – = (tp – t q2)
8 8 8
mg – T = ma 8h
Ia or g =
or mg – 2 = ma [from (1)] t p2 – t q2
r
which is the required relation.
Ia
or ma + 2 = mg 9. (a) For the coil n, we have
r
15 × φ n = MIm or 15 × 1·8 × 10– 4 = M × 2
or a ( m+ 2
r
I
) = mg
∴ M = 13·5 × 10– 4 H

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1647

 For the coil m, we have Putting the values of m, R, B and Tmax, we get
10 × φ m = MIn 2 × 9·1 × 10– 31 × 2·02 × 14– 19
MIn 13·5 × 10– 4 × 3 q = coulomb
or φm = = 50 × 10 – 2 × 6·7 × 10– 6
10 10
6·04 × 10– 25
= 40·5 × 10– 5 Wb. = coulomb
3·35 × 10– 6
(b) We know that the velocity of transverse wave in
a string of mass per unit length µ and tension T = 1·8 × 10– 19 C (approx.)
is given by (b) We have, from Curie’s law,
B
T 360 I ∝
v= = = 3 × 102 m/s = 300 m/s T
µ 4 × 10 – 3
where, I = intensity of magnetization
˙. ˙ The string produces two consecutive reso- B = magnetic field
nant frequencies 375 Hz and 450 Hz with a
T = absolute temperature
tuning fork.
when B and T are tripled, the new intensity of
v
We have n = 375 …(1) magnetization,
2l
3B B
v I′ ∝ ∝
and (n + 1) = 450 …(2) 3T T
2l
So, intensity of magnetization will not change.
where n is an integer.
Subtracting (1) from (2), we get Chemistry
v 1. (a) Less reactive metals like Ag are oxidised more
(n + 1 – n). = 75
2l readily in HNO3 than HCl because HNO3
v 300 behaves as an oxidising acid while HCl as non-
or = 75 or = 75
2l 2l oxidising acid.
⇒ l = 2 Ag + 2HNO3(dil) → AgNO3 + NO2 + H2O
–3 Further if we calculate E° for the reaction, we
˙. ˙ Mass per unit length (µ) = 4 × 10 cell

m get
or = 4 × 10 – 3 ° = E
Ecell
l cathode – Eanode

or m = 4 × 10 – 3 × l = 4 × 10– 3 × 2 = + 0·96 – (– 0·79) = + 1·75 volt

From the relation ∆G = – nFE0, we find ∆G to
∴ m = 8 × 10 – 3 kg.
be negative.
10. (a) Here, wavelength (λ) of photon
Since the E° is +ve, the reaction would be
cell
° = 3300 × 10– 10
= 3300 A spontaneous under standard conditions.
= 3·3 × 10– 7 m (∆G = – nFE)
Work function (φ) of the surface 1·2
(b) Given α = = 0·012 and C = 0·1 M.
100
= 2·5 eV = 2·5 × 1·6 × 10– 19 J
α 2C
= 4·0 × 10– 19 J Ka =
1–α
Energy of incident photon
2. (a) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is found in
hc 6·625 × 10– 34 × 3 × 10 8 NH3 which increases its solubility whereas
= = J
λ 3·3 × 10– 7 hydrogen bonding does not exist in PH3 which
= 6·02 × 10– 19 J makes it less soluble.
(b) BF 3 is a monomeric covalent species. It does
By Einstein’s equation of photoelectric effect, not dimerize like BH3 because the lone pairs on
we have
the halogens interact with the vacant p orbital
E = φ + Tmax on boron due to which the electron deficiency of
or Tmax = E – φ = 6·02 × 10–19 – 4·0 × 10–19 J the central boron is satisfied whereas this
property is not seen in BH 3.
= 2·02 × 10– 19 J (c) [PtCl3(C2H4)]– is essentially square planar
Now, as the emitted electrons enter a magnetic
2
field and turn in a circular path, the radius of the CH
path is given by —
— Cl
2
CH
Pt
2m (T max) 2m (T max)
R = ⇒ q=
qB RB Cl Cl

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1648

 A dative bond in which electron pair in the filled carboxylic amino acid containing six carbon
π orbital on ethene overlaps with and empty atoms. This polymerises to give nylon-6.
hybrid orbital on the metal, giving a σ bond. H
Overlap also occurs between a filled metal d O
orbital and an empty antibonding orbital on N
ethene. This results in back bonding. H 2O
Due to the building up of high electron density → H2N—(CH2)5—COOH
between Pt and ethene, the bonded electron Heat Amino caproic acid
Pt—Cl bond opposite to Pt-ethene, experiences Caprolactum (A)
more repulsion and hence Pt–Cl bond is rather O
longer than other Pt—Cl bonds. ∆ ||
3. (a) For H-like particles energy of electron in nth → —
[ NH—(CH2)5—C— ]n
– H2O Nylon-6
shell.
1312 Z2 (b) (i) 2-chloro 3-methyl pent-1, 4-diene is
En = – kJ mol– 1 optically active as it contains chiral carbon
n2
atom.
∴ Energy in 2nd orbit of hydrogen
Cl
1312 × 12 |
= – kJ mol– 1 *
22 H2C = C—CH— CH = CH2
1312 |
= – kJ mol– 1 CH3
4
1312 × 32 Note : A chiral carbon atom is attached to
and for Li ++, En = – four different atoms or groups.
62
– 1312 Hg2+‚ dil H2SO 4
= kJ mol– 1 (c) (i) Ph—C≡ CH3 →
4
OH
Therefore, if the electron is in sixth orbit of Li++, |
energy would be same. Ph— C—CH2
(b) As the rate law expression does not involve the

→
concentration of I2, therefore, order of reaction Tautomerises
w.r.t. I2 is 0. O
As given in the expression that Rate = ||
k[CH3COCH3][H+]. Ph—C—CH3
The total order of reaction is 2. Acetophenone
Now, substitute the values in the expression. (ii) Carbylamine reaction—When a primary
amine reacts with chloroform and alcoholic
2 × 10 – 2 = k[2·5 × 10– 2][1·5 × 10– 3]
KOH give isocyanides or carbylamines
2 × 10 – 2 mol lit– 1 s–1 which have unpleasant smell.
∴ k =
2·5 × 10– 2 × 1·5 × 10– 3 mol2 lit–2 ∆
Ar—NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH (alc.) →
= 0·535 × 10– 3 →
Ar—N==C + 3HCl + 3H2O
= 5·33 × 10– 4 mol– 1 lit sec– 1 Aryl carbylamine
or L mol–1 sec –1 (d) As the given alkene is buten-2 which is a
(c) Given ν = 3·3 × 1015 (
1 1
–
22 n 2 ) symmetrical alkene thus, addition of HBr to it
does not follow Markovnikoff’s rule hence the
λ = 6600A° = 6600 × 10–10 metre product formed would be same in both cases
c i.e., in presence of peroxide and in absence of
and ν = peroxide.
λ
5. (a) The formula suggests that the compound is
∴
c
λ
= 3·3 × 1015 ( )
1 1
–
22 n 2
CH3
|
3 × 108 CH3—C—OH
6·6 × 10–7
= 3·3 × 1015 ( )1 1
–
4 n2 |
CH3
1 1
⇒ 0·138 =– i.e., a tertiary alcohol, therefore, alkane from
4 n2 which it is formed must be
1 1 138 1000 – 552 448
⇒ = – = = CH3 CH3
n2 4 1000 4000 4000
| H2O/H2SO 4
|
4000 63·24
⇒ n2 = ⇒n= = 2·988 ≈ 3 CH3—CH → CH3—CH—OH
448 21·16 | |
4. (a) Caprolactum on heating with traces of water CH3 CH3
gives ε-amino caproic acid which is mono- Isobutane t-butanol

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1649

 (b) Dipeptides are formed when two molecules of α- C—H bond are attracted more towards carbon
amino acids are joined together by peptide than towards H atom. As a result H-atom is
bonds. The possible dipeptide formed from being less tightly held by carbon and hence can
these amino acids would be easily be removed as a proton.
H2N—(CH2)5— CH—COOH CH3—CH2—C ≡ C—H + NaNH2 →
| CH3—CH2—C ≡ C—Na + NH3
NH2 Sodium butylide
+ H2N— CH—(CH2)3—COOH (b) Following are the structures of DNA purines :
| NH2 O
COOH
H2N–(CH2)5– CH–CO–NH–CH–(CH2)3–COOH NH NH
| | N HN
NH2 COOH
COOH
| N N N N
and H2N—(CH2)5—CH—NH2 H2N
Adenine Guanine
NH2
| 7. (a) Given :
+ HOOC—CH—(CH2)3—COOH → H2SO3 H+ + HSO3–
COOH NH2
Ka1 = 1·8 × 10 – 2
| |
H2N–(CH2)5– CH–NH–CO–CH–(CH2)3–COOH HSO 3– H+ + SO32–
(c) At isoelectric point amino acid exists as Zwitter Ka2 = 8·3 × 10 – 5
ion (a dipolar ion)
R H2SO3 H+ + HSO3–
+ | at t = 0 0·5
NH3—CH—COO–
at teq 0·5 – α α α
Zwitter ion
Zwitter ions are neutral but in presence of acid where α = degree of dissociation.
dissociation favours formation of cation. [H+] [HSO3–]
Now, Ka 1 =
R R [H2SO3]
+ | Acid + | α2
H3N—CH—COO– + H+ → NH3—CH—COOH ∴ Ka1 = = 1·8 × 10 – 2
(0·5 – α)
Zwitter ion Cation
Hence it will coagulate at cathode (– ve elec- or α2 = 0·9 × 10– 2 – 1·8 × 10– 2 α
trode). or α + 1·8 × 10 – 2 α – 0·9 × 10– 2 = 0
2

In presence of alkali (pH > 7) dissociation of On solving the value of α, we get α = 0·08625 mol/L
Zwitter ion favours formation of an anion
R ∴ [H+] = [HSO3–] = 0·08625 mol/L
+ | [SO 3– –][H+]
H3N—CH—COO– + OH– and Ka 2 =
[HSO3–]
Zwitter ion Now, substitute of the value of [H+] and [HSO 3–]
R
in above equation, we get
Base |
→ H2N—CH—COO– + H2O [SO 3– –][0·08625]
8·3 × 10– 5 =
Anion [0·08625]
Hence it will coagulate at anode (+ ve electrode) [SO 3– –] = 8·3 × 10– 5 mol/L
(d) The structures of 1-butene and 2-butene are as (b) N2O4 2NO 2
CH3—CH2—CH = CH2 CH3—CH = CH—CH3
t=0 1 0
1-butene 2-butene
teq 1 – 0·4 0·4 × 2 = 0·8
More substituted alkenes are more stable than
less substituted alkenes. The more is the Total no. of moles = 1 – 0·4 + 0·8 = 1·4
stability, the lesser is the reactivity.
Note : More substituted alkenes contain more Now, Kx =
x NO
2 [ ]
no. of alkyl group.
Hence, 2-butene is more stable and less
xN O
[ 2 4 ]
0·8 0·6
reactive to Br2 than 1-butene. where x NO = and x N O =
2 1·4 2 4 1·4
6. (a) In 1-butyne the terminal hydrogen is weakly 2
acidic whereas in 2-butyne, there is no such
hydrogen is available. The reason is that carbon
∴ Kx = ( ) 0·8
1·4
0·6
1·4
= 0·76
atoms of the triple bond are more electro-
As Kp = Kx (Ptotal)∆ng = 0·76 × (1) = 0·76 atm
negative due to sp hybridization. Due to greater
electronegativity, the shared pair of electron of (˙.˙ ∆ng = 2 – 1 = 1)

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1650

 (c) N2 + 3H 2 2NH3 (b) Following are the electronegativities of elements
1 mole 3 mole 2 mole involved in bonding
i.e., 1 mole of N2 react with 3 mole of H2 to form C = 2·55; N = 3·00; P = 2·2
2 mole of NH3, but the amount of H2 taken is 4 Structures of (CH3)3N and (C2H5)3P can be
moles thus the H2 will be the residual gas and represented as : Both are pyramidal.
hence
PH × V = nRT ·· ··
2 N P
CH3 C2H 5
PH × 10 = 1 × 0·0821 × 298 CH3 C 2H 5
2
PH = 2·45 atm. CH2 C2H 5
2

Note : The effective volume of the vessel The dipole moment due P—C bonds in
occupied by H2 gas is 20 – 10 = 10 litre. (C2H5)3P are in opposite direction of the dipole
8. (a) Fluorine (F 2) is more reactive than chlorine (Cl2). moment of the lone pair on P atom, while the
This is on account of lower bond dissociation dipole moments of N—C bonds in (CH3)3N are
energy (158·8 kJ/mol) of F2 molecule as in same direction as the direction of dipole
compared to Cl 2 molecule (242·6 kJ/mol). moment of lone pair on N atom. Hence, the
Lower bond dissociation energy of F2 is due to dipole moment of (CH3)3N is definitely higher
the greater interelectronic repulsion which is than that of (C2H5)3P.
consequently due to very small size of F atoms. 10. (a) P(15) = 1s22s 22p63s 23p33d 0, N(7) = 1s22s 22p 3
(b) CrO42– is more oxidising than MoO42–. CrO2–
4 ion
As P contains vacant d-orbit, thus it can exceed
has very high standard reduction potential as its octet and utilize d-orbitals for multiple bond-
compared to MoO42– and hence CrO42– is strong ing, whereas N cannot exceed its octet due to
the absence of d-orbital and hence cannot form
oxidising agent. Moreover, the most stable
NO43– ion.
oxidation state of Mo is + 6 and hence its
reduction to lower oxidation state is rather (b) The molecular orbital configuration of B 2 is
difficult. B2 KK σ (2s)2 σ* (2s)2 π(2px )1 π (2py )1.
(c) Two substances can be represented as : As it contains two unpaired e–, therefore, it is
·· ·· paramagnetic and the molecular orbital con-
SiH3—O—SiH3 and CH3—O—CH3
·· ·· figuration of C2 is C2 = KK σ (2s)2 σ* (2s)2 π
In case of (SiH3)2O, Si—O bond shows pπ-dπ (2px )2 π (2py )2.
bonding due to availability of vacant d orbitals At it does not contain any unpaired e– thus it is
on Si atom. As a result of this lone pair of diamagnetic.
electrons on O atom are engaged in π bond
(c) When ∆0 < P
formation and are not available for donation. In
case of (CH3)2O, CH3—O bond cannot form
eg eg
such π bonding as C atom does not possess
vacant d orbitals. The lone pairs of oxygen atom ∆0 ∆0
in this case are available for donation. Hence
(SiH3)2O is a weaker base than (CH 3)2O.
T2g T2g
9. (a) The empirical formula of the compound is d5 d6
··
PtCl2(NH3)2. Since chlorine is not precipitated (5 unpaired electrons) (4 unpaired electrons)
by AgNO3 and hence all Cl atoms are in
µ = (5 + 2) 5BM µ = (6 + 2) 6BM
coordination sphere. Since the product of
churning with AgNO3 are [Pt(NH3)4](NO3)2 and When ∆0 > P
Ag2[PtCl4], the compound should be a dimer of eg eg
PtCl2(NH3)2 i.e., a coordination isomer of
PtCl2(NH3)2 µ = √1(1 + 2) ∆0 ∆0 µ = √0(0 + 2)

[Pt(NH3)4] 2+ [PtCl4] 2–
→

T2g T2g
AgNO3
d5 d6
[Pt(NH3)4] (NO3)2 + Ag2[PtCl4] (Unpaired electron) (Zero unpaired electron)

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1651

 Paper II
Max. Marks : 100] Biology [Time : 2 Hours

1. Write the location and function of the following : (c) Which type of ovule is shown in diagram (c) ?
(a) Cytoskeleton (b) Synergid Give one reason.
(c) Phytol chain (d) Sieve tube element (d) What is the type of flower called given in
(e) Centromere diagram (d) ? Give examples of such flower.
2. Refer the following diagrams (a) to (e) : (e) Which type of aestivation is shown in (e) ? Give
examples.
3. Write down the types of placentation, inflorescence
P and fruit of the following :
(a) Pea (b) Coriander (c) Wheat (d) Sunflower
Mucilagenous (e) Mustard
(a)
sheath 4. Differentiate between the following [Give one
important difference] :
Q (a) Culm and Caudex
(b) Slime moulds and Fungi
(c) Biological magnification and eutrophication
(d) White rust and Brown rust
5. Match the Column I and Column II :
Column I Column II
(a) Jacob and Monod (i) Neurospora
Head (b) One gene one (ii) Operon
enzyme hypothesis (iii) Reverse trans-
P
(c) Griffith criptase
Sheath (d) Temin and Baltimore (iv) Okazaki fragments
(b)
(e) DNA polymerase (v) Transformation
(vi) Transduction
(vii) Conjugation
6. Fill in the blanks with suitable words given in boxes :
Marsilea Coralloid Usnea Eichhornia
Q root
Monoecious Pneumato- Geitono- Cycas
phores gamy
Chalaza Pinus Dioecious Vivipary Xenogamy Oscillatoria
Nucellus (a) Rhizophora has both……… and …………
Raphe
Integuments
(b) Aquatic plants are ………… (Pteridophyte) and
Antipodal cells
Embryo sac
…………… (Angiosperm).
(c) Secondary nucleus (c) Plant bearing both male and female flowers is
Egg cell called ………… (and the pollination between
Synergids different flowers of the same plant is called
Micropyle ………
Hilum
(d) …………… has ……………
Funicle
7. (a) Give any two conditions for seed habit.
(b) Among the pairs which one shows the tendency
of seed habit ?
(i) Lycopodium and Equisetum
(ii) Selaginella and Pteris
(d) Ovary (e) (iii) Dryopteris and Pteridium.
Thalamus (c) Suggest three ways to break seed dormancy.
8. Fill in the blanks :
(a) Mutation can be defined as………… variation.
(a) What is shown in diagram (a) ? What are (P) (b) Mutation leads to evolution of ………… of a
and (Q) ? gene.
(b) Tell whether the diagram (b) is T1-phage or T2- (c) Genes expressed only in homozygous state are
phage. What are (P) and (Q) ? …………

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1652

 (d) When both alleles of a gene are expressed it (b) What is the type of movement of twiner and
is………… opening of flower ?
(e) Gene, which is most frequent is ………type. 13. Three groups of baby mice :
9. (a) Who discovered photoperiodism ?
(b) Select one SDP and one LDP from following
plants : a
Chrysanthemum, Rice, Spinach, Barley, Radish. c
Wt
(c) Who gave the term ‘Phytochrome’ ? Give one
specific feature of phytochrome. b
10. Match the Column I and Column II :
Column I Column II
(a) Indian Rhinoceros (i) Extinct
(b) Acid rain (ii) Endangered Days
(c) Somaclonal (iii) Gir forest (a) kept on complete diet
variations (iv) Corbett National (b) fed basal diet without nutrient to be tested
(d) Protoplasm fusion Park (c) basal diet + carotene by feeding carrots.
(e) Biopiracy (v) CFC 14. Out of following animals—answer the questions :
(vi) Nitrogen oxide Whale, Earthworm, Bat, Starfish, Scorpion, Honey
(vii) Sulphur oxide bee, Peafowl.
(viii) PEG (a) Which animal is different from rest of animals ?
(ix) Mutation (b) How many of these are poisonous, which class
(x) Turmeric they belong to ?
11. Differentiate between : (c) Which animals belong to same class ?
(a) Habitat and Niche (d) Which animals are only representatives of their
phylum ?
(b) Flora and Vegetation
(e) Which of the following have 3 ear ossicles ?
12. Answer the following questions : Name the ossicles in the order of sound trans-
(a) Apart from CO 2, name other green house gases. mission.
15. The following diagrams represent Age-Sex pyramid of (a) developed (b) developing nation. On the basis of this
graph give the answer of the following questions :
(a) What types of phases are shown by the graphs in (a) and (b) ?
(b) What is the position of job opportunity in graph (a) and is it possibility of migration of population from
developing nation to developed nation ?
Age
Males 75 Females
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
320 280 240 200 160 120 80 40 0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280
Population
(a)
Age
Males 75 Females
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
320 280 240 200 160 120 80 40 0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280
Population
(b)

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1653

 16. Refer the following diagram : late orientation and distribution of cell organel-
Dorsal root
les, intracellular transport and movement of
Gray
Muscle spindle Efferent pathway ganglion matter cells. They are of three types–microfilaments,
(receptor)
intermediate filaments and microtubules.
White (b) Synergid—Synergids are the part of egg
matter
apparatus which is located inside the embryo
Stimulus Interneuron sac. Synergids nourish the ovum.
Motor endplate Afferent pathway Motor
neuron
Response (effector) Chalazal end
Antipodals

(a) What kind of reflex is it ?

(b) Where is it striking ?
(c) List the errors in the above diagram.
17. (a) Nictitating membrane and Vermiform appendix Polar nuclei
Central cell
are examples of which type of organs.
Egg
(b) Define vestigial organs.
(c) Which of the following four can be categorised Synergids
in the same category ?
Filiform
Out of coccyx, mammary glands muscles of apparatus
external ear and opacity of eye due to cataract Micropylar end
are these 4 in same categories. (c) Phytol chain—Phytol chain tail in association
18. Refer the following diagrams (a) and (b) : with porphyrin (ring head) through ester linkage
forms a chlorophyll molecule.
X CH3 in Chl a
CHO in Chl b
CH3
H 3C I II
N N
Porphyrin H Mg H
ring
(Head) N N
1 H 3C III IV CH3
2
(a)
1 O
O O
Ester
linkage { O
O
CH3
CH3
H3C
CH3

CH3
2
(b) Phytol
(Tail) H 3C
Write the functions of (1) and (2) in each diagram.
19. In photorespiration, RuBP is oxidized to form glyco- H3C
CH3
late and glycerate. Glycolate enters the PCO cycle H3C

to regenerate glycerate. Draw a flow diagram of H3C

photorespiration to show different intermediates and
the cell organelles involved. Chlorophyll a and b

(d) Sieve tube element—Sieve tubes are elong-

ANSWERS
1. (a) Cytoskeleton—They are extremely minute,
fibrous and tubular structures which form the
structural frame work inside the cell. Cytoskele-
tal structures occur only in eukaryotic cells.
They were discovered with the help of fluores-
cence microscopy. Cytoskeletal structures main-
tain shape of the cell and its extensions, regu-
ated tubular conducting channels of phloem.
Each sieve tube is formed of several cells called
sieve tube elements or members, sieve tube
cells or sieve elements. Sieve tube members
are placed end to end. The endwalls are gene-
rally bulged out. They may be transverse or
oblique. They have many small pores or sieve
pits. Each sieve pore is lined by a layer of
callose. Its function is translocation of solute.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1654

 (e) Centromere—The two chromatids of chromo-
somes are attached to each other by a narrow
area which is also known as primary constric-
tion. It is the site at which the spindle attaches
during cell division which is also concerned with
anaphasic movement of chromosome. On the
basis of position of centromere chromosomes
shape is also determined like telocentric, acro-
centric, submetacentric and metacentric.
2. (a) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green algae. The
region marked as (P), in the figure is Heterocyst
which is large-sized, pale coloured thick-walled
cell which occurs in terminal intercalary or lateral
position. It is specialised to perform nitrogen
fixation. The region marked (Q) is Akinete which
helps in asexual reproduction.
(b) It is T2 -phase of bacteriophage which comes
under T-even phage and is also known as
coliphages. The region marked as (P) in the
figure is collar and the region marked as (Q) is
tail fibre.
(c) This ovule is anatropous because the ovule is
inverted at 180° angle which is also called
resupination. In this case, micropyle and funicle
are closer.
(d) Epigynous flower (inferior ovary)—The thala-
mus grows further upwards thus enclosing the
ovary and finally fusing with it.
(e) This is vaxillary aestivation which is seen in the
whorl of five petals where the posterior one is
the largest and almost covers the two lateral
petals and the latter in turn nearly overlap two
anterior petals, e.g., Papilionaceae (soyabean,
gram, etc.)
3. (a) Pea—In this case, placenta develops along the
Junction of the two margins of the carpels in
one-chambered ovary which is known as
marginal placentation. Inflorescence may be
solitary axillary or terminal, raceme. Fruit type is
pod or legume, where fruit is formed from
superior unilocular ovary of a monocarpellary
pistil.
(b) Coriander—In this case, the ovary is multi-
chambered and placenta bearing ovules deve-
lop from the central axis which is known as
axile placentation.
Inflorescence is compound umbel because
peduncle or main axis gives branches repeat-
edly once or twice in umbel of racemose
manner. Fruit is of cremocarp type where fruit
develops from anterior, bilocular ovary of a
bicarpellary syncarpous pistils with persistant
stylopod or stylopodium.
(c) Wheat—Since the ovary is unilocular and
placenta develops directly on the thalamus and
bears a single ovule at the base of the ovary.
So, the placentation is of basal type. The
inflorescence is spikelet which bears two empty
glumes (bracts) and also bears IIIrd bract
(flowering glumes) or lemma or lower palea.
The fruit is of caryopsis type.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1655
(d) Sunflower—In this case, placentation is again
of basal type because the ovary is unilocular
and placenta develops directly on the thalamus
and bears single ovule at the base of ovary.
The inflorescence is capitulum or head because
its receptacle is flattened, bear sessile flowers
and florets in a centripetal manner.
Fruit type is of cypsela–in this case fruit deve-
lops from a monocarpellary pistil with superior,
unilocular and uniovuled ovary.
(e) Mustard—Parietal placentation is present in
mustard where ovary is one chambered and
placenta bears the ovules which develops on
the inner-wall of the ovary and their position
corresponds to the confluent margins of the
carpels and the number of placenta is equal to
the number of carpel. The fruit is of siliqua type.
4. (a) Culm—It is an erect stem in members of
poaceae.
The stem with solid nodes and hollow inter-
nodes is called culm, e.g., Bambusa is branched
cylindrical.
Caudex—The caudex is an enlarged, woody
base of the stem or trunk (located just below
the ground) on some plants–it is used for water
storage. Many desert plants have a caudex, an
adaptation to dry conditions. Some palms,
cycads, and succulents have a caudex, e.g.,
Date palm.
(b) Slime moulds—They are vegetative cells with-
out cell wall while spores are with cellulosic cell
wall Protistans that may represent a transition
between protistans and fungi are called slime
moulds.
Phylum of fungus like organisms within the
kingdom Protista, commonly known as true
slime moulds. They exhibit characteristics of
both protozoans (one-celled microorganisms)
and fungi. Distributed worldwide, they usually
occur in decaying plant material.
Fungi—They are vegetative cell with cell wall
which is made up of either fungal cellulose or
chitin or both. Saprophytic and parasitic orga-
nisms that lack chlorophyll and include molds,
rusts, mildews, smuts, mushrooms and yeast;
singular, fungus.
They are aerobic, multicellular, nonphoto-syn-
thetic, heterotrophic microorganisms. There is
gradual and progressive simplification and
ultimate elimination of the sexual apparatus
from the lower to higher forms.
(c) Biological magnification—Refers to the pro-
cess whereby certain substances such as
pesticides or heavy metals move up the food
chain, work their way into rivers or lakes, and
are eaten by aquatic organisms such as fish,
which in turn are eaten by large birds, animals
or humans. The substances become concentra-
ted in tissues or internal organs as they move
up the chain.
Eutrophication—Over-enrichment of a water
body with nutrients, resulting in excessive
growth of organisms and depletion of oxygen
 concentration. The process by which a body of
water becomes either naturally or by pollution
rich in dissolved nutrients (as phosphates) and
often shallow with a seasonal deficiency in dis-
solved oxygen. e.g., disease of crucifers caused
by Albuginaceae (Peronosporales: Oomycota).
Zinc oxide; the powdery product of corrosion of
zinc or zinc-coated surfaces. Fungus causing a
disease characterized by a white powdery mass
of conidia.
(d) White rust—It is a fungal disease caused by
Cystopus candidus or Albugo candida on vege-
tative parts of crucifers.
Brown rust—It is a fungal disease caused by
Puccinia recondita on vegetative parts of wheat
plant.
5. (a) Jacob and Monod gave the ‘operon’ model to
explain the regulation of gene expression in the
bacterium E. coli in 1961.
(b) Beadle and Tatum proposed the ‘one gene one
enzyme’ theory. One gene codes for the pro-
duction of one protein. ‘One gene one enzyme’
has since been modified to ‘one gene one poly-
peptide’ since many proteins (such as hemo-
globin) are made of more than one polypeptide.
(c) An Okazaki fragment is a relatively short frag-
ment of DNA (with an RNA primer at the 5′
terminus) created on the lagging strand during
DNA replication. These fragments are proces-
sed by the replication machinery to produce a
continuous strand of DNA and hence a complete
daugher DNA helix. It was given by Griffith.
(d) Reverse transcriptase is the replication enzyme
of retroviruses which was discovered by Temin
and Baltimore.
6. (a) Pneumatophores, Vivipary
(b) Marsilea, Eichhornia
(c) Monoecious, Geitonogamy
(d) Cycas and coralloid root
7. (a) Heterospory (which is a condition in which an
organism produces two different types and sizes
of spores, viz., microspores and megaspores)
and formation of female gametophyte inside
megasporangium.
(b) Selaginella—The advent of reproduction by
seeds was one of the most essential evolu-
tionary steps in plant history : the vast majority
of living plants are seed plants (spermato-
phytes). The seed habit includes the following
set of defining characteristics : (1) heterospory,
(2) occurrence of a single megaspore that
germinates within an indehiscent megasporan-
gium (nucellus) retained on the sporophyte),
(3) enclosure of the megasporangium in an
integument, and (4) capture of pollen before
seed dispersal. Contrasting hypotheses about
the single/multiple, saltational/gradual origin of
the seed habit. Pteris also possesses the seed
habit.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1656
(c) Mechanical Scarification, Stratification,
Impaction.
Seeds of almost all plants growing in areas with
marked seasonal temperature variations require
a period of cold treatment prior to germination,
just as buds do. This requirement is usually
satisfied by our winter temperatures. There are
several ways to break the dormancy of seeds.
For example, for some species, if moist seed is
exposed to a low temperature for many days,
dormancy may be broken and the seed
germinates. The average temperature and time
are 5°C for 100 days). This horticultural
procedure is called Stratification.
Mechanical abrasion or breaking the seed coat,
which is termed Scarification with a knife, file
or sandpaper may allow the hard seed condi-
tion or inhibitor to be removed or metabolic
activity requisite to germination to be initiated.
Impaction or the third condition is to keep the
seed under certain condition which breaks the
seed dormancy.
8. (a) Sudden or inheritable—It arises due to change
in base pair of the genetic materials.
(b) New Alleles—It is the term used by Mendel to
define genes which is also known as factor. It is
the particular form of gene.
(c) Recessive—If the gene is in homozygous state
then both alleles are expressed. If it is in hete-
rozygous then one is expressed (dominant).
(d) Codominance—Both genes of allelomorphic
pair express themselves equally in F 1-hybrids.
(e) Wild type gene—Wild type refers to the most
common phenotype in the natural population.
The phenotype can be dominant or recessive.
In biology it relates specifically to the difference
between a naturally occurring organism and one
that has been deliberately mutated.
Mutant is an antonym of wild type.
9. (a) Photoperiodism was first studied by Garner and
Allard in 1920.
(b) SDP (short day plants) or long night plants-
Chrysanthemum LDP (long day plants-spinach.
(c) Borthwick and Hendricks in 1952 reported
phytochrome pigment. Induction of flowering.
10. (a) Indian Rhinoceros are now in the list of endan-
gered species because its populations have
decreased or habitats have been reduced to the
levels that pose immediate danger of extinction.
(b) Acid rain refers to precipitation with a pH of less
than 5. It is, in fact, a mixture of H2SO4 and
HNO3.
(c) Somaclonal variations is a type of mutation
which is spontaneous in origin. The variations
observed among plants regenerated from tissue
culture is termed as somaclonal variation.
(d) Protoplasm fusion–PEG.
(e) Biopiracy–turmeric.
 11. (a) Habitat and Niche—Habitat means to dwell. It
is a specific place where a species or popula-
tion normally lives in nature, which is a physical
area, some particular part of earth’s surface,
air, soil or water. It includes both living and non-
living objects.
Niche—The word niche literally means a
specific place. However, the ecologists use it
for the habitat along with the role a species or
population plays in its ecosystem. In other
words, niche means the total interaction of a
species with its environment or its functional
position or status in an ecosystem. Xerophytic
vegetation is found in desert.
(b) Flora—All species of plants that are found in a
particular region, period, or special environment.
Six floral kingdoms are commonly distinguished
: Boreal (Holarctic), Paleotropical, Neotropical,
South African (Capensic), Australian and
Antarctic. These kingdoms are further broken
down into subkingdoms and regions, over which
there is some dispute.
Vegetation—Types of plant species found in
an area constitute the vegetation of the area. It
is also the process of growth in plants. An
abnormal growth or excrescence (especially a
warty excrescence on the valves of the heart) is
also known as vegetation.
12. (a) CFCs = 14%, CH 4 = 20%, N2 O = 6% and the
rest 60% are CO2.
N 2O 6%
CFC s 14%
20%
Methane
60%
Carbon dioxide
(b) Type of movement of twiner is thigmotropic
movement e.g., cucurbit plant. Certain flowers,
e.g., Tulip, show thermonasty by opening at
high temperature.
Support
More growth on
upper surface
Tendrill
Opening
Epinasty
Branch
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1657
13. (a) According to the given conditions and graph a
shows complete growth, b shows retarded
growth and c shows moderate growth.
(b) Vitamin i.e., Retinol.
(c) Hyper-concentration of retinol leads to hyper-
vitaminosis A which is characterised by anore-
xia, headache, irritability, hepatosplenomegaly,
dermatitis, bone pain, loss of hair in patch etc.
Overdoses of phyuridoxine can cause peri-
pheral neuropathy. Overdose of ascorbie acid is
less likely to cause any problem because it can
be rapidly cleared from the body.
14. (a) Earthworm is different from rest of animals
because earthworm is monoecious (or) herma-
phrodite while rest are dioecious.
(b) Scorpion and Honey bee carry poison to defend
themselves from the enemy. Scorpion belongs
to class–Arachnida of phylum–Arthropoda.
Honey bee belongs class Insecta of phylum–
Arthropoda.
(c) Bat and whale belong to class Mammalia. The
bats are the only mammals which have wings
and can really fly. Whale is the largest animal in
existence and is the inhabitants of the open
ocean, strandings and offshore sightings are
rare.
(d) Earthworm which is also known as Pheretima is
the representative of phylum–Annelida. Starfish
is found in rocky area floor which is carnivo-
rous, which possess greater power of regenera-
tion and shows autotomy represents the phylum
Echinodermata.
(e) Bat and whales which are the members of class
Mammalia, like human have 3 ear oscicles in
the order
Maleus → incus → stapes
↓ ↓ ↓
Hammer shaped anvil shaped stirrup shaped
3 ear oscicles are the characteristics of mam-
malia.
15. (a) In the graph (a) population remains stable that
means it will be statronary phase or plateau
phase, while in the graph (b) it will be the lag
phase or exponential phase when the population
will increase tremendously.
(b) Graph (a) shows the stable growth so the
resources available will be more like getting
jobs ultimately more professional job oppor-
tunity will be in the developed nation which will
force to migrate the population from developing
nation to the developed nation.
 16. 19. CHLOROPLAST
Dorsal root White
Afferent pathway ganglion
Muscle spindle matter O - RuBP PHOSPHOGLYCOLATE-PGA
(receptor)
ADP
Gray
matter ATP

Stimulus Interneuron GLYOXYLATE GLYCERATE

Motor endplate Efferent pathway
(effector) Motor
Response neuron

PEROXISOME

Fig. : Diagrammatic presentation of reflex action GLYOXYLATE

(showing knee jerk reflex) O2
(a) It is knee jerk reflex. NAD
(b) In case of knee jerk reflex tendon of patella is GLYOXYLATE
tapped. Patella is a lens-shaped sesamoid NADH2
bone situated in front of the knee.
(c) Gray matter is replaced by white matter. Effe- GLYCINE SERINE
rent Pathway should be afferent pathway and
afferent pathway should be efferent pathway
because afferent end transmits the impulse via
a dorsal nerve root in the CNS (at the level of MITOCHONDRIA
spinal cord) and the efferent neuron then carries
signals from CNS to the effector.
GLYCINE
17. (a) These two are the examples of vestigial organs O2
which were functional in ancestors but
CO 2
functionless in modern humans.
SERINE SERINE
(b) The organs which occur in reduced form and
are useless to the possessor, but are homo-
logous to the fully developed, functional organs Fig. : Photorespiratory Pathway
of related animals are called vestigial organs. ●●●
The existence of vestigial or useless organs is
UNT
satisfactorily explained by the doctrine of DISCO
organic evolution. These organs were fully With TS
GIF
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mitochondria respectively. Function of thylakoids
which is marked as (1) figure (a)—
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Matrix contains all the enzymes of Krebs cycle. The
matrix alongwith inner mitochondrial membrane
constitutes the respiratory unit.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1658

 In each of the following ques- is equal to the potential at a point 13. Assertion (A) : White phos-
tions, a statement of Assertion (A) on the surface of the conductor. phorus is always kept in kero-
is given and a corresponding state- (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) sene oil whereas metallic sodium
ment of Reason (R) is given just 7. Assertion (A) : If a convex lens can be kept in any anhydrous
below it. Of the statements, mark is kept in water, its converging medium.
the correct answer as— power decreases. Reason (R) : White phosphorus
(A) If both A and R are true Reason (R) : Focal length of reacts with atmospheric oxygen
and R is the correct expla- convex lens in water increases. while metallic sodium readily
nation of A (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) reacts with atmospheric mois-
(B) If both A and R are true 8. Assertion (A) : An inductance of ture.
but R is not the correct 1H is connected to a 200 V, 50 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
explanation of A cps supply to have a maximum
current of 0·9 A flowing through 14. Assertion (A) : Xenon trioxide on
(C) If A is true but R is false
the circuit. reacting with aqueous alkali gives
(D) If both A and R are false hydrogen xenate ion which slowly
(E) If A is false but R is true Reason (R) : In an inductive
E0 decomposes to give xenon and
circuit I0 = perxenate ion.
PHYSICS ωL
Reason (R) : Conversion of XeO3
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) to hydrogen xenate ion is oxida-
1. Assertion (A) : ‘Light Year’ and
‘Wavelength’ both measure dis- 9. Assertion (A) : A cricket player tion and conversion of hydrogen
tance. lowers his hands to catch a fall- xenate to perxenate is displace-
ing ball. ment reaction.
Reason (R) : Both have dimen-
sions of time. Reason (R) : The rate of change (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
of momentum of the ball is redu- 15. Assertion (A) : Addition of Br2 to
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
ced in the process.
butene-1 gives two optical iso-
2. Assertion (A) : Light waves are (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) mers.
electromagnetic in nature.
10. Assertion (A) : Heavy water is Reason (R) : The product of
Reason (R) : Polarisation of light preferred over ordinary water as addition of bromine to 1-butene
waves is possible. a moderator in reactors. contains one asymmetrical
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Reason (R) : Mass of the nucleus carbon atom.
3. Assertion (A) : If current is flow- of heavy water is nearly the same (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
ing through a machine of iron, as the mass of a neutron so that
the exchange of momentum is 16. Assertion (A) : Molecule,
eddy currents are produced. H
more.
Reason (R) : Change in mag- I Br
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
netic flux through an area H Br represents total eight
causes eddy currents.
CHEMISTRY CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) stereoisomers and all are opti-
4. Assertion (A) : Mercury is used 11. Assertion (A) : When carbondi- cally active.
in thermometers. oxide is continuously bubbled Reason (R) : Each molecule is
Reason (R) : Mercury is good through lime-water a precipitate the enantiomer of one of the other
conductor of electricity. is formed which dissolves in due seven structures.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) course. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Reason (R) : Lime water reacts
5. Assertion (A) : For depth of with CO2 to initially form 17. Assertion (A) : CH 3MgI should
camera, the aperture should be Ca(HCO3)2 which reacts with be prepared under strictly anhy-
reduced. excess of CO 2 to give CaCO3 in drous conditions.
Reason (R) : Smaller the aper- due course. Reason (R) : Grignard reagents
ture larger is its power. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) reacts very rapidly with water.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
12. Assertion (A) : A positive catalyst
6. Assertion (A) : The electric field always lowers the energy of acti- 18. Assertion (A) : The introduction
inside a charged spherical con- vation of a particular reaction. of acetyl group (CH 3CO–) in
ductor is zero. Reason (R) : A positive catalyst alcohols is known as acetylation
Reason (R) : Electric potential at does not affect the value of equi- reaction and when this reaction
all points inside a charged librium constant. is carried out with acid chloride,
spherical conductor is same and (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) pyridine is essentially required.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1659

 Reason (R) : Pyridine acts as a smooth muscle contraction or BOTANY
specific catalyst for acetylation of increase inflammation, causing
alcohols with acetyl chloride. pain and fever. 31. Assertion (A) : In tropical region
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) no any deciduous forest is repor-
ted.
19. Assertion (A) : On adding a few 24. Assertion (A) : Bacteria produce
disease by releasing their Reason (R) : The broad-leaved
drops of dilute hydrochloric acid trees do not lose their leaves in
to freshly precipitated ferric enzymes or toxins that damage
tissue. this region.
hydroxide, a red coloured colloi- (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
dal solution is obtained. Reason (R) : Enzymes and many
toxins are secreted only by living 32. Assertion (A) : The available
Reason (R) : A freshly prepared water to the plants, due to exces-
bacteria.
salt can be peptised by addition sive use of fertilizers, becomes
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
of a small amount of an electro- hypotonic in relation to cell sap.
lyte containing an ion common 25. Assertion (A) : Cataract results Reason (R) : The water mole-
with material to be dispersed. from reduced lens flexibility. cules, as a result, diffuse out of
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Reason (R) : Presbyopia results the cells due to endosmosis.
from reduced lens transparency. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
20. Assertion (A) : Kelvin scale of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 33. Assertion (A) : Sedimentation, a
temperature is called absolute process that has been going on
scale and it is also known as ther- 26. Assertion (A) : Retrovirus are
since the earth was formed, can-
modynamic temperature scale; DNA animal viruses that have a
not occur on land or in water-
while the celsius scale is relative. RNA stage. body.
Reason (R) : The DNA is called Reason (R) : Erosion of rocks
Reason (R) : Thermodynamic
cDNA because it is DNA copy of and weathering produce an
scale has its zero point repre-
viral genome in this case. accumulation of particles that
senting the lowest possible tem-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) vary in size and nature, and are
perature. In celsius scale zero called sediment.
point is the arbitrary creation. 27. Assertion (A) : Non-specific (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) defences decline as the skin
ages and external glandular acti- 34. Assertion (A) : Different chromo-
somes stain in different patterns.
ZOOLOGY vity decreases.
Reason (R) : Dark staining gene-
Reason (R) : The thymus, which tic material (heterochromatin) is
21. Assertion (A) : Alleles are diffe- is large during childhood shrinks more highly coiled than the
rent forms of the same gene, during adulthood reducing cell lighter-staining (euchromatin).
creating different phenotypic ver- mediated immunity and antibody (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
sions of a trait. mediated immunity. 35. Assertion (A) : Many globular
Reason (R) : Dominant alleles (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) proteins also undergo small con-
are expressed in the homozy- 28. Assertion (A) : Brain stem formational changes in the
gous or heterozygous condition, includes the area of the brain course of their biological func-
while recessive alleles are ex- between the thalamus and the tion.
pressed in the heterozygous spinal cord. Reason (R) : Such changes are
condition. Reason (R) : Hypothalamus associated with the binding of a
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) nestles at the base of the thala- ligand.
mus. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
22. Assertion (A) : In the human (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
body, changes in the pH of fluids 36. Assertion (A) : The genetic
29. Assertion (A) : The production material of a prokaryote is a
can be dangerous and life threat-
of a dilute urine requires reab- single circle of DNA.
ening. sorbing more water and less
Reason (R) : If the pH of blood Reason (R) : The site or part of
ions.
falls below 7·0 or rises above 7·8, prokaryotic cell where DNA is
Reason (R) : The production of a
nerves do not function properly located is termed as nucleosome
concentrated urine requires an
and a coma or convulsions may which is circular in shape.
osmotic gradient in the kidney
occurs. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
medulla.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 37. Assertion (A) : Notch when pre-
sent at the apex of the leaf
23. Assertion (A) : The penal gland 30. Assertion (A) : The driving force becomes deep and divides it into
in the brain secretes the hor- for passive absorption is non- two lobes is known as truncate
mone melatonin, which influen- metabolic in origin. apex.
ces the daily rhythms of sleep,
hunger and body temperature. Reason (R) : The driving force for Reason (R) : Syncarpous is the
active absorption needs energy, condition of free carpels in a
Reason (R) : The prostaglandins
derived from metabolic process. flower.
are a family of hormone like
substances that either increase (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1660

38. Assertion (A) : For usual course 39. Assertion (A) : Pteridophytes 40. Assertion (A) : Oils and fats are
of transpiration light is one of the and gymnosperms are placed trigylcerides of long chain of fatty
important external factors. under archegoniatae. acids.
Reason (R) : Because light Reason (R) : Because both of Reason (R) : Fatty acids contain-
induces opening of stomata and these plant groups have arche- ing one or more double bonds
the rate of transpiration increases gonia as female reproductive (C —— C) are said to be unsatu-
in presence of light. organ. rated.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

1. (C) Oxidation state of + 6 changes to + 8 and O and

2. (B) Light waves are transverse. Polarisation is the hence it is a disproportionation reaction.
characteristic of transverse waves only. 15. (A) Addition of bromine (Br2) to butene-1 or 1-butene
3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C) gives a product which contains one asymmetric
dV carbon atom as—
6. (A) E = – = 0 H H H H H H H H
dr
| | | | | | | |
7. (A)
H—C—C—C = C—H + Br2 → H— C—C—C*— C —H
E0 2E | | | | | |
8. (A) I0 = = H H H H Br Br
ωL 2πn L
* Shows asymmetrical carbon atom.
2E 1·414 × 200
⇒ L = = 16. (D) Molecule has two chiral centres and hence
2πn I0 2 × 3·14 × 50 × 0·1
total stereoisomers would be 2n 2 = 4.
282·8
= = 1H H H
282·6
I Br Br I
9. (A) H Br
←→ Br H
(Enantiomers)
10. (A) In a reactor the fast moving neutrons are slowed CH3 CH3
down by colliding them with the nuclei of a moderator.
We know that in head on elastic collision of two Diastereomers
bodies the exchange of momentum is maximum
H H
when the masses of the bodies are equal. The
I Br Br I
mass of heavy water nucleus is nearly the same ←→ (Enantiomers)
Br H H Br
as the mass of neutron. So exchange of momentum
between neutron and heavy water is maximum. CH3 CH3
Thus neutrons are slowed down more efficiently by 17. (A) CH 3MgI is a Grignard reagent and it reacts with
heavy water. water very rapidly as—
11. (C) First of all a precipitate of CaCO3 is formed which CH3MgI + HOH → CH3H(CH4) + Mg(OH)I
dissolves when excess of CO 2 is passed due to the Stronger Weaker acid
acid
formation of soluble calcium bicarbonate, Ca(HCO3)2.
18. (C) Acylation of alcohols with acetyl chloride is termed
12. (B) A positive catalyst always lowers the energy of as acetylation
activation (Ea) of a reaction by providing a different
R—OH + CH3COCl ROCOCH3 + HCl
reaction mechanism, i.e., reaction mechanism
changes in presence of catalyst. The reaction is reversible and, therefore, in order to
remove HCl, pyridine is used as base. It helps in
The equilibrium constant is not affected by a catalyst shifting the equilibrium to right hand side.
because it speeds up both forward and backward 19. (A) 20. (A)
reactions to the same extent. 21. (C) Dominant alleles are expressed in the homo-
13. (E) White P is soluble in organic solvents and hence zygous or heterozygous condition, while recessive
cannot be kept in kerosene oil, however it is kept in alleles are expressed in the homozygous condition.
water as it does not react with water at all. Sodium is 22. (A) 23. (B)
kept in kerosene but cannot be kept in all anhydrous 24. (C) Enzymes and toxins are secreted by living
solvents because it reacts with them’ as— bacteria as well as some toxins are also released
2C 2H5OH + 2Na → 2C2 H5ONa + H2 from the cell wall of dead bacteria.
14. (C) Reactions are as : 25. (D) Cataract results from reduced lens transparency,
while presbyopia results from reduced lens flexibility.
XeO3 + OH– → HXeO4–
26. (E) Retroviruses are RNA animal viruses that have a
Since oxidation state of Xe in both XeO3 and HXeO 4– DNA stage. The viral DNA remains in the host genome
is + 6 and hence it is not oxidation. and is replicated when host DNA is replicated.
HXeO 4– → XeO64– + Xe + O 2 (Continued on Page 1664 )

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1661

 Physics Chemistry
1. When a particle is in motion, its acceleration may be 16. Equal volumes of two gases which do not react toge-
in any direction. ther are enclosed in two separate vessels and their
—T/F pressures are 100 mm and 400 mm respectively. If
two vessels are joined together the pressure of mix-
2. Understanding boolean data types may require some
ture will be 500 mm.
extra thought. It may help to think of a boolean
variable as a switch. —T/F
—T/F 17. Complex [CO (NO2)3 (NH3)3] does not show geo-
3. The air resistance increases the time of rise as well metrical isomerism.
as the time of fall. —T/F
—T/F 18. The equivalent weight of copper in Cu2O is 63·6 while
4. Substance, which expand in volume on melting, have in CuO it is 31·8.
their melting points raised due to the application of —T/F
pressure. 19. Setting of the plaster of Paris is on account of pro-
—T/F cess of dehydration.
5. The work done can be zero even when the body has —T/F
accelerated motion. 20. In the solid state, the conduction of electricity in the
—T/F ionic compound is due to the presence of imperfac-
6. Ampere’s circuital theorem states that the line inte- tion in crystals.
gral of the magnetic induction around any closed path —T/F
containing the current is equal to the permeability
21. Benzene undergoes substitution reactions more
(free space) times the current enclosed by the path.
easily than addition reactions due to resonance.
—T/F
—T/F
7. The continuity equation A1V1 = A2V2 is valid only in
the steady state condition. 22. There is no difference between atomic mass and
mass number of an element.
—T/F
8. An emf can be induced between the two ends of a —T/F
straight copper wire when it is moved through a 23. The rate of substitution in phenol is faster than that in
uniform magnetic field. benzene.
—T/F —T/F
9. Displacement node is a pressure antinode. 24. The favourable conditions for the formation of ionic
—T/F solid are high ionization energy of metal atom, low
electron affinity of non-metal atom.
10. No net force acts on a rectangular coil carrying a
steady current when suspended freely in a uniform —T/F
magnetic field. 25. Mesotartaric acid is optically inactive due to the
—T/F presence of plane of symmetry.
11. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable at any junction or —T/F
node in the circuit. 26. The lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole
—T/F fraction of the solute in the solution.
12. Heating of water under atmospheric pressure is an —T/F
isothermal process. 27. The kinetic energy of a gas molecule becomes zero
—T/F at 0°C.
13. Magnetic field due to a straight wire varies in inverse —T/F
square proportion with distance. 28. The group C6H5CH2O— is called benzoyloxy.
—T/F —T/F
14. When a soap bubble is given an electric charge its 29. The equivalent weight of crystalline oxalic acid is
size increases. equal to 90/2.
—T/F —T/F
15. Only Balmer series of hydrogen atom lies in the visi- 30. Carbon-carbon bond in benzene is longer than
ble range. carbon-carbon bond in ethylene.
—T/F —T/F

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1662

 Zoology Botany
31. Epitope is antibody determinant. 46. When doing genetic problems, first decide on the
—T/F appropriate key and then determine the genotype
32. Nematodes are pseudocoelomates. and gametes for both parents.
—T/F —T/F
33. A conserved DNA sequence of 180 base pairs 47. Axillary buds are not served by strands of vascular
encodes a protein domain in many proteins. tissue.
—T/F —T/F
34. Enterogastrone inhibits the secretion of enterocrinin. 48. Plants growing on sandy-soil are called lithophytes.
—T/F —T/F
35. Planula is solid free-swimming ciliated larva of most 49. The growth of the vascular plants depends upon the
cnidaria and a few of the ctenophora. activity of meristems, which are, in sense, always
—T/F embryonic.
36. The coral glands of scorpion are homologous with the —T/F
green glands of crustaceans. 50. Dionea is commonly known as butterwort.
—T/F
—T/F
37. Intestinal micro-organisms are capable of synthesiz-
51. If phytoplanktons are killed in the pond, no effect will
ing considerable amounts of phylloquinone and
take place in food chain.
menaquinone vitamins.
—T/F —T/F
38. Peyer’s patches are aggregation of lymph nodes 52. Sieve tube bears multinuclei.
found chiefly in the ileum near the junction with the —T/F
colon. 53. Dendrochronology determines age of the tree by
—T/F radiocarbon dating.
39. Plasmagene is a gene contained in a self-replicating —T/F
cytoplasmic particle and inheritance of the characters 54. In old trees or wood plants transpiration occurs by
controlled by such genes is Mendelian. lenticels.
—T/F —T/F
40. The initiating hormones for the menstrual cycle arise 55. Conjugated proteins containing carbohydrates as
in the hypothalamus. prosthetic groups are termed glycoproteins.
—T/F —T/F
41. Perissodactyla is the order of mammals that contains 56. The closely related genus Anabaena differs from
odd-toed ungulates, such as horses and rhinoceros. Nostoc in that firm colony is formed.
—T/F —T/F
42. Spontaneous mutations in germ cells alter allele fre- 57. In hypogynous type of flowers all floral parts arise
quencies and reintroduce harmful alleles into popula- above the gynoecium.
tion. —T/F
—T/F 58. In C 4 plants, as opposed to C3 plants, the enzymes
43. Natural parabiosis occurs in Siamese twins. PEPCase fixes CO 2 to phosphoenol pyruvate to form
—T/F oxaloacetate.
44. Opsonin is a kind of antigen. —T/F
—T/F 59. Nucleolus is the chief site for the synthesis of DNA.
45. Gingiva is the gum tissue that surrounds the neck of —T/F
the teeth and covers the alveolar processes of the 60. The zygote, which is always haploid, contains hetero-
maxilla and mandible. logous chromosomes.
—T/F —T/F

ANSWERS WITH HINTS

1. (True) The direction of acceleration is the direction of 4. (True)

change in velocity and the velocity may change in 5. (True) Work done along a closed path is zero, when
any direction. only conservative forces are acting.
2. (True) →→
6. (True) It is symbolically stated as φ B dl = µ0i
3. (False) Air resistance decreases the time of rise as it
increases the decelerating rate. On the other hand, it 7. (True) 8. (True)
increases the time of fall because it decreases the 9. (True) Maximum pressure variation occurs at the dis-
accelerating rate. placement node.

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1663

10. (True) 11. (True) 50. (False) Dionea is commonly called ‘Venus fly trap’.
12. (False) It is an isobaric process. 51. (False) If phytoplanktons are killed in the pond, then it
13. (True) Bio-Savart law. will effect the food chain because they are chief pro-
14. (True) 15. (True) ducers of pond ecosystem.
16. (False) After mixing the volume is doubled, so the 52. (False) Sieve tube bears no any nucleus.
pressures are halved. Hence pressure after mixing = 53. (True) 54. (True) 55. (True)
50 + 200 = 250 mm. 56. (False) Anabaena differs from Nostoc in that no firm
17. (False) Complex [CO (NO2)3 (NH3)3] shows following colony is formed.
geometrical isomers 57. (False) In hypogynous type of flowers all floral parts
NH3 NH3 arise below the gynoecium.
NO2 NO2 58. (True)
NH2 NH3 59. (False) Nucleolus is the chief site for the synthesis of
CO ribosomal RNA.
CO
60. (False) The zygote, which is always diploid, contains
NO2 NH3 NO2 NO2 homologous chromosomes.
●●●
NO2 NH3
Facial-form Meridional-form (Continued from Page 1661 )
18. (True) 19. (False) 20. (True) 21. (True) 27. (A) 28. (B)
22. (False) The mass number is a whole number and 29. (E) The production of a dilute urine requires
atomic mass is a fractional number. Atomic masses reabsorbing more ions and less water.
are fractional due to isotopes which have different 30. (B)
masses. 31. (D) In tropical region, some forests are deciduous–the
23. (True) broad-leaved trees lose their leaves because of a dry
24. (False) Low ionization energy of metallic-atom and season.
high electron affinity of non-metallic atom favours the 32. (D) Available water to the plants becomes hypertonic
formation of ionic bond. in relation to cell sap of the plants due to excessive
25. (True) use of fertilizers. As a result, water molecules diffuse
26. (False) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is out of the cells due to exosmosis.
equal to the mole fraction of the solute in the solution. 33. (E) Sedimentation can occur on land or in bodies of
27. (False) All the molecular motions of a gas molecule water.
becomes zero at absolute zero temp., i.e., at – 273°C 34. (A) 35. (B)
or at 273 K. 36. (C) The part of eukaryotic cell where the DNA is
28. (False) The group C 6H5CH2O– is called benzyloxy. located is called nucleoid, which sometimes under
29. (False) Molecular weight of oxalic acid in crystalline microscope appears fibrous.
state (H2C2O4.2 H2O) is 126 and hence equivalent 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (A)
126 40. (B) Triglycerides may be solid or liquid at ordinary
weight is equal to = 63. room temperature and are termed as fats and oils
2
30. (True) respectively.
31. (False) Epitope is an antigenic determinant. ●●●
32. (True) 33. (True)
34. (False) Enterogastrone inhibits the secretion of HCl Just Released
Journalism
by gastric glands.
35. (True) 36. (True) 37. (True) 38. (True)
39. (False) Plasmagene is found in cytoplasmic particles
such as mitochondria, plastids and centrioles. Inheri- &
tance controlled by such genes is not Mendelian,
because appreciable amounts of cytoplasm are Mass Communication
passed only by the female gamete.
40. (True) 41. (True) 42. (True) 43. (True) By : Hena Naqvi
44. (False) Opsonin is a kind of antibody that is absorbed Code No. 1567 Rs. 130/-
on the surface of bacteria.
45. (True) 46. (True) This book is very useful
47. (False) Axillary buds are also served by strands of for any professional course
vascular tissue departing from the vascular system of based on Journalism and
the stem. Mass Communication.
48. (False) Plants growing on sandy-oil are called
Hindi Edition Code No. 1332 Rs. 90/-
psammophytes.
49. (True) UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-282 002

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1664

 Physics
Q. What is a periodic wave
function ?
☞ A wave function y (x, t) which
satisfies the periodicity conditions of
position and time is called a periodic
wave function, i.e.
(i) y (x + m λ; t ) = y (x, t )
(ii) y (x, t + nt) = y (x, t )
where λ = wavelength of wave, T =
period of the wave n and m are
integers.
Q. Heating system based on
circulation of steam are more effi-
cient in warming a building than
those based on circulation of hot
water. Explain why.
☞ Steam at 100°C possesses
more heat than the same mass of
water at 100°C. One gram of steam
at 100°C possesses 540 calories of
heat more than that possessed by 1
gm of water at 100°C. That is why
heating systems based on circulation
of steam are more efficient than those
based on circulation of hot water.
Q. What is the relation between
dielectric constant (K) and electric
χe ) ?
susceptibility (χ
☞ Relation between dielectric
constant K and electric susceptibility
χe is
K = 1 + χe.
Q. Why is electric power trans-
mitted through A.C. and not D.C. ?
☞ Transformer is a device which
can increase or decrease the A.C.
voltage. We know that we transmit
power at high voltages to reduce trans-
mission losses. Therefore, by using
step-up transformers, we increases
the voltage at generating station and
step-down the voltage to 230 V at the
distribution. No such equivalent device
of transformers is available in case of
D.C. Therefore, we transmit power
through AC and not D.C.
Q. What is the value of reduc-
tion factor K of tangent galvano-
meter ?
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1665
☞K =
2 Hr
µ0n
where H = Horizontal component of
earths magnetic field in
tesla.
r = Radius of circular coil
n = Number of turns in the
coil
Q. What is the function of grid
in a triode valve ?
☞ The grid eliminates space
charge and it controls the number of
electrons reaching the plate and
hence it is known as control grid.
Q. Explain why sun appears
red at sun rise or sun set.
☞ At sunrise or sunset, the sun is
near the horizon. Sunlight has to
travel much greater distance than at
noon. So, a much larger portion of the
blue component of sunlight gets
scattered away. Therefore, the light
reaching the observer has a larger
proportion of the remaining colours
specially red. Hence, the sun appears
red at sun rise or sun set.
Q. What does a welder protect
against when he wears a mask ?
☞ The mask has a filter which
absorbs the ultra-violet radiation pro-
duced by the welding arc. This radia-
tion is dangerous for the eyes.
Q. Does the relation V = i R
apply to non-ohmic resistors ?
☞ Relation V = i R applies to
non-ohmic resistors as well. For non-
ohmic resistors, ‘R’ is not constant. It
may noted that V = i R is not the
statement of Ohm’s law. It is merely
the definition of the resistance of a
conductor whether it obeys Ohm’s
law or not.
Q. Derive dimensional formula
for electrical resistance and electri-
cal conductance.
[V] [Work done]
☞ [R] = =
[I] [Charge] [I]
[ML2T– 2]
=
[AT] [A]
= [ML2T–3A–2]
Also R = ρ
L
Area
where ρ is resistivity
R × Area
ρ =
Length
1
Conductance =
Resistivity
Length
=
R × area
Therefore,
Conductance =
[Length]
[Resistance] [Area]
[L]
=
[ML2T–3A–2] [L 2]
= [M–1L–3T3A2]
Q. Why is it easier to start a
car engine on a warm day than on
a chilly day ?
☞ The internal resistance of a
car battery decreases with increase in
temperature. Hence more current is
drawn on a warm day and it becomes
easier to start the engine.
Q. Why electrolytes have lower
conductivity than metallic conduc-
tors ?
☞ This is because of the follow-
ing two reasons :
(i) The number of ions in elec-
trolyte is small compared to the
number of free electrons in metallic
conductors.
(ii) The mobility of ions in an
electrolyte is small compared to the
mobility of free electrons in a metallic
conductor.
Chemistry
Q. How are colloidal impurities
removed during water purification ?
☞ The neutralisation of surface
charge is used to precipitate colloidal
impurities in water purification. When
water is taken into municipal purifica-
tion plants, it contains dispersed
material such as colloidal clay. Clay
particles are negatively charged,
which keeps particles apart and dis-
persed in water. To precipitate clay,
aluminium salts such as Al2(SO4)3 are
added. An aqueous solution, Al3+ ions
are hydrolysed to give [Al (H2O)6] 3+ Q. What is the chemistry of
and other larger ions such as : usefulness of mortar ?
☞ Mortar consists of one part of
 OH
|  4+
lime to three parts of sand, with water
 O  added to make a thick paste. The
☞ Suppose an electron exists
inside the nucleus, then its uncertainty
in position will be of the same order as
the radius of the nucleus. The radius
of the nucleus is of the order of 10–13

 (H2O)4 Al Al (H 2O)4  very first reaction which occurs, is the

 O
 |
H 
hydrolysis or ‘slaking’ of the lime.
cm. Then the uncertainty in its velocity
h
 When mortar is placed between bricks
∆v =
4πm × ∆x
or stone blocks, it slowly absorbs CO 2
from air, and the slaked lime converts =
6·62 × 10– 27

These highly charged ions are
adsorbed onto the surface of the
negatively charged colloidal particles,
thereby neutralising the surface charge
and allowing the colloidal particles to
come together, and the clay precipi-
tates from solution.
Q. Why does sulphur (density
2·1 g cm 3), when carefully placed
on top of water, float while the
same sinks in water when a few
drops of detergent are placed on
water ?
☞ Surface tension of water is
affected by adding detergent. The high
surface tension of the water keeps
more dense sulphur float on the water
surface. When some drops of deter-
gent are placed on the surface of
water, the surface tension of water is
reduced and the sulphur sinks to the
bottom of the pot containing water.
Q. Why does even painstak-
ingly purified water conducts —C
electricity to a very small extent ?
☞ The existence of so-called
autoionization of water was proved
many years ago by Friedrich
Kohlrauch. He found that even after
water is painstakingly purified, it still
conducts electricity to a very small
extent, since autoionization produces
very low concentration of H3O + and
OH– ions even in the purest water.
2 H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OH–
Q. What biological function is
performed by mineral apatite (cal-
cium and phosphorus containing
mineral) ?
☞ Hydroxy-apatite, Ca (OH)2.3
Ca 3(PO4)2, is the main component of
tooth enamel. Cavities in our teeth
are formed when acids decompose
the weakly basic apatite coating. This
decay can be prevented by converting
hydroxy-apatite to much more acid-
resistant coating, fluorapatite, CaF2,
3 Ca3 (PO 4)2, by adding a source of
fluoride ion.
to calcium carbonate. 4 × 3·14 × 9·1 × 10 – 28 × 10–13
Ca(OH)2(s) + CO2(g) ≈ 5 × 1012 cm/sec
→ CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) The velocity of electron is greater than
the velocity of light when it is present
Although the sand in the mortar is
chemically inert, the grains are bound inside the nucleus. This condition is
impossible and hence electron cannot
together by the particles of CaCO 3
exist in nucleus.
and the hard material results.
Q. What will be the average life
Q. What is the thyroxine ?
of radium (Ra) if its t1/2 is 1690
☞ It is now known that the thyroid years ?
gland produces a growth regulating
☞ The reciprocal of radioactive
hormone, thyroxine which contains
decay constant, k is called the
iodine. Thyroxine has following struc-
average life of a radioactive subs-
ture :
tance.
I H 1
| | Average life (T) =
k
C— C
0·693
HO—C C—O We know that t 1/2 =
k
C— —C
| | 0·693
1690 years =
I H k
I H 0·693
| ∴ k =
| 1690
C——C Hence average life,
C—C H2CH(NH2) COOH. 1690
C——C T =
0·693
| |
I H = 2433·6 years
or the value of
Most of the table salt sold in the
1
market contains 0·01% NaI added to = 1·44
0·693
provide the necessary iodine in the
∴ T = 1·44 × t1/2
diet.
Q. Cryolite is found in only = 1·44 × 1690
small amounts in nature but large = 2433·6 years
amount of cryolite is needed in
(aq) production of Al. How is demand
Q. What is the basic difference
between a sol and gel ?
met with ?
☞ Most of the hydrogen fluoride ☞ A colloidal solution in which
(HF) produced by the reaction of dispersion medium is liquid and dis-
fluorspar (CaF 2) and H 2SO4, is used persed phase is solid, then such a
to make cryolite. system is called sol. For example gold
sol and sulphur sol.
CaF2(s) + H2SO4
When the dispersion medium is
→ CaSO 4(s) + 2HF(g) solid and dispersed phase is liquid
6 HF(aq) + Al(OH)3(s) + 3 NaOH
then the colloidal system is called gel.
→ Na 3AlF6(s) + 6 H2O(l) For example, boot polish, butter,
Cryolite gellies etc.
Q. Why cannot an electron Q. What would be the vapour
exist inside the nucleus of an density (VD) of PCl5 if it is 90%
atom ? dissociated at 250°°C ?

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1666

 ☞ As PCl5 is 90% dissociated at
250°C and hence the degree of disso-
ciation (α) of PCl5 will be 90/100 = 0·9.
The molecular mass of PCl5 is 180·5
and hence the theoretical V.D. of PCl5
will be 104·25.
We know that
DT – Do
α =
Do
(Do observed V.D. of PCl 5)
104·25 – Do
Hence 0·9 =
Do
104·25
∴ Do = ≈ 54·8
1·9
Hence, the vapour density of PCl 5
at 250°C will be 54·8.
Q. What is the relation between
equivalent mass and electroche-
mical equivalent of a substance ?
☞ The equivalent mass of a
substance is the mass of substance
deposited by passage of one mole of
electrons or one Faraday (96,500 C)
of electricity.
The mass of substance deposited
by one coulomb is called electro-
chemical equivalent. Hence equivalent
mass
= 96,500 × electrochemical
equivalent
Q. What will be the % composi-
tion of a mixture of CO and CO 2
which on passing over red hot coke
registered a 25% increase in its
volume ?
☞ We are aware of the following
facts :
CO2 + C → 2 CO
and CO + C → No reaction
Suppose the gaseous mixture
contains x ml of CO2 and (100 – x ) ml
of CO gas.
From equation we can conclude
that x ml CO2 produces 2x ml CO gas
after passing on red hot coke.
Hence, the total volume of CO
after reaction can be expressed as
100 – x + 2x = (100 + x ) ml
Given volume is increased by
25% and hence the final volume is
125 ml. Hence
100 + x = 125 ml
x = 25 ml
Thus, the mixture contains 25%
CO2 and 75% CO gases.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1667
Q. Using diazomethane as one
of the reagents, how is acetic acid
converted into propanoic acid ?
What is this synthesis known as ?
☞ The acid chloride of acetic acid
on reacting with diazomethane, an
intermediate, diazoketone is formed.
Diazoketone on losing nitrogen gives
a ketene. When ketene is passed into
water propanoic acid is formed.
5 PCl
CH3COOH → CH3COCl
Acetic acid
O
CH 2N2 ||
→ CH3—C—CH—N ≡ N
Diazoketone
O or repeated inbreeding) it is often
||
CH3—C—CH—N ≡ N
→ CH3CH = C = O
– N2
Ketene
H 2O
→ CH3CH2COOH
Propanoic acid
This reaction is known as Arnt
Eistert synthesis.
Zoology
Q. What is Trophic Level ?
☞ Trophic level is theoretical
term in ecology. One of a succession
of steps in the transfer of matter and
energy through a community, as may
be brought about by such events as
grazing, predation, parasitism, decom-
position. For theoretical and heuristic
purposes, organisms are often treated
as occupying the same trophic level
when the matter and energy they
contain have passed through the same
number of steps since their fixation in
photosynthesis. Primary producers,
herbivores, primary, secondary and
tertiary carnivores and decomposers
all commonly figure as trophic levels
in the analysis of ecosystems. Different
developmental stages and/or sexes
within a species may occur in more
than one trophic level. The number of
trophic levels in a community is
thought to be limited by inefficiency in
energy flow from one trophic level to
the next; however, food chains are no
longer in tropical communities, where
energy input is high, than they are in
Arctic communities, where energy
input is low.
Q. What is Variation ?
☞ Variation is phenotypic and/or
genotypic differences between indi-
viduals of a population. Continuous
(qualitative) characters are those
exemplified throughout the phenotypic
range, tending to be determined by
polygenes. Discontinuous (quanti-
tative) characters are those unrepre-
sented in all parts of the phenotypic
range tending to be polymorphic,
determined by genetic ‘switch-
mechanisms’. Controversy over the
relative influence of heredity and
environment in producing phenotypic
differences fuels the Nature—Nature
debate. Problems arise in obtaining
acceptable control populations to test
hypothesis. By starting with geneti-
cally uniform material (e.g., by cloning
possible to compare phenotypes pro-
duced under different environmental
regimes and to estimate heritability.
Q. What is Brain stem ?
☞ Brain stem is the stem like part
of the brain that connects cerebral
hemispheres with the spinal cord and
comprises the medulla oblongata, the
pons and the midbrain. Thus, the
medulla oblongata, the pons and the
midbrain lie in a portion of the brain
known as the brain stem. The medulla
oblongata lies between the spinal
cord and the pons and is anterior to
the midbrain. It contains a number of
vital centres for regulating heartbeat,
breathing and vasoconstriction. It
also contains the reflex centres for
vomiting, coughing, sneezing, hiccups
and swallowing. The pons contains
bundles of axons travelling between
the cerebellum and the rest of the
central nervous system. In addition,
the pons functions with the medulla to
regulate the breathing rate and has
reflex centres concerned with head
movements in response to visual and
auditory stimuli. Aside from acting as
a relay station for tracts passing bet-
ween the cerebrum and the spinal
cord or cerebellum, the midbrain has
reflex centres for visual, auditory and
tactile responses.
Q. What are good and bad
cholesterols ?
☞ In human blood, cholesterol is
carried by special proteins, the lipo-
proteins, which are manufactured in
the liver. Two classes of these choles-
terol containing lipoproteins are signi-
ficant for the heart and blood vessels.
Low density lipoproteins (LDL) contain
triglyceride and cholesterol. If cells are
in need of cholesterol for plasma
membranes or steroid hormone syn-
thesis, they take up LDL. If this pro-
cess does not occur, the LDL loaded
with cholesterol remain in the plasma
and deposition of cholesterol as
plagues becomes possible. High den-
sity lipoproteins (HDL) are the second
group of lipoproteins. HDL picks up
cholesterol from cells and transports
it to the liver for disposal. The liver
releases the excess cholesterol with
the bile into the small intestine. It has
been found that the higher HDL levels
are associated with a fewer risk of
developing atherosclerosis, while high
LDL levels are associated with a
higher risk. That is why HDL has been
called ‘good’ cholesterol and LDL
‘bad’ cholesterol. LDL levels below
130 milligram per decilitre and HDL
levels above 40 mg/dl are considered
desirable.
Botany
Q. What do you mean by trace
fossils ?
☞ Trace fossils are tracks, traits
and burrows made by animals and
found in ancient Sediments such as
Sandstones, Shales or limestones.
Very different biological activities of
animals produce these biological
structures. Study of trace fossils is
known as ichnology or palichnology
and is a part of the Science of
Palaeontology.
In the early years of Palaeon-
tology, most of the ramified burrows
creeping trails or other trace fossils
were considered to be remains of
marine algae. This is proven by many
names ending ‘Phycus’ given to trace
fossils. Generally palaeontology use
for trace fossils the same bionomial
nomenclature, with Latin names, as in
naming animals and plants scien-
tifically.
Q. What are fimbrie (pili) in
certain bacteria ?
☞ Many gram negative bacteria
have minute, hair like, straight and
non-flagellar appendages called
fimbrie or pili. They are given off from
the cell surface and thinner than
flagellum. Pili are composed entirely
of protein known as Pilin. Their func-
tion is attachment of bacteria to any
plant or animal. During bacterial con-
jugation, one or two sex pili from the
male cells form bridges to the female
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1668
cell. The genetic material (DNA) is
transferred form male bacterium to
female bacterium along the groove of
pili.
Fig. : Bacterial cell showing the
distribution of pili.
Q. What do you mean by
essential oil ?
☞ The essential oils are odori-
ferous, oily products of plant origin
which are distillable. They occur in
leaves, twig, fruit, blossoms, root and
trunk of plants. The principal cons-
tituents of essential oils are the
terpenes. Benzenoid and aliphatic
compounds may also be present.
Most of the constituents are hydro-
carbons and oxygenated derivatives
of hydrocarbons. A few contain sul-
phur and nitrogen. For example, oil of
mustard contains organic isothio-
cyanate; garlic and onion oils contain
organic sulphides. Anthranilates,
indole and skatole sometimes occur
in small amounts. Most essential oils
are exceedingly complex mixtures of
non-terpene and terpene ingredients.
Q. What do you mean by rusts
and smuts fungi ?
☞ Rusts and smuts are club
fungi. They parasitize cereal crops
such as rye, wheat, corn and oat.
Rusts and smuts do not form basi-
diocarps and their spores are small
and numerous, resembling shoot.
Some smuts enter seeds and exist
inside the plant, becoming visible only
near maturity. Some other smuts
externally infect plants. In corn smuts,
the mycelium grows between the corn
kernels and secretes substances that
cause the development of tumours on
the ears of corn.
The life cycle of rusts often
requires two different plant host
species to complete the cycle. Black
stem rust of wheat uses barberry
plant leaves as an alternate host and
blister rust of white pine uses
current and gooseberry bushes. The
black rust of wheat is caused by
Puccinia graminis-tritici, which is a
heteroecious parasite.
Q. What are histones ? Give the
molecular weight of H3 and H 4
histones. In which type of histone
the largest amount of arginine is
found ?
☞ The DNA in the chromatin is
very highly associated with proteins
called histones, which package and
order the DNA into structural units
called nucleosomes. Histones have
molecular weight of between 11,000
and 21,000 and are very rich in the
basic amino acids arginine and lysine.
The H3 histones are nearly iden-
tical in amino acid sequence in all
eukaryotes, as are the H4 histones,
suggesting strict conservation of their
functions. Histone H4 bears the largest
amount of argine (about 14%).
Q. What is cytochrome and its
application ?
☞ Cytochrome is a complex
protein occurring within cells of a wide
variety of animals and plants. The
integral part of a cytochrome is a
heme (iron tetrapyrrole) moiety. The
heme imparts generally red colour to
the cytochrome, as well as charac-
teristic absorption bands which are
used for the spectroscopic observa-
tion and identification of these intra-
cellular hemoproteins. The iron atom
of the heme may be reduced and
oxidized by appropriate substances in
the cell, thus constituting the function
of the cytochrome as electron carriers.
Q. What does a cell face chal-
lenges while it undergoes a great
increase in size ?
☞ Under such conditions, many
portion of the cell may well suffer
deprivation of vital fuel materials or
the essential molecules as a result of
enlargement. The cell must exchange
materials with the environment across
the surface membrane. An increase
cell size will result in a greater
increase in volume and mass than in
surface area, so that the cell wall lose
effective exchange capacity. This will
impose restriction on the amount of
food and oxygen that can move
across the membrane to service the
metabolic needs of the increased
living mass in the interior. The distri-
bution of materials by diffusion will
also take longer as the cell grows
larger.
●●●
 CSV Crossword–20
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 13. Not ‘analog’, but ‘………’ (7).
15. We select an infinitesimal ……… before performing
the integration (7).
8 9 16. Rank and ……… are important ideas in linear vector
spaces (7).
19. Prefix for 100 (5).
10 11 13
21. Delay (3).
Note : Its solution will be published in the next issue.
13 14 15 16
CSV Crossword–19
ANSWERS
17 18 19
Across : (1) KAON (3) COULOMBS (9) LATTICE
(10) MORSE (11) MOLAR (12) ION (13) ON (15)
LAURENT SERIES (18) BALMER (20) EARTH (23) CHI
20 21 22
(24) ACETATE (25) DIMINISH (26) BTUS
23
D o w n : ( 1 ) KILOMOLE (2) OCTAL (4) OPEN
24 INTERVALS (5) LUMEN (6) MARCONI (7) SKEW (8)
PIERRE (14) ISOHYETS (16) URANIUM (17) ELEVEN
Across : (19) M BORN (21) REACT (22) ACID.
1. A long thin solenoid turned into a ring (6). 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
K A O N C O U L O M B S
4. A mathematical entity, an array (6). 8
8. Unit of 1/(Capacitance) (5). I C P P U A K
9 10
9. Geiger and ……… bombarded thin gold foils with L A T T I C E M O R S E
Alpha particles, on suggestions of Ernest Rutherford
O A E N E C W
(7).
11 12 13
10. His mass spectrograph was very important (5). M O L A R I O N O N
11. Essentially oxygen, molecular weight = 48 (5). 14
O R N N I
14. A supplementary unit (9). 15 16 17
17. Excess pressure above the atmosphere is known as L A U R E N T S E R I E S
the ……… pressure (5). E R E L O
18. A type of diffraction grating, where very high orders of 18 19 20 21
diffraction are observed (7). B A L M E R E A R T H
22
20. Methyl radical attached to benzene ring (7). A N B V V E Y
22. An alkali halide of the most electro positive element 23 24
C H I O A C E T A T E
(Formula) (3).
23. Something supreme : the rational basis of human I U R L N C T
activity and conduct (3). 25 26
D I M I N I S H B T U S
24. According to the Aristotlean view of nature, all mate-
rial objects fall down. The ………--……… falls slower ●●●
(7, 4).
Down : New
1. A cheap Indian liquor derived from palm trees (5). Release
2. What a student does, when he does not understand a
topic in the first reading. He ………… it (7). WIT
3. In ‘Field Effect Transistors’, in contrast to ‘MOS’ type,
the other type is the ………… (Acronym) (5).
AND
5. From cause to effect, from a general law to a HUMOUR
By : Radharaman Agarwal
particular instance (7). Code No. 1523 Rs. 30/-
6. A wireless tuned receiver (5). Published by :
9. A hard–brittle, grayish–white, element metal, used UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2
chiefly in alloying steel for strength (9). E-mail : info@upkarprakashan.com
Website : www.upkarprakashan.com
12. Gases generally cool during ……… (9).

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1669

01. Two identical steel wires are
under tension and are in unison.
When the tension in one of the
wires is increased by 1 per cent,
4 beats/second are heard. Find
the original frequency of wires—
(A) 512 Hz (B) 256 Hz
(C) 800 Hz (D) 400 Hz
02. A body executing linear simple
harmonic motion has a velocity of
0·03 ms–1. When its displacement
is 0·04 m and a velocity of 0·04
ms–1 when its displacement is
0·03 m. If the mass of the body is
50 × 10–3 kg, calculate the total
energy of oscillation—
(A) 6·25 × 10–4 J
(B) 6·25 × 10–3 J
(C) 6·25 × 10–5 J
(D) 6·25 × 10–2 J
03. A brass boiler has a base area of
0·15 m2 and thickness 1·0 cm. It
boils water at the rate of 6·0 kg/
min when placed on a gas stove.
Estimate the temperature of the
part of the flame in contact with
the boiler. Thermal conductivity
of brass = 109 J s–1 m–1 °C–1—
(Heat of vaporisation of water
= 2256 × 10 3 J kg–1)
(A) 327·98°C (B) 237·98°C
(C) 400°C (D) 373·98°C
04. Calculate the heat produced
between C and D in the circuit
shown in the figure—
10Ω 20Ω 25Ω
A to the Protista about—
B C
15Ω
(A) 4 J (B) 8 J
(C) 25 J (D) None of these
05. 310 J of heat is required to raise
the temperature of 2 moles of an
ideal gas at constant pressure
from 25°C to 35°C. The amount
of heat required to raise the tem-
perature of the gas through the
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1670
same range of temperature at 13. Plasmodium vivax causes
constant volume is— malaria in which the paroxyms
(A) 384 J (B) 144 J recur every—
(C) 276 J (D) 452 J (A) 8 hours (B) 48 hours
(C) 12 hours (D) 24 hours
06. Aldehydes that have no α-hydro-
gen atoms— 14. The immune system of vertebrate
(A) Undergo the Cannizzaro animals protects them from
reaction invasion by—
(B) Do not undergo the Canni- (A) Pathogenic microorganisms
zzaro reaction (B) Foreign substances
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Do not undergo any type of (D) None of the above
reaction 15. The class of antibody is deter-
07. Who among the following first mined by—
measured the charge/mass ratio (A) Its heavy chain constant
(e/m) of the electron shortly after region
1900 ? (B) Its light chain constant region
(A) Bohr (B) Schrodinger (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Thomson (D) Millikan (D) B lymphocytes
08. Valence electrons not used in 16. Recombination of genes on the
bond formation are called— same chromosome is accom-
(A) Unshared electrons only plished by—
(B) Lone pair electrons only (A) Hybridization
(C) Unshared or lone pair elec- (B) Crossing-over
trons (C) Mitosis
(D) None of the above (D) Self-pollination
09. ‘VSEPR’ stands for— 17. Which of the following is a total
(A) Valence Spin Electron Pair stem parasite ?
Repulsion (A) Twiner dodder
(B) Variable Shell Electron Pair
(B) Orobanche
Repulsion
(C) Monotropa
(C) Valence Shell Electron Pair
Repulsion (D) Sarcodes
(D) Variable Sigma Energy Pro- 18. A very common example of root
duction Rate stock is found in—
10. The pentaphenyl phosphorus is— (A) Guava (B) Mango
(A) Ph3P (B) PH 5P (C) Jack fruit (D) Banana
(C) Ph5P (D) Ph.P 5
19. Distichous phyllotaxy is/are found
11. The kingdom Monera gave rise in—
D (A) Cynodon
(A) 3·5 billion years ago
(B) Rice
(B) 2·5 billion years ago
(C) 1·5 billion years ago (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) 2 million years ago (D) None of the above
12. Members of the phylum micro- 20. Leaf base is also known as—
(A) Epipodium
spora are commonly called—
(A) Microsporidia (B) Mesopodium
(B) Microzooflagellata (C) Hypopodium
(C) Macrosporidia (D) Phyllopodium
(D) None of the above ●●●
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3. Answers given only on the form of the magazine will Solution to Quiz No. 117
be admissible.
4. In the form there are four squares against each Competition Science Vision
question number. Contestants should put a cross (×)
in the square for the answer they think is correct. Last date for sending 28th February, 2008
Giving more than one answer to a question will
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 According to the rules of the CSV 2. (B) When the particle is dropped Total resistance in circuit
Quiz, all entry forms were examined. from a height h and spring is 100R
= r + RA +
As a result, the following participants compressed by x, then loss in 100 + R
have qualified for various prizes. CSV potential energy of the particle 4 100R
= 2+ +
sends them greetings and good = mg (h + x) 3 100 + R
wishes for their bright future. It also 10 100R
= +
places on record its appreciation for h 3 100 + R
their inquisitive nature and expresses 1000 + 310R
a =
obligation for their co-operation. 3 (100 + R)
V
PRIZE WINNERS
First Prize k
100 Ω
Ram Krishna Mishra
S/o Shiv Narayan Mishra A RA = 4 Ω
The gain in the elastic potential 3
Behind 33/11 K.V. Hydel Colony,
energy of the spring
Vivekanand Nagar, Sultanpur
1 2
U.P.–228 001 = kx
2
E = 1·4V
Second Prize 1 2 r =2Ω
∴ mg (h + x) = kx
Rahul Kumar Singh 2
Current circuit
S/o Shobha Sinha 1
0·1 × g (0·24 + 0·01) = k (0·01)2 1·4
2 i = 0·02 =
Noorani Bagh Colony, 5A 1000 + 310 R
…(i) 3 (100 + R)
P.O.–Gulzarbagh, Patna
Similarly in the second case Solving R = 200 Ω
Bihar–800 007
1 (ii) The equivalent resistance of
Third Prize 0·1 × g (h ′ + 0·04) = k (0·04)2
2 the voltmeter and 100Ω resis-
Vijay Kumar …(ii) tance is given by
New Medicare Dividing (ii) by (i) 200 × 100
L. B. Palace Req =
Kadam Kuan, Patna
Bihar–800 003
h ′ + 0·04
0·24 + 0·01
= ( )
0·04
0·01
2

=
200 + 100
200
3
Ω
⇒ h′ = 3·96 m ∴ p.d. across the voltmeter
ANSWERS WITH HINTS 3. (D) Length of the fish = 6 cm = i × Req
1. (C) Let m be the instantaneous Real depth of the fish’s head 200
= 0·02 × = 1·33V
mass of the ascending rocket plus = 18 cm 3
fuel and v r the relative velocity of ∴ Error in voltmeter reading
aµw = 4/3 = 1·33 – 1·10 = 0·23V
the gas ejecting from the rocket.
Suppose the fuel is burnt at the ∴ Apparent depth of fish’s head 5. (D) The energy in the nth state of
rate ∆m/∆t to provide the rocket 18 a hydrogen like atom of atomic
= = 13·5 cm number Z is given by
an acceleration α. Then, 4/3
13·6
Also real depth of fish’s tail En = – Z2 2 …(i)
v r  ∆m n
m – g
α = = 18 + 6 = 24 cm The first excited state, n = 2 and
 ∆t 
∴Apparent depth of fish’s tail energy is given by
Here, v r = 250 ms –1, 13·6
24 E2 = – Z2. 2 …(ii)
m = 500 kg, = = 18 cm (2)
4/3
Since the excited atom can make
g = 10 ms –2, Hence, the length of the fish a transition to the first excited
α = 20 ms –2 = 18 – 13·5 = 4·5 cm state by successively emitting
∆m m 4. (C) (i) Let R be the resistance of two photons of energies 10·20 eV
= (α + g) the voltmeter. The voltmeter is and 17·00 eV, the energy diffe-
∆t vr
connected to 100 Ω resistance in rence between these two states
500 parallel. Hence, their equivalent will be
= (20 + 10)
250 100R En – E2 = 10·20 + 17·00
resistance is .
= 60 kg s–1 100 + R = 27·20 eV …(iii)

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1673

 From equations (i), (ii) and (iii) 6. (A) l = 20 cm = 0·2 m, (Continued from Page 1582 )
v = 340 ms –1
– 13·6Z 2 (
1 1
–
n2 2 2 ) = 27·20
n =
v
=
340
4l 4 × 0·2
= 425 Hz
(B) Ionic bond is very strong
bond being of electrostatic
nature but ionic solids are
– Z2 (
1 1
–
n2 2 2 ) =
27·20
13·6
Since it is equal to the given fre-
quency, therefore, the first har-
non-directional because the
filled shells of the ions are
= 2·00 …(iv) monic mode will be excited.
spherically symmetric.
Similarly for transition to the Frequency of open organ pipe
v 340 (C) Ionic solids have high melt-
second excited state (n = 3) from n = = = 850 Hz ing point because large
the same excited state, we have 2l 2 × 0·2
energy (k T) is required to
So the same source will not be in
– Z2 ( 1 1
–
n2 32 )=
4·25 + 5·95
13·6 resonance with the pipe if its
both ends are open.
break bonds.
(D) Ionic solids are transparent
= 0·75 …(v) v 330 to visible light because elec-
Subtracting (v) from (iv), we get 7. (D) n = = tron excitation in ions require
2l 2 × 0·66
Z2 ( )
1 1
–
4 9
= 2·0 – 0·75 = 250 Hz
1 T
energy much higher than
visible-photon energy which,
therefore, pass right through.
⇒ Z = 3 Now, 250 =
2 × 0·2 0·01 46. (B) In scattering
Putting Z = 3 in eq. (iv), we get
⇒ T = (250 × 2 × 0·2)2 1
– 32 ( )
1 1
n2 4
– = 2 × 0·01 N
100
n ∝
sin 4 (θ/2)
= 100 N = kg-wt where θ is angle of scattering
⇒ n = 6 9·8
6. (D) All measurements contain n2 sin 4 (θ1/2)
= 10·2 kg-wt ∴ =
atleast three elements—a num- n1 sin 4 (θ2/2)
ber that indicates the size of 1 T
8. (C) n = sin 4 (45°)
quantity being measured, units 2l m
=
that provide a basis for comparing sin 4 (30°)
this quantity with a standard
reference, and some uncertainty n+
3
=
1 ( T+
1
100 )
T
( )
1 4
2
or error. 2 2l m = = 4
7.
9.
(A) 8. (D)
(C) Lipowitz’ alloy is a fusible
alloy consisting of 50% bismuth,
Dividing,
n + 1·5 101
()
1 4
2
= ⇒ n2 = 4 × n1
27% lead, 13% tin and 10% n 100
cadmium. = 1·01 = 1·005 = 4 × 56 = 224
10. (A) 1·5 47. (C)
11. (A) All viruses have atleast two 1+ = 1·005
n 48. (B) C = C1 = C2 = 4πε0r
parts—an outer capsid composed 1·5 4 4
of protein subunits and an inner = 0·005 πR3 = 2 × πr 3
n 3 3
core of nucleic acid, either DNA 1·5
or RNA but not both. n = = 300 Hz ⇒ R = 21/3 × r
0·005
12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) For bigger drop
9. (A) A is in unison with a small
15. (D) If father is Rh+ and mother is length of the wire as compared to C′ = 4πε0R = 21/3 C
Rh –, a baby born to this couple is B. Hence, A has higher frequency Total charge
likely to suffer from hemolytic V =
as compared to B. Total capacity
disease. nA lB
16. (D) = 4πε0r (100 + 100)
nB lA =
17. (C) Polymer is a macromolecule 21/3 . 4πε0r
consisting of covalently bonded Let n be the frequency of A. Then
n 0·97 97 = 200 × 2–1/3
monomers, for example, a protein = =
is a polymer of monomers called n–4 0·96 96 = 100 × 22/3 volt
amino acids. ⇒ n = 388 Hz 49. (C) The capacitor will be charged
18. (A) During oxidative phosphory- 10. (A) nA – nB = 8, upto the peak value of the
lation ten NADH molecules and nA 2 × 32·5 65 applied voltage, i.e., 2 × 200
two FADH2 molecules take elec- = = volt.
nB 4 × 16 64
trons to the electron transport 50. (A) For a satellite
system. 65
nA = n
19. (D) 20. (B) 64 B (Re + h)3
65 T = 2π
●●● ∴ n – nB = 8 g R e2
64 B
(Continued from Page 1565 ) This shows greater is the dis-
⇒ nB = 512 Hz
tance of the satellite above the
v = nλ ∴ nA = 512 + 8 earth’s surface, greater is its
= 2·53 × 103 × 2 = 520 Hz period of revolution.
= 5·06 km/s ●●● ●●●

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1674

1. The ‘Miss Earth-Air Title at the
Miss Earth pageant in Philippines
has been won by—
(A) Jessica Nicole Trisko
(B) Silvana Santaella Arellano
(C) Pooja Chitgopekar
(D) Angela Gomez
2. As per the World’s Economic
Forum’s report, 2007 Gender
Gap Index has been topped by—
(A) Norway (B) Finland
(C) Sweden (D) New Zealand
3. ‘Chang’e-1’ is—
(A) A spacecraft launched by
Japan
(B) China’s first lunar probe
(C) An artificial satellite laun-
ched by Russia
(D) None of these
4. The 2006 Indira Gandhi Award
for National Integration has
been given to—
(A) Ram Puniyani and J. S.
Bandukwalla
(B) Javed Akhtar
(C) Shyam Benegal
(D) Acharya Mahaprajna
5. The caretaker Prime Minister of
Pakistan is—
(A) Mohammedmian Soomro
(B) Benazir Bhutto
(C) Sahbaz Sharif
(D) Nawaz Sharif
6. The Chairman of the 13th
Finance Commission is—
(A) Indira Rajaraman
(B) Vijay L. Kelkar
(C) Atul Sharma
(D) Abusaleh Shariff
7. The 4th International Confe-
rence on Federalism was hosted
by—
(A) Canada (B) Switzerland
(C) Belgium (D) India
8. As per the study of World’s
Power Stations, which among
the following countries has been
found to be the world’s worst
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1676
polluter in terms of carbon 15. As per the World Bank study, the
dioxide emission ? rank of India in global trade
(A) China (B) India Logistics Performance Index
(C) U.S. (D) Australia is—
(A) 2nd (B) 1st
9. ‘Skynet 5-B’ is a new military
(C) 39th (D) 14th
communication satellite launched
by— 16. Which among the following
(A) China (B) Britain books has been written by M.S.
Swaminathan ?
(C) India (D) Russia
(A) Freedom on Trial
10. Which among the following (B) Agriculture cannot wait :
nations would host 2014 Football New Horizons in Indian Agri-
World Cup ? culture
(A) South Africa (C) Agriculture Technology
(B) Brazil (D) Conserving Agriculture
(C) Germany 17. Who among the following won
(D) South Korea and Japan the WTA Championship Title ?
(A) Maria Sharapova
11. The theme of the 13th ASEAN
Summit was— (B) Justine Henin
(C) Ana Ivanovic
(A) One caring and sharing
(D) Sunita Williams
community
(B) One vision, one identity, one 18. As per the Forbes’ India’s 40
community Richest list for 2007, the richest
Indian is—
(C) Advancing a secure and
(A) L. N. Mittal
dynamic ASEAN family
(B) Mukesh Ambani
through greater solidarity,
economic integration and (C) Anil Ambani
(D) Kushal Pal Singh
social progress
(D) One ASEAN at the Heart of 19. Chandrayaan-2 project was
Dynamic Asia signed on November 12, 2007
between which among the
12. The 2007 Durand Cup has been following nations ?
won by— (A) India and Russia
(A) Churchill brothers (B) India and China
(B) Central Railways (C) India and Japan
(C) Mahindra United (D) India and USA
(D) Air India 20. Which among the following state-
ments regarding the supercom-
13. Which among the following
puter ‘EKA’ is incorrect ?
States has received the Telecom
(A) It has been developed by
Excellence Award, 2007 ?
IBM systems
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) It has been named as Asia’s
(B) Kerala fastest supercomputer
(C) Haryana (C) It is world’s fourth fastest
(D) Uttar Pradesh supercomputer
14. Vigilance Awareness Week (D) None of these
was from— 21. ‘Abuja Declaration’ has been
(A) November 12-16 signed between which among
(B) November 14-18 the following nations ?
(C) November 1-7 (A) India and Nigeria
(D) November 7-14 (B) India and Sri Lanka
 (C) India and Nepal
(D) India and China
22. UN General Assembly has launched year 2008 as—
(A) International Year of Rice
(B) International Year of Potato
(C) International Year of Water
(D) None of these
23. Who among the following is the new member of the
Asia-Pacific partnership on clean development
and climate ?
(A) Canada (B) China
(C) Japan (D) India
24. Which among the following countries would host the
3rd IBSA Summit in 2008 ?
(A) South Africa (B) Brazil
(C) India (D) None of these
25. Which among the following players has recently taken
retirement from International Test Cricket ?
(A) Javed Miandad (B) Inzamam-ul-Haque
(C) Shoaib Akhtar (D) Anil Kumble
26. Nobel Prize in Physics for 2007 has been won by—
(A) Gerhard Estl
(B) Albert Arnold (Al) Gore Jr.
(C) Doris Lessing
(D) Albert Fert and Peter Grunberg
27. As per the Report of Law Commission on Dowry
Deaths, in case of dowry deaths—
(A) The minimum sentence should be increased from
seven to ten years
(B) It deserves a death penalty
(C) It deserves a life time imprisonment
(D) None of these
28. The Right Livelihood Prize for 2007, an annual
alternative to the Nobel Prizes has not been awarded
to—
(A) Ibrahim Abdi
(B) Christopher Weera Mantry
(C) Ruth Manorama
(D) Percy and Louise Schmeiser
29. The theme of the 12th World Lake Conference
was—
(A) Conserving Lakes and Wetlands for Future
(B) Balancing Agriculture and Lake Protection
(C) Global threats to large lakes
(D) None of these
30. ‘OCTOPUS’ is—
(A) Indian Navy’s Trainingship
(B) Organisation to Counter Terrorist Operations
(C) India-Bangladesh naval exercise
(D) None of these
31. Japan Open Tennis Tournament 2007 has been
won by—
(A) Venus Williams (B) Virginie Razzano
(C) James Blake (D) None of these

C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1677

32. The 5th Military World Games
2011 will be held at—
(A) Brazil (B) Italy
(C) India (D) Croatia
33. Who among the following has
become the richest person of
the world ?
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Carlos Slim Helu
(C) Mukesh Ambani
(D) Laxmi Mittal
34. The 2nd meeting of SAARC
Interior/Home Ministers was
held in New Delhi. Which among
the following attended the meet-
ing for the first time ?
(A) Sri Lanka (B) Afghanistan
(C) Nepal (D) India
35. The Man Booker Prize 2007
has been awarded to—
(A) Nicola Barker
(B) Mohsin Hamid
(C) Anne Enright
(D) Lloyd Jones
ANSWERS WITH HINTS
1. (C) Jessica Nicole Trisko from
Canada is Miss Earth 2007,
Silvana Santaella Arellano from
Venezuela is Miss Earth-Water,
Pooja Chitgopekar from India is
Miss Earth-Air and Angela
Gomez from Spain is Miss Earth-
Fire.
2. (C) 2007 Gender Gap Index has
been topped by Sweden with a
gender equality of 81·5%, follo-
wed by Norway, Finland, Ice-land
and New Zealand.
3. (B) Chang’e-1 entered its work-
ing orbit on November 7, 2007
after completing its two million km
journey to the moon success-
fully. It entered the moon’s orbit
on November 5, 2007.
4. (A) The 2006 Indira Gandhi
Award for National Integration
was given to Dr. J. S. Banduk-
walla and Ram Puniyani on Octo-
ber 31, 2007 for furthering the
cause of communal harmony
by personal harmony.
5. (A) Mohammedmian Soomro,
Chairman of the Pakistan Senate,
was sworn in by President Pervez
Musharraf on November 16, 2007
as the caretaker Prime Minister
of Pakistan.
C.S.V. / February / 2008 / 1678
6. (B) Indira Rajaraman, Atul
Sharma and Abusaleh Shariff are
the other full time members of
the Commission.
7. (D) The first International Con-
ference on Federalism was
hosted by Canada in 1999, 2nd
was hosted by Switzerland in
2002, third was hosted by
Belgium in 2005 and the fourth
Conference was hosted by India.
It was held from November 5 to
7, 2007 in New Delhi.
8. (D) CO 2 emissions per capita of
Australia are 10·0 tonnes, US 8·2
tonnes, UK 3·2 tonnes, China 1·8
tonnes, India 0·5 tonnes.
9. (B) Skynet 5-B was launched
on November 14, 2007 from
Europe’s Kourou spaceport, in
French Guiana.
10. (B) South Africa will host the
FIFA World Cup in 2010,
Germany hosted in 2006 and
South Korea and Japan hosted
in 2002.
11. (D) The 13th ASEAN Summit
was held from November 18 to
22, 2007 in Singapore.
12. (A) Churchill brothers won the
Durand Cup Football Title on
November 7, 2007 defeating
Mahindra United.
13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (C) Singapore is at 1st position
followed by Netherlands at 2nd
and Germany at 3rd. The US is
at 14th position.
16. (B) 17. (B)
18. (A) L. N. Mittal is the richest
Indian with a wealth of $ 51
billion, Mukesh Ambani is at
second position with net worth of
$ 49 billion, Anil Ambani is at
third position with net worth of $
45 billion and Kushal Pal Singh is
at 4th position with net worth of $
35 billion.
19. (A) Chandrayaan-2 will be a joint
plan which will include a lander
and a rover to walk around the
moon’s surface and collect
samples and data for analysis.
20. (A) It has been developed by
Tata Group’s Pune based Com-
putational Research Labora-
tory (CRL).
21. (A) ‘Abuja Declaration’ was
signed between India and Nigeria
on October 15, 2007 at Abuja.
22. (B) The General Assembly of
United Nations declared 2008 as
the International Year of Potato
on October 18, 2007 to “increase
awareness of the importance of
potato as a food in the develop-
ing nations.”
23. (A) Canada joined as the 7th
member of Asia-Pacific partner-
ship on clean development and
climate, which held its 2nd minis-
terial meeting in New Delhi on
October 15, 2007.
24. (C) India would host the 3rd IBSA
Summit in 2008. It was decided
at the 2nd IBSA Summit at
Tshwane in Pretoria, South
Africa.
25. (B) Inzamam-ul-Haque, the
former Pakistani Captain took
retirement from International
Test Cricket on October 12, 2007.
26. (D) Albert Fert and Peter Grun-
berg have won the Nobel Prize
in Physics 2007 for the dis-
covery of Giant Magneto resis-
tance.
27. (A)
28. (C) Ruth Manorama from India
received the prize in 2006.
Grameen Shakti, a company in
Bangladesh was also the reci-
pient of the prize for 2007.
29. (A)
30. (B) ‘OCTOPUS is an organisation
to fight terrorism, which was
established by Andhra Pradesh
Government in Hyderabad in
September 2007.
31. (B) Virginie Razzano of France
won Japan Open Tennis Tourna-
ment in Tokyo on October 6,
2007 defeating Venus Williams.
32. (A)
33. (C) With sensex touching the mark
of 20,000, Mukesh Ambani
became the richest person of
the world leaving behind Carlos
Slim and Bill Gates. His total
assets now stand at 63·2 billion
dollars.
34. (B)
35. (C) Anne Enright was on October
16, 2007 named the winner of
Man Booker Prize 2007 for fic-
tion for her novel ‘The Gather-
ing’.
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