1.

Blood groups were discovered in:

a. 1927
b. 1926
c. 1928
d. 1929
2. Who discovered germs :
a. Thomas Edison
b. Robert hook
c. Louis pasture
d. Vent A hall
3. Earlier anesthetics were all mark the incorrect.
a. Opium
b. Pethedine
c. Alcohol
d. Phenol
4. Following is the birth of surgery:
a. Physiology
b. Anatomy
c. Biochemistry
d. Histology
5. The role of SJTUSM in the development of surgery in China in 1963 was for:
a. Re plantation of cut limb
b. Severe burn
c. First case of heart transplantation
d. First case of liver transplantation
6. All are ethics in surgery except:
a. Not to reject on religious basis
b. Duty to state and nation
c. Try utmost to take life
d. Not to take charge of others PT
7. All are a part of Doctors oath except:
 a. No distinction
b. Health of patient to be the only consideration
c. Don’t follow laws of humanity
d. Respect to all
8. who discovered penicillin:
a. Fleming
b. Pasture
c. Hook
d. John
9. Old surgeons were called by all one of the following name:
a. Banker
b. Artist
c. Priest
d. Saver

11. Inspection of the patient includes examining all of the following except:

A. skin color

B. site of incision

C. tenderness

D. scar

12. Preoperative preparations include:

A. patient should quit smoking 2 hours before surgery

B. aspirin should be stopped before surgery

C. bowel preparation is not necessary

D. herbal supplements can be continued

13. Preoperative care includes giving prophylactic antibiotics to the patient. Which antibiotic is
suitable for Gram positive bacteria?
A. Gentamycin

B. Metronidazole

C. Flagyl

D. Penicillin

14. While taking the consent of the patient what may not be necessary?

A. Discuss the options rather than telling the patient what will be done

B. Give the patient time to think things over

C. Use language that the patient will not understand

D. Suggest that the patient write down a list of points that he or she wishes to discuss

15. For the postoperative pain management which of the following is given I/V:

A. NSAIDS

B. Morphine

C. Diclofenac

D. Ibuprofen

16. Which of the following organ is most sensitive for shock:

A. kidney

B. liver

C. skin

D. heart

17. What is the normal urine output?

A. 2cc per minute

B. ½ to 1.5cc per minute

C. ¼ to ½ cc per minute

D. ½ cc per minute

18. Following are the components of postoperative care except:

A. Pain management

B. all the above

C. Operation specific post op care

D. Management of post op complications

19. Oral intake is allowed in abdominal surgery involving gut:

A. 5 days nil per oral

B. Fluids allowed initially, solids introduced gradually

C. If bowel sounds are present

D. All of the above

20. Postoperative respiratory care includes all except:

A. O2 mask

B. hyperbaric oxygen

C. Tracheal suction

D. Chest physiotherapy

21. What is the most effective way to help prevent the spread of organisms?

a. Sterile techniques
b. Asepsis
c. Use of ultraviolet properties
d. Hand Hygiene
22. Complete killing and removing of various kinds of microorganisms like bacteria, fungi,
viruses etc is called:

a. Disinfection
b. Decontamination
c. Sterilization
d. Washing
23. Removal or destruction of sufficient members of potentially harmful micro oraganisms to
make an item safe to use it:
a. Disinfection
b. Decontamination
c. Sterilization
d. Washing
24. Nylon, glass, and metal have shelf life of …………….. year(s) if tightly closed:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Four years
25. Steam sterilization maintains integrity of liquids (e.g. Lubricants) due to :
a. Vacuum
b. Chamber space
c. Humidity
d. Dry environment
26. Dry Heat sterilization is less reliable than:
a. Disinfection
b. Autoclaving
c. Heat engine sterilization
d. Common cooling
27. ……………. Is Unsuitable for hospitals but used in industry (e.g. for sterilizing
disposable materials that cannot tolerate high temperatures) :
a. Liquid sterilization
b. Radiation sterilizations
 c. Gas sterilizations
d. Heat sterilization
28. In radiation sterilizations mostly ……… is used:
a. Gamma radiations from Co60
b. Alpha radiations from Na23
c. Gamma radiations from I131
d. Beta radiations from U238
29. Using ………… with cleaning component destroys the membrane of microorganisms:
a. Ethanol
b. Menthol
c. Phenol
d. Alcohol
30. Laproseope Can be performed with buffered glutaric aldehyde:
a. Liquid sterilizations
b. Gas sterilization
c. Radiations sterilizations
d. Heat methods

31. Drain is a channel by which

a.surplus blood is carried out

b. surplus water is carried out
c. surplus exaduate is carried out
d. all of above

32. drain helps the wound to heal

A .faster
b. Slower
c. Get more worsen
d. None

33. types of drain

a. Prophylactic
b. Internal
c. External
d. B and c
 34. A drain placed to evacuate an existing collection it May be placed surgically or under
radiological guidance
a. suction
b. B non suction
c. Prophylitic
d. Therapeutic

35. pen rose or corrugated drain is an example of

a.therapeutic
b.suction
c.open
d.internal

36. negative pressure is applied to facilitate drainage is description of

a. suction
b. open
c. prophylitic
d. therapetic

37. In non-suction drain Fluid is allowed to drain under;

a. Capillary action,
b. Natural pressure gradient
c. Gravity.
d. All of above

38. Sump suction

a. Involves the use of a double lumen tube,
b. 1st lumen for drainage
c. Second lumen acting as a ‘vent’ to allow air flow down to the tip of drain.
d. Prevents negative pressure arising at the tip of drain and subsequent blockage from
surrounding tissue.
e. All of above

39. Common complication of drain

a. To remove unwanted fluid/exudates/pus/gas
b. To allow monitoring of fluids volume and quality
c. To allow tissue apposition
d. None

40. Nasogastric drainage

a. to reduce nausea and vomiting
b. reduce abdominal distension
c. leading to a lower risk of aspiration and subsequent pneumonia.
d. All of above

41. According to clinical presentation gangrene is

 a. dry gangrene
b. wet gangrene
c. traumatic gangrene
d. all

42. Necrotizing Fasciitis is also called except

a.hospital gangrene
b. necrotizing erysipelas
c. fournier gangrene
d. venous gangrene *

43. Necrotizing Fasciitis general management includes all except

a. A.B. broad spectrum
b. Hyperbaric O2
c. I.V. immunoglobulin
d. dressing*

44. massive Gram- ve bacillary infection with invasion to subeschar viable unburned tissue is
called
a. Fournier Gangrene
b. Necrotizing Fasciitis
c. Erythema Gangrenosa*
d. None of above

45. Meleney’s Synergistic Gangrene is

a. Progressive postoperative gangrene*
b. Progressive preoperative gangrene
c. Contagious postoperative gangrene
d. Contagious preoperative gangrene

46. Clinical types of zycomycosis are except

a. Pulmonary
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Cutaneous
 d. All of above*

47. Cancrum oris (Noma) risk factor involves except

a. children (4~16yrs)*
b. acute necrotizing gingivitis
c. herpetic ulcers
d. poverty

48.General anesthesia achieve through:

a) Inhalation
b) IV
c) IM
d) All of above

49. Which of these is irreversible anesthesia?

a) Intramuscular
b) Intravenous
c) Gas
d) None of above

50. Injection of local drug in sub -arachnoid space in CSF, this must be:

a) Below L2
b) Above L2
c) Below L5
d) Above L5

51. Multimodal anesthesia is combination of:

a) Regional with light general

b) Local analgesia with sedation
c) IV induction and inhalational maintenance
d) All of above

52. Which of these is not the advantage of inhalation anesthesia?

a) cheap
b) easy control of dose
c) Muscle relaxant
d) induction of malignant hyperthermia

53. Anesthesia allow all of the following except :

 A surgical procedure.

B diagnostic procedure.

C painfull procedure.

D all of above .

54. Anesthesia control which of the following factor :

A physiologic functions.

B pathologic functions.

C patient movement.

D Both a and c.

55. Revercible induced pharmacological type of unconciousness can b differenciated from :

A food poisoning.

B hypertension.

C acupunture.

D both a and b .

56.Hemorrhage may be (except)

A:external

B:internal

C:gross

D:central

57.Hemorrahge can be classified on the basis of

A:colour of blood
 B:type of blood cells

C:age of patient

D:source of hemorrhage

58.Arterial blood is

A: Dark red ,Never jets, Difficult to control

B: Bright red,Spurting with pulse,Easy to controle

C: Non jet, continuous ooze, significant in bleeding diathesis

D:none of the above

59. Ecchymosses is

A: flat, tiny, 1- to 2-mm, multifocal

B: flat, small, ≥1 mm, multifocal

C: contusions (bruises) are smooth and noticeably large, >1 cm, focal

D: emergent, lumpy, hardened, focal

60. Hemotoma is

A: flat, tiny, 1- to 2-mm, multifocal

B: flat, small, ≥1 mm, multifocal

C: contusions (bruises) are smooth and noticeably large, >1 cm, focal

D: emergent, lumpy, hardened, focal

61. In upper GI, blood turns black and tarry as it is digested and is called

A:malena

B:pyloric cancer

C:TB

D:peptic ulcer

62. Pericardial hemorrhage—hemopericardium has which feature

A: Always bad because of the rigid cranium

B: Build-up of external pressure inhibits filling

C: Build-up of pressure prevents lung expansion

D:All of the following

63. Maintenance of blood volume, blood pressure & clot-free flow is called

A:plasmin

B:fibrosis

C:hemodynymics

D:hmeostasis

64.Preoperative workup includes all except

A: History of Bleeding

B:.Liver or Renal Disease

C:Drugs

D:patients age

65.during surgery bleeding is

A:secondary

B:tertiary

C:surgical hemorrhage

D:primary

66. The definite treatment for burn patient is all except

a. Admit the patient

b. Maintain airways, breathing, and circulation

c. Sedation
d. Keep the patients in wards

67. the leading cause of death in burn patient is

a. deficiency of IV fluids

b. care of wounds

c. antibiotics

d. surgery

68. the fluid requirement for burn patient is according to

a. area of skin involved

b. degree of burn

c. urine output

d. none of above

69. Following are concern with the wound care for burn patient except

a. debridment

b. dressing

c. flaps and grafts

d. analgesics

70. the type of burn extended through skin, subcutaneous tissue, and into the underlying bone is

a. 1st degree

b. 2nd degree

c.3rd degree

d. 4th degree

71. a mass of tissue for grafting, usually including skin, only partially removed from one part of
the body so that it retains its own blood supply during transfer to another site is called

a. flaps

b. grafts
c. patching

d. non of above

72. The normal level of carboxyheamoglobin is

a. 0-13%

b. 0-3%

c. 0-8%

d. none of above

73. a 25 years old patient is admitted in burn unit. He has a burn wound extended through entire
dermis. What would be the degree of burn?

a. 1st degree

b. 2nd degree

c. 3rd degree

d. 4th degree

74. 1st degree burn involves all except

a. involved – epidermis

b. Appearance redness

c. Time to heal in 2-3 weeks

d. Sensation painful

75. A part of skin implanted to cover areas where skin has been lost containing skin and
underlying tissue is called

a. split thickness

b. full thickness

c. composite graft

d. none of above

76. Acute pain is carried through

a “Ad” fibers **
b “C” fibers

c B fibers

d none of above

77. Mylienated fibers are

a A fibers**

b B fibers

c C fibers

d all of above

78. Unrelieved pain may lead to…

a Impairment of pulmonary functions

b Increased cardiac work

c Increased vascular resistance

d All of above**

79. CRANIAL NERVE BLOCKS is example of

a SYMPATHETIC BLOCKADE

b NEURAL BLOCKADE**

c epidural blockade

d none of above

80. EPIDURALS are best choice of analgesia for

a OPERATIONS ABOVE C4

b OPERATIONS FROM T1 TO S4**

c All of above

d none of above

81. CRPS stand for

A. compound regional pain syndrome

B. carry regional pain syndrome

C. COMPLEX REGIONAL PAIN SYNDROME**

D. clotting regional pain syndrome

82. NSAIDS

A. INTERRUPT PERIPHERAL NOCICEPTIVE TRANSMISSION

B. ALTER SPINAL MODULATION

C. PREVENT INITIAL EXCITATION OF NOCICEPTIVE NERVES**

D. none of above

83. DM is a common endocrine disorder that mainly affects _________ population in the west .

a) Young
b) Adult *
c) Both
d) Age is irrelevant

84. A foot that exhibits any pathology that results directly from DM is called

a) Pes planus
b) Flat foot
c) Diabetic foot *
d) None of above

85. All of the following are basic foot protective behaviours except
a) Juspect shoes for foreign objects
b) No walking bare footed
c) Walking on toes *
d) Optimal foot wear at all times

86. Following are the barriers to foot care except

a) Depression
b) Alcoholism
c) Financial barriers
d) None of above *

87. Therapeutic foot wear components include

a) Padded socks
b) Shoe inserts/ insoles
 c) Therapeutic shoes
d) All of above *

88. Principal sites of deterioration in the diabetic foot are

a) Metatarsal heads
b) Top and end of toes
c) Heels and malleoli
d) All of above*

89. Onchomycosis is a term used for

a) Fungal nails *
b) ingrown nails
c) Both
d) None of above

90. Wagner classification for diabetic foot lesion for grade 0 is :

a) No open lesion *
b) Superficial ulcer
c) Both of above
d) None of above

91. Wagner classification for diabetic foot lesion for grade 4 is :

a) No open lesion
b) Localized gangrene*
c) Deep ulcer
d) None of above

92. Wagner classification for diabetic foot lesion for grade 5 is :

a) No open lesion
b) Superficial ulcer
c) Deep ulcer tendon
d) None of above *

93. Shock (mean BP less than 60 mmHg) can be caused by:

A. Low intravascular volume

B. Low cardiac output
C. Pleural effusion
D. Decreased peripheral vascular resistance

94. In a subject in shock with low body temperature, cold and clammy extremities, low urine
output, and elevated lactic acid level in the blood, the most likely cause of shock is:
A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Sepsis
D. CHF

95. Obstructive shock can be caused by

a. Pulmonary Embolism

b. Cardiac Tamponade

c. Tension Pneumothorax

d. all of the above

96. In intial assessment ABC, B stands for______________

a. Blood pressure
b. Breathing
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

97. Major classes of shock are all of the following except

a. Hypovolemic

b. Cardiogenic

c. electric shock

d. Septic shock

98. the causes of hypovolemic shock are

a. hemorrhage

b. fluid loss

c. both a & b

d, none of the above

99. considering the mortality rates due to shock which statement is true
a. septic shock accounts for 35-40 % of deaths

b. cardiogenic shock accounts for 1-2 % death

c. both a & b

d. none of the above

100. emergency should be managed as follows except

a. Control airway and breathing

b. Maximize oxygen delivery

c. Place lines, tubes, and monitors

d. don’t call your senior/fellow/attendant

101. Shock is best described as:

A. loss of consciousness

b. inadequate tissue perfusion

c. heart failure

d. aerobic metabolism

102. complications of shock are

a. acute renal failure

b.DIC

c.acute repiratory failure

d. all of the above

103) tetanus is an illness characterized by acute onset of

a. hypotonia and painful muscular contractions

b.hypertonia and painful muscular contractions

c. a and b

d.none of these

104) symptoms of tetanus include

a.flaccidity

b.hypotonic

c.lockjaw

d.both a and b

105)complications of tetanus include

a.bed sores

b.fracture

c.brain damage

d.all of these

106) what is not a treatment option for tetanus

a.cleansing of wound

b.antitoxin

c.muscle relaxant

d.fasciotomy

107)tetanic seizure are ________ in nature

a.painless

b.weak muscle contractions

c.painful and powerful muscle contractions

d.both a and b

108. A patient having trauma primary treatment includes

A:surgery

b: neurological exposure

c: extremities &back

d: none

109: In acute period of trauma tidal volume should be

A: 12-13 ml/kg

b: 5-6ml/kg

c: 8-10 ml/kg

d: 22-33 ml/kg

110: A person with trauma comes to you in 2 hours , treatment method include

A: rehab

b: regeneration

c: resuscitation

d:stabilization

111: In trauma the first peak cause of death is

A: viral attack

b: bones broken

c:apnea

d: less water content

112: crush syndrome in trauma is usually caused by

A: bacteria

b: fungi

c: myoglobin

d: none

113.What are the causes of Pressure ulcers

a.Prolonged pressure

b.Shear

c.Friction

d.All of the above

114. Which one is the most common site of pressure ulcer to occur.

a.Sacrum (tail bone)

b. Heels

c. Both a and b

115.Which of the following is not included in Plan of Care to Address

Risk Factors of pressure ulcers

a.Skin Care

b.Pressure Reduction

c.Incontinence Care

d.No Nutritional Interventions

116.Pressure Ulcer Staging include all of the following except

a.Stage I Persistent erythema (culturally sensitive)

b.Stage II Partial thickness skin loss

c.Stage III Full thickness skin loss (fascia)

d.Stage IV Full thickness skin loss (fascia)

117: is a type of injury in which the skin is torn, cut or punctured or when a blunt force causes
:contusion
A infection
B burn
C both A & b
D wound

118: wounds are

A Tidy wounds

B : both A & D

C : none of the above

D : Untidy wounds

119: Incised, clean, healthy tissue, seldom tissue loss

A : Tidy wound
B: untidy wound
C : Normal tissue
D : pressure ulcer

120: Specific wounds are

A : Abrasions

B: Puncture wounds

C: Compartment syndrome

D: All of the above