IMAGINARIUM

CLASS 9
 Do the Math!

Solve the following questions

01. For what value of p is the polynomial (2y4 + 3y3 + 2py2+3y+6)
exactly divisible by (y+2)?

A. -2 B. 0
C. -1 D. 2

02. If x2+ 1
+ 2 - 2 = 0 then -
X2 X
1 1
A. x+ x =0, 2 B. x+ x
=0, 0
C. x+ 1 =2, -2 D. x+ 1
=-2, -2
x x

03. In the adjoining figure, if ABCD is a square then, find the value
of ∠OXC.
D C
1050
X0
O X

A B
A. 300 B. 450
C. 550 D. 600

3
 Do the Math!

04. In the adjoining parallelogram, the bisector of ∠DAB bisects CB at

the point of intersection. If AD = p.AB, then the value of p is -

D C

x
2

1
A B

A. 2 B. 3
CC.. 4 D. 8

05. In the given figure, FB bisects DA and CD = DB. If AF= k AC, then k
is equal to -
A

F
E
P

B D C
A. | |
6 B. 5
CC.. | D. |
4 3

4
 Do the Math!

06. The three vertices of a triangle ABC are A(1,4), B(-2,2) and
C(3,2). Determine the area of the triangle ABC.

A. 3 square units B. 5 square units

CC.. 8 square units D. 9 square units

07. In the given figure, find the coordinates of D and the area of
rectangle BADC.
Y
C(-3,5) M D

B(-3,2) L A(2,2)

O X

A. D(2,2), 15 square units B. D(2,5), 25 square units

CC.. D(5,5), 10 square units D. D(2,5), 15 square units

5
 A Test of Mathematics

Solve the following questions

01. A hollow cube, of outer edge 8 cm, has a thickness of 2 cm. If it
costs 7500/m2 to polish the surface, the total cost incurred in
polishing its complete interior and the exterior surface area is -
A. 360 B. 365
C. 370 D. 375

02. In the adjoining figure, O is the centre of the circle. The value of
∠COA is -

300 B
A
0
55
C

A. 400 B. 450
C. 500 D. 550

6
 A Test of Mathematics

03. In the adjoining trapezium, E and F are the mid-points of DA and

CB respectively. If FE || BA || CD, then which of the following
expressions is correct?

A. D B. C
C. D.
E M F

A B

A. FE = 1 (BA+CD) B. FE = 2 (BA+CD)
2 7
3 2 (BA+CD)
C. FE = 4 (BA+CD) D. FE = 3

04. If two dice are rolled together, find the probability of getting such
numbers on the two dice such that their product is a multiple of 5.

A. 13 11
A. 27 B.
B. 36
11
C. 12 D.
D. 27
20

7
 A Test of Mathematics

05. On one page of new year diary, there are 200 pin-codes. The
frequency of distribution of their units digits is given below:

Units digitA. 0 1 2 3 4 5B. 6 7 8 9

FrequencyC. 19 22 23 19 21 24
D. 23 18 16 15

One of the numbers is chosen at random from the page. What is

the probability of the units digit of the chosen number is 5?

A. 0.12 B. 0.14
C. 0.16 D. 0.18

06. If a cube of edge ‘r’, a sphere of radius ‘r’ and a cylinder of

height ‘2r’ and radius ‘r’ have their respective surface areas as S1,
S2 and S3, then their volumes are in the ratio -

A.. S1: 2S2: 3S3

A B.
B. S1: 3S2: 2S3
C. S1:4S2: 3S3 D.
D. S1: 3S2: 4S3

8
 A Test of Mathematics

07. Two concentric spheres form a mould filled with wax. The mould is
heated and poured out to form a solid cylinder of diameter 7 cm
by casting. If the thickness of the mould is 3 cm and the inner
sphere has a radius of 4 cm, find the height of the cylinder so
formed.

A. 28.36 cm B. 30.36 cm
C. 32.36 cm D. 34.36 cm

9
 Mastering Physics!

1 The acceleration - time graph of a body is shown below-

t
Which of the following plot is a close representation of its
velocity time graph?
A.v B. v

t t

C.v D. v

t t

10
 Mastering Physics!

2 A car is moving with a uniform speed of 10 m/s. The driver

decides to increase the speed to 30 m/s, in order to reach the
destination in time. If it takes 8 seconds for car to attain 30
m/s, what is the acceleration of the car?
A. 2.150 m/s2
B. 0.0025 km/s2
C. 0.0250 km/s2
D. 2.60 m/s2

3 Consider two spring balances hooked as shown in the figure. We

pull them in opposite directions. If the reading shown by A is 1.5
N, the reading shown by B will be:
A. 1.5 N
B. 2.5 N
C. 3.0 N
D. 0 N

11
 Mastering Physics!

4 A car of mass 800 kg travelling at a speed of 10 m/s is brought

to rest in 20 seconds by applying brakes. Calculate the average
braking force acting on the wheels.
A. - 1600 N
B. 400 N
C. - 400 N
D. 1600 N

5 A ball is rolling down a slope at a constant speed. Which of the

following statements is correct?

A. Frictional force is greater than the forward force.

B. There is an unbalanced force downwards.
C. There are no forces acting on the ball.
D. The forces acting on the ball are balanced

12
 Mastering Physics!

6 The gravitational force between two bodies separated by a

distance ‘d’ is F|. The bodies are now placed under water keeping
the separation distance same. The gravitational force now is
measured to be F2. Then:
A. F| = F2
B. F| > F2
C. F| < F2
D. F| = 2 F2

7 Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1: A pendulum can oscillate in an artificial satellite.

Statement 2: Inside the satellite, acceleration due to gravity is zero.

A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the

correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the
correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

13
 The Physical World

1 When you compress a coil spring, work is done on it. The elastic
potential energy of the spring:

A. increases
B. decreases
C. disappears
D. remains unchanged

2 An object of mass 1 kg has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to

the ground when it is at a height of:

A. 0.102 m
B. 1m
C. 9.8 m
D. 32 m

14
 The Physical World

3 An iron sphere of mass 30 kg has the same diameter as an

aluminium sphere whose mass is 10.5 kg. The spheres are dropped
simultaneously from a cliff. When they are 10 m from the
ground, they have the same:
A. momenta
B. acceleration
C. potential energy
D. kinetic energy

4 When a body is projected into space, there is an increase in its:

A. mass
B. momentum
C. kinetic energy
D. potential energy

15
 The Physical World

5 In the oscillations of a simple pendulum, the potential energy of

the bob is maximum, when the bob is:
A. at the mean position
B. at the extreme position
C. just near the mean position
D. midway between the mean and either of the extreme
position

6 In the oscillations of a simple pendulum, the sum of the potential

energy and kinetic energy is:

A. zero
B. infinite
C. constant
D. maximum

16
 The Physical World

7 In a slinky, which of the following types of waves can be

generated?

A. Transverse only
B. Longitudinal only
C. Both longitudinal and transverse
D. Standing only

17
 Chemistry Check!

1) Study the given graph carefully. It shows the variation of

state with respect to temperature for H2O. What is the
physical state of H2O at points 1, 3 and 5 respectively?

5
373 k S 4
Temperature

3 T
273 k Q 2
| R

Change of Stage

A. 1 - Solid, 3 - Liquid, 5 - Gas

B. 1 - Solid, 3 - Gas, 5 - Liquid
C. 1 - Liquid, 3 - Gas, 5 - Solid
D. 1 - Liquid, 3 - Solid, 5 - Gas

2) A student has set up an experiment for melting of ice in a

beaker and noted down the temperature throughout the
process. What do you think she observed when the ice
was melting?

A. The temperature in the thermometer

kept increasing.
B. The temperature was constant only
uring the melting.
C. There was no change in temperature
throughout the experiment.
D. The temperature was in the thermometer
kept decreasing
18
 Chemistry Check!

3) What is the correct increasing order of molecular motion

(kinetic energy) of particles in the following?
A. Brick, water, air, curd
B. Curd, water, air, brick
C. Air, water, curd, brick
D. Brick, curd, water, air

4) A student while performing an experiment heated a

mixture of iodine and common salt by keeping an inverted
funnel on it. After some time, it was observed that:

A. white fumes come out from the mixture

B. violet particles deposit on the neck of the funnel
C. white particles deposit on the neck of the funnel
D. a gas with popping sound comes out

19
 Chemistry Check!

5) A student poured 20 g of salt into 200 ml of water in a

beaker. He stirred the water to dissolve the salt
completely. Then he heated the solution until it was
reduced to half. How many grams of salt can be
recovered from the remaining solution?

A. 0g
B. 10 g
C. 20 g
D. 40 g

6) A student dissolved a mixture into water and then filtered

it. Solid X was left behind as residue in the filter paper
and solid Y was obtained by evaporating the filtrate to
dryness. X and Y could be respectively:

A. Sodium hydroxide and calcium carbonate

B. Calcium chloride and sodium carbonate
C. Calcium carbonate and sodium chloride
D. Sodium carbonate and calcium chloride

20
 Chemistry Check!

7) A science teacher gave different mixtures to four groups

of students to separate their components. Which group
was not following the correct method?

A. Group 1 was separating a mixture of ethyl alcohol and water by

using separating funnel.
B. Group 2 was separating a mixture of ammonium chloride and
sodium chloride using sublimation.
C. Group 3 was separating a mixture of iron pins and sand by using
a magnet.
D. Group 4 was separating mud particles suspended in water using
sedimentation and decantation.

21
 Revisiting Chemistry

1) Read the given statements and mark the correct option.

Statement 1: Bohr's orbits are called stationary orbits.

Statement 2: Electrons remain stationary in these orbits for some time.

A. Both statements | and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct

explanation of statement |.
B. Both statements | and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of statement |.
C. Statement | is true and statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements | and 2 are false.

22
 Revisiting Chemistry

2) Electron distribution of two elements A and B in their

outermost shell is shown below. Atomic numbers of A and
B are:

N Shell
M Shell

p p
n n

A
A. 9, 17
B. 15, 17
C. 24, 17
D. 17, 24

3) Some information about two atoms X and Y is given:

X: Atomic number = 7, Mass number = 14

Y: Atomic number = 7, Mass number = 15

Which of the following is correct about these two atoms?

A. Electronic configuration of X is 2, 8, 4 while that of Y is 2, 8, 5.
B. Both X and Y contain 7 neutrons.
C. X has 2 electron shells while Y has 3 electron shells.
D. Both X and Y have 5 valence electrons.
23
 Revisiting Chemistry

4) Match column I with column II and select the correct

option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) Ions (i) Same mass number, different atomic numbers

(b) Isobars (ii) Same number of neutrons, different atomic

numbers, different mass numbers

(c) Isotopes (iii) Formed by loss or gain of electrons

(d) Isotones (iv) Combining capacity of an atom

(e) Valency (v) Same atomic number, different mass numbers

A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv)

B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv)
C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv)
D. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v)

5) The atomic mass of oxygen is 16 and the molecular mass

of ozone is 48. What is the atomicity of ozone, if it is an
allotrope of oxygen?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

24
 Revisiting Chemistry

6) Two samples X and Y of a pure substance obtained by

two different methods contain elements P and Q.
Substance X has a mass of 2.25 g and contains 0.90 g
of Q. Substance Y is made up of 60% P and 40% Q by
weight. This is an illustration of:

A. Law of multiple proportions

B. Law of constant proportions
C. Law of reciprocal proportions
D. Gay-Lussac's law of combining volumes

7) An ionic compound of element M and chlorine has the

formula, MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is 118.5. What
will be the molecular mass of the oxide of element M?

A. 28
B. 44
C. 72
D. 99

25
 The Biological Sciences

1. Plant cell does not burst in a hypotonic solution because:

A. its cell sap is more concentrated
B. its cell wall resists bursting
C. its cell sap is rich in cellulose
D. it does not have lysosomes
2. X is a double membraned organelle that oxidises food
present in cell to release energy. What is X?
A. Nucleus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Mitochondrion
D. Chloroplast

26
 The Biological Sciences

3. Which of the following is correct for the given figure?

A. The part labelled 'b' is called intergranal thylakoid.

B. The part labelled 'c' is called granum.
C. The part labelled 'a' is the site of dark reaction.
D. The parts labelled 'a', 'b' and 'c', all possess
photosynthetic pigments such as chlorophyll.
4. X is a conducting tissue that is involved in a bidirectional
transport of materials in a plant. What is X?
A. Phloem
B. Xylem
C. Meristem
D. Sclerenchyma

27
 The Biological Sciences

5. The tissue shown here is:

A. simple squamous epithelial tissue

B. striated muscle tissue
C. areolar tissue
D. ciliated columnar epithelial tissue
6. Blue revolution refers to the drastic increase in the
production of:
A. milk
B. cereals
C. water
D. fish

28
 The Biological Sciences

7. Crop improvement by crossing two plants with different

desired characters in order to combine these characters is
called:
A. Natural Selection
B. Intercropping
C. Hybridisation
D. Mixed Cropping

29
 Bio-Quiz

1. Which of the following belongs to the plant group that is

generally called "amphibians of plant kingdom"?
A. Pteridium
B. Ficus
C. Funaria
D. Tagetes
2. Select the pair that shows the same relationship as the
animals in the box.

Amoeba : Paramecium

A. Rhizopus : Chlamydomonas
B. Candida : Saccharomyces
C. Pteridium : Fasciola
D. Albugo : Adiantum

30
 Bio-Quiz

3. Select the correct match of the deficiency disease and

related nutrient.
A. Vitamin E - Scurvy
B. Iodine - Marasmus
C. Protein - Beriberi
D. Vitamin D - Osteomalacia
4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
chronic diseases?
A. They last for a long time, may be as much as a lifetime.
B. A person suffering from a chronic disease always
recovers completely after treatment.
C. They do not cause long-term bad effects on human
health.
D. Chronic illnesses are only found in the elderly.
5. The pathogens of a disease can be transferred from
infected mother to the fetus through:
A. breast milk
B. placenta
C. ovary
D. both A and B

31
 Bio-Quiz

6. Soil is a complex mixture. The given pie chart shows the

percentage by volume of different soil components namely
P, Q, R and S. Which of the following component is Q?
Q
5%
P
20%

S R
25% 45%

A. Air
B. Water
C. Organic water
D. Either air or water
7. What is the mode of nutrition in bacteria?
A. Autotrophic
B. Heterotrophic
C. Autotrophic and Heterotrophic
D.None of these

32
 Do the Math!

Answers
01. Option C
Let f(y) = (2y4 + 3y3 + 2py2+3y+6)
Now, y+2 = 0 ⇒ y = -2
By factor theorem, f(y) will be exactly divisible by (y+2) if f(-2)
=0
Now, f(-2) = 2 × (-2)4 + 3 × (-2)3+2p × (-2)2 + 3 × (-2) + 6
⇒ f(-2) = 8p+8
Since, f(-2) = 0 = 8p+8 ⇒ p = -1

02. Option A

x2+ 1x2 + 2- 2x- 2x =(x2+ 1x2 + 2) - 2(x+ x1 )

=(x+ x1 )2 - 2(x+ x1 )

=(x+ x1 )(x+ x1 -2)

Hence, (x+ 1 )(x+ 1 -2)=0
x x
(x+ x1 )=0, 2

03. Option D
The angles of a square are bisected by the diagonals.
∴ ∠ACB = 450 (since ∠DCB = 900 and CA bisects ∠DCB)
Also, ∠COD+∠COX = 1800 (linear pair)
⇒ 1050 + COX = 1800 ⇒ ∠COX = 750
Now, in COX, we have ∠OCX + ∠COX + ∠OXC = 1800
⇒ 450 +750 +∠OXC = 1800 ⇒ ∠OXC = 600

34
 Do the Math!

04. Option A
ABCD is a parallelogram
∴ AD∥BC and AX cuts BC at X.
∴ ∠BXA = ∠DAX = 21 ∠DAB (alternate interior angles)
∴ ∠2 = 21 ∠DAB. Also, ∠1 = 21 ∠DAB
∴ ∠2 = ∠1 ⇒ AB = BX = 21 BC= 21 AD
Hence, AD = 2AB
∴p=2

05. Option D
Draw DP∥EF
In ADP, E is the mid-point of AD and EF∥DP
∴ F is the mid-point of AP
In FBC, D is the mid-point of BC and DP∥BF
∴ P is the mid-point of FC A

F
Thus, AF = FP = PC E

Hence, AF = 31 AC
B D C

35
 Do the Math!

06. Option B
y
A(1,4)

B(-2,2) D L C(3,2)

O M X

Draw AM perpendicular to x- axis, meeting BC at L

Now, BC = BD+ DC = 2+3 = 5 units
Perpendicular AL = AM-LM = 4-2 = 2 units
∴ area of triangle ABC = 21 × BC× AL
= 21 × 5×2 = 5 square units

07. Option D
Let the y-axis cuts AB and CD at the points L and M respectively.
Clearly, the abscissa of D = abscissa of A = 2
Ordinate of D = Ordinate of C = 5
∴ coordinates of the 4th vertex of ABCD are D(2,5)
AB = BL+LA = 3+2 = 5 units
BC = 5-2 = 3 units
∴ area of the rectangle BADC = AB×BC = 5×3 = 15 square units

36
 A Test of Mathematics

Answers
01. Option A

Length of the edge of the cube = 8 cm

So, the exterior surface area of the cube = 6 x (edge)2 = 6 x 64 =
384 cm2
The thickness of the cube = 2 cm
⇒ The interior edge of the cube = 8 cm - 2 cm - 2 cm = 4 cm
Hence, the interior surface area of the cube = 6 x (edge)2 = 6 x 16
= 96 cm2
⇒Total surface area of the cube = 384 cm2 + 96 cm2 = 480 cm2
The rate of finishing =7500/m2 = 0.75/cm2 (1 m = 100 cm)
So, total cost incurred in polishing = 0.75/cm2 x 480 cm2 = 360

37
 A Test of Mathematics

02. Option C
Since OC = OB (Radii of the same circle)
∴ΔOCB is an isosceles triangle
⇒∠OBC = ∠OCB = 550
In ΔOCB, ∠BOC +∠OCB +∠OBC = 1800 (Angle sum property of
a triangle)
⇒∠BOC + 550 + 550 = 1800 ⇒∠BOC = 700

Also, OA = OB (Radii of the same circle)

∴ΔOAB is an isosceles triangle
⇒∠OAB = ∠OBA = 300
In ΔOAB, ∠AOB +∠OAB +∠OBA = 1800 (Angle sum property
of a triangle)
⇒∠AOB + 300+ 300 = 1800⇒∠AOB = 1200
∴ ∠AOC + ∠BOC = 1200 ⇒ ∠AOC + 700 = 1200 ⇒∠AOC = 500

03. Option A
In ΔDAB, E is the mid-point of AD and EM 11 AB
∴ M is the mid-point of BD
⇒ EM = 21 AB ---(1) 1
Again, in ΔBDC, M is the midpoint of BD and MF 11 DC
∴ F is the mid-point of BC
⇒MF = 21 DC ----(2)
From (1) and (2) we get,
⇒FE = ME + MF = 21 (BA +CD)

38
 A Test of Mathematics

04. Option B
| 2 3 4 5 6
| (|,|) (|,2) (|,3) (|,4) (|,5) (|,6)
2 (2,|) (2,2) (2,3) (2,4) (2,5) (2,6)
3 (3,|) (3,2) (3,3) (3,4) (3,5) (3,6)
4 (4,|) (4,2) (4,3) (4,4) (4,5) (4,6)
5 (5,|) (5,2) (5,3) (5,4) (5,5) (5,6)
6 (6,|) (6,2) (6,3) (6,4) (6,5) (6,6)

Sample space when two dice are rolled together is depicted in the
adjoining table.
Total number of possible outcomes = (6 x 6) = 36
Let the probability of favourable outcomes = P(E)
Now,
Numbers on the two dice whose product is a multiple of 5 = {(1,5)
(2,5) (3,5) (4,5) (6,5) (5,1) (5,2) (5,3) (5,4)(5,5) (5,6)} = 11
So, the probability of getting such numbers on the two dice whose
|| .
product is a multiple of 5 = P(E) = 36

05. Option B
Total numbers = 19+22+23+19+21+24+23+18+16+15 = 200
So, total possible outcomes of the event = 200
Number of numbers with units digit 5 = 24
So, numnber of favourable events = 24
24 = 0.12
∴ required probability = P(E) = 200

39
 A Test of Mathematics

06. Option A
The Surface area of the cube = 6r2 = S|
The surface area of the sphere = 4πr2 = S2
The surface area of the cylinder = 2πr(2r) = S3
Now,
sr
The volume of the cube = r3 = 6|
4 sr
The volume of the sphere = 3 πr3 = 32
sr
The volume of the cylinder = πr2(2r) =2πr3 = 23
Hence, their volumes can be written in terms of their surface
s s s
areas as 61 : 32 : 23 or
as S1: 2S2: 3S3

40
 A Test of Mathematics

07 Option B
The radius of inner sphere (r) = 4 cm
The thickness of the mould = 3 cm
∴ the radius of the outer sphere (R) = 4 cm + 3 cm = 7 cm
The volume of the mould = Volume between the concentric spheres
= 34 πR3 - 34 πr3
Let the height of the cylinder so formed be h.
Diameter of cylinder = 7 cm
∴ the radius of the cylinder = 3.5 cm
The volume of the cylinder formed = The volume of the mould
⇒ π(radius)2 h = 34 πR3 - 34πr3
⇒ (3.5)2 h = 34 {(7)3- (4)3}
⇒ (12.25) h = 34 (343-64)
4 x (279)
⇒ h = 3 x (12.25) = 30.36 cm

41
 Mastering Physics!

1 Option A
Graph shown in option (A) represents the velocity-time graph for the body
whose acceleration-time graph is given in the question. Velocity increases
uniformly for some time, then it becomes constant, after that it increases
further uniformly.

2 Option B.
Initial speed of the car = 10m/s
Final speed of the car = 30m/s
Time taken for transition = 8s
Acceleration = Change in speed
Time taken
a = 30-10 m/s2
8
a = 2.5 m/s2 = 0.0025 km/s2

3 Option A
According to Newton's third law, the reading shown by B should be same as
A, i.e. 1.5 N.

42
 Mastering Physics!

4 Option C.
m = 800 kg
u = 10m/s
v = 0 m/s
t = 20 s
F=?
F=m×a
F = m × v-u t
⇒ 800 × 0-10
20
= 800 (-10)= 800 x (-0.5)= - 400 N
20

5 Option D.
When the resultant forces are balanced or zero, objects move at a steady
speed.

6 Option A.
Gravitational force is same in both the conditions because ‘g’ is same
everywhere on the surface of the Earth and masses are identical.

43
 Mastering Physics!

7 Option D.
Inside the satellite, g = 0.
T = 2π g1 = 2π 01 = ∞
Thus, the pendulum will not oscillate.

44
 The Physical World

1. Option A
2. Option A
3. Option B
4. Option D
5. Option B
6. Option C
7. Option C

= 4.5 km
Time 3s

45
 Chemistry Check!

1. Option A
Below 273 K (PQ), H2O exists in solid state (ice). At 273 K (QR),
interconversion of solid to liquid takes place. Above 273 K (RS), H2O
exists in liquid state. At 373 K (ST), inter conversion of liquid to gas takes
place. Above 373 K H2O exists in gaseous state (vapour).
2. Option B
During the experiment of melting, once the melting point is reached,
temperature remains constant till all the ice melts. This happens even
though we continue to heat the beaker. The heat supplied gets used up in
changing the state by overcoming the forces of attraction between the
particles.

3. Option D
Kinetic energy (molecular motion) of the particles increases from solid
to liquid to gas. Thus, the correct increasing order of molecular motion
(kinetic energy) of particles is brick, curd, water, air.

4. Option B
Iodine being a sublimable solid, sublimes from the mixture of iodine and
common salt. Violet iodine vapours condense on the neck of the funnel
as violet particles.

5. Option C
Same amount of salt will be recovered as in the process of evaporation
only solvent (i.e., water) evaporates and the solute (i.e., salt) is left
behind in the beaker in the form of the residue.

6. Option C
Calcium carbonate is insoluble in water hence, it is left behind in the filter
paper. Sodium chloride is soluble in water and is obtained by evaporation
of solution.
7. Option A
Ethyl alcohol and water are miscible liquids. So, their mixture cannot be
separated by using separating funnel. This mixture can be separated by
distillation.

46
 Revisiting Chemistry

1. Option C
Electrons revolve and have fixed energy in a particular orbit.

2. Option C
Electronic configuration of A:
K L M N
2 8 8 6
So, its atomic number = 24
Electronic configuration of B:
K L M
2 8 7
So, its atomic number = 17

3. Option D
X and Y are isotopes having the electronic configuration as 2, 5. Hence,
both have five valence electrons.

4. Option B

5. Option C
Atomicity of oxygen = Molecular Mass of Ozone = 48 = 3
Atomic Mass of Ozone 16
6. Option B
Mass of X = 2.25 g
Mass of Q = 0.90 g
Thus, mass of P = 2.25 - 0.90 = 1.35 g
Ratio of masses of P and Q in sample 'X' = 1.35 : 0.90 i.e.; 1.5 :1
Ratio of masses of P and Q in sample 'Y' = 60 : 40 i.e.; 1.5 :1
As the ratio of the masses of P and Q in two samples 'X' and 'Y' is
constant i.e., 1.5 : 1 so, this is an illustration of 'law of constant
proportions'.

47
 Revisiting Chemistry

7. Option C
The valency of M is +3
Hence, the formula of the oxide of element M is M2O3
Mass of element M in MCl3 = 118.5 - 3(35.5) = 12
Molecular mass of M2O3 = (2 ×12) + (3 × 16) = 72

48
 The Biological Sciences
1. Option B
Cell wall exerts a pressure on the cytoplasm in the opposite direction. It
prevents bursting of the cell in hypotonic solution and limits endosmosis to a
certain extent.
2. Option C
Mitochondria are small sphere or short rod shaped organelles that have
double membrane. They are the main seat of cell respiration. They bring
about stepwise oxidation of food stuffs and produce energy.
3. Option C
The part labelled 'b' is called grana where light reaction of photosynthesis
takes place. The part labelled 'c' is intergranal thylakoid. Photosynthetic
pigments such as chlorophyll are present only in thylakoid membranes
(grana + intergranal thylakoids) and not in stroma.

49
 The Biological Sciences
4. Option A
Phloem is the chief food conducting tissue of vascular plants. It conducts
food in both directions, i.e., downwards from leaves to roots and upwards
from storage organs to other parts.
5. Option D
The figure shown is of ciliated columnar epithelial tissue. The cells of this
tissue are tall, pillar like that bear cilia on their free surfaces. The nuclei of
the cells lie in the basal part. They are found in nasal passages, oviducts etc.
The main function of cilia is to maintain the flow of mucus (in nasal
passage) or egg (in oviduct) constantly in one direction.
6. Option D
Increase in the production of fish, shellfish, prawns, crabs, shrimps, etc.,
through culture fishery has brought a revolution. This revolution resulting in
increased production of fish is known as blue revolution.
7. Option C
Crop improvement through breeding better varieties of crop plants forms
the backbone of modern agriculture. This technique, known as hybridisation,
involves selecting and crossing two parents with desired characters to
obtain a progeny that have characters of both the parents.

50
 Bio-Quiz
1. Option C
Funaria is a bryophyte. Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant
kingdom, as they can grow on moist land but need water layer for
reproduction.
2. Option B
Amoeba and Paramecium both belong to the same kingdom, i.e., Protista.
Similarly, both Candida and Saccharomyces belong to the same kingdom, i.e.,
Fungi.
3. Option D
Osteomalacia is a bone disease that occurs due to deficiency of vitamin D
in adults.
4. Option A
Chronic diseases are long-term medical conditions that are generally
progressive. Some examples of chronic diseases include Alzheimer's disease,
arthritis, diabetes, few heart diseases, etc. Such diseases generally cannot
be prevented by vaccines or cured by medication nor do they just
disappear. They have long-term bad effects on the health of people.
5. Option B
Placenta is the organ that establishes physical contact between the fetus
(unborn young one) and the mother. Pathogens of some diseases can reach
from mother to fetus along with blood and nutrients through the placenta.
6. Option C
P/S - Air or water, Q - Organic matter, R - Mineral matter
7. Option C
Autotrophic and Heterotrophic are the main mode of nutrition in bacteria.

51