Micro-Para Answer Key-PINK PACOP

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy
PUBLICH HEALTH, IMMUNOLOGY;
1. The following are found in the cell wall of certain bacteria. Which of the following is exclusively found among
fungi?
A. Teichoic acid
B. Diaminopimelic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Chitin
2. The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with
A. Mesosome
B. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall
3. This is a specific staining method for spirochetes
A. Giemsa’s stain
B. Ziehl-neilsen stain
C. Acid-fast stain
D. Gram’s stain
4. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in that eukaryotes
A. Generally lack sterols in their cell membrane
B. Contain more than one chromosome
C. Lack 80’s ribosome
D. Have peptidoglycan
5. These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like porcupine
A. Capsules
B. Endospores
C. Fimbriae
D. Flagella
6. The tolerance of facultative anaerobic bacteria to lethal superoxide when they are exposed to air is due to
A. The lack of CYP C oxidase
B. Presence of CYP C oxidase
C. Inability to form the superoxide radical
D. Presence of superoxide dismutase and catalase
7. Lipopolysaccharides are correctly described as
I. Found in both Gram(-) and Gram(+) bacteria
II. Contains lipid A as part of its structure
III. Infection of which are treated by antitoxin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
8. A structural component of the cell that may enhance virulence of bacterium include
A. Capsule
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Flagella
D. Lecithinase
9. The source of H antigen
A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. Pilus
D. Plasmid
10. The process in which DNA is released by lysis of one bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that
another bacterium is called
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

11. Transfer of genetic materials involving the so called “jumping genes”

A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
12. A process of gene transfer which involves bacteriophages in the transfer of DNA material from one bacterium to
another
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
13. Transfer of genetic materials which involves sex pilus
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
14. Microbial mutations are due to which of the following cause(s)
I. Inversion
II. Additions (insertions)
III. Substitutions (transversions)
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
15. Endospores have a multi-layered protective coat consisting of
I. Cell membrane
II. Peptidoglycan mesh
III. Exosporium
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
16. Which of the following statement(s) about plasmids is/are true
I. Carry resistance genes for antibiotics called R plasmids
II. Don’t control genes regulating enzymes capable of destroying antimicrobial drugs
III. Can’t be transferred by conjugation due to their size and shape
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
17. The most likely cells to be lysed when treated with anti-CD4 antibody and complement are
A. Cytotoxic t cells
B. Macrophages
C. Helper T cells
D. B cells
18. Cytotoxic T cells are best characterized by the following cell-surface marker
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. CD3
D. CD2
19. The major function of interferon-gamma is to
A. Induce the activation of resident macrophages
B. Inhibit migration of macrophages from reaction sites
C. Promote and maintain the proliferation of T cells
D. Promote B and T cell growth
20. Cytotoxic T cells are involved in which of the following action(s)
I. Antigen presentation
II. Tumor destruction
III. Cell lysis of virus infected cells
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
21. T-helper cells are important in augmentation of which of the following
I. Antibody production
II. Mixed lymphocyte reaction
III. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for Natural-Killer cells
I. Recognize and destroy certain tumor cells
II. Lyse virus-infected cells
III. Involve in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
23. A male patient suffering from bacterial infection received a penicillin injection and he almost immediately had
respiratory distress. This reaction is most likely to be mediated by
A. T cells
B. IgE
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgG and Complement
24. AIDS patients infected with TB are likely to react less vigorously to tuberculin test because of the deficiency of
A. Platelets
B. CD8
C. CD4
D. B cells
25. An AIDS patient who received a tuberculin test 48 hours after showed a weak erythematous skin reaction (6mm
in diameter) at the site of injection. What is the proper interpretation for the observation? The patient,
A. Has never been exposed to TB bacilli
B. Has active TB
C. Has been exposed to TB bacilli
D. Is infected with multidrug-resistant TB bacilli
26. The ability of the T cells to discriminate between self and non-self is learned in the
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus
27. Which of the following will grow in the presence of optochin
I. Streptococcus pyogenes
II. Streptococcus viridans
III. Streptococcus pneumonia
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
28. Which statement is true for passive immunization
I. Provides long lasting protection
II. Provides protection without hypersensitivity
III. Provides immediate protection
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only

29. A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing antibody is

A. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
B. MMR vaccine
C. Rabies vaccine
D. H. influenza Type B vaccine
30. Streptococci are incubated in a blood agar plate overnight. Which of the following reactions show beta-hemolytic
streptocci?
A. Completely lyse the RBC
B. Partially lyse the RBC
C. Unable to hemolyse the RBC
D. Leave a greenish discoloration
31. The following contribute(s) to the development of a compromised state of the host defense
I. Radiation therapy
II. Exposure to toxoid
III. Malnutrition
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IIII only
E. I, II and III only
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
I. Toxoides are used as immunogen
II. Exotoxins are highly toxic at very low doses
III. Some G(-) bacteria exotoxins
IV. Some G(+) bacteria produce endotoxins
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II and III only
33. Which of the following is not a correct statement concerning neutrophils
A. They can be differentiated into B cells on activation
B. They constitute the first line of nonspecific host defense mechanism
C. Principal phagocytic cells together with monocytes and macrophages
D. They cannot present antigens
34. Diagnostic lab techniques most frequently employed for the visual microscopic detection of antigens in tissue
sections, in cells suspensions, or on cell monolayers include
A. Agglutination
B. Radioimmunoassay
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Precipitation
35. This is/are forces or bonds involved in the interaction between an antigen and an antibody
I. Covalent bonds
II. Van der waals
III. H-bonds
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
36. A man with blood group phenotype AB
A. May donate blood to individuals with blood type O
B. Has anti-A and anti-B in his serum
C. Has A and B antigen in his RBC
D. May be given blood type AB, A, or B but not Type O
37. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is caused by
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus viridans

38. Immunologic suppression for transplantation may be induced by

I. Lymphoid radiation
II. Cyclosporine
III. Steroids
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
39. The maturation of T-cells in the thymus is accompanied by changes in the
I. Cell surface markers
II. Cell size
III. Surface immunoglobulin class
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
40. Which of the following organisms are correctly paired with their microbial organelles or components known to
enhance their virulence or invasiveness?
I. M protein of Strep. pyogenes
II. Pili of N. gonorrhoeae
III. Mesosome of Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
41. Toxic activities of endotoxin reside in the
I. Muramic acid component of peptidoglycan
II. Lipid A moiety of lipopolysaccharide
III. Capsular polysaccharide
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
42. A vaccine produced from an extracellular toxic bacterial product that is made nontoxic, but maintains
antigenicity, is known as
A. Live attenuated organism
B. Antitoxin
C. Toxoid
D. Killed organism
43. Which statement(s) describes a monocyte
I. They can become macrophages
II. They only populate the lymph nodes
III. They are actively phagocytic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
44. Which of the following statements best describes an antigen
I. Is always an immunogen
II. Has one or more epitopes
III. Molecular weight may be less than 10,000 are potently immunogenic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

45. A small molecule that can react with preformed antibodies but cannot, by itself, induce their formation is referred
to as
A. Hapten
B. Epitope
C. Complete antigen
D. Cofactor
46. Opsonin-treated bacteria are more readily engulfed by phagocytes than are untreated bacteria because
I. The capsule is removed by opsonin
II. Opsonin digests wall component
III. The surgace of phagocytes contains receptors for opsonins
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
47. The first line of defense against viruses is
A. Interferon
B. IgM directed to internal viral antigens
C. IgG directed to external viral antigens
D. All of the above
48. Type I hypersensitivity
A. Is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity
B. Involves IgE response to an allergen
C. Is independent of inflammatory mediators
D. Involved degranulation of eosinophils
49. Which of the following diseases is caused by an exotoxin release of Staphylococcus aureus
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Meningitis
D. Pneumonia
50. The maximal reaction time for tuberculin reaction is
A. 2-5 hours
B. 6-10 hours
C. 12-20 hours
D. 48-72 hours
51. Memory cells
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. Basophils
52. First white blood cells to be involved in acute inflammation by pyogenic cocci
A. Macrophages
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Basophils
D. Lymphocytes
53. Antigen presenter
A. Dendritic macrophages
B. NK cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
54. Helminth infections will cause an increase in
A. NK cells
B. Dendritic macrophages
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
55. Vaccine for Rubeola
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms

56. Vaccine for Whooping cough

A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microoganisms
D. Killed attenuated microogranisms
57. Vaccine for Tetanus
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms
58. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia and Goodpasteur’s syndrome
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
59. Asthma
E. NOTA
60. Contact dermatitis
E. NOTA
61. Tetanus, botulism and diphteria
E. NOTA
62. A burn patient developed a wound infection, and a bacteriologic culture of the site indicated a gram-negative rod
that was oxidase-positive and produced a blue-green pigment. The organism was relatively resistant to
antibiotics but susceptible to ticarcillin, gentamicin and tobramycin. This organism is likely
A. E. coli
B. K. pneumonia
C. S. marcescens
D. P. aeruginosa
63. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is
A. Pen G
B. Amikacin
C. Kanamycin
D. Ethambutol
64. Pending the results of cultures, meningitis in children 8-10 months of age should be treated with
A. Ampicillin
B. Pen G
C. Cefortaxime
D. Tetracycline
65. Tetracycline may be the DOC for all EXCEPT
A. LGV
B. Inclusion conjunctivitis
C. Hospital-acquired PNX due to Klebsiella
D. Psittacosis
66. Penicillin is the DOC for the following infections caused by EXCEPT
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Bacteriodes fragilis
D. Clostridium perfringens

67. Which of the following is true of staphylococcus epidermidis

I. Catalase-positive
II. Coagulase-positive
III. Facultative
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
68. An adult patient with a history of severe penicillin allergy has a sore throat and low-grade fever. Results of a
throat culture show a large number of beta-hemolytic streptococcal colonies. Of the following, which best suits
the patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Cephalothin
C. Tetracycline
D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
E. Erythromycin
69. All of the following are modified penicillins resistant to destruction by staphylococcal beta-lactamase except
A. Naficillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Oxacillin
D. Cloxacillin
E. Methicillin
70. Treatment of herpetic conjunctivitis
A. Streptomycin
B. Iododeoxyuridine
C. Rifampin
D. Nalidixic acid
71. Effective given orally in Microsporum-induced disease of hair
A. Metronidazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Polymyxin
72. Streptomycin is known for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
73. Dapsone is given for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
74. Polypeptide antibiotic inhibiting pseudomonas
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Carbenicillin
D. Methicillin
75. Inhibits the mucopeptide synthesis by affecting alanine racemase
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Cycloserine
D. Methicillin
76. A healthy medical student clearing in Lyme, Connecticut, was bitten by ticks. One week later complains of fever,
stiff neck, stiff joints and arrhythmias. An expanding skin lesion known as erythema chronicum migrans was
found on her leg with sharply formed borders. DOC for this condition is
A. Metronidazole
B. Pen V
C. Flucytosine
D. Chloramphenicol

77. A 22 year-old nurse who had been in excellent health complained of fatigue and diarrhea. Then he developed
pneumonia that was caused by Pneumocystis carinii. Blood tests repeated showed depletion of CD4 T-
lymphocutes. The patient must be managed with
A. 3’-azidothymidine
B. Chloroquine
C. Acyclovir
D. Enviroxime
78. Which of the following is an example of an aerobic organisms?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
79. The toxin of E. coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae is
A. Heat-labile enterotoxin
B. Heat-stable enterotoxin
C. Verotoxin
D. Exfoliative toxin
80. The most recently discovered sexually transmitted disease is
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Condyloma acuminate (warts)
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS
81. Congenital syphilis can be best detected by the use of
A. Dark-field examination
B. Silver nitrate staining of the spirochetes
C. The Wassermann Complement fixation test
D. IgM-FTA-ABS test
82. Humans acquire Salmonella typhimurium by
A. Ingestion of contaminated food and water
B. Tick bites
C. Mosquito bites
D. Aerosols
83. The main virulence factor of Yersinia pestis is/are the
A. Endotoxin
B. V and W antigens
C. Erythrogenic toxins
D. Lecithinase
84. Mycoplasma are pleomorphic gram-negative bacteria that
A. Are sensitive to penicillin
B. Lack cell walls in all stages of growth
C. Cannot divide by binary fission
D. Do not produce “fried egg” colonies
85. The spirochete that is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at its end is
A. Leptospira
B. Borrelia
C. Treponema
D. Vibrio
86. The body louse is the bector for
A. Leptospirosis
B. Pinta
C. Epidemic relapsing fever
D. Meningitis
87. Chlamydia trachomatis infection may result to
A. Brill’s disease
B. Ornithosis
C. Undulant fever
D. Lymphogranuloma venerum
88. In the laboratory diagnosis of the enteric pathogens Salmonella and Shigella, the screening procedure includes
testing their inability to
A. Ferment glucose
B. Ferment lactose
C. Reduce nitrates
D. Produce oxidase
89. Characterized with marked hypotension, and scarlatiniform rash followed by desquamation
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Botulism
C. Cholera
D. Tetanus
90. Causative agent of undulant fever
A. Brucella
B. Listeria
C. Legionella
D. Chlamydia
91. A nonmotile, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus, usually in pairs, that is a facultative anaerobe with urethral
epithelium in the male
A. Gonococcus
B. Meningococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
92. All of the following are transmitted to man by ingestion of undercooked meat. Which of the following is vector
transmitted?
A. Trichinella
B. Leishmania
C. Clonorchis
D. Diphyllobothrium
93. A major cause of blindness in tropical Africa is
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Onchocerca volvulus
94. A cestode that competes with its host for dietary Vit. B12
A. Hymenolepsis nana
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
95. Vector of Trypanosoma cruzi
A. Sand Fly (Phlebotomus)
B. Tsetse Fly (Glossina)
C. Reduviid (Kissing Bug)
D. Black Fly (Simulium)
96. The event that correlates with the presence of fever paroxysm in Plasmodium vivax malaria is
A. Invasion of hepatocytes by sporozoites
B. Invasion of new RBC by merozoites
C. Schizont rupture
D. Gametocytes
97. Natural resistance to malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax has been demonstrated in populations who are
A. Duffy blood group antigen-positive
B. G6PD deficient
C. Duffy blood group antigen-negative
D. All of the above
98. Flagellated protozoa that cause gastroenteritis in humans include
A. Entamoeba histolytca
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Balantidium coli
D. Giardia lamblia
99. Generally infects human eating raw beef
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Necator americanus
100. This adult parasites are usually in the parenchyma of the human lungs
A. Paragonimus westermanii
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Taenia solium

101. A 5 year old girl spent a year attending schoolon West Africa. She returnes to the US because of poor
sleeping and intense itching in her anal area. Anal swab samples of the patient would most likely contain the
larvae of which organism?
A. Wuchereria bancorft
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Schistosoma japponicum
102. The Filovidae are a newly recognized family of negative-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. Which of the
following viruses belongs to this family and causes hemorrhagic fever?
A. Marburg virus
B. Yellow fever virus
C. Dengue virus
D. Parvovirus
103. Corona virus are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that are 20 nm long and resemble solar
coronas. These viruses are characterized by their ability to
A. Infect infants more frequently than adults
B. Cause common colds
C. Grow well in the usual cultures cell line
D. Agglutinate human red blood cells
104. Mumps virus is biologically relates to the virus causing which of the following disease?
A. Rabies
B. Variola
C. Vaccine
D. Measles
105. Which of the following antiviral agent is purine nucleoside analogue that has shown promise with lassa
fever, influenza A and B and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
A. Amantadine
B. Ribavirin
C. Acyclovir
D. Gancyclovir
106. ECHOviruses are cytopahogenic human viruses that mainly infects the
A. Respiratory tract
B. Central Nervous System
C. Blood and lymphatic system
D. Intestinal tract
107. A 5 year old child presents with symptoms of low-grade fever, coryza, conjunctivitis and Koplik’s spots. The
causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. Adenovirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Piconavirus
D. Herpesvirus
108. Human rotavirus is best described by which of the following statements
A. It is often associated with infantile diarrhea
B. It I an example of viral STD
C. It is associated with conjunctivitis
D. All of the above
109. Varicella is a member of which of the following viral families
A. Pox virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes virus
D. Paramyxovirus
110. German measles virus is a member of which viral family
A. Herpes
B. Pox virus
C. Togavirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
111. A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with Hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all tests for HAV-
IgG and HAV-IgM are non-reactive A possible cause of this infection id
A. Hepa B surface antigen
B. Hepa C surface antigen
C. Hepa D surface antigen
D. Hepa E surface antigen

112. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of

A. Measles
B. Chancre
C. Warts
D. Herpes
113. RNA directed DNA polymerase is exclusively found only amiong
A. Paramyxovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Togavirus
D. Retrovirus
114. Quinolones are bactericidal agents which act by
A. Inhibition of beta-lactamase
B. Inhibition of revered transcriptase
C. Inhibition of chromosome supercoiling
D. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
115. A patient presents with an abscess. The pus was examined containing yellow granules. The sample was
tested negative to acid-fast bacilli. The patient most likely has
A. Nocardiosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Streptococcal infection
D. Staphylococcal infection
116. The species of shigella responsible for the most severe form of shigellosis
A. S. dysenteriae
B. S. sonnei
C. S. boydii
D. S. flexneri
117. Quelling test is used to test for the presence of
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphlococcoss aureus
C. Streptococos pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
118. A goat farmer presents with a fever of unknown origin, which of the following organism is responsible for
this?
A. B. melitensis
B. B. abortus
C. B. suis
D. Bacillus cereus
119. Majority of coagulase-negative staphylococcal infection cases involving prosthetic heart valve endocarditis
are caused by
A. Staph aureus
B. Staph spidermidis
C. Staph saprophyticus
D. Staph hemolyticus
120. Botulism is brought by
A. Invasion of the gut epithelium by the organism
B. Secretion of an enterotoxin
C. Ingestion of neurotoxin
D. Activation of cyclic AMP
121. A 28 year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and
symptoms; fever, hypotension, a Scarletiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and soles, extreme fatigue and
diarrhea. The patient above most likely has
A. Sacalded skin syndrome
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Scarletina
D. Chickenpox
122. A campylobacter-like bacteria that is commonly associated with gastric ulcers
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Helicobacter fenneliae

123. this is the most common form of botulism

A. Infant botulism
B. Foodborne botulism
C. Wound botulism
D. Endemic botulism
124. Which of the following may be used as preventive method in the prevention of botulinum spore germination
in food?
A. Maintaining food in basic pH
B. Storing food at cool temp(8-15 C)
C. Preheat food at 80C for 30 mins
D. Administration of polyvalent antitoxin
125. An anaerobic infection with B. fragilis is characterized by
I. Black discoloration of food containing exudates
II. Susceptibility to penicillins
III. Foul-smelling discharge
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, II and III
126. A person with boil prepared a snack with mayonnaise for their school field trip. Three of his friends whom he
shared his food became violently ill 2 h after eating the food. What is the most likely cause?
I. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin
II. Staphylococcus aureus coagulase
III. Staphylococcus aureus leukocidin
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, and III
127. Treatment of staph. aureus infection with penicillin is often complicated by
I. Inability of penicillin to penetrate the membrane of stap. Aureus
II. Production of beta-lactamase by Staph. aureus
III. Lack of penicillin binding sites in Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
128. In staphylococci, antibiotic resistance genes can exist on plasmids or chromosomes. The genes are carried
by
I. Prophage
II. Free DNA
III. Transposons
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
129. Which of the following statements will differentiate Mycoplasmas from Chlamydiae
I. Ability to grow in artificial media
II. Ability to cause urinary tract infections
III. Susceptibility to penicillins
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
130. Brill-Zinsser disease is caused by
A. Rickettsia rickettsia
B. R. prowazekii
C. R. typi
D. R. tsutsugamushi
131. a poultry farmer has symptoms of chills, fever and headache. Two weeks ago he lost a large number of his
livestock to an undiagnosed disease. What is the most likely condition of the farmer.
A. Psittacosis
B. Q-fever
C. Anthrax
D. Ornithosis
132. An ill patient denied being bitten by insects. Which of the following Rickettsial infection is most likely the
cause of the illness?
A. rickettsial pox
B. Q-fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
133. A Mycoplasma which is a common cause of nongonococcal urethritis
A. M. hominis
B. M. pneumonia
C. M. fermentans
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
134. The distinctive characteristic of Mycoplasmas from other bacteria is their lack of
I. Lipopolysaccharide
II. A cell wall
III. ATP synthesis
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
135. Which organism will be most affected by a drug that will inhibit ATP synthesis?
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
C. R. rickettsia
D. N. gonorrhoeae
136. Which of the following will identify chlamydia trachomatis from chlamydia psittaci?
I. C. trachomatis is sensitive to sulphonamides
II. C. trachomatis has a different lipopolysaccharide antigen
III. C. trachomatis can be stained
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
137. This is/are clinical manifestations of C. trachomatis
I. Lymphogranuloma venereum
II. Perinatal conjunctivitis
III. Otitis-media in young children
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
138. Which of the following is the causative agent of Cat-scratch disease
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia ricketssii
D. Bartonella henselae
139. Which statement(s) explain why beef tapeworm is less serious than pork tapeworm infection?
I. Acute intestinal stoppage is less common in beef tapeworm infection
II. Larval invasion does is not occur in beef tapeworm infection
III. The adult beef tapeworm are smaller
A. I only
B. II inly
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
140. Which parasitic roundworm hatches in the upper small intestine and releases larves that penetrate the
intestinal wall?
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
141. This sexually transmitted protozoan is common among male homosexuals.
A. Giardiasis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Trypanosomiasis
142. A patient’s stool examination was found to have a small structures resembling rice grains( proglottids) which
of the following organisms is the most likely present in the patient’s stool?
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
143. Humans are both the intermediate and definitive hosts of which parasite?
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
144. Acute infection of trypanosoma cruzi affects the skin foaming ‘ chagoma’. Chronic stage of disease will form
lesions on which organs.
I. Heart and digestive tract
II. Spleen and pancreas
III. Liver and spleen
A. I
B. II
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
145. A malarial organism producing ringlike and crescentlike forms within red blood cells
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale
146. A fungus formely classified as a parasitic Sporozoan affecting patients with immune deficiency.
A. Microsporidium
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Pneumocystis
D. Blastomyces
147. Diphyllobotrium latum infection may lead to the deficiency of which vitamin?
A. Vit A
B. Vit B9
C. Vit B1
D. VitB12
148. Most macroparasites are extracellular organisms. Which of the following is an intracellular parasite?
A. Enterobius
B. Trichinella
C. Strongloides
D. Ascaris
149. Relationship of animals living together in which one species lives in or on the body of another.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
150. A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical
environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
151. A relationship that manifests reciprocity of benefits between the organisms involved
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
152. A type of relationship that involve one-sided beneficial relationship which usually ending up in a harmful
relationship for one organism.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
153. Which of thef following statement(s) is /are true regarding viruses
I. Are cellular organisms, which require host to replicate
II. Contain genetic materials required for production of new viruses
III. Requires the hosts metabolic machinery to transcribe and translate genetic information
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
154. This is an example of an anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.
A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria
155. Which of the following virus family is characterized as a single stranded DNA, non-enveloped virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
156. This is characterized as the most complex DNA virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
157. This is/are examples of naked DNA viruses
I. papova
II Adeno
III. Parvo
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
157. This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses
I. Herpes
II.Hepadna
III.Pox
A. I only E. I, II and III
B. .... II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
159. Most of the RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which of the following RNA viruses replicate in the
nucleus
A. Retrovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Picorvirus
D. Paramyxovirus
160. Generally RNA viruses are single stranded viral organism. Which of the following is the only double-
stranded RNA virus
A. Rhinovirus
B. Coronavirus
C. Reovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
161. One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they are usually enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there
are three which are naked. Which of the following is/are naked RNA viruses?
I. Picornavirus
II. Reovirus
III. Retrovirus
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
162. This is a condition where there are small changes in the antigenic structure of an organism which mat later result
to an epidemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
163. This refers to the complete change in the antigenic structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new
antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the human immune system . This may result to a pandemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
164.Which of the influenza viruses is isolated in both man and animals
A. Influenza A
B. Influenza B
C. Influenza C
D. Influenza D
165. this condition that results when children with influenza or varicella are given Aspirin
A. Herxheimer reaction
B. Salicylism
C. Reye syndrome
D. Asthma
166. Amantadine used for influenza A infection has been shown to be effective preventing which step in the viral
replication process?
A. Penetration
B. Uncoating
C. Assembly
D. Release
167. this is/are examples of viruses classified under PAramyxoviridae family
I. influenza virus
II. Respiratory syncitial Virus
III.Measles virus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
168. A viral organism well known to involve infection of the parotid gland and testes in males.
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Herpes virus
D. Respiratory syncyitial virus
169. Koplik’s spots seen among patients with measles are usually localized in the
A. Upper Extremities
B. Lower Extremities
C. Mouth
D. Scalp
170. This/these statement/s is/are regarding patients with measles during pregnancy
I. may result to birth defects
II. is associated with spontaneous abortions
III. may also result to premature labor
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
171. Which of the following is/are transmitted via fecal oral route?
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
III.Hepa C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
172. Which of the following Hepavirus is/are example of RNA virus
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
III.Hepa C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
173. Chickenpox is a common disease of children. It is caused by
A. Pox viridae
B. Varicella
C. Zoster
D. CMV
174. Virus which is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma
A. EMV
B. CMV
C. Varicella-Zoster
D. HSV-1
175. The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a microscope is
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Giardia lamblia
176. Which of the following species can be found in the small intestine
B. Giardia lmablia
C. Trichuris trichuria
D. Enterobius vermicularis
177. This organism is one of the important cause of severe darrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as
patients with AIDS
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Isospora belli
D. Strongyloides stercolis
179. The most common and deadliest plasmodia
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae
180. The organism is the causative agent of erythema infectionism in children

A. Adenovirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Polymavirus
D. Cytomegalovirus
181. Which of the following belong/s to the group of the ARBOvirus?
I. Bunyaviridae
II. Falviviridae
Coronaviridae
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
182. The presence of this in the serum patients indicates immunity to Hepatitis B virus.
A. HBsAg
B. Anti HBsAg
C. Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
183. The presence of theis antigen indicates high infectivity and active disease of Hepa B virus
A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
184.The presence of this in the serum of the patient with hepatitis will ascertain that the patient have an old Hepatitis
B infection
A. Anti HBsAg
B. IgM-Anti HBcAg
C. IgG-Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
185. This is a parentallu transmitted(Blood-borne) hepatitis which can only replicate and cause infection with help of
Hepatitis B virus
A. HEV
B. HAV
C. HCV
D. HDV
186. This/ These statement/s is/are true for HSV-1
I. Causes gingivostomatitis
II. Causes herpetic keratitis
III. An STD
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
187. This is/are example of organisms that can cross the placenta
I. Rubeola
II. Cytomegalovirus
III. Leprosy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and
188. This is the ARBOvirus family from which the dengue fever and yellow fever virus are classified
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Caliciviridae
189. Which of the following viral organicm is characteristically associated with Peyer’s patchesof the intestines
A. Poliovirus
B. Rubella
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
190. This/These statement/s is/are true concerning the polio vaccine
I. Salk vaccine is made of killed-polio viruses
II. Sabin vaccine is made of attenuated polio virus
III. The vaccine can pick up virulence and cause paralysis
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
191. This/ These is/are the common viral organism/s
I. Rhinovirus
II. Coronavirus
III. Flavivirus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
192. Which viral organism has a characteristic bullet-shaped, enveloped, helical nucleocapsid?
A. Poliovirus
B. Rabies virus
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
193. This is/are statement(s) pertaining to the rabies virus
I. Brain cells of infected animals and humans contain virions in the cytoplasm called Negri bodies
II. Bitten individual should receive human rabies immune globulin(passive immunization)
III. Killed rabies virus vaccine (active immunization) is given only as prophylaxis for rabies.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
194. This is also known as the “break bone fever”
A. Dengue fever
B. Yellow fever
C. Hay fever
D. Relapsing fever
195. Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They may be classified according to their organ for
locomotion. Which of the following protozoan has no definite organ for motility
A. Sarcodina
B. Mastigophora
C. Ciliaphora
D. Sporozoa
196. Member(s) of the phylum Apicomplexa with motile zygote
I. Cryptosporidium
II. Plasmodium
III. Toxoplasma
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
197. This intestinal protozoan/s cause/s severe diarrhea in individuals with defective immune system such as
patients with AIDS
I. Giardia
II. Isospora
III. Crystosporidium
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
198. This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in humans
A. Cysts
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Cytostome
199. This is/are examples of free-living pathogenic amoebae in man
I. Entamoeba
II. Naegleria
III. Acanthamoeba
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
200. A protozoan which has high incidence of infection among campers and backpackers after drinking from “clear”
mountain streams.
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
201. This is an experimental drug given for AIDS patients suffering from Cryptosporidiosis
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
202. This is the drug of choice in AIDS patients suffering from Isospora belli infection\
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
203. This is the causative agent of the so called”Leningrad’s curse”
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
204. A protozoan organism usually opportunistic among patients with AIDS. It is naturally harboured by cats
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
205. This is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Isosporosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Toxoplasmosis
206. This drug is given both as a prophylactic and symptomatic treatment of PCP in AIDS patients.
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
207. this is the malarial species that causes the called ”Quartan malaria”
A. P.ovale C. P.malariae
B. P.vivax D. P.falciparum
208. This is/are true statements regarding malaria
I. Schizogeny or the asexual cycle of malaria occurs in mosquito
II. Sporogeny or the sexual cycle of malaria occurs in man
III. Mosquitoes are the definitive hosts for malaria
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
209. This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent or banana shaped gametocytes
A. P.ovale
B. P.vivax
C. P.malariae
D. P.falciparum
210. The release of this from of the malarial parasite triggers the fever, chills and sweats of malaria
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
211. This is/are the species of malaria which are capable of forming dormant in the liver called the hypnozoites
I. P. vivax
II. P.falciparum
III. P.ovale
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
212. This is a form of the malarial parasite that is taken up ny the mosquito as it bites on human
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
213. Which of the following drugs is given for the exo-erythrocytic form of malaria?
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline
214. This is/are agents given for Chloroquine-resistant P. falxiparum
I. Quinine
II. Fansidar
III. Mefloquine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
215. This is the drug coined used as the “radical cure” of malaria
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline
216. This is the only form of the blood-borne flagellates which is non-flagellated
A. Promastigote
B. Epimastigote
C. Amastigote
D. Trypomastigote
217. This is the organism which causes kala-azar or Viscerla Leishmaniasis
A. L.braziliensis
B. L.donovani
C. L.tropica
D. L.cruzi
218. This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

A. L.braziliensis
B. L.donovani
C. L.tropica
D. L.cruzi
219. This is thedrug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis

A. Primaquine
B. Stibogluconate
C. Pentamidine
D. Suramin
220. This is the causative agent of the West African sleeping disease
A. Trypanosome brucei rhodesiense
B. T.brucei gambiense
C. T.cruzi
D. L.donovani
221. this is the drug given for the treatment of African sleeping disease
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
222. There is currently no approved drug for the treatment of American sleeping disease, although there are two
drugs currently used for acute cases only. Which of the following drugs is used for acute cases of American sleeping
disease?
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
223. This is/ are examples of nematode that can cause infection by penetrating intact skin
I. Necator americanus
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Enterobius vermacularis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
224. This is/ are examples of nematodes which is/are acquired thru the ingestion of eggs
I. Ascaris lumbricoides
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Strongyloides stercoralis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
225. This nematode is acquired through the ingestion of encysted larvae present in pork meat.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichura
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichinella spiralis
226. This is the drug of choice for patients having Ascariasis
A. Pyrantel pamoate
B. Invermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
227. This is the drug of choice for patients having filriasis
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
228. Drug of choice for patients suffering from strongyloides sterecularis infection
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
229.This is the drug of choice for flukes

A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
230. The infection from this nematode will cause a rise in the levels of serum muscle enzymes such as creatinine
phosphokinase
D. Trichuris trichura
231. A helminth infection usually is accompanied by increase in the serum levels of eosinophils. This may be result
of the tissue invasion of the helminth. Which of the following organisms listed has no tissue invasion, hence, will not
manifest with elevated level of serum eosinophils.
232. This is a diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis
A. Kato thick method
B. Kato-katz method
C. Scotch tape swab method
D. Brine flotation technique
233. This is/are example(s) of nematode which is/are transmitted usually by an arthropod vector.
I. Onchocerca volvulus
II. Wuchereria bancrofti
III. Brugia malayi
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
234. This organism is usually acquired by fishermen eating raw small brackfish water fish called “bagsit”
( Hypseleotris bipartite )
C. Capillaria philippinensis
235. This drug is given as the drug of choice for the bancroftian filariasis
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
236. This is an example of trematode which inhibit/s the portal blood stream of vertebrates
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Clonorchis sinensis
237. This is/are example/s of flukes which inhibit/s the liver if vertebrates
I. Fasciola hepatica
II. Clonorchis sinensis
III. Paragonimus westermani
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
238. This is/are example/s of tapeworms which require/s a vertebrate as intermediate host
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
239. Which of the following tepeworms will require an invertebrate as intermediate host?
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
240. This is the organism which cause the Chinese liver fluke infection
D. Schistosoma japonicum
241. This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke
242. this is/are true statement/s regarding Schistosoma
I. They are the number one worldwide water-borne protozoal infection
II. They multiply in humans
III. Eggs must reach freshwater to hatch
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
243. There are different species of Schistosoma and common in them is they lay eggs in the feces. Which of the
following Schistosoma deposits eggs in the urine?
A. Schistosoma heamatobium
B. Schistosoma Israeli
C. Schistosoma mansoni
244. Aside from Praziquantel, this drug is also given for tapeworms
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Niclosamide
245. this is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
246. This is the organism causing the so called River blindness
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Onchocerca volvulus
247. This is the organism causing “Hydratid disease”
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
248. This is/are example/s of antihelminthic drugs which produce/s their effects by inducing paralysis of the worm
I. Praziquantel
II. Mebendazole
III. Diethylcarbamazine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
249. This is/ are example/s of filarial nematodes
I. Wuchereria bancrofti
II. Brugia malayi
III. Loa loa
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
250. Endotoxins are usually found in garam-neagative organism. Which of the is the only gram-positive organism
which produces an endotoxin
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium sp
D. Nocardia
251. This is the average time required for the population , or the biomass of an organism to double
A. Lag time
B. Growth rate constant
C. Generation time
D. Priming time
252. This is the portion in the bacterial growth curve representing the period at which the newly inoculated cells are
adapting to their new environment. Enzymes and intermediates are formed and accumulated until they are present
inn concentrations that permit growth to resume.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
253. This phase in the bacterial growth curve represents the time where exhaustion of nutrients or the accumulation
of toxic products causes growth to cease completely. There is slow loss of cells through death, which is just
balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division. This is a period where the total count slowly
increases although the variable count stays constant.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
254. This is/are example/s of drugs that cause/s the destruction of bacterial DNA
I. Ionizing radiation
II. Alkylating agents
III. UV light
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
255. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Amphotecin B as an antifungal agent/
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Alteration of cell membrane function
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
256. This is/are possible ways in which bacteria may gain resistance to antibacterial agents
I. Alteration of the target site
II. Synthesis of enzymes that modify or destroy the antibacterial agent
III. Presence of capsule inn a bacteria
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
257. This is/are example/s of drugs that inhibit/s the cell wall synthesis
I. Penicillins
II. Cyclosporine
III. Teicoplanin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
258. This/ These statement/s is/are true about the glycopeptide antibiotics
I. Given only parentally as it is not absorbed from the GIT
II. Given only for gram-positive organism
III. Potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
259. This is/are aminoglycoside antibiotics derived from Streptomyces species
I. Streptomycin
II. Gentamicin
III. Azithromycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
260. Tetracyclines are indicated for the treatment of bacterial infection from which organism/s
I. Staphylococcus
II. Mycoplasma
III. Chlamydia
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
261. This antibacterial agent claimed its glory by being the first broad spectrum antibiotic introduced. It contains a
nitrobenzene nucleus, which is responsible for some of its toxic side effects. It blocks the action of peptidyl
transferase, thereby preventing peptide bond synthesis. Currently its main indication is for infections of Salmonella
typi
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
262. This is the most common drug used as alternative for patients allergic to penicillins
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
263. This is a steroid-like compound that inhibit protein synthesis by forming a atable complex with elongation factor
EF-G , guanosine diphosphate and the ribosome. It is given for gram-positive cocci but not used alone due to the
development of rapid resistance to the drug.
A. Erythromycin C. sulfonamides
B. Fusidic acid D. lincomycin
264. sulphonamides are drugs acting as nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors by competing this substrate
A. Aminoacyl C. PABA
B. ATP D. Peptidyl tRNA
265. This is/are example/s of drugs which are structural analogues of the aminohyroxypyrimidine amoiety of folic
acid prevent/s its synthesis to THFS.
I. Trimethoprim
II. Pyrimethamine
III. Methotrexate
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
266. These antibacterial agents prevent the supercoiling of the bacterial chromosomes
A. Macrolides
B. Rifampicin
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Clindamycin
267. these drugs are contraindicated in children due to the possible toxic effects on cartilage development
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
268. This drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mRNA
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
269. This drug is currently given as the drug of choice for the prophylaxis of close contacts of meningococcal and
Haemophilus meningitis
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
270. This drug is important in the management of parasites and anaerobic bacteria
A. Rifabutin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Nitrofrantoin
271. This is/are true statements about Colistin
I. It is a polymyxin antibiotic acting on the cell membrane
II. It is systemically given for systemic infections
III. It is used topically for wound irrigation and bladder washout
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
272. Methenamine is used as urinary tract antiseptic/s. Methenamine is hydrolysed into which compound to provide
its antibacterial effect in the urinary tract?
A. Ethylene
B. Formaldehyde
C. Ammonia
D. Acetic acid
273. This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent its neurologic side effects
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyridoxine
D. Pyrazinamide
274. This is anti-TB drug that inhibits and does not kill mycobacterium tuberculosis. It usually presents an important
toxic side effects such as optic neuritis
A. Rifampicin C. Pyridoxine
B. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
275. This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistant M.leprae
A. Thalidomide
B. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Clofazime
D. Rifampicin
276. This is the most important agent used for severe systemic mycoses, but is toxic
A. Ketoconazole
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
277. This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol
synthesis
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
Flucytosine
C. Amphotericin
278. This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA synthesis and is active only on yeasts (candida and
Cryptococcus )
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
279. An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
280. This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids.
A. Haloprogin
B. Tolnaftate
C. Naftifine
D. Whitfield’s ointment
281. This antiviral agent specifically acts by inhibiting the penetration and uncoating of viral organism
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons
282. This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing vial protein synthesis
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons
283. This is/are example of antiviral agent/s that act in the viral DNA or RNA synthesis
I. Idoxuridine
II. Acyclovir
III. Zidovudine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
284. Vaccines are prepared from which of the following
I. Immunoglobulins
II. Killed organism
III. ‘Subcellular fractions
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
285. This was the first vaccine in human used to be made by recombinant DNA technology
A. Polio vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Hepa B
D. Measles vaccine
286. This is the only viral disease where post-exposure vaccination is successful due to its long incubation period
A. Polio
B. Rabies
C. Hepa B
D. Measles
287. This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth, and is classified as an alkylating agent
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions
288. This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of bacteria
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions2
289. These organisms do not require organic nutrients for growth.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
290. These are organisms that use an inorganic substrate as hydrogen or thiosulfate as reductant and carbon
monoxide as carbon source.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
291. These are organisms characterized to have flagella all over the cell body
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
292. These are organisms that possess no flagella
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
293. These are organisms that possess a tuft of flagella at one end
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
294. There are generally two types of stain ,a n Acidic and Basic stain. Which is/are true statement/s about Basic
stains
I. They are composed of colored cation with a colorless anion
II. They combine with negatively charged phosphate present in bacterial cells
III. They are used in negative staining
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
295. This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei
A. Feulgen stain
B. Carbofuchsin
C. Nigrosin
296. This is also known as the Welch method

A. Gram stain
B. Acid-fast stain
C. Spore stain
D. Capsule stain
297. A stain specifically used to stain spores

A. Malachite green
B. Carbolfuchsin
C. Nigrosin
D. Methylene blue
298. First proposed the theory of Biogenesis, which states that life must arise from pre-existing life
A. Louis Pasteur
B. John Tyndall
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Lazaro Spallanzani
299. Developed the method of producing immunity by using antitoxin against diphtheria
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich
300. A German physician given credit for developing pure-culture techniques
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich

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PUBLICH HEALTH, IMMUNOLOGY;

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

11. Transfer of genetic materials involving the so called “jumping genes”

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

29. A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing antibody is

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38. Immunologic suppression for transplantation may be induced by

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56. Vaccine for Whooping cough

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

67. Which of the following is true of staphylococcus epidermidis

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

112. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of

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123. this is the most common form of botulism

180. The organism is the causative agent of erythema infectionism in children

218. This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

219. This is thedrug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis

229.This is the drug of choice for flukes

296. This is also known as the Welch method

297. A stain specifically used to stain spores

Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

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