HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY

1. Which of the following is NOT included B. Lichenification

in the treatment algorithm for allergic C. Millium
rhinitis? D. Nervous
A. Implement appropriate E. Bulla
environmental controls. 6. Method of assessing the sinuses:
B. Consider Cromolyn if with sneezing, A. Inspection
itching and rhinorrhea. B. Percussion
C. Administer intranasal steroids if C. Transillumination
with sneezing, itching, rhinorrhea D. Expression
and nasal congestion. E. Auscultation
D. Give intranasal anticholinergics if 7. Which body position allows longer
with sneezing and ocular retention times for enemas?
symptoms. A. Lithotomy
E. If symptoms still not controlled, B. Supine
consider Montelukast. C. Sitting
2. Clinical presentation of Acute Renal D. Erect
Failure includes: E. Prone
A. Edema 8. Grade for hepatic encephalopathy with
B. Orthostatic Hypotension experience of drowsiness and grossly
C. Foamy Urine impaired calculation ability.
D. A, B, C A. Grade 0
E. A and B B. Grade 1
3. Nail and Nail beds are evaluated for C. Grade 2
which of the following? D. Grade 3
A. Clubbing E. Grade 4
B. Cyanosis 9. The following are factors that may
C. Trauma exacerbate established chronic renal
D. All of these failure, EXCEPT;
E. None of these A. Hypotension
4. Why is the Rinne test performed? B. Prostatic hypertrophy
A. To assess equilibrium C. Increased renal blood flow
B. To hearing acuity of high-frequency D. Nephrotoxins
sounds E. Hypertension
C. To evaluate hearing in a person 10. Another term for nearsightedness:
who hears better in one ear than A. Astigmatism
the other. B. Hyperopia
D. To compare air and bone C. Exophthalmos
conduction. D. Presbyopia
E. All of these E. Myopia
5. Blistering of skin due to second-degree 11. Which of the following may cause
burns is an example of a: “hairy tongue”?
A. Excoriation A. Hypercholesterolemia
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
B. Antibiotic therapy 17. Koilonychia is due to deficiency of
C. Measles ______.
D. Liver disease A. Iron
E. Aging B. Vitamin B12
12. Which strategy may be advised to a C. Calcium
patient who considers B-blockers D. Water
unpleasant to take? E. Vitamin C
A. Change the dosage regimen 18. Example of a Scale skin lesion:
B. Consider verapamil A. Hives
C. Encourage patient to use regularly B. Dandruff
D. A and B C. Measles rash
E. All of these D. Mouth sore
13. Which of the following is NOT TRUE E. Wart
regarding Captopril? 19. Which benzodiazepine is LEAST to be
A. Taken once daily used among elderly patients?
B. First-dose hypotension may occur A. Diazepam
C. May worsen renal failure B. Oxazepam
D. Cough and taste disturbance may C. Alprazolam
occur D. Lorazepam
E. Hyperkalemia may be expected E. Clonazepam
14. The following drugs may increase 20. First-line treatment for Myoclonic
anticoagulant effext, EXEPT: seizures:
A. Ketokonazole A. Phenobarbital
B. Estrogen B. Acetazoiamide
C. Gemfibrozil C. Phenytoin
D. Erythromycin D. Valproate
E. Zafiriukast E. Topiramate
15. Drug-induced bronchospasm due to 21. A patient is diagnosed with
reflex bronchoconstriction: parkinsonian syndrome if patient has
A. Pilocarpine bradykinesia, plus one or more of the
B. Aspirin following:
C. Lactose dry powder A. Classic rest tremor
D. Penicillin B. Muscular rigidity
E. Timolol C. Postural instability
16. Physical assessment technique of D. B and C
creating a note by tapping a finger E. A, B and C
placed on a body: 22. These are orders for in-line patients in
A. Palpation hospitals and other institution written
B. Auscultation by physicians on forms:
C. Ballotement A. Physician’s order sheet
D. Direct percussion B. Prescription
E. Indirect percussion C. Medication order
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
D. Recipe E. Close-ended
E. Patient’s chart
23. The following are types of information 28. “Spell WORLD backwards” is an
under social/economic database, example of a test for what area of
EXCEPT: mental state?
A. Daily activities A. Orientation
B. Ethnic backgroung B. Attention
C. Living arrangement C. Recall
D. Sexual history D. Registration
E. A and D E. Language
24. “Health is a state of complete physical, 29. Which information is under the
mental, and social well-being and not demographic database?
only merely the absence of disease or A. Patient identification number
infirmity.” This definition is according to B. Physicians and prescribers
which model? C. Occupation
A. Environmental model D. Personality type
B. Wellness model E. Ethnic backgroung
C. World Health Organization model 30. Volunteer service belongs to which
D. Medical model department in the hospital?
E. All of these A. Pharmacy service
25. Patients of psychiatric conditions B. Medical library
usually stay in which type of hospital? C. Business office
A. Non-governmental D. Medical social service
B. General E. Administrative
C. Long-term 31. When using the standardized outline
D. 400-499 bed-capacity approach, which of the following is NOT
E. Short-term followed when writing Progress Notes?
26. Which function of the hospital is geared A. Subjective data
towards the improvement of hospital B. Objective data
services and advancement of medical C. Recommendation
knowledge against disease? D. Impression
A. Research E. None of these
B. Wellness 32. The question “Are agents available in
C. Education commercial formulation?” represents
D. Patient care which request classification for drug
E. Expansion information?
27. Type of questioning: “What medication A. Adverse drug reaction
do you take for a headache?” B. Availability
A. Direct questioning C. Compounding/formulation
B. Indirect questioning D. Identification
C. Probing E. Compatibility/stability
D. Open-ended
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
33. When looking for information regarding
method of administration, which of the
following drug information sources may
be the most useful?
A. Drug facts and comparison
B. RPS
C. Goodman and Gilman’s
Pharmacological Basis of
Therapeutics
D. Martindale: The Complete drug
reference
E. USP DI
34. If the answer to the question “Do you
cough up blood?” is negative, which of
the following is to be noted that the
patient denied of?
A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
B. Hemoptysis
C. Shortness of breath
D. Exertional SOB
E. Rales
35. This is an important tool for assuring
the quality of drug use and controlling
its cost in an institution such as the
hospital
A. Essential drug list
B. Formulary system
C. Formulary
D. P&T committee
E. Core list
36. A facility where ambulatory patients are
seen for appointments and treated by a
group of physicians practicing together.
A. Long-term health care facility
B. Clinic
C. Hospital
D. County hospital
E. Resident treatment facility
37. Which of the following belongs to the
business management or administrative
side of the hospital?
A. Medical records
B. Medical library
C. Biomedical engineering
D. Pharmacy service
E. Dietary and nutrition service
38. Which of the following statements
regarding questioning strategies for the
pharmacist-patient encounter is
CORRECT?
A. Probing questions are assertive and
aggressive
B. Precise information may be
obtained using the close-ended
questions
C. Open-ended questions are for
narrow-focused answer
D. Direct questions encourages patient
to elaborate
E. All except A
39. Which of the following body areas is
last in the sequence followed for
physical examination?
A. HEENT
B. Genitals
C. Rectum
D. Neurological system
E. Lower extremities
40. The USP contains nomograms for
estimating body surface area (BSA) for
both children and adults. Which of the
following measurements must be
known in order to use the nomogram?
A. Age and height
B. Age and weight
C. Height and creatinine clearance
D. Height and weight
E. Weight and sex
41. Which of the following is a
comprehensive, unbiased source of
information on drugs often used at
hospital nursing station and serves as a
basis of pharmacist to extend their role
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
as pharmaceutical consultants to the E. Product availability
medical profession? 46. Which of the following journals cover
A. Minimum standards for pharmacies medical news and original articles?
in hospital A. Drug information journal
B. Mirror to hospital pharmacy B. Archives of internal medicine
C. International pharmaceutical C. New England journal medicine
abstract D. Medical letter
D. American journal of health-system E. Annals of pharmacotherapy
pharmacy 47. Which of the following describes a
E. Drug information medium intensity of feeling, which can
42. Which class of stock system consists of be used in medical interview?
predetermined list of medications that A. Marvelous
are usually used in large quantities and B. Upset
are prepackaged in standardized C. Distraught
containers? D. Blue
A. Unit-dose system E. Gloomy
B. Charge floor stock 48. The following statements regarding
C. Free floor stock arterial blood gases are true, EXCEPT:
D. Inpatient prescription system A. Alveolar hyperventilation if PaCo2
E. Coordinated control system <4.5 kPa
43. Aside from policy development, what is B. Oxygen saturation is measured by
the other purpose of P & T committee? pulse oximetry
A. Operation C. Alveolar ventilation may regulate
B. Organization PaCo2
C. Community health D. Low PaCo2 implies alveolar
D. Education hypoventilation
E. Drug administration E. Arterial oxygen tension < 12 kPa
44. Water for injection is an example of may indicate hypoxaemia
drugs dispensed in which type of stock 49. Which terms refer to a decreased
system? number of cell types is synonymous
A. Unit-dose system with aplastic anemia?
B. Charge floor stock A. Microcytic
C. Free floor stock B. Pancytopenia
D. Inpatient prescription system C. Aplastic
E. Coordinated control system D. Thrombocytopenia
45. Which of the following drug information E. Neutrophilia
may not be found in Physicians Desk 50. Which of the following is an invasive
Reference? test or procedure?
A. Lactation A. Insertion of central venous catheter
B. Drug of choice B. Taking of chest x-ray film
C. ADR C. Collection of spontaneously voided
D. Dosage urine
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
D. Comparative measurements of 56. What color of the stool is generally
body parts associated with upper gastrointestinal
E. All except B tract bleeding?
51. Which one of the following uses the A. Black
high frequency sound wave B. Gray
inperceptible to the human ear to C. Light gray
create image of organs? D. Brown
A. Standard radiography E. Red
B. Echocardiography 57. Which one of the following may
C. Echography indicate longer prothrombin time?
D. Echocardiogram A. Hepatic dysfunction
E. Radionuclide studies B. Increased vitamin K
52. Sexual history is under what patient C. Increased production of clotting
information type/section? factors
A. Demographic D. All of these
B. Medical E. None of these
C. Social 58. Which of the following is TRUE
D. Behavioral regarding chart patient preparation?
E. Administrative A. Abbreviations of any kind should
53. Assessment of pancreatic function may not be used
be determined by the following, B. Write in ink, felt, or pencil
EXCEPT: C. Blue ink is conventional
A. Glucose D. The patient should be identifiable
B. Amylase by at least 1 demographic
C. Thyroxine characteristic
D. Insulin E. All of the choices except B
E. None of these 59. Which one of the following may be an
54. Mini-mental status exam (MMSE) is an indication of the presence of white
example of what data type? blood cells in the stool?
A. Subjective A. Bile duct obstruction
B. Objective B. Gastrointestinal infection
C. Assessment C. Measles
D. Plan D. Dehydration
E. Either A or B E. Rapid gastrointestinal transit
55. Which one of the following is useful in 60. Which dosage form is utilized in barium
the diagnosis and monitoring of liver studies?
disease? A. Troches
A. Amylase B. Enema
B. Hematocrit C. Implant
C. Hemoglobin D. Ointment
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin E. Dressing
E. Bilirubin
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
61. Using the scratch test, which one of the C. Hemoglobin
following is not a criterion for D. Glucose
evaluation of the skin indicating the E. Bilirubin
patients sensitivity to allergen? 67. Test to evaluate the absorption of
A. Itchiness vitamin B12:
B. Swelling A. Schilling test
C. Redness B. Rinne test
D. No change/reaction C. Weber’s test
E. B and C D. Romberg test
62. A bronchoscope is introduced through E. Schamroth technique
the following openings, EXCEPT: 68. Which of the following pairs of clinical
A. Nose findings and laboratory values is TRUE?
B. Endotracheal tube A. Proteus mirabilis infection – urine
C. Rectum pH 9.0
D. Mouth B. Hypothyroidism – FTI4:6.4
E. None of these C. Warfarin therapy – bleeding time: 2
63. Which one of the following is a mins.
noninvasive test or procedure? D. Primart hyperparathyroidism –
A. Venipuncture serum chloride: 128 mEg/L
B. Radionuclide studies E. Previous myocardial infarction – CK-
C. Paracentesis MB: 5.7 ng/mL
D. Ultrasonography 69. Which of the following pairs of clinical
E. pH stimulation tests findings and laboratory values is FALSE?
64. Parameter of fecalysis that is used in A. Hepatocellular damage – female
the diagnosis of intestinal hemorrhage: patient;ALT: 50 U/L
A. Consistency B. Folic acid deficiency – male patient:
B. Fecal parasites 76%
C. Occult blood C. Lithium carbonate therapy – serum
D. Amount potassium: 2.1 mEg/L
E. pH D. Hemolytic disease – total biliburin:
65. Drug that may cause brown colored 0.8 mg/dL
urine: E. Diabetes mellitus – GTT: 180 mg/dL
A. Methyldopa at 2 hrs.
B. Rifampicin 70. Test used to diagnose myasthenia
C. Indomethacin gravis:
D. Doxorubicin A. Edrophonium tensilon test
E. Metronidazole B. Ventilation scanning
66. Major components of plasma proteins C. Scratch and patch test
and indicates severity in chronic liver D. Romberg test
disease E. Stress test
A. Albumin 71. Test of choice in patients suspected of
B. Creatinine having iron deficiency anemia:
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
A. Coomb’s test E. None of these
B. Serum ferritin 76. Which among the following is NOT a
C. ZPP fluorescence characteristic of therapeutic
D. C-reactive protein relationship between the patient and
E. Haptoglobulin the pharmacist?
72. This refers to the technique of A. Equality
manipulating unconscious or B. Trust
involuntary bodily processes made C. Empathy
perceptible to the senses by conscious D. Authenticity
mental control: E. Responsiveness
A. Naturopathy 77. Examples of metabolic complications
B. Auscultation during parental nutrition, EXCEPT:
C. Acupuncture A. Thrombocytopenia
D. Biofeedback B. Lipid intolerance
E. Holistic health C. Thrombophlebitis
73. BMI category indicating a possible D. Essential fatty acid deficiency
likelihood of chronic protein-energy E. Refeeding syndrome
under nutrition: 78. An important clinical skill that refers to
A. < 10 kg/ m2 the continuous process of deliberation
B. < 18 kg/ m2 and reflection during problem solving:
C. 18.5 – 20 kg/m2 A. Metacogniton
D. 20 – 35 kg/m2 B. Ethnocentricity
E. > 35 kg/m2 C. Adherence
74. In parental nutrition, which supplies D. Genuineness
chloride the most per mL? E. Manipulation
A. Sodium chloride 79. Which clinical findings is associated to
B. Potassium chloride measles?
C. Calcium chloride A. Hairy tongue’
D. Iron chloride B. Chvostek’s sign
E. None of these C. Osler’s node
75. Which of the following statements is D. Koplik spots
INCORRECT when handling cytotoxic E. Xanthelasma
drugs: 80. A small, circumscribed, elevated solid
A. Syringes and IV sets with luer-lock lesion:
fittings are recommended A. Papule
B. Syringe must be large enough to B. Vesicle
accommodate the total dose C. Patch
needed D. Macule
C. Syringe should not be three- E. Comedo
quarters full when containing the 81. What body organ is associated with
drug dose fetor hepaticus?
D. B and C A. Kidney
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
B. Uterus 87. Which of the following databases is
C. Oral mucosa published by the American society of
D. Skin health system pharmacists (ASHP)?
E. Liver A. MEDLARS
82. Practice sites for Ambulatory care B. International pharmaceutical
setting: abstract
A. Nursing homes C. Index medicus
B. Patient’s residence D. Toxline
C. Clinic environment E. EMBASE
D. A, B, C 88. What is deficient in curvy?
E. B and C A. Vitamin B1
83. Conditions that can affect vision, B. Vitamin C
EXCEPT: C. Calcium
A. Astigmatism D. Iron
B. Muddy sclera E. Phosphorus
C. Conical cornea 89. Blistering of the skin due to second-
D. Corneal arcus degree burns is an example of a:
E. All except B A. Excoriation
84. Which of the following describes a B. Lichenification
macule? C. Millium
A. Wart D. Vesicle
B. Colored lesion E. Bulla
C. Less than 1cm 90. Volume of air inspired or expired with
D. A and C normal breathing:
E. B and C A. Tidal volume
85. Which among the given characteristics B. Residual volume
is NOT true regarding social interactions C. Peak expiratory flow
as to space boundaries with patient? D. Forced tidal capacity
A. Patient is 4-12feet away E. A and B
B. Body contact is describe as out of 91. Comparative measurements of parts of
reach the body are used to assess nutritional
C. Eye contact is important status:
D. Low and frequent vocalization A. Manometry
E. None of these B. Anthropometrics
86. Herpes zoster is an example of C. Schilling test
_______? D. EMG
A. Patch E. ESR
B. Scale 92. Which of the following is NOT a primary
C. Vesicle literature for drug information?
D. Papule A. Morbidity and mortality weekly
E. Macule report
B. Annals of internal medicine
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
C. Clin-alert A. Bradycardia
D. Lancet B. Pallor
E. Pharmacotherapy C. Fatigue
93. Electrolyte level is increased due to D. Confusion
spironolactone use: E. Hepatomegaly
A. Potassium 99. What is the interaction of tetracycline
B. Magnesium and milk?
C. Sodium A. Potentiation
D. Calcium B. Drug displacement
E. Chloride C. Complexation
94. Drugs that mat cause dyspepsia: D. Enzyme inhibition
A. Corticosteroids E. Addition
B. Iron 100. In what section of the medical
C. Antibiotics chart can one find the patient’s past
D. Either A or B medical history (PMH)?
E. A, B, C A. Flow sheet
95. The following are precipitating factors B. Admit summary
of hepatic encephalopathy, EXCEPT: C. Admission form
A. Constipation D. Progress notes
B. High-protein diet E. Patient interview
C. Hyperkalemia
100. In what section of the medical chart can
D. Bacterial peritonitis
one find the patients past medical history
E. Benzodiazepines
(PMH)?
96. Contraindications to thrombolysis as an A. Flow sheet
intervention to acute coronary B. Admit summary
syndrome: C. Admission form
A. One week post partum D. Progress notes
B. CNS neoplasm E. Patients interview
C. Oral anticoagulant therapy
101. Which of the following decreases
D. A, B, C theophylline clearance?
E. A and C A. Cigarette smoking
97. When organizing a patient’s problem- B. Viral pneumonia
oriented medical record (POMR), which C. Phenytoin
of the following may be found on the D. Age (1-12 years old)
last pages/section? E. High-protein/ low carbohydrate diet
A. Graphic charts
102. who among the following under is under
B. Laboratory data the chief pharmacist but above the other
C. Progress notes position based on the organizational chart of
D. Medication list hospital?
E. Physicians order A. Staff pharmacist
98. Which of the following is NOT a clinical B. Chief administrative officer
manifestation of heart failure? C. Senior pharmacist
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
D. Supervising pharmacist 108. investigational drug study is part of which
E. Associate pharmacist service among the hospital pharmacy services?
A. Dispensing
103. which of the following is a qualification for B. Clinical
a senior pharmacist in a hospital? C. Compounding
A. With at least 3 years work experience
D. Research
B. With at least 1year pharmacy practice
E. Administrative
C. Have passed sub professional career
service eligibility examination 109. physical examination results may be found
D. MS in pharmacy or its equivalent in which section of medical chart?
E. With at least 18 units of post graduate A. Admit summary
studies B. Progress notes
C. Flow sheet
104. which of the following is a qualification for D. A, B, C
a supervising pharmacist? E. B and C
A. With at least 1year pharmacy practice
B. With at least 18 units of post-graduate 110. who is considered as the head of the
studies nutrition support team?
C. MS in pharmacy or its equivalent A. Pharmacist
D. With at least 3 years work experience B. Physician
E. Have passed sub professional career C. Nurse
service eligibility examination D. Dietitian
E. All of these
105. who among the following personnel
prepares reports of monthly consumption and 111. carcinogenesis is an example of what type
balance of stocks? of ADR?
A. Senior pharmacists A. Type A
B. Staff pharmacist B. Type B
C. Administrative aide C. Type C
D. Chief pharmacist D. Type D
E. Laboratory pharmacy aide E. Type E

106. which of the following drugs is deemed 112. syndromes that are typical of drug-induced
inappropriate for use in elderly patients? pulmonary disease, EXCEPT
A. Secobarbital A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
B. Meprobamate B. Asthma
C. Gluthetimide C. Plural effusions
D. Only A D. Interstitial fibrosis
E. A, B, C E. Pulmonary vascular disease

107. in the pharmacy functional chart, poison 113. ethambutol-optic neuropathy is an

control is part of which service? example of what type of ADR?
A. Dispensing A. Ending of use
B. Clinical B. Bizarre
C. Compounding C. Continuous
D. Research D. Failure of efficacy
E. Administrative E. Augmented
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
114. Deteriorated or outdated medications is E. No error, with harm
cause of what type of medication error?
A. Prescribing error 120. the green color coding for the medication
B. Dispensing error card is for drugs, administered:
A. O.D
C. Administration error
B. B.I.D
D. B and C
C. T.I.D
E. A, B, C
D. Q.I.D
115. which among the categories of medication E. H.S
error has the presence of error but poses no
harm? 121. to which government agency should the
A. Type A hospital submit the report on empty vials and
ampoules crushed and used as specimen
B. Type C
container?
C. Type F
A. DOH
D. Type G
B. PDEA
E. Type I
C. FDA
116. prescription for phenobarbital tablet is D. DTI
filed for how long? E. A and B
A. 6 months
122. prescription for phenobarbital tablet is
B. 1 year
filed for how long?
C. 2 years
A. 6 months
D. 3 years
B. 1 year
E. 5 years
C. 2 years
117. drugs that are implicated in disorders of D. 3 years
mood: E. It is not filed
A. Oral contraception
123. effects more pronounced in haloperidol
B. Analgesic
than in benperidol as antipsychotic agent
C. Steroids
A. Sedation
D. B and C
B. Reduced sexual drive
E. A, B, C
C. Tardive dyskinesia with long-term use
118. the following are found on the flow sheet D. Hormonal effects
section of the medical chart, EXCEPT E. All except B
A. Physical examination
124. which of the following may cause
B. Pulmonary function test
extrapyramidal symptoms as its adverse effect?
C. Chief complaint
A. Atropine
D. Laboratory test
B. Codeine
E. None of these
C. Phenothiazine
119. what does a category medication Error D. Streptomycin
means? E. Nitroglycerin
A. No error
125. which of the following age groups is
B. Error, no harm
considered as high-risk factor for atrial
C. Error, with harm
fibrillation?
D. Error, death
A. 20 to 35 years
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
B. Below 65 years’ old 131. Which is an add-on therapy to the
C. 65 to 75 years’ old standard pharmacotherapy to hypertension
D. Above 75 years’ old with diabetes mellitus?
E. No risk seen or proven A. Diuretics
B. ACE- inhibitors
126. Benzodiazepine-caused rebound insomia is C. Calcium channel blocker
an example of what category of adverse drug D. Angiotensin II receptor blocker
reaction? E. Aldosterone antagonist
A. Augmeted
B. Bizarre 132. Blood coagulation factor XI is also known
C. Continuous as
D. Delayed A. Proaccelerin
E. Ending of use B. Christmas factor
C. Hageman factor
127. Which of the ff. Is not consider as Class A D. Stuart- power factor
bioterrorism agent? E. Vin willebrand factor
A. Anthrax
B. Boil 133. The ff. are indication for TPN because
C. Tularemia enteral intake is inadvisable, EXCEPT
D. Viral hemmoraghic fever A. Short gut syndrome
E. Botulinum toxin B. Renal failure
C. Acute hepatitis
128. Which antiepileptic drug has the smallest D. Acute pancreatitis
starting dose (in mg) ? E. Severe cachexia
A. Carbamazepine
B. Clonazepam 134. Possible solution when pain and immobility
C. Valproate occurs during the night in a Parkinson disease
D. Gabapectin patient:
E. Phenytoin A. Reduce antioarkinsonian therapy
B. Use of slow-release levadopa
129. This replects the expansion of the role of C. Consider therapy
the hospital as to care programs and facilities: D. Drug holiday for 1 week
A. Organized health care E. More frequent doses of levadopa
B. Health- system
C. Institutional care 135. A posible finding for which test may
D. Patient care indicate antibody-mediated hemolysis?
E. Pharmaceutical care A. Indirect coombs test
B. Direct coombs test
130. Headache as an adverse effect of C. Schilling test
nitroglycerin belings to what category of ADR? D. Serum ferritin
A. Augmented E. Total reticulocyte count
B. Bizarre
C. Continuous 136. Which of the ff. is recommended for severe
D. Delayed refractory atopic dermatitis condition?
E. End of use A. Emollient
B. Topical calcineurin inhibitor
C. Topical corticosteroid
D. Taclorimus BID
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
E. Phototherapy A. Penicillin G
B. Amoxicillin
137. Which is NOT to be followed when given a C. Blood
prescription of Gentamicin 80'mgV PB q8 hr? D. Erythromycin
A. Gentamicin is added to amni-bottle E. Ampicillin
containing 100 mL 5% dextrose injection
B. Dose is given every 8 hours 143. Which among the ff. chemotherapeutic
C. Drug administration is by piggyback drug would Least induce emesis?
technique A. Fluorouracil
D. Flow rate required is atleast 30 minutes B. Cisplatin
E. None of these C. Carboplatin
D. Paclitaxel
138. Which of the following symptoms is E. Bleomycin
specifically controlled with intranasal
anticholinergic? 144. When the medication card is color coded
A. Nasal congestion violet, the administration of the drug is:
B. Sneezing A. Per orem
C. Itching B. B.I.D
D. Rhinorrhea C. H.S
E. Ocular symptoms D. Stat
E. Round the clock
139. This is the most common associated
symptom for Osteoarthritis. 145. Which among the ff. is NOT a required
A. Joint stiffness utensil/ apparatus/ equipment in a 25-bed
B. Crepitus capacity hospital?
C. Pain A. Filling cabinet
D. Joint deformity B. Funnel
E. Joint enlargement C. Hot plate
D. Tablet counter
140. Which of the ff. is the least considered at E. Analytical balance
risk factor for osteoporosis?
A. Low calcium intake 146. This refers to the, direct responsible
B. Male sex provision of medication-related care for the
C. Current cigarette smoking purpose of achieving definite outcomes that
D. Minimal sun exposure improve a patient's quality of life.
E. Estrogen deficiency befor age 45 A. Clinical pharmacy
B. Pharmaceutical care
141. Which of the ff. is NOT true regarding Drug C. Patient care
Usage Evaluation? D. Pharmaceutical service
A. It is the same as the drug utilization review E. Pharmacy
B. It is the same as drug therapy monitoring
C. It can be a research tool 147. The ff. drugs/agents may increase blood
D. It is justification of both distributive and glucose level, EXCEPT
clinical function A. Oral contraception
E. It considers pattern of drug use B. Phenytoin
C. Salicylates
142. Which of the following drug/s agent will D. Nicotinic acid
cause skin reaction the most? E. Diuretics
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
A. Buspirone
148. For chronic illness, what is the maximun B. Fluvoxamine
number of months to be supplied in a single C. Sertraline
dispensing of medicines? D. Paroxetine
A. 1 E. Clonazepam
B. 3
C. 6 154. Which is NOT a category under the
D. 12 laboratory data of the patient medical chart?
E. Nithing specified A. Microbiology
B. Urinalysis
149. Which of the ff. parenteral antibiotics used C. Arterial blood gases
to pyelonephritis may cause nephrotoxicity and D. Consults
ototoxicity? E. Type and screens
A. Co-amoxiclav
B. Cefuroxime 155. This is refers to a radiograph examination
C. Gentamicin of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra
D. Ciprofloxacin with the use of contrast media.
E. Meropenem A. Barium enema
B. Barium swallow
150. What procedure provides information C. Cholaangiogram
about the circulatory system at the back of the D. Intavenous pyelography
eye not attainable with a routine examination? E. Retrogade pyelography
A. Fundus photographs
B. Ocular ultrasound 156. Drug used in the treatment of
C. Flourescein angiography Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
D. Optic clearance tomography infection in HIV patient, EXCEPT
E. Indocyamine green angiography A. Azithromycin
B. Flucytosine
151. What is the standard time to be followed C. Dapsone
for "q12"? D. Primaquine
A. 6am-6pm E. Co-trimoxazole
B. 7am-7pm
C. 8am-8pm 157. Which of the ff. is NOT a dietary restriction
D. 9am-9pm for patients using monoamine oxidase
E. 12nn-12mn inhibitor?
A. Ripe Avocado
152. Which among the following utensils/ B. Soy sauce
equipment/ apparatus is foun in a 100-bed C. Snails
capacity, but not in a 10 or 25 bed capacity D. Celery
hospital? E. Beer
A. Mixer 2-L capacity
B. Calculating machine 158. Which of the ff. characteristic is FALSE
C. Rough balance regarding Tourette's Disorder?
D. Ring stand A. Echolalia
E. Ribbed funnel B. Facial twitching
C. Age of onset after 60 years
153. Which maybe concidered as an alternative D. Shoulder shrugging
drug for social anxiety disorder? E. Throat clearing
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
A. Bone marrow suppresion
159. This procedure is to evaluate the size, B. Tissue necrosis
shape and motion of the valves, septum and C. Rubella
walls and changes in chamber size during the D. Thypoid fever
cardiac cycle: E. Influenza
A. Echo cardiography
B. Electrocardiogram 165. Characteristic of a Stage I hypertension:
C. Coronary angiography A. DBP 80-89
D. Flourescein angiography B. SBP >160
E. Indocyamine green angiography C. DBP 90-99
D. >100
160. What is the best definition for the E. SBP 120-139
abbreviation AUC?
A. Area under the time curve 166. The ff. are required books in a hospital
B. Area under the curve pharmacy, EXCEPT
C. Area under the serum or blood concentration A. RPS
versus time curve B. PNDF
D. Area under blood concentration curve C. Goodman and gilman's pharmacological
E. Area under serum or blood concentration bases of therapeutics
curve D. USP-NF
E. Martindale's extra pharmacopeia
161. Which of the ff. is TRUE regarding type 2
diabetes millitus? 167. Example of macrovascular complication in
A. Predominantly secretory defect Type 2 Diabetes:
B. Beta cell distruction A. Nephropathy
C. Autoimmune B. Ischaemic skin changes
D. Idiopathic C. Retinopathy
E. Absolute insulin defeciency D. Abnormal ECG
E. Erectile dysfunction
162. A platelet count of 1200x103/mm3 may
indicate which condition? 168. Recommended drug therapy for stage 2
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency Hypertension
B. Leukemia A. Thiazide diuretic
C. Hemorrhage B. ACE inhibitor + ARB agent
D. Aplastic bone marrow C. ACE inhibitor or ARB agent
E. Immune disorder D. ACE inhibitor or ARB + CCB
E. Thiazide diuretic + ACE inhibitors or ARB or
163. Which of the ff. is a SIGN of cardio CCB
pulmonary arrest?
A. Anxiety 169. Clinical circumstances where
B. Cyanosis hospitalization should be considered and not
C. Diaphoresis just recommended for patient presenting with
D. Nausea and vomitting acute decompensated heart failure.
E. Dyspnea A. Dyspnea at rest
163. B. Acute coronary syndrome
C.hypotension
164. Which of the ff. is NOT an indication of a D. Altered mentation
WBC count of 25x103/mm3? E. Major electrolyte disturbance
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
E. Rosiglitazone
170. Risk factor for major bleeding while on
anticoagulant factor, EXCEPT 176. this term is defined as “the extent to which
A. Renal failure a person’s behavior taking medication,
correspond with agreed recommendations from
B. Age<60 years
a health care provider”
C. Heavy alcohol use
A. Patient compliance
D. Malignancy
B. Medication adherence
E. Recent history surgery
C. Medication consumption
171. the following are just suggested references D. Drug compliance
for the pharmacist in hospital pharmacy, E. Medication counselling
EXCEPT
A. Cross reference index 177. which patient classification makes the
B. Clinical laboratory medicine patient pay only 50% of the charges of
medication given and ancillary service
C. Medical dictionary
rendered?
D. Hospital formulary
A. Class C-1
E. None of these
B. Class C-2
172. A female patient presents a 55% Hct value. C. Class C-3
What does it mean? D. Class D
A. Polycythemia E. Class E
B. Hemoconcentration
178. the following are monitored when patient
C. Anemia
is under erythropoietis stimulant therapy,
D. Hemodilution
EXCEPT
E. A and/or B A. Blood pressure
173. which of the following required record B. Iron level
books is DOH hospital pharmacist exempted of? C. Complete blood count
A. Dangerous drug book D. Blood sugar levels
B. Prescription book E. Ferritin level
C. Poison book
179. which of the following is NOT a symptom
D. Red book
of heart failure?
E. Exempt dangerous drug book A. Hemolysis
174. what is elevated in a stage IV B. S2 gallop
hyperlipoproteinemia? C. Nocturia
A. Chylomicrons D. Bloating
B. LDL E. Exercise intolerance
C. HDL
180. what form of economic analyses estimates
D. VLDL
the ratio between the cost of health-related
E. IDL intervention and the benefit it produces in
175. which oral hypoglycemic agent will be terms of number of years lived in full health by
administered the MOST frequent? the beneficiaries?
A. Gliquidone A. Cost minimization analysis
B. Pioglitazone B. Cost utility analysis
C. Glimepride C. Cost benefit analysis
D. Chlorpropramide D. Cost interventional analysis
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
E. Cost effectiveness analysis
181. which among the following is NOT part of
the administrative service of the hospital
pharmacy?
A. Internship program
B. Financial management
C. Compliance to the regulatory
requirements
D. Drug supply management
E. Records and report
182. which is NOT the contraindication for
cardiopulmonary execise testing?
A. Uncontrolled hypertension
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Severe aortic stenosis
D. Acute pericarditis
E. Dyspnea upon exertion
183. thiazolidinedione
A. ZLD
B. TLD
C. TZD
D. TLD4
E. TADD
184. forced expiratory volume in 1 second
A. FEV1S
B. FEV
C. FexV1sec
D. FEV1
E. FExV1
185. Which of the following is NOT true
regarding the gastrointestinal adverse effect of
sulfonylureas?
A. Most commonly nausea and vomiting
B. Dose-related
C. Usually occur in the first 2-6 weeks of
therapy
D. Affects approximately 2% of user
E. May be avoided when taken with food
186. at what stage of stable chronic obstructive
pulmonary disorder is a short-acting
bronchodilator added in the therapy?
A. 0
B. I
C. II
D. III
E. IV
187. AAT is stands for?
A. Amino acid treatment
B. Alpha acid tolerance
C. Alpha1- antitrypsin
D. Active aortic tachycardia
E. Alveolar activity
188. what of economic analysis compares the
relative expenditure and outcome of two or
more courses of action?
A. Cost benefit analysis
B. Cost utility analysis
C. Cost effectiveness analysis
D. Cost interventional analysis
E. Cost minimization analysis
189. pharmaceutical care requires a direct
relationship between.
A. Medical doctor and pharmacist
B. Pharmacist an patient
C. Pharmacist and colleagues
D. Pharmacist and health care team
E. Ptient, doctor, and pharmacist
190. anemia may be possible condition for the
following values, EXCEPT
A. Male patient 30% Hct
B. Patient count 70x109L
C. Female patient 6g/dLHb
D. Male patient 2.2 mill/mm3 RBC
E. Hb 80 g/L
191. laboratory investigations as part of annual
review for diabetes, EXCEPT
A. Fasting lipid profile
B. HbA1c
C. Liver function test
D. Creatinine
E. Amylase test
192. which of the following drugs may NOT
cause gastrointestinal mucosa injury?
A. Estrogen
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
B. Ethanol A. Cimetidine
C. Aspirin B. Dimenhydrinate
D. Reserpine C. Famotidine
E. Warfarin D. Diphenhydramine
E. Cyclizine
193. what is fundamental to the pharmacy
professions purpose of helping people make the 199. which of the following drugs may cause
best use of medication? diarrhea?
A. Clinical pharmacy A. Tetracycline
B. Medication therapy management B. Methyldopa
C. Pharmaceutical care C. Neostigmine
D. Commitment D. A and B
E. Professional responsibility E. B and C
194. endoscopy-negative reflux disease 200. the following are Ex- officio members of
A. ENRD the members and therapeutics comitte export
B. E (-) A. Chief phamarcy
C. E-RD B. Chief nurse
D. (-) ERD C. Chief administrative officer
E. ERD-Neg D. Phic representative
195. an increase in Sodium values may mean E. None of the choices
the following condtion, EXCEPT
201. which is NOT a clinical manifestation of
A. Adrenal insufficiency
liver cirrhosis
B. Diabetes insipidus
A. Pruritus
C. Aldosteronism
B. Increased libido
D. Impaired renal function
C. Weight loss
E. None of these
D. Hyperpigmentation
196. which of the following proton pump E. Spider angioma
inhibitor is NOT commercially available as
tablet? 202. the patient has medication indication but
A. Omeprazole is taking the wrong medication what category of
B. Pantoprazole medication related problem is indicated.
C. Lansoprazole A. Failure to receive medication
D. Esomeprazole B. Medication use without indication
E. None of the given choices C. Subtherapeutic dosage
D. Improper drug selection
197. this compares the cost of therapies that
achieve the same outcome: E. Untreated indications
A. Cost minimization analysis
203. which is NOT included in the treatment
B. Cost operational analysis
approach for acites?
C. Cost effectiveness analysis
A. Diuretics
D. Cost benefit analysis
B. Diet
E. Cost utility analysis
C. Paracentesis
198. which of the following antiemetic D. Antibiotic therapy
preparation may NOT be given OTC? E. Intrahepatic shunt
 HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY
204. the followingare possible medical
condition related to a trigly value of 185 mg/dl
except
A. Diabetes
B. overcomesumption of alchol
C. Nephiritic syndrome
D. Biliary obstruction
E. Pancreatitis

205. which of the following drugs has a definite

association with acute pancreatitis?
A. Ferpsomide
B. Propol
C. Rifampin
D. Paclitaxel
E. Ciprofloxacin

206. cushings syndrome may be a possible

condtion indicated by an increased value of
which
A. Fbs
B. Hdl
C. Triglyceride
D. Calcium
E. Potassium

207.somatic diagnoticscriteria for pramentrual

syndrome 9pms0 except
A. Headache
B. Depression
C. Abdominal bloating
D. Swelling of extremities
E. Breast tenderness

208. para-amino hippuric acid

A. Pha
B. P-aha
C. PAH
D. PAHA
E. pAHA

209. which of the following is not included in th

hospital formulary?
A. Table of sodium content of antacids