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48 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (2)

Chapter 7 Neutrophils (WBC) and macrophages show pseudopodial movement.

5. Which of the following structures contract and relax rhythmically to produce movement?
(1) Flagella (2) Cilia (3) Muscles (4) Pseudopodia
Sol. Answer (3)
Locomotion and Movement Muscles have the capibility to contract and relax rhythmically to help in movement.

(Locomotion and Muscles)

6. Which of the following is not a function of locomotion?

Solutions (1) Procurement of food (2) Finding mate


(3) Peristaltic movements (4) Searching and building of shelter
Sol. Answer (3)
SECTION - A Locomotion helps in procurement of food, finding of mate and searching and building of shelter. Peristalsis
movement in alimentary canal or oviduct helps in condition of food and ovum through them, respectively.
Objective Type Questions
(Movements of Body Parts) 7. The muscle is a specialised tissue which is originated from
1. The movements which results in change of place or location constitutes (1) Endoderm (2) Mesoderm (3) Ectoderm (4) Yolk sac

(1) Locomotion (2) Protoplasmic streaming Sol. Answer (2)

(3) Vital movement (4) Elasticity Specialised tissue such as muscle, bones and cartilage are originated from mesoderm.

Sol. Answer (1) 8. The specialised cells that make the muscular tissue are
Locomotion : The movement that results in change of place on location. (1) Neuroblast (2) Osteoblast (3) Osteocytes (4) Myocytes
Protoplasmic streaming : Due to movement of protoplasm, pseudopodial movements in case of organisms Sol. Answer (4)
like amoeba are able to move. Myocytes : muscle cells
Osteoblast : bone forming cells
2. Amoeba shows movement with help of
Osteocytes : bone cells
(1) Pseudopodia (2) Flagella (3) Cilia (4) Muscle
Neuroblast : neurons forming cells
Sol. Answer (1)
Neuroblast : an embryonic cell that develops into a nerve cell or neuron.
Amoeba is unicellular organism in which movement occurs due to pseudopodia.
9. A human body contains how many muscles?
3. __________ circulates blood to different parts of the body. (1) 640 (2) 639 (3) 600 (4) 700
(1) Peristaltic movement of oesophagus (2) Pumping of heart Sol. Answer (2)
(3) Peristaltic movement of intestine (4) Ciliary movement of oviduct
10. A collagenous connective tissue layer hold the muscle bundles together.
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Perimysium (2) Endomysium (3) Epimysium (4) Fascia
 Pumping of heart is necessary for the circulation of blood to different parts of the body. Sol. Answer (4)
 Peristalsis is necessary for conduction of food in alimentary canal. The collagenous connective tissue that holds the muscle together is known as fascia.
 Ciliary movement of oviduct conducts ovum through it.
11. A bundle of muscle fibre is called
4. The two cells of the body which show pseudopodial movement are (1) Fascia (2) Glenoid cavity (3) Myocyte (4) Fasciculus

(1) RBC and WBC (2) WBC and macrophages Sol. Answer (4)

(3) Liver cell and WBC (4) Macrophages and liver cell A single bundle of muscle fibres is known as fasciculus (plural : fasciculi).

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12. The sheath covering the bundle of muscle fibres is Sol. Answer (4)
(1) Epimysium (2) Endomysium (3) Perimysium (4) Mesoderm A sarcomere is the zone between two Z-lines.
Sol. Answer (3) Z line
A band I band
 The sheath that covers the muscle is epimysium.
 Mesoderm – germ layer
 The sheath that covers the muscle fibre is endomysium.

H zone
13. Tendons connects Sarcomere
(1) Muscle to bone (2) Bone to vertebral column
19. Which of the protein is not a part of thin myofilament?
(3) Bone to bone (4) Bone to cartilage
(1) Myosin (2) Actin (3) Troponin (4) Tropomyosin
Sol. Answer (1)
Tendons : Connects muscles to bones. Sol. Answer (1)

Ligament : Connects bone to bone. Thick myofilaments : myosin


Thin myofilaments : actin, tropomyosin, troponin.
14. The plasma membrane of the muscle fibre is called
(1) Sarcoplasma (2) Sarcolemma (Mechanism of Muscle Contraction and Muscle Relaxation)
(3) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (4) Syncytial 20. The monomeric protein which polymerises to form myosin is
Sol. Answer (2) (1) Actin (2) Meromyosin (3) Tropomyosin (4) Troponin
Sarcolemma : Plasma membrane of the muscle fibre Sol. Answer (2)
Sarcoplasma : Cytoplasm of muscle fibre
Meromyosin is the monomer of myosin.
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum : Endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibre.
Syncytial : A cell having multiple nuclei assumed to be formed by fusion. 21. Select the correct option
(1) HMM = Tail + Short arm (2) LMM = Tail + Head
15. The dark band present on myofibril is
(3) HMM = Head + Short arm (4) LMM = Head
(1) Isotropic band (2) Anisotropic band (3) Hensen’s zone (4) M-line
Sol. Answer (2) Sol. Answer (3)

The dark band present on the must fibre is known as Anisotropic band which is consists of myosin and actin HMM = head + short arm
both. LMM = tail

16. M-line passes through the centre of


22. ATP binding site is located on the
(1) Z-disc (2) I-band (3) HMM (4) H-zone
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Actin (3) Myosin (4) Troponin
Sol. Answer (4)
Sol. Answer (3)
M-line is the dark line made of fibrous tissue which holds the thick myofilament together is found in the lighter
zone known as H-zone. ATP binding site is located on the myosin head where ATPase is present.

17. The structural and functional unit of myofibril which contracts to cause movement is called 23. The anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle causes deposition or accumulation of
(1) Sarcolemma (2) Sarcomere (3) Fascia (4) Myosin
(1) Gluconic acid (2) Lactic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
(3) Pyruvic acid (4) Hydrochloric acid
The structural and functional unit of myofibril is known as sarcomere which is the section between two Z-lines.
Sol. Answer (2)
18. A sarcomere consists of Due to anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle, deposition of lactic acid takes place which results in fatigue
(1) One A-band and one I-band of muscles.
(2) Half A-band and two half I-band
(3) Half A-band and one I-band 24. 80% of the lactic acid is converted to _______ in the liver.

(4) One A-band and two half I-band (1) Cellulose (2) Acetyl CoA (3) Glycogen (4) Starch

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Sol. Answer (3) Sol. Answer (4)


80% of the lactic acid is converted to glycogen in the liver. The whole phenomenon is known as 'Cori's cycle'. Cranium (8) — Frontal (1)
Parietal (2)
Muscle Energy
Temporal (2)
glycogen
Occipital (1)
Muscle
lactic acid
Ethmoid (1)
Sphenoid (1)
Blood
Glucose Cari's Cycle 29. Head of humerus articulates with _________ cavity
Blood
(1) Glenoid (2) Acetabulum (3) Foramen magnum (4) Obturator foramen
lactic acid
Sol. Answer (1)
Liver
glycogen Liver
(80%) Head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity present in the scapula.
lactic acid

20% oxidised to CO2 + H2O 30. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(Joints and Disorder of Muscular and Skeletal System)
a. Incus (i) Hammer shaped
25. Muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of
b. Malleus (ii) Stirrup shaped
(1) CO2 (2) Myosin ATPase (3) Lactic acid (4) Creatine phosphate
Sol. Answer (3) c. Stapes (iii) Anvil shaped

Muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic oxidation of glucose. (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

Sol. Answer (4)


(Skeletal System)
31. The U-shaped bone present at the base of buccal cavity is
26. Number of floating ribs are
(1) Skull (2) Hyoid (3) Incus (4) Stapes
(1) 2 pairs (2) 12 pairs (3) 7 pairs (4) 3 pairs
Sol. Answer (2)
Sol. Answer (1)
The unpaired U-shaped bone upon which the tongue rests is known as hyoid bone.
 Floating ribs : 2 pairs, 11th and 12th
A rib is said to be floating if it does not attach to the sternum or to another rib. 32. The longest bone of the thigh is

 True ribs : First seven pair of ribs attach to the sternum (breast bone) in front are known as true ribs. (1) Phalanges (2) Tarsal (3) Femur (4) Metatarsal

 False ribs : Lower 3 pair of ribs do not directly connect to the sternum and are connected with 7th rib. Sol. Answer (3)

The longest bone of thigh is 'Femur'.


27. The number of bones present in the skeleton that runs along the middle longitudinal axis of the body is
(1) 87 (2) 90 (3) 80 (4) 78 33. Match the following
Sol. Answer (3) Column I Column II

28. Cranium protects the brain is made up of a. Tarsal (i) 14

(1) 9 bones b. Phalanges (ii) 1

(2) 18 bones c. Meta tarsal (iii) 7

(3) 28 bones d. Femur (iv) 5


(4) 8 bones (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

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Sol. Answer (1) 2. In one of the following functions white muscles are not used
Tarsal – 7, (talus, calcaneum navicular, cuboid, 3rd cuneiform, 2nd cuneiform 1st cuneiform) (1) Moving of eye balls
Phalanges – 14, (3 in each finger other than toe which has 2) (2) Fast and strenuous work for short duration

Meta tarsal –5 (3) For sustained work at a slow rate for a prolonged duration
(4) Fast flights as in sparrows
Femur –1
Sol. Answer (3)
34. The joint present between radius and ulna is
White muscle fibres contract very fast and for a shorter duration. So, it is helpful in :
(1) Gliding joint (2) Saddle joint (3) Pivot joint (4) Angular joint
 Movement of eye balls
Sol. Answer (3)
 Fast and strenuous work for short duration
Pivot joint : One bone rotates around another
 Fast flights as in sparrow.
e.g., radius over ulna
Gliding joint : Two bones can glide over each other, surfaces are flat or curved It is not found in the muscles required for contraction at a slow pace and for prolonged duration.

e.g., wrist / tarsal bone 3. The backward bending of the shank is worked out by
Saddle joint : The convex end of one bone fixes into the saddle like depression of the other bone (1) Gluteus maximus (2) Quadriceps femoris muscles
e.g., human thumb and carpals. (3) Adductor group of muscles (4) Gastrocnemius and hamstrings
Angular joint : Allows movement is two planes Sol. Answer (4)
e.g., between metacarpals and phalanges.  Adductor group of muscles – helps in bending of limbs towards mid-line of body.
 Gluteus maximus – in upper thigh for movement.
35. In Myasthenia gravis ________ is affected.
 Quadriceps femoris – biggest muscle; present in thigh for extension.
(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (2) Sarcolemma
4. Which one is not the character of red skeletal muscle?
(3) Neuromuscular junction (4) T-tubules
(1) Smaller diameter (2) More mitochondria
Sol. Answer (3)
(3) More sarcoplasmic reticulum (4) More blood capillaries
In myasthenia gravis, neuromuscular junction is affected. It is an autoimmune disease in which the antibodies
attack and block the acetylcholine receptors at the post synaptic membrane inhibiting the excitatory effects Sol. Answer (3)
of neurotransmitter. In red muscle fibres, less sarcoplasmic reticulum is found but more mitochondria, blood capillaries and smaller
diameter than white muscle fibres.
SECTION - B
5. Which of the following is an example of multiunit smooth muscles?
Objective Type Questions
(1) Smooth muscle in uterine wall (2) Smooth muscle with the intestine
(Muscles)
(3) Masseter muscle of the jaw (4) Arrector pili muscle of skin
1. Select the true statement
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) A band is present in the middle of sarcomere (2) H zone is present in the middle of A - band
Multiunit smooth muscles fibre : The smooth muscle cells in an organ, behave independently (each cell
(3) M line is present in the middle of H - zone (4) All of these contracts and relaxes on its own).
Sol. Answer (4) e.g., Vascular smooth muscle
Z line
A band I band Single unit smooth muscle : Cells are interconnected; all contract as a single unit.
e.g., GI tract
Urinogenital tract.

6. Least blood supply will be present in case of


H zone
Sarcomere
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle (3) Cardiac muscle (4) None of these
 A band is present in the middle of the sarcomere.
Sol. Answer (2)
 H-zone is present in the middle of the A-band
Least blood supply is found in case of smooth muscle fibre while abundant in smooth muscle fibre as well
 M-line is present in the middle of H-zone. as cardiac muscle fibre.

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 55 56 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

7. Which of the following muscles are not under the voluntary control of nervous system? 12. The potential difference across the membrane of a relaxed muscle fibre is called resting potential. It amounts
(1) Pharynx (2) Urinary bladder to about
(3) Anterior end of oesophagus (4) Tongue (1) –70 mV (2) 50 mV (3) 100 mV (4) 50-100 mV
Sol. Answer (2) Sol. Answer (1)
In urinary bladder involuntary smooth muscle fibres are present. The resting membrane potential is –70 mV. Which is due to negative charge inside and positive charge outside
Pharynx, oesophagus and tongue are under the voluntary control. the neuronal membrane.
13. Cori cycle involves
(Mechanism of Muscle Contraction and Muscle Relaxation)
(1) Liver (2) Muscles
8. During muscle contraction in a skeletal muscle fibre, Ca2+ combines with
(3) Liver and muscles both (4) None of these
(1) TPT (2) TPC (3) TPI (4) Tropomyosin
Sol. Answer (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
Cori's cycle involves liver and muscles both as organs which is mediated by blood.
The Ca2+ ions combines with troponin C of the troponin complex and changes the configuration of the complex
resulting in the opening of the myosin bunding site of actin.
(Skeletal System)

14. Foramen magnum is associated with which bone?

TpT (1) Frontal (2) Parietal (3) Temporal (4) Occipital

2+
Sol. Answer (4)
Ca
Foramen magnum found in the occipital bone, is a passage through which medulla oblongata connects with
the spinal cord.
TpC TpI
15. Tongue bone is
(1) Mandible (2) Hyoid (3) Flat bone (4) Coccyx
TpT
TpC TpI Sol. Answer (2)
Hyoid bone : is also known as tongue bone because tongue is attached to this single bone.
9. The contraction of muscle of shortest duration is seen in
(1) Jaws (2) Eye lids (3) Heart (4) Intestine Mandible : Jaw bone

Sol. Answer (2) Coccyx : tail bone


The contraction is faster and for a shorter duration is in white muscle fibre.
16. Number of anterior curves present with human vertebral column is
e.g., eyelids.
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 1
10. In a contracted skeletal muscle fibre Sol. Answer (1)
(1) M line disappears (2) H-zone elongates In total four curves are present in the vertebral column, out of which 2 are anterior.
(3) I-band remains constant (4) A-band disappears
Cervical curve
Sol. Answer (1)
In a contracted muscle fibre, following happens –
 H-zone shortens Thoracic
curve
 I-band shortens
 A-band remains constant.
Lumbar curve
11. One of the following ions is essential for muscular contraction Sacral curve
(1) Na+, Ca++ (2) Mg++, Ca++ (3) Mg++, K+ (4) K+, Na+
17. The heaviest and largest vertebrae are
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Thoracic (2) Lumbar (3) Cervical (4) Sacral
Mg2+, Ca2+ ions are necessary for muscular contraction.
2+
Mg Sol. Answer (2)
 G - actin ⎯⎯⎯→ F - actin
 Ca2+ binds to the TpC and displaces troponin complexes, making myosin binding site free. The heaviest and largest vertebrae is lumbar vertebrae.

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18. Type of vertebrae in case of human is 21. Phalangeal formula for the hand is
(1) Amphiplatyan (2) Procoelus (3) Amphicoelus (4) Heterocoelus (1) 23333 (2) 33333 (3) 33322 (4) 32333
Sol. Answer (1) Sol. Answer (1)
Humans have amphiplatyan types of vertebrae. Phalangeal formula of hand is 23333, 2 phalangeal bones in thumb while rest fingers contain 3 phalangeal bones.
Anterior
22. Obturator foramen is enclosed between

⎬ Amphiplatyan (1) Ilium, ischium and pubis (2) Ischium and pubis
⎭ (3) Ilium and ischium (4) Ilium and pubis
Posterior
Procoelus Amphicoelus Heterocoelus Sol. Answer (2)
Anterior Dorsal Obturator foramen is found in the coxal bone, enclosed between ilium, ischium and pubis.
anterior
Ventral
Dorsal Ilium
e.g., typical vertebra of
th Posterior
lizard, frog and snake e.g., fishes, 8
vertebrae of frog
Acetabulum
Ventral
e.g., birds
Ischium Obturator Foramen
19. Deltoid ridge is found in which one of the following bones?
Pubis
(1) Radius (2) Tibia (3) Femur (4) Humerus
Sol. Answer (4)
Deltoid ridge is found is humerus. 23. Which of the following are involved in the formation of acetabulum?

Greater tuberosity
a. Ilium
Head of humerus
b. Ischium
Lesser tuberosity
c. Pubis
(Articulates with (1) a & b only (2) b & c only (3) a & c only (4) a, b & c
glenoid cavity)
Deltoid ridge (Deltoidius muscle attached) Sol. Answer (4)

Median side Lateral side Acetabulum is formed by ilium, ischium and pubis.

Trochlea 24. Mark the odd one w.r.t. girdle bones


Coronoid fossa (1) Clavicle (2) Ischium (3) Ileum (4) Pubis
Median condyle Lateral condyle
Sol. Answer (3)
20. Olecranon fossa is present with Ileum is a part of small intestine.
(1) Radius (2) Ulna (3) Humerus (4) Femur
(Joint and Disorder of Muscular and Skeletal System)
Sol. Answer (3)
25. Which one of the following is a viral disease that weakens the muscles?
Olecranon fossa is present in the humerus.
(1) Atrophy (2) Poliomyelitis
(3) Dystrophy (4) Muscular hypertrophy
Sol. Answer (2)
Poliomyelitis is caused by poliovirus which weakens the muscles.
Olecranon
Atrophy in a condition in which there is degeneration of muscles, it may occur due to cancer, AIDS, COPD
fossa
etc.
Posterior view Dystrophy is due to inability to produce dystrophin and is a genetic disorder.
of humerus Muscular hypertrophy is increase in size of the cells. e.g. in case of body builders.

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6. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as [NEET-2016]
SECTION - C
(1) Tonus (2) Spasm (3) Fatigue (4) Tetanus
Previous Years Questions
Sol. Answer (4)
1. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it [NEET-2018]
Sustained muscle contraction due to repeated stimulus is known as tetanus.
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
7. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(1) Locomotion (2) Production of erythrocytes
(3) Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament. (3) Storage of minerals (4) Production of body heat
(4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament. Sol. Answer (4)
Sol. Answer (1)
8. Which of the following joints would allow no movement? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
• Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level many folds in the sarcoplasm.
(1) Ball and Socket joint (2) Fibrous joint (3) Cartilaginous joint (4) Synovial joint
• Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin (troponin "C") which is masking the active site on actin filament
and displaces the sub-unit of troponin. Sol. Answer (2)

• Once the active site is exposed, head of the myosin attaches and initiate contraction by sliding the actin
9. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as [AIPMT-2015]
over myosin.
(1) When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin filaments shorten while Actin filaments do not shorten
2. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of [NEET-2017]
(2) When myofilaments slide pass each other Actin filaments shorten, while Myosin filament do not shorten
(1) Fibrous joint (2) Cartilaginous joint (3) Synovial joint (4) Saddle joint
(3) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
Sol. Answer (3)
(4) Actin and Myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of synovial
joint which provide rotational movement as in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral column. Sol. Answer (4)

3. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values Actin filament slides over thick filament i.e., the myosin filament.
of X and Y and provides their explanation [NEET-2017]
10. Glenoid cavity articulates [AIPMT-2015]
(1) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum
(1) Humerus with scapula (2) Clavicle with acromion
(2) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends
(3) Scapula with acromion (4) Clavicle with scapula
(3) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side
Sol. Answer (1)
(4) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side
Scapula has shallow articular surface called glenoid cavity. This articulates with the head of the humerus to form
Sol. Answer (1) the shoulder joint.
In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7 pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to vertebral 11. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with its example in human skeletal system: [AIPMT-2014]
column and ventrally to the sternum.
Type of joint Example
4. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle
contraction. [NEET (Phase-2)-2016] (1) Cartilaginous joint – Between frontal and parietal

(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium (3) Sodium (4) Potassium (2) Pivot joint – Between third and fourth cervical vertebrae

Sol. Answer (1) (3) Hinge joint – Between humerus and pectoral girdle

Calcium ions bind with TpC unit of troponin which is responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for (4) Gliding joint – Between carpals
crossbridge activity during muscles contraction. Sol. Answer (4)
5. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to [NEET (Phase-2)-2016] Bones are tightly packed, joint allows movement in only one direction i.e. side to side movement. The articulate
(1) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue ends of both the bones are flat or curved.

(2) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+ 12. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at [AIPMT-2014]
(3) Decreased level of estrogen (1) The neuromuscular junction (2) The transverse tubules
(4) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints (3) The myofibril (4) The sarcoplasmic reticulum
Sol. Answer (3) Sol. Answer (1)
Osteoporosis in aged female after menopause is due to decreased level of estrogen. The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma is called neuromuscular junction or motor end plate.

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13. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is: [NEET-2013] Gout : due to accumulation of uric acid.
Characteristics Examples Anaemia : deficiency of iron.
(1) Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion Skull bones Angina pectoris : pain due to ischaemia due blockage or other reasons.
(2) Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones Joint between atlas and axis
19. Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description?
(3) Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement Gliding joint between carpals
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(4) Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements Knee joint
Sol. Answer (2)
Structures Description
14. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans: [NEET-2013]
(1) Tibia and fibula – Both form parts of knee joint
(1) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.
(2) Cartilage and cornea – No blood supply but do require
(2) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae oxygen for respiratory need
(3) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint
(3) Shoulder joint and elbow joint Ball and socket type of joint
(4) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people
Sol. Answer (1) (4) Premolars and molars – 20 in all and 3 rooted

15. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to [NEET-2013]


Sol. Answer (2)
(1) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
(2) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band 20. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
(3) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(4) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band (1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint
Sol. Answer (2) (2) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs
16. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive
skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates
Sol. Answer (1)
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
The parietal bone and temporal bones are connected with fibrous joint.
(1) Humerus and ulna Appendicular skeleton
– First vertebra is atlas
(2) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
– 9th and 10th ribs comes under false ribs
(3) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton – Glenoid cavity is found in the pectoral girdle.
(4) Clavicle and Glenoid cavity Pelvic girdle
21. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
Sol. Answer (4) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
Clavicle and glenoid cavity are part of pectoral girdle. (1) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
17. The type of muscles present in our [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (2) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle
(1) Thigh are striated and voluntary (3) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
(2) Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape
(4) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle
(3) Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
Sol. Answer (3)
(4) Intestine are striated and involuntary
Sol. Answer (1) 22. Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
18. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Gout (2) Tetany Items Group
(3) Anaemia (4) Angina pectoris (1) Ilium, ischium, pubis – Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
Sol. Answer (2) (2) Actin, myosin, rhodopsin – Muscle proteins
Low Ca2+ leads to tetany. Low level of calcium in the extracellular fluid / blood plasma leads to increase in (3) Cytosine, uracil, thiamine – Pyrimidines
the excitability of the excitatory cells i.e., muscles and nerves and thus muscle shows sustained contracted (4) Malleus, incus, cochlea – Ear ossicles
state known as tetany.
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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 63 64 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (1) Sol. Answer (4)


(a) Malleus, incus and stapes are ear ossicles Skull joint : fibrous joint
(b) Cytosine and uracil are pyrimidine and thiamine is vitamine B1. Between adjacent vertebrae : cartilaginous / amphiarthious joint
(c) Actin, myosin are muscle proteins while rhodopsin optoproteins. Phalanges : Absence of fibrous / synarthrous joint.
(d) Malleus and incus ear ossicles while cochlea is the 'internal ear' the membrous structures.
29. Which of the following are the regulatory protein in the muscle contraction?
23. Elbow joint is an example of: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009] (1) Troponin and tropomyosin (2) Troponin and actin
(1) Hinge joint (2) Gliding joint (3) Ball and socket joint (4) Pivot joint (3) Myosin and tropomyosin (4) Actin and tropomyosin
Sol. Answer (1) Sol. Answer (1)
Elbow joint : is an example of hinge joint which allows movement in only one plane. Troponin and tropomyosin are the regulatory proteins of muscle contraction. Tropomyosin, the fibrous protein
Pivot joint : allows movement of bones in one plane e.g. joint below elbow between radius and ulna. inhibits actinmyosin binding.
Gliding joint : allows side to side movement e.g. wrist and tarsal. TpI : inhibits actin myosin binding
2
Troponin TpC : binds with Ca
24. Which one of the following items gives its correct total number? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Cervical vertebrae in humans -8 (2) Floating ribs in humans -4 TpT : binds with tropomyosin

(3) Amino acids found in proteins - 16 (4) Types of diabetes -3 30. Source of Ca2+ for muscle contraction is both sarcoplasmic (endoplasmic) reticulum as well as extracellular fluid
Sol. Answer (2) in case of
(a) Cervical vertebra –7 a. Skeletal muscles
(b) Amino acids – 20 b. Smooth muscles
Diabetes insipidus c. Cardiac muscles
(c) Types of diabetes
(1) a only (2) b and c only (3) a and c only (4) b only
Diabetes mellitus
Sol. Answer (2)
25. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] Smooth and cardiac muscles have less amount of SR to sequester Ca2+ inside. So major source of Ca2+ is
(1) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs (2) Floating ribs - 2 pairs extracellular fluid. While in case of skeletal muscle fibre Ca2+ is sequestered by Calsequestrin in the sarcoplasmic
(3) Collar bones - 3 pairs (4) Salivary glands - 1 pair reticulum.

Sol. Answer (2) 31. Which of the following is not applicable to red muscle fibres when compared to white muscle fibres?
Floating ribs – 2 pairs
(1) Sustained contraction for long periods (2) Rich in myoglobin
Collar bones (clavicles) – 1 pair
(3) Faster in contraction rate (4) Rich in mitochondria
Salivary gland – 3 pairs
Sol. Answer (3)
Cranial nerve – 12 pairs.
In red muscle fibre, contraction rate is slow and for longer period.
26. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Myosin 32. What is common between the muscle fibers of extensor muscles of human back and those of flight muscles
of the birds which remain in flight for long periods of time?
(3) α-Actinin (4) Troponin
Sol. Answer (2) a. They are thinner, red colored.
b. They are thicker and light colored.
27. An acromian process is characteristically found in the : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
c. They have abundant mitochondria.
(1) Pelvic girdle of mammals (2) Skull of frog
d. They have well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(3) Pectoral girdle of mammals (4) Sperm of mammals
Sol. Answer (3) e. They show slow rate of contractions for longer periods.
f. They show fast strenous activity.
28. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
g. They do not get fatigued early.
(1) Cartilaginous joint – Skull bones
(2) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae h. They get fatigued quickly.

(3) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges (1) a, c, e, g, are common (2) b, d, f, h are common
(4) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae (3) All features are common at different times (4) a, c, f, g are common

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 65 66 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (1) 37. The clavicle articulates with _____ of scapula.
The muscle fibre of extensor muscles of the back and those of flight muscle has red muscle fibres which have (1) Acromion process (2) Glenoid cavity (3) Acetabulum cavity (4) Ball and socket joint
the following characteristic. Sol. Answer (1)
(a) thinner and red coloured (b) have abundant mitochondria Clavicle articulates with acromion process of scapula.
(c) less ER (d) show contraction for longer period Clavicle

(e) show slow strenous activity (f) they do not get fatigued easily. Acromion process

33. During muscle contraction, which of the following does not occur?
(1) No change in length of anisotrophic band
(2) Decrease in length of isotropic band
(3) No change in length of A band
Pelvic girdle (scapula)
(4) Decrease in length of actin myofilaments
38. Sternum is connected to ribs by
Sol. Asnwer (4)
(1) Bony matter (2) White fibrous cartilage (3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Aerolar tissue
During muscle contraction, length of actin or myosin myofilaments does not change.
Sol. Answer (3)

34. What would happen if ATP suddenly were not available after the sarcomere had started to shorten? Hyaline cartilage connects ribs to sternum.

(1) Cross bridges would not be able to detach from actin 39. Which of the following components is a part of the pectoral girdle?
(2) Muscle would remain in a state of rigidity (1) Sternum (2) Acetabulum (3) Glenoid cavity (4) Ilium
(3) Muscle would relax immediately
Sol. Answer (3)
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Glenoid cavity is a part of pectoral girdle. Ilium and acetabulum are part of pelvic girdle.
Sol. Answer (4)
Requirement of ATP is at the time of cross-bridge formation as well as during detachment of actin and myosin. 40. Total number of bones in limb of a man is
(1) 24 (2) 30 (3) 14 (4) 21
35. Select the correct match regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
Each limb contains 30 bones.
(2) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening of muscles 41. Bone formed by the ossification of tendon is called
(4) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age (1) Sesamoid bone (2) Cartilage bone
Sol. Answer (4)
(3) Investing bone (4) Replacing bone
Myasthenia gravis : auto immune disorder which leads to destruction of Ach receptors of the myocytes and
Sol. Answer (1)
thus there is no nerve transmission. Patients becomes weak and paralysis occurs.
Gout : accumulation of uric acid leads to pain and inflammation of joint. Sesamoid bone : e.g. patella, formed by ossification of tendon

Muscular dystrophy : absence of "dystrophin" protein thus the conduction of nerve impulse from T-tubules Cartilage / replacing bone : formed by pre-existing cartilage. e.g. humerus, femur
to SR is inhibited. Investing bone : formed in the dermis of skin then fuse to original cartilage.

36. Myasthenia gravis involves weakness of skeletal muscles. Which of the following can act as a primary treatment 42. The joint between atlas and axis is called
of it?
(1) Angular joint (2) Hinge joint (3) Pivot joint (4) Saddle joint
(1) Injection of neurotransmitter acetylcholine (2) Injection of neurotransmitter adrenaline
Sol. Answer (3)
(3) Injection of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (4) Taking protein rich diet
Sol. Answer (3) The joint between altas and axis is called pivot joint. Hence one bone (axis) has a protrusion (odontoid peg)
which fits into depression (fossa) of other atlas.
Injection of acetylcholine esterase inhibitor will lead to inhibition of dissociation of Ach.

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 67 68 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

43. In which of the following fractures, the bone is broken into more than two fragments, with some of the fragments 5. A : Tibia is stronger than fibula and is present medially whereas fibula is lateral to tibia and slender bone of
losing connection with blood circulation? lower leg or shank.

(1) Compound fracture (2) Greenstick fracture R : Tibia has a sharp crest in the shaft and a projection on the inner side of ankle called lateral malleolus.

(3) Comminuated fracture (4) Simple fracture Sol. Answer (3)


Tibia has median malleolus and fibula has lateral malleolus.
Sol. Answer (3)
Greenstick fracture : bones crack but remain together. 6. A : In case of gout Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the joint.
Compound fracture : broken / cracked bone protrude out of the skin. R : Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossicification of articular cartilage lead to this.

Simple fracture : The bones break into separate parts. Sol. Answer (1)
Due to accumulation of uric acid crystals and ossicification of cartilage. Joints become inflammed, immovable
44. Formation of abnormal granules called pannus are secreted by synovial membrane in case of and painful.
(1) Osteoarthritis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
7. A : Sella tursica is located in the skull which lodges the pituitary gland.
(3) Gout (4) Osteomyelitis R : It is a depression present in sphenoid bone.
Sol. Answer (2) Sol. Answer (2)
Pannus : are the abnormal granules secreted by the synovial membrane in case of rheumatoid arthritis. Sella tursica is a depression in the sphenoid bone and posses the pituitary gland.

8. A : Muscle tetanus is the phenomenon of sustained contraction of a muscle due to succession of nerve
SECTION - D
impulse/stimuli being received by it.
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
R : Many of our daily activities are due to tetanic contraction of muscles like holding the book.
1. A : Maximum movement is possible at the amphiarthroses joint. Sol. Answer (2)
R : Such joints are also called Synovial joints and have almost frictionless movement due to synovial fluid.
9. A : Application of stimuli repeatedly just at the start of relaxation of a muscle fibre shows an increase in the extent
Sol. Answer (4) of contraction initially and results in treppe or stair case phenomenon.
Maximum movement is possible at the 'diarthrose joint'. Also known as synovial or free movable joint. R : It can be attributed to the summation effect of the sub threshold stimuli being given again and again.
Amphiarthroses have limited movement. Sol. Answer (3)

2. A : Ca2+ play important role in the muscle contraction. When a muscle starts relaxing and then is stimulated to contract by several identical stimuli that are too far apart
for wave summation to occur, each of the first few contractions is a little stronger than the last. This phenomenon
R: Ca2+ combine with troponin chain, displacing tropomyosin allowing the myosin head part to combine with is known as staircase effect or treppe. After the first few contractions, the muscle reaches its peak of performance
actin to from actomyosin complex. and can undergo its strongest contractions.
Sol. Answer (1)
Ca2+ plays important role in muscle contraction by binding to the TpC of troponin and displacing the troponin 10. A : Latent period is the interval between the application of appropriate stimulus and initiation of contraction.
complex to free / expose the actin-myosin binding site. R : Latent period is minimum in cardiac muscle fibres.

3. A : On repeated application of stimuli, involuntary striped muscles undergo fatigue. Sol. Answer (2)

R : This is due to non-availability of ATP molecules. Cardiac muscle have long refractive period so its latent period is minimum.

Sol. Answer (4)


Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of lactic acid during anaerobic oxidation. Striped muscles are   
voluntary.

4. A : All muscles follow ‘All or None’ principle.


R : All muscles contract either fully or not contract at all depending upon threshold stimulus availability.
Sol. Answer (4)
A muscle doesn't follow the 'All or None principle'. How much the muscle contracts depends on how many
muscle fibres are stimulated to contract. So, all muscle fibres follow 'All or None' principle.

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