1. Which of the following function is not carried out by neurons?

a) the myelination of axons.

b) the reuptake of neurotransmitters.
c) the production of metabotropic receptors.
d) the production of microtubules.
e) the control of genes regulating metabolic proteins.
2. Where do neurons store the genetic information they use to code and build all the proteins
required for their functions?
a) in the axon.
b) in the endoplasmic reticulum.
c) in the nucleus.
d) in the synapse.
e) in the messenger ribonucleic acids (mRNAs).

3. Where do neurons produce and store the energy required for many of their functions?
a) golgi body.
b) nucleus.
c) ribosomes.
d) cytoplasm.
e) mitochondria.

4. Which part(s) of the neuron receive(s) information (from synapses)?

a) axons.
b) dendrites.
c) cell soma.
d) all of the above.
e) b and c only.

5. Myelin sheats are produced by _______________ in the central nervous system.

a) astrocytes.
b) oligodendrocytes.
c) microglia.
d) Schwann cells.
e) ependymal cells.

6. Which glial cell type is responsible for reuptaking neurotransmitters once released in the
synapse?
a) pyramidal cells.
b) ependymal cells.
c) oligodendrocytes.
d) astrocytes.
e) Schwann cells.
7. The synapse:
a) allows neurons to communicate with each other.
b) shield neurons from viral and bacterial invaders.
c) is the specialized structure that makes action potentials travel faster.
d) is the specialized structure allowing action potentials to travel directly between neurons.
e) is the specialized structure that allows the action potential to regenerate itself between myelin
sheets.

8. Why are animals used in biomedical research?

a) because many of their physiological systems are similar to humans.
b) because they are exactly the same as humans.
c) because it is fine to inflict pain to animals.
d) because researchers hate them.
e) animals are not used for biomedical research because their physiology is too different from
humans.

9. The philosopher and physiologist Rene Descartes is well remembered for his theory of brain
function. Which of the following statements best describes his theory?
a) The heart was the seat of the mind, which controlled behavior, while the brain mainly served to
cool blood.
b) The brain gives rise to the mind, which controls behavior.
c) The brain and mind exist independently, but do not interact; the brain controls all body
functions and rational behaviors.
d) The brain and mind exist independently, but the mind ultimately interacts with the brain to
control behavior.
e) The brain provides a bridge to the mind for the control of behavior, through electric-like
functions of nerve cells.

10. Which of the following individuals is given credit for the "neuron doctrine" that the nervous
system is made of independent units/cells that can communicate with each other?
a) Rene Descartes
b) Santiago Ramon y Cajal
c) Camillo Golgi
d) Charles Darwin
e) John Hughlings-Jackson

11. The first scientist(s) to record from the giant axon of the squid was:
a) J.Z. Young.
b) Andrew Hodgkin.
c) Roberts Bartholow.
d) Alan Huxley.
e) both b and d.

12. How many connections between neurons have been estimated in the human neocortex alone?
a) 20 thousands.
b) 6 millions.
c) 60 trillions.
d) 1 trillion.
e) 6 billions.
13. Which type of neuron is more likely to send signals about a rock under your left foot?
a) motor neuron.
b) multipolar neuron.
c) interneuron.
d) pseudounipolar neuron.
e) both c and d.

14. The structure that divides the inside and outside of neurons are made of :
a) a lipid bilayer.
b) a protein layer.
c) channel proteins.
d) a lipid monolayer.
e) ions.

Which letter represents the nerve cell parts in the next three questions?
15. Axon? (mark A, B, C, D, or E)
16. Dendrites? (mark A, B, C, D, or E)
17. Axon hillock? (mark A, B, C, D, or E)

18. The effect of tetrodotoxin (puffer fish poison) on axons demonstrates:

a) the role of potassium channels in hyperpolarization.
b) the role of sodium channels in depolarization.
c) the role of potassium channels in depolarization.
d) the role of chloride channels in hyperpolarization.
e) the role of sodium channels in hyperpolarization.

19. Which of the following is not true?

a) the cell membrane is impermeable to large charged protein molecules.
b) the semi-permeable membrane keeps sodium ions outside and potassium inside neurons.
c) neuron membranes have sodium/potassium ion pumps that take out potassium ions.
d) the summed charges of the unequally distributed ions leave the inside of the membrane at
approximately -65 mV relative to the outside of the cell. This is the cell’s resting potential.
e) two important passive forces responsible for the resting membrane potential include the
electrostatic and diffusion pressures.
20. Neuron Jack makes an excitatory synaptic contact onto the distal (far) end of neuron Bob's
dendrite. Neuron Jane makes an inhibitory synaptic contact on neuron Bob's soma. Given that
Jack and Jane both activate their synapses, what are you most likely to see in neuron Bob when
recording from its soma?
a) Bob might display an excitatory postsynaptic potential only.
b) Bob might display an inhibitory postsynaptic potential only.
c) Bob will release excitatory neurotransmitters.
d) Bob might display both a small excitatory and a large inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.
e) Bob will release inhibitory neurotransmitters.

21. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to ionic concentrations at the normal
resting membrane potential?
a) higher sodium and potassium, and lower chloride inside relative to outside of neurons.
b) lower sodium, potassium, and chloride inside relative to outside of neurons.
c) lower sodium and chloride, and higher potassium inside relative to outside neurons.
d) higher sodium, potassium, and chloride inside relative to outside of neurons.
e) lower sodium, and higher potassium and chloride inside relative to outside of neurons.

22. If I tell you that our very own Dr. Strangelove has just discovered a new membrane channel
that can change the membrane potential of neurons from -65 mV to -60 mV when activated, how
would you characterize it?
a) as a new depolarizing action potential.
b) as a new hyperpolarizing IPSP.
c) as a new depolarizing IPSP.
d) as a new hyperpolarizing EPSP.
e) as a new depolarizing EPSP.

23. A neuron cannot produce an action potential:

a) during the relative refractory period.
b) when there is an inhibitory postsynaptic potential.
c) when the voltage-dependent potassium channels are closed.
d) during the absolute refractory period.
e) both b and d.

24. The event that takes the resting membrane potential from –65 mV to +30 mV is normally
called:
a) an IPSP.
b) an EPSP.
c) a graded inhibitory potential.
d) hyperpolarization.
e) an action potential.

25. Which of the following mechanisms allows the membrane potential to go back to its resting
value when the membrane potential is at the peak of the action potential?
a) opening of voltage sensitive (gated) potassium channels.
b) opening of voltage sensitive (gated) sodium channels.
c) opening of voltage sensitive (gated) calcium channels.
d) opening of neurotransmitter (ligand) -gated potassium channels.
e) none of the above
26. As you are recording the activity of a neuron, you observe multiple EPSPs and IPSPs of
various sizes mixed together. This is an example of:
a) probably temporal summation only.
b) probably spatial summation only.
c) probably both spatial and temporal summation.
d) probably only algebraic summation.
e) none of the above.

27. What would happen to the resting membrane potential of a neuron if sodium (Na +) channels
were normally open in the membrane, but everything else was the same?
a) nothing much would happen, and it would remain at approximately -65 mV.
b) it would definitely be less negative than the normal resting potential.
c) it would definitely be more negative than the normal resting potential.
d) it would loose its polarization and stand at exactly 0 mV (no difference between inside and
outside of the neuron).
e) none of the above.

28. During development of the nervous system, the neurotransmitter GABA is excitatory at many
synapses, not inhibitory. Which of the statement below would be a possible mechanism to explain
GABA's functional reversal during development into an excitatory neurotransmitter (i.e., produce
EPSPs)?
a) The resting membrane potential of developing neurons is more positive than in mature
neurons.
b) There are fewer GABA receptors on the post-synaptic membranes.
c) The concentration of chloride ions (Cl-) is higher inside than outside developing neurons.
d) The concentration of potassium ions (K+) is higher inside than outside developing neurons.
e) There are fewer GABA channels linked to GABA receptors in developing neurons.

29. What is the main mechanism contributing to the absolute refractory period in neurons:
a) potassium ions can only flow outside the neurons.
b) autoreceptors are inhibiting the opening of ionotropic sodium channels.
c) the voltage-dependent sodium channels cannot be opened.
d) the voltage-dependent potassium channels cannot be opened.
e) there are too many sodium ions inside the cell to permit another action potential.

30. You are having a shower, and all of a sudden, the water turns ice cold! How do you think
your temperature sensory neurons code this very noticeable and strong stimulus?
a) They produce larger EPSPs at the same rate as under the warm water condition.
b) They produce larger, but the same number of, action potentials as under the warm water
condition.
c) They produce smaller EPSPs at a higher rate than under the warm water condition.
d) They produce the same number and size action potentials that travel faster down the neurons
than under the warm water condition.
e) They produce more action potentials of the same size as under the warm water condition.

31. Gray’s type I synapses are typically located

a) at astrocytes' endfeet.
b) on myelin sheets.
c) on the soma (cell body).
d) on dendritic spines.
e) on the axon hillock.
32. Conduction of action potentials is faster in myelinated axons. This happens mainly because
these axons
a) avoid sending their action potentials through the nodes of Ranvier.
b) expend (use) less energy.
c) are usually short.
d) make use of faster internodal passive electrical conduction.
e) produce bigger action potentials.

33. Synaptic autoreceptors normally:

a) increase the number of excitatory postsynaptic potentials at a synapse.
b) reduce neurotransmitter release at a synapse.
c) increase the size of action potentials in the post-synaptic neuron.
d) decrease the size of action potentials in the post-synaptic neuron.
e) increase neurotransmitter release at a synapse.

34. The process whereby the content of synaptic vesicles is released into the synaptic cleft/gap is
called:
a) exocytosis.
b) endocytosis.
c) phagocytosis.
d) pinocytosis.
e) none of the above.

35. We discussed the discovery of chemical neurotransmission by Otto Loewi. What critical
experimental manipulation allowed him to deduce that nerve cells likely release chemicals to
produce some of their effects?
a) He stimulated the vagus nerve of an isolated frog heart.
b) He stimulated the vagus nerves of two frog hearts simultaneously.
c) He connected the vagus nerves from multiple frog hearts and stimulated them simultaneously.
d) He simply added fluid from a vagus nerve stimulated heart, to another isolated unstimulated
heart.
e) He isolated a frog heart and applied acetylcholine to it.

36. Small transmitter molecules are:

a) packaged in large synaptic vesicles.
b) made in the soma, packaged in small synaptic vesicles and transported down axons.
c) neuropeptides that are synthesized in synaptic terminals.
d) packaged in small synaptic vesicles.
e) soluble gases that freely cross lipid membranes.

37. Which one of the following is not a criterion for small neurotransmitter (NT) status?
a) postsynaptic receptor sites.
b) isolation of neurotransmitter substance from presynaptic terminal.
c) predictable pharmacological action.
d) evidence of presynaptic release.
e) none of the above.

38. Which channel membrane protein is specifically important in the process of neurotransmitter
release?
a) neurotransmitter receptor sodium channels.
b) voltage-dependent (gated) calcium channels.
c) neurotransmitter receptor potassium channels.
d) voltage-dependent (gated) chloride channels.
e) voltage-dependent (gated) potassium channels.

39. What determines the effect of neurotransmitter release on the post-synaptic neurons?
a) the size of the action potential.
b) the post-synaptic receptors.
c) the neurotransmitter contained in the synaptic vesicles.
d) the concentration of calcium ions reached in presynaptic terminals.
e) the size of the synaptic vesicles.

40. Enkephalins are peptide neurotransmitters that function in the perception of pain. This is
because
a) they interact with specific opioid receptor proteins to produce their effects.
b) they are small enough to directly enter post-synaptic membranes.
c) they have special membrane channels that let them through the post-synaptic cells.
d) they interact with morphine.
e) they are found in very high concentrations at nociceptive (pain related) synapses.

41. Regulation of gene expression is associated with which membrane protein in a neuron?
a) the second-messenger cyclic AMP (cAMP).
b) ionotropic receptors.
c) metabotropic receptors.
d) voltage-dependent (sensitive) sodium channels.
e) both c and d.

42. How are neurotransmitters removed from the synapse?

a) re-uptake into postsynaptic terminals.
b) re-uptake by surrounding glial cells.
c) enzymatic degradation.
d) all of the above.
e) b and c only.

43. We discussed the fact that Parkinson's disease is associated with the loss of neurons
containing a specific catecholamine neurotransmitter. What is this neurotransmitter?
a) serotonin.
b) indolamines.
c) norepinephrine.
d) GABA
e) dopamine.

44. In the movie “Awakenings”, the physician (Oliver Sacks) treats what kind of patient with
what drug?
a) Myesthenia gravis, muscarine.
b) Schizophrenia, dopamine receptor antagonist.
c) Parkinson’s disease, L-dopa.
d) Depression, Serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors.
e) Alzheimer’s disease, acetylcholine.

45. Which neurotransmitter is found in motor neurons and is responsible for producing muscle
contraction through its release at the neuromuscular junction?
a) adenosine.
b) acetylcholine.
c) dopamine.
d) serotonin.
e) glutamate.

1) Which of the following is (are) characteristic of a simple nervous system?

A) a nerve net such as is found in cnidarians
B) nerve cell ganglia
C) having electrical impulses traveling in both directions
D) both A and C
E) A, B, and C

2) Which of the following is associated with the evolution of a central nervous system?
A) a complete gut
B) bilateral symmetry
C) radial symmetry
D) a closed circulatory system
E) excitable membranes

3) An organism that lacks integration centers

A) cannot receive stimuli.
B) will not have a nervous system.
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.
D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.

4) The general functions of the nervous system include which of the following?
I. integration
II. motor output
III. sensory input
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II only
E) I, II, and III

5) Integration of simple responses to certain stimuli, such as the patellar reflex, is

accomplished by which of the
following?
A) spinal cord
B) hypothalamus
C) corpus callosum
D) cerebellum
E) medulla

6) The blood-brain barrier

A) is formed by tight junctions.
B) is formed by oligodendrocytes.
C) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.
D) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.
E) provides support to the brain tissue.

7) Which of the following is a neuropeptide that functions as a natural analgesic?

A) acetylcholine
B) epinephrine
C) endorphin
D) serotonin
E) GABA

8) Which of the following is an amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the
brain?
A) acetylcholine
B) epinephrine
C) endorphin
D) serotonin
E) GABA

9) Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as all of the following except

A) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain.
B) a product of the filtration of blood by the brain.
C) formed from layers of connective tissue.
D) functioning to cushion the brain.
E) filling cavities in the brain called ventricles.

10) The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic actions, or opposing
actions are
A) motor and sensory.
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic.
C) presynaptic and postsynaptic.
D) forebrain and hindbrain.
E) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

11) Which part of the vertebrate nervous system is most involved in preparation for the
fight -or-flight response?
A) sympathetic
B) somatic
C) central
D) visceral
E) parasympathetic

12) Which of the following activities would be associated with the parasympathetic
division of the nervous
system?
A) rest and digestion
B) release of both acetylcholine and epinephrine
C) increased metabolic rate
D) fight-or-flight response
E) release of epinephrine only

13) In a cephalized invertebrate, which system transmits impulses from the anterior
ganglion to distal segments?
A) central nervous system
B) peripheral nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system
E) sympathetic nervous system

14) In the vertebrate brain and spinal cord there are several types of glial cells in which
system?
A) central nervous system
B) peripheral nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system
E) sympathetic nervous system

15) Cranial nerves originate in the brain. They belong to which system?
A) central nervous system
B) peripheral nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system
E) sympathetic nervous system
16) Which system controls smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular,
and excretory systems?
A) central nervous system
B) peripheral nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system
E) sympathetic nervous system

17) Which of the following is correct about the telencephalon region of the brain?
A) It develops as the neural tube differentiates.
B) It develops from the midbrain.
C) It is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates.
D) It gives rise to the cerebrum.
E) It divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

18) What controls the heart rate?

A) neocortex
B) medulla
C) thalamus
D) pituitary
E) cerebellum

19) Which area of the brain is most intimately associated with the unconscious control of
respiration and
circulation?
A) thalamus
B) cerebellum
C) medulla
D) corpus callosum
E) cerebrum

20) Which selection is incorrectly paired?

A) forebrain-diencephalon
B) forebrain-cerebrum
C) midbrain-brainstem
D) midbrain-cerebellum
E) brainstem-pons

21) Which of the following produces hormones that are secreted by the pituitary gland?
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
E) medulla oblongata

22) Which of the following coordinates muscle actions?

A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
E) medulla oblongata

23) Which of the following regulates body temperature?

A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
E) medulla oblongata
24) Which of the following contains regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory
systems?
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
E) medulla oblongata

25) Which of the following contains regions that help regulate hunger and thirst?
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
E) medulla oblongata

26) Which processes in animals are regulated by circadian rhythms?

A) sleep cycles
B) hormone release
C) sex drive
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

27) By comparing the size and degree of convolution of various vertebrate cerebral
cortices, biologists would gain
insight into the relative
A) size of the brain centers of taxonomic groups.
B) emotions and learning capabilities of vertebrate classes.
C) motor impulse complexities.
D) sophistication of behaviors.
E) sensory stimuli that regulate motor impulses.

28) The motor cortex is part of which part of the nervous system?
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) spinal cord
D) midbrain
E) medulla

29) Melatonin is a hormone produced in the pineal gland. It can be used to treat
symptoms of sleep disorders and
seasonal affective disorder because
A) it is normally produced only in the light.
B) it increases production of serotonin.
C) it increases production of tryptophan.
D) its peak production is normally at night.
E) it activates the brainstem.

30) Suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in which structure?

A) thalamus
B) hypothalamus
C) epithalamus
D) amygdala
E) Brocaʹs area

31) Cerebral palsy, which disrupts motor messages from brain to muscle, is usually due
to damage of
A) the cerebellum.
B) basal nuclei of gray matter.
C) basal nuclei of white matter.
D) the corpus callosum.
E) the neocortex.

32) Since in mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very
convoluted neocortex, how
can birds, which have no such structure, be capable of sophisticated processing?
A) They have a more advanced cerebellum.
B) They have a pallium with several flat layers.
C) They have a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei.
D) They have microvilli to increase the brainʹs surface area.

33) What do Wernickeʹs and Brocaʹs regions of the brain affect?

A) olfaction
B) vision
C) speech
D) memory
E) hearing

34) If you were writing an essay, which part of the brain would be most active?
A) temporal and frontal lobes
B) parietal lobe
C) Brocaʹs area
D) Wernickeʹs area
E) occipital lobe

35) The establishment and expression of emotions involves the

A) frontal lobes and limbic system.
B) frontal lobes and parietal lobes.
C) parietal lobes and limbic system.
D) frontal and occipital lobes.
E) occipital lobes and limbic system.

36) Our understanding of mental illness has been most advanced by discoveries
involving
A) degree of convolutions in the brainʹs surface.
B) evolution of the telencephalon.
C) sequence of developmental specialization.
D) chemicals involved in brain communications.
E) nature of the blood-brain barrier.

37) Which of the following describes the functional controls of Wernickeʹs area?
A) It is active when speech is heard and comprehended.
B) It is active during the generation of speech.
C) It coordinates the response to olfactory sensation.
D) It is active when you are reading silently.
E) It is found on the left side of the brain.

38) When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe or when someone
had a frontal lobotomy,
which of the following occurred?
A) They could no longer reason.
B) They lost short-term memory.
C) They had different emotional responses.
D) They lost long-term memory.
E) They lost their sense of balance.

39) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the

A) brainstem.
B) medulla.
C) hypothalamus.
D) hippocampus.
E) cranial nerves.

40) Bipolar disorder differs from schizophrenia in that

A) schizophrenia results in hallucinations.
B) schizophrenia results in both manic and depressive states.
C) schizophrenia results in decreased dopamine.
D) bipolar disorder involves both genes and environment.
E) bipolar disorder increases biogenic amines.

41) While more Alzheimerʹs disease is not hereditary, there is one subset of cases, called
Familial Alzheimerʹs
Disease (FAD) that can be seen to be transmitted through pedigrees. FAD has earlier age
of onset but is
otherwise similar. Which of the following groups of genes would you expect to be
involved?
A) genes for amyloid or amyloid cleaving enzymes
B) genes for dopamine precursors
C) genes for biogenic amines
D) genes for premature aging
E) genes for microtubules

42) Which of the following is a discovery that suggests that neural stem cells might
someday be used to treat brain
disease?
A) the discovery that each disease affects specialized cells
B) the discovery that each disease affects different neurotransmitters
C) the discovery that brain cells are capable of cell division
D) the discovery of the function of specific groups of glia

1) Wakefulness is regulated by the reticular formation, which is present in the

A) basal nuclei.
B) cerebral cortex.
C) brainstem.
D) limbic system.
E) spinal cord.

2) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
A) limbic systemmotor control of speech
B) medulla oblongatahomeostatic control
C) cerebellumcoordination of movement and balance
D) corpus callosumcommunication between the left and right cerebral cortices
E) hypothalamusregulation of temperature, hunger, and thirst

3) What is the neocortex?

A) a primitive brain region that is common to reptiles and mammals
B) a region deep in the cortex that is associated with the formation of emotional
memories
C) a central part of the cortex that receives olfactory information
D) an additional outer layer of neurons in the cerebral cortex that is unique to mammals
E) an association area of the frontal lobe that is involved in higher cognitive functions

4) Patients with damage to Wernickeʹs area have difficulty

A) coordinating limb movement.
B) generating speech.
C) recognizing faces.
D) understanding language.
E) experiencing emotion.

5) The sympathetic division of the autonomic portion of the PNS does all of the following
except
A) relaxing bronchi in lungs.
B) inhibiting bladder emptying.
C) stimulating glucose release.
D) accelerating heart rate.
E) stimulating the salivary glands.

6) The cerebral cortex plays a major role in all of the following except
A) short-term memory.
B) long-term memory.
C) circadian rhythm.
D) foot-tapping rhythm.
E) breath holding.
46. Which of the following molecules is endogenous to the body?
a) morphine.
b) aspirine.
c) vitamins.
d) acetylcholinesterase.
e) nicotine.
47. Which of the following neurotransmitters is relatively slow-acting?
a) norepinephrine.
b) glycine.
c) aspartate.
d) gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA).
e) glutamate.
48. Nitric oxide (NO) is a gas neurotransmitter that
a) is stored in synaptic vesicles.
b) is synthesized in the nucleus.
c) dilates blood vessels.
d) does not cross lipid membranes.
e) is transported to the synaptic terminals via microtubules.
49. Serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are widely prescribed to treat clinical
depression. Which of the following procedures do you think would most likely worsen symptoms
in untreated depressed patients?
a) increase the concentration of serotonin in the brain.
b) decrease the concentration of serotonin in the brain.
c) give a serotonin autoreceptor antagonist (inhibits or reduce autoreceptor function).
d) give a drug that increases the vesicular release (in the synapse) of serotonin.
e) give a dopamine receptor antagonist (reduce the function of dopamine receptors).
50. Which of the following mechanisms would you associate with an antagonist drug action?
a) a drug that binds postsynaptic receptors and mimics the effect of the endogenous
neurotransmitter.
b) a drug that binds and blocks normal autoreceptor function.
c) a drug that prevents the normal reuptake of neurotransmitters inside presynaptic terminals.
d) a drug that increases the enzymatic synthesis of neurotransmitters.
e) a drug that binds postsynpatic receptors and blocks the normal action of the endogenous
neurotransmitter.