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ĐỀ SỐ 1 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN CUỐI HỌC KỲ 1


(Đề thi có 06 trang) TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG – HÀ NỘI
(Đề có lời giải) Môn: Tiếng Anh
««««« Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. promote B. complete C. maintain D. follow
Question 2. A. dominant B. attitude C. sacrifice D. combustion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. emerge B. religious C. centralise D. effective
Question 4. A. asked B. needed C. stopped D. increased

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: If you understand a matter thoroughly, that means you understand it.
A. hardly B. scarcely C. completely D. badly
Question 6: Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. changed his decision B. refused to change his decision
C. felt sorry for us D. wanted to continue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The best hope of avoiding downmarket tabloid TV future lies in the pressure currently
being put on the networks to clean up their act.
A. expensive B. famous C. poor quality D. uncreative
Question 8: In mountainous areas, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter comes.
A. exchange B. empty C. refill D. repeat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 9: - John: “I’ll drive you home if you don’t mind. I’ve got something to do in your area.”
- Mary: “___________”
A. I’d love to. B. That’s so nice of you.

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C. Really? I love it when you are busy. D. Are you sure?
Question 10: - Paul: “She has accepted my proposal.”
- Mike: “___________”
A. Wow! Congratulations! B. What a nice girl!
C. Thanks, but don’t worry. D. I am sorry to hear that.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: Only when you grow up___________the truth.
A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
Question 12. Thanks to the help of the teacher, she is___________ encouraging progress in math.
A. doing B. making C. checking D. stopping
Question 13: If you___________it, nobody would know.
A. didn’t mention B. wouldn’t mention C. hadn’t mentioned D. shouldn’t mention
Question 14. English all over the world.
A. is spoken B. spoke C. speak D. speaks
Question 15. He has not been offered the job because he cannot meet the___________of the company.
A. information B. education C. applicants D. requirements
Question 16. Hamlet,__________was written by Shakespeare in 1600, is considered to be his greatest
work.
A. which B. that C. whose D. who
Question 17. The rooms needs ___________for the wedding.
A. to decorate B. decorating C. to being decorated D. being decorated
Question 18. When we met John last year, he___________from Harvard already.
A. graduated B. had graduated C. has graduated D. will have graduated
Question 19: Schooling is compulsory___________all English children from the age of 5 to 16.
A. to B. with C. for D. by
Question 20: It is the underserved___________that damaged his life and his family.
A. reputable B. reputed C. reputation D. disrepute
Question 21. The monk insisted that the tourists___________ the temple until they had removed their
shoes.
A. not enter B. not entering C. not to enter D. to not enter
Question 22. This species of African elephants is___________
A. dying on B. dying of C. dying out D. dying away
Question 23: After a hard-working day, I went to___________bed and had___________most beautiful
dream ever.

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A. the - the B. a - the C. a - a D. ∅ – the

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
What do you do well? What do you enjoy doing? Your answers to these two questions will help you
identify your (24) ___________. An employer will consider you (25) ___________for a position when
you can show them that you know who you are, what you can offer and what you have studied.
Sometimes it is difficult to know what your weaknesses are. Clearly not everyone is equally good at
everything. You may need to improve yourself and so (26) ___________courses in that field may turn a
weakness into strength. You will need to spend some time on your self-assessment. Your honesty and
desire for self-improvement will lead to success in getting the right job. Explore the following seven areas
to start to get to know yourself: your attitude, your skills, your personality, the level of responsibility you
feel comfortable with, your interests and your needs. Ask yourself if you have any (27)
___________talents and if you need to consider your physical health when choosing a job. Be as honest
and realistic as you can, and ask for other people’s (28)___________if necessary.
Question 24. A. health B. strength C. courage D. beauty
Question 25. A. generously B. comfortably C. strictly D. seriously
Question 26. A. making B. taking C. learning D. sitting
Question 27. A. special B. lovely C. nice D. funny
Question 28. A. attendances B. opinions C. fields D. jobs

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 36.
At the start of the social media revolution, Facebook quickly became the most popular site for sharing
information with others. However, it is not the only service that people can use to express themselves.
Those who believe in the old saying that “more is less” may want to check out Twitter. Part of Twitter’s
appeal is that it limits users to 140 characters whenever they update their status. This forces people to
quickly “get to the point” when they are communicating.
Twitter is a microblogging service that was created by four American programmers in 2006. The
founders chose the name Twitter because the word has two definitions: “a short burst of information” and
“the sound that little birds make”, both of which fit the description of what their service provides. In fact,
some people have even labeled Twitter the “SMS of the Internet”. Twitter is not just about words though.
Users can also share videos and pictures. Another thing which truly sets Twitter apart from its
competition is the hashtag. Hashtags are a special way of labeling and classifying information. They help
people interested in a subject to find related posts and contents. For example, some interested in sports
could simply search for hashtag and they would find all messages tagged in this manner.

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Twitter has also allowed people to easily connect with others who they would have never had access to
in the past. This has enabled fans to interact with their favourite celebrities by following their Twitter
updates and sending them direct messages. Of course, there is no guarantee that the famous person will
respond, as the celebrities may receive thousands of messages each day. However, there have been some
pretty stunning interactions. In 2011, singer Justin Timberlake made headlines when he accepted an
invitation from a female soldier to attend a Marine Corps ball. In return, many celebrities find it gratifying
to know some of their supporters more closely. However, there is a dark side to Twitter conversations:
Some people who don’t think before sending out tweets can cause outrage by making inappropriate or
insensitive remarks.
In November 2013, Twitter went public on the New York Stock Exchange. The added investments
should allow the company to do some incredible things in the near future.
Question 29: What is mentioned in the article as an effect of Twitter's word limit?
A. It helps people focus on what they want to say.
B. It caused many users to quit Twitter and use other sites.
C. It is something that most users hope will change very soon.
D. It is the same word limit that other social media sites use.
Question 30: What is the benefit of hashtags?
A. They help users maintain privacy.
B. They help people find relevant content more easily.
C. They help celebrities earn more money.
D. They help sports fans improve their skills.
Question 31: What does the passage suggest about celebrities?
A. Most celebrities don’t have Twitter accounts.
B. They usually reply to every message they get.
C. They shouldn’t be allowed to use Twitter.
D. Many of them enjoy connecting with their fans.
Question 32: All of the following are characteristics of Twitter EXCEPT that___________.
A. it allows users to find related posts and content about a certain subject
B. it allows users to become online friends with celebrities easily
C. it puts a word limit on the status
D. it offers easy connections with others
Question 33: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. websites B. celebrities C. requests D. fans
Question 34: Which of the following is an example of the “darker side” of Twitter?
A. Someone posts rude insults about another person.
B. A fan asks a celebrity to do a favour.

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C. A celebrity takes a fan to a dance.
D. Someone closes their account due to a lack of time.
Question 35: Who would be most interested in the passage?
A. A person who likes to write long posts on social media.
B. A person who is looking to protect their identity on the Internet.
C. A person who wants to meet others online.
D. A person who is dreaming of becoming famous in the future.
Question 36: The author’s attitude toward the future of Twitter is___________.
A. doubtful B. optimistic C. negative D. partial

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43.
FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES
Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a “housewife”.
She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He was
usually out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And
he did not see the children very much, except on weekends.
These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the
children all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening
cooking dinner and cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is
going to do the housework now? Who is going to take care of the children?
Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife
agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband
always cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and
the husband cooks dinner on other nights.
Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from
grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far
away to help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a
babysitter or a day-care center. The problem with this kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for
couples with jobs that pay well.
Parents may get another kind of help from the companies they work for. Many companies now let
people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend more time with their children. Some
husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men, there is a new
word: they are called “househusbands”. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands
every year.

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These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children
better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in
their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.
Question 37: Sixty years ago, most women___________.
A. were housewives B. went out to work
C. did not do much housework D. had no children
Question 38: Nowadays, there are / is___________.
A. more work outside the home than before
B. more and more women staying with the children all day
C. more housewives than before
D. more women going out to work than before
Question 39: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. cooking and washing up B. tidying up
C. washing and ironing D. shopping
Question 40: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that___________.
A. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center
B. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center
C. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with childcare
D. grandparents can help care for the children in a regular way
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to___________.
A. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers
B. parents who work part-time outside their home
C. husbands who stop working to stay with the children
D. fathers who spend more time with their children
Question 42: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may___________.
A. help families B. not change the children at all
C. not happen D. cause problems for a marriage
Question 43: This article is about____________.
A. American men as househusbands B. housewives in America
C. how more American women are working D. how family life in America is changing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 44: It’s essential that every student passes the exam before attending the course.
A B C D
Question 45: Although the increases in airfares, most people still decide to travel by plane.

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A B C D
Question 46: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas
A B C
where many jobs are found.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 47: “Where did you go last night, Nam?”, said Hoa.
A. Hoa said to Nam where had he gone last night.
B. Hoa said to Nam where he had gone the night before.
C. Hoa told Nam where he had gone last night.
D. Hoa asked Nam where he had gone the night before.
Question 48: We consider that Mr. Thompson was the most famous professor in English linguistics.
A. Mr. Thompson is considered to have been the most famous professor in English linguistics.
B. Mr. Thompson is considered to be the most famous professor in English linguistics.
C. It is considered that Mr. Thompson to have been the most famous professor in English linguistics.
D. It was considered that Mr. Thompson was the most famous professor in English linguistics.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him.
A. The man was shot in bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him.
B. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
C. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
D. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery.
Question 50: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.

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ĐỀ SỐ 2 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN CUỐI HỌC KỲ 1
(Đề thi có 05 trang) TRƯỜNG THPT THANH OAI – HÀ NỘI
(Đề có lời giải) Môn: Tiếng Anh
««««« Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. finished B. raised C. cooked D. stopped
Question 2: A. occasion B. explosion C. provision D. inversion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. capture B. picture C. ensure D. pleasure
Question 4: A. overwhelming B. entertainment C. stability D. application

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following question.
Question 5: Many species of plants and animals are in__________of extinction.
A. dangerous B. danger C. dangerously D. endangered
Question 6: We should participate in movement__________to conserve the natural environment.
A. to organize B. organizing C. organized D. which organized
Question 7: __________money, he would buy a new car.
A. Was he to have B. If he do have C. If he has D. Were he to have
Question 8: __________down to dinner than the telephone rang.
A. No sooner I had sat B. No sooner had I sat
C. Scarcely I had sat D. Hardly had I sat
Question 9: Remember to bring with you your school certificate and letters of__________from your
teachers and your previous employers when you come to the interview.
A. assignment B. invitation C. recommendation D. advertisement
Question 10: - “Did he make any comments?”
- “Yes, he said it was imperative that we__________on time tomorrow.”
A. had been B. be C. have been D. will be
Question 11: The kind-hearted woman__________all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.
A. spent B. lived C. dedicated D. wasted
Question 12: He is the man__________car was stolen last week.
A. whom B. that C. which D. whose

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Question 13: When the police investigate a crime, they__________evidence such as fingerprints, hair
or clothing.
A. look into B. look up to C. look after D. look for
Question 14: Body language is the potent form of__________communication
A. verbal B. non-verbal C. tongue D. oral
Question 15: It gets__________to understand what the professor has explained.
A. more difficult than B. more and more difficult
C. the more difficult D. difficult more and more
Question 16: We often take this small road home to avoid heavy__________on the main street.
A. sounds B. movement C. vehicles D. traffic
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: - Ann: “Thank you for the nice gift you brought to us.”
- Daisy: “__________”
A. Yes, you’re welcome. B. Don’t mention it.
C. Actually I myself don’t like it. D. All right. Do you know how much it costs?
Question 18: - Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
- Mary: “__________”
A. I think so. B. Of course not. It’s not costly.
C. Thank you. Hope you will drop in. D. No problem.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 19: In spite of his poorness, he is honest.
A. Although he is poor, but he is honest. C. Despite he is poor, he is honest.
B. Although he is poor, he is honest. D. In spite of he is poor, he is honest.
Question 20: These people started working for this company in 1986.
A. These people have been working for this company since 1986.
B. These people haven’t worked for this company in 1986.
C. These people worked for this company since 1986.
D. These people have been working for this company in 1986.
Question 21: We got wet yesterday because we didn’t remember to bring our raincoats.
A. If we had remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t have got wet yesterday.
B. We would get wet yesterday if we didn’t remember to bring our raincoats.
C. If we remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t get wet yesterday.
D. If we had remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t get wet yesterday.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Although speech is the most advanced fonn of communication, there are many ways of
communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every
known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it
attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech,
its potential for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also
contain meanings in and of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and
conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their
intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater
provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking
also communicate certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage in
communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent
to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt. As a result, means of
communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods must be based upon
speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.
Question 22: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Speech B. Gestures C. Communication D. Signs and signals
Question 23: The phrase “impinge on” is closest in meaning to__________.
A. vary B. intrude C. improve D. way
Question 24: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to__________
A. function B. environment C. sign D. way
Question 25: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is the only true form of communication.
B. It is the most advanced form of communication.
C. It is necessary for communication to occur.
D. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
Question 26: The word “potential” in paragraph 1 could be replaced by__________
A. range B. organization C. possibility D. advantage
Question 27: The word “intricate” in paragraph 1 could be replaced by__________.
A. inefficient B. historical C. uncertain D. complicated
Question 28: It may be concluded from the passage that__________.
A. only some cultures have signals and symbols
B. symbols are very easy to define and interpret

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C. waving and handshaking are not related to culture
D. signals, signs, symbols and gestures are forms of communication

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29: She performed all her duties conscientiously.
A. irresponsibly B. liberally C. responsibly D. insensitively
Question 30: Peter is on cloud nine as he’s just got an acceptance letter from that big company he
applied for.
A. agreement B. confirmation C. refusal D. admission

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: I don’t really like the car. Mary has just bought it.
A. I don’t really like the car which Mary has just bought.
B. I don’t really like the car Mary has just bought which.
C. I don’t really like which Mary has just bought.
D. I don’t really like the car which Mary has just bought it.
Question 32: He was very tired. He agreed to help me with my homework.
A. Despite being very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework.
B. Tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework.
C. As tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework.
D. Tired though was he, he agreed to help me with my homework.

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
blanks.
Everyone needs a home where they feel sheltered and safe. Today we live in modem flats and houses,
(33)___________have air-conditioning to keep us cool, and heating to keep us warm. There is
electricity for lighting and supplies of gas or oil for the heating. Hot and cold water (34)
___________from the taps and dirty water disappears (35) ___________the drains. Many of our homes
have balconies or gardens. In the past, people made their homes from materials that they found nearby.
When we look at different houses we can tell how old they are from the materials used and the way
they were built. It was different long (36) ___________people did not have water in their homes and
there were no electric lights. To keep warm, they sometimes made (37) ___________inside their
homes. With a fire started they could cook their food and heat water.
Question 33: A. where B. which C. whose D. who

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Question 34: A. floats B. finds C. flies D. flows
Question 35: A. up B. toward C. down D. on
Question 36: A. ago B. then C. back D. time
Question 37: A. flames B. food C. furnaces D. fires

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 38: No one has known anything about our promotion, haven’t they?
A B C D
Question 39: It was suggested that your father gave up smoking for the sake of himself.
A B C D
Question 40: Only when I am hungry I like eating rice and fish.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. famous B. modest C. skillful D. perfect
Question 42: I received housing benefit when I was unemployed.
A. out of practice B. out of order C. out of fashion D. out of work

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe,
recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be
sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto
of the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle.”
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and
expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging:
usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things
that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-
quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new
ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality
appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way,
if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the
manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.

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The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After
customers empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the
bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved.
In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the
garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.
The third step in being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and
used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one
aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle
aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources.
Question 43: Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
A. Asia B. Middle East C. South America D. Europe
Question 44: What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. cautious B. acute C. logical D. responding
Question 45: It was a waste when customers buy low-quality products because___________.
A. customers always change their ideas B. they have to be repaired many times
C. people will soon throw them away D. they are very cheap
Question 46: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. How to live sensitively to the environment.
B. What is involved in the recycling movement.
C. How to reduce garbage disposal.
D. What people often understand about the term “recycle”.
Question 47: According to the passage, people can do the following to reduce waste
EXCEPT___________.
A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. buy fewer hamburgers D. reuse cups
Question 48: What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
B. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
Question 49: The word “practice” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. belief B. deed C. exercise D. training
Question 50: The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic
because__________.
A. returned bottles are few. B. few bottles are made of glass or plastic.
C. each returned bottle is paid. D. people are ordered to return bottles

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ĐỀ SỐ 3 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN CUỐI HỌC KỲ 1
(Đề thi có 06 trang) TRƯỜNG THPT HÀM LONG – BẮC NINH
(Đề có đáp án) Môn: Tiếng Anh
««««« Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. naked B. looked C. laughed D. developed
Question 2: A. attempts B. shares C. looks D. beliefs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. typical B. favorite C. division D. organize
Question 4: A. certificate B. necessary C. economy D. geography

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 5: What may happen if John doesn’t arrive on time?
A. go along B. count on C. keep away D. turn up
Question 6: Tennis wear has become a very lucrative business for both manufacturers and tennis stars.
A. illegal B. profitable C. circumstantial D. expensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 7: No one knew precisely what would happen to human being in space.
A. casually B. flexibly C. wrongly D. exactly
Question 8: All the students got high marks in the test but Mary stood out
A. got very good marks B. got higher marks than someone
C. got the most marks of all D. got the fewest marks of all

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 9: The major goals of primary education is to achieve basic literacy and numeracy among all
students.
A. The major goal B. is C. to achieve D. and
Question 10: The colonist who first settled in New England did so because they felt there was none
social justice in their homeland of England.
A. who B. did so C. because D. none

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Question 11: Having been finished her household chores, Mary decided to do some shopping.
A. Having been finished B. chores
C. to do D. shopping

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.
Question 12: They__________enthusiastically when their teacher__________in.
A. discuss/ comes B. will have discussed/ comes
C. will discuss/ came D. were discussing/ came
Question 13: It is parents’ duty and responsibility to__________hands to take care of their children
and give them a happy home.
A. shake B. hold C. join D. take
Question 14: The world’s biodiversity is declining at an unprecedented rate, which makes
wildlife__________.
A. prosperous B. perfect C. vulnerable D. remained
Question 15: She is___________I expected.
A. more prettier than B. far prettier than
C. much more prettier than D. a lot prettier
Question 16: __________ fuel that is used today is a chemical form of solar system.
A. Most of B. The most C. Most D. Almost the
Question 17: Most foreign students don’t like American coffee, and___________.
A. I don’t too B. neither did I C. either don’t I D. neither do I
Question 18: Nobody died in the accident, but 20 people were___________.
A. damaged B. injured C. spoiled D. wounded
Question 19: If she___________ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. hasn’t been. B. wasn’t C. weren’t. D. hadn’t been
Question 20: ___________he was lazy, he failed the exam
A. So B. Consequently C. Thus D. Now that
Question 21: Who was the first person___________the South Pole?
A. to reach B. who reaches C. reached D. reaching
Question 22: There were__________ few tickets sold that the concert was cancelled.
A. a B. very C. so D. such
Question 23: Don’t worry. They will do the job as __________ as possible.
A. economically B. economical C. economic D. economy
Question 24: Peter: “How do you get to work?”
Mary: “___________.”
A. It is very far B. I walk, of course C. About 2 kilometres D. I was taken there

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Question 25: John: “I don’t think I can do this.”
George: “___________.”
A. Oh, come on B. Give it a try
C. No, I hope not D. Sure, no way!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get married
legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only after she gets 18 years old.
C. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
D. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
Question 27: The thief wore gloves so as to avoid leaving any fingerprints.
A. The thief wore gloves so as to not leave any fingerprints.
B. The thief wore gloves so that not leave any fingerprints.
C. The thief wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.
D. The thief wore gloves in order to not leave any fingerprints.
Question 28: He might have been joking when he said he was planning to leave home.
A. The idea of leaving home probably amused him a great deal.
B. I don’t know if he was serious when he expressed his intention of leaving home.
C. He could have made a joke about the situation when he left home.
D. He said he was going to leave home, but it turned out to be only a joke.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.
A. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings, so I will have it repaired.
B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
D. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings.
Question 30: Sue and Brian met. Shortly after that, he announced they were getting married.
A. As soon as Sue and Brian met, they announced they were getting married.
B. Right at the time Brian met Sue, he announced they were getting married.
C. Scarcely had Sue and Brian met when he announced they were getting married.
D. Until Sue and Brian met, they had announced they were getting married.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The General Certificate of Secondary Education or the GCSE examinations for (31)____________are
the standard school-leaver qualifications taken by (32) ____________all UK students in the May and
June following their 16th birthday. If you come to a UK (33) ____________school before you (34)
____________the age of 16, you will study towards GCSE examinations in up to 12 subjects. Some
subjects are (35) ____________, including English and mathematics, and you can select others such as
music, drama, geography, and history from a series of options.
Question 31: A. short B. long C. big D. a while
Question 32: A. similarly B. fortunately C. approximately D. virtually
Question 33: A. dependence B. independence C. independent D. independently
Question 34: A. reach B. come C. approach D. go
Question 35: A. necessary B. compulsory C. optional D. required

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When most people hear the term “National Park”, they automatically think of names such as
“Yellowstone”, or “Yosemite”, or “Grand Canyon”. The big parks’ names bring to mind vast stretches
of undisturbed wilderness perfect for hiking, camping, and nature-watching. But while this vision of
America’s National Parks is wholly accurate and sufficiently breathtaking, there’s more.
America’s National Park system has an incredible 388 places to visit. This number includes not only
the big parks, but also monuments, historical sites, recreation areas, battlefields, as well as scenic
lakeshores, and rivers. And the Parks themselves don’t just stop at geyser-fields and mule-excursions.
In America’s National Parks, you can climb an active volcano in Hawaii, “spelunk” the vast
underground world of Mammoth Cave in Kentucky, dive the exotic coral reef of Biscayne Bay in
Florida or cast your fishing nets in the far reaches of the Pacific with the locals of American Samoa.
Each of these 388 places has a unique appeal - from the natural to the manmade, from the ethereal to
the factual, from the subtle to the overwhelming - with the whole collection offering vacationers a
nearly endless range of interests and activities in which to explore and indulge.
SeeAmerica.org is a great place to begin planning your trip to one of, or several of, America’s
National Parks. From the home pages, you can search all of the Parks by name, region, activity, or even
zip code. The site also serves as a portal to other important sites, like the National Park Sevice’s official
website, www.nps.gov, and the National Park Foundation’s www.nationalparks.org. From
SeeAmerica.org, you can get to all the information you will need to plan your trip from start to finish-
from directions to the park, to park free, to typical weather conditions.

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Question 36: What is the most popular national parks in the USA?
A. Yellowstone B. Yosemite C. Grand Canyon D. all are correct
Question 37: What is not true about the US national parks?
A. They are undisturbed wilderness.
B. There are 388 places to visit in each national park.
C. They are perfect for camping.
D. Tourists to the parks can enjoy nature-watching.
Question 38: What is NOT included in the national parks?
A. monuments B. lakeshores C. zoos D. big parks
Question 39: The word “breathtaking” mostly means__________.
A. extremely impressive B. not bad
C. uninteresting D. not shocking
Question 40: Which of these can be enjoyed in a national park in Hawaii?
A. Climbing an active volcano B. Diving the exotic coral reef
C. Going fishing with the locals D. Going on mule-excursions
Question 41: The word “indulge” mostly means___________.
A. wander off B. enjoy yourself C. live alone D. interfere with
Question 42: Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The names of parks just suggest part of the pleasure of visits to them.
B. There are 388 places of interest in the US national park system.
C. All you see at national parks are natural.
D. There are great variety of things for vacationers to enjoy.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
In most discussions of cultural diversity, attention has focused on visible, explicit aspects of culture,
such as language, dress, food, religion, music, and social rituals. Although they are important, these
visible expressions of culture, which are taught deliberately and learned consciously, are only the tip
of the iceberg of culture. Much of culture is taught and learned implicitly, or outside awareness. Thus,
neither cultural insiders nor cultural outsiders are aware that certain “invisible” aspects of their culture
exist.
Invisible elements of culture are important to us. For example, how long we can be late before being
impolite, what topics we should avoid in a conversation, how we show interest or attention through
listening behavior, what we consider beautiful or ugly. These are all aspects of culture that we learn and
use without being aware of it. When we meet other people whose invisible cultural assumptions differ
from those we have learned implicitly, we usually do not recognize their behavior as cultural in origin.

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Differences in invisible culture can cause problems in cross-cultural relations. Conflicts may arise
when we are unable to recognize others’ behavioral differences as cultural rather than personal. We
tend to misinterpret other people’s behavior, blame them, or judge their intentions or competence
without realizing that we are experiencing cultural rather than individual differences.
Formal organizations and institutions, such as schools, hospitals, workplaces, governments, and the
legal system are collection sites for invisible cultural differences. If the differences were more visible,
we might have less misunderstanding. For example, if we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing
exotic clothes, speaking a language other than ours, and carrying food that looked strange, we would
not assume that we understood his thoughts and feelings or that he understood ours. Yet when such a
man is dressed similarly to us, speaks our language, and does not differ from us in other obvious ways,
we may fail to recognize the invisible cultural differences between us. As a result, mutual
misunderstanding may arise.
Question 43: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To explain the importance of invisible aspects of culture
B. To describe cultural diversity all over the world
C. To point out that much of culture is learned consciously
D. To explain why cross-cultural conflict occurs
Question 44: The word “deliberately” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. slowly B. accurately C. intentionally D. randomly
Question 45: The phrase “the tip of the iceberg” in bold in paragraph 1 means that___________.
A. other cultures seem cold to us
B. visible aspects of culture are learned in institutions
C. we usually focus on the highest forms of culture
D. most aspects of culture cannot be seen
Question 46: It can be inferred paragraph 3 that conflict results when___________.
A. people think cultural differences are personal
B. people compete with those from other cultures
C. One culture is more invisible than another culture
D. some people recognize more cultural differences than others
Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. We are often aware that we are learning about culture
B. Visible aspects of cultures receive much attention in discussion of cultural diversity
C. People misinterpret other people’s behavior because they know they are experiencing cultural
differences
D. Invisible cultural differences are often witnessed at formal organizations and institutions
Question 48: The author implies that institutions such as school and workplaces___________.

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A. are aware of cultural differences
B. teach their employees about cultural differences
C. reinforce invisible cultural differences
D. Share a common culture
Question 49: The “exotic” in bold in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. colourful B. strange C. familiar D. beautiful
Question 50: Which of the following would most likely result in misunderstanding?
A. Learning about our own culture in school
B. Unusual food being cooked by foreign visitors
C. Strange behavior from someone speaking a foreign language
D. Strange behavior from someone speaking our language

ĐỀ SỐ 4 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN CUỐI HỌC KỲ 1


(Đề thi có 06 trang) TRƯỜNG THPT HÀM LONG – BẮC NINH
(Đề có đáp án) Môn: Tiếng Anh
««««« Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. supposed B. reduced C. dissolved D. encouraged
Question 2: A. young B. country C. encourage D. ground

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. decent B. install C. attract D. approach
Question 4: A. common B. verbal C. social D. polite

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: ____________colleges and____________universities are the main institutions that provide
tertiary education.
A. ∅ - ∅ B. ∅ - the C. The - ∅ D. The – the
Question 6: Taking part___________the Advanced Engineering project gave me a chance to use my
knowledge to help society.
A. to B. at C. in D. on

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Question 7: Whenever something goes wrong, everyone____________it on me.
A. accuses B. insists C. blames D. Charges
Question 8: He was the only____________that was offered the job.
A. applicant B. apply C. application D. applying
Question 9: The college he_____________to has accepted him.
A. applied B. required C. decided D. Achieved
Question 10: - Tom: "____________" - Alice: "Yes, a bit. On certain courses I work until 5:30."
A. Do you have any overtime hours? B. Are you working overtime?
C. Have you ever worked till 5.30? D. Do you work any overtime?
Question 11: You can choose to get a job when you have finished the____________.
A. compulsory B. confidential C. primary D. secondary
Question 12: That____________boy often plays tricks on his friends.
A. honest B. obedient C. mischievous D. well-behaved
Question 13: A school year is often divided_____________two semesters.
A. into B. for C. in D. About
Question 14: Most of the students are strongly____________of the school's approach.
A. support B. supportive C. supported D. Supporter
Question 15: The making of good habits____________a determination to keep on training your child.
A. is requiring B. require C. required D. requires
Question 16: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn't have
enough____________.
A. confide B. confident C. confidence D. confidential
Question 17: - Ann: "____________" - Bill: "I start at nine and finish at four."
A. What time do you work? B. When do you start working?
C. How long do you work? D. What are your working hours?
Question 18: He graduated with doctorates of____________and surgery from Sorbonne, gaining the
highest honours that year.
A. medicine B. medicate C. medication D. Medical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 19: The sign says, "Keep off the grass."
A. The sign says, "Grass should not be grown here."
B. The sign says, "Water the grass, please."
C. The sign says, "Don't walk on the grass."
D. The sign says, "Have someone cut the grass immediately."

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Question 20: We always stand by you when you are in need.
A. We can never stand your necessity.
B. We cannot do anything for you though you are in need.
C. Whenever you are in need, we stand next to you.
D. We always continue to support and help you when you are in need.
Question 21: Go over the report before you submit it.
A. Type the report quickly and then submit it.
B. Before you write the report you have to find enough information.
C. Before you submit the report, you should finish writing it.
D. Read the report carefully before you submit it.
Question 22: I will take up golf this year.
A. I will build a golf court this year. B. I will begin to play golf this year.
C. I will enter a golf competition this year. D. I will stop playing golf this year.
Question 23: Housewives do not have to spend a lot of time doing housework any more.
A. Housewives have to spend more and more time doing housework.
B. No longer do housewives have to spend a lot of time doing housework.
C. Never have housewives spent as much time doing housework as they do now.
D. Housework will never be done by housewives any more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Punctuality is imperative in your new job.
A. Being efficient B. Being courteous C. Being cheerful D. Being on time
Question 25: If petrol prices go up any more, I will have to use a bicycle.
A. increase B. raise C. develop D. Ascend

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 32.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in
such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires
a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were
established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be
seen or smelt - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has
developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air
pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapour might be considered an air pollutant under
certain conditions.

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Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by
various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air
purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global
basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region,
human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the
cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air.
The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the
pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for
a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an
increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example,
sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its
natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant
until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
Question 26: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
B. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
C. The economic impact of air pollution.
D. What constitutes an air pollutant.
Question 27: The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. quickly B. considerably C. negatively D. admittedly
Question 28: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that____________.
A. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
B. water vapour is an air pollutant in localized areas
C. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelt
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 29: The word “These” in the second paragraph refers to____________.
A. the compounds moved to the water or soil
B. the components in biogeochemical cycles
C. the pollutants from the developing Earth
D. the various chemical reactions
Question 30: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized
regions____________.
A. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants

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C. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
D. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
Question 31: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is
only useful if____________.
A. the other substances in the area are known
B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known
D. it can be calculated quickly
Question 32: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
D. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 33: The major goal of primary education is to achieve basis literacy and numeracy among
A B C D
all students.
Question 34: Education can often to be considered to be the most important element to develop a
country.
A B C D
Question 35: Most parents prefer an education system which offers children widest study options in
A B C D
the world.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of
the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile
engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity,
compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, propane.
Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available. Although electric vehicles
will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or another dependable source of current is
available, transportation experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life:

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shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighbourhood cars, electric deliver vans, bikes,
and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electric vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are
focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging
facilities will need to be as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in
commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while
they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient
parking in transportation centres might be reserved for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains and neighbourhood vehicles all meeting at transit
centres that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of
electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline
hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling
five times number of vehicles that can be carried by a freeway today
Question 36: The following electric vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT___________.
A. trolleys B. trains C. vans D. planes
Question 37: In the second paragraph, the author implies that____________
A. everyday life will stay such the same in the future.
B. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
C. electric vehicles are not practical for the future.
D. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace some means of transportation.
Question 38: According to the passage, public parking lots in the future will be____________
A. more convenient than they are today. B. much larger than they are today.
C. equipped with charging devices. D. as common as today’s gas stations.
Question 39: The passage would most likely be followed by details about____________
A. electric shuttle buses. B. pollution restitutions in the future.
C. the neighbourhood of the future. D. automated freeways.
Question 40: The author’s purpose in the passage is to____________
A. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles.
B. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future.
C. support the invention of electric cars.
D. criticize conventional vehicles.
Question 41: The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest meaning to____________.
A. concentrated B. inexpensive C. long-range D. squared
Question 42: The word “charging” in this passage refer to____________.
A. lightening B. electricity C. parking D. credit cards
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that ____________

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A. electricity is the best alternative source of power as it is almost free of pollution.
B. the present electric engines are the best option as being practical.
C. the present cars are more economical than their future generation.
D. many new types of practical electric engines have been developed.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: Scientists proved that choosing a career for money will make you less efficient, happy
and more selfish.
A. capable B. ineffective C. effective D. proficient
Question 45: A surprising percentage of the population in remote areas is illiterate
A. unable to speak fluently B. able to read and write
C. unable to read and write D. able to speak fluently

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 46 to 50.
In the western customs, (46) ____________hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a
nod of the head or slight bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon. Business
cards are often (47) ____________and yours should be printed in your own language and in Chinese.
Also, it is more respectful to present your card or a gift or any other article using both hands. The
Chinese are (48) ____________applauders. You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small
children. When a person is applauded in this practice it is the custom for that person to return the
applause or a "thank you." When walking in public places, direct eye contact and staring is uncommon
in the larger cities, especially in those areas accustomed to foreign visitors. (49) ____________, in
smaller communities, visitors may be the subject of much curiosity and therefore you may notice some
stares. Generally speaking, the Chinese are not a touch-oriented society, especially true for visitors. So,
avoid (50) ____________or any prolonged form of body contact. Public displays of affection are very
rare. On the other hand, you may note people of the same sex walking hand-in-hand, which is simply a
gesture of friendship. Do not worry about a bit of pushing and shoving in stores or when groups board
public buses or trains. In this case, apologies are neither offered or expected. The Chinese will stand
much closer than Westerners.
Question 46: A. grasping B. hugging C. shaking D. taking
Question 47: A. converted B. transferred C. exchanged D. changed
Question 48: A. enthusiasm B. enthusiastically C. enthusiast D. enthusiastic
Question 49: A. Moreover B. Whatever C. However D. Furthermore
Question 50: A. touch B. touched C. touching D. to touch

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ĐỀ SỐ 5 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI THPT QG MỨC ĐỘ DỄ
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. accept B. accident C. accurate D. success
Question 2: A. ragged B. reached C. danced D. sniffed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. interesting B. surprising C. amusing D. successful
Question 4: A. attract B. connect C. demand D. marry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: __________is a situation in which large numbers of people have little or no food, and
many of them die.
A. Disaster B. Famine C. Poverty D. Flood
Question 6: Reviewers often___________books as “hard to put down” or “hard to pick up again”.
A. describe B. illustrate C. classify D. choose
Question 7: Thanks to the help of his teacher and classmates, he made great___________and passed
the end-term exam with high marks.
A. work B. progress C. experience D. fortunes
Question 8: Our firm___________a lot of business with overseas customers.
A. does B. takes C. deals D. makes
Question 9: If you have any problem, please call Ann. She’ll always____________a sympathetic ear.
A. bring B. borrow C. give D. lend
Question 10: “This library card will give you free access___________the Internet eight hours a day.”
A. on B. from C. to D. in
Question 11: The police have begun an___________ into the accident which happened this afternoon.
A. investigation B. investigative C. Investigate D. Investigating
Question 12: Tom hasn’t completed the work yet and Maria hasn’t____________.
A. neither B. either C. Too D. also
Question 13: Neil Armstrong was the first man____________on the moon.

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A. to walk B. walking C. Walked D. has walked
Question 14: They didn’t find____________in a foreign country.
A. it easy to live B. easy to live C. it to live easy D. it easy live
Question 15: Peter asked me____________.
A. what time does the film start B. what time the film starts
C. what time the film started D. what time did the film start
Question 16: I’m not accustomed___________up so early.
A. to getting B. to get C. by getting D. getting
Question 17: Cars have become much more complicated. ____________, mechanics need more
training than in the past.
A. However B. Therefore C. Otherwise D. Furthermore
Question 18: It’s high time we___________.
A. are leaving B. were leaving C. leave D. left

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Let’s go over that report again before we submit it.
A. dictate B. print C. read carefully D. type
Question 20: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favourite
films.
A. businesses B. advertisements C. economics D. contests

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. obedient B. disobedient C. fresh D. understanding
Question 22: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend - I’m up to my ears in work.
A. bored B. scared C. free D. busy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Myra and Will are talking about university study.
- Myra: “Do you think that university is the only way to guarantee us a good job?”
- Will: “__________because there are successful people without a degree.”
A. I don’t quite agree B. You are right
C. That’s true D. Yes, we should find a job after university

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Question 24: Mark has just arrived at the city and is asking a man on the street.
- Mark: “Can you tell me how to get to Lotus Hotel?”
- The man: “___________. I don’t know. I’m from out of town.”
A. Yes of course B. Sure C. I’ll show you D. No, I’m sorry

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people want to be fashionable, but they don’t want to look
exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are (25) ___________for work or school, perhaps (26)
___________they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the wrong size,
and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very (27)
___________clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then you
have the same problem! If you buy light cotton clothes, then they might not be (28) ___________for
winter. If your shoes are not waterproof and if you aren’t (29) ___________for the cold, you might
look good, but feel terrible!
Question 25. A. comfortable B. suitable C. fitted D. equal
Question 26. A. because B. but C. so D. although
Question 27. A. loosened B. lose C. loose D. lost
Question 28. A. too warm B. warm enough C. so warm D. enough warm
Question 29. A. dressed B. clothed C. worn D. fitted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
In 776 B.C., the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honor the Greek’s
chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their
lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at
first, but later the games were opened to all free Greek males who had no criminal record.The Greeks
emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running,
jumping, javelin throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held in individual cities, and the
winners competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive
wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were
held as games of friendship and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They
also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities presented.
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year cycles
called “Olympiads”, dating from 776 B.C. The contest coincided with religious festivities and constituted
an all-out effort on the part of participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were

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dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves but also to the
cities they represented.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
B. The games were held in Greek every four years.
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
D. Poems glorified the winners in songs.
Question 31: The word “elite” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. aristocracy B. brave C. intellectual D. muscular
Question 32: Why were the Olympic Games held?
A. To stop wars. B. To honor Zeus.
C. To crown the best athletes. D. To sing songs about the athletes.
Question 33: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. wars B. winners C. contests D. olive wreaths
Question 34: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the life of ancient Greeks.
B. The Greeks severely punished those who didn’t participate in physical fitness programs.
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
D. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war
when the games were over

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
In 2011, on the popular American TV quiz show, Jeopardy!, two champions competed against a brand
new opponent. Both Ken Jennings and Brad Rutter had won millions of dollars on Jeopardy! Jennings
once won 74 games in a row, the most ever. Then Rutter beat him in a tournament and set a new record
for the most money won on Jeopardy! Their new opponent, Watson, had never appeared on the game
show and had only played practice games before, in which he often got answers wrong.
However, Watson isn't human. He, or rather it, is a machine, a wonder of technology made by
researchers at IBM. In the game, Watson used math to decide on an answer. When a question was read
out, Watson was immediately given the same question in electronic form. It analyzed the question and
searched its memory bank - about the same as one million books of information - for possible answers. It
then narrowed the options down to one answer. If Watson felt around 75 percent confident about the
answer, it would answer the question.
The way Watson thinks is very different from the way humans think. People often make decisions by
listening to their emotions and feelings, even if they are unsure of the answer. As a computer, Watson

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couldn't do this. People also watch and listen to those around them. Watson was not able to "listen" to the
wrong answers given by his competitors. In one question, Jennings answered the question incorrectly and
Watson later answered with the same wrong answer. Watson also made silly mistakes. In a question in the
category U.S. Cities, Watson incorrectly answered Toronto, even though the city of Toronto is in Canada.
An IBM researcher said Watson got confused because it saw in its memory bank that the U.S. is often
called America. Toronto is considered a North American city, so that was the answer that Watson gave.
Still, Watson defeated his human opponents somewhat easily and received the $1 million prize. The
other players also won money for participating in the special game. Everyone left the game happy, as
each player was earning money for different charities.
Question 35: What best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Champions of Jeopardy! B. A Technological Marvel
C. Human is Smarter D. Competitors of Jeopardy!.
Question 36: Which of the following is a silly mistake of Watson?
A. He gave many answers to one question.
B. He based on other people’s clues to answer questions.
C. He repeated the question.
D. He repeated his opponent’s answer that was wrong.
Question 37: The word “him” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. Ken Jennings B. Brad Rutter C. Watson D. an IBM researcher
Question 38: How can Watson understand the question read out by humans?
A. He reads the question in an electronic form.
B. He just listens to it.
C. He searches for the same question in his memory.
D. He is helped by an IBM researcher.
Question 39: Why did Watson mistake Toronto as of America?
A. Because Toronto is not a city.
B. Because Toronto is not in America.
C. Because the U.S. is called America in his memory bank.
D. Because Canada isn’t in his memory bank
Question 40: The word “bank” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. a financial service B. money C. stored information D. side
Question 41: All of the following statements are true about Watson EXCEPT___________.
A. In order to answer questions, Watson uses math.
B. His memory bank is equal to one million books.
C. He’d never been in an official Jeopardy! before he joined the show with Jennings and Rutter.
D. The way Watson produces an answer is the same as that of humans.

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Question 42: The word “defeated” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. understood B. won C. lost D. broke

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Air pollution, together with littering, have been causing many problems in our large,
A B C
industrial cities in the last few years.
D
Question 44: There is a severe famine in Somalia , and thousands of people are dying from hungry.
A B C D
Question 45: Venus approaches the Earth more closely than any other planet is.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: They arrived too late to get good seats.
A. They had to stand for the whole show.
B. They got good seats some time after they arrived.
C. As they got there too late, there were no good seats left.
D. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
Question 47: “How brave you are!” he said to the firemen.
A. He criticized the firemen for their discouragement.
B. He asked how brave the firemen were.
C. He blamed the firemen for their discouragement.
D. He praised the firemen for their courage.
Question 48: Peter’s main subject at university is electronics.
A. Peter thinks electronics is a special subject.
B. Peter majors in electronics at university.
C. The university lets Peter major in electronics.
D. Electronics is among the subjects that Peter likes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She is a famous author. She is also an influential political commentator.
A. She likes writing famous books and commenting on politics.

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B. She is neither a famous author nor a political commentator.
C. She writes famous books, but she does not know much about politics.
D. She is not only a famous author but also an influential political commentator
Question 50: The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
A. The old man whom is working in this factory, I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.
D. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday

ĐỀ SỐ 6 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020


(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. design B. preserve C. basic D. physical
Question 2: A. continued B. mixed C. dressed D. hiked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. actor B. career C. rubbish D. cocktail
Question 4: A. adventure B. advantage C. advertise D. adverbial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty__________paintings were destroyed,
including two by Picasso.
A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy
Question 6: Without__________, all the resources necessary for life would be damaged, wasted or
destroyed.
A. conversation B. biodiversity C. extinction D. destruction
Question 7: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep with rapidly
changing technology.
A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace

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Question 8: No way will you beat him. You don’t__________a chance. He’s a hundred times better
than you are.
A. hold B. run C. possess D. stand
Question 9: My college graduation was a real__________day for my whole life.
A. red brick B. red ink C. red tape D. red letter
Question 10: Lack of funds prevented him__________continuing with his studies.
A. to B. with C. in D. from
Question 11: The International Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based
on__________, race, religion, class or political opinions.
A. national B. nationally C. nationality D. native
Question 12: The Principal usually has his pupils__________waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collected B. collect C. to collect D. collecting
Question 13: They live on a busy road. __________ a lot of noise from traffic.
A. There must be B. It must be C. It must have been D. There must have
Question 14: __________broken several world records in swimming.
A. She is said that she has B. People say she had
C. She is said to have D. It is said to have
Question 15: The captain as well as all the passengers__________very frightened by the strange noise
on their last voyage.
A. are B. was C. is D. were
Question 16: It is imperative__________what to do when there is a fire.
A. he must know about B. that everyone know
C. that he knew D. we knew
Question 17: __________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. No longer has
Question 18: The room needs__________for the wedding.
A. decorating B. to decorate C. decorate D. be decorated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids.
A. removed quickly B. cleaned well C. changed completely D. destroyed completely
Question 20: Trees have to be pruned seasonally or annually to ensure that they continue to bear fruit.
A. harvested B. trimmed C. weeded D. fertilized

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: She was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such demanding tasks.
A. lack of responsibility B. full of experience
C. without money D. full of sincerity
Question 22: There is no excuse for your discourtesy. Think twice before you are going to say
anything.
A. politeness B. impoliteness C. bravery D. boldness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Jolie is reading a magazine on famous people, asking her friend.
- Jolie: “Do you think celebrities today tend to focus more on wealth rather than achievements?”
- Jolie’s friend: “__________. And this sets bad examples for young people.”
A. It’s out of the question B. I think you’re right on this
C. Not at all D. I think they focus more on achievements
Question 24: Rose is talking to her friend on the phone.
- Rose: “Could you pick me up at the airport tomorrow?”
- Rose’s friend: “__________. I will be in a meeting then.”
A. I’m afraid I can’t B. Sure C. Yes no problem D. It’s so soon

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and
in-fluenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (25)
__________more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of
consumers. Presumably, most parents (26) __________are always worrying about their children’s
safety buy mobile phones for them to track their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers
want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear.
(27) __________, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate
fellow students. There is also (28) __________evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What
employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss?
Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once
we’ve left the office.

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Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one.
Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at
short (29) __________. They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency
situations.
Question 25: A. done B. played C. made D. brought
Question 26: A. which B. whom C. who D. what
Question 27: A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. So that
Question 28: A. indisputable B. indisputably C. dispute D. disputation
Question 29: A. time B. warning C. term D. notice
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after
having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of
1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended
even as far as two centuries. English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade
(including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers
became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English
gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English.
Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology,
advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers - Today there are more than 700
million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the
largest number of nonnative users than any other language in the world.
Question 30: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The French influence on the English Language.
B. The long history of English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for Science and Technology.
Question 31: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. In 1066. B. Around 1350. C. Before 1600. D. After 1600.
Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around
the world EXCEPT__________.
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization
Question 33: The word “enclaves” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. communities B. organizations C. regions D. countries

Trang 36
Question 34: The word “these” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. English users B. computer systems C. international airports D. air traffic controllers

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
One of the most beloved foods in the world, chocolate is not just a modern treat. In fact, chocolate -
or rather, cacao seeds - has been part of our culinary history for thousands of years.
More than 2,000 years ago in Central America, the Mayan people began consuming a drink made
from cacao seeds. There was no sugar in America in those days, and so they flavored the drink with
chili peppers and other spices. It was called xocolatl, meaning bitter water. The Mayans used xocolatl
for important rituals, such as religious ceremonies or weddings, and believed that consuming it would
enhance their health and cure illnesses. Cacao seeds became highly valued throughout Central America,
and were even used as currency by the Aztecs.
On his fourth voyage to America in 1502, the explorer Christopher Columbus landed in what is now
called Nicaragua. He was the first European to discover cacao seeds being used as money, but he did
not consider it very significant. It was only later, in the 16th century, that another explorer, Hernando
Cortez, saw cacao’s value, and brought the drink and the equipment used to make it back to Spain. The
Spanish didn’t quite take to the bitter taste, and added other ingredients such as sugar and vanilla, so
that chocolate more closely resembled the sweet treat we know today.
As popular as chocolate was in Spain, it didn’t spread to the rest of Europe until nearly a hundred
years later, when a Spanish princess married the French king and made chocolate fashionable. By the
17th century, the chocolate drink had gained widespread popularity in France, and an ambitious
Frenchman opened the first chocolate house in London. Soon, chocolate drinks were sold everywhere
in London, and English bakers began using it in cakes - the first mention of chocolate being eaten and
not drunk.
But the biggest development in modem chocolate consumption happened by accident in 1828. C. J.
van Houten, a Dutch chemist, discovered a method for making powdered chocolate when he tried to
extract oils from cacao to make the drink smoother. This product became known as “cocoa powder.”
Not long after, in 1847, a British man named Joseph Fry developed “eating chocolate,” which were
chocolate bars made of cocoa powder, cocoa butter, and sugar. This led to the first milk chocolate bars,
sold by Nestle, a Swiss company. These were created by adding condensed milk to Fry’s chocolate bar
recipe. Fry’s company, Fry & Sons, was later bought by Cadbury. Today, Nestle and Cadbury remain
the world’s leading chocolate producers.
Question 35: What best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Chocolate: a Brief History B. Cooking with Chocolate
C. Making and Eating of Chocolate D. Uses of Chocolate

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Question 36: Which is NOT mentioned as a use for chocolate?
A. money B. medicine C. decoration D. drink
Question 37: The word “culinary” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. traditional B. connected with food
C. modem D. connected with humans
Question 38: Where did chocolate originate from?
A. Spain B. Britain C. Holland D. America
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. xocolatl B. cacao seed C. sugar D. water
Question 40: The word “take to” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. cook B. develop C. enjoy D. accept
Question 41: What did C. J. Van. Houten do as a contribution to the history of chocolate?
A. He discovered a new way of having chocolate.
B. He added sweet taste to chocolate.
C. He made chocolate into bars.
D. He used it to make medicine.
Question 42: What is NOT true about modem chocolate bars?
A. They are made of cocoa powder, cocoa butter and sugar.
B. They were developed by a British person.
C. They were sold by Nestle and Cadbury.
D. Nestle chocolate bars are the same as those developed by Joseph Fry.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The young are thought to be the future leaders of the country, and it is essential that they
A B
should undestand their heritage as full as possible.
C D
Question 44: Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the earth’s
A B C
rotation changes slightly over years.
D
Question 45: A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in that the characters and events
A B C
are usually imaginary.
D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: The film didn’t come up to my expectation.
A. I expected the film to end more abruptly.
B. I expected the film to be more boring.
C. The film fell short of my expectation.
D. The film was as good as I expected.
Question 47: “Be careful or you may get lost and run out of money,” she said.
A. She told me to be careful if I got lost and run out of the money.
B. She warned me to be careful or I had to get lost and run out of money.
C. She ordered me to be careful and I might get lost and run out of money.
D. She advised me to be careful or I might get lost and run out of money.
Question 48: Although the teacher explained the theory clearly, the students found it hard to
understand it.
A. Though explained clearly, the theory of teaching was difficult to the students.
B. Despite the teacher’s clear explanation of the theory, the students had difficulty understanding it.
C. In spite of explaining the theory clearly, the students themselves found it hard to understand it.
D. Although the teaching theory was clear, it was a real challenge to the students.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those
concerned will increase.
A. If we can solve this problem soon, we’ll lower the impact on all of our concerns
B. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered
C. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be better solved
D. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned.
Question 50: Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam. I’m sure about that.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

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ĐỀ SỐ 7 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI THPT QG MỨC ĐỘ DỄ
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chaos B. cherish C. chorus D. scholar
Question 2: A. booked B. checked C. ticked D. naked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. engineer B. religion C. understand D. comprehend
Question 4: A. attract B. prefer C. forecast D. suppose

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Hurry up or you’ll be late___________school.
A. for B. in C. at D. on
Question 6: Thanks to my friends’___________remarks, my essays have been improved.
A. constructive B. construction C. constructor D. construct
Question 7: ___________you, I’d think twice about that decision.
A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been
Question 8: ___________he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.
A. Nevertheless B. Despite C. Although D. Meanwhile
Question 9: We all agree that she is___________student in our class.
A. a more clever B. cleverest C. most clever D. the cleverest
Question 10: My teacher reminded me___________my essay carefully before handing it in.
A. checked B. checking C. to have checked D. to check
Question 11: It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver___________in the crash.
A. were injured B. are injured C. was injured D. is injured
Question 12: Changes have been made in our primary schooling program. As a result, young
children___________do homework any more.
A. oughtn’t B. needn’t C. couldn’t D. Haven’t

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Question 13: He has lived in___________United Kingdom for two years.
A. a B. an C. the D. No article
Question 14: The problem of__________among young people is hard to solve.
A. employment B. employees C. Employers D. unemployment
Question 15: He’s a very___________person because he can make other workers follow his advice.
A. creative B. influential C. deciding D. effective
Question 16: The players’ protests__________no difference to the referee’s decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 17: Pay no__________to what other people talk about you. Believe in yourself.
A. notice B. way C. attention D. allowance
Question 18: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as
different as__________.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese
C. salt and pepper D. here and there

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.
A. risks B. annoyances C. fears D. irritations
Question 20: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park
there instead?
A. keep B. destroy C. decrease D. upgrade

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air.
A. extremely happy B. extremely light
C. feeling extremely unhappy D. feeling extremely airy
Question 22: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. cover B. conserve C. presume D. Reveal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Liam and Kara are having a discussion about learning new skills.
- Liam: "I think that self-leadership is a crucial skills for everyone nowadays."
- Kara: "___________. It greatly helps us achieve success."

Trang 41
A. I don’t think it’s right B. I don’t understand
C. You may be wrong D. I definitely agree
Question 24: Dan is talking to his friend after work.
- Dan: "Do you still feel like going to a movie tonight?"
- Dan’s friend: "__________. What movie should we see?"
A. I’m not sure B. I like movies C. It’s a great idea D. No, thanks

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I
was still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week. I came across the
advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The (25)
___________manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me
because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hour later, I was told that I had got the job and was given
a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff,
I was (26)____________to some benefits, including discounts. When I eventually started, I was
responsible (27)___________the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved demonstrating the
different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there fun
even when we had to deal with customers (28)____________got on our nerves. (29)__________,
working there was a great experience which I will never forget.
Question 25: A. person B. personal C. personage D. personnel
Question 26: A. entitled B. given C. catered D. supplied
Question 27: A. in B. with C. for D. to
Question 28: A. which B. why C. where D. who
Question 29: A. By contrast B. However C. Moreover D. On the whole

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Grandma Moses is among the most celebrated twentieth-century painters of the United States, yet she
had barely started painting before she was in her late seventies. As she once said of herself, “I would
never sit back in a rocking chair, waiting for someone to help me.” No one could have had a more
productive old age. She was bom Anna Mary Robertson on a fami in New York State, one of five boys
and five girls. (“We came in bunches, like radishes.”) At twelve she left home and was in domestic
service until at twenty-seven, she married Thomas Moses, the hired hand of one of her employers. They
fanned most of their lives, first in Virginia and then in New York State, at Eagle Bridge. She had ten
children, of whom five survived, and husband died in 1927.

Trang 42
Grandma Moses painted a little, as a child and made embroidery pictures as a hobby, but only
switched to oils in old age because her hands had become too stiff to sew and she wanted to keep busy
and pass the time. Her pictures were first sold at the local drugstore and at a fair, and were soon spotted
by a dealer who bought everything she painted. Three of the pictures were exhibited in the Museum of
Modem Art, and in 1940 she had her first exhibition in New York. Between the 1930s and her death she
produced some 2,000 pictures: detailed and lively portrayals of the rural life she had known for so long,
with a marvelous sense of color and form. “I think real hard till think of something real pretty, and then
I paint it,” she said.
Question 30: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Grandma Moses: A Biographical Sketch
B. The Children of Grandma Moses
C. Grandma Moses: Her Best Exhibition
D. Grandma Moses and Other Older Artists
Question 31: Grandma Moses spent most of her life___________.
A. nursing B. painting C. embroidering D. fanning
Question 32: The word “whom” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. Grandma Moses and her husband C. Grand Moses and her siblings
B. Grand Moses and her children D. Grandma Moses’s children
Question 33: According to the passage, Grandma Moses began to paint because she wanted
to___________.
A. decorate her home B. keep active
C. improve her salary D. gain an international reputation
Question 34: In paragraph 2, the word “spotted” could best be replaced by___________.
A. speckled B. featured C. noticed D. damaged

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
A signature usually contains either a first name and a surname, or initials and a surname, or, less
frequently a first name and initials. Your first name represents your private or family self, and your
surname represents your public self, how you are socially and at work.
If your first name is more prominent in your signature, this implies that you have positive feelings
about your childhood and that your “private” self is more important to you than your “public” self. If
your surname is more prominent, this means that your “public” self is more important to you. The more
space between your name and surname, the more you wish to keep your public and private self
separate. If you only use initials either for your first name or your surname in your signature, this
means that you are more secretive about this part of your personality (your private or public persona).

Trang 43
A legible signature implies that you are a person with clear ideas and objectives. The more illegible
your signature is, the less assertive you are as a person, and the more you tend to avoid conflict.
Most signatures are horizontal, rising or descending. A rising signature means that you are the kind of
person who, when faced with problems, will work to overcome them. Usually optimistic, you are in
control and ambitious. A descending signature means that you have a tendency to get depressed and
give up when faced with problems, and lack self-confidence. Some people’s signatures go through a
temporary phase where they go down, which shows that they are going through a hard time or an
illness. A horizontal signature suggests an emotionally stable person who is well-balanced and
generally satisfied with the way their life is going. If your signature is bigger than the rest of the letter
or document you have written, that means that you are self-confident and have quite a high opinion of
yourself. Some people actually sign in capital letters, which suggests they are arrogant rather than self-
confident. People whose signature is smaller than the rest of the text may be insecure and have low self-
esteem.
Question 35: What is mainly discussed in the passage?
A. Instructions of writing your signature B. Changing your signatureas being inadvisable
C. What your signature says about you D. Scientific facts behind signature
Question 36: The word “initials” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. a person’s full name B. all the letters in a signature
C. first letters of all of a person’s names D. a person’s family name
Question 37: What does signing only initials for your first name suggest?
A. You want to keep your private self secret.
B. You want to keep your public self secret.
C. You tend to avoid conflicts.
D. You are in control when faced with problems
Question 38: The word “legible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. legal B. clear
C. neat D. straight
Question 39: You are supposed to have stable emotions if you sign___________.
A. upwards B. downwards
C. only your first name D. horizontally
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to____________.
A. signatures B. people C. problems D. documents
Question 41: What kind of person are you if you sign in capital letters?
A. Arrogant B. Emotionally stable
C. Optimistic D. Ambitious
Question 42: What aspect of signature is NOT mentioned in the passage?

Trang 44
A. Space within a signature B. Legibility
C. Size D. Shape

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The lady who had invited us heard me telling my wife that the dinner terrible, so I was
A B C
embarrassed.
D
Question 44: The threat of being dismissed do not worry me any more because I have started my own
business. A B C D
Question 45: She wishes we didn’t send her the candy yesterday because she’s on a diet.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest ỉn meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: It’s difficult for me to understand what he implies.
A. I find it difficult to understand what he really means.
B. Understanding what he implies is found difficult.
C. What he implies is not very difficult to understand.
D. To understand what he really means is difficult to find.
Question 47: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I would have spoken English well if I could get that job.
B. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.
C. Despite my poor English, I was successful in the job.
D. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.
Question 48: A small hotel was the only choice of place to stay at during my trip to London.
A. I had different choices of where to stay during my trip to London.
B. I had no alternative but to stay at a small hotel during my trip to London.
C. There were a lot of hotels for me to choose from during my trip to London.
D. I was talked into staying at a small hotel during my trip to London

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.
A. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.

Trang 45
B. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.
C. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.
D. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.
Question 50: I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up.
A. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of waking up the baby.
B. Waking the baby up, I could not continue watching the television.
C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.
D. I decided to turn the television down to avoid waking the baby up

ĐỀ SỐ 8 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI THPT QG MỨC ĐỘ DỄ


(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. concerned B. received C. attached D. concealed
Question 2: A. moon B. food C. flood D. pool

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. bamboo B. hotel C. hello D. beauty
Question 4: A. assistant B. holiday C. colony D. possible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: As the drug took___________, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
Question 6: Although we do not live in the same town, my cousin and I still keep___________and
often speak on the phone.
A. up-to-date B. in touch C. in hand D. off work
Question 7: “Wildlife-preserves” are areas where wild animals are___________within their natural
environment.
A. hunted B. threatened C. protected D. discarded
Question 8: Workers who do not obey the safety regulations will be___________immediately.

Trang 46
A. refused B. rejected C. disapproved D. dismissed
Question 9: I feel terrible. I didn’t sleep ___________last night.
A. an eye B. a wink C. a jot D. an inch
Question 10: She nearly lost her own life___________attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
Question 11: My father is a big football fan, but my mother has no___________in the sport at all.
A. interesting B. interest C. interested D. interestingly
Question 12: He became famous after___________that prize.
A. to win B. winning C. win D. to winning
Question 13: Every day I___________up at 6 o’clock, ___________breakfast at seven o’clock
and___________for work at 8 o’clock.
A. get - eat - leave B. have got - eating - leaving
C. got - ate - left D. will get - have eaten - left
Question 14: These chairs are___________better than the others.
A. as B. very C. much D. either
Question 15: Yesterday my mother bought___________.
A. beautiful Italian some cotton hats B. Italian some beautiful cotton hats
C. some beautiful Italian cotton hats D. some hats Italian beautiful cotton
Question 16: The girls and flowers___________he painted were vivid.
A. who B. which C. whose D. that
Question 17: It was___________a simple question that everyone answered it correctly.
A. so B. such C. much D. too
Question 18: He’ll never pass his driving test___________he takes some lessons.
A. unless B. if only C. provided D. if

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger.
A. urgent B. unavoidable C. important D. necessary
Question 20: Let’s wait here for her; I’m sure she’ll turn up before long.
A. enter B. return C. arrive D. visit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. occupied B. reluctant C. confident D. free

Trang 47
Question 22: She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity
organization.
A. mean B. amicable C. kind D. hospitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Emily is having dinner at Sarah’s house.
- Emily: “This apple pie you make tastes out of this world!”
- Sarah: “___________. I’m glad you like it.”
A. No problem B. Yes, I made it C. Yes, please D. Thank you
Question 24: Katie is talking to James about studying art.
- Katie: “Do you think that studying art at school is a waste of time and we should focus on scientific
subjects instead?”
- James: “___________. Art develops creativity in schoolchildren.”
A. Exactly B. I love art too
C. I’m afraid I have to disagree D. That’s so true

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist. (25) ___________a few
well- known ones, like Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling, have become wealthy, most writers find it
difficult even to make a living from their book sales. Novels take a long time to write, and authors can
get into financial (26) ___________if they don’t have money coming in regularly from another job. But
for those (27) ___________are determined to write novels, it is without doubt one of the most
enjoyable kinds of work to do. The writer has to be creative, thinking up (28) ___________new stories,
and dedicated, meaning they put all their time and effort into their work. They also need to be able to
cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them. For this, a good sense of humour often
helps or the thought that maybe their novel might one day be turned into a film and become a
Hollywood (29)___________!
Question 25: A. Therefore B. Because C. Although D. Despite
Question 26: A. upset B. trouble C. problem D. worry
Question 27: A. whom B. who C. which D. what
Question 28: A. completed B. completion C. complete D. completely
Question 29: A. blockbuster B. attraction C. best-seller D. victory

Trang 48
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to
me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions and is
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either
reflects your current state of being or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course,
they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all
day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on
the color or emotion I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you
are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant
to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion.
Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be healthy
is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your
emotions.
Question 30: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
B. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life.
C. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
D. Colors can help you become more influenced.
Question 31: The term “intimately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. clearly B. obviously C. closely D. simply
Question 32: Who is more influenced by the color you wear?
A. You yourself B. The people around
C. The clothes designer D. Your family
Question 33: The term “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. people B. colors C. emotions D. none of the above
Question 34: According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the black color B. being open to your emotions
C. ignoring your emotions D. exposing yourself to bright color

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Trang 49
Nowadays, it is an accepted fact that our position in the family - that is, whether we’re an oldest child,
a middle child, a youngest child, or an only child - is possibly the strongest influence there is on our
character and personality. So what influence does it have?
Firstborn children often have to look after their younger brothers and sisters, so they’re usually
sensible and responsible as adults. They also tend to be ambitious and they make good leaders. On the
negative side, oldest children can be insecure and anxious. This is because when the second child is bom,
they lost some of their parents’ attention, and maybe they felt rejected.
Middle children are more relaxed than the oldest children, probably because their parents were more
relaxed themselves by the time the second child arrived. They’re usually very sociable - the kind of
people who get on with everybody. They are also usually sensitive to what other people need because
they grew up between older and younger brothers and sisters. For the same reason, they’re often quite
good at sorting out arguments, and they’re always sympathetic to the ones on the losing sides, or in
general, to people who are having problems. On the other hand, middle children can sometimes be
unambitious, and they can lack direction in life.
Youngest children are often very outgoing and charming. This is the way they try to get the attention
of both their parents and their older brothers and sisters. They are often more rebellious, and this is
probably because it’s easier for them to break the rules - by the time they were bom, their parents were
more relaxed about discipline. They can also be immature and disorganized, and they often depend too
much on other people, because they have always been the baby of the family.
Only children usually do well at school because they have a lot of contact with adults. They get a lot of
love and attention from their parents, so they’re typically self-confident. They’re also independent, as
they spend too much time by themselves. And because they spend a lot of time with adults, they’re often
very organized. Only children can sometimes be spoilt because they are given everything they ask for by
their parents. They can also be quite selfish and get impatient, especially when things go wrong. This is
because they’ve never had to sort out problems with other brothers and sisters.
Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A person’s position in the family matters
B. Number of children in today’s family
C. How birth order influences personalities
D. Characteristics of children in modem family
Question 36: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to___________.
A. oldest children’s B. parents’ C. middle children’s D. youngest children’s
Question 37: Why do middle children tend to be sympathetic to other people?
A. because they have to look after their younger siblings
B. because their parents are more sympathetic by the time they were bom
C. because they have a lot of contact with both their younger and older siblings

Trang 50
D. because they had been the babies of the family before their younger siblings were born.
Question 38: Which of the following is the characteristic of youngest children?
A. mature B. organized C. outgoing D. independent
Question 39: The word “rebellious” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. disciplined B. disobedient C. respectful D. well-behaved
Question 40: Who tend to be self-confident?
A. Oldest children B. Middle children C. Youngest children D. Only children
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Youngest children break the rules more often.
B. Oldest and middle children are equally ambitious.
C. Oldest children may feel rejected as they grow up.
D. Only children are organized due to a lot of time spent with adults
Question 42: The word “sort out” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. organize B. face C. cause D. solve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Benjamin Franklin, a famous American statesman, author, and scientist, born in 1709 and
A B
lived to the age of eighty.
C D
Question 44: A desert area that has been without water for six years will still bloom when rain will come.
A B C D
Question 45: The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international
organizations. A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: Tim broke his arm and couldn’t battle in the final.
A. If Tim didn’t break his arm, he could battle in the final.
B. If Tim hadn’t broken his arm, he could battle in the final now.
C. Tim couldn’t battle in the final due to his broken arm.
D. But for his broken arm, Tim couldn’t have played in the final.
Question 47: “I agree that I am narrow-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager denied being narrow-minded.
B. The manager admitted being narrow-minded.

Trang 51
C. The manager refused to be narrow-minded.
D. The manager promised to be narrow-minded.
Question 48: I was astonished that he knew a lot about Vietnamese food.
A. I was astonished at his poor knowledge of Vietnamese food.
B. That he knew a lot about Vietnamese food amazed me.
C. I knew very little about Vietnamese food, which astonished him.
D. It surprised me that Vietnamese food was what he liked most

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He did not work hard. He failed the exam.
A. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam.
B. Even though he failed the exam, he didn’t work hard.
C. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam.
D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam.
Question 50: Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies. Her classmates appreciate her.
A. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, but they appreciate her.
B. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, yet they appreciate her.
C. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, so they appreciate her.
D. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, or they appreciate her.

ĐỀ SỐ 9 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI THPT QG MỨC ĐỘ DỄ


(Đề thi có 05 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. blood B. pool C. food D. tool
Question 2: A. decided B. looked C. started D. coincided

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. command B. secure C. pretend D. leisure
Question 4: A. wonderful B. impressive C. confident D. regular

Trang 52
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: What is your___________?
A. nationalize B. nationally C. nationality D. national
Question 6: “If you are not satisfied__________your purchase, we will give you a full refund.”
A. at B. of C. for D. with
Question 7: Opposite our house is a nice park___________ there are trees and flowers.
A. which B. where C. whose D. that
Question 8: I’m really looking forward__________to university.
A. to going B. go C. to go D. going
Question 9: Students will not be allowed into the exam room if they__________their student cards.
A. didn’t produce B. don’t produce C. produced D. hadn’t produced
Question 10: My sister is__________person in our family.
A. the shortest B. the shorter C. shortest D. shorter
Question 11: You have the latest album of this band,__________?
A. do you B. don’t you C. have you D. haven’t you
Question 12: Mary Smith decided to give up her job for the___________of her children.
A. care B. sake C. advantage D. concern
Question 13: I am reading a novel. By the time you come back from work I__________it.
A. finish B. will finish C. will have finished D. have finished
Question 14: Jack said he___________his homework since 7 o’clock.
A. does B. did C. has done D. had done
Question 15: The recent heavy rains have helped to ease the water__________.
A. plenty B. poverty C. shortage D. abundance
Question 16: It was very difficult for the inspector to___________what recommendations he should
take.
A. realize B. settle C. solve D. decide
Question 17: What university will you take an__________examination into?
A. entrance B. attendance C. entry D. admission
Question 18: It’s only a small flat but it___________my needs perfectly.
A. meets B. supplies C. settles D. fills

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
A. strict B. outspoken C. tactful D. firm

Trang 53
Question 20: Her husband passed away last Friday. We are all shocked by the news.
A. got married B. divorced C. died D. was on business

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The US troops are using more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. simple and easy to use B. complicated C. expensive D. difficult to operate
Question 22: Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. relaxed about C. free from D. fond of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Emma is at a clothes shop.
- Emma: “Do you have this jacket in a larger size?”
- Shop assistant: “__________. They’re all sold out.”
A. Yes B. That’s alright C. I’m afraid not D. I’m afraid I can’t
Question 24: Alice is talking to her friend about fast food.
- Alice: “People are eating fast food as their main meal. Do you think it’s a good thing?”
- Alice’s friend: “___________. Fast food is very poor in nutrients.”
A. It’s a good thing actually B. I don’t think so
C. I think so D. You’re perfectly right

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Many parents believe that their children (25) ___________be taught to read right after they have
learnt to walk. This is fine if the child shows a real interest (26) ___________forcing a child could be
counter-productive if she or he isn’t ready. Wise parents will have a relaxed (27) ___________and take
the lead from their child. What they should provide is a selection of (28) ___________toys, books and
other activities. Nowadays there is plenty of good amusement available for young children, and of
course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also encourage them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge range
of videos, (29) ___________can reinforce and extend the pleasure a child finds in books. Television
gets a bad press as far as children are concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time
watching programmes not intended for their age group.
Question 25: A. should B. could not C. had to D. must not
Question 26: A. so B. or C. and D. but

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Question 27: A. pastime B. decision C. attitude D. competition
Question 28: A. stimulate B. stimulation C. stimulus D. stimulating
Question 29: A. that B. who C. what D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention. In May, 1966, the
World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United Nations was authorized to initiate a global
campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eliminate the disease in one decade. At the time, the
disease posed a serious threat to people in more than thirty nations. Because similar projects for malaria
and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven years
after the initial organization of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients with active
smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission.
Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating so that patients are removed from contact with
others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.
By April of 1978 WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case of the disease
but health workers continued to search for new cases for additional years to be completely sure. In
May, 1980, a formal statement was made to the global community. Today smallpox is no longer a
threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.
Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The World Health Organization B. Smallpox Vaccinations
C. The Eradication of Smallpox D. Infectious Disease
Question 31: According to the passage, what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of
smallpox?
A. Vaccinations of entire villages B. Treatments of individual victims
C. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations D. Extensive reporting of outbreak
Question 32: How was the public motivated to help health workers?
A. By educating them B. By rewarding them for reporting cases
C. By isolating them from others D. By giving them vaccination
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to__________.
A. officials B. health workers C. victims D. cases
Question 34: The word “isolated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. separated B. restored C. attended D. located

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Chuseok is one of the most important festivals in the Korean calendar. It takes place in the eighth
month of the lunar calendar (in either September or October), on the night of the full moon. Chuseok is
a time for family reunions and for people to honour and give thanks to their ancestors. It is also meant
to celebrate nature and the large harvest that it has given them.
Nowadays, many people in Korea live and work in big cities like Seoul. During Chuseok, people who
have moved away return to their hometowns in the countryside to celebrate together. The government
gives everyone a day off from work before and after Chuseok. Many people spend those days traveling,
so the roads are very busy during this period. A two-hour journey can easily turn into six hours!
At the family home, the day before Chuseok is spent cleaning the home and preparing food for
ceremonies and family dinners. Women make songpyeon - moon-shaped rice cakes with a sweet filling
- using new rice from the recent harvest. It is said that the woman who makes the most beautiful
songpyeon will find a good-looking husband or give birth to a beautiful daughter. The songpyeon can
take days to make, but now people can buy them easily in stores. The next day is Chuseok. People
make an effort to dress nicely and wear traditional costume like the hanbok, although this is more
common among the older women. In the morning, food is placed on a special table dedicated to their
ancestors, and families pay a visit to their graves. Later, traditional games like yut nori (a game of
throwing sticks) and hwa-tu (a card game) are played. At night, the whole family goes outdoors under
the full moon, and everyone eats and drinks until late. The third day is usually spent traveling back
home and preparing to return to work or school. Like Thanksgiving and Lunar New Year, Chuseok is a
time for families to reconnect with past traditions, as well as spend time with each other.
Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How Chuseok has changed over the years
B. Chuseok festival in Korea
C. The Korean’s ways to celebrate
D. The most popular Korean celebrations
Questions 36: People celebrate all of these during Chuseok EXCEPT___________.
A. nature B. a big harvest C. marriage and babies D. relatives who have died
Question 37: The word “honour” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. show respect B. take responsibility C. pay money D. give presents
Question 38: The word “it” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. lunar calendar B. nature C. Chuseok D. harvest
Question 39: What do people do on the day before Chuseok?
A. wear hanbok B. play games
C. visit graves D. clean the house

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Question 40: The word “filling” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. the food inside B. covering C. soft material D. taste
Question 41: According to the passage, in what way has Chuseok changed?
A. No young women wear hanbok during Chuseok.
B. People now eat songpyeon during Chuseok.
C. Women are the people who make songpyeon.
D. People can now buy songpyeon in stores.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT part of the Chuseok celebrations?
A. making moon-shaped rice cakes B. dressing in nice clothes
C. going outdoors under the moon D. giving presents to family members

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: They are planning on attending the convention next month, and so I am.
A B C D
Question 44: Miss Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the
festivities.
A B C D
Question 45: This job suits students whom want to work during holidays.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: I wish I hadn’t accepted the invitation to her birthday party.
A. I insisted on having been invited to her birthday party.
B. I regret accepting the invitation to her birthday party.
C. If only I had come to her birthday party.
D. I was very glad to accept the invitation to her birthday party.
Question 47: The man in that painting reminds me of my uncle.
A. Whenever my uncle sees the man in that painting, he misses me.
B. Whenever I see the man in that painting, I remember to meet my uncle.
C. Memories of my uncle come back whenever I see the man in that painting.
D. I am recalling my uncle whenever I look at the man in that painting.
Question 48: “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
C. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.

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D. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The man is very old. He can’t take such a long trip.
A. The old man has refused to take such a long trip.
B. The trip is not too long for the man to take.
C. The man is young enough to take such a long trip.
D. The man is too old to take such a long trip.
Question 50: My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.

Đáp án
ĐỀ SỐ 10 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI THPT QG MỨC ĐỘ DỄ
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. drummer B. future C. number D. umbrella
Question 2: A. packed B. punched C. pleased D. pushed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. powerful B. proposal C. athletic D. position
Question 4: A. become B. between C. improve D. forward

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Sally is so successful because she has complete confidence__________herself.
A. at B. of C. in D. for
Question 6: She hates those who are not__________for appointment. She doesn’t want to wait.

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A. punctually B. punctual C. punctuality D. punctuate
Question 7: There has been a great increase in retail sales, __________?
A. hasn’t there B. isn’t there C. isn’t it D. doesn’t it
Question 8: The Lake District, __________was made a national park in 1951, attracts a large number
of tourists every year.
A. that B. where C. what D. which
Question 9: It took many hours of negotiation to___________a compromise.
A. arrive B. do C. make D. reach
Question 10: Of all the world’s major oceans, __________Arctic Ocean is the shallowest.
A. an B. the C. a D. ∅
Question 11: Hair colour is one of__________characteristics to be used in identifying people.
A. the most obviously B. most obvious C. obviously the most D. the most obvious
Question 12: He managed to keep his job__________the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. although B. despite C. unless D. therefore
Question 13: The AIDS__________continues to spread around the world. Up to 4,000 people are
infected with the HIV virus every single day.
A. treatment B. epidemic C. tsunami D. damage
Question 14: I’d rather not__________about it in such an unfavorable circumstance.
A. talked B. talking C. talk D. to talk
Question 15: Many old people don’t like change. They are very set in their__________.
A. ways B. routines C. habits D. life
Question 16: Make sure you__________us a visit when you are in town again.
A. give B. do C. pay D. have
Question 17: After the__________of the new manager, the staff worked more effectively.
A. dismissal B. retirement C. resignation D. appointment
Question 18: If she__________sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. weren’t D. hadn’t been

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: You must answer the police’s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble.
A. exactly as things really happen B. with a negative attitude
C. in a harmful way D. as trustingly as you can
Question 20: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. arrange B. exchange C. complain D. explain

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: If you say bad things about the person who give you a job, you bite the hand that feeds
you.
A. be unfriendly B. be ungrateful C. be thankful D. be devoted
Question 22: Maureen usually felt depressed on Mondays, because she never got enough sleep on the
weekends.
A. embarrassed B. cheerful C. unhappy D. understanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Two teachers are having a discussion about children’s learning.
- Teacher A: “I think that weak children should take after-school classes.”
- Teacher B: “__________ it’s not the only way they can improve on their learning.”
A. They are weak so B. I couldn’t agree more because
C. I have no objection because D. You could be right but
Question 24: Ken is talking to his friend.
- Ken: “I’m sorry I can’t come to your birthday. I’m going on a business trip this week!”
- Ken’s friend: “__________. We can meet after you come back.”
A. Don’t worry B. That’s great C. Exactly D. Thank you

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for
such everyday (25) __________as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the
specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a person must meet
certain educational requirements and obtain a certificate before he can practice law or medicine. Many
fields, like computer operation or police work, (26) __________satisfactory completion of special
training courses.
Education is also important (27) __________it helps people get more out of life. It increases their
knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more
interesting, (28) __________the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical
instrument. Such education becomes (29) __________important as people gain more and more leisure
time.
Question 25: A. emotions B. activities C. plans D. jobs
Question 26: A. requires B. requiring C. require D. to require

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Question 27: A. therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 28: A. such as B. for instance C. such that D. as a result
Question 29: A. increased B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
The oldest living things on Earth are trees. Some of California’s sequoias have for four thousand
years looked down on the changes in the landscape and the comings and goings of humans. They
sprouted from tiny seeds about the time the Egyptian pyramids were being built. Today these giant
patriarchs seem as remote and inaccessible as the rocks and mountain cliffs on which they grow, like
cathedral columns holding up the sky. It is hard to imagine them playing any part in the lives of mere
humans or being in any way affected by the creatures that pass at their feet.
Lesser trees, however, have played an intimate role in the lives of people since they first appeared on
Earth. Trees fed the fires that warmed humans. They provided shelter, food and medicine and even
clothing. They also shaped people’s spiritual horizons. Trees expressed the grandeur and mystery of
life, as they moved through the cycle of seasons, from life to death and back to life again. Trees were
the largest living things around humans and they knew that some trees had been standing on the same
spot in their parents’ and grandparents’ time, and would continue to stand long after they were gone.
No wonder these trees became symbols of strength, fruitfulness, and everlasting life.
Question 30: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Trees grow to great heights.
B. Trees have been important to people throughout history.
C. Trees make humans seem superior.
D. Trees that grow in California are very old.
Question 31: In line 3, the phrase “giant patriarchs” could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. tiny seeds B. important leaders C. towering trees D. Egyptian pyramids
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a way in which people have
used trees?
A. For furniture B. For fuel C. For housing D. For nourishment
Question 33: In paragraph 2, the word “They” refers to which of the following?
A. Trees B. Grandeur and mystery
C. Seasons D. People’s spiritual horizons
Question 34: Which of the following do trees represent?
A. intelligence B. flexibility C. abundance D. relationship

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
For decades doctors have warned us about the danger of stress and have given advice about how to
cut down our stress levels. Everyone agrees that long-term stress, for example having to look after
someone who has a chronic illness, or stressful situations where there is nothing we can do, for
example being stuck in a traffic jam, is bad for our health and should be avoided whenever possible.
However, some medical experts now believe that certain kinds of stress may actually be good for us.
Dr Marios Kyriazis, an anti-ageing expert, claims that what he calls “good stress” is beneficial to our
health and may, in fact, help us stay young and attractive and even live longer. Dr Kyriazis says that
“good stress” can strengthen our natural defences which protect us from illnesses common among older
people, such as Alzheimer’s, arthritis, and heart problems. He believes that “good stress” can increase
the production of the proteins that help to repair the body’s cells, including brain cells.
According to Dr Kyriazis, running for a bus or having to work to a deadline are examples of “good
stress”, that is situations with short-term, low or moderate stress. The stress usually makes us react
quickly and efficiently, and gives us a sense of achievement - we did it! However, in both these
situations, the stress damages the cells in our body or brain and they start to break down. But then the
cell’s own repair mechanism “switches on” and it produces proteins which repair the damaged cells and
remove harmful chemicals that can gradually cause disease. In fact, the body’s response is greater than
is needed to repair the damage, so it actually makes the cells stronger than they were before.
“As the body gets older, this self-repair mechanism of the cells starts to slow down,” says Dr
Kyriazis. “The best way to keep the process working efficiently is to “exercise” it, in the same way you
would exercise your muscles to keep them strong. This means having a certain amount of stress in our
lives.” Other stressful activities that Kyriazis recommends as being good stress include redecorating a
room in your house over a weekend, packing your suitcase in a hurry to reach the airport on time,
shopping for a dinner party during your lunch break or programming your DVD or video recorder by
following the instruction manual.
So next time your boss tells you that she wants to see that report finished and on her desk in 45
minutes, don’t panic; just thinking of it as “good stress” which will have benefits for your long-term
health.
Question 35: What is mainly discussed in the passage?
A. Health benefits of certain stressful situations.
B. Some stress's ability to make our cells stronger.
C. Doing exercise as one way to avoid stress.
D. Illnesses caused by stress.
Question 36: Which of the following situations is NOT considered as “good stress”?
A. Redecorating your room B. Being in a traffic jam.

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C. Finishing a report in less than an hour. D. Running to catch a bus
Question 37: The word “chronic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. temporary B. fatal C. infectious D. lasting
Question 38: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. We should avoid stress altogether in our lives.
B. Long-term stress is sometimes good for our health.
C. Not all kinds of stress is bad for us.
D. Too much protein can make us ill
Question 39: Why does a moderate stress situation bring about benefits?
A. It gives us a feeling of hurry.
B. It breaks down the cells in our body.
C. It causes us to work out our muscles.
D. It develops our natural defences.
Question 40: What can repair the damaged cells caused by stress?
A. beneficial chemicals B. muscles C. proteins D. a minor illness
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to__________.
A. proteins B. cells C. harmful chemicals D. muscles
Question 42: The word “panic” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. feel frightened B. scream C. quit the job D. rush

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The little boy’s mother bought him a five-speeds racing bicycle for his birthday.
A B C D
Question 44: Five miles beyond the hills were a fire with its flames reaching up to the sky.
A B C D
Question 45: Caroline has worn her new yellow dress only once since she buys it.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “If I were you, I would not choose to write about such a sensitive topic,” the teacher said.
A. The teacher advised me against writing about such a sensitive topic.
B. I was blamed for writing about such a sensitive topic by the teacher.
C. I was ordered by the teacher not to write about such a sensitive topic.
D. The teacher advised me on writing about such a sensitive topic.

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Question 47: It wouldn’t be a waste of time to look at that house again.
A. Did you find that looking at that house again was a waste of time?
B. It was worth looking at that house again.
C. Would we consider looking at that house again?
D. You shouldn’t waste your time looking at that house again.
Question 48: A child is influenced as much by his schooling as by his parents.
A. A child’s parents have greater influence on him than his schooling.
B. Schooling doesn’t influence a child as much as his parents do.
C. A child can influence his parents as much as his schooling.
D. A child’s schooling influences him as much as his parents do.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I had to do my homework. I could not help my mother with the washing-up.
A. Because I was busy doing my homework, I could not help my mother with the washing-up
B. It was impossible for me to do my homework although my mother helped me with the washing-up.
C. I could not help my mother with the washing-up until I finished my homework.
D. I could not do my homework because I had to help my mother with the washing-up.
Question 50: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.

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ĐỀ SỐ 11 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI THPT QG MỨC ĐỘ DỄ
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có đáp án) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. windy B. wine C. behind D. night
Question 2: A. visited B. showed C. wondered D. studied

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. severe B. harbor C. tutor D. surface
Question 4: A. salary B. essential C. industry D. interview

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: There is a good film____________TV tonight. Will you watch it?
A. at B. from C. on D. in
Question 6: He gave no____________for his absence.
A. explanation B. explaining C. explained D. to explain
Question 7: We didn’t go to the zoo yesterday____________the heavy rain.
A. because of B. in spite of C. so D. because
Question 8: “Thanh didn’t understand it.” - “____________”
A. So did I B. I did, too C. I did, either D. Neither did I
Question 9: If they had arrived at the shop earlier, they____________a better selection of clothes.
A. will find B. would be finding C. would have found D. will have found
Question 10: She is very absent-minded. She____________her cell-phone three times!
A. has lost B. loses C. was losing D. lost
Question 11: ____________the class size is our school’s immediate aim.
A. Reduced B. Reduces C. Reducing D. Reduce
Question 12: ____________children like to read picture books.
A. Many B. A little C. Every D. Much
Question 13: Spain has won the championship, ____________is not surprising.

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A. that B. how C. which D. what
Question 14: Over 120____________of birds have been recorded in this national park.
A. species B. diversity C. animals D. individuals
Question 15: Most____________are at senior level, requiring appropriate qualifications.
A. degrees B. grades C. colleges D. vacancies
Question 16: The youth nowadays have many things to do in their____________time.
A. leisure B. entertainment C. fun D. amusement
Question 17: You should make a(n) ____________to overcome this problem.
A. trial B. impression C. effort D. apology
Question 18: According to a recent survey, most people are on good____________with their
neighbours.
A. relations B. terms C. acquaintance D. relationships

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: He said that his father had cut down on the number of print newspapers and magazines.
A. reduced B. increased C. deleted D. raised
Question 20: Thirty minutes after the accident, the captain still refused to abandon the burning ship.
A. leave B. come to C. sail D. get on

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) has promoted its trade
relations with other countries.
A. boosted B. expanded C. restricted D. balanced
Question 22: These days, many people only read printed newspapers once in a while as they tend to
access information online.
A. regularly B. attentively C. occasionally D. selectively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Lucas is talking to his brother about sports.
- Lucas: “I think dangerous sports should be banned completely.”
- Lucas’ brother: “___________. People should be given freedom to choose what they like.”
A. I think dangerous sports are good B. There’s no doubt about it
C. I quite disagree D. That’s one hundred percent right

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Question 24: A waiter is asking Jason, who is sitting in the restaurant.
- Waiter: “Would you like the beef rare or well done?
- Jason: “___________”
A. Rare, please B. Yes, please C. No, thanks D. Certainly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
In Germany, it’s important to be serious in a work situation. They don’t mix work and play so you
shouldn’t make jokes as you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very
(25)___________way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don’t like- interruptions or (26)
___________changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for
appointments. At meeting, it’s important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (27)
___________speaker. If you give a presentation, you should focus (28) ___________facts and
technical information and the quality of your company’s products. You should also prepare well, as
they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example
“Doctor” or “Professor”, so you shouldn’t use first names (29) ___________a person asks you to.
Question 25: A. organizer B. organization C. organize D. organized
Question 26: A. abrupt B. immediate C. fast D. prompt
Question 27: A. another B. others C. other D. the other
Question 28: A. at B. to C. on D. in
Question 29: A. unless B. as C. if only D. since

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
During the early years of this century, wheat was seen as the very lifeblood of Western Canada. When
the crops were good, the economy was good; when the crops failed, there was depression. People on
city streets watched the yields and the price of wheat with almost as much feeling as if they were
growers. The marketing of wheat became an increasingly favorite topic of conversation.
War set the stage for the most dramatic events in marketing the western crop. For years, farmers
mistrusted speculative grain selling as carried on through the Winnipeg Grain Exchange. Wheat prices
were generally low in the autumn, but farmers could not wait for markets to improve. It had happened
too often that they sold their wheat soon after harvest when farm debts were coming due, only to see
prices rising and speculators getting rich. On various occasions, producer groups asked for firmer
controls, but governments had no wish to become involved, at least not until wartime wheat prices
threatened to run wild.

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Anxious to check inflation and rising living costs, the federal government appointed a board of grain
supervisors to handle deliveries from the crops of 1917 and 1918. Grain Exchange trading was
suspended, and farmers sold at prices fixed by the board. To handle the crop of 1919, the government
appointed the first Canadian Wheat Board, with full authority to buy, sell, and set prices.
Question 30: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To explain how wheat is marketed today
B. To justify suspension of trading on the Grain Exchange
C. To describe the origins of the Canadian Wheat Board
D. To argue for further reforms on the Canadian Wheat Board
Question 31: According to the passage, most farmers debts had to be paid .
A. when the autumn harvest had just been completed
B. because wheat prices were high
C. as soon as the Winnipeg Grain Exchange demanded payment
D. when crop failure caused depression
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. farmers B. wheat prices C. people on city streets D. crops
Question 33: In paragraph 3, the word “check” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. control B. investigate C. finance D. reinforce
Question 34: According to the passage, a preliminary step in the creation of the Canadian Wheat Board
was the appointment of
A. the Winnipeg Grain Exchange B. a board of supervisors
C. several producer groups D. a new government

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While you prepare for your departure, make sure your paperwork is organized. You’ll want to check
the dates on your visa and passport. Having an important document expired before or during your trip is
the last thing you want to happen. Be sure to get an international driver’s license if you plan to drive
while you are abroad. Also, do some research on the local currency. Some countries - like Jamaica - use
more than one currency. It’s best to know how and when to use each.
If you need to take medication along, keep it in its original container. If you are carrying prescription
drugs, bring a letter from your doctor in case customs officials question you at your destination. Also,
make sure that you travel with proper medical insurance so that if you are sick or injured while
traveling, you will be able to get treatment.

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As a tourist, you’ll probably stand out on the street. Unlike local people, you’ll carry guide books,
refer to maps, take photos, and look up at buildings. Because of this, you may appear vulnerable. Stay
safe by keeping one eye on the amazing sights and the other on your personal items.
When you get into a taxi, make sure there is a meter and that it is turned on. If there is no meter, agree
on a price before starting out. Tour guides recommend protecting your luggage in busy transportation
areas by always keeping it in front of you or between your legs. Also, if you are going anywhere that
requires purchasing tickets, be sure to buy them at an authorized location. Never purchase tickets on the
street, as these are often overpriced, fake, or expired.
It’s always a good idea to buy a guidebook and a map, and read about the local culture of the country
you will be visiting. For example, it’s important to know that in India you should use the right hand to
eat, or to give and accept things. In Thailand, it’s rude to point with your feet at someone or something.
Also, try to learn a few basic words and phrases of the local language. Don’t assume that everyone will
speak your language or that they will understand English. If you have trouble communicating, look for
students and young people who might speak a foreign language. And remember to smile. It’s the
friendliest and most sincere form of communication, and is understood everywhere in the world!
Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Advice on safe travel
B. How to have a relaxed holiday
C. How to save money on travelling
D. Customs in some countries tourists need to know
Question 36: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. medicine B. money C. passport D. insurance
Question 37: What advice is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. check your paperwork B. have insurance cover
C. keep an eye on your belongings D. use English when travelling
Question 38: Why can locals spot you as tourists in the street?
A. You have a passport B. You look up at buildings
C. You smile a lot D. You take medication along
Question 39: The word “vulnerable” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________ .
A. secure B. strange C. easily hurt D. outstanding
Question 40: Why shouldn’t you buy tickets on the street?
A. Because they can no longer be valid.
B. Because they are not authorized
C. Because you may not have the correct currency.
D. Because you may not need them afterwards.
Question 41: The word “overpriced” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to__________.

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A. too expensive B. too old
C. reasonable D. damaged
Question 42: What should you do when travelling regarding language?
A. Ask a student or a young person when having trouble in language
B. Use English to communicate with local people
C. Speak your language
D. Bring a dictionary with you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: He asked me what I intended to do after I graduate.
A B C D
Question 44: Scientific advances and other developments constant eliminate some jobs and create new
ones. A B C D
Question 45: Mary was determined to leave the office by 4:30 for catching the early train home.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: When I arrived, they were having dinner.
A. When they started having their dinner, I arrived.
B. I came in the middle of their dinner.
C. They ate their dinner as soon as I arrived.
D. I came to their invitation to dinner.
Question 47: It doesn’t matter to them which movie they go to.
A. They don’t care about the cost of the movies they see.
B. They don’t mind which movie they go to.
C. Whatever movies are shown, they never see.
D. Which movie they go to matters more than the cost.
Question 48: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills.
A. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.
C. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. She had left because I was not on time.
B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.
C. I was not early enough to see her off.
D. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her.
Question 50: My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953. It was completely destroyed by the forest
fire.
A. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953; however, completely destroying the forest fire.
B. My grandparents’ lake house, which was built in 1953, was completely destroyed by the forest fire.
C. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953, so it was completely destroyed by the forest fire.
D. The forest fire destroyed my grandparents’ lake house in 1953.

ĐỀ SỐ 12 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI THPT QG MỨC ĐỘ DỄ


(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có đáp án) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. child B. ill C. wild D. nice
Question 2: A. lights B. lawns C. streets D. hoops

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. tennis B. into C. between D. country
Question 4: A. family B. attractive C. marvelous D. industry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: These days everybody is aware__________the danger of smoking.
A. up B. of C. on D. with
Question 6: What__________views do Americans and Asians have about love and marriage?
A. tradition B. traditionally C. traditionalism D. traditional

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Question 7: In our hospital, patients__________every morning.
A. are examined B. examined C. have examined D. will be examined
Question 8: My brother tried to learn Japanese at a night class, __________he gave up after 2 months.
A. therefore B. when C. until D. but
Question 9: I’d rather you__________home now.
A. going B. went C. go D. gone
Question 10: Steve Davis, __________won the trophy last year, is already out of this year’s
competition.
A. who B. that C. whom D. which
Question 11: Would you mind__________in the theatre?
A. smoking B. not smoking C. not to smoke D. not smoking
Question 12: You__________use your mobile phone during the test. It’s against the rules.
A. mightn’t B. mustn’t C. oughtn’t D. needn’t
Question 13: Tom was very tired because he__________for an hour.
A. had run B. runs C. ran D. were running
Question 14: The__________is the official who controls the game in some sports.
A. player B. captain C. referee D. defender
Question 15: You should ask the interviewer some questions about the job to show your
__________and keenness.
A. anger B. thrill C. amazement D. interest
Question 16: Mary cannot afford tuition__________for studying abroad.
A. fine B. fee C. finance D. pension
Question 17: Don’t worry about your necklace. Give it to me and I promise to great care of it.
A. bring B. take C. keep D. make
Question 18: It’s hard to__________on less than a million a month.
A. make ends meet B. make a fuss C. make up your mind D. make a mess

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
Question 20: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. surprised B. survived C. connived D. revived

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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Question 21: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstances.
A. be confident B. be pessimistic C. be optimistic D. be smart
Question 22: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having
trouble.
A. short B. unsatisfactory C. adequate D. dominant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Henry and Matthew are talking about using mobile phones.
- Henry: “I think people nowadays are less interactive with each other because of mobile phones.”
- Matthew: “___________.Everyone seems to be happy on their own with their smartphones.”
A. I agree with you C. I’m not sure about that
B. I think otherwise D. No, they are more interactive
Question 24: Hang is giving flowers to her teacher.
- Hang: “Happy Teacher’s day, Ms Linh!”
- Hang’s teacher: “___________. The flowers are beautiful!”
A. You’re welcome B. Thank you so much C. That’s okay D. No problem

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Droughts, storms and fires
can change ecosystems. Some changes harm ecosystems. (25)___________there is too little rainfall,
plants will not have enough water to live. If a kind of plant dies off, the animals (26) ___________feed
on it may also die or move away. Some changes are good for ecosystems. Some pine forests need fires
for the pine trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat from a forest fire melts the
seal and lets the seeds (27) ___________. Polluting the air, soil, and water can harm ecosystems.
Building dams on rivers for electric power and (28) ___________can harm ecosystems around the
rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down forests destroy ecosystems. Ecologists are working with
companies and governments to find better ways of (29) ___________fish, cutting down trees, and
building dams. They are looking for ways to get food, lumber, and other products for people without
causing harm to ecosystems.
Question 25: A. If B. Because C. Unless D. Although
Question 26: A. that B. where C. who D. when
Question 27: A. go B. in C. out D. fly
Question 28: A. irrigate B. irrigation C. irrigating D. irrigated
Question 29: A. carrying B. holding C. catching D. taking

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
For a century and a half the piano has been one of the most popular solo instruments for Western
music. Unlike string and wind instrument, the piano is completely self-sufficient, as it is able to play
both the melody and its accompanying harmony at the same time. For this reason, it became the favorite
household instrument of the nineteenth century.
The ancestry of the piano can be traced to the early keyboard instruments of the fifteenth and
sixteenth centuries - the spinet, the dulcimer, and the virginal. In the seventeenth century the organ, the
clavichord, and the harpsichord became the chief instruments of the keyboard group, a supremacy they
maintained until the piano supplanted them at the end of the eighteenth century. The clavichord’s tone
was metallic and never powerful; nevertheless, because of the variety of tone possible to it, many
composers found the clavichord a sympathetic instrument for concert use, but the character of the tone
could not be varied save by mechanical or structural devices.
The piano was perfected in the early eighteenth century by a harpsichord maker in Italy (though
musicologists point out several previous instances of the instrument). This instrument was called a
piano e forte (soft and loud), to indicate its dynamic versatility; its strings were struck by a recoiling
hammer with a felt-padded head. The wires were much heavier in the earlier instruments. A series of
mechanical improvements continuing well into the nineteenth century, including the introduction of
pedals to sustain tone or to soften it, the perfection of a metal frame and steel wire of the finest quality,
finally produced an instrument capable of myriad tonal effects from the most delicate harmonies to an
almost orchestral fullness of sound, from a liquid, singing tone to a sharp, percussive brilliance.
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The historical development of the piano
B. The quality of tone produced by various keyboard instruments
C. The uses of keyboard instruments in various types of compositions
D. The popularity of the piano with composers
Question 31: Which of the following instruments was widely used before the seventeenth century?
A. The harpsichord B. The spinet C. The clavichord D. The organ
Question 32: The words “a supremacy” in paragraph 2 are closest in meaning to___________.
A. a suggestion B. an improvement C. a dominance D. a development
Question 33: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to the____________.
A. variety B. music C. harpsichord D. clavichord
Question 34: According to the information in the thữd paragraph, which of the following
improvements made it possible to lengthen the tone produced by the piano?
A. The introduction of pedals

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B. The use of heavy wires
C. The use of felt-padded hammerheads
D. The metal frame construction
D. located

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The Pirahã are an isolated Amazonian tribe of hunter-gatherers who live deep in the Brazilian
rainforest. The tribe has survived, their culture intact, for centuries, although there are now only around
200 left. The Pirahã, who communicate mainly through hums and whistles, have fascinated ethnologists
for years, mainly because they have no words for numbers. They use only three words to count: one,
two, and many.
We know about the Pirahã thanks to an ex-hippy and former missionary, Dan Everett, now a
professor of Phonetics, who spent seven years with the tribe in the 70s and 80s. Everett discovered a
world without numbers, without time, without words for colours, without subordinate clauses and
without a past tense. Their language, he found, was not just simple grammatically; it was restricted in
its range of sounds and differed between the sexes. For the men, it has just eight consonants and three
vowels; for the women, who have the smallest number of speech sounds in the world, seven consonants
and three vowels. To the untutored ear, the language sounds more like humming than speech. The
Pirahã can also whistle their language, which is how men communicate when hunting.
Their culture is similarly constrained. The Pirahã can’t write, have little collective memory, and no
concept of decorative art. In 1980, Everett tried to teach them to count: be explained basic arithmetic to
an enthusiastic group keen to learn the skills needed to trade with other tribes. After eight months, not
one could count to ten; even one plus one is beyond them. The experiment seemed to confirm Everett’s
theory: the tribe just couldn’t conceive the concept of number.
The Piraha’s inability to count is important because it seems to disapprove Noam Chomsky’s
influential Theory of Universal Grammar, which holds that the human mind has a natural capacity for
language, and that all languages share a basic rule structure, which enables children to understand
abstract concepts such as number. One of Chomsky’s collaborators has recently gone on an expedition
with Everett to study the tribe. We do not yet know if the Pirahã have persuaded him to change his
theory.
Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A study by Professor Dan Everett
B. A defect in Chomsky’s famous theory
C. Reasons behind the humming and whistling of the Pirahã tribe
D. The unusual language of the Piraha’s tribe

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Question 36: What is NOT true about the Pirahã tribe?
A. Their language as well as their culture is restricted.
B. They have not decreased in numbers.
C. They have successfully kept their culture as it was originally.
D. The lack of words for numbers in their language has interested ethnologists.
Question 37: The Piraha’s language is unusual because .
A. there is no grammar
B. some concepts don’t exist
C. there are more consonants than vowels
D. children in the tribe can only hum
Question 38: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to___________.
A. the Piraha’s language B. the Pirahã tribe
C. the act of humming D. the language of males
Question 39: The word “untutored” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. wrong B. untrained C. foreign D. damaged
Question 40: The word “constrained” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. complicated B. simplified C. varied D. limited
Question 41: What did Everett’s experiment to teach the Pirahã to count reveal?
A. The tribe just couldn’t take in the concept of number.
B. The tribe was able to learn number but no one taught them previously.
C. The tribe couldn’t count to 1000.
D. The tribe had its own way of saying numbers.
Question 42: What does Chomsky’s Theory of Universal Grammar hold?
A. Children and adults have different language abilities.
B. Children do not grasp abstract concepts until they grow up.
C. All languages have some rules in common.
D. Some languages do not have words for numbers.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.
A B C D
Question 44: Ancient people used pot for cooking, storing food, and carrying things from place to
place. A B C D
Question 45: The children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “What did you do last night?” the policeman asked the woman.
A. The policeman asked the woman what did she do the night before.
B. The policeman asked the woman what she had done the night before.
C. The policeman asked the woman what had she done the night before.
D. The policeman asked the woman what she did the night before.
Question 47: Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight
schedule.
A. Not having been informed of the change in flight schedule, Martin missed his flight.
B. Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in flight schedule.
C. Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight schedule.
D. Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule.
Question 48: Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday.
A. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday.
B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday
C. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday.
D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She doesn’t want to go to their party. We don’t want to go either.
A. Neither she nor we don’t want to go to their party.
B. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party.
C. Either we or she doesn’t want to go to their party.
D. Neither we nor she want to go to their party.
Question 50: John does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, John’s still very fat.
B. John does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.
C. Even though John does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.
D. John’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise

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ĐỀ SỐ 13 ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THI THPT QG MỨC ĐỘ DỄ
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có đáp án) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. call B. cup C. coat D. ceiling
Question 2: A. laughed B. washed C. helped D. weighed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. color B. passion C. behave D. children
Question 4: A. victory B. arrangement C. envelope D. temperature

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: We try to help our mother___________household chores.
A. make B. take C. build D. do
Question 6: Would you mind___________me a favour and posting this letter for me?
A. making B. doing C. getting D. giving
Question 7: An economic___________is a time when there is very little economic activity, which
causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.
A. improvement B. depression C. development D. mission
Question 8: The___________of the bank where he worked was not in the center of the city.
A. branch B. seat C. house D. piece
Question 9: She was___________so frightened that she was shaking like
A. a leaf B. jelly C. the wind D. a flag
Question 10: They wanted us to pay___________cheque.
A. for B. in C. on D. by
Question 11: I wish you a very happy___________
A. retire B. retirement C. retiring D. retired
Question 12: Due to ever more spreading poaching, there___________a dramatic decline in the
number over the last decade.
A. was B. is C. has been D. had been
Question 13: If everyone___________, how would we control the traffic?

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A. could fly B. can fly C. flies D. had flown
Question 14: We have bought extra food___________our guests stay for dinner.
A. so that B. when C. if D. in case
Question 15: Because his argument was confusing, ___________people undestand it.
A. few B. little C. many D. much
Question 16: Do you remember the day___________we first met?
A. where B. when C. whom D. which
Question 17: He’d prefer___________chicken soup rather than___________milk.
A. having/ having B. to have/ drink C. have/ drink D. had/ drank
Question 18: John never comes to class on time and___________.
A. neither does Peter B. so does Peter C. so doesn’t Peter D. neither doesn’t Peter

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars
according to brightness.
A. shine B. record C. categorize D. diversify
Question 20: When the alarm went off, everyone proceeded calmly to the emergency exits.
A. fell B. exploded C. called D. rang

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: If you stick to your guns, you refuse to change what you are saying or doing despite the
opposition or criticism of other people.
A. be changeable B. be persistent C. be inflexible D. be constant
Question 22: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest.
A. poor B. rich C. hungry D. full

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Ms Dandy is at the doctor’s.
- Doctor: “Take aspirin every four hours and get plenty of rest.”
- Ms Dandy: “___________. I’ll do it.”
A. No problem B. Thank you C. I’d love to D. I’m afraid I can’t
Question 24: John is talking to his colleague about exercising.
- John: “Walking is an easy way to exercise everyday.”

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- John’s colleague: “___________. And it’s not as expensive as working out at the gym.”
A. I’m not so sure B. You’re right
C. I think we should walk everyday D. That’s not the way I see it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
How men first learnt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a (25)
___________. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to
express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and
that later they agreed (26) ___________certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to
represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, whether spoken or written in
letters, are called words. Great writers are those (27) ___________not only have great thoughts but also
express these thoughts in words that (28) ___________powerfully to our minds and emotions. This
charming and telling use of words is what we call literary style. Above all, the real poet is a master of
words. He can convey his meaning in words which sing like music, and which by their position and
association can (29)___________men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words
carefully, or they will make our speech silly and vulgar.
Question 25: A. mystery B. secret C. story D. legend
Question 26: A. with B. upon C. at D. about
Question 27: A. who B. whom C. whose D. which
Question 28: A. appealed B. appealingly C. appealing D. appeal
Question 29: A. break B. send C. take D. move

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
The term “virus” is derived from the Latin word for poison, or slime. It was originally applied to the
noxious stench emanating from swamps that was thought to cause a variety of diseases in the centuries
before microbes were discovered and specifically linked to illness. But it was not until almost the end
of the nineteenth century that a true virus was proven to be the cause of a disease.
The nature of viruses made them impossible to detect for many years even after bacteria had been
discovered and studied. Not only are viruses too small to be seen with a light microscope, they also
cannot be detected through their biological activity, except as it occurs in conjunction with other
organisms. In fact, viruses show no traces of biological activity by themselves. Unlike bacteria, they are
not living agents in the strictest sense. Viruses are very simple pieces of organic material composed
only of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, enclosed in a coat of protein made up of simple structural
units (some viruses also contain carbohydrates and lipids). They are parasites, requiring human, animal,

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or plant cells to live. The virus replicates by attaching to a cell and injecting its nucleic acid. Once
inside the cell, the DNA or RNA that contains the virus’ genetic information takes over the cell’s
biological machinery, and the cell begins to manufacture viral proteins rather than its own.
Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. New Developments in Viral Research
B. Exploring the Causes of Disease
C. DNA: Nature’s Building Block
D. Understanding Viruses
Question 31: Before microbes were discovered, it was believed that some diseases were caused by .
A. germ-carrying insects
B. certain strains of bacteria
C. foul odors released from swamps
D.slimy creatures living near swamps
Question 32: The word “proven” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Shown B. Feared C. Imagined D. Considered
Question 33: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to___________.
A. a virus B. viruses’ biological activity
C. a light microscope D. the nature of virus
Question 34: All of the following may be components of a virus EXCEPT___________.
A. RNA B. plant cells C. carbohydrates D. a coat of protein
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Because deaf people cannot hear, they have special ways of communicating. For example, they can
learn to understand what someone is saying by looking at the mouth of the speaker. This is called lip-
reading. Also, speaking is very difficult for the deaf, because they cannot hear their own voices.
However, it is possible with special training. According to many deaf people all around the world, the
most practical and popular way of communicating is with sign language.
In many ways, sign language is similar to spoken language. The words of sign language are made
with signs, which are formed with movements of the hands, face, and body. As with words, each sign
has a different meaning and can be combined to form sentences. Sign languages also have their own
grammar. The alphabet of sign language is special hand signs that stand for letters; they make spelling
possible. The signs combine to form a rich language that can express the same thoughts, feelings, and
ideas as any spoken language. And just as people from different countries speak different languages,
most countries have their own variety of sign language.
In addition to knowing sign language, it is also helpful to know something about how deaf people
communicate. Since they rely so much on actions, deaf people are generally not very formal when they

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“talk”, and may touch your arm or shoulder a lot to make sure you know what they’re saying. It is not
seen as rude in among deaf people to lightly touch someone you do not know to get their attention. It’s
also okay to wave your hands or hit the table or floor. Also, lots of eye contact is necessary.
There are many ways to learn a few signs. Community colleges often teach introductory classes. For
self-learners, bookstores and libraries have books for learning sign language. There are also
instructional videos on the Internet, with 30 actors demonstrating signs and performing interesting
stories and conversations for you to see. With practice, you’ll soon get the hang of this useful method
of communicating!
Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Sign language training
B. Deaf people’s ways of communicating
C. Comparison between sign language and spoken language
D. Ways to learn sign language
Question 36: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. sign languages’ B. spoken languages’ C. deaf people’s D. hand signs’
Question 37: The word “rich” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. foll-of-variety B. having a lot of money C. native D. limited
Question 38: Sign language and a spoken language share all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT___________.
A. They both have grammar
B. They both have the alphabets
C. They both use the movement of hands, face and body
D. They both have different varieties in different countries
Question 39: Why are deaf people considered not very formal when they “talk”?
A. Because they don’t make eye contact when “talking”
B. Because they often touch their conversation partner
C. Because they look at their partner’s lips
D. Because they don’t listen to their conversation partner
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of sign language?
A. There’s lots of eye contact.
B. Sign language relies a lot on actions.
C. There are hand signs for letters.
D. Deaf people cannot express feelings with sign language.
Question 41: According to the passage, how can a person study sign language by himself?
A. by attending introductory classes
B. by “talking” with deaf people

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C. by watching instructional videos on the Internet
D. by watching deaf people who are actors
Question 42: The phrase “get the hang of” is closest in meaning to___________.
A. speak B. understand C. carry D. invent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: We were at home having our dinner when my uncle was calling to congratulate us last
night. A B C D

Question 44: The American frontiersman, politician, and soldier Davy Crockett is one of the most
A B
popular of American hero.
C D
Question 45: The rubber farms will make a lot of money and give jobs to a great deal of people.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon.
A. He wouldn’t have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon.
B. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn’t survive the operation.
C. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon.
D. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died.
Question 47: If we had missed the flight, we wouldn’t be on the beach now.
A. We missed the flight and now we are not on the beach.
B. We missed the flight but we are now on the beach.
C. We were on the beach and now we don’t miss the flight.
D. We didn’t miss the flight and we are on the beach now
Question 48: The woman was too weak to lift the suitcase.
A. The woman wasn’t able to lift the suitcase, so she was very weak.
B. The woman shouldn’t have lifted the suitcase as she was weak.
C. The woman, though weak, could lift the suitcase.
D. So weak was the woman that she couldn’t lift the suitcase.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50: We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. Because we need to find ways to cope with it, stress cannot completely be avoided in our lives

ĐỀ SỐ 14 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020


(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. promote B. complete C. maintain D. follow
Question 2. A. dominant B. attitude C. sacrifice D. combustion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. emerge B. religious C. centralise D. effective
Question 4. A. asked B. needed C. stopped D. increased

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: If you understand a matter thoroughly, that means you understand it.
A. hardly B. scarcely C. completely D. badly
Question 6: Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. changed his decision B. refused to change his decision

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C. felt sorry for us D. wanted to continue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The best hope of avoiding downmarket tabloid TV future lies in the pressure currently
being put on the networks to clean up their act.
A. expensive B. famous C. poor quality D. uncreative
Question 8: In mountainous areas, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter comes.
A. exchange B. empty C. refill D. repeat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 9: - John: “I’ll drive you home if you don’t mind. I’ve got something to do in your area.”
- Mary: “___________”
A. I’d love to. B. That’s so nice of you.
C. Really? I love it when you are busy. D. Are you sure?
Question 10: - Paul: “She has accepted my proposal.”
- Mike: “___________”
A. Wow! Congratulations! B. What a nice girl!
C. Thanks, but don’t worry. D. I am sorry to hear that.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

Question 11: Only when you grow up___________the truth.


A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
Question 12. Thanks to the help of the teacher, she is___________ encouraging progress in math.
A. doing B. making C. checking D. stopping
Question 13: If you___________it, nobody would know.
A. didn’t mention B. wouldn’t mention C. hadn’t mentioned D. shouldn’t mention
Question 14. English all over the world.
A. is spoken B. spoke C. speak D. speaks
Question 15. He has not been offered the job because he cannot meet the___________of the company.
A. information B. education C. applicants D. requirements
Question 16. Hamlet,__________was written by Shakespeare in 1600, is considered to be his greatest
work.

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A. which B. that C. whose D. who
Question 17. The rooms needs ___________for the wedding.
A. to decorate B. decorating C. to being decorated D. being decorated
Question 18. When we met John last year, he___________from Harvard already.
A. graduated B. had graduated C. has graduated D. will have graduated
Question 19: Schooling is compulsory___________all English children from the age of 5 to 16.
A. to B. with C. for D. by
Question 20: It is the underserved___________that damaged his life and his family.
A. reputable B. reputed C. reputation D. disrepute
Question 21. The monk insisted that the tourists___________ the temple until they had removed their
shoes.
A. not enter B. not entering C. not to enter D. to not enter
Question 22. This species of African elephants is___________
A. dying on B. dying of C. dying out D. dying away
Question 23: After a hard-working day, I went to___________bed and had___________most beautiful
dream ever.
A. the - the B. a - the C. a - a D. ∅ – the

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
What do you do well? What do you enjoy doing? Your answers to these two questions will help you
identify your (24) ___________. An employer will consider you (25) ___________for a position when
you can show them that you know who you are, what you can offer and what you have studied.
Sometimes it is difficult to know what your weaknesses are. Clearly not everyone is equally good at
everything. You may need to improve yourself and so (26) ___________courses in that field may turn a
weakness into strength. You will need to spend some time on your self-assessment. Your honesty and
desire for self-improvement will lead to success in getting the right job. Explore the following seven areas
to start to get to know yourself: your attitude, your skills, your personality, the level of responsibility you
feel comfortable with, your interests and your needs. Ask yourself if you have any (27)
___________talents and if you need to consider your physical health when choosing a job. Be as honest
and realistic as you can, and ask for other people’s (28)___________if necessary.
Question 24. A. health B. strength C. courage D. beauty
Question 25. A. generously B. comfortably C. strictly D. seriously
Question 26. A. making B. taking C. learning D. sitting
Question 27. A. special B. lovely C. nice D. funny
Question 28. A. attendances B. opinions C. fields D. jobs

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 36.
At the start of the social media revolution, Facebook quickly became the most popular site for sharing
information with others. However, it is not the only service that people can use to express themselves.
Those who believe in the old saying that “more is less” may want to check out Twitter. Part of Twitter’s
appeal is that it limits users to 140 characters whenever they update their status. This forces people to
quickly “get to the point” when they are communicating.
Twitter is a microblogging service that was created by four American programmers in 2006. The
founders chose the name Twitter because the word has two definitions: “a short burst of information” and
“the sound that little birds make”, both of which fit the description of what their service provides. In fact,
some people have even labeled Twitter the “SMS of the Internet”. Twitter is not just about words though.
Users can also share videos and pictures. Another thing which truly sets Twitter apart from its
competition is the hashtag. Hashtags are a special way of labeling and classifying information. They help
people interested in a subject to find related posts and contents. For example, some interested in sports
could simply search for hashtag and they would find all messages tagged in this manner.
Twitter has also allowed people to easily connect with others who they would have never had access to
in the past. This has enabled fans to interact with their favourite celebrities by following their Twitter
updates and sending them direct messages. Of course, there is no guarantee that the famous person will
respond, as the celebrities may receive thousands of messages each day. However, there have been some
pretty stunning interactions. In 2011, singer Justin Timberlake made headlines when he accepted an
invitation from a female soldier to attend a Marine Corps ball. In return, many celebrities find it gratifying
to know some of their supporters more closely. However, there is a dark side to Twitter conversations:
Some people who don’t think before sending out tweets can cause outrage by making inappropriate or
insensitive remarks.
In November 2013, Twitter went public on the New York Stock Exchange. The added investments
should allow the company to do some incredible things in the near future.
Question 29: What is mentioned in the article as an effect of Twitter's word limit?
A. It helps people focus on what they want to say.
B. It caused many users to quit Twitter and use other sites.
C. It is something that most users hope will change very soon.
D. It is the same word limit that other social media sites use.
Question 30: What is the benefit of hashtags?
A. They help users maintain privacy.
B. They help people find relevant content more easily.
C. They help celebrities earn more money.

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D. They help sports fans improve their skills.
Question 31: What does the passage suggest about celebrities?
A. Most celebrities don’t have Twitter accounts.
B. They usually reply to every message they get.
C. They shouldn’t be allowed to use Twitter.
D. Many of them enjoy connecting with their fans.
Question 32: All of the following are characteristics of Twitter EXCEPT that___________.
A. it allows users to find related posts and content about a certain subject
B. it allows users to become online friends with celebrities easily
C. it puts a word limit on the status
D. it offers easy connections with others
Question 33: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. websites B. celebrities C. requests D. fans
Question 34: Which of the following is an example of the “darker side” of Twitter?
A. Someone posts rude insults about another person.
B. A fan asks a celebrity to do a favour.
C. A celebrity takes a fan to a dance.
D. Someone closes their account due to a lack of time.
Question 35: Who would be most interested in the passage?
A. A person who likes to write long posts on social media.
B. A person who is looking to protect their identity on the Internet.
C. A person who wants to meet others online.
D. A person who is dreaming of becoming famous in the future.
Question 36: The author’s attitude toward the future of Twitter is___________.
A. doubtful B. optimistic C. negative D. partial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43.
FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES
Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a “housewife”.
She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He was
usually out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And
he did not see the children very much, except on weekends.
These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the
children all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening
cooking dinner and cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is
going to do the housework now? Who is going to take care of the children?

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Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife
agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband
always cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and
the husband cooks dinner on other nights.
Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from
grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far
away to help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a
babysitter or a day-care center. The problem with this kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for
couples with jobs that pay well.
Parents may get another kind of help from the companies they work for. Many companies now let
people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend more time with their children. Some
husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men, there is a new
word: they are called “househusbands”. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands
every year.
These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children
better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in
their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.
Question 37: Sixty years ago, most women___________.
A. were housewives B. went out to work
C. did not do much housework D. had no children
Question 38: Nowadays, there are / is___________.
A. more work outside the home than before
B. more and more women staying with the children all day
C. more housewives than before
D. more women going out to work than before
Question 39: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. cooking and washing up B. tidying up
C. washing and ironing D. shopping
Question 40: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that___________.
A. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center
B. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center
C. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with childcare
D. grandparents can help care for the children in a regular way
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to___________.
A. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers
B. parents who work part-time outside their home

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C. husbands who stop working to stay with the children
D. fathers who spend more time with their children
Question 42: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may___________.
A. help families B. not change the children at all
C. not happen D. cause problems for a marriage
Question 43: This article is about____________.
A. American men as househusbands B. housewives in America
C. how more American women are working D. how family life in America is changing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 44: It’s essential that every student passes the exam before attending the course.
A B C D
Question 45: Although the increases in airfares, most people still decide to travel by plane.
A B C D
Question 46: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas
A B C
where many jobs are found.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 47: “Where did you go last night, Nam?”, said Hoa.
A. Hoa said to Nam where had he gone last night.
B. Hoa said to Nam where he had gone the night before.
C. Hoa told Nam where he had gone last night.
D. Hoa asked Nam where he had gone the night before.
Question 48: We consider that Mr. Thompson was the most famous professor in English linguistics.
A. Mr. Thompson is considered to have been the most famous professor in English linguistics.
B. Mr. Thompson is considered to be the most famous professor in English linguistics.
C. It is considered that Mr. Thompson to have been the most famous professor in English linguistics.
D. It was considered that Mr. Thompson was the most famous professor in English linguistics.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him.

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A. The man was shot in bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him.
B. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
C. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
D. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery.
Question 50: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.

ĐỀ SỐ 15 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020


(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. design B. preserve C. basic D. physical
Question 2: A. continued B. mixed C. dressed D. hiked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. actor B. career C. rubbish D. cocktail
Question 4: A. adventure B. advantage C. advertise D. adverbial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty__________paintings were destroyed,
including two by Picasso.
A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy
Question 6: Without__________, all the resources necessary for life would be damaged, wasted or
destroyed.
A. conversation B. biodiversity C. extinction D. destruction
Question 7: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep with rapidly
changing technology.

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A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace
Question 8: No way will you beat him. You don’t__________a chance. He’s a hundred times better
than you are.
A. hold B. run C. possess D. stand
Question 9: My college graduation was a real__________day for my whole life.
A. red brick B. red ink C. red tape D. red letter
Question 10: Lack of funds prevented him__________continuing with his studies.
A. to B. with C. in D. from
Question 11: The International Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based
on__________, race, religion, class or political opinions.
A. national B. nationally C. nationality D. native
Question 12: The Principal usually has his pupils__________waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collected B. collect C. to collect D. collecting
Question 13: They live on a busy road. __________ a lot of noise from traffic.
A. There must be B. It must be C. It must have been D. There must have
Question 14: __________broken several world records in swimming.
A. She is said that she has B. People say she had
C. She is said to have D. It is said to have
Question 15: The captain as well as all the passengers__________very frightened by the strange noise
on their last voyage.
A. are B. was C. is D. were
Question 16: It is imperative__________what to do when there is a fire.
A. he must know about B. that everyone know
C. that he knew D. we knew
Question 17: __________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. Not until had D. No longer has
Question 18: The room needs__________for the wedding.
A. decorating B. to decorate C. decorate D. be decorated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids.
A. removed quickly B. cleaned well C. changed completely D. destroyed completely
Question 20: Trees have to be pruned seasonally or annually to ensure that they continue to bear fruit.
A. harvested B. trimmed C. weeded D. fertilized

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: She was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such demanding tasks.
A. lack of responsibility B. full of experience
C. without money D. full of sincerity
Question 22: There is no excuse for your discourtesy. Think twice before you are going to say
anything.
A. politeness B. impoliteness C. bravery D. boldness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Jolie is reading a magazine on famous people, asking her friend.
- Jolie: “Do you think celebrities today tend to focus more on wealth rather than achievements?”
- Jolie’s friend: “__________. And this sets bad examples for young people.”
A. It’s out of the question B. I think you’re right on this
C. Not at all D. I think they focus more on achievements
Question 24: Rose is talking to her friend on the phone.
- Rose: “Could you pick me up at the airport tomorrow?”
- Rose’s friend: “__________. I will be in a meeting then.”
A. I’m afraid I can’t B. Sure C. Yes no problem D. It’s so soon

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and
in-fluenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (25)
__________more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of
consumers. Presumably, most parents (26) __________are always worrying about their children’s
safety buy mobile phones for them to track their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers
want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear.
(27) __________, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate
fellow students. There is also (28) __________evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What
employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss?
Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once
we’ve left the office.

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Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one.
Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at
short (29) __________. They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency
situations.
Question 25: A. done B. played C. made D. brought
Question 26: A. which B. whom C. who D. what
Question 27: A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. So that
Question 28: A. indisputable B. indisputably C. dispute D. disputation
Question 29: A. time B. warning C. term D. notice
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after
having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of
1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended
even as far as two centuries. English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade
(including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers
became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English
gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English.
Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology,
advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers - Today there are more than 700
million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the
largest number of nonnative users than any other language in the world.
Question 30: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The French influence on the English Language.
B. The long history of English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for Science and Technology.
Question 31: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. In 1066. B. Around 1350. C. Before 1600. D. After 1600.
Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around
the world EXCEPT__________.
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization
Question 33: The word “enclaves” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. communities B. organizations C. regions D. countries

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Question 34: The word “these” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. English users B. computer systems C. international airports D. air traffic controllers

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
One of the most beloved foods in the world, chocolate is not just a modern treat. In fact, chocolate -
or rather, cacao seeds - has been part of our culinary history for thousands of years.
More than 2,000 years ago in Central America, the Mayan people began consuming a drink made
from cacao seeds. There was no sugar in America in those days, and so they flavored the drink with
chili peppers and other spices. It was called xocolatl, meaning bitter water. The Mayans used xocolatl
for important rituals, such as religious ceremonies or weddings, and believed that consuming it would
enhance their health and cure illnesses. Cacao seeds became highly valued throughout Central America,
and were even used as currency by the Aztecs.
On his fourth voyage to America in 1502, the explorer Christopher Columbus landed in what is now
called Nicaragua. He was the first European to discover cacao seeds being used as money, but he did
not consider it very significant. It was only later, in the 16th century, that another explorer, Hernando
Cortez, saw cacao’s value, and brought the drink and the equipment used to make it back to Spain. The
Spanish didn’t quite take to the bitter taste, and added other ingredients such as sugar and vanilla, so
that chocolate more closely resembled the sweet treat we know today.
As popular as chocolate was in Spain, it didn’t spread to the rest of Europe until nearly a hundred
years later, when a Spanish princess married the French king and made chocolate fashionable. By the
17th century, the chocolate drink had gained widespread popularity in France, and an ambitious
Frenchman opened the first chocolate house in London. Soon, chocolate drinks were sold everywhere
in London, and English bakers began using it in cakes - the first mention of chocolate being eaten and
not drunk.
But the biggest development in modem chocolate consumption happened by accident in 1828. C. J.
van Houten, a Dutch chemist, discovered a method for making powdered chocolate when he tried to
extract oils from cacao to make the drink smoother. This product became known as “cocoa powder.”
Not long after, in 1847, a British man named Joseph Fry developed “eating chocolate,” which were
chocolate bars made of cocoa powder, cocoa butter, and sugar. This led to the first milk chocolate bars,
sold by Nestle, a Swiss company. These were created by adding condensed milk to Fry’s chocolate bar
recipe. Fry’s company, Fry & Sons, was later bought by Cadbury. Today, Nestle and Cadbury remain
the world’s leading chocolate producers.
Question 35: What best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Chocolate: a Brief History B. Cooking with Chocolate
C. Making and Eating of Chocolate D. Uses of Chocolate

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Question 36: Which is NOT mentioned as a use for chocolate?
A. money B. medicine C. decoration D. drink
Question 37: The word “culinary” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. traditional B. connected with food
C. modem D. connected with humans
Question 38: Where did chocolate originate from?
A. Spain B. Britain C. Holland D. America
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. xocolatl B. cacao seed C. sugar D. water
Question 40: The word “take to” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. cook B. develop C. enjoy D. accept
Question 41: What did C. J. Van. Houten do as a contribution to the history of chocolate?
A. He discovered a new way of having chocolate.
B. He added sweet taste to chocolate.
C. He made chocolate into bars.
D. He used it to make medicine.
Question 42: What is NOT true about modem chocolate bars?
A. They are made of cocoa powder, cocoa butter and sugar.
B. They were developed by a British person.
C. They were sold by Nestle and Cadbury.
D. Nestle chocolate bars are the same as those developed by Joseph Fry.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The young are thought to be the future leaders of the country, and it is essential that they
A B
should undestand their heritage as full as possible.
C D
Question 44: Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the earth’s
A B C
rotation changes slightly over years.
D
Question 45: A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in that the characters and events
A B C
are usually imaginary.
D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: The film didn’t come up to my expectation.
A. I expected the film to end more abruptly.
B. I expected the film to be more boring.
C. The film fell short of my expectation.
D. The film was as good as I expected.
Question 47: “Be careful or you may get lost and run out of money,” she said.
A. She told me to be careful if I got lost and run out of the money.
B. She warned me to be careful or I had to get lost and run out of money.
C. She ordered me to be careful and I might get lost and run out of money.
D. She advised me to be careful or I might get lost and run out of money.
Question 48: Although the teacher explained the theory clearly, the students found it hard to
understand it.
A. Though explained clearly, the theory of teaching was difficult to the students.
B. Despite the teacher’s clear explanation of the theory, the students had difficulty understanding it.
C. In spite of explaining the theory clearly, the students themselves found it hard to understand it.
D. Although the teaching theory was clear, it was a real challenge to the students.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those
concerned will increase.
A. If we can solve this problem soon, we’ll lower the impact on all of our concerns
B. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered
C. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be better solved
D. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned.
Question 50: Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam. I’m sure about that.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

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ĐỀ SỐ 16 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. biscuits B. magazines C. newspapers D. vegetables
Question 2: A. agent B. capture C. compact D. span

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. recommend B. volunteer C. understand D. potential
Question 4: A. inspire B. wealthy C. protect D. extinct

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: We received a call from the teacher__________charge of our course.
A. at B. in C. on D. to
Question 6: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been__________overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitive D. repetition
Question 7: I am considering__________my job. Can you recommend a good company?
A. to move B. moving C. to change D. changing
Question 8: She__________on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a
rest.
A. has worked B. has been working C. was working D. had been working
Question 9: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by__________rocking chair.
A. a beautiful old European wooden B. an old beautiful wooden European
C. a wooden old beautiful European D. an old wooden European beautiful
Question 10: Anyone__________to another country needs special papers.
A. travelled B. is travelled C. travelling D. is travelling
Question 11: __________at school yesterday when we were informed that there was no class due to a
sudden power cut.
A. We had arrived hardly B. We have hardly arrived
C. Hardly had we arrived D. Hardly we had arrived
Question 12: You may borrow my bike __________ you are careful with it.

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A. even if B. as long as C. as much as D. expecting
Question 13: He’d hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, __________?
A. didn’t he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he
Question 14: Economic reforms began in the Soviet Union in June 1985 by the Soviet leader Mikhail
Gorbachev to the Soviet economy.
A. repair B. reproduce C. restructure D. reply
Question 15: The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930’s and 1940’s, but it is still an
important __________of entertainment.
A. origin B. prospect C. status D. source
Question 16: Stay out of this problem and do not interfere, please! It’s none of your__________!
A. work B. job C. business D. action
Question 17: We’ve already bought the house but won’t__________it until May, when the present
occupants have moved out.
A. take possession of B. catch sight of C. keep track of D. gain recognition of
Question 18: You will have to__________if you want to pass the entrance exams.
A. work miracles B. take the trouble C. keep your hand in D. pull your socks up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the un-derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basis
of their sex.
A. publicly supported B. rightly claimed C. publicly said D. openly criticized
Question 20: He took a vow to abstain from smoking.
A. quit B. involve in C. oppose to D. ban

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their desks by
eight o’clock and take good care of their own business.
A. manage an inflexible system B. have a good voyage
C. run faster than others D. organize things inefficiently
Question 22: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental
improvements.
A. something to suffer B. something enjoyable
C. something sad D. something to entertain

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Jay and Peter, two high school students, are talking about school exams.
- Jay: I think exams should not be the only way to assess students.
- Peter: __________. There are various others like presentations and projects.
A. I totally disagree B. Not at all C. I share your view D. That’s not entirely true
Question 24: Kevin is talking to his colleague about his new neighbour.
- Kevin: My new neighbour has made so much noise since he came here.
- Kevin’s colleague: __________. Have you tried talking to him?
A. That’s great B. It doesn’t matter C. Sure D. I’m sorry to hear that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Rural America is diverse in many ways. As we have seen, no industry dominates the rural economy,
no single pattern of population decline or (25)__________exists for all rural areas, and no statement
about improvements and gaps in well-being holds true for all rural people. Many of these differences
are regional in nature. That is, rural areas within a particular geographic region of the country often
tend to be similar (26) __________each other and different from areas in another region. Persistent
poverty also has a regional pattern, concentrated primarily in the Southeast. Other differences follow no
regional pattern. Areas (27) __________rely heavily on the services industry are located throughout
rural America, as are rural areas that have little access to advanced telecommunications services. Many
of these differences, regional and non-regional, are the result of a (28) __________of factors including
the availability of natural (29) __________; distance from and access to major metropolitan areas and
the information and services found there; transportation and shipping facilities; political history and
structure; and the racial, ethnic, and cultural makeup of the population.
(Adapted from “Understanding Rural America ”, Info USA)
Question 25: A. growing B. grown C. growth D. grow
Question 26: A. with B. to C. from D. of
Question 27: A. what B. in which C. where D. that
Question 28: A. cooperation B. link C. combination D. connection
Question 29: A. materials B. habitats C.resources D. sources

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
The difference between a liquid and a gas is obvious under the conditions of temperature and pressure
commonly found at the surface of the Earth. A liquid can be kept in an open container and fills it to the

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level of a free surface. A gas forms no free surface but tends to diffuse throughout the space available;
it must therefore be kept in a closed container or held by a gravitation field, as in the case of a planet’s
atmosphere. The distinction was a prominent feature of early theories describing the phases of matter.
In the nineteenth century, for example, one theory maintained that a liquid could be “dissolved” in a
vapor without losing its identity, and another theory held that the two phases are made up of different
kinds of molecules: liquidons and gasons. The theories now prevailing take a quite different approach
by emphasizing what liquids and gases have in common. They are both forms of matter that have no
permanent structure, and they both flow readily. They are fluids.
The fundamental similarity of liquids and gases becomes clearly apparent when the temperature and
pressure are raised somewhat. Suppose a closed container partially filled with a liquid is heated. The
liquid expands, or in other words becomes less dense; some of it evaporates. In contrast, the vapor
above the liquid surface becomes denser as the evaporated molecules are added to it. The combination
of temperature and pressure at which the densities become equal is called the critical point. Above the
critical point the liquid and the gas can no longer be distinguished; there is a single, undifferentiated
fluid phase of uniform density.
Question 30: Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
A. The Properties of Gases and Liquids
B. High Temperature Zones on the Earth
C. The Beginnings of Modem Physics
D. New Containers for Fluids
Question 31: According to the passage, the difference between a liquid and a gas under normal
conditions on Earth is that the liquid__________.
A. is affected by changes in pressure
B. has a permanent structure
C. forms a free surface
D. is considerably more common
Question 32: The word “emphasizing” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by__________.
A. highlighting B. concentrating C. pressing D. arguing
Question 33: According to the passage, what happens when the temperature is increased in a closed
container holding a liquid?
A. The liquid and gas phases become more similar.
B. The liquid and the gas become less dense.
C. The container expands.
D. The liquid evaporates out of the container.
Question 34: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. the liquid B. the vapor C. the surface D. the molecule

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
All around the world, there are laws regarding ages where we can or cannot do things. Many
countries, like the United States, have minimum ages for drinking alcohol, driving, gambling, and
marriage. I disagree with many of these laws and feel they should be changed. Not because I think
children should be allowed to do these things, but because many of these laws concerning young
people’s freedom don’t make sense. I also think they are too inconsistent - they really differ from place
to place - especially in the U.S.! In the U.S. states, the legal age for drinking alcohol is 21, since it’s
seen as the age where young people become adults. But I feel that most of us are already adults by the
time we reach 18 - after all, that’s when we start college and move out of our family homes. Eighteen is
also the age when we can get married. Personally, I think they got it the wrong way round! Why are we
allowed to get married at 18, but not allowed to drink alcohol? People should wait until after college to
get married, since it’s a big decision that affects the rest of our lives.
The legal ages for driving and gambling don’t make sense to me either because they are different
from place to place. For example, in some states, the driving age is 16, but in others, it is 15. In Hawaii,
young people will have to wait until they turn 18 before they can take driving lessons. Gambling is the
same. In cities like Colorado, you can only gamble when you turn 21, but you only need to be 18 in
New York or 16 in Maine. It’s confusing! I wish there weren’t so many different laws.
However, there are some laws that are becoming better. For instance, the legal voting age in the U.S.
used to be 21, but now it’s 18.1 hope it’ll gradually be made even lower. Young people shouldn’t be
prohibited from choosing their leaders. I think anyone who wants to vote should be allowed to.
Finally, I think us young people have the power to change this situation. Write to your leaders in the
govern-ment and let them know how you feel!
Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Why some minimum age laws should be changed
B. The fact that the U.S. does not have good laws
C. Ages at which young people are able to do things
D. How young people can work to change laws
Question 36: Why does the writer think that the legal drinking age should be 18?
A. The writer is going to turn 18 soon.
B. Young people are mature at a younger age now.
C. A person is an adult at that age.
D. Young people usually drink in college.
Question 37: The word “inconsistent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. strong B. steady C. abundant D. changing

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Question 38: What are you NOT allowed to do when you turn 18 in New York?
A. vote B. drink alcohol C. get married D. gamble
Question 39: Which is NOT a reason the writer thinks many laws should be changed?
A. They are different from place to place.
B. They determine adulthood at the wrong age.
C. They don’t take young people into consideration.
D. They prohibit young people from choosing who they support.
Question 40: The phrase “make sense” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. attract B. be meaningful C. frighten D. be easy to understand
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph refers to__________.
A. young people B. adults C. ages D. laws
Question 42: How does the writer suggest making changes?
A. by writing letters to government leaders
B. by traveling to another state
C. by writing a blog
D. by breaking the laws

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same
idea.
A B C D
Question 44: It was not until the end of prehistoric times that the first wheeled vehicles appearing.
A B C D
Question 45: Doctors have always recommended that a person with a cold must drink fluids, such as
A B C
juice or water to prevent the loss of water in his/ her body
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: The man wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.
A. In order to leave some fingerprints, the man took off his gloves.
B. His fingerprints would not be left unless the man wore gloves.
C. The man wore gloves so that he would not leave any fingerprints.
D. The man wore gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.

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Question 47: They were exposed to biased information, so they didn’t know the true story.
A. If they had been exposed to unbiased information, they would have known the true story.
B. If they had unbiased the information, they could have known the true story.
C. If they got unbiased information, they could know the true story.
D. If they have exposed to the unbiased information, they could have seen the true story.
Question 48: Sometimes having professional assistance with your CV can increase your chance of
finding a job.
A. Having your CV professionally prepared determines whether you’ll get the job or not.
B. The prospects for finding employment can possibly be enhanced by a professionally produced CV.
C. Having a professional help you with your cv is a sure way to find a job.
D. Without a professional CV, it is impossible to find a job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the
competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
C. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the
competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in the
competition.
Question 50: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not
talented.
A. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
C. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
D. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success

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ĐỀ SỐ 17 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. comprehended B. soaked
C. accepted D. needed
Question 2: A. merchant B. term C. commercial D. sergeant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. decay B. vanish C. attack D. depend
Question 4: A. habitat B. attendance C. candidate D. wilderness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: We must push the piano to the comer of the hall to___________our party tonight.
A. make place for B. take up room to C. make room for D. give place to
Question 6: His speech___________little or no relation to the topic given.
A. was B. reflected C. gave D. bore
Question 7: The functional skills such as___________fundamentals of agriculture, health and hygiene
and population education have also been incorporated in the primary school .
A. curriculum B. project C. plan D. schedule
Question 8: Nowadays, with the help of the computer, teachers have developed
a___________approach to teaching.
A. multilateral B. multilingual C. multiple-choice D. multimedia
Question 9: Let me please___________my memory before I get down to answering the questions.
A. resume B. ease C. awake D. refresh
Question 10: He died___________lung cancer last month, leaving his wife in great shock.
A. by B. for C. in D. of
Question 11: Nowadays, most students use___________calculators in their studies and examinations.
A. electrical B. electronic C. electricity D. electric
Question 12: In no circumstances___________on campus.

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A. should smoking be allowed B. should smoking allow
C. smoking should be allowed D. we should allow smoking
Question 13: I clearly remember___________you about this before.
A. telling B. to tell C. told D. tell
Question 14: Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ___________?
A. can’t you B. don’t you C. will you D. do you
Question 15: The doctor decided to give her a thorough examination___________he could identify the
causes of her illness.
A. after B. so as C. unless D. so that
Question 16: The letter___________him of the theft hadn’t been signed.
A. to accuse B. accused C. accusing D. that accuse
Question 17: I will have your car___________by the end of the day.
A. to repair B. repair C. repaired D. repairing
Question 18: The number of cars on the roads___________increasing, so we need to build more roads.
A. is B. were C. was D. are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several
adventurous tourists managed to reach the top.
A. causing a lot of risks B. bringing excitement
C. costing a lot of money D. resulting in depression
Question 20: John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly
earnings.
A. spending on B. using up C. putting out D. saving up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: I’ll spend the weekends hitting the books as I have final exams next week.
A. reviewing the books B. studying in a relaxing way
C. damaging the books D. studying in a serious way
Question 22: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding
exactly which 4 comics she was going to buy.
A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.

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Question 23: Megan, a high school teacher, is talking to her colleague about students’ volunteering.
- Meghan: “Volunteer work should be included in school curriculum.”
- Meghan’s colleague: “___________it may involve complicated regulations.”
A. I see what you mean but B. I agree with you entirely because
C. I have no objection as D. I guess so because
Question 24: Amy is talking to her friend after school.
- Amy: “It’s kind of you to give me a lift to campus this morning.”
- Jimmy: “___________. ”
A. It’s so far away B. You’re welcome C. Certainly D. Go ahead

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t
find the energy to get out of bed (25) ___________for school? According to a new report, today’s
generation of children are in danger of getting so little sleep that they are putting their mental and
physical health at risk. This raises serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s
ability to concentrate at school. The (26) ___________between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory,
impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well (27) ___________. Research has shown that
losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects on how children perform the
next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers (28) ___________it is while they are asleep
(29) ___________they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during
teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some extent, catch up on
sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday
afternoon.
By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies. Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 25: A. behind time B. in time C. at times D. about time
Question 26: A. connect B. connecting C. connection D. connective
Question 27: A. established B. acquired C. arranged D. organized
Question 28: A. although B. because C. however D. therefore
Question 29: A. at which B. that C. where D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Bloodhounds are biologically adapted to trailing their prey. The process by which the nose recognizes
an odor is not fully understood, but there are apparently specific receptor sites for specific odors. In one
explanation, recognition occurs when a scent molecule fits into its corresponding receptor site, like a

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key into a lock, causing a mechanical or chemical change in the cell. Bloodhounds apparently have
denser concentrations of receptor sites tuned to human scents.
When a bloodhound trails a human being, what does it actually smell? The human body, which
consists of about 60 trillion living cells, sheds exposed skin at a rate of 50 million cells a day. So even a
trail that has been dispersed by breezes may still seem rich to a bloodhound.The body also produces
about 31 to 50 ounces of sweat a day. Neither this fluid nor the shed skin cells have much odor by
themselves, but the bacteria working on both substances is another matter. One microbiologist
estimates the resident bacteria population of a clean square centimeter of skin on the human shoulder at
“multiples of a million.” As they go about their daily busi¬ness breaking down lipids, or fatty
substances, on the skin, these bacteria release volatile substances that usually strike the bloodhound’s
nose as an entire constellation of distinctive scents.
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Why people choose bloodhounds for household pets
B. How a bloodhound’s sense of smell works
C. How humans compensate for an underdeveloped sense of smell
D. The way in which bacteria work on skin cells and body sweat.
Question 31: The author compares a scent molecule with a___________.
A. key B. lock C. cell D. bloodhound
Question 32: In paragraph 2, the word “it” refers to___________.
A. bloodhound B. human being C. smell D. body
Question 33: According to the passage, how many cells of skin does the human body rid itself of every
day?
A. 60 trillion B. 50 million C. 1 million D. Between 31 and 50
Question 34: In paragraph, the word “rich” is used to mean that a trail is___________.
A. paved with precious materials
B. a profitable business to get into
C. a very costly undertaking
D. filled with an abundance of clues

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Do you think you’re smarter than your parents, and grandparents? According to James Flynn, a
professor at a New Zealand university, you might be. Over the course of the last century, IQ test scores
of people in some countries have gotten increasingly better, on average, three points better for every
decade that has passed. This trend of improving scores is known as “the Flynn effect” and scientists
want to know what is behind it.

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IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than knowledge.
Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result of our
environment and experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly to be
explained by heredity. So what happened in the 20th century that led to higher test scores? Scientists
have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the improved test scores
simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so many tests, we learn test-
taking techniques that help us perform better. Others have pointed to better nutrition, which results in
babies being born larger, healthier, and with more brain development than in the past. Another possible
explanation is a change in educational styles: children are encouraged to discover things for themselves
rather than just memorizing information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem-solving
that intelligence tests require.
Flynn himself suggested that learning new technologies may have improved people’s problem-solving
skills. This may be true for the first decade of his tests, when IQ scores in many countries increased.
However, in recent years, IQ test scores in some countries have begun to decline. Data from Norway,
the Netherlands, Australia, and Great Britain have shown that as these countries become more and more
modem, IQ scores have begun to drop.
While scientists aren’t sure what’s causing this decline, they think technology is dramatically
changing the way that we learn and get information. For example, people are now able to access all
kinds of information very easily using online resources like Google or Wikipedia. The danger is when
they start to rely too much on these sources of information, and not do any thinking for themselves.
Lifestyle changes that come with modem technology may also have a negative effect on intelligence,
such as video games and television making people less social. So while the world may have gotten
smarter over the 20th century, improving technology and changing lifestyles may soon reverse that
trend.
Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Factors affecting changes in people’s IQ
B. Relationship between IQ and lifestyles
C. Influences of technology on IQ
D. How to improve IQ
Question 36: What is the Flynn effect?
A. a way invented by Flynn to measure intelligence
B. an increase in IQ test score
C. a theory to explain why people are less smart
D. an effect of IQ tests on modem people
Question 37: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. the Flynn effect B. IQ test C. knowledge D. test-taking process

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Question 38: The word “exposure” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. experience B. risk C. effect D. condition
Question 39: The Flynn effect is probably the result of___________.
A. heredity B. taking fewer tests
C. memorizing information D. better nutrition
Question 40: The writer uses video games as an example to show that___________.
A. technology can improve people’s intelligence
B. we are becoming less social
C. people don’t think for themselves
D. countries are becoming more technologically advanced
Question 41: The word “dramatically” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. significantly B. usually C. generally D. fairly
Question 42: What is NOT mentioned as a contributing factor in the recent decline of IQ test scores?
A. search engines B. television
C. changing lifestyles D. changing educational styles

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The student must have her assessment form fill in by the examiner during the oral exam.
A B C D
Question 44: Looking from afar, the village resembles a small green spot dotted with tiny fireballs.
A B C D
Question 45: The 6-year-old boy resembles to his mother somewhat more than does his older brother.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “We lost the last game because of the referee,” said the team captain.
A. The team captain refused to tell the referee about their loss in the last game.
B. The team captain admitted to the referee that they had lost the last game.
C. The team captain blamed the referee for their loss in the last game.
D. The team captain said that without the referee, they might have lost the last game.
Question 47: After the members of the committee had had lunch, they discussed the problem.
A. Having been served lunch, a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the
committee.
B. Having been served lunch, the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.

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C. Having been served lunch, the committee members discussed the problem.
D. Having been served lunch, it was discussed by the committee members of the problem.
Question 48: A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.
A. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.
B. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.
C. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.
D. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.
B. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.
Question 50: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain

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ĐỀ SỐ 18 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious
Question 2: A. agreed B. succeeded C. smiled D. loved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. future B. involve C. prospect D. guidance
Question 4: A. reduction B. popular C. romantic D. financial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The better the weather is, __________.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 6: Unemployment is a serious problem in the area; there are__________jobs for the people
there.
A. a little B. a few C. few D. little
Question 7: Doctors advise people who are deficient __________Vitamin c to eat more fruit and
vegetables.
A. in B. of C. from D. for
Question 8: I suggest that the doctor__________up his mind without delay.
A. makes B. make C. made D. is to make
Question 9: Martha Thomas was an American educator who stood for equal__________rights for
women.
A. educated B. educational C. educating D. educationally
Question 10: Books and magazines__________ around made his room very untidy
A. that lie B. laying C. which lied D. lying
Question 11: The cat was_________to wait for the mouse to come out of its hole.
A. patient enough B. so patient C. enough patient D. too patient

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Question 12: _________, he would have learned how to read.
A. If he has been able to go school as a child B. If he could go to school as a child
C. Were he able to go to school as a child D. Had he been able to go to school as a child
Question 13: He_________a terrible accident while he_________along Ben Luc Bridge.
A. see - am walking B. saw - was walking
C. was seeing - walked D. have seen - were walking
Question 14: The use of vitamin__________and herbs has become increasingly popular among
Americans.
A. components B. materials C. ingredients D. supplements
Question 15: Peter, Harry and Chuck were first, second, and third__________in the school cross-
country race.
A. respectively B. actively C. responsively D. tremendously
Question 16: The government should take__________to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. steps B. measures C. changes D. solutions
Question 17: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye__________with the
interviewers.
A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
Question 18: I know you have been working very hard today. Let’s__________and go home.
A. pull my leg B. call it a day C. put your back up D. push your luck

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The board of directors rejected the proposed project, explaining that it was too expensive
to be feasible at the present moment.
A. costly B. troublesome C. capable D. practicable
Question 20: A brief outline of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first
meeting.
A. dispensed B. preserved C. distributed D. contributed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures.
A. damaging B. beneficial C. severe D. physical
Question 22: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management
system, he just made light of it.

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A. completely ignored B. treated as important
C. disagreed with D. discovered by chance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Ella is asking Eric about self-study.
- Ella: “Do you think people with self-education can succeed nowadays?”
- Eric: “__________because they tend to be very independent and self-disciplined.”
A. I’m not so sure about that B. That’s what I was thinking
C. It’s out of the question D. I don’t think it’s right
Question 24: Stella and her husband are about to go out.
- Stella: “Should we take a taxi or a bus to the mall?”
- Stella’s husband: “__________. It’s impossible to take a taxi during rush hours.”
A. Let’s take a taxi B. Let’s take a bus
C. Good idea D. Yes, we should
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Amy Tan was born on February 19, 1952 in Oaldand, California. Tan grew up in Northern California,
(25)__________when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she moved
with her mother and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux,
Switzerland. She returned to the United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language
development consultant and as a corporate freelance writer. In 1985, she wrote the “Rules of the Game”
for a writing workshop, which laid the early (26) __________for her first novel The Joy Luck Club.
Published in 1989, the book explored the (27) __________between Chinese women and their Chinese-
American daughters, and became the longest-running New York Times bestseller for that year. The Joy
Luck Club received numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has been
translated into 25 languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion picture for (28)
__________Tan co-wrote the screenplay. Tan’s other works have also been (29) __________into
several different forms of media.
Question 25: A. however B. moreover C. so D. but
Question 26: A. preparation B. base C. source D. foundation
Question 27: A. relate B. relative C. relationship D. relatively
Question 28: A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 29: A. adjoined B. adapted C. adjusted D. adopted

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a
greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily
available, renewable resources that are both cost-effective and earth-friendly. Two such resources are
solar power and geothermal power. Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so
abundant that it could meet the needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar
energy is easily harnessed through the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight into electricity. In
the US alone, more than 100,000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar
panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use
of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal
power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam
that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which
produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of
fossil fuel resources. And as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is
fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use is in Iceland, a region of high geothermal
activity where over 80 percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal
energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is
long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on a global scale.
Question 30: According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage
Question 31: The word “harnessing” in the first paragraph can best be replaced by__________?
A. capturing B. harassing C. depleting D. exporting
Question 32: All of the following statements are true about geothermal energy EXCEPT__________.
A. it is abundant in specific geographical areas
B. it is more abundant than fossil fuel resources
C. it is used without success in Iceland
D. it is a promising renewable alternative
Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. hot water B. steam C. a generator D. the surface
Question 34: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.

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B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
When a popular book gets made into a movie, there will always be a debate about whether the novel
or film is better. The filmmakers always have to consider certain things: do they want to follow the
book closely to please dedicated readers, or do they want to change parts of the book if they don’t
translate well on-screen? No matter what they do, there will always be people who feel the movie will
never be as good as the book, people who will love the movie without ever reading the book, and
people who enjoy both.
The vampire series Twilight, by Stephenie Meyer, became so popular that movie companies wanted
to produce it for the big screen. Most Twilight fans were excited about seeing characters such as
Edward and Bella “come to life,” but there were other fans who did not trust the movie script. They
assumed the scriptwriters would change parts of the story to make it seem more interesting as a movie.
By the time the first Twilight movie was released, millions of people had read the series. Many of
these people went on to watch the film, which made $35.7 million just on its opening day. While many
fans and critics liked it and said the movie more or less followed the book’s storyline, some fans were
not impressed. One change that angered them was that certain sound effects were added to the movie,
such as a “whooshing” sound when the vampires jumped. This was not mentioned in the book, and
many fans felt that it was too distracting.
Those who liked the movie said they enjoyed the light mood and excitement. This was very different
from the book. The writing in Twilight is dark and gloomy, like many vampire novels. The movie,
however, added more energy to the story and more personality to the characters. For example, many
characters in the book are portrayed as being quiet, and they spend most of their time at school. But in
the movie, the characters are cooler and funnier, one scene even shows them going surfing together.
The director of the first movie, Catherine Hardwicke, thought it was important for the characters to be
believable. She wanted them to have a wide variety of emotions, since the series is for, and about,
teenagers.
In the end, the films were considered a success, even if there were both happy and unhappy fans. It’s
a great accomplishment to make films that are watched by millions of people, and you can’t expect to
be able to please everyone all the time.
Question 35: What best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Twilight: a Successful Novel B. Twilight: the Film and the Novel
C. Famous Books Made into Movies D. A Comparison of Movies and Books

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Question 36: Which of the following is NOT considered by film-makers who make movies out of books?
A. whether they adhere to the book closely
B. how they would change parts of the book
C. how to satisfy avid readers of the book
D. how many characters will appear in the movie
Question 37: According to the passage, what is the reason Twilight fans were excited to see the movie?
A. to see which actors would play their favourite characters
B. to see how the story would change
C. to see how characters would be in real life
D. to see if the movie would be better than the book
Question 38: Why is vampires jumping mentioned in the passage?
A. It’s an example of a change that displeased fans.
B. It was a special effect and not real.
C. It showed that the movie was scary.
D. It’s an example of a sound effect.
Question 39: The word “translate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. understand B. express in a different language
C. change into a different form D. appear
Question 40: The word “angered” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. affected B. made angry C. attracted D. pleased
Question 41: According to the passage, what was hardly changed in the movie compared to the book?
A. storyline B. mood
C. personalities of characters D. sound effects
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to__________.
A. directors B. actors C. characters D. fans

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It was disappointing that almost of the guests left the wedding too early.
A B C D
Question 44: As seeing from the mountain top, the area looks like a picturesque harbour town.
A B C D
Question 45: John announced that he could not longer tolerate the conditions of the contract under which
he was working. A B C D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “Believe me. It’s no use reading that book,” Janet told her boyfriend.
A. Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.
B. Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was worthwhile.
C. Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading
D. Janet opposed her boyfriend’s idea that reading the book was not useful.
Question 47: I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors.
A. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by him.
B. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks.
C. He should not have been envious of his brother’s achievement.
D. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon.
Question 48: The teacher had only just come in the room when the fire alarm rang.
A. While the teacher was coming in the room, she heard the fire alarm ring.
B. As soon as the fire alarm had rung, the teacher came in the room.
C. Before the teacher came in the room, the fire alarm rang.
D. Hardly had the teacher come in the room when the fire alarm rang.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Question 50: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.
A. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
B. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
C. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
D. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.

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ĐỀ SỐ 19 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có lời giải) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. species B. invent C. medicine D. tennis
Question 2: A. walked B. ended C. started D. wanted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. scenery B. festival C. atmosphere D. location
Question 4: A. parent B. seldom C. unique D. over

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The shop___________helped me to choose a jumper that suited me.
A. employee B. assistant C. clerk D. accountant
Question 6: John___________in convincing his boss to give him the day off.
A. achieved B. obtained C. succeeded D. fulfilled
Question 7: All births, deaths and marriages are entered in the___________records. Most of these
records have been computerized in recent years.
A. formal B. social C. official D. internal
Question 8: As was___________observed, there is strong correlation between house prices and
inflation.
A. closely B. critically C. early D. firmly
Question 9: There is some evidence of an improvement in the economy, but be that as it___________,
there is
unlikely to be much change next year.
A. can B. may C. should D. could
Question 10: The Indian study was carried out in conjunction___________an American project.
A. to B. from C. with D. of
Question 11: Davidson did a___________amount of research into earthquake prediction.
A. considerate B. considerable C. considerably D. consideration

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Question 12: Not until about a century after Julius Caesar landed in Britian___________actually
conquer the island.
A. the Romans did B. did the Romans C. the Roman D. Romans that
Question 13: He’s been very sick. His doctor insisted that he___________in bed this week.
A. will stay B. would stay C. stays D. stay
Question 14: Dr. Smith is the person in___________I don’t have much confidence.
A. which B. whom C. who D. that
Question 15: He asked me___________the book I borrowed from the library.
A. if I found B. if I had found C. whether I have found D. whether I found
Question 16: ___________from outer space, our earth looks like a “blue planet”.
A. Having seen B. Seeing C. Be seen D. Seen
Question 17: This factory produced___________motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. twice as many B. as twice as many C. as twice many D. as many as twice
Question 18: The manager had his secretary___________the report for him.
A. to have typed B. typed C. type D. to type

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The problem of salary didn’t come up in the meeting last week.
A. mention B. approach C. raise D. arise
Question 20: The theme of the poem is emigration.
A. article B. comment C. topic D. problem

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: His replies were inconsistent with his previous testimony.
A. conflicting B. compatible C. contradicted D. illogical
Question 22: You should take the bull by the horns and go and see him now.
A. face directly B. respond eagerly C. avoid completely D. change slightly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Molly is talking to her sister about online shopping.
- Molly: “Shopping online is super convenient and trouble-free.”
- Molly’s sister: “___________. Sometimes a lot of serious problems arise.”
A. That’s it B. I take your view

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C. Absolutely D. That’s not entirely true
Question 24: Rachel and Mark are at home.
- Rachel: “Can I get you something to drink?”
- Mark: “___________. I’m not thirsty.”
A. No, thank you B. Yes please C. You’re welcome D. Thank you

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
The practice of hitting children teaches them to become hitters themselves. Extensive research data is
now available to support the direct correlation (25) ___________corporal punishment in childhood and
violent behavior in the teenage and adult years. Virtually, all of the most dangerous criminals (26)
___________regularly threatened and punished in childhood. Punishment gives the message that
“might make right” that it is okay to hurt someone smaller and less powerful than you are. The child
then feels it is appropriate to mistreat younger or smaller children, and when he becomes an adult, feels
little (27) ___________for those less fortunate or powerful than he is, and fears those whoare more so.
Thus it is difficult for him to find (28) ___________friendships. Children learn best through parental
modeling. Punishment gives the message that hitting is an appropriate way to express one’s feelings
and to solve problems. If the child rarely sees the parents handle anger and solve problems in a creative
and positive way, he can never learn how (29) ___________that himself. Thus inadequate parenting
continues into the next generation.
Question 25: A. among B. about C. between D. above
Question 26: A. were B. will be C. could be D. might be
Question 27: A. jealousy B. compassion C. greediness D. appreciation
Question 28: A. meaningless B. meaning C. meaninglessly D. meaningful
Question 29: A. to do B. do C. doing D. done

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Upon the creation of the United States, one of the core concepts on which the hopes for the new
democracy were pinned was the ideal that its citizens would be enlightened individuals with clearly
articulated rights and the opportunity for individual achievement and education. It was believed that in
a free nation where the power belongs to the people, the commitment to education defines the progress
of that democracy and is the catalyst for future progress. This core value has not only stood the test of
time but has also grown in importance. In this new information era and international economy,
education is an increasingly vital commodity, a precursor of potential success and a driving force of
change. It is important to recognize, however, that we approach educa¬tion today differently than in the

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past, partly because the kinds of jobs people had didn’t require the kind of basic education and
specialized training that is often required in the workforce today. In the 1950s, for instance, only 20
percent of American jobs were classified as professional, 20 percent as skilled, and 60 percent as
unskilled.
Today, our world has changed.The proportion of unskilled jobs has fallen to 20 percent, while skilled
jobs now account for at least 60 percent of the workforce. Even more important, almost every job today
increasingly requires a combination of academic knowledge and practical skills that require learning
throughout a lifetime.
Question 30: Education is defined in this passage as a driving force of change because___________.
A. without education, no changes could have happened in American society so far
B. the government of the United States want to drive social changes in their own ways
C. education has helped to bring about and orient most changes in the American workforce
D. any American citizen who wants to change his driving licence must be very well-educated
Question 31: The word “its” refers to___________.
A. the United States B. the new democracy C. the concept D. the opportunity
Question 32: The phrase “enlightened individuals” in the first sentence most likely means “people
who___________”
A. always appear brilliant-looking in public
B. have often been well-exposed to light
C. have acquired an adequate level of education
D. bring light to anywhere they go
Question 33: In order to become a good American citizen today, in the author’s point of view, any
individual must___________.
A. know well all his/ her rights and be ready to grasp his/ her opportunity of success in life
B. study carefully the history of American educational and vocational systems even since their
creation
C. understand thoroughly the combination of academic knowledge and practical skills
D. move actively forward in the new Information Era and international economy with a prestigious
diploma
Question 34: Which of the following titles would be best for the passage?
A. Education and Jobs in the Past and at Present in the United States
B. The Significant Role of Education in American Citizens’ Careers
C. Academic Knowledge and Practical Skills in American Professions
D. Recent Changes of Educational and Vocational Systems in America

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
When you ask a child what they would like to be when they grow up, common responses might
include firefighter, pilot, doctor, or athlete. But those jobs don’t capture the attention of all kids. Take
Will Shortzas an example. In grade 8, at the age of 14, Will had to write an essay about what he wanted
to do with his life. He wrote about his desire to become a puzzle maker - someone who creates games
and puzzles, such as sudoku or crossword puzzles. In the same year, he sold his first puzzle to the
magazine Venture. By the age of sixteen, Will was regularly contributing puzzles to magazines.
In college, Will found that there was no traditional way to study puzzles or become a puzzle maker.
There were no classes offered on puzzles. Fortunately, after becoming bored with his economics
studies, Will learned that his university offered a special program that allowed students to suggest and
create unique fields of study. After creating and completing two courses on word and math puzzles,
Will switched his major to enigmatology - the study of puzzles.
Will and his professors then created new classes that explored all aspects of puzzle-making. He
studied the history, construction, and psychology of puzzles mostly on his own. Because there were no
professors of enigmatology, Will realized that he probably was the only student at his university to
know more about his field than any of his professors!
He did well in school, but upon graduating, Will did not know how to get a job creating puzzles. For
summer work, he joined the magazine Penny Press, where he realized that he could find work as a
puzzle editor. Will then found a job creating and editing puzzles for Games magazine. This seemed like
a dream job because he could create new kinds of puzzles and be surrounded by great puzzle makers.
After fifteen years at Games, Will accepted a position as the editor of The New York Times’
crossword puzzle. When he first joined, the newspaper’s crossword puzzle was seen as very difficult,
and few readers could complete it. Will made fundamental changes, such as including everyday
language in the clues and answers so that many more people could enjoy it. Today, he is credited with
making the crossword appealing to a wider audience. Some of Will’s most famous puzzles have related
to the news for that day, such as the name of the winning president on Election Day, and a love-themed
puzzle on Valentine’s Day.
Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Unusual Child B. Will Shortz: a Puzzle Maker
C. A Strange Hobby D. The History of Making Puzzle
Question 36: When did Will first become interested in puzzles?
A. Before he was 14 years old. B. After he was 14 years old.
C. When he was 16 years old. D. When he entered university.
Question 37: The word “major” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. university B. passion C. test D. subject

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Question 38: What kind of classes did Will Shortz take in college?
A. Classes by professors who study puzzle writing
B. Classes that he and his professors developed
C. Classes taught by professional puzzle makers
D. Classes that art students take
Question 39: Which sentence describes Will Shortz’ college experience?
A. He was bored in college and did not finish.
B. He felt he did not learn very much.
C. He got satisfactory results.
D. He thought it was too challenging.
Question 40: Why did Will Shortz consider his job at Games magazine a “dream job”?
A. He earned a lot of money writing crossword puzzles.
B. Games was the only puzzle magazine in the U.S.
C. He could study the history of puzzle making at the magazine.
D. He designed new puzzles and worked with other puzzle makers.
Question 41: The word “fundamental” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. important B. minor C.sudden D. difficult
Question 42: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to___________
A. The New York Times B. puzzle
C. Will’s change D. reader

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Will you buy an electric car when they will become cheaper?
A B C D
Question 44: Did someone put fire to the house deliberately?
A B C D
Question 45: It is a nurse’s duty to make the patients feel comfortably.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: People believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
A. It is believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
B. Jane was believed to fail the test on account of her laziness.
C. Jane is believed to fail the test owing to her laziness.

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D. It was believed that Jane had failed the test due to laziness.
Question 47: The noise next door didn’t stop until midnight.
A. Not until midnight did the noise next door stopped.
B. Hardly had the noise next door stopped than it was midnight.
C. It was not until midnight that the noise next door stopped.
D. Only when midnight did the noise next door stopped.
Question 48: Had he known more about the information technology, he would have invested in some
computer companies.
A. Not knowing about the information technology helped him invest in some computer companies.
B. He didn’t know much about the information technology and he didn’t invest in any computer
companies
C. Knowing about the information technology, he would have invested in some computer companies.
D. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of the information
technology.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Our foods contain thousands of different chemicals. However, only a few of them are
absolutely essential to our health.
A. To stay healthy with only a few essential chemicals, we have to eat the foods that contain
thousands of different chemicals.
B. Containing thousands of different chemicals, foods are absolutely essential to our health.
C. We stay healthy absolutely thanks to eating foods with thousands of different essential chemicals.
D. Our foods contain thousands of different chemicals, only a few of which are absolutely essential to
our health.
Question 50: The plan may be ingenious. However, it will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious

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ĐỀ SỐ 20 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có đáp án) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. comment B. equipment C. improvement D. moment
Question 2: A. sacrificed B. finished C. fixed D. seized

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. commercial B. constructive C. essential D. national
Question 4: A. money B. army C. afraid D. people

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Communities in remote areas are extremely___________to famine if crops fail.
A. vulnerable B. helpless C. disappointed D. defenseless
Question 6: During World War II, the Red Cross organized relief assistance for___________and
wounded soldiers and administered the exchange of messages regarding prisoners and missing persons.
A. civilians B. governments C. authorities D. members
Question 7: - “How long is the seminar ?” - “___________knowledge, it takes about three hours.”
A. To my best B. To the best of my C. In my best of D. In my best
Question 8: It’s me who is at___________, so I’ll pay for the damage.
A. guilt B. responsibility C. error D. fault
Question 9: Timmy dropped the___________on doing this task again because of his carelessness. I
can’t stand him anymore.
A. pin B. needle C. botton D. ball
Question 10: More than a billion people all over the world are___________threat of desert expansion.
A. in B. under C. on D. with
Question 11: I’m afraid I’m not really___________to comment on this matter.
A. qualifying B. qualified C. quality D. qualitative
Question 12: This shirt is___________that one.
A. much far expensive than B. as much expensive as

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C. a bit less expensive D. not nearly as expensive as
Question 13: She regretfully told him that___________.
A. she would leave the tickets at home B. she left the tickets at home
C. she had left the tickets at home D. she would have left the tickets at home
Question 14: ___________, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt very tired though B. As he might feel tired
C. Tired as it was D. Tired as he might feel
Question 15: Mary was the last applicant___________.
A. to be interviewed B. to be interviewing C. to interview D. to have interviewed
Question 16: ___________but he also proved himself a good athlete.
A. Not only he showed himself a good student
B. He did not show himself only a good student
C. Not only did he show himself a good student
D. A good student not only showed him
Question 17: I did not want to believe them, but in fact, ___________was true.
A. what they said B. what has said C. which they said D. that they were said
Question 18: If you hadn’t watched that late movie last night, you___________sleepy now.
A. wouldn’t have been B. might not have been
C. wouldn’t be D. wouldn’t have been being

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Slavery was not done away with until last century.
A. abolished B. improved C. spread D. changed
Question 20: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.
A. an expensive work of art B. a down-to-earth work of art
C. an excellent work of art D. a large work of art

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear.
A. plan well in advance B. be careful about it
C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand
Question 22: There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more exaggerated
with foreign learners.
A. overemphasized B. understated C. overestimated D. undertaken

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Anna is talking to her flatmate, who is about to go out.
- Anna: “You shouldn’t take that route. It’s too crowded during rush hours.”
- Anna’s flatmate: “___________. I’ll take another one.”
A. Thank you for your advice B. Yes please
C. Exactly D. Me too
Question 24: Two classmates, Zoe and Jack are talking about school holidays.
- Zoe: “I think that students need to take holidays in the winter.”
- Jack: “___________. Schools in some other countries have winter holidays as well.”
A. You must be joking B. I know
C. I don’t know D. Absolutely not

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Last year, there were millions of international tourist arrivals across the globe. Whether they were
students on their (25) ___________years looking for overseas adventure, stressed-out workers hoping
to get away for a weekend, or retirees (26) ___________to relax in an exotic location - clearly none of
them thought they could find the same experience at home. The question is whether foreign travel
brings more advantages or disadvantages. An obvious positive point is that going abroad sometimes
helps people to expand their knowledge of the world. If they are (27) ___________- minded, they can
learn about new cultures and hopefully gain a more accurate understanding about their way of life. In
addition, there is the (28) ___________benefit of tourism to countries which have few other resources.
It can provide an income to many people within the industry. Having said that, some people simply go
to a foreign resort surrounded by high walls and therefore learn little about their holiday destination.
Another issue is that hordes of tourists often spoil the “unspoilt” places they visit. The most recent
example of this is Antarctica, (29) ___________last year cruise ships took thousands of visitors to view
the disappearing icebergs and wildlife. Vegetation, nesting penguins and resting walrus are vulnerable
when humans intrude.
Question 25: A. pause B. break C. space D. gap
Question 26: A. wishing B. wished C. wish D. to wish
Question 27: A. absent B. narrow C. open D. single
Question 28: A. economy B. economic C. economize D. economically
Question 29: A. when B. where C. which D. that

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more
popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the
knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen,
Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to
Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redbum (1849). In
1841, Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he
wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the
novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate
that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Hom. The novel White Jacket (1850)
describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman.
With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal
following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the
publication of Moby Dick, Melville’s popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga
of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of
humanity against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville’s literary metamorphosis from
romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish
Melville’s popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.
Question 30: The main subject of the passage is___________.
A. Melville’s travels B. the popularity of Melville’s novels
C. Melville’s personal background D. Moby Dick
Question 31: According to the passage, Melville’s early novels were___________
A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional
C. all about his work on whaling ships D. based on his travel experience
Question 32: The word “metamorphosis” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. circle B. change C. mysticism D. descent
Question 33: The phrase “these early adventure novels” in paragraph 2 refers to all of the following
EXCEPT___________
A. Redbum B. White Jacket C. Omoo D. Silver hills
Question 34: How did the publication of Moby Dick aifect Melville’s popularity?
A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

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When you think of the cinema, the phrase watching a movie probably comes to mind, and, indeed,
moviemakers work very hard to make their films interesting visually. They may use elaborate
costumes, beautiful locations, or amazing special effects to tell a story. An actor’s expression or
movements can also sometimes say more than words.
But what about people who are blind or have trouble seeing? Movies also contain dialogue, music,
and sound effects - things that people don’t need to see in order to enjoy. Movie reviewer Marty Klein,
who is blind, created a website called Blindspots to help people choose movies that they can follow
without the help of someone explaining what is happening on the screen. He gave a rating, from 1 to
10, based on several things. A movie receives a high rating if it has only a few main characters whose
voices are easy to recognize. Klein also liked interesting stories without too many changes in time and
place. A large amount of dialogue between the characters was better than long silences or noisy action
scenes. His reviews are still online, but the site is no longer updated.
Another blind movie reviewer, Jay Forry, maintains the website Blindside Reviews. He also writes
for newspapers and is a guest on radio shows. Forry gives movies one of five ratings including, “So
good, blind people like it” and “I’m glad I couldn’t see it.” Forry became a writer after going blind at
the age of 28, and his writing skills and sense of humor are what keep people reading his reviews or
listening to him on the radio. After “watching” the animated movie “Up,” Forry commented that he
wished he, too, could have a talking dog to tell him to watch out for cars and to not “go into the ladies’
restroom again.”
Sometimes, though, it’s nice to go to a movie without reading reviews and knowing what to expect.
Some movie theaters have begun to offer recorded audio descriptions of the movements, scenery, and
special effects so that blind moviegoers can follow what other audience members see on the screen.
They usually receive a wireless headset to wear during the movie. This allows them to listen to the
narration while still hearing the movie’s music and other sounds that surround them in the theater. Jay
Forry also notes that modem theaters now have excellent sound systems, something he appreciates more
than the average moviegoer.
In the end, going to the movies should be a fun and exciting experience - for both the sighted and the
blind.
Question 35: What is the main idea of the article?
A. Jay Forry’s movie reviews for blind people
B. Resources to help blind people enjoy movies
C. Specially written movie reviews
D. Blind people’s movie interests
Question 36: The word “elaborate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. carefully designed B. traditional C. stylish D. ugly
Question 37: Which movie would probably receive the best rating from Marty Klein?

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A. A foreign martial arts film with many fight scenes
B. A drama that often shifts between the past and the present
C. A romantic comedy with four main characters and lots of conversation
D. A space adventure with many explosions and special effects
Question 38: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to___________.
A. movie-makers B. blind people C. sighted people D. movie reviews
Question 39: What is Jay Forry most likely to say about a movie he dislikes?
A. He wishes it hadn’t been made. B. It might have been good if he could see.
C. He is very happy he is blind. D. Other blind people might like it.
Question 40: Movie reviewer Jay Forry has his own___________.
A. website B. newspaper C. radio show D. movie theater
Question 41: What do some theaters do to help blind people?
A. Hold events for blind people to see movies together
B. Offer special headsets that play a recorded description of the movie
C. Give a discount on movie tickets to blind people
D. Provide people to sit next to blind people and describe the movie
Question 42: The word “appreciates” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. likes B. follows C. be grateful D. reviews

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: If there’s something wrong with your clock, please bring it here as we repair it completely
A B C
free without charge.
D
Question 44: July of 2019 was the hot summer that we’ve ever had.
A BCD
Question 45: I’d be no good at First Aid although I can’t bear the sight of blood.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: Most of the river ferries have been cancelled today due to the lack of visibility caused by
the fog.
A. A few of the ferries need to be rescheduled because of the fog that is causing poor visibility on the
river.

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B. Since today’s fog is obstructing visibility, the majority of the river ferries will not be running.
C. Because of the fog, it will be difficult for most of the ferries to cross the river safely today.
D. Whenever visibility is poor owing to the fog, nearly all of the river ferries are cancelled during the
day
Question 47: “It can’t be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom,” said our manager.
A. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
B. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 48: It is reported that the prisoners escaped by means of a helicopter.
A. The prisoners is reported to have escaped by means of a helicopter.
B. The prisoners are reported to have escaped by means of a helicopter.
C. The prisoners are reported to escape by means of a helicopter.
D. The prisoners are reported to have been escaped by means of a helicopter.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He was suspected of stealing credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 50: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to
her.
A. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an
independent life.
B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent
life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family
meant to her.
D. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to
her.

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ĐỀ SỐ 21 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có đáp án) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. nuisance B. upscale c. resist D. utensil
Question 2: A. killed B. hurried c. regretted D. planned

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. altitude B. engineer C. Portuguese D. referee
Question 4: A. improve B. comment C. revise D. believe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Many African and Asian nations have set aside land called____________elephants and
other wild animals.
A. reserves B. species C. wildlife D. forest
Question 6: Although we have a large number of students, each one receives____________attention.
A. alone B. separate C. individual D. only
Question 7: Would you mind____________ these plates a wipe before putting them in the cupboard?
A. making B. getting C. doing D. giving
Question 8: Be sure not to rely too____________ on your mother tongue when you are learning a
foreign language.
A. abundantly B. severely C. numerously D. heavily
Question 9: He's sometimes bad-tempered but he's a good fellow____________.
A. at heart B. by heart C. with heart D. in heart
Question 10: I finished my homework a few days ahead____________the deadline.
A. of B. to C. by D. at
Question 11: We couldn’t fly____________because all the tickets had been sold out.
A. economical B. economy C. economic D. economically
Question 12: After the car crash last night, all the injured____________to the hospital in an
ambulance.
A. was rushing B. were rushed C. was rushed D. were rushing

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Question 13: My cat would not have bitten the toy____________it was made of rubber.
A. if she has known B. if she should know C. had she known D. if she knew
Question 14: ____________, the results couldn't be better.
A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried
C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried.
Question 15: I sit by the window and watch people____________past.
A. walking B. to walk C. walk D. walked
Question 16: If only motorists____________drive more carefully.
A. might B. shall C. would D. should
Question 17: Kevin and Marilyn went on a two-week camping trip last month. That____________fun.
A. must be B. could have been C. must have been D. should have been
Question 18: I can’t go with you today; I have____________things to do.
A. a great deal B. many a great C. great many D. a great many

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Mary has finally managed to get round her strict parents to let her go on a three-day
excursion with her classmates.
A. persuade B. offer C. support D. permit
Question 20: Many parents may fail to recognize and respond to their children’s needs until frustration
explodes into difficult or uncooperative behavior.
A. slowly reaches the boiling point B. remains at an unchanged level
C. suddenly becomes uncontrollable D. stays under pressure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: On the spur of the moment, she decided to enter the race that she had come to watch.
A. Without previous thought B. For only a short time
C. After careful thought D. At the earliest possible moment
Question 22: His boss has had enough of his impudence, and doesn't want to hire him any more.
A. respect B. rudeness C. obedience D. agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Alex is talking to John about reality TV shows.
- Alex: “That some very young children perform in reality TV shows is not a good thing”
- John: “____________. Being successful at such a young age may disrupt their development.”

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A. That’s true B. I have to say I don’t agree with you
C. I don’t think so D. There’s some doubt about it
Question 24: Jade is asking a stranger in the cinema.
- Jade: “Would you mind moving over one, so my friend and I can sit together?”
- Stranger: “____________. You two can sit here together.”
A. No I can’t B. I’m afraid not C. Not at all D. Sorry no

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816
million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If
(25) ____________end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year's consumption would (26)
____________to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are
broadcast on American television every year at a cost of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile
manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.
(27) ____________of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and
some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making
many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and
minerals. Oh, lovely - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar!
There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made from
whole grains and are sugar-free. If you shop at a health food store instead of your local supermarket,
you are much more (28) ____________to find a healthy, whole grain, sugar-free (or very low sugar)
cereal. But watch out! Some
of the health food store boxed cereals are sweetened with fruit juice or fructose. (29) ____________this
may be an improvement on refined white sugar, this can really skyrocket the calories.
Question 25: A. laying B. lay C. laid D. to lay
Question 26: A. prolong B. stretch C. contact D.reach
Question 27: A. Mostly B. Furthermost C. Most D. Almost
Question 28: A. like B. likelihood C. likable D. likely
Question 29: A. However B. Although C. Because D. Therefore

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Just two months after the flight of Apollo 10, the Apollo 11 astronauts made their historic landing on
the surface of the Moon. This momentous trip for humanity also provided scientists with an abundance
of material for study; from rock and soil samples brought back from the Moon, scientists have been

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able to determine much about the composition of the Moon as well as to draw inferences about the
development of the Moon from its composition.
The Moon soil that came back on Apollo 11 contains small bits of rock and glass which were
probably ground from larger rocks when meteors impacted with the surface of the Moon. The bits of
glass are spherical in shape and constitute approximately half of the Moon soil. Scientists found no
trace of animal or plant life in this soil.
In addition to the Moon soil, astronauts gathered two basic types of rocks from the surface of the
Moon: basalt and breccia. Basalt is a cooled and hardened volcanic lava common to the Earth. Since
basalt is formed under extremely high temperatures, the presence of this type of rock is an indication
that the temperature of the Moon was once extremely hot. Breccia, the other kind of rock brought back
by the astronauts, was formed during the impact of falling objects on the surface of the Moon. This
second type of rock consists of small pieces of rock compressed together by the force of impact. Gases
such as hydrogen and helium were found in some of the rocks, and scientists believe that these gases
were carried to the Moon by the solar wind, the streams of gases that are constantly emitted by the Sun.
Question 30: According to the passage, what does Moon soil consist of?
A. Hydrogen and helium. B. Large chunks of volcanic lava.
C. Tiny pieces of stones and glass. D. Streams of gases.
Question 31: The phrase “this type of rock” in paragraph 3 refers to____________.
A. basalt B. very hard rock C. breccia D. larger rock
Question 32: According to the passage, breccia was formed____________.
A. when objects struck the Moon
B. from volcanic lava
C. when streams of gases hit the surface of the Moon
D. from the interaction of helium and hydrogen
Question 33: The word “emitted” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. set off B. vaporized C. sent out D. separated
Question 34: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Apollo 11 B. Things from the space flights
C. Rock on the Moon D. Astronauts
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Think for a moment about the last music album you bought. Most likely, you'll think of the singer or
band that made you want to buy the album. You might even know the name of the guitar player or the
drummer. Those talented performers, however, are only some of the people involved in making the
music you enjoy. The majority of people in the music industry work behind the scenes, but the roles
they play in the musical process are very important.

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Songs begin with the songwriter, of course. Some songwriters work alone, but many work in teams
that combine the talents of a lyricist, who writes the words to songs, and an instrumentalist, often a
piano player or guitarist, who writes the music. Many of today's pop stars work with songwriters. For
example, some of Lady Gaga's biggest hits were written by Nadir Khayat, also known as "RedOne."
Some songwriting teams have become very famous, such as Mike Stock, Matt Aitken and Pete
Waterman, who were responsible for many big 80s pop hits.
After a song has been written, music arrangers make it more appealing by deciding which instruments
will be used, what tempo, or speed, the song will have, and whether the song should have a lower or
higher pitch. A good arrangement can bring a song to life and make it a classic.
Not every singer or instrumentalist can be a star, and many work in the background as studio
musicians. These artists are not a part of any one musical group. Instead, they are hired for recording
sessions that eventually become the albums you buy, as well as soundtracks for television shows,
movies, and radio ads.
Recording engineers also play a major role in creating the final sound that you hear. First, these
engineers set up the recording studio, the room where the performers play, placing musicians and
microphones in exactly the right places to get the best sound. Next, they use electronic equipment, such
as multitrack recorders, to capture the music. Finally, long after the musicians have gone home,
recording engineers use a mixing board to balance the melodies and rhythms of each musician, and
sometimes to incorporate special sound effects or additional tracks.
Many people make a living with music. You may not recognize all of their names, but all of them
work together to create the songs you love to listen to.
Question 35: What is the article mainly about?
A. Pop stars who write the biggest hits
B. Songwriting teams who combine their talents
C. People who play a background role in creating music
D. Instrumentalists who work as hired musicians
Question 36: The word “majority” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. the larger part B. the smaller part
C. the middle-class D. the group of background people
Question 37: The word “instrumentalist” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. a person who writes the lyrics B. a person who records the music
C. a person who plays an instrument D. a person who adds sound effect to a song
Question 38: Why does the author mention Lady Gaga?
A. to explain why she doesn't write her own songs
B. to give an example of a star who works with a songwriter
C. to compare her with other talented songwriters

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D. to persuade readers to buy her music
Question 39: Which of the following do music arrangers probably NOT do?
A. decide which pitch to use B. decide how fast or slow a song will be
C. decide which instruments to use D. decide how to change some lyrics
Question 40: Which piece of equipment is used at the end of the recording process?
A. a guitar or piano B. a microphone
C. a mixing board D. a multitrack recorder
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to____________.
A. the song B. the tempo of the song
C. the speed of the song D. the pitch of the song
Question 42: Which sentence is NOT true about studio musicians?
A. They work in the recording studio.
B. They usually support or play for the same artist.
C. They are not as famous as the artists they play for.
D. They earn money for each session that they do.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: When you are writing or speaking English, it is important to use language that includes
A B C
both men and women equally the same.
D
Question 44: Different fourteen crops were grown 8,600 years ago by some of the world’s earliest
A B C
farmers.
D
Question 45: After our discussion, we decided to take a later flight so as to we could spend more time
with the clients.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by
car.
A. During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic.
B. The traffic is always so heavy that you’d better walk to work; it’s quicker.

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C. There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive.
D. It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day.
Question 47: “You should have finished the report by now,” the boss said to his secretary.
A. The boss scolded his secretary for not finishing the report on time.
B. The boss suggested his secretary should have finished the report on time
C. The boss reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. The boss advised his secretary to finish the report on time.
Question 48: Because they erected a bam, the cattle couldn’t get out into the wheat field.
A. They erected a bam so that the cattle would get into the wheat field.
B. They erected a bam, and as a result, the cattle couldn’t get out into the wheat field.
C. In order not to keep the cattle away from the wheat field, they erected a bam.
D. They erected a bam in case the cattle couldn’t get out into the wheat field.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The football match was so exciting. The spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all
through it.
A. Despite the exciting football match, not all the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through
it.
B. The spectators at the stadium cheered wildly to make the match exciting all through it.
C. When the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly, the football match became exciting all through
it.
D. The football match was so exciting that the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.
Question 50: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-school table
tennis championship.
A. Having defeated the former champion in the inter-school table tennis, Nam did not hold the title of
champion.
B. Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of inter-
school table tennis championship.
C. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter-school
table tennis champion.
D. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis
championship.

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ĐỀ SỐ 22 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG 2020
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề có đáp án) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
«««««

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. gesture B. toaster C. material D. static
Question 2: A. phoned B. watched C. referred D. followed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. cathedral B. satellite C. gallery D. different
Question 4: A. Christmas B. special C. therefore D. okay

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: After more than a decade of Doi Moi or economic_____________, the Vietnamese
Communist government has achieved diplomatic and economic links with numerous foreign partners.
A. relation B. investment C. productivity D. renovation
Question 6: All students should be_____________and literate when they leave school.
A. numeric B. numerate C. numeral D. numerous
Question 7: This conservation project looks promising, but it’s still_____________.
A. in the early stages B. in advance C. under stress D. at first sight
Question 8: I have to go now, so please_____________to the point of what you want to say.
A. reach B. go C. come D. hit
Question 9: I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my_____________in work.
A. neck B. nose C. head D. eyes
Question 10: Today all five species of rhinos are perilously close_____________extinction.
A. with B. to C. of D. for
Question 11: How long have you attended your_____________training?
A. military B. militarize C. militarism D. militaristic
Question 12: When the old school friends met, a lot of happy memories_____________back.
A. had brought B. were brought C. brought D. had been brought
Question 13: The new manager explained_____________new procedures to save time and money.
A. with the staff that he hoped to establish B. to the staff that he hopes to establish

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C. to the staff that he hoped to establish D. with the staff that he hopes to establish
Question 14: It’s essential that every student_____________the exam before attending the course.
A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed
Question 15: _____________today, he would get there on Sunday.
A. Was he leaving B. If he leaves C. Were he to leave D. If he is leaving
Question 16: The more you study during the semester, _____________the week before exams.
A. the less you have to study B. you have to study the less
C. the less have you to study D. the study less you have
Question 17: Harry’s new jacket doesn’t seem to fit him very well. He_____________it on before he
bought it.
A. must have tried B. should have tried C. needn’t have tried D. might have tried
Question 18: He is used to_____________on the floor.
A. sleep B. slept C. be slept D. sleeping

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Teletext is continuously sent out at all times when regular television programs are
broadcast.
A. electrified B. automated C. transmitted D. aired
Question 20: In rural Midwestern towns of the USA, the decisions that affect most residents are made
at general assemblies in schools and churches.
A. gatherings B. public libraries C. concerts D. prayer services

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: In remote communities, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.
A. repeat B. refill C. empty D. remark
Question 22: You’re 25 years old, but you still haven’t cut the apron strings.
A. become independent B. bought a new house C. relied on others D. started doing well

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: George is asking his mum.
- George: “Is it okay if I stay at my friend Jack’s house overnight?”
- George’s mum: “_____________. You haven’t done your chores.”
A. Of course B. That’s true

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C. I don’t think you can D. It’s okay
Question 24: Lucy is talking to Huong, her Vietnamese friend, about air pollution in Hanoi.
- Lucy: “Is there anything we can do about the toxic air pollution in Hanoi recently?”
- Huong: “_____________but the only thing we can do is to avoid outdoors and wear masks.”
A. You’re telling me B. I don’t think I know the answer
C. I would say yes D. That’s easy
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S. law. They are approved to
operate as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations providing education and training. Increasingly,
state authorities are requiring approved educational providers to apply for and receive accreditation as a
(25) _____________of final and continued approval.
As corporate entities, U.S. institutions are internally self-governing and are able to make property,
facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide (26)
_____________to admit to study and to graduate; raise their own funds from outside sources; enter into
contracts and compete for grants; and do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions
compete with one another for students, research funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public institutions
may compete within the same state or territory for budget appropriations.
Some institutions are governed (27) _____________under multi-campus arrangements. These include
most local public schools (governed by school districts) and many state community college and
university systems. Whether single- or multi-campus, institutional corporations (28) _____________by
boards of citizens, both alumni and non-alumni, who are ultimately responsible for all operations. They
appoint senior (29) _____________, such as principals, headmasters, presidents, and deans; and
approve the actions taken in their name.
Question 25: A. State B. demand C. condition D. status
Question 26: A. what B. whom C. which D. where
Question 27: A. collection B. collective C. collect D. collectively
Question 28: A. controlled B. are controlling
C. are controlled D. being controlled
Question 29: A. trainees B. judges C. assistants D. leaders

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Surrounding Alaska on all but one side are two oceans and a vast sea, giving this state the longest
coastline in the United States. In fact, if the coastlines of all of its peninsulas and islands are

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considered, Alaska has a longer coastline, 33,904 miles (54,563 kilometers), than all the other 49 states
together.
Most of the state lies on a peninsula, bounded by the Arctic Ocean to the north, the Bering Sea to the
west, and the Pacific Ocean on the southwest, south, and southeast. This peninsula, stretching away
from the rest of North America, forms the northwest comer of the continent. One of the world's largest
peninsulas, it is partly shared with Canada on the east.
The seas indent the shores of the main peninsula to form other peninsulas that contribute some of the
most outstanding features to Alaska's outline. Most notable of these is the Alaska Peninsula. The
peninsula itself is 550 miles (885 kilometers) long, before the spectacular chain of islands reaches
toward Asia.
Another of Alaska's large peninsulas is Seward, in which a number of smaller eastern states could be
swallowed up. The Kenai Peninsula, less extensive than Seward, is about the size of the state of
Maryland.
Part of Alaska's ocean heritage, many islands lie along the fringes of the state. Much of southeastern
Alaska is made up of the Alexander Archipelago of 1100 islands, including Baranof, Kuiu, and
Admiralty. Continuing up the coast are the islands of Prince William Sound. The Aleutian Islands
pursue their bleak and windswept course in a long arc that encloses the Bering Sea. Included in the
Aleutian chain are whole archipelagoes, such as the Fox, Near, and Rat islands.
Question 30: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The geography of the western United States
B. The coastline of North America
C. The territory that makes up Alaska
D. The countries that border Alaska
Question 31: The word “its” in line 2 refers to_____________
A. sea B. coastline C. Alaska D. penisula
Question 32: Alaska is bordered on the southwest by_____________.
A. the Pacific Ocean B. the Arctic Ocean C. the Bering Sea D. Canada
Question 33: Kuiu is the name of_____________.
A. an ocean B. an island C. a peninsula D. a country
Question 34: The word “pursue” in the last paragrah is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. follow B. direct C. divide D. slide

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Did you know that your small intestine is nearly six meters long? Or that there are about 60 muscles
in your face, and you use 40 of them to frown but only 20 to smile? How about the fact that our bodies

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consist of 73 percent water, and that our hearts beat over 100,000 times each day? You really are
amazing!
The human body is a complex machine. From the day we are bom, our bodies grow and change in
response to our environment, diet, and habits. The body has many different organ systems and parts that
work together to allow us to breathe, move, see, talk, and digest food all at the same time. Most of the
time we are unaware of what is happening in our bodies, usually it is only when we get sick or feel pain
that we notice.
Many people do not take care of their complex machines. Bad habits like smoking, drinking too much
alcohol, and eating junk food damage our bodies. Stress can also cause health problems. People who
worry a lot or have busy jobs often don't get enough sleep, or don't eat properly. We also can damage
our bodies when we play sports or get into accidents. Studies done by the Australian government show
that most people get hurt because of an accidental slip or fall, or because of injuries from car accidents.
It's true that a lot of people go to hospital because of serious illnesses, but far more people end up there
because they simply weren't being carefill.
Like machines, different body parts sometimes wear down from old age. People over the age of 65
are more likely to fall and hurt themselves. And these injuries - from bad cuts to broken bones - usually
require serious medical attention. Due to the increase in the population of elderly people, gerontology is
now one of the fastest growing areas of medicine. There are many treatments available to help older
people recover from illness and injury. It is now common for older people with damaged joints, for
example, to have surgery to replace the old joint with a new one made of plastic or metal. Instead of
suffering aches and pains through their retirement days, older people are able to lead happier and more
comfortable lives.
As with any machine, the better you take care of it, the longer it will last. The best way to take care of
your amazing machine is to eat the right foods, do regular exercise, and get enough sleep. Oh, and don't
forget to smile!
Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?
A. How our body work B. Taking care of our body
C. Important habits for a healthy body D. Ways that our body is similar to a machine
Question 36: The writer lists facts about our body in paragraph 1 to_____________.
A. show us how amazing our bodies are
B. test our knowledge about the body
C. remind us to take care of our body
D. illustrate that we may have complicated health problems
Question 37: The word “frown” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. cry B. make unhappy expression on your face
C. scratch your body D. scream

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Question 38: Our body is compared to a machine because_____________.
A. it’s expensive to fix B. all of its parts can be measured
C. it has many complicated parts D. it can be damaged by bad habits
Question 39: All of the following can damage our body EXCEPT_____________
A. stress B. sleep C. accidents D. eating junking food
Question 40: What causes most people to end up in hospital?
A. accidents B. serious illness
C. drinking too much alcohol D. improper eating
Question 41: The phrasal verb “wear down” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. become stronger B. grow C. fade in colour D. become worse
Question 42: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to_____________.
A. body B. machine C. exercise D. repair

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: In order no money would be wasted, we had to account for every penny we spent.
A B C D
Question 44: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.
A B C D
Question 45: In order to get a work as a computer analyst, you need a degree in computer science.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: I never came to this city, so I couldn’t meet him.
A. If only I had come to this city, I could have met him.
B. Never do I come to this city, so I couldn’t meet him.
C. At no time I came to this city, so I couldn’t meet him.
D. I wished I had come to this city, I could I have met him.
Question 47: If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
A. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
B. The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
C. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
D. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
Question 48: “We’re having a reunion this weekend. Why don’t you come?” John said to us.
A. John didn’t understand why we came to a reunion.

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B. John asked us why we didn’t come to a reunion this weekend.
C. John simply asked us why we wouldn’t come to a reunion.
D. John cordially invited us to a reunion this weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She looked through the hotel advertisements. She stopped only when taking a fancy to one
piece.
A. She took so great a fancy to the hotel advertisements that she could not stop reading them.
B. She stopped looking through the hotel advertisements only when she had found another piece
C. She stopped reading the hotel advertisements only when one of them caught her fancy.
D. She found the hotel advertisements so interesting that she could hardly turn away from them.
Question 50: Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of
several deadly diseases.
A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.
C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.

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