DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL

1. What drug classification are solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of
substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
a. A. Depressants C. Energizers
b. B. Tranquilizers D. Inhalants

2. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite
difficult. Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine Operation
B. Disguised operation D. Confidential

3. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden
Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of:
A. Thailand –Laos –Burma C. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan

B. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia

4. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relives pain and
induces sleep.
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics

5. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
B. Marijuana D. Ecstasy (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)

6. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. Marijuana
B. LSD D. Ecstasy

7. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs closely related in chemical
form to the amphetamine family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride C.Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
B. Papaver somniferum D. Cannabis sativa

8. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehended offender within 24 hours if the

person arrested has:
1. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
2. Physical sign of drug abuse
3. Psychological manifestation of drug addiction
4. Symptoms of Drug abuse
 a. A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4
b. B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

9. Known as the “Father of Medicine” . He prescribed opium poppy juice in surgery which
was cultivated by the Sumerians during 7000 BC.
A. Hippocrates C. Confucius
B. Morpheus D. Socrates

10. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium in China by the British Indies that
leads to the Opium War of 1840.
A. Lao Tzu C. Yung Chen
B. Sun Tzu D. Mao Zedong

11. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.

A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Cocaine hydrochloride D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

12. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is
considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug.
A. Papaver Somniferum C. Coca Plant
B. Cannabis Sativa D. Ephedrine

13. Most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs, except:

A. Indian hemp C. Coca bush
B. Opium poppy D. Ephedra

14. Which of the following drug trafficking organization which furnishes drugs to the users?
A. Core organization C. Cartel
B. Secondary organization D. Local organization

15. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market.
I. Heroin and Cocaine II. Shabu and Ecstasy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I and III

16. What drugs that produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and
other bizarre effects?
A. Opiates B. Narcotics
C. Heroine D. Hallucinogens

17. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of dangerous drug to the body by one
person to another is __________.
A. Drug use C. Taking
B. Administer D. Addict
18. Diego is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will bring him else where he ceased from
using it. Diego’s act is called:
a. A. Abstinence C. Self-medication
b. B. Rehabilitation D. Dependence

19. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit,

manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by the
manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:
A. Drug trafficking C. Chemical diversion
B. Sale D. Chemical smuggling

20. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called:
A. drug den C. laboratory equipment
B. drug laboratory D. clandestine laboratory

21. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002, except:

A.Cultivation, culture and delivery,
B. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession

22. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
B. False perceptions of objects and experiences
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability

23. Kinds of drug that excite the central nervous system, increasing alertness, decreasing
fatigue and delaying sleep.
A. Narcotic C. Shabu
B. Hallucinogen D. Stimulant

24. Which of the following is not one of the means of the taking methamphetamine
hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon C. Smoking
B. Snorting D. Oral

25. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:

A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in
shape.
26. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community because
they:
A. Are violently insane C. Flagrantly immoral
B. Ruin their life/health D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.

27. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “Poor man’s cocaine”.
A. Amphetamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu

28. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is
usually prescribed to reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental depression.
A. Amphetamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu

29. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering taste and said to be one of the
strongest derivatives of Opium poppy.
A. Morphine C. Codeine
B. Heroin D. Cocaine

30. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness and corruption of the minds and body.
A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction
B. Gambling D. Vice

31. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from_____________________.

A. The Golden Crescent C. Hong Kong
B. The Golden Triangle D. Silver Triangle

32. Consider the following;

I. Drug addicts can be detected by means of observation of the person suspected to be
addicted of drugs.
II. Drug addicts can be detected through laboratory examination.
III. Drug addicts can be detected through psychological examinations such as
intelligence, personality, aptitude, interest and psychiatric examinations.
What is the correct answer?
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II only D. II and III

33. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus of which is through law
enforcement, prosecution and judicial actions.
A. Demand reduction C. Inter-agency coordination
B. Supply reduction D. International cooperation
34. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the possession of
dangerous drugs?
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will be suspended
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of the above

35. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall be punished with:
A.Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to 12 years
B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months

36. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
becomes difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that:
A. It is easy to smoke it secretly C. It is easy to cultivate
B. It is sellable in the market D. It is in demand

37. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self-awareness and emotion:
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics

38. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina
and/or energy.
A. Ecstasy C. MDMA
B. Shabu D. Anabolic Steroid

39. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:

A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
B. NBI Director and PNP Director General
C, PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
D, PNP Director and PDEA Director

40. A form of physical dependence, severe craving for the drug even to the point of
interfering with the person’s ability to function normally.
A. Tolerance C. Habituation
B. Addiction D. Psychological Dependence

41. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:
A. Cleansing process C. Abstinence
B. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification

42. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.

A. Ketamine C. Anesthesia
B. Codeine D. Sleeping pills
43. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other
narcotics substance.
A. Codeine C. Morphine
B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy

44. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside
residence.
C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement
agencies.
D, All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense
having an imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1)
days.

45. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to

prevent its members from being hook to addiction?
A. Church C. Barangay
B. Family D. School

46. Percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of the
liquor (alcohol)?
A. 0.05 C. 1.5
B. 0.15 D. 0.50

47. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?

A. opiates C. shabu
B. track D. coke

48. The source/s of most analgesic narcotic is/are:

1. Opium 4. Heroine
2. Morphine 5. Ephedrine
3. Cocaine 6. Cannabis
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 3,4 and 5
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

49. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?
A. poor environment C. domestic violence
B. experimental thrill D. peer pressure

50. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?

A. solvent C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant
FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

1. Coerced and uncounselled statements are considered involuntary or forced confession

which are usually a/ and_____________.
A. Judicial C. Prosecutorial
B. Extra judicial D. Admission

2. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Lauro Galit who was invited
and interrogated for the crime of murder executed an extra-judicial confession
acknowledging his guilt to the crime charged. What is the effect of such confession to his
case?
A. It can be used as evidence against him
B. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
C. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
D. His case will prosper

3. _________________ may be in sensory, written or physical forms which can be obtained

from regular, cultivated or grapevine sources.
A. Information C. Data
B. Evidence D. Proof

4. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a
party who does or says nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if
comment is not true.
A. Admission by Silence C. Admission
B. Res inter alios acta D. Negative pregnant

5. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing events
of the crime. This strengthens the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that
the accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister psychological influence.
A. Mental reconstruction C. Reconstruction
B. Crime reenactment D. Physical reconstruction

6. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a

person charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or
commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied, it should be direct and positive
acknowledgment of guilt.
Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding facts pertinent to the
crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. It
can be implied.
A. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
7. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by
means of confession or admission?
A. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
B. Corpus delicti must be established separately
C. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
D. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

8. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an
unknown suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he
is willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not utilize to
establish the identity of the suspect?
A. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery
B. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch
C. Police Line-up
D. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals

9. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was allegedly
witnessed by a certain person who volunteered to identify and testify against the
perpetrator. What are the factors that you should not consider to determine the accuracy
of his identification of the suspect?
A. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
B. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was
committed
C. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
D. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was
made

10. Circumstantial Evidence is evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce
the conviction of the accused if_____________
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
3. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction
beyond reasonable doubt
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. Only 3

11. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and
simultaneously identifies, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of
bringing criminal offender to justice.
A. Investigation C. Investigative process
B. Criminal investigation D. Criminal inquest

12. Elements of investigative process are_____________________

1. Recognition 4. Preservation
2. Collection 5. Evaluation 3. Dissemination
 A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

13. Form of relevant and material information that the investigator may be obtained from
regular, cultivated or grapevine sources are_______________________________.
1. Sensory 3. Concrete
2. Written 4. Physical forms
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4

14. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things can be used to detect crimes,
identify the criminals, facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the
objectives of criminal investigation.
A. Information C. Instrumentation
B. Criminalistics D. Interview/Interrogation

15. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the investigator should apprised the person of
his right under Republic Act 7438?
A. During the identification of criminal offender
B. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the offender
C. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal offender
D. During police line-up

16. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed?
Where it was committed? Why it was committed? And how it was committed? These are
called_______________________ of criminal investigation.
A. Cardinal Points C. Golden Rule
B. Three I’s D Bridges burn

17. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be
done in any or a combination of the following, except.
A. By confession or admission by the criminal B. By corpus delicti
C. By circumstantial evidence D. By eyewitness

18. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery with homicide case
perpetrated by unknown suspects. Since there are no witnesses to the crime the following
may give you a hint to identify the suspect, except one.
A. Motive and opportunity
B. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and
possession of fruits of a crime of the perpetrator
C. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
D. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal use
by the suspect
19. Circumstantial Evidence is evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce
the conviction of the accused if:
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
3. The circumstances presented should be supported by testimonial evidence
4. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction
beyond reasonable doubt
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4

20. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of
continuing interest, and who willingly provides information to the police either in
response to a specific request or his own initiative.
A. Incidental informant C. Automatic informant
B. Casual informant D. Recruited informant

21. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to acquire
information.
A. Surveillance C. Mobile
B. Stationary surveillance D. Technical

22. In this method of shadowing, operatives are station at a fixed point assuming that subject
followed the same general route each day.
A. ABC Method C. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance
B. Leap Frog Method D. Fixed surveillance

23. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals
his true identity and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a
specific mission.
A. Undercover assignment C. Work assignment and social assignment
B. Dwelling assignment D. Personal contact assignment

24. You are one of the police operatives tasked to trace a fugitive. Which of the following information
for his capture will you consider?
1. His full name, known aliases, description and distinctive marks, modus operandi, motive
and associates
2. His habits, hangouts, criminal record, residence, employment, relatives and close friends
3. His physical condition, LTO records check, SSS number, and selective service history
and handwriting specimen
A. A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
B. B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
25. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the
components of the crime scene situation which you would analyze?
1. Suspect’s arrival at the scene
2. Place of entry
3. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
4. Place of exit
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4

26. SPO2 Florenz Santos is examining a crime scene, which a dead victim sustained a gunshot wound
in the head with a handgun near his hand. He was informed that the victim had a painful terminal
illness. SPO2 Santos concluded that the wound is self-inflicted. This is an example which the
investigator use what kind of reasoning?
A. Deductive C. Reasonable
B. Logical D. Inductive

27. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion

28. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?

A. By photographs C. By sketches
B. By notes D. Surveying

29. Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.

A. Rogues gallery C. manhunt
B. Tracing D. order of battle

30. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, damaged or lost because of:
1. Improper packaging
2. Corruption of investigator
3. Non-maintenance of chain of custody
4. Inadequate sampling
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

31. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal description of a person after a short
period of visual observation is termed Portrait Parle;
Statement No. 2-Description of police characters which a witness may refer and that is
kept by police unit for purpose of references is Rogue’s Gallery
A. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrect
B. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect
C. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
32. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside from the marking should be made
immediately after receipt by the evidence custodian;
Statement no. 2- Marking or labeling of physical evidence should be made at the crime
scene upon collection.
A. Statement No. 1 is correct
B. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
C. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

33. _______________ is the covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical
means to acquire information.
A. Surveillance C. Stationary surveillance
B. Mobile D. Technical

34. Rough tailing or shadowing is the one that___________________________________.

A. General impression about the target is needed C. So much precaution is needed
B. The target is aware that he is being tailed D. None of them

35. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the investigator rational theory of the crime may
begin with deductive logic and later on inductive logic;
Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than a learned guess, but less than a certainty,
but has very high order of probability.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

36. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physical appearance of the crime scene is
reconstructed from the description, of the witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence.
Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions are made about
the consistency of the accounts of the various witnesses. No assumption is made without supporting
evidence.
A. Statement no. 1 is correct
B. Statement no. 2 is incorrect
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect

37. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimal requirements to be observed by
the investigator to insure admissibility of photographs in court.. Which of the following is not one
of them?
A. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irrelevant
B. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathy
C. The photograph should be free from distortion
D. The photograph should be clearly developed
38. Why the dead body of the victim of violence does needs to be photographed after its removal from
the crime scene?
A. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
B. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds
C. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage

39. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime

A. Over-All and environment’s photograph
B. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the deceased
C. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing their identity
D. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal

40. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and considered to be the simplest and the most
effective way of showing actual measurements and of identifying significant items of evidence in
their location at the scene.
A. Crime scene sketch C. Finished sketch
B. Rough sketch D. Direction sketch
41. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the following types of search could
be used depending upon locale, number of personnel available, type of object sought and
speed desired, except:
A. Strip and double strip or grid search
C. Rectangular and circular search
B. Zone search
42. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
B. Evidence must be properly documented
C. Maintain its chain of custody
D. Identify, tag and seal the evidence

43. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be properly documented
B. Maintain its chain of custody
C. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
D. Photographed and packaged the evidence

44. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and
accountability of all evidence found at the crime scene, including the documentation of
every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection
and transport to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is
referred to us.
A. Corpus delicti C. Blotter
B. Necropsy report D. Chain of custody

45. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated except:
A. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
 B. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
C. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained

46. Which of the following is not one of the questioning techniques that should be utilized in
interrogation?
A. Chronological C. Going backward
B. General to specific D. Going upward

47. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written statement is:

A. Question and answer because it provides details of acts
B. Combination of the two
C. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short
D. Your convenient type

48. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answer questions pertinent to the murder
case investigated. After the questioning at the NBI Headquarters however, he was held
for further questioning and considered him a suspect already. Persons who can visit him
are as follows, except:
A. Lovers, friends and countrymen
B. Immediate member of his family
C. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
D. Personnel of the C.H.R.

49. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of the family are as follows, except:
A. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
B. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaughter/grandson
C. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
D. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends

50. What are the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?

A. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified, measured and
photographed
B. If article has been move it can never be restored again to its original position
C. A and B are true
D. None of them

FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON IVESTIGATION

1. Known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines” is____________.

A. RA 6975 C. RA 9514
B. RA 9263 D. PD 1613

2. What is known as the 4th element of fire?

A. Fuel C. Uninhibited chemical reaction
B. Heat D. Oxygen
3. Heat transfer that occurs in fluids is known as________________.
A. Convection C. Conduction
B. Radiation D. Electrolysis

4. The means employed to keep the fire to a minimum or manageable level.

A. Fire control C. Fire suppression
B. Fire prevention D. Fire inspection

5. It refers to the size of fire which is determined by the size of flame and the area of fuel
that is burning.
A. Temperature C. Intensity
B. Heat D. Magnitude

6. An act of removing fire hazards from the building.

A. Lien C. Inspection
B. Abatement D. Renovation

7. Normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or structure
or natural condition created by fire.
A. Thermal balance C. Fire turbulence
B. Thermal imbalance D. Fire direction

8. Office of the BFP that facilitates the implementation of the Fire Code of the Philippines.
A. Fire Investigation Section C. Fire Safety inspection Section
B. Fire Safety Enforcement Branch D. Personnel Section

9. The process of determining the cause of fire in a particular installation.

A. Fire safety C. Fire investigation
B. Fire inspection D. Fire control

10. The first to be observed in ascertaining the cause of fire.

A. The point of origin C. The room of origin
B. The burnt pattern of ceiling D. The color of smoke and flame
11. Place in the fire scene where the fire started.
A. Kitchen C. Electrical Wire
B. Point of origin D. None

12. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the spontaneous and intensive burning has
occurred.
A. Alligatoring C. Collapse
B. Discoloration D. Charring

13. Which of the following should be performed first in conducting fire investigation?
A. Secure the fire scene C. Pacify the fire
B. Photograph the facade D. Conduct search
14. Fire which there are human casualties.
A. Deadly fire C. Spot fire
B. Fatal fire D. Arson

15. If the motive of fire is due to insanity, who among the following is the probable
perpetrator?
A. Jolted lover C. Terrorist
B. Rebel D. Pyromaniac

16. Which of the following will not cause the investigator to hypothesize that the series of
fires are not performed by a serial arsonist?
A. There is a significant difference in modus operandi in all series of fire
B. There is significant variations as to the time of the commission of arson
C. There is a significant similarity in manner of commission of offense
D. Similar devices were used to propagate the fire

17. If the investigator did not found any trace of incendiarism, which of the following will be
the assumption?
A. The fire was intentional C. The fire was providential
B. The fire was accidental D. The fire was not accidental

18. Which of the following shall cause the investigator to assume that the victim died of
direct contact with flame?
A. Presence of soot and fire gases at respiratory tract
B. Prominence of trauma that is probably caused by a stab
C. Intense charring of the whole body
D. None of the above

19. System of interconnected pipe that supplies water for fire suppression system in a
particular installation.
A. Wet pipe C. Stand pipe
B. Dry pipe D. Sprinkler

20. Product of fire that is detected by gas chromatogram and ion spectrometer.
A. Flames C. Soot
B. Heat D. Fire gases

21. To point out the difference between the incendiary cause of fire and natural cause the fire
investigator must photograph the natural fire pattern and:
A. Arson fire pattern C. Providential fire pattern
B. Accidental fire pattern D. Suspicious fire pattern

22. Most arson cases are proved by__________________ evidence rather than that direct
evidence.
A. Circumstantial C. Testimonial
 B. Documentary D. Physical

23. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the total insurance carried on the building
and/or goals is more than ________ of the value of such building and/or goods at the time
of the fire.
A. 60% C. 80%
B. 50% D. 90%

24. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat is known as_____________.

A. Thermal balance C. Burning
B. Oxidation D. Pyrolysis

25. Product of combustion composed of tiny solid particles is________________.

A. Fire gases C. Smoke
B. Flames D. Heat

26. What is that means employed to pacify the fire?

A. Fire prevention C. Fire control
B. Fire safety D. Fire suppression

27. Rate of temperature of fire of fire is called_____________.

A. Heat C. Magnitude
B. Intensity D. Ignition point

28. It is performed to assess the safety of an installation from destructive fires.

A. Fire control C. Fire prevention
A. Fire safety D. Fire inspection
29. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of the dead body found in a burned
structure, this will be a strong circumstantial evidence that the person:
A. Was dead when the fire began
B. Was killed by someone else during the blaze
C. Was still alive before the fire
D. Died due to suffocation

30. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids.
A. Sulfides C. Sulfur
B. Nitrates D. Ammonia

31. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally
to the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle 

32. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:

A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
33. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
A. attic C. extension
B. aerial D. hook

34. It refers to the law on arson.

A. PD 1612 C. Revised Penal Code
B. PD 1613 D. RA 7659

35. Jessie is the step father of Jean. One day, Jessie and Jean quarreled. Because of anger,
Jessie put the clothes of Jean in a luggage and burned them.
A. Jessie committed malicious mischief and is liable
B. Jessie committed malicious mischief but is exempt from criminal liability
C. Jessie committed arson and is criminally liable
D. Jessie committed arson but is exempt from criminal liability under Article 332 of the
Revised Penal Code

36. When fire occurred, the first action upon discovery is_______________________.
A. Run for life C. Pack up personal belongings
B. Raise the alarm D. Call an ambulance

37. It is used to include not only architects responsible for the design and erection of a
complete building but also the various specialist engineers who may be concerned with
the structure, the electrical installation, the heating ventilation system and so on.
A. Building contractors C. Office of building permits
B. Designers D. Building planners

38. Which of the following is a primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection?
A. To see to it that the building is insured
B. To safeguard life
C. To insure that the building is hazard-free
D. To generate income for the government

39. It helps the arson investigator solve the fire mystery. The fact that fire feeds or
combustible while propagating itself. It will indicate generally the deepest from where
the fire originated.
A. Charring C. Burning
B. Allegatoring D. Trailer

40. Preparation to set a fire. It is design to feed the fire as rapidly as possible when ignition
device is lighted.
A. Plants C. Accelerants
B. Trailers D. Fuel
41. If combustion waves propagate at supersonic speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to
produce:
A. Explosion C. Conflagration
B. Detonation D. Big fire

42. Chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.

A. Flash over C. Ignition
B. Pyrolysis D. Combustion

43. As the product of combustion rises in a building or flows out of an opening an equal
volume of air replaces them. If during extinguishments, water is distributed in such a
manner as to upset the thermal balance, a condition will appear known
as_______________________.
A. Explosion of steam C. Thermal imbalance
B. Thermostat D. Sudden burst of fire

44. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the
base to the top of the building?
A. vertical shaft C. standpipe
B. sprinkler system D. flash point

45. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves.
This heat transfer is:
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection 

46. Product of combustion which combustible materials and oxidizing agents react to heat.
A. Fire C. Smoke
B. Fire Gases D. Flame
47. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire.
A. Fire Suppression C. Fire Inspection
B. Fire Control D. Fire prevention

48. Fires involving flammable liquids.

A. Class C C. Class D
B. Class B D. Class A

49. Fire caused by volcanic eruption or humidity is_______________

A. Providential C. Unnatural
B. Intentional D. Accidental

50. What is the stage of fire that has the highest rate of intensity?
A. Incipient C. Smoldering
B. Free burning D. Initial
SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION

1. SSgt. Cruz and Pat. Flores arrested and detained Ramon without warrant for the crime of theft.
When brought to the inquest prosecutor, the latter issued release order for further investigation.
What was the crime if any do they have committed?
A. Arbitrary detention C. Delaying release
C. Illegal detention

2. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of
his ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?
A. Homicide C. Parricide
B. Murder D. Any of the choices

3. Brando and Yana is married couple. While working as security guard of Bank, Brando felt
sick one night and decided to go home around midnight and saw Yana having sexual intercourse
with a neighbor Gilbert. Brando grabbed Gilbert and hacked the latter to death. As an
investigator what crime if any would you charged against A?
A. Homicide C. Parricide
B. Murder D. None

4. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have the intent to kill the victim. If
there is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for-
A. Physical injury C. Serious physical injury
B. Homicide D. Consummated physical injury

5. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?

1. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body
2. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
3. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing within the body
A. 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 3

6. You were a police officer responded in a violent crime just recently occurred. How would you determine
signs of death?
A. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory movement
B. By hearing heart sounds
C. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a person
D. Any of them

7. Physical evidence is any article found at the crime scene, small or large which, in one way or another
connected with the crime investigated. Its uses are, except one:
A. Identify the participants C. Determine the cause of crime
B. Reconstruct the crime D. Confirm or discredit an alibi
8. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked for identification?
A. Affixing a seal on the front C. No mark at all
B. Marking at the back D. Tagging

9. Physical evidence may be found from___________________.

A. The Crime Scene B. The Suspect C. The Victim D. all of the above

10. You were a police officer who responded in a shooting incident. Upon arrival at the scene,
the suspect flees while shooting at you. What actions would you take?
A. Attend to the injured victim C. Shoot back at the suspect
B. Save life D. Call a back up

11. You are the first responder in the crime scene. How will you protect an outdoor crime scene?
A. Establish a command center C. Lock the door of the crime scene
B. Barricade and guard the crime scene D. Wait for the arrival of the SOCO

12. In criminal investigation include___________________.

1. Photographing, measuring, sketching and searching crime scene
2. Identification, collection and examination of evidence
3. Questioning victims, if alive, witnesses and suspects and recording statements
A. 1 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

13. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three important factors may be considered. These are:
1. The article must be properly identified
2. Continuity or chain of custody
3. Legality of the procurement
4. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material and relevant
A.1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4

14. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin brought
about by the friction against a hard rough surface is___________________.
A. Contusion C. Patterned wound B. Abrasions D. Hematoma

15. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dying person. You will obtain dying
declaration from him. Which of the following is not one of your duties in regard to dying declaration?
A. Attempt to save the life of the victim
B. Observe carefully the mental condition of the victim and jot down immediately his statements
C. Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting a feeling of his impending death
D. Avoid leading questions and produce the statement.

16. Statement no. 1-Admissibility of dying declaration is not dependent on their being made in any
particular form.
Statement no. 2- Dying declaration has no definite form required and need not be under oath.
A. Statement no. 1 is true C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
B. Statement no. 2 is false D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
17. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the investigator must be sure that the following
had already been performed.
1. Crime scene search, sketch and photograph taken.
2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into considerations and relative position of the body
was determined.
3. Notes are properly taken cared, evidence are identified, collected and preserved.
4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the prosecutor and the homicide investigator
was established.
A. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3

18. Rape was committed either by sexual intercourse or by sexual assault. Which of the following is NOT a
rape by sexual assault?
A. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth
B. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orifice
C. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
D. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another person.

19. A post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the body after death
is___________________.
A.algor mortis C. livor mortis
B. rigor mortis D. all of the above

20. A person who is hit by a hard object will sustain a/an___________.

A. lacerated wound C. hematoma
B. incised wound D. abrasions

21. This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995:

A. RA 8049 C. RA 8505
B. RA 7877 D. RA 6235

22. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental organ function of a
person to medically “dead”?
A. cardiac C. central nervous
B. respiratory D. digestive

23. In Identifying of a dead body through examination of the teeth:

A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic odontology
B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine

24. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:

A. RA 3019 C. RA 7610
B. RA 10054 D. RA 7080
25. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide

24. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:

A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553
B. RA 4200 D. RA 7877

25. The notion, which declares that human behavior tends to repeat itself, can serve as basis of
the investigator in determining:
A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime
B. Modus operandi D. Criminal intent

26. What is the first act that must be done by a police officer upon arriving at the scene of the
crime?
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency

27. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb.
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Parricide D. Murder

28. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been considered to kill the victim:
A. Homicide C. Infanticide
B. Parricide D. Murder

29. It is an investigative technique whereby the operative conceals his true identity and adopts an
assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission is known as:
A. Undercover assignment B. Work assignment and social assignment

30. What is the type of undercover work is suitable if the purpose is to observe the activities of
the target at his place of work which suspected to be used as front for drug trafficking?
A Dwelling assignment C. Work assignment
B. Social assignment D. Personal contact

31. You are Police Commissioned Officer who leads the execution of a valid search warrant.
Who must be present when a valid search warrant is conducted on a domicile?
A. The house owner B. Any member of the house owner’s family

32. Which of the following is not one of the acts of committing violation of domicile?
A. Searching domicile without witness
B. Search warrants maliciously obtained and abuse in the service of search warrant
C. Search of the domicile without warrant
33. Under RA 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm in the commission of a crime is not considered
as a separate crime but shall be appreciate as a-
A. Mere alternative circumstance C. Qualifying circumstance
B. Mere aggravating circumstance D. Generic aggravating circumstance

34. Carl takes Yong, to a motel and there, through threat and intimidation succeeds in inserting
his penis into the anus of Yong. What crime, if any does Carl commit?
A. Sexual assault C. Acts of lasciviousness
B. Rape

35. Known as the Anti-Fencing Law of 1979.

A. BP 22 C.PD 1612
B. RA 3019 D. PD 532

36. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator upon the finding of an evidential
cigarette butt?
1. Making sketch 2. Photographing
3. Recording
A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1 B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3

37. What is the first action of a Police Officer upon arrival at a homicide scene?
A. Bring the dying victim in the hospital C. Secure the crime scene
B. Crime scene search D. Identification of witness

38. Criminal investigative activities virtually deal with:

A. Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory, documentary and physical
forms
B. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered from the regular, cultivated
and grapevine sources.
C. Persons and things
D. A and B only

39. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:

A. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape B. Duel, abortion and infanticide
C. Homicide and murder D. Parricide

40. Vincent killed his adapter after the rendition of judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the crime he
committed?
A. Parricide C. Homicide
B. Murder D. None of them

41. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide investigation is:

A. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death
B. Process of determining who is responsible for the death
C. Process of determining how the victim was killed
D. Process of determining when the victim was killed
42. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator
cannot be corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges which he burns behind
him. Which of the following is not one of this so called “Burned bridge”?
A. When the dead person has been moved
B. When the dead body has been embalmed
C. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly
accounted
D. When the body is burned or cremated

43. In the case of the dead person, when autopsy should be performed?
A. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide.
B. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
C. Death has been caused by violence
D. In all cases involving death

44. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
A. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death B. Secure the scene
C. Verification of death

45. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what to be
bloodstains on the front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were
both cut their identities need to be established through the bloodstains. How will the police
collect the stains?
A. Scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. Moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently
D. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol

46. Majority of the mistakes committed relative to evidence, take place:

1. during periods of transportation
2. in the collection of samples
3. A contaminated sampling
4. The wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4

47. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and a location of evidence was noted,
the collection process begins and will usually start with________________________.
A. point of exit C. removal of cadaver
B. large objects D. fragile evidence

48. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?

A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene
49. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553
B. RA 4200 D. RA 7877

50. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb.
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Parricide D. Murder
BUGAYONG DESAMAY
CRIM41
TRAFFIC

1. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front seat of any running motor vehicle:
A. Seven years old B. six years and old and under
C. Under six years old D. seven years old and under

2. Traffic management agencies’ failure in uplifting the driving behavior within the concept of
defensive driving is a result of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Management tolerance attitude B. driver’s lack of concern
C. Corruption within the bureaucracy D. absence of pro-active approach

3. When there are two motor vehicles approaching the intersection almost at the same time, one
is travelling along the national road and the other is in the secondary road. Who has the right of
way?
A. vehicle on the secondary road B. vehicle on the national road
C. Vehicle on the right D. Vehicle on the left

4. Person who is responsible for the holding of number of passenger, freights or cargo inside his
public utility motor vehicle:
A. Driver C. operator
B. Dispatcher D. conductor

5. The international traffic and road signs and signals were approved during the United Nations
Convention on Road Signs and Signals, on what year?
A. 1968 C. 1958
B.1978 D. 1988

6. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid
hazard.
A. State of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception D. Final position
7. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officer should be guided foremost by
the consideration that _________.
A. Some traffic violations are caused by negligence B. Some traffic violations are intended
C. The aim is to discourage violation D. Violations must be punished

8. In Philippines, which of the following agencies must be accountable for an effective driver
control program?
A. Courts C. All of these
B. LTO D. Police
9. What country first used traffic signs and symbols?
A. Germany C. America
B. France D. England

10. It is painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to provide
pedestrians with safety zone when crossing:
A. Center C. Cross walk
B. Lane D. Stop lines

11. These include pedestrians, pedal cyclists, drivers and passengers:

A. Road obstructions C. Traffic units
B. Road users D. Road ways

12. What warning is usually used when you have observed a minor violation, where the violator
cannot be held accountable, either the enforcer is occupied on something else or is unable to
enforce law the violated due to other hindrances?
A. Verbal C. Written
B. Visual D. Citation

13. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words or
symbols, officially erected or installed for the purpose of regulating warning or guiding traffic:
A. Center line C. Refuge Island
B. Stop line D. Traffic Signs

14. The traffic action taken by the traffic police such as arresting, issuing traffic citation ticket
and giving warning to erring drivers for the purpose of deterring and discouraging and or
preventing such violations:
A. Education C. Citation
B. Enforcement D. Warning

15. It is an object or vehicle on the road that hinders or prevents the smooth flow of traffic:
A. Obstruction C. Hazard
B. Hindrance D. Debris

16. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?

A. Police car on call C. ambulance on call
B. Fire truck on call D. Physician’s car

16. Shall mean every and any driver hired or paid for driving or operating a motor vehicle
whether for private use or for hire to the public.
A. rig driver C. owner
B. operator D. professional driver

17. A motor vehicle used by ambassador of Singapore.

A. government C. diplomatic
B. for hire D. gate away
18. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. road condition C. pedestrian
B. whether condition D. reckless driving

20. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left” C. none of these
B. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”

21. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
A. immunity C. leniency
B. right of way D. giving way

22. What is that movement of persons, good, and vehicles either powered by an animal or an
animal- drawn vehicle on by combustion system from one place to another?
A. Engineering C. Traffic
B. Traffic management D. Construction

23. A systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features
associated with motor collision is called:
A. traffic accident investigation C. traffic engineering
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic collision

24. Driving without due regard for the consequences likely to occur, ignoring the right and safety
of another is:
A. hit and run C. over speeding
B. none of these D. reckless driving

25. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words or
symbols.
A. traffic light C. traffic island
B. traffic signs D. pavement marking

26. Land transportation and traffic code is republic act number…

A. RA 4163 C. RA 4136
B. RA 9208 D. RA 7438

27. LTFRB literally means...

A. Land Transit for Fee Regulatory Board
B. Local Transport Franchising Regulation Board
C. Law on Transport and Foreign Relation Board
D. Land Transportation and Franchising Regulatory Board

28. These signs are intended to warn road users of the danger that lies ahead and its nature.
A. informative signs C. warning signs
B. regulatory signs D. all of these
29. The first accident touching between traffic units involving in the collision.
A. start of evasive action C. perception of hazards
B. initial contact D. injury

30. This traffic warning is really form of safety education by telling the violator that he has
violated the law and explain the hazards of such actions.
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. written warning D. traffic control

31. Which of the following consideration does not act as a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
A. Loss of driving privilege B. Fear of fine and punishment
C. increase of insurance premium D. Possibility of being involve in an accident

32. Within the human element which is at fault in a large majority of the vehicular accidents, the
most important defect is attributed to what?
A. attitudinal C. perceptual
B. intellectual D. decision

33. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the
following.
A. a decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actions
B. a reduction of traffic accidents and delay
C. an increase in traffic enforcement actions
D. None of the foregoing

34. What is the objective of traffic control?

A. To arrest traffic violators C. To prevent scalawags
B. To increase safety level D. To solve crimes

35. What is the combination of verbal warning and citations called?

A. Traffic rules implementation C Citation warnings
B. Traffic consultation D. Written warnings

36. What is the occurrence in a sequence of or a chain of events which usually produce
unintended injury, death, or damage to property?
A. Calamity C. Accident
B. crime D. Assault

37. What is the proof that one is given permission by the Land Transportation Office (LTO) to
operate a vehicle on public highways?
A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. franchise D. operator’s license

38. Which of the following is the basic objective of police traffic control?
A. Economized transport of goods and services B. Prevention of traffic accidents
C. Movement of traffic with safety D. Planning for safe roads
39. What kind of driver is one who shows a complete disregard for others, aggressive, impatient,
demanding and thoroughly selfish in his actions affecting other drivers?
A. Vociferous C. Defensive
B. Egotists D. Emotional

40. How should a driver approach an intersection?

A. Be at the right of way C. Be at the full stop
B. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles

41. Safe use of the streets by drivers and pedestrians is a matter of

A. Adequate utilization of traffic resources B. Sustained information campaign
C. Effective traffic enforcement D. Correct attitude and habit

42. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
A. Spare tire B. Unusual odor
B. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle D. All of these

43. What is the first and most important step in enforcing traffic rules?
A. Enforcement B. Planning and enforcement
C. Planning

44. When there is a collision between a train and bus, which unit of the police takes charge?
A. Homicide division C. General Investigation unit
B. Traffic investigation unit D. Traffic management group

45. Are marks left on the roadway by tires, which are not free to rotate? Usually brakes are
applied strongly and the wheels locked.
A. skid marks C. scuff marks
B. key event D. debris

46. This traffic warning is usually used when you have observed a minor violation but are more
importantly occupied at a moment.
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. written warning D. oral warning

47. It is a traffic observations or stationary observation in which the observer in which the
observer tries to attract attention by keeping in full view of traffic.
A. conspicuous C. visible
B. concealed D. stationary

48. Traffic management is sole responsibility of police. The statement is….

A. absolutely true B. true in highly urbanized places like cities
C. absolutely false D. partly true
49. A driving privilege that allows the person to operate a motor vehicle for livelihood:
A. Non-professional license B. sub-professional license
C. Professional license D. professional driver’s license

50. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. Road condition C. Pedestrian
B. Whether condition D. Reckless driving