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Why is strain energy equal to 1/2*force*displacement? What about the


remaining half?

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13 Answers

Jayasankar Pillai, Research fellow, unlearning/learning mechanics everyday


Updated Feb 12, 2020 · Author has 206 answers and 419.3k answer views

Originally Answered: Solid Mechanics: Why is strain energy equal to 1/2*force*displacement? What about the remaining half?
As you know, Strain Energy is Energy stored in an elastic system when it is stressed. The most common example
is a spring. Lets consider the same, A linear spring. as you know if we apply a small force you can displace the
spring a little, the larger the force the larger would be the displacement. So if the applied force is ‘F and the
spring is displaced by ‘x’ units then F= k.x where ‘k’ is the spring constant. You can compress a spring faster or
slower but once it reaches an equilibrium the energy stored would be proportional to the displacement. The force
available from the spring at an instance is also proportional to the displacement at that instance.

Lets do the math in the reverse direction,

Assume, you applied some force on a spring and displaced (compressed) the spring by ‘x’ units. The spring is
kept displaced at ‘x’ unit and that means a force ‘F’ equivalent to ‘kx’ units is applied on the spring,

So you did some work on the spring and the same amount of work would be stored in form of potential energy
(Strain Energy). Now, if you allow the spring to return the favor back to you, what amount of work can be availed
from the spring? Anyhow we know that, what ever energy stored in the spring would be available.

When the displaced spring is allowed to relax by ‘dx’ units, We would get a work equivalent to ‘kx.dx’ (Work=
Force X Displacement). Suppose, instead of x units, the spring is displaced only by ‘x/2’ units, Then the work
done by the displaced spring when its allowed to relax ‘dx’ units from the displacement of x/2 units would be
‘k(x/2).dx’. Here, the work done has reduced to half compared to the first case. So we can infer that, when the
spring relaxes the available force reduces progressively and hence the work done by the spring (for each small
displacement steps of ‘dx’units) reduces progressively. That is the reason for the ‘half’, Lets do the math now.
Consider a spring which is displaced by ‘x’ units is relaxed step by step, each step is an infinitesimally small
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displacement of ‘dx’ units.

Work done by the spring at step 1

W1 = kxdx

Work done by the spring at Step 2

W2 = k(x − dx)dx

Work done by the spring at Step 3

W3 = k(x − 2dx)dx

Suppose we need a total number of n steps, so that the spring is completely relaxed.
Then, the displacement, ‘x’ = ‘n’ times ‘dx’, i.e. x = n.dx

Work done by the spring at Step n

Wn = k(x − (n − 1)dx)dx

Total Work,
W = W1 + W2 + W3 + … … … … … + Wn

kxdx + k(x − dx)dx + k(x − 2dx)dx + … … …

= + k(x − (n − 1)dx)dx)

kdx(x + (x − dx) + (x − 2dx) + … … … …

= + (x − (n − 1)dx))

= kdx(x + (n − 1)x − dx(1 + 2 + 3 + … . +(n − 1))

(n−1)n
= kdx(nx − dx 2
)

dx.n.n dx.n
= kdx(nx − 2
+
2
)

We know that, n. dx = x, Therefore,

nx x
W = kdx(nx − + )
2 2

kdxnx kxdx
= 2
+
2

2
kx kxdx
= 2
+
2

Ignoring the second term as ‘dx’ is infinitesimally small, also it has accumulated due to our
approximations/conceptualization of the problem.

2
kx
W =
2

We already know that F= k.x, therefore


Fx
W =
2
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The same thing can be easily found out using calculus, We assume steps of ‘dx’ units and let the displacement
be ‘x’ units, and the interval is ‘x’ units to 0 units. Compared to the first method calculus would give us the perfect
answer without errors, Thanks Sir Newton and Leibniz!.

So work done would be

0 2
kx Fx
W = −∫ (kxdx) = =
x 2 2

Now, think about the stress-strain graph of the spring. you have a straight line. starting from origin and ending at
maximum load applied, ’F’ and maximum displacement ‘x’. May be draw it on a paper. Divide the displacement
axis into ‘n’ number of equal divisions, say 5 or 10, calculate the work done on the spring at each division, that
would be the corresponding force multiplied by the distance dx. When you move towards the right of the
displacement axis (assuming the displacement is in the positive direction ) the load with which the displacement
to be multiplied by, increases. If you add all the work done, it exactly would be the area under the graph as
explained by Jinal Doshi . That would be the area of a triangle and you know the value of the same. Hope this
helps.

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OTHER ANSWERS

Satish Annigeri, Registrar (Evaluation) at Visvesvaraya Technological University (2016-present)


Updated Sep 12, 2019 · Author has 1.3k answers and 2.8m answer views

Originally Answered: Solid Mechanics: Why is strain energy equal to 1/2*Resisting force*displacement? What about the remaining
half?
Strain energy is internal energy and is calculated from internal forces and corresponding displacements. Work
done is based on external forces and is based on the applied force and corresponding displacements. According
to the Principle of Conservation of Energy, work done by external forces in deforming a solid is equal to the strain
energy stored in the body due to the resulting deformations. This internal energy is recoverable (provided stress
does not exceed yield stress), that is, if external force causing deformations is removed internal energy restores
the solid to its original shape and size. All of this is perfectly true for linear elastic materials.

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