B.Ed.

Entrance Test-2009
Question Booklet Code No.: 209101
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Question
Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet
Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature :
(of the Candidate)

Time : 90 minutes Maximum Marks : 75

NOTE :This paper has two sections viz. Section-I and Section-II. Attempt the questions as per instructions given below :
Section-I : All the 45 questions under Part A, Part B and Part C are to be attempted.
Section-II : All the candidates are required to attempt a total of 30 questions from this section from two parts in two
languages (15 in each language) only filled by them in the Application Form i.e, Punjabi and English OR
Punjabi and Hindi OR Hindi and English as per instructions given below :
(i) Punjabi (Part D) is compulsory for all those candidates who studied Punjabi in Matriculation.
The second language opted could be either Hindi (Part E) OR English (Part F).
(ii) Candidates who have not studied Punjabi as per (i) above should attempt questions in Hindi
(Part E) and English (Part F).

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
3. Enter the Code No. of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with
Black Gel pen only.
4. The OMR Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. If the instructions are not followed properly,
the candidate alone shall be responsible for the resultant loss so caused.
5. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal gently.
6. Check that Question Booklet contains 15 questions each in Part A, B, C, D, E and F. In case of any discrepancy,
inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
7. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. Darken only one bubble
(A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the OMR Answer Sheet.
8. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank.
No mark/s will be deducted in that case.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. Thus for a wrong answer of a question carrying one mark, a deduction of 1/4 mark will be
done.
10. For rough work, use only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet.
11. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
12. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
13. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
14. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination. The decision of the Controller of
Examinations shall be final.
15. The candidates will not be allowed to leave the Examination Hall during the short interval between the two papers.
 B.Ed./ 209101
Section – I
Note : All questions in Part A, Part B and Part C are to be attempted.
PART A – GENERAL AWARENESS TEST 6. Who has authored the book My Country
1. Who wrote the patriotic song ‘Bande Matram’ My Life ?
in the days of India’s struggle for freedom ? (A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(A) Sarojini Naidu (B) L.K. Advani
(B) Rabindranath Tagore (C) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Bankim Chandra Chatterji (D) Kapil Dev
(D) Munshi Prem Chand 7. What was the total number of teams in IPL 2009 ?
2. The World Environment Day is celebrated on : (A) 12
(A) January 26 (B) 8
(B) June 5 (C) 18
(C) October 24 (D) 10
(D) August 15 8. Who was the first Vice-President of India ?
3. Which instrument is used for recording the (A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
intensity of earthquake ? (B) Mr. V.V. Giri
(A) Lactometer (C) Mr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(B) Ammeter (D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Barometer 9. Who has often been called as ‘Flying Sikh’ ?
(D) Seismograph (A) Milkha Singh
4. What is the total number of MPs representing (B) Harbhajan Singh
INC in the 15th Lok Sabha ? (C) Karni Singh
(A) 206 (D) Omkar Singh
(B) 262 10. Which of the following is the chairman of the
(C) 159 Rajya Sabha ?
(D) 80 (A) Prime Minister of India
5. Which one out of the following is not a (B) Leader of the Opposition
Union Government Minister ? (C) President of India
(A) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi (D) Vice-President of India
(B) Ms. Agatha Sangma 11. ‘W’ in WHO stands for :
(A) Women
(C) Kumari Selja
(B) Workers
(D) Ms. Krishna Tirath
(C) World
(D) Wicket

B.Ed./209101 1 [P.T.O.
12. A Jacuzzi is : 18. Student’s achievement is determined mostly by :
(A) An Antelope found in Europe (A) teacher’s overall qualities
(B) A large Bathtub with underwater jets of water (B) teacher’s length of service
(C) A Reggae Music Band (C) size of class
(D) A car that operates on land and water (D) teacher’s class control techniques
13. For which film did A.R. Rahman score his first 19. The main objective of teaching is to :
original Hindi sound track ? (A) prepare students to pass exam
(A) Slumdog Millionaire (B) develop thinking power of students
(B) Roja (C) give information related to the syllabus
(C) Rangeela (D) dictate notes to the students
(D) Guru 20. The primary objective of the teacher in asking
14. Which part of the body is affected by students to introduce themselves at the beginning
Glaucoma ? of the session is to :
(A) Eyes (A) know about student’s potentialities and family
(B) Heart background
(C) Kidney (B) develop friendly relations with students
(D) Lungs (C) find class monitors
15. H1N1 is also known as : (D) develop social links with their parents
(A) Common Cold and Flu 21. An acceptable technique for disciplining a
(B) Bird Flu misbehaving secondary school student would be :
(C) Avian Flu (A) take away some of his privileges till he improves
(D) Swine Flu his behaviour
(B) ridicule him in front of the class for his lack of
PART B – TEACHING POTENTIAL TEST seriousness
16. Teaching aptitude is : (C) make him stand in one corner of the class
(A) An acquired ability (D) send him back home to bring his parents
(B) An inborn ability 22. If a teacher seeks students contribution in
(C) A potential that can be polished developing the lesson in class, it shows that
(D) Criteria for disciplining students she/he is :
17. Low achieving students are more likely to benefit (A) short of content for explaining the topic
from : (B) encouraging student participation and
(A) a gold medalist teacher involvement in class work
(B) an effective teacher (C) not making enough efforts to prepare for the
(C) a strict teacher lesson
(D) a permanent teacher (D) encouraging indiscipline

B.Ed./209101 2
23. While teaching, teacher questions, presents
study material and again questions in between
so that :
(A) students remain attentive
(B) students feel challenged, stimulated and
interested
(C) students are enabled to answer end-of-chapter
questions
(D) he/she gets some rest while students answer
24. While the teacher is teaching, questioning by
students in the class should be :
(A) encouraged because it shows they are active
listeners
(B) discouraged because it interrupts the lesson
prepared by the teacher
(C) encouraged because it breaks the monotony
of class work
(D) discouraged because it takes students’ mind
off the text book
25. Characteristics of a good teacher are :
(p) desire to teach
(q) ability to get along with others
(r) subject knowledge and skills
(s) ability to teach others
(t) ability to make social connections with
powerful people
(A) p q r s t
(B) r and s only
(C) p q r s
(D) p and r only
26. Success of class-room teaching depends upon :
(A) presence of visual aids related to the topic
(B) abundant use of chalk board
(C) impressive lecture and silent students
(D) balanced task oriented communication
between teacher and students
B.Ed./209101
27. Teacher should encourage project work related
to syllabus to be done by :
(A) engaging commercial help
(B) replicating old projects of past students
(C) guided team work amongst students
(D) parental involvement only
28. If a student wants to discuss an educational
problem with teacher he should be :
(A) allowed some time in the class only
(B) given appointment after class
(C) sent to senior students
(D) discouraged
29. A teacher can give right guidance to his/her
students because of his/her :
(A) position
(B) length of service
(C) understanding of psychology of students
(D) own experiences
30. Innovative work in school teaching :
(A) need not be done since salary is not linked to it
(B) should be done since it makes you famous
(C) need not be done since there is already so much
work
(D) needs to be done to benefit the school education
system
PART C – GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY TEST
Directions Q. (31-32) : In each of the following
questions, a group of three interrelated words is given.
Select a word from the given alternatives, that belongs
to the same group.
31. Arid : Parched : Droughty
(A) Cow
(B) Dry
(C) Draft
(D) Earth
3 [P.T.O.
32. Jam : Jelly : Pickles 37. If BOMBAY is written as MYMYMY, how will
(A) Butter TAMIL NADU be written in that code ?
(B) Marmalade (A) ALDALDALD
(C) Grapes (B) MNUMNUMNU
(D) Coconut (C) TIATIATIA
(D) IATIATIAT
Directions. Q. (33-34) : In each of the following
38. Pointing to a boy in the photograph Madhu said,
questions, there are three words at the top which have
“This sister is the only daughter of my father”.
some characteristic common to them. Out of the four
How is the boy related to Madhu’s father ?
alternatives given under these words, one has the
(A) Father
characteristic common of them. Find the correct
alternative to each case. (B) Brother
33. Mars, Mercury, Venus : (C) Son
(D) Cousin
(A) Stars
39. Introducing a woman, a man said, “My father is
(B) Moon
the only son of her father.” How is the man related
(C) Satellite
to the woman ?
(D) Planet
(A) Father
34. Cap, Turban, Hat :
(B) Son
(A) Headgear (C) Uncle
(B) Hair (D) Nephew
(C) Umbrella 40. Sub-Inspector Malik travelled from his
(D) Safety Police-Post straight for 400 meters. He then
35. If METHOD is written as LFSINE, how DEPOT turned left and travelled 500 meters straight after
can be written in that code ? which he turned left again and travelled for 400
(A) EFQPU meters straight. He then turned right and walked
(B) CFOPS for another 600 meters straight. How far is he
(C) CDOPS from the Police-Post ?
(D) EDQPU (A) 1.0 km
36. The following question is based on a code (B) 1.1 km
language in which PERCEPTION is written as (C) 1.4 km
QMPTMQXDCL, and RELAYED is written as (D) 1.8 km
PMZDNMO. How is NOTICED written in that 41. P, Q, R and S are playing cards, P and Q are
code ? partners. S faces towards north. If P faces
(A) LCXDOTM towards west, then who faces towards South ?
(B) LCXDTQM (A) P
(C) LCXDTMO (B) Q
(D) CLXDTOM (C) S
(D) R

B.Ed./209101 4
42. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with Section – II
the first, the second, the third and the fourth Note : Each candidate has to attempt two parts out of
letters of the word PEACEFUL, what will be the three parts as per following instructions.
first letter of that word ? If no such word can be Instructions : Candidates who have studied Punjabi in
formed, give ‘N’ as your answer and if more than matriculation shall have to attempt Part D (Punjabi) which
one such word can be formed, give ‘M’ as the is compulsory and either Part E (Hindi) or Part F (English)
answer : [15×2=30 questions]
(A) P Candidates who have not studied Punjabi in matriculation
(B) N shall have to attempt both Part E (Hindi) and
(C) C Part F (English) [15×2=30 questions]
(D) M The result of each candidate will be declared by evaluating
43. At a party, there are 43 persons in all. The 75 questions.
number of women is two more than men but the
Part D–Punjabi Language Proficiency Test
number of children is 4 less than men. How many
women are there ?
46H ‘T[j ;kvk xo j?’ tke ftu T[j dk ekoi j? L
(A) 11 (A) fBPu/tkue gVBKt tkbk
(B) 13 (B) fBPu/tkue ftP/PD tkbk
(C) 17 (C) shik g[oy gVBKt tkbk
(D) 15 (D) d{ik g[oy gVBKt tkbk
44. Out of the following, what is that number when 47H fejVk Ppd BKt ns/ fefonk d't/A j? L
its square is added to it, the result is 240 ? (A) gVQBk
(A) 15 (B) eoBk
(B) 16 (C) tzvDk
(C) 18 (D) x'NDk
(D) 20 48H gzikph ftu tke tos'A ftu BKt PpdK d/ o{g tND
d/ ekoB jB L
45. All of us, plus half of us and quarter of us and
(A) fbzr, tuB ns/ ekoe
you alone taken together equal 71. How many (B) fbzr ns/ tuB
are we really ? (C) tuB ns/ ekoe
(A) 70 (D) fbzr ns/ ekoe
(B) 60 49H fejVk r[Dp'Xe BKt BjhA j? L
(A) uzfrnkJh
(C) 50
(B) w{oysk
(D) 40 (C) fgnko
(D) bkbh

B.Ed./209101 5 [P.T.O.
50H ftnkeoB ftu ‘s/’ eh j? < 56H ‘eu{wo e~YDk’ w[jktok fejV/ noE tb ;ze/s
(A) ;jkfJe fefonk eodk j? L
(B) ftP/PD (A) xo'A e~Y d/Dk
(C) :'ie (B) j'P T[vk d/D/
(D) ;zpzXe (C) Bk; wko d/Dk
51H ‘j~EhA’ Ppd dh ftnkeoBe P/qDh eh j? < (D) ;kj e~Y d/Dk
(A) ftP/PD 57H ‘ftfdnkoEh gVQd/ jB ns/ p~u/ y/vd/ jB’ fe;
(B) fefonk^ftP/PD gqeko dk tke j? L
(C) BKt (A) fwfPqs
(D) gVBKt (B) ;z:[es
52H ‘b~e^s'V’ Ppd dh ftnkeoBe Pq/Dh eh j? < (C) ;kXkoB
(D) ;ob
(A) ftP/PD
58H fejVk tke ftnkeoBe s"o s/ P[~X j? L
(B) fefonk^ftP/PD
(A) j?A T[j ufbnk frnk.
(C) BKt
(B) j?A` T[j ufbnk frnk <
(D) gVBKt
(C) j?A, T[j ufbnk frnk.
53H fejVk Ppd^i'V ;jh j? L
(D) j?A ` T[j ufbnk frnk.
(A) gqhfynk
59H fejVk tke P[~X j? L
(B) gq;zB
(A) okw, Pkw ns/ pbokw ;G ƒ fJBkw fwfbnk.
(C) gqwkswk (B) okw, Pkw, pbokw fszzB ƒ fJBkw fwfbnk.
(D) gqhtko (C) okw Pkw pbokw shi/ ƒ fJBkw fwfbnk.
54H fejVk Ppd^i'V ;jh j? L (D) okw, Pkw ns/ pbokw fszBK ƒ fJBkw fwfbnk.
(A) Py; 60H gzikph dk jowBfgnkok eth fejVk j? L
(B) P\; (A) ;H ;H whPk
(C) ;\; (B) ;[fszdo f;zx B{o
(D) ;\P (C) bkb f;zx fdb
55H ‘n"A;hnK gkDk’ w[jktok fejV/ noE tb ;ze/s (D) fPt e[wko pNkbth
eodk j? L Part E–Hindi Language Proficiency Test
(A) jtB eoBk 61. fnsd~ + xt = fnXxt
(B) pj[s T[vhe eoBk blesa dkSu lh laf/k gS \
(C) n~r ftu xh gkT[Dk (A) Loj laf/k
(D) PokX eoBk (B) O;atu laf/k
(C) xq.k laf/k
(D) nh?kZ Loj laf/k

B.Ed./209101 6
62. nksigj 69. dkSu&lk 'kCn 'kq) gS \
bl 'kCn esa dkSu lk lekl gS \ (A) mTtoy
(A) f}xq (B) mTToy
(B) }U} (C) mtToy
(C) deZ/kkj; (D) mTOoy
70. ^/oal* dk foijhRkkFkZd gS %
(D) vO;;hHkko
(A) fo/oal
63. ^bPNk* dk i;kZ;okph dkSu lk 'kCn gS \
(B) mRFkku
(A) vis{kk
(C) fuekZ.k
(B) vkxzg (D) mUufr
(C) vuqxzg 71. dkSu lk okD; v'kq) gS \
(D) Li`gk (A) eSa mudks fdrkc nsus x;k Fkk
64. ^mitkÅ* esa dkSu lk izR;; gS \ (B) eq>s dy fnYyh tkuk gS
(A) Å (C) esjs pkpk dk ?kj vackyk esa gS
(B) tkÅ (D) dy gekjs ;gk¡ dhrZu gS
(C) vkÅ 72. ^ilhus ls iSnk gksus okyk* D;k dgykrk gS \
(D) itkÅ (A) Losnd.k
(B) LosntUek
65. ^vR;f/kd* esa dkSu lk milxZ gS \
(C) LosntU;
(A) vR;
(D) Losnt
(B) v
73. ^ckyd jks&jksdj pqi gks x;k* ;g dkSu lk okD; gS \
(C) vr~
(A) lk/kkj.k okD;
(D) vfr
(B) la;qDr okD;
66. ^ftruh <iyh mrus jkx* dgkor dk vFkZ gS % (C) feJ okD;
(A) ftrus vkneh mruh phtsa+
(D) miokD;
(B) fHkUu&fHkUu er gksuk 74. 'kqHk + bPNk = 'kqHksPNk
(C) ,d gh er gksuk ;g dkSu lh laf/k gS \
(D) t+:jr iwjh gksuk (A) O;atu laf/k
67. ^vka[k esa ?kj djuk* eqgkojs dk vFkZ gS % (B) xq.k laf/k
(A) ut+j esa vkuk (C) v;kfn Loj laf/k
(B) cqjk yxuk (D) Loj laf/k
(C) eu esa lekuk 75. ^v/kty xxjh Nydr tk,* dgkor dk vFkZ gS %
(D) ut+nhd vkus dh dksf'k'k djuk (A) v/kwjk Kku
68. ^vuqj{k.k* dk vFkZ gS % (B) de vuqHko okyk O;fDr xyrh djrk gS
(A) fdlh oLrq dk j[k&j[kko djuk (C) v/kwjs Kku okyk O;fDr vf/kd Kku dk izn'kZu
(B) fdlh tho dks ikyuk djrk gS
(C) Hk;Hkhr dh j{kk djuk (D) v/kwjs Kku okyk O;fDr vf/kd xyrh djrk gS
(D) fdlh dks vkJ; nsuk

B.Ed./209101 7 [P.T.O.
PART F – ENGLISH LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY 82. Which Part of Speech is ‘stoned’ in “He was
TEST stoned to death.” ?
76. Choose the word closest in meaning to (A) Noun
OSTENTATIOUS : (B) Adjective
(A) Pretty
(C) Adverb
(B) Modest
(D) Verb
(C) Poor
(D) Showy 83. Which Part of Speech is ‘fast’ in “He ran very
77. Choose the word closest in meaning to fast” ?
DISSOLUTE : (A) Noun
(A) Distant (B) Adjective
(B) Upright (C) Adverb
(C) Honest (D) Conjunction
(D) Immoral
84. Identify the word with the correct spellings :
78. Choose the word opposite in meaning to
(A) Committee
SHALLOW :
(A) High (B) Comitee
(B) Hidden (C) Commitee
(C) Deep (D) Comittee
(D) Hollow 85. Identify the word with the correct spellings :
79. Choose the word opposite in meaning to (A) Hierachy
TRANSPARENT : (B) Hierarchy
(A) Opaque
(C) Hiearchy
(B) Apparent
(D) Hierchy
(C) Dependent
(D) Independent 86. Choose the correct preposition in “He was
80. Choose the word that can be used for ‘A post accused _____ theft.”
without remuneration’ : (A) with
(A) Voluntary (B) for
(B) Sinecure (C) off
(C) Honorary (D) of
(D) Involuntary
87. Choose the correct preposition in “What is the
81. Choose the word that can be used for ‘A
time _____ your watch ?”
disease which spreads by contact’ :
(A) by
(A) Infectious
(B) in
(B) Contagious
(C) on
(C) Contiguous
(D) at
(D) Contracted

B.Ed./209101 8
88. Fill in the blank with the correct word in “He
wants to ___ his nails.”
(A) Pare
(B) Peer
(C) Pear
(D) Pair
89. Fill in the blank with the correct word in “He is
too ____ to be deceived easily.”
(A) strong
(B) intelligent
(C) kind
(D) modern
90. Identify the correct sentence :
(A) He said that he will go to Delhi
(B) He told that he will go to Delhi
(C) He said that he would go to Delhi
(D) He told that he would go to Delhi

B.Ed./209101 9 [P.T.O.
 ROUGH WORK

B.Ed./209101 10
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