BATANGAS STATE UNIVERSITY

College of Engineering, Architecture, Fine Arts &

Computing Sciences
Gov. Pablo Borbon Campus II, Alangilan, Batangas City, Philippines 4200
www.batstate-u.edu.ph Telefax: (043) 300-4404 locs. 106-118

ECE PRACTICE WITH COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

NOTE: Whenever you come across a caret (^) sign, it means exponentiation.
Ex. x^2 means x2; (x+y)^(x-z) means
(x+y) raised to the (x-z). Pi=3.1416

MULTIPLE CHOICE SET A

1. Given a bandwidth of 6000 Hz for an ASK signal, what is the baud rate?
A. 3000 Hz C. 12000 Hz
B. 2000 Hz D. 6000 Hz *

2. The most commonly used digital modulation scheme.

A. PCUM C. PDM
B. PPM D. PCM *

3. Codes that have a restriction on the number of consecutive 1s or 0s in a

sequence.
A. Fixed weight code C. systematic code
B. Liner Block codes D. Run length limited code*

4. It is simple means of error detection. It involves the addition of one extra

bit to the bits that encode a character.
A. Parity* C. Hamming code
B. Checksum D. Cyclic redundancy check

5. The most common circuit used for demodulating binary FSK signals.
A. squarer C. bandpass filter
B. PLL* D. frequency divider

6. Is the lowest Open System Interconnection hierarchy and is responsible for the
actual propagation of unstructured data bits (1s and 0s) through a
transmission medium.
A. Physical Layer* C. Network Layer
B. Data Link Layer D. Transport Layer

7. Find the binary equivalent 0f x^8+x^3+x+1.

A. 100001011* C. 010000101
B. 011110100 D. 110000101

8. Speed at which symbols are transmitted in a digital communication systems.

A. Bit rate C. Data rate
B. Baud rate * D. Flow rate
9. Any transmission system which conveys more than one signal simultaneously can
experience this type of interference due to the reception of portions of a
signal from one channel in another channel.
A. Distortion C. Crosstalk*
B. Noise D. Echo

10. Find the maximum dynamic range for linear PCM system using 8-bit quantizing
A. 2.01 dB C. 49.92 dB*
B. 20.1 dB D. 4.992 dB

11. The first geostationary satellite launched in 1965 was called

A. ANIK C. WESTAR
B. EARLY BIRD (Intelsat-I)* D. MOLNIYA

12. A transponder is a satellite equipment which

A. receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies
B. changes the frequency of the received signal
C. retransmits the received signal
D. does all of the above-mentioned functions*

13. A geosynchronous satellite

A. has the same period a that of the Earth
B. has a circular orbit
C. rotates in the equatorial plane
D. has all of the above*

14. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or
A. the number of its feed horns must be increased
B. the frequency of its transmission must be increased*
C. its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) must be increased
D. its footprint must be increased

15. Radio broadcasting is a familiar example of

A. space multiplexing
B. time multiplexing
C. frequency multiplexing*
D. none of the above

16. At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is

A. EHF C. UHF
B. VHF D. SHF*

17. Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the

A. moon C. earth
B. sun D. all of the above*

18. Which one of the following statement is correct?

A. Satellite spacing is not affected by the bandwidth of the transmitting
earth station
B. Beamwidth is independent of antenna size and frequency band used
C. The width of a beam in space is inversely proportional to the width of
the transmitting antenna*
D. Use of high-frequency bands permits less number of satellites to share
the orbit

19. A geostationary satellite is one which

A. hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth
B. travels around the Earth in 24 hours
C. remains stationary above the Earth
D. appears stationary to everybody on Earth*
20. A communication satellite is a repeater between
A. a transmitting station and a receiving station
B. a transmitting station and many receiving station
C. many transmitting station and many receiving station*
D. none

21. In satellite communication, frequency modulation is used because satellite

channel has
A. small bandwidth and negligible noise
B. large bandwidth and severe noise*
C. maximum bandwidth and minimum noise
D. high modulation index

22. Which of the following types of noise assumes greater importance at high
frequencies?
A. Transit time noise*
B. Shot noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Random noise

23. If each short element of signal occupies 20 ms, the speed is

A. 20 bauds C. 1/50 bauds
B. 50 bauds* D. 0.05 bauds

24. It is found that in a telephone system 60 subscribers initiate calls during

a 30 minute interval and the total duration of all the calls is 100 minutes.
The load is
A. 2 C. 3.333 erlang*
B. 3 erlang D. 0.333 erlang

25. E and H fields are perpendicular to each other.

A. True * B. False

26. Consider the following:

1. A TV receiver antenna should pick up the TV signal and develop maximum
voltage from the available strength of signal
2. It should reject unwanted signals
3. It should not suffer from co-channel interference
4. It should have a very narrowband

The correct statements are

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only*
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 2, 3 only

27. If transmission bandwidth is doubled in FM, SNR is

A. doubled C. decreased four times*
B. raised four times D. halved

28. Directivity means

A. maximum directive gain* C. minimum directive gain
B. zero directive gain D. none of the above

29. If the oscillator output is modulated by audio frequencies upto 10 kHz, the
frequency range occupied by the side bands will be
A. 711.9 kHz to 712.1 kHz C. 692 kHz to 732 kHz
B. 702 kHz to 722 kHz* D. 71.2 kHz to 71.20 kHz
30. In a AM wave the carrier and one of the side bands is suppressed. If m =
0.5, the percentage saving in power is
A. 50% C. 83.3%
B. 94.4%* D. 100%

31. Computer communication networks have

A. star configuration
B. tree configuration
C. loop/mesh configuration
D. All of the above*

32. Assertion (A): A balun is an RF impedance matching transformer.

Reason (R): Sometimes a booster amplifier is used with a TV set.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A*
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D. A is wrong but R is correct

33. In an FM system, when the AF is 500 Hz and the AF voltage is 2.4 V, the
deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the AF voltage is now increased to 7.2 V, the new
deviation will be
A. 4.8 kHz C. 14.4 kHz*
B. 9.6 kHz D. 28.8 kHz

34. The maximum range of a transmitter depends on

A. its frequency
B. its power
C. both its frequency and power *
D. none of the above

35. Consider the following statements about Yagi Uda antenna

1) It is unidirectional
2) Its gain is about 7 dB
3) It is used at VLF
4) The optimum separation is 0.11
Which of the above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, 4 only*
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 1 and 4 only

36. In a two stage cascade amplifier, each stage has a gain of 10 dB and noise
figure of 10 dB. The overall noise factor is
A. 10 C. 1.09
B. 1 D. 10.9*

37. Three analog signals, having bandwidths 1200 Hz, 600 Hz, 600 Hz are sampled
at their Nyquist rates, encoded with 12 bit words, and time division
multiplexed. The bit rate for the multiplexed signal is
A. 115.2 kbps C. 57.6 kbps*
B. 28.8 kbps D. 38.4 kbps

38. A fascimile reproduction has a specification of 200 lines per frame,

progressive scanning and 5 frames per second. The time to scan one line is
A. 5 ms C. 1 ms*
B. 2.5 ms D. 0.1 ms

39. In the absence of noise, if C is channel capacity in bits/s, δf is channel

bandwidth in Hz and N is number of coding levels. Then
A. C = log2 N
B. C = (δf) log2 N
 C. C = 2 (δf) log2 N*
D. C = 0.5 (δf) log2 N

40. A 10 km long line has a characteristic impedance of 400 ohms. If line length
is 100 km, the characteristic impedance is
A. 4000 Ω
B. 400 Ω*
C. 40 Ω
D. 4 Ω

41. The trapezoidal pattern of figure is obtained when examining an AM wave by

an oscilloscope. Modulation factor of the wave is

A. 0.33 C. 0.5*
B. 2 D. 1

42. To ensure good transient response in audio systems the natural frequencies
should be
A. above 40 Hz and below 15 kHz
B. above 40 Hz
C. above 15 kHz*
D. below 40 Hz and above 15 kHz

43. If k is dielectric constant of a medium, the velocity factor in that medium

is
A. 3

B. *
C. (k)^1/3

D.

44. An FM signal with deviation δ is passed through mixer. Its frequency is

reduced five fold. The deviation in output of mixer is
A. 0.28
B. δ*
C. 5 δ
D. very very high

45. Sound waves are electromagnetic waves.

A. True B. False*

46. The bandwidth of DSB suppressed carrier modulation system when the
modulating frequency varies between 500 Hz and 5 kHz is

A. 555 kHz
B. 505 kHz
C. 500 kHz
D. 9 kHz*

47. In ionosphere incidence angle is 60°. The maximum usable frequency fm is

equal to
A. 2fc *
B. fc
C. 0.5 fc
D.

48. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on

A. temperature
B. skin effect
 C. relative permittivity of dielectric*
D. none of the above

49. A loss less line of characteristic impedance Z0 is terminated in pure

reactance of -jZ0 value. VSWR is
A. 10 C. 2
B. 1 D. infinity*

50. The reflection coefficient on a line is 0.2 ∠45°. The SWR is

A. 0.8 C. 1.1
B. 1.2 D. 1.5*

51. In the given figure reflection coefficient at load is

A. 0.6
B. - 0.6*
C. 0.4
D. - 0.4

52. Which of the following lines is non-radiating?

A. Open two wire
B. Coaxial*
C. Both
D. None of the above

53. Skin effect is more pronounced at high frequencies.

A. True* B. False

54. Which of the following parameters is negligible in transmission lines?

A. R C. L
B. C D. G*

55. The width of a radio beam from a 1 m diameter parabolic antenna at 10 GHz is
about
A. 100° C. 50°
B. 5°* D. 1°

56. A line has Z0 = 300 ∠ 0° Ω. If ZL = 150 ∠ 0° Ω, reflection coefficient is

A. 0.5 C. 0.3333
B. -0.3333* D. -0.5

57. For a 50 Ω resistor for 3 GHz application, the stray capacitance should be
less than
A. 1 μF
B. 1 nF
C. 1 pF
D. 0.1 pF*

58. The fabrication of microstrip line is done by

A. photo etching
B. printed circuit technique*
C. oxidation
D. cladding

59. A 10 km long line has a characteristic impedance of 400 ohms. If line length
is 100 km, the characteristic impedance is
A. 4000 Ω
B. 400 Ω*
C. 40 Ω
 D. 4 Ω

60. A waveguide section in a microwave circuit acts as

A. LP filter
B. Bandpass filter
C. HP filter*
D. Band stop filter

61. If a line having Z0 = 300 ∠ 0 W is open circuited at far end, VSWR is

A. 0 C. 1
B. ∞* D. 2

62. What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11a standard?

A. 2.4Gbps C. 5Gbps
B. 2.4GHz D. 5GHz*

63. What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard?

A. 2.4Gbps C. 5Gbps
B. 2.4GHz* D. 5GHz

64. What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11g standard?
A. 6Mbps C. 11Mbps
B. 22Mbps D. 54Mbps*

65. What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11a standard?
A. 6Mbps C. 11Mbps
B. 22Mbps D. 54Mbps*

66. How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11b?

A. 3* C. 12
B. 23 D. 40

67. In Cisco's Unified Wireless Solution, what is the split-MAC architecture?

A. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses to create a forward/filter

table and break up collision domains.
B. The split-MAC architecture allows the splitting of 802.11 protocol
packets between the AP and the controller to allow processing by both
devices.*
C. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses on the wireless network
and IP addresses on the wired network.
D. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses to create a forward/filter
table and break up broadcast domains.

68. How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11a?

A. 3 B. 12*
C. 23 D. 40

69. What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11b standard?
A. 6Mbps C. 11Mbps*
B. 22Mbps D. 54Mbps

70. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which
of the following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the
router?

1) 172.16.1.100
2) 172.16.1.198
3) 172.16.2.255
4) 172.16.3.0
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only *
D. None of the above

71. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?

1) The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
2) The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
3) The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
 4) The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4*
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4

72. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their

Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the
hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the
hosts?

1) A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through

cable.
2) A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through
cable.
3) The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
4) A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
5) The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 5 only
D. 1 and 5 only*

73. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on
a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A. 14 C. 15
C. 16 D. 30*

74. You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16
hosts. Which classful subnet mask would you use?
A. 255.255.255.192 C. 255.255.255.224*
B. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248

75. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of

172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet address of this host?
A. 172.16.112.0* C. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.96.0 D. 172.16.255.0

76. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29.

Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN
attached to the router interface?
A. 6 * C. 8
C. 30 D. 32

77. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of

172.16.66.0/21?
A. 172.16.36.0 C. 172.16.48.0
B. 172.16.64.0* D. 172.16.0.0

78. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29.

What is the broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN?
A. 192.168.192.15* B. 192.168.192.31
C. 192.168.192.63 D. 192.168.192.127

79. To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping?
A. 127.0.0.0 C. 1.0.0.127
B. 127.0.0.1* D. 127.0.0.255
80. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address
200.10.5.68/28?
A. 200.10.5.56 C. 200.10.5.32
B. 200.10.5.64* D. 200.10.5.0

81. 24 telephone channels, each band limited to 3.4 kHz are to be time division
multiplexed using PCM. If sampling frequency is 10 kHz and number of
quantization levels is 128, the required bandwidth of PCM is
A. 1.68 MHz*
B. 240 kHz
C. 81.6 kHz
D. 3.072 MHz

82. Resonant circuits are used in

A. audio amplifiers
B. RF amplifiers*
C. both audio and RF amplifiers
D. none of the above

83. The bandwidth of DSB suppressed carrier modulation system when the
modulating frequency varies between 500 Hz and 5 kHz is
A. 555 kHz
B. 505 kHz
C. 500 kHz
D. 9 kHz*

84. In the equivalent circuit of a moving coil cone type loudspeaker, the mass
of the moving system is represented by
A. a resistance
B. a capacitance
C. an inductance*
D. a conductance

85. CATV stands for

A. Common Antenna Television
B. Community Antenna Television*
C. Cable Antenna Television
D. Channel Antenna Television

86. A 400 W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75 percent. The total power in

modulated wave will be
A. 38.5 W
B. 400 W
C. 512.5 W*
D. 615.5 W

87. A geostationary satellite

A. is located at a height of 358, 00 km
B. appears stationary over earth's magnetic pole
C. is motionless in space but keeps spinning
D. orbits the earth within a 24 hour period*

88. For a bit rate of 8 kbps, the best possible values of the transmitted
frequencies in a coherent binary FSK system are
A. 16 kHz and 20 kHz
B. 20 kHz and 32 kHz
C. 20 kHz and 40 kHz
D. 32 kHz and 40 kHz*

89. A 1000 kHz carrier is simultaneously modulated with 300 Hz, 800 Hz and 2 kHz
audio sine waves. Which of the following frequency is least likely to be
present in the output?
A. 1002 kHz
B. 1000 kHz*
C. 999.2 kHz
D. 998.0 kHz

90. Some advantages of optical fibre cables are

 1 small diameter
2 Immunity to cross talk and EM interference
3 Laser and LED modulation methods lend themselves ideally to digital
operation
Which of the above are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2, 3*
D. 2, 3

91. If N bits are lumped together to get an N-bit symbol, the possible number of
symbols is
A. 2N*
B. 2N - 1
C. 2N - 2
D. 2N - 4

92. For an ideal 3000 Hz channel, Nyquist rate is

A. 3000 bps
B. 6000 bps*
C. 9000 bps
D. 12000 bps

93. FSK is a system involving

A. pulse modulation
B. frequency modulation*
C. amplitude modulation
D. phase modulation

94. In case of probability of the message is 1 to 16 then the information will

be
A. 16 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 4 bits*
D. 2 bits

95. When modulation index of an AM wave is increased from 0.5 to 1, the

transmitted power
A. remains the same
B. increases by 25%
C. increases by 33.3%*
D. increases by 50%

96. Quantizing error occurs in

A. TDM B. FDM
C. PCM* D. PWD

97. The most commonly used transistor amplifier circuit is

A. CB
B. CC
C. CE*
D. CE or CC

98. AM amplifier having noise figure of 20 dB and available power gain of 15 dB

is followed by a mixer circuit having noise figure of 9 dB. The overall noise
figure as referred to input in dB is
A. 10.44 * C. 11.07
B. 21.52 D. 0.63

99. The efficiency of using a binary system for selection of 1 out of 13 equally
probable events is
A. 100%
B. about 92%*
C. about 83%
D. about 71%

100. PAM stands for

A. Phase Angle Modulation
B. Phase Amplitude Modulation
C. Pulse Amplitude Modulation*
D. Pulse Angle Modulation