A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

1. The cosine of a 60o angle is

A. 1/3
B. 1/2√3
C. 1/2
D. 1/3√3

2. Which statement is true about isothermal process?

A. no change in heat
B. no change in work
C. no change in temperature
D. no change in volume

3. On an axial flow, dual compressor forward fan engine, the fan turns the same speed as the
A. high pressure compressor
B. low pressure turbine
C. forward turbine wheel
D. B and C are true

4. A bypass engine LP compressor

A. supplies less air than is required for combustion
B. supplies more air than is required for combustion
C. supplies only the required quantity of combustion
D. does not supply air for combustion

5. A turbo jet engine gives

A. small acceleration to a large mass of air
B. large acceleration to a small mass of air
C. large acceleration to a large weight of air
D. small acceleration to a small weight of air

6. A jet engine derives its thrust by

A. drawing air into the compressor
B. impingement of the propelling gases on the outside air
C. reaction of the propelling gases
D. suctioning air from the compressor

7. In a reverse flow system the last stage of an axial flow compressor is often centrifugal, this is
to
A. provide initial turning of the airflow
B. prevent compressor surge
C. increase the temperature rise
D. A and C are true.

8. In a free turbine
A. there is a clutch between compressor and power output shaft
B. there is no mechanical connection with the compressor
C. there is a direct drive with a free-wheel unit
D. A and B are true

9. If an electrical de-icing system is operating, thrust will

A. decrease
B. increase
C. remain constant.
D. decrease or increase depend on the icing formation
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

10. A method of comparing engine efficiencies is by comparing

A. thrust to weight ratio
B. fuel consumption
C. specific fuel consumption
D. fuel consumption to weight ratio

11. "Ram effect" due to aircraft forward speed will cause the efficiency of the engine to
A. remain constant
B. increase
C. decrease
D. A, B, and C are false

12. The efficiency of a gas turbine engine at altitude

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. A, B, and C are false

13. Two basic types of turbine blades are

A. tangential and reaction
B. reaction and impulse
C. impulse and vector
D. tangensial and impulse

14. How is the turbine shaft usually joined to the compressor rotor of a centrifugal
compressor turbine engine :
A. Bolted coupling.
B. Keyed coupling.
C. Splinted coupling.
D. A, B, and C are wrong.

15. Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during turbine engine operation :
A. Compressor inlet air temperature.
B. Compressor RPM.
C. Turbine inlet temperature.
D. A, B, and C are wrong.

16. Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest advantages for both starting flexibility
and improved high altitude performance
A. Dual stage, centrifugal flow.
B. Split spool, axial flow.
C. Single spool, axial flow.
D. A, B, and C are wrong.

17. Allowable damage on the first stage compressor blade is restricted to

A. root end of the blade
B. middle third of the blade to the outer edge
C. outer third of the blade to the outer edge
D. inner third of the blade to the middle third
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

18. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is performed primarily in order to :

A. Prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent engine bearing wear or damage.
B. Facilitate flight line inspection on the inlet and compressor areas for defect or
FOD.
C. Prevent engine performance degradation, increased fuel costs, and damage
or corrosion to gas path surfaces.
D. A, B, and C are wrong.

19. What should be done if a turbine engine catches fire during starting?
A. Turn off fuel and continue cranking.
B. Disengage starter and discharge a fire extinguisher.
C. Continue starting attempt to blow out fire.
D. A, B, and C are wrong.

20. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of compressor airflow during low
thrust engine operation?
A. Stator vanes and rotor vanes.
B. Variable guide vanes and / or compressor bleed valves.
C. Pressurization and dump valves.
D. A, B and C are correct answer

21. The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the :

A. Burner cans.
B. Turbine inlet guide vanes.
C. Turbine blades.
D. A, B and C are correct answer

22. Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine engine oil?

A. High pour point.
B. Low flash point.
C. High flash point.
D. High volatility.

23. Dirty compressor blades in a turbine engine could result in

A. Low RPM.
B. Low EGT.
C. High RPM.
D. High EGT.

24. Cracks may occur in hot section components of a turbine engine if they are marked during
inspection with :
A. Lead pencil.
B. Chalk.
C. Layout dye.
D. Any of the above.

25. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will usually cause :
A. Bowing.
B. Cracking.
C. Burning.
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

D. Galling.

26. What test instrument could be used to test a high-tension ignition harness for suspected
leakage?
A. A micro-ammeter.
B. A D.C voltmeter.
C. An A.C voltmeter.
D. A D.C ammeter.

27. In the oil system, where is the temperature bulb normally located?
A. At the oil supply tank inlet.
B. In the scavenger pump inlet.
C. At the Y drain in all engines.
D. In the pressure oil screen housing.

28. A fuel / air mixture ratio of 11 : 1 is :

A. One part fuel to 11 parts air.
B. Too rich to burn.
C. One part air to 11 parts fuel.
D. A lean mixture.

29. When installing electrical wiring parallel with fuel line, the wiring should be….
A. In a metal conduit.
B. In a vinyl sleeve.
C. Above the fuel line.
D. Below the fuel line.

30. The engine's lubricating oil aids in reducing friction, cushioning shock, and in :
A. Cooling the engine.
B. Preventing fatigue of engine parts.
C. Heating fuel in carburetor to prevent ice.
D. Preventing a buildup of internal pressures in the crankcase.

31. Fuel-flow transmitters are designed to transmit data :

A. Mechanically.
B. Electrically.
C. Visually.
D. Fluidly.

32. Propellers exposed to salt spray should be cleaned with :

A. A caustic solution.
B. Steel wool.
C. Fresh water.
D. Soapy water.

33. Major repairs to aluminum alloy propellers and blades may be done by :
A. A power plant mechanic working for certificate A & P mechanic.
B. Any propeller manufacturer.
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

C. An appropriately rated repair station or the manufacturer.

D. A repairman, regardless of where he/she works.

34. What is function of the automatic propeller synchronizing system on

multiengine aircraft?
A. To increase vibration and reduce noise.
B. To control the tip speed of all propellers.
C. To control engine RPM and reduce vibration.
D. To control the power output of all engines.

35. To what condition does the fuel flow respond during aircraft acceleration
A. the change in pressure at the compressor intake
B. the effect of ‘ram-air’ at altitude
C. mass airflow rate through the engine
D. change in airflow at the compressor intake

36. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines?
A. Electromechanical.
B. Mechanical.
C. Hydro mechanical or Electronic.
D. Electronic.

37. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are :

A. Single stage and two stage.
B. Single entry and double entry.
C. Rotor and stator.
D. Impeller and diffuser.

38. Repairs of aluminum alloy adjustable pitch propellers are not permitted to be made on which
of the following propeller blade areas?
A. Shank.
B. Leading edge.
C. Tip.
D. Trailing edge.

39. Engine anti-ice is taken from the

A. HP compressor
B. LP compressor
C. Turbine
D. A and B are true

40. Foreign object damage on compressor, when boroscoping is indicated by

A. tip curl
B. nicks and scores
C. flats
D. can not be detected by boroscoping

41. The symbol for designating the speed of a LP compressor in a twin spool engine is
a. NG
b. N
c. N1
d. N2
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

42. Variable inlet guide vanes prevent

A. compressor runaway
B. compressor stalling
C. engine flame out at high speed
D. engine flame out at cruise speed

43. Which of the following is the least likely indication of a main bearing failure?
A. High oil temperature
B. High oil consumption
C. High oil pressure
D. Low oil pressure

44. An axial flow compressor surges when

A. all stages are stalled
B. early stages are stalled
C. later stages are stalled
D. A and C are true

45. As a consequence of tapping air from the compressor, the TGT will
A. rise
B. remain constant
C. fall
D. not be effected

46. Compressor air bleeds promote the flow of air through the early stages by
A. opening to allow air in
B. opening to allow air out
C. closing
D. closing to reduce air flow

47. How can a steel propeller hub be tested for crack?

A. By anodizing.
B. By magnaflux
C. By electro testing.
D. By etching.

48. An igniter plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a
A. surface discharge plug
B. sparking plug
C. ‘glow’ plug
D. A and C are true.

49. The type of ignition system used on most jet aircraft engine is :
A. High resistance.
B. Magneto.
C. Low tension.
D. Capacitor discharge.

50. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine
operation :
A. Compressor inlet air temperature.
B. Turbine inlet temperature.
C. Burner-can pressure.
D. Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

51. The chip detector in the oil system is a

A. magnetic plug in the return line
B. window in the oil pump
C. window in the pump casing
D. magnetic plug in the pump casing

52. Nozzle guide vanes give

A. pressure increase, velocity decrease
B. pressure decrease, velocity increase
C. pressure increase, velocity increase
D. pressure decrease, velocity decrease

53. After shutdown, flames are present in the exhaust pipe. The probable cause is
A. a defective fuel control unit (FCU)
B. a defective HP cock
C. a defective pressurizing and dump valve
D. a defective fuel control unit

54. The BPC controls the FCU by

A. pressure sensing
B. temperature sensing
C. density sensing
D. humidity sensing

55. If the LP cock is used to shutdown an engine

A. the fuel pump will run dry
B. the FCU will continue to function
C. flames will appear in the exhaust
D. A and B are true

56. Compressor surge is caused by

A. over fuelling
B. rapid closing of the throttle
C. prolonged engine running at high RPM
D. A and B are true

57. Shrouding of stator blade tips is to

A. prevent tip turbulence
B. ensure adequate cooling
C. minimize vibration
D. prevent vibration

58. The RPM for maximum power would be

A. lower on a colder day
B. lower on a hotter day
C. greater on a colder day
D. greater on a hotter day

59. The spark in the HE igniter is supplied by

A. a capacitor
B. the AC bus bar
C. a contact circuit breaker
D. battery
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

60. To prevent the combustion chamber from damage :

A. Maintain the temperature not too high.
B. Supply the primary air to cooling.
C. Supply the secondary air for cooling and air cushion.
D. Close the material that easy to expand.

61. If the whole expansion occurs in the stator, this type of turbine is :
A. Reaction turbine.
B. Action turbine.
C. Impulse turbine.
D. Impossible to produce power.

62. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine?
A. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
B. A rise in oil pressure.
C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
D. A, B and C are correct answer

63. A condition known as hot streaking in turbine engines is caused by :

A. A partially clogged fuel nozzle.
B. A misaligned combustion liner.
C. Excessive fuel flow.
D. A, B and C are correct answer

64. The process happens at gas turbine engine is suitable as :

A. Otto circulation.
B. Pressure circle.
C. Volume circles.
D. Brayton circles.

65. When the airplane flies and it’s altitude is low, thrust will raise because :
A. The air speed intake.
B. The air speed exhaust.
C. The gravity raises.
D. Air mass raises.

66. At this following types of engines, repairing can be carried out with removing every camber :
A. Multiple can type.
B. Annular type.
C. Can annular type.
D. Can type.

67. What is the proper starting sequence for turbojet engine?

A. Ignition, starter, fuel.
B. Fuel, starter, ignition.
C. Starter, ignition, fuel.
D. Starter, fuel, ignition.

68. Type of attachment between compressor and turbine rotor by means of :

A. Shaft with curvy coupling.
B. Shaft with flexor coupling.
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

C. Splice sleeve.
D. Dog clutch.

69. APU shut down is initiated by

A. low oil pressure, fire warning
B. low oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature
C. high oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature
D. high oil pressure, fire warning

70. Self sustaining ( during start ) is :

A. Pre-rotating speed before start.
B. Engine speed condition, in which the starter is not needed.
C. Minimum speed required to light on the engine after shut down.
D. Speed without ignition load.

71. Overheating at turbine section, it will effect :

A. Rupture of the turbine blade.
B. Necking at turbine blade.
C. Turbine blades are bent.
D. A, B and C are correct answer

72. " Reference Station " of gas turbine engine determined by :

A. Location of main parts.
B. To know the reference points of gas flow.
C. To identify the components.
D. To know the measurement parameter.

73. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine?

A. At the outlet of tailpipe section.
B. At the entrance of the turbine section.
C. In the entrance of the burner section.
D. At the exhaust duct

74. Skidding of bearing means :

A. Abnormal play.
B. Sliding of bearing race.
C. The ball is rapture.
D. Deflect in lubrication system.

75. Jet engine performance determined by :

A. Engine speed, altitude and thrust.
B. Engine speed, altitude and fuel flow.
C. Thrust, fuel flow, air flow and exhaust gas temperature.
D. A, B, and C are wrong.

76. The function of booster pump in fuel system :

A. In order that fuel can flow.
B. In order that thrust target is reached.
C. To give positive feeding to the engine pump.
D. To protect icing to filter.
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

77. Modern jet transport aircraft, the pneumatic source is taken from :
A. Intermediate and high stage engine turbine bleeds.
B. Intermediate and high stage engine compressor bleeds.
C. Engine compressor.
D. No answer correct.

78. The vent line connecting the oil supply tank and the engine in some dry sump engine
installations permits :
A. Pressurization of the oil supply to prevent cavitations of the oil supply
pump.
B. Oil vapors from the engine to be condensed and drained into the oil supply tank.
C. The oil tank to be vented through the normal engine vent.
D. The engine and oil supply tank to be vented to each other, thrust avoiding the use
of an atmospheric vent.

79. Which answer from the following statement includes type C fire?
A. Electric lighting.
B. Burning oil.
C. Burning gasoline.
D. Burning fabric or wood.

80. What type of sensor is generally used for detecting fire in the engine?
A. Continuous loop sensor.
B. Thermal switch sensor.
C. Thermocouple sensor.
D. Pressure switch sensor.

81. How does high tension ignition shielding tend to reduce radio interference?
A. Prevents ignition flashover at high altitudes.
B. Pr ot ec t s t he i gni t i on l ea ds aga i nst the e nt r a nc e of m oi s t ur e and
subsequent electrical leakage.
C. Reduces voltage drop in the transmission of high tension current.
D. Receives and ground high frequency waves coming from the magneto and high
tension ignition leads.

82. Which of the following is a primary engine instrument?

A. Tachometer.
B. Torque meter.
C. Fuel flow meter.
D. Airspeed indicator.

83. Intake air turbulence

A. has little effect on the efficiency of the compressor
B. increases the efficiency of the compressor
C. decreases the efficiency of the compressor
D. has no effect on the efficiency of the compressor

84. What happens when bulb type thermometer resistive element goes open circuit?
A. Reads less than ambient
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

B. Reads more than ambient

C. No reading given
D. A, B, and C are false

85. A fixed throttle with increased mass airflow

A. EPR goes up
B. EPR goes down
C. EPR remains constant
D. does not effect EPR

86. Fuel heater prevents

A. HP filter icing
B. LP filter icing
C. Fuel icing in HP compressor
D. Neither

87. When a volume of air is compressed

A. no heat is lost or gained
B. heat is lost
C. heat is gained
D. A, B, and C are false

88. On a FADEC engine the EEC

A. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes
B. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control in some modes
C. has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control system
D. has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes

89. Fire extinguishers work by

A. combining with remaining oxygen to get rid of it
B. creating more oxygen
C. reducing oxygen
D. A and C are true

90. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of the turbine engine is to
A. Collect the exhaust gas and act as a noise suppressor.
B. Pipe the exhaust gas away from the aircraft.
C. Swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single exhaust jet.
D. Straighten and collect the exhaust gasses into a solid exhaust jet.

91. If an airworthy aircraft is sold to the foreign operator, what is the status of the Certificate of
Airworthiness?
A. It is transferred with the aircraft.
B. A license holder to indicate that the aircraft is still airworthy must endorse it.
C. The aircraft must be re-inspected and returned to service.
D. It is declared void and the DGCA will issue an airworthiness certificate for export
upon application by the owner

92. Airworthiness Certificate or Certificate of Airworthiness :

A. Is an approval to fly /operate an individual aircraft in the Republic of Indonesia?
B. Each Civil Aircraft Must Have an Airworthiness Certificate Before Flight.
C. Standard C of A means that the aircraft conforms to an approved type design and is
in condition for safe operation.
D. All of the above statements are true
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

93. Who issues Service Bulletin?

A. Manufacturer.
B. Air Transport Association.
C. National Transportation Safety Board.
D. Directorate General of Civil Aviation.

94. Each certificate holder (or person performing maintenance or preventive maintenance
function for it) shall relief each person performing maintenance, or preventive maintenance,
from duty for a period of at least:
A. 24 consecutive hours during one mount.
B. 24 consecutive hours during any 30 consecutive days.
C. 24 consecutive hours during any seven consecutive days.
D. None of the above is correct.

95. Who is primarily responsible for the performance of the maintenance, preventive
maintenance, and alteration of its aircraft, including airframe, aircraft engines, propellers,
appliances, and part thereof for air carrier:
A. AMO certificate holder.
B. Air Operator Certificate holder.
C. DGAC.
D. Manufacturer.

96. In accordance with CASR part 121, AOC holder shall have an inspection program and a
program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration contained in:
A. Airworthiness Approved Inspection Program
B. The manufacturing instruction manual
C. Aircraft maintenance manual
D. Continues Airworthiness Maintenance Program

97. In accordance with CASR part 135, AOC holder shall have an inspection program and a
program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration contained in:
A. Airworthiness Approved Inspection Program
B. The manufacturing instruction manual
C. Aircraft maintenance manual
D. Continues Airworthiness Maintenance Program

98. What kinds type Domestic Air Operator Certificate :

A. AOC 121, and AOC 91
B. AOC 91, and AOC 135
C. AOC 135 and AOC 121
D. AOC 43 and AOC 91

99. In accordance with CASR part 121, 135 and 145, Service Difficulties Report (SDR) should
be submitted to DGAC within:
A. 30 days.
B. 72 hours.
C. 48 hours.
D. Quickly any time.

100. What is a Production Certificate (PC) ?

A. A PC is approval of a quality control system controlling production of an aviation
product.
B. A PC is approval for individual aircraft.
C. A PC is approval for design of an aircraft, engine, or propeller.
 A4 EXAMINATION May 2012

D. A PC allows the applicant to manufacture the product for sale without having a
DGCA manufacturing inspector physically inspect each aircraft or component
produced