Recent Trends in Automobile & Mechanical-1 PDF

Recent Trends in Automobile &
Mechanical Engineering
PANKAJ GADHAVE
IES OFFICER
MINISTRY OF DEFENCE
GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
 UPSC All India Rank 104

 GATE All India Rank 150
 M.Tech (Machine Design
Design),, IIT Kharagpur
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 Selected in ONGC, NTPC, IOCL & BPCL
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INTRODUCTION
1.The
The basic automobile structure consists of the suspension system, axles, wheels and
a) Steering c) Frame
b) Brakes d) Lights
2. Compared to framed construction, the frameless construction of automobiles is

economical:
a) Always c) When produced on large scale
b) When produced in small quantities d) Never
3. Most commonly used power plant on automobiles is
a) I.C. engine c) Battery
b) Gas turbine d) None of these
4. The purpose of gear box in an automobile is to :
a) Vary Speed
b) Vary torque
c) Provide permanent speed reduction
d) To disconnect the road wheels from the engine when desired.
5. The cooling system of automobile engine is most simple when the engine is placed at
the :
a) Front b) Rear on the left c) Centre d) Rear on the rig

6. In case of a four-wheel
wheel driven vehicle :
a) Clutch operating linkage is simplified c) The road adhesion is increased
b) Cooling system is simplified d) The road adhesion is decreased
7. The example of a saloon is :
a) Honda City car c) Leyland bus
b) Tata Truck d) None of these.
8. The example of a Hatchback is :
a) Hyundai 10 c) Volvo S60
b) Ford Fusion d) Volkswagen Vento
THE CHASSIS CONSTRUCTION
9. The number of points at which the engine

engine-clutch-gear
gear box unit is supported on the
chassis frame is :
a) One c) Three
b) Two d) Four
10. Weight of the vehicle produces in the side members of the frame :
a) Vertical bending c) Torsion
b) Horizontal bending d) All of these

11. The frame may get distorted to a parallelogram shape due to :
a) Weight of vehicle c) Cornering force
b) Weight of passengers d) Wheel impact with road obstacle
12. Lateral bending of the frame side members may be caused on account of :
a) Weight of passengers c) Engine torque
b) Side wind d) Braking torque
13. The most effective section against bending is :
a) Rectangular bar c) Round hollow tube
b) Round bar d) Square hollow section.
CLUTCHES
14. A clutch is usually designed

esigned to transmit maximum torque which is :
a) Equal to the maximum engine torque
b) 80 per cent of the maximum engine torque
c) 150 per cent of the maximum engine torque
d) None of the above.
15. The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be :
a) Minimum c) Zero
b) Maximum d) None of the above.

16. The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is approximately
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2
17. The maximum value of axial force at the clutch which a driver can apply while
driving, without getting fatigued is approximately :
a) 10 N b) 100 N c) 500 N d) 5000 N
18. The maximum intensity of pressure which the clutch facing can withstand without
being damaged is about :
a) 10 Pa b) 10 kPa c) 100 kPa d) 1000 kPa
19. The clutch is located between the transmission and the :
a) Engine c) Propeller shaft
b) Rear axle d) Different
20. The parts of the cover assembly that hold the pr

pressure
essure plate against the clutch plate
are the :
a) Release levers c) Struts
b) Thrust bearings d) Springs
21. Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce :
a) Torsional vibrations c) Jerky starts
b) Vehicle speed d) None of the above.

22. The thrust bearing should come into contact with the release levers when the :
a) Vehicle is stationery c) Vehicle is driven very slow
b) Vehicle is running very fast d) Clutch pedal is pressed.
23. In a clutch will coil springs, the wear of the clutch facing will cause the clamping load
to :
a) Increase c) Remain constant
b) Decrease d) Become infinite
24. Clutch facings are usually attached to the plate by :
a) Steel rivets c) Aluminium screws
b) Brass rivets d) Steel screws
25. Free pedal play in car clutches is about :
a) 3 mm b) 30 mm c) 60 mm d) 100 mm.
TRANSMISSION – I
26. The purpose of transmission in an automobile is :
a) To vary the speed of automobile c) To vary the power of automobile
b) To vary the torque at the road wheels d) None of the above.

27. Increase of torque in a vehicle is obtained by :
a) Decreasing speed c) Decreasing petrol consumption
b) Decreasing power d) All of the above.
28. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission are :
a) High strength and low cost
b) High strength and less end thrust
c) Low noise level and high strength
d) Low noise level and economy.
29. By using synchronizing device, the two involved adjascent gears have their speeds :
a) Increased c) Equalized
b) Reduced d) Unequalized
TRANSMISSION – II
30. In a simple planetary gear set, the output member to increase torque is always the :
a) Sun gear c) Planet carrier
b) Ring gear d) None of the above.
31. In a simple epicyclic gear set, the output member to increase torque in reverse is
always the :
a) Ring gear c) Sun gear

b) Planet carrier d) None of the above.
32. The central gear of an epicyclic gear set is called a :
a) Ring gear c) Planet gear
b) Sun gear d) Internal gear
33. The component of the torque converter that allows multiplication of torque is the :
a) Turbine c) Pump
b) Impeller d) Stator
34. The component of the torque converter that drives the oil is the :
a) Turbine c) Freeweel
b) Impeller d) Stator.
35. The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a torque converter is about :
a) 2.5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 100
36. The component of the torque converter that redirects the flow of oil to impeller is :
a) Turbine c) Stator
b) Impeller d) Freewheel
37. In a torque converter maximum torque multiplication occurs at :
a) Stop c) Medium speed
b) Low speed d) High speed

38. The blades in a torque converter have a shape which is :
a) Square c) Flat
b) Round d) Curved.
THE DRIVE LINE
39. Critical whirling speed of a shaft is increased by :
a) Increasing its length c) Decreasing its diameter
b) Decreasing its length d) None of the above.
40. The function of a universal joint is to allow the propeller shaft to :
a) Change length c) Transfer torque at a angle
b) Bend sideways d) Change inclination.
41. Central portion of a propeller shaft is made from a :
a) Steel shaft c) Steel tube
b) Gun metal shaft d) Cast iron rod
42. A two-piece
piece propeller shaft requires :
a) One universal joint c) the Shaft to be solid
b) A centre support bearing d) None of the above.

43. The inner end of the axle shaft is splined to the :
a) Sun gear c) Crown wheel
b) Planet pinion d) Differential cage.
44. The adjustment for backlash in a differential is provided between :
a) Crown wheel and the sun gear c) Crown wheel and the drive pinion
b) Sun gear and the planet gear d) Crown wheel and the planet gear
45. Hypoid gears require special lubricant because :
a) Teeth are made of soft material
b) Teeth are made of hard material
c) Such gears rotate faster
d) Sliding action is there between the teeth.
46. The smaller gears inside the differential casing are :
a) Pinion gears c) Side gears
b) Sun gears d) Ring gears
47. When the rear wheels are jacked up and gears are the neutral, turning one rear
wheel forward in a rear drive vehicle will cause the other wheel to :
a) Turn backward c) Turn in either direction
b) Turn forward d) Remain stationary

48. The type of rear axle used on trucks is :
a) Semi-floating c) Three-quarter
quarter floating
b) Fully-floating d) None of these.
49. Salisbury type rear axle casing is also known as :
a) Banjo type casing c) Separate carrier casing
b) Unitized carrier casing d) None of these.
SUSPENSION SYSTEM
50. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if :
a) Unsprung weight is kept minimum c) Vehicle weight is kept minimum
b) Sprung weight is kept minimum d) All of the above.
51. The function of a stabilizer in an automobile is to decrease the tendency to :
a) Roll b) Pitch c) Yaw d) Dip
52. Panhard rod is used to absorb the :
a) Vertical loading c) Side thrust
b) Driving thrust d) Braking torque.

53. The function of a shackle with a leaf spring is to :
a) Allow pivoting of spring end c) Control sidesway
b) Allow spring length to change d) Control rear torque.
54. Spring eyes in case of cars are usually lined with :
a) Bronze bushes c) Steel bushes
b) Rubber bushes d) Metal bushes.
55. Zinc liners between the leaves of spring are sometimes used to :
a) Improve fatigue life c) Decrease vibrations
b) Provide damping d) Prevent squeaking
56. Another name for a torsion

on bar is
a) Stabilizer bar c) Panhard rod
b) Strut rod d) Radius rod
57. Shock absorber in an automobile is used to :
a) Absorb the energy c) Release the energy
b) Dissipate the energy d) increase the energy
58. Another name

ame for a damper is :
a) Shock absorber c) Spring

b) Torsion bar d) Independent suspension.
59. Modern shock absorbers are :
a) Displacement – sensitive c) Acceleration – sensitive
b) Velocity – Sensitive d) Force- sensitive.
60. The gas used in modern shock absorbers is :
a) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen d) Carbon dioxide
61. The coil spring in wishbone suspension is placed between the :
a) Two wishbones
b) Upper wishbone and the cross – member
c) Lower wishbone and the cross – member
d) Shock absorber and the cross – member.
62. Maximum room in the engine compartment is provided with :
a) Wishbone type suspension c) Rigid axle suspension
b) Mc Pherson strut suspension d) Vertical guide suspension.

ension.

FRONT AXLE AND STEERING :
63. The angle formed by the wheel with the vertical when the top of the wheel slants
outward is called.
a) Positive camber c) Positive castor
b) Negative camber d) Negative castor
64. The angle formed by the line joining the stub axle
axle-steering
steering arm ball joints with the
vertical, when this line slants forward at the top is called :
a) Positive camber c) Positive castor
b) Negative camber d) Negative castor.
65. The included

ed angle is the sum of the :
a) Camber and castor c) Camber and S.A.I.
b) Castor and S.A. I d) Camber and toe-in.
66. The turning circle for a car is approximately :
a) 1 metre c) 10 metres
b) 2 metres d) 30 metres
67. Cornering force divided by slip angle is called :
a) Self-righting torque c) Pneumatic trail
b) Cornering power d) Castor trail

68. The side force sustained by the wheel during cornering divided by the slip angle is
called :
a) Cornering force c) Cornering power
b) Camber force d) None of these
69. Another name for the steering link rod is :
a) Track rod c) Drag link
b) Tie rod d) Pitman
70. Most popular manual steering gear for cars today is :
a) Rack and pinion type c) Cam and Roller type
b) Worm and wheel type d) Worm and nut type.
71. The steering ratio for manual steering of cars is approximately.
a) 5 b) 15 c) 50 d) 100
72. One purpose of a recirculating ball type steering gear is to reduce the :
a) Operating friction c) Toe-out during turns
b) Operating cost d) Number of parts
73. In the recirculating ball type steering gear, the balls travel between the ball nut and
the :
a) Gear rack c) Steering wheel shaft
b) Worm wheel d) Worm shaft

74. The type of steering gear used in a Maruti 800 car is
a) Rack and pinion c) Worm and wheel
b) Worm and roller d) None of these.
75. On cars having rack and pinion steering, the gear rack is attached to :
a) Relay rod c) Cross shaft
b) Pitman axis d) Tie rod.
WHEELS AND TYRES
76. The type of wheel which cannot be used with a tubeless tyre is :
a) Disc wheel c) Light alloy wheel
b) Wire wheel d) Composite wheel
77. The type of wheels preferred in sports cars are
a) Steel disc wheel c) Magnesium alloy wheel
b) Wire wheel d) Aluminium alloy wheel
78. In case of a wire wheel the vehicle weight is supported by the wires in
a) Tension c) Bending
b) Compression d) Shear
79. The term ‘ply rating’ with reference to a tyre refers to the

a) Actual number of plies c) Aspect ratio
b) Recommended inflation pressure d) Rated strength
80. The purpose of tyre sipes is to
a) Increase tread life c) Provide softer ride
b) Decrease noise level d) Increase traction
81. Tread distortion is least on :
a) Radial ply tyres c) Cross ply belted tyres
b) Cross ply tyres d) None of these.
82. The disadvantage of radial

dial ply tyre compared to cross
cross-play tyre is
a) Uncomfortable ride at low speeds c) Higher cornering power
b) Uncomfortable ride at high speeds d) Lower rolling resistance.
83. An underinflated tyre will wear the tread most :
a) Near centre c) In the lateral direction
b) Near the edges d) In the cross direction.
84. An overinflated tyre will wear the treat most near the
a) Edges c) Outside
b) Corners d) Centre

85. Out of round brake drums cause the tyres to wear :
a) On the inside c) In single spots
b) On the outside d) Uniformly all round.
86. ‘Heel’ and toe wear’ in tyres is caused by :
a) Excessive acceleration and braking c) Underinflation
b) Overinflation d) Excessive camber
87. The purpose of tyre rotation on aut

automobiles is to :
a) Avoid ply separation c) Get better ride
b) Equalize wear d) None of the above.
88. The permissible mixing of cross

cross-ply and radial-ply automobile
ile tyres allows :
a) Cross –ply
ply tyres on left wheels c) Cross-play
play tyres on front wheels
b) Cross-ply
ply tyres on right wheels d) Cross-ply
ply tyres on rear wheels.
BRAKES – I
89. The brake efficiency of a new vehicle is about :
a) 30 per cent c) 80 per cent
b) 50 per cent d) 100 per cent
90. Brake fade is :

a) Loss of pedal c) loss of hydraulic fluid
b) Loss of coefficient of friction d) None of these.
91. Fading of brakes occurs :
a) At high speed c) during continuous application
b) At low speed d) When brake lining is worn.
92. Due to weight transfer, the ratio of braking effect at the front and at the rear wheels
should be :
a) 50% at front and 50% at rear c) 40% at front and 60% at rear
b) 60% at front and 40% at rear d) None of the above,.
93. The brakes employed in cars are usually operated :
a) Mechanically c) By means of engine vacuum
b) Hydraulically d) By compressed air
94. Component of the wheel cylinder which seals the brake fluid is :
a) Piston c) Dust cover
b) Spring d) Cup
95. During braking the push rod directly operates :
a) Piston c) Residual pressure valve
b) Primary seal d) Compensating port.

96. In drum type brakes the fluid on releasing, returns to the master cylinder due to the
action of the piston return spring and :
a) By-pass port c) Compensating port
b) Wheel-cylinder
cylinder spring d) Brake shoe retractor spring.
97. Intake port in the master cylinder allows brake fluid to flow :
a) Into the reservoir c) Around the recessed section of piston
b) Through the fluid check valve d) All of the above.
98. If proportioning valve is not working :
a) Front brakes may lock c) Front brakes may drag
b) Rear brakes may lock d) Rear Brakes may drag.
99. Most anti-skid

skid devices are employed on :
a) Rear brakes c) Secondary brakes
b) Front brakes d) Parking brakes.
100. In disc brakes, pad-to-disc

disc adjustment is provided by :
a) Caliper c) Piston seal
b) Piston d) Bleed screw
101. The brake bleeding process removes from system :
a) Air c) Excess fluid

b) Vacuum d) Excess pressure
102. In Maruti car the brakes used are :
a) Disc brakes only c) Disc on front and drum on rear
b) Drum brakes only d) Drum on front and disc on rear.
BRAKES – II
103. Electric brakes are commonly used on
a) Two wheelers c) Trucks
b) Cars d) Trailers
104. On suspended vacuum brakes, there is vacuum on both side of the piston during
a) Brake application c) Part application of brakes
b) Brake release d) All of these.
105. Air brakes are mostly used in case of :
a) Cars c) Trucks
b) Jeeps d) Three-wheelers
106. The hand brake usually operates on :
a) Rear wheels c) Right wheels
b) Front wheels d) Left wheels

107. Brake lining consists mainly of :
a) Asbestos c) Cast iron
b) Copper d) Aluminium
108. Percentage of copper in the present

present-day brake pads is :
a) 0.5 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20
109. The maximum disc runout allowed on the vehicle is generally :
a) 1 mm b) 0.5
5 mm c) 0.1 mm d) 0.01 mm
110. The carbon – ceramic brakes are standard with effect from 2008, on all :
a) Farraris c) Audis
b) Porsches d) BWS
LIGHTING SYSTEM
111. For identification, the colour of tail lights in a car is :
a) White c) Green
b) Red d) Yellow
112. The two quantities used for specifying an electrical wire are :
a) The colour and length c) The diameter and number of strands
b) The length and diameter d) The colour and diameter

113. The type of reflector used for automobile head lamp is :
a) Spherical c) Hyperbolic
b) Parabolic d) None of these.
114. In a head lamp the metal shield is placed below the :
a) Dipper beam c) Both the beams
b) Main beam d) None of these
115. For aiming the headlights, the distance between the headlights and the screen
should be :
a) 1.5 m b) 4.6 m c) 7.6 m d) 10.6 m
116. In modern vehicles, the headlight dimming switch is mounted on the :
a) Steering column c) Flour board
b) Dash board d) Side panel
ACCESSORIES
117. Trafficators are light signals used for :
a) Heavy traffic c) Reversing the car in traffic
b) Light traffic d) Indicating the direction in which turning

118. The frequency of light per minute flashing in a direction indicator is about :
a) 8 b) 80 c) 800 d) None of these
119. The most commonly used car heater is the :
a) Hot air type c) Petrol type
b) Hot water type d) Diesel type
120. The object of air

ir conditioning a car is to control therein the :
a) Temperature and pressure c) Humidity and temperature
b) Pressure and humidity d) None of these.
AUTOMOBILE SHOP EQUIPMENT
121. Best spanner for automobile is the :
a) Open-ended type c) Ring type
b) Combination type d) Socket type
122. For tightening cylinder head bolts we should prefer to use :
a) Open-ended spanner c) Ring spanner
b) Torque wrench d) Adjustable spanner.
123. For speeding up the tightening work we have to use :
a) Long handle c) Braced handle

b) Ratchet handle d) Extension bar.
124. Before drilling a hole, its centre should be marked with a :
a) Punch c) Drill bit
b) Chisel d) None of these.
125. For measuring clearance between two flat surfaces the tool used is the
a) Steel Rule c) Micrometer
b) Caliper d) Feeler gauge
126. The tool employed to measure the shaft run

run-out is the :
a) Feeler gauge c) Micrometer
b) Dial gauge d) Caliper
127. The spray of water from a car washer is at a pressure of about :
a) 3 MPa b) 30 MPa c) 3 kPa d) 30 kPa
128. A chassis dynamometer measures the vehicle power at the :
a) Engine crankshaft c) Wheels
b) Transmission shaft d) None of these.
VEHICLE
ICLE CHASSIS SPECIFICATIONS

129. Car clutch is usually operated :
a) Mechanically c) Pneumatically
b) Hydraulically d) Electrically.
130. The clutch used in cars in usually :
a) Multiple disc type c) Centrifugal type
b) Single disc type d) None of these.
131. Number of forward gear box speeds in Indian cars is usually :
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
132. Permanent speed reduction ratio of final drive of cars is about :
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 12
133. Independent suspension on all four wheels is used in :
a) Alto b)) A.C. Sports car c) i10 d) Morgan plus 8
134. De Dion axle is employed in :
a) Alto K 10 c) Austin Rover Vandan Plas
b) Alfa Romeo Alfetta d) Audi 100
135. Rack
ck and pinion type steering gear is used in :
a) Premier car c) Standard 20 Van

b) Mahindra Jeep d) Maruti Estilo car
136. The first Indian car to use disc brakes was :
a) Maruti 800 c) Ambassador Nova
b) Maruti 1000 d) Tata Sierra
137. Disc brakes on all four wheels is used in :
a) Maruti Estilo c) Chrysler 180
b) Ambassador Nova d) Rolls-Royce Phantom VI
138. Diagonally – split hydraulic brakes are used in :
a) Maruti 800 c) Volkswagen Passat
b) Audit 100 d) All of these.
139. The parking brake in car usually operates on :
a) All wheels c) Rear Wheels
b) Front wheels d) None of these.
140. Parking brake in cars is usually :
a) Mechanical c) Electrical
b) Hydraulic d) Pneumatic.

INTRODUCTION
1. The cross-sectional
sectional are of one cylinder of an engine multiplied by its stroke is called :
a) Clearance volume c) Swept volume
b) Combustion volume d) Engine capacity
2. The unit of brake power is :
a) Kilo Newton c) Kilo Pascal
b) Kilo Watt d) Kilo Newton-meter
3. One bar is equal to ;
a) One kPa c) 100 kPa
b) 10 kPa d) 1000 kPa
4. Maximum combustion pressure in a car petrol engine is about :
a) 6 kPa c) 6 MPa
b) 60 kPa d) 60 MPa
5. Doubling the cylinder diameter of an engine could give power output, which is ‘x’
times the original value, where ‘x’ is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 8

6. The fluctuation of engine speed during a cycle depends upon :
a) Mass of flywheel c) Speed of flywheel
b) Mass of crankshaft d) Power output
7. Can engineers are usually :
a) Single cylinder type c) Four-cylinder in-line

line type
b) Twin-cylinder type d) Four-cylinder V-type
8. In a six-cylinder
cylinder engine, the power impulse occurs after ‘x’ degrees of crankshaft
rotation, where ‘x’ is
a) 90 b) 120 c) 240 d) 360
9. Firing order of a 6-cylinder

cylinder in
in-line engine is usually :
a) 1-5-3-6-2-4 c) 1-4-3-2-6-5
b) 1-6-3-5-2-4 d) 1-3-6-2-4-5
10. A ‘square engine’ is an engine having :
a) Cylinders of square cross

cross-section c) Bore and stroke equal
b) Combustion chambers of square section d) None of these.
11. Compared to a HCCL engine, the fuel injection pressure iin

n case of GDCI engine is
about :
a) Five times c) One fifth
b) Ten times d) One tenth

INTRODUCTION – II
12. Out of the full-mild,

mild, and micro
micro-hybrids,
hybrids, the largest battery is used in case of :
a) Full hybrid c) Micro hybrid
b) Mild hybrid d) Both mild and micro hybrids
13. Out of the full, mild and micro

micro-hybrids,
hybrids, the smallest battery is used in case of :
a) Full hybrid c) Micro hybrid
b) Mild hybrid d) Both full and micro-hybrids

hybrids
14. Which of the following statements in case of fuel cells is correct ?
a) Cell voltage is 1.6 volts
b) Fuel cell cannot accept regenerative braking,
c) Fuel cell cars have high emissions,
d) Fuel cell life is very low.
15. ‘Solar Energi’ is a
a) Pure solar car c) Solar electric plug in hybrid car
b) Solar electric hybrid car d) Micro-hybrid car
16. Out of trial range of 994 km of ‘Solar Energi

Energi’’ concept, pure electric range is about
a) 35 km. b) 65 km. c) 95 km. d) 125 km.

CONSTRUCTIONAL DETAILS – I
17. The materials used for cylinder block are :
a) Cast iron and steel c) Steel and aluminium alloy
b) Cast iron and aluminium alloy d) Brass and steel.
18. The cylinder bores of aluminium alloy cylinder blocks are usually plated withy :
a) Steel c) Chromium
b) Brass d) Molybdenum
19. The angle between the cylinder axes and the crankshaft centre line in an engine is :
a) 60˚ b) 90˚ c) 120˚ d) 180˚
20. Most difficult gasket sealing problem occurs at the :
a) Head c) Timing cover
b) Oil pan d) Intake manifold
21. Each time a joint is assembled, it is recommended to replace :
a) Cork Gaskets c) Rubber gaskets
b) Asbestos gaskets d) All gaskets
22. Flat bottomed inlet manifolds are commonly used in car engine to :

a) Allow space for two runner levels
b) Increase fuel evaporation in the manifold
c) Provide uniform air-fuel

fuel mixture to various cylinders
d) Maximise the cross sectional area for the given wall surface area of the manifold.
23. Camshaft in an engine is always mounted :
a) Parallel to the crankshaft c) Inclined to the crankshaft
b) Perpendicular to the crankshaft d) none of these.
24. The oil pan in an engine may be ma

made of :
a) Steel or aluminium c) Cast iron or brass
b) Steel or cast iron d) Cast iron or zinc
25. A dish in the piston head is employed to :
a) Decrease piston weight c) Control compression ratio
b) Provide valve clearance d) Adjust piston displacement
26. The largest diameter of a cam

camground piston is :
a) Along piston pin axis c) at 45˚ to the piston pin axis
b) At the piston land d) at 90˚ to the piston pin axis
27. The piston – skirt clearance at room temperature is about :

a) 0.004 mm c) 0.4 mm
b) 0.04 mm d) 1 mm
28. Piston pins on some engines are offset to the :
a) Right side c) Major thrust side
b) Left side d) Minor thrust side
29. The purpose of piston rings is to control :
a) Combustion pressures c) Oil consumption
b) Cylinder wall lubrication d) All of the above.
30. In autothermic pistons steel inserts are used to :
a) Reduce piston expansion c) Reduce piston weight
b) Control the direction of expansion d) Make the piston stronger
31. The minimum number of compression rings in an automotive engine is :
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
32. Compression rings are generally made of :
a) Low carbon steel c) Aluminium
b) Cast iron d) Chromium

33. The uppermost ring on a piston is usually plated with :
a) Steel c) Aluminium
b) Cast iron d) Chromium
34. On the compression stroke the rings are pressed against :
a) Top of groove c) Inner side of groove
b) Bottom of groove d) All of these
35. The primary purpose of a ring expander is to :
a) Make up for cylinder wear c) Decrease dynamic ring tension
b) Increase static ring tension d) Reduce ring vibrations
36. Connecting rod connects the cranksaft and the :
a) Cylinder head c) Piston
b) Cylinder block d) Camshaft
37. The piston pins in the modern automobile engines are usually :
a) Semi-floating
b) Fully – floating
c) Three – Quarter floating
d) Fixed to both piston and the connecting rod end.

CONSTRUCTIONAL DETAILS – II
38. The counterweights on a crankshaft are located opposite the :
a) Main bearings c) Small-end bearings
b) Big-end bearings d) Vibration damper
39. On the front end of a crankshaft is mounted :
a) Timing gear c) Fan pulley
b) Vibration damper d) All of these.
40. On the rear end of a crankshaft mounted :
a) Flywheel c) Vibration damper
b) Counterweight d) Timing sprocket
41. The ratio of main journal diameter and the cylinder bore in a car engine is
approximately:
a) 0.1 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 0.75
42. In a six-cylinder
cylinder car engine the angle between the successive crankthrows is :
a) 60˚ b) 120˚ c) 90˚ d) 180˚
43. The vibration damper on a crankshaft reduces the :

a) Longitudinal vibrations c) Torsional vibrations
b) Transverse vibrations d) All of these.
44. The number of main bearings in a 4 - cylinder car engine is usually :
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
45. The most commonly used valve in an automobile engine is :
a) Poppet valve c) Rotary valve
b) Sleeve valve d) None of these.
46. Exhaust valve face angle is generally :
a) 30˚ b) 45˚ c) 60˚ d) 75˚
47. The material used for inlet valve is usually :
a) Silico-chrome steel c) Precipitation-hardening

hardening steel
b) Austinitic steel d) Nimonic alloy.
48. Most commonly used valve

valve-actuating mechanism in modern cars is :
a) Side valve mechanism
b) Overhead valve mechanism
c) Overhead inlet and side exhaust valve mechanism
d) None of these.

49. The engine valves are closed by ;
a) Crankshaft c) Timing device
b) Camshaft d) Valve springs
50. The camshaft controls :
a) Valve opening c) Valve timing
b) Valve closing d) All of these.
51. How many times in a minute does each valve on a four stroke engine running
runn at
2000 RPM open and close -
a) 1000 b) 2000 c) 4000 d) 6000
52. The camshaft drive which does not require lubrication is :
a) Chain drive c) Toothed rubber belt
b) Gear drive d) None of these.
53. The push rod is located between the :
a) Valve and valve spring c) Tappet and rocker arm
b) Valve and rocker arm d) None of these.
54. A says that rocker arms reverse reciprocating motion while B says that rocker arms
convert rotating motion to reciprocating motion. Who is right ?
a) A b) B c) Both are right d) Both are wrong.

55. A asserts that intake valves are cooled while they are open. However, B states that
exhaust valves are heated while they are open. Who is right ?
a) A b) B c) Both are right d) Both are wrong
56. The exhaust valve usually starts opening :
a) At BDC c) Before BDC
b) At TDC d) Before TDC
57. Valve overlap occurs between :
a) Intake and compression strokes c) Power and exhaust strokes
b) Compression and power strokes d) Exhaust and intake strokes.
ENGINE SERVICE
58. The engine requires overhauling in case of :
a) Poor compression
b) Excessive consumption of lubricating oil
c) Mechanical failure
d) All of the above.
59. The carbon from the cylinder head is removed with :
a) Water c) Scraper
b) Caustic Soda d) Soap

60. The warpage of cylinder head is checked with a :
a) Metal rule c) Micrometer
b) Vernier caliper d) Dial gauge
61. The cylinder head nuts should be tightened to a torque of about :
a) 15 Nm b) 50 Nm c) 150 Nm d) 1500 Nm
62. Aluminized valves are never ground; they have to be replaced because :
a) Aluminium is a costly material
b) Aluminium surface is difficult to b

be ground
c) Grinding such valves will make them corrosion – prone
d) None of these.
63. The valves have to be replaced if the metal to be removed for smoothening their
end surfaces is more than :
a) 0.05 mm b) 0.5 mm c) 1.5 mm d) 5 mm
64. The width of the valve seat should not be kept more than :
a) 0.2 mm b) 0.5 mm c) 1.2 mm d) 5 mm
65. While lapping a valve, the lapping compound is applied to its :
a) Face b) Steam c) Guide d) Tip

66. The stem clearance in the valve guide is checked by means of a :
a) Metal rule c) Micrometer
b) Vernier caliper d) Dial guage
67. Maximum permissible bearing clearance for the camshaft is usually.
a) 0.05 mm b) 0.15 mm c) 0.5 mm d) 1.5 mm
68. The bearing clearance is never measured with a :
a) Vernier caliper c) Fealer gauge
b) Micrometer d) Plastigage
69. Maximum permissible ovality in a cylinder is usually :
a) 0.01 mm b) 0.1 mm c) 0.5 mm d) 1.0 mm
70. The cylinder bore oversize for reboring is calculated on the basis of :
a) Minimum ovality in any cylinder
b) Maximum ovality in any cylinder
c) Average value of ovality in the cylinder
d) Size of the piston available.
71. For checking the alignment of the crankshaft, the best method is to place it :
a) On V-blocks c) On lather centres
b) On its ends d) On a plane smooth table

72. The crankshaft bending should not generally exceed :
a) 0.008 mm c) 0.008 mm
b) 0.08 mm d) 8 mm.
COOLING SYSTEM
73. Percentage of fuel energy lost to the cylinder walls in an automobile engine is
approximately.
a) 1 per cent c) 30 per cent
b) 10 per cent d) 80 per cent
74. Sequence of coolant circulation is :
a) Pump-radiator – block head c) Pump block radiator head
b) Pump-block-head-radiator
radiator d) Pump-radiator-head-block
75. On leaving the engine the coolant goes to :
a) Pump inlet c) Collector tank
b) Header tank d) None of the above.
76. The radiator core is made of :
a) Brass b) Steel c) Cast iron d) Plastic

77. A pressure cap contains a :
a) Pressure valve c) Blow-off valve
b) Thermostat valve d) Pressure and vacuum valve
78. The purpose of the thermostat is to keep the engine :
a) Hot c) At desired temperature
b) Cool d) At desired Pressure.
79. The thermostat valve starts to open at about :
a) 90˚C b) 80˚C
˚C c) 50˚C d) 20˚C
C
80. Coolant pumps are of :
a) Vane type c) Centrifugal type
b) Reciprocating type d) All the above types
81. The purpose of the fan is to :
a) Increase flow of coolant c) Cool the engine by blowing air over it
b) Draw air through the radiator d) provide drive to the coolant pump
82. Cooling fans are driven by :
a) Electricity and belts c) Chains and gears
b) Gears and belts d) By all of the above.

83. The fan in the Maruti car is controlled :
a) Electrically c) Hydraulically
b) Mechanically d) Magnetically.
84. Engine overheating may result due to :
a) Radiator pressure cap stuck closed
b) Broken fan belt
c) Thermostat stuck open
d) Excess coolant in the system.
LUBRICATION
ION AND LUBRICANTS
85. The friction that occurs between the layers of oil in an oil film is called :
a) Viscous friction c) Boundary friction
b) Solid friction d) Greasy friction.
86. The primary function of lubrication is to :
a) Provide cooling effect c) Provide cleaning action
b) Provide sealing action d) Reduce wear
87. The most important characteristic of a lubricating oil is its :
a) Viscosity c) Chemical stability
b) Physical stability d) Resistance against corrosion.

88. Most commonly used lubr
lubricants in automobiles are the :
a) Animals oils c) Vegetable oils
b) Mineral oils d) Synthetic oils
89. The most commonly used lubrication system in automobiles is the :
a) Petroil system c) Pressure system
b) Splash system d) None of the above.
90. The approximate oil pressure in the lubrication system in modern cars is :
a) 40-50 kPa c) 1-5 MPa
b) 200-400 kPa d) More than 10 MPa
91. Maximum oil pressure in the lubrication system is controlled by :
a) Oil filter c) Pressure relief valve
b) Pump rotor d) Pressure switch.
92. The lubrication system in all modern cars has :
a) Gear type pump c) Oil filter
b) Rotor type pump d) Oil cooler
93. From the oil pump the oil directly to :
a) Oil gallery c) Oil filter
b) Oil strainer d) Main bearings

94. End play of gears of an oil pump may be checked by using :
a) Inside caliper c) Vernier caliper and feeler gauge
b) Outside caliper d) Straight edge and feeler gauge
FUELS
95. The best hydrocarbons from detonation viewpoint are :
a) Paraffins c) Naphthenes
b) Olefins d) Aromatics
96. The process of changing the molec

molecular structure of the straight - run gasolines is
called :
a) Cracking c) Refining
b) Reforming d) None of these.
97. The process in which hydrocarbons are decomposed into smaller hydrocarbons is
called :
a) Cracking c) Polymerization
b) Reforming d) Alkylation.
98. Blending refinery petrol with ethanol results in :
a) Decrease in octane rating
b) Increase in octane rating
c) No effect on octane rating

d) Decrease / increase in octane rating depending of blending quantity.
99. The calorific value of gasoline is about :
a) 45 J/kg. c) 45 MJ/kg
b) 45 kJ/kg. d) 45 GJ/kg.
100. The calorific valve of alcohol is :
a) Less than that of gasoline
b) Equals to that of gasoline
c) More than that of gasoline
d) Depends upon type of the engine where used
101. The octone number of iso

iso-octane is :
a) 0 b) 10 c) 80 d) 100
COMBUSTION
USTION AND COMBUSTION CHAMBERS
102. One effect of detonation is :
a) Delay in ignition c) Loss of power
b) Interruption in lubrication d) Deterioration in the quality of air-fuel

fuel Mixture.
103. An effective method of prevention of detonation is the :

a) Cooling of the charge
b) Heating of the charge
c) Locating spark plug at one end of the combustion chamber.
d) Reducing the quantity of aromatics in the fuel used.
104. Octane number of Indian lead

lead-free petrol is :
a) Less than octane number of leaded petrol.
b) Equal to octane number of leaded petrol
c) Greater than octane number of leaded petrol
d) Not specified.
105. The use of tetraethyl lead in gasolines is being gr

gradually
adually discontinued because :
a) It is costly c) It blocks the catalytic converter
b) It has bad odour d) It decreases the engine efficiency.
106. The function of quench area in a wedge

wedge-shaped
shaped combustion chamber is to
a) Improve the compression rratio
b) Cool the end gases
c) Decrease the volume of combustion chamber
d) Increase the area of combustion chamber
107. An indication of ignition quality of a diesel fuel is given by :

a) Detonation c) Preignition
b) Octane number d) Cetane number.
PETROL
ROL ENGINE FUEL SUPPLY SYSTEMS - I
108. The most widely used fuel supply system for car engines is the :
a) Gravity system c) Vacuum system
b) Pressure system d) Pump system
109. The drive for the mechanical fuel pu

pump is taken from the :
a) Crankshaft c) Distributor shaft
b) Camshaft d) Any the these.
110. Small holes in the pump body provide a vent for :
a) Air b) Water c) Fuel d) Oil
111. Fuel pump outlet pressure should be approximately :
a) 3 kPa b) 30 kPa c) 100 kPa d) 300 kPa
112. Lean air-fuel

fuel mixture is required for :
a) Starting c) Cruising
b) Idling d) Acceleration.

113. The carburetor provides the correct quality of air
air-fuel mixture during :
a) Starting c) Acceleration
b) Idling d) All conditions.
114. The venture in the carburetor causes the :
a) Increase of air velocity c) Decrease of fuel flow
b) Decrease of air velocity d) Decrease of manifold vacuum
115. The throttle valve controls the supply of :
a) Air only c) Air fuel mixture
b) Fuel only d) None of these.
116. A single jet carburetor tends to supply richer mixture during :
a) Starting c) Low speed operation
b) Idling d) High speed operation
117. The choke is usually closed when the engine is :
a) Hot c) Idling
b) Cold d) Accellerating.
118. When the choke is applied the fuel come out from the :
a) Main jet c) Transfer port
b) Idle port c) Progression hole

119. In a single jet carburetor the mixture tends to become richer :
a) During winter c) At high altitudes
b) At low altitudes d) During idling.
120. At very low temperatures the ice tends to form in the carburetor in the :
a) Air cleaner c) Idle jet
b) Venturi d) Float
121. The example of a ‘variable venturi’ type carburetor is the :
a) Carter carburetor c) S.U. carburetor
b) Solex carburetor d) Zenith carburetor
122. Anti-dieseling
dieseling device is incorporated in the carburetor used in the :
a) Ambassador car c) Maruti 800 car
b) Premier Padmini car d) All of these.
123. The carburetor in which air

air-fuel
fuel mixture is controlled automatically by a computer
are called the :
a) Downdraft carburetors c) Feedback carburetors
b) Updraft carburetors d) Automatic carburetors.

PETROL ENGINE
NGINE FUEL SUPPLY SYSTEMS – II
124. The most accurate petrol injection system is the :
a) Direct injection c) Manifold injection
b) Port injection d) Throttle body injection.
125. The cheapest yet reasonably precise gasoline injection system is the :
a) Direct injection c) Sequential injection
b) Port injection d) Throttle body injection
126. The amount of fuel delivered by the injector depends upon the :
a) Size of injector nozzle
b) Pressure pushing fuel through the injector
c) Length of time the injector is open
d) All the above factors.
DIESEL
SEL ENGINE FUEL SUPPLY SYSTEMS
127. The compression ratio in an automotive diesel engine is usually :
a) 7:1 b) 10:1 c) 15:1 d) 22:1
128. The cranking compression pressure in a diesel engine is about :

a) 1000 kPa c) 3000 kPa
b) 2000 kPa d) 10000 kPa
129. The cylinder temperature after compression in a diesel engine is approximately :
a) 300˚C c) 800˚C
b) 450˚C d) 1000˚C
130. The ignition temperature of diesel fuel is about :
a) 300˚C c) 600˚C
b) 400˚C d) 800˚C
131. The fuel feed pump in a diesel engine is mounted :
a) On the fuel tank c) On the injector
b) On the injection pump d) Inside the fuel tank.
132. In some diesel engines injection pressures can reach as high as :
a) 100 MPa c) 300 MPa
b) 200 MPa d) 400 MPa
133. The fuel injection timing in a distributor type pump is controlled by :
a) Changing plunger stoke
b) Changing speed of rotor
c) Rotating the cam ring

d) Changing the number of cams on the ring.
134. The opening pressure

sure of hole type nozzle varies from :
a) 5-10 MPa c) 17-34 MPa
b) 10-20 MPa d) 27-54 MPa
135. The opening pressure of pintle type nozzle varies from :
a) 7-15 MPa c) 17-34 MPa
b) 11-22 MPa d) 35-45 MPa
136. Secondary filter in a diesel engine is :
a) A must
b) Installed between the fuel tank and feed pump.
c) Optional
d) Not capable of removing water from the fuel.
137. A glow plug is :
a) A decompression device
b) Installed in the inlet manifold
c) Screwed into the combustion chamber
d) Used to plug the leakage of fuel.
138. It is common for the diesel engine to emit excessive smoke during :

a) Starting c) Deceleration
b) Acceleration d) Idling.
TESTING OF AUTOMOBILE ENGINES
139. From the engine indicator diagram, we obtain :
a) I.M.E.P. c) Mechanical efficiency
b) B.M.E.P. d) Relative efficiency.
140. The units of spring scale for the engine indicator are :
a) kW b) N c) Nm d) N/𝐦𝟐 /m
141. Engine indicators not having any inertia effects are :
a) Mechanical type c) Optical type
b) Electrical type d) None of these.
142. The most accurate dynamometer is the :
a) Prony brake type c) Swinging field type
b) Hydraulic type d) Eddy current type.
143. Most commonly used dynamometer on account of its simplicity of construction is

the :

a) Prony brake type c) Swinging field type
b) Hydraulic type d) Eddy current type
144. Brake mean effective pressure in an engine depends upon its :
a) Speed only c) Speed and torque
b) Torque only d) Speed and power.
145. Mechanical efficiency of an automobile engine usually varies in the range.
a) 50-60% b) 60-70%
70% c) 70-90% d) More than 90%
146. The
he brake thermal efficiency is given by :
a) 𝜼𝒎 ₓ 𝜼𝒊𝒕 c) 𝜂 ₓ𝜂
b) 𝜂 ₓ𝜂 d) 𝜂 ₓ𝜂
147. Brake thermal efficiency for S.I. engines usually varies between :
a) 25% and 30% c) 60% and 80%
b) 30% to 60% d) More than 80%.
CONVENTIONAL IGNITION SYSTEMS
148. The three components of primary ignition circuit are :
a) The contact breaker, condenser and distributor cap
b) The contact breaker, ignition coil and spark plugs

c) The contact breaker, ignition switch and condenser
d) The contact breaker, ignition switch and rotor
149. The components of secondary ignition circuit include the secondary winding of
ignition coil, distributor rotor, distributor cap and :
a) Condenser c) Ignition switch
b) Spark plugs d) Distributor drive gear.
150. The primary winding of ignition coil consists of :
a) A few turns of thin wire c) A few turns of thick wire
b) Many turns of thin wire d) Many turns of thick wire.
151. Contact breaker points are generally made of :
a) Plastic c) Copper
b) Steel d) Tungsten
152. The ‘dwell’ is
a) The time for which the points remain closed
b) The distance between the cam lobes
c) The angle at which the heal contacts the cam

153. Excessive contact breaker gap results in :
a) Advanced timing c) Rapid burning of points
b) Increased dwell d) All of the above.
154. The spark occurs when the :
a) Points close c) Ignition switch is on
b) Increased dwell d) None of the above.
155. Contact breaker points are opened by the cam and closed by the
a) Same cam c) Magnetic force
b) Centrifugal force d) Spring tension.
156. The dwell angle on a six

six-cylindere engine compared to a four – cylinder engine is
a) More b) Less c) Equal d) Sometimes less and sometimes more
157. The contact breaker gap is set most accurately by means of a
a) Feeler gauge c) Dial gauge
b) Steel rule d) Dwell meter
158. Contact breaker gap should be set :
a) Before adjusting dwell angle c) First after starting the engine
b) After adjusting dwell angle d) After setting spark plug gap.

159. The capacity of an automotive engine condenser is approximately :
a) 0.2 microfarads c) 20 microfarads
b) 2 microfarads d) 2 millifarads
160. The ratio of the distributor shaft and the crankshaft speeds is :
a) One c) One-fourth
b) One-half d) Two
161. The centrifugal advance me

mechanism
chanism provides ignition advance proportional to :
a) Engine load c) Both a) and b)
b) Engine speed d) None of the above.
162. Vacuum advance mechanism operates at :
a) Light engine load c) High engine speed
b) Heavy engine load d) Any of the above.
163. Ignition timing can be adjusted by a :
a) Accurate cl˚Ck c) Stroboscopic light
b) Stop watch d) Vacuum gauge
164. The commonly used material for insulator of spark plug is :
a) Bakelite c) Alumina
b) Asbestos d) Copper

165. Compared to the life of a spark plug of two stroke engine, the spark plug life of a
four-stoke
stoke engine is approximately :
a) Same c) One-half
b) Twice d) None of the above.
166. A spark may be fouled by :
a) Petrol c) Lead
b) Oil d) All of the above.
167. Spark plug having white insulator tip indicates :
a) Over advanced ignition c) Leaded fuel
b) Retarded ignition d) Gas leak
168. A spark plug with a blackk centre insulator indicates :
a) Over advanced ignition
b) Retarded ignition
c) Stuck-up
up choke valve in the carburetor
d) Excessive dwell
ELECTRONIC IGNITION SYSTEMS
169. A semi-conductor
conductor is a material with :

a) More than four electrons in its outermost orbit
b) Less than four electrons in its outermost orbit
c) Exactly four electrons in its outermost orbit
170. N-type semi-conductor

conductor material is obtained by doping with :
a) Antimony c) Boron
b) Iron d) Silicon
171. Two types of semi – conductors are :
a) Doped and undoped c) Hole and electron
b) P and N d) While and grey
172. Current will flow through a diode when it is connected :
a) In forward bias c) To any suitable battery in any manner
b) In reversed bias d) None of the above.
173. A zener diode is used for :
a) Rectification of current
b) Blocking
king the current flow in reverse direction
c) Voltage regulation
d) All of the above.

174. A transistor consists of a base :
a) Diode and emitter c) Emitter and collector
b) Diode and collector d) Diode and thyristor
175. A transistor is controlled by the current at :
a) The base c) The collector
b) The emitter d) both the emitter and the collector
176. The ignition coil in an

n inductive electronic ignition system is triggered on and off by
means of a :
a) Contact breaker c) Permanent magnet
b) Diode d) Timer
177. A pulse generator consists of a :
a) Permanent magnet, ignition coil and electronic control unit
b) Permanentt magnet, reluctor and electronic control unit
c) Ignition coil, reluctor and electronic control unit
d) Permanent magnet, reluctor and time coil.
178. The most accurate timer for electronic ignition system is the :
a) Diode c) Hall effect switch
b) Transistor d) Pulse generator

179. The number of ignition coils in a distributorless ignition system for a 6-cylinder
6
engine is :
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
STORAGE BATTERIES
180. The colour of positive plate of a lead

lead-acid battery is :
a) Brown c) White
b) Grey d) Black
181. The colour of negative plate of a lead

lead-acid battery is :
a) Brown c) White
b) Grey d) Black
182. The positive plate of a lead

lead-acid battery has :
a) PbO2 b) Pb c) PbSO4 d) H2SO4
183. The negative plate of a lead

lead-acid battery has :
b) PbO2 b) Pb c) PbSO4 d) H2SO4
184. Battery electrolyte consists of approximately [by volume]

a) 35 percent sulphuric acid and 65 percent water
b) 65 percent sulphuric acid and 35 percent water
c) 65 percent nitric acid and 35 percent water
d) 35 percent nitric acid and 65 percent water.
185. To increase output voltage, battery cells are connected in :
a) Series c) Series – parallel
b) Parallel d) None of the above.
186. The capacity of a battery is determined by the number of plates per cell and :
a) Number of cells c) Size of plates
b) Shape of plates d) Number of separators.
187. A maintenance – free battery :
a) Has lead-antimony
antimony plate grid c) Does not contain acid
b) Has lead-calcium
calcium plate grid d) Does not contain water
188. The number of positive plates in a battery cell is :
a) One more than the negative plates
b) One less than the negative plates
c) Two less than the negative plates
d) Two more than the negative plates.

189. A discharged lead-acid
acid battery has on its plates :
a) PbO2 c) Pb3O4
b) Pb d) PbSO4
190. A fully – charged 6 cell automotive battery should indicate :
a) 12 V c) Sp. Gravity of 1.290 at 32˚C
b) 12.6 V d) Both b) and c)
191. With the increase of battery temperature, the specific gravity of electrolyte :
a) Increases c) Stays the same
b) Decreases d) None of these.
192. An example of improved form of lead

lead-acid batteries is :
a) Absorbent Glass Mat battery c) Nickel-cadmium

cadmium battery
b) Zinc-air battery d) Lithium ion battery.
193. The battery which cannot be deep

deep-cycled is :
a) Ordinary lead-acid
acid battery c) Absorbent Glass Mat battery
b) Advanced Flooded Battery d) Lithium ion battery
194. Out of the following terms which is not a pr

process
ess for recycling of batteries ?
a) Smelting c) Deep Cycling
b) Direct recovery d) Intermediate processes

ocesses

195. The time required to charge a modern automotive super
super-capacitor
capacitor is about
a) One hour c) 10 minutes
b) 30 minutes d) 10 seconds
CHARGING SYSTEM
196. In a d.c. generator magnetic field is produced in the :
a) Armature c) Carbon brushes
b) Commutator d) Stator
197. The three units contained in a regulator for automobile d.c. generator are :
a) Voltage regulator, current regulator and Zener diode
b) Voltage regulator, current regulator and Temperature compensator
c) Voltage regulator, current regulator and cutout relay
d) Any three of the above.
198. The frequency of a vibrating contact type regulator for d.c. generator is :
a) 20 per second c) 20 per minute
b) 200 per second d) 200 per minute
199. The charging voltage at the start of the engine is _________ than whenthe engine
is running on load :

a) Lower c) Same
b) Higher d) Any of the above.
200. In an alternator the magnetic field is produced in the :
a) Rotor c) Frame
b) Stator d) Regulator
201. An alternator frame is made of :
a) Cast iron c) Aluminium
b) Brass d) Copper
202. The number of windings in the stator of an alternator is :
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
203. The number of windings in the stator of an alternator is :
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6
204. The output of an alternator is controlled by :
a) Voltage regulator c) Current regulator
b) Cutout relay d) All of the above.
205. A thermister is used in an alternator regulator to :

a) Control maximum voltage c) Compensate for temperature change
b) Control maximum current d) All of the above.
STARTING SYSTEM
206. Gear reduction between the starting motor and the flywheel is about :
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 50
207. In a starter motor the field windings are wound around :
a) Armature c) Brush
b) Commutator d) Pole shoes
208. Automotive starting motors are :
a) Series wound c) Shunt wound
b) Series – shunt wound d) Both a) and b) above.
209. The stalling torques of starting motors for cars vary between :
a) 10 to 30 Nm c) 60 to 100 Nm
b) 30 to 60 Nm d) 100 to 200 Nm
210. Inertia type drives are commonly employed in :
a) Cars c) Heavy transport vehicles
b) Light transport vehicles d) Cross-country

country vehicles.

211. Any short-circuit
circuit in the armature winding may be tested with a :
a) Multimeter c) Voltmeter
b) Growler d) Ammeter
212. Continuity in the field windings can be tested with a :
a) Multimeter c) Voltmeter
b) Growler d) None of the above.
EMMISSION CONTROL
213. Apart from hydrocarbons,

arbons, the main pollutants in the engine exhaust are :
a) CO and CO2 c) CO and NOx
b) CO2 and NOx d) CO2 and H2O
214. Maximum allowable hydr

hydrcoarbons
arbons in the car emission are approximately :
a) 10 ppm c) 1000 ppm
b) 100 ppm d) 5000 ppm
215. CO in the exhaust of a car engine should not be more than :
a) 0.5% b) 2% c) 5% d) 10%
216. The PCV valve is located

ated between the :

a) Air cleaner and the carburetor c) Intake manifold and air cleaner
b) Carburetor and the intake manifold d) Intake manifold and crankcase
217. In case of engines backfiring, the PCV valve :
a) Opens maximum c) Disintegrates
b) Closes d) Sticks in the centre position
218. The position of the PCV valve plunger at idle spee

speed is
a) Towards the valve outlet side c) Towards the crankcase
b) Towards the valve inlet side d) Near the valve centre.
219. The function of charcoal granules is to absorb :
a) Water vapour c) Petrol Vapour
b) Carbon monoxide d) Liquid petrol.
220. The liquid – vapour separator is ll˚Cated near the :
a) Fuel tank c) Charcoal canister
b) Carburettor d) Purge valve
221. EGR system is employed for controlling emissions of :
a) HC b) CO c) NOx d) HC and CO

222. The pump for the air injection system is of :
a) Gear type c) Vane type
b) Eccentric type d) Reciprocating type
223. The main purpose of the diverter valve in the air injection system is to :
a) Close the check valve
b) Prevent back fire in the exhaust system
c) Prevent backfire in the inlet manifold
d) Weaken the air-fuel

fuel mixture.
224. The catalyst used in the reduction converter is :
a) Copper c) Rodium
b) Charcoal d) Platinum
225. The catalyst used in the converter for oxidizing HC and CO is :
a) Copper c) Rodium
b) Charcoal d) Platinum
226. In a three-way
way converter, the first converter controls :
a) HC b) CO c) NOx d) All of these.

227. The air fuel ratio required for the efficient operation of a three
three-way
way converter is
approximately:
a) 5:1 b) 10:1 c) 15:1 d) 20:1
AUTOMOTIVE ENGINE SPE

SPECIFICATIONS
228. Compression ratio of 17.0 is used in the engine of :
a) Force One Truck c) Mahindra Scorpio
b) Tata 207 DI Pickup d) Ashok Leyland Comet
229. V- 8 engine was employed in :
a) Ferrari ‘458 Spider’ c) Citroen C4
b) Chery A3 Hatchback d) Audi 100 SE
230. Five cylinder in-line

line engine is used in :
a) Chrysler Delta c) Fiat 500
b) Mercedes Benz 200 d) Audi 100 SE
231. V-12 engine is used in :
a) Chevrolet Cornette c) Rolls Royce, Phantom
b) Ssangyong Korando d) Alfa Romeo 2000 Spider Veloce

Vel

232. Electronic fuel injection system is used in engine of :
a) Chrysler Delta c) Volvo 740 GLE
b) Audit 100 SE d) All of these.
233. Valve-actuating
actuating mechanism with two overhead camshafts is employed in the
engine of :
a) Volvo 740 c) Volkswagen Caddy
b) Alfa Romeo 2000 Spider Vel

Veloce d) All of these.
234. Catalytic converter for controlling exhaust emission is used in engine of :
a) Volkswagen Caddy c) Audi 100 SE
b) Mercedes Benz 200 d) All of these
235. Microprocessor-controlled
controlled ignition system is used in engine of :
a) Audit 100 SE c) Ssangyong Rexton
b) FAW ‘Vita N3’ d) Volvo 740 Turbo.

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 UPSC All India Rank 104

2. Compared to framed construction, the frameless construction of automobiles is

a) Always c) When produced on large scale

b) When produced in small quantities d) Never

3. Most commonly used power plant on automobiles is

a) I.C. engine c) Battery

b) Gas turbine d) None of these

4. The purpose of gear box in an automobile is to :

c) Provide permanent speed reduction

d) To disconnect the road wheels from the engine when desired.

a) Front b) Rear on the left c) Centre d) Rear on the rig

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a) Clutch operating linkage is simplified c) The road adhesion is increased

b) Cooling system is simplified d) The road adhesion is decreased

7. The example of a saloon is :

a) Honda City car c) Leyland bus

b) Tata Truck d) None of these.

8. The example of a Hatchback is :

a) Hyundai 10 c) Volvo S60

b) Ford Fusion d) Volkswagen Vento

THE CHASSIS CONSTRUCTION

9. The number of points at which the engine

a) Vertical bending c) Torsion

b) Horizontal bending d) All of these

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a) Weight of vehicle c) Cornering force

b) Weight of passengers d) Wheel impact with road obstacle

a) Weight of passengers c) Engine torque

b) Side wind d) Braking torque

13. The most effective section against bending is :

a) Rectangular bar c) Round hollow tube

b) Round bar d) Square hollow section.

14. A clutch is usually designed

a) Equal to the maximum engine torque

b) 80 per cent of the maximum engine torque

c) 150 per cent of the maximum engine torque

d) None of the above.

15. The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be :

b) Maximum d) None of the above.

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a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.8 d) 1.2

a) 10 N b) 100 N c) 500 N d) 5000 N

a) 10 Pa b) 10 kPa c) 100 kPa d) 1000 kPa

19. The clutch is located between the transmission and the :

a) Engine c) Propeller shaft

b) Rear axle d) Different

20. The parts of the cover assembly that hold the pr

a) Release levers c) Struts

b) Thrust bearings d) Springs

21. Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce :

a) Torsional vibrations c) Jerky starts

b) Vehicle speed d) None of the above.

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a) Vehicle is stationery c) Vehicle is driven very slow

b) Vehicle is running very fast d) Clutch pedal is pressed.

a) Increase c) Remain constant

b) Decrease d) Become infinite

24. Clutch facings are usually attached to the plate by :

a) Steel rivets c) Aluminium screws

b) Brass rivets d) Steel screws

25. Free pedal play in car clutches is about :

26. The purpose of transmission in an automobile is :