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PHYSIO/ BIOCHEM/ GEN SURGERY 17. Bicarbonate is absorbed -

A. Activity in PCT B. Actively in DCT
1. Macula densa is a part of C. Indirectly in PCT D. Actively in DCT
A. PCT B. DCT 18. Substance that is completely reabsorbed from the
C. Renal Arteriole D. Glomerulus kidney -
2. Destruction of zona glomerulosa will deplete A. Na+ B. K+
A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Urea D. Glucose
C. Testosterone D. Catecholamines 19. Leutic glossitis is caused by
3. Increased calcium levels lead to - A. Streptococcus B. Treponema palladium
A. Increased 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol C. Legionella D. M. Tuberculosis
B. Increased 24,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
C. Decreased calcitonin 20. Popcorn cells are seen in
D. Increased parathormone A. Non Hodgkin lymphoma B. Hodgkin Lymphoma
C. Burkit lymphoma D. Osteosarcoma
4. Anti-inflammatory action of steroids due to - 21. A five-years old child presents to the emergency
A. Inhibiton of phospholipase A, department with bums. The burn area corresponding to the
B. Inhibhition of cyclooxegenase size of his palm is equal to:
C. Increased activity of lipolipase A. 1%BSA B. 5% BSA
D. Inhbhition of lipo oxegenase C. 10% BSA D. 20%
5. To find if fracture of angle mandible is vertically
favourable or unfavourable the radiograph advised: 22. Pepsinogen is secreted by -
A. PA view mandible A. Parietal cells B. Mucus cells
B. Lateral oblique 30° mandible C. Chief cells D. Oxyntic cells
C. Occipitomental view 23. Senile caries is also referred to as:
D. Lateral oblique 15° mandible A. Root surface caries B. Incipient caries
6. The whole of middle third of face can be approached by: C. Rampant caries D. Early childhood caries
A. Infraorbital incisions B. Bicoronal flap
C. Alkayat and Bramley approach 24. Einthovens law -
D. Transconjunctival approach A. I+ 111= II B.I-III=II
C. l+n+m=0 D.I+III=avL
7. Epiphora results due to: 25. Which is maximally absorbed from GIT -
A. Blockage of lacrimal gland canaliculi A. Pentose B.Hexose
B. Blockage of nasolacrimal duct C. Diasaccharide D. Polysaccharide
C. Overactivity of lacrimal glands 26. Epinephrine reduces insulin by -
D. Evulsion of palpebral conjunctiva A. Alpha action predominantly B. Beta action predominantly
8. Marjolin ulcer is: C. Alpha and beta D. Muscarinic receptors
A. Malignant ulcer found on the scar of burn.
B. Malignant ulcer found on infected foot 27. Most important stimulus to peripheral chemoreceptrs-
C. Trophic ulcer D. Meleney gangrene A. PO2 B.CO2
9. Late deaths in burns is due to: C. pH D. HCO3
A. Sepsis B. Hypovolemia 28. Protein glycosylation occurs in -
C. Contracture D. Neurogenic A. ER B. Golgi bodies
10. An adult with both lower limb charred with external C. Mitochondria D. Peroxisomes
genitalia the percentage of burns is: 29. Ascorbic acid is required for synthesis of -
A. 18% B. 19% A. Phenylserine B. Homoserine
C. 36% D. 37% C. Hydroxylysine D. Selenocysteine

11. Sepsis in burns cases is due to: 30. Site of 25-hydroxylation of cholecalciferol -
A. Proteus B. Pseudomonas A. Liver B. Lung
C. Pneumococci D. Staphylococci C. Kidney D. Brain
12. Broca’s ara is present in
A. Superior temporal gyrus B. Precentral gyrus 31. Mitochondria have -
C. Post central gyrus D. Inferior frontal gyrus A. Plasmid DNA B. Circular DNA
13. Main mechanism in thermoregulation-heat loss C. Single stranded DNA D. Double stranded DNA
is - 32. What is function of Intrinsic Factor
A. Radiation B. Evaporation A. Increases cobalamin absorption
C. Conduction D. Convection B. Increases folate absorption
C. Converts prothrombin to thrombin
14. Rate limiting enzyme in heme synthesis - D. Converts fibrinogen to fibrin
A. ALA synthase B. Hmg coa reductase
C. ALA dehydratase 33. Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in:
D. Uroporphyrinogen 1 synthase A. AV fistula B. Raynaud disease
C. Buerger disease D. Aneurysm
15. Which hormone acts on cytoplasmic membrane
receptor - 34. Which of the following is associated with Virchows triad:
A. TSH B. Thyroxine A. Hypercoagulability B. Disseminated malignancy
C. Androgen D. Cortisol C. DVT D. All of the above

16. What are the EEG waves recored for parietooccipital 35. If a patient with Raynaud disease immersed his hand in
region with subject awake & eye closed- cold water, the hand will:
A. Alpha waves B. Beta waves A. Become red B. Remain unchanged
C. Delta waves D. Theta waves C. Turn white D. Become blue

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36. Buerger's disease usually affects all of the following, 53. Another name for glucose-
except: A. Dextrin B. Dextrose
A. Small-sized arteries B. Medium-sized arteries C. Sucrose D. Saccharin
C. Large arteries D. Deep veins 54. Sperm acquires motility in -
37. In a patient with 15% Blood loss, the immediate A. Seminal vesicle B. Testes
management is? C. Epididymis D. Ejaculatory duct
A. Immediate Blood replacement 55. I cells secrete -
B. Blood transfusion is not required A. Secretin B. Gastrin
C. Aggressive replacement of crystalloid only C. CCK D. Motilin
D. Aggressive replacement of crystalloid and Blood
56. Potts puffy tumor is:
38. Champy's plates are? A. Osteomyelitis of frontal skull
A. Semirigid fixation with monocortical screws B. Abscess in the skull
B. Semirigid fication with bicortical screws C. Carcinoma of the frontal bone
C. Rigid fixation with bicortical screws. D. None of the above
D. Rigid fixation with monocortical screws 57. Cellulitis is most commonly caused by:
39. Tongue-tie is indicated in: A. Clostridia B. Staphylococci
A. Bilateral parasymphysis fracture C. Streptococci D. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Unconscious patient 58. Bed sore is an example of:
C. Chin has been destroyed in gunshot A. Tropical ulcer B. Trophic ulcer
D. All of the above C. Venous ulcer D. Post-thrombotic ulcer

40. Head and neck involvement in burns in infant is: 59. Cystic hygroma may be associated with:
A. 9% B. 18% A. Turner syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. 27% D. 32% C. Down syndrome D. All of the above
41. Rule of nine of estimate surface area of a burnt patient 60. 1st acetyl group donor in fatty acid synthesis is -
was introduced by A. Malonyl CoA B. Palmitate
A. Mortix Kaposi B. Alexander Wallace C. Acetyl CoA D. Citrate
C. Joseph Lister D. Thomas Barclay 61. Electron transport chain is located in-
42. In 3rd degree burns, all are seen except A. Inner mitochondrial membrane
A. Vesicles are absent B. Painful B. Inner part of mitochondrial membrane
C. Leathery skin C. Intermembranous D. Matrix
D. Reddish due to Hb infiltration 62. Enzyme deficient in Type I Hyperlipidemia is -
A. HMG CoA reductase B. Lipoprotein lipase
43. Not a feature of deep burn is: C. Cholesterol acyl transferase D. Peroxidase
A. Black charred skin B. White leathery skin
C. Loss of pain sensation D. Blisters 63. Mechanism of action 2,4 dinitrophenol -
44. Burns with vesiculation, destruction of the epidermis A. Inhibition of cytochrome oxidase
and upper dermis is B. Oxidation proceeding without phosphorylation
A. 1st degree B. 2nd degree C. Inhibition of glycolysis
C. 3rd degree D. 4th degree D. Inhibition of transport of reducing equivalent
64. Volume of ICF in body-
45. Blisters are seen in which type of burns A. 0.2 x body wt B. 0.4 x body wt
A. Superficial first degree B. Superficial second degree C. 0.6 x bodywt D.0.8 x bodywt
C. Third degree D. Deep first degree 65. Surfactant is secreted bv which alveolar cells -
46. The ideal temperature of water to cool the burnt surface A. Type 1 cells B. Type 2 cells
is C. Alveolar macrophages D. Endothalial cells
A. 15°C B. 10°C
C. 8°C D. 6°C 66. True regarding cystic hygroma is:
47. Motilin secretion decreased in - A. Always unilateral B. Brilliantly translucent
A. Thirsty B. Starving C. Subsides itself D. Always present at birth
C. Ingested meal D. Interdigestive state 67. Adson test is positive in:
A. Cervical spondylosis B. Cervical rib
48. Intestinal motility is increased by C. Cervical vertebra fracture
A. Secretin B. Gastrin D. Superior vena cava syndrome
C. CCK D.None
49. Type 2 hypercholesterolemia occurs due to - 68. Branchial cyst arises from the which branchial
A. Lipoprotein lipase deficiency cleft:
B. Absence of LDL receptors on cells A. First B. Second
C. Abnormality in apo E D. LCAT deficiency C. Third D. Fourth

50. Cysteine is formed from - 69. Most common tumor of eyelid is:
A. Methionine and serine B. Methionine and glycine A. Neurofibromatosis B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Alanine and glycine D. Serine and glycine C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Rhabdomyosarcoma

51. Digestive enzymes are 70. Von Geirke's occurs due to deficiency of -
A. Hydrolases B. Oxidoreductases A. Glucose-6-phosphatase B. Liver Phosphorylase
C. Dehydrogenases D. Ligases C. Muscle phosphorylase D. Debranching enzyme

52. Glycogen storage disorder due to muscle 71. Enzymes act by -

phosphorylase deficiency - A. Increase in activation energy
A. Mcardle's disease B. Pompe's disease B. Decrease in activation energy
C. Andersen's disease D. Tarui's disease C. Shift equilbrium constant D. None

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72. Pyrimidine metabolism end product - 92. Presynaptic facilitation is caused by -

A. Urea B. Uric acid A. Prolonged opening of calcium channels
C. Beta alanine D.Allantoin B. Prolonged opening of chloride channels
73. Hexosaminidase A deficiency causes - C. Prolonged opening of sodium channels
A. Tay-sach disease B. Niemann pick disease D. Prolonged closure of potassium channels
C. Gaucher's disease D. Krabbe's disease
93. Most distinguishing feature between skeletal muscle
74. Somatosensory cortex lesion will cause and smooth muscle -
A.Pain B. Temperature A. Troponin B. Tropomyosin
C.Localization D.Vibration C. Myosin D. Actin
94. Which is not an action of bradykinin -
75. Substrate level phosphorylation is catalysed by which A. Vasoconstriction
enzyme? B. Increased vascular permeability
A. Succinate dehydrogenase C. Chemoattractant D. Pain on injection
B. Alpha keto glutarate dehydrogenase
C. Succinate thiokinase D. Malate dehydrogenase 95. Which causes raised angiotensin in blood -
76. Co-factor for phosphofructokinase is - A. Increased blood volume B. Raised cardiac output
A. Mg+2 B. Mn+2 C. Decreased blood pressure D. Increased sympathetic
C. Fe+2 D. Zn tone
77. Reverse folding of proteins is carried out by which
enzyme - 96. In post ovulatory phase thickness of endometrium
A. Valine B. Threonine is because of -
C. Chaperone D. Aspartate A. Progesterone B. Oestrogen
C. FSH D. LH
78. Renin is secreted by 97. In sickle cell anemia, translocation on codon 6 is
A. Juxtaglomerular cells B. Macula densa due to substitution of -
C. Mesangial cells D. Glomerulus A. Valine for glutamate B. Glutamate for valine
79. Fourth heart sound is caused by- C. Isoleucine for valine D. Valine for isoleucine
A. Closure of AV valves B. Closure of semilunar valves 98. Which of the following GAG is not MIlphated -
C. Rapid ventricular filling D. Atrial contraction A. Chondroitin B. Dermatan
C. Keratan D. Hyaluronic acid
80. Role of bile salts- 99. Increased glycolysis and decreased gluconeogenesis
A. Vit B12 absorption B. Formation of lipid bilayer A. Insulin B. Glucagon
C. Emulsification of lipids D. Fatty acid degradation C. Epinephrine D. Cortisol
81. Which of the following is a ribozyme-
A. Peptidyl transferase B. Elongation factor 2 100. Posture is maintained by -
C. Primase D. RNA polymerase A. Crossed extensor reflex B. Stretch reflex
82. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of which vitamin- C. Golgi tendon refkex D. None
A. B2 B. B3 101. Hunter schreger bands are:
C. B1 D. Folic acid A. A mean of functional adaptation
B. In the molar, bands appear near cervical areas
83. Gatekeeper of the heart is C. In the anterior, bands appear near incisal surfaces
A. SA node B. AV node D. All of the above
C. Purkinje fibers D. Bundle of His 102. Protein synthesis occurs in -
84. Inward flow of Na+ in heart leads to A. Ribosome B. Golgi apparatus
A. Plateu phase B. Action potential C. Lysosomes D. Endosomes
C. Repolarization D. No change
85. Best denotes airway resistance 103. Cyanide inhibits
A. Vital Capacity B. Mid respiratory flow rates A. Pyrurate kinase B. Cytochrome C oxidase
C. FEV3 D. Total volume C. Enolase D. None
104. What is attatched to 3' end of mRNA after transcription
86. Incremental lines of slater are seen in: A. Poly Atail B. CCA
A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Intron D. 7-methylguanosine
C. Cementum D. Bone 105. Gastric secretion is increased by all except
87. Highest amount of fluoride is seen in: A. Histamine B. Acetylcholine
A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Gastrin D.HCl
C. Cementum D. Bone
106. Maximum reservoir of blood -
88. Collar stud abscess seen in: A. Veins B. Aorta
A. TB B. Syphilis C. Heart D. Capillaries
C. Actinomycosis D. Staphylococcal 107. HCI secretion in gastric phase is increased by -
89. The following are absorbable suture materials, A. Pepsinogen B.CCK
except: C. Gastrin D. Secretin
A. Catgut B. Polyglycolic acid
C. Prolene D. Polydiaxone 108. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in-
A. Duodenum B. Jejunum
90. The ulcer which has undermined edge is due to C. Ileum D. Colon
the cause: 109. P wave is absent in -
A. Arterial B. Venous A. Atrial fibrillation B.CCF
C. Tuberculous ulcer D. Malignancy C. Atrial flutter D.PSVT
91. Dermoid cyst are commonly seen in:
A. Finger B. Skin 110. Renin is present in -
C. Skull D. Hip A. Gastric juice B. Liver

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C. Kidney D.Lung C. Hypovolemic shock D. Cardiogenic shock

111. Which of the following increases during surgical 128. Which of the following is true for shock?
stress - A. Hypotension B. Hypoperfusion to tissues
A. Cortisol B. Glucagon C. Hypoxia D. All of the above
C. Insulin D. Gastrin 129. Which of the following is the best parameter to as-
112. Windkessel effect is seen in - sess fluid intake in polytrauma patient?
A. Large elastic vessels B. Capacitance vessels A. Urine output B. CVP
C. Throughfare channels D. Capillaries C. BP D. Hydration
113. On increasing vagal tone following occurs in
pacemaker- 130. Features of hypovolemic shock are all, except:
A. Increased Na+ increased slop A. Oliguria B. Bradycardia
B. Decreased Na+ decreased slop C. Low BP D. Acidosis
C. Increased Na+ decreased slop
D. Decreased Na+ increased slop 131. Which of the following is ideal in moderate hem-
orrhagic shock?
114. Dentinal tubule as it traverses towards pulp follow a: A. Dextrose B. Ringer lactate
A. C-shaped path B. S-shaped path C. Blood D. Dextran
C. Zig-zag path D. V-shaped path 132. Cryoprecipitate contains:
115. Dentinal tubule density near pulp is: A. Factor II B. Factor V
A. 5,000-20,000 B. 20,000-35,000 C. Factor VIII D. Factor IX
C. 45,000-65,000 D. 70,000-95,000 133. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and pheochromocytoma
may be associated with:
116. The major collagen type in dentin is: A. Medullary carcinoma B. Papillary carcinoma
A. Type I B.Type II C. Anaplastic carcinoma D. Follicular carcinoma
C. Type III D. Dentin has no collagen
117. Tensile strength of dentin is: 134. PGs in semen are secreted by -
A. 22 MPa B. 52 Mpa A. Prostate B. Seminal vesicle
C. 62 Mpa D. 80 Mpa C. Sperms D. Testes
118. Level V cervical nodes includes: 135. Inable to consolidate long term memory damage to-
A. Upper jugular nodes B. Middle jugular nodes A. Frontal B. Parietal
C. Lower jugular nodes D. Posterior triangle nodes C. Temporal D. Hippocampi
136. Actin's active site is covered by-
119. Abbey estlander flap is used in reconstruction of: A. Myosin B. Tropomyosin
A. Buccal mucosa B. Lip C. Troponin D.Desmin
C. Tongue D. Palate
120. In neck dissection above omohyoid muscle the 137. Mahler scale is used for assessing
structures removed are: A. Fracture in restoration
A. Level 1, 2, 3 nodes B. Level 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, nodes B. Fracture in tooth structure surrounding a restoration
C. Level 3, 4, 5, nodes D. level 1-7 nodes C. Marginal breakdown of a restoration
121. Commonest malignancy of oral cavity is: D. Taper of the cavity walls
A. Adenocarcinoma B. Transitional cell carcinoma 138. The recommended rubber dam retainer for maxillary
C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Basal cell carcinoma molar anchor tooth is
A. W7 B. W8
122. Stones are most commonly seen in which salivary C. W4 D. W2
gland:
A. Submandibular B. Sublingual 139. Amyloid deposition is seen in which type of carcinoma
C. Parotid thyroid:
D. Occurs with equal frequency in all the salivary glands A. Follicular B. Papillary
C. Anaplastic D. Medullary
123. Surgery of choice for pleomorphic adenoma is: 140. All of the following are true regarding medullary
A. Total parotidectomy B. Superficial parotidectomy carcinoma of thyroid, except:
C. Total parotidectomy with lymph node dissection A. Total thyroidectomy is done B. Parafollicular cells involved
D. Radical parotidectomy C. TSH dependent D. Releases calcitonin

124. The nerve that is not injured in surgery for sub- 141. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intraabdominal
mandibular gland: bleeding in an unstable patient:
A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Lingual nerve A. CT scan B. MRI scan
C. Cervical branch of facial nerve C. USG
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage

125. True regarding Sjogren syndrome are all of the 142. A man sustained injury and presented with fluid
following, except: coming out through nose. What could be the possible
A. Autoimmune condition fracture?
B. Males are commonly affected A. Fracture base of skull B. Fracture of mandible
C. Progressive destruction of lacrimal and salivary gland C. Fracture of maxilla D. None of the above
D. No single laboratory investigation is pathognomonic
143. What is not found in head injury?
126. Sclerosis is due to extensive deposition of: A. Confusion B. Loss of consciousness
A. Primary dentin B. Peritubular dentin C. Lucid interval D. GCS score of 0
C. Mantle dentin D. Orthodentin
144. Glasgow coma scale in death is:
127. Hemorrhage leads to: A. 0 B. 1
A. Septicemic shock B. Neurogenic shock C. 2 D. 3

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C. 21-30 days D. 4-6 weeks

145. Effect of steroids on calcium- 163. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:
A. Increased plasma level A. Trauma B. Unknown
B. Increased absorption from gut C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Odontogenic infections
C. Increased excretion from kidney
D. None 164. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is absent in
146. Lacis cells are located at - DNA?
A. JGA B. Proximal tubule
C. Distal tubule D. Loop pf henle A. Uracil B. Guanine
C. Thymine D. Cytosine
147. Extradural hemorrhage commonly occurs from tearing 165. The TATA box is located in
of: A. Promoter region. B. Splice enhancer.
A. Maxillary artery B. Middle meningeal artery C. Between Intron-exon. D. Poly-asdiction site.
C. Bridging veins D. All of the above
148. The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhea is: 166. In which of the following tissues, is glycogen incapable
A. Spenoidal sinus B. Frontal sinus of contributing directly to blood glucose?
C. Cribriform plate D. Tegmen tympani A. Liver B. Muscle
149. The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial C. Both D. None
pressure in head injury is: 167. Cytoplasmic Rate limiting enzyme for Urea Cycle is
A. Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation A. Carbonyl Phosphate Synthetase 1
B. Contralateral pupillary dilatation B. Arginosuccinate Synthetase
C. Altered mental status D. Hemiparesis C. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

150. Hypokalemia ECG changes all except - 168. In first step of Heme synthesis, what is required -
A. Tall T wave B. Prolonged QRS interval A. Fe B. Folate
C. Depressed ST segment D. Prominent U waves C. Glycine D. Histidine
151. Neurons in sympathetic ganglia are -
A. Unipolar B. Bipolar 169. Which of the following is not an antioxidant -
C. Pseudounipolar D. Multipolar A. Beta carotene B. Vit C
152. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by - C.VitE D.VitB1
A. Pepsin B. Enterokinase 170. Carboxylation is governed by -
C. HQ D. None A. Biotin B. Niacin
C. Thiamine D. Pyridoxine
153. Which vitamin required for hydroxylation of proline-
A. A B. D 171. Methionine can entre the TCA cycle at which level-
C. C D. K A. Fumarate B. Oxabacetate
154. Intrinsic factor in stomach is secreted by C. Succinyl - CoA D. Citrate
A. Parietal cells B. Chief cells
C. Zymogen cells D. Enterochromaffin cells 172. In glycolysis, inorganic phosphate is used reaction,
155. Which of the following protein inhibits heme loss catalyzed by -
from plasma - A. Enolase B. Pyruvate kinase
A. Ferritin B.Hemopexin C. Glyceraldehyde-3-p dehydrogenase
C. Ceruloplasmin D. Hemosiderin D. Aldolase

156. K+ secretion from loop of henle is decreased by - 173. Telomerase is -

A. Furosemide B.Thiazide A. DNA dependant RNA polymerase
C. Spironolactone D.Acetazolamide B. RNA dependant DNA polymerase
157. Interdental papillae are seen protruding beneath the C. RNA dependant RNA polymerase
rubber dam mostly when? D. DNA dependant DNA polymerase
A. Holes are placed too far apart 174. The following metabolite is a derivative of tryptophan-
B. Gingival enlargement due to inflammation A. Melatonin B. Thyroxine
C. Thin dam C. Epinephrine D. Nor epinephrine
D. Holes are placed too close
175. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one
158. Transillumination is used to assess molecule to another are known as -
A. Vitality B. Periapical abscess A. Ligases B. Oxido-reductases
C. Tooth sensitivity D. Vertical fracture C. Transferases D. Dipeptidases
176. In a person fasting overnight with carnitine
159. The maximum depth of the pin in dentin for pin deficiency, following chemicals increase in quantity
retained restoration is in blood -
A. 0.5 mm B. 1 mm A. Glucose B. Fatty acids
C. 1.5 mm D. 2 mm C. Amino acids D. Ketone bodies
160. The dentinal tubule wall has an organic lining called
as: 177. Most blood enters the ventricle during which of the
A. Lamina lucida B. Lamina limitans following phases of the cardiac cycle :
C. Lamina propria D. Lamina dentina A. Atrial systole B. Atrial diastole
161. The main body of dentin is made of: C. Ventricular systole D. Isovolumic contraction
A. Peritubular dentin B. Intertubular dentin 178. Elasticity of the heart is due to
C. Predentin D. Mantle dentin A. Actin B. Myosin
C. Titin D. Dystrophin
162. Latent period for distraction osteogenesis is: 179. Peakless Insulin is
A. 5-7 days B. 2-3 weeks A. Insulin Glargine B. Regular Insulin

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C. NPH Insulin D. Insulin Glusiline C. Fatty acid D. Base

180. The head of condyle articulates with: 199. Citrate used in fatty acid synthesis uses which
A. Lingual tubercle and anterior part of mandibular fossa enzyme -
B. Articular tubercle and posterior part of mandibular fossa A. Citrate Synthase B. ATP citrate lyase
C. Lingual tubercle and posterior part of mandibular fossa C. Aconitase D. Malic enzyme
D. Articular tubercle and anterior part of mandibular fossa 200. G-6-PD deficiency causes -
A. Leukemia B. Hemolytic anemia
181. The mandibular fossa is in: C. Hemophilia D.None
A. Temporal bone B. Occipital bone
C. Mandible D. Zygomatic bone 201. Enzyme deficient in Galactosemia, most commonly -
182. The articular surfaces of mandible and temporal bone A. Galactokinase B.Epimerase
is interposed by: C. Uridyl transferase D. None
A. Glenoid fossa B. Lateral ligament 202. Precursor of norepinephrine -
C. Articular disc D. Articular space A. Tryptophan B. Tyrosine
C. Methionine D. Asparagine
183. The anterior region of articular disc fuses with: 203. Mid diastolic Murmur with presystolic accentuation is
A. Lateral ligament B. Fibrous capsule typically seen in:
C. Mandibular fossa D. Condyle head A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral Regurgitation
184. The posterior region of articular disc fuses with fibrous C. Aortic stenosis D. MVP
capsule by:
A. Lateral ligament B. Bilaminar zone 204. Double Density sign in Mitral Stenosis is a sign of
C. Sphenomandibular ligament enlargement of:
D. Superior head of lateral pterygoid muscle A. Right Atrium B. Left Atrium
185. In the electric pulp test, the pain sesation is carried by C. Left Auricle D. Right Auricle
A. Delta fibres B. Alpha fibres 205. Severity of Mitral Regurgitation may be judged by
C. Fibres D. d Beta fibres A. Intensity of murmur B. Duration of murmur
C. Left ventricular S3 D. Loud S1
186. Fat is maximum snythesised in -
A. Liver B. Adipose tissue 206. All of the following statements about mitral valve
C. Intestine D. Muscle prolapse are true except:
187. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion - A. It is more common in females
A. 20% B. 70 % B. Most patients are symptomatic
C. 10% D. 100% C. It has a benign clinical course
188. Carbon monoxide poisoning is a type of - D. Transient cerebral ischemic is a know complication
A. Anemic hypoxia B. Histotoxic hypoxia 207. Pulse oximetry is based on which law?
C. Hypoxic hypoxia D. Stagnant hypoxia A. Pascal's law B. Doppler law
C. Poiseuille law D. Beer law
189. Gastric acid decreased by - 208. Normal intrapulpal pressure
A. Secritin B. Vagal stimulation A. 16 mm B. 32 mm
C. Proteins in gastric fluids D. Gastric antral distension C. 120 mm D. 8 mm
190. First aid to control external hemorrhage is:
A. Endoscopic control B. Apply pressure 209. Sharp stabbing pain from anterior teeth conducted to
C. Drugs D. Operation brain by
A. A-delta fibres B. C-fibres
191. The Mc Spadden compactor has an appearance similar C. A-alpha fibres D. B-fibres
to 210. C shaped canals are commonly seen in
A. Lenlulospiral B. A reverse H file A. Maxillary first molar B. Mandibular first molar
C. A.K. Flex file D. Root canal plugger C. Maxillary first premolar D. Mandibular first premolar
192. Second-generation apex locator 211. The fourth canal in maxillary first molar is commonly
A. Resistance B. Impedence located in
C. Frequency D. Conduction A. Distobuccal B. Palatal
193. All are an aesthetic agents except C. Mesiobuccal D. Distolingual
A. Flumazenil B. Midazolam
C. Thiopentone D. Propofol 212. Which instrument is used to remove gutta-percha?
A. H-file B. K-file
194. Anterior open bite occurs in the fracture of: C. S-file D. Flexo-file
A. Symphysis B. Bilateral angle 213. EDTAC is
C. Bilateral condyle D. Unilateral condyle A. EDTA + Cetrimide B. EDTA + Ca(OH)2
195. Bilateral subconjunctival ecchymosis is not associated C. EDTA + Cetavlon D. EDTA + Ciprofloxacin
with:
A. Le-fort II fracture B. Le-fort III fracture 214. Grossman's sealer is a type of
C. Naso-ethmoidal complex fracture A. Epoxy resin-based sealer
D. Le-fort I fracture. B. Calcium hydroxide-based sealer
196. Gate control theory of pain is modulated by: C. Glass ionomer-based sealer
A. B fibers B. C fibers D. Zinc oxide eugenol-based sealer
C. Substantia gelatinosa
D. Transmission system of CNS 215. Champange test is done for
197. Which of the following in not a form of vitamin D- A. NaOCL B. H202
A. Cholecalceferol B. Calcifediol C. Chlorhexidine D. EDTA solution
C. Ergosterol D. Calcitriol
216. The most important feature of using the root canal
198. Nucleotide consists of all except - irrigating solution is
A. Sugar B. Phosphate A. Quantity of irrigant B. Chelating action

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C. Size of needle D. Depth of penetration C. Body of the lesion D. Surface zone

217. Endotech II is used in 234. Caries activity test measures:
A. Obturation B. Irrigation A. Buffering capacity of the saliva
C. Biomechanical preparation D. Access cavity B. No of streptococci mutans
218.Avulsed tooth dip into citric acid because C. Measures the activity of reductase enzyme from the saliva
A. To remove periodontal ligament D. All of the above
B. To increase the surface area 235. Uric acid is formed in humans in-
C. To provide a barrier D. To increase tension A. Liver B. GIT mucosa
C. Kidney D. Joints
219. The connective tissue component of oral mucosa is
termed as: 236. Weakest bond is -
A. Lamina densa B. Lamina dura A. Covalent B. Hydrogen
C. Lamina propria D. Lamina lucida C. Electrostatic D. Vander wall
220. Most potent anti oxidant - 237. Xanthoproteic reaction involves -
A. Vit A B.VitK A. Nitric acid B. HCL
C.VitE D.VitC C. H:S04 D. Carbolic acid
238. Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis -
221. GLUT-5 is transporter for - A. HMG CoA reductase B. HMG CoA synthase
A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Mevalonate kinase D. Squalene synthetase
C. Mannose D. Galactose
222. Nucleotide includes- 239. Role of Vitamin K for activation in clotting cycle-
A. Base + sugar B. Base + phosphate group A. Carboxylation B. Hydroxylation
C. Base + sugar + phosphate group C. Transamination D. Deamination
D. None 240. During extraction of a maxillary molar, a root tip is left
223 Carboxylases require - in the maxillary sinus. The treatment of choice is:
A. Vitamin B, B. Vitamin B2 A. Perform Caldwell-Luc to remove the tip
C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin B7 B. Perform hemimaxillectomy
C. Enlarge opening in the socket area
224. Carbamoyl phosphate is used in- D. No treatment indicated
A. Urea B. Uric acid
C. Pyruvic acid D. Stearic acid
225. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management
of:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Distal ischemia affecting the skin of toes
C. Arteriovenous fistula D. Back pain

226. Immediate management of nasal bleed in facial injuries

is:
A. Reduction of nasal bones manually
B. Paraffin gauze packing
C. Positioning the patient in supine position
D. Positioning the patient in prone position

227. Glasgow Coma Scale is used:

A. To ascertain motor responsiveness
B. Verbal responsiveness C. Eye response
D. To ascertain level of consciousness

228. In a patient with Le Fort II, Le Fort III, and naso-

ethmoid fracture, what is the choice of intubation?
A. Oral B. Oral and nasal
C. Nasal D. Submental

229. Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of:

A. Symphysis B. Bilateral angles
C. Bilateral condyles D. Unilateral condyle
230. Best radiograph for fractures of middle third of face:
A. Submentovertex B. Reverse Towne's view
C. OPG D. Occipitomental view

231. While doing circum-mandibular wiring there are

chances of injuring:
A. Facial nerve B. Facial artery, vein
C. Epiglottis D. Lingual nerve

232. In severe exercise, decrease in pH is due to

A. Respiratory acidosis B. Lactic acidosis
C. H+ retention D. Multipolar

233. Largest pore volume is seen in which of the following

histopathological zone of early enamel caries:
A. Dark zone B. Translucent zone

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