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UPCAT (University of the Philippines College Admissions Test)

Reviewer

Name: __________________________________ Date: _______________


Directions: Shade the bubble of your selected answer. Use a Mongol © no. 2 Pencil only.

SCIENCE

1. Remora fish have a disk on their heads that makes them able to attach to sharks and whales. What
relationship is seen between the two animals?

o A. Mutualism
o B. Parasitism
o C. Predator-prey
o D. Commensalism

2. Martha needs to measure 53 mL of hydrochloric acid. What is the best laboratory tool that she can
use to measure the said quantity?

o A. Beaker
o B. Dropper
o C. Graduated cylinder
o D. Volumetric flask

3. Which of the following is/are TRUE about light?


I. Light travels in a straight line.
II. Light is an electromagnetic wave.
III. Light needs a medium so it can travel.
IV. Light consists of photons that carry energy.

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV

4. Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation?


A. FeBr3 + H2SO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + HBr
B. 3FeBr3 + 2H2SO4  6Fe2(SO4)3 + HBr
C. 2FeBr3 + 2H2SO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + HBr
D. 2FeBr3 + 3H2SO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + 6HBr

5. Gabe’s car conked out in the middle of an expressway. He had to apply a force of 1200 N to push the
car 200 m to the nearest gasoline station. Determine the work done on the car.

A. 6J
B. 1200 J
C. 2400 N-m
D. 240,000 J

6. An unknown substance was added to the water and it was observed that the pH level increased. The
substance is most probably a/ an_____.

A. Acid
B. Base
C. Element
D. Solvent
7. The scientific notation for 0.00000000106 km is _________.

A. 1.06 x 10-9 km
B. 0.106 x 10-8 km
C. 1.06 X 109 km
D. 106 x 10-11 km

8. In a solution, the substance that does the dissolving is called ________.

A. The solute
B. The solvent
C. An ion
D. Soluble

9. A student wishes to find the density of an irregular piece of rock. How will he find the volume?

A. Utilize the formula of length x width x height


B. Place it on a triple beam balance
C. Put it in a beaker
D. Use water displacement

10. A barge filled with scrap iron is in a canal lock. If the barge were to sink, what would happen to the
water level?

A. It would fall
B. It would remain unchanged
C. It would rise
D. It would depend on its mass

11. Of the following biological levels of organization, which presents the smallest or lowest level?

A. Organs
B. Organism
C. Cells
D. Tissues

12. In a plant, what part stores sugars as starch?

A. Leaves
B. Roots
C. Seeds
D. All of the above

13. If the volume of a gas at a certain pressure is halved, ____________.

A. Its temperature is halved


B. Its temperature is doubled
C. Its temperature remains constant
D. Its temperature increases according to a geometric progression
14. A hydrocarbon that contains one or more double bonds is classified as _____.

A. Alkyne
B. Alkene
C. Ketone
D. Alkane

15. A slippery outer covering in some bacteria that protects them from phagocytosis by host cells is called
the ________.

A. Capsule
B. Cell wall
C. Flagellum
D. Peptidoglycan

16. __________ is the amount of water vapor in the air.

A. Humidity
B. Wind speed
C. Rain
D. Air pressure

17. The main energy source of the water cycle comes from the _________.

A. Rain
B. Sun
C. Wind
D. Earth’s core

18. Density indicates the relationship between ___________.

A. Mass and volume


B. Mass and width
C. Volume and size
D. Mass and length

19. The top layer of the earth is the _________.

A. Core
B. Mantle
C. Crust
D. Plates

20. The term “nimbus”, when added to a cloud’s name, means _________.

A. Hail
B. Snow
C. Precipitation
D. Rain
21. An organism that breaks down dead plants and animals to complex compounds is called a/an
________.

A. Heterotrophic organism
B. Saprotrophic organism
C. Tertiary consumer
D. Autotroph

22. A population can grow larger if there is a large supply of _______.

A. Niches
B. Shelter
C. Food
D. Clothing

23. Which scale measures the magnitude of earthquakes?

A. Richter scale
B. Heisenberg scale
C. Einstein scale
D. Schrodinger scale

24. The amount of water vapor present in the air is called ________.

A. Density
B. Humidity
C. Vaporization
D. Volume

25. An example of this process would be rain and snow.

A. Condensation
B. Precipitation
C. Evaporation
D. Surface runoff

26. When a lit match is touched to a wick of the candle, the candle begins to burn. When the match is
removed, the candle continues to burn. In this reaction, the match _________________.

A. Behaves as a catalyst
B. Supplies activation energy
C. Is part of the rate determining step
D. Lowers the activation energy

27. Compared to a glass of ice water with ice in it, a glass of plain ice-cold water without ice on a day will
warm up _______.

A. Faster
B. Slower
C. In the same amount of time
D. None of the above
28. A gem or mineral that is red absorbs _________.

A. Red light
B. Mostly red light
C. Mostly the wavelength of the visible spectrum excluding red
D. More of the visible spectrum than a gem or a mineral that is violet

29. Which of the following cellular organelles function in the modification, sorting, and packaging of
proteins for secretion?

A. Ribosomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

30. Thomas Edison, who many refer to as the “inventor of light” said, “I tested no fewer than 6,000
vegetable growths, and ransacked the world for the most suitable filament material,’ before he
discovered tungsten as the filament for his lightbulb. The scientific attitude manifested by Edison is
________.

A. Hard work
B. Inventiveness
C. Open-mindedness
D. Persistence

31. It is the division of the nervous system that is sometimes called the “rest and digest” system. It
regulates sedentary activities, such as digestion.

A. Somatic nervous system


B. Autonomic nervous system
C. Parasympathetic nervous system
D. Peripheral nervous system

32. According to Boyle’s Law, at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of a dry gas is
___________.

A. Not related to its pressure


B. Inversely proportional to its pressure
C. Directly proportional to its pressure
D. Varies directly to the square of its pressure

33. In an experiment, the variables that are kept the same in the experiment and control set ups are
called _________.

A. Constant
B. Dependent
C. Independent
D. Intervening
34. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
I. Deposition and sublimation may involve chemical change.
II. Oxidation is an example of a chemical reaction.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither of the following statements

35. A 2,000 kg car accelerates from rest to a velocity of 20 m/s in 10 seconds. The power of the engine
during this acceleration is _________.

A. 200 kW
B. 20,000 kW
C. 4,000 kW
D. 40 kW

36. What is the phase of the moon if it is directly between the Earth and the Sun?

A. Full moon
B. New moon
C. Waning crescent
D. Waxing gibbous

37. Which of the following does not correctly describe a simple machine?

A. It increases the amount of work done


B. It changes the direction of the force
C. It increases the distance at which force is applied
D. It multiplies the amount of force applied

38. Marinades for meat commonly include acids such as vinegar or wine, because the acids can
___________.

A. Toughen meat
B. Tenderize meat
C. React with salt
D. Preserve meat

39. A solution that cannot hold any more solute at room temperature would be a_________.

A. Diluted solution
B. Concentrated solution
C. Supersaturated solution
D. Saturated solution

40. DNA needs to be replicated first before cell division can take place. In what phase does DNA
replication happens and how many number of chromosomes a human cell have in this phase?

o A. G1 phase, 46 chromosomes
o B. G1 phase, 0 chromosomes
o C. S phase, 46 chromosomes
o D. S phase, 92 chromosomes
41. Which of the following is NOT a macronutrient?

o A. Carbohydrates
o B. Lipids
o C. Water
o D. Nucleic acids

42. How much work is done when the force of the motion is perpendicular to the direction?

o A. 0 J
o B. 981 J
o C. 9.81 J
o D. 98.1 J

43. Hoverfly is a type of fly that resembles a dangerous bee ready to sting for defense. What kind of
adaptation does this organism uses?

o A. Mimicry
o B. Camouflage
o C. Warning coloration
o D. Crypsis

44. Which of the following value of p0H scale is the most acidic?

o A. 2
o B. 15
o C. 1
o D. 14

45. Horses and zebras are two different species mainly because?

o A. They cannot produce an offspring


o B. They have a significant difference in food intake
o C. They have a different structure for locomotion
o D. They have different appearance

46. Marvin is experimenting liquids with different density at a school laboratory. What would be the
arrangement from bottom to top, if canola oil and water are mixed in a beaker?

o A. Water, oil
o B. Oil, water
o C. The result would be a homogenous solution
o D. Oil, water, oil

47. What prefix should be used for describing the length of one light-year (9.46 x 1015 m)?

o A. Exa-
o B. Peta-
o C. Tera-
o D. Giga-
48. How many sex cells are produced in meiosis?

o A. 0 sex cells
o B. 1 sex cell
o C. 4 sex cells
o D. 2 sex cells

49. What would happen if the pancreas of a person is removed?

o A. The person will develop diabetes


o B. Adrenaline hormones would cease to be produced
o C. There will be abnormality in the person’s metabolism
o D. The person will experience stunted growth

50. This organelle serves as a storage for food, water, and waste products.

o A. Lysosome
o B. Vacuole
o C. Golgi apparatus
o D. Endoplasmic reticulum

51. Rhincodon typus, known as the whale shark or ‘butanding,’ is considered as the largest fish in the
sea. It can weigh up to 11,800 kg. How much does it weigh in lbs? (1 kg = 2.2 lbs.)

o A. 25, 960 lbs.


o B. 18, 172 lbs.
o C. 5, 364 lbs.
o D. 2, 596 lbs.

52. A 40-kg figure skater is pushed with a force of 180 N. What is the acceleration of the figure skater?

o A. 4.5 m/s2
o B. 9.0 m/s2
o C. 0.2 m/s2
o D. 9.8 m/s2

53. What is the effect of doubling the speed of the object to the object’s kinetic energy?

o A. The kinetic energy doubles


o B. The kinetic energy remains constant
o C. The kinetic energy quadruples
o D. The kinetic energy increases by 1

54. The volume of a gas XYZ at 30°C measure at 450 ml. At constant pressure, what will be its volume
at 50°C?

o A. 270 ml
o B. 422 ml
o C. 480 ml
o D. 750 ml
55. A ball has a mass of 23 g. What is its weight due to gravity?

o A. 0.2254 N
o B. 2.254 N
o C. 22.54 N
o D. 225.4 N

56. How is a volcanic island formed?

o A. Collision of two oceanic plates


o B. Accumulation of pyroclastic materials
o C. Collision of two continental plates
o D. Cooling of lava by seawater

57. An upright stick that is allowed to cast a shadow in the sunlight is called?

o A. Almagest
o B. Sextant
o C. Gnomon
o D. Equinox

58. James rode on his bike from 9:00 am to 10:30 am. If he drove at an average speed of 15 kph,
what was the total distance he covered?

o A. 17.5 km
o B. 32.5 km
o C. 22.5 km
o D. 27.5 km

59. Review this statement.


I. When viewed straight down (90° to the surface), an incident light ray moving from the water
to air is refracted.

o A. It is refracted about 49°


o B. It is not refracted
o C. It is refracted away from the normal point
o D. It is refracted towards the normal point

60. What is the force that wears down mountains?

o A. Earthquakes
o B. Volcanic eruptions
o C. Erosions
o D. Predispositions

61. A speedy toddler mover from her chair to the door in 15 seconds. Her speed changes from rest to 0.5
m/s. What is the speedy toddler’s average acceleration?

o A. 0.033 m/s2
o B. 0.33 m/s
o C. 30 m/s2
o D. 0.5 m/s
62. What is the angle of reflection of a light if its angle of incidence is 5 degrees?

o A. 5 degrees
o B. 95 degrees
o C. 85 degrees
o D. 185 degrees

63. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?

o A. Speed
o B. Gravitational potential energy
o C. Power
o D. Force

64. Four-o’-clock flowers exhibit incomplete dominance when bred. What would the genotype when
crossing a homozygous red with a homozygous white flower?

o A. 100% pink
o B. 100% white
o C. 50% red, 50% white
o D. 75% red, 25% white

65. What is the chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation?

o A. Left atrium
o B. Right atrium
o C. Left ventricle
o D. Right ventricle

66. What is the proper order of the Linnaean system of classification?

o A. Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Genus, Family, Species


o B. Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Family, Class, Genus, Species
o C. Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
o D. Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Family, Order, Genus, Species

67. Organisms like clams, squids, and cuttlefish are invertebrates that belong to the phylum ________.

o A. Nematoda
o B. Arthropoda
o C. Mollusca
o D. Echinodermata

68. A subway car moves 5 kilometers north, turned east and moved 4 kilometers. Finally it turned
southward and moved another 5 kilometers. What is the displacement of the subway car?

o A. 1 km
o B. 4 km
o C. 5 km
o D. 14 km
69. Why does semen have alkaline bases as part of its composition?

o A. To maintain a neutral environment for the sperm to “swim” in.


o B. To protect the sperm from the acidic environment in the vagina.
o C. To speed up the transport of the sperm to the fallopian tube.
o D. To destroy any rival sperm cells inside the vagina.

70. This is a process that combines nitrogen in the air with other elements.

o A. Nitrogen fixation
o B. Nitrification
o C. Denitrification
o D. Assimilation

71. Which part of cellular respiration produce the most Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)?

o A. Glycolysis
o B. Electron transport chain
o C. Pyruvate oxidation
o D. Krebs cycle

72. All of the following processes happen in the prophase stage of mitosis EXCEPT for?

o A. The nucleoli disappears


o B. The nuclear envelope disappears
o C. The mitotic spindle fibers form
o D. The pairs of chromatid line up

73. The formation of clouds is part of the water cycle. What physical change is shown by the formation
of clouds?

o A. Clouds are formed in the process of sublimation


o B. Liquid vapor evaporates and turns into water vapor
o C. Water vapor condenses to form tiny water droplets
o D. Clouds are formed through deposition prior to precipitation

74. NaCl (sodium chloride) is also called as ‘table salt’. The Na (sodium) and Cl (chlorine) atoms are held
by a/an ___________.

o A. Ionic bond
o B. Covalent bond
o C. Metallic bond
o D. Electrostatic bond

75. A scientist would like to know the effect on the metal iron (Fe) on the growth of the mice’ brain. He
observed new born mice for four weeks. In this experiment, what is the dependent variable?

o A. The concentration of iron ions in the water


o B. The growth of the mice’ brain
o C. The quality and quantity of diet
o D. The size of the cage of the mice
76. Picrophilus torridus is usually found in soil near a hot spring. What domain does this organism belong
to?

o A. Archaea
o B. Bacteria
o C. Eukarya
o D. Protista

77. Which of the following is TRUE about the layers of the atmosphere?

o A. Hot air balloons fly in the mesosphere


o B. Airplanes fly at the stratosphere where atmospheric conditions are stable
o C. Radio waves transmitted from Earth are reflected back by the exosphere
o D. The ozone layer is located in the thermosphere

78. A cylindrical tank filled with water is punctured with holes at positions A, B, C, and D. In which hole
will the water shoot the farthest?

○ A.

○ B.
○ C.

○ D.

79. What is the brightest star in the sky?

o A. Sirius A / The Dog Star


o B. Polaris / The North Star
o C. Proxima α (alpha) Centauri
o D. None of the above

80. Which of the following gas laws explain the shrinking of a ball when left out in a cold weather?

o A. Charles’ Law
o B. Boyle’s Law
o C. Gay-Lussac’s Law
o D. Avogadro’s Law

81. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the shape of the Earth?

o A. The earth is a perfect sphere


o B. The earth’s tilt affects the shape of the earth
o C. The earth slightly bulges at the equator
o D. The earth’s shape is affected by the tides
82. Which of the following differentiates eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?

o A. Its multicellular structure


o B. Presence of genetic material
o C. Presence of cilia and flagella
o D. Presence of membrane-bound organelles

83. An example of a metamorphic rock is marble. Which of the following describes the formation of
metamorphic rocks?

o A. They are formed due to heat and pressure


o B. They are formed due to the heat in the earth’s interior
o C. They are formed solely from the pressure within the earth
o D. They are formed from the settling and compaction of sediments

84. Which of the following part of the cell is responsible for giving cells their shape?

o A. Cytoskeleton
o B. Vacuoles
o C. Endoplasmic reticulum
o D. Plasma membrane

85. Mimosa pudica, locally known as ‘makahiya,’ closes its leaves when touched or agitated. Which
manifestation of life is shown by the plant?

o A. Ability to grow
o B. Ability to reproduce
o C. Ability to respond to stimuli
o D. Ability to adapt to the environment

86. A mixture by soil and water may be separated into components by ___________.

o A. Decantation
o B. Evaporation
o C. Electrophoresis
o D. Chromatography

87. What energy transformation happens in an LPG-fuelled oven?

o A. Chemical to sound
o B. Chemical to light and thermal
o C. Potential to chemical and thermal
o D. Electrical to mechanical and thermal

88. Which of the following does not correctly describe a simple machine?

o A. It increases the amount of work done


o B. It multiplies the amount of force applied
o C. It changes the direction of the force
o D. It increases the distance at which force is applied
89. Which of the following is a physical change?

o A. Burning of pasta
o B. Corrosion of iron
o C. Tarnishing of silver
o D. Melting of chocolate

90. Which of the following statement DOES NOT help in distinguishing plant cells and animal cells?

o A. Animal cells do not have cell walls


o B. Plant cells have chloroplasts
o C. Plant cells have a large central vacuole
o D. Animal cells have chromosomes

91. Materials and heat circulate in the oceans because of currents which are brought out by ________.

o A. Conduction
o B. Convection
o C. Insulation
o D. Radiation

92. Heptane is always composed of 84% carbon and 16% hydrogen by mass. What law does this
observation illustrate?

o A. The Law of Multiple Proportions


o B. The Law of Definite Proportions
o C. The Law of Conservation of Mass
o D. The Law of Conservation of Energy

93. Unless an object at rest us acted upon by a force, it stays at rest due to its ___________.

o A. Matter
o B. Inertia
o C. Friction
o D. Gravity

94. The acceleration of the body is due to the ____________.

o A. Balanced force
o B. Unbalanced force
o C. Mass
o D. Electrostatic force

95. As a star exhaust hydrogen in its core, it becomes ___________.

o A. Hotter and more luminous


o B. Cooler and more luminous
o C. Hotter and less luminous
o D. Cooler and less luminous

96. Which of the following is not considered a simple machine?

o A. Wedge
o B. Pulley
o C. Lever
o D. Wheelbarrow
97. Jack is trapped in a deserted island due to the sinking of the ship Titanic. He needs freshwater in
order to survive. What process should he utilize to acquire freshwater from the saltwater?

o A. Filtration
o B. Decantation
o C. Evaporation
o D. Distillation

98. Which of the following factors affect the dissolving process?


I. Stirring
II. Pressure
III. Surface Area
IV. Temperature

o A. I and II only
o B. I, II and III
o C. I, III and IV
o D. I, II, III and IV

99. It is an atom that has more electrons than protons.

o A. Polyatomic ion
o B. Anion
o C. Cation
o D. Monoatomic ion

100. An analysis of a compound used in the production of aluminum is 32.79% sodium, 13.02%
aluminum and 54.19% fluorine. The empirical formula of the compound is

o A. Na3AlF6
o B. Na5AlF8
o C. NaAlF
o D. Na3AlF3

101. Extensive properties are physical properties that depend on the amount of matter. Which of the
following is an extensive property?

o A. Volume
o B. Density
o C. Length
o D. Mass

102. How many electrons does cobalt have knowing that it has 27 protons and 32 neutrons?

o A. 59 electrons
o B. 5 electrons
o C. 32 electrons
o D. 27 electrons

103. What is the temperature (in the Kelvin scale) of absolute zero?

o A. 0 K
o B. 273.15 K
o C. -273.15 K
o D. 459.67 K
104. The electronegativity of the element within a period generally increases from left to right and within
a group, it generally decreases from top to bottom. Which of the following is the most electronegative
element?

o A. Boron
o B. Oxygen
o C. Fluorine
o D. Iodine

105. What type of chemical reaction represents this formula: AB  A + B?

o A. Combination
o B. Decomposition
o C. Single-replacement
o D. Double-replacement

106. What are the coefficients needed to balance the equation C6H12O4 + O2  CO2 + H2O?

o A. 1, 7, 6, 6
o B. 1, 6, 6, 7
o C. 1, 6, 7, 6
o D. 1, 7, 6, 7

107. If the half-life of a 100g hypothetical radioactive material is 8 years, how many grams will remain
after 32 years?

o A. 12.5 g
o B. 25 g
o C. 3. 125 g
o D. 6.25 g

108. How many particles of hydrogen are there in 2 moles of H 2O?

o A. 2.4 X 1024
o B. 1.2 X 1024
o C. 1.8 X 1024
o D. 3.6 X 1024

109. Alex wanted to test if there is a variation of plant growth using different amounts of chicken dung
and night soil. What should be his independent variable?

o A. Amounts of chicken dung and night soil


o B. Amount of sunlight and water
o C. Soil content
o D. Plant growth

110. Which of the following increases when going down the periodic table?
o A. Atomic radius
o B. Electron affinity
o C. Ionization energy
o D. Non-metallic character
111. What are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum of a cell making it rough?

o A. Protein
o B. Ribosomes
o C. DNA
o D. RNA

112. An electromagnetic wave travels through a vacuum with a frequency of 100,000,000 hertz. What
is its speed?

o A. 100,000 m/s
o B. 200,000 m/s
o C. 300,000 m/s
o D. 400,000 m/s

113. What is the unit for weight based on the International System of Units?

o A. Grams
o B. Joules
o C. Watts
o D. Newton

114. What could be the reason for the formation of a rift valley?

o A. Collision of two continental plates


o B. Converging of an oceanic and a continental plate that leads to the subduction of the less dense
oceanic plate
o C. Divergence of two continental plates
o D. Divergence of two oceanic plates

115. While going home, a dog suddenly appears and chase you out of nowhere. What endocrine gland
induce fight-or-flight response making your body tense and ready to take action?

o A. Pituitary
o B. Thyroid
o C. Adrenal
o D. Thymus

116. Which of the following pair converge light rays?

o A. Convex lens and concave mirrors


o B. Concave lens and convex mirrors
o C. Convex lens and convex mirrors
o D. Concave lens and concave mirrors

117. Which of the following choices is TRUE?

o A. A transformer can work with either AC or DC current.


o B. A step-up voltage transformer steps up the current.
o C. A generator transforms electrical energy to mechanical energy.
o D. A transformer is an application of Faraday’s law.
118. Where is the asteroid belt located in the solar system?

o A. Between Jupiter and Saturn


o B. Between Saturn and Uranus
o C. Between Venus and Mars
o D. Between Mars and Jupiter

119. Which of the following pairs incorporate the inverse square law?

o A. Kepler’s Law of Planetary Motion : Faraday’s Law of Induction


o B. Boyle’s Kaw : Gay-Lussac’s Law
o C. Coulomb’s Law : Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation
o D. Bio-Savart’s Law: Ampere’s Law

120. Johnny, a carpenter, was tasked to separate pebbles and sand from a mixture. Which of the
following separation technique will be the most suitable?

o A. Decantation
o B. Sieving
o C. Centrifuging
o D. Chromatography

121. Alfred Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory consist some of the evidences in the choices below
EXCEPT FOR ONE. Identify the false one.

o A. Rocks of different ages across the Coast of Brazil and Western Africa.
o B. Location of Mesosaurus fossils.
o C. South America seems to fit into Africa.
o D. Tillites deposit on the places included in Gondwanaland.

122. What makes water an amphoteric compound?

o A. Higher density in liquid form than in solid form.


o B. It can react both as base and an acid.
o C. Its cohesiveness and adhesiveness.
o D. The hydrogen bonds in water which is a special type of dipole bond.

123. Where do igneous rocks come from?

o A. Crystallization from molten magma


o B. Surface deposits of fine materials
o C. Pressure from the lithosphere
o D. Application of both heat and pressure

124. Which of the following describes the bathypelagic zone in the ocean?

o A. No presence of sunlight
o B. There is enough sunlight to support photosynthesis
o C. It extends as far as 3000 feet below
o D. It has weak water pressure
125. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

o A. The earth takes 23.93 hours to spin once.


o B. All planets are located at regular intervals from the sun.
o C. Jovian planets rotate slower because they are larger in size.
o D. Inner terrestrial planets have thin or no atmosphere.

126. Air cools at the dry adiabatic rate of 10°C for each kilometer it rises. If a parcel of dry air initially
at 0°C expands adiabatically while flowing upward alongside a mountain, what is its temperature
when it has risen 8 km?

o A. - 80°C
o B. - 40°C
o C. 40°C
o D. 80°C

127. Professor Geller wanted to demonstrate the role of osmosis in plant cells. He placed the cells in
a solution that is hypertonic to the cells. The solution contains red microscopic dye particles. Which
of the following could be a possible result of Professor Geller’s demonstration?

o A. Plant cells decrease in size (flaccid), and the solution will have a lighter color.
o B. Plant cells increase in size (turgid), and the solution will remain the same color.
o C. Plant cells maintain their size, and the solution will become darker.
o D. Plant cells will burst, causing the solution to reduce its color.
128. A forensic anthropologist would most likely use which bone to determine the height of a corpse?

o A. Phalanges
o B. Femur
o C. Occipital
o D. Patella

129. Using the principle of sex-linked traits, if a father has hemophilia while the mother has no history
of hemophilia, what is the chance that their offspring will have this disease?

o A. All offspring, either male or female, are normal


o B. Male offspring will have the hemophilia trait
o C. Female offspring will have the hemophilia trait
o D. All offspring, either male or female, will carry the hemophilia trait

*Read the passage below to answer question numbers 130 to 135.

A group of scientists were studying the growth of bacteria. It is their hope that they will be able to
induce the bacteria to grow and metabolize oil as a food source. They have taken three samples of
Escherichia coli and are growing them on nutrient agar plates. The scientists used three conditions to
test the E.coli bacteria. The first group was grown at 37°C on plain nutrient agar plates. The second group
was grown at 37°C on plain nutrient agar plates with a 5% oil solution. The third group was grown at 37°C
on plain nutrient agar plates with a 20% oil solution. The results of the experiment are listed in the graph
below.
NUMBER OF BACTERIAL
COLONIES
NO OIL 5% OIL 20% OIL

30

25

20

15

10

0
DAY 2 DAY 4 DAY 6 DAY 8

130. What is the independent variable in the experiment above?

o A. The type of bacteria used.


o B. The nutrient agar.
o C. The nutrient agar with oil.
o D. The number of days the bacteria grew.

131. What is the dependent variable in the experiment above?

o A. The number of days the bacteria grew.


o B. The nutrient agar.
o C. The nutrient agar with the oil.
o D. The amount of growth of the bacteria.

132. Which bacterial culture had the greatest rate of growth throughout the 8-day period?

o A. Only the culture grown on nutrient agar had significant growth.


o B. The nutrient agar plate and the 5% oil plate had growth.
o C. The nutrient agar plate and the 20% oil plate had growth.
o D. The 5% oil and 20% oil plates had growth.

133. What is the best explanation for why the E.coli grew on the 5% oil plate but not the 20% oil plate?

o A. The bacteria are used to an environment with 5% oil and not 20% oil.
o B. The bacteria were able to mutate to tolerate a slightly oily environment of 5% oil, providing it
had other nutrients available and the 20% had far too much oil.
o C. The 5% plate had conditions that are similar to the natural environment they are accustomed
to.
o D. The 5% plate allowed more oxygen to interface with the bacteria because less oil was present.
134. Why did the nutrient agar bacteria plateau and then drop in numbers as they approached Day 8?

o A. The bacteria died because they had reached their mature age.
o B. The bacteria ran out of nutrients and had reached the carrying capacity of the plate.
o C. The bacteria always die after Day 6 in culture.
o D. There is no definitive reason why the bacteria died off after Day 6.

135. An excellent way to demonstrate that the scientists have induced E.coli to survive and metabolize
oil would be to ___________.

o A. Repeat the experiment several times with 5% oil on a nutrient agar plate
o B. Induce the bacteria on the 5% oil plate to grow on nutrient agar
o C. Take the bacteria from the 5% oil plate and test them on a new 20% oil plate
o D. New bacteria with the same experiment to see if that is the only bacteria that can accomplish
this

136. An astronaut orbits the earth in a space capsule whose height above the earth is equal to the
earth’s radius. How does the weight of the astronaut in the capsule compare to her weight on the
earth?

o A. Her weight is equal to her weight on earth.


o B. Her weight is equal to one-fourth her weight on earth.
o C. Her weight is equal to one-half of her weight on earth.
o D. Her weight is equal to one-third of her weight on earth.

137. As the drops of water that leak from a dripping faucet fall, they _____________.

o A. Get closer together


o B. Get farther apart
o C. The pattern of their motion can’t be determined.
o D. Remain at a relatively fixed distance from one another.

138. A new vaccine was discovered as a treatment for a certain viral chicken disease. What should a
scientist do in order to test for the effectivity of the vaccine?

o A. Administer the vaccine to 50 chickens and expose all of them to the disease.
o B. Administer the vaccine to 25 of 50 chickens and expose all 50 chickens to the disease.
o C. Expose 25 to 50 chickens to the disease then vaccinate all 50 chickens.
o D. Expose all 50 chickens to the disease then vaccinate 25 of them.

139. Which one of these is NOT TRUE?

o A. All planets revolve in the same direction.


o B. All planets rotate in the same direction.
o C. The orbits of the planets are all ellipses.
o D. The orbits of the planets are nearly in the same plane.

140. Water is essential in the process of photosynthesis. In plants, water is first absorbed in the roots
and is conducted all the way to the leaves where photosynthesis primarily occurs. This conduction
process occurs through the xylem vessels of plants.
There are two forces that participate in this water conduction: adhesion and cohesion. Adhesion
refers to the attractive forces between the water molecules and the walls of the xylem vessels, while
cohesion refers to the attractive forces among water molecules. Suppose an air bubble is present in
a xylem vessel, the conduction of water will be unable to proceed. What is the reason behind this
phenomenon?
o A. The air bubble interrupts the cohesive forces among the water molecules. It cuts the continuous
stream of water, making it unable to continually flow.
o B. The air bubble interrupts the adhesive forces between the walls of the xylem vessels and the
water molecules.
o C. The air bubble is less dense than water, therefore impending the continuous flow of water.
o D. The air bubble creates a pocket of space that eventually kills the xylem cells, thus preventing
it from resuming water conduction.

141. Boyle’s law states that “If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a gas varies inversely
as the pressure.” The volume of the gas is 204 mL at 840 mm pressure. Calculate the volume of the
same gas at 765 mm if the temperature is held constant.

o A. 112 ml
o B. 224 ml
o C. 288 ml
o D. 336 ml

142. The Law of Superposition states that in undisturbed strata of sedimentary rock, the oldest rock
layer is at the bottom, the youngest at the top. If geologists can determine which way was originally
“up” in a stack of layers, they can put those strata in the correct historical order. Rarely, after a
sequence of layers has been deposited and compressed to form rock, it may be literally overturned
by the thrusting of the Earth’s crust as continental plates collide. In rare cases like this, how can the
original sequence of the rocks be determined?

o A. Collect samples in near-by disrupted areas.


o B. They cannot be determined.
o C. Use carbon-dating on the fossils that are formed within the sedimentary rock layers.
o D. They are totally in reverse order of oldest to youngest.

143. The magnetic needle of a compass always points to the north because ____________.

o A. The needle touches the north pole


o B. The earth has a magnetic north pole
o C. Compasses are used for finding direction
o D. The earth’s magnetic field is strongest at the south pole

144. The translational speed of the center of mass of a bowling ball that rolls without slipping along the
horizontal section of the ball return is 3.50 m/s. It then moves through a vertical rise of 0.760 m on
the way back to the ball rack. If you neglect frictional losses and assume that the mass of the ball is
distributed uniformly, then what is the translational speed of the ball at the top of the rise?

o A. 1.27 m/s
o B. 1.52 m/s
o C. 1.32 m/s
o D. 4.78 m/s

145. A student holds a hand mirror to observe the back of her head while standing in front of and
looking into a wall mirror. If she is standing 4 feet in front of the wall mirror and she holds the hand
mirror 1 foot behind her head, she will see the back of her head how far behind the wall mirror?

o A. 6 feet
o B. 5 feet
o C. 4 feet
o D. 3 feet
146. All of the following are solutions except _________.

o A. Brass
o B. Coffee
o C. Seawater
o D. Milk

147. How come a person with type ‘B’ blood cannot donate to a person with type ‘A’ blood?

o A. The recipient has antibodies against B blood, which has B antigens, resulting in clotting up the
donated blood.
o B. The recipient has B surface antigens that can be recognized by antibodies of the donor,
resulting in rejection of the donated blood.
o C. Both A and B are true.
o D. None of the above statements are true.

148. Two forces are acting on an object as shown below. What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

o A. 200 N
o B. 40 N
o C. 66.7 N
o D. 185 N

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