2 5416087904969556847 PDF

.
__ -:
Review of·
. POST GRADUATE MED.ICAL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
22,000 MCQ'S
-FULLY REFERENCE-D AND TOPIC WISE ARRANGED
VOL. I _
ANATOMY
PHYSIOLOGY
BIOCHEMISTRY
S.P.M.
MICROBIOLOGY
By
ArvindArora
M.S. Orthopaedics
Assistant Professor
Seth GS. Medical College &
KEM Hospital, Mumbai
Amit Tripathi
M.B.B.S, B.R.D.M.C.
M.S. Opthalmics (Stu.), AGRA
Ashish Gupta
111BBS, KGMU
MD Radiodiagnosis, KGMU
Ex. SR GB. Pant Hospital, MAMC,
New Delhi
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Review of
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Review of P.G.M.E. Exam. by AmitTripathi,ArvindArora &Ashish Gupta

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
ANATOMY PAGE No.
QUESTION ANSWER
1. GENERAL 1.03 1.87
2. SUP EX 1.03 1.87
3. THORAX 1.13 1.93
4. INFEX 1.21 1.99
5. ABDOMEN 1.29 1.104
6. HEAD & NECK 1.48 1.116
7. BRAIN 1.67 1.129
8. EMBRYO 1.72 1.132
9. HISTOLOGY 1.79 1.138
10. JOINTS 1.82 1.140
11. MISCELLANEOUS 1.83 1.141
PHYSIOLOGY
1. INTRODUCTION 2.03 2.87

2. NERVOUS SYSTEM 2.11 2.92
3. ENDOCRINOLOGY
- METABOLISM 2.28 2.102
- THYROID 2.30 2.103
- PANCREAS 2.31 2.104
- ADRENAL 2.32 2.105
- CALCIUM METABOLISM 2.33 2.106
- PITUITARY 2.34 2.106
- SEX HORMONES 2.36 2.107
- MISCELLANEOUS 2.40 2.110
4. G.I.T. 2.41 2.111
5. CIRCULATION 2.47 2.115
6. RESPIRATORY 2.66 2.126
7. KIDNEY 2.77 2.132
BIOCHEMISTRY
1. STRUCTURE & FUNCTION OF PROTEIN 3.03 3.81

2. ENZYMES 3.08 3.84
3. RESPIRATORY CHAIN 3.12 3.87
4. METABOLISM OF CARBOHYDRATE 3.15 3.90
5. METABOLISM OF LIPID 3.26 3.97
6. METABOLISM OF PROTEIN & AMINO ACID 3.35 3.103
7. GENETICS & METABOLISM OF PURINE & PYRIMIDINES 3.44 3.109
8. MEMBRANE STRUCTURE & FUNCTION 3.58 3.119
9. ENDOCRINOLOGY 3.59 3.119
10. VITAMINS 3.62 3.121
11. NUTRITION & DIGESTION 3.67 3.125
12. MISCELLANEOUS 3.68 3.126
S.P.M.
1. CONCEPT OF HEALTH AND DISEASE

- HEALTH 4.3 4.131
- CONCEPT OF WELL BEING 4.3 4.131
- CONCEPT OF DISEASE CAUSATION 4.3 4.131
- CONCEPT OF CONTROL 4.4 4.131
- INDICATORS OF HEALTH 4.5 4.132
2. EPIDEMIOLOGY
- MEASUREMENT OF MORTALITY AND MORBIDITY 4.9 4.134
- EPIDEMIOLOGICAL STUDY 4.11 4.135
3. SCREENING FOR DISEASE 4.27 4.143
- MISCELLANEOUS (SCREENING) 4.29 4.144
4. BIOSTATISTICS 4.32 4.146
5. COMMUNICABLE DISEASES
- GENERAL 4.44 4.151
- CHICKEN POX 4.45 4.152
- MEASLES 4.45 4.152
- RUBELLA 4.46 4.152
- INFLUENZA 4.46 4.152
- ·DIPHTHERIA 4.46 4.153
- WHOOPING COUGH (PERTUSSIS) 4.47 4.153
- MENINGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS 4.47 4.153
- PNEUMONIA 4.48 4.153
- TUBERCULOSIS 4.48 4.154
- POLIOMYELITIS 4.51 4.155
- CHOLERA 4.52 4.155
- TYPHOID FEVER 4.53 4.156
- FOOD POISONING 4.53 4.156
- MALARIA 4.54 4.156
- FILARIASIS 4.55 4.157
- RABIES 4.55 4.157
- ARBOVIRAL DISEASES 4.56 4.158
- YELLOW FEVER 4.56 4.158
- JAPANESE ENCEPHALITIS 4.57 4.158
- KFD 4.57 4.158
- PLAGUE 4.57 4.159
- LEPTOSPIROSIS 4.56 4.159
- KALAAZAR 4.58 4.159
- RICKETTSIAL DISEASES 4.58 4.159
- TETANUS 4.59 4.159
- LEPROSY 4.60 4.160
- STDs 4.62 4.161
- AIDS 4.62 4.161
6. NON-COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 4.72 4.166
7. DEMOGRAPHY AND FAMILY PLANNING 4.76 4.168
8. OBSTETRICS, PAEDIATRICS AND GERIATRICS 4.83 4.172
9. NUTRITION AND HEALTH
- GENERAL 4.89 4.175
- PROTEINS 4.90 4.176
- VITAMINS 4.91 4.177
- EGG 4.92 4.178
10. ENVIRONMENT AND HEALTH
- WATER 4.99 4.181
- AIR 4.101 4.182
- LIGHT 4.101 4.183
- SOUND 4.102 4.183
- RADIATION 4.102 4.183
- ENTOMOLOGY 4.103 4.184
- INSECTICIDES 4.104 4.185
11. SOCIAL SCIENCE, MENTAL HEALTH & GENETICS, 4.108 4.187
12. HOSPITAL WASTE & DISASTER MANAGEMENT, 4.111 4.189
OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH
13. HEALTH EDUCATION & HEALTH PLANNING 4.115 4.191
14. HEALTH CARE OF THE COMMUNITY & 4.118 4.193
INTERNATIONAL HEALTH
·- MISCELLANEOUS 4.120 4.194
15. HEALTH PROGRAMMES IN INDIA 4.123 4.195
MICROBIOLOGY
1. GENERAL
- MORPHOLOGY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF BACTERIA 5.3 5.101
- STERILIZATION AND DISINFECTION 5.5 5.102
- CULTURE MEDIAAND CULTURE METHODS 5.7 5.104
- BACTERIAL GENETICS 5.8 5.104
2. IMMUNOLOGY
- STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION OF IMMUNE SYSTEM 5.9 5.105
- ANTIBODY 5.12 5.107
- ANTIGEN 5.14 5.108
- ANTIGEN- ANTIBODY REACTION 5.15 5.109
- IMMUNITY 5.16 5.110
- HYPERSENSITIVITY 5.16 5.110
- IMMUNODEFICIENCY 5.18 5.111
- IMMUNOLOGY OF TRANSPLANTATION 5.19 5.112
- COMPLEMENTSYSTEM 5.19 5.112
3. BACTERIA
- STAPHYLOCOCCI
1. STAPH.AUREUS 5.20 5.113
2. COAGULASE NEGATIVE STAPHYLOCOCCI 5.22 5.114
- STREPTOCOCCI 5.23 5.114
- PNEUMOCOCCI 5.25 5.115
- NEISSERIA 5.27 5.116
1. GONOCOCCUS 5.27 5.116
2. MENINGOCOCCUS 5.27 5.117
- CORYNEBACTERIUM 5.28 5.117
- BACILLUS
1. BACILLUS ANTHRACIS 5.30 5.118
2. BACILLUS CEREUS 5.31 5.119
- CLOSTRIDIUM 5.31 5.119
1. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGENS (WELCHII) 5.31 5.119
2. CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI 5.32 5.120
3. CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM 5.33 5.120
4. CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICILE 5.33 5.120
- NONSPORINGANAEROBES 5.34 5.120
- ENTEROBACTERIACEAE 5.34 5.121
1.E.COLI 5.34 5.121
2. PROTEUS 5.36 5.122
3. KLEBSIELLA 5.36 5.122
4. SHIGELLA 5.36 5.122
5. SALMONELLA 5.36 5.122
- VIBRIO 5.38 5.123
1. V. CHOLERAE 5.38 5.123
2. HALOPHILIC VIBRIOS 5.40 5.124
- PSEUDOMONAS 5.40 5.125
- MELIOIDOSIS 5.41 5.125
- YERSINIA 5.41 5.125
- HAEMOPHILUS 5.41 5.125
- BORDETELLA 5.42 5.125
- BRUCELLA 5.42 5.126
- MYCOBACTERIA
1. M. TUBERCULOSIS 5.43 5.126
2.A1YPICAL MYCOBACTERIA 5.44 5.127
3.M.LEPRAE 5.45 5.128
- SPIROCHETES 5.46 5.128
1. TREPONEMA 5.46 5.128
2. BORRELIA 5.48 5.129
3. LEPTOSPIRA 5.49 5.130
- MYCOPLASMA 5.50 5.130
- ACTINOMYCETES 5.50 5.131
- LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES 5.51 5.131
- CAMPYLOBACTER 5.51 5.131
- HELICOBACTER 5.52 5.131
- LEGIONELLA 5.53 5.132
RICKETTSIACEAE 5.53 5.132
- CHLAMYDIAE 5.55 5.133
4. VIROLOGY
- GENERAL PROPERTIES OF VIRUSES 5.57 5.135
- BACTERIOPHAGE 5.59 5.136
- POXVIRUSES 5.59 5.136
- HERPES VIRUSES 5.60 5.136
1. HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS 5.60 5.137
2. VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS 5.60 5.137
3. EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS 5.61 5.137
4. CYTOMEGALOVIRUS 5.61 5.137
- ADENO VIRUSES 5.62 5.138
- PICORNA VIRUSES 5.62 5.138
- POLIOVIRUS 5.62 5.138
- MYXO VIRUSES 5.63 5.138
A. ORTHOMYXOVIRUS (INFLUENZA) 5.63 5.139
B. PARAMYXOVIRUSES 5.63 5.139
1. MEASLES 5.64 5.139
2. MUMPS 5.64 5.139
3.RSV 5.64 5.139
- RUBELLA 5.64 5.139
- ARBOVIRUSES 5.64 5.139
I
- RHABDOVIRUS (RABIES) 5.65 5.140
- HEPATITIS VIRUSES 5.66 5.141
1. HEPATITIS A VIRUS 5.67 5.141
2. HEPATITIS B VIRUS 5.67 5.142
3. HEPATITIS C VIRUS 5.68 5.142
4. HEPATITIS E VIRUS 5.69 5.142
5. HEPATITIS D VIRUS 5.69 5.142
6. HEPATITIS G VIRUS 5.69 5.143
- HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS 5.69 5.143
- ONCOGENIC VIRUSES 5.72 5.145
- HUMAN PAPILLOMA VIRUS 5.73 5.145
- ROTAVIRUS 5.73 5.145
- SLOW VIRAL DISEASES 5.73 5.145
- PARVOVIRUS 5.74 5.146
5. PARASITOLOGY
- GENERAL 5.75 5.147
- PROTOZOA 5.76 5.147
1. ENTAMOEBA 5.76 5.147
2. GIARDIA LAMBLIA 5.77 5.148
3. TRYPANOSOMA 5.78 5.148
4. LEISHMANIA 5.78 5.148
5. PLASMODIUM 5.79 5.149
6. TOXOPLASMA 5.80 5.150
7. BALANTIDIUM COLI 5.81 5.150
8. CRYPTOSPORIDIUM 5.81 5.151
9. BABESIA 5.81 5.151
HELMINTHOLOGY 5.81 5.151
1. TAENIA 5.81 5.151
2. ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS 5.82 5.151
3. HYMENOLEPSIS NANA 5.82 5.151
4. SCHISTOSOMA 5.82 5.151
5. STRONGYLOIDES 5.83 5.152
6. HOOKWORM 5.83 5.152
7. ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS 5.83 5.152
8. ASCARIS LUMBRICOIDES 5.83 5.152
9. FILARIOIDEA 5.83 5.152
10. TRICHURIS TRICHURA 5.84 5.152
11. DRACUNCULUS MEDINENSIS 5.84 5.152
12. LARVAMIGRANS 5.84 5.153
- MISCELLANEOUS 5.84 '5.153
ARTHROPOD BORN DISEASES 5.87 5.155
6. MYCOLOGY
- GENERAL PROPERTIES OF FUNGUS 5.87 5.155
• DERMATOPHYTES 5.89 5.156
- MYCETOMA 5.90 5.156
- CANDIDA 5.90 5.157
- CRYPTOCOCCUS 5.91 5.157
- ASPERGILLUS 5.92 5.157
- P. CARINI! 5.92 5.158
- ENDEMIC MYCOSIS 5.92 5.158
- CHROMOBLASTOMYCOSIS 5.93 5.158
- SPOROTRICHOSIS 5.93 5.158
- MUCORMYCOSIS 5.93 5.158
7. MISCELLANEOUS (MICROBIOLOGY) 5.94 5.159
- NOSOCOMIAL INFECTIONS 5.96 5.160
- SEXUALLYTRANSMITIED DISEASES 5.96 5.160
- GASTROENTERITIS 5.97 5.161
- NORMAL MICROBIAL FLORA OF HUMAN BODY 5.98 5.161
***
AN
ANATOMY
GENERAL 13. Ossification in foetus starts in - (DNB 90)

a) 1'1 week of intrauterine life
1. Which of the following is a traction epiphysis ? b) 2•d week of intrauterine life
a) Tibial condyles (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 5th week of intrauterine life
b) Trochanter of femur d) 5th month of intrauterine life
c) Coracoid process of scapula 14. Abduction of the shoulder joint above 90° is-
d) Head of femur a) Biceps b) Trapezius (JIPMER 87)
2. Which is the most prominent spinous process ? c) Serratus anterior d) Supraspinatus
a) T1 b) C7 (NEETIDNB Pattern) 15. The following is true of brachial plexus-
c) (Jj d) L5 a) Cervical rib involves lateral cord (Kerala 89)
3. Which of the following bones has no medullary b) Musculocutaneous nerve arises from medial cord
cavity- (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Radial nerve arises from posterior cord
a) Ulna b) Clavicle d) Post fixed plexus is formed byC4, 5,6,7,8 T1
c) Fibula d) Humerus 16. Axillary nerve Injury at its origin leads to paralysis
4. Coracoid process is a _ _ kind of epiphysis - of- (PGI 93, OJ)
a) Atavistic (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Deltoid
b) Pressure b) Latissmus dorsi and deltoid
c) Traction c) Deltoid and Teres Minor
d) Aberrant d) Deltoid and Teres Major
5. General visceral fibres do not supply- 17. Winging of Scapula is due to paralysis of- (A/93)
a) Smooth muscles (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Latissimus dorsi b) Pectoralis major
b) Skeletal muscles c) Pectoralis minor d) Serratus anterior
c) Cardiac muscles 18. Relation of musculocutaneous nerve with axillary
d) Glands artery in axilla is- (AMU 95)
a) Lateral b) Medial
SUP EX c) Anterior d) Posterior
19. Following an incised wound in the front of wrist,
6. The lesion ofKlumpke's paralysis is in- (AP 88) the subject is unable to oppose the tips of the
a) Cervical plexus b) Lower brachial little finger and the thumb. The nerve (s) involved
c) Upper brachial d) Sacral plexus is/are- (UPSC 2K, AIIMS 83)
7. Dorsum of the middle finger is supplied by- a) Ulnar nerve alone
a) Radial nerve b) Median nerve (Kerala 90) b) Median nerve alone
c) Ulnar nerve d) A and b c) Median and ulnar nerve
8. Sensory supply of the tip of the ring finger is- d) Radial and ulnar nerves
20. Lymphnode which is first to be involved in
a) Radial nerve b) Median nerve (Kerala 90)
carcinoma breast- (AI 88)
c) Ulnar nerve d) Posterior interosseous nerve
a) Pectoral group b) Internal mammary
9. Brachialis is supplied by- (NIMS 96)
c) Apical d) Central
a) Radial and Ulnar nerve e) Supra clavicular
b) Median and musculocutaneous neve 21. Cancer breast of upper outer quadrant mostly
c) Radial and musculocutaneous nerve spreads to- (MAHE 2001)
d) Radial and Median nerve a) Anterior axillary b) Posterior axillary
10. Extension ofthe Metacarpophalangeal joint is lost c) Pectoral d) Internal mammary
in injury to - (AIIMS 2K) 22. Nerve damage affecting movements of thumb -
a) Radial nerve b) Ulnar nerve a) Median nerve b) Ulnar nerve (TN 97)
c) Median nerve d) Posterior interosseous nerve c) Radial nerve d) Posterior interosseous nerve
11. If the greater tuberosity of the humerus is lost, 23. In an ulnar nerve lesion proximal to the elbow
which of the following movements will be affected? a) There would be a (AIIMS 78, PGI 84)
a) Adduction and flexion (AIIMS 2K) sensory deficit involving the skin on the dorsal
b) Abduction and lateral rotation aspect of the medial one and a half digits
c) Medial rotation and adduction b) There would be a sensory deficit involving
d) Flexion and medial rotation the skin on the ventral aspect of medial one
12. True flexors ofthe elbow joint are- (PGI 85, 88) and a half digits
a) Biceps b) Brachialis c) Thumb adduction would be lost
c) Brachioradialis d) Teres minor d) Wrist adduction would be lost
1) b 2)b 3)b 4)a 5)b 6)b 7) a,b,c 8)b,c 9)c IO)a,d ll)b 12)a,b,c 13)c 14)b,c
15)c 16)c 17)d 18)a 19)b 20)a 2l)c 22) a,b,c,d 23) b,c
ANATOMY[1.4]
24. Clavicular part ofdeltoid is associated with -(AHMS80, 35. The medial collateral ligament of the elbow joint
a) Flexion b)Medicalrotation AMU87) is closely related to the following structure-
c) Abduction d) Adduction a) Brachialartery b)Radialnerve (AMU86)
25. Each of the following has an attachment to c) Ulnar artery d) Basilic vein
scapula except- (PGI 80, Rohtak 87) e) Ulnar nerve
a) Pectoralis major b) Pectoralis minor 36. Axillary nerve arises from- (AIIMS 86)
c) Biceps brachii d) Triceps a) Posterior cord b) Lateral cord
26. The following structures are attached to the c) Both medial and lateral cords d) Upper trunk
greater tuberosity of the humerus except- e) None of the above
a) Supraspinatus muscle (JIPMER 80, 37. Root value of ulnar nerve -(JIPMER 86, Kerala 87)
b) The coracohumeral ligament DNB 91) a) C7 C 8 T 1 b)C7 C8 T 1
c) Teresminormuscle c) C 8 T 1 d)C6 C7 C 8
d) Infraspinatus muscle e) c5c6c7
e) Subscapularis muscle 38. Musculocutaneous nerve supplies -(PGI86, UPSC 86)
27. Boxer's muscle is- (AIIMS 80, AMC 86) a) Brachialis b) Biceps brachi
c) Coracobrachialis d) All of the above
a) Trapezius b) Seratus anterior
39. Which tendon is frequently absent in the hand-
c) Psoas major d) Latissimus dorsi
a) Palmaris longus (UPSC 86
28. All the wrist- (PGI 84)
b) Extensor carpi radialis longus JIPMER 86
a) The ulnar nerve is medial to the ulnar artery
c) Extensor carpi radialis brevis PGI 87)
b) The ulnar artery is lateral to the tendon of the
d) Flexor carpi ulnaris
flexor carpi ulnaris muscle
e) Flexor digitorum pro funds
c) The radial artery is laterial to the tendon of the
40. Which structure does not pass through the carpal
flexor carpi radialis muscle Tunnel- (PGI 86, AI 88)
d) The median nerve is in the interval between a) Median nerve b) Radial bursa
the tendons of the palmaris longus and flexor c) Ulnar bursa d) Ulnar nerve
carpi radialis muscles 41. Following muscles cause retraction ofshoulder except-
e) None a) Trapezius b) Serratus anterior (AMU 87)
29. Which ofthe following nerves are branches of the c) Rhomboid major d) Rhomboid minor
posterior cord- (PGI 84) 42. The quadrilateral space is bounded by the following
a} Radial nerve b) Axillary nerve structures, except the- (PGI 87)
c) Musculocutaneous nerve d) Subclavius nerve a) Surgical neck of the humerus
e) Lateral pectoral nerve b) Long head of triceps
30. The glenoid cavity of the scapula is rotated c) Deltoid
upward by which of the following muscles- (PGI 84) d) Teres major
a) Lavator scapulae b) Serratus anterior e) Teres minor
c) Rhomboid minor d) Trapezius 43. Which of the following bones does not form the
31. The muscle of the rotator cuff include- (PGI 85) proximal row of carpal bones- (AMU 87)
a) Teres minor b) Subscapularis a) Scaphoid b) Lunate
c) Supraspinatus d) Infraspinatus c) Triquetra! d) Capitate
32. Adductors ofthe band atthewristjointinclude-(PGJ86) 44. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to compression of-
a) Brachioradialis b) Flexor carpi ulnaris a) Ulnar nerve b) Median nerve (TN 87)
c) Extensor digitorum d) Extensor carpi ulnaris c) Radial nerve d) Ulnar artery
33. The frrst bone to ossify in membrane is -(AIIMS 86, 45. The structures taking origin from the tip of
a) Scaphoid b) Scapula UPSC 86) coracoid process are- (PGI 88)
c) Clavicle d)Fibula a) Short head of biceps b) Coracobrachialis
e) Femur c) Pectoralis minor d) Long head ofbiceps
34. A patient is found to have pus in the midpalmar 46. In the region ofthe shoulder- (AP 88)
space. The space is- (PGI 86) a) The glenohumeral joint permits 180° of the abduction
a) The space around the hypothenar muscles b) The glenohumeral joint reinforced on all aspects
b) The synovial sheath for the flexor pollicis longus (superiorly, inferiorly, arteriorly, anteriorly, and
tendon posteriorly) by muscles of the rotator
c) The ulnar bursa (musculotendinous) cuff
d) The space around the muscles of the thenar eminence c) The subacromial (subdeltoid) bursa is inferior
to the supraspinatus tendon and muscle
e) A space lying medial to a fibrous septum attaching
d) The glenohumeral joint permits flexion, extension,
the palmar aponeurosis to the third metacarpal
abduction, adduction, and both internal and
bone
external rotation
24)a,b 25)a 26)e 27)b 28) a,b,c,d 29) a,b 30) b,d 31) a,b,c,d 32) b,d 33) c 34)e 35)e 36)a
37)b 38)d 39)a 40)d 41)b 42)c 43)d 44)b 45)a,b 46)d
ANATOMY [ 1.5]
47. Medial cord of the brachial plexus gives rise to all 61. Muscles that can flex the foream include all except-
except~ (PGI 88) a) Brachialis b) Brachioradialis (AMU 90)
a) Nerve to supraspinatus c) Pronator teres d) Anconeus
b) Ulnar nerve 62. Ossification centre of the medial epicondyle appears
c) Medial cutaneous nerve of arm in- (ROHTAK 90)
d) Medial cutaneous nerve of foream a) 5th year b) 7th year
48. Regarding serratus anterior muscle, which is c) 91h year d) lllh year
incorrect- (AI 89) 63. The nerve responsible for the fine movements
a) Multipinnate muscle of the hand is- (DNB 90)
b) Lifts arm above the shoulder a) RadialN b) Median
c) Supplied by long thoracic nerve c) Posterior interosseous N d) Ulnar N
d) Orginates from lower 8 ribs 64. Muscles that can extend the middle distal phalanx
49. Radial nerve 2 inches distal to the elbow joint or the index finger include all except- {AMU 91)
gives- (FN89) a) The first dorsal interosseous
a) Muscular branches b) Sensory branches b) The first lumbrical
c) Auricular branches d) All of the above c) The second palmar interosseous
50. Fracture of the surgical neck of humerus results in~ d) Extensor carpi radialis longus
a) Loss of sensation in dorsal forearm (AI 89) 65. The Prime Flexor of metacarpophalangeal join
b) Flat shoulder a) Lumbricalmuscle {Al91)
c) Wrist drop b) Flexor digitorurn superficlalis
d) Claw hand c) Flexor digitorurn profunds
51. Rootvalneofaxillarynerveis~ (UPSC 89) d) Dorsal interosseus muscle
a) C5,6 b) C4,5 66. Ulnar nerve supplies all except- (AI91)
c) C5,6,7 d)C6,7 a) 3ro and 4th lumbrical muscle
52. Rootvalueofradialnerveis~ (UPSC 89) b) Palmar and dorsal interosseus muscle
a) C5,6 b)C5,6,7 c) Adductor Pollicis
c) C5,6,7,8, Tl d)C8, Tl d) Flexor Pollicis Brevis
53. Root value ofmuscnlocutaneous nerve is- 67. Nerve not related to humerus is- (Kerala 91)
a) C4,5 b) C5,6,7 (UPSC89) a) Radial b)Axillary
c) C5,6,7,8 d)C8, Tl c) Median d) Musculocutaneous
54. Wrist drop is seen with injury to ....... nerve - 68. Structure piercing the clavipectoral fascia is-
a) Median b)Radial (UPSC89) a) Basilic vein (Kerala 91)
c) Ulnar d) Axillary b) Cephalic vein
55. Mnsician'snerveis.......nerve- (UPSC 89)
c) Thoracoacromial artery
a) Ulnar b) Radial
d) Musculophrenic nerve
c) Median d)Axillary
69. Which is correct regarding deep palmar arch-
56. The term eye of the hand applies to....... nerve -
a) Median b) Radial (UPSC 89) a) Superficial to lumbricals {AIIMS 91)
c) Ulnar d)Axillary b) Lies at level of distal palmar crease
57. The first and second lumbricals are supplied by c) Formed by deep branch of ulnar Artery
the .....•.•. nerve- (UPSC89, TN91) d) Gives 3 interdigital arteries
a) Median b) Ulnar 70. Muscles of the hypothenar eminence are innervated
c) Radial d) Posterior interosseous bythe- (UP92)
58. Labourers nerve is- (UPSC 89) a) Radial nerve b) Median nerve
a) Median b) Ulnar c) Ulnar nerve d) Median and Radial nerves
c) Radial d) Sciatic 71. Which is not a branch of posterior cord of Brachial
59. Artery present in the anatomical snuff box is - plexus- (AI92)
a) Radial b) Ulnar (Karnat 89, AI OJ) a) Thoracodorsal b) Radial
c) Interosseus d) None c) Ulnar d)Axillery
60. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve supplies the following 72. Ulnar nerve supplies all of the following except
mucles except- {AMU 89) a) Flexor digitorurn profundus (JIPMER 92)
a) Adductor pollicis b) Dorsal interossei
b) First dorsal interosseous c) Abductorpollicis brevis
c) First lumbrical d) Extensor carpi ulnaris
d) Therd lumbrical
47)a 48)d 49)a,b 50)b 5l)a 52)c 53)b 54)b 55)a 56) a 57) a 58)a 59)a 60)c
6l)d 62)a 63)d 64)d 65) a,d 66)? 67)d 68)b,c 69)c 70)c 7l)c 72)c,d
ANATOMY [ 1.6]
73. The mdial wall of the axilla is formed by the- 84. All offollowing are sequelae of musculocutaneous
a) Serratus anterior . (Rajasthan 92) nerveinjuryexcept- (ALLINDIA 96)
b) Subscapularis muscle a) Loss of supination of forearm
c) Pectoralis major muscle b) Loss of flexion of arm
d) Teres major muscle c) Loss of flexion at elbow
74. The following structures form the boundaries to d) Sensory loss over lower lateral area of forearm
the superior entrance into the axilla except the - 85. Serratus anterior is supplied by- (DELHI 96)
a) Clavicle (PGI 92) a) Thoracodorsal nerve b) Nerve to subclavius
b) Coracoid process c) Long thoracic nerve d) Axillary nerve
c) Upper border of scapula
86. Nerve supply ofbrachialis is from- (DELHI 96)
d) Outer border of first rib
a) Median nerve b) Musculocutaneous nerve
75. The coracobrachialis assists in which movement
c) Ulnar nerve d) Posterior interosseus nerve
ofthearm- (AMU92)
87. Posterior interosseus nerve of upper limb is a
a) Flexion b) Extension
c) Rotation d) Supination branch of- (DELHI 96)
76. The movement affected following axillary nerve a) Median never b) Ulnar never
injury is- (AI 93) c) Radial never d) Thoracodorsai nerve
a) Flexion b) Abduction 88. Rupture of supraspinatus manifest as- (PGI 96, 97)
c) Adduction d) Extension a) Painful movements
77. Injury to radial nerve at wrist leads to- (Delhi 93) b) Difficulty in initiation of abduction
a) Wrist drop c) Difficult abduction after 90°
b) Sensory loss on adjacent sides of III and IV fingers d) Flat shoulder
(None) 89. The nerve supply to pronator teres is- (TN' 98)
c) Paralysis of adductor pollicis a) Median nerve b) Radial nerve
d) Loss of supination in extended position c) Ulnar nerve d) Posterior interosseous nerve
78. Musculo-cutaneous nerve of the arm supplies- 90. Median nerve supplies- (MAHE 98)
a) Brachio-radialismuscle (KERALA 94) a) Abductor pollics longus
b) Brachialis muscle b) Abductor pollics brevis
c) Triceps muscle c) Adductor pollicis
d) Coraco-brachialis d) First dorsal interossecus
79. When median nerve is paralysed in carpal tunnel 91. C8 Tl supplies all muscles except- (AIIMS 98)
syndrome-which of the follwing occurs- a) Extensor indicis
a) Adductor pollicis paralysis (JIPMER 95) b) 3rd and 4th lumbricals
b) Flexor pollicis longus paralysis c) Abductor digiti minirni
c) Flexor pollicis brevis paralysis d) Pahnar interossei
d) Loss of sensation of thenar eminence 92. Nail bed of thumb is supplied by- (Orissa 98)
80. Axial artery of upper limb is derived from- a) Radial nerve b) Ulnar nerve
a) 4th cervical intersegmental (JIPMER 95) c) Median nerve d) None of the above
b) 5th cervical intersegmental 93. Tip of coracoid process of scapula gives attachment
c) Sth cervical intersegmental to- (Orissa 98)
d) 7th cervical intersegmental a) Long head of biceps muscle
81. Injury to ulnar nerve at wrist causes paralysis of b) Sub-scapularis muscle
a) Apposition of thumb (A/95) c) Short head of biceps muscle
b) Abduction at carpometacarpal joint of thumb d) Supra -spinatus muscle
c) Adduction at thumb 94. The structure that is least likely to be compressed
d) Flexion of metacarpophalangeal joint of middle in flexion and abduction of shoulder joint- (AI 99)
fmger a) Supraspinatus muscle b) Long head ofbiceps
82. Lower border of scapula corresponds to- c) Suprascapular nerve d) Sub acromial bursa
a) D7 b)D9 (PGI95) 95. Matacarpophalangeal joints are flexed in the
c) D12 d)DS paralysis of- (A/99)
83. Which of the following arteries does not take a) Median nerver b) Radial nerve
part in scapuler anastomosis- (TN95) c) Ulnar nerve d) Axillary nerve
a) Subscapular artery 96. Following groups of axillary L.N. are distributed
b) Suprascapular artery along lateral thoracic artery- (CUPGEE 99)
c) Transverse cervical artery a) Anterior set b) Lateral set
d) Anterior circumflex humeral artery c) Posterior set d) Apical set
73)a 74)b 75)a 76)b 77)None 78)b,d 79)c 80)d 81)c 82)a 83)d 84)a,b 85)c 86)b 87)c
88)b 89)a 90)b 9l)a 92)c 93)c 94)c 95)b 96)a
ANATOMY[1.7]
97. Deep branch of ulnar nerve does not supply- 110. Lateral border of cubital fossa is formed by-
a) 2m~ lumbrical (CUPGEE 99) a) Pronator teres b) Brachioradialis (PGJ OJ)
b) 4lh lumbrical c) Supinator d) Branchialis
c) Palmar interossei e) Biceps
d) Dorsal interossri 111. Small muscles of hand are supplied by- (PGJ 02)
98. Blood supply of breast is from all except- a) C6 b)C7
a) Internal mammary artery (AJJMS 99) c) C8 d)T 1
b) Intercostal artery e) T2
c) Thorocodorsal branch of subscapular artery 112. Median nerve injury at elbow affects- (PGJ 02)
d) Thoraco-acromial artery a) Adduction of the thumb
99. All are sensory except- (MP 2K) b) Flexion at DIP joints of 2nd finger
a) Saphenous nerve b) Sural nerve c) Flexion ofPIP of third fmger
c) Intercostobrachial nerve d) Long thoracic nerve d) Flexion at 1st and 2nd DP fmgers
100. Lower angle of scapula at the level of- e) Flexion on MCP joints except thumbs
a) T4 b) T5 (DNB 2001) 113. Low ulnar nerve palsy is characterised by-
c) T 6 d) T7 a) Clawhand (PG103)
101 • Intercostobrachial Nerve is a branch of- b) Sensory loss of medial four digits
a) P' intercostal nerve (JIPMER 2002) c) Weakness of grips
b) 2"d intercostal nerve d) Inability to extend at M.C.P. joint
c) 3n1 intercostal nerve e) Inability to abduct the thumb
d) Upper trunk ofbrachial plexus 114. Thenar eminence is supplied by- (PGJ 03)
102. In deltoid paralysis, which nerve is involved-(PGJ97) a) Median nerve
a) Circum:flexN b) Musculocutaneous N b) Radlial nerve
c) AxillaryN d)RadialN c) Ant. Interosseous nerve
103. Ulnar nerve injury at wrist spares which d) Post interosseous nerve
muscle- (PGJ 97, 98) e) Ulnar nerve
a) Opponens pollicis b) Palmar interossei 115. Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral
c) Dorsal interossei d) Adductor po llicis groove- (AI 03)
104. Muscles attached to hook of hamate is- {PGI 97) a) Spares nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis
a) Flexor carpi ulnaris longus
b) Flexor retinaculum b) Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle
c) Flexor hallucis longus c) Leaves extensions at elbow joint intact
d) Flexor digitorum longus d) Weakness pronation movement
105. Finger by which aU the muscles in the hand can be 116. Ill head of coracho brachialis is known as-
tested- (PGI 98) a) Struthers ligament (Jipmer 04)
a) Index b) Ring b) Branchioradialis
c) Thumb d) Middle c) Radial collateral ligament
106. Arterial supply oflatistimus dorsi is- (PGJ 99) d) Ulnar ligament
a) Subscapular A b) Circumflex humeral A 117. Which of the foUowing is not attached to pisiform
c) Thoracodorsal A d) Lateral thoracic A bone- (Bihar 03)
107. Nerve damaged due to lunate dislocation (in carpal a) Flexor retinaculum
tunnel)- (PGJ 2000) b) Abductor digiti minirni
a) Median & ulnar b) Median c) Flexor digitorum superficialis
c) Ulnar d) Radial d) Flexor carpi ulnaris
108. Adduction of hand at wrist is done by- (PGJ 2000) 118. The pronator quadratus has the same innervation
a) Flexor carpi radialis as the foUowing muscle- (AJJMS 03)
b) Flexor carpi longus a) Flexor digitorum superficialis
c) Flexor digitorum profundus b) Palmaris longus
d) Extensor carpi ulnaris c) Flexorpollicis longus
e) Flexor digitorum superficialis d) Flexor digitorum profundus of middle fmger
109. Musclessuppliedbymediannerve- (PGJOJ) 119. Tubercles of Montgomery is seen in-
a) Abductor pollicis brevis b) Opponens pollicis a) Breast b)Liver (UPPGMEE04)
c) Adductor pollicis d) First lumbrical c) Stomach d) Lung
e) Flexorpollicis brevis
97)a 98) c 99) d 100) d 101)b 102)c 103)a 104)b 105)c 106)a 107)b 108)d 109) a,b,d, e
llO)b 111) c,d 112) a,b,c,d 113) a,c 114) a,e 115) b 116)a 117)c 118)c 119)a
ANATOMY [ 1.8]
120. In a vehicular accident, the musculocutaneous 129. Axillary nerve supplies- (PG!June 06)
nerve was completely severed, but still the person a) Deltoid+ Teres major
was able to weakly flex the elbow joint. AD of the b) Deltoid+ Teres Minor
following muscles are responsible for this flexion. c) T.Major + T.Minor
a) Brachioradialis (AIIMS 04) d) Coracobrachialis+ Short head of biceps
b) Flexor carpi radialis 130. Ligament of shoulder joint are all except- ·
c) Ulnar head of pronator teres a) Corococlavicular (Manipal 06)
d) Flexor carpi Ulnaris b) Glenohumoral
121. Nerve passing through the spiral groove of the c) Coracohumeral
humerus is- (TN 04) d) Transverse humeral
a) Radial Nerve
131. All of the following drain into azygous vein, except-
b) Ulnar Nerve
a) Left superior intercostals (PGMCET(Jl)
c) Musculocutaneous Nerve
b) Accessory homozygous
d) Interosseous Nerve
122. Muscles attached to the greater tubercle of c) 4 to 11 posterior intercostal on Rt side
humerus- (PGI June 05) d) Esophageal veins
a) Supra spinatus b) Teres minor 132. In klumpke's paralysis all are involved, except-
c) Teres major d) Infraspinatus a) C6 b) C 7 (PGMCET07)
e) Pectoralis major c) C8 d) T 1
123. Muscles attached to the coracoid proces'St{PGIJune 05) 133. Winging of scapula is due to injury to-
a) Coracobranchialis b) Short head ofbiceps a) Long thoracic nerve (PGMCET 07)
c) Long head of biceps d) Pectoralis major b) Short thoracic nerve
e) Pectoralis minor c) Axillary nerve
124. Which of the following does NOT supply the breast d) Suprascapular nerve
with blood- (MAHA 05) 134. Axillary sheath is derived from- (PGMCET 07)
a) Lateral thoracic artery a) Prevertebral fascia
b) Thoracoacromial artery b) Clavipectoral fascia
c) Posterior intercostals arteries c) Deep layer of cervical fascia
d) Costoclavicular artery d) Pretracheal fascia
125. Which of the following, among axillary lymph nodes, 135. Power grip of hand depends on- (Corned 07)
is a terminal group- (AIIMSNOV05) a) Shortflexoroffingers b)Lumbricalsofhand
a) Pectoral b) Central c) Long flexors of the fingers d) Palmaris brevis
c) Lateral d)Apical 136. Which of the following nerves accompanies the
126. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following profunda brachii artery- (Corned 07)
important structures except- (AI 05) a) Ulnar b) Musculocutaneous
a) Median Nerve. c) Radial d) Median
b) Flexor pollicis longus 137. Erb'spointisformedby- (Corned07,PGI03)
c) Flexor carpi radialis a) C4 and C5 b) C5 and C6
d) Flexor digitorum superficialis c) C6 and C7 d) C 8 and T 1
127. Compression of a nerve within the carpal tunnel 138. In Erb-Duchene paralysis, the injury is limited to
productsinabilityto- (AIIMSMay05) the- (Corned07)
a) Abduct the thumb a) 2nd and 3rd cervical nerves
b) Adduct the thumb b) 3rd and 4th cervical nerves
c) Flex the distal phalanx of the thumb c) 4th and 5th cervical nerves
d) Oppose the thumb d) 5th and 6th cervical nerves
128. A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in 139. All are functions of Latissimus Dorsi except-
the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. a) External rotation of shoulder (MAHE 07)
The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five b) Extension
days later the patient noticed that she could not extend c) Adduction
her right hand above her head to brush her hair. d) Medial rotation
Which of the following are the signs and symptoms 140. NervesupplyofTrapezius- (MAHE 07)
ofadditionalharm- (AI06) a) Accessory Nerve b) Hypoglossal Nerve
a) Damage to scalenus medius c) Troclear Nerve d) Trigeminal Nerve
b) Injury to suprascapular nerve 141. The "rotator cuff'' muscle includes all except-
c) Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve a) Supraspinatus b) Infraspinatus (UP 07)
d) Spread of infection to shoulder joint c) Teres major d) Subscapularis
120)c 12l)a 122)a,b,d 123)a,b,e 124)d 125)d 126)c 127)a 128)c 129)b 130)a 131)a 132)a 133)a
134)a 135)c 136)c 137)b 138)d 139)a 140)a 141)c
ANATOMY [ 1.9]
142. In Ulnar nerve injury in arm, all of the following are 151. What is the action of anterior fibres of deltoid?
seenexcept- (AIIMSNov07) a) Flexion (APPG 08)
a) Hypothenar atrophy b) Lateral rotation
b) Adduction of thumb c) Flexion and medial rotation
c) Loss of sensation ofmediall/3 of the hand d) Extension and lateral rotation
d) Claw hand 152. Fascia around nerve bundle of brachial plexus is
143. In obstruction of second part of axillay artery, the derived from- (AIIMS Nov 08)
anostomosis between the following artery will a) Prevertebral fascia
b) Pretracheal fascia
maintain the blood supply of upper limb-
c) Investing layer
a) Deep branch of transverse cervical artery &
d) Superficial cervical fascia
·subscapular artery (AHMS Nov 07)
153. Contents ofanatomical snuffbox are-
b) Anterior & posterior circumflex humeral a) Radial artery (PGI Dec 08)
c) Posterior circumflex humeral & circwnflex scapular b) Tendon of abductor pollicis longus
artery c) Tendon of extensor pollicis brevis
d) Suprascapular & anterior circwnflex humeral artery d) Scaphoid bone
144. If median nerve is injured at the wrist then loss of e) Superficial cutaneous branch of radial nerve
function of all ofthe following will take place except- 154. Thue about pectoralis major muscle-
a) Lumbrical muscles to the Index fmger. a) Abductor & Internal rotator of shoulder
b) Lumbrical muscles to the middle finger. b) Blood supply by perforating branch of internal
c) Muscles of the thenar eminence (Aiims May 08) thoracic artery (PGI Dec 08)
d) Adductor pollicis c) Blood supply by intercostal artery
145. Movements taking place during abduction of shoul d) Nerve supply by intercostal artery
der joint are all except- (Aiims May 08) e) Inserted into 2nd to 6th costal cartilage
a) Medial rotation of scapula 155. Concerning brachial plexus, which of the following
b) Axial rotation ofhumerus at acromioclavicular joint facts are true- (PGI Dec 08)
c) Elevation ofhumerus a) Formed by spinal nerve C4-C7
d) Movements at clavicular end of sternoclavicular b) Most common site of injury is upper trunk
c) Injury may occur during breech delivery
joint
d) Radial nerve is branch of medial cord
146. All are functions of Latissimus Dorsi except-
e) Lower trunk injury results in hand deformity
a) External rotation of shoulder (Manipal 08)
156. First extensor compartment of wrist have which of
b) Extension the following structures- (PGI Dec 08)
c) Adduction a) Extensorpollicis brevis
d) Medial rotation b) Extensor carpi radialis longus
147. Nerve supply of1rapezius- (Manipal 08) c) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
a) Spinal accessory nerve b) Hypoglossal nerve d) Extensor digiti minimi
c) Trochlear nerve d) Trigeminal nerve e) Abductor pollicis longus
148. Which of the following muscle is supplied by deep 157. Muscle supplied by median nerve- (PGI Dec 08)
branch ofthe ulnar nerve- (DPGEE 08) a) Opponens pollicis
a) Adductor pollicis b) Abductor pollicis brevis
b) Opponens pollicis c) Flexorpollicis brevis
c) Abductor pollicis brevis d) Firstlumbricals
d) Flexor digitorum profundus e) Adductor pollicis
149. The following structures pass through teh carpel 158. Artery in anatomical snuffbox is- (AI 09)
tunnel except- (DPGEE 08) a) Radial b) Brachial
a) Median nerve c) Ulnar d) Interosseous
b) Ulnar artery 159. Deltoid ligament is attached to all, except-
a) Medial malleolus (AIIMS May 09)
c) Flexor carpi radialis tendon
b) Medial cuneiform
d) Flexor pollicis longus tendon
c) Spring ligament
150. Not seen in distal radial nerve injury is- d) Sustentaculum tali
a) Inability to extend fingers (DPGEE 08) 160. Which of the follo\\ing movements of thumb are not
b) Weakness fo extensor carpi radialis brevis affected in redial nerve injury- (PGI June 09)
c) Loss of sensations over dorsum of hand a) Opposition b) Abduction
d) Paralysis ofBrachiradialis c) Adduction d) Extension
e) Flexion
142)b 143)a 144)d 145)a 146)a 147)a 148)a 149)b 150)a 151)c 152)a 153)All 154) b,c,d
155)a,b,c,e 156)a,b 157)a,b,c,d 158)a 159)b 160)a,b,c
ANATOMY [ 1.10]
161. Which ofthe following muscles is enclosed within 171. All of the following muscles retract the scapula
the calvipectoral fascia- (COMED 09) except- (AIIMSMay IO)
a) Pectoralis major b) Serratus anterior a) Trapezius b) Rhomboid major
c) Coracobrachialis d) Subclavius c) Rhomboid minor d) Levator scapulae
162. The ossification center of pisiform bone appears at 172. All of the following movements occur during
the age of- (COMED 09) abduction of shoulder except- (AI I 0)
a) 10-11 years b) 12-13 years a) Elevation ofhumerus
c) 14-15years d) 15-16years b) Axial rotation of clavicle
163. Intrinsic muscles of hand are innervated c) Medial rotation of scapula
by- (DELHI PG Feb. 09) d) Acromioclavicular joint movement
a) Ulnar nerve b) Radial nerve 173. The following structures are attached to the greater
c) Median nerve d) All of the above tuberosity ofthe humeruS'except- (DPG I 0)
164. Fall on outstretched hand leads to fracture of the a) Supraspinatus muscle
following bones- (DELHI PG Feb. 09) b) The coracohumeral ligament
a) Scaphoid bone, capitate and clavicle c) Teres minor muscle
b) Scaphoid, clavicle d) Subscapularis muscle
c) Head of ulna 174. Muscle that can extend the middle distal phalanx of
d) Radial styloid process the index finger include all except- (DPG I 0)
165. First dorsal interosseous muscle of hand is supplied a) The first dorsal inter interosseous
by- (DELHIPGFeb.09) b) The frrst lumbrical
a) Deep branch of ulnar nerve c) The second palmar interosseous
b) Superficial branch of ulnar nerve d) Extensor carpi radialis longus
c) Median nerve 175. Ulnar nerve injury at wrist spares which
d) Radial nerve muscle - (DPG I 0)
166. Which of the following arteries supply pectoralis a) Opponens pollicis b) Palmar interossei
major muscle- (PGI Nov 09) c) Dorsal interossei d) Adductor pollicis
a) Pectoral branches ofthoracoacromial artery 176. Erh's palsy occurs due to involvement of ___ of
b) Intercotal artery brachial plexus- (Maharashtra I 0)
c) Lateral thoracic artery a) Upper trunk b) Middle trunk
d) Subclavian artery c) Medisl cord d) Lateral trunk
e) Internal mammary artery 177. Which are not the flexors offorearm -(PGI May I 0)
167. Deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies (PGI Nov 09) a) Pronater teres b) Brachialis
a) Adductor pollicis c) Brachioradialis d) Anconeus
b) Flexor digitorum superficialis e) Flexorpollicis longus
1
c) 1' lumbrical 178. True about radial nerve- (PGI May I 0)
d) 3'd lumbrical a) Branch of posterior cord
e) Palmaris brevis b) Nerve of extensor compartment of forearm
168. True about peripheral nerve injury in upper limb - c) Arise from C5-Tl
a) Radial nerve injury cause anaesthesia over d) Anterior interosseous nerve is branch of it
anatomical snuffbox (PGI Nov 09) e) Supply skin of extensor compartment
b) Median nerve injury cause wrist drop 179. Rotator cuff is/are formed by all except-(PGI May I 0)
c) Ulnar nerve injury cause claw hand a) Supraspinats b) Infraspinatus
d) Index fmger anesthesia is caused by median nerve c) Teres minor d) Teres major
injury e) Subscapularis
e) Thumb anaesthesia is caused by ulnar nerve injury 180. Carpel tunnel syndrome is caused by all
169. Content (s) of bicipital groove is/are-
except- (AIIMS May 11)
a) Synovial membrane of shoulder jt (PGINov 09)
a) Amylodosis b) Hypothyroidism
b) Ascending branch of anterior circumflex artery
c) Addisson's disease d) Diabetes mellitus
c) Ascending branch of posterior circumflex artery
181. Neurovascular bundle in axilla is surrounded by
d) Radial artery
sheath derived from- (AIIMS May 11)
e) Coracobrachialis muscle
a) Prevertebral fascia b) Pretracheal fascia
170. The following structure does not pass through flexor
c) Clavipectoral fascia d) Axillary sheath
retinaculum- (AIIMS Nov 09)
182. All of the following muscles retract the scapula
a) UlnarN.
except- (AIIMS May 11)
b) MedianN.
a) Trapezius b) Rhomboid major
c) Flexor digitorum profundus
c) Rhomboidminor d) Levator scapulae
d) Flexor digitorum superficialis
16l)d 162)b 163)a,c 164)a 165)a 166)a,b 167)a,d 168)a,c,d 169)b 170)a 17l)d 172)c 173)d 174)d
175)a 176)a 177)d,e 178)a,b,c,e 179)d 180)c 18l)a 182)d
ANATOMY [ 1.11]
183. Boundary oftriangle of auscultation is not formed 197. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to the compression
by- (AIIMS May 11) of- (Jipmer 11)
a) Serratus anterior b) Scapula a) Median nerve b) Anterior interosseous nerve
c) Trapezius d) Latissimus dorsi c) Radial nerve d) Ulnar nerve
184. Axillary abscess is safely drained by which 198. Which ofthe following is also known as the labourer's
approach- (AIIMSMay 11) nerve ? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Medial b) Posterior a) Ulnar nerve
c) Lateral d) Floor b) Median nerve
185. Which amongst the following is a branch from the c) Anterior interosseous nerve
trunk of brachial plexus? (AI 11) d) Radial nerve
a) Suprascapular nerve b) Long Thoracic Nerve 199. All of the following are composite muscles except
c) Dorsal Scapular Nerve d) Nerve to subclavius a) Adductor magnus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
186. Main muscle of opposition is- (Punjab 1 0) b) Pectineus
a) Abductor pollicis brevis b) Flexor pollicis brevis c) Flexor digitorum profundus
c) Opponens pollicis d) Adductor pollicis d) Flexor digitorum superficialis
187. Which tendon is frequently absent in upper limb- 200. How to test for the long thoracic nerve?
a) Touch the opposite shoulder
a) Flexor carpi ulnaris (Punjab 1 0)
b) Shoulder shrug (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Flexor digitorum profundus
c) Raise the arm above the head
c) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
d) Lift an object from the ground
d) Palmaris longus 201. False about 1st metacarpal is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
188. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves- (PUNJAB 11) a) Shortest and stoutest of all metacarpals
a) Median nerve b) Anterior interosseous nerve b) Does not articulate with any other metacarpal
c) Ulnar nerve d) Radial nerve bone
189. Which of the following is a modification of deep c) Rotated medially through 90 degrees with respect
fascia? (PUNJAB 11) to other metacarpals
a) Extensor etinaculum d) The base is occupied by a condylar articular
b) Palmar aponeurosis surface for trapezium
c) Fibrous flexor sheath 202. Fascia around nerve bundle of brachial plexus is
190. Rider's bones are ossification of- (PUNJAB 11) derived from- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Adductor brevis b) Adductor longus a) Prevertebral fascia
c) Adductor magnus d) None b) Pretracheal fascia
191. Anatomical snuffbox is formed by all except- c) Investing layer
a) Abductor pollicis longus (Jipmer 1 0) d) Superficial cervical fascia
b) Extensor pollicis longus 203. Fascial sleeve around bundle of brachial plexus is
c) Extensor pollicis brevis derived from- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Extensor carpi radialis a) Prevertebral fascia
192. All the following structures are attached to coracoid b) Pretracheal fascia
process except- (Jipmer 1 0) c) Carotid fascia
a) Brachialis b) Corachobrachialis d) Investing layer of deep fascia
c) Short head of biceps d) Long head ofbiceps 204. Cranial part of accessory nerve supplies -
193. Short head of biceps is attached to- (Jipmer 1 0) a) Sternocleidomastoid (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Coracoid process b) Supraglenoid tubercle b) Trapezius
c) Acromion process d) Bicipital groove c) Levator scapulae
194. All are branches of posterior cord of brachial plexus d) Levator palatini
except- (Jipmer 10) 205. Deep flexors of forearm are supplied by -
a) Axillar nerve b) Long thoracic nerve a) Median nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Thoracodorsal nerve d) Radial nerve b) Ulnar nerve
195. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve supplies- c) Radial nerve
a) Palmarisbrevis (Jipmer 10) d) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Abductor pollicis 206. Which muscle is inserted into the floor of the
c) Biceps brevis intertubercular sulcus of the humerus ?
d) Flexor carpi radialis a) Latissimus dorsi (NEETIDNB Pattern)
196. Short head of biceps is attached to- (Jipmer 11) b) Teres major
a) Coracoid process b) Supraglenoid tubercle c) Pectoralis major
c) Acromion process d) Bicipital groove d) Deltoid
183)a 184)d 185)a>d 186)c 187)d 188)a 189)a 190)b 191)d 192)d 193)a 194)b 195)a 196)a
197)a 198)b 199)d 200)c 201)d 202)a 203)a 204)d 205)a 206)a
ANATOMY[1.12]
207. All are true about proximal humans attachment 218. Froments's sign is seen in which nerve palsy?
except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Ulnar nerve palsy (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Supraspinatus at LT b) Subscapularis at LT b) Median nerve palsy
c) Teres minor at GT d) Infraspinatus at GT c) Anterior interosseous nerve palsy
208. Boundries of upper tringular space include all d) Radial nerve palsy
except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 219. All of the following are considered to be rotator
a) Teres minor b) Teres major cuff muscles except - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Subscapularis d) Triceps a) Supraspinatus b) Infraspinatus
209. All are contents of cubital fossa except - c) Teres minor d) Teres major
a) Median nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern) 220. Injury tolong thoraci nerve. It can be tested by
b) Biceps tendon asking the patient - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Brachial artery a) Shrug the shoulder
d) Ulner nerve b) Raise the arm above head
210. Froments sign is seen- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Touch opposite shoulder
a) Ulnar nerve palsy d) Left a heavy object.
b) Median nerve palsy 221. The term "guyon's canal" is in relation to which
c) Anterior interosseous nerve palsy ofthe following? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Radial nerve palsy a) Anterior interosseus nerve
211. Roots involved in Erb's palsy are- (NEET/DNB b) Ulnar nerve
a) Posterior primary rami of C6- C7 Pattern) c) Median nerve
b) Anterior primary rani of C5-C6 d) Radial artery
c) Posterior primary rami of C8-T1 222. Not present in proximal row of carpal bone-
d) Posterior primary rami of C7 -C8 a) Lunate (NEETIDNB Pattern)
212. The interossei are supplied by-(NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Scaphoid
a) Superficial palmar branch of radial artery c) Trapezium
b) Deep palmar branch of ulnar artery d) Pisiform
c) Superficial palmar arch 223. Nerve related to anatomical snuffbox-
d) Deep palmar arch a) Ulnar (NEETIDNB Pattern)
213. Which nerve originates from trunk of brachial b) Median
plexus - (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Superficial branch of radial
a) Long thoracic nerve b) Dorsal scapular nerve d) Axillary
c) Axillary nerve d) Suprascapular nerve 224. Labourer's nerve is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
214. Muscle ith dual Nerve supply- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Ulnar b) Radial
a) IDS b) Deltoid c) Median d) Superficial br of radial
c) Brachial is d) FCU 225. Spinal part of accessory nerve supplies -
215. Winging of scapula is due to which of these a) Platysma (NEETIDNB Pattern)
conditions? (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Sternocleidomastoid
a) Long thoracic nerve palsy c) Stylohyoid
b) Thoraco-dorsal nerve palsy d) Diagastric
c) Erb's palsy 226. Biceps brachi is supplied by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Klumpke's palsy a) Radial nerve b) Median nerve
216. Following a deep cut overlying the hypothenar c) Musculocutaneous nerve d) Axillary nerve
emminence, it is observed that the patient cannot 227. About radial bone true except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
hold a sheet of paper between the 2nd and 3rd a) Radial groove is present
digits. Which of the following nerves is most likely b) Major contributor to wrist joint
damaged? (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Radial artery lies medial to styloid process of radius
a) Deep branch of ulnar nerve d) Medial bone of forearm
b) Deep branch of radial nerve 228. Contents ofmidpulmar space are all except-
c) Superficial branch of ulnar nerve a) 2nd lumbrical b) FDP of3rd finger
d) Median nerve c) lstlumbrical d)FDPof4thfmger
217. Which ligament transfers weight from peripheral 229. Which intrinsic muscle is not supplied by medion
to axial skeleton? (NEETIDNB Pattern) nerve - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Coracoclavicular ligament a) Abductor pollicis brevis
b) Acromio-clavicular ligament b) Adductor pollicis brevis
c) Ligament of Bigelow c) Opponens pollicis
d) Sterno-clavicular ligament d) First lumbrical
207)a 208)c 209)d 210)a 2ll)b 212)d 213)d 214)c 215)a 216)a 217)a 218)a 219)d 220)c
22l)b 222)c 223)c 224)c 225)b 226)c 227)b 228)c 229)b
ANATOMY[1.13]
230. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of- 244. The lenght of an adult trachea is- (AJIMS 81)
a) Pectoralis major (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) 6to8cm b)lOtollcm (DNB83)
b) Serratus anterior c) 14tol5cm d)16to20cm
c) Peetoralis minor 245. An adulttrachea has a diameter of- (AIIMS 79)
d) Latissimus dors a) 0.5-lcm b) 1.2-1.6cms (DNB83)
231. Axillary nerve suppies- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 2.5-3 ems d) 3-3.5 ems
a) Supraspinatus b) Teres minor 246. Carina in an adult is at the level of- (PGI 81
c) Teres major d) Infraspinatus a)T2 b)T3 Rohtak87)
232. All arteries involved in anastomosis around c) T4 d) T6
scapula except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
247. During quiet breathing, the lower border of the
a) Circumflex scapular b) Suprascapular
c) Infrascapular d) Tarnsverse cervical lung is found atthe level ofthe- (AIIMS 78
233. Radial styloid process gives attachement to - a) Sixth rib in the midclavicular line PGI 81)
a) IDJ b) Brochioradialis b) Tenth rib in the midaxillary line
c) ECR d) Anconeus c) Eighth rib in the midaxillary line
234. Erb's palsy involves - (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Twelfth rib in the scapular line
a) C5C6 b) C8T 1 248. The lungs- (PGI79, 81)
c) TIT2 d) c6c7 a) Receive parasympathetic innervation from the
235. Posterior wall of axilla is not formed by - vagus nerves
a) Subscapularis (NEET!DNB Pattern) b) Receive sympathetic innervation from
b) Latissimus dorsi preganglionic nerve cell bodies located in the
c) Supraspinatus intermediolateral cell column of upper
d) Teres major thoracic spinal cord segments
236. Klumpke's paralysis affect- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Are innervated by visceral afferents that utilize
a) C5C6 b) C6C7 both the vagal and sympathetic pathways to
c) CST! d) c4c5 enter the central nervous system
d) Are drained by lympathic pathways, both sides
THORAX of which (left and right) ter minate in the
thoracic duct
237. SAnodeislocated- (AI 88)
249. Theleftcoronaryartery- (AIIMS 79, PGI 80)
a) Epicardially b) Intramyocardial
c) Subepicardially d) Endocardially a) Has a branch that commonly anastomoses with
238. Muscle of expiration- (MAHE 98) the right coronary in the coronary sulcus
a) Diaphragm b) Internal intercostal b) Has a branch that commonly anastomoses with a
c) External intercostal d) Rect. Abdominis branch ofthe right coronary in the intervertricular
239. Trachea begins at the level of- (KARNAT 89) sulcus
a) Lower border of thyroid cartilage c) Is short in that soon after its origin it bifurcates
b) Lowerborderofcricoid into the anterior interventricular and circumfles
c) LowerborderofHyoid arteries
d) Fourth cervical vertebra d) Passes anterior to the pulmonary trunk
240. The developement of septal defects in the fetal 250. Anterior interventricular artery is a branch of
heartoccursat- (JIPMER 91) the--artery (JIPMER 80, Delhi 86)
a) 2-4 weeks b) 5-8 weeks a) Right marginal b) Pulmonary trunk
c) 9-12weeks d) 12-18weeks c) Right coronary d) Left coronary
241. Lung abscess secondary to aspiration is most 251. At the midaxillary line, parietal pleura extends
often seen in- (PDI 87) uptothelevelof- (AIIMS 80, 92, 93)
a) Anterior upper lobe b) Posterior upper lobe a) 8ili rib b) 9th rib
c) Posterior lower lobe d) Apical lower lobe c) lOilirib d) 11th rib
242. All generation of bronchus are fully present by -
252. The coronary sulcus is occupied by the - - -
--weeks ofintrauterine life- (AIIMS 80, AMU 89)
a) 6lli b)IOfu sinus- (PGI 80, DNB 89)
c) 16th d) 24th a) Pulmonary b) Coronary
243. Foreign body aspiration most commonly enters- c) Aortic d) Oblique
a) Right main bronchus (TN 98) 253. Posterior interventricular artery is a branch of
b) Left man brounchus the--artery- (PGI 81, Delhi 85)
c) Can enter both equally a) Circumflex b) Left coronary
d) None of the above c) Right coronary d) None of the above
230)b 231)b 232)c 233) b 234) a 235) c 236) c 237) c 238) b,d 239) b 240) b 24l)b,d 242)c 243)a
244)c 245)b 246)c 247)a,c 248)a,b,c 249)a,b,c 250)d 25l)c 252)b 253)c
ANATOMY[1.14]
254. Theesophagus- (PGI81, 84) 264. Bronchopulmonary segment contains all except-
a) Passes through the esophageal hiatus at vertebral a) Independent pulmonary artery (AIIMS 89)
level T-10 b) Independent pulmonary vein
b) Is found between the trachea and the thoracic c) Tertiary bronchiole
duct in the superior mediastinum d) Conical segment
c) Is typically ventral to the azygos vein in the lower 265. Which of the following structures do not pierce
throax the diaphragm- (AI 90)
d) Is adjacent to the right atrium as it passes posterior
a) NC b) Aorta
to the heart
c) Esophagus d) Greater splanchnic nerve
255. Which ofthe following statements about the thoracic
wall is/are true- (PGI 82, 88) 266. All are true about trachea except- (AI 90)
a) The terminal branches of the typical posterior a) 15 em long
intercoastal arteries anastamose with branches b) Bifurcates at C7
of the anterial intercostal arteries c) Lined by pseudo stratified columnar epithelum
b) The neurovascular bundle in the intercostal d) Tracheal cartilage is circular
space passes along the superior border of the rib 267. The IVC opnening in the diaphragm is at the
c) The internal thoracic artery ends by the dividing level of - (Kerala 90)
into superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries a) T8 b)TlO
d) The sternal angle is at the level of the third c) Tl2 d)Ll
Costal Cartilage 268. Bronchial veins of the right side open into- (Kerala
256. The sinus node is supplied by- (PGI 83) a) Superior vena cava b) Azygos vein 90)
a) Right coronary artery c) Hemiazygos vein d) None of the above
b) Right anterior ventricular artery 269. Which is true about apex ofthe left lung- (AI 91)
c) Left anterior descending artery a) Subclavian artery forms a groove
d) Artrio ventricular nodal artery b) Middle cervical ganglion lies behind it
257. The terminal branches ofthe internal mammary c) Closely adherent to cervical pleura
arteryare- (PGI83) d) Ends at second costal cartilage
a) Superior epigastric 270. All the direct articulation of true rib except-
b) Right gastroepiploic a) Costo sternal joint (AI 91)
c) Musculophrenic artery b) Costo chondral joint
d) Superior pancreatico duodenal c) Costotransverse joint
258. The thoracic duct crosses from the right to the d) Costovertebral joint
left at the level of- (PGI 86, AI 88) 271. Whichistrueaboutarchofaorta- (A/91)
a) T12 vertebra b) T6 Vertebra a). Starts at 3'd right ICS and ends at left 3rd ICS
c) T4 Vertebra d) T2 Vertebra b) Left vagus arches over it
e) C7Vertebra c) Lies behind body of sternum
259. The narrowest part of the alimentary canalis- d) It is closely related to parietal pleura
a) 60 em proximal to ileocecal junction (PGI 87) 272. Narrowestpartoftheesophagusis- (TN91)
b) Duodenum 1st part a) Cricopharynx
c) Esophagogastric in b) Esophagogastric junction
d) Cricopharynx c) At the level of arch of aorta
260. Thoracic ductis also called- (AIIMS 87) d) Level of tracheal bifurcation
a) Hensen's duct b) Bernard's duct 273. LengthofEsophagusis- (Kerala 91)
c) Pecquet duct d) Hoffman's duct a) lOcm b) 15 em
261. The esophageal opening in diaphragm is at the level c) 25cm d)40cm
of- (AI88) 274. The base of the heart is related to- (Jipmer 91)
a) TIO b)T9 a) Azygos vein
c) T8 d)Tll b) Tracheal bifurcation
e) T12 c) Descending aorta
262. Right coronary artery supplies all except- (PGI 88)
d) Central tendon of diaphragm
a) Apex ofheart b) Intraventricular septum
275. Which of the following about parietal pleura is
c) Inter atrial septum d) SA mode
correct- (Al92)
263. The arterial supply ofthe bundile of His is -(AP 88)
a) Supplied by vagus N
a) Interventricular branch of left coronary
b) Sensitive to pain
b) Interventricular branch of right coronary
c) Derived from splanchnopleurallayer of lateral
c) Marginal
plate mesoderm
d) Right aortic sinus
d) Extends upto T2
254) a,b,c 255) a,c 256) a 257) a,c 258) None 259) d 260)c 261) a 262) a 263) a,b 264) b 265) b 266) b,d
267) a 268) b 269) a 270) a 271) d 272) a 273) c 274)c 275)b
ANATOMY[1.15]
276. Left coronary artery snpplies all except- (A192) 289. Sensory nerve supply oftrachea is- (Kerala 96)
a) SA node b) Posterior 1/3 of septum a) Superior laryngeal nerve
c) Left ventricle d) Apex ofheart b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
277. The Inferior Surface ofthe heart is formed by- c) Internal laryngeal nerve
a) Right and Left Ventricle (A/93) d) Both Recurrent laryngeal & Internal laryngeal nerve
b) Right atrium and Ventricle e) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Inter ventricular Septum 290. The most dependant part of the lung in the supine
d) NC and Right Ventricle position - (CUPGEE 96)
278. The following form the boundaries of Koch's a) Upper apical b) Lower apical
triangle except- (Jipmer 9 3) c) Basal d) Upper anterior
a) Tendon of Todaro 291. Bundle of IDS is- (Karnat 96)
b) Septal leaflet of tricuspid valve a) Highly susceptible to Ishaemia
c) Orifice of coronary Sinus b) Mainly supplied by right coronary
d) Origin of Left Coronary artery c) Mainly supplied by left coronary
279. Atrioventricular node is supplied by- (Jipmer 93) d) Has a dual blood supply
a) Left Coronary artery 292. Part of heart lying in front of oeophagus- (TN 97)
b) Right Coronary artery a) LeftAtrium b) Left ventricle
c) Left circumflex artery c) Right ventricle d) Right Atrium
d) Left anterior descending artery 293. Correct about right and left main bronchi is-
280. Base of the heart is formed by- (Jipmer93) a) Right bronchus is more vertical (PGI 97)
a) Right atrium b) Left atrium and broader than the left
c) Both atria d) Left Ventricle b) Right bronchus is more vertical and has a narrow
281. Rt middle lobe consists of which broncho calibre than the left
pulmonary segment- (Delhi 93, AJ93, PGI 2K) c) Left bronchus is more vertical and broade than
a) Superior & inferior b) Medial and lateral right
c) Anterior and posterior d) Apical and lateral d) Left bronchus is more vertical and narrower than
282. Coronary sinus opens into- (Kerala 94) ritght
a) inferior vena cava b) right atrium 294. True ribs are - (CUPGE 97)
c) left atrium d) great cardiac vein a) 71hrib b) 8th rib
283. If a foreigh body enters in to the nose accidentally c) IOthrib d) I21hrib
it enters- (Jipmer 95) 295. All the following veins drain into coronary sinus
a) Apical segment of rt. Lower lobe except- (TN98,AMC88)
b) Medial segment of rt. Middle lobe a) Great cardiac vein b) Middle cardiac vein
c) Basal segment oflt. Lung c) Smallcardiacvein d)Anteriorcardiacvein
d) Posterior segment ofrt. Lower lobe
296. All open in right atrium except- (M.P. 98)
284. Great cardiac vein lies in- (PG/95)
a) Sup. vena cava b) Coronary sinus
a) AnteriorlY groove b) PosteriorlY groove
c) Great cardiac vein d) lnf. vena cava
c) Anterior AV groove d) Posterior AV groove
285. In a cross section of thorax at T4, which is 297. True aboutthoracic duct- (MP 98)
found- (AI95) a) It passes through aortic opening of diaphragm
a) azygos vein b) branchiocephalic artery b) It starts at the level of T3 vertebra
c) arch of aorta d) left subclavian c) It opens into superior vena cava
286. Structure arching over hilum of right lung is- d) It crosses from right to left at T5 vertebra
a) Azygos vein (AI 96) 298. Which one of the following structure is NOT
b) Thoracic duct situated between the nect of the first rib and apex of
c) Superior vena cava the lung- (ICS 98)
d) Arch of aorta a) First posterior intercostal vein
287. Lower border of costodiaphragmatic recess is at b) superior intercostal artery
level offollowing Rib- (AI 96) c) Thoracic duct
a) 61hRib b) SlhRib d) Sympathetic trunk
c) lOth Rib d) 12th Rib 299. All are insert in the first rib except- (AIIMS 98)
288. One of the following ribs articulate directly with a) Scalenus anterior
sternum except- (Delhi, 96) b) Scalenus posterior
a) 2nd rib b) 5th rib c) Scalenus medius
c) 4th rib d) 8th rib d) Supra pleural membrane
276)b 277)a 278)d 279)b 280)c 28l)b 282)b 283) a 284) a,d 285) c 286)a 287)c 288)d 289)b
290)b 29l)d 292)a 293)a 294)a 295)d 296)c 297) a,d 298) c 299) b
ANATOMY[1.16]
300. Oesophagus reveives blood sumply from all except- 312. Structures passing through the aortic hiatus of
a) InteriorThyroidartery (AI99) diaphragm are- (PGI 03)
b) Inerior phrenic artery a) Aorta b) Azygos vein
c) Internal mammary artery c) Hemiazygos vein d) Thoracic duct
d) Bronchial artery e) Sympathetic trunk
301. The oblique sinus of pericardium lies- 313. Bronchial artery supplies upto- (Jipmer 03)
a) Behind the left atrium (AMC 99) a) Terminal bronchiole b) Respiratory bronchiole
b) Behind the ascanding aorta c) Alveolus d) Secondary bronchus
c) Behind the SVC 314. The commonest variation in the arteries arising
d) Anterior to pulmonary trunk
from the arch of aorta is - (AI 03)
302. Which of the following is not a boundary of the
a) Absence ofbrachiocephalic trunk
Koch,s triangle- (AIIMS 2K)
b) Left vertebral artery arising from the arch
a) Tendon of Todaro b) Limbus fosa ovalis
c) Left common carotid artery arising from
c) Coronary sinus d) Tricuspid valve ring
303. Sympathetic innervation ofheartis by- (DNB 2001) brachiocephalic trunk
d) Presence of retroesophageal subclavian artery
~T~~ ~T~~
315. The lumbar region of the vertebral column
c) T3-T7 d)L 1-L5 permits all of the following movements except-
304. Lengthoftrachea- (TN 2002)
a) Flexion b)Extension (AI03)
a) 10-12cm b) l cm-lOcm
c) Lateral flexion d) Rotation
c) 15 em d) 22.5 em
316. The middle cardiac vein is located at the - (AI 03)
305. Which one of these muscles is not cut in postero
lateral thoracotomy- (PGI 98) a) Anterior interventricular sulcus
a) Serratus anterior b) Pectoralis major b) Posterior interventricular sulcus
c) Latissimus dorsi d) Intercostals c) Posterior AV groove
306. Esophagus enters through- (PGI 99) d) Anterior AV groove
a) Central tendon of diaphragm 317. In angina pectoris, the pain radiating down the
b) Along aortic opening left arm is mediated by increased activity in afferent
c) Muscular part of diaphragm (sensory) fibres contained in the- (AIIMS 03)
d) Rt. crus a) Carotid branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve
307. Part ofleft lower lobe oflung except- (PGI 2000) b) Phrenic nerve
a) Superior b) Anteromedial Basal c) Vagus nerve and recurrent laryngeal nerve
c) Post. basal d) Medial basal d) Thoracic splanchnic nerve
308. Which of the following statements is correct 318. Autonomic supply to S.A node is- (Orris a 04)
regarding the trachea- (PGI 01) a) Parasympathetic excitatory
a) During deep inspiration, the tracheal bifurcation b) Sympathetic excitatory
may descend to T6 level c) Both excitatory
b) The left bronchus is wider and shorter d) Both inhibitory
c) The arch of the aorta lies the right bronchus and 319. The stability of the vertebral column is due to-
is anterior to it a) Vertebra and vertebral discs (Bihar 03)
d) The sensory supply of trachea is by the vagus b) Interspinous ligaments
e) In the thorax, the esophagus lies anterior to the c) Paraspinal muscle
trachea d) All
309. Blood supply oflungs are- (PGI 02) 320. The esophagus- (Kerala 04)
a) Pulmonary artery b) Pulmonary vein a) Begins at the upper border of cricoid carlotilage
c) Bronchial artery d) Intercostal artery b) Runs a straight course throughout
e) Internal thoracic artery c) Is nanowest at its termination
310. True statements about esophageal hiatus- (PGI 02) d) Is nanowest at its begining
a) Lies between two crura of diaphragm 321. Left superior intercostal vein drainsinto-(APPGE 04)
b) At the livel ofD 12 vertebra a) Azygous vein b) Hemi azygous vein
c) Vagus nerve passes through it c) Innominate vein d) Left branchiocephalic vein
d) Lie in rt. crura of diaphragm 322. The arch of aorta lies in the ---mediastinum-
e) Thoracic duct passes through it a) Posterior b)Anterior (TN04)
311. Branches ofR.C.A. (Rt. Coronary artery) -(PGI 03) c) Middle d) Superior
a) Obtuse marginal b) Acute marginal 323. Thebaseoftheheartisformedbythe- (TN04)
c) Posterior interventricular d) Diagonal. a) Right atrium b) Left atrium
e) Posterior ventricular c) Left ventricle d) Right ventricle
300)c 30l)a 302)b 303)b 304)a 305)b 306)c 307)b 308)d 309) a,b,c 310) c,d 311) b,c,e 312) a,b,d
313)b 314)c 315)d 316)b 317)d 318)b 319)d 320)d 321)d 322)d 323)b
ANATOMY [ 1.17]
324. Which of the following is correct regarding SA 334. All of the following arteries are common sites of
node- (SGPG/05) occlusion by a thrombus except- (AIIMS May 05)
a) It is supplied by left coronary artery mainly a) Anterior interventricular
b) Generates an impulse at the rate of about 70/min b) Posterior interventricular
and initiates the heart beat c) Circumflex
c) Situated in left atrium d) Marginal
d) Part of valves 335. The following statements are true regarding the
325. All ofthe following are true regarding heart except- SA node except- (AIIMS May 05)
a) Is located at the right border of the ascending aorta
a) Comory sinus opens into (SGPGI 05)
b) It contains specilized nodal cardiac muscle
Right atrium
c) It is supplied by the atrial branches of the right
b) Vena cardie minimi drains into surface of heart
coronary artery
c) SA node is supplied by Rightcoronary artery d) It initiates cardiac conduction
d) Left auricle projects anteriorly to overlap the 336. The coronary sinus- (Jipmer 05)
infundibulam of the right ventricle a) Lies in anterior part of the coronary sulcus
326. Which of the following is correct regarding hilum b) Ends in right atrium
of rightlung- (AMU 05) c) Has venae cordis minimae as its tributaries
a) Thoracic duct arches over it d) Develops from right anterior cardinal vein
b) Azygous vein arches over anterior surface 337. Which of the following structures constitutes part
c) Arch of aorta is related to its anterior surface ofventricleofheart- {HP 2006)
d) Pressed by lingual a) Auricle b) Crista terminalis
327. Occlusion of the LAD will lead to infarction of which c) Fossa ovalis d) Trabeculee carenae
area- (MAHE 05) 338. Consider the following statements- (UPSC 07)
a) Posterior part of the interventricular septum Venacaval opening of the diaphragm situated at the
b) Anterior wall of the left ventricle level ofT8 transmit-
c) Lateral part of the heart L Inferior vena cava
d) Inferior surface of right ventricle 2 Vagus nerve
328. The root ofthe right lung does not lie behind which 3. Branches of the right phrenic nerve
one of the following- (/CS 05) 4. Thoracic duct
a) Right atrium b) Right vagus Which of the statements given above are correct ?
c) Superior vena cava d) Phrenic nerve a) I and 2 b) 2 and 3
329. Which ofthe following do NOT elevate the ribs- c) I and3 d) I and4
a) Serratus posterior superior (MAHA 05) 339. The normal narrowing in the middle of the
b) Serratus posterior inferior oesophagus is caused by- ( Comed 07)
c) External intercostals a) Azygos vein
d) Levatores costarum b) Hemiazygos vein
330. Superior intercostal artery is a branch of-(APPGE 05) c) Right main stem bronchus
a) Costocervical trunk b) Dorsal scapular artery d) Left main stem bronchus
c) Thyrocervical trunk d) Internal thoracic artery 340. The last tributary of the azygos vein is- ( Comed 08)
331. Anterior intercostal artery is branch of-( Orrisa 05) a) Right superior intercostal vein
a) Internal mammary artery b) Hemi-azygos vein
b) Direct branch of aorta c) Right bronchial vein
c) Posterior intercostal artery d) Accessory azygos vein
d) Subclavian artery 341. Structures that pass from thorax to abdomen behind
332. All of the following structures pass through the the diaphragm are all except- (AI 07)
superior aperture of thorax except -(AIIMS NOV 05) a) Azygos vein b) Aorta
a) Right recurrent laryngeal nerve c) Thoracic duct d) Greater splanchnic nerve
b) Left common carotid artery 342. MostcommonsiteofMorgagniHerniais- (A/07)
c) Left sympathetic trunk a) LeftAnterior b) Right posterior
d) Thoracic duct c) Right Anterior d) Left posterior
333. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to 343. Difference between typical cervical & thoracic
introduce needle along- (AI 05) vertebral- (AI 07)
a) Has a triangular body
a) Upper border of the rib
b) Has a foramen transversarium
b) Lower border of the rib
c) Superior articular facet directed backwards &
c) In the center of the intercostal space
upwards
d) In anterior part of intercostal space
d) Has a large vertebral body
324)b 325)b 326)b 327)b 328)b 329)b 330)a 33l)a 332)a 333)a 334)d 335)a 336)b 337)d
338)c 339)d 340)c 34l)d 342)c 343)b
ANATOMY [ 1.18]
344. All ofthe following characteristics differentiate a 355. Fibrous pericardium is attached to- (Manipal 08)
typical cervical vertebrae from a thoracic vertebrae a) Central tendon b) Right crus
except~ (Aiims May 07) c) Left ems d) Pleura
a) Has a triangular vertebral canal 356. Anterior interventricular artery is a branch of-
b) Has foramen transversarium a) Rt coronary artery (DPGEE 08)
c) Superior articular facet is directed backwards & b) Left coronary artery
upwards c) Circumflexartery
d) Has a large vertebral body d) Left anterior descending artery
345, A "Potential Anastomosis" seen in- (UP 07) 357. Which of the following is true about the starting
a) Labial branch offacial artery course azygous vein course- (APPG 08)
b) Intercostal artery a) Superior venecava
c) Coronary artery b) Posteriorly to inferior venecava
d) Arterial arcades of mesentery c) Anterior lumbar vein
346. Which of the following duct commences in the d) None
abdomen as an elongated lymph sac of the cisterna 358. True about anatomy ofrigbtventricle-
cbyli is - (UP 07, UP 06) a) Situated posteriorly (PGI Dec 08)
a) Thoracic duct b) Gartner's duct b) More prominent trabeculation
c) Bile duct d) Hepatic duct c) Crista supraventricularis separate tricuspid valve
347. In a case of chest pain with pericarditis and & pulmonary valve
pericardial effussion, pain is referred by - d) Apex trabeculated
a) Phrenic nerve (AIIMS Nov 07) e) TV & PV share fibrous continuity
b) Superficial cardiac plexus 359. True about Latissimus dorsi- (PGI Dec 08)
c) Deep cardiac plexus a) Nerve supply from long thoracic nerve
d) Vagus nerve b) Inserted into bicipital groove of humerus
348. Pleural tapping in the mid-axillary line, muscle not c) Use to fill up back defects
pierced is - (AIIMS Nov 07) d) Blood supply from lateral thoracic artery
a) Internal intercostal b) External intercostal e) Origin from upper four ribs
c) Inner most intercostal d) Transversus thoracis 360. Boundary of triangle of auscultation is not formed
349. Which of the following is the most cranial structure by- (AIIMS Nov 08)
in the root ofleft lung? (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Serratus anterior b) Scapula
a) Bronchus b) Pulmonary artery c) Trapezius d) Latissimus dorsi
c) Pulmonary vein d) Bronchial artery 361. In a Subclavian artery block at the outer border of
350. If circumflex artery gives the posterior 1st rib, all of the following arteries help in
interventricular branch, this circulation is maintaining the circulation to upper limb except-
described as- (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Subscapular artery (AIIMS Nov 08)
a) Right dominance b) Left dominance b) Superior thoracic
c) Codominance d) Undetermined c) Thyrocervical trunk
351. Direct opening in the right atrium with- (UP 08) d) Suprascapular artery
a) Anterior cardiac vein b) Oblique vein 362. Aortic hiatus contains- (AIIMS May 09)
c) Middle cardiac vein d) Great cardiac vein a) Left gastric vein and thoracic duct
352. In the lungs bronchial arteries supply the b) Thoracic duct and hemiazygos vein
bronchopulmonarytree- (AI 08) c) Azygos vein and thoracic duct
a) Till tertiary bronchi d) Left vagus and thoracic duct
b) Till segmental bronchi 363. Blood supply of pectoralis major muscles is /are-
c) Till respiratory bronchioles a) Thoracoacromial trunk (PGI June 09)
d) Till alveolar sacs b) Lateral thoracic artery
353. The thoracic duct receives tributaries from all of c) Internal mammary artery perforating branches
the following except- (Aiims May 08) d) Axillary artery
a) Bilateral ascending lumbar trunk e) Subclavian artery
b) Bilateral descending thoracic trunk 364. As viewed from the right atrium, the floor ofthe
c) Left upper intercostal duct fossa ovalis is formed by - (COMED 09)
d) Right bronchomediastinallymphatic trunk a) Septum prirnurn
354. Tracheal bifurcation is at which level of vertebra- b) Septum secundum
a) T4 b) T2 (Manipal 08) c) Endocardial cushions
c) Tl d)T7 d) Tricuspid valve orifice
344)d 345)c 346)a 347)a 348)d 349)b 350)b 35l)a 352)c 353)d 354)a 355)a 356)b 357)b
358) b,c,d,e 359) a,b,c 360) a 36l)b 362)c 363) a,c 364) b
ANATOMY[1.19]
365. The thoracic duct crosses the posterior mediastinum 375. Constr!,:tions in Esophagus are present at distance
at the level of which vertebra- (COMED 09) of (from incisor)- (PGI Nov. 10)
a) T5 b)T6 a) 12cm b) 25 em
c)TI d)T8 c) 28cm d)36cm
366. Spinal epidural space contains -(DELHI PG Feb. 09) e) 40cm
a) Areolar tissue and internal vertebral venous plexuses 376. The surface marking of the arch of aorta is as
b) Only areolar tissue follows - (Karn 11)
c) Only cerebrospinal fluid a) Behind the manubrium sterni
d) Vertebral venous plexus and cerebrospinal fluid b) 2nd intercostal space
367. Spinal epidural space is the largest at the level of c) 3rd intercostal space
the- (DELHI PG Feb. 09) d) Left 2nd costal cartilage
a) 12th thoracic vertebra b) pt hunbar vertebra 377. Veins are an example of- (PUNJAB ll)
c) 2nd lumber vertebra d) 3rd lumber vertebra a) Conducting vessels b) Distributing vessels
368. All of the following are true about phrenic nerve, c) Resistance vessels d) Capacitance vessels
except- (DELHI PG Mar. 09) 378. Hassal's corpuscles are seen in- (Jipmer 11)
a) It is purely motor nerve a) Thymus b) Thyroid
b) It arise briefly from C4 spinal nerve c) Parathyroid d) Spleen
c) It is formed at the lateral order of scalenus anterior 379. Which of the following accompanies the anterior
d) Accessory phrenic is commonly a branch from interventricular artery ? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
the nerve to subclavirus a) Great cardiac vein b) Middle cardiac vein
369. Which of the following statements is/are true about c) Small cardiac vein d) Right marginal vein
diaphragm- (PGI Nov 09) 380. At what level does the trachea bifurcates?
a) Left side pushed down by heart a) Upper border of T4 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Left side lower than right side b) Lower border ofT4
c) Right side lower than left side c) 27.5 em from the incisors
d) Right side pushed up by liver d) Lower border of T5
e) Hernia common on left because of weak origin 381. Which of the following represents the surface
370. True about left phrenic nerve- (AIIMS Nov 09) marking of the aortic valve?(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Lies anterior to anterior scalenous muscle a) Sternal end of left 3rd costal cartilage
b) Sternal end of right 3rd costal cartilage
b) Posterior to brachial plexus
c) Besides the sternum in left 3rd intercostal space
c) Posterior to subclavian artery
d) Besides the sternum in right 3rd intercostals space
d) Posterior to hilum left lung
382. Which of the following is supplied by the abdominal
371. Left sided superior vena cava drains into- (AI 10)
aorta? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Right atrium b) Left atrium
a) Accessory lung lobes
c) Coronary sinus d) Pericardia! space b) Bronchopulmonary segment
372. Occlusion ofthe left anterior descending artery will c) Sequestrated lung tissue
lead to infarction of which area- (DPG 10) d) Base of lung
a) Posterior part of the interventricular septum 383. IVC pierces the diaphgram at what vertebral level-
b) Anterior wall of the left ventricle a) T6 b) T8 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Lateral part of the heart c) TIO d) TI2
d) Inferior surface of right ventricle 384. Arch of aorta lies at what vertebral level -
373. Which of the following is not a tributary of azygos a) T5 b) T4 (NEET/DNB Pattern)
vein? (Maharashtra 10) c) T6 d) T2
a) Right posterior intercostal 385. All of the following lie between the 1st rib and the
b) Right superior apex of the lung, except - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Left superior intercostal a) Thoracic duct
d) Accessory hemiazygos b) Superior intercostal artery
374. True statement about Rt coronary artery (RCA) - c) First posterior intercostal vein
a) Diameter less thanLCA (PGI Nov 10) d) Sympathetic trunk
b) RCA arises from anterior aortic sinus 386. What is true about sinus venosus- (NEET!DNB
c) RCA supplies major part of right atrium and right a) Forms rough wall of right atrium Pattern)
ventricle b) Forms smooth wall of right atrium
c) Forms right coronary sinus
d) RCA gives rise to circumflex coronary branch
d) Forms left leaflet of coronary sinus
365)a 366)a 367)d 368)a 369)b,d,e 370)a 37l)c>a 372)b 373)c 374)a,b,c 375)b,e 376)a 377)d
378)a 379)a 380)b 38l)a 382) c 383) b 384) b 385) a 386) b
ANATOMY [ 1.20]
387. Subcapsular sinuses are seen in- (NEETIDNB 399. Sympathetic supply to heart -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Spleen b) Thymus Pattern) a)C 5 -C7 b)T 1 -T4
c) Thyroid d) Lymph node c)C 1 -C4 d)T5 T 9
388. Which of the following is not supplied by the right 400. Esophagus shorts at which level -
coronary artery? (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Upper border of cricoid cartilage
a) SA node b) AV node b) Lower border of cricoid cartilage
c) AV bundle d) Right bundle branch c) Thyroid cartilage (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Hyoid cartilage
389. Surface marking of the mitral valve is-
401. Surface marking of oblique fissure of lung include
a) Behind sternal end of left 4th costal cartilage
all except- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Behind sternal end of right 4th costal cartilage a) T 3 b) 5th rib
c) Left 4th intercostal space in the midclavicular c) 7th rib d) 6th costal cartilage
line (NEET/DNB Pattern) 402. Blood supply of liver- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
d) Left Jrd intercostal space in the midclavicular a) 80 % hepatic artery, 20 % portal vein
line b) 20 % hepatic artery, 80 % portal vein
390. Superior vena cava opens into right atrium at c) 50 % hepatic artery, 50 % portal vein
the level of- (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) 100 % hepatic artery
a) T1 b) T3 403. Coronary sinus is guarded by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) T4 d) T5 a) Crista terminalis b) Thebesian valve
391. Opening of esophagus into diaphragm is at the c) Mitral valve d) Spiral valve
level of- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 404. Coronary sinus develops from-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) T6 b) TlO a) Truncus arteriosus b) Conus
c) T12 d) T8 c) Sinus venosus d) AV canal
392. Isometric relaxation is defined as - 405. Hemiazygous vein crosses left to right at the level
of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Relaxation of both atria (NEET/DNB Pattern)
~ T8 b)TIO
b) Relaxation of both atria with all valves open
c) Tl2 d) T6
c) Relaxation of LV with mitral & aortic valve closed
406. Bifurcation of trachea is at - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Atrophy a) Upper border of T5 b) Lower border ofT4
393. Distance of the Lower Esophageal Sphincter from c) Upper border of T4 d) Lower border ofT5
the upper incisors is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 407. Fossa ovalis is a remnant of- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) 15cm b) 22.5cm a) Septum primum b) Septum secundum
c) 27.5cm d) 37.5cm c) Ductus arteriosus d) ductus venosus
394. Transverse sinus is present posterior to which 408. SA node blood supply is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
structures - (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Rt. coronary b) Lt. coronary
a) Right atrium b) Left atrium c) Lt. and descending d) Ant aortic sinus
c) Upper pulmonary artery d) Aorta 409. Koch's triangle has blood supply from-
395. Aortic area for auscultation overlying the chest a) Rt. coronary (NEETIDNB Pattern)
wall is located at - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Lt. circumflex
a) Cardiac apex c) Lt. and descending
b) 2nd intercostal space on right side d) Ant aortic sinus
410. At Saint Louis angle what crusses -
c) 2nd intercostal space on left side
a) Arch of aorta (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Epigastric region
b) Azygous vein
396. Lymphatic drainage of cervix is to all except -
c) Common carotid artery
a) Internal iliac (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) None
b) External iliac 411. Lower border oflung is upto__level of rib at mid-
c) Obturator axillary line- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Sacral a) 6 b) 8
397. Hyaline cartilage of respiratory tree extends upto- c) 10 d) 12
a) Tertiary bronchiole (NEETIDNB Pattern) 412. Occlusion ofleft anterior descending artery results
b) Secondary bronchiole in ischemia of - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Terminal bronchiole a) Anterolateria wall b) Left atrium
d) Bronchi c) Right ventricle d) Interatrial septum
398. Length of adult trachea is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 413. Esophageal opening in diaphragm at -
a) 5-6 em b) 10-11 em a) T 8 b) T 10 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 15-16cm d) 20-21cm c) T 12 d)T6
387)d 388)d 389)a 390)d 391)b 392)c 393)d 394)d 395)b 396)c 397)d 398)b 399)b 400)b
40l)c 402)b 403)b 404)c 405)a 406)b 407)a 408)a 409)a 410)a 411)b 412)a 413)b
ANATOMY [ 1.21]
414. Ductus venosus connects - 426. The ischial tuberosity gives attachment to-
a) Pulmonary trunk and descending aorta a) Obturator intemus (AIIMS 79, Rohtak 90)
b) Right atrium and left atrum b) Quadratus femoris
c) Portal vein and IVC (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Gluteus maximus
d) Pulmonary trunk and ascending aorta d) Adductor magnus
415. Thoracic duct crosses at- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 427. The posterior division of obturator nerve
a) T1 b) C7 innervates- (AIIMS 79, Kerala 89)
c) T5 d) T8 a) Hip joint b) Knee joint
416. Middle lobe of lung contains, segments- c) Adductor longus d) Pectineus
a) Superior & inferior (NEETIDNB Pattern) 428. In the region on the knee- (PGI 81)
b) Anterior & posterior a) The popliteal fossa is bounded above by tendons
c) Medial & lateral of the hamstring muscles and below by the two
d) Apical & basal heads of the gastrocnemius muscle
417. Azygos lobe is found- (NEET/DNB Pattern) b) The deepest structure in the popliteal fossa is the
a) Heart b) Spleen popliteal artery
c) Lung d) Pancreas c) The popliteal and femoral vessels are continuous
418. Blood supply of thoracic part of esophagus- through the adductor hiatus
a) Aorta (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) The common peroneal nerve passes superficially
b) Inferior thyroid artery through the central protion of popliteal fossa
c) Gastric artery 429. The superficial circumflex iliac artery usually
d) Superior thyroid artery anastomoses with which of the following arteries-
419. Fossa ovalis clases because of fussion a) Superior gluteal (AIIMS 81, AMC 83)
of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Lateral femoral circumflex
a) Septum primum +Endocardial cushion c) Deep circumflex iliac
b) Septum secundum + Endocardial cushion d) All of the above
c) Septum primum +Septum secundum 430. The longitudinal arch of the foot- (PGI 82)
d) None a) Is divided into medial and lateral protions
420. What lies anterior to transverse sinus- (NEET/ anteriorly with the calcaneus forming a common
a) Aorta b) Pulmonary artery DNB Pattern) component posteriorly
c) NC d)SVC b) Is highest (most suprior) at the level of the talus
c) Receives medial support primarily from the
INFEX palntar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament,
which directly support the head of the talus
421. Patella completely ossifY by the age of- (PGI 84) d) Is arranged so that weight is distributed anteriorly
a) 6 years b) 10 years to the heads of the metatarsals and posteriorly
c) 14 years d) 21 years to the calcaneus
422. Fabella is- (PGI 81, AMU 87) 431. The following muscles dorsiflex the foot at the
a) Same as fibula ankle joint- (PGI 82)
b) An accessory projection from fibula a) Extersor digitorum brevis
c) A sesamoid bone b) Tibialis anterior
d) None of the above c) Peroneus longus
423. Distal femoral epiphysis is seen at the age of- d) Extensor hallucis longus
a) Just after birth b) 10 weeks (JIPMER 80, 432. Abduction and adduction of the forefoot occurs
c) 20 weeks d) 34 weeks Delhi 87) ~- ~m~
424. Which of the following muscles are stance phase a) Subtalar joint b) Midtarsal joint
muscles - (PGI 80, 87) c) Inferior tibiofibular joint d) None
a) Quadriceps b)Hamstringmuscles 433. The contents ofthe femoral sheath is/are-{AllMS 84)
c) Anterior tibial d) Peroneus longus a) Femoral nerve b) Femoral vein
e) Soleus-gastrocnemuus c) Femoral artery d) b & c
425. Peroneus brevis is inserted to- (PGI 88) 434. In walking, the hip bone of the suspended leg is
a) Base of fifth metatarsal raised by which of the following muscles acting
b) Base of first metatarsal on the supported side ofthe body- (AIMS 84)
c) Head of third metatarsal a) Obturator extemus b) Gluteus medius
d) Head of second metatarsal c) Gluteus maximus d) Gluteus minimus
414)c 415)b 416)c 417)c 418)a 419)c 420)a 42l)c 422)c 423)d 424)All 425)a 426)d 427)b
428) a,b,c 429) d 430)All 431) b,d 432) b 433) d 434) a
ANATOMY [ 1.22]
435. Due to bony support, the most stable position oftbe 447. Floor of the femoral triangle is formed by the
ankle joint is- (AMU 84) following muscles, except the- (AMU 88)
a) Inversion b) Plantar flexion a) Pectineus b) Adductor longus
c) Eversion d) Dorsiflexion c) Iliacus d) Adductor brevis
436. The longest vein in the human body is- (AJIMS 85) 448. Pain from the hip joint is referred to the- (PGI 88)
a) NC b) Cephalic a) Back b) Knee joint
c) Basilic d) Long saphenous c) Calf d) AU ofthe above
437. The nnmber perforators of the great saphenous 449. Foot drop result as a result of injury to- (Al88)
vein in the leg is- (AIIMS 85) a) Deep peroneal nerve
a) 2 b)3 b) Superficial peroneal nerve
c) 4 d)S c) Tibal nerve
438. The following structures pass through the d) Deltoid ligament
subsartorial canal, except the- (AIIMS 85) 450. Lateral rotators of the hip are AlE - (AI 88)
a) Posterior division of the obturator nerve a) Piriforms b) Quadratus famoris
b) Saphenous nerve c) Obturator intemus d) Obturator extemus
c) Femoral artery e) Psoas major
d) Nerve to vastus intermedius 451. The strongest ligament in the body is- (PGI 88)
e) Femoral vein a) Inguinal ligament b) Lacunar ligament
439. Knee jerk reflex tests -(NIMHANS 86, 87, c) Ligamentum flavum d) iliofemoral ligament
a) L I L2 L3 b)L2 L3 L4 Kerala 87)
452. The flexor of the hip is- (PGI 88)
a) Psoas b) Vastus medialis
c) L3 L4 L5 d)L4 L5 L 1
c) Quadratus femoris d) Gluteus maximus
e) L5 S1 S2
453. Which artery is fonnd in the adductor canal-
440. Sartorius muscle takes origin from - (AP86,
a) Profunda femoris b) Femoral (AMC 88)
a) Pectinate line Delhi 86)
c) Obturator d) Popliteal
b) Ant. Superior iliac spine
454. Fascia crib rosa is related to - (Rohtak 88)
c) Body of the ileum a) Inguinal ring b) Femoral canal
d) Ischial tuberosity
c) Neck d) Thigh
441. Ossification of the lower end of femur is seen
455. Popliteus muscle forms the ••.... of popliteal fossa-
at- (PGI 86, KERALA 87, UPSC 86, JIPMER 86)
a) Roof b) Floor
a) 36thweek b)38thweek
c) Upper boundary d) Lower boundary
c) 39thweek d)4Qthweek
456. The peroneal artery is a branch of which artery-
e) 32"dweek
a) Anterior tibial artery (CMC 89)
442. The keystone ofthe medial longitudinal arch ofthe b) Popliteal artery
footis- (JIPMER86)
c) Posterior tibial artery
a) Calcaneum b) Cuboid
d) Arcuate artery
c) Talus d) Navicular
e) Lateral plantar artery
443. Femoral nerve does not supply- (AJIMS 86, 91)
457. Femoralcanal,whichiscorrect- (AI89)
a) Sartorius b) Rectus femoris a) Smaller in female
c) Tensor fasciae latae d) Articularis genu
b) Contains femoral vein
444. Where does superficial femorla artery becomes
c) Inferior epigastric artery lies medially
the popliteal artery - (TN 8 7)
d) Medial most compartment of femoral sheath
a) At apex of femoral triangle
458. Extension ofthe hip is restricted by- (AI 89)
b) At the hiatus in adductor maguus
a) Iliofemoral ligament b) Psoas
c) Within the adductor canal
c) Gravity d) Abductor muscles
d) None of the above
459. Medial longitudinal arch offoot is not formed by-
445. Which is true of spring ligament- (TN87)
a) Cuboid b) Calcaneous (AI 89)
a) Seen in the spine
c) Talus d) Navicular
b) Synonymus with plantar calacaneonavicular
460. Most commonly used donar nerve in nerve grafting
c) Ligament
is - (UPSC 89)
d) Seen in the knee joint
a) Medialpoliteal b) Posterior interosseus
e) Seeninhipjoint
c) Great auricular d) Sural
446. The action of popliteal muscle is to - (PGI87)
461. Housemaids knee is an inflammation ofthe ..••...
a) Rotate the femur laterally on the tibia
Bunae- (UPSC8~
b) Rotate the femur medially on the tibia
a) Suprapatellar b) Semimembranosus
c) Rotate the tibia laterally on the femur c) Prepatellar bursa d) Lateral patellare
435)d 436)d 437)c 438)d 439)b 440)b 441)a 442)c 443)c 444)b 445)b 446)a 447)d 448)b
449)a 450)e 451)d 452)a 453)b 454)b 455)b 456)c 457)d 458)a 459)a 460)d 461)c
ANATOMY [ 1.23]
462. Medial meniscus is attached at- (NIMHANS 89) 474. The nerve involved in Tarsal Tunnel syndrome is-
a) One point b) Two point a) Lateral plantar b) Medial Plantar (AI 93)
c) Three points d) None c) Posterior tibial d) Anterior tibial
463. The muscles that innervate the sole of foot include- 475. Saphenousopeningissituated- (JIPMER93)
a) Tibialis anterior (AMU 89) a) Just below pubic tubercle
b) Extensor hallucis longus b) Below and lateral to pubic tubercle
c) Tibialis posterior c) Above and medial to pubic tubercle
d) Flexor digitorum longus d) Just above pubic tubercle
464. Extensor of the knee is by- (AIIMS 91) 476. Ossification centres in calcaneus and talus appear
a) Biceps femoris b) Quadriceps in- (JIPMER 95)
c) Sartorius d) Semimembranosus a) 4th and 8th month b) 3n1 and 6th month
465. Short saphenous vein is the continuation of- c) 5th and 9th month d) I tth and 12th month
a) Medial marginal vein (AIIMS 91) 477. Drainage of glans penis is to- (AI 95)
b) Lateral marginal vein a) Deep inguinal nodes
c) Dorsal venous arch b) Superficial inguinal nodes
d) Tibial vein c) Paraaortic
466. Which of the following muscles does not arise from d) Iliac lymph nodes
the calcaneum- (AP 91) 478. Fabellaoccursin- (TN 95)
a) Flexordigitorum brevis a) Gastrocnemious medial head
b) Extensor digitorum brevis b) Gastrocnemious lateral head
c) Quadratus plantae c) Tendo calcaneous
d) Flexor hallucis brevis d) Soleus muscle
e) Abductor hallucis 479. Actionofquadratusfemorisis- (Assam 95)
467. The major blood supply to the posterior femoral a) Extension b) Flexion
musclesisprovidedby- (AP 91)
c) Lateral rotation d) Medial rotation
480. While flexing knee, femoral condyles are prevented
a) The perforating branches of the deep femoral artery
from rolling backwards by- (AIIMS 9 5)
b) The obturator artery
a) Ligamentum patellae
c) The superior gluteal artery
b) Semilunar cartilages
d) Medial and lateral femoral circumflex vessels
c) Medial & lateral collateral ligaments
468. Which of the folllowing muscles does not insert d) Cruciate Ligaments
into the plantar aspect of the foot- (UP 92)
481. Femoral vein lies------ to femoral artery-
a) Flexor digitorum longus b) Peroneus tertius a) Anterior b) Posterior (CUPGEE 95)
c) Peroneus longus d) Tibialis posterior c) Lateral d) Medial
e) Flexor hallucis longus 482. Anastomosis around the knee-which is true-
469. Oblique popliteal ligament is the continuation a) De seeding genicular branch of femoral artery
of- (AI 92) b) Anteriortibialartery (CUPGEE96)
a) Semi tendinosus b) Semimembranosus c) Saphenous branch offemoral artery
c) Biceps femoris d) Adductor magnus d) All
470. Ligament of Bigelow is present in- (AIIMS 92) 483. Muscles inserted into the iliotibial tract-(CUPGEE
a) Shoulder joint b) Ankle joint a) Tensor fascial lata b) Gluteus maximus 96)
c) Knee joint d) Hip joint c) Vastus lateralis d) All
471. Sacral canal's volume is- (Delhi 92) 484. Knee jerk is primarily served by- (AI 97)
a) 5-lOcc b) 15-25cc a) L1 b)L2
c) 10-15cc d) 25-35cc ~ L3 d)L4
472. In the adult, the chief arterial supply to the bead of 485. Not seen in adductor canal- (Kerala 97)
the femur is from the- (TN 92) a) Femoral artery b) Femoral nerve
a) Superficial circumflex iliac artery c) Saphenous nerve d) Femoral vein
b) Obturator artery 486. Spontaneous pelvic diasthesis is seen in- (PGI 97)
c) Branches from the medial and lateral circumflex a) Extended lithotomy b) Squating
femoral arteries c) Trendelenberg d) Supine
d) Deep external pudendal artery 487. Structure passing deep to Flexor retinaculam,
e) Inferior gluteal artery behind medial malleolus is- (AIIMS 97)
473. Great saphenous vein can be exposed anterior to the a) Tibialis anterior
medialmalleolusat- (AMU92) b) Tibialis posterior
a) 1 em b) 1.25 em c) Posterior tibial artery
c) 2.5cm d)4cm d) Tendon of Extensor hallucis longus
462)c 463) a,c,d 464) b 465) b 466) d 467) a 468) b 469) b 470)d 471)d 472)c 473)c 474)c 475)b
476)b 477)a 478)b 479)c 480)d 48l)d 482)a,b 483)d 484)b 485)b 486)a 487)b,c
ANATOMY [ 1.24]
488. IV infusion is avoided in- (CUPGE 97) 500. Trendelenburg's sign is positive with weakness/
a) long saphenous vein b) Cephalic vein paralysis- (TM 2001)
c) Ext. Jugularvein d) Int.Jugularvein a) Gluteus maximus
489. Weight of the body is supported in sitting posture b) Gluteus medius & minimus
by- (CUPGE 97) c) Adductor longus
a) Ischial tuberosity b) Ramus oflschium d) Hamstrings
c) Body oflschium d) Pubis 501. Largest branch of Lumbar plexus- (TN 2001)
490. False about venous drainage at the lower limb- a) Sciatic Nerve b) Femoral nerve
a) Blood flows from superficial to deep system c) Obturator nerve d) Pudendal nerve
b) Blood flows from deep to superficial (Kerala 97)
502. Following ligament forms the medial boundary
offemoralcanal- (HPU 2001)
c) Veins are provided with valves
a) Pectineal b) Lacunar
d) Valvular incompetence will lead to varicose veins
c) Pubic d) Inguinal
491. Adductor hallucis nerve supply is- (Jipmer 98)
503. Which muscle extends the knee with the hip flexion-
a) Medial plantar nerve
a) Biceps femoris b) Vastus medialis
b) Deep branch of medial plantar nerve c) Rectus femoris d) Vastus lateralis
c) Deep branch oflateral plantar nerve 504. A 10 year old boy taken for venesection of Great
d) Lateral plantar nerve saphenous vein developed sudden pain & parasthesia
492. Anterior crnciate ligament is attached to-(JIMPER 98) on the medial aspect of great toe after givin incision
a) Medial part of anterior Intercondylar area oftibia over the vein & ligating it. Which of the following
b) Lateral part of medial condyle of femur nerve is most likely involved in this- (AI 02)
c) Lateral part oflateral condyle of femur a) Sural nerve b) Deep peroneal nerve
d) Medial part oflateral condyle of femur c) Medial planter nerve d) Saphenous nerve
493. Lateral Circumflex femoral is a branch of- 505. The Lymphatic drainage from heel and lateral
a) External iliac b) Internal iliac (AI 98) lateral part offootis to- (JIPMER 2002)
c) Femoral artery d) Profunda femoris artery a) Superficial inguinal LN b) Deep inguinal LN
494. In children, the head of femur is supplied by all c) External iliac LN d) Popliteal LN
ofthe following arteries except- (ICS 98) 506. The following is an expansion of semimembranous
a) Nutrient artery tendon- (JIPMER 2002)
b) Medial circumflex artery a) Oblique popliteal ligament
c) Artery of the ligamentum teres b) Tibial collateral ligament
d) Obturator artery c) Fibular collateral ligament
495. The anterior cruciate ligament of knee d) Arcuate popliteal ligament
joint- (Orissa 98) 507. Biceps femoris, true is- (TN 2002)
a) Prevents backward displacement of tibial condyles a) Muscle of adductor compartment of thigh
b) Prevents forward displacement of tibial condyles b) Attached to head of fibula
c) Is attchedt above to the medial femoral condyle c) Supplied by femoral nerve
d) Prevents side to side displacement of the tibial d) Related to medial ligament of knee
condyles 508. Inversion and eversion occurs atwhichjoint-(PGI97)
496. Abnormal obturator artery is a branch of- a) Subtalar and midtarsal b) Calcaneo navicular
a) Internal iliac artery (Orissa 99) c) Midtarsal d) Calcaneocuboid only
b) External iliac artery 509. Pain felt between great toe and II toe is due to
c) Obturator artery iuvolvment of which nerve root- (PGI 98)
d) Inferior epigastric artery a) L 5 b)S 2
497. Muscles originating from ischial tuberosity are
c) sl d) s3
all except- (MP 2K)
510. Planterflaxion is brought about by which ofthese
a) Short head of triceps b) Adductor magnus
muscles - (PGI 02)
c) Semimembranosus d) Semitendinosus
a) Plantaris b)FHL
498. True about lateral meniscus - (MP 2K)
c) Tibilis anterior d) Peronius brevis
a) It is nearly semicircular
e) Soleus
b) It is more liable to injury
511. Lymphatic drainage of clitoris is to- (PGI 02)
c) It's postrior surfuce is indented by popliteus muscle
a) GlandofCloquet
d) Fibular collateral ligament is attached to it
b) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
499. Major function of gluteus medius & minimus at
c) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
hip jointis- (AMC 2K)
d) Obuturator nodes
a) Flexion b) Extension
e) Para-aortic nodes
c) Abduction d) Adduction
488)a 489)a 490)b 491)c 492) a,d 493) d 494)a 495)b 496)d 497)a 498)c 499)c 500)b 501)b
502)b 503)c 504)d 505)d 506)a 507)b 508)a 509)a 510)a,b,e 51l)a,c
ANATOMY [ 1.25]
512. At the time of birth which of the following 522. Which of the following invertors is inserted on
ossification centres are seen - (PGI 02) almost all the tarsal bones except talus -(Kerala 04)
a) Lower end of femur b) Upper end of humerus a) Tabialis anterior
c) Calcaneum d) Upper end of tibia b) Tibialis posterior
e) Head of humerus c) Flexor hallucis longus
513. Blood supply of greattoe are- (PGI 02) d) Flexor digitorun longus
a) Dorsalis pedis artery b) Lateral plantar artery 523. Deltoid ligament is composed of all of following parts
c) Matacarpal artery d) posterior tibial artery except- (SGPGI 04)
e) Medial plantar artery a) Tibiocalcacaneal b) Tibiotalar
514. Which one of the following structure passes out of c) Tibiofibular d) Tibionavicular
the pelvis through the greater sciatic notch and 524. By pinching sartorius muscle which reflex is
re-enters through the lesser sciatic notch - elicited- (Jipmer 03)
a) Ureter (UPSC 02) a) Tendon reflex b) Cremastric reflex
b) Obturator nerve c) Bulbocavemousreflex d)Analreflex
c) Internal pudenal artery 525. When foot is off the ground the action of gluteus
d) Middle rectal artery medius to is- (SGPGI 04)
515. Popliteal muscle is supplied by which nerve- a) Flexion b) Abduction
a) Femoral b) Sciatic (St. Johns 02) c) Extension d) Make the opposite hip horizontal
c) Tibial d) Peronaeal 526. Lateral popliteal nerve injury can cause-(SGPGI 05)
516. A commonest cause for neuralgic pain in foot is- a) Loss of sensation in sole
a) Compression of communication between medial b) Paralysis of sole muscle
and lateral plantar nerves (AI 03) c) Telepus equinovarus
b) Exaggression oflongitudinal arches d) Telipus calcanco valgus
c) Injury to deltoid ligament 527. Which ofthefollowing about medial meniscus is true-
d) Shortening of planter aponeurosis a) More liable to injury than lateral meniscus
517. All of the following ligament contribute to be b) Attached to fibular collateral ligament (AMU 05)
stability of ankle (talocrural) joint except-(AllMS 03) c) It is circular in shape
a) Calcaneonavicular (spring) d) Wider in front
b) Deltoid 528. The forward displacement of the tibia and the femur
c) Lateral is prevented by- (COMEDK 05)
d) Posterior tibiofibular a) Anterior cruciate ligament
518. Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve fiber which b) Posterior cruciate ligament
supply pelvic viscera is/are- (PGI 03) c) Medialcollateralligament
a) Ventral rami ofS 234 d) Lateral collateral ligament
b) Hypogastric plexus 529. Spring ligament is also called- (Jipmer 05)
c) Pudendal nerve a) Calcaneonavicular ligament
d) Splanchnic nerve b) Calcaneocubiod ligament
e) Inferior mesenteric plexus c) Transverse tibiofibular ligament
519. Arterial branches which supply the head and neck d) Talocaleanealligament
ofthe femur is/are- (PGI 03) 530. Major arterial supply to anterior cruciate ligament
a) Medial circumflex artery is from- (Jipmer 05)
b) Lateral circumflex artery a) Medial genicular artery
c) Profunda femoris artery b) Lateral genicular artery
d) Obturator artery c) Middle genicular artery
e) Ext. femoral artery d) None of the above
520. True about gluteus maximus except- (Manipal 04) 531. Lateral meniscus is less prone to injury than medial
a) Supplied by superior gluteal nerve meniscus because of the following except-
b) Arises from coccyx, ischium a) Lateral meniscus is less mobile than (Jipmer 05)
c) Insertion into iliotibial tract medial meniscus
d) Strong extensor b) Lateral meniscus is opened outwards by the
521. Upper part of the deltoid ligament is attached to popliteus
the medial malleolus and lower part is attached. c) Lateral meniscus is more adapted to sustain injury
a) Talus b) Cuboid (Kerala 04) d) Lateral meniscus undergoes less excursion during
c) Navicular d) Calcaneum rotatory movement
512)a,b 513)a,e 514)c 515)c 516)a 517)a 518)a,d 519)a,d 520)a 521)a,c,d 522)b 523)c 524)b 525)b
526) c 527) a 528) a 529)a 530)c 531)b
ANATOMY [ 1.26]
532. True aboutthe anatomy of great saphenous vein- 543. All the contents offemoral sheath except- (UP 07)
a) Starts as a continuation of (PGI June 05) a) Femoral artery b) Femoral nerve
medial marginal vein c) Femoral vein d) Genito femoral nerve
b) Ends of femoral vein 2.5 em below the inguinal 544. Adductor canal lies beneath the- (UP 07)
ligament. a) Adductor longus b) Adductor magnus
c) There are 2-5 valves below the knee c) Sartorius d) Vastus medialis
d) Ascends 2.5 3 em behind tibial malleolus 545. Femoral ring is bounded by all except- (UP 07,
e) In the thigh, it is in relation with medial cutaneous a) Inguinal ligament DNB 90)
nerve of thigh b) Superior ramus of pubis
533. Which one of the following arteries pierces the c) Femoral artery
oblique popliteal ligament ofthe knee joint- d) Femoral vein
a) Medial superior genicular artery (J & K 05) 546. Posterior dislocation of the femur on the tibia is
b) Lateral superior genicular artery prevented by- (UP 07)
c) Middle genicular artery a) Anterior cruciate ligament
d) Posterior tibial recurrent artery b) Posterior cruciate ligament
534. The cremaster muscle is innervated by which of the c) Medial collateral ligament
following nerves- (MAHA 05) d) Lateral collateral ligament
a) Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve 547. In forceful inversion of foot, fracture of the tuberosity
b) llioinguinal of 5th metatarsal is due to pull exerted by which
c) TI2 tendon- (AIIMS Nov 07)
d) Femoral a) Peroneus longus b) Peroneus brevius
535. All of the following statements concerning the c) Peroneus tertius d) Extensor digitorum
sartorius muscle are correct except- (MAHA 05) 548. A patient was on DVT prophylaxis. AD of the following
a) It is known as the "tailor's muscle" has perforators which connect superficial veins to
b) It is the longest muscle in the body the deep veins, except- (AIIMS Nov 07)
c) It acts across two joints a) Ankle b) Below the inguinal ligament
d) It extends the hip c) Mid calf d) Lower thigh
536. Which ofthe following nerve is NOT a branch of 549. Inversion I Eversion movements occurs at- (UP 08)
lumbar plexus- (APPGE 05) a) Ankle joints b) Subtalar joints
a) Obturator nerve c) Tibiotalar joints d) Transverse tarsal joints
b) Femoral nerve 550. Anterior cruciate ligaments prevents- (UP 08)
c) Sciatic nerve a) Anterior dislocation of femur
d) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh b) Posterior dislocation of femur
537. The femoral ring is bounded by the following c) Anterior dislocation of tibia
structures except- (AI 05) d) Posterior dislocation of tibia
a) Femoral vein b) Inguinalligament 551. A young patients presented with loss of sensation in
c) Femoral artery d) Lacunar ligament sloe of foot with paralysis of medial side of plantar
538. The direction of the flow of venous blood in muscles of the foot, Most likely nerve involvement
conditions of valve incompetence affecting is- (UP08)
perforating veins oflower limb is- (AIIMS May 05) a) Common peroneal nerve
a) Along gravity b) Superficial to deep b) Deep peroneal nerve
c) Along osmotic gradient d) Deep to superficial c) Superficial peroneal nerve
539. Eversionoffootisproducedby- (COMED-06) d) Tibial nerve
a) Tibialis anterior b) Tibialis posterior 552. All of the following muscles are composite muscle
c) Peroneus tertius d) Peroneus longus Except- (AI 08)
540. Invertor offootis- (PGMCET07) a) Pectineus b) Rectus femoris
a) Tibialis posterior b) Peroneus tertius c) Adductor magnus d) Biceps femoris
c) Peroneus brevis d) Gastrocnemius 553. The skin overlying the region where a venous "cut-
541. About Posterior cruciate ligament- true statement down 11 is made to access the Great saphenous vein
is- (AI07) in supplied by- (AI 08)
a) Attached to the lateral femoral condyle a) Femoral nerve b) Sural nerve
b) Intrasynovial c) Tibial nerve d) Superficial peroneal nerve
c) Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia 554. Blood supply offemoral head is- (PGI June 08)
d) Relaxed in full flexion a) Femoralartery
542. All the structures are inside femoral sheath except- b) Obturator artery
a) Femoral nerve b) Femoral artery (MAHE 07) c) Internal pudendal artery
c) Femoral vein d) Lymphatics d) Medial & Lateral circumflex artery
532)a 533)c 534)a 535)d 536)c 537)c 538)d 539)c,d 540)a 54l)c 542)a 543)b 544)c 545)c
546)a 547)b 548)b 549)b 550)c 55l)d 552)b 553) a 554) b,d
ANATOMY [ 1.27]
555. All the structures are inside femoral sheath 566. A Man is stocked with lathi on lateral aspect of head
except- (Manipal 08) offibula. Which of the following feature(s) can occur
a) Femoral nerve b) Femoral artery as a result of nerve injury- (PGI June 09)
c) Femoral vein d) Lymphatics a) Loss of sensation along lateral border of foot.
556. The following tendons pass under extensor b) Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd
retinaculum except- (Manipal 08) toe.
a) EXTENSOR digitorum brevis c) Inversion inability.
b) Extensor halluc is d) Dorsiflexion not possible.
c) Tibialis anterior e) Plantur flexion not possible.
d) Superficial peroneal nerve 567. Anterior wall of inguinal canal is formed by
muscles - (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
557. Which of the following structure is attached to the
a) External and internal oblique
headofthefibula- (DPGEE 08)
b) External, internal and transverse abdorninis
a) Lateral mensiscus
c) External oblique and rectus abdominis
b) Popliteus tendon d) Internal oblique and transverse abdominins
c) Lateral collateral ligament 568. All statements concerning the conjoint tendon are
d) Posterior cruciate ligament true, except: (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
558. Which of the following is not supplied by posterior a) It forms part of posterior wall of inguinal canal
division of obturator nerve? (APPG 08) b) It is the fused part of aponeurosis of transverses
a) Obturator externus b) Obturator internus abdomens and internal oblique muscle
c) Adductor magnus d) Both a and c c) It is continuous with inguinal ligament
559. Trendelenburg test is positive due to injury to which d) It may be pushed forward by direct inguinal hernia
ofthefollowingnerve- (AIIMS Nov 08) 569. In injury to head of fibula, all are involved except-
a) Obturator b) Sciatic a) CommonperonealN. (AIIMS Nov 09)
c) Superior Gluteal d) Inferior Gluteal b) Superficial peroneal N.
560. Which passive movement causes pain in deep c) AnteriorTibialN.
posterior compartment syndrome? (AJIMS Nov 08) d) TibialN.
a) Foot abduction b) Dorsiflexion offoot 570. Deep peroneal nerve supplies- (AIIMS Nov 09)
c) Plantar flexion offoot d) Foot adduction a) 1st web space of foot
561. Iliofemoral ligament arise from- (PGI Dec 08) b) 5th web space offoot
a) Ischial tuberosity b) Anterior superior iliac spine c) Antero lateral dorsum of foot
c) Iliopubic rami d) Anterior inferior iliac spine d) Lateral part ofleg
e) Iliac crest 571. All of the following maintain the stability of ankle
562. A man is stocked with latbi on lateral aspect ofhead joint except- (AIIMS Nov 09)
of fibula. Which of the following can occur as a result a) Cruciate ligament
· of nerve injury- (PGI Dec 08) b) Shape of the bones
a) Loss of sensation of lateral foot c) Tendons of muscle which cross the joint
b) Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd toe d) Collateral ligament
c) Inversion inability 572. What is medial most in femoral triangle-
d) Dorsiflexion not possible a) Vein b)Artery {AIIMSNov09)
e) Plantar flexion not possible c) Nerve d) Lymphatics
563. Superior Gluteal Nerve supplies all ofthe following 573. A healthy young athlete is sitting at the edge of the
muscles, Except- (AI 09) table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends
a) Gluteus Minimus b) Gluteus Maximus it. What will happen- (AIIMS May 10)
c) Tensor fascia lata d) Gluteus Medius a) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of
564. All of the following are composite muscles, except- the patella
a) Flexor carpi Ulnaris (AI 09) b) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral
b) Flexor digitorum profundus border of patella
c) Pectineus c) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medial
d) Biceps Femoris border of patella
565. Muscles(s) causing dorsiflexion offoot is/are- d) No change in position
a) Extensor digitorum longus (PGI June 09) 574. Gluteus medius is supplied by- (AI 10)
b) Extensor hallucis longus a) Superior gluteal nerve
c) Flexor digitorum longus b) Inferior gluteal nerve
d) flexor hallucis longus c) Nerve to obturator internus
e) Tibialis anterior d) Nerve to quadratus femoris
555)a 556)d 557)c 558)b 559)c 560)b 56l)d 562) a,b,d 563) b 564) c 565) a,b,e 566) a,b,d 567) a
568)c 569)d 570)a 57l)a 572)d 573)b 574)a
ANATOMY [ 1.28]
575. Which of the following tendons passes below the 586. Contents of adductor canal includes all except-
sustenticulum tali- (AI IO) a) Femoral vein (Jipmer I 0)
a) Tibialis anterior b) Femoral artery
b) Tibialis posterior c) Saphenous nerve
c) Flexor digtorum longus d) Nerve to vastus lateralis
d) Flexor hallucis longus 587. Afferent component of cremasteric reflex
576. Which ofthe following tendons has attachments on includes- (Jipmer I 0)
sustenticulum Tali- (AI I 0) a) Ilioinguinal nerve b) Genito femoral nerve
a) Tibialis anterior b) Tibialis posterior c) Pudendal nerve d) Iliohypogastric
c) Flexor digitorum longus d) Flexer hallucis longus 588. Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in -
577. Foot drop results as a result ofinjury to -(DPG I 0) a) External oblique abdominis (Jipmer I 0)
a) Deep peroneal nerve b) Internal oblique abdominis
b) Superficial peroneal nerve c) Internal oblique aponeurosis
c) Tibial nerve d) External oblique aponeurosis
d) Deltoid ligament 589. Nerve supply to tensor fascia lata- (Jipmer I 0)
578. Which one of the following arteries pierces the a) Femoral nerve b) Inferior gluteal nerve
oblique popliteal ligament of the knee joint? c) Sciatic nerve d) Superior gluteal nerve
a) Medial superior genicular artery (DPG I 0) 590. What is the root value of the posterior cutaneous
b) Lateral superior genicular artery nerve of the thigh ? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Middle genicular artery a) Sl, S2 b) Sl, S2, S3
d) Posterior tibial recurrent artery c) S2, S3 d) S2, S3, S4
579. Which of the following forms the tendinous sling in 591. During heel touch phase of walking pressure in
the superficial arch offoot? (Maharashtra I 0) calf compartment is - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Peroneus longus and perneus brevis a) More than resting pressure
b) Peroneus brevis b) Less than resting pressure
c) Peroneus longus and tibialis posterior c) No change in pressure
d) Peronuis brevis and tibialis posterior d) First rises and then falls
580. Urogenital diaphragm is made of the following except- 592. Gluteus maximus is supplied by -
a) Deep transverse perinei (Maharashtra I 0) a) Superior gluteal nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Perineal membrane b) Inferior gluteal nerve
c) Calles' fasicia c) Nerve to quadratus femoris
d) Sphincter urerthrae d) Sciatic nerve
581. Feature seen in common peroneal nerve injury- 593. Extensor hallucis longus is supplied by -
a) Inversion inability (PGI May I 0) a) Superficial peroneal nerve
b) Loss of sensation of sole b) Deep peroneal nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Foot drop c) Tibial nerve
d) Loss of extension of great toe d) Sciatic nerve
e) Seen in Fibular neck# 594. Anterior compartment of leg contains all except-
582. All ofthe following are supplied by superior gluteal a) Peroneus brevis (NEETIDNB Pattern)
nerve except- (AIIMS Nov IO) b) Tibialis anterior
a) Gluteus maximus b) Gluteus minimus c) External hallucis longus
c) Gluteus medius d) Tensor fascia lata d) External digitalis longus
583. Arterial supply to the head and neck offemur is- 595. The nutrient artery to the femur is ?
a) Lateral circumflex femoral artery (Punjab I 0) a) Profunda femoris artery (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Medial circumflex femoral artery b) Femoral artery
c) Profunda femoris artery c) Popliteal artery
d) External femoral artery d) Middle circumflex femoral artery
584. Which of the following movements will not be affected 596. Nutrient artery arises to fibula from -
by involvement of the L5 Nerve root- (AI 11) a) Peroneal artery (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Thigh adduction b) Knee Flexion b) Anterior tibial artery
c) Knee Extension d) Toe Extension c) Posterior tibial artery
585. All of the following statements about injury to d) Poplitesl artery
common peroneal nerve are true, except- (AI 11) 597. Nutrient artery to femur arises from-
a) Commonly results from injury to the neck of fibula a) Femoral artery (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Loss of sensations over sole of foot b) Profunda femoris artery
c) Loss of toe dorsiflexion c) Popliteal artery
d) Foot drop d) None of the above
575)d 576)b 577)a 578)c 579)c 580)c 581)c,d,e 582)a583)b 584)a 585)b 586)d 587)b 588)d
589)d 590)b 591) a 592)b 593)b 594)a 595) a 596) a 597) b
ANATOMY [ 1.29]
598. 7yr old girl, injury to nerve which passes superior 610. Deltoid ligament is attached to all except-
to piriformis & winds around greater sciatic notch. a) Medial malleolus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
Most likely muscle affected- (NEET!DNB Pattern) b) Talus
a) Gluteus medius b) Gluteus maximus c) Calcaneum
c) Obturator internus d) Piriformis d) Lateral malleolus
599. Course of the great saphenous vein lies in what 611. First web space of toes is supplied by-
rekation to the malleoli? (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Femoral nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Anterior to the medial malleolus b) Deep peroneal nerve
b) Posterior to the medial malleolus c) Superficial paroneal nerve
c) Anterior to the lateral malleolus d) Sphenous nerve
d) Posterior to the lateral malleolus 612. Flexor of hip joints are all except- (NEETIDNB
600. Structures passing through the greater sciatic a) Psaoas major b) Sartorius Pattern)
foramen are all of the following except - c) Gluteus maximus d) Rectus femoris
a) Pyriformis (NEETIDNB Pattern) 613. Flexion of knee joint is caused by- (NEETIDNB
b) Superior gluteal nerve a) Rectus femoris b) Vastus medialis Pattern)
c) Inferior gluteal nerve c) Hamstrings d) Vastus lateralis
d) Obturator nerve 614. Adductor canal conteins all except- (NEETIDNB
601. All are contents of femoral sheath except- a) Femoral artery b) Femoral vein Pattern)
a) Femoral artery (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Femoral nerve d) Sphenous nerve
b) Femoral nerve 615. Tibial nerve supplies all except -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Femoral vein a) Gastrocnemius b) Plantaris
d) Genitofemoral nerve c) Peroneus longus d) Tibialis posterior
602. Conjoint tendon is formed by- (NEETIDNB 616. What lies at midinguinal point-
a) External oblique, internal oblique Pattern) a) Deep inguinal ring (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) External oblique, transversus abdominis b) Superficial inguinal ring
c) Internal oblique, transversus abdominis c) Femoral artery
d) all three d) Sphenous vem
603. Nutrient artery arises to fibula from -
a) Peroneal artery (NEETIDNB Pattern) ABDOMEN
b) Anterior tibial artery
c) Posterior tibial artery 617. Which of the following stimulus does not induce
d) Poplitesl artery visceral pain- (All India 93)
a) Distension b) Pressure
604. Root value of sciatic nerve- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Cauterisation d) Cutting
a) S1S2 S3 b)L4L5S1S2 S3
618. Lengthofspermatozoa- (CUPGEE02)
c) L1L2L3 d)L2L3L4
a) 50m b) lOOm
605. Site of injection in gluteus - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 120m d)500m
a) Infe:romedial b) Superomedial 619. The first event to occur in the MICTURITION
c) Superolateral d) Superomedial REFLEXIS- (AIIMS 98)
606. Major flexor of hip joint - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Relaxation of sphincter
a) Psoas major b) Gluteus maximus b) Detrusor contraction
c) TFL d) Hamstring c) Relaxation of perineal muscles
607. Trendelenburg sign is due to paralysis of - d) Activity ofEMG stops at external sphincter
a) Gluteus maximus (NEETIDNB Pattern) 620. Hydatides ofMorgagni are- (Jipmer 79, Bihar 89)
b) Gluteus medius a) Hydatid cysts in the brain
c) Pyriformis b) Hydatid cyst in the thorax
d) Obturatior ext. c) Subcutaneous hydatid cysts
608. Inguinal ligament forms the boundries of- d) None of the above
a) Femoral triangle (NEETIDNB Pattern) 621. Capacity of stomach of newborn- (Calcutta 2K)
b) Hesselbach's triangle a) 20ml b)30ml
c) Both c) 50ml d) lOOml
d) None 622. Corresponding to the Vas in males, which structure
609. Length of inguinal canal - (NEETIDNB Pattern) penetrates the inguinal ring in females - (PGI 88)
a) 2.5 em b) 4 em a) Round ligament b) Inguinal ligament
c) 10 em d) 15 em c) Broad ligament d) Cardinal ligament
598)a 599)a 600)d 601)b 602)c 603)a 604)b 605)c 606)a 607)b 608)c 609)b 610)d 611)b
612)c 613)c 614)c 615)c 616)c 617) c,d 618) a 619)c 620)d 621)b 622)a
ANATOMY [ 1.30]
623. Allaresupportsofuterusexcept- (AIIMS92) 636. Fascia ofDenonvilliers - (Karn 94)

a) Uterosacral ligament a) Membranous layer of fascia of the thigh
b) Round ligament of Uterus b) Perirenal fascia
c) Mackenrodts ligament c) Fascia between the rectal ampulla and the prostate
d) Transverse cervical ligament and the seminal vesicles
624. The sensory nerves from the cervix pass through d) Posterior layer of perirenal fascia
the- (DNB 89) 637. Irritation of the diaphragam radiates to which
a) Lumbar4,5 b) Sacral2,3,4 of the following segments- (AP 97)
c) Pudendal nerve d) Ilioinguinal nerve a) C34 b)Cl-2
625. The branches of internal iliac artery include all c) C6-7 d)C8-9
ofthefollowingexcept- (KARN94) 638. Nerve oflaterjet of vagus is seen in- (PG197)
a) Uterine artery b) Middle rectal artery a) Thorax b) Neck
c) Obturator artery d) Inferior epigastric artery c) Stomach d) Heart
626. All of the following are branches of internal iliac 639. Pancreatico splenic lymph nodes receive lymphatics
except- (AP 97) from the part of the stomach which is supplied by-
a) Ovarian artery b) Superior vesical artery a) Left gastric artery (ICS 2K)
c) Uterine artery d) Internal pudendal artery b) Short gastric arteries and left gastroepiploic artery
627. The principal factor causing the rupture of the c) Right gastroepiploic artery
graafian follicle is- (Kerala 2K) d) Right gastric artery
a) Increase in intrafollicular pressure 640. Most common type of diaphragmatic hernia-
b) Necrobiosis of the overlying tissues a) Bochdalek's hernia (JIPMER 85)
c) All of the above b) Morgagnl's hernia
d) None of the above c) Hernia throught the dome
628. The superior rectal artery arises from the- d) Hiatus hernia
a) Superiormesentricartery (AIIMS 85) 641. In portal hypertension the sites ofportosystemic
b) Inferior mesentric artery anastomosis includes- (AIIMS 87)
c) Internal illiac artery a) Lower end of esophagus
d)Internalpudendalartery b) Around umbilicus
629. Middle rectal artery is branch of ... artery-(PG188) c) Lower third of rectum and anal canal
a) Internal iliac b) Internal pudendal d) Extraperitoneal surface of abdomina organs
c) Extemaliliac d)Femoral e) All ofthe above
642. Normal portal venour pressure is- (JIPMER 87)
630. The blood supply ofthe jejunum is through the-
a) 5-8mmHg b)6-12mmHg
a) Inferior mesenteric artery (PGI88)
c) 12-15mmHg d)45mmHg
b) Superior mesenteric artery
643. One of the following does not normally shrink
c) Pancreatico duodenol artery in the umbilical cord- (PG179, 80, UPSC 87)
d) Lleocolic artery a) Allantois b) Vitello intestinal duct
631. Appendicular artery is a branch of- (PGI85) c) Umbilical vein d) Umbilical artery
a) Ileo colic artery b) Right colic artery 644. Over 75% of the strength of the intact abdominal
c) Middle colic artery d) Posterior cecal artery wall is in the- (UPSC 95)
632. Recurrent appendicular artery is a branch a) Skin b) Subcutaneous tissue
of- (PGI85) c) Aponeurosis d) Pentonium
a) Ileocolic artery b) Right colic artery 645. Bowel does not get strangulated in which of the
c) Middle colic artery d) Posterior cecal artery following- (AIIMS 2K)
633. The length ofthe CBD is- (PGI85) a) Recto uterine pouch
a) 5cm b)7.5cm b) Omental bursa
c) 8.0cm d)9cm c) ileo-colic recess
634. Caudate lobe ofliver is situated- (PGI 90) d) Para duodenal and peritoneal recess
a) Gall bladder and groove for ligamentum teres 646. Renal collar is foremd by splitting into two limbs
b) IVC and ligamentum Venosum and encircling the aorta by- (A/99)
c) Posterior part ofleft lobe a) Horse shoe Kidney b) Renal artery
d) Anterior superior surface ofliver c) Left renal vein d) None of the above
635. Transpyloric plane passes through- (Kerala 91) 647. The least dilatable partofthe Urethra-
a) T 12-L 1 b)L5-S 1 a) Prostatic b) Membranous (CUPGEE 95)
c) T 10 d)L1-L2 c) Spongy d) All are equally dilatable
623) None 624) b 625) d 626) a 627) b 628) b 629)a 630)b 631)a 632) None 633) c 634) b 635) d 636) c
637) a 638) c 639) b 640) d 641) e 642) b 643)a 644)c 645)a 646)c 647)b
ANATOMY[1.31]
648. In hydrocele aspiration, the needle passes through d) The parasympathetic preganglionic fibres arise
all of following layers except- (DELHI PG 96) fromS2-S4
a) Dartos e) All of the above
b) Tunica albuginea 658. Thecommonbileduct- (PGI 80)
c) Tunica vaginalis a) Passes anterior to the first part of the duodenum
d) External spermatic fascia b) Is situated anterior to the portal vein
649. During abdominal surgery under local anaesthesia, c) Opens into the third part of the duodenum
patient suddenly felt sharp pain. Injury to structure d) Is separated from the inferior vena cava by
likely involved- (AIIMS 2k) the epiploic foramen
a) Liver parenchyma b) Large gut 659. The right suprarenal gland is related to the-
c) Small gut d) Parietal peritonium a) Third part of the duodenum (JIPMER 80
650. The lesser peritoneal sac (omental bursa) is b) Inferior vena cava PGI 81)
bounded- (PGI 78, AIIMS 75) c) Transverse colon
a) Anteriorly by the stomach d) Right lobe ofthe liver
b) Posteriorly by the ileum 660. Which of the following statements concerning
c) Posteriorly by the pancreas the anterior abdominal wall is/are correct? (PGI 80)
d) Posteriorly by the lesser omentum a) The fibers of external and internal abdominal
651. As a rule, all prostatic arteries are branches of the- oblique muscles are oriented perpendicular to one
a) Inferior vesical b) Deferntial (PGI78,Alli\fS91) another
c) Superior vesical d) Internal pudendal b) A function of the rectus abdominis muscle is
652. The lumbosacral Oumbar and sacral) plexus- extension of the vertebral column
a) Is formed within both the (PGI 78, 81) c) The Muscles are innervated partially by lower
abdomen and the pelvis intercostal nerves
b) Is formed partially within the substance of the d) Contraction of its muscles reduces intrabdominal
major muscle pressure
c) Is found partially on the deep aspect of the 661. The celiac nodes receive lymphatic drainage from
piriformis muscle the- (JIPMER 80, AMC 84)
d) Has branches that innervate the muscles of the a) Liver b) Pancreas
lower abdominal wall c) Spleen d) Duodenum
e) None e) All of the above
653. The posteroinferior (visceral) surface of the liver 662. Which of the following statements relative to
is related to the- (JIPMER 78, PGI 80) the gallbladder is/are true- (PGI 80)
a) Right kidney b) Hepatic flexure of the colon a) Its fundus is normally situated on the transpyloric
c) Duodenum d) Esophagus line at the tip of the ninth costal cartilage
654. Buck's fascia is related to- (JIPMER 78, AMU 86) b) It occupies a groove that separates the right and
a) Ischiorectal fascia b) Thigh quadrate lobes of the liver
c) Neck d) Penis c) It is related posteriorly to the first part of the
655. Structure found in the superficial perineal space duodenum
(pouch) of the male include the- (PGI 78, 82) d) Its arterial supply is typically derived from
a) Bulb of the penis the left hepatic artery
b) Bulbospongiosus muscle 663. Parasympathetic outflow from sacral plexus
c) Ischiocavernosus muscles is- (JIPMER 81, AP 91)
d) Superficial transverse perineus muscle a) Nerve Erigentes b) Nerve of Kuntz
e) None c) Arnold's nerve d) Jacobson's nerve
656. The post. wall ofinguinal canal are formed by many 664. The urinary bladder in the male is- (PGI 81, 82)
structures that include- (JIPMER 79, PGI 87) a) Posterior to the pubic symphysis
a) Conjoint tendon b) Transversus abdominis b) Anterior to the ampulla of the vas deferens
c) Fascia transversalis d) Lacunar ligament c) Superior to the prostate gland
657. Which of the following statements concerning the d) Superior to the seminal vesicles
nerve supply to the urinary bladder is/are correct- 665. Which of the following statements is (are) correct
a) The sympathetic postganglionic fibre orginate a) The lesser omentum forms the anterior boundary
in the first and second lumber ganglia into the lesser sac (PGI 82)
b) The parasympathetic preganglionic fibres b) The thorcic duct leaves the abdomial cavity by
synaple with postaganglionic neurons in the passing through the aortic opening
inferior hypogastric, plexuses (PGI 80, AIIMS 83) c) The bile duct (Common bile duct) descends
c) The afferent sensory fibres arising in the bladder behind the first part of the duodenum
reach the spinal. Cord via the pelvic splanchnic d) The quadrate lobe of the liver drains into the left
nerves and also travel with the sympathetic nerves hepatic duct
648)b 649) d 650) a,c 651) a,d 652) a,d 653)All 654) d 655) a,b,c,d 656) a,c 657) e 658) b,d 659) b,d 660)a,c
66l)e 662)a,b,c 663)a 664)a,b,c 665)a,b,c
ANATOMY [ 1.32]
666. Superficial fatty fascia between umbilicus & pubis d) Has a posterior lobe which is prone to carcinomatous
is fascia w (PGI 82) change .
a) Camper b) Scarpa 67 4. It is true that the gall bladder- (AIIMS 84)
c) Colles d) Clli a) is supplied by cystic artery which has an
667. In the female pelvis- (PGI 82) accompanying vein on its left side
a) The ovary is related to the anterior leaflet (layer) b) is drained by veins into the liver
of the broad ligament c) has a fundus which project beyond the liver
b) The suspensory ligament of the ovary transmits d) has an infundibulum which projects downwards
the ovarian vessels joining a pouch
c) The ureter passes superior to the uterine artery at 675. The superior mesentric artery arises opposite
the level of the uterine cervix the ••.• Vertebra w (AIIMS 85)
d) The Posterior fornix of the vagina is related to a) T 12 b)L 1
the recto uterine pouch (of Douglas) c) I;. d) L 3
668. The rectus sheath contains al of the following except- 676. The Coeliac axis arises from the aorta opposite
a) Pyramidalis muscle (AIIMS 82, AI 88) the ••• Vertebra- (AIIMS 85)
b) Genitofemoral nerve a)T 12 &L 1 b)L 1
c) Inferior epigastric c) L 2 d)L 3
d) Superior epigastric vessels
677. Deep inguinal ring is a defect in the- (UPSC 85,
669. Which of the following statement about the
a) Ext oblique PGI 87, Jipmer 87, AI 88, Kerala 90
formation ofthe inguinal canal is/are true-
b) Int. oblique AIIMS May 05
a) The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the
c) Transversus abdominis
aponeurosis of the external adbominal oblique
muscle (PGI 82, 83)
d) Transversus fascia
b) The anterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed e) Peritoneum
by the aponeurosis of the external oblique and 678. Commonest type ofinversion oftestes is-
reinforced laterally by fibers of the internal oblique a) Superior b)Anterior (AIJMS 85)
muscle c) Lateral d) Loop
c) The posterior wall is formed partially by the 679. The following statement is (are) correct
trasnversalis fascia concerning the vagina except- (AIIMS 85)
d) The deep inguinal ring is an outpouching of a) The area of the vaginal lumen around the cervix is
the transversalis fascia and is situated lateral divided into four fornices
to the inferior epigastric vessels b) The upper part of the vagina is supported by the
670. The normal constrictions of the ureter are levator ani muscles and the transverse cervical
found- (AIIMS 83, PGI 87, 79) ligaments
a) Where the ureter begins at the junction of the c) The perineal body lies posterior to and supports
renal pelvis and the ureter the lower part of the vagina
b) Where the ureter passes through the bladder wall d) The upper part of the vagina is not covered
c) Where the ureter crosses the common iliac artery with peritoneum
or the pelvic brim 680. Carcinoma prostate commonly occurs in the ....•
d) Where the ureter passes through the cardinal lobe.- (PGI 85)
ligament a) Anterior b) Posterior
671. The chief blood supply of the greater omentum c) Lateral d) Middle
is •••••artery- (PGI 83) 681. The right adrenal vein drains into the- (AIIMS 85)
a) Gastroduodenal a) right renal vein b)IVC
b) Right gastroepiploic c) Lumbar veins d) Left renal vein
c) Left gastroepiploic 682. The broad ligament of uterus has running in it-
d) Superior pancreatice duodenal a) Uterine vessels b) Uterine tube (AMC 85)
672. The boundries ofthe morrisons pouch are- c) Ovarian ligament d) All of the above
a) Inferior surface ofliver (PGI 84) 683. Which of the following statements concerning
b) Anterior abdominal wall the ovary is (are) correct- (AIIMS 86)
c) Falciformligament a) The lymph drainage is into the para-aortic (lumbar)
d) Peritoneum over Rt. Kidney lumph nodes at the level of the first lumbar vertebra
e) Coronary ligament b) The ligament ofthe ovary extends from the ovary
673. The following about prostate is true except-
to the upper end of the lateral wall of the uterus
a) Surrounds the neck of bladder (AIIMS 84)
c) The ovarian fossa is bounded above by the
b) Has an anterior lobe which hypertrophies in old age
external iliac vessels
c) Has median lobe between urethra and ejaculatory
d) The obturator nerve usually lies lateral to the ovary
ducts
666)a 667) b,d 668) b 669) a,b,c,d 670) a,b,c 671) b,c 672) a,d,e 673) b 674) b,c 675) b 676) a 677) d 678) b
679)d 680)b 68l)b 682) d 683) a,b,d
ANATOMY [ 1.33]
684. The shortest part ofthe colon is-(AP 86, Dehli 86) 695. The smallest branch ofthe celiac axis is- (PGI 87)
a) Ascending colon b) Transverse colon a) Splenic b) Common hepatic
c) Descending colon d) Sigmoid colon c) Left gastric d) Gastro-epiploic
685. Para sympathetic supply to rectum and anal 696. Hasselbachs triangle is- (PGI 87)
canal- (PGI 86, UPSC 86) a) inguinal triangle b) Sacral triangle
a) L4L5S1 b)L5S1S2 c) Anal triangle d) Carotid triangle
c) sls2s3 d) s2s3s4 697. The boundaries of the Hasselbachs triangle are
686. Lymphatic of the Anal canalis to- (AIIMS 86, all except- (PGI 87, NIMHANS 86, Kerala 90)
a) Inguinal UPSC 87, Kerala 87) a) Lateral border of Rectus abdominis
b) Lymph nodes
b) Inguinal ligament
c) Ext. iliac nodes
c) Inferior epigastric artery
d) Para aortic
d) Medial border of pyramidalis
e) None of the above
698. The neurovascular bundle in the anterior adbominal
687. Which of the following about meckels diverticulum
is false - (PGI 86, AI 88) wall is situated between - (PGI 8 7)
a) Present in 2 % of population a) The subcutaneous tissue and ext. oblique muscle
b) Occurs at 2 feet from the ileocaceal junction b) External oblique and internal oblique
c) Posesses all 3 coats of intesinal wall c) Internal oblique and transversus abdominis
d) Arises from the mesentric border of ileum d) Transversus abdominis and peritoneum
688. The structures in the free border of the lesser 699. The contents of the inguinal canal passing through
omentum anterior to posterior are- (PGI 86, the Int.ring are all except- (AI 88, PGI 87)
a) CBD, Hepatic artery, Portal vein UPSC 87 a) Ilioinguinal nerve
b) Portal vein, hepatic artery CBD AI 88) b) Vas deferens
c) Hepatic artery portal vein CBD c) Pampinifrom plexus of veins
d) Portal vein CBD hepatic artery d) Inferior epigastric artery
689. Lymphatic drainage of the umbilicus is to- 700. Fascia extension of lacunar ligament along
a) Axillary nodes (PGI 87, UPSC 87, iliopectineal line is- (PGI 88)
b) Inguinal nodes NIMHANS 86, Kerala 90) a) Poupart ligament b) Thompson's ligament
c) Aandb c) Cooper's ligament d) Lacunar ligament
d) Porta hepatis 701. Pouch of douglas is situated between- (AI 88)
e) Celiac axis nodes a) Bladder and the uterus
690. Uterine artery is a branch of- (PGI 87, UPSC 86 b) Bladder and pubic symphysis
a) Directly arises from the aorta JIPMER 86, c) Bladder and rectum
b) Int. iliac artery Kerala 88)
d) Uterus and rectum
c) Ext.iliac artery
702. All of the following muscles are posterior to right
d) Femoral artery
and left kidneys except- (AIIMS 88)
691. The lefttesticular veins drains into the -(AIIMS 87,
a) Psoas major b) Latissimus dorsi
a) Left renal vein b)NC Delhi 87, A 88)
c) Rt. Renal vein d) Int. iliac vein c) Quadratus Lumborum d) Transverse abdominis
e) Ext. iliac vein 703. The pancreatic bed does not include- (AMU 88)
692. Which ofthe following statement concerning the a) left kidney b) Splenic artery
function of the muscle of the anterior abdomina c) Left renal vein d) Left crus of diaphragm
wall are true- (PGI 87) 704. Splenic artery usually arises from ... - (PGI 88)
a) They laterally flex and rotate the vertebral column a) Aorta b) Superior mesentric artery
b) They assist the diaphragm during inspiration by c) Celiac artery d) Hepatic artery
relaxing 705. Structures realted to the lesser omentum are-
c) They support and protect the abdominal viscera a) vagus b) hepatic artery (PGI 88)
d) They assist in increasing the intraabdominal c) hepatic vein d) portal vein
pressure during micturition and defecation 706. Posterior relationships of both kidneys include the-
693. Length of the inguinal canal is - (PGI 87) a) Diaphragm (TN 89)
a) 2cm b) 3.75 em b) Psoas major muscle
c) 4.5cm d) Scm c) Quadratus lumborum muscle
e) 6cm d) Ninth rib
694. The kidney has •••••. segment- (PGI 87) 707. FasciaofGerotais- (TN 89)
a) 11 b)9 a) True capsule b) Renal fascia
c) 7 d) 5 c) Fatty capsule d) Thoracolumbar fascia
684)a 685)d 686)a 687)d 688)a 689)c 690)b 69l)a 692)a,c,d 693)b 694)d 695)c 696)a 697)d
698)c 699) a,d 700) c 701)d 702)b 703)b 704)c 705) b,d 706) a,b,c 707) b
ANATOMY [ 1.34]
708. The rectus sheath contain the following important 718. Urethraoffemale- (DNB 9j)
structures except- (DNB 89) a) has only connective tissue in its upper third
a) Terminal branches oflower intercostal nerves b) has only smooth muscle in its wall
b) Inferior epigastric artery c) Is shorter than in the male
c) Lymph vessels d) Is longer than in the male
d) Ilio Inguinal nerve 719. Perineal body is formed by all except- (AI 91)
709. The superior mesenteric artery- (AP 89) a) Levator ani muscle
a) Typically arises form the aorta just inferior to the
b) External anal sphincter muscle
origin of the gonadal (testicular or ovarian) arteries
c) Bulbocavernous muscle
b) Supplies the entire duodenum
c) Passes between the pancreas and the second d) Obturator internus muscle
part of the duodenum 720. Which is true about superficial inguinal ring-
d) Supplies the jejunum, appendix and ascending a) It is a defect in transversalis fascia (AI 91)
and transverse portions of the colon b) It is round in shape
710. Left gastroepiploic artery is a branch of- (AI 89) c) It transmit llio Inguinal nerve.
a) Celiac axis b) Hepatic artery d) Situated one inch above the mid-inguinal point
c) Splenic artery d) Left gastric artery 721. Duodenum is developed from- (TN 91)
711. Regarding trigone of the bladder, which is incorrect- a) Foregut b) Midgut
a) Bordered by interureric crest (AI 89) c) Forgeut and midgut d) Hindgut
b) Mesoderm in origin 722. Which is true regarding urethra- (JIPMER 91)
c) Mucus membrane has folds a) Originates from Urogentital sinus
d) Overlies the median lobe of prostate b) Lined by transitional epithelium
712. Which is a flexor of the lumbar vertebral c) Membranous part is narrowest
cmumn- 0I8~
d) Ejaculatary ducts joins urethra near the origin
a) Psoas b) Rectus abdorninis
723. Which is true regarding ureter- (JIPMER 91)
c) Internal oblique d) External oblique
a) Anterior to genitofemoral nerve
713. The policeman ofthe abdomen is- (UPSC 89)
a) Peritoneum b) Greater omentum b) Anterior to gonadal vessels
c) Appendice epiloicae d) Teania coli c) Anterior to Internal iliac artery
714. Xiphisternal junction is usually at the level of disc d) Anterior to attachment of mesentry
between the following thoracic vertebrae- 724. The following is true of ureter- (AIIMS 91)
a) 9 and 10 b) 8 and 7 (DNB 90) a) Crossed anteriorly by gonadal artery
c) 1 and 12 d) None b) Length of 50 em
715. The attachment ofthe mesentry ofthe small gut is- c) Nerve supply from T8-T1 0
a) Lt. Transverse process ofL2 toRt. Sacroiliac joint. d) Crossed posteriorly by renal artery
b) Rt. Transverse process of L2 to Rt. Sacro iliac 725. The following is true regarding spleen -
joint. a) Notch is on inferior border (AIIMS 91)
c) Lt. Transverse process of T1 toRt. Sacro iliac b) Long axis parallelto 12th Rib
joint (PGI 90, AIIMS 86) c) Developed from ventral mesogastrium
d) Rt. Transverse process of T1 to Lt. Sacro iliac d) Nerve supply from celiac plexus
joint 726. The inferior mesentric artery supplies all of the
following organs exceptthe- (DNB 91)
716. Which of the following statements are true
a) Ascending colon b) Descending colon
concerning the rectus abdominis muscle -(PGI 91)
a) It arises by three heads from the front of the c) Transverse colon d) Sigmoid colon
symphysis pubis, the pubic crest and the pubic 727. Below the level of the anterior superior iliac
tubercle spine, which structure forms the posterior wall
b) It is inserted into the eighth, ninth and tenth costal of the rectus sheath- (TN 92)
cartilages a) Transversus abdominis b) External oblique
c) The tendinous intersection are attached to the c) Internal oblique d) Conjoint tendon
posterior wall of the rectus sheath e) Transversalis fascia
d) It is innervated by the lower six intercostal nerves 728. The hilus ofthe right kidney contains the following
717. Embryonic ventral mesogastrium gives rise to- important structures- (PGI 92)
a) Greateromentum (AIIMS 91) a) Branches of the renal artery
b) Lesser omentum b) Renal pelvis
c) Pelvic mesocolon c) Sympathetic nerve fibers
d) Gastro splenic ligament d) Tributaries of the renal vein
708) c,d 709) d 710) c 711)c 712)b 713)b 714)d 715)a 716)d 717)b 718)c 719)d 720)c 721)c
722) a,b 723) a,c 724) a 725)d 726)a 727) None 728) a,b,c,d
ANATOMY [ 1.35]
729. All the following statements concerning the conjoint 739. The contents of the Sacral Canal are all excepts-
tendon are true except- (DNB 92) a) Filumterminale (AI93)
a) It forms part of the posterior wall of the inguinal b) Dura
canal c) L4-L5 Nerve roots
b) It is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of d) Vertebral venous plexus
the transversus abdominis and internal oblique 740. Lengthoffemaleurethrais- (JIPMER 93)
muscles a)2cm b)3cm
c) It reinforces the superficial inguinal ring c) 4cm d)6cm
d) It is continuous with the inguinal ligament 741. Lymphatics from the ovary drain into-
e) It may bulge forward in a direct inguinal hernia
a) Para aortic nodes (JIPMER 93, AI 91)
730. The following is false regarding rectus sheath -
b) Deep inguinal nodes
a) Contains pyramidalis (AIIMS 92)
c) Superficial inguinal nodes
b) Deficient anterosuperiorly
d) External iliac nodes
c) Posterior wall formed by Transversalis fascia
d) Inferior epigastric artery pierces postero-inferiorly 742. Which is correct regarding Tail of pancreas-
731. The following is not a content of broad ligament- a)Related to the upper part of spleen (JIPMER 93)
a) Round ligament b) Ovarian ligament (AI 92) b)Carcinoma is common
c) Fallopian tubes d) Ovary c)Lies in the gastrosplenic ligaments
732. Which is not a tributary ofleft Renal vein- d)Maximum number oflslets oflangerhans.
a) Inferiorphrenic b)Leftgonadal (AI92) 743. MainLymphaticdrainageofthetestis- (AI93)
c) First lumbar d) Left supra renal a) Pre and para aortic lymph nodes
733. Internal pudendal artery in a female is a branch of- b) Obturator nodes
a) Internal iliac artery (Anterior) (Delhi 92, c) Supraclavicular nodes
b) Uterine artery AIIMS 89) d) Inguinal Nodes
c) Exernal iliac artery 744. Parasympathetic fibers that pass through the
d) Common iliac artery vagusnervesupplythe- (AI 93)
734. The following statements concerning the abdominal a) Stomach b) Spleen
part of the sympathetic trnnk are not true except c) lleum d) Sigmoid colon
that- (PGI92) 745. Superficial inguinal ring is an opening in-
a) It enters the abdomen behind the lateral arcualte a) External oblique muscle of abdomen (Kerala 94)
ligament b) Internal oblique muscle of abdomen
b) The trunk possesses six segmentally arranged c) Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of
ganglia abdomen
c) All the ganglia receive white rami communicantes d) Fascia transversalis
d) Gray rami communicantes are given off to the 746. Right testicular vein drains into- (Kerala 94)
lumbar spinal nerves a) inferior vena cava b) renal vein
e) The splanchnic nerves from the throax join the c) portal vein d) splenic vein
trunks below the diapharagm 747. Bile duct opens into the - (KARN 94)
735. Motor nerve supply to Detrusors ofthe bladder is- a) Second part of duodenum
a) L2 L3 L4 b) S 1 S2 (JIPMER 92) b) Third part of duodenum
c) S2 S3 S4 d)S 4 S5 c) Pyloric end of stomach
736. Untrue about llird part of duodenum is- d) ileo-caecaljunction
a)
10 em in length (Delhi 93, 89) 748. The functional unit ofkideny is called- (Karn. 94)
b)
Derived from foregut a) Bowman's Capsule b) Malphigian corpuscles
c)
Superior mesenteric artery passes anterior to it c) Pyramid d) Nephron
d)
Lying posterior are inferior vena cava and aorta 749. Which of the following structure is not present
737. Uterine artery is a branch of----Artery- (PGI93) in transpyloric plane- (JIPMER 95)
a) External iliac a) First lumbar vertebra
b) Anterior branch of internal iliac b) Tip of ninth costal cartilage
c) Posterior branch of internal iliac c) Fundus of gall bladder
d) Internal pudendal d) Right supra renal gland
738. Following are constituents ofspermatic Cord except- 750. All are true about superficial penile fascia except
a) Vas deferens (AI 93) a) it contains dartos (JIPMER 95)
b) Testicular artery b) it contains loose connective tissue
c) Pampiniform plexus c) it contains superficial dorsal vein
d) Genital branch of genito femoral N. d) Innervated by ilioinguinal nerve
729)d 730)b 73l)d 732)c 733)a 734)d 735)c 736)b 737)b 738)None 739)c 740)c 74l)a
742)d 743)a 744)a,c 745)c 746)a 747)a 748)d 749)d 750)d
ANATOMY [ 1.36]
751. All are true about lymphatic drainage of uterine 763. Glans penis drains into- (MP 98)
cornua and fudus except- (Kerala 95) a) Ext. iliac lymph nodes
a) To horizontal group of superficial inguinal nodes b) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
b) To para aortic nodes c) Paraaortic lymph nodes
c) Pre aortic nodes d) Superior inguinal lymph nodes
d) Pelvic nodes 764. Falciform ligament contains- (AI 98)
7 52. Inguinal canal is not hounded posteriorly by-(A/95) a) Ligamentumteres
a) Transversalis fascia b) Internal oblique b) Ligamentum venosum
c) Conjoint tendon d) Lacunar ligamnent c) Bile duct and portal vein
753. Anal continence is not contributed by- (AI 95)
d) Superior epigastric artery
a) anorectal junction b) valves of houston
765. Deep circumflex iliac artery is a branch of-
c) internal anal sphincter d) inferior rectal nerve
a) Internal iliac Artery (JIPMER 98)
754. Cremasteric reflex is governed by- (AMU 95)
b) External iliac artery
a) Sl b)Ll
c)Ifl. d)S3 c) Femoral artery
755. Followingaretrueaboutportalvein except- d) Inferior epigastric artery
a) Formed behind neck of pancreas (AIIMS 95) 766. Trueaboutappendixepeploacae- (MP 98)
b) Common bile duct is to right & anterior a) Helps in active peristalysis
c) Gasrtoduodenal artery is to left & li.hterior b) Presents in alimentary canal along with mesentry
d) Ascends behind 2nd part of duodenum c) Present in small intestine
756. Which structure lies in the intersigmoid recess- d) Present in rectum
a) Left Ureter (PGI 95) 767. All are opening in prostatic urethra except-(MP 98)
b) Left Ureter and left comm.iliac artery a) Prostatic utricle b) Ejaculatory duct
c) Left Ureter and left common iliac vein c) Bulburethral glands d) Prostatic ducts
d) Left Ureter, left comm.iliac artery and left comm. 768. Deep inguinal ring contain- (MP 98)
Iliac vein a) Suspensory ligament of ovary
757. Regarding the left renal vein which is FALSE- b) Mesosalpinx
a) Receives left renal & left suprarenal veins c) Mesoovarium
b) Inferior mesenteric veins drains here d) Round ligament of uterus
c) ItdrainsintotheiVC (CUPGEE95) 769. Lymphatic drainage ofcervixis- (MP 98)
d) Crosses in front of the aorta a) Inguinal lymph nodes
758. Suprarenal gland gets blood supply from all of b) Ext..iliac lymph nodes
following arteries except- (Delhi 96) c) Paraaortic lymph nodes
a) Aorta d) Obturator lymph nodes
b) Renal artery 770. Primary lymph nodes draining the lymphatics form
c) Inferior phrenic artery the fundus ofthe stomach would include the-
d) Superior mesenteric artery a) Pancreatico-splenic nodes (ICS 98)
759. Splenic artery supplies all following except - b) Right gastric nodes
a) Liver b) spleen (Delhi 96) c) Left gastric nodes
c) pancreas d) stomach d) Hepatic nodes
760. All ofthe following statements of Adrenal gland 771. Consider the following statement accessory spleens
are true except- (AI 97) mayoccurat- (ICS98)
a) Both are supplied by three arteries 1) The tail of the pancreas
b) Both adrenal glands drain directly into inferior 2) Hilum of spleen and its mesentery
vena cava 3) Omentum and mesentery of small bowel
c) Right gland is Pyramidal is shape 4) Ovary and testes
d) Average weight is about 5gms. a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 3 are correct
761. Conjointtendonisformed by- (Kerala 97) c) 2 and 4 are correct d) All four are correct
a) Tendons external and internal oblique 772. COWPER'S GLANDS open into- (AIIMS 98)
b) Lower fibres of internal oblique & transversus a) Prostatic urethra b) Membranous urethra
abdominis c) Penile urethra d) Bulbar urethra
c) Internal oblique only 773. Afferents of cremasteic reflex are present in-
d) Pyramidalis a) Ilioinguinal nerve (AIIMS 98)
762. Which organ has no endarterial supply- (AI 98) b) Genitofemoral nerve
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Iliohypogastric nerve
c) Kidney d) Lung d) Pudendal nerve
75l)d 752)d 753)b 754)b 755)d 756)a 757)b 758)d 759)a 760)b 76l)b 762)d 763)b 764)a
765)b 766)b 767)c 768)d 769) b,d 770) a 77l)a 772)c 773)b
ANATOMY [ 1.37]
77 4. The blood supply to the uterus is by which artery- 785. All are related to post. surface of bladder except-
a) Uterine b) Ovarian (AMC 99) a) Ureter (JIPMER 2001)
c) Vaginal d) All b) Rectum through rectovesical pouch
775. Which of the following is not a content of the c) Seminal vesicles
pudendal canal- (Kaernat 99) d) Vas deferens
a) Pudendal nerve 786. Ventral mesogastrium derivatives include AlE-
b) Internal pudendal artery a) Falciform ligament (JIPMER 2001)
c) Internal pudendal vein b) Coronary ligament
d) Nerve to obturator internus c) Lesser omentum
776. True about inferior mesentric artery- (UP 2K) d) Gastrosplenic ligament
a) Continues as inferior rectal artery 787. Branch of posterior division of internal iliac artery
b) Takes part in formation of marginal artery is- (JIPMER 2001)
c) Arises from coeliac trunk a) Superior gluteal artery
d) Supplies mid gut b) Inferior gluteal artyery
777. If a missile enters the body just above the pubic c) Superior vesical artery
ramus through the anterior adominal wall it will d) Middle rectal artery
most likely pierce which of the following 788. The bed of the stomach is not formed by-(Kerala OJ)
structures - (AIIMS 2K) a) Left kidney b) Left supra renal gland
a) Abdominal aorta b) Left renal vein c) Splenic vein d) Tail of pancreas
c) Urinary bladder d) Spinal cord 789. Ligation of the coeliac artery mostly affects-
778. What is the nerve supply to the skin around the a) Stomach b) Pancreas (Kerala 2001)
umbilicus - (Kerala 2k) c) Jejnum d) Spleen
a) 1Qth thoracic ventral ramus 790. The venous drainge of liver into IVC is through-
b) 11th thoracic ventral ramus a) Portal vein b) Hepatic veins (AI 2001)
c) Subcostal nerve c) Azygous vein d) Superiormesentrci vein
d) Iliohypogastric nerve 791. A patient of external piles has pain, which of
e) Ilioinguinal nerve the following nerve carry this pain sensation -
779. Blood supply ofthe sigmoid colon is from- a) Hypogastric nerves (AI 2002)
a) Marginal artery of drummond (PGI 2K) b) Parasympathetic plexus
b) Sigmoidal artery c) Sympathetic nerves
c) Superior hemorrhoidal artery d) Pudendal nerve
d) Middle colic artery 792. The architecture of the liver is divided into lobes by-
e) Left colic artery a) Bile duct b) Hepatic artery (PGI 02)
780. lesser sac of the stomach is bounded by- (PGI 2K) c) Hepatic vein d) Portal vein
a) Posterior wall of stomach e) Lymphatics
b) Visceral surface of spleen 793. Lesser omentum has following contents except-
c) Under surface ofliver a) Hepatic vein b) Hepatic artery (PGI 97)
d) Greater omentum c) Portal vein d) Bile duct
e) Right crus of diaphragm 794. Inferior mesenteric vein drains into vein- (PGI 97)
781. Iliac crest at the level of (highest point of- a) Splenic b) Hepatic
a)~ b)L4 (DNB 2001) c) Portal d) Inf. vena cava
c) L5 d) S 1 795. True about foremen ofbochdelak is- (PGI 97)
782. After herniotomy loss of sensation of the scrotum, a) Posterolateral gap in diaphragm
root of penis is due to injury of- (AIIMS2001) b) Anterolateral gap in diaphrgam
a) Ilioinguinal nerve b) Iliohypogastric nerve c) Pleuro-pericardial gap
c) Genitofemoral nerve d) Obturator nerve d) Gap in the muscle fibres
783. All of the following are the posterior relations of 796. Relation of caudate lobe ofliver is- (PGI 98)
the kidney except- (J&K 2001) a) Posterior to portal vein
a) Psoas major b) Quadratus lumborum b) Anterior tort. inferior phrenic artery
c) Sympathetic chain d) Ilioinguinal nerve c) Posterior to ligamentum teres
784. The following provide maximum support to uterus- d) Posterior to ligamentum venosum
a) Broad ligament (PGI 2001) 797. All the statements are true about ileum except-
b) Mackenordt's ligament a) LN in mesentery (PGI 98)
c) Round ligament b) 3-6 arcades in continuation
d) Vascicouterin fold c) Smaller diameter than jejunum
d) Large circular mucosal folds
774)a,b 775)d 776)b 777)c 778)a 779)a,b 780)a,c,d 781)b 782)a 783)a 784)b 785)a 786)d 787)a
788) c,d 789) a,d 790) b 791)d 792) a,b,d 793) a 794) a 795) a 796) b 797) d
ANATOMY [ 1.38]
798. Rectus adominis is inserted into - (PGI 98) d) It forms the posterior wall of the epiploic foramen.
a) Xiphoid process b) Median raphae e) It is related to psoas muscle
c) Linea alba d) 1-4 ribs 811. True about inguinal canal- (PGI 03)
799. Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by- (PGI 98) a) It is an Intermuscular canal
a) Posteriorrami ofL5 - 8 1 b) Superficial inguinal ring is situated superior and
b) Posterior rami ofS 2 S3 S4 leteral to public tubercles
c) Anterior rami ofL5 S1 82 c) Deep inguinal ring is superio-medial to attachment
d) Anterior rami ofS 2 S3 S4 of recutus abdominis
800. The commonest site of surgical uretero-vaginal
d) In male vas deferens passes through it.
fistula is - (PGI 99)
e) Artery and nei"Ve supply pass through it
a) Below infudibulopelvic ligament
b) Below uterine artery in the mackenrodts ligament 812. Lt ureter is related to- (PGI 03)
c) Vaginal angle a) Quadrtus Lumbomm b) Lt gonadal vessels
d) Above uterine artery c) Superior mesenteric vein d) Sigmoid mesocolon
801. Notetrueabouttheanalcanalis- (PG/99) e) Internal iliac artery
a) Completely lined by stratified squamous epithelium 813. Blood supply of stomach is/are- (PGI 03)
b) Supplied by pudendal nerve a) Left gastric artery b) Short gastric artery
c) Drained by veins forming portosystemic c) Splenic artery proper d) Renal artery
anastomosis e) Lt gastroepiploic artery
d) Part below pectinate line is spupplied by inf.rectal 814. The cysterna chili are situated in the-
artery a) Pelvis b) Thorax (Karnataka 02)
802. Which is the direct branch of coeliac trunk- c) Neck d) Abdomen
a) Rt. gastric b) Lt. gastric (PGI 99) 815. Length of male adult urethra is- (TN 03)
c) Gastroduodenal d) Rt gastroepiploic artery a)20cms b)lOcms
803. Vein draining to IVC is- (PGI 99) c) 4cms d) 15 ems
a) Left testicular vein b) Rt suprarenal vein 816. Length of Female adult cervical canalis- (TN 03)
c) Lt. ovarian vein d) Lt. suprarenal vein a) 2cms b)2.5 ems
804. True about boundaries oflesser Sac- (PGI 2000) c) 6cms d) lOcms
a) Posteriorly stomach b) Crus of diaphagm 817. Ureter crosses all of the following EXCEPT-
c) Spleen d) Greater omentum a) Uterine artery (TN03)
805. Cystic artery arises from- (PGI 01) b) Bifurcation of common iliac
a) Right hepatic artery b) Left hepatic artery c) Sigmoidmesocolon
c) Common hepatic artery d) Gastroduodenal artery d) Inferior mesentric artery
806. Superficial perineal muscles include- (PGI 02) 818. The Blood vessel related to the paraduodenal fossa
a) Superficial transverse perinei is- (A/03)
b) Bulbospongiosus a) Gonadal veins b) Superior mesenteric artery
c) Ischiocavernosus c) Portal vein d) Inferior mesenteric vein
d) Iliococcygeus 819. A posteriorly perforating ulcer in the pyloric antrum
e) Pubococcygeus of the stomach is most likely to produce initial
807. The branch of anterior division of internal localized peritonitis or abscess formation in the
iliacartery includes- (PGI 02) following- (AI 03)
a) Posterior gluteal. b) Uterine a) Omental bursa (lesser sac)
c) Obturator d) Internal pudendal b) Greater sac
e) Iliolumbar c) Right subphrenic space
808. Cremasteric muscle is supplied by- (PGI 02) d) Hepato renal space (pouch of Morison)
a) Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve 820. While exposing the kidney from behind, all ofthe
b) Femoral branch of genitofemoral n:erve following nerves are liable to injury except-
c) Lateral femoral nerve a) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh (All India 04)
d) Ilio-inguinal nerve b) Ilioinguinal nerve
809. Blood supply ofLt ureter are- (PGI 03) c) Subcostal nerve
a) Uterine artery b) Inferior vesical artery d) Iliohypogastric nerve
c) Testicular artery d) Common iliac artery 821. Infectionfmflammation of all of the following, causes
e) External femoral artery enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except-
810. True about inferior vena cava- (PGI 03) a) Isthmus of uterine tube
a) Passes through diaphragm at level ofD 10 vertebra b) Inferior part of anal canal
b) Rt. suprarenal artery directly drains to it. c) Bigtoe
c) Itlies anterior to the renal vein. d) Penile urethra
798) a 799) d 800) b 801) a 802) b 803) b 804)d 805)a 806) a,b,c 807) b,c,d 808) a 809) a,b,c,d 81 0) d,e
8ll)a,b,d,e 812)b,d,e 813)a,b,e 814)d 815)a 816)b 817)d 818)d 819)a 820)a 82l)d
ANATOMY [ 1.39]
822. The intricately and prodigiously looped system 835. The free edge of the falciform ligament encloses-
of veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the a) Ligamentum venosurn (SGPGI 05)
epididymis is known as- (All India 04) b) Portal vein and common bile duct
a) Choroid plexus b) Tuberal plexus c) Ligamentumteres
c) Pampiniform plexus d) Rectiniform plexus d) Superior epigastric vein
823. Which of the following is true about location of 836. All of the following form visceral relations of spleen
Omental Bursa- (Jipmer 04) except- (AMU 05)
a) Left sub hepatic b) Left sub phrenic a) Stomach b) Splenic flexure of colon
c) Right sub hepatic d) Right sub phrenic c) Kidney d) Adrenals
824. Ejaculatory duct opens into- (APPGE 04) 837. The main antagonistic muscle of rectus abdominis
a) Membranous urethra b) Prostatic urethra muscle is- (COMEDK05)
c) Penile urethra d) Seminal vesicles a) Psoas major b) Latissimus dorsi
825. A common structure in Hesselbach's triangle and c) Quadratus lurnborum d) Erector spinae
femoral triangle is - (UPPGMEE 04) 838. To create a porto-caval shunt in a patient with portal
a) Conjoint tendon b) Inguinal ligament hypertension, which of the following venous
c) Inferior epigastric artery d) Rectus femoris anastomosis should be performed- (Jipmer 05)
826. The efferent limb of the cremaster reflex is a) Superior mesenteric vein to inferior mesenteric vein
provided the- ( UPPGMEE 04) b) Right gastric vein to left gastric vein
a) Femoral branch of the genitofemoral c) Right gastric vein to right gastric vein
b) Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve d) Left splenic vein to left renal vein
c) Ilioinguinal nerve 839. Which ofthe following arteries is a direct branch of
d) Pudendal nerve the gastroduodenal artery- (Jipmer 05)
827. Fructose, a source of energy for spermatozoa, is a) Right gastric artery
found primarily in secretions from the-(UPPGME 04) b) Left gastric artery
a) Bulbourethral glands b) Epididymus c) Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
c) Prostrate d) Seminal vesicle d) Right gastroepiploic artery
828. The relation of sympathetic trunk to inferior 840. True about the anatomy ofinguinal hernia which is/
venacava is- (Jipmer 03) are true- (PGI June 05)
a) Right b)Left a) Sup. Inguinal ring is an opening in external oblique
c) Anterior d) Posterior aponeurosis
829. Cave ofRitzeius is found in- (UPPGMEE 04)
b) Indirect hernia lies just medial to inferior epigastric
a) Infront of the bladder b) Behind the bladder
artery
c) Behind the rectum d) Behind the cervix
830. Thelymphaticsofvulva- (SGPG/04)
c) Posterior wall is formed by transversalis fascia
a) Do not freely communicate with each other and conjoined tendon
b) Do not cross the labiocrural fold d) Cremasteric artery is a branch ofexternal iliac artery
c) Transverse the labia from medial to lateral side e) Indirect hernia lies anteromedial to spermatic cord
d) Drain directly in to the deep femoral glands 841. True about ureter- (PGI June 05)
831. The inferior hypogastric plexus is located - a) Starts at the hilum
a) Anterior to the aorta (SGPGI 04) b) Changes its direction at the ischial spine
b) Behind the kidney c) Penetrates the bladder wall without any valve
c) Between layers of anterior abdominal wall d) Enters the bladder at the lateral angle of the trigone
d) On the side of rectum e) Enters pelvis in front of bifurcation of common
832. Ligamentum teres of the liver is remnant iliac artery
of- (SGPGI 05) 842. The diaphragm is formed ofthe following except-
a) Umbilical arteries b) Left umbilical vein a) Septum transversum (JCS 05)
c) Ductus-venosus d) Ductus arteriosus b) Paraxial mesoderm
833. Venous blood ofliver is drained by- (SGPGI 05) c) Pleuroperitonea! membranes
a) Portal vein b) Hepatic artery d) Dorsal mesentery of oesophagus
c) Sinusoids d) Hepatic veins 843. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following
834. Which of the following is true about splenic artery - positions, except- (MAHA 05)
a) Smaller than left gastric artery (SGPGI 05) a) Ureteropelvic junction
b) Gives short gastric arteries along the fundus b) Ureterovesical junction
c) Curves around the fundus c) Crossing of iliac artery
d) Arises from abdominal aorta
d) Ischial spine
822)c 823)a 824)b 825)b 826)b 827)d 828)b 829)a 830)c 83l)d 832)b 833)d 834)b 835)c
836)d 837)d 838)d 839)d 840)a,c,e 841)All 842)d 843)d
ANATOMY [ 1.40]
844. All of the following statements concerning the 854. The neck of pancreas is related on its posterior
ductus deferens are correct except- (MAHA 05) surface to- (AIIMS May 05)
a) It begins in the head of the epididymis a) Gastroduodenal artery
b) It ascends in the spermatic cord b) Superior mesenteric vein
c) It joints the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the c) Inferior vena cava
ejaculatory duct d) Bile duct
d) It descends medial to the ureter and seminal vesicles 855. Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all of the
845. The artery of the ductus deferens arises from which following lymph nodes, except- (AI 06)
of the following structures- (MAHA 05) a) Parameteriallymph nodes
a) Aorta b) Inferior epigastric b) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
c) Inferiorvesical d) Pudendal c) Obturator lymph nodes
846. All of the following statements about the splenic d) Ext. iliac lymph nodes
artery are true except that it- (AJIMS NOV 05) 856. All ofthe following are the components of the white
a) Has a tortuous course pnlp of spleen, except- (AI 06)
b) Is a branch of the coeliac trunk a) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
c) Has branches that anastomose freely within the b) B cells
spleen c) Antigen presenting cells
d) Supplies the greater curvature of stomach d) Vascular sinus
84 7. The narrowest part of the ureter is at the - 857. True statements aboutAppendix-(PGJJune 06,AI 93)
a) Uretero-pelvicjunction (AJIMSNOV05) a) Does not have mesentery
b) Hiac vessel crossing b) Has taenia coli
c) Pelvic ureter c) Develops from midgut
d) Uretero -vesical junction d) Supplied by appendicular branch of ileocolic artery
848. Benign Prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction e) Supplied by interior mesenteric artery
of the urinary tract. The specific condition is 858. True statements about lower%1h Ant. abdominal wall-
associated with enlargement of the- (AI 05) a) Linea Alba is poorly formed (PGI June 06)
a) Entire prostate gland b) Lateral lobes b) Two layers of rectus sheath present
c) Median lobe d) Posterior lobes c) External oblique poorly formed
849. The Prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the
d) Ext. obliqe muscle well formed & strong
following features, exceptthatit- (AI 05)
e) Rectus abdominis is divided
a) Is the widest and most dilatable part
859. Superficial perineal muscles include -(PGIJune 06)
b) Presents a concavity posteriorly
a) Iliococcygeus b) Ischiococcygeus
c) Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate
d) Receives Prostatic ductules along its posterior wall c) Bulbospongiosus d) Levator ani
850. All of the following statements regarding was e) Pubococcygeus
deference are true except- (AI 05) 860. Atherosclerotic occlusion of which artery would
a) The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla. resnlt in insufficient perfusion of urinary bladder -
b) It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine a) External iliac b) Internal pudendal (HP 06)
c) It passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep c) Internal iliac d) Lateral sacral
inguinal ring 861. Most medially located renal structure is- (HP 06)
d) It is separated from the base of bladder by the a) Major calyx b) Minor calyx
peritoneum c) Renal cortex d) Renal pelvis
851. The following group of lymph nodes receives 862. Pyramidalis is supplied by- (Manipal 06, PGI 84)
lymphatics from the uterus except- (AI 05) a) Subcostal nerve b) Ilioinguinal nerve
a) External iliac b) Internal iliac c) Iliohypogastric nerve d)Genitofemoral nerve
c) Superficial inguinal d) Deep inguinal 863. Right kidneys anterior relation : all are devoid of
852. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the peritoneum, except- (PGMCET 07)
following structures can be felt anteriorly except - a) Duodenum b) Supra renal gland
a) Internal iliac lymph nodes (AI 05) c) Colon d)Liver
b) Bulb of the penis 864. Which one of the following ligaments contains
c) Prostate splenic artery- (UPSC 07)
d) Seminal vesicle when enlarged a) Gastrosplenic ligament
853. The gastroduodenal artery is derived from -(AJIMS
b) Splenocolic ligament
a) Celiac artery b) Hepatic artery May 05)
c) Splenorenalligament
c) Splenic artery d) Cystic artery
d) Splenophrenic ligament
844)a 845)c 846)c 847)d 848)c 849)b 850)d 851)d 852)a 853)b 854)b 855)b 856)d 857)c,d
858) a,c 859) c 860)c 861)d 862)a 863)d 864)c
ANATOMY [ 1.41 ]
865. The segmental division of liver into eight segments 877. Trueaboutleftrenalvein- (AIIMS Nov 07}
is based on- (UPSC 07) a) Posterior and inferior to sup. mesenteric artery
a) Hepatic veins alone b) Posterior and superior to superior mesenteric artery
b) Portal vein alone c) Anterior and inferior to sup. mesenteric artery
c) Hepatic veins and common hepatic artery d) Annterior and superior to sup. mesenteric artery.
d) Hepatic veins and portal vein 878. In fracture of penis involving rupture of tunica
866. Stomach derives its blood supply from all these albuginea with intact Buch's fascia following would
arteries directly or indirectly except- (Corned 0 7) be noted clinically- (AIIMS Nov 07)
a) Splenic artery b) Hepatic artery
a) Hematoma involving only the shaft of penis
c) Superior mesenteric artery d) Celiac axis
b) Hematoma involving scrotum & perineal region
867. Structure that does not cross the midline is-(A/ 07)
a) Left gonadal vein c) Penis, scrotum and abdominal wall
b) Left renal vein d) Penis scrotum & thighs
c) Left branchiocephalic vein 879. Shortest part of the colon is- (UP 08)
d) Hemiazygos vein a) Ascending colon b) Transverse colon
868. Porto systemic shunt is not seen in- (AI 07) c) Descending colon d) Sigmoid colon
a) Liver b) Spleen 880. Ureteric constriction in the following sites EXCEPT-
c) Anorectum d) GastroEsophageal a) Ischial spine (UP 08)
869. Injury to the male urethra below the perineal b) Pelvi-ureteric junction
membrane causes urine to accumulate in- (AI 07) c) Uretero-vesical junction
a) Superficial perineal pouch d) Crosses the internal iliac artery
b) Deep perineal pouch 881. All are true aboutThoraco-lumbarfascia- EXCEPT-
c) Space of retzius a) Attachment to the spinous process of lumber
d) Pouch of douglas vertebra (UP 08)
870. All are true the trigone of the urinary bladder except- b) Origin to the transversus and internal oblique
a) Mucosa is loosely associated to the underlying muscles
musculature (AI 07) c) Lumber part situated in the interval between the
b) Mucosa is smooth iliac crest and the 12th rib
c) It is lined by transitional epithelium
d) Attachment to the transverse process of lumber
d) It is derived from the absorbed part of the
vertebra
mesonephric duct
871. Supports ofthe uterus are all except- (AI 07)
882. Venous spread in carcinoma rectum reaches to the
a) Uterosacral ligament b) Broad Ligament following structure- (UP 08)
c) Mackenrodts' ligament d) Levator ani a) Spleen b) Kidney
872. Renal angle lies between- (Aiims May 07) c) Liver d) Duodenum
a) 12'h rib & lateral border of sacrospinalis 883. Referred pain in external haemorrhoides is due to-
b) 11 lh rib & lateral border of sacrospinalis a) Common pudendal nerve (UP 08)
c) 12th rib & lateral border of quadratus lumborum b) Inferior rectal nerve
d) 11th rib & lateral border of quadratus lumborum c) Splanchnic nerve
873. Pudendal nerve supplying motor part to external d) Sympathetic nerve
sphincter is derived from- (Aiims May 07) 884. Which of the following is the correct order of
a) L5-S 1 roots b)S 1-S2 roots pathwayforasperm- (AI 08)
c) L2-L3 roots d) S2-S3 roots a) Straight tubules --7 Rete testis --7 Efferent tubules
874. Ureteric constriction in the following sites except- b) Rete tubules --7 Efferent tubules --7 Straight
a) At the pelviureteric junction (UP 07} tubules
b) Crosses the internal iliac artery c) Efferent --7 tubule Rete testis --7 Straight tubules
c) Atbladderwall d) Straight tubule --7 Efferent tubules --7 Rete tubules
d) At mesentery 885. Which of the following veins is found in relation to
875. Tailofpancreasrelatedwith- (UP07)
theparaduodenalfossa- (AI 08)
a) Splenicorenalligament
a) Inferior mesentric vein b) Middle colic vein
b) Gastrosplenic ligament
c) Phrenico colic ligament c) Left colic vein d) Splenic vein
d) Falciform ligament 886. The artery to the ductus dererens is a branch of-
876. Watershed area between SMA and IMA which a) Inferior epigastric artery (AI 08)
commonly result in ischemia is- (AIIMS Nov 07) b) Superior epigastric artery
a) Hepatic flexure b) Splenic flexure c) Superior vesical artery
c) Rectosigmoid Jn. d) Ileocolic Jn. d) Cremasteric artery
865)d 866)c 867)a 868)b 869)a 870)a 87l)b 872)a 873)d 874)d 875)a 876)b 877)a 878)a
879)a 880)a 881)a 882)c 883)b 884)a 885)a 886)c
ANATOMY [ 1.42]
887. True about valves in portal venous system~ 900. Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into the
a) Present at the junction of superior mesentric artery following lymph nodes- (AI 09)
with the splenic artery (Aiims May 08) a) Superior inguinal nodes
b) Within the portal vein only b) Internal inguinal nodes
c) The whole system is valveless c) Deep inguinal nodes
d) In the intrahepatic portion of portal vein. d) Sacral nodes
888. All are the contents of deep perineal pouch except-
901. Within which part of a gastric gland, are chief cells
a) Bulbourethral glands (Aiims May 08)
b) Internal urethral sphincter located- (AI 09)
c) Dorsal nerve of penis a) Gastric pit b) Neck
d) Bulb of penis c) Isthumus d) Fundus
889. Abouturetertrueis- (PGI June 08) 902. Chief cells of stomach are most abundant in-
a) 5 em long b) 25 em long a) Fundus b) Body (AI 09)
c) 35 em long d) Totally retroperitoneal c) Antrum d) Pylorus
e) It enters true pelvis after crossing iliac vessel 903. All of the following statements about Paneth cells
890. Middle lobe of prostrate is present in between- are true, Except- (AI 09)
a) Prostratic urethra & Ejaculation duct a) Rich in Rough Endoplasmic Retuculum
b) Prostratic urethra & rectum (PGI June 08) b) Rich in Zinc
c) Ejaculation duet & pubis c) Contain Lysozyme
d) Pubis and rectum d) Foamy appearance
891. Deep perineal pouch contains- (PG/June 08) 904. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of-
a) Bulb of penis b) Crura of penis a) Right Hepatic artery (AIIMS May 09)
c) Bulbospongiosus d) Membranous urethra b) Gastroduodenal artery
892. The lymphatic drainage oftestes is~ (DPGEE 08) c) Hepatic artery
a) InguinalL.N. b) Mesenteric LN. d) Superior mesenteric atery
c) Para-aorticL.N. d)ObturatorL.N. 905. Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic
893. In rectus sheath which branch of aorta make
nerves? (AIIMS May 09)
anastomosis with superior epigastric
a) Rectum b) Urinary bladder
artery- (PGI Dec 08)
c) Appendix d) Uterus
a) Subclavian artery b) External iliac artery
906. Sphincter of Oddi consists of - (AIIMS May 09)
c) Internal iliac artery d) External carotid A
e) Axillary artery a) 2 sphincters b) 3 sphincters
894. Which of following is not a permanent mucosal c) 4 sphincters d) 5 sphincters
fold? (AIIMS Nov 08) 907. Vaginal sphincter is formed by all except-
a) Spiral valve of Heister b) Gastric rugae a) Internal urethral sphincter (AIIMS May 09)
c) Plica semilunaris d) Transverse rectal fold b) External urethral sphincter
895. Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal c) Pubovaginalis
cavity? (AIIMS Nov 08) d) Bulbospongiosus
a) Paracolic gutter b) Infracolic compartment 908. Trueaboutfemalepelvis~ (PGI June 09)
c) Left subhepatic space d) Greater Sac a) C-shaped pelvic cavity
896. Which of the following is the teriminal group of b) Pelvic inlet is wider posteriorly
lymph node for colon? (AIIMS Nov 08) c) P.inlet is heart shaped
a) Paracolic b) Epicolic d) Subpublic angle is 70°
c) Preaortic d) Ileocolic e) Ischiopublic index is 80 ± 5
897. All of the following are branches of splenic artery, 909. The sensory supply of the fallopian tube and ovary is
Except- (AI 09) from- (COMED 09)
a) Short gastric artery a) D6toD8 b)D8toD10
b) Hilar branches c) DIOtoD12 d)L2toL4
c) Right gastroepiploic artery 910. The dartos muscle is innervated by- (COMED 09)
d) Arteria pancreatica magna a) Ilionguinal nerve b) Iliohypogastric nerve
898. Contents of deep perenial pouch include all of the c) Sympathetic nerves d) Pudendal nerve
following, Except- (AI 09) 911. Structure contained within rectus sheath are all
a) Dorsal nerve of penis b) Bulbourethral gland except~ (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
c) Root of penis d) Sphincter urethrae a) Internal thoracic artery
899. Urogenital diaphragm is made up ofthe following, b) Superior epigastric artery
Except- (AI 09) c) Inferior epigastric artery
a) Deep transverse Perineus b) Perinialmembrane d) Rectus abdominis
c) Colle's fascia d) Sphincter urethrae
887)c 888) d 889) b,d,e 890) a 891) d 892) c 893)b 894) b 895) d 896) c 897) c 898) c 899)c 900)c
901)d 902)a>b 903)d 904)b 905)c 906)b 907)a 908)None 909)c 910)c 911)a
ANATOMY [ 1.43]
912. The shortest part of colon is- (DELHI PG Mar. 09) 924. Urogenital diaphragm is made up of the following,
a) Transverse colon b) Ascending colon Except- (AI 10)
c) Descending colon d) Sigmoid colon a) Deep transverse perineus b) Perinial membrane
913. The right adrenal vein drains into: c) Colle's fascia d) Sphincter urethrae
a) Right renal vein (DELHI PG Mar. 09) 925. Hypogastric sheath is a condensation of- (AI 10)
b)Inferiorvenacava a) Scarpa's fascia
c) Second right lumbar vein b) Colle's fascia
~Thirdrightlumbarvein c) Pelvic fascia
914. To which lymph nodes, the lymph from the umbilicus d) Inferior layer ofUrigenital diaphragm
drain- (UP SC-I! 09) 926. Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into the
a) Axillary and inguinal following lymph nodes- (AI 10)
b) External and internal iliac a) Superior inguinal nodes
c) Pre- and paraaortic b) Internal inguinal nodes
d) Inter-aortocaval c) Deep inguinal nodes
915. Valvulae conniventes are seen in- (PGI Nov 09) d) Sacral nodes
a) Jejunum b) Ileum 92 7. Which of the positions best describes the location of
c) Stomach d) Colon celiac plexus- (AI 10)
e) Appendix a) Anterolateral to Aorta
916. True about ureter's entry into bladder-(PGJ Nov 09) b) Posterolateral to Aorta
a) At medial angle of trigone c) Anterolateral to sympathetic chain
b) At lateral angle of trigone d) Anteromedial to sympathetic chain
c) Make an angle 928. In post-ductal coarctation of aorta collaterals may
d) Is straight be formed by all ofthe following, except- (AI 10)
e) Valveless a) Vertebral artery
917. The following structures are felt on per rectal b) Suprascapular artery
examination except- (AIIMS Nov 09) c) Subscapular artery
a) Bulb of penis b) Ureter d) Posterior intercostal artery
c) Anorectal ring d) Urogenital diaphragm 929. In portal hypertension the sites ofportosystemic
918. True about prostatic urethra are all except- anastomosis includes- (DPG 1 0)
a) Trapezoid in cross-section (AIIMS Nov 09) a) Lower end of esophagus
b) Presence of verumontanum b) Around umbilicus
c) Opening of prostatic ducts
c) Lower third of rectum and anal canal
d) Contains urethral crest
d) All of the above
919. Vaginal sphincter is formed by all except-
930. The rectus sheath contains all of the following except-
a) Internal urethral sphincter (AIIMS Nov 09)
b) External urethral sphincter a) Pyramidalis muscle (DPG 10)
c) Pubovaginalis b) Genitofemoral nerve
d) Bulbospongiosus c) Inferior epigastric vessels
920. True about prostatic urethra are all except- d) Superior epigastric vessels
a) Trapezoid in cross-section (AIIMS May 10) 931. Pouch of Douglas is situated between- (DPG 10)
b) Presence ofverumontanum a) Bladder and the uterus
c) Opening of prostatic ducts b) Bladder and pubic symphysis
d) Contains urethral crest c) Bladder and the rectum
921. Coeliac plexus is located- (AIIMS May 10) d) Uterus and rectum
a) Anterolateral & around the aorta 932. Lymphatics of suprarenal gland drain into_ __
b) Posterolateral & around the aorta lymph nodes- (Maharashtra 1 0)
c) Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain a) Internal iliac b) Para-aortic
d) Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain c) Superficial inguinal d) Coeliac
922. Appendices epiploicae present in- (AIIMS May 10) 933. Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal
a) Appendix b) Caecum ligament- (PGI May 1 0)
c) Rectum d) Sigmoid colon a) Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
923. Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic b) Superficial epigastric artery
nerves? (AIIMS May 1 0) c) Psoas major
a) Rectum b)Urinarybladder d) Femoral vein
c) Appendix d) Uterus e) Saphenous vein
912)b 913)b 914)a 915)a,b 916)b,c,e 917)b 918)a 919)a 920)a 92l)c 922)d 923)c 924)c 925)c
926)c 927)a 928)None 929)d 930)b 93l)d 932)b 933)c,d
ANATOMY [ 1.44]
934. Flexor oflumbar spine is/are- (PGI May 1OJ 945. Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal
a) Erector spinae cavity? (AIIMS May 11J
b) External oblique muscle a) Paracolic gutter b) Infracolic compartment
c) Internal oblique muscle c) Left subhepatic space d) Greater Sac
d) Rectus abdominis 946. All of the following form posterior relations of head
e) Psoas major ofpancreas,Except- (AI 11J
935. Teres major ofliver is a remnant of -(PGI May 1OJ
a) Common Bile Duct b) First part of duodenum
a) Ductus venosus b) Umblical artery
c) Aorta d) Inferior Vena cava
c) Ductus arteriosus d) Peritoneum
e) Left umbilical vein 947. Urethral Crestis situated in- (AI 11J
936. True statement about anatomy of anal canal- a) Prostatic Urethra b) Membranous Urethra
a) Puborectalis is essential to maintain continence c) Penile Urethra d) Bulbar Urethra
b) Internal sphincter is skeletal muscle (PGI Nov 1OJ 948. Which of the following is not a component of the
c) Internal sphincter remains in the state of tonic hypogastrics heath- (AI 11J
contraction a) Broad ligament
d) External sphincter is supplied by gluteal nerve b) Uterosacral ligament
e) No lymphatic drainage c) Transverse cervical ligament
937. Ureter dervies its blood supply from -(PGI Nov 1OJ d) Lateral ligament of the bladder
a) Renal artery 949. In portal hypertension lower end of the oesophagus
b) Gonadal vessel may show dilatation of veins. Which of the following
c) Common iliac artery veins drains into the portal vein from the lower end
d) Inferior vesical artery
of the oesophagus ? (Karn 11J
e) Superior mesenteric artery
a) Right gastric b) Left gastric
938. True about Right phrenic nerve- (PGI Nov. 1OJ
c) Hemiazygos d) Inferior phrenic
a) Motor branch
b) Sensory branch 950. Arterial supply of the duodenum is by- (Karn 11J
c) Arise from C4 a) Superior mesenteric artery
d) Shorter course than left phrenic nerve b) Celiac artery
939. AU ofthe following are derivatives ofthe septum c) Inferior mesenteric artery
transversumexcept- (AIIMS Nov 10J d) Both superior mesente:rjc & celiac arteries
a) Falciformligament 951. Shortest part of colon- (Punjab 10)
b) Coronary ligament a) Ascending colon b) Transverse colon
c) Mesentery of the lesser sac c) Descending colon d) Sigmoid colon
d) Ligamentum teres 952. Length offemale urethra- (Punjab 10)
940. All of the following organs develop in the mesentery a) 2cm b)4cm
ofstomachexcept- (AIIMS Nov 10J c) 6cm 8)8cm
a) Liver b) Spleen 953. Which of the following structure is not present in
c) Kidney d) Pancreas transpyloric plane? (PUNJAB 11J
941. All are sphincters oflower genitourinary tract of a) First lumbar vertebra b) Fundus of gall bladder
female except? (AIIMS Nov 10J c) Hilum of right kidney d) Inferior mesenteric vein
a) Pubovaginalis 954. Snbdiaphragmatic right posterior intra peritoneal
b) External urethral sphincter space is- (Jipmer 10)
c) Internal urethral sphincter a) Lesser sac
d) Bulbospongiosus b) Morrison's pouch
942. Upper limb weight is transmitted to axial skeleton c) Hepatorenal pouch
by all except- (AIIMS May llJ d) Superior part of supracolic compartment
a) Coracoacrornialligament 955. Posterior gastric artery is a branch of-
b) Claviculoclavicular [interclavicular] ligament a) Left gastric artery (Jipmer 11J
c) Costoclavicular ligament b) Right gastric artery
d) Acromioclavicular ligament c) Splenic artery
943. Sphincter of Oddi consists of- (AIIMS May 11J d) Hepatic artery
a) 2 sphincters b) 3 sphincters 956. Which of the following is false about portal vein?
c) 4 sphincters d) 5 sphincters a) Formed behind the neck of pancreas
944. Root of mesentery is crossed by- (AIIMS May 11J b) Bile duct lies anterior & rightto it (Jipmer 11)
a) Horizontal part of duodenum c) Gastroduodenal artery lies to the left & anterior
b) Left gonadal vessels to it
c) Left ureter d) Ascends behind the 2"d part of duodenum
d) Superior mesenteric artery
934) d,e 935) e 936) a,c 937) a,b,c,d 938)All 939) d 940) c 941) c 942) a 943) b 944) a 945) d 946)b 947)a
948)a 949)b 950) d 951) a 952) b 953) d 954) b 955) c 956) d
ANATOMY [ 1.45]
957. Duct of Bellini is seen in - (Jipmer 11) 969. Weakest support of uterus is-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Prostrate b) Kidney a) Uterosacral ligament b) Round ligament
c) Salivary gland d) Lungs c) Broad ligament d) Levator ani
958. Scarpa'sfasciaisattachedto- · (Jipmer 10) 970. Corpora amylacea is seen in-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Inguinal ligament b) Fascia lata of thigh a) Prostate b) Seminal vesicle
c) Conjoint tendon d) Pubic crest c) Thymus d) Testis
959. Brunner's glands are seen in which of the following? 971. Dermatomal supply of the perianal skin is -
a) Stomach (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Sl b) L2 (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Small intestine c) l3 d) S4
c) Large intestine 972. Anterior relations of the right kidney are all except-
d) Duodenum a) Liver (NEETIDNB Pattern)
960. From which of the following is the duodenum b) 4th part of duodenum
derived? (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Hepatic flexure
a) Foregut d) Adrenal gland
b) Midgut 973. Anterior end of the spleen is held up by -
c) Foregut and midgut a) Leinorenalligament (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Midgut and hindgut b) Phrenicocolic ligament
961. Where is the Cave of Retzius present ? c) Gastrosplenic ligament
a) Between urinary bladder and rectum d) Gastrocolic ligament
b) Between urinary bladder and cervix 974. Obturator artery is a branch of-
c) In front of the bladder (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Internal iliac artery (NEET/DNB Pattern)
d) Between the cervix and the rectum b) External iliac artery
962. Waldeyer's fascia lies - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Common iliac artery
a) In front of the bladder d) Vesical artery
b) Behind the rectum 975. Pancreas divisum indicates which of the following-
c) Between bladder and uterus a) Duplication of the pancreas (NEET/DNB Pattern)
d) Between uterus and rectum b) Failure of fusion of dorsal & ventral pancreatic
963. Spiral artery is a branch of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) buds
a) Uterine artery b) Arcuate artery c) Formation of more than two pancreatic buds
c) Vesical artery d) Ovarian artery d) Formation of only one pancreatic bud
964. Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch 976. Obstruction of inferior vena cava presents as-
of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Paraumbilical dilatation (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Hepatic artery b) Thoracoepigastric dilatation
b) Splenic artery c) Esophageal varices
c) Gastroduodenal artery d) Hemorrhoids
d) Inferior mesenteric artery 977. Accessory obturator artery is a branch of-
965. Bulbourethral glands open into which part of the a) Femoral artey (NEETIDNB Pattern)
urethra? (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Obturator artey
a) Membranous b) Spongy c) Profunda femoris
c) Prostatic d) Intramural d) Inferior epigastric artery
966. Portal vein is formed - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 978. Right ovarian artery is a branch of-
a) Behind the spleen a) Abdominal aorta (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Behind the tail of pancreas b) Right internal iliac
c) Behind the neck of pancreas c) Common iliac
d) Behind the second part of duodenum d) External iliac
967. Resting pressure in the anal canal is because of- 979. Blastocyst makes contact with endrometrium on -
a) External sphincter (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) < 3 days (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Internal sphincter b) 5 - 7 days
c) Anorectal ring c) 8 lldays
d) Conjoint longitudinal coat d) 15 -16 days
968. All of the following are supports of uterus except- 980. Minor duodenal papilla is opening of-
a) Pelvic diaphragm (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Hepatic duct (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Utero sacral ligament b) Hepatopancreatic ampulla
c) Tubo ovarian ligament c) Accessory pancreatic duct
d) Round ligament d) Bile duct
957)b 958)b 959)d 960)c 96l)c 962)b %3)b 964)c 965)b 966)c 967)b 968)c %9)c 970)a
97l)d 972)b 973)b 974)a 975)b 976)b 977)d 978)a 979)b 980)c
ANATOMY [ 1.46]
981. Sperm maturation takes place in - 991. Relation of renal vein with aorta is -
a) Vas deferens (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) anterior , above SMA (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Seminiferous tubules b) anterior, below SMA
c) Epididymis c) anterior, below IMA
d) Female genital tract d) posterior, below SMA
982. Structure immediately posterior to pancreatic head- 992. What best defines vasa vasorum -
a) Right renal vein (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Small blood vessels supplying walls of large
blood vessels (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Splenic artery
b) Small blood vessels supplying nerves
c) inferior mesenteric vein c) Vessels accompanying artery
d) Coeliac trunk d) Vessels accompanying nerves
983. If two buds of pancreas do not fuse, the anomaly is- 993. Spiral valve is seen in which- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Ectopic pancreas (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Neck of gall bladder b) Cystic duct
b) Pancreatic divisum c) Colon d) Pylorus
c) Annular pancreas 994. Which of these is a branch of inferior mesenteric
d) Accessory pancreas artery- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
984. Sperm chromosome faster is-(NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Left colic artery b) Right colic artery
a) X chromosome b) Y chromosome c) ileocolic artery d) Middle colic artery
c) Both same d) None 995. In patients with penile injury, Colle's fascia prevents
985. Cystic artery is usuamy a branch of which of the extravasation of urine in - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
following? (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Ischiorectal fossa b) Perineum
c) Abdomen d) None
a) Right gastric artery
996. Portal vein is formed by the union of-(NEETIDNB
b) Right hepatic artery a) Splenic and inferior mesentric veins Pattern)
c) Splenic artery b) Splenic and superior mesentric veins
d) Celiac artery c) Right and left hepatic veins
986. Most common congenital anomaly of the pancreas d) Hepatic and splenic veins
is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 997. Sinusoids are seen in all of the following except -
a) Pancreas divisum a) Liver b) Kidney (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Pancreatic cysts c) Lymph nodes d) Spleen
c) Ectopic pancreas 998. Portal systems found in - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Inversion of pancreatic ducts a) Liver b) Kidney
987. Which of these is present midway between the c) Lung d) Brain
ASIS and the pubic symphysis - 999. Somatic innervation to the pelvic organs is -
a) Deep inguinal ring (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Greater splanchnic nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Superficial ring b) Lesser splanchnic nerve
c) Pudendal nerve
c) Femoral artery
d) Ilioinguinal nerve
d) Intra epigastric artery
1000. Tone of the anal sphincter is maintained by?
988. Which of these is false about celiac trunk - a) Nervi erigentes (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) It is the vertical branch of aorta. b) Inferior hypogastric plexus
b) It has plexus around it c) Inferior rectal nerve
c) It has three terminal branches. d) Pelvic splanchnic nerves
d) It lies to the right of the caudate process 1001. Following are parts of the fallopian tube from uterus
989. False about portal vein- (NEETIDNB Pattern) to the ovary except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) first 5 em doesn't give any branches a) Ampulla b) Isthmus
b) It arises behind pancreatic head c) Infundibulum d) Fundus
c) It has constant length 1002. Nerve supply to the perineum is-
d) It is a part of the hepatic portal system. a) Pudendal nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
990. Which of these best describes the renal angle - b) Inferior rectal nerve
a) Angle between the lattissimus dorsi and the c) Pelvic splanchnic nerves
d) Hypogastric plexus
12th rib (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1003. Blood-testis barrier is formed by-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Angle between the erector spinae and the iliac a) Sertoli cells b) Leydig cells
crest c) Epididymis d) Vas deferens
c) Angle between the 12th rib and the erector spinae 1004. Branch of internal iliac artery-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Angle between the 12th rib and the rectus a) Ovarian artery b) Testicular artery
abdominis c) Superior vesicle d) None
98l)d 982)a 983)b 984)b 985)b 986)a 987)c 988)d 989)b 990)c 99l)b 992)a 993)b 994)a
995)a 996)b 997)b 998)a 999)c lOOO)c lOOl)d 1002)a 1003)a 1004)c
ANATOMY [ 1.47]
1005. Which of the following is related to third part 1019. Spleen extends from- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
of duodenum- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) 5th to 9th rib b) 9th to 1 Ph rib
a) Portal vein b) Head of pancreas c) 2ndto5thrib d) llthto 12thrib
c) Hepatic artery d) Superior mesenteric vein 1020. Lateral fornix is related to all except-
1006. Not seen in colon - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Ureter (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Taeniae b) Pyer's patches b) Uterine artery
c) Sacculations d) Appendices c) Inferior vesical artery
1007. Renal papilla opens into- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Transverse cervical ligament
a) Cortex b) Pyramid 1021. Nerve supplyofkidneyis from-(NEETIDNBPattern)
c) Minor calyx d) Major calyx a) Lumbar plexus b) Coeliac plexus
1008. Space of disse is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Inferior mesentric nerve d) None
a) Spleen b) Liver 1022. Portocaval (portosystemic) anastomosis is seen at
c) Lung d) Heart all except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1009. Appendicular artery is a branch of- (NEET/DNB a) Esophagus b)Liver
a) Iliocolic b) Rt colic Pattern) c) Rectum d) Duodenum
c) Inferior mesenteric d) Marginal artery 1023. Contents of broad ligaments are all except -
1010. Neurovascular plane in anterior abdominal a) Round ligament (NEETIDNB Pattern)
wall is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Fallopion tube
a) Between ext oblique and internal oblique c) Lymph nodes
b) Between int. oblique and transverses abdominis d) Ovaries
c) Below transversus abdominis 1024. All are branches of inferior mesentric artery
d) Above ext. oblique except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1011. Which nerve supplies celiac plexus - a) Left colic b) Sigmoidal artry
a) Phrenic N. (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 3ro Middle rectal d) Superior rectal
b) Greater splanchnic N. 1025. All are parts of vulva except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Iliohypogastric N. a) Labia minora b) Labia majora
d) Inguinal N. c) Perineal body d) Clitoris
1012. Right hepatic duct drains all segments except- 1026. Blood supply of upper part of vagia -
a) 5 b) 6 (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Middle rectal artery (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 7 d) 3 b) Internal pudendal artery
1013. Lymph from glans penis drains into- c) Cervicovaginal branch of uterine artery
a) Superficial inguinal nodes (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) Superior rectal artery
b) Deep inguinal lymph nodes 1027. Lymplatic drainage of testis -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Obturator nodes . a) Inguinal lymph nodes
d) Internal iliac nodes b) Obturator lymph nodes
1014. In bladder injury, pain is referred to all except- c) Paraaortic lymph nodes
a) Upper port of thigh (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Iliac lymph nodes
b) Lower abdominal wall 1028. Lymphatic drainage of stomach include all
c) Flank except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Penis a) Right gastroepiploic nodes
1015. Testicular lymphatics drain into- b) Pyloric nodes
a) Deep inguinal lymphnodes c) Pre aortic nodes
b) Internal iliac lymph nodes d) Coeliae nodes
c) Para aortic lymph nods (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1029. Orter of the following structures offollowing tube
d) Superficial inguinallymphnodes from lateral to medial -
1016. Nerve root of pudendal nerve is- a) Ampulla-Infundibulum-Isthmus-Interstitial
a) S1SzS3 b) SzS 3S4 (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Infundibulum-Ampulla-Isthmus-Interstitial
c) Isthmus-Infundibulum-Ampulla-Interstitial
c) S3-S4 d) Sz-S3
1017. Urogential diaphragm is formed by all except- d) Ampulla-Isthmus-Infundibulum-lpterstitial
a) Colles fascia (NEET/DNB Pattern)
1030. Lymphatic drainage of ovary-
b) Deep transverse perinei a) Deep inguinal b) Superficial inguinal
c) Obturator d) Paraaortic
c) Perineal membrane
d) Sphincter urethrae 1031. Bartholin glnad are related to vagina-
a) Lateral wall (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1018. Sphincter urethrae is persent in-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Posterior wall
a) Prostatic urethrae b) Spongy urethrae
c) Anterior wall
c) Membranous urethrae d) Penile urethrae
d) None
1005)d 1006)b 1007)c 1008)b 1009)a lOlO)b IOll)b 1012)d 1013)b l014)c 1015)c 1016)b 1017)a 1018)d
1019) b 1020) c 1021) b 1022) d 1023) d 1024) c 1025) c 1026) c 1027) c 1028) c 1029) b 1030) d 1031) a
ANATOMY [ 1.48]
1032. What lies between cystic duct and common hepatic 1044. The cervical oesphagus receive its blood supply
duct- (NEETIDNB Pattern) from the- (PGI 80, Delhi 84)
a) Lymph node b) Portal pein a) Superior thyroid artery b) Inferior thyroid artery
c) Hepatic artery d) Cystic artery c) Facial artery d) Lingual artery
1033. Superficial perineal space contains all except - e) Bronchial artery
a) Root of penis (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1045. Throat pain radiating to the ear following
b) Urethral artery tonsillectomyisdueto- (AIIMS 92)
c) Great vestibular glands (Bartholin glands) a) Persistent infection b) Injury to IX nerve
d) Membranous urethra c) Injury to X nerve d) Injury to eustachian tube
1046. Pain in post 1/3 tongue after tonsillectomy is due
HEAD&NECK toinjuryto- (MAHE 98)
a) VII nerve b) IX nerve
1034. The optic foramen is located between- (AJIMS 89) c) V nerve d) XII nerve
a) Greater wing and lesser wing of sphenoid 1047. Skin atangleofJawissupplied by- (A192, A193)
b) Greater wing and body of sphenoid a) Mandibular Nerve
c) Lesser wing and body of sphenoid b) maxillary Nerve
d) Lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoid c) Greater Auricular N
1035. All of the following statements regarding the d) Transverse cutaneous N of neck
oculomotor nerve are true except- (CUPGE 9 7) 1048. The most important muscles of expiration are-
a) It accommodates the eye a) Diaphragm (AIIMS 79, JIPMER 81)
b) It raises the upper evelid b) External intercostal
c) It innervates lateral rectus c) Internal intercostal
d) It constricts the pupil d) Abdominal wall muscles
1036. CilioretinalAis a branch of- (TN 2002) 1049. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except-(Kerala 94)
a) Anterior ciliary Artery a) Mydriasis b} Ptosis
b) Long posterior ciliary Artery c) Outward deviation of eye d) Miosis
c) Cerebral retinal Artery 1050. The oculomotor nerve supplies- (JIPMER 85)
d) Choroidal Artery a) Inf. oblique b) Levator palpabre
1037. Thelactimalductopenatthe- (PG/85) c) Medial rectus d) All
a) superior turbinate b) Middle meatus 1051. Subarachanoidspaceendsat- (Kerala 94)
c) Inferior meatus d) None of the above ~ S4 b)S2
1038. The weakest wall of the human orbit is-(Orissa 98) c) l2 d)L3
a) Roof b) Medial wall 1052. Mandibular nerve lesion at origin involves all
c) Floor d) Lateral wall except- {AIIMS 97)
1039. Sensory nerve supply of middle ear cavity is a) Buccinator b) Masseter
provided by- (AI 9 5) c) Tensor palati d) Tensor tympani
a) Facial b) Glossopharyngeal 1053. The factor/responsible for viscocity of synovial
c) Vagus d) Trigeminal fluid is/are- (AIIMS 80, UPSC 85)
1040. Narrowest part of middle ear- (PG/98) a) Chondritin sulfate b) Hyaluronic acid
a) Epitympanum b) Hypotympanum c) Heparin sulfate d) All of the above
c) Anterior tympanum d) Mesotympanum 1054. Carotid sheath contains all except- {PG/88)
1041. Inner ear is present in which bone- (PG/98) a) Cartoid artery b) Internal jugular vein
a) Occipital c) Vagus nerve d) Phrenic nerve
b) Petrous part of temporal bone 1055. Secretomotor fibres to the parotid is via- (PG/88)
c) Squamous part of temporal a) Auriculo-temporal nerve b) Facial nerve
d) Parietal bone c) Trigeminal nerve d) Maxillary nerve
1042. Recurrent laryngeal nerve is closely related to- 1056. Lesser superficial petrosal nerve supplies••••... gland-
a) Superior laryngeal artery (PG/89) a) Parotid (TN91)
b) Inferior thyroid artery b) Submandibular salivary
c) Middle thyroid vein c) Sublingual salivary
d) Superior thyroid artery d) Lacrimal
1043. Which of the following cartilage has signet ring 1057. The relation of facial nerve branches to parotid
shape- (TN 93) gland is- {All India 93)
a) Thyroid b) Cricoid a) Deep b) Superficial
c) Cuneiform d) Arytenoid c) In the Substance of parotid d) None
l032)a l033)d 1034)c l035)c 1036)d 1037)c 1038)b l039)b 1040)d 104l)b l042)b 1043)b 1044)b 1045)b
1046)b 1047)c 1048)d 1049)d 1050)d l05l)b l052)a 1053)b 1054)d 1055)a 1056)a 1057)c
ANATOMY [ 1.49]
1058. The pterion corresponds to the following except- 1070. The internal thoracic veins are tributaries of
a) Anterior pole of insula (Karnat 96) the- (PGI 81, DELHI 83)
b) Middle meningeal artery a) Azygos b) Subclavian
c) Transverse sinus c) Internal jugular d) Brachiocephalic
d) Lateral cerebral sulcus 1071. Isthmus ofthe thyroid gland is across tracheal rings-
1059. Cuspofcarabelliisseen- (TN99) a) 2"d to fourth b)3'd to fifth (AMC 81)
a) I molar upper b) II molar upper c) Sth and 6th d) 4th only
c) Illmolarupper d)Illmolarlower 1072. Internal laryngeal nerve supplies- (JIPMER 81,
1060. 'fi'eatment of choice for subgaleal hematoma- a) Cricothyroidmuscle DNB 90)
a) Incision and evaucation (AI 88)
b) Vocalis
b) Needle aspiration
c) Antibiotics and then drain c) Mucos membrane below vocal fold
d) Conservative d) None of the above
1061. Horner's syndrome is produced due to pressure on- 1073. Which of the following could result from a
a) Stellate ganglion (AI 95) destructive lesion of the left oculomotor nerve-
b) Spinal cord a) Loss ofleft pupillary constriction (PGI 81, 82)
c) Parasympathatic ganglion when light is shone in the left eye
d) Celiac ganglion b) Loss of left pupillary constriction when light is
1062. Inferior thyroid artery ligation in sub-total shone in the eye
thyroidectomy is done- (?GI 88) c) Pupillary dilation (mydriasis) in the left eye
a) As close to the thyroid b) As far as possible d) Paralysis ofthe ciliary muscle in the left eye
c) At its origin d) Anywhere e) None
1063. Which of the following are features of Horner's 1074. The Ansa cervicalis Innervates which muscle-
syndrome- (PGI 85) a) Mylohyoid b) Cricothyroid (AIIMS 82)
a) Ptosis b) Miosis c) Stylohoid d) Sternohyoid
c) Mydriasis d) Anhydrosis 1075. Which ofthe following statements regarding the
1064. Dangerousareaoffaceis- (PGI96) pharynx is/are correct- (PGI 82)
a) Above the line joining tragus to the nasal fold a) The opening of the auditory tube is located in
b) Area drained by angular facial vein the lateral wall of the nasopharynx
c) Spheno ethmoidal recess b) The soft palate is at the level of separation of
d) All of the above the nasopharynx and the oropharynx
1065. Chassaignae's tubercle is- (PGI 79, AIIMS 84) c) The pharynx is continuous with the esophagus
a) Below the level of crioid cartilage at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra
b) Above the level of cricoid cartilage d) The afferent limb of the gag reflex is cranial
c) At the same levels as cricoid cartilage nerve X; the efferent limb is cranial nerve IX
d) Present at C7 level 1076. The number of ossification centres for the hyoid
1066. Increased thickness of skull bones is seen in - bone is- (AMU 82)
a) Thalassemia (PGI 80, Al!MS 85, a) 3 b)4
b) Renal osteodystrophy DELHI 92) c) 5 d) 6
c) Osteomalacia 1077. Inthemediastinum- (PGI82, 85)
d) Sarcoidosis a) The left brachiocephalic vein passes anterior to
1067. Which of the following anatomic land-mark the brachiocephalic arter
would be usefull in defining the borders of the b) The ligamentum arteriosum inter-connects the
posterior triangle of the neck- (JIPMER 80 aortic arch and the left pulmonary vein
a) The superior border of the clavicle PGI 81) c) The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes under
b) The anterior border of the trapezius muscle the arch of the arota
c) The Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid d) The thoracic duct is found between the esophagus
muscle and the trachea
d) The posterior border of the anterior scalene muscle 1078. The occulomotor nerve supplies the muscle ofthe
1068. Veins communicating the cavernous sinus to eye except- (PGI 83)
pterygoid plexus pass through fossa of - (PGI 80, a) Lateral rectus b) Superior oblique
a) Scarpa b) Vesalius AMU 87) c) Superior rectus d) Inferior rectus
c) Ovale d) Langer 1079. The posterior 1/3 of the tongue is supplied
1069. Following foramina are found in greater wing of by........nerve- (AIIMS 84)
sphenoid, except- (AIIMS 81 Rohtak 88) a) Hypoglossal b) Chorda tympani
a) Rotundum b) Ovale c) Lingual d) Glossopharyngeal
c) Spinosum d) Optic canal
1058)c 1059)a 1060)d 1061)a 1062)b l063)a, b,d 1064)b 1065)c 1066)a 1067)a,b,c 1068)b,c 1069)d
1070)d l071)a 1072)d 1073)a,b,c,d 1074)d 1075)a,b,c 1076)d 1077)a,c 1078)a,b 1079)d
ANATOMY [ 1.50]
1080. Stapedius muscle is supplied by ...... nerve- 1092. Lymph from the tonsils drain into the- (JIPMER
a) Facial b) Vagus (PGI 84) a) Jugula omohyoid node 86, KERALA 87
c) Glossopharyngeal d) Trochlear b) Jugula digastric node AP 86, PGI 97, AI 06)
1081. Which laryngeal cartilage is above glottis-(PGI 84) c) Submental node
a) Artenoid b) Epiglottis d) Upper deep cervical node
c) Cricoid d) Thyroid 1093. Middle meningeal artery is a branch of-
1082. Premature closure offoramen ovale results is- a) Middle cerebral artery (UPSC 86, PGI 86,
a) Underdeveloped right atrium (DELHI 84) b) Maxillary artery DELHI 86)
b) Right ventricular hypertrophy c) Superficial temporal artery
c) Left ventricular hypertrophy d) Vertebral artery
d) Pulmonary stenosis 1094. The cranial nerve with the longest intracranial
e) No serious effect course- (UPSC 86, PGI 86,KERALA 87)
1083. What is not true for facial artery- (PGI 85) a) Optic b) Abducent
a) Main source of oxygenated blood to palatine tonsil c) Trigeminal d) Oculomotor
b) Is a branch of internal carotid artery e) Trochlear
c) Supplies branches to both upper and lower lips 1095. The largest ganglion in the neck is- (JIPMER 86)
d) Conveys postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibres a) Superior ganglion
to the submandibular gland b) Middle ganglion
1084. Internal carotid artery at the bifurcation from the c) Stellate ganglion
common carotid is- (PGI 85, AMC 86) d) Second thoracic ganglion
a) Lateral to the external carotid 1096. Stensens duct opens at the- (AP 86, UPSC 88,
b) Medial to external carotid a) Upper 3rd molar teeth KERALA88)
c) Post to external carotid b) Upper 1st molar teeth
d) Anterior to external carotid
c) Upper2ndmolarteeth
1085. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by- d) Upper pt premolar teeth
a) Occulomotor nerve (UPSC 85, AP 86,
1097. Cricothyroid is supplied by- (NJMHANS 86,
b) Trochlear nerve KERALA 88)
a) Recurrent laryngeal nerve Karnataka 89)
c) Abducent nerve
b) Internal laryngeal nerve
d) Trigeminal nerve
c) External laryngeal nerve
1086. No. of branches of the internal carotid artery in
d) Hypoglossal nerve
the neck is- (PGI 85 UPSC 85)
1098. The cavernous sinus communicates directly with
a) 1 b) 2
all, except- (AIIMS 86)
~3 ~4 ~~M
a) Inferior petrosal sinus
1087. Inferior oblique is supplied by the ....... cranial
b) Pterygoid venous plexus
nerve- (PGI 85)
a)3m b)4ili c) Veins in orbit
c) 5fu d) 6ili d) Sigmoid sinus and straight sinus
1088. Damage to the internal laryngeal nerve results in- 1099. Main arterial supply ofthe tonsil is from- (TN 87,
a) Hoarseness (PGI 85) a) Facial artery PGI 87, KERALA 87,90)
b) Loss of timbre of voice b) Ascending pharyngeal artery
c) Anaesthesia of the larynx c) Palatine artery
d) Breathing difficulty d) Maxillary artery
1089. Damage to the external laryngeal nerve result in - 1100. Main nerve supply of the palatine tonsils is -
a) Hoarseness (PGI 85) a) Lesser palatine nerve (TN 87)
b) Loss oftimbre of voice b) Greater palatine nerve
c) Anaesthesia of the larynx c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Breathing difficulty d) Facial nerve
1090. Foramen transversarium transmit- (AIIMS 85) 1101. Arcuate eminence of the petrous temporal bone
a) Inferior jugular vein is caused by (AIIMS 87)
b) Inferior petrosal sinus a) Superior semicircular canal
c) Sigmoid sinus b) Posterior semicircular canal
d) Vertebral artery c) Lateral semicircular canal
1091. The left subclavian artery is a branch of- d) Cochlea
a) Brachiocephalic trunk (ROHTAK 85) 1102. Root value ofphrenic nerve- (Kerala 88,
b) Ascending aorta a) c2c3c4 b) clc2c3 JIPMER86)
c) Arch of aorta c) c3c4c5 d) c4c5c6
d) Left common carotid e) c5c6c7
1080)a 1081)b 1082)b 1083)b 1084)a,c 1085)b 1086)e 1087)a 1088)c 1089)b 1090)d 109l)c 1092)b 1093)b
1094)e 1095)a 1096)c 1097)c 1098)d 1099)a llOO)c llOl)a 1102)c
ANATOMY [ 1.51]
1103. Middle thyroid vein drains into .•.•...vein- (PGI 88) 1115. lncissor foramen in the mouth is foramen of-
a) Externaljugular b)Anteriorjugular a) Scarpa b) Luschka (DNB 89)
c) Internal jugular d) Branchiocephalic c) Vesali d) Stylomatsoid
1104. Ophthlmic artery is the branch of...... part of 1116. The retina is an out growth of the- (DNB 89)
internal carotid artery- (PGI 88, PGI 93) a) Mesencephalon b) Diencephalon
a) Intracavernous b) Intrapetrous c) Telencephalon d) Pons
c) Intracerebral d) Extra cranila 1117. Retraction of the protruded mandible is done
1105. Structures passing through the foramen ovale- by- (JIPMER 90)
a) Emissary vein (PGI 88) a) Medial pterygoid b) Lateral pterygoid
b) Mandibular nerve c) Masseter d) Temporalis
c) Trigeminal nerve 1118. Excessive hemorrnage in tonsillectomy result
d) All from injury to- (AI 90)
1106. Which of the following regarding mandibular a) Asceding palatine artery
nerve is correct- (AI 89) b) Venous commitants offacial artery
a) Branch offacial nerve c) Palatine vein
b) Purely motor d) Internal carotid artery
c) Passes through foramen ovale 1119. Which structure passes through infra orbital
d) Related to sphenopalatine ganglion fissure - (TN 90)
1107. The actions of superior oblique muscle is-(PGI 89) a) Superior ophthalmic vein b) Ophthalmic artery
a) Abduction b) Intorsion c) Trochlear nerve d) Zygomatic nerve
c) Extorsion d) Depression 1120. Which vertebra has the most prominent spine-
1108. Where is cilliry ganglion located in the orbit- a) C2 b)C7
a) Between optic nerve and lateral rectus (PGI 89) c) TlO d)L2
b) Apex of orbit 1121. Artery palpable at the anterior border of masseter
c) Apex of orbit and superior rectus is ••...... artery- (TN 90)
d) Apex of orbit between optic nerve and lateral
a) Superficial temporal b) Facial
rectus
c) Lingual d) Maxillary
1109. The facial nerve- (KARNAT 89)
1122. Which is true regarding parotid gland- (AI 90)
a) Arises from the medulla oblongata
a) Stensons and whartons duct join and open at the
b) Transverses through parotid gland
upper second molar teeth
c) Supplies muscles of mastication
b) Stensons duct opens opposite upper second molar
d) Carrier no taste fibres
c) Parotid duct pierces the masseter
1110. Structures passing through the foramen magnum
d) Developed from mesoderm
~- ~m~
a) Spinal cord b) Vertebral artery 1123. Which is true of tonsils- (AI 90)
c) Internaljugular vein d) XI cranial nerve a) Lies on inferior constrictor
1111. The oesophgus commences at the following level- b) Developed from 4th branchial cleft
a) Lower end of cricoid (AP 89) c) Drained by jugulo digastric lymphonodes
b) c5 vertebra d) Crypts lined by stratified columnar epithelium
c) 1Ocm from incisor teeth 1124. Parasympathetic division innervates- (AP 90)
d) C7 a) Dilator pupillae b) Errector pilorum
1112. Regarding palatine tonsil, which of the following c) Muller's muscle d) Detrusor muscle
is an incorrect statement- (PGI 89) 1125. Which is true about pharyngotympanic tube-
a) Lies on the superior constrictor a) It opens into Oropharynx (AI91)
b) Lymph form it drains into the deep the cervical b) Supplied by Gossopharyngeal N.
nodes c) Lined by stratified squamous epithelium
c) Has sensory innervation from vagus d) It is cartilagenous throughout its length
d) Is a derivative of the second pharynageal pouch 1126. Which istrneaboutopeningofjaw- (AI91)
1113. Posterior boundary of carotid triangle is -(DNB 89) a) Lateral pterygoid muscle contracts
a) Sup. Belly of amohyoid b) Post Belly ofdigastric b) Movement in vertical axis
c) Sternohyoid d) Sternocleidomastoid c) Articular disc moves backwards
1114. The only pharyngeal musele innervated by the d) Head of the mandible moves forwards
glosspharyngeal nerve is the- (NIMHANS 89, 1127. Nerve supply of the mucosa oflarynx is-
a) Stylo pharyngeus Kerala 94) a) Externallaryngal and recurrent larynageal
b) Palato pharyngeus b) Internal laryngeal (Kerala 91)
c) Superior constricter c) External laryngeal
d) Middle constricter d) Superior laryngeal
1103)c 1104)c 1105)a,b 1106)c 1107)a,b,d 1108)d 1109)b lllO)b,d llll)a 1112)c 1113)d l114)a
1115)a 1116)b 1117)c,d lll8)b,c 1119)d 1120)b 112l)b 1122)b 1123)c 1124)d 1125)b 1126)a 1127)b
ANATOMY [ 1.52)
1128. Posterior chamber of the eye refer to the 1143. Lamina cribrosa is a modification of- (DELHI 92)
space- (JIPMER 91) a) Sclera b) Choroid
a) Posterior to lens b) Posterior to cornea c) Optic nerve sheath d) Retina
c) Posterior to iris d) None 1144. Choroid fissure of the eye permits the entry of-
1129. Sphenopalatine ganglion does not supply -(JIPMER a) Choroid plexus (DNB 92)
a) Nasal mucosa b) Sublingual gland 91) b) Ciliary arteries
c) Ciliary ganglion d) Palate c) Central artery of the retina
1130. Taste sensation from the anterior 2/3 oftongue is d) Hyaloid artery
carried by- (AIIMS 91) 1145. Which of the following statements regarding
a) Hypoglossal Nerve b) Chorda tympani middle constrictor muscle is wrong- (TN 92)
c) Glossopharyngeal N. d) All ofthe above a) Lies on the superior constricter
1131. The tipofthenoseissuppliedby- (AIIMS91) b) Lymph from it drains into deep cervical lymph nodes
a) Maxillary N. b) Mandibular N. c) Has sensoryinnervation form vagus
c) OphthalmicN. d)FacialN. d) Is a derivative of the second pharyngeal arch
1132. Circulus iridis major is situated in- (AIIMS 91) 1146. Anterior Spinal artery is a branch of- (PGI 93)
a) Pupillary border of iris b) Greater collarette a) Internal Carotid artery b) Basilar artery
c) Ciliary body d) Root of iris c) Vertebral artery d) Labyrinthine artery
1133. General sensation to the posterior one-third of 1147. Theveinofgalendrainsinto- (AI 93)
the tongue is mediated by the- (AP 91) a) NC b) Straight Sinus
a) Hypoglossal nerve b) Vagus nerve c) Superior sagittal sinus d)SVC
c) Glossorpharyngeal nerve d) Lingual nerve 1148. The nerve supplying submandibular gland is-
1134. The following are contents of the interpeduncular a) V b)IX
fossa except- (AP 90) c) VII d)XII
a) Trochlear nerve b) Oculomotor nerve 1149. Prevertebral fascia is posterior to all except-
c) Mamillary bodies d) Tuber cinereum a) Carotid b)Esophagus
1135. Toynbee's muscle is- (AP 91) c) Scalenous anterior d) None (JIPMER 93)
a) Stapedius b) Tensor tympani 1150. Root of tooth contain all the following except-
c) Scalenus minimus d) Levator ani a) Cementum b) Enamel (PGI94, 93)
1136. Skull consists of. ....bones- (TN 91) c) Detine d) Pulp chamber
a) 20 b)22 1151. Adultlarynx extends from cervical spine- (A/93,
c) 24 d)28 a) C3 toC6 b)C7 T 1 AIIMS79, 82)
1137. Which is not a content of tympanic cavity- c) C3C4 d)C2C2
a) Maleus b) Chorda tympani (AI 92) 1152. True about 4th ventricle is- (DELHI 93)
c) Stapedius d) Post. auricular N a) Rhomboid fossa forms floor
1138. Which is not supplied by Hypoglossal Nerve- b) Choroid plexus lies at its floor
a) Geniohyoid b) Thyrohyoid (AI 92) c) Connectio between two cerebral hemishperes
c) Styloglosssus d) Stylopharyngeus d) Lies inferior to inferior cerebellar peduncle
1139. Seventh, Ninth and Tenth cranial nerves end in- 1153. Structure passing through foramen spinosum is-
a) Nucleus Tractus Solitarius (JIPMER 92) a) Accessory meningeal artery (Kerala 94)
b) Nucleus Ambiguous b) Middle meningeal artery
c) Dorsal Nucleus ofvegus c) Mandibular nerve
d) Long tract ofV nerve d) Maxillary nerve
1140. Cough Receptors are not seen in- (AIIMS 92) 1154. Para sympathetic supply to parotid gand is from-
a) Soft palate b) Ear a) Spheno palatine ganglion (Kerala 94)
c) Bronchi d) Trachea b) Ciliary ganglion submandibula ganglion
1141. Inferior and lateral movement is produced by c) Otic ganglion
whichextraocularmuscle- (AIIMS 92) d) None
a) Inferior Rectus b) Superior Rectus 1155. Which among the following does not pass through
c) Superior oblique d) Inferior oblique superior orbital fissure- (AIIMS 94)
1142. The smallest cranial nerve is the- (NIMHANS 92) a) Oculomotor nerve
a) Olfactory b)Oculomotor b) Optic
c) Trochlear d) Accessry c) Ophthalmic division of trigeminal
d) Trochlear
ll28)c 1129)b,c 1130)b 113l)c 1132)d 1133)c 1134)a 1135)b 1136)d 1137)d 1138)d 1139)a 1140)a
114l)c 1142)a 1143)a 1144)d 1145)d 1146)c 1147)b 1148)c 1149)c 1150)b 1151)a 1152)a 1153)b 1154)c
1155)b
ANATOMY [ 1.53]
1156. AJI the muscles of the face are supplied by facial 1168. Palsy ef right genioglossus causes - (UP 96)
nerve except- (JIPMER 95) a) Deviation of tongue to right
a) Levator anguli oris b) Deviation of tongue to left
b) Corrugator supercilli c) Deviation of soft palate to right
c) Levator palperae superioris d) Deviation of soft palate to left
d) Risorius 1169. Which is not a feature of occulamotor nerve palsy-
1157. Tipoftonguedrainsinto- (JIPMER95) a) Miosis (UP 96)
a) Occipital lymph node b) Dificulty in accomodation
b) Submental lymph node c) Superior gaze palsys
c) Deep cervical lymph nodes d) Diplopia
d) Tonsillar lymph nodes 1170. Waldeyers lymphatic chain is formed by all except-
1158. Cranio facial angle is- (JIPMER 95) a) Palatine tonsils (Kerala 96)
a) 1100 b) 1200 b) Pharyngeal tonsils
c) 1300 d) 140° c) Tubal tonsils
1159. Which of the following structures is inferior to d) Post auricular nodes
sphenopetrosal Synchondrosis- (JIPMER 95) 1171. Which one of the following is a branch of the Facial
a) Abducens nerve nerve- (Karnat 96)
b) Osseous part of auditory tube a) Deep petrosal nerve
c) Cartilaginous part of auditory tube b) Lesser superficial petrosal nerve
d) Petro squamous sinus c) External petrosal nerve
1160. AU are true about vocal ligament except- d) Greater superficial petrosal nerve
a) It is medial to vocalis (JIPMER 95) 1172. Depressor's of Mandible- (AP 96)
b) It is discontinous with crico thyroid membrane a) Median pterygoid b) Masseter
c) It is lined by stratitied squamous c) Lateral pterygoid d) Temporalis
d) It is fibro elastic tissue 1173. Nerve of pterygoid canal is- (PGI 96)
1161. Parathyroid glands are supplid by which a) Sympathetic + Lesser pertrosal nerve
artery- (Kerala 95) b) Sympathetic + greater superficial petrosal nerve
a) Common carotid b) Superior throid c) Chorda Tympani
c) Middle thyroid d) Inferior thyroid d) Jacobson's nerve
1162. All ofthe following structures are in lateral wall of 1174. 'I)>mpanic plexus is formed by- (PGI 96)
cavernous sinus except- (Kerala 9 5) a) Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
a) Occulomotor b) Trochlear b) Vagus nerve
c) Trigeminal d) Ophthamlmic c) Facial nerve
1163. All of the following structures are related to d) Mandibular nerve
cavenoussinus except- (Assam 95) 1175. Which is a direct content of cavernous sinus-
a) Optic nerve a) Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve
b) 4th nerve b) Trochlear nerve (Kerala 97)
c) 6th nerve c) Abducent nerve
d) Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve d) Occulomotor nerve
1164. Trigeminalnervedoesnotsupply- (AMU95) 1176. Superior malleolar ligament connects -
a) Masseter a) Malleus to incus (JIPMER 98)
b) Buccinator b) Head of malleus to roof of epitympanum
c) Anterior belly of digastric c) Incus to fossa uncudis
d) Any of the above d) Malleus to fossa uncudis
1165. Which nerve passes through Meckel's cave- 1177. Tympanic plexus presentin- (JIPMER 98)
a) Abducens b) Facial (AMU95) a) Tunica adventitia of internal jugular vein
c) Trigeminal d) Trochlear b) Medial projection of middle ear cavity
1166. Alderman's nerve is a branch of- (PGI 95) c) Part of tympanic membrane
a) Superior cervical ganglion d) Petrous part of temporal bone
b) Inferior cervical ganglion 1178. The secetomotor fibre to the parotid gland passes
c) Auricular branch of vagus nerve through- (TN 98)
d) None a) Otic ganglion
1167. Cranial accessory nerve supplies- (AI 96) b) Sphenopalatine ganglion
a) Sternomastoid b) Trapezius c) Geniculate ganglion
c) Splenius capitis d) Soft palate d) Lesser ganglion
1156)c 1157)b 1158)c 1159)c 1160)b 116l)b,d 1162)c 1163)a 1164)b 1165)c 1166)c 1167)d 1168)a
1169)a 1170)d 117l)d 1172)c 1173)b 1174)a 1175)c 1176)b 1177)b,d 1178)a
ANATOMY [ 1.54]
1179. Safetymuscleofthetongueis- (TN98) 1192. Skin over the angle of mandible and parotid area
a) Hyoglossus b) Genioglossus issuppliedby- (JIPMER 2001)
c) Palatoglossus d) Styloglossus a) Greater auricular nerve
1180. Superior cerebral veins drain into- (AI 98) b) Posterior auricular nerve
a) Great cerbral vein b) Vein of galen c) Auriculotemporal nerve
c) Superior sagittal sinus d) Inferior sagittal sinus d) Facial nerve
1181. FaciaiN.supplyallexceet- (MP 98) 'it93. Psuedounipolar neurons are seen in- (J&K 2001)
a) Lacrimal gland b) Nasal gland l! a) Olfactory
c) Submandibular gland d) Parotid gland b) Celiac ganglion
1182. Subcutaneous muscle extending from the clavicle c) Spinal dorsal root ganglion
to the mandible- (KERALA 98) d) Cochlea
a) Platysma b) Sternocledomastoid 1194. Which of the cranial nerve decussate within the
c) Omohyoid d) Sternohyoid rain- (NINHANS 01)
1183. 'Chassaignac's tubercle' is- (PGI 98) a) Trochlear b) Optic
a) Erb's point c) Oculomotor d) Trigeminal / ··
b) Carotid tubercle on C6 vertebra 1195. Sensory nerve supply of pinna is- (HPW 2001)
c) Found on first rib a) Mandibular nerve b) Maxillary nerve
d) Medial condyle ofhumerus c) Facial nerve d) Abducent ,fierve
1184. Muscles oftongue are supplied by- (AP 98) 1196. Posterior fontanelles are ossified atthe age of-
a) Lingual nerve a) 6 months b) 2 yrs (HPU 2001)
b) Glossopharyngeal nerve c) 3yrs d)4yrs
c) Chorda tymapni 1197. Trigeminal nerve has how many nuclei in CNS-
d) Hypoglossal a) Three b) Four (JIPMER 02)
1185. Cranial part Accessory nerve supplies all palatal c) Five d)Six
muscles except- (Orrissa 98) 1198. Portal circulation is seen in which of the following
a) Palato glossus b) Palato pharyngeus endocrinegland- (JIPMER 2002)
c) Tensor veli palati d) Levator palati a) Pineal gland b) Hypophysis cerebri
1186. Branches of subclavian artery are all except- c) Pancreas d) Ovary
a) Vertebral artery (AI 99) 1199. Lacrimal gland is supplied which ofthe following
b) Thyrocervical trunk ganglia- (JIPMER 2002)
c) Internal thoracic artery a) Otic ganglia b) Ciliary ganglion
d) Subscapular artery c) Spenopalatine ganglion d) Submandibualr
1187. Nasolacrimalductisdirected- (AI 99) 1200. The following ligaments are present in
a) Downward, medially, backwards temporomandibularjoint,except- (TN 2002)
b) Downward, laterally, backwards a) Lateral temporomandibular ligament
c) Downward, laterally, forward b) Sphenomandibular ligament
d) Downward, medially, forward c) Stylomandibular ligament
1188. Transverse ligament of atlas is part of- d) Alar ligament
a) Cruciate ligament (CUPGEE 99) 1201. The roof of the olfactory region is formed by -(IN 02)
b) Ligament flora a) Nasal bone b) Cribriform plate of ethmoid
c) Anterior longitudinal ligament c) Sphenoid d) Temporal bone
d) Posterior longitudinal ligament 1202. Ipsilateral deviation oftongue is due to unaltered
1189. Which nerve is in close relation with root of the action of- (PGI 97)
lower third molar- (Karnat 99) a) Genioglossus b) Medial pterygoid
a) Inferior alveolar nerve b) Chorda tymapani nerve c) Hyoglossus d) Lateral pterygoid
c) Lingual nerve d) Myolohyoid nerve 1203. Dorello's canal transmits in tip of temporal bone
1190. Middle cranial fossa is supplied by- (MP 2K) to en route to cavernous sinus- (PGI 99)
a) Maxillary nerve a) Middle meningeal artery
b) Mandibular nerve b) Mandibular nerve
c) Anterior ethmoidal nerve c) Superior alveolar branch of maxillary
d) Posterior ethmoidal nerve d) Abducent nerve
1191. A person has inability to look downward and 1204. First branch offocial nerve is- (PGI 99)
laterally. The nerve injured is- (MAHE 2001) a) Chorda tympani
a) Occulomotor b) Trochlear b) Nerve to stapedius
c) Abducent d) Trigeminal c) Lesser superficial petrosal N
d) Greater superficial petrosal N
l179)b 1180)c 118l)d 1182)a 1183)b 1184)d 1185)c 1186)d 1187)b 1188)a 1189)c 1190)a,b 119l)b
1192)a 1193)c 1194)a 1195)a,c 1196)a 1197)b 1198)b 1199)c 1200)d 1201)b 1202)a 1203)d 1204)d
ANATOMY [ 1.55]
1205. Branchial Sinus passes between- (PGI 2000) 1215. Nasal Septum is formed by- (PGI 03)
a) Two carotids b) IN & Carotid a) Leteral certilage
c) Superficial to ECA d) Post. mediastinum b) Crest of maxilla
1206. Following are the T.M. Joint ligaments except- c) Septal cartilage
a) Stylomandibular (PGI 2000) d) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
b) Temporomandibular e) Nasal bone
c) Tympanomandibular 1216. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of- (PGI 03
d) Sphenomandibular a) Thyrocervical trunk AMC 86, Delhi 86)
1207. Superior rectus is suppled by which cranial nerve-
b) Common Carotid artery
a) Superior division of 3rd nerve (PGI 2000)
c) Subclavian artery
b) Inferior di v. or 3rd nerve
d) Axillary artery
c) Abducent nerve
d) Trochlear nerve e) Costocervical trunk
1208. Anotomic site of origin of stridor is - (PGI 2000) 1217. True about tonsils are- (PGI 03)
a) Larynx b) Bronchus a) Develops from 4th pharyngeal arch
c) Bronchiole d) Trachea b) Lymph nodes drains to jugulodiagastic node
1209. Structures passing through superior orbital c) It is endodermal derivative
fissure - (PGI OJ) d) Rest on superior constrictor of the pharynx
a) Oculomotor nerve b) Trochlear nerve e) Long axis of tonsil is forwards and medially
c) Lacrimal nerve d) Nasociliary nerve 1218. The mastoid antrum is related to the following
e) Abducent nerve nuclei in the thalamus- (UPSC 02)
1210. Which of the following statements is true a) Facial nerve in the facial canal
regarding the pituitary gland- (PGI OJ) b) Posterior semi-circular canal
a) It is separated from the optic chiasma by the sells c) Cochlea
turcica d) Cerebrum (temporal lobe)
b) It is situated deep in the sella 1219. How many lymph nodes are there in cervical group-
c) The spenoidal air cells lie inferior to it a) 100 b)200 (Kerala 03)
d) It develops from the base of the 3rdventricle from c) 300 d)400
the pars anterior 1220. Thyroglossal cyst moves with deglutition because-
e) It is supplied by a branch of the internal carotid a) It is attached to foramen caecum (TN 03)
artery b) Attached to trachea
1211. The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies- (PGI OJ) c) Attached to larynx
a) Vocalis muscle b) Posterior cricoarytenoid d) Attached to hyoid bone
c) Cricothyroid d) Stylopharyngeus 1221. All of the following are grouped together as
e) Omohyoid 11
muscles of mastication 11 except- (AI 03)
1212. Which of the following are draining channels of a) Buccinator b) Masseter
cavernous sinus- (PGI 02) c) Temporalis d) Pterygoids
a) Inferior petrosal sinus 1222. Function of stria vascularis- ( Orrisa 04)
b) Inferior opthalmic vein a) Maintain ionic cone. of endolymph
c) Sphenoparietal sinus b) Secretion of perilymph
d) Middle cerebral vein c) Absorption of perilymph
e) Superior ophthalmic vein d) Variation of basilar membrane
1213. Recurrent laryngeal nerve has following course 1223. Muscle not arising from oblique line of
in neck- (PGI 02) thyroid- (Manipal 04)
a) It passes anterior to inferior thyroid A a) Thyrohyoid b) Cricothyroid
b) It passes through sternomastoid c) Cricoarytenoid d) None
c) It passes between branches of inferior thyroid 1224. Internal carotid nerve is a branch of- (Manipal 04)
vessels a) Celiac ganglion
d) It passes posterior to inferior thyroid vessels b) Internal sympathetic chain
e) It is superficial to inferior constrictor muscle c) Vagus nerve
1214. Structure that passes through the internal d) None
auditory canal- (PGI 03) 1225. Sphenopalatine ganglion is formed by -(Jipmer 04)
a) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery a) Deep petosal nerve
b) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery b) Superficial petrosal-greater
c) Nerve ofWrisberg c) Superficial petrosal-lesser
d) Superior vestibular nerve d) Nerve ofplerygoid canal
e) Cochlear nerve
1205)a 1206)c 1207)a 1208)a,b,d 1209)All 1210)b,c,e 1211)a,b 1212)a,e 1213)a,c,d 1214)c,d,e 1215)b,c,d,e
1216)a 1217)b,c,d 1218)c 1219)a 1220)d 122l)a 1222)None 1223)b,c 1224)b 1225)b
ANATOMY [ 1.56]
1226. Glossopharyngeal nerve gives- (Jipmer 04) 1240. Tensor tympani is supplied by- (SGPGI 05, PGI 97)
a) Tympanic nerve b) Pharyngeal plexus a) Maxillary branch of 5th nerve
c) Tonsillar branches d) All of the above b) Mandibular branch of 5th nerve
1227. Which of the following is not supplied by c) Facial nerve
ansacervicalis- (Jipmer 04, J & K 2k) d) Lingual nerve
a) Sternothyroid b) Thyrohyoid 1241. Most important muscle which opens mouth
c) Sternohyoid d) Omohyoid is - (SGPGI 05, MP 2K)
1228. Which is not found on the lateral wall of the a) Lateral pterygoid b) Medical pterygoid
nose- (Bihar 03) c) Masseter d)Temporalis
a) Infundibulum b) Superior concha 1242. All of the following arise from apex of orbit
c) Lamina pappeoyces d) Bulla ethmoidalis except- (SGPG/05)
1229. Vertebra prominence is- (Bihar 03) a) Superior oblique b) Inferior rectus
~ C2 b)C7 c) Superior rectus d) Medical rectus
c) T9 d)Tll 1243. Which one of the following is correct regarding
1230. The following are supplied by XII cranial nerve superior thyroid artery- (SGPGI 05)
except- (Bihar 03) a) Arises from facial artery
a) Palatoglossus b) Genioglossus b) Arises from external carotid artery
c) Hypoglosus d) None c) No relation to external laryngeal nerve
1231. All are supplied by cervical plexns except -(Kerala 04) d) Posterior branch supplies isthymus
a) Mylohyoid b) Geniohyoid 1244. Following muscles are supplied by facial nerve
c) Scalenus medius d) Capitis longus except- (SGPG/05)
1232. A patient presented with normal eyesight and a) Stapedius
absence of direct and consensual light reflexes. b) Masseter
Which of the following cranial nerves is suspected c) Anterior belly of diagastric
to be lesioned- (AIIMS 04) d) Occipitofrontalis
a) Occulomotor b) Trouchlear 1245. Which of the following passes between base ofthe
c) Optic d) Abducent skull & superior constricter muscle- (SGPGI 05
1233. All are elevators oflarynx except- (APPGE 04) a) Eustachian tube, levator palatine muscle,
a) Thyrohyoid b) Diagastric ascending palatine artery AIIMS 84)
c) Stylohyoid d) Sternohyoid b) Maxillery nerve & levator palatine muscle
1234. All are supplied by chorda tympani except- c) Eustachian tube & stylopharyngeous muscle
a) Anterior 2/3'd of tongue (APPGE 04) d) Ascending palatine artery & Glassopharyngeal
b) Posterior 113rd of tongue nerve
c) Muscles of facial expression 1246. Abducens supplies- (SGPGI 05)
d) Secretomotor fibres to submandibular gland a) Medical rectus b) Lateral rectus
1235. Posterior belly of digastric is supplied by- c) Inferior oblique d) Superior oblique
a) Facial nerve (Karnataka 04, Assam 95) 1247. Which of these is not a tributary of cavernous sinus-
b) Mandibular nerve a) Sphenoparietal sinus (MAHE 05)
c) Spinal accessory nerve b) Superior petrosal sinus
d) Ansa cervicalis c) Superficial middle cerebral vein
1236. Supraorbital and Supratrochlear arteries are d) Inferior ophthalmic vein
branches of which ofthe following- (SGPGI 04) 1248. The following muscle is an opener ofthe glottis-
a) Ophthalmic artery b) Maxillary artery a) Lateral cricoarytenoid (Jipmer 05)
c) ECA d)ICA b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
1237. Ascending pharyngeal artery is a branch of- c) Transverse arytenoid
a) Arch of aorta (TN 04) d) Inter arytenoids
b) Inferior thyroid artery 1249. A patient complains of persistent numbness of the
c) Superior thyroid artery chain, lower lip, and lower teeth. She further
d) Ext. carotid artery
indicates that she has difficulty chewing.
1238. Chassaignac's tubercule lies at level of -(Bihar 03)
Radiographic studies of the head demonstrate a small
a) Erb's point b) Stellate ganglion
discrete mass in the infratemporal fossa. Which
c) Atlas d) Odontoid process
nerve has been compromised by the mass-
1239. Foramenofmonoroconnects- (SGPG/05)
a) Buccal nerve (Jipmer 05)
a) Lateral ventricle to the third ventricle
b) Lingual nerve
b) Both lateral ventricles
c) Auriculotemporal nerve
c) 3rd to the 4th ventricle
d) Inferior alveolar nerve
d) Lateral to the 4th ventricle
1226)d l227)b 1228)c 1229)b 1230)a 123l)a 1232)a 1233)d 1234)b,c1235)a 1236)a 1237)d 1238)a 1239)a
1240)b 1241)a 1242)a 1243)b 1244)b 1245)a 1246)b 1247)b 1248)b 1249)d
ANATOMY [ 1.57]
1250. Structure's which pass through the superior orbital 1260. All of the following statements about the vagus nerve
fissure is all except- (Jipmer 05) are true exceptthat it- (AIIMS NOV 05)
a) Lacrimal nerve b) Superior ophthalmic vein a) Supplies heart & lung
c) Central retinal artery d) Optic nerve b) Carries postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
1251. Cranial nerve related to apex ofthe petrous temporal c) Innervates right two third of transverse colon
bone- (PGIJune05) d) Stimulates peristalsis & relaxes sphincters
a) Vill b)VII 1261. All of the following are branches of the external
c) VI d)V carotid artery except- (AI 05)
e) IX a) Superior thyroid artery
1252. Which ofthe following structures passes through b) Anterior Ethmoidal artery
sinus ofmorgagni- (PGI June 05) c) Occipital artery
a) Ascending palatine artery d) Posterior auricular artery
b) Levator palatine muscle 1262. Paralysis of 3"1, 41h, 6th nerves with involvement of
c) Auditory tube ophthalmic division of5th nerve, localizes the lesion to-
d) Pterygoid nerve a) Cavernous sinus b)Apexoforbit(A/05)
e) Sphenopalatine nerve c) Brainstem d) Base of skull
1253. Structures passing through superior orbital 1263. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by -(AI 05)
fissure- (PGIJune05,JIPMER05) a) 3ro cranial nerve. b) 4th cranial nerve.
a) Cranial nerve VI b) Cranial nerve I c) 5'h cranial nerve. d) 6th cranial nerve.
c) Cranial nerve II d) Ophthalmic nerve 1264. The following statements concerning chorda
e) Lacrimal nerve tympani nerve are true except that it- (AI 05)
1254. Arterial supply of facial nerve- (PGI June 05) a) Carries secretomotor fibers to submandibular gland
a) Ascending palatine artery b) Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa
b) Ascending pharyngeal artery c) Is a brach of facial nerve
c) Lingular artery d) Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
d) Facial artery 1265. Sensory fibres from the taste buds in the hard and
1255. Regarding the flow of Cerebrospinal fluid, which soft palate travel along- (AIIMS May 05)
one of the following sequences is correct- (ICS 05) a) Trigeminal nerve b) Facial nerve
a) Lateral ventricle - third ventricle - aqueduct of c) Glossopharynegeal nerve d) Vagus nerve
Sylvius - fourth ventricle 1266. The palatine tonsil receives its arterial supply from
b) Fourth ventricle - third ventricle - aqueduct of all of the following except- (AIIMS May 05)
Sylvius -lateral ventricle a) Facial b) Ascending palatine
c) Lateral ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius - lateral c) Sphenopalatine d) Dorsallingual
ventricle - fourth ventricle 1267. Which of the following is not a sign of stellate
d) Lateral ventricle third ventricle fourth ventricle ganglion block- (AI 06)
- aqueduct of Sylvius. a) Meiosis b) Exophthalmos
1256. The perilymph, present in the scala vestibule and c) Nasal congestion d) Conjunctival redness
scala tympani, drains into the CSF through the- 1268. True statements about parotid gland- (PGIJune 06)
a) Aqueduct of cochlea (J & K 05) a) Duct opens oppsite to upper 2nd molar tooth
b) Aqueduct of vestibule b) Duct pierces Masseter
c) Ductus reunions c) Develops from ectoderm
d) Cochlear duct d) Secretomotor fibres come from facial nerve
1257. Superficial incision on posterior triangle of neck 1269. ill cranial nerve supplies- (PGI June 06)
leads to- (MAHA 05, AIIMS 98) a) Superior oblique b) Inferior oblique
a) Difficulty in shrugging of shoulder c) Medial rectus d) Superior rectus
b) Difficulty in start of abduction e) Lateral rectus
c) Difficulty in rotation of face towards the same side 1270. Isthmus of thyroid gland lies against following
d) Difficulty in flexion
tracheal rings - (PGI June 06, PGI 99)
1258. Which of the following transmits a nerve branch to a) 2-4 b)2-3
themeninges- (MAHA 05) c)2-5 d)l-3
a) Foramen spinosum b) Mastoid foramen
e) 3-5
c) Jugular foramen d) Foramen magnum
1271. The following are branches of internal carotid artery
1259. The vertebral artery traverses all ofthe following
except- (COMED-06, SGPGI 05)
except- (AIIMSNOV05)
a) Anterior cerebral artery
a) Foramenmagnum
b) Posterior cerebral artery
b) Subarachnoid space
c) Ophthalmic artery
c) Intervertebral foramen
d) Middle cerebral artery
d) Foramen transversarium
1250)c,d 1251)c,d 1252) a,b,c 1253)a,e 1254)b 1255)a 1256)a 1257)a 1258)a 1259)c 1260)b 1261)b
1262)a 1263)b 1264)d 1265)b 1266)c 1267)b 1268)a,c 1269)b,c,d 1270)b 1271)b
ANATOMY [ 1.58]
1272. All of the following muscles are supplied pharyngeal 1284. Common carotid artery divides at the level of-
plexus except- (APPG 2006) a) Hyoid bone (Aiirns May 07, PGI 88)
a) Palatoglossus b) Salpingopharyngeus b) Cricoid cartilage
c) Stylopharyngeus d) Cricopharyngeus c) Superior border Of thyroid cartilage
1273. Structure passing through anterior part of jugular d) Inferior border of thyroid cartilage
foramen- (PGMCET 07) 1285. All are in Norma Basilaris except- (MAHE 07)
a) Infpetrosal sinus b)Internaljugularvein a) MentalForamen b)ForamenMagnum
c) Internal jugular vein d) X, XI nerve c) Foramen Ovale d) Foramen Lacerum
1274. Superior orbital fissure synd. includes-(PGMCET07) 1286. All are features of unilateral 3rd Cranial nerve
a) 3,4,5,6cranialnr b)3,2,4,5cranialnr nuclear injury except- (not sure of options)
c) 2, 6, 3 cranial nr d) 2, 5, 6 cranial nerves a) B/L Ptosis (MAHE 07)
1275. Angle of mandible is supplied by- (PGMCET 0 7, b) Ipsilateral Pupillary diation
a) Greater Auricular nerve AI 01) c) Ipsilateral Outward deviation
b) Lesser occipital nerve d) Unilateral Ptosis
c) Auriculotemporal nerve 1287. Central artery of Retina is branch of- (UP 07)
d) Trigeminal nerve a) External carotid artery
1276. The parasympathetic secretomotor nerve supply to b) Internal carotid artery
the nose is via - (Corned 07) c) Ophthalmic artery
a) Anterior ethmoid nerve d) Basilar artery
b) Greater palatine nerve 1288. The lymphatic drainage to central part of the lip is-
c) Vidiannerve a) Sub mandibular node (UP 07)
d) Inferior orbital nerve b) Sub mental nodes
1277. Which muscle is an abductor of the vocal cords- c) Deep cervical nodes
a) Transverse arytenoid (Corned 08, 07, UP 04, d) Jugulodiagastric nodes
b) Oblique arytenoid 07, PGI 99) 1289. The maxillary nerve arises from the trigeminal
c) Lateral thyroarytenoid ganglion in the middle cranial fossa. It passes
d) Posterior Cricoarytenoid forward in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus
1278. Which of the following laryngeal muscles is and leaves the skull through which of the following
supplied by the external laryngeal nerve - foramen to enter the pterygopalatine fossa -(UP 07)
a) Posterior cricoarytenoid (Corned 08, PGI 2K) a) Foramen ovale b) Foramen spinosum
b) Lateral cricoarytenoid c) Foramen rotundum d) Foramen lacerum
c) Cricothyroid 1290. All the following structure lies out side the
d) Thyroarytenoid cavernous sinus except- (UP 07, UP 06)
1279. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the a) Sphenoidal air sinus b) Internal carotid artery
parotid gland travel in- (Corned 08, 07) c) Foramen lacerum d) Maxillary nerve
a) Lesser petrosal nerve b) Greater petrosal nerve 1291. Which muscles are supplied by Facial nerve?
c) Deep petrosal nerve d) Internal carotid nerve a) Platysma b) Superior belly of omohyoid
1280. Which of the following is not a branch of c) Stylohyoid d) Buccinator (PGI June 07)
Cavernous segment oflnternal Carotid artery- e) Masseter
a) Cavernous Branch (AI 07) 1292. Which nerves supply scalp- (PGI June 07)
b) Inferior Hypophyseal Branch a) Infratrochlear b) Zygomaticotemporal
c) Meningeal branch c) Greater occipital d) Auriculotemporal
d) Ophthalmic branch 1293. Medical wall of orbit formed by- (PGI June 07)
1281. Which of this part of vertebral canal will show a) Body of sphenoid
secondary curves with concavity backwards- b) Lesser wing of sphenoid
a) Cervical b) Thoracic (AI 07) c) Greater wing of sphenoid
c) Sacral d) Coccyx d) Frontal process of maxilla
1282. Exposure of left subclavian artery by 1294. Sensory supply offrom external auditory meatus-
supraclavicular approach does not require cutting a) Pterygomandibular ganglion (PGI June 07)
of- (Aiirns May 07) b) Geniculate ganglion
a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Scalenus anterior c) Facial nerve nucleus
c) Scalenus medius d) Omohyoid d) Auriculotemporal nerve
1283. Facial N. stimulation during testing of nerve 1295. Adductors of vocal cord- (PG!June 07, PGI 02)
indicated by contraction of muscle -(Aiirns May 07) a) Posterior cricoarytenoids b) Cricothyroid
a) Temporalis b) Masseter c) Transverse arytenoids d) Voccalis
c) Sternoleidomastoid d) Orbicularis oris e) Lateral cricoarytenoids
l272)c l273)a 1274)a 1275)a 1276)c 1277)d l278)c l279)a 1280)d 1281)a 1282)c 1283)d 1284)c 1285)a
1286)a 1287) c 1288)b 1289) c 1290)d 1291) a,c,d 1292) b,c,d 1293) a,d 1294) d 1295) b,c,e
ANATOMY [ 1.59]
1296. Intrinsic muscles of the tongue are derived from- 1307. Larynx has- (PGI June 08)
a) 2nd branchial cleft (AIIMS Nov 07) a) 6 Cartilages
b) Pharyngeal arch mesenchyme b) 9 Cartilages
c) Occipital somites c) 2 Paired, 2 unpaired
d) Cervical somites d) All intrinsic muscles oflarynx except cricothyroid
1297. A young motorcyclists falls on the grounds leeds to is supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve
Creek's in lands. Which of the following nerve 1308. Cavernous sinus communicates with -(PGI June 08)
severence leads to cause of death- (UP 08) a) Superior petrosal sinus
a) Hypoglossal nerve b) Vagus nerve b) Inferior petrosal sinus
c) Maxillary nerve d) Accessory nerve c) Superior ophthalmic vein
1298. Suhmentallymph node drainage by all except- d) Middle meningeal vein
a) Anterior palate b) Tip oftongue (UP 08) e) Sphenopalatine sinus
1309. All are seen in norma basalis except- (Manipal 08)
c) Floorofmouth d)Lowerlip
a) Mental foramen b) Foramen magnum
1299. Which ofthe following nerve involved in-opening
c) Foramen ovale d) Foramen lacerum
inlet oflarynx- (UP 08)
1310. The branches offirstpartofsubclavian artery are
a) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
all except- (DPGEE 08)
b) External laryngeal nerve
a) Vertebral artery b) Thyrocervical trunk
c) Internal laryngeal nerve c) Internal thoracic artery d) Costocervical trunk
d) Superficial laryngeal nerve 1311. One ofthe following opens in the middle meatus of
1300. Ligament of Berry in thyroid f'rxes- (UP 08) the nose- (DPGEE 08)
a) Hyoid bone b) Cricoid cartilage a) Naso-lacrimal duct b) Eustachian tube
c) Trachea d) Thyroid c) Sphenoidal air sinus d) Maxilary air sinus
1301. All ofthe following are Digastric muscles, Except- 1312. The type of joint present between ear ossicles is-
a) Muscle fibers in the ligament ofTreitz (AI 08) a) Primary cartilaginous (DPGEE 08)
b) Omohyoid b) Secondary cartilaginous
c) Occipitofrontalis c) Synovial
d) Sternocleidomastoid d) Fibrous
1302. Tributary of the cavernous sinus includes all of the 1313. Nasal septum is formed by- (PGI Dec 08)
following,Except- (AI 08) a) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
a) Superior petrosal sinus b) Vomer
b) Inferior petrosal sinus c) Nasal bone
c) Superficial middle cerebral vein d) Lateral cartilage
d) Deep middle cerebral vein e) Palatine bone
1303. All of the following statements about Diploic veins 1314. Structures passing through superior orbital
are true Except- (AI 08) fissure - (PGI Dec 08)
a) Develop around 8ili wks of gestation a) Trochlear nerve b) Nasociliary nerve
b) These have no valves (valveless) c) Lacrimal nerve d) Trigeminal nerve
c) Present in cranial bones e) Inferior ophthalmic vein
d) Have a thin wall lined by a single layer of 1315. About lateral pterygoid muscle which of the
endothelium following statement is true- (PGI Dec 08)
1304. Which ofthe following bones do not contribute to a) Protrude mandible
b) Arise from infra temporal fossa & Lateral pterygoid
the nasal septum? (AI 08)
plate
a) Sphenoid b) Lacrimal
c) Supplied by facial nerve
c) Palatine d) Ethmoid
d) Inserted into fovea of mandible
1305. U/L injury to hypoglossal nerve leads to all except-
1316. Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the
a) Hemiatrophy of involved side (Aiims May 08)
following arteries except- (AIIMS Nov 08)
b) Deviation of tongue towards the same side a) Occipital b) Posterior auricular
c) Loss of taste sensation in one half of the tongue c) Thyrocervical trunk d) Superior thyroid
d) Fasciculation of the tongue 1317. All of the following structures pierce the buccinator
1306. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal muscle except- (AIIMS Nov 08)
carotid artery- (Aiims May 08) a) Parotid duct
a) Cavernous branch b) Inferior hypophyseal b) Molar glands ofthe cheek
c) Meningeal artery d) Ophthalmic artery c) Buccal branch of facial nerve
d) Buccal branch of the mandibular nerve
1296)c. 1297)b 1298)c 1299)a 1300)b 130l)d 1302)d 1303)a 1304)b 1305)c 1306)d 1307)b,d 1308)a,b
1309)a 1310)d 13ll)d 1312)c 1313)a,b,c,e l314)All 1315)a,b,c,e 1316)b 1317)d
ANATOMY [ 1.60]
1318. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of-(AI 09) 1329. Muscles(s) supplied by facial nerve is/are -(PGIJune
a) Mandibular nerve b) Maxillary nerve a) Stepedius b) Anterior diagastric 09)
c) Lingual nerve d) Facial nerve c) Risorius d) Stylohoid
1319. The parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to parotid e) Platysma
traverse through the following, Except- (AI 09) 1330. The Supratentorial dura is innervated by branches
a) Otic ganglion b) Tympanic plexus ofthe trigeminal nerve whereas the infra tentorial
c) Greater petrosal nerve d) Auri co temporal nerve dura is supplied by branches ofthe-(DEllllPG Feb. 09)
1320. Which of the following is not true about the a) Upper cervical spinal nerves and the vagus nerve
Trochlear nerve- (AI 09) b) Accessory and upper cervical nerve
a) Has the longest intracranial course c) Only upper cervical nerves
b) Supplies the ipsilateral superior oblique muscle d) Only vagus nerve
c) Only cranial nerve that arises from the dorsal 1331. The following is true about nasolacrimal
aspect of the brains tern duct- (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
d) Enters orbit through the superior orbital fissure a) Directed downward, forward, and medially
outside the annulus of Zinn b) Directed downward, backward and laterally
1321. Area that lies immediately lateral to the anterior c) Drains in posterior part of inferior meatus
d) 18 em in length
perforating substance is- (AI 09)
1332. Osteomeatal complex refers to -(DELHIPG Feb. 09)
a) Orbital gyrus b) Uncus
a) Maxillary ostium, ethmoid infundibulum, hiatus
c) Optic chiasma d) Limen insulae
semilunaris and frontal recess
1322. Which of the following cranial structures are
b) Frontal recess, inferior meatus, sphenoid sinus
insensitive to pain- (AI 09)
c) Hiatus semilunaris maxillary ostium, sphenoeth
a) Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses moidrecess
b) Choroid plexus d) None of the given options
c) Falx cerebri 1333. Following is true about safety muscle of
d) Middle meningeal artery tongue- (DELHIPGFeb. 09)
1323. All ofthe following statements about sternberg canal a) Innervated by cranial part of accessory nerve
are true, Except- (AI 09) b) Hypoglossal nerve
a) Located anterior and medial to Foramen Rotundum c) Attached to hard palate
b) Located posterior and lateral to Foramen d) None of the given options
Rotundum 1334. Lesion offacial nerve above geniculate ganglion is
c) Represents persistant craniopharyngeal canal associated with- (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
d) Cause of intrasphenoidol meningocele a) Increased lacrimation b) Increased salivation
1324. Structures lying deep to posterior belly of digastric c) Decreased lacrimation d) Hypoacusis
are all, except- (AIIMS May 09) 1335. Inferior oblique muscle of eye is supplied
a) Retromandibular vein b) Hypoglossal nerve by- (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
c) Hyoglossus muscle d) Occipital artery a) Oculomotor nerve b) Abducent nerve
1325. Enophthalmosisduetopalsyof- (AIIMSMay09) c) Trochlear nerve d) Facial nerve
a) Levator palpebrae superioris 1336. Abductorofvocalcordis- (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
b) Superior tarsal muscle a) Lateral cricoarytenoid
c) Orbitalis muscle b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
d) Inferior tarsal muscle c) Thyroepiglottis
1326. All are of adult size at birth except -(AIIMS May 09) d) Cricothyroid
a) Mastoid antrum b) Ear Ossicles 1337. All ofthe following have no lymphatics, except:
c) Tympanic cavity d) Maxillary antrum a) Brain b) Internal ear (DELHI PG Mar.
1327. Nerve supply of muscles of soft palate is/are c) Cornea d) Liver 09)
a) Glossopharynegal Nerve (PGI June 09) 1338. All of the following are seen in the Horner's
b) Vagus Nerve syndrome, except: (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
c) Trigeminal Nerve a) Drooping of upper eyelid
d) Greater palantine nerve b) Enophthalmos
e) Hupoglossal nerve c) Dilated pupil
1328. Which ofthe following is/are branch offacila nerve- d) Loss of sweating of same side of face
a) Chorda tympani (PGI June 09) 1339. All the following are contents of sub-occipital
b) Lesser petrosal nerve triangle, except: (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
a) Vertebral artery
c) Greater petrosal nerve
b) Dorsal ramus ofC1 nerve
d) Zygomatic nerve
c) Suboccipital plexus of vein
e) Nerve to stepedius
d) Occipital artery
1318) b 1319) c 1320) b 1321) d 1322) b 1323) b 1324) a 1325) c 1326) d 1327) a,b,c 1328) a,c,d,e 1329) a,c,d,e
1330) a 1331) b 1332) a 1333) b 1334) c 1335) a 1336) a 1337) d 1338) c 1339) d
ANATOMY [ 1.61 ]
1340. Facial nerve supplies- (PGI Nov 09) 1350. The fur:.ction of 8th cranial N. is related to-
a) Risorius b) Anterior belly of digastric a) Smell b) Taste (AIIMS May 10)
c) Lateral pterygoiod d) Zygomaticus c) Touch d) Balance
e) Auricular muscles 1351. Which of the following passes through the foramen
1341. About otic ganglion true statement (s) is/are- magnum- (AI 10)
a) Lesser petrosal nerve forms parasympathetic root a) Vertebral artery b) Sympathetic chain
.---b) Secretomotor to parotid gland (PGI Nov 09) c) XIIh cranial nerve d) Internal carotid artery
1352. Pain in post 1/3 tongue after tonslliectomy Is due to
c) Topographically connected to maxillary division
injury to- (DPG 1OJ
of trigeminal nerve
a) VII nerve b) IX nerve
d) Nerve to medial pterygoid connected to the ganglion c) V nerve d) XII nerve
e) Sympathetic root is derived from plexus around 1353. Damage to the external laryngeal nerve results in-
internal carotid artery a) Hoarseness (DPG 10J
1342. Trueaboutvertebralartery- (PGI Nov 09) b) Loss oftimbre ofvoice
a) Enter skull through condylar canal c) Anaesthesia of the larynx
b) Branch of internal carotid artery d) Breathing difficulty
c) Branch of subclavian artery 1354. Alderman's nerve is a branch of- (DPG 10)
d) Accompany sympathetic ganglion a) Superior cervical ganglion
e) Passes through foramen transversarium of cervical b) Inferior cervical ganglion
vertebrae c) Auricular branch of vagus nerve
1343. Nerve supply of muscle of palate is/are-(PGI Nov 09J d) None of these
a) Glossopharyngeal nerve 1355. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to
b) Vagus nerve trigeminal ganglion? (Maharashtra 1OJ
c) Trigeminalnerve a) Basilar artery
d) Greater palatine nerve b) Anterior cerebral artery
e) Hypoglossal nerve c) Posterior communicating artery
1344. All are true except- (AIIMS Nov 09J d) Cavernous part of internal artery
a) Superior thyroid artery is a branch of ext. carotid art 1356. The abductor of vocal cord is- (Maharashtra 1OJ
a) Posterior cricoarytenoid
b) Posterior branch of superior thyroid artery
b) Lateral cricoarytenoid
supplies parathyroid gland
c) Thyroarytenoid
c) Inferior thyroid artery is branch of thyrocervical
d) Cricoarytenoid
tnmk
1357. Anteriortriangleofneckare- (PG!May 10J
d) Thyroidea ima artery is invariably a branch of arch
a) Submental triangle b) Carotid triangle
of aorta
c) Supraclavicular triangle d) Digastric triangle
1345. In post ductal coarctaion ofthe aorta, blood tlow to e) Muscular triangle
the lower limb is maintained through which of the 1358. Blood supply offacial nerve is/are- (PGI Nov 10)
following arteries- (AIIMS Nov 09) a) Ascending pharyngeal artery
a) Vertebral artery b) Suprascapular artery b) Greater palatine artery
c) Intercostal arteries d) Internal thoracic artery c) Middle meningeal artery
1346. Extrinsic membranes oflarynx are all except- d) Labyrinthine br. of etlunoidal artery
a) Cricothyroid b) Thyrohyoid (AIIMS May 1OJ e) Stylomastoid branch of occipital artery
c) Hyoepiglottic d) Cricotracheal 1359. False statement about trigeminal nerve-
134 7. Cranial nerve not carrying parasympathetic fibres- a) Carries sensation from face and scalp
a) Fourth b) Seventh (AIIMSMay 10J b) Has motor branch (PGI Nov 10)
c) Third d) Ninth c) Arise from C8 nerve root
1348. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch d) Composed of spinal nucleus
of- (AIIMSMay 10J 1360. Tensortympaniissupplied by- (AIIMSNov 10)
a) Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve a) Trigeminal N. b) Facial N.
b) Palatine division of maxillary nerve c) Glossopharyngeal N. d) Vagus N.
c) Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve 1361. All of the following are true about Scalenus anterior
d) Inferior alveolar nerve muscle- (A!IMS Nov 1 OJ
134 9. Anterior ethmoidal nerve suplies all except- a) It is attached to the tubercle of second Rib
a) Maxillary sinus (AIIMS May 1OJ b) It is anterior to the transverse cervical artery.
b) Interior of nasal cavity c) It is pierced by the phrenic nerve.
c) Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa d) It separates the subclavian vein from the
d) Ethmoidal air cells subclavian artry
1340)a,d,e 1341)a,b,d 1342)c,e 1343)a,b,c,d 1344)d l345)a 1346)a 1347)a 1348)None 1349)a 1350)d
135l)a l352)b l353)b l354)c l355)d 1356)a 1357)a,b,c,e l358)a,c,e l359)c 1360)a 1361)d
ANATOMY [ 1.62]
1362. Lacrimation is lost in lesion of? (AIIMSNov 10) 1375. Structures which passes through the internal
a) Nasociliarynerve auditory meatus are all except- (Punjab I OJ
b) Greater petrosal nerve a) Nerve ofwrisberg
c) Ant. ethmoidal nerve b) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
d) Supraorbital c) Superior vestibular nerve
1364. In a subclavian artery block at outer border ofl' 1 rib, d) Cochlear nerve
all of the following arteries help in maintining the 1376. Laryngeal prominence is formed by- (PUNJAB llJ
circulation to upper limb except- (AIIMS May llJ a) Cricoid cartilage
a) Subscapular artery b) Hyoid bone
b) Superior thoracic artery c) AI]terior margin of thyroid
c) Thyrocervical trunk d) Angle of the thyroid cartilage
d) Suprascapular artery 1377. Notabranchoffacialnerve- (Jipmer 10J
1177. Vertical crest in fundus of the internal auditary a) Branch to stylbhyoid muscle
canal is k/a - (Al/MS May 11J b) Chorda tympani nerve
a) Bill's bar b) Ponticulus c) Lingual nerve
c) Cog d)Falciformcrest d) Greater petrosal nerve
1365. Trochlear nerve all true except- (AJIMS May 11J 1378. True statement regarding central retinal artery-
a) Longest intracranial course a) End artery (Jipmer 1OJ
b) Arises from dorsum ofbrainstem. b) Branch of ciliary artery
c) Supply ipsilateral superior oblique muscle c) Supplies optic nerve
d) Enters orbit through sup. orbital fissure outside d) Corresponds with the same course as that of the
annulus of Zinn central retinal vein
1366. Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the 1379. One of the following bone is absent in newborn-
following arteries except- (AJJMS May 11J a) Incus b) Stapes (Jipmer 10)
a) Occipital b) Posterior auricular c) Temporal bone d) Malleus
c) Thyrocervical trunk d) Superior thyroid 1380. Structure not enclosed by carotid sheath-
1367. The bifurcation of common carotid occurs at-(A/llJ a) Internal carotid artery (Jipmer 1OJ
a) Upper border of cricoid cartilage b) Vagus
b) Upper border of thyroid cartilage c) Cervical sympathetic chain
c) Level ofHyoid bone d) Internal jugular vein
d) Upper border of cricothyroid membrane 1381. Nota branchofopthalmicartery- (Jipmer 10J
1368. Which of the following is not supplied by the anterior a) Dorsal nasal artery
division of mandibular nerve (V3)- (AI 11J b) Superficial temporal artery
a) Temporalis b) Masseter c) Superior orbital artery
c) Lateral pterygoid d) Medial pterygoid d) Supratrochlear artery
1369. Which ofthe following passes through the foramen 1382. Sinus overlying falx cere belli is- (Jipmer 10)
magnum- (AI llJ a) Straight sinus b) Sigmoid sinus
a) Vertebral Artery b) Sympathetic chain c) Occipital sinus d) Inferior petrosal sinus
c) XIth cranial nerve d) Internal carotid artery 1383. Ansa cervicalis supplies- (Jipmer 1OJ
1370. AJlareelevatorsofmandibleexcept- (Punjab 10J a) Sternohyoid b) Mylohyoid
a) Temporalis b) Medial pterygoid c) Cricothyroid d) Stylohyoid
c) Masseter d) Digastric 1384. Oculomotor nerve supplies all except- (Jipmer 11J
1371. Anterior 2/3 of tongue develops from- (Punjab I 0) a) Medial rectus b) Inferior rectus
a) I st branchial arch b) 2nd branchial arch c) Superior rectus d) Lateral rectus
c) 3rd branchial arch d) 4th branchial arch 1385. In adults spinal cord ends at- (Jipmer 11J
1372. NervesupplyofPinnaisAJE- (Punjab10J a) LowerborderofLl b)BetweenL2-L3
a) Great auricular nerve c) UpperendofL3 d)LowerendofL3
b) Auriculotemporal nerve 1386. The muscle stylopharyngeus is supplied by which
c) Lesser occipital nerver nerve? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Greater superficial petrosal nerve a) Vagus b) Spinal accessory
1373. Spinal cord ends at which level in infants- c) Glossopharyngeal d) Facial
1387. Preganglionic fibres to the submandibular ganglion
a) L1 b)L2 (Punjab 10J
arise from? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) ~ d)L4
a) Superior salivatory nucleus
1374. All muscles of tongue are supplied by hypoglossal
b) Inferior salivatory nucleus
nerveexcept- (Punjab 10J
c) Nucleus of tractus solitaries
a) Geniologlossus muscle b) Hypoglossus muscle
d) Nucleus ambiguous
c) Styloglossus muscle d) Palatoglossus muscle
1362)b 1363)b 1364)a 1365)c 1366)b 1367)b 1368)d 1369)a 1370)d 1371)a 1372)d 1373)c 1374)d 1375)b
1376)d 1377)d 1378)b 1379)c 1380)c 1381)b 1382)c 1383)a 1384)d 1385)a 1386)c 1387)a
ANATOMY [ 1.63]
1388. Sensory supply to tonsil is by which nerve ? 1399. Keisselbach's plexus is present at -
a) Greater palatine nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Medial wall of nasopharynx (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Lesser palatine nerve b) Lateral wall of nasal cavity
c) Vagus c) Anteroinferior part of nasal septum
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve d) Posterior part of the nasal cavity
1389. What is the blood supply of the cervical esophagus ? 1400. Cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level-
a) Inferior thyroid artery (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) 0 b) C6 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Superior thyroid artery c) Tl d) T4
c) Bronchial artery 1401. Rouviere's nodes are situated in -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Nasopharynx b) Oral cavity
d) External carotid artery
c) Retropharynx d) Clavicular nodes
1390. What overlies the lateral wall of the mastoid antrum?
1402. Passavants ridge is formed by-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Tegmen tympani (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Palatoglossus b) Superior constrictor
b) Mastoid process
c) Salpingopharyngeus d) Palatopharyngeus
c) Tympanic plate 1403. Crystalline lens develops from-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Suprameatal triangle a) Mesoderm b) Endoderm
1391. Which of the following is supplied by the third c) Surface ectoderm d) Neuroectoderm
cranial nerve? (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1404. Muscle entering middle ear from pyramid apex
a) Superior oblique b) Inferior oblique is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Lateral rectus d) Dilator papillae a) Stapedius b) Tensor tympani
1392. What do the semicircular canals detect ? c) Tensor palatine d) Auricularis
a) Linear acceleration (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1405. Eustachian tube passes between-
b) Angular acceleration a) Superior and middle constrictors
c) Speed b) Above superior constrictor (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Balance c) Middle and inferior constrictor
1393. Inferior thyroid vein drains into - d) Below inferior constrictor
a) Internal jugular vein (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1406. Largest turbinate is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Superior vena cava a) Superior b) Inferior
c) Brachiocephalic vein c) Middle d) All are of the same size
d) External jugular vein 1407. Nasolacrimal duct opens into the-
1394. Primary action of superior oblique is - a) Supreme meatus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Intorsion (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Superior meatus
b) Depression c) Middle meatus
d) Inferior meatus
c) Adduction
1408. Which of the following is a direct content of the
d) Abduction
cavernous sinus? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1395. What is true about chorda tympani?
a) Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve
a) Postganglionic sympathetic (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Trochlear nerve
b) Postganglionic parasympathetic
c) Abducent nerve
c) Preganglionic parasympathetic d) Occulomotor nerve
d) Postgalglionic parasympathetic 1409. Which is not a characteristic of a typical cervical
1396. Blood supply ofthe Eustachian tube is by all except- vertebra? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Ascending pharyngeal artery a) Has a triangular vertebral canal
b) Middle meningeal artery (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Has foramen transversarium
c) Artery of pterygoid canal c) Superior articular facet is directed backwards and
d) Facial artery upwards
1397. Bed of tonsil is formed by - (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Has a large vertebral body
a) Superior constrictor b) Middle constrictor 1410. Waldeyer's ring consists of all of the following
c) Inferior constrictor d) Platysma except ? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1398. True regarding surface anatomy of internal jugular a) Palatine tonsils b) Pharyngeal tonsils
vein - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Tubal tonsils d) Post auricular nodes
a) Line passing from ear lobule to mid pt of clavicle 1411. Gilette's space indicates which of the following ?
b) Line passing from ear lobule to medial end of a) Prevertebral space (NEETIDNB Pattern)
clavicle b) Paravertebral space
c) Line joining ear lobule to lateral end of clavicle c) Retropharyngeal space
d) Line joining mastoid process to mid pt of clavicle d) Perotinsillar space
1388)d 1389)a 1390)d 1391)b 1392)b l393)c 1394)a 1395)c 1396)d 1397)a l398)b 1399)c 1400)b 140l)c
1402)d 1403)c 1404)a 1405)b 1406)b 1407)d 1408)c 1409)d 1410)d 14ll)c
ANATOMY [ 1.64]
1412. Mandibular nerve exits the cranial cavity by passing 1425. Sensory apply oflarynx, below the vocal cord-
through - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Superior laryngeal nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Formanen rotundum b) Foramen lacerum b) Inferior laryngeal nerve
c) Stylomastoid foramen d) Foramen ovale c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
1413. Which of the following is related to floor of middle d) Internal laryngeal nerve
ear - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1426. All of the following are true about ear ossicles
a) Round window b) Internal carotid artery except - (NEET!DNB Pattern)
c) Internal jugular vein d) Tegmen tympani
a) Give the eardrum mechanical advantage via lever
1414. Nasolacrimal duct opens into-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
action
a) Superior b) Inferior meatus
c) Middle d) Sphenoethmoid recess b) Transmit vibrations from tympanic membrane to
1415. Suture present between parietal & occipital inner ear
bones is - (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) The muscles are highly developed like in bats
a) Lambdoid suture b) Saggital suture for echolocation.
c) Coronal suture d) Metopian suture d) Are controlled by muscles as part of the accoustic
1416. Surface anatomy for internal jugular reflex.
vein- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1427. Spenoid sinus drains into which of the following-
a) Ear lobule to medial third of clavicle a) Spheno-ethmoidal recess (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Ear lobule to middle third of clavicle b) Middle meatus
c) Ear lobule to lateral third of clavicle c) Superior meatus
d) Mastoid to third of clavicle d) Hiatus semilunaris
1417. Abductor of vocal cords is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1428. Ethmoid articulates with which of the following-
a) Thyroarytenoid a) Middle turbinate (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Lateral cricoarytenoid b) Inferior turbinate
c) Posterior cricoarytenoid
c) Superiorturbinate
d) Cricothyroid
d) All of the above
1418. Otic ganglia is related to- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 9th nerve b) 1Oth nerve 1429. Cranial Nerve VIII exits through which of the
c) 8th nerve d) 7th nerve following? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1419. Posterior one-third of the tongue develops from- a) Foramen ovale
a) Lingual swellings (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Foramen rotundum
b) Tuberculum impar c) Internal accoustic meatus
c) Hypobranchial eminence d) Stylomastoid foramen
d) Tongue bud 1430. Ethmoidal sinus opens into which of the following-
1420. Trapezoid body is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Hiatus semilunaris (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Lateral lemniscus pathway b) Middle meatus
b) Medial lemniscus pathway c) Superior meatus
c) Visual pathway d) All of the above
d) None 1431. Yoke muscle pair- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1421. Which of the suprahyoid muscle is supplied by both a) Rt IR + Rt SR b) Rt LR + Rt MR
facial nerve and mandibular nerve- (NEETIDNB c) Rt LR + Lt MR d) Lt LR + Lt MR
a) Stylohyoid b) Mylohyoid Pattern)
1432. Choroidal artery is a branch of which of the
c) Digastric d) Hyuglussus
following? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1422. What is present in the retropharyngeal space-
a) Platysma (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Retinal artery
b) Loose areolar tissue & lymph nodes b) External carotid artery
c) Vertebrae c) Internal carotid artery
d) Hypoglossal nerve d) Middle meningeal artery
1423. Anterior 1/3rd of the tongue develops from which 1433. Chamberlains line is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
arch - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Palate to occiput
a) pt b) 2nd b) Palate to temporal
c) 3'd d) 4th c) Palate to foramen magnum
1424. Killian dehiscence is in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Palate to parietal
a) Superior constrictor 1434. Ear ossicles articulate with each other through
b) Inferior constrictor which type of joints? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Middle constrictor a) Synostosis b) Synovial
d) None c) Synchondrosis d) Syndesmosis
1412)d 1413)c 1414)b 1415)a l416)a 1417)c 1418)a 1419)c 1420)a 1421)c 1422)b 1423)a 1424)b J425)c
1426)c 1427)a 1428)b 1429)c 1430)d 1431)c 1432)c 1433)c 1434)b
ANATOMY [ 1.65]
1435. All of the following are true about the larynx 1445. Which part of ICA does not give any branch-
except- a) Cervical b) Petrous (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) All intrinsic muscles are supplied by the reccurrent c) Cavernous d) Cerebral
laryngeal nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1446. Location ofpyriformins fossa-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Cricothyroid is supplied by the external laryngeal a) Nasopharynx b) Oropharynx
nerve c) Laryngeal part of pharynx d) None
c) Posterior cricoarytenoids abduct the vocal cords 1447. Pterygopalatine ganglion supplies -
d) Lymphatic drainage of the larynx is to the deep
a) Paroted gland (NEETIDNB Pattern)
cervical nodes.
b) Submandibular gland
1436. All of the following are true about the middle ear
cavity except- · (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Lacrimal gland
a) Roof is formed by tegmen tympani d) Sublangual
b) Anterior wall has opening of two canals 1448. Preganglionic supply to submandibular gland-
c) Medial wall is formed by tympanic membrane a) Otic ganglion (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Floor has bulb of internal jugular vein b) Geniculate ganglion
143 7. Inferior thyroid artery arises from which of these c) Superior salivary nucleus
vessels? (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Inferior salivary nucleus
a) Thyrocervical trunk 1449. Main action of superior rectus-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Brachiocephalic trunk a) Extorsion b) Intorsion
c) Internal carotid artery c) Elevation d) Depression
d) External carotid artery 1450. Superior cervical ganglia gives gray rami
1438. Nerve to pterygoid canal is formed from- communicats to- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Deep petrosal nerve + greater petrosal nerve a) C 1 -C4 b)C5 -C6
b) Facial nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) C7 - C8 d) None
c) Lesser superficial petrosal nerve 1451. Inferior thyroid artery is related to-
d) Lesser petrosal nerve a) Superior laryngeal nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1439. Deep petrosal nerve is formed from - b) Recurrent laryngeal
a) Symathetic plexus around carotid c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
b) Facial nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) XII nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal 1452. Ophthalmic artery is a branch of which part of
d) Internal carotid plexus ICA- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1440. Nervus spinosus is a branch of which of the a) Cervical b) Petrous
following? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Cavernous d) Cerebral
a) Maxillary nerve
1453. Common carotid artery bifurcation is at-
b) Mandibular nerve
a) Thyroid cartilage (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Facial nerve
b) Cricord cartilage
d) Nerve of pterygoid canal
c) Cl
1441. JYmpanic branch of the middle ear is derived from-
d) 12
a) Facial nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Glossopharyngeal nerve 1454. STYLOHYOID muscel is supplied by-
c) Nerve to stapedius a) Facial (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Chorda tympani b) Glossopharyngeal
1442. All extra-ocular muscles are supplied by the c) Ansa cervical
occulomotor nerve except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Vagus
a) Superior rectus b) Inferior oblique 1455. DEEP PETROSAL nerve arises from -
c) Lateral rectus d) Medial rectus a) Facial nerve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1443. Which ofthe following is not a branch of first part b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
of maxillary artery- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Plexus around internal carotid artery
a) Greater palatine artery d) Mandibular nerve
b) Middle eningeal artery 1456. Abductor of vocal cord is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Deep auricular artery a) Cricothyroid
d) Inferior alveolar artery b) Post cricoarytenoid
1444. Which of the following doesn't elevate the larynx? c) Thyro arytenoid
a) Sternohyoid (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Lat cricoarytenoid
b) Thyrohyoid 1457. Opening of jaw is done by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Mylohyoid a) Temporalis b) Lat pterygoid
d) None c) Med pterygoid d) Masseter
1435)a 1436)c 1437)a 1438)a 1439)a 1440)b 144l)b 1442)c 1443)a 1444)a 1445)a 1446)c 1447)c 1448)c
1449)c 1450)a 145l)b 1452)d 1453)a 1454)a 1455)c 1456)b 1457)b
ANATOMY [ 1.66]
1458. Otic ganglion supplies- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1471. All of the following are division of the Vth cranial
a) Submandibular gland b) Lingual gland nerve except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Parotid gland d) All three a) Ophthalmic b) Optic
1459. Occipital myotome gives- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Mandibular d) Maxillary
a) Muscle of mastication b) Tongue muscles 1472. Olfactory region in nose is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Facial muscles d) Laryngeal muscles a) Below inferior trubinate
1460. Continuation of inner layer of choroid is- b) Above superior turbinate
a) Nonpigmented layer of retina c) Between middle & inferior trubiate
b) Sclera d) None
c) Pigmented layer of retina 1473. Early sign of glaucoma includes following except
d) None a) Nerve fibre atrophy (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1461. Thyocervical trunk is a branch of- b) Splinter hemorrhage
a) 151 b) znd (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Vertical cup
c) 3'd d) None d) Horizontal cup
1462. Passavant ridge is formed by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 147 4. Lens derives its nutrition from-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Tensor veli palati and superior constrictor a) Tears b) Small capillaries
b) Palatopharyngeous and superior constrictor c) Aqueous d) None
c) Palatopharyngeous and inferior constrictor 1475. All are true about adenoids except -
d) Palatoglossus and superior constrictor a) Physiological growth upto 6 years
1463. Pyramid of ear gives attachment to- b) Crypta magna present (NEET!DNB Pattern)
a) Tensor tympani (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Present in nasopharynx
b) Stapedius d) Supplied by facial artery
c) Tensor palati 1476. Inferior parathyroid develops from which arch-
d) Levator palati a) 1st b) znd (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1464. Sclera is thinnest at- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 3ro d) 4th
a) Limbus 1477. Which nerve is responsible for referred pain in ear -
b) Equator a) Trochlea} (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Anterior to attachment of superior rectus b) Olfactory
d) Posterior to attachment of superior rectus c) Glossopharyngeal
1465. Abductor of larynx is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Abducent
a) Cricothyroid b) Post cricoarytenoid 1478. Sympathetic root of otic ganglion-
c) Thyro arytenoid d) Lat cricoarytenoid a) Plexus around ICA
1466. Which laryngeal cartilage is elastic- b) Plexus around facial artery
a) Epiglottis (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Plexus around ophthalmic artery
b) Corniculate d) Plexus around middle meningeal artery
c) Cuneiform 1479. Soft palate is supplied by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Thyroid a) Cranial accessory b) Trigeminal
1467. Afferent component in corneal reflex is mediated c) Abducent d) None
by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1480. Muscles of mastications are derived from-(NEETI
a) Optic nerve b) Ophthalmic nerve a) 1st arch b) 2nd arch DNB Pattern)
c) Facial nerve d) Occulomotor nerve c) 3rd arch d) 4th arch
1468. Bony nasal septum is formed by all except- 1481. Subarachnoid space ends at -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Vomer (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Dl2 b) L2
b) Sphenoid c) L5 d) S2
c) Ethmoid 1482. Parotid duct opens- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Nasal spine of nasal bone a) Opposite 1st molar
1469. Blood supply to Eustachian tube is- b) Opposite 2nd molar
c) Into the papilla
a) Acending pharyngeal (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Opposite incisor
b) Middle meningeal
1483. Plica triangularis is present in -
c) Artery of pterygod canal
a) Antero-inferior part of tonsil
d) All
b) Dorsum of tongue (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1470. Maxillaryarteryis- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Inlet of larynx
a) Branch of facial artery
d) None
b) Branch of internal carotid artery
1484. Upper border of thyroid cartilage is at-
c) Branch of common carotid
a) C2 b) C4 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Terminal branch of external carotid
c) C6 d) T1
1458)c 1459)b 1460)c 1461)a 1462)b 1463)b 1464)d 1465)b 1466)a 1467)b 1468)d 1469)d 1470)d 147l)b
1472)b 1473)d 1474)c 1475)b 1476)c 1477)c 1478)c 1479)a 1480)a 1481)d 1482)b 1483)a 1484)b
ANATOMY [ 1.67]
1485. A patient is unable to move eye outward beyond 1498. Vestibulocerebellar tract terminates in the •.•. of
midline. The lesion is in - (NEET!DNB Pattern) cerebellum- (JIPMER 78, AMU 86)
a) Trochlear nerve b) Obturator nerve a) Flocculus b) Lingula
c) Abducent nerve d) None c) Nodulus d) Uvula
1486. All are paire venous sinuses except- e) All ofthe above
a) Superior petorsal (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1499. In Grey mater of cerebellum are the following
b) Inferior petorsal
nuclei- (PGI 79, 81)
c) Superior sagittal
a) Nucleus globosus b) Nucleus emboliformis
d) Transverse
c) Nucleus dentatus d) Nucleus fastigi
1487. Risorius is a muscle of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Mastication b) Deglutition e) Nucleus caudatus
c) Facial expression d) Eye movement 1500. By three cerebellar peduncles, the cerebellum is
1488. Middle meningeal artery is branch of- attached to- (DNB 80)
a) 1st part of maxillary artery (NEETIDNB Pgttern) a) Spinal cord b) Medulla
b) 2nd part of maxillary artery c) Cerebrum d) Midbrain
c) 3rd part of maxillary artery e) Pons
d) External carotid artery 1501. CSF is partly absorbed by lymphatics around ....
1489. Whic of the following is transmitted through cranial nerves- (PGI 80, ROHTAK 89)
foramen spinosum - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) I, II, VII, VIII b) I, II, VI, VII
a) Middle meningeal artery c) I, III, VII, VIII d) I, II, VI, VIII
b) Internal carotid artery 1502. Tremor associated with cerebellar lesions-
c) Facial nerve a) Called resting tremor (PGI 81, 82)
d) Mandibular nerve b) Seen predominantly in extremities
1490. Thyrocervical trunk is branch of- c) Occurs ipsilateral to lesion
a) 1st b) 2nd (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Has coarse, irregular quality
c) 3rd d) None e) Occurs at rest and during sleep
1491. Which artery is palpated at the anterior border of 1503. A lesion involving an entire cerebral peduncle
masseter - (NEETIDNB Pattern) would result in the degeneration of fibres originating
a) Superficial temporal b) Occipital from cell bodies in which of the following areas-
c) Facial d) External carotid a) Globuspallidus (AIIMS82)
1492. Which artery does not contribute to little's area- b) Cerebellarnuclei
a) Septal branch of facial artery (PG/97) c) Cerebral cortex
b) Anterior ethmoidal artery d) Dorsal hom of gray matter
c) Sphenopalantine A 1504. Which nerves does not arise form the medulla-
d) Posterior ethmoidal A a) Facial b) Glossopharyngeal (AJJMS 82)
1493. Which of the following is not a mixed nerve-(NEETI c) Vagus d) Hypoglossal
a) Vagus b) Glossopheryngeal DNB Pattern) 1505. All are nuclei ofthe basal gangila except-
c) Facial d) Trochlear a) Caudate nucleus (AIIMS 84)
1494. Taste sensations from anterior 2/3rd of tongue are b) Amygdaloid nucleus
carried by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Lentiform nucleus
a) Glossopharyngeal b) Chordatympani d) Dentate nuclei
c) Trigeminal d) Greater auricular 1506. The spinal nerves pairs are - (NJMHANS 86,
a) 28 b) 30 87, Kerala 87)
BRAIN c) 31 d)33
e) 35
1495. Pyramidal fibres are- (AI 98)
1507. In an adult, the spinal cord ends at the level of-
a) Projection fibres
a) Lower border of Ll b)L2 (NIMHANS87,
b) Association fibres
c) I3 d)L4 AI06)
c) Commissural fibres
e) L12
d) Association & commissural fibres
1496. In the postnatal period the greatest growth in the 1508. In the new born, the spinal cord ends at- (PGI 88)
grey matter of the C.N.S. is of- (Karnataka 2001) a) I3 b)S4
a) Neuron cell number b) Length of axon c) l.5 d)Ll
c) Dendritic tree d) Size of perikaryon 1509. Following are the branches of basilar artery-
1497. Which of the following sepctrum of colour is a) Pontine (PGJ 88)
highest visualized due to central cones- (AI 2002) b) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
a) Red Blue b) Blue Red c) Posterior cerebellar
c) Blue Green d) Red Green d) Labyrinthine
1485)c 1486)c 1487)c 1488)a 1489)a 1490)a 1491)c 1492)d 1493)d 1494)b 1495)a 1496)c 1497)d
1498)a,c,d 1499)a,b,c,d lSOO)b,d,e 150l)a 1502)b,c,d 1503)a,b,c 1504)a 1505)d 1506)c 1507)a 1508)a
1509)a,d
ANATOMY [ 1.68]
1510. Frontaleyemotorareais- {DNB89) 1523. Cerebral aqueduct (Duct of Sylvius) -which is

a) 9 b)2 true- (Delhi 92)
c) 6 d) 8 a) 3 ems in length
1511. Fibres passing through posterior column is/are- b) Connects III. ventricle to IV ventricle
a) Post spinocerebellar tract- (PGI 89) c) Connects two lateral ventricles
b) Anterior spinocerebellar tract d) None of the above
c) Lateral spinothalamic tract 1524. Fibres pssing through crus-cerebri are -(Delhi 92)
d) Fasciculus gracilis a) Corticonclear and Corticospinal fibres
1512. Pupillary reflex pathway includes all b) Medialleminiscus
except- (Kerala 89) c) Spinothalamic
a) Retina b) Edinger westpal nucleus d) All
c) Pretectal areas d) Lateral geiculate body 1525. The inferior cerebellar peduncle has all the
1513. Dentate nucleus is a part of- {Delhi 89, 93) following tracts except- (PGI 9 3)
a) Midbrain b) Pons a) Vestibulo cerebellar b) Olivo cerebellar
c) Medulla d) Cerebellum c) Spino cerebellar d) Ponto cerebellar
1514. The central canal of the spinal cord is central in 1526. Pretectal nucleus is responsible- (TN 95)
region of- {AP 89) a) Accomodationreflex b) Light reflex
a) Cervical b) Thoratic c) Conjugation reflex d) None
c) Lumbar d) Sacral 1527. About blood brain barrier, folowing is true-
1515. The cisterna of the lateral sulcus contains- a) Present only at choroid plexus {JIPMER 98)
a) Deep middle cerebral vein {AP 90) b) Restricts the entry of lipid soluble molecules
b) Middle meningeal artery c) Destroyed by inflammation, irradation & tumor
c) Internal carotid artery d) None
d) Superficial middle cerebral vein 1528. Interpeduncular fossa contains all except-
1516. Wbich ofthe following is not a part of Epithalamus- a) Mammillary bodies (CUPGEE 99)
a) Pineal body (AP91) b) Posterior perforated substance
b) Posterior commissure c) Occulomotornerve
c) Trigonum Habenulae d) Opthalmic nerve
d) Geniculate bodies 1529. Basal ganglion contains all except- (Al99)
1517. All the following arteries supply medulla oblongeta a) Globus pallidus b) Putamen
except- (AIIMS 91) c) Thalamus d) Lantiform nucleus
a) Posterior inferior Cerebellar artery 1530. Unpaired structure in the brain- (AI 99)
b) Spinal artery a) Basilar artery
c) Anterior inferior Cerebellar artery b) Vertebral artery
d) Vertebral artery c) Middle cerebral artery
1518. Nucleus in brain common to IX, X & XI cranial d) Anterior cerebral artery
nerves- {DELHI 92, AIIMS 80) 1531. Complete sulcus is- (TN 99)
a) Nucleus solitarius b) Nucleus ambigous a) Calcarine sulcus b) Central sulcus
c) Dentate nucleus d) Red nucleus c) Temporal sulcus d) Frontal sulcus
1519. Which nucleus is not found in the floor of the fourth 1532. Efferents from cochlear nuclear arise for -
ventricle- (JIPMER 92) a) Superior olivary nucleus (MP 2K)
a) Abducens N b) Dorsal vagal nuclei b) Inferior colliculus
c) FacialN d) Hypoglossal N c) Medial geniculate body
1520. Purkinje cells from the cerebellum end in- d) Lateralleminiscus
a) Extrapyarnidal system (JIPMER 92) 1533. Auditorytransmissionisvia- (DNB 2001)
b) Cranial nerve nuclei a) Lateral lemniscus b) Medial lemniscus
c) Cerebellarnuclei c) Lateral geniculate body d) Frontal cortex
d) Cerebral cortex 1534. Oligodendrocytes are important in- (Kerala 2001)
1521. Fibres of Acoustic radiation arise in the- a) Blood brain barrier b) Myelin formation
a) Lateral geniculate body (AIIMS 92) c) Phagocytosis d) Chemotaxis
b) Medial geniculate body 1535. Middle cerebellar peduncle transmits fibres of-
c) Thalamus a) Ponto cerebellar pathway {PGI97, TN99)
d) Temporal lobe b) Tectospinal pathway
1522. Broca's area is- (Delhi 92) c) Spinocerebellar pathway
a) 44&45 b)40&42 d) Oliva cerebellar pathway
c) 43&44 d) None
1510)a,c,d 15ll)d 1512)d 1513)d 1514)c 1515)b 1516)d 1517)c 1518)b 1519)c 1520)c 152l)b 1522)a
1523)b 1524)a 1525)d 1526)b 1527)c 1528)d 1529)c 1530)a 153l)a 1532)a 1533)a 1534)b 1535)a
ANATOMY [ 1.69]
1536. Artery/ arteries supplying occipital cortex is- 1548. Which of the following is not a branch of the basilar
a) PCA b)MCA (PG/97) artery- (Bihar 03)
c) MCA+PCA d)ACA a) Labrynthine artery
1537. Fibres which pass through genu of internal b) Anterior inter connecting cerebral artery
capsule are- (PGI 97) c) Pontine artery
a) Cortico nuclear fibres b) Rubral fibers d) Posterior communicating artery
c) Fibres of upper limb d) Fibres oflower limb 1549. Which of the following thalamic nuclei does not
project to neocortex- (AIMS 03)
1538. Optic tract is related to- (PGI 98)
a) Intralaminarnuclei
a) Olivarymucleus b) Lat. geniculate body
b) Reticular nuclei
c) Medial geniculate body d) Trapezoid body c) Pulvinar nucei
1539. Lesion of medial temporal lobe is associated with- d) Anterior thalamic nuclei
a) Auditory amnesia b) Agnosia (PGI 98) 1550. Which of the following nuclei belongs to the
c) Visual amnesia d) Alesia general visceral efferent column- (AIIMS 04)
1540. Unilateral trigeminal N. injury is tested by- a) Facial nerve nucleus
a) Elevation and lowering ofjaw (PGI 98) b) Trigeminal motor nucleus
b) Inability to tense the jaw c) Dorsal nucleus of vagus
c) Blinking of eye d) Nucleus ambiguous
d) Corneal reflex 1551. Blood brain barrier is formed by- (APPGE 04,
1541. Auditory pathway passes through- (PG/98) a) Microglia b) Oligodendrocytes AIIMS 86)
a) Medial geniculate body c) Astrocytes d) Type II Pneumotocytes
b) Lateral geniculate body 1552. Tectal breaking is seen in- (AIIMS 03)
c) Reticular formation a) Dandy- Walker malformation
d) Cerebellar fornix b) Arnold- Chiari malformation
1542. Great vein of Galen is formed by- (PGI 98, 97) c) Aqueductal stenosis
a) Superior saggital sinus with straight sinus d) Third ventricular tumour
b) Inf. sagital sinus with straight sinus 1553. Central sulcus is an example of- (Jipmer 03)
c) Internal cerebral veins a) Limiting sulcus b) Axial sulcus
d) Basilar vein c) Operculated sulcus d) Complete sulcus
1543. Which of the following tracts is seen in the 1554. All are true statement about spinal cord except-
posterior column of spinal cord- (PGI 01) a) Coccygeal ligament is investing layer of dura over
a) Leteral spinothalamic tract filum terminate (SGPGI 05)
b) Fasciculus gracilis b) Dural sac ends at S2 vertebra
c) Fasciculus cuneatus c) Cords ends at lower border ofLl
d) Rubrospinal tract d) Filum terminate extends upto coccyx
e) Posterior spinocerebellar 1555. Myelin sheath in the central nervous system is
1544. Branch of basilar artery include- (PGI 02) formed by- (SGPGI 05, KARN 04, AI 90)
a) Posterior inferior cerebellar a) Schwann cell
b) Posterior cerebral b) Microglia
c) Middle cerebral c) Oligodendrocytes
d) Post. communicating d) Protoplasmic astrocytes
e) Ant. cerebral 1556. Cerebello-pontine angle contains all except-
1545. Which of the following is/are the ventral posterior a) VITN b)VIIIN (SGPGI05)
neucleus of thalamus- (PGI 03) c) Medullo-olivary tract d) XII N
a) Medial lemniscus b) Leterallernniscus 1557. Which area is out ofthe blood brain barrier-
c) Corticospinal d) Spinothalamic a) Thalamus b) Cerebral cortex (MAHE 05,
e) Trigeminallemniscus c) 4th ventricle d) Area postrema MP 98)
1546. The mamillothalamic tract terminates in which 1558. Support of the muscles against gravity is a function
one of the following nuclei in the thalamus- of which one of the following- (ICS 05)
a) Anterior b) Ventral lateral (UPSC 02) a) Reticular nuclei
c) Mediodorsal d) Pulvinar b) Hypothalamus
1547. The following tracts enter the cerebellum through c) Supplementary motor area
Inferior Cerebellar Peduncle except- (UPSC 02) d) Amygidala
a) Posterior spino-cerebellar tract 1559. Through which part ofinternal capsule does auditory
b) Striae medullares pathway pass- (JCS 05)
c) Anterior external arculate fibres a) Anterior limb b) Posterior limb
d) Anterior spino-cerebellar tract c) Retrolentiform part d) Sublentiform part
1536)c 1537)a 1538)b 1539)a 1540)a,d 1541)a 1542)c 1543)b,cl544)b 1545)a,d,e 1546)a 1547)d 1548)b,d
1549)b 1550)c 1551)c 1552)b 1553)a 1554)a 1555)c 1556)d 1557)d 1558)a 1559)d
ANATOMY [ 1.70]
1560. Which of the following does NOT give rise to arteries 1574. Which is the Nucleus of masseteric retlex ?(AI 08)
supplying the spinal cord- (MARA 05) a) Superior sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve
a) Ascending cervical artery b) Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
b) Deep cervical artery c) Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve
c) Intercostal arteries d) Dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve
d) Thoracoacromial artery 1575. True about spinal cord-
1561. The structure which is NOT a component of basal a) In adults spinal cord ends at lower border of L l
ganglia- (APPGE 05)
vertebra
a) Caudate of basal ganglia b) Putamen
b) In newborn may extend up to L3
c) Globus pallidus d) Thalamus
1562. Sensation not represented in sensory cortex is- c) Cauda equina extends from lumbar vertebra to
a) Pain b) Temperature (Orrisa 05) coccyx
c) Touch d) Olfaction d) In embryonic period cord extends up to coccyx
1563. Nucleus ambigus includes all, except- e) It has same diameter all throughout the length
a) IX b)X (PGMCET(fl) 1576. Genu of internal capsule carries- (PGI June 08)
c) XI d)XII a) Optic radiation b) Corticospinal tract
1564. Superior colliculus is concerned with-(Corned 08) c) Corticorubral tract d) Corticonuclear tract
a) Olfaction b) Hearing 1577. The structure that passes between middle cerebellar
c) Vtsion d) Pain sensation peduncle and pons is- (Manipal 08)
1565. Posterior communicating artery a branch of-(A/ 07) a) Trigeminal nerve b) Vagus nerve
a) Internal carotid b) External carotid c) Olfactory nerve d) Optic nerve
c) Middle cerebral d) Posterior superior cerebellar 1578. Which of the following is not the branch of maxillary
1566. The structures that passes between middle branch ofinternal carotid artery? (APPG 08)
cerebellar peduncle and pons is- (MAHE 07) a) Inferior alveolar b) Middle meningeal
a) Trigeminal nerve b) Vagus nerve
c) Anterior tympanic d) Posterior tympanic
c) Olfactory nerve d) Optic nerve
1579. Visual area of cortex is supplied by-
1567. The constituents of Inferior cerebellar peduncle
includes all except- (UP 07)
a) Anterior cerebral artery (PGI Dec 08)
a) Anterior spinocerebellar b) Cuneo cerebellar b) Middle cerebral artery
c) Olivocerebellar d) Parolivocerebellar c) Posterior cerebral artery
1568. Hypoglossal nucleus lies on- (UP 07) d) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
a) Mid brain b) Pons e) Posterior choroidal artery
c) Medulla d) Lower pons 1580. Structures not passing through inferior cerebeUar
1569. Thrombosis of the following cerebral vessels leading peduncle- (PGI Dec 08)
to the Hemiplegia by- (UP 08) a) Pontocerebellar
a) Anterior cerebral b) Middle cerebral b) Cuneocerebellar
c) Posterior cerebral d) Lateral cerebral c) Anterior spinocerebellar
1570. Which of the following is NOT a branch of d) Posterior spinocerebellar
intracranial part oflnternal carotid artery -(UP 08) 1581. Which of the following brainstem nuclei is not
a) Anterior communicating derived from the alar plate- (AIIMS Nov 08)
b) Anterior cerebral a) Inferior olivary b) Substantia nigra
c) Middle cerebral c) Dentate d) Hypoglossal
d) Posterior communicating
1582. Medulla oblongata is supplied by the following
1571. Pupillary light retlex related with all EXCEPT-
a) Retina (UP 08) arteries, Except- (AI 09)
b) Pretectal nucleus a) Anterior spinal artery
c) Edinger-westphal nucleus b) Bulbar artery
d) Superficial longitudinal association tract c) Basilar artery
1572. All ofthe following cranial nerves contain somatic d) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
efferents, Except- (AI 08) 1583. VIII cranial nerve affects- (AIIMS May 09)
a) VII nerve (Facial nerve) a) Taste b) Equilibrium
b) III nerve (Occulomotornerve) c) Touch d) Smell
c) IV nerve (Trochlear nerve) 1584. Structure(s) not passing through inferior carebeller
d) VI nerve (Abducent nerve) peduncle- (PGI June 09)
1573. Facial colliculus is seen in - (AI 08) a) Pontocerebeller b) Cuneocerebeller
a) Midbrain b) Pons c) Anterior spinocerebeller d) Olivocerebeller
c) Medulla d) Interpeduncular foosa e) Vestibulocerebeller
1560)d 156l)d 1562)a,bl563)d 1564)c 1565)a 1566)a 1567)a 1568)c 1569)b 1570)a 157l)d 1572)a 1573)b
1574)c 1575)a,b,c 1576)d 1577)a 1578)d 1579)c 1580)a,c 158l)d 1582)b 1583)b 1584)a,c
ANATOMY [ 1.71]
1585. The rhombencephalon includes all except- 1596. Floor offourth ventricle contains all except-
a) Midbrain b) Pons (COMED 09) a) Abducent nucleus (Jipmer 11)
c) Medulla oblongata d) Cerebellum b) Facial nucleus
1586. Some areas in or near the brainstem, situated outside c) Dorsal vagal nucleus
the blood brain barrier, are- (DELHI PG Feb. 09) d) Hypoglossal nucleus
a) Anterior pituitaty, area postrema and subfomical 1597. Posterior communicating artery is branch of-
organ a) Internal carotid artery (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Area postrema, organum vasculosum of lamina b) External carotid artery
terminalis, posterior pituitary and subfomical or c) Middle cerebral artery
gan d) Posterior cerebral artery
c) Median eminence of hypothalamus, anterior 1598. Nucleas ambiguous doesn't include-
pituitaty, organum vasculosum oflamina terminals a) 7th nerve nucleus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
and area postrema b) 9th nerve nucleus
d) Pituitary gland, median eminence of c) 1Qth nerve nucleus
hypothalamus and subfomical organ d) I P11 nerve nucleus
1587. Trigeminal nuclei- (DELHIPGFeb. 09) 1599. Vertebral artery passes through foramen of
a) Main sensory nucleus is located in pons transverse processes of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Mesencephalic nucleus is made up of unipolar a) All cervical vertebrae
neurons b) 2nd to 5th cervical vertebrae
c) Motor nucleus is located in pons · c) All except 1"1 cervical vertebra
d) All of the given options d) All except 7th cervical vertebra
1588. The trapezoid body is concerned with- (DELHI PG 1600. Nucleus ambiguous is related to all cranial nerve
a) Pain and temperature b) Hearing Mar. 09) except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Touch and pressure d) Proprioception a) Vlll b) IX
1589. All of the following arteries supply medulla c) X d) XI
oblongata, except- (DELHI PG Mar. 09) 1601. Nucleus fasciculatus is seen in-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery a) Frontal lobe b) Medulla
b) Spinal artery c) Temporal lobe d) Midbrain
c) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery 1602. Which artery is formed by joining of2 vertebral
d) Vewrtebral artery arteries - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1590. Which ofthe following cranial nerve does not content a) Basal artery
parasympathetic motor (GVE) fibers? b) Middle cerebralartery
a) ill b) VI (DELHIPGMar. 09) c) Posterior cerebral artery
c) IX d)X d) Basilar artery
1591. True about corpus callosum- (PGJ Nov 09) 1603. Pyramidal cells are seen in?
a) Unite far area of two sides of brain a) Cerebellum (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Connect two frontal lobe b) Cerebrum
c) Unite two hemisphere c) Medulla oblongata
d) Superiorly related to - Indusium griseum d) Anterior hom cells of spinal cord
e) Unite adjacent & widespread gyri in the same lobe 1604. Posterior cerebral artery is a branch of which of
1592. Pain insensitive structure in brain is- these? (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Falxcerebri (AIIMSMay 10) a) Verterbral artery
b) Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses b) Basilar artery
c) Middle meningeal artery c) Posterior cerebral artery
d) Choroid plexus d) Posterior choroidal artery
1593. Cerebellar glomeruli are seen in layer 1605. Nucleus of occulomotor nerve is in-
of cerebellar cortex- (Maharashtra 10) a) Midbrain (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Molecular b) Purkinje b) Pons
c) Granular d) None of the above c) Medulla
1594. Deep venous system of brain consists of-(PGIMay 10) d) Thalamus
a) Internal cerebral vein b) Great cerebral vein 1606. POS1ERIOR COMMUNICATING artery is a branch
c) Basal veins · d) Cavernous sinus of~ (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1595. All of the following form the floor of third ventricle, a) Vertebral artery
Except- (AI 11) b) Internal carotid artery
a) Infundibulum b) Occulomotor nerve c) External carotid artery
c) Mammillary body d) Optic chiasma d) Basillary artery
1585)a 1586)b 1587)d 1588)b 1589)c 1590)b 1591)Ail 1592)d 1593)c 1594)a,b,c 1595)b 1596)b 1597)a
1598)a 1599)d 1600)a 1601)b 1602)d 1603)b 1604)b 1605)a 1606)b
ANATOMY [ 1.72]
1607. Diencephalon represents- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1620. The precartilagenous analogue to bone arises from-
a) Lateral ventricle b) 3'd ventricle a) Ectoderm b) Entoderm (AIIMS 85)
c) 4th ventricle d) Aquedct c) Mesenchyme d) None of the above
1608. All tracts passed through superior cerebellur 1621. Superior parathyroid glands are derived
peduncles except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) from- (PGI 86, Dehli 85)
a) Tectocerebellar b) Rubrocerebellar a) 1st branchial pouch b) 3rd branchial pouch
c) Olivocerebellar d) Cerebellorubral c) 4th branchial pouch d) 5th branchial pouch
1609. Corpus callosum- (NEETIDNB Pattern) e) None of the above
a) Projection fibers b) Commissoral fibers 1622. Oogoniaarederivedfrom- (MAHE 98)
c) Association fibers d) None a) Yolk sac b) Germinal epithelium
1610. Cerebellar cortex contains- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Chorion d) Mesoderm
a) Pyramidal cells b) Purkinje cells 1623. Foot plate of stapes is developed from- (Karnat 99)
c) Stromal cells d) Kupffer cells a) Meckel's cartilage b) Otic capsule
1611. TWo internal cerebral veins fuse to form- c) Reicherts cartilage d) Hyoid arch
a) Middle cerebral vein (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1624. A persistent left superior venacava usually drains
b) Anterior cerebral vein into the- (JIPMER 81, PGI 85)
c) Great cerebral vein a) Right atrium b) Inferior vena cava
d) Inferior cerebral vein c) Coronary sinus d) Right superior vena cava
1625. Cleft lip is due to non fusion of- (AIIMS 92)
EMBRYO a) Maxillary process with lateral nasal process
b) Maxillary process with medial nasal process
1612. Hofbauer cells are associated with- (AIIMS 78, 83) c) Maxillary process with mandibular process
a) Single umbilical artery d) All of the above
b) Maternal diabetes 1626. Uterusdevelopsfrom- (AIIMS 75)
c) Early pregnancy a) Mullerian duct b) Wolfian duct
d) Erythroblastosis foetalis c) Both d) None
1613. Mastoid process antrum begins to develop in the- 1627. Which of the following is derived from cartilage
a) 6th month b) 9th month (Jipmer80,
ofthethird arch- (JIPMER 78, AP 89)
c) 1st year d) 2nd year Delhi 87)
a) Styloid process b) Malleus
c) Incus d) Greater come ofhyoid
1614. The development of diaphragm is from-
1628. Umbilical vesicle attains fnll development in
a) Septum Transversum (AIIMS 81)
weeks of development foetus- (PGI 80, DNB 88)
b) Pleuropericardial membranes
a) 2 b)4
c) Pleuroperitonea} membranes
c) 6 d)7
d) A and C are true
1629. Patent foramen ovale is due to failure pf fusion
e) Band Care true of - (AIIMS 80, JIPMER 92)
1615. Renal agenesis is because of all except- (AI 97) a) Ostium primum with Endocardial cushion
a) Defective development of nephritis tissue b) Ostium primum with Ostium Secundum
b) Failure of ureteric bud with metanephros c) Ostium primum with Septum primum
c) Failureofascentofprimitive d) Ostium primum with mitral valve
d) All of the above 1630. Urachalfustularesults from-(JIPMER 81,AMV; 84)
1616. Epoophoronisaremnantof- (PGI95) a) Ectopic urethra
a) Wolffian duct b) Mullerian duct b) Ectopic ureter
c) Gubernaculum d) None c) Ectopic vesicae
1617. The appendix of the testis develops from d) Persistent vitellointestinal duct
a) Mesonephric duct (CUPGEE 96) e) Persistent allantois
b) Para-Mosonephric duct 1631. Length of a mature humans spermatozoon
c) Both is- (JIPMER 80, DNB 89)
d) None a) 50-60 microns b) I 0-40 microns
1618. Tonsils develop embryologically from- (PGI 88) c) I 00-200 microns d) 300-500 microns
a) First pharyngeal pouch 1632. Which of the following is not derivative of
b) Second pharyngeal pouch mesoderm- (AIIMS 81, AP 89)
c) Third pharyngeal pouch a) Ureter b) Gall bladder
d) Fourth pharyngeal pouch c) Uterus d) Epididymis
1619. Parathyroid glands develop from 1633. Weeping umbilicus refers to developmental
............branchial pouches - (AMC88) malformation of .......• - (AIIMS 84)
a) pt& 2nd b) 2nd & 3•d a) Allontois b) Vitello-intestinal duct
c) 3'd & 4th d) 5th & 6th c) Falciform ligament d) Umbilical vein
I607)b 1608)c I609)b 1610)b I61l)c 1612)c I613)a 16I4)d 16I5)c I6I6)a I6I7)b I618)b I619)c 1620)c
162I)c 1622)a 1623)b 1624)c 1625)b I626)a 1627)d 1628)b I629)b I630)e I631)a 1632)b 1633)a,b
ANATOMY [ 1. 73]
1634. Uro-rectal septum separates the cloaca into- 1645. Double barr body is seen in ......... syndrome-
a) Rectum and bladder (AIIMS 84) a) Turners b) Klinefelters (AI 89)
b) Anus and urethra c) JOOC d) Downs
c) Allantois and bladder 1646. Ligamentus arteriosus is a remnant of- (TN 89)
d) Rectum and urogenital sinus a) Ductus arterious b) Ductus caroticus
1635. Umbilical cord bas- (PG/86, 87, c) Ductus venosus d) None
a) 2 artery and 1 vein Andhra 86, Kerala 1647. Ossification centres for all carpal bones is found
b) 1 artery and 2 vein 88, TN 89,AIIMS 89) by- (AP89)
c) 2 artery and 2 ven a) 12th year b) 2"d year
d) only one artery c) 3n1 year d) 5th year
1636. The reduction of the physiological herina occurs 1648. Melanoblasts are derived from- (AP 90)
at- (PGI86,JIPMER84,AIIMS84) a) Basal epidermal cells
a) 6th week b) 7th week b) Neural crest cells
c) lOth week d) 12thweek c) Prickle cells of epidermis
e) 20thweek d) Somatopleuric mesoderm
1637. The Testes descends into the scrotum 1649. Somatic afferent columns arise from which part
during- (AIMS 86, 85, UPSC 1985) ofthe neural crest- (KERALA 91)
a) 6thmonth b)7thmonth a) Antrum b)Alarlamina
c) Endof8thmonth d) 9th month c) Basal plate d) Roof
e) lQth month 1650. Which is not derived from ectoderm -(JIPMER 91)
1638. Genital swellings in male differentiate into- a) Sclera of eye b) Sweat gland
a) Glans penis (AIIMS 85) c) Skin d) Distal part of Anus
b) Penile urethra 1651. Endoderm forms which ofthe following-
c) Ischiocavernosus of penis a) Liverparenchyma (JIPMER91)
d) Scrotum b) Trigone of bladder
e) No adult structure c) Cells lining renal tubules
1639. The first teeth to appear in an infant is-(PGI 86, 87 d) Cells fallopian tube
a) Upper iucissors UPSC 86, Kerala 86) 1652. The collecting tubules of the Kidney is derived
b) First molar from- (Jipmer 91, AIIMS 91)
c) Canine a) Mesonephros b) Metanephros
d) Lower central incissor c) Mullerian duct d) Ureteric bud
e) Secondmolar 1653. The following are derived from first branchial except-
1640. Structures derived from the neural crest are- a) Anteriormalleolarligment (Delhi 91, 93)
a) Pia (Kerala 87, PGI 86, b) Posteror malleolar ligament
b) Dental papillae AIIMS 86, A.l. 88) c) Sphenomandibular ligament
c) Adrenal medulla d) Mandible
d) Schwann cells 1654. Hofbauer cells are seen in- (AMU 91)
e) All of the above a) Liver b) Placenta
1641. Cells or parafollicular cells are derived c) Stomach d) Kidney
from- (Kerala 87, Andhra 86) 1655. Non ascent oftbe kidney is due to faulty-
a) 1st branchial pouch b) 2nd branchial pouch a) Ureteric bud b) Metanephruc cap (DNB 92)
c) 5th branchial pouch d) 4th branchial pouch c) Blood vessels d) Mesonephric ducts
e) Ultimo branchial body 1656. Which of the following is formed at birth-
1642. Shotgun perineum is- (JIPMER87) a) Otic Capsule b) Pinna (AIIMS 92)
a) Acquired condition in males c) Secondary areola d) Mastoid process
b) Acquired in females 1657. Which Of the following Umbilical blood vessel,
c) Congenital in males dissappears first- (AIIMS 92, Delhi 90)
d) Congenital condition in female a) Right umbilical vein b) Left umbilical vein
e) None of the above c) Right umbilical artery d) Left umbilical artery
1643. Malleus and Incus are derived from- (FN87)
1658. Formation of primary ovary in female foetus
a) First arch b) Second arch
takes place by- (PGI93, AIIMS 76)
c) Third arch d) Fourth arch a) 6th week b) 8th week
1644. The most important structure involved in c) lQthweek d) 12thweek
development of inferior vena cava is- (AIIMS 87)
1659. Skeletal element of second branchial arch-
a) Supracardinal vein b) Umbilical vein
a) Malleus b) Incus (PGI 93)
c) Subcardinal vein d) Anterior cardinal vein
c) Meckel's cartilage d) Stapes
e) Posterior cardinal vein
1634)d 1635)a 1636)c 1637)c 1638)d 1639)d 1640)e 164l)c,e 1642)d 1643)a 1644)a,c 1645)c 1646)a 1647)a
1648)b 1649)b 1650)a 165l)a 1652)d 1653)b 1654)b 1655)c 1656)a,bl657)a 1658)b 1659)d
ANATOMY [ 1.74]
1660. Regarding zonal pellucida what is wrong-(AI/MS 94) 1673. Mediline cleft lip is due to failure offusion of-
a) Acellular b) Contains glycoprotein a) Two medial nasal processes (Kerala OJ)
c) Surrounds morula d) Surrounds ovum b) Medial & lateral nasal processes
1661. In embryo the inner cell mass forms the- c) Two lateral nasal processes
a) Embryonic disc (AIIMS 94) d) Any of the above
b) Extra embryonic mesoderm, 1674. Notochord develops in- (NIMHANS OJ)
c) Chorion a) 3rctweek b) 3rctmonth
d) Allantois c) 6 months d) 1Oth week
1662. All are developed from ectoderm except- 1675. Commonesttypeofcleftlipis- (PGI200J)
a) Bilateral b) Midline
a) Lens b)Brain (Kerala 94)
c) Combined with cleft palate d) Unilateral,
c) Spinal cord d) Retinal vascular endothelium
1676. Exomphalosisadiseaseinvolving- (PGI 200J)
1663. Thymusdevelopsfrom- (Kerala 94) a) Umbilicus b)Cervix
a) 4th arch b) 2"ctarch c) Abdominal wall d) Urinary bladder
c) 3ro pouch d) 6th pouch 1677. C-cells ofthyroid are derived from- (PGI 02)
1664. Umblical vein assumes which of the following a) I branchial arch b) II branchial arch
positions after birth- (Assam 95) c) III branchial arch d) IV branchial arch
a) Ligamentumteres e) Ultimobranchial body
b) Urachus 1678. True about gastrulation is- (AI 2002)
c) Medial umblicalligament a) Process involving rotation of Gastrointestinal tract
d) lateral umblicalligament b) Process by which 3 germinal layers form
1665. Proximal convolutd tubules develops from- c) Occurs in 4th week of gestation
a) Mesonephric duct (JIPMER '98) d) Involves hypoblastic inner cell mass
b) Metanephric tubules 1679. Bone does not present at birth- (CUPGEE 02)
c) Mesonephric tubules a) Malleus b) Incus
d) Ureteric buds c) Stapes d) Petrous temporal
1666. The structure derived from the right fourth aortic 1680. The membranous part of the atrio ventricular
arch- (TN 98) part of interventricular septum is between-
a) Right common carotid artery a) RA&LV b)LA&RV (JIPMER2002)
c) RA&RV d)LA&LV
b) Right subclavian artery
1681. At 30 days intra uterine life- (NIMHANS 2002)
c) Aortioc arch a) Heart starts beating b) Cerebellum develops
d) None ofthe above c) Optical vesicle appears d) Pinna appears
1667. Corona Radiata of ovum is formed from- (A/98) 1682. The interventricular septum is formed by which
a) Cummulus ovaricus b) Zona pellucida oftbefollowing- (PGI 2002)
c) Formative yolk d) Follicular cells a) Truncus septum b) Conus septum
1668. During formation of a vertebra, which one ofthe c) Septum spurium d) Endocardial cushion
following is intersegmental in position- (ICS 98) e) Bulbar septum
a) Intervertebral disc b) Artery 1683. Following are derived from II arch except- (PGI 98)
c) Spinal nerve d) Myotome a) Malleus/Incus b) Stylohyoid ligament
1669. Number ofBarr bodies in Super female- c) Stapes d) Smaller cornu of hyoid
a) one b) two (MAHE 98) 1684. Paraxial mesoderm develops into- (PGI 99)
c) three d) zero a) Sornites b) Mesonephric duct
1670. All are endodermal in origin except- (MP 2K) c) Notochord d) All ofthe above
a) Hepatocyte b) Odontoblast 1685. In a female child at birth oocyte is in a stage of-
c) Alveolar lining cells d) None a) Anaphase 2nd meoitic (PGI 2000)
1671. All are mesodermal in origin except- (MP 2K) b) Prophaselstmeiotic
a) Iris stroma b) Ciliary body c) Oogony
d) Maturation
c) Dilator pupillae d) Viteous
1686. True about development all except- (PGI 2000)
1672. Melanoblast cells appear in basal layer of
a) Parathyroid glands develop from 3'd & 4th
epidermis during- (ICS 2K)
branchial arch
a) 3ro month of intrauterine life b) Tongue muscles develop from occipital myotome
b) 5th month of intrauterine life c) Superior parathyroid gland develops from 4th
c) 7th month of intrauterine life branchial arch
d) 8th month of intrauterine life d) Inferior parathyriod gland develop from 2"d
branchial arch
1660)None 166l)a 1662)d 1663)c 1664)a 1665)b 1666)b 1667)d 1668)b 1669)b 1670)b 1671)c 1672)a
1673)a 1674)a l675)c 1676)c 1677)e 1678)b 1679)d 1680)a 1681)c 1682)b,d,e 1683)a 1684)a 1685)b
1686)a,c,d
ANATOMY[1.75]
1687. True about morula- (PGI OJ) 1699. The length of the umbilical cord is ----em- (TN 04)
a) 8-cell stage a) 50 b)60
b) 16-cell stage c) 70 d)75
c) Solid mass with fluid inside 1700. Lack offusion of maxillary and medial nasal process
d) Ach.barrier present results in - (CMC 05)
e) Zona pellucida present a) Upper hare lip b) Lower hare lip
1688. Primordial germ cells develop from- (PGI 02) c) Cleft palate d) Cleft lower lip & palate
a) Neural crest b) Splanchnic mesoderm e) Cleft palate and upper lip
c) Genital ridge d) Yolk sac 1701. TornsAorticus is an impression in the cavity of-
e) Somatic mesoderm a) Right atrium b) Right ventricle (Karn 05)
1689. Derivaties of neural Creastis/are- (PGJ 03)
c) Left ventricle d) Left atrium
a) Para follicular cells of thyroid
1702. The germ cells are derived from- (ICS 05, AP 89,
b) Adrenal crest
a) Yolksacendoderm Al93)
c) Adrenal medulla
d) Dorsal roort ganglia b) Amnion
e) Autonomic ganglia c) Germinal epithelium of gonad
1690. In the testis, haploid number of chromosomes are d) Allantois
presentin- (UPSC02) 1703. Which one of the following cells of germinal
a) Spermatogonia Type A epithelium oftestis divides by meiosis- (ICS 05)
b) Primary spermatocyte a) Type A spermatogonium
c) Spermatids b) Primary spermatocyte
d) Spermatogonia- Type B c) Spermatid
1691. Anterior neuropore closes on- (Orris a 04) d) Secondary spermatocyte
a) 16 days b) 24 days 1704. The results ofthe fertilization include the following
c) 28 days d) 8 days except- (J &K 05)
1692. Sphincter and dilator pupillae develops from- a) Acrosome reaction
a) Neuroectoderm (Jipmer 04) b) Restoration of diploid number of chromosome
b) Surface ectoderm c) Determination of sex
c) Mesoderm d) Initiation of cleavage
d) Endoderm 1705. Which one of the following muscles does NOT
1693. All are ectodermal in origin except- (Kerala 04) develop from the second pharyngeal arch-
a) Cerebellum b) Anal canal a) Posterior belly of digastric (J & K 05)
c) Sebaceous gland d)Bonemarrow b) Tensor palatine
1694. Meiosis occurs in human males in- (AIIMS 04)
c) Stapedius
a) Epididymis b) Seminiferous tubules
d) Stylohyoid
c) Vas deferens d) Seminal vesicles
1706. In hydatidiform mole, blood cells does not develop
1695. The germ cell are- (UPPGMEE 04)
because of defect in- (MAHA 05)
a) Genital ridge
b) Ebdoderm of neuroectoderm a) Primary ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm ofYolk sac c) Endoderm d) Trophoblast
d) Endoderm of all onto sis 1707. Defect in any of the following may result in renal
1696. Following cartilage are derivative of Second arch agenesis except- (MAHA 05)
EXCEPT- (UPPGMEE 04) a) Nephrogenic bud
a) Smaller cornu of hyoid b) Ureteric bud
b) Greater cornu of hyoid c) Blastoma of nephrogenic tissue
c) Styloid process d) Failure of descent of nephrogenic tissue oflumbar
d) Stylohyoid ligament area
1697. Clitoris develops from- (Mahara 02) 1708. Appendix of epidydimis is a remnant of-(APPGE 05)
a) Genital tubercle b) Genital ridge a) Mesonephric duct b) Paramesonephric duct
c) Wolfian duct d) Mullerian duct c) Mullerian duct d) None
1698. Incomplete closure of ectodermal cleft is know to 1709. 41h Ventricle develops from- (Orrisa 05)
cause- (SGPGJ 04) a) Telencephalon b) Mesencephalon
a) Retinal detachment c) Diencephalon d) Rhombencephlon
b) Iridodonesis 1710. 3n1 Ventricle develops from- (Orrisa 05)
c) Retinoblastoma a) Diencephalon b) Telencephalon
d) Coloboma of iris and retina c) Mesencephalon d) Prosencephalon
1687)b,e 1688)d 1689)c,d,e 1690)c 1691)b 1692)a 1693)d 1694)b 1695)c 1696)b 1697)a 1698)d 1699)a
1700)e 1701)a 1702)a 1703)b 1704)a 1705)b 1706)b 1707)d 1708)a 1709)d 1710)a
ANATOMY [ 1.76]
1711. Axillary sheath is derived from- (Orrisa 05) 1726. Regarding sexual differentiation of the fetus-
a) Pre-vertebral layer of deep cervical fascia a) Gonadal development begins at 5th week of
b) Post vertebral layer of deep cervical fascia intrauterine life (AIIMS Nov 07)
c) Pre tracheal fascia b) Y chromosome determines the differentiation of
d) Carotid sheath ovaries
1712. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell c) Female external genitalia development is completed
cycle- (AI05) by lOweeks.
a) Interphase b) Metaphase d) Male sexual differentiation occurs earlier than
c) Glphase d) Telophase females
1713. Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of- (AIIMS May 1727. All are mesodermal in origin except- (UP 08)
a) Dilator pupillae b) Chroid
a) Stenson's duct b) Wolffian duct 05)
c) Iris d) Ciliary body
c) Mullerian duct d) Vitellointestinal duct
1728. All are neural crest derivatives except- (UP 08)
1714. Polar bodies are formed during- (AI 06)
a) Cauda - equina b) Adrenal medulla
a) Spermatogenesis b) Organogenesis c) Melanoblast d) Odontoblasts
c) Oegenesis d) Morphogenesis 1729. According to embryologist, embryo is termed till-
1715. Nucleus pulposus is a remnant of- (APPG 2006) a) 8 weeks offertilization (PGI June 08)
a) Notochord b) Intervertebral disc b) 10 weeks after fertilization
c) Spinal cord d) Spinous process c) 10 weeks after fertilization
1716. Vitelline vein forms- d) 12 weeks after LMP
a) Ligamentum venosum b) Ligamentum teres e) 12 weeks after fertilization
c) Portal vein d) Coronary sinus 1730. Pre auricular sinus is formed due to- (Manipal 08)
1717. Ductus deference is derived from- (Manipal 2006) a) Improper fusion of auricular tubercles
a) Mesonephric duct b) Mullerian duct b) Persistent opening of first bronchial arch
c) Paramesonephric d) Vitelline duct c) Degeneration of auricular tubercles
1718. Somitesarederivedfrom- (PGMCET07,1N95) d) None of the above
a) Paraxial mesoderm 1731. In ductus venous the fetal blood from the plecenta
b) Lateral plate mesoderm reaches to the liver through- (DPGEE 08)
c) Intermediate mesoderm a) Portal vein b)Rtumblicalvein
d) Mesoblastic nephroma c) Inferior vena cava d) Left umblical vein
1719. Primordial germ cell is derived from- (AI 07) 1732. Which ofthe following is not present at birth ?
a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm a) Mastoid tip (APPG 08)
c) Endoderm d) Mesodermal sinus b) Mastoid antrum
1720. Most common site of ectopic pancreatic tissue is- c) Ethmoidallabrynth
d) Endolymphatic sinus
a) Stomach b) Jejunum· (Aiims May 07)
1733. Closure of Neural tube begins at which of the
c) Appendix d) Hilum of spleen
following levels- (AI 09)
1721. The outer layer of the blastocyst form- (UP 07)
a) Cervical region b) Thoracic region
a) Primitive streak b) Yolk sac c) Cephalic end d) Caudal end
c) Embryo proper d) Trophoblast 1734. Following statements are true regarding first
1722. The embryological first pharyngeal arches pharynegeal arch- (PGI June 09)
remains- (UP 07) a) Maxullary & mandibular prominences are formed
a) Sphenomandibular ligament b) Maxilla & Zygomatic bone are formed by
b) Stylonoid ligament intermembranous ossification
c) Stylomandibular ligament c) Tensor palati formed by first arch.
d) Styloid ligament d) Facial nerve is nerve supply of first arch.
1723. Forelimb bud appears on- (UP 07) e) Glosspharyngeal is nerve supply of first arch
a) 21 days b) 26 days 1735. Spiral ganglion and organ of Corti are fully developed
c) 28 days d) 30 days in a foetus by- (COMED 09)
1724. Primitive streak is initiated and maintained by- a) 20 weeks b) 25 weeks
a) Nodal gene b) BMP4 (AIIMS Nov 07) c) 30 weeks d) 35 weeks
c) FGF d) Brachyury gene 1736. The umbilical cord has- (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
1725. Ureter develops from- (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Two arteries and one vein
a) Mesonephric tubules b) Mesonephric duct b) One arteries and two vein
c) Urogenital sinus d) Paramesonephric duct c) Two arteries and two veins
d) One artery and one vein
1711)a 1712)a 1713)d 1714)c 1715)a 1716)c 1717)a 1718)a 1719)a 1720)a 1721)d 1722)a 1723)b 1724)a
1725) b 1726) a,d 727) a 1728) a 1729) a 1730) a 1731) d 1732) a 1733) a 1734) a,b,c 1735) a 1736) a
ANATOMY[1.77]
173 7. Ventral mesogastrium derivatives includes all, 1749. What is the embryological remnant of Median
except: (DELHI PG Mar. 09) umbilical ligament? (Karn 11)
a) Falciform ligament b) Coronary ligament a) Urachus b) Allantois
c) Lesser omentum d) Gastrosplenic ligament c) Amnion d) Yolk sac
1738. Meissner's and Auerbach's plexus are derived from- 1750. Derivatives of urogenital sinus includes all
a) Neural crest (AIIMS Nov 09) except - (Jipmer I 0)
b) Yolk sac a) Bladder b) Membranous urethra
c) Primordial germ cell c) Prostatic urethra d) Ejaculatory duct
d) Epithelial lining of gut 1751. Derivatives of mesonephric duct are all
1739. All ofthe following are composite muscles, except- except- (Jipmer IO)
a) Flexor carpi ulnaris (AI IO) a) Ductus deferens b) Seminal vesicles
b) Flexor digitorum profundus c) Epididymis d) Rete testis
c) Pectineus 1752. Cranial end ofWolftian ductforms- (Jipmer I 0)
d) Biceps femoris a) Epophoron b) Paroophoron
1740. Paramesonephric duct in males remains as- c) Bartholin's duct d) Gartner's duct
a) Prostatic utricle (Maharashtra I 0) 1753. Cardiac septum develops by- (Jipmer 11)
b) Prostatic urethra a) 5 - 8 weeks b) 9 - 12 weeks
c) Colliculus seminalis c) 12 - 16 weeks d) 16 - 18 weeks
d) Ejaculatory duct 1754. Umbilical cord contains- (Jipmer 11)
1741. Which of the following arteries is derivative of a) 1 vein & 2 arteries b) 2 vein & 1 artery
second branchical arch? (Maharashtra I 0) c) 2 veins & 2 arteries d) 1 vein & 1 artery
a) Maxillary artery 1755. Remnant of mesonephric duct are all except-
b) Middle meningeal artery a) Paraoophoron b) Epoophoron (Jipmer 11)
c) Stapedial artery c) Gartner's duct d) Bartholin's duct
d) Anterior tympanic artery 1756. Renal agenesis is due to- (Jipmer 11)
1742. Meckl's cartilage develops from?(Maharashtra I 0) a) Defect in ascent of metanephron
a) I branchial arch b) II branchial arch b) Defective formation of nephritic tissue
c) III branchial arch d) IV branchial arch c) Defect of the ureteric bud & mesonephros
1743. False statement about fetal development- d) All of the above
a) Fetal legs develop before upper limb(PGI Nov I 0) 1757. Which of the following is true about vertebral
b) Growth in length is very fast in 3-5th month development? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Thumbs are formed in preaxial border a) The notochord forms the annulus fibrosus
d) Fetus gains maximum weight in 1st trimester b) The sclerotome forms the nucleus pulposus
e) Upper limb develops before legs c) The sclerotome surrounds the notochord only
17 44. Which of the following attains adult size before d) The sclerotome surrounds the notochord and
birth? (AIIMS Nov·IO) the neural tube
a) Ear Ossicles b) Maxilla 1758. After first meiotic division, the primary oocyte
c) Mastoid Process d) Parietal bone remains arrested in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1745. Structure derived from neural crest is -(Punjab I 0) a) Diplotene stage b) Pachytene stage
a) Retina b) Cauda equina c) Metaphase d) Telophase
c) Melanocytes d) Adrenal cortex 1759. Double aorta occurs due to - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1746. Diaphragm develops from all of the following a) Non development of right 4th aortic arch
structures, except- (AI 11) b) Non development of left 4th aortic arch
a) Septum transversum c) No division of truncus arteriosus
b) Pleuroperitonea! membrane d) Persistence of distal portion of the right dorsal
c) Cervical myotomes aorta
d) Dorsal mesocardium 1760. Pharyngeal tonsil develop from which pharyngeal
174 7. Muscular component of dorsal aorta develops from- pouch- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) AxialMesoderm (AI 11) a) First b) Second
b) Paraxial Mesoderm c) Third d) Fourth
c) Intermediate mesoderm 1761. During the third week of human embryo
d) Lateral plate mesoderm development- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1748. Which of the following vessels do not carry a) Neural plate formed by stimulation from notochord
deoxygenated bood in fetal circulation? (AI 11) b) Amniotic disc forms
a) Pulmonary Artery b) Umbilical Artery c) Body stalk moves ventrally to form umbilical cord
c) Umbilical Vein d) Pulmonary Vein d) Primitive streak formation
1737)d 1738)a 1739)a 1740)a 1741)c 1742)a 1743)a,d 1744)a 1745)c 1746)d 1747)b>d 1748)c
1749)None 1750)d 175l)d 1752)a 1753)a 1754)a 1755)d 1756)d 1757)d 1758)a 1759)d 1760)b 1761)d
ANATOMY[1.78]
1762. The upper 3/4th of vagina develops from- 1775. Cytotrophoblasts invades- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Mullerian duct (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) D parietalis b) D basalis
b) Wolfian duct c) D capularis d) None
c) Sino vaginal bulb 1776. Embgryological development ofthe human vertebra
d) Endodenn is from - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1763. Rectum develops from- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Somite b) Endoderm
a) Cloaca b) Hind gut c) Ectoderm d) None
c) Allantoic remnants d) Urogeital sinus 1777. Endodermal cloaca gives rise to all of the following
1764. Skeletal derivative of 2nd pharyngeal arch - except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Malleus b) Incus (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Rectum
c) Stapes d) Maxilla b) Lower Y:z of anal canal
1765. Umbilical cord contains- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Upper Y:z of anal canal
a) 2 arteries & 1 vein b) 2 arteries & 2 veins d) Mucous membrane of bladder
c) 1 artery & 1 vein d) 1 artery and 2 veins 1778. Embryonic period of development is -
1766. All are derived from neuroectoderm except - a) Upto 16 weeks (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Dilator pupillae (NEET/DNB Pattern) b) Upto 12 weeks
b) Lens vesicle c) UptolO weeks
c) Optic nerve d) Upto 8 weeks
d) Posterior layers of retina 1779. Which of these is correct about the development of
1767. Bladder develops from- (NEETIDNB Pattern) tonsil ? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm a) Is a derivative of the first pharyngeal arch
c) Endoderm d) Neural crest cells b) Develops .from the third pharyngeal pouch
1768. Development of labia majora is from - c) Develops from the second pharyngeal pouch
a) Urogenital sinus (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Is a derivative of the neural crest cells
b) Mullerian duct 1780. Which of the following is derived from endoderm-
c) Genital ridge a) Gall bladder (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Genital swelling b) Lens
1769. All develop from the hindgut except- c) Spleen
a) Ascending colon (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Lymph nodes
b) Descending colon 1781. Small intestine develops from-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Sigmoid colon a) Foregut b) Midgut
d) Rectum c) Hindgut d) Endodermal cloaca
1770. Myoblasts of diaphragm develops from which 1782. Which is derived from wolffian duct -
somites - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Appendix of testis (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Cervical 1-3 b) Cervical 2-4 b) Uterus
c) Cervical 3-5 d) Cervical 5-7 c) Appendix of epididymis
1771. Primordial germ cells are desired from - d) Hydatid of margagni
a) Yolk sac endoderm (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1783. Artery of 2nd pharyngeal arch is -
b) Yolk sac medoderm a) Maxillary artery (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Epiblast ,) Stapedial artery
d) Gonadal ridge c) Subclavian artery
1772. All are derived from ectoderm except- d) Common carotid artery
a) Lens (NEET/DNB Pattern) 1784. Umbilical cord has - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Eustachian tube a) 2 veins and 1 artery
c) Spinal cord b) 1 artery and 1 vein
d) Retina c) 2 arteries and 1 vein
1773. Tongue muscles are derived from - d) 2 arteries and 2 veins
a) Occipital somites (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1785. Single unit smooth muscles are seen in-(NEETI
b) Pharyngeal pouch a) Iris b) Ductus deferens DNB Pattern)
c) Hypobranchial emminence c) Ureter d) Trachea
d) Neural crest 1786. Second arch derivative - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1774. Development of peritoneal cavity is from- a) Malleus b) Incus
a) Mesenchyme (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Stapes d) None
b) Introembyonic coelom 1787. The outer layer ofthe blastocyst forms- (NEETI
c) Extoderm a) Primitive streak b) Yolk sac DNB Pattern)
d) Endoderm c) Embryo proper d) Trophoblast
1762)a l763)a 1764)c 1765)a 1766)b 1767)c l768)d 1769)a 1770)c 177l)a 1772)b 1773)a 1774)b 1775)b
1776)a l777)b 1778)d 1779)c l780)a 178l)b 1782)c l783)b 1784)c 1785)c 1786)c 1787)d
ANATOMY [ 1.79]
1788. Implantation occurs at- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1801. Which ofthe following are true ofthe nephron or it
a) 2-3 days b) 6-7 days parts- (AP 89)
c) 15-20 days d) 20-25 days a) It is the principal site of action of antiduretic
1789. Double aotric develops from- (NEETIDNB Pattern) homone (ADH)
a) I'' arch artery b) 2nd arch artery b) Sodium is actively transported by its cells
c) Right dorsal aorta d) Left dorsal aorta c) It is made up in part of a stratified epithelium
1790. Mesodermal in origin - (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) It is found in the pars conviouta, pars radiata, and
a) Astrocytes b) Oligodendrocytes medulla
c) Ependymal cells d) Microglial cells 1802. Good collateral circulation occurs in- (A/91)
1791. Which of the following is derived from a) Skin b) Muscle
ectoderm- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Fascia d) Bone
a) Epithelium of iris b) Ciliary muscles 1803. Sinuses are not seen in- (Kerala 91)
c) Vascular endothelium d) Sclera a) Kidney b) Spleen
1792. Which of the following are derived from c) Endocrine glane d) Liver
mesodrm- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1804. Which is not a feature of Skeletal muscle -(JIPMER
a) Astrocytes b) Oligodendrocytes a) Spindle shaped fibres b) Syncytium 91)
c) Microlial cells d) Schwarm cells c) Striations d) Hypolemmalnucleus
1805. Epitheliumofcomeais- (AP 91)
HISTOLOGY a) Pseudostratified
b) Transitional
1793. What best characterises the sinusoids- (AMU 86) c) Statified squamous keratinized
a) Have smaller diameter than lymph capillaries d) Statified squamous non keratinized
b) Are not found in skeletal muscle 1806. Epithelial lining of the Tonsil is- (JIPMER 93)
c) Have a continuous endothelial lining a) Cuboidal
d) Have a continuous basement membrance b) Squamous epithelium without Keratinisation
1794. Select the statement which best characterises c) Squamous epithelium with Keratinisation
lymph capillaries- (Rohtak 86) d) Columnar
a) have smaller diameter than blood capillaries 1807. Hassals coupuscles are seen in- (Kerala 94)
b) Less permeable than blood capillaries a) Thymus b) Spleen
c) Have no endothelial lining c) Lymph node d) Appendix
d) Have a discontinuous basement membrane 1808. Which of the following is lined by transitional
1795. Which of the following cells Contain organeles epithelium- (JIPMER 95)
needed for the secretion of a proteinaceous product- a) Stomach b) Colon
a) Pyramidal cells of the pancreatic acini (PGI 82) c) Urethro vericaljunction d) Prostrate
b) Chief cells ofthe stomach 1809. Ansa nephroniis lined by- (Jipmer 95)
c) Serous-Secreting cells of the parotid gland a) Columnarepithelium
d) Fibroblast b) Squamous epithelium
e) None c) Cuboidal and columnar epithelium
1796. The ureter is lined by.........ephithelium -(AIIMS 84) d) Stratified squamous epithelium
a) Stratified squamous b) Cuboidal e) Cuboidal and Squamous
c) Cilliated columnar d) Transitional 1810. Toughestlayer in esophagus is- (AI 95)
1797. JG cells (Juxta glomerular apparatus) are- a) Mucosa b) Submucosa
a) Macula densa (ROHTAK 87) c) Muscularis d) Adventitia
b) Smooth muscular cells of afferent arteriole 1811. Parietal peritonium is lined by- (PGI 95)
c) Smooth muscular cells of efferent arteriole a) Simple squamous b) Stratified squamous
d) Islets of epithelial cells c) Cuboidal d) Columnar
1798. Ducts of Bellini are found in- (PGI 87) 1812. Brunner's glands are located in the-
a) Pancreas b) Submandibular salivary gland a) Duodenum b) Jejunum (CUPGEE 96)
c) Kidney d)Liver c) ileum d)All
1799. Haversian system is seen in- (AQP 88) 1813. The normal process by which the existing epithelial
a) Cortical bone b) Cancellous bone cells of skin are replaced by new epithelial cells is
c) Teeth d)Nail called- (CUPGEE 96)
1800. Auerbachs plexus is present in the - (Kerala 88, a) Apoptosis b) Autolysis
a) Colon Karnataka 89)
c) Both d) Any of these
1814. Space ofDisse is seen in- (M.P 98)
b) Esophagus c) Stomach
a) Spleen b) Kidney
d) S. intestine e) All of the above
c) Liver d) Small intestine
1788)b 1789)c 1790)d 179l)a 1792)c 1793)b 1794)d 1795)a,b,c 1796)d 1797)b 1798)c 1799)a 1800)e
180l)b,d 1802)a 1803)None 1804)a,d 1805)d 1806)b 1807)a 1808)c 1809)e 1810)c 1811)a 1812)a 1813)a
1814)c
ANATOMY [ 1.80]
1815. Olfactory epithelium is- (Kerala 98) 1830. All of the following physiological processes occur
a) Squamous Keratinised during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except-
b) Squamous non keratinised a) Proliferation and hypertrophy (AI 05)
c) Striated columnar b) Calcification and ossification
d) Simple c) Vasculogenesis and erosison
e) Pseudostratified d) Replacement ofred bone marrow with yellow marrow
1831. Ceruminous glands present in the ear are-
1816. AllhaveNOLYMPHATICS,except- (AIIMS98)
a) Modified eccrine glands (AIIMS May 05)
a) Brain b) Internal ear
b) Midified apocrine glands
c) Dennis d) Eye c) Mucous gland
1817. Halocrine secretion is seen in .. gland-(JIPMER 99) d) Modified holocrine glands
a) Salivary b) Mammary 1832. Neuro-epithelium type of sensory receptors are
c) Sebaceous glands d) Gastric present in the following system except-
1818. Largest organelle in eukaryote is- (Orissa R) a) VIsual b) Auditory (AIIMS May 05)
a) FR b) Nucleus c) Gustatory d) Olfactory
c) Cytoskeleton d) Golgi body 1833. The ducts of all the following glands consist of
1819. The commonest cartilage to ossify is- (TNPSC 2K) stratified cuboidal epithelium except- (AIIMS May
a) Hyaline b) Elastic a) Sweat gland b) Sebaceous glands 05)
c) Fibrous d) Fibroelastic c) Salivary glands d) Pancreas
1820. Stellate cells of von Kuffer are seen in the sinusoids 1834. Von Brun's nest is seen in- (Corned 08)
of which ofthe following organs- (Kerala 2K) a) Normalurothelium
b) Transitional cell carcinoma
a) Spleen b) Bone marrow
c) squamous cell carcinoma
c) Liver d) Adrenal
d) adeno carcinoma
e) None of the above 1835. Cell which does not migrate from the base of the
1821. Gittercellsare- (KeralaOJ) crypt to ends of villi is- (Aiirns May 07)
a) Microglia b) Modified macrophages a) Enterocyte b) Endocrine cell
c) Astrocytes d) Neutrophils c) Paneth cell d) Goblet cell
1822. Intercalated disc is present in- (PGI 2000) 1836. The upper half of the oesophagus in lined by-
a) Cardiac muscle b) Smooth muscle a) Stratified cuboidal epithelium (UP 07)
c) Skeletalmuscle d)All b) Stratified squamous non keratinised epithelium
1823. Number of cartilages in bronchiole- (Orris a 04) c) Stratified squamous non keratinsed epithelium
a) 1 b)2 d) Stratified squamous keratinised epithelium
c) 3 d)None 183 7. Ahnost exclusively urinary bladder is lined by -(UP 07)
1824. Nissle's substance is mainly- (Orris a 04) a) Squamous epithelium b) Columnar epithelium
a) Histone b) Ribosomes c) Transitional epithelium d) Cuboidal epithelium
1838. A patient presented with acute abdominal pain. On
c) DNA d) Ribonucleoprotein
clinical suspicion the pt underwent cholecystectomy.
1825. Elastic cartilage is found in- (SGPGI 04)
On histopathological examination the finding is
a) Auditory tube b) Nasal septum normal. The gallbladder epithelium will be -
c) Articular cartilage d) Costal cartitage a) Squamous epithelium (AIIMS Nov 07)
1826. The synovial bursa between an aponeurosis and a b) Simple columnar with brush border
bone is called- (J & K 05) c) Simplecolumnar
a) Subtendinous b) Submuscular d) Simple columnar with sterocilia
c) Subfascial d) Subcutaneous 1839. Urothelium lines all except- (AIIMS Nov 07)
1827. The following structures do NOT have lymphatics, a) Ureters b) Minor calyx
except- (J & K 05) c) Urinary bladder d) Collecting duct
a) Bone marrow b) Bronchii 1840. The epithelial lining of the urethra below the
c) Cartilage d) Epidermis opening of the ejaculatory ducts is- (Corned 08)
1828. The following glands contain the myoepithelial cells, a) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
except- (J & K 05) b) Stratified columnar epithelium
c) Transitional epithelium
a) Mammary glands b) Salivary glands
d) Stratified squamous epithelium
c) Sebaceous glands d) Sweat glands
1841. Tonsil is lined by - (UP 08)
1829. Goblet cells are present in- (Orissa 05) a) Stratified squamous keratinised epithelium
a) Trachea b) Jejunum b) Stratified squamous non keratinised epithelium
c) Epididymis d) Ileum c) Columnarepithelium
d) Cuboidal epithelium
1815)e 1816)c 1817)c 1818)a 1819)d 1820)c 182l)a 1822)a 1823)d 1824)d 1825)a 1826)c 1827)a,c 1828)c
1829)a 1830)d 1831)b 1832)a,b,d 1833)b 1834)a 1835)c 1836)c 1837)c 1838)b 1839)d 1840)b 1841)b
ANATOMY [ 1.81 ]
1842. Ureter's is Hoed by- (UP 08) 1856. Lining epithelium of vagina is- {NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Cuboidal epithelium b) Columar epithelium a) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
c) Squamous epithelium d) Transitional epithelium b) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
1843. Which is not lined by stratified nonkeratinised c) Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
squamaous epithelium? (APPG 08) d) Ciliated columnar epithelium
a) Hypopharynx and laryngopharynx 1857. Lining epithelium of fallopian tube is -
b) Oesophagus a) Simple columnar {NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Cornea b) Pseudo-stratified colunmar
d) Tympanic membrane c) Ciliated colunmar
1844. About osteon which ofthe following statement (s) d) Simple cuboidal
is/are correct- (PGI Dec 08) 1858. Lining epithelium of the uterine cavity is -
a) Present in compact bone a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Concentric lamallae is present b) Simple columnar epithelium {NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Haversian canal is present c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Volkman's canal surrounded by concentric lamellae d) Ciliated columnar epithelium
1845. Cells present in Cerebellar cortex are all except- 1859. Mucous glands are absent in- {NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Purk:inje b) Bipolar (AIIMS Nov 08) a) Cervix b) Esophagus
c) Granule d) Golgi c) Vagina d) Duodenum
1846. Gut Associated lymphoid tissue (GALl) is primarily 1860. All are derived from ectoderm except -{NEETIDNB
located in- (AI 09) a) Hypophysis b) Retina Pattern)
a) Lamina propria b) Submucosa c) Spinal cord d) Adrenal cortex
c) Muscularis d) Serosa 1861. Clara cells are present in - {NEET/DNB Pattern)
1847. Urothelium lines all except- (AIIMS May 09) a) Alveoli b) Bronchus
a) Ureters b) Minor calyx c) Bronchioles d) Trachea
c) Urinary bladder d) Membranous Urethra
1862. Trachea is lined by - {NEETIDNB Pattern)
1848. Ruffled membrane is seen in- (COMED 09)
a) Stratified squamous epithelium
a) White fibrous cartilage b) Osteoblast
b) Ciliated columnar epithelium
c) Osteoclast d) Elastic cartilage
c) Simple columnar epithelium
1849. After ovulation the discharged oocytes and
d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
surrounding layer of granulosa cells are known
1863. Transistional epithelium is present in -
as- (DELHIPGFeb. 09)
a) Renal pelvis {NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Corpus luteum b) Corona radiata
c) Stigma d) Zona pellucida b) Loop of Henle
1850. Urothelium lines all except- (AIIMS Nov 09)
c) Terminal part of urethra
d) PCT
a) Ureters b) Major calyx
c) Urinary bladder d) Membranous urethra 1864. Which ofthe following cells will proliferate from
1851. Paneth cells- true is- (AIIMS May 10) top to bottom of villi- {NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum a) Chief cells b) Goblet cells
b) High zine content c) Paneth cells d) Pairetal cells
c) Foamy cytoplasm 1865. Multi-unit smooth muscle present at all except-
d) Numerous lysozyme granules a) Blood vessels b) Iris {NEETIDNB Pattern)
1852. Human intestinal glands contain _ _ -{Maha 10) c) Gut d) Ductus deferens
a) Paneth cells b) Neuroendocrine cells 1866. Which ofthe following is an example of holocrine
b) Stem cells d) AU ofthe above gland - {NEETIDNB Pattern)
1853. Portal Acinus in liver is centered on?(Maharashtra a) Mammary glands b) Sweat glands
a) Central vein b) Hepatic arteriole 10) c) Sebaceous glands d) Parotid glands
c) Portal tract d) Bile ductule 1867. All cartilage is covered by perichondrium
1854. Which of the following is a holocrine gland ? except- {NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Sweat gland {NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Hyaline b) Elastic
b) Breast c) Fibrocartilage d) None of the above
c) Pancreas 1868. Which of the following is not a hyaline
d) Sebaceous gland cartilage- {NEETIDNB Pattern)
1855. Transitional epithelium is seen in - a) Articular cartilage b) Thyroid cartilage
a) Esophagus {NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Meniscus d) Nasal septum
b) Vagina 1869. Glands of Van Ebner are present in- {NEETIDNB
c) Urinary bladder a) Cervix b) Penile urethra Pattern)
d) Trachea c) Tongue d) Vagina
1842)d 1843)d 1844)a,b,c 1845)b 1846)a 1847)d 1848)c 1849)b 1850)d 1851)a,b,d 1852)d 1853)b 1854)d
1855)c 1856)c 1857)c 1858)d 1859)c 1860)d 1861)c 1862)d 1863)a 1864)c 1865)c 1866)c 1867)c 1868)c
1869)c
ANATOMY [ 1.82]
1870. Brunner's glands are seen in-(NEETIDNB Pattern) 1885. Following examples of epiphysees are correctly
a) Duodenum b) Gastric matched except- (AIIMS 86)
c) Gall bladder d) Ileum a) Pressure epiphysis-Hezad of femur
1871. Stave cells are seen in - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Traction epiphysis-tubercles ofhumerus
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Atavistic epiphysis-Coracoid process of scapula
c) Pancreas d) Gall bladder d) Aberrant epiphysis Trachanter of femur
1872. Corpora amylacea is found in -(NEETIDNB Pattern} 1886. Manubriosternaljoint- (Kerala 96)
a) Pineal b) Prostate a) Saddle type b) Ball & Socket
c) Pituitary d) Thyroid
c) Symphysis d) Syndesmosis
1873. All develop from endoodermal cloaca except-(NEET/
1887. Which of the following is an example of saddle joint-
a) Rectum b)Analcanal DNBPattern)
a) Carpo-metacarpal joint of the thumb
c) Sigmoid d) Primitive urogenital sinus
1874. All develop from mesoderm except- (NEETIDNB b) Elbowjoint (CUPGEE95)
a) Skeletal muscle b) Testes Pattern) c) Ankle joint
c) Enamel d) Ureter d) Kinnjoint
1875. Holocrine glands are- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1888. Example for ellipsoid joint is- (KERALA '96)
a) Sweat b) Sebaceous a) Wrist b) Kenn
c) Mammary d) Pancreas c) Ankle d) Shoulder
1876. Stratified squamous epithelium is seen in- (NEETI 1889. All of the following are example of traction epiphysis,
a) Vagina b) Urinary blooder DNB Pattern) except- (AI03)
c) Uterus d) Cervix a) Mastoid process b) Tubercles ofhumerus
1877. Which of the following is part of ear is derived from c) Trochanter of femur d) Condyles of tibia
all three germ layers- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1890. In interpharyngeal joint, capsule is absent in the-
a) Extemalauditary canal b) Ear ossicles a) Medial side b) Dorsal side (Jipmer 03)
c) Tyrnparic membrane d) Ear muscles c) Palmar side d) Lateral side
1878. Colon contains- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1891. The first costochondral joint is a- (AI 04)
a) Parietal cells b) Chief cells a) Fibrous joint b) Synovial joint
c) Brunner's gland d) Goblet cells c) Syndesmosis d) Syncendrosis
1879. False about clavicle- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1892. Vomar-sphenoidal rostrum junction is- (Orissa R)
a) Ossifies membrane a) Syndesmoisis b) Synostosis
b) Horizontal bone c) Schindylesis d) Gomphoiss
c) No medullary cavity 1893. Joint between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long
d) Most common site of fracture is the junction of bone is a type of- (AIIMS 04)
medial I /3'd with lateral 2/3'd a) Plain synovial joint b) Fibrous joint
c) Symphysis d) Synchondrosis
JOINTS 1894. Example of hinge joint are all except- (SGPGI 05)
a) Elbow joint b) Interphalangeal joint
1880. The example of syndesmoisis type of joint is-(AP91) c) Knee joint d) Shoulder joint
a) Sacroiliac b) Inferior tibiofibular 1895. The type of joint between the sacrum and the coccyx
c) Superior tibiofibular d) Mid tarsal is a- (AI 05)
1881. Which is a hinge joint- (AI92) a) Symphysis b) Syostosis
a) Knee b)Elbow c) Synchondrosis d) Syndesmosis
c) Metacarpophalangeal d) At! anto Axial 1896. Which ofthe following is an intra-articular tendon-
1882. Action ofLumbricals is- (JIPMER92,PGI03) a) Sartorius b) Semitendinosus (AI 06)
a) Extension ofMP joint c) Anconeus d) Popliteus
b) Abduction at MP joint 1897. 1'tcarpometacarpaljointis- (APPG 06MP 98)
c) Flexion ofMP joint and Extension at I.P. joint a) Saddlejoint
d) Lies inferior to inferior cerebellar peduncle b) Ball & socket joint
1883. It can be said that the intervertebral foramen- c) Secondary cartilaginous joint
a) Are narrow towards the lower part of lumbar region
d) Hinge joint
b) Transmit lumbar and sacral spinal nerves since 1898. Movements of pronation & supination occurs in
c) Admit spinal arteries (AIIMS 84)
all the following joints except - (AI 0 7)
d) Are located between the laminae and the articular
a) Superior radio -ulnar joint
processes
b) Middle radio - ulnar joint
1884. Os trigonum is which type of epiphysis-
c) Inferior radio- ulnar joint
a) Aberrant b) Pressure (AMU 88)
d) Radio- carpal joint
c) Atavistic d) Traction
1870)a 1871)b 1872)b 1873)c 1874)c 1875)b 1876)a 1877)c 1878)d 1879)d 1880)b 1881)b 1882)c 1883)c
1884)c 1885)d 1886)c 1887)a 1888)a 1889)d 1890)b 1891)c 1892)c 1893)d 1894)d 1895)a 1896)d 1897)a
1898)d
ANATOMY [ 1.83]
1899. Secondary cartilaginous joints are- 1912. Joint with articular disc - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Situated in midline (DELHI PG Feb. 09) a) Elbow b) Shoulder
b) Permanent in nature c) Sternoclavicular d) Knee
c) Binding cartilage in fibrocartilage 1913. Elastic cartilage is seen in -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) All of the given options a) Articular cartilage b) Costal cartilage
1900. Wbich of .the following is an example of saddle joint? c) Epiglottis d) Intervertebral d.s
a) Carpo-metacarpaljointofthethumb (DPG 10) 1914. Flexion extension in neck accors at-
b) Elbow a) Atlanto-axial joint (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Ankle Joint b) Atlanto-occipital joint
d) Knee joint
c) C6-C7 joint
1901. Carpometacarpa; joint of thumb is type of
d) C7-T 1 joint
joint- (Maharashtra 10)
a) Ball and socket b) Hinge
c) Plane d) Saddle
MISCELLANEOUS
1902. Enchondral ossification is/are seen in -(PGIMay 10)
1915. Which ofthe following is not a congenital anomaly?
· a) Long bones b) Flat bones of skull
a) Amastia (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Clavicle d) Mandible
e) Nasal bones b) Polymastia
1903. All ofthe following are pneumatic bones, except- c) Polythelia
a) Frontal b)Ethmoid (Alll) d) Mastitis
c) Mandible d)Maxilla 1916. Parasympathetic supply is from-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
1904. Which of the following best describes the type of a) C2, C3, C4 b) T2, T3, T4
joint seen in the growth plate- (AI 11) c) L2, L3, L4 d) S2, S3, S4
a) Fibrous b)Primarycartilaginous 1917. Prolapse of vertebral disc between L5S1 will affect
c) Secondary cartilaginous d) Plane joint which nerve root- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1905. True aboutlocation of metaphysis is- (PUNJAB 11) a) L4 b)LS
a) Narrow constricted part b) Shaft c) Sl d) S2
c) Epiphyseal end d) Diaphysis end 1918. Subcapsular sinus is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1906. What kind of a joint is syndesmosis ? a) Lymph node b) Spleen
a) Fibrous b) Plain (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Thymus d) None
c) Pivot d) Cartilaginous 1919. Absence of lymph nodes is charachteristic of-
1907. Which of the following is a compound condylar a) Brain (NEETIDNB Pattern)
joint ? (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Liver
a) Knee b) Wrist c) Lung
c) TM joint d) Elbow d) Placenta
1908. Intracapsular articular disc is present in which 1920. Which of the following is an operculated sulcus-
joint- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Calcarine b) Collateral (NEETIDNB
a) Sternoclavicular joint b) Elbow
c) Lunate d) Central Pattern)
c) Hip joint d) Knee joint
1921. Which of the following is a complete sulcus -
1909. Type of cartilage seen at temporo-mandibular
joint is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Lunate (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Hyaline cartilage b) Fibrocartilage b) Calcarine
c) Elastic cartilage d) All of the above c) Colluteral
1910. Which of the following is an example of atavistic d) Central
epiphysis? (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1922. Longest muscle in the body- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
· a) Greater trochanter a) Biceps b) Triceps
b) Head of femur c) Sartorius d) Quadriceps
c) Upper end of radius 1923. Corpora arebacea is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Coracoid process of scapula a) Prostrate b) Pineal
1911. Which of the following is a synovial joint of the c) Seminal vesicle d) Breast
condylar variety- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1924. Which of the following is supplied by two nerve-
a) First carpometacarpal joint a) Quadriceps (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Metacarpophalangeal joint b) Triceps
c) Interphalangeal joint c) Digastric
d) Radiocarpal joint d)FDS
***
1899)d 1900)a l901)d 1902)a 1903)c 1904)b 1905)c 1906)a 1907)a 1908)a l909)b 1910)d l9ll)b 1912)c
1913)c 1914)b 1915)d 1916)d 1917)c 1918)a 1919)a 1920)c 192l)c>b 1922)c 1923)b 1924)c
PHYS
PHYSIOLOGY
INTRODUCTION 12. Resting membrane potetial is close to the

lsoelectrical potential of- (AI 9 3)
1. Cardiac muscle is able to function as a syncytium a) Na+ b) Mg++
because ofthe structural presence of- (ICS 2K) c) K+ d)Cl-
a) Branching fibres 13. Chemical gradient across cell membrane is
b) Intercalated disc maintained chiefly by- (JIPMER 93)
c) Protoplasmic bridges between cells a) Na+ b) Ca++
d) Gap-junctions c) K+ d)Cl-
2. The largest amounts of prostaglandins are seen in- 14. The quantity of water lost as sweat per day is-
a) Seminal fluid b) CSF (AIIMS 86) a) 100to200cc b)600to800cc (AMU91)
c) Blood d) Urine c) 1000 to 1200 cc d) Above 1200 cc
3. Calcium binding protien is- (AJIMS 86,90) 15. Production of c-AMP fromATP requires-
a) Troponin- C b) Calsecritin a) ATP ase (JIPMER 81,Delhi 86, 62)
c) Calsequestrin d) All b) A denylate cyclase
4. Tropomyosin is a ...... of molecular weight ..... - c) CAMP synthetase
a) Albumin,24000 (AJIMS 85) d) None
b) Globulin, 54000 16. How many pKa values does orthophosphoric acid
c) Globulin, 71000 possess- (JIPMER 70, Bihar 91)
d) Globulin, 51000 a) One b) Two
5. Osmolarity is- (JIPMER 98) c) Three d) Four
a) Osmolarity per kg of solvent 17. Asubstace on I.V. injection was found to be distributed
b) Osmolarity per litre of solvent through thirty percent of body water. It
c) Moles per kg of solvent Probably- (PGI 79, DNB 88)
d) Moles per litre of solvent a) Did not pass freely through blood capillaries
6. Clathrinemediates- (AIIMS 2001) b) Was distributed evenly throughtout body water
a) Receptor mediated endocytosis c) Did not enter cells of body
b) Exocytosis d) Was exculuded form CSF
c) Pericytosis 18. What provides most of the energy that is used to
d) Mesocytosis Maintain a normal resting membrane potential of
7. The motility of cell's is due to protein- (AIIMS 96) about 70 millivolts inside the neuronal cell-
a) Motilin b) Tubulin a) The potassium pump (AIIMS 80, PGI 03)
c) Laminin d) Tactilin b) The chloride pump
8. Which is true about resting membrane potential c) The sodium pump
ofthe nerve- (AI 91) d) Diffusion of chloride ions
a) Can be measured by applying electorde over the 19. The ionic channels in excitable membrane are
nerve fibre "' lined by- (AIIMS 84)
b) Potassium (Extracellular) mainly contributes a) Cephalins b) Proteins
c) Equal to the resting membrane potential of the c) Lipids d) Carbohydrates
muscle 20. A solution cantains 1 gram-mole of magnesium
d) Reduction of RMP Inhibits a voltage dependent sulfate per liter. Assuming full ionization of this
increase in sodium Ion permeability. compound , calculate the osmotic pressure of the
9. Nernst equation deals with- (JIPMER 92) solution (1mosmolelliter concentration is equivalent
a) Oxygen uptake b) Chloride shift to 19.3 mm.Hg osmotic pressure)- (AJIMS 86)
c) Cellular ATP levels d) Plasma bicarbonate level a) 19.3rnmHg b)3.86rnmHg
10. Allaretrue about sodiumpotassiumpumpexcept- c) 19.300rnmHg d)38.600rnmHg
a) Needs ATP (AIIMS 92) e) 57.900rnmHg
b) is inactive at 4°C 21. The emeiocytosis or reverse pinocytosis requires
c) is elecrogenic which ion- (AJIMS 84, PGI 83, 84)
d) Needed for generation of action potential a) Na+ b) K+
11. HMG Co - enzyme A is not a co-enzyme in the c) Ca++ d) Mg++
intermediate metabolism of- (AIIMS 92) 22. Sodium channels are specifically blocked by-
a) Thromboxane b) Leucine a) Nifedipine b)Tetradotoxin (AIIMS85)
c) Pyruvate d) Cholestrol c) TetraEthyllead d) Choline
l)d 2)a 3)a 4)c 5)b 6)a 7)b 8)c 9)b 10)d ll)a,c 12)d 13)c 14)a
15)b 16)c 17)c 18)a 19)b 20)d 21)c 22)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.4]
23. If potassium levels are 39 mg % calculate the 38. ECF forms what percentage ofbodywieght-
same in meq/1- (AIIMS 80, DELHI 85) a) 10% b)25% (AI97)
~1 ~39 c) 33% d)60%
c) 10 d) 100 39. Calmodulin activates- (TN 99)
24. D1 0 (Deuterium oxide) is used to measure a) Muscle phosphorylase b) Protein kinase
volume of- (AIIMS 87, AIIMS 91) c) 2,3DPG d) Glucokinase
a) Blood b) Total body water 40. Not true regarding Na+fK+ pump is- (AIIMS 99)
c) extacellular fluid d) Intracellular fluid a) Pumps Na+ against a gradient
25. Potassium is maximum in- (PGI 82, 84, 90) b) 5 Na+ exchange for 2K+
a) Cell b) Plasma c) Increase in intracellular Na+
c) interstitium d) Bone d) Hypocalcemia inhibits the pump
26. Total body sodium in meqlkg is - (PGI 82) 41. The following is an example of'Regulated pathway'-:-
a) 41 b)58 a) Constitutive exocytosis (JIPMER 2002)
c) 70.7 d) 91.0 b) Receptor mediated endocytosis
27. On weight basis, the membrane contains protein c) Constitutive endocytosis·
and lipid in the ratio of- (AIIMS 85) d) Non constitutive exocytosis
a) 1:2 b) 1 : 1 42. Following are true about G protein except- (PGI 98)
c) 2: 1 d)4: 1 a) G channels
28. When solvent is moving in one direction, the solvent b) Phosphorylase formation
tends to drag along some molecules of solute. This c) Made up of 4 units
is called- (PGI 81, AMU 86) d) Related to ras oncogene
a) Filtration b) Osmosis 43. True about facilitated diffusion are AlE- (PGI 98)
c) Donnan effect d) Solvent drag a) Occur in direction of concentration gradient
29. Bound K+ is mainly found in following except- b) Does not require energy
a) Brain b)Bone (AMU86) c) Occur in direction opposite to electrical gradient
c) RBC's d) Platelets d) Facilitated by charge of molecule
30. The non-ionic diffusion in body is seen in- 44. Regarding transport of Ca++ across a membrane
a) Gut b) Kidneys (AIIMS 93) following are true- (PGI 03)
c) Both d) None a) ca++ calmodulin binding
31. For sodium- potasium pump the coupling ratio is- b) It is a passive mechanism
a) 1: 1 b) 2:3 c) Required hydrolysis ofA.T.P.
c) 3:2 d) 1:4 d) It is a symport
32. Plasma K+ constitute what percentage of total e) It is an active process
body potassium- (AIIMS 86, JIPMER 01) 45. Receptors on cell membrane that activate ion
~Q4% ~~6% channel after binding with agonists are- (PGI 03)
c) 10.4% d)89.6% a) Nicotonic Cholinergic b) Muscarinic Cholinergic
33. In a man weighing 70 kg, water content of body c) Optoid receptors d)GABAA
is- (JIPMER 80, AMC 84) e) GAB~
a) 2Q..30L b)30-40L 46. Simulation of post ganglionic sympathetic neurons
c) 40-45L d)50-60L leads to- (PGI 02)
34. Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult (in m a) FastEPSP b)SlowEPSP
Osm/L) is- (Delhi 87, AMC 82, AI 06) c) FastiPSP d) SlowiPSP
a) 250-270 b)270-290 e) VeryslowEPSP
c) 300-310 d)310-330 47. Actionofcalmodulinis- (PGI 02)
35. Cellshape&motilityareprovidedby- (Al95) a) Ca2... dependent
a) Microftlaments b) Microtubules b) Through calmodulin dependent kinases
c) Golgi apparatus d) Nucleus c) Through CAMP dependent kinases
36. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to- (TN 95) d) Through CGMP dependent kinases
a) albumin b) Preabumin 48. Which of the following statements is true
c) Electrolytes d) Fibrinogen regarding basal metabolic rate- (PGI 01)
37. Cells involved in active protein synthesis have- a) Increased in starvation
a) Increased mitochondria (AI 97) b) It is not influenced by hormonal changes
b) Increased Rough Endoplasmic reticulum c) It is not affected by dietary changes
c) Increased gogli apparatus d) Decreased by 50% in starvation
d) Increased lysosomes e) It is not affected by energy expenditure
23)c 24)b 25)a 26)b 27)c 28)d 29)d 30)c 31)c 32)a 33)c 34)b 35)b 36)a
37)b 38)b 39)b 40)c 41)d 42)c 43)c 44) c,e 45) a,d 46) a,b,d 47) a,b 48) None
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.5]
49. True about membrane receptors- (PGI 2000) 60. Duchenne muscular Dystrophy is a disease of-
a) Barrier function b) For specific action a) Neuromusculerjunction (A/04)
c) Molecular transport d) None b) Sarcolemal proteins
50. Exocytosis- (PGI 2000) c) Muscle contractile protein
a) Extrusion of cell bound vesicles d) Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness
b) Intrusion ofliquid particles 61. In skeletal muscle, actin is bound to Z line by-
c) Instrusion of solid particles a) Titin b)Desmin (J&K05)
d) All of the above c) Actinin d) Tropomyosin
51. In isometric exercise the following changes occur 62. True regarding RMP is all except- (SGPGI 05)
except- (Jipmer 03)
a) -70 mV in neurons
a) Increase in muscle tone
b) Is due to K+ ions
b) Staircase phenomenon
c) Na1 - K 1 pump 3 Na+ out of cell & 2K+ inside
c) Summation of contractions
d) Ka+- K+ pump 3K+ out ofcell & 2 Na+ inside of cell
d) Relaxation heat
52. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic 63. Gapjunctionsarefoundin- (AMU05)
molecules between the two cells are called- (AI 03) a) Intestine b) Brain
a) Gap junctions b) Tight junctions c) Kidney d) Cardiac muscles
c) Focaljunctions 64. K+ homeostasis in human is- (PGI June 05)
53. Most accurate measurement of extracellular fluid a) Most of the K + are intracellular
volume (ECF) can be done by using- (AIIMS 03) b) Most ofthe K + are extra cellular
a) Sucrose b) Mannitol c) An essential electrolyte for different organ function
c) Inulin d)Aminopyrine d) Actively secreted in the distal tubule
54. Smooth muscle are not pain sensitive to- e) It maintains the Na+ K+ ATPase activity
a) Cutting b) Distension (UP pgmee 04) 65. The process by which fusion of part of a cell
c) Low chloride d) Torsion membrane occurs is/are- (PGI June 05)
55. Amongst the muscles, skeletal muscle is the most a) Cell division b) Endocytosis
excitable tissue because- (Kerala 04) c) Exocytosis d) Virus replication
a) There are two "T: tubules per sarcomere and has 66. Lysozymes are found in- (PGI June 05)
well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum a) Eukaryotes b) Prokaryotes
b) It is suplied by large myelinated nerve fibres c) Plants d) Bacteriophage
c) It is nerve regulated e) Vtrus
d) None of the above 67. In a neuron, graded electrogenesis occurs at -
56. Energy producing enzymes are located in- a) Soma- dendritic zone (J & K 05)
a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (Karnataka 02)
b) Initial segment
b) Ribosomes
c) Axon
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Nerve ending
d) Mitochondria
68. Clathrins used in- (MAliA 05)
57. Which one ofthe following statements is true for
excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP)- (AI 03) a) Receptor mediated endocytosis
a) Are self propagating b) Exocytosis
b) Show all or none response c) Cell to cell adhesion
c) Are proportional to the amount of transmitter d) Plasma membrane
released by the presynaptic neuron 69. Time taken for electrical conduct from SA node
d) Are inhibitory at presynaptic terminal toAVnodeinECGis- (Orrisa 05)
58. The intrafusal fibres of the striated skeletal a) PR interval b) ST segment
muscles are innervated by one of the following c) QT interval d) Cannot be determined by ECG
type of motor neurons, Choose the correct answer 70. All of the following transport process follow
a) Alpha b) Beta (AIIMS 04) 'saturation kinetics' except- (AIIMS NOV 05)
c) Gamma d) Delta a) Facilitated diffusion
59. The force of muscle contraction can be increased b) Na+- Ca2+ exchanger
by all of the following except- (AI 04) c) Simplediffusion
a) Increasing the frequency ofactivation ofmotor units d) Na+ coupled active transport
b) Increasing the number of motor units activated 71. Wbich one of the following molecules is used for
c) Increasing the amplitude fo action potentials in cell signaling- (AI 05)
the motor neurons a) C02 b) 0 2
d) Recruting larger motor units c) NO d) N
49)b,c 50)a 51)d 52)a 53)c 54) a 55) a 56)d 57)c 58)c 59)c 60)b 61)c 62)d
63) d 64) a,c 65) b 66) a,c,d 67) a 68)a 69)a 70)c 71)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.6]
72. All ofthe following enzymes are active within a cell 84. Cell junction is smooth muscle is- (PGMCET 07)
except- (A/IMS May 05) a) Zonula adherens b) Macula adherens
a) Trypsin b) Fumerase c) Tight junction d) Gap junction
c) Hexokinase d) Alcohol dehydrogenase 85. In the mucosal cells, triglycerides are formed
73. Synaptic potentials can be recorded by- primarily in the- (Corned 08)
a) Patch clamp technique (A/IMS May 05) a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) Voltage clamp technique b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) Microelectrode c) Golgi apparatus
d)EEG d) Ribosomes
74. Intracellular receptors are found in- (PGI June 06) 86. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the
a) Insulin b) Glucagon synthesis of- (AI 07)
c) Corticosteriods d) Androgen a) Protein b) Lipid
e) Thyroxine c) Carbohydrate d) VitaminD
75. True statements about ions composition in body- 87. For PCR which of the following is not required -
a) Intracellular & Extracellular (PGI June 06) a) Taq polymerase (Aiims May 07)
ions compositions are same b) d-NTP
b) Phosphorus and Mg* are major ions intracellularly c) Primer
c) Na+, Cl-principal ions inE.C.F. d) Radio labelled DNA probe
d) Kidney tightly regulates Na+, K+, Cl- composition 88. Waston and Crick are associated with -(MAHE 07)
76. Amplitude of action potential is predominantly a) Discovery ofhelical structure ofDNA
determined by- b) Association ofHelicobacter Pylori with Chronic
a) Equilibrium potential ofNa+ Gastritis
b) Equilibrium potential ofK+ c) Discovery ofHIV virus
c) Equilibrium potential of CL d) None of the above
d) Equilibrium potential ofHC03 89. Following tetanising stimulus given to a muscle
77. Skeletal frame work of a cell is maintained by- there is an increased contraction. This is due to -
a) Nucleus b) Microtubules (Manipal 06) a) Recruitment phenomenon (MAHE 07)
c) Ribosomes d) Mitochondria b) Increased Ca* influx into muscle fibers
78. Transcytosis occurs in - (Karnataka -PG MEE 06) c) Contraction of different muscle fibers at different
a) Epithelial cells of intestine places
b) Neuroglia d) All ofthe above
c) Neuron 90. Bradykinin causes- (UP 07)
d) Axonlemma a) Stimulation of the visceral smooth muscle
79. In an adult man weighing 70kgs, the extracellular b) Stimulation of the vascular smooth muscle
fluid volume will be about- (Karn PG MEE 2006) c) Inhibition of the visceral smooth muscle
~ 42L b)25L d) Inhibition ofthe vascular smooth muscle
c) 15L d) 12L 91. Function of Basement membrane is- (UP 08)
80. Hyponatremia has no effect on the RMP (resting a) Excitation b) Contraction
membrane potential) because-(Karn- PG MEE 06) c) Filteration d) Transport of anions
a) The cell membrane is impermeable to Na+ 92. Equilibrium potential for an ion is calculated using-
b) ECF Na+ concentration is high a) Gibbs Donnan equation (Aiims May 08)
c) Intracellular K+ concentration is high b) Goldman equation
d) Equilibrium potential for Na+ is +60 mV c) Nemst equation
81. Glucose is co-transported with Na+ ions. This is a d) Henderson Hesselbach equation
type of- (PGMCET 07) 93. Regarding transport of substances through the cell
a) Secondary active transport membrane, all are true except- (Aiims May 08)
b) Primary active transport a) Glucose is transported via facilitated diffusion
c) Facilitated diffusion b) Active transport is an energy driven process
d) Simple diffusion c) Facilitated diffusion requires energy
82. NERST's potential ofNa+ is- (PGMCET 07) d) Facilitated diffusion requires carrier protein
a) +61 b)-60 94. Fick's law, flux of Geomembrane increased in-
c)+90 d)-80 a) Concentration across (PGI June 08)
83. Protein attached to 'Z' line in cardiac muscle, which b) Temperature
is responsible for elasticity is - (PGMCET 07) c) Increased size of molecule
a) Troponin b) Tropomyosin d) Weight
c) Titin d) Actin e) Area
72)a 73)c 74)c,d,e 75)b,c,d 76)c 77)b 78)a 79)a 80)d 81)a 82)a 83)c 84)d 85)c
86)b 87)d 88)a 89)b 90)a 91)c 92)c 93)c 94)a,e
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.7]
95. All of the following are used to measureECG volume, 104. All of the following are involved in the transmission
except- (DPGEE 08) of regulatory signals through the ECF, Except-
a) Sucrose b) Sodium chloride a) Synaptic signals through neurotransmitters
c) Inulin d) Heavy water b) Endocrine signals through hormones (AI 09)
96. When extracellular potassium is increased from 4 c) Direct contact through gap junctions
meq to 10 meq what will happen- (APPG 08) d) G protein coupled receptors
a) Resting membrane potential becomes more 105. Muscle spindle detects- (AIIMS May 09)
a) Tension b) Length
negative
c) Proprioception d) Stretch
b) Increase in conductance of sodium
106. Somatomedin mediates- (AIIMS May 09)
c) Increase in conduction of potassium a) Deposition of chondroitin sulfate
d) Na+ K+ ATpase will be stopped b) Lipolysis
97. Na dependent glucose transport is/are inhibited by- c) Gluconeogenesis
a) Oubain b) Na azide (PGI Dec 08) d) Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells
c) Phlorhizine d) Phloretin 107. cGMP is second messenger for which hormone (s)-
98. Increase in cytosolic calcium from intracellular a) Somatostatin (PGI June 09)
storage, during smooth muscle contraction is/are b) Atrial natruretic factor
due to- (PGI Dec 08) c) Angiotensin II
a) CAMP b)CGMP d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c) CCMP d) IP3-DAG e) NitricOxide(NO)
2+
e) Ca channel 108. What is/are effect on membrane when extracellnler
99. What is/are effect on membrane when extracellular concentration ofK+ of decreased- (PGI June 09)
+ a) j, magnitude ofRMP
concentration ofK is decreased- (PGI Dec 08)
a) j, magnitude ofRMP b) i negativity of the membrane
c) imagnitudeofRMP
b) i negativity of the membrane
d) J.. negativity of membrane
c) i magnitude ofRMP
109. About osteon which of the following statement(s) is/
d) J.. negativity of membrane are correct- (PGI June 09)
100. WeberFechnerLawis- (AIIMS Nov 08) a) Present in compact bone
a) Magnitude of stimulus strength perceived is b) Concentric Lamallae is present
approximately proportionate to the log of the c) Haversian canal is present
intensity of stimulus strength d) Volkman's canal surrounded by concentric lamellae
b) Magnitude of stimulus strength perceived is 110. True about Galvanic skin Response -(PGI June 09)
directly proportional to the intensity of stimulus a) Indicator of thermal sweating
strength b) i by sweating because of sweat has electrolytes
c) Threshold of receptor is directly proportional to c) Fall when sympathetic activity is high
stimulus strength d) Fall is associated with yogic practice
d) Threshold of receptor is inversely proportional 111. Osmotic pressure of 1 mol ofideal solute relative to
to stimulus strength pure water is- (PGI June 09)
101. Nitrogen narcosis is caused due to-(AIIMS Nov 08) a) 6.5 atm. b) 22.4 atm.
a) Nitrogen inhibits dismutase enzyme c) 4 atm. d) 2 atm.
e) 1 atm.
b) Increase production of nitrous oxide
112. The following is an example of a primarily inhibitory
c) Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell
amino acid- (Corned 09)
membrane a) Glutamate b) Aspartate
d) Decrease in oxygen free radicals c) Glycine d) Somatostatin
102. All are second messengers except- (AIIMS Nov 08) 113. Resting membrane potential of a neuron is-
a) Guanylyl cyclase b) cAMP a) -9mV b)-50mV (Corned 09)
c) IP3 d)DAG c) -70mV d)-lOOmV
103. Action potential is initiated at the Axon Hillock- 114. Sarcomere is the area between - (Corned 09)
Initialsegmentoftheneuron because- (A/09) a) Two consecutive I bands
a) Threshold for excitation is lowest b) Two adjacent Z lines
b) Neurotransmitter is released at this site c) A band and I band
c) It is an unmyelinated segment d) Two H zones
d) Has lowest concentration of voltage gated sodium 115. Plasma ceruloplasmin is a (Corned 09)
channels a) Alpha 1 globulin b) Alpha 2 globulin
c) Beta 1 globulin d) Beta 2 globulin
95)b 96)c 97)c 98)d,e 99)b,c lOO)a lOl)c 102)a 103)a 104)c. 105)b 106)a 107)b,e 108)b,c
109) a,b,c 110) a,b,c 111) b 112) c 113)c 114) b 115) b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.8]
116. Heme to bilirubin conversion is carried out by - 128. True about Nissl granule- (PGI May 10)
a) Haemeoxygenase (Corned 09) a) Involves in RNA synthesis
b) Haeme reductaste b) Present in axon
c) Haeme isomerase c) Present in dendrite
d) Haeme hydrolase d) Involves in protein synthesis
117. Drug transport process that requires energy- e) Structurally they are endoplasmic reticulum
a) Active transport (DELHI PG Mar. 09) 129. All of the following statements about phagocytosis
b) Passive diffusion aretrue,except- (AI 11)
c) Conventive current a) Amoeba and other unicellular protozoa make their
d) Pinocytosis living out of this
118. Major neurotransmitter released at end organ b) Used to ingest particles< 0.5 microns in size
effectors ofthe sympathetic division of the autonomic c) Used to ingest particles> 0.5 microns in size
nervous system- (DELHI PG Mar. 09) d) Digestion occurs within phagolysosomes
a) Adrenaline b) Noradrenalin 130. Acetylcholine acting on nicotinic receptors
c) Dopamine d)Acetylcholine produces- (Karn 11)
119. Which of the following transport processes is a) Contraction of skeletal muscle
passive- (DELHI PG Mar. 09) b) Secretion of saliva
a) Co-transport ofNa+ ion and a molecule into cell c) Bradycardia
b) Echange of K+ ion outside the cell for Na+ ion d) Pupillary constriction
inside the cell 131. Most commonly occurring amino acid in the collagen
c) Flow of H20 through cell membrane by osmosis structure is - (Karn 11)
d) Uptake of molecules into cell by endocytosis a) Serine b) Glycine
120. Ca2+ Channel blockers would have a significant c) Hydrox)rproline d) Proline
effect on muscle function in- (DELHI PG Mar. 09) 132. Most diffusible ion in excitable tissue is -
a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle a) Na+ b)K+ (Punjab 11)
c) Both the above d) Neither c) Ca++ d) Cl-
121. Which of the following is not true for cardiac and 133. Nernst potential ofNa+ is- (PUNJAB 11)
skeletal muscle fibers ? (DELHI PG Mar. 09) a) +94 b)+61
a) Both cardiac and skeletal muscles exhibit graded c) -64 d)-94
contraction 134.. Which is electrical synapse? (PUNJAB 11)
b) Excitation-contraction coupling in both depends a) Motor end plate b) Gap junctions
upon increased intracellular Calcium c) Tight junctions d) Pores ofkahn
c) Excitation-contraction coupling is not dependent 135. Second messenger for nitric oxide- (Jipmer 1 0)
on extracellular Ca2+in skeletal muscle a) cAMP b) cGMp
d) Cardiac action potential has a plateau and a longer c) IP3- DAG d) Calcium
refractory period 136. Magnitude of action potential is determined by-
122. Synaptic transmission in the autonomic ganglion is a) Na+ b)Mg2+ (Jipmer 10)
usually: (DELHIPGMar. 09) c) K+ d)Ca2+
a) Adrenergic b) Peptidergic 137. Total body water differences between male & female
c) Cholinergic d) Mediated by substance P is not seen at the age of- (Jipmer 11)
123. In peripheral tissues which of the following contains a) Above 60 years b) 40 - 60 years
substanceP- (AIIMSNov09) c) 10- 18 years d) 18-25 years
a) Plasma cell b) Mast cell 138. Efferent neuron for skeletal muscle is-(Jipmer 11)
c) Nerve terminal d) Vascular endothelium a) Alpha motor neuron b)Gammamotorneuron
124. Basal metabolic rate depends most closely on - c) Ia fibre d) Ib fibre
a) Lean body mass b) Body mass index (AI 10) 139. Receptor for stretch reflex is- (Jipmer 11)
c) Obesity d) Body surface area a) Muscle spindle b) Golgi tendon organ
125. Decreased basal metabolic rate is seen in- (AI 10) c) Proprioceptors d) Golgi bottle neuron
a) Obesity b) Hyperthyroidism 140. The parameter that remains unchanged with
c) Feeding d)Exercise advancementofage- (Jipmer 11)
126. Atwitchofmotorunitiscalled- (DPG10) a) Hematocrit b) Creatinine clearance
a) Myoclonic jerk b) Tremor c) FEV d) Heart rate response to stress
c) Fasciculation d) Chorea 141. Skeletal muscle contraction ends when -
127. Which of the following is the most abundant diet of a) Ions move out of cytoplasm (NEETIDNB Pattern)
animal origin? (Maharashtra 10) b) Ach is absorbed frm the nmj
a) Phospholipids b) Cholesterol esters c) Closure and indrawing of receptors
c) Cholesterol d) Triglycerides d) Decreased calcium outside reticulum
116)a 117)a 118)b 119)c 120)b 12l)a 122)a 123)c 124)a>d 125)a 126)c 127)d 128)c,d,e
129)b 130)a 13l)b 132)b 133)b 134)b 135)b 136)a 137) d 138) a 139) a 140)a 14l)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.9]
142. Mitochondria have- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 157. Golgi tendon apparatus conveys message to ens,
a) Plasmid DNA dependsupon- (NEETIDNBPattern)
b) Circular DNA a) Tension in muscle b) Length of muscle
c) Single stranded DNA c) Rapaidity of contraction d) Blood supply
d) Double stranded circular DNA 158. In severe exercise, decrease in pH is due to-
143. Presynaptic facilitation is caused by- (NEETIDNB a) Respiratory acidosis (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Prolonged opening of calcium channels Pattern) b) Lactic acidosis
b) Prolonged opening of chloride channels c) H+ retension
c) Prolonged opening of sodium channels d) HC03- excretion
d) Prolonged closure of potassium channels 159. Water travelling from extracellulartointracellular
144. Most distinguishing feature between skeletal muscle is by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
and smooth muscle- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Co-transport b) Diffusion
c) Filtration d) Active transport
a) Troponin b) Tropomyosin
160. The cell junctions allowing exchange of
c) Myosin d) Actin
cytoplasmic molecules between the two cells are
145. Which is not an action of bradykinin-
called- (AI 03, NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Vasoconstriction (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Gap junctions
b) Increased vascular permeability
b) Tight junctions
c) Chemo attractant c) Focaljunctions
d) Pain on injection 161. Sarcomere extends between- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
146. Which vitamin required for hydroxylation of proline- a) A band & I band b) Two Z lines
a) A b) D (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Two I bands d) None
c) C d)K 162. Actin's active site is covered by-{NEETIDNB Pattern)
147. VolumeofiCFinbody- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Myosin b) Tropomyosin
a) 0.2*bodywt b)0.4*bodywt c) Troponin d) Desmin
c) 0.6*body wt d) 0.8*body wt 163. ECF is how much part oftotal body weigh- (NEETI
148. Pantothenic acid is needed for donating the a) One third b) Half DNB Pattern)
following moiety- (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Twothird d)None
a) Acetyl co A b) Carboxyl 164. Number of golgi tendon organs per 100 muscle
c) Hydroxyl d) H+ fibres - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
149. Mostpotentantioxidant- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) 1-20 b)200-400
a) VitA b)VitK c) 50-60 d) 80-100
c) VitE d) VitC 165. Which ofthe following is nsed in exocytosis-
150. NernstpotentialforK+is- (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Ca b) Mg (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) -+90 b) -90 c) Na d)K
c) +70 d)-70 166. Contraction of muscle can be caused by-
151. Vit k helps in gamma carboxylation offollowingAA•• a) Releaseofnoradrenaline (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Glutamate b)Aspartate (NEETIDNBPattern) b) Release of acetylcholine
c) Glycine d) Alanine c) Release of serotonin
152. RMP of nerve cell is equal to which ion's d) Release of histamine
equilibrium potential.•? (NEET/DNB Pattern) 167. Inner hair cells depolarises due to- (NEETIDNB
a) K+ b)CI- a) k+influx b)nainflux Pattern)
c) Na+ d)Ca+ c) keftlux d) Voltage gated ca channels
153. Most osmotically active intracellular cation- 168. Which cell junction allows exchange of cytoplas
a) K+ b)Na+ (NEETIDNBPattern) mic molecules- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Mg+ 2 d) Protein a) Gap b) Tight
154. Inward flow ofNa+ in heart leads to- (NEETIDNB c) Anchoring d) None
a) Plateu phase b) Action potential Pattern) 169. Myosin filament has a ftxed length of- (NEETIDNB
c) Repolarization d) No change a) 0.16nm b) 1.6microm Pattern)
155. ICFis- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 16nm d) 1.6mm
a) 14L b) 20% ofbody weight 170. Energy currency of the cell is-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 28L d) 33% ofbodyweight a) Nucleotide diphosphate
b) Nucleotide triphosphate
156. ECFismeasuredby- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Deoxynucleotide diphosphate
a) Inulin b)DzO
d) Nuceotide monophosphate
c) Evan's blue d) 3If,O
142)d 143)a 144)a 145)a 146)c 147)b 148)a 149)c 150)d 151)a 152)b 153)a 154)b 155)c
156)a 157)a 158)b 159)None 160)a 16l)b 162)b 163)a 164)a 165)a 166)b 167)a 168)a 169)b
170)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.10]
171. Which of the following is used in exocytosis~ 185. Action potential is ~ (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a)Ca b)Mg (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Decremental phenomenon
c) Na d)K b) Doesn't obey all or none phenomenon
172. Na!K pump which enzyme is used- c) K+ goes from ECF to ICF
a) ATPase b) GTPase (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Threshold stimulus is required
c) Acetyl CoA c)NADPH 186. Type I muscle fibers are- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
173. Thin filament consists of all except- a) Red b)Anerobic
a) Actin b) Troponin (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Large d) Glycolytic
c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin 187. Catabolism ofH20 2 is carried out by-
a) Peroxisomes (NEETIDNB Pattern)
174. Which ion causes repolarization- (NEETIDNB
b) Mitochondria
a) Magnesium b)Calcium Pattern)
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Potassium d) Sodium
d) Lysosomes
175. Nerve depolarization is due to- (NEETIDNB
188. Most susceptible tissue to hypoxia-
a) Opening of sodium channels Pattern) a) Muscle (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Opening of chloride channels b) Neurons
c) Opening of potassium channels c) Hepatocytes
d) Opening of calcium channels d) Myocytes
176. Osmolarity is defined as - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 189. Energy is required in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Number of osmole per litre a) Diffusion b) Osmosis
b) Numberofosmoleperkg c) Active transport d) None
c) Weight of solute per litre 190. Major cation in ECF ~ (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Weight of solvent per litre a) Na b)K
177. Number of golgi tendon organs per 100 muscle c) P04-2 d)Mg
fibres- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 191. Renshaw cell inhibition is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 1-20 b)200-400 a) Feedback facilitation
c) 50-60 d) 80-100 b) Feed forward inhibhition
c) Feed forward facilitation
178. Thin filament consists of all except- (NEETIDNB
d) Feedback inhibhition
a) Actin b) Troponin Pattern)
192. On weight basis, the membrane contains protein
c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin and lipid in the ratio of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
179. Insensible water loss per day is -(NEETIDNB Pattern) a) I :2 b) I: I
a) IOOml b) 300ml c) 2: I d)4: I
c) 700ml d) IOOOml 193. Na~KATPase- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
180. Strengthening muscle exercise-(NEET/DNB Pattern) a) 3 Na out/ 2K in b) 3Na in/ 2K out
a) Isotonic b) Isometric c) 2Na out/ 3K in d) 2Na inJ3K out
c) Aerobic d) None 194. Resting membrane potential is generated mainly
181. Plasma membrane is mainly composed of- (NEETI by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Cholesterol b) Carbohydrate DNB Pattern) a) Na+ b) K+
c) Phospholipid d) Protein c) CI- d) CN+
182. Most permeable to pure phospholipid bilayer- 195. cAMP action mediates all except-
a) Oxygen b)Na (NEETIDNB Pattern)
(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Glucagon
c) a d) Water b) Follicle stimulating hormone
183. True regarding Na+ ion~ (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Leutinizing hormone
a) Responsible for Donnan effect d) estrogen
b) Responsible for Resting membrane potential 196. Blood flow to skeletal muscles (m1/min)-
c) Responsible for Depolarization a) IOO (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Does not help other ions in transport b) 200
c) 400
184. Glucose is co-transported with Na+ ions. This is a
d)800
type of~ (NEETIDNB Pattern)
197. A marker ofGolgi apparatus is-
a) Secondary active transport a) Galactosyl transferase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Primary active transport b) Acetyl CoA synthetase
c) Facilitated diffusion c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Simple diffusion d) Malonyl CoA
I7I)a 172)a 173)c I74)c 175)a 176)a I77)a 178)c 179)b 180)a 18l)d 182)a 183)c 184)a
185)d 186)a I87)a I88)b 189)c 190)a I9l)d 192)b 193)a 194)b 195)d 196)d 197)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.11 ]
198. Resting membrane potential of neuron is- 210. Refractive index of cornea is about- (Delhi 80,89)
a) +70mv b)-70mv (NEETIDNBPattern) a) 1.30 b) 1.33
c) +90mv d)-90mv c) 1.37 d) 1.42
199. Which of the following increases particle diffusion e) 1.50
across the cell membrane? (NEETIDNB Pattern) 211. Colour vision is by- (Kerala 94)
a) Increasing size of particle a) Rods b) Cones
b) Decreasing lipid solubility of substance c) Occipital cortex d) Bipolar cells
c) Increasing lipid solubility of substance 212. Blind spot ofmariotte is- (AP 86)
d) Decreasing size of opening in cell membrane a) Fovea centralis b) Macula lutea
200. When sodium enters cells -(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Optic disc d) None of the above
a) There is spike in action potential 213. Near point of a 5 year old child is- (KERALA 98)
b) There is platen in action potential a) 5cms b) lOcms
c) There is repolarization c) 15 ems d) 25 ems
d) There is hyperpolarization 214. The most important constitutent of endolymph is-
201. Cell volume & shape is maintained by- a) Sodium b) Potassium (PGI 89)
a) Goldman effect (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Chloride d) Protein
b) Gibbs - Donnan effect 215. Primary visual field is situated around the •..• sulcus-
c) Singer's effect a) Central b) Calcarine
d) None c) Superior temporal d) Inferior ccipital
202. Tetanic contraction is due to accumulation of- 216. Kluver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by all except-
a) Na+ b) Ca2+ (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Korsakoff amnesia (AIIMS 81, JIPMER 81)
c) K+ d) Cl" b) Apathy and placidity
c) Decreased sexual activity
NERVOUS SYSTEM d) Shamrage
217. EEG in parodoxical sleep is- (AIIMS 97)
203. Motor area in cerebrum is mainly associated with- a) Low amplitude mixed frequency
a) Performing all voluntary movements (Delhi 93) b) High amplitude low frequency
b) Performing an involuntary movements c) Q- waves
c) Executing fme movements d) Delta & Theta waves
d) Controlling all motor activity 218. Thalamus relay all sensory sensations except-
204. The following is a neurotransmitter -(JIPMER 91) a) Touch b) Temperature (JIPMER 98)
a) Serine b) Glutathoine c) Olfaction d) Auditory
c) Glutamine d) Aspartate
219. Which one ofthe following regions of the body has the
205. Aqueous homour has composition very similar
largest representation in cortical area -(UPSC 97)
to CSF- (JIPMER 81, AMC 85)
a) Trunk muscle b) Muscles of forearm
a) Without the cells b) Without the Cl
c) Muscles of mastication d) Muscles of thumb
c) WithouttheHC0 3 d)WithhighcontentofCl'
206. CSF to plasma glucose ratio is normally- (AI 99) 220. In normal CSF glucose is- (SCTIMS 98)
a) 2.0to2.4 b) 1.2to 1.4 a) 2/3 blood level b) 1/3 blood level
c) 0.6 to 0.8 d) 0.2 to 0.34 c) Equal to blood level d) None of the above
207. In Alzheimer's disease charactersitic lesion seen 221. Lowest representation in sensory cortex is for-
in- (Al97) a) Thumb b) Genitalia
a) Amygdaloid complex b) Nucleus ofMeynert c) Tongue d) Face
c) Basal ganglia d) Periventricle 222. While doing a neurosurgery, the paracentral lobule
208. The Inability of the boys natural defence system to was accidentally damaged. It will lead to which of
detect an abnoxious odour following long term the following- (AIIMS 2K)
exposure to thesmelliscalled (Jipmer81, PGI 81) a) Hemiplegia
a) Olfactory fatigue b) Rhinoreaction b) Monoplegia
c) Rhinostenosis d) Rhinorrhoea c) Involvement of the perineum and lower limbs
209. For the convergence of rays on to the retina, most d) Quadriplegia
important structure is- (All India 97) 223. Functionofthethalamusis- (AIIMS 92)
a) Anterior surface of cornea a) Relay centre b) Arousal
b) Lens curvative c) Pain perception d) Pain localisation
c) Size of eye ball
d) Acquous humour
198)b 199)c 200)a 201)b 202)b 203)a 204)d 205)a 206)c 207)b 208)None 209)a 210)c 211)b
212)c 213)a 214)b 215)b 216)c 217)a 218)c 219)c 220)a 221)c 222)c 223)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.12]
224. Weber-Fechnarlawis- (All India 97) 237. The neuromuscular transmitter is- (AI 89)
a) Mangitude of sensation is proportional to number a) Dopamine b) Epinephrine
of receptor stimulated c) Norepinephrine d) Acetyl choline
b) Mangitude of sensation is proportional to 238. Melatonin is secreted by- (AI 89)
amplitude of action potential or receptor a) Hypothalamus b) Adrenal cortex
c) Mangitude of sensation is proportional to c) Pineal gland d) Melanocytes
logarithm of intesity of stimulus 239. The satiety centre is located in the- (AIIMS 85)
d) Intensity of frequency of stimulus a) Dorsomedian nucleus of hypothalamus
225. "Spatial distortion" is common is disorders of- b) Ventromedian nucleus of hypothalamus
c) Perifornical region
a) Dominant parietal lobe (PGI 81, AIIMS 84)
d) Lateral hypothalamic area
b) Non-dominant parietal lobe
240. Lesions in ... lead to sensory ataxia-
c) Dominant temporal lobe
a) Posterior column b) Vermis
d) Non-dominant temporal lobe
c) Floculo-nodular lobe d) Vestibular apparatus
226. Deja Vu is seen in- (Kerala 94) 241. Crude touch sensations are carried by-
a) Normal persons b) Temporal lobe epilepsy a) Lateral spinothalamic tract
c) Psychosis d) All of the above b) Ventral spinothalamic tract
227. Shivering is abolished during general anaesthesia c) Posteriorcolumns
~- / (A/91) d) Pyramidal tracts
a) Cerebrum b) Thalamus 242. The basic postural reflex is -
c) Hypothalmus d) Vasomotor centre a) Corssed extensor reflex
228. Thereceptorsofpainis- (PGI 85) b) Golgi tendo reflex
a) Ruffmi organs b) Meckel's bodies c) Stretch reflex
c) Golgi bodies d) Free nerve endings d) Positive supporting reflex
229. Parasympathetic nerve supply of heart comes 243. Transection of medullary pyramid result in-
through- (AIIMS 81, TN 90) a) Hypotonia b)Atrophy of muscles
a) Phrenic nerve b) Spinal accessory nerve c) Forced grasping d) Positive babinski sign
c) Vagus nerve d) None of the above 244. What is the mechanism by which infection causes
230. First relay station of pain is- (AIIMS 80, PGI 81) fever- (TN90)
a) Spinal cord b) Medulla a) Increased heat production and decreased heat loss
c) Pons d) Thalamus b) Decreased heat production and decreased heat loss
231. Superficial reflexes are- (PGI 85, NIMHANS 87) c) Pyrogens action dependent on hypothalamus
a) Corneal b) Plantar d) None of the above
c) Ankle d) Hoffmans 245. Damage to sensory area 1 of the cerebral cortex
e) Jaw results in - (AIIMS 82)
232. Percentage of sensory fibres in a pure motor nerve a) Loss of perception of pain
is - (PGI 87, JIPMER 86) b) Loss of tactile and two point discrimination
a) 00/o b) 10% c) Loss of perception of touch
c) 2% d)40% d) Loss of only tactile discrimination
e) 25% 246. Vomiting centre is situated in the- (TN 90)
233. Enzyme involved in acetylcholine synthesis is- a) Hypothalamus b) Amygdala
a) Choline acetyl transferase (Jipmer 86) c) Pons d) Medulla
b) Choline esterase 247. Pain producing substance is- (Jipmer 90)
c) Pseudo cholinesterase a) Serotonin b) Substance P.
d) Glycine c) Histamine d) Acetyl choline
234. Inhibition of the spinal cord may be brought about 248. Swallowing centre is situated in- (Jipmer 90)
by- (AI 88) a) Midbrain b) Pons
a) Glutamic acid b) Aspartic acid c) Medulla d) Cerebellum
c) Glycine d) Strychinine 249. Pyrogensraise body temperature by- (A/90)
235. Somatostatin is produced in the- a) Setting the thermostat to higher level
a) Hypothalamus b) Anterior pituitary b) Releasing interleukins
c) Delta cells of pancreas d)Alpbacellsofpancreas c) Decreasing peripheral heat liberating mechanism
236. Beta endorphines are found in high concentration d) causing peripheral vasoconstriction
in- 250. Medial geniculate body is concerned with-
a) Substantia gelatinosa b) Post pituitary a) Hearing b) Vision (Kerala 90)
c) Spinal cord d) Medulla c) Smell d) Taste
224)c 225)b 226)d 227)c 228)d 229)c 230)a 23l)a,b,d,e 232)d 233)a 234)c 235)a,c 236)c
237)d 238)c 239)b 240)a 24l)b 242)c 243)a,d 244)c 245)b 246)d 247)a,c,d 248)c 249)a,b 250)a
PHYSIOLOGY [2.13]
251. Skeletal muscle contraction requires all except- 263. Increased Gamma efferent discharge is seen in
a) Depends on action potential (AI 91) all except: (Jipmer 93)
b) Recruitment of more number of fibres produces a) Jendrassik's maneruvre b)Anxiety
more contraction c) Rapid shallow breathing d) Stimulation of skin
c) Increase in the strength of action potential increase 264. Purkinje cell is a- (Jipmer 93)
contraction a) Output cell b) Input cell
d) Local tension c) Inter neuron d) Connector neuron
252. Smell receptors are seen in - (Kerala 91) 265. In cerebellar disease all the statements are correct
a) Lower l/3 of nasal mucosa except- (Jipmer 80, Delhi 87)
b) Upper 1/3 of nasal mucosa a) The Romberg's sign is positive
c) Amygdaloid body b) There is Adiodokokinesia
d) Cribriform plate c) There is pendular knee jerk
253. Smooth muscle has the following characteristic- d) There is involuntary tremor
a) Threshold is higher (Jipmer 91) 266. A stimulus event is called a reinforcer only if it
b) RMP is greater canbe shown to- (AJIMS 89)
c) Action potential is greater a) Produce reduction of a homeostatic need
d) Chronaxie is longer b) Lead to increased probability of response
254. Which is caused by Acetylcholine through Nicotinic c) Serve as an unconditioned response for operant
receptors- · (Jipmer 91) behaviour
a) Contraction of Skeletal muscle d) Elicit the response that follows it
b) Descrease ofheart rate 267. In addition to kidney counter current multiplier
c) Secretion of Saliva system is present in- (AIIMS 81, Delhi 93)
d) Contraction of pupils a) Crypts of gastric submucosa
255. The intensity of sensory stimuli is determined by- b) Bone
a) Duration oflatent period (Jipmer 91)
c) Muscles
b) Amplitude of action potential
d) Skin
c) Frequency of action potential
268. The electroencephalographic (EEG) curves are
d) Amplitude of generation potential
called- (Jipmer 78, Delhi 87)
256. Nucleus gracilis and Nucleus cuneatus are the frrst
a) ABCDE curves b) Berger's Rhythm
synapse for-
c) NeurogenicRhythm d)REMRhythm
a) Dorsal columns
269. Relation between nerve thickness and conditions
b) Dorsa lateral tract
c) Ventral spino thalamic tract velocity is- (AIIMS 78, Delhi 90, 92)
d) Lateral spinothalamic tract a) Linear b) Parabolic
257. First change to occur in the distal segment of cut c) Hyperbolic d) No relation
nerves- (Alllndia 92) 270. Motor area of Brodman's is area- (Delhi 93)
a) Myelin degeneration a) 1 b)4
b) Axonal degeneration ~ 5 d)7
c) Mitosis of schwann cell 271. The Helmholtz theory of colour vision states that-
d) Sprouting a) There are three kinds of cones in the retina
258. Actiop potentials are pro~u~ed by- (All India 92) responding to the three primary colours (DNB 91)
a) N~ Influx b) Ntt K Influx b) There are two kinds of cones called dominators
c) K Influx d) K efflux and modulators.
259. Paccinian corpuscles are major receptors for- c) There is only one kinds of cone and the colour is
a) Pressure b) Pain recognised only in area 17
c) Touch d) Temperature d) There are seven types of cones responding to the
260. Conduction in which type of nerve fibres is blocked seven colours of the spectrum.
maximally by pressure- (JIPMER 92) 272. Satiety centre in hypothalamus is regulated
a) Cfibres b)A-alphafibres by- (Delhi 92)
c) A-Beta d)A-gamma a) Gastric dilatation b) Blood glucose levels
261. Which structure in the eye is pain sensitive- c) Blood insulin levels d) All of the above
a) Iris b) Choroid (JIPMER 92) 273. The cerebellum- (Jipmer 79, Nimhans 89)
c) Ciliary body d) All of the above a) Has a totally inhibitory output from its cortex
262. Spinothalamic tract transmits all the following b) Has only excitatory signal output form its deep
sensations except- (All India 93) nuclear layers
a) Proprioception b) Pain c) Has a conscious interpretation of motor activity
c) Temperature d) Touch d) Has inhibitory influence on muscle tone in humans
25l)c 252)b 253)d 254)a 255)c 256)a 257)b 258)a 259)c 260)c 261)d 262)a 263)c 264)a
265)d 266)b 267)d 268)b 269)a 270)b 271)a 272)b 273)a,b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.14]
274. The condition known as REM sleep is-(Nimhans 88) 284. The attenuation reflex is due to- (AP 91)
a) That point at which the indivudual becomes aware a) Contraction of tensor tympani
and alert b) Contraction of stapedius
b) Referred to as paradoxical sleep c) Contraction of tensor tympani and stapedius
c) Characterized by total lack of all muscular activity d) Inward movement ofthe oval window
d) Charactrized by slow high voltage regular EEG 285. Muscle spindle is- (AP 90)
activity a) Receptor for a variety of multisynaptic reflexes
275. Red colour blindness is called- (AMU 92) b) Receptor for myotatic or stretch receptor reflex
a) Deuteranopia b) Protanopia c) Occurs only in antigravity extensor muscles
c) Protanmaly d) Deuteranomaly d) Excited by both stretch and contraction of the
276. 'frue visceral pain arise from- (PGI 80, AMU 87) muscles in which it is located.
a) Distension b) Mechanical irritation 286. In excitable cells, repolarization is closely
associated with one ofthe following events-
c) Excessive heat d) Compression
a) Naefflux b)Nainflux (PG/89)
e) Chemical stimulation
c) K efflux d) K influx
277. EEG rhythm recorded from the surface of the scalp
287. The EEG rhythm having lowest frequency is-
during REM sleep- (AIIMS 86)
a) Alpha b) Beta (Delhi87)
a) Alpha b) Beta c) Delta d) Theta
c) Delta d) Theta 288. Most of the refraction that occurs in the eye occurs
278. Interneurons neurons are- (AMC 89) atthe- (UP92)
a) Essential part of stretch reflex a) Anterior surface of cornea
b) Essential part of all reflexes b) Posterior surface of cornea
c) Always excitatory c) Anterior surface of lens
d) Always inhibitory d) posterior surface of lens
e) None of the above 289. AnEEG- (AIIMS 80, BHU 87)
279. Intraocular fluid- (AIIMS 88) a) Provides indication ofinteligence
a) Is produced at the canal of schlemm b) Tends to show waves of smaller amplitude during
b) Is reabsorbed by ciliary process deep sleep than of alert state
c) Helps to maintain the curve of cornea c) Show waves with a lower frequency during
d) None of the above intense thought than during sleep
280. Non myelinated axons differ from myelinated in that d) Is bilaterally symmetrical
they- (AIIMS 79, Bihar 89) 290. The reticular formation is a diffuse collection of
a) Are more excitable a) Only sensory neurons (JIPMER 79,
b) Lack nodes ofRanvier b) Only motor neurons BIHAR 89)
c) Are not capable ofregeneration c) Only autonomic centres
d) Are not associated with Schwann cells d) All of the above
281. What is true regarding the gamma efferent 291. The receptors in retina for those of blue, green
neuron- (JIPMER 80, ROHTAK 85) and red wave lengths are called - (TN 91)
a) An 'A' group motor neuron with a smaller diameter a) Modulators b) Trichomators
than that of alpha efferent neurons c) Dominators d) None of the above
b) Innervates intrafusal fibres 292. Which of the following cortical layers is stimulated
by the diffuse thalamocortical system- (PGI 82, 84)
c) Innervates muscle fibres that stretch annulospiral
a) Layer 2 b) Layer 3
endings
c) Layer4 d) Layer 5
d) All of the above
e) Layer6
282. A unilateral upper motor neuron lesion in the 293. Decerebrate animal results from the following
internal capsule is best characterized by - experimental procedure- (Bihar 89)
a) Diminished use of contralateral appendages below a) Removal of the cerebrum
the lesion (Nimhans 89) b) Transection at the upper border of midbrain
b) Muscle fasciculations c) Inter collicular transection
c) Ipsilateral hypotonicity d) Section above the thalamus
d) Flexion of the leg 294. A unique characterstic of smooth muscle is
283. Which of the following reflexes disappear in the that- (AIIMS 84)
absence of functional connections between the a) It can sustain a contraction for prolonged periods
spinal cord and the brain? (PGI 81, DNB 92) b) Calcium is not required for contraction
a) Swallowing reflex b) Seating reflex c) Repetitive contractions are not possible
c) Withdrawal reflex d) Erection of penis d) Myosin filaments are not required
e) All of the above e) ATP is required for contraction
274)b 275)b 276)a 277)a 278)e 279)c 280)b 28l)d 282)a 283)a 284)c 285)b 286)c 287)c
288)a 289)d 290)d 29l)b 292)c 293)c 294)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.15 J
295. Under resting conditions the ganglion cells of the 308. The average number of muscle fibres attached to
retina discharge at approximately what rate? one golgi tendon organ are- (AIIMS 84)
a) One per second (AIIMS 78,DELHI 80) a) 1-3 b)5-10
b) Five per second c) 10-15 d) 15-75
c) 25 per second 309. Stapes rests in- (AIIMS 84)
d) 125 per second a) Round window b) Oval window
e) 1250 per second c) Tympanic membrane d) Basilar membrane
296. Which of the following statement is not true- 310. Weberfechnerlawdealswith- (DNB 88)
a) Decorticate rigidity is greater (AP 91) a) Frequency discrimination
than decerebrae rigidity b) Receptive field organization
b) Righting reflexes are absent in the decrebrate animal
c) Intensity discrimination
c) Visual righting reflex is present in a thalamic
d) Two point discrimination
d) Decorticate rigidity is seen only when the animal
311. The band which disappears on muscular
is at rest
297. The medium with highest refractive index in the contraction is- (JIPMER 81, DELHI 82)
a) H b) I
~b- ~ill~
a) Cornea b) Nucleus of the lens c) A d)Z
c) Cortex of the lens d) Aqueous humor 312. An important facilitatory neurotransmitter
298. Where is motor activity probably initiated in the mediating coitus induced ovulation is - ~GI 88)
brain? (AIIMS80, UPSC 82) a) Dopamine b) Serotonin
a) Motor cortex b) Premotor cortex c) Adrenalin d) Noradrenaline
c) Basal ganglia d) Cerebellum 313. The frequency ofbeta waves (per sec) in EEG is-
299. The most susceptible fibre to hypoxia is-(Delhi 86) a) 04 b)4-7 (Delhi 87)
a) A b)B c) 7-13 d) 13-30
c) C d) All are equally sensitive 314. Spike duration is maximum in which nerve fibre-
300. The fibre which is the thickest in human nerve a) A-alpha b)A-beta (PGI79,AMU84)
is - (AIIMS 79, DELHI 89) c) A- delta d) C
~Touch b)Pain 315. pHofCSFis- (PGI81, UP99)
c) Temperature d) Proprioception a) 7.13 b) 7.23
301. The optical power of the eye is-{Jipmer 81,Delhi 83) c) 733 d)7.40
a) 25 Dioptres b) 50 Dioptres 316. What are some of the modalities of sensation that
c) 60 Dioptres d) 75 Dioptres are detected by free nerve endings?- (AIIMS 86)
302. Lowest most level of integration of stretch reflex a) Crude touch b) Pain
is at- {AMC 87) c) Tickle snesations d) Muscle stretch
a) Cerebral cortex b) Medulla 317. Sham rage is produced when- (AIIMS 85)
c) Lower medulla d) Spinal cord a) Section is made at L2 vertebrae
303. The visible range in electromagnetic spectrum for b) Pons is removed
human eye is- (JIPMER81, 91, DELHI84) c) Medulla is removed
a) 200-300nm b)3l0-340nm d) All the cortex is removed from the brain
c) 370-740nm d)740-870nm 318. lfthe red cones and the green cones are stimulated
304. Buerger waves (alpha waves) of EEG have the approximately equally. What colour will the person-
rhythm per sec of- (PGI 84, DELHI 84,89 a) Red b) Yellow (PGI 80)
a) 04 b)4-7 AIIMS87,MAHE07) c) Green d) Purple
c) g,..13 d) 13-30 e) Blue
305. The percentage of pyramidal fibres which are 319. In parkinsonism tremor is- (AIIMS 84)
unmyelinated- (PGI 84) a) 6-8 per second b) 2 per second
a) 20 b)35 c) 2-4 per second d) Uncountable
c) 50 d)75 320. Flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum is concerned
306. The usual voltage of alpha rhythm in (microvolts)- with- (Kerala 94)
a) 5 b)40 (AIIMS80,DELHI87 a) Equilibrium b) Co-ordination
c) 50 d)60 PGI 81) c) Baroreception d) Chemoreception
307. Rhodopsin is most sensitive and least sensitive to 321. Vestibular fibres relay in- (Kerala 94)
a) Violet light, red light (AIIMS 79, PGI 80) a) Vennis
b) Red light, violet light b) Lateral genticulate body
c) Green light, red light c) Flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum
d) Blue light, green light d) Auditory cortex
295)c 296)a 297)b 298)b 299)b 300)d 30l)c 302) d 303) c 304) c 305) b 306) c 307) c 308) c
309)b 310)c 31l)a 312)b 313)d 314)d 315)c 316)a,b,c,d 317)d 318)b 319)a 320)a 32l)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.16]
322. All of the following relay in sensory cortex except- 335. Lesion of Caudate N+ putamen : Chorea
a) Pain b) Touch (Kerala 94) parkinsonison : lesion of Negrostriatal pathway
c) Temperature d) Olfaction isolated lesion of globus pallid us causes- (AP 96)
323. Destruction oflateral nucleus of thalamus lead to a) Chorea b) Athetosis
a) Aphagia b) Hyperphagia (Kerala 94) c) Tremor d) Flexion dystonia
c) Satiety d) Sonmolence 336. All these are seen in a spinal reflex except-
324. One ofthe following is seen in auditory pathway- a) Summation b)Fatigue (AIIMS97)
a) Trapezoid body (Allindia95) c) Memory d) Adaptation
b) Lateral geniculate body 337. Hypothalmus regulatesallexcept- (AI97)
c) Genu of internal capsule a) Food intake
d) Lateral lemniscus b) Temperature
325. Which of the following nerve fibres is affected by c) Anticipatory rise in heart rate
localanaestbetics first - (All India 9 5) d) Hypophysis
a) Typeii b)A 338. Alpha- wave in EEG is seen in- (PGI 96)
c) B d)C a) Sleep b) REM sleep
326. Unidirectional transport is seen across- (AI 96) c) Awake state d) Mental work
a) Axon b) Synapse 339. Loss offeel of size & shape of a object is seen in
c) Both of above d) None of above lesion of- (AIIMS 96)
327. Decreased hypothalamic function causes a) Tractus solitarius
depressed levels of all of following hormones b) Tractus cuneatus
except- (Delhi 96) c) Lateral spinothalamic tract
a) Gorwth hormone b) Prolactin d) Cerebral cortex
c) TSH d)ACTH 340. In hippocampus EEG Waves are- (AI 98)
328. One of the following is a function of hypothalamus- a) Alpha wave b) Beta-wave
a) Swallowing (Delhi 96) c) Theta-wave d) Delta wave
b) Vomiting 341. GroupBfibreare- (AI98)
c) Respiration
a) Symapthetic preganglionic
d) Homeostasis of temperature
b) Sympathetic post ganglionic
329. Plateau phase of action potential is due to-
a) Na+ influx b) K+efflux (Assam 95) c) Parasympathetic preganglionic
c) Na+ Ca++slow channel d) All of the above d) Parasympathetic post ganglionic
330. Normal resting membrane potential is- 342. Stereoanesthesia is due to lesion of- (AI 93)
a) -50 to -60 mv b) -80 to -90 mv a) Nucleus Gracilis b) Nucleus cuneatus
c) -lOOto-llOmv d)-30to-50mv c) Cerebral cortex d) Spinothalamic tract
e) None 343. Phagocytosis in the CNS is done by- (AI 98)
331. Best method to increase, the muscle strength is- a) Astrocytes b) Schwann cells
a) Isometric excercise (Kerala 96) c) microglia d) Oligocytes
b) Isotonic excercise 344. Nissl's substance is composed of- (MARE 98)
c) Aerobic Isotonic excercise a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
d) Electrical stimulation b) Nerve cell vesicles
332. The receptors/buds responsible for carrying bitter c) Aggregated mitochondria
taste sensation are situated - (CUPGEE 96) d) Deposits of pigmented granules
a) At the tip of the tongue 345. An adolescent desirous of increasing his muscle
b) Just behing the tip mass is advised to- (MARE 98)
c) At the sides a) Increase protein intake
d) At the posterior aspect b) Take steroids
333. Rheobase indicates- (Karnat 96) c) Excercise the muscle
a) Magnitude of the current d) Electricity stimulate the muscle
b) Rate of discharge 346. All of the following manifestations are seen in cases
c) Velocity of nerve conduction of cerebeller damage in human beings
d) Specificity of impulse transmission
except- (ICS 98)
334. Warmth sensation is sensed by- (Karnat 96)
a) Loss of non-declarative/reflexive memory
a) Pacini an capsule b) Meissneirs capsule
b) Loss of adjustment of vestibulo-ocular reflex
c) Raffine end organ d) Krauses end bulb
c) Static tremor and rigidity
d) Ataxia, atonia and asthenia
322)d 323)a 324) a,d 325) d 326)b 327)b 328)d 329)c 330)b 33l)b 332)d 333)a 334)e 335)b
336)c 337)c 338)c 339)d 340)c 341) a,c 342) c 343)c 344)a 345)c 346)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.17]
347. Circadian rhythm is controlled by- (Kerala 98) 360. End plate potential follows which law-
a) Supra chiasmatic nucleus a) All or none law (Burdwan 2K, PGI 88)
b) Hypothalamus b) Depolarisation
c) Thalamus d) Hyperpolarisation
d) Pineal gland d) Propagation
348. A twitch of motor unitis called- (Al99) 361. While seeing a colour chart a colour blind male
a) Myoclonic jerk b) Tremor hasdecreased vision for red light colour which
c) Fasciculation d) Chorea appear very light than that of other colours. which
349. Prosapaguosia is- (Al99) of the following is the likely anomaly in him?
a) Inability to recognise faces a) Protanomaly b) Dutanomaly (AI 02)
b) Inability to draw c) Tritanomaly d) Butanomaly
c) Inability to count 362. IPSPisdueto- (NIMHANSOJ)
d) Inability to smell a) Cl·influx b)K+influx
350. Wallenberg degeneration is seen in- (AliMS 98) c) Na+influx d) Ca++influx
a) Proximal cut end of nerve with cell body 363. EPSPis due to- (NIMHANS OJ)
b) Distal cut end of nerve without cell body a) K+influx b) Na+ efflux
c) Both the free ends of the cut nerve c) Na+influx d) Ca++influx
d) All are true 364. Sine qua non for cerebral cortex- (NIMHANS OJ)
351. Raised ECF K+ levels seen in- (TN 99) a) Stellate cells b) Pyramidal cells
a) Endolymph b) Ectolymph c) Granular cells d) Basket cells
c) Aquous humour d) vitreous humour 365. Initiation ofimpulse starts in- (NIMHANS 0 J)
352. Receptor which itselfis a dendrite of a nerve- a) Axon b) Axon hillock+ initial segment
a) Olfactory b) Gustatory (TN 99) c) Cell body d) Dendritic tree
366. Bitter taste is mediated by action of- (KERALA OJ)
c) Visual d) Hearing
a) Guanyl cyclase b) G protein
353. Osmoreceptor is located at which site-
c) Tyrosine kinase d) Epithelial Na+ chain
a) Anterior hypothalamus (TN 99, AI 89)
367. Skilled voluntary movement is initiated at-
b) Renal dedulla a) Cerebral cortex (motor cortex) (JIPMER 02)
c) Carotid body b) Basal ganglia
d) Atrial chamber c) Cortical association
354. Crossed extensor reflex is a- (JIPMER 99) d) Cerebellum
a) Withdrawal reflex b) Postural reflex 368. Human brain is more intelligent than monkey's
c) Monosynaptic reflex d) Sympathetic brain due to- (PGI 03)
355. Renshaw cell inhibition is an example of- a) Larger brain
a) Feed-forward inhibition (AJIMS 99) b) Increased convulations
b) Oscillating motor activity c) Increased brain area compaired to body surface
c) Circuit for bio feedback area
d) All of the above d) More blood supply
356. Arousal response is mediated by- (MP 2K) 369. Function of microglia in CNS- (PGI 03)
a) Dorsalcolumn a) Phagocytosis b) Myeline synthesis
b) Reticular activating system c) Fibrosis
c) Spinothalamic tract 370. FunctionofDendrites- (PGI03)
d) Vestibulo cerebeller tract a) It generates the action potential
357. ATPneeds- (MP 2K) b) Wave activity in E.E.G
a) Calcium b) Magnesium c) led Retrograde firing
c) Manganese d) Zinc d) J-ed Retrograde firing
e) Involved in memory
358. High twitch muscle fibres in comparison to low
371. UMN includes- (PGI 02)
twitch muscle fibres are having more- (AMC 2K)
a) Pyramidal cells b) Peripheral nerves
a) Mitochondria b)C-AMP
c) Anterior hom cells d) Glial Cells
c) Cytoplasm d) Enzymes
e) Schwann cells
359. In severe exercise muscle spasm occurs due to- 372. Which of the following is most prone to hypoxic
a) Accumulation ofK+ (UP 2K) injury- (PGI 2K, 99, Bihar03)
b) Accumulation of Acetylcholine a) Thalamus b) Hippocampus
c) AccummulationofCa++ c) Caudate nucleus d) Cerebellum
d) DepletionATP
347)a 348)c 349)a 350)b 35l)a 352)a 353)a 354)a 355)c 356) b 357) a 358) a 359) d 360)b
36l)a 362)a 363)c 364)b 365)a 366)b 367)a 368)a 369)a 370)b,d,e 371)a 372)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.18]
373. All are controlled by autonomic nervous system 384. The primary motor area for shivering is-
except- (PGI 2000) a) Cerebrum (SGPGI 04)
a) Aldosterone b) Insulin b) Red nucleus
c) CH d) Somatostatin c) Ventromedial anterior hypothalamus
374. Functions of Basal ganglia include- (PGI 02) d) Dorsomedial posterior hypothalmus
a) Gross motor movements 385. The distance by which two touch stimuli must be
b) Skilled motor movements separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli
c) Maintenance of equilibrium is greatest at- (Karnataka 04)
d) Emotional responses a) The lips b) The palm of the hand
e) Cortical arousal c) The back of scapula d) The dorsum ofthe hand
375. Vasopressin secretion is increased by- 386. Thirst is activated by- (UPPGMEE 04)
a) Alcohol (NIMHANSOJ) a) Increased Angitension II level
b) Decreased ECF volume b) Extracellular hyperosmolarity
c) Carbamazepine c) IncreaedANP levels
d) Procainamide d) Increased Renin levels
376. The only sensory modality which does not reach 387. Strychnine acts by- (SGPGI 05)
the thalamus directly is- (UPSC 02) a) Exciting all the excitatory synapses in the cord
a) Proprioception b) Taste b) Blocking inhibitory synapses
c) Olfaction d) Pain and temperature c) Being incorporated as substitute transmitter in
377. The rod receptor potential differs from other monoaminergic synapses
sensory receptors in that it shows- (UPSC 02) d) Directly exciting the skeletal muscle fibrosis
a) Depolarization 388. Neurotransmitter involved in nigrostriatial
b) Decreased negativity pathway is- (SGPGI 05, AI 89)
c) Increased conductance of Sodium a) Serotonin b) Dopamine
d) Hyperpolarization c) Cholinergic d) Adrenergic
378. Earliest, definite sign of death is- (Kerala 03) 389. Parasympathetic fibre arise from all the
a) Absent brain stem reflexes following cranial nerve except- (SGPGI 05)
b) Stoppage of mucosal ciliary action in respiratory a) Abducent b) Oculomotor
passage c) Vagus d) Glossopharyngeal
c) Retinal anterior column break down 390. Nerve fibres innervating sweat glands release the
d) None of these following at their endings- (SGPGI 05)
a) Noradrenaline b) Acetycholine
379. A person with intractable pain over the right leg
c) Dopamine d) Histamine
is benefited by- (Kerala 03)
391. Autonomic fibres are rich in which type of
a) Right Spinothalamic tract cordectomy
neurotransmitter- (AMU 05)
b) Left Spinothalamic tract cordectomy a) Acetylcholine b) Noradrenaline
c) Right hemicordectomy c) GABA d) Epinephrine
d) Lefthemicordectomy 392. Pacinian corpuscles are - (AMU 05)
380. Emotional effect to a physical stimulus is given by- a) Rapidly adapting touch receptors
a) Amygdaloid b) Cortex (Jipmer 03) b) Slowly adapting touch receptors
c) Cerebellum d) Hippocampus c) Temperature receptor
381. One of the following is intraneural secondary d) Pressure receptors
messenger - (Jipmer 03) 393. Number of neurons in enteric nervous system-
a) Dopamine b) Cyclic AMP a) lOOmillion b) lOmillion (AMU05)
c) GMP d}Calcium c) !million d) llakh
382. Circadian rhythum is maintained by- (Jipmer 04) 394. The function of the neocerebellum are-
a) Suprachiasmatic nucleus a) Maintenance of equilibrium (COMEDK 05)
b) Pre optic nucleus b) Servo correction of voluntary movements
c) Supraoptic nucleus c) Planning and programming of voluntary
d) Thalamic nucleus movements
383. Gate system for pain control at- (Jipmer 04) d) Maintenance of muscle tone
a) Substantia gelatinosa 395. Depression oflevel of consciousness in hypothermia
b) Dorsal root ganglion starts when the core body temperature is below-
c) Both a) 36degreesC b)34degreesC (COMEDK05)
None c) 33 degrees C d) 32 degrees C
373)a 374)b 375)b,c 376)c 377)d 378)a 379)b 380)b 381)a 382)a 383)b 384)d 385)c 386)b
387)b 388)b 389)a 390)b 391)a 392)a 393)a 394)c 395)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.19]
396. 'A' wave in ElectroRetinogram corresponds to 408. The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina
activity in- (COMEDK 05) project to the following layers of the lateral
a) Rods and cones b) Pigment epithelium geniculate nucleus- (AI 05)
c) Ganglion cell layer d) Nerve fibre layer a) Layers2,3&5. b) Layers 1,2&6.
397. Tissue with least chronaxie- (MAHE 05) c) Layers 1, 4 & 6. d) Layers 4, 5 & 6.
a) Smooth muscle b) Cardiac muscle 409. The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate
c) Skeletal muscle d) All the above nucleus to visual cortex is most sensitive for the
398. Pain receptors are found in- (MAHE 05) stimulus of- (AI 05)
a) Ventral horn b) Dorsal horn a) Color contrast
c) Substantia nigra d) None of the above b) Luminance contrast
399. Vagal stimulation causes the following effects except-
c) Temporal frequency
a) Increase in intestinal secretion (Jipmer 05, UP 97)
d) Saccadic eye movements
b) Constriction of intestinal musculature
410. The first physiological response to high
c) Relaxation ofbronchial musculature
d) Fall in the blood pressure environmental temperature is- (AI 05)
400. Section ofthe vagus nerve results in- (ICS 05) a) Sweating
a) Increased rate of respiration b) Vasodilatation
b) Decreased depth of respiration c) Decreased heat production
c) Irregular breathing patterns d) Non-shivering thermogenesis
d) Increases in breath - holding time 411. Neuronal degeneration is seen in all of the
401. Which one of the following sensory receptors is following except- (AI 05)
found in epidermis- (ICS 05) a) Crush nerve injury b) Fetal development
a) Merkel disc b) Meissner's corpuscles c) Senescence d) Neuropraxia
c) Ruffmi ending d) Pacinian corpuscles 412. Group A nerve fibers are most susceptible to-
402. All of the following are thermal modalities a) Pressure (AIIMS May 05)
except- (PG!June05) b) Hypoxia
a) Cold receptor b) Warm receptor c) Local anaesthetics
c) Pain receptor d) Stretch receptor d) Temperature
e) Pressure receptor 413. Most afferent fibers from the lateral nucleus
403. Mechanismofanalgesiaisby- (PG!June05) terminate in the primary visual cortex is- (AI 06)
a) Nociceptin stimulation a) Layer 1 b) Layer2 & 3
b) Nocistatin stimulation c) Layer4 d) Layer 5 & 6
c) Y.LRI 414. The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with-
d) Anadamide receptors a) Ocular dominance (AI 06)
e) Nicotinic & cholinergic receptors
b) Orientation
404. Which of the following sensations is most affected
c) Color processing
by cortical lesions- (J & K 05)
d) Saccadic eye movements
a) Proprioception b) Temperature
c) Itch d) Crude touch 415. The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral
405. Heart rate increase with one ofthe following- geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries
a) Stimulation of trigeminal nerve pain receptor signals for the detection of- (AI 06)
b) Increased intracranial tension (APPGE 05) a) Movement, depth and flicker
c) Decreased stimulation ofBaroreceptors b) Color vision, shape and fine details
d) Increased parasympathetic stimulation c) Temporal frequency
406. An anterolaternal corodotomy relieving pain in d) Luminance contrast
right leg is effective because it interrupts the- 416. The maintenance of posture in a normal adult
a) Leftdorsalcolumn (AIIMSNOV05) human being depends upon- (AI 06)
b) Left ventral spinothalmic tract a) Integrity of reflex are
c) Left lateral spinothalrnic tract b) Muscle power
d) Right lateral spinothalmic tract c) Type of muscle fibers
407. Beta waveforms in electroencephalogram d) Joint movements in physiological range
designate which of the following states of the patient- 417. The first reflex response to appear as spinal
a) Deep Anaesthesia (AIIMSNOV05) shock wears off in humans is- (AI 06)
b) Surgical Anaesthesia a) Tympanic reflex b) Withdrawal reflex
c) Light Anaesthesia, eyes closed, relaxed c) Neck righting reflex d) Labyrinthine reflex
d) Awake/alert state
396)a 397)? 398)b 399)c 400)d 401)a 402) d,e 403) a,c,d,e 404) a 405) c 406) c 407) d 408) c 409)a
410)b 411)d 412)a 413)c 414)c 415)b 416)a 417)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.20]
418. The hyperkinetic features of the Huntington's 430. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors- (Manipa/2006)
disease are due to the loss of- (AI 06, AIIMS 04) a) Myocardium
a) Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system b) Motor end plates
b) Intrastriatal cholinergic system c) Prejunctional sympathetic neurons
c) GABA-ergic and cholinergic system d) Neuromuscular junction
d) Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system 431. Phantom limb phenomenon is explained by-
419. The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present a) Lawofprojection (PGMCET07, AIIMS 05)
b) Webers law
in- (AI 06)
c) Fechner's law of degeneration
a) Locus ceruleus b) Dorsal raphe
d) Pascals law
c) Lateral hypothalamic area d) Hippocampus 432. Red cones in fovea are sensitive to which wavelength-
420. Axonotmesis includes discontinuity in- (PGI June a) 460nm b)480nm (PGMCET07)
a) Perineurium b)Epineurium 06) c) 520nm d)560nm
c) Endoneurium d)Axon 433. EEG in a male fully awake with eyes closed,
e) Myelin sheath electrodes placed at occipital position will
421. Functions of limbic system- (PGI June 06) record: (PGMCET07, Kerala97,Jiprner92)
a) Emotion b) Memory a) a waves b)~ waves
c) Higher function d) Planned motor activity c) y waves d) 8waves
422. Conduction velocity (m/s) of nerve fibers carrying 434. The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roots are
fast pain is about- sensory and the ventral roots are motor is
a) 120 b)70 known as- (Corned 07)
c) 30 d)2 a) Laplace'slaw b)Bell-Magendle'slaw
423. The 'C' type nerve fibers are highly susceptible to- c) Frank Starling's law d) Weber-Fechner's law
a) Hypoxia b) Pressure 435. Cutaneous vasocontriction is mediated by-
a) Sympathetic adrenergic nerves (Corned 07)
c) Local anesthetics d) All of the above
b) Sympathetic cholinergic nerves
424. In hypoxic damage to brain, which of the following
c) Parasympathetic cholinergics
is damaged most- (HP 2006) d) Somatic nerves
a) Claustrum 436. Which of the following types of nerve fibers carry
b) Mamillary body pain- (Corned 08, 07)
c) Layer of corpus callosum a) Aa b)A~
d) Purkinj e layer of cerebellum c) Ay d)A8
425. Vibration sensation is mediated by- 437. The rapbe nuclei located in lower pons and mednlla
a) Merkel's disc (NIMHANS 06) secrete the following neurotransmitter-(Corned 08)
b) Ruffmi's endogran . a) Norepinphrine b) Dopamine
c) Paccinian corpuscle c) Serotonin d) Acetycholine
d) Meissner's corpuscle 438. Broca's area is concerned with- (AI 07)
426. Impotence is seen with which lesion of spinal a) Word formation b) Comprehension
cord? (PUNJAB 2006) c) Repetition d) Reading
a) Upper lumbar b) Lower sacral 439. The nucleus involved in Papez circuit is- (AI 07)
c) Upper thoracic d) None a) Pulvinar
b) Intralaminar
427. Which of the following is released from
c) VPL nucleus
hypothalamus- (APPG 2006)
d) Anterior nucleus of Thalamus
a) Cortisol releasing hormone 440. The mechanism of bearing and memory, include
b) Neuropeptide all except- (AI 07)
c) Orexin a) Changes in level of neurotransmitter at synapse
d) Ghrelin b) Increasing protein synthesis
428. Kluver bucy syndrome is due to the lesion in c) Recruitment by multiplication of neurons
which of the following structure- (APPG 06, UP 04) d) Spatial Reorganization of synapse
a) Amygdala b) Hippocampus 441. The processing of short term memory to long term
c) Hypothalamus d) Temporal lobe memory is done in- (AI07)
429. Lesion in Wenicker's area results in- a) Prefrontal cortex b) Hippocampus
a) Global aphasia c) Neocortex d)Amygdala
b) Non-fluent aphasia 442. Delta waves are seen in- (AI 07, JIPMER 92)
c) Conduction aphasia a) Deep sleep b) REM sleep
d) Failure of comprehension ofspoken or written words c) Awake state d) Stage I NREM sleep
418)c 419)c 420) d.e 421) a,b,c 422) c 423) c 424) d 425)c 426)a 427)a 428)a 429)d 430)c 431)a
432)d 433)a 434)b 435)a 436)d 437)c 438)a 439)d 440)c 441)b 442)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.21 ]
443. Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all except~ 453. Pyramids are formed by- (UP 07)
a) Blood pressure (Aiims May 07) a) Arcuate nucleus
b) ArterialPC02 b) Vestibular nuclei
c) Potassium ions c) Interstitial cells of cajal
d) Cerebral metabolic rate d) Lateral corticospinal tract
444. Avoiding response is dne to lesion in the 454. Which of the following receptors are missing from
brain- (MARE 07) the surface ofthe intestine- (UPSC-II 08)
a) Ipsilateral frontal lobe lesions a) Temperature b) Pressure
b) Contralateral frontal lobe lesions c) Distension d) Touch
c) Ipsilateral parietal lobe lesions 455. Auditory receptors are found in- (UP 08)
d) Contralateral parietal lobe lesions a) Semicircular canal b) Organ of corti
445. Impairment of moral and social sense, lack of c) Ear ossicles d) Tympanic membrane
initiation and difficulty in planning with flight of 456. Adult human who are awake with mind wandering
ideas is a feature oflesion in the- (UP 07) and the eyes closed. Most likely EEG pattern is-
a) Frontal lobe b) Parietal lobe a) Alpha- rhythm b) Beta rhythm (UP 08)
c) Temporal lobe d) Occipital lobe c) Theta rhythm d) Delta waves
446. Broca'sareasituatedin- (UP07,AI89,93) 457. A man loses his right hand in a farm accident, four
a) Superior temporal gyrus year later, he has episodes of severe pain in the
b) Inferior temporal gyrus missing hand (phantom limb pain).A detailed PET
c) Superior temporal gyrus scan study of his cerebral cortex might be expected
d) Inferior frontal gyrus toshow- (UP08)
447. Brown-sequardsyndrome- (UP07, UP06) a) Expansion of the right hand area in his right
a) Pain loss in the opposite side of lesion somatic sensory area I (SI)
b) Fine touch lost in opposite side of lesion b) Expansion of the right hand area in his left SI
c) UMN paralysis in opposite side of lesion c) Projection of fibre from neighboring sensory areas
d) LMN paralysis in opposite side of lesion into the right hand area of his right SI.
448. Weber's syndrome occurs due to lesions in the- d) Projection of fibers from neighbouring sensory
a) Pons b) Midbrain (UP 07) areas into the right hand area of his left SI
c) Medulla oblongata d) Cerebellum 458. Fine, irregular contraction of individual fibers
449. According to herrington classification the
called- (UP 08)
decerebrate rigidity is characterised by all except-
a) Fasciculations b) Fibrillation
a) Rigidity occurs all muscles of the body (UP 07)
c) Tics d) Spasm
b) Increased in the rate of discharge of the 'y' efferent
neuron 459. The site where myosin heads to action in skeletal
c) Increased excitability of the motor neuron pool musCles are covered by- (AI 08)
d) Decerebration produces no phenomenon akin to a) Tropomyosin b) Troponin
spinal shock c) Calcium d) None of the above
450. Autonomic nervous system the cholinergic nerve 460. Which of the following is not a Sarcolemmal
fibres - (UP 07) proteins? (AI 08)
a) All preganglionic fibres, releases acetycholine a) Sarcoglycan b) Dystrophin
b) Post ganglionic cholinergic fibres secretes acetyl c) Dystroglycan d) Perlecan
choline 461. Which ofthe following sensation are transmitted
c) The post ganglionic sympathetic cholinergic by the Dorsal tract/Posterior column- (AI 08)
nerve fibres supplies sweat glands and blood a) Fine touch b) Pain
vessels inheart and skeletal muscles c) Temperature d) All of the above
d) All of the above 462. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is-
451. All are neuroglial cells in CNS except- (UP 07) a) Senses dynamic length of muscle (Aiims May 08)
a) Astrocytes b) Microglia b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
c) Oligodendrocytes d) Troposomes c) a-motor neuron stimulation
452. Evacuation of the urinary bladder and stool with d) Senses muscle tension
profuse sweating is a features of- (UP 07) 463. Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold,
a) Mass reflex slowly rising stimulus is k/a- (Aiims May 08)
b) Positive supportive reaction a) Adaptation b) Accomodation
c) Labyrinthine righting reflex
c) Refractoriness d) Electrotonus
d) Stretch reflex
443)c 444)d 445)a 446)d 447)a 448)b 449)a 450)d 45l)d 452)a 453)d 454)d 455)b 456)a
457)d 458)b 459)a 460)d 461)a 462)d 463)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.22]
464. Increased velocity of conduction in a nerve is 475. Which of the following statements about vasomotor
favoured by- (PGI June 08) centre(VMC)istrue- (AI 09)
a) Increased capacitance a) Independent of corticohypothalamic inputs
b) Decreased capacitance b) Influenced by baroceptor signals but not by
c) Increased resistance chemoreceptors
d) Decreased resistance c) Acts along with the cardiovagal centre (CVC) to
e) Increased velocity maintain blood pressure
465. Posterior column lesion which of the following is
d) Essentially silent in sleep
not affected- (PGI June 08)
476. Which of the following statements about myocardial
a) Vibration b) Temperature
c) Fine touch d) Position sense oxygen demand is true- (AI 09)
e) Crude sense a) Correlates with heart rate
466. All are true about olfaction except- (Manipal 08) b) Is directly proportional to external cardiac work
a) Key-lock system c) Is negligible when heart is at rest
b) Chemical mediated d) Depends upon duration of systole
c) Females have stronger sense of olfaction 477. Appetite is stimulated by all of the following peptides,
d) Males have stronger sense of olfaction Except- (AI 09)
467. Limbic system is concerned with- (Manipal 08) a) Agouti- Related Peptide (AGRP)
a) Control of emotions, food habits b) Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
b) Sexual behavior c) Melanin concentrating hormone (MCH)
c) Autonomic functions d) Neuropeptide Y
d) All of the above 478. Key regulators of sleep are located in- (AI 09)
468. Cholinergic receptor agonist in brain-(Manipal 08) a) Hypothalamus b) Thalamus
a) Nicotine b) Acetylcholine c) Putamen d) Limbic cortex
c) Both a and b d) None of above
479. Cortical representation of body in the cerebrum is-
469. In dark adaptation, there occurs- (DPGEE 08)
a) Horizontal b) Vertical (AIIMS May 09)
a) Decreased perception of vision
b) Decreased visual acuity c) Tandem d) Oblique
c) Pupillary dilatation 480. Rods and cones differ in all, except-(AIIMS May 09)
d) Breakdown of rhodopsin a) Signal transduction b) Light sensitivity
470. Osmoreceptors are located in- (DPGEE 08) c) Wavelength d) Acuity
a) Supraoptic nuclei 481. True about spinocerebellar tract is-(AIJMS May 09)
b) Paraventricular nuclei a) Equilibrium
c) Anterior hypothalamus b) Smoothens and coordinates movement
d) Lateral hypothalamus c) Learning induced by change in vestibulocular
471. Phagocytic cells in the CNS are- (DPGEE 08) reflex
a) Oligodendrocytes b) Schwann cells d) Planning and programming
c) Astrocytes d) Microglial cells 482. For color vision, which is true? (AIIMS May 09)
472. The neurotransmitter in the autonomic ganglia is- a) Independent of wavelength of light
a) Adrenaline b) Noradrenaline (DPGEE 08) b) Depends on intensity discrimination
c) Acetylcholine d) Nicotine c) Involves opponent color cells
473. Which of the following statements is true about
d) Minimum at fixation point
presynaptic inhibition? (AIIMS Nov 08)
483. Nerve ending sensitive to noxious stimuli are present
a) It results due to failure of the action potential to
reach the synapse inallexcept- (PGI June 09)
b) It occurs due to hyperpolarisation of presynaptic a) Stomach b) Intestine
membrane c) Mesentry d) Liver
c) It occurs due to inhibition of release of e) Brain
neurotransmitter from presynaptic terminal. 484. Na &/or K_+ is/are involved in mechanism of action
d) It occurs due to blockade of neurotransmitter of which of the following receptor(s) -(PGI June 09)
receptors a) GAB AA receptor b) Nm receptor
474. Which of the following nucleus controls the c) Nn receptor d) 5-HT3 receptor
circadian rhythm? (AIIMS Nov 08) e) Dopamine
a) Supraoptic nucleus 485. The only neurons in retina showing action potentials
b) Paraventricular nucleus are- (Corned 09)
c) Suprachiasmatic nucleus a) Roads and cones b) Bipolar cells
d) Premamillarynucleus c) Amacrine cells d) Ganglion cells
464)a,d 465)b 466)d 467)d 468)a 469)c 470)c 47l)d 472)c 473)c 474)c 475)c 476)a 477)b
478)a 479)b 480)a 481)b 482)c 483)e 484) b,c,d,e 485) d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.23 J
486. The first reflex to return after recovery from spinal 497. Refractivelndexofcorneais about- (DPG 10)
shock is- (DELHIPGFeb. 09) a) 1.30 b) 1.33
a) Stretch reflex b) Flexorreflex c) 1.37 d) 1.42
c) Stepping reflex d) Postural antigravity reflex 498. Vomiting centre is situated in the- (DPG 10)
487. The refractory power of eye is normally 59 diopters. a) Hypothalamus b) Amygdala
Two thirds of this is contributed by- c) Rons d) Medulla
a) Anterior surface of the lens (DELHI PG Feb. 09) 499. The fibre which is the thickest in human nerve is-
b) Posterior surface of the lens a) Touch b) Pain (DPG 10)
c) Anterior surface of the cornea c) Temperature d) Proprioception
d) Aqueous humor and vitreous humor combined 500. The function of the neocerebellum is - (DPG 1 0)
488. Stimulation of proximal cut end of vagus causes- a) Maintenance of equilibrium
a) Apnea b) t HR (DELHI PG Feb. 09) b) Servo-correction of voluntary movements
c) !BP d)±BP c) Planning and programming of voluntary movements
489. If the blood tlow through a blood vessel is 2 mil min, d) Maintenance of muscle tone
how much will it become if its radius is doubled- 501. When an inddividual is resting in a room with the
a) Willremainthesame (DELHIPGFeb. 09) air temperature 21°C and the humidity of80%, the
b) 4mllmin greatest amount of heat lost from body is by-
c) 8mllmin a) Elevation ofbody metabolism
d) 16mllmin b) Vaporisation of sweat (Maharashtra 1 0)
490. All are true about brown sequard syndrome except- c) Respiration
a) Ipsilateral loss of joint sensation (PGI Nov 09) d) Radiation and conduction
b) Contralateral loss of joint sensation 502. Which of the following carries fast pain?
c) Ipsilateral loss of pain & temperature a) A d fibres b) A B fibres (Maharashtra 10)
d) Segmental sign are bilateral c) A a fibres d) C fibres
e) Contralateral loss of vibration 503. Satiety centre is located at- (Maharashtra 1 0)
491. Transection at mid pons level results in- a) Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus
a) Asphyxia (AIIMSNov09) b) Dorsomedial nucleus ofhypothalamus
b) Hyperventilation c) Peritrigonal area
c) Rapid and shallow breathing d) Lateral nucleus
d) Apneusis
504. In humans the Auditory receptors act by for
492. Events occurring in the past one week is an example
the phenomenon of 'Masking' - (Maharashtra 1 0)
of- (AIIMSNov09)
a) All or none Low
a) Recent memory b) Remote memory
c) Workingmemory d)Delayedmemory b) Relative or absolute refractoriness
493. Appetite is stimulated by all except-(AI/MS May 10) c) Beneficial effect
a) Agouti related peptide d) Post-tetanic potentiation
b) Melanocyte concentrating hormone 505. Bruxism occurs in phase of sleep-
c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone a) ReM b) NREM I (Maharashtra 10)
d) Neuropeptide Y c) NREM II d) NREM III
494. True about spinocerebellar tract is-(AIIMS May 10) 506. The representational hemisphere (cerebral) is
a) Equilibrium better than the categorical hemisphere at?
b) Smoothens and coordinates movement a) Language functions (Maharashtra 10)
c) Learning induced by change in vestibulocular b) Recognition of objects by their form
reflex c) Understanding oprinted words
d) Planning and programming d) Mathematical calculation
495. Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasm 507. "Nerve terminals release chemicals"-discovered by-
by- (AI 10) a) Dale b) Withering (PGI May 10)
a) Stimulation of adrenergic fibers c) Dornagk d) Langley
b) Stimulation of cholinergic fibers e) Loewi
c) Inhibition of cold receptors 508. Ascending pain pathway is inhibited in dorsal
d) Inhibition of heat receptors midbrainby- (PGINov.10)
496. Lesions of the lateral cerebellum cause all of the a) 5-HT (serotonin) b) Noradrenaline
following,except- (AI 10)
c) Substance P d) Glutamate
a) Incoordination b) Intention tremor
e) Adenosine
c) Resting tremor d) Ataxia
486)b 487)c 488)a 489)d 490)b,c,d,e 49l)d 492)a 493)c 494)b 495)a 496)c 497)c 498)d 499)d
500)c 501)d 502)a 503) a 504) b 505) c 506) b 507) a,e 508) a
PHYSIOLOGY [2.24]
509. Cortcospinal tract lesion leads to- (PGI Nov. I 0) 520. Dorsal column lesions are associated with loss of-
a) Spaticity a) Anklejerk (Jipmer IO)
b) Extensor plantar response b) Knee jerk
c) Cogwheel rigidity c) Proprioception
d) Resting tremors d) Pain sensations
e) Exaggerated tendon reflexes 521. Vestibulo ocular relfex is concerned with-
510. Difference between nenropraxia and neuronotomesis a) Archicerebellum (Jipmer I 0)
is- (PGINov. IO) b) Flocculonodular lobe
a) EMG finding c) Neocerebellum
b) Sensory loss d) Occipital lobe
c) Motor loss 522. Gamma motor neurons are mainly influenced by-
d) Nerve conduction studies in distal fragment a) Tectospinal tract (Jipmer I 0)
e) Axon integrity b) Vestibulo spinal tract
511. Which of the following is not permeable through c) Reticulo spinal tract
the Blood Brain Barrier? (AIIMS Nov IO) d) Corticospinal tract
a) Water b) Lipophilic drugs 523. Not seen in accommodation reflex- (Jipmer I 0)
c) Gas d) Proteins a) Mydriasis
512. Vasomotor centre of medulla is associated with- b) Contraction of cilliary muscle
a) Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain B.P. c) Pupillary constriction
b) Independent of corticohypothalamic inputs d) Curvature of lens increases
c) Influenced by baroreceptors not chemoreceptors 524. Which is not a medial pathway involved in
d) Essetially silent in sleep maintenanceofposture? (Jipmer II)
513. CSF pressure is mainly regulated by- a) Reticulospinal tract b) Rubrospinal tract
a) Rate ofCSF formation (AIIMS May 11) c) Tectospinal tract d) Vestibulospinal tract
b) Rate of CSF absorption 525. Which of the following does not carry proprioceptive
c) Cerebral blood flow impulses? (Jipmer 11)
d) Venous pressure a) Olivo cerebellar tract b) Tecto cerebellar tract
514. The nucleus involved in Papez circuit is- (AI Jl)
c) Spino cerebellar tract d) Cuneo cerebellar tract
a) Pulvinar
526. Ghrelin false is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) lntralaminat
c) VPL nucleus a) Produced by stomach cells
d) Anterior nucleus of Thalamus b) Increased appetite
515. Notincludedincerebellarnuclei- (PUNJAB 11) c) Is related to regulation of thyroid hormone
a) Dentate nuclei b) Emboliform nuclei d) Stimulates growth
c) Fastigial nuclei d) Caudate nuclei . 527. Associative learning- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
516. Broca's motor speech area is present in- a) Associated with consciousness
a) Superior temporal gyrus (PUNJAB IJ) b) Includes skills and habits
b) Precentral gyrus c) Relation of one stimulus to another
c) Post central gyrus d) Facilitation of recognition of words
d) Inferior frontal gyrus 528. Posture is maintained by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
517. Functionofbasalgangliainclude- (PUNJAB 11) a) Crossed extensor reflex b) Stretch reflex
a) Emotions c) Golgi tendon refkex d) None
b) Skilled movements 529. Myelin in CNS - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Coordination of movements a) Oligodendrocyte b) Schwann cell
d) Maintenance of equilibrium c) Astrocyte d) Microglia
518. Stimulation of bipolar cells results in all except- 530. Macrophage in CNS- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Depolorisation (Jipmer IO)
a) Fibrous Astrocyte
b) Hyperpolarisation
b) Microglia
c) Increased neurotransmitter release
c) Oligodendrocyte
d) Either hyperpolarizing or depolarizing
519. Circadian rhythm is influenced by- (Jipmer I 0) d) Protoplasmic astrocyte
a) Supra optic nuclei 531. Striatum damage affects priming -
b) Postero lateral nucleus a) Procedural memory (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Vnetrolateral nucleus b) Short term memory
d) Supra chiasmatic nucleus c)
509)a,b,e 510)a,d,e 5ll)d 512)a 513)b 514)d 515)d 516)d 517)b 518)c 519)d 520)c 52l)b 522)c
523)a 524)b 525)b 526)c 527)c 528)b 529)a 530)b 53l)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.25]
532. Somatosensory cortex lesion will cause - 544. Pt. is able to recognise person by name but not by
a) Pain (NEETIDNB Pattern) face. Lesion is in.. (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Temperature a) Post parietal region b) Occipital
c) Localization c) Frontal lobe d) Temporal lobe
d) Vibration 545. The principal polypeptide that increase food intake
533. Renshaw inhibition- (NEETIDNB Pattern) are all except - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Feedback facilitation a) Neuropeptide Y b) Leptin
b) Feed forward inhibhition c) OrexinA d) Ghrelin
c) Feed forward facilitation 546. CSF/plasma glucose ratio is- (AI 99)
d) Feedback inhibhition a) 0.2-0.4 b)0.6-0.8
534. Semi circular canals are associated with - c) 1.2-1.6 d) 1.6-2.2
a) Linear acceleration (NEETIDNB Pattern) 547. Second order neuron- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Angular acceleration a) Optic nerve b) MGB
c) Static equlibirium c) LGB d) Layer of retina
d) Hearing 548. Broca's area is present in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
535. Setting posture before planned movement - a) Superior temporal gyrus
a) Premotor cortex (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Precentral gyrus
b) Motor cortex c) Post central gyrus
c) Frontal d) Inferior frontal gyrus
d) Supplementary motor cortex 549. Node ofRanvier is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
536. Ventero lateral cordotomy for relief of pain in rigbt a) Cell body b) Dendrites
lower limb due to cutting- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Axons d) Terminal butons
a) Left ventral spinothalamic tract 550. Glucose in CSF- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Left lateral spinothalamic tract a) 113 ofblood glucose b) 112 ofblood glucose
c) Right ventral spinothalamic tract c) 2/3 ofblood glucose .__ d) None
d) Right lateral spinothalamic tract
551. Person wakes up with pain, parasthesia, tingling of
537. Dysmetria- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
the arms .he had slept with arm below the head.which
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum
fibres are involved? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Basal ganglia d) Premotor cortex
a) Type A fibres b) Type B
538. Unable to consolidate long term memory-
c) Type C(pain) d) Type C(postganglionic)
a) Frontal (NEETIDNB Pattern)
552. Nociception from abdomen is transmitted by:
b) Parietal
a) Agamrna b)Aa. (NEETIDNBPattern)
c) Temporal
d) Hippocampi c) Cfibres d)B
539. Retinal cells which secrete acytyl choline 553. Parasympathetic supply is from-
a) Bipolar cells (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) C234 b)T234 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Ganglion cells c) I234 d) S234
c) Amacrine cells 554. Post ganglionic sympathetic fibres are-
d) Hcells a) A alpha b) C (NEETIDNB Pattern)
540. Which is the first order neuron in optic pathway: c) B fibres d) A gamma
a) Bipolarcells (NEETIDNB Pattern) 555. Neurons in sympathetic ganglia are- (NEETIDNB
b) Ganglionic cells a) Unipolar b) Bipolar Pattern)
c) Cells oflateral geniculate body c) Pseudounipolar d) Multipolar
d) Astrocytes 556. Burning pain is carried by which type of fibres-
541. Photoreceptors on exposure to dark release - a) A alpha b)Adelta (NEETIDNBPattern)
a) Acetyl choline (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) A beta d)C
b) Glutamate 557. Static equilibrium is due to- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Adrenalin a) Macula b) Cupula
d) Epinephrine c) End organ of corti d) Cristae ampulla
542. Dorsal root ganglia have- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 558. Patientis able to recognise voice but not face-(NEET/
a) Unipolar b) Multipolar a) Temporal lobe b) Occipital DNB Pattern)
c) Bipolar d) Psudounipolar c) Frontal lobe d) Parietal lobe
543. Pavlovs experiment on dogs shows- 559. Pain and temperature are carried by-
a) Conditional response (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Anterior spinothalamic tract (NEET/DNB
b) Unconditioned response b) Lateral spinothalamic tract Pattern)
c) Procedural memory c) Dorsal column
d) Familiarity d) None
532)c 533)d 534)b 535)a 536)b 537)a 538)d 539)c 540)a 54l)b 542)d 543)a 544)d 545)b
546)b 547)a 548)a 549)c 550)c 55l)a 552)c 553)d 554)b 555)d 556)d 557)a 558)a 559)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.26]
560. Nerve Conduction is slowest in-(NEETIDNB Pattern) 573. Short term memory conversion to long term memory
a) C b) A alpha takes place in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) A beta d) A delta a) Hypothalamus b) Thalamus
561. What are the EEG waves recored for parietooccipital c) Hippocampus d) Amygdala
region with subject awake & eye closed- (NEETI 574. The receptors/buds responsible for carrying bitter
a) Alpha waves b) Beta waves DNB Pattern) taste sensation are situated- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Delta waves d) Theta waves a) At the tip of the tongue
562. Orthodromic conduction is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Just behing the tip
a) An axon can conduct impulse in one direction only c) At the sides
b) An axon can conduct impulse in both direction d) At the posterior aspect
c) The jumping of depolarization from node to node 57 5. All are effects of sympathetic stimulation except-
d) The print at which a runaway spike potential a) Increased conduction velocity (NEETIDNB
563. During the dark phase of visual cycle, which form b) Increased heart rate Pattern)
ofvitaminAcombines with opsin to make Rhodopsin- c) Increased refractory period
a) All trans-Retinaldehyde (AJIMSNov04) d) Increaed contractility of heart
b) All trans-Retinol 57 6. Endolymph in ear equivalent to-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 11-cis-Retinaldehyde a) ICF b)Lymph
d) 11-cis-Retinol c) CSF d) Blood
564. Meissener's corpuscle are for-(NEETIDNB Pattern) 577. Not a direct effect ofAch- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Touch b) Temperature a) Decrease BP
c) Pressure d) Proprioception b) Increase contraction of heart
565. Thickening of axon leads to- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Decrease heart rate
a) Increased speed of conduction d) Decrease conduction
b) Decreased speed of conduction 578. A gamma nerve diameter is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Increased absolute refractory period a) 13-20 b) 4-13
d) Unrnyelination c) 3-6 d)0.2-l.O
566. Regarding Gherlin which is false- (NEETIDNB 579. Which of the following does not carry proprioceptive
a) Secreted from oxyntic cells Pattern) impulses? (Jipmer 11)
b) Increases fat deposition a) Olivo cerebellar tract
c) Stimulates appetite b) Tecto cerebellar tract
d) Secretion increased in anorexia c) Spino cerebellar tract
567. Substrate P, actions all except - (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Cuneo cerebellar tract
a) Vasoconstriction b) Pain transmission 580. Vomiting centre- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Axon reflex d) Peristalsis a) Area postrema b) Suprachiasmatic
568. Pain and temperature in thalamus is controlled by c) Medial nuclei d) Lateral nuclei
nucleus- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 581. Myelin sheath in CNS is produced by-
a) VPM b)VPL a) Oligodendrocyte (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Anterior d) Posterior b) Schwann cell
569. Circadian rhythm is regulated by-(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Microglia
a) Dorsomedial b) Ventromedial d) Macroglia
c) Supraoptic d) Suprachiasmatic 582. Semicircular canals are stimulated by- (MP 2K)
570. Which is not a peptide neurotransmitters- a) Gravity b) Linear acceleration
a) Enkephalin (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Rotation d) Sound
b) Substance P 583. Herring body is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Endorphin a) Pars intermedia b) Pineal gland
d) Sorotonin c) Pars nervosa d) Adenohypophysis
571. Transducin is required for- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 584. Globus pallid us, putamen are present in- (NEETI
a) Small b) Hearing a) Pons b) Basal ganglia DNB Pattern)
c) Small d) Vision c) Thalamus d) Cerebellum
572. In decorticate animal which reflex is lost? 585. Broca's area is present in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Hopping and placing reflex (NEETIDNB a) Superior temporal gyrus
b) Tonic neck reflex Pattern) b) Precentral gyrus
c) Tonic labyrinthine reflex c) Post central gyrus
d) Stretch reflex d) Inferior frontal gyrus
560)a 561) a 562)a 563)c 564)a 565)a 566)b 567)a 568)b 569)d 570)d 571)d 572)a 573)c
574)d 575)c 576)a 577)b 578)c 579)b 580)None>a 58l)a 582)c 583)c 584)b 585)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.27]
586. Motor march is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 599. Pain-sensitive intracranial structure is -
a) Axontemesis b) Neurotemesis a) Piamater (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Neuropraxia d) Nerve regeneration b) Pial vessels
587. Effect of aceytylcholine on LES-(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Duramater
a) Contraction b) Relaxation d) Brain matter
c) No effect d) Contractionfollowedbyrelaxation 600. Pyramids are formed by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
588. The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roots a) Arcuate nucleus
are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is b) Vestibular nuclei
known as- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Interstitial cells of cajal
d) Lateral corticospinal tract
a) Laplace's law
601. True about spinocerebellar tract is-
b) Bell-Magendle's law
a) Equilibrium (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Frank Starling's law
b) Smoothens and coordinates movement
d) Weber-Fechner's law
c) Learning induced by change in vestibulocular
589. The distance by which two touch stimuli must be
reflex
separated to be perceived as two separate stimuli
d) Planning and progranuning
is greatest at- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
602. Vomiting centre is situated in the -
a) Thelips
a) Hypothalamus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) The palm of the hand
b) Amygdala
c) The back of scapula
c) Rons
d) The dorsum of the hand
d) Medulla
590. Purkinje fibres are inhibitory for -
603. Purkinje fibres are inhibitory for -
a) Deep cerebellar nuclei (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Deep cerebellarnuclei (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Climbing fibre
b) Climbing fibre
c) Basket cells
c) Basket cells
d) Spinocerebellar tracts
d) Spinocerebellar tracts
591. Neurotransmitter involved in nigrostriatial pathway
604. Somatosensory area I largest representation is for-
is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Arm b) Leg (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Serotonin b) Dopamine
c) Back d) Head
c) Cholinergic d) Adrenergic
605. Substrate P, actions all except -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
592. Nerve fibres innervating sweat glands release the
a) Vasoconstriction b) Pain transmission
following at their endings- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Axon reflex d) Peristalsis
a) Noradrenaline b) Acetycholine
606. Amacrine cells secrete- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Dopamine d) Histamine
a) Acetylcholine b) Glutamate
593. Visceral noxious stimuli is mediated by-
c) Adrenaline d) Dopamine
a) Aa b) A~ (NEETIDNB Pattern)
607. Vasoconstriction in skin- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Ay d)C
a) Sympathetic b) Parasympathetic
594. Shivering is controlled by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Wheal and flare d) Warm climate
a) Medulla b) Hypothalamus
608. Dally rhythm regulation- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Thalamus d) Basal gonglia
a) Dorsomedial b) Ventromedial
595. Axonal transport is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Supraoptic d) Suprachiasmatic
a) Ante grade b) Retrograde
609. In a neuron, graded electrogenesis occurs at-
c) Antegrade & Retrograded) None
a) Soma- dendritic zone (NEETIDNB Pattern)
596. Decrease reflex response after repetitive stimulation
b) Initial segment
a) Summation (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Axon
b) Fatigue
d) Nerve ending
c) Irradiation
610. Which of the following are Chemoreceptors-
d) Occlusion
a) Rods (NEETIDNB Pattern)
597. Nuclear bag fibers- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Cones
a) Thinner b) Flower spray ending
c) Taste buds
c) Plate ending d) Trail ending
d) Muscle spindle
598. Loss of proprioception & fine touch-
611. Vestibulo ocular relfex is concerned with-
a) Anterior spinothalamic tract (NEETIDNB
a) Archicerebellum (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Lateral spinothalamic tract Pattern)
b) Flocculonodular lobe
c) Dorsal column
c) Neocerebellum
d) Corticospinal tract
d) Occipital lobe
586)a 87)a 588)b 589)c 590)a 591)b 592)b 593)d 594)b 595)c 596)b 597)c 598)c 599)c
600)d 601)b 602)d 603)a 604)a 60S) a 606)a 607)a 608)d 609)b 610)c 611)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.28]
612. Salty tase is due to- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 626. Nonshivering thermogenesis is due to-
a) Ca+2 channels b) Na+ channels a) Acetylcholine (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) G-protein d) W channels b) Norepinephrine
613. Which is a cerebellor nucleus -(NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Dopamine
a) Caudate b) Subthalamic d) Serotonin
c) Globus pallidus d) Dentate 627. Post ganglionic fibers are longer in-
614. Disease of Basal ganglia dysfunction are all except- a) Para sympathetic system (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Alziemer's disease (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Sympathetic system
b) parkinsonism c) Both have same length
c) Chorea d) It is variable
d) Athetosis 628. CSF is formed by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
615. Earliest reflex to reappear after spinal shock- a) Arachnoid villi b) Venous plexus
a) Knee jerk (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Choroidal plexus d) Subfomical nucleus
b) Ankle jerk 629. Lens derives nutrition from -
c) Bulbocavemous reflex a) Vitreous (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Planter reflex b) Aqueous
616. In stretch reflex, the stimulus is- c) Optic artery
a) Change in muscle length (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Ophthalmic artery
b) Change in muscle tension 630. A man slept with head over forearm, next morning
c) Pain in muscle he complains of tingling, numbness over forearm.
d) Cessation of blood supply It is caused by - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
617. Most sensitive nerve fiber to hypoxia- a) Sensitivity to hypoxia is A>B>C
a) A b)B (NEET/DNB Pattern) b) Sensitivity to pressure is A>B>C
c) C d) All are equally sensitive c) Sensitivity to hypoxia is C>B>A
618. Best prognosis in nerve injury-(NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Sensitivity to pressure is B>A>C
631. Destruction of anterior cerebellum in a decerebrate
a) Neuropraxia b)Axonotemesis
animal leads to - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Neurotemesis d) Complete transection
a) No effect on rigidity
619. Ganglion cell-Order ofneuron-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Increased flexor muscle tone
a) 1st b) 2nd
c) Increased rigidity via alpha motor neurons
c) 3rd d) 4th
d) Decrease in rigidity
620. Pseudounipolar cells- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
632. Na+ channel concentration is highest at -
a) Sympathetic ganglia
a) Dendrites (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Parasympathetic b) Soma
c) Cranial nerve ganglion c) Axon hillock
d) Dorsal Root Ganglion d) Axon
621. Proprioceptions are carried by-(l'lEETIDNB Pattern) 633. Lesion of Globus pallidus causes -
a) A a fibers b) A p:fibers a) Chorea b) Ballismus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) B :fibers d) C :fibers c) Athetosis d) Akinesia
622. Fine touch is lost in lesion of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 634. Postural reflex with integrating center in spine -
a) Anterior spinothalamic tract a) Righting reflex (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Lateral spinothalamic tract b) Tonic labyrinthine reflex
c) Dorsal column c) Righting reflex
d) Pyramidal tract d) Crossed extensor reflex
623. Dysmetria is seen in lesion of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 635. Function of Basal ganglia -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Basal ganglia b) Cerebellum a) Motor b) Sensory
c) Pons d) Midbrain c) Olfaction d) None
624. Basal ganglia is involved in which types ofmemory-
a) Conditioning (NEETIDNB Pattern) ENDOCRINOLOGY
b) Procedural memory
c) Explicitmemory METABOLISM
d) None
625. Agnosia is caused by lesion of- (NEETIDNB 636. During starvation the non-protein RQ value is
a) Representative hemisphere, left Pattern) close to- (DNB 90)
b) Categorial hemisphere, left a) 1 b)O.S
c) Representative hemisphere, right c) 0.25 d) 0.75
d) Categorial hemisphere, right e)O.O
612)b 613)d 614)a 615)c 616)a 617)b 618)a 619)b 620)d 62l)a 622)c 623)b 624)b 625)c
626)b 627)b 628)c 629)b 630)b 631)c 632)c 633)c 634)d 635)a 636)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.29 J
637. Specificdynamicactionismaximumin- (A.I90) c) Ketone bodies are used in starvation

a) Protein b) Carbohydrate d) Has no energy store
c) Fats d) Vitamins 648. Non-shivering thermogenesis is mediated by-
638. Respiratory Quotient of fat, protein and a) a 1 receptor b) ~2 receptor (PGI 03)
carbohydrate are ... respectively- (AIIMS 86, 87) c) ~3 receptor d) UCP-2
a) 0.70,0.80, 1.0 b)0.80,0.70, 1.0 e) UCP-1
c) 0.8, 1.0, 0.7 d) 1.0, 0.8, 0.7 649. Prostaglandin causing renal vasodilatation-
639. BMR is low in the following except- (Delhi 83) a) PGD2 b)PGE2 (PGI OJ)
a) Newborn of old age b) Larger individuals c) PGF2 d)PG~
c) Females d)Coldclimate e)T~
640. Specific dynamic action is- (JIPMER 80, PGI 83) 650. 02 consumption is minimal when temp. gradient
a) 6% for proteins between skin and ext. env. is- (PGI 2000)
b) 30% for lipids a) <0.5° b)>2.5°
c) Energy expended on consumption of foods c) <1.5° d)>3.5°
d) Due to gastrointestinal factors 651. Diet devoid of carbohydrates causes- (PGI 02)
641. Cells with decreased oxidative phosphorylation a) Ketosis b) DM
have- (AI 93) c) No effect d) Obesity
a) Increased Ribosomes 652. li:ue aboutintracellular receptors- (PGI OJ)
b) Decreased mitochondria a) Mainly on nuclear surface
c) Lowprotein b) Steroids act on them
d) No motility c) Estrogen does not act on it
642. When energy is derived from creatine phosphate d) GH act on it
to cause muscle contraction, what is the first step 653. cAMP action mediates all except- (PGI 2000)
in this transfer of energy- (AIIMS 80) a) Glucagon b) FSH
a) The creatine phosphate transfers its energy to c) IH d) Estrogen
the cross bridges to cause them to become locked 654. True about non shivering thermogenesis- (TN 02)
b) The creatine phosphate cause the power stroke a) Glucose converted toe lactate
of the cross bridges b) Fatty acids uncouple oxidative phosphorylates
c) The creatine phosphate transfers its energy to c) ADP is burnt into heat
the actin filament d) Adipose tissue is entirely absent
d) The creatine phosphate transfers its energy to 655. Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes
the myosin fllament are covalently linked to - (AI 04)
e) The energy of the creatine phosphate is used to a) Oathrin b) Pepsin
convert ADP in ATP c) Laminin d) Ubiquitin
643. The normal non-fasting blood ketone levels is- 656. Substrate controlled hormone is- (MAHE 05)
a) 0.1-0.Smg% b)0.5-2mg% (AIIMS85) a) Glucogon b) FSH
c) 2-lOmg% d) 100-500mg% c) IH d)TRH
644. BMR is decreased in- (Kerala 94) 657. Calorogenic hormone is- (MAHE 05)
a) Hyperthyroidism a) Epinephrine b) Nor-epinephrine
b) Increased body temperature c) Thyroid hormones d) All of the above
c) Cushing syndrome 658. At 20 degree centigrade atmospheric temperature,
d) Addisons disease body reacts by- (MAHE 05)
645. BMRisdependenton- (AI95) a) Cutaneous vasoconstriction
a) Body weight b) Shivering
b) Surface area c) iBMR
c) Amount of adipose tissue d) None of above
d) Amount of lean body mass 659. In human being, the least useful physiological
646. BMR increase in all except- (AMU 95) response to low environmental temperature
a) Low environmental temperature is- (AI06)
b) Anxiety a) Shivering b) Vasoconstriction
c) Thyrotoxcosis c) Release of thyroxine d) Piloerection
d) Sleep 660. All are examples of negative feed back except-
647. The following is true about brain metabolism a) Coagulation of the blood (UP 07)
except- (AI 98) b) Regulation of blood pressure
a) Use fatty acid in starvation c) Regulation of blood glucose
b) In resting state 60% of total energy utilised d) Regulation of carbon monoxide
637)a 638)a 639)d 640)c 64l)b 642)e 643)b 644)d 645)b 646)d 647)a 648) c,e 649) b,d 650) a
65l)a 652) a,b 653) d 654)b 655)d 656)a 657)d 658)b 659)d 660)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.30]
661. Hyperkalemia stimulates secretion of- (UP 07, 06) 67 4. Sprinter gets its immediate energy from- (NEETJ
a) ADH b) Secretin a) Glycogen b) Fatty acid DNB Pattern)
c) Aldosterone d) Parathormone c) Creatine phosphate d) None
662. Sulfation factor is - (UP 07) 675. BMRdependson- (NEETIDNBPattern)
a) Somatostatin b) Somatomedian a) Body weight
c) GJP d)VIP b) Surface area
663. Steroid receptors at- (UP 07) c) Amount of adipose tissue
a) Cellularmembrane b) Cytoplasm d) Amount of lean body mass
c) Nucleus d) All ofthe above 676. Anti-inflammatory action of steroids due to -
664. Cytochrome P450 is identified to 11-P hydroxylase a) Inhibiton of phospholipase A2 (NEETIDNB
is known as- (UP 08) b) Inhibhition of cyclooxegenase Pattern)
a) CYMA-lB b)CYPA-2B c) Increased activity of lipolipase
c) CYPA-3B d)CYPA-4B d) Inhibition of lipo · oxegenase
665. In a seriously ill patient, addition of amino acids in 677. Which hormone acts on cytoplasmic membrane
diet results in a positive nitrogen balance. The receptor- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
mechanism for this is- (Aiims May 08) a) TSH b) Thyroxine
a) Increased Growth hormones secretion c) Androgen d) Cortisol
b) Enhanced rate of gluconegenesis 678. Temperature at which regularating mechanism does
c) Increased absorption of amino acids from diet not work - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Increased secretion of Insulin a) 4(Y>C b) 35°C
666. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on - c) 300C d) 25°C
a) Lean body mass b) Adipose tissue
c) Resting heart rate d) Exercise (AIIMS May 11) THYROID
667. Basal Metabolic Rate depends most closely on-
a) Lean body mass b) Body mass index (AI 11) 679. The percentage of total body iodine in the thyroid
c) Obsesity d) Body surface area gland is- (PGI 85)
668. Increased glycolysis and decreased gluconeogenesis a) 50% b)70%
a) Insulin (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 900/o d)96%
b) Glucagon 680. Calcitonin is produced by- (AI 89)
c) Epinephrine a) Thyroid b) Parathyroid
d) Cortisol c) Thymus d)Kidney
669. Hyperthermia - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 681. TRHStimulatesTSHand- (AI92)
a) Temperature> 41.5 a) CH b) Oxytocin
b) > 40 with autonomic dysfunctuion c) Prolactin d) Gonadotrophin
c) No change in hypothalamic thermostat 682. Thyroxine binding globulin is increased in-
d) One which normalises with anti pyretic a) Pregnancy (Delhi 96)
670. Fat is maximum snythesised in - b) Nephrotic syndrome
a) Liver (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Glucocorticoid treatment
b) Adipose tissue d) Cancer chemotherapy
c) Intestine 683. Iodine uptake is seen in following organs- (PGI 03)
d) Muscle a) Ovary b) Thyroid
671. Main mechanism in thermoregulation-heat loss is- c) Parathyroid d) Salivary gland
a) Radiation (NEETIDNB Pattern) e) Mammary gland
b) Evaporation 684. Thyroid hormones in blood is transported by-
c) Conduction a) Albumin b) Globulin (PGIOJ)
d) Convection c) Prealbumin d) Transferrin
672. Motilin secretion decreased in - e) Ceruloplasmin
a) Thirsty (NEETIDNB Pattern) 685. Thyroxine injected to rat produces AlE- (PGI 2K)
b) Starving a) J. J. lipolysis b) I I 0 2 consumption
c) Ingested meal c) J.BMR d) I myocardial contractility
d) lnterdigestive state 686. The principle of "Wolff-Chaikoff effect" is used
673. 1st response to hypoglycemia - in- OWAHEO~
a) Decreased insulin (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Iodide for thyrotoxic patients after surgery
b) Increased glucagon b) Iodide for thyrotoxic patients before surgery
c) Increased cortisol c) Stimulation ofhormone synthesis
d) Increased nor epinephrine d) Increased vascularity of thyroid gland
66l)c 662)b 663)d 664)b 665)d 666)a 667)a>d 668)a 669)c 670)a 671)a 672)c 673)a 674)c
675)b 676)a 677)a 678)d 679)c 680)a 681) c 682) a 683) b,d,e 684) a,b,c 685) a,c 686) b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.31 ]
687. Which of the following is NOT essential for normal 700. How many parts are there in insulin receptor-
biosynthesis ofthyroid hormone- (UP 08) a) 1 b) 2 (Burdwan 2K)
a) Iodine b) Ferritin c) 3 d)4
c) Thyroglobulin d) TSH 701. Insulin secretion is decreased by- (PGI 03)
688. Which of the following would be least affected by a) Glucagon b) Glucose
injectionsofTSH? (Maharashtra 10) c) Adrenaline d) Vagal stimulation
a) Uptake of Iodine by Thyroid e) Acetylcholine
b) Synthesis of thyroglobulin 702. Following hormones are produced by endocrinal
c) cGMP in Thyroid cells partofpancreas- (PGI OJ)
689. Wolf chaikoff effect is due to- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Insulin b) Somatostatin
c) Glucagon d) Bombesin
a) Suppression of TSH secretion
e) Pancreatic polypeptide
b) Decreased iodination of MIT
703. True about Insulin action is- (PGI 2000)
c) Decreased t3 to t4 concersion
a) Causes neoglucogenesis
d) Iodine intake b) Not useful for growth & development
690. In Thyroid follicle for how long Thyroxine is stored- c) Required for transport of glucose, aminoacid, K+
a) 2-3 weeks b) 2-3 days (NEETIDNB Pattern) &Na+
c) 2-3 months d) 2-3 years d) Catabolic hormone
704. Insulin helps glucose entry into cell except in -
PANCREAS a) Liver b) Muscles (Kerala 03)
c) Fat d)All
691. Somatostatin inhibits release of- (SCTIMS 98) 705. Glucose increases plasma insulin by a process that
a) GI b) Gastrin involves - (Karnataka 04)
c) TSH d)MSH a) GLUTI b)GLUT2
692. Somatostatin is produced by - - - cells of the c) GLUTI d)SGLTl
pancreas- (AI 89) 706. Increased ratio ofinsulin to glucagon causes-
a) Alpha b) Beta a) Decreased levels of cyclic AMP (MAHA 05)
c) Delta d) Acinar b) Decreased levels oflipoprotein lipase
693. Experimental diabetes in caused by- (Kerala 90) c) Decreased amino acid synthesis
a)Alloxan b)PgEl d) Enhanced lipolysis in adipose tissue
c) Radioactive yittrium d) Gold chloride 707. In a foetus the insulin secretion begins by-
694. Beta cellsofpancreas produce- (Kerala 91) a) 3'dmonth b) 5th month (AIIMSMay 05)
a) Glucagon b) Gastrin c) 7th month d) 9th month
c) Insulin d) Pancreatin 708. Insulin is secreted along with the following molecule
ina 1:1 ratio- (PGI June 06)
695. Which is faise regarding insulin- (JIPMER 92)
a) Pancreatic polypeptide b) Glucagon
a) Secreted Beta cells
c) GLP- 1 d) Somatostatin
b) Glycopeptide
e) C-peptide
c) Causes lipogenesis
709. Insulin dependent glucose transport is through-
d) Promotes glycogenesis a) GLUT2 b)GLUT3 (Manipa/2006)
696. Increase in insulin receptors in seen in - c) GLUT4 d)GLUT5
a) Starvation b) Obesity (JIPMER 93) 710. Which of the following compound antagonizes the
c) Acromegaly d) Diabetes actions of insulin- (MAHE 07)
697. An adult human pancreas has about- a) Neuropeptide Y b) Growth hormone
a) I 00-2000 islest (JIMPER 80, DNB 90) c) Substance P d) Vasoactive intestinal peptide
b) 100,000-200,000islests 711. Which of these is the correct pair- (AIIMS Nov 07)
c) 250,000-750,000islets a) A cell- Insulin b) B cell- Somatostatins
d) Above of 1000,000 islets c) D cell Glucagon d) G cell- Gastrin
698. Insulin facilitates glucose uptake in- (Karn 94) 712. C-peptideoccursin- (UP08)
a) Kidney tubules b) Red blood cells a) Proinsulin b) Glucagon
c) Bmin d) Skeletal muscle c) Paratharmone d) Thyroxine
699. Glucagon stimulates all of the following except - 713. Insulin increases the entry of glucose into-(UP 08)
a) Glycogenolysis (UPSC 95) a) All tissues
b) Bile secretion b) Renal tubular cells
c) Hydrochloric acid secretion c) The mucosa of the small intestine
Intestinal secretion d) Skeletal muscle
687)b 688)a 689)d 690)a 691)b 692)c 693)a 694)c 695)b 696)a 697)d 698)d 699)b,c,d
700)d 70l)c 702)a,b,c,e 703)c 704)None 705)b 706)a 707)a 708)c 709)c 710)b 7ll)d 712)a 713)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.32]
714. Glucose dependent release ofinsulin through- 727. Glucose transporter involved in insulin stimulated
a) CyclicAMP (UP08) glucosetransportisGLUT- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Carrier's modulators a) 1 b)2
c) Recipients phosphorylation c) 3 d)4
d) ATP dependent K+ channel 728. Insulin is essential for glucose entry in-
715. True about insulin is- (Manipal 08) a) Muscle (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Anabolic steroid b) Cortical neurons
c) Renal tubular cells
b) Induce lipolysis
d) Beta cells of pancreas
c) Produced by a-cells
729. Half life ofinsulin is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Glucose production in liver
a) l-2min b)4-6min
716. Notdonebyinsulin- (AIIMSMay09) c) 10-12min d) 12-16min
a) Glycogen synthesis b) Glycolysis 730. Glucose is transported in renal tubular cells by-
c) Lipogenesis d) Ketogenesis a) K symport (NEETIDNB Pattern)
717. Notdonebyinsulin- (AIIMSMay 10) b) K antiport
a) Glycogen synthesis b) Glycolysis c) Na antiport
c) Lipogenesis d) Ketogenesis d) N a cotransport
718. Insuljn secretion is inhibited by- (AI 10)
a) Secretin b) Epinephrine . ADRENAL
c) Growth hormone d) Gastrin
719. Insulin secretion is I are increased by all except- 731. In addisons disease the following is seen- (AP 88)
a) Gastrin b) Secretin (PGI Nov. 10) a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypernatremia
c) VIP d)GIP c) Hyperglycemia d) High blood pressure
e) cx:K 732. Renin secretion is stimulated by all except-
a)Cardiac failure (AI 93)
720. Glucagonissecretedby- (PG!Nov.10)
b)Low Na+ in promimal tubule
a) acell b)~cell
c)Sympathetic stimulation
c) ocell d)Gcell d)High Na+ in proximal tubule
e) Ccell 733. Cortisol- (AIIMS 78, Delhi 90, 92)
721. Machanism of action of insulin includes all except- a) Secretion increases following injury
a) Activation of tyrosine kinase (Jipmer 10) b) Favours protein synthesis
b) Incorporation of GLUT-4 into cells c) Enhances effects of antigen-antibody reactions
c) Inhibition ofNa+ K + ATPase d) Tends to lower blood pressure
d) Hexokinase stimulation 734. In a male newborn the adrenogenital syndrome
722. Insulin mediated glucose uptake in skeletal muscles (congenital hyperplasia ofthe adrenal glands) is
& adipose tissue is mediated by- (Jipmer 11) most often associated with- (JIPMER 80, UP 92)
a) GLUI -1 b)GLUI -2 a) Normal appearing genitalia
c) GLUI-4 d)GLUI-6 b) Hypoglycemia
723. Glucose is transported in renal tubular cells by- c) Pseudohermaphroditism
a) K symport (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Persistent paramesonephros(Mullerian ducts)
b) Kantiport 735. Adrenal insufficiency causes- (PGI 84)
a) A rise in plasma Sodium/Potassium ratio
c) Na antiport
b) Low blood pressure
d) N a cotransport
c) Increased breakdown of protein
724 Epinephrine reduces insulin by-(NEETIDNB Pattern) d) A fall in extra cellular fluid volume
a)
Alpha action predominantly 736. Whatis nottruefor aldosterone- (AIIMS 81)
b)
Beta action predominantly a) Secreted in increased amounts when blood
c)
Alpha and beta volume falls
d)
Muscarinic receptors b) Is a polypeptide
725. Adrenaline effects insulin by-(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Secretion tends to increase renal arterial pressure
a) Stimulation of alpha cells d) Secretion results in a reduction in uninary volume
b) Stimulation of beta cells 737. Regarding ACTH the following statements are
c) Stimulation of delta cells true except- (PGI 81, AMU 86)
d) Stimulation of g cells a) Secreted by the basophil cells
726. GLUT2 is present mainly in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Controls secretion of adrenal cortex
a) Beta cells of pancreas b) Placenta c) It is not protein in nature
Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle d) In can withstand heating up to 100 degree C
714)a 715)None 716)d 717)d 718)b 719)c 720)a 72l)c 722)c 723)d 724)a 725)b 726)a 727)d
728)a 729) b 730) d 731) a 732) d 733) a 734) d 735) b,d 736) b 737)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.33]
738. In Cushing syndrome the following features are 751. Mineralocorticoid receptors are present in all of
found except- (JIPMER 78, UP 92) the following sites, except- (NEETIDNB Pattern,
a) Rapidly increasing adiposity a) Hippocampus Alll,AIIMSNov 08, May 07)
b) Polycythaemia b) Kidney
c) Hypotension c) Colon
d) Impotence with atrophy of testis d) Liver
739. Cushing's syndrome is characterised by-(Karn 94) 752. Which of the following increases during surgical
a) Eosinophilia b) Hyperkalemia
stress- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Nitrogen retention d) Poor wound healing
a) Cortisol b) Glucagon
740. Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla are-
a) Glucagon b) Cortisol (PGI 02) c) Insulin d) Gastrin
c) Norepinephrine d) Insulin 753. Aldosterone mainly acts upon- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
e) Aldosterone a) PCf b)LoopofHenle
741. ACTHlevelishighestduring- (PGI99) c) Glomerulus d) Collecting duct
a) Early morning b) Evening 754. Effectofcortisol- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Afternoon d) Night a) Decreased bone matrix
742. Epinephrine action in liver- (PG198) b) Increased bone mattix
a) Glycogenolysis b) Gluconeogenesis c) Increases lymphocytes
c) Glycolysis d) Lipolysis d) Increases RBCs.
743. Aldosterone synthesis is inhibited by- (PGI 03) 7 55. Major adrenal androgen is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Renin b) Endothelin a) Testosterone
c) Dopamine d) Endorphin
b) 11-hydroxy derivative of androstenedione
e) Hypematremia
744. All of the following development events are c) 17-ketosteroid dehydroepiandrosterone
dependent on the production of maternal or fetal d) Cortisol
glucocorticoid, except- (AI 06) 756. Zona glomerulosa secretes- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Induction of thymic involution a) Aldosterone b) Cortisol
b) Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells c) Testosterone d) Catecholamines
c) Functional thyroid
d) Functional hypothalamopituitary axis CALCIUM METABOLISM
745. Aldosterone receptors are present in all except-
a) Liver b) Colon (Aiims May 07)
757. Which of the following does not interfere with
c) Hippocampus d) distal nephron
calcium metabolism- (AllMS 85)
746. Mineralocorticoid receptors are present in all of
the following sites, except- (AIIMS Nov 08) a) Calcitonin b) Cholecaliferol
a) Hippocampus b) Kidney c) VitaminD d) Thyroxine
c) Colon d) Liver 758. Which of the following organ is not involved in
747. In cushing syndrome, which ofthe following are Calcium metabolism- (PGI 01)
seen- (PGI Dec 08) a) Lung b) Liver
a) I Aldosterone b) J, Aldosterone c) Spleen d) Skin
c) I Epinephrine d) J, Epinephrine e) Kidney
e) Edema 759. Trneofthefo~owing- (PGI OJ)
7 48. Excessive production of aldosterone results in - a) Calcium reabsorbed in OCT
a) Metabolic acidosis (Comed 09) b) 90% calcium excreted by glomerulus
b) Severe hypotension c) Parathormone (PTH) promotes absorption ofCa++
c) Potassium retention from intestine
d) Depressed plasma renin d) PTH promote action of calcitonin
749. Hyperaldosteronism is associated with all except- 7 60. Hypocalcemia due to calcitonin is by- (PGI99)
a) Hypernatremia b)Hypokalemia(AllMSMay 10)
a) Increased excretion in kidney
c) Hypertension d) Metabolic acidosis
b) Decreased bone resorption
750. In ·a male newborn the adrenogenital syndrome
(congenital hyperplasia of the adrenal glands) is c) Decreased intestinal absorption
most often associated with- (DPG 10) d) Decreased renal reabsorption
a) Normal appearing genitalia 761. Calcium absorption is from- (PGI 99)
b) Hypoglycemia a) Proximal small intestine b) Distal lleum
c) Pseudohermaphroditism c) Middle small intestine d) Ascending colon
d) Persistent paramesonephros (Mullerian ducts)
738) c 739) d 740) c 741)a 742)a 743)e 744)d 745)a 746)d 747)a,c,e 748)d 749)d 750)d 751)d
752)a>d 753)d 754)a 755)c 756)a 757)d 758)c 759)c 760)b 76l)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.34]
762. Parathyroid hormone is responsible for all actions 773. Increased calcium levels lead to -
except- (PGI 97) a) Increased 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
a) Absorption of phosphorous increase b) Increased 24,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
b) Vit D absorption increases c) Decreased calcitonin (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Mobilizes calcium from bone d) Increased parathormone
d) Increase intestinal absorption of calcium 774. Site of 25-hydroxylation of cholecalciferol -
763. Osteomalacia is associated with- (AI 03) a) Kidney b) Skin (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Decreases in osteoid volume c) Liver d) Lung
b) Decrease in osteoid surface 775. Calcium absorption is increased by-
c) Increase in osteoid maturation time a) Proteins b) Bile (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Increase in mineral apposition rate c) Acid d) Phosphates
764. Calcium absorption from gut is enhanced by- 776. Bone removing cells- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Parathyroid hormone (APPGE 05) a) Osteoblasts b) Osteoclasts
b) Calcitonin c) Stem cells d) Cytotoxic T cells
c) 1, 25 dihydroxy cho lecalcifero1 777. Which ofthe following cause low serum calcium-
d) All a) Vit D deficiency b) Parathyroid (NEETIDNB
765. Osteoclasts are inhibited by- (AI 05) c) GI d) Glucocorticoids Pattern)
a) Parathyroid hormone 778. Which of the following cause low serum calcium-
b) Calcitonin a) Vit D deficiency b) Parathyroid (NEETIDNB
c) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol c) GI d) Glucocorticoids Pattern)
d) Tumor necrosis factor
766. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is PITUITARY
most often mediated by- (AI 05)
a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 779. Anterior pituitary gland secretes all except-
b) Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP). a) GRH b)GH (TN89)
c) Interleukin- 6 (IL-6) c) TSH d)LH-FSH
d) Calcitonin 780. Hormones secreted form the anterior pituitary
767. Which of the following organs is not involved in lobe- (PGI 87, NIMHANS 86, Kerala 88)
calcium homeostasis? (AI 06) a) Growth hormone b) Prolactin
a) Kidneys b) Skin c) TSH d)ACTH
c) Intestine d) Lungs e) Somatostatin
7 68. Calcitonin is secreted by - (AI 06) 781. Which of the following are true about median
a) Thyroid gland b) Parathyroid gland eminnce- (AIIMS 85, AI 88)
c) Adrenal glands d) Ovaries a) Portion of ventral hypothalamus
769. Trueofthefollowing- (DPG 10) b) Hypothalmus hypophyseal vessels arise here
a) Calcium reabsorbed in DCT c) Outside the blood-brain barrier
b) 90% calcium excreted by glomerulus d) All are correct
c) Parathormone (PTH) promotes absorption of 782. SiteofADHactionis- (AI 91)
Ca++ from intestine a) Proximal tubule b) Loop ofHenle
d) PTH promote action of calcitonin c) Vasa recta d) Collecting tubule
770. Parathormone (Parathroid hormone/PTH) increase 783. Which of true regarding oxytocin- (JIPMER 91)
calcium levels and reduces phosphate level by acting a) Increased by stress
on (Maharashtra 10) b) Secreted by para ventricular tissue
a) Proximal tubules c) Effective in males
b) Distal tubules d) Important for maintaining pregnancy
c) Thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle 784. The effect of hypophysectomy is- (JIPMER 91)
d) All of the above a) Glucocorticoid deficiency
771. Which of the following organ is not involved in b) Mineralo corticoid deficiency
Calcium metabolism- (PGI May 10) c) Menstrual failure
a) Lung b) Liver d) All
c) Spleen d) Skin 785. Transection of pituitary stalk leads to increase in -
e) Kidney a) TSH b) Prolactin (JIPMER 92)
772. Effect of steroids on calcium - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) GI d)ACTH
a) Increased plasma level 786. Neurotransmitter which controls secretion of
b) Increased absorption from gut prolactin- (JIPMER 93)
c) Increased excretion from kidney a) Serotonin b)GABA
d) None c) Somatostatin d) Dopamine
762)a 763)c 764)c 765)b 766)b 767)d 768)a 769)c 770)d 77l)c 772)c 773)b 774)c 775)a
776)b 777)a 778)a 779)a 780) a,b,c,d 781) d 782) d 783) a,b,c 784) a,c 785) b 786) d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.35]
787. Injection of hypertonic saline into which area 799. Dwarfism is caused by all except- (UP 07)
causes diuresis- (AJIMS 94) a) Thyroid deficiency
a) Supraoptic nucleus b) Growth hormone deficiency
b) Paraventricular nucleus c) Castration before puberty
c) Preoptic nucleus d) Receptor unresponsive
d) Posterior pituitary 800. Somatomedin mediates- (AIIMS May 10)
788. Oxytocin causes all except- (TN 97) a) Deposition of chondroitin sulfate
a) Lactogenesis b) Lipolysis
b) Milk ejection c) Gluconeogenesis
c) Contraction on uterine muscle d) Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells
d) Myoepithelial cell contraction 801. Oxytocin causes all except- (DPG 10)
789. True about growth Hormone is that- (A/99) a) Lactogenesis
a) Causes diabetes mellitus resistant to insulin b) Milk ejection
b) Causes hyperglycemia c) Contraction of uterine muscle
c) Enhances lipogenesis d) Myoepithelial cell contraction
d) Causes hypoglycemia 802. True about milk secretion- (PGI May 10)
790. In the Neurohypophysis, secretory granules a) Neuroendocrine part of post pituitary is involved
accumulatein- (Karnataka 2001) b) Secretion by contraction of lactiferous sinus
a) Pituicytes oxytocin
b) Nerve endings c) Oxytocin hormone is involved
c) Intercellular spaces d) Prolactin cause contraction of Myoepithelial cells
d) Capillary endothelium e) Affected by emotion
791. Hormone secreted by adenohypophysis are/is- 803. Which of the pairs about vasopressin receptors is
a) Oxytocin b) TSH (PGI 03) incorrect- (AIIMS Nov 10)
c) Gonadotropins d) Ariginine vesopressin a) V1-smooth muscles b) V2-collecting ducts
e) ACTH c) V3-anteriorpituitary d)V4-CNS
792. Basophillic cells of pituitary secretes- (PGI 02) 804. About Neuropeptide Y all are true except-
a) Prolactin b) GH a) It is mediated through melanocorticotropin
c) TSH d)ACTH hormone (AIIMS Nov 10)
e) LH b) Decreases thermogenesis
793. Posterior pituitary secretes- (PGI 01) c) Its level decreases during starvation
a) Oxytocin b) Prolactin d) Contains 36 aa residues
c) ADH d)MSH 805. Secretion of all the following hormones are
e) FSH decreased in section of pituitary stalk except -
794. GH secretion is- (SGPGI 05) a) Prolactin b)GH (Jipmer 10)
a) Greater in early morning c) Vasopressin d)FSH
b) Greater in evening 806. Prolactin is secreted by- (Jipmer 11)
c) Increases on preolonged fasting a) Acidophil b) Basophil
d) Stimulates B-cells of pancreases directly c) Chromophobe d) Herring bodies
795. Pro-opimdanocartin (POMC) releases all of the 807. Ejection of milk is caused by- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
following except- (SGPGI 05) a) Oxytocin b)ADH
a) ACTH b) MSH c) Progesterone d) Thyroxine
c) B2-endorphins d)FSH 808. Vasopressin induced thirst is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
796. Hormone which initiates milk ejection- (MAHE 05 a) Subfomicial nuclei
a) Lactogen b) Prolactin Kerala 94) b) Posterior hypothalamus osmoreceptors
c) LH d) Oxytocin c) Pretectal nucleus
797. Greatest stimulator for ADH secretion-(PGJ June 809. Efferent pathway for milk ejection reflex- (NEETI
a) Hyperosmolarity b) Hyponatremia 06) a) Prolactin b) Oxytocin DNB Pattern)
c) Hypotension d) Hypovolemia c) ACTH d) Growth hormone
798. Suckling releases which of the following from the 810. Function of preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus-
anterior- (MAHE 07) a) Temperature regulation (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Prolactin b) Oxytocins b) Thirst
c) Somatostatins d) Somatomedins c) GI stimulation
centre
787)a 788)a 789)a,b 790)b 79l)b,c,e 792)c,d,e 793)a,c 794)c 795)d 796)d 797)a 798)b 799)c
800)a 80l)a 802)a,b,c,e 803)d 804)c 805)a 806)a 807)a 808)a 809)b 810)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.38]
811. Where doesADH not act? (NEETIDNB Pattern) 824. Lesion of preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus causes-
a) PCT b) Collecting duct. a) Hyperphagia (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Collecting tubules d) DCT b) Hyperdypsia
812. Which of the following nucleus controls the c) Hyperthermia
circadian rhythm? (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Hyperglycemia
a) Supraoptic nucleus
b) Paraventricular nucleus SEX HORMONES
c) Suprachiasmatic nucleus
d) Premamillary nucleus 825. Mullerian inhibiting substance that causes
813. Lesion of which hypothalamic nuclei leads to loss degeneration ofparamesonephric ducts is secreted
by- (Jipmer 95)
of circadian rhythm- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Leydig cells b) Anterior pituitary
a) Dorsomedial b) Ventromedial
c) Adrenal cortex d) Theca cells
c) Supraoptic d) Suprachiasmatic
826. Which ofthese contain 19 carbon atoms-
814. Pituitary secretes all hormones except ? a) Estradiol b) Testosterone (ROHTAK 88)
a) ffi (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Aldosterone d) Cortisol
b) Prolactin 827. Whichisnotapeptidehormone- (JIPMER 92)
c) Oxytocin a) Growth Hormone b) Prolactin
d) Thyroxine c) Progesterone d) Oxytocin
815. Diurnal variation ofACTH depends on- 828. Best proof of ovulation is by- (Delhi 87)
a) Suprachiasmatic nucleus (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Basal body Temp. chart
b) Supraoptic nucleus b) Study of cervical mucus
c) Ventrolateral nucleus c) Vaginal cytology
d) Thalamus d) Endometrial biopsy
816. Hypothalamus increases release of all hormones 829. Inhibin is secreted by- (TN 95)
from the pituitary except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Leydig cells b) Sertoli cells
~TSH b)FSH c) Uterine endometrium d) Myometrium
c) CRH d) Prolactin 830. Absence offructose in semen indicates-(AI/MS 92)
817. Hypothalamus controls the hormone secretion of- a) Prostatic atrophy
a) Anterior hypophysis (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Testicular failure
b) Posterior hypophysis c) Obstruction of vas
c) Kidney d) Obstruction of ejaculatory duct
d) Pineal gland 831. To rule out azoospermia as a cause of infertility
818. Acidophilssecrete- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
due to obstruction of seminal vesicles substance
to be found in semen is- (JIPMER 95)
~ GH b)TSH
a) Fructose b) Carnitine
c) ACTH d) FSH
c) Pus cells d) All of the above
819. Vasopressin is secreted by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
832. Testesdoesnotproduce- (AI 89)
a) Supraoptic b) Preoptic a) Estradiol b) Testesterone
c) Paraventricular d) Posterior nucleus c) Fructose d) Inhibin
820. Growth hormone level decreased in- 833. Levels of which of the following hormones are
a) Mypoglycemia (NEETIDNB Pattern) increased in post menopausal women- (AI 89)
b) Fastiny a) Estrogen b)FSH
c) Sleep c) Progesterone d) Cortisone
d) Exercise 834. The excretion of estrogens and progesterones are
821. Circumentricular organ is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) through- (AP 88)
a) Anterior pituitary b) Posterior pituitary a) Bile b) Sweat
c) Pineal gland d) None c) Urine d) Faces
822. ACTH is increased in all except-(NEETIDNB Pattern) 835. Prostaglandin secretion is maximum in-
a) Exercise b) Emotions a) Urine b) Semen (AIIMS 89)
c) Evening d) Tumors c) Amniotic fluid d) Saliva
823. Function of vasopressine - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 836. Function ofleutenising hormone is- (AI 90, AI 93)
a) Absorption of water in PCT a) Follicle maturation and ovulation
b) Absorption of water in loop of Henle b) Milk secretion
c) Absorption of water in collecting duct c) Causes progesterone secretion during ovulation
ofNa+ in PCT d) Maintains placenta
81l)a 812)c 813)d 814)d 815)a 816)d 817)a>b 818)a 819)a 820)c 82l)b 822)c 823)c 824)c
825) None 826) b 827) c 828) d 829) b 830)d 83l)a 832)c 833)b 834)c 835)b 836)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.37]
837. Cart wheel appearance of nucleus is seen in - 850. Menopausal hormonal relations are- (AI 95)
a) Leydig cell b) Sperms (JIPMER 92) a) LH/TSH increase
c) Sertoli of ovary d) Germinal epithlium b) Gonadotropins increase estrogens decrease
838. FSH is secreted by- (JIPMER 92) c) Estrogens and gonadotropins decrease
a) Chromophobes b) Basophils d) Both increase
c) Acidophils d) Theca intema cells 851. Progeterone is produced by- (AI95)
839. Estrogenactson- (AIIMS92) a) Granulosa Luteal cells b) Theca cells
c) Stroma of ovary d) Sertoli cells
a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria
852. Testosterone is formed from- (AMU 95)
c) Cell membrane d) Cytoplasmic receptor
a) Cholesterol b) Pregnenolone
840. Which is not caused by Estrogen- (AIIMS 92) c) Androstendione d)All
a) Decreased folate levels 853. Motility ofsperms starts in- (AIIMS 96)
b) Decreased HDL a) Testis b) Epididymis
c) Increased blood sugar c) Vas defedrens d) Prostratic urethra
d) Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase 854. Elasticity of cervical mucous is seen in - (MP 98)
841. Menopausal hot flushes is due to- (AIIMS 92) a) Proliferative b) Midcycle
a) Decreased Estrogen c) Luteal stage d) Menstruation
b) Decreased progesterone 855. Prostaglandins found in the seminal fluid are
c) LH surge secreting products of- (Orissa 99)
d) FSHsurge a) Prostate gland b) Seminal vesicle
842. Spermatozoa mature in which of the following c) Leydig cells d) Sertoli cells
organs- (PGI 80) 856. Blood-testis barrier is formed by- (MP 2K)
a) Epidydimis b) Vas-Deferens a) Sertoli cells b) Leydig cells
c) Rate-testes d) Prostate c) Epididymis d) Vas deferens
857. Sperms persist in female genital tract
843. Ovulation coincides with- (AIIMS 87, Dehli 93)
for- (Orissa 04)
a) Increase in progesterone
a) l-2days b) 1-2weeks
b) GnRH release c) 1-2 months d) 1-2 hours
c) LHSurge 858. Which among the following are polypeptides-
d) Increase in Oestrogen a) lliRH b)FSH (PGI02)
844. If a lady presents with a very regular 29 days c) Prolactin d) Estrogen
messtrual cycle, ovulation should occur on day- 859. Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons
a) 14 b) 15 (AIIMS 80, Delhi 87) are under the inhibitory control of- (AI 04)
c)17 d)19 a) Glycine
845. In the female genital tract the spermatozoa do b) Glutamate
not live for more than- (JIPMER 80,0rissa 91 c) Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
a) 12 hours b) 24 hours AIIMS 85) d) Beta endorphin
c) 36 hours d) 48 hours 860. Features ofHCG- (PGI 02)
846. The sperms are normally motile at the rate of - a) Is a glycoprotein
a) 0-lmm/min b)1-3mm/min (AIIMS84) b) Levels increases in third trimester
c) 3-10 mmlmin d) 10-15 mm/min c) Alpha subunit is specific for HCG
d) Secreted by Trophoblasts
84 7. Following are the effects of testostone except-
e) Has 2 subunits
a) Haemopoiesis (JIPMER 81, Delhi 86)
861. Capacitation of sperms takes place in- (SRMC 02)
b) Calcium retention a) Epididymus b) Seminal vasicle
c) Increase total quantity of bone matrix c) Uterine tubes d) Uterus
d) Increase BMR 862. Spermatozoa gets nourishment from - (Kerala 03)
e) None a) Glucose b) Fructose
848. Which of the following determines the sex of the c) Galactose d) Lactose
individual- (BIHAR 89, 91) 863. Testesterone - (Kerala 04)
a) Genotype only b) Genotype +Phenotype a) Causes salt and water retention
c) FSH + LH d) Hormones only b) Has protein catabolic effect
e) Any of the above c) Inhibits erythropoiesis
849. Normal-body temperature can be raised by- d) None of the above
a) Androgens b) Gonadotrophins (Delhi 87) 864. Ovum is released due to- (MAHE 05)
c) Oestrogen d) Progesterone a) FSH b)LH
c) Prolactin d) HCG
837)c 838)b 839)a 840)a,b,c,d 841)a 842)a 843)c 844)b 845)d 846)b 847)e 848)a 849)d 850)b
851)a 852)d 853)b 854)b 855)b 856)a 857)a 858)a,b,c 859)c 860)a,e 861)c 862)b 863)a 864)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.38]
865. Which of the following statements can be 877. Inhibin is secreted by- (Manipal 08)
regarded as primary action ofinhibin- (AI 05) a) Ovarian follicle
a) It inhibits secretion of prolactin b) Stroma
b) It stimulates synthesis of estradiol c) Surface epithelium of ovary
c) It stimulates secretion ofTSH d) Corpus luteum
d) It inhibits secretion ofFSH 878. Mellerian inhibiting substance (MIS) Is produced
866. Testosterone production is mainly contributed by- (Manipal 08)
by- (AIO~ a) Stroma b) Sartoli cells
a) Leydig cells b) Sertolie cells c) Leydig cells d) All of the above
c) Seminiferous tubules d) Epididymis 879. Source of progesterone during normal menstrual
867. Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory cycle- (Manipal 08)
surge of- (AI 06) a) Corpus luteum
a) Estradiol b) Stroma
b) Luteinizing hormone c) Surface epithelium of ovary
c) Progesterone 880. Spermatogenesis is maintained by which hormones
d) Follicle stimulating hormone (s)- (PGIDec08)
868. After bilateral vasectomy which of the following a) Testosterone b) FSH
substance deficiency is seen - (Manipal 2006) c) lli d) Prolactin
a) Fructose b) Prostaglandin e) Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
c) Fibrinolysin d) None 881. Sertoli cells play a key role in which of the following
869. By the time of implantation in uterine endometrium process- (AI 09)
the typical fertilized ovum is devided into how many a) Spermiogenesis
cells - (HP 2006) b) Testosterone secretion
a)2 b)4 c) Secretion of seminal fluid
~16 ~7~ d) Production of germ cells
870. Males and females show difference in the age of 882. Capacitance of sperms takes place in- (AIIMS May
onset of puberty. The difference in the age of onset a) Seminiferous tubules b) Epididymis 09)
of puberty amongst males may be explained by- c) Vas deference d) Uterus
a) IncreasedActivin-Alevels (A/07) 883. Estrogen action on carbohydrate metabolism-
b) Decreased F ollistatin levels a) Increases uptake of glucose through increase in
c) Increased Inhibin levels insulin sensitivity (AIIMS May 09)
d) Easily releasable FSH pool b) Glycolysis increases
871. Normal testicular development requires which of c) Increasing central adipose deposition
the following chromosomes- (MAHE 0 7) d) Worsening ofNIDDM
a) XY b)XX 884. Fern pattern in cervical mucus is due to
c) Y chromosome d) X chromosome high- (Corned 09)
872. Breast feeding often- (UP 07) a) Potassium chloride b) Sodium chloride
a) Stimulates FSH c) Calcium chloride d) Protein content
b) StimulatesLH 885. The principal steroid secreted by testis is-
c) Stimulates prolactin initiation a) Testosterone (Corned 09)
d) Stop suppression of FSH b) Dihydrotestosterone
873. Sertoli cells have receptors for- (AIIMS Nov 07) c) Androstenidione
a) FSH b)LH d) Dihydroepiandrosterone
c) Inhibin d) Progesterone 886. Capacitance of sperms takes placein-(AllMSMay 10)
874. Sperms acquirs motility in- (UP 08) a) Seminiferous tubules b) Epididymis
a) Testis b) Epididymus c) Vas deference d) Uterus
c) Vas deferences d) Seminal vesicles 887. Which ofthe following is not seen in humans-(AI 10)
875. Spermatogenesis occurs at- (AI 08) a) Estrous cycle b) Menstrual cycle
a) Body temperature c) Endometrial cycle d) Ovarian cycle
b) Temperature lower than core body temperature 888. Ductules in breast develop due to action of?
c) Temperature higher than core body temperature a) Progesteron b) Oestrogen (Maharashtra 10)
d) Temperature does not play a role c) Activin d) All of the above
876. Which of the following is conect regarding 889. A man is given continuous testosterone.It would lead
fertilization and implantation ? (AI 08) to- (AIIMSNov 10)
a) Fertilisation usually occurs in the uterus a) Azoospermia
b) Implantation occurs 24 hours after fertilization b) Increased sperm motility
c) The tubes are lined by ciliated epithelium c) Increased spermatogenesis
d) The cilia beat towards fimbriae d) Increased gonadotrophins
865)d 866) a 867) b 868) d 869) c 870)c 87l)c 872)c 873)a 874)b 875)b 876)c 877)a 878)b
879)a 880) a,b,c 781) a 882) d 883) a 884)b 885)a 886)d 887)a 888)b 889)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.39]
890. Which of the following is not seen in humans- 905. 17 OH steroid- (NEET!DNB Pattern)
a) Estrous cycle b) Menstrual cycle a) Androgen b) Progesterone
c) Endometrical cycle d) Ovarian cycle(AI 11) c) Estrogen d) None
891. Menopausal hot flushes coincides with- (Karn 11) 906. Progestreone has how many carbons-
a) FSH secretion b) Decrease in estrogen a) 18 b) 19 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) LH surge d) Increase in progesterone c) 20 d)21
892. FSH is secreted by- (Punjab 10) 907. FSH is secreted by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Chrompphobes b) Basophils a) Ovary b) Hypothalamus
c) Acidophils d) Theca intema cells c) Posterior pituitary d) Anterior pituitary
893. Androgen is secreted by- (Jipmer 10)
908. Ovulation in a women with 28 day cycle occurs at-
a) Leyding cell b) Sertoli cell
a) 14 days prior to mensturation (NEET/DNB
c) Cowper's gland d) Intermediate cells
b) Just before LH surge Pattern)
894. Sperm acquires motility in- (NEETIDNB Pattern,
c) Just after corpus leuteal maturation
a) Seminal vesicle AI 99, 94, AIIMS 97, UP 08)
b) Testes d) Due to progesterone rise
c) Epididymis 909. Estrogen is secreted during pregnancy, mostly by-
d) Ejaculatory duct a) Maternal ovary (NEETIDNB Pattern)
895. Corpus luteum in pregnancy is maintained by which b) Fetal ovary
hormone- (NEETIDNBPattern) c) Pituitary
a) Progesterone b) Oestrogen d) Hypothalamus
c) lli d)FSH 910. Spermatogenesis is mostly controlled by-
896. In post ovulatory phase thickness of endometrium a) lnhibin b) FSH (NEET/DNB Pattern)
is because of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) lli d) GnRH
a) Progesterone b) Oestrogen 911. Sperm maturation takes place in-
c) FSH d)LH a) Vas deferens (NEETIDNB Pattern)
897. What is thelarche- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Seminiferous tubules
a) Pubertal breast enlargement in girls c) Epididymis
b) Breast enlargement in pregnancy d) Female genital tract
c) Hormone induced breast enlargement in boys 912. Beta HCG is secreted by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Post hormonal therapy breast enlargement in a) Ovary b) Pituitary
postmenopausal females c) Corpus luteum d) Placenta
898. LH is secreted by- (NEET!DNB Pattern) 913. Semen is released by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Ovary b) Pituitary a) Epididymis b) Testes
c) Corpus luteum d) Hypothalamus c) Vas deferens d) Prostate
899. Ovulation of ovary is influenced by•. 914. Sperm maturation takes place in-
a) lli b)FSH (NEET/DNBPattern) a) Vas deferens (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) LH+FSH d)GnRH b) Seminiferous tubules
900. Fertilization occurs at- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Epididymis
a) Cervix b) Uterus d) Rete testis
c) Ampulla d) Ovary 915. Ovarian follicles at birth in ovary are-
901. Haploid number of chromosomes is seen in- a) 2 million b) 7 million
a) Spermatogonia (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 10 million d) 20 million
b) Primary spermatocytes 916. Velocity of human sperm- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Secondary spermatocyte a) l-3nnnlrnin b)4-6nnn/rnin
d) None c) 6-9 nnnlrnin d) 10-13 nnnlrnin
902. Leydig cells secrete- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 917. Dihydrotestosterone acts on- (NEET!DNB Pattern)
a) Inhibin a) Pituitery b) Extermal genitalia
b) MIS c) Internal genitalia d) Tests
c) Testosterone 918. Ovaryproducesallexcept- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Androgen binding protein a) Gonadotropin b) Testosterone
903. PGs in semen are secreted by -(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Estrogen d) InhibinB
a) Prostate b) Seminal vesicle 919. Negative feedback in spermatogenesis is by-
c) Sperms d) Testes a) ABP (NEETIDNB Pattern)
904. Ovulation of ovary is influenced by- b) Inhibin
a) lli b)FSH (NEETIDNBPattern) c) Progesterone
c) LH + FSH d)GnRH d) None
890)a 89l)c 892)b 893)a 894)c 895)c 896) a 897) a 898) b 899) a 900) c 901)c 902)c 903)b
904)a 905)b 906)d 907)d 908)a 909)a 910)c>b 911)d 912)d 913)c '914)c 915)a 916)a 917)b
918)a 919)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.40]
920. Functionofoxytocin- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 934. True about creatine- (UP 2K)
a) Milk ejection b) Milk secretion a) It is a muscle protein
c) Ovulation d) Maintainance of pregnancy b) High energy compound
921. Size of sperm- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Measures GFR
a) 100 microns b) 65nm d) None
c) lOOnm d)65micrometer 935. Not a glycoprotein- (DNB 2001)
922. Luteal phase dominant hormone- a) FSH b)LH
c) TSH d)GH
a) Estrogen (NEETIDNB Pattern)
936. Angiotensionogen is produced by- (Karnat. 2001)
b) Progesterone
a) Liver b) Kidney
c) Prolactin c) Atrium d) Hypothalamus
d) Oxytocin 937. Stress-induced hyperglycemia is due to- (PGI 02)
923. Testosterone is produced in Ieydig cells in fetus a) Glucocorticoids b)GH
due to- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Thyroxine d) Epinephrine
a) FSH b) ~HCG e) Insulin
c) Cortisol d) Estrogen 938. i HIAA urine levels are suggestive of- (MARE 05)
924. Immune rejection in fetus is prevented by - a) Carcinoid tumors b) Colon cancer
a) HCD (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Malignant melanoma d) None of the above
b)HPL 939. Diuresis produced by alcohol is due to- (/CS 05)
c) Oestrogen a) Decreased tubular reabsorption
d) Progesterone b) Increased glomerular filtration rate
925. Sertoli cell feedback mechanism involves - c) Osmotic diuresis
a) Decreased LH (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Inhibition of ADH secretion
b) Decreased FSH 940. Endothelium Derived Relaxing Factor (EDRF)
induced vasodilatation is mediated by-
c) Decreased TRH
a) Increased intracellular CGMP (APPGE 05)
d) Decreased CRH
b) Decreased intracellular CGMP
c) Increased extracellular cyclic Amp
MISCELLANEOUS d) Decreased intracellular cyclic Amp
941. Exercise is also prescribed as an adjuvant
926. Least balflife is for which hormone- (JIPMER 99) treatment for depression. Most probably is acts by-
a) Nor adrenaline b) Renin a) Increasing pulse pressure (AIIMSMay2005)
c) Aldosterone d) Thyroxine b) Improving hemodynamics
927. Which ofthe following have natriuretic actions- c) Raising endorphin levels
a) Aldosterone b) Natriuretic peptide (PGI 88) d) Inducing good sleep
c) Angiotensin d) Prednisolone 942. There is mutation of gene coding for the ryanodine
928. Beta endorphin is- (Kerala 90) receptors in malignant hyperthermia. Which of the
a) A lipoprotein following statements best explains the increased
b) Analogue of morphine heart production in malignant hyperthemia-
c) Hormone of the intermediate lobe of pituitary a) Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium
d) Morphine receptor in brain ions (AIIMS May 05)
b) Thermic effect offood
929. Anabolic action on protein is mediated by-
c) Increased sympathetic discharge
a) ACTH b) Insulin (JIPMER 92)
d) Mitochondrial thermogenesis
c) Testesterone d) TSH 943. Which of the following hormones is an example
930. Following are local hormones except- (JIPMER 79, of a peptide hormone- (AIIMS May 05)
a) Insulin b) Heparin Delhi 92) a) Parathormone b)Adrenaline
c) Bradykinin d) Acetyl choline c) Cortisol d) Thyroxine
931. Erythropoietin is secreted by- (AI 96) 944. Thyroid hormone acts through receptors present
a) Liver b) Adrenal cortex on- (PGMCET07)
c) Kidney d) Bone marrow a) Cell membrane b) Cytoplasmic membrane
932. ThromboxaneA2 is mainly produced by- (AI97, 95) c) Nuclearmembrane d)DNA
a) Vascular endothelium b) Plateletes 945. Insulin with glucagon secretion occurs
c) Liver d) Damaged tissue simultaneously in which condition or by which
933. Erythropoietin levelis raised by- (AI 98) substance- (PGMCET07)
a) J.P02 b)J.PC02 a) Hyperglycaemia b) Hypoglycaemia
J.Hb J.PH c) Fatty acid d) Arginine
920)a 92l)d 922)b 923) b 924) a >d 925) b 926) a 927) b 928)c 929)b 930)a 931)a,c 932)b 933)a
934)a 935)d 936)a 937)a,b,d 938)a 939)d 940)a 941)c 942)a 943)a 944)c 945)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.41 ]
946. cAMP action mediates all except- (Corned 08, 07) 958. Which of the following acts through tyrosine kinase
a) Glucagon receptor - (Corned 09)
b) Follicle stimulating hormone a) Insulin b) Glucagon
c) Leutinizing hormone c) Growth hormone d) Follicle stimulating hormone
d) estrogen 959. All of the following use c-AMP as a second messenger
947. A patient is on low calcium diet for 8 weeks. except- (AIIMSNov09)
Following increases to maintain serum calcium a) Corticotropin b) Dopamine
levels- (AIIMS Nov 07) c) Glucagon d) Vasopressin
a) PTH 960. Insulin-like Growth factor ll plays an important role
b) Calcitonin in (Maharashtra 10)
c) Active 24,25 dihydroxy cholecaliferol a) Control of metablism b) Skeletal growth
d) Serum phosphate level c) Cartilage growth d) Devolop of foetus
948. Which one of the following does not cause small 961. True aboutfunction of Angiotensin ll-(PGI Nov. 10)
vessel vasculitis ? (UPSC-1 08) a) Constriction of afferrent arteriole
a) Churg - strauss syndrome b) Autoregulation of GER
b) Henoch - Schonlein purpura c) Secreted from endothelial
c) Kawasaki disease d) Release aldosterone
d) Microscopic polyangiitis e) Increased sodium and water reabsorption
949. All of the following are increased in Acute stress 962. Intrauterine growth of fetus is affected by-
EXCEPf- (UP08) a) Growthhormone (PG!Nov.JO)
a) Growth hormone b) Insulin b) Insulin
c) Epinephrine d) Glucagon c) Thyroxine
950. Which of the following statements about Histamine d) Glucocorticoids
is true- (AI 08) e) Parathormone
a) Is found in mast cells 963. All are glycoprotein hormones except-
b) Increases gastric acid secretion a) IH b)FSH (Jipmer 10)
c) Related to arousal and blood pressure c) Lh d)ADH
d) All of the above 964. Which of the following occurs in acute trauma?
951. Natural light causes all except- (Manipal 08) a) Increase in insulin (Jiprner 11)
a) Vitamin D synthesis b) Destroys organ of corti b) Decrease in glucagon
c) J.. Bilirubin level d) Melanin synthesis c) Decrease in cortisol
952. 5 percent dextrose is? (APPG 08) d)lncreaseinthyroxine
a) Hypotonic b) Isotonic 965. Nissl's bodies located intracytbplasmic are in?
c) Normotonic d) Hypertonic a) Perikaryon of neuron (NEETIDNB Pattern)
953. Which set of hormones have nuclear receptor- b) Smooth muscle
a) Estrogen, thyroxin & glucagon (PGI Dec 08) c) Skeletal muscle
b) Estrogen, thyroxin & TSH
d) Cardiac muscle
c) Estrogen, TSH & Gonadotropin releasing
hormone (GnRH) 966. Which is incorrectly matched- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Retinoic acid, thyroxin & Luteinizing hormone (LH) a) Eyes-rods& cones
e) Testosterone, cortisol & Estogen b) Olfaction- hair cells
954. Hormone synthesized as peptide precursor is/are- c) Tongue- Na channels
a) Insulin b) PTH (PGI June 09) d) Carotid body- chemoreceptor
c) Renin d) Thyroid hormone
e) Angiotensin II G.I.T.
955. All the following hormones have receptors on the
plasma membrane of target tissues except- 967. The rate of absorption of sugars by small intestine
a) Thyrotropin b) Glucagons (Corned 09) is highest for- (AIIMS 83)
c) Estradiol d) Epinephrine a) Disaccharides b) Polysaccharides
956. Which one of the following hormones decreases c) Hexoses d) Pentose
Na+-~ AT-Paseactivity- (Corned 09) 968. Which of the following is not secreted by the
a) Thyroid hormone b) Aldosterone pancreas- (PGI 92)
c) Dopamine d) Insulin a) Procarboxypeptidase b) Trypsinogen
957. The primary site ofhaematopolesis in the foetus c) Phospholipase A d) Pepsinogen
before midpregnancy is- (Corned 09) 969. Liverdoesnotproduce- (Al89)
a) Bone b) Liver a) Albumin b)Gammaglobulin
c) Spleen d)Lung c) Fibrinogen d) Prothromobin
946) d 947) a 948) c 949) b 950) d 951) b 952) b 953) None 954) a,b,c,e 955)c 956)b 957)b 958)a
959)None>d 960)d 96l)a,b,c,d 962)b,c,d 963)d 964)d 965)a 966)b 967)c 968)d 969)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.42]
970. Pancreas Secretes all of the following except- 983. Most potent stimulus for secretin is- (Al90)
a) Amino peptidase b) Elastase (Al 93) a) Dilatation of intestine b) Acid chyme
c) Ribonuclease d) Colipase c) Protein d) Fat
971. The major ejection force in vomiting is provided by- 984. Which of the following is absorbed in the colon-
a) Stomach (JIPMER 80, PGI 81) a) Iron b) Proteins
b) Reverse peristalsis of intestines c) Bile salts d) Electrolytes
c) diaphragm 985. Which of the following is absorbed in the
d) abdominal muscles proximalintestine- (AI 91)
972. Normalacidlevelinstomachis- (AIIMS 91) a) Iron b) Electrolytes
a) 300-400mEq b) 100-200mEq c) Bile salts d) VitaminB 12
c) 20-40mEq d) 15-20mEq 986. Best stimuli for CCK secretion is- (A/92)
973. Gastrin secretion by pyloric antrum is stimulated a) Acid b) Protein
by- (JIPMER 88, UPSC 86) c) Bile d) Fat
a) Cholecystokinin 987. Gastric emptying is decreased by all except-
b) Alteration in pH of gastric contents a) Fatty meal (AIIMS 92)
c) Distension of antrum b) Hyperosmolarity in duodenum
d) All of the above c) Distension of duodenum
e) None of the above d) Hypoosmolarity in duodenum
974. Pancreatic secretion contain- (PGI 87) 988. Pepsinogen is activated by- (All India 93)
a) Trypsin b) Lipase a) Enterokinase b) Low pH
c) Enteropeptidase d) Pepsin c) Trypsin d) Chymotrypsin
e) Renin 989. The normal basal acid output is- (Jipmer 93)
975. Chymotrypsinogen in activated into chymotrypsin a) 1-2 mmollhr b) 5-l 0 mmol!hr
by- (AIIMS 87) c) 10-15 mmol!hr d) 20-25 mmol/hr
a) Trypsin b) Pepsin 990. Which ofthe following is the fastest to be absorbed
from the stomach- (Jipmer 79, Delhi 92)
c) Fatty acids d) Bile salts
a) Carbohydrate b) Proteins
976. Most potent stimulus for bile secretion is-
c) Fats d) Water
a) Cholecystokinin (AIIMS 87)
e) None
b) Gastrin c) Secretin
991. Gastrin secretion is- (UPSC 89)
d) Bile acid e) Bile salt
a) Inhibited by curare
977. Secretin does not cause- (AI 88)
b) Stimulated by nor adrenaline
a) Bicarbonate secretin c) Increased by stomach distention
b) Auguments the action ofCCK
d) Stimulated by an increase in tonic activity
c) Contraction of pyloric sphincter 992. Liver is the only organ which normally-
d) Gastric secretion increase a) Synthesizes heparin (AIIMS 82)
978. The gastric phase of gastric secretion is brought b) Synthesizes urea
about by- (AI 89) c) Degrades haemoglobin
a) Neural factors d) Convents glycogen to glucose
b) Hormonal factors e) All of the above
c) Gastric distension 993. The only sugar normaly absorbed in the intestine
d) Presence of proteins in the stomach against a concentration gradient is- (AIIMS 84
979. Gastric secretion is stimulated by all of the a) Xylose b) Mannose PGI 81, Delhi 82)
following except- (AI 88) c) Glucose d) Ribose
a) Secretin b) Gastric distension e) Galactose
c) Gastrin d) Vagal stimulus 994. Maximum absorption of bile occurs at-
980. Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolytes but a) Jejunum b) Duodenum
poor in enzymes is secreted in response to -(Jipmer c) ileum d) Colon
a) Pancreatozymin b) Cholecystokinin 90) 995. The duodeum secretes a hormone which has
c) Secretin d) Porteins following effects except- (DNB 91)
981. Gastrin is produced by- (Jipmer 90) a) Causes copious paucretic juice rich in bicarbonate
a) Pancreas b) Gastric antral cells and poor in enzymes
c) Pituitary d) All b) Increases gastric motility
982. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion is mediated c) Causes gall bladder to contract and sphincter of
~- w~ Oddi to relax
a) Neurohorrnones b) Parasympathetic d) Leads to meagre flow of pancreatic juice rich in
c) Sympathetic d) Gastrin enzymes
970)a 97l)d 972)c 973)c 974) a,b 975) a 976)d 977)d 978) a,b 979) a 980) c 981)d 982)b 983)b
984)d 985) a,b 986) b 987) d 988)b 989)a 990)e 991)c 992) b,d 993) c,e 994) c 995)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.43]
996. Small intestinal peristalsis is controlled by- 1010. Following are gastrointestinal hormones except
a) Myentric piexus (Kerala 94) a) CCK-PZ b)GIP {TN2002)
b) Meisners piexus c) Motilin d) Chymotrypsin
c) Vagus nerve 1011. Secretomotor fibers of parotid gland passes through-
d) Para sympathetic system a) Auriculotemporal nerve (PGI 03)
997. Dietary fiber includes one offollowing- (A/96) b) Lesser petrosal nerve
a) Collagen b) Pectins c) Deep petrosal nerve
c) Keratin d) Elastin d) Otic ganglion
998. The final sugars in intestinal chyme are-(Delhi 96) 1012. Which of these statements are correct regarding
a) Glucose & fructose b) Ribose & mannose acid secretion in stomach- (PGI 02)
c) Ribose & xylulose d) Xylulose & fructose a) Gastrin increases acid secretion
999. All of the following are secreted proenzyme form b) Secretin decreases acid secretion
except- (Delhi 96) c) H2 blockers decrease acid secretion
a) Trypsin b) Chymotrypsin d) Total acid secretion reflects functional parietal
c) Pepsin d) Ribonuclease cell mass
1000. Bile is formed at the rate of how many mllhr in e) Somatostatin increases acid secretion
liver- (AMU95) 1013. All of these are required for digestion of dietary
a) 20 b)40 fat-
c) 80 d) 100 a) Bile pigments b) Gastric lipase
1001. Fatis maximally absorbed in- (AMU 95) c) Colipase d) Bile salts
a) lleum b) Colon e) Pancreatic lipase
c) Stomach d) Jejunum 1014. HCL secretion is stimulated by- (PG/01)
1002. All are actions ofCCKexcept- (A/99) a) Secretin b) Somatostatin
a) Relax lower esophageal sphinctor c) Histamine d) Gastrin
b) Increased pancreatic secretion e) VlP
c) Increased gastric secretion 1015. Maximum contraction of gall bladder is seen with-
a) CCK b) Secretin (PGI 2K)
d) Causes GB contraction
c) Gastrin d) Enterogastrone
1003. Gastro-colic reflex is related to- (Orissa 98)
1016. Trueaboutsecretinis- (PGI 1999)
a) Mass preistalsis b) Segmental movement
a) Incresed gall-bladder contraction and HC03 rich
c) Pendularmovement d) Colonic cases
pancreatic fluid
1004. Actions of cholecystokinin include all of the
b) Increased gastrin secretion
following except- ( Kerala 2000) c) Gastric hypermotility
a) Contraction of gall bladder d) Increased enzyme rich pancreatic fluid
b) Secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes 1017. Enterogastric reflex is stimulated by all except -
c) Increases the secretion of enterokinase a) Alk. content of small int (PGI 98)
d) Augments the action of secretion of gastrin b) Hyperosmolarity of chyme
e) Stimulated gastric emptying c) Distension of duodenum
1005. Stimulation for gastric emptying- (DNB 2001) d) None
a) Secretin b)CCK 1018. Chyme is pro pulsed forward in small intestine by-
c) Gastrin d) Distension a) Segmentation (PGI 98)
1006. Intestinal absorption is faster for- (J &K 2001) b) Haustrations
a) Hexoses b) Hissacharides c) Migratory motor complexes (MMC)
c) Oligosaccharides d) Polysaccharides d) Peristalsis
1007. Which of the following does not stimulate 1019. Pacemaker ofthe GI.T. is located in- (PG/98)
enterogastric reflex? (J & K 2001) a) Cardiac end of stomach
a) Products of protein digestion in the duodeum b) Long muscle of small intestine
b) Duodenal distension c) Pyloric end of stomach
c) H +ions bathing duodenal mucosa d) Central control at CBD origin
d) Hormones e) Fundus of stomach
1008. Which inhibits gastrin secretion- (Kerala 2001) 1020. Longesttransit time in GIT is seen in- (PGI 97)
a) Secretin b) High gastric pH a) Stomach b) Jejunum
c) Insulin d) Calcium c) Colon d)Ileum
1009. Short chain fatty acid produced by bacteria are 1021. Which one of the following is the primary site of
maximally absorbed in- (Jipmer 2002) production of gastrin- (UPSC 02)
a) Duodenum b) Colon a) Pylorus b)Antrum
c) ileum d) Jejunum c) Pancreas d) Small intestine
996)a,c,d 997)b 998)a 999)d lOOO)a lOOl)d 1002)c l003)a 104)d,e lOS)c 1006)a 1007)d 1008)a 1009)b
1010)d lOll)a,b,d 1012)a,b,c,d 1013)c,d,e 1014)c,d 1015)a 1016)None 1017)a 1018)d 1019)e 1020)c
102l)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.44]
1022. Intrinsic factor is secreted by-( Orissa 04,Kerala 94, 1034. Micelles is formed by- (Manipal 2006)
a) G-cells AI 09) a) Triacylglycerol in polar solvent
b) Pepsinogen secreting cells b) Amphipathic lipids in water
c) Parietal or oxyntic cells c) Triacyl glycerol in gut
d) Pyloric glands d) Cholesterol esters
1023. Salivary amylase is activated by- (Kamataka 04) 1035. Which of the following is true upper esophageal
a) Na+ b)K+ sphincter? (Manipal 2006)
c) HC03 d)Q a) Its physiological not anatomical
1024. Mixingwavesofstomach- (Kerala 04) b) It has pressure of 10 to 20 mmHg
a) Originates in body of stomach c) It is under hormonal control
b) Originates in fundus of stomach d) It is formed by striated muscles
c) Originates at incisura angularis 1036. In the stomach, H+ ions are secreted in exchange
d) Originates in any part of stomach for- (Comed 08)
1025. Gastrin - (Kerala 04) a) Na+ b)K+
a) Is a hormone secreted by pepsinogen cells c) ea+ d)cl-
b) Is a polypeptide 1037. All of the following statements are true for
c) Is released in cephalic phase 'Intestinal Motility' except- (AI 0 7)
d) Cause gastricjuicesecretionatarateof500-700mllhr a) Does not depend on Gastric motility
1026. Gastric secretions are increased by all of the b) Increased by Distension
followingexcept- (SGPG/05) c) Increased by Acetylcholine
a) Somatostatin b) Histamine d) Increased by cholecystokinin
c) Vagal stimulation d) Gastrin 1038. Liver synthesizes all, except- (Aiims May 07)
1027. Mass movement of the colon would be abolished a) c3 complement component
by- (COMEDK05)
b) Haptoglobin
a) Extrinsic denervation
c) Fibrinogen
b) Distension of the colon
d) Immunoglobulin
c) Gastrocolic reflex
1039. Bile acids are synthesized from- (Aiims May 07,
d) Destruction of auerbach's plexus
a) Cholesterol b) Amino acids AI 89)
1028. Migratingmotilitycomplex- (KARNAT05)
c) Bilirubin d) Protein
a) Occurs upon arrival of food in the stomach
1040. Iron is actively absorbed in- (Aiims May 07,
b) Begins in the lower part of the small intestine
a) Stomach Delhi 85)
c) Are initiated by pacemaker cells in the intestine
d) Occurs at a rate of 5 ems per minute from the b) Duodenum and proximal jejunum
stomach c) Large intestine
1029. Paneth cells in the Mucosa of the small intestine d) ileum
secrete - (KARNAT05) 1041. Function ofKupffer cells in liver is- (MAHE 07)
a) Lysozyme a) Phagocytic b) Lytic
b) Bioactive peptides and bioamines c) Secretory d) Excretory
c) Bicarbonate 1042. Glucose transport occur with the help offollowing
d) Pepsin and Rennin ion in absorption in gut region- {UP 07)
1030. Parietal cell secretes- (MAHE 05) a) Na+ b) K+
a) Mucus b) Pepsinogens c) Ca+ d)Cl-
c) Gastrin d) Intrinsic factor 1043. Which of the following inhibits gastric secretion
1031. Which of the following secretions has a very high andmotility- (UP 07)
pH- (AIO~ a) Vasoactive intestinal poly peptide (VIP)
a) Gastric juice b) Pancreatic juice b) Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
c) Bile in gall bladder d) Saliva c) Somatostatin
1032. Which of the following parameter will be d) Ghrelin
increased after hepatectomy?(APPG06, Kerala 03) 1044. All are endo peptidases except- (UP07)
a) Glucose b) Fibrinogen a) Trypsin b) Chymotrypsin
c) Estrogen d) Conjugated bilirubin c) Elastase d) Carboxypeptidases
1033. Which of the following undergo enterohepatic 1045. In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause
circulation?- (Manipal 2006) of colonic contractions in this situation is- (UP 08)
a) Bilirubin a) Gastroileal reflex
b) Biliverdin b) Enterogastric reflex
c) PAHA(para amino hippuric acid) c) Increased circulating levels ofCCK
d) Bilinogen d) Gastrocolic -reflex
1022) c 1023) d 1024) a 1025) b 1026) a 1027) d 1028) d 1029) a 1030) d 1031) b 1032) c 1033) a 1034) b 1035) a
1036)b 1037)a 1038)d 1039)a 1040)b 1041)a 1042)a 1043)c 1044)d 1045)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.45]
1046. Which of the following statement, regarding 1058. The primary action on Nitric oxide (NO) in the
'secretin' is least correct ? (AI 08) gastrointestinal tract is- (AI I 0)
a) Increases bicarbonate rich secretion a) Vasodilatation
b) Inhibit gastric acid secretion b) Vasoconstriction
c) Increases gastric acid secretion c) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
d) Causes contraction of pyloric sphincter d) Gastrointestinal slow smooth muscle contraction
1047. All are true about secretin except- 1059. Iron is absorbed actively in the- (DPG IO)
a) Inhibits gastric emptying (PGI June 08) a) Stomach b) Duodenum
b) Increases bicarbonate rich pancreatic secretion c) Tenninal ileum d) Proximal ileum
c) Potentiates action ofCCK 1060. Which of the following is produced by the stomach
and has a role in control offood intake?
d) i ses bile salt & bile acids
a) Ghrelin (AIIMS Nov IO)
e) Increases bile secretion
b) Insulin like growth hormone-I
1048. Motilin is secreted by cells in- (Manipal 08)
c) Orexin
a) Stomach b) Duodenum/ileum d) Cholecystokinin
c) Pancreas d) Liver 1061. Maximum postprandial motility is seen in-
1049. Which is not secreted by stomach- (APPG 08) a) Ascending colon (AIIMS May 11)
a) Lipase b) Pepsinogen b) Transverse colon
c) HQ d)All c) Descending colon
1050. Maximum postprandial motility is seen in- d) Sigmoid colon
a) Ascending colon (AIIMS Nov 08) 1062. Maximum water reabsorption in the Gastrointestinal
b) Transverse colon tract occurs in - (AI 11)
c) Descending colon a) Stomach b) Jejunum
d) Sigmoid colon c) lleum d) Colon
1051. Intrinsic Factor of Castle is secreted by which of the 1063. lntrinsicfactorisproducedby- (Punjab IO)
following cells in gastric glands- (AI 09) a) Argentaffin cells b) Oxyntic cells
a) Chief cells b) Parietal cells c) Chief cells d) Antral cells
c) Enterochromaffin cells d) B cells 1064. Normal Brown colour of stool is due to -(Punjab I 0)
1052. Maximum potassium ions secretion is seen in- a) Urobilin b) Stercobilinogen
a) Saliva (AIIMS May 09) c) Stercobilin d) Urobilinogen
b) Gastric secretions 1065. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in-
c) Jejunal secretions a) Neonatal hepatitis (Punjab IO)
d) Colonic secretions b) Gilbert syndrome
1053. The mechanism involved in the absorption of glucose c) Dubin Johnson syndrome
d) Rotor syndrome
from the small intestine is- (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
1066. Intrinsic factor secreted by- (PUNJAB II)
a) Passive diffusion
a) Chief cells b) Parietal I oxyntic cells
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Antral cells d) Mucous secreting cells
c) Secondary active cotransport with sodium 1067. Most potent stimulus for bile secretion-
d) Actively by insulin dependent uptake a) Cholecystokin b) Secretin (PUNJAB II)
1054. GastricsecretionofH+ions- (DELHIPGMar. 09) c) Bile acid d) Bile salt
a) Is by chief cells 1068. Not true about bile salts- (PUNJAB 11)
b) Is regulated in part by number of H+ pumps a) Contain amino acid
c) Is enhanced by carbonic anhydrase inhibitors b) Acts by increasing surface tension
d) Occurs in exchange for luminal Na+ ions c) They are amphipathic
1055. Highest concentration of potassium is seen d) Responsible for emulsification of fat
in- (AIIMSNov09) 1069. Vitamin B12-Intrinsic factor absorption occur in-
a) Rectum b) Pancreatic juice a) duodenum b)lleum (Jipmer IO)
c) Ileal secretions d) Bile c) Colon d) Jejunum
1056. Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by -(AIIMS May 1070. Entero hepatic circulation is necessary for the
a) Chief cells b) Parietal cells IO) secretion of- (Jipmer 11)
c) Mucous cells d)~ cells a) Bile b) Intestinal juice
1057. Maximum water reabsorption in the Gastrointestinal c) Pancreatic juice d) Gastric juice
tract occurs in- (AI IO) 1071. Pepsinisactivatedby- (Jipmer 11)
a) Stomach b) Jejunum a) Enterokinase b)HCl
lleum Colon c) Uropepsinogen d) Trypsinogen
1046)c 1047)d 1048)b 1049)None 1050)c 1051)b 1052)a 1053)c 1054)b 1055)a 1056)b 1057)b 1058)c
1059)b 1060)a 1061)c 1062)b 1063)b 1064)c 1065)b 1066)b 1067)d 1068)b 1069)b 1070)a 107l)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.46]
1072. Receptor for absorption ofVit-B12 intrinsic factor 1084. HCl secretion in gastric phase is incresase by-
complex is located in- (Jipmer 11) a) Pepsinogen (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) lleum b) Duodenum b) CCK
c) Transverse colon d) Descending colon c) Gastrin
1073. Secretion of bile into bile canaliculus is by- d) Secretin
1085. Intestinal motility is increased by-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Osmotic gradient (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Secretin b) Gastrin
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) CCK d) None
c) Active transp01t across the membrane 1086. Intrinsic factor in stomach is secreted by-
d) Simple diffusion a) Parietal cells (NEET/DNB Pattern)
1074. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by - b) Chief cells
a) Pepsin (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Zymogen cells
b) Enterokinase d) Enterochromaffin cells
c) HO 1087. VitaminB12isabsorbedin- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
d) None a) Duodenum b) Jejunum
1075. Resection of which intestinal segment causes marked c) lleum d) Colon
electrolyte imbalance- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 1088. Short chain fatty acid produced by bacteria are
maximally absorbed in- (Jipmer 02)
a) Duodenum b) Jejunum
a) Duodenum b) Colon
c) lleum d) Sigmoid c) lleum d) Jejunum
1076. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion- 1089. Slow waves/BER maximum in -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) 200/o b) 70% (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Stomach b)Ileum
c) 100/o d) 100% c) Colon d) Rectum
1077. What is Intrinsic Factor related to- 1090. Which is maximally absorbed from GIT-
a) Cobalmin absorption (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Pentose (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) VitaminD b) Hexose
c) Folate absorbtion c) Diasaccharide
d) VitaminC d) Polysaccharide
1078. Which vitamins are synthesised by intestinal 1091. I cells secrete- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
bacteria- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Secretin b) Gastrin
a) Vit K and D b) Vit K and B c) CCK d) Motilin
c) VitA and D d) Vit K and C 1092. Pepsinogen is secreted by- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
1079. Gastric acid decreased by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Parietal cells b) Mucus cells
a) Secritin c) Chief cells d) Oxyntic cells
1093. I cells of duodenum secrete- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Vagal stimulation
a) Secretin b) Gastrin
c) Proteins in gastric fluids
c) ax d) Motilin
d) Gastric antral distension
1094. In blood bilirubin is with- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
1080. Which causes antral gastrin release-
a) Protein b) Steroid
a) Antral distension (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Vitrunin d) Carbohydrates
b) Acid 1095. Myentric plexus is present in- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Secretin a) Muscularis extema b) Submucosa
d) Calcitonin c) Mucosa d) Serosa
1081. Role of bile salts- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1096. Pancreatic lipase hydrolyses ester linkage of tri
a) Vit B 12 absorption acid glycerides at position- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Formation of lipid bilayer a) 1&2 b) 1&3
c) Emulsification oflipids c) 2&3 d) Only 3
d) Fatty acid degradation 1097. Gastric secretions are essential for absorption of-
1082. Gastric secretion is increased by all except- a) Cobalamin b) Fat (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Histamine (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Thiamine d) Protein
b) Acetylcholine 1098. Intrinsic factor of castle is secreted by-
c) Gastrin a) G cell b) Chief cell (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d)HQ c) Parietal cell d) D cell
1083. Gastric emptying sequence into duodenum- 1099. Major initiating response for peristalsis is-
a) Fat> protein> carbohydrate (NEET/DNB a) Hormonal (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Fat < carbohydrate <protein Pattern) b) Local stretching of gut
c) Protein< fat< carbohydrate c) Neural
d) Protein> fat > d) None
1072)a 1073)c 1074)b 1075)b 1076)a 1077)a 1078)b 1079)a 1080)a 108l)c 1082)d 1083)a 1084)c 1085)c
1086)a 1087)c 1088)b 1089)b 1090)b 1091)c 1092)c 1093)c 1094)a 1095)a 1096)b 1097)a 1098)c 1099)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.47]
1100. Secretin - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1112. Gastric acid decreased by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Reduces the action of CCK PZ a) Secretin
b) Reduces Gastric secretion b) Vagal stimulation
c) Increases Gastric secretion c) Proteins in gastric fluids
d) Secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzyme d) Gastric antral distension
1101. Major initiating response for peristalsis is- 1113. Daily pancreatic secretion- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Hormonal (NEETIDNB Pattern) ~13L ~23L
b) Local stretching of gut c) 5.0L d) IOL
c) Neural 1114. Salivary amylase is inavated by-
a) Enteropeptidase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) None
b) Low pH of stomach
1102. Lysozyme is present in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) High pH of intestine
a) Saliva b) Human milk
d) None
c) Tears d) Mucus
1115. Ptylin is secreted by - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1103. Amountofwaterlostinstools- (NEETIDNBPattern) a) Gastric gland b) Salivary gland
a) 50ml b)200ml c) Duodenal gland d) Pancreatic gland
c) 300ml d)350ml
1104. A man cannot digest carbohydrate. The enzyme CIRCULATION
deficient is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Lipase b) Amylase 1116. Blood brain barrier is maximally permeable to-
c) Pepsin d) Trypsin a) Na+ b) K+ (AIIMS 83, 85; Delhi 89,
1105. Iron absorption takes place in which part of intestine c) Chloride d) C02 90)
a) Duodenum (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1117. Which Substance does not cross the blood brain
b) Deum barrier - (A.L 89)
c) Jejunum a) Insulin b) Urea
d) Colon c) Testosterone d) Glucose
1106. Best absorbable monosaccharide- 1118. Absolute refractory period of heart is the gap of
a) Glucose (NEETIDNB Pattern) time in which- (AIIMS 88)
b) Mannose a) Heart is in diastole
c) Fructose b) Unresponsive to neural stimuli
d) Lactose c) No action potential from another part ofheart will
1107. What is responsible for clearing & flushing reexcite the heart muscle
food from the intestinal lumen in the interdigestive d) None of the above
period- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1119. Following acute failure of the left ventricle is the
a) Gastrin heart is man, pulmonary edema generally begins
b) Migrating motor complexes to appearwhen left atrial pressure approaches-
c) Secretin a) 7mmHg b) 15mmHg (AIIMS80)
d)CXX c) 20mmHg d)30mmHg
1108. Catecholamines- (NEETIDNB Pattern) e)50mmHg
a) Decrease gut contraction 1120. In mature erythrocytes the major available anion
b) Bronchoconstriction is - (PG/80, ROHTAK 85)
c) Decrease plasma glucose a) Haemoglobin b) Chloride
d) Inhibit lipolysis c) Bicarbonate d) Diphosphoglycerate
1109. Which enzyme is not release as proenzyme- e) ATP
a) Pepsin (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1121. All of the following factors are produced by
b) Amylase hepatocytes except- (Kerala 2K)
c) Trypsin a) Fibrinogen b) Prothrombin
d) Chymotrypsin c) Von willebrand factor d) Factor VIII
1110. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion- e) FactoriX
a) On food entering stomach (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1122. Preservation used for storing blood for
b) On food entering intestine transfusion is- (AIIMS 92)
c) On seeing food a) Heparin+ dextrose b) Citrate+ glucose
d) On stress c) EDTA d)CDP-A
1111. Goblet cells secrete- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1123. CoagulationfactorVllis- (JIMPER 79)
a) HO b) Pepsin a) Thromboplstin b)Accalerin
c) Mucus d) Serolonin c) Proconvertin d)Antihaemophilic factor
llOO)b 110l)b 1102)a 1103)b 1104)b 1105)a 1106)a 1107)b 1108)a 1109)b lllO)c llll)c 1112)a 1113)a
1114)b 1115)b 1116)d 1117)a lll8)c 1119)c 1120)b 112l)c 1122)d 1123)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.48]
1124. Colostrum contains more of--- than milk- 1137. Aortic valve closure corresponds to beginning of-
a) Ca b) Mg (AP 96) a) Systole (JIPMER 93)
c) Fe d)Cu b) Parasystole
1125. Colostrum contains all in excess of milk accept- c) lsolvolumetric relaxation
a) Protein b)Fat (A/99) d) lsovolurnetric contraction
c) Mineral d) Immunoglobulins 1138. 'P'wavesnormallyabsentin- (Kerala 95)
1126. At what stage of erythropoiesis does Hemoglobin a) I1 b)LTI
appear- (AIIMS 92) c) aVF d)aVL
a) Reticulocyte b) Intermediate normobalst 1139. 50 year old businessman with 50 % reduction in
c) Early normoblast d) Erythroblast coronary artery diameter would be expected to
1127. Human colostrum has a relatively highter have a blood flow how many times less than a
concentration of all of the following except- normal person- (MAHE 98)
a) Protein b) Fat (UPSC 99) a) 4 b)8
c) lgA d) Sodium c) 32 d) 16
1128. The most common cause of painful pericarditis 1140. Gold blatt hypertension is seen in
is - (AIIMS 80, Bihar 91) Hypertension- (KERALA 91)
a) VIral b) Tuberculous a) Renovascular
c) Uraemic d) AU ofthese b) Drug induced
1129. Absent P waves with wide QRS complex indicates c) Adrenal medullary tumour
serum potassium of- (PGI 78, PGI 80) d) Idio pathic
a) 5.4meq!L b)6.5meq!L 1141. Atrial natriuretic peptide acts by- (PGI 93)
c) More than 8 meq!L d) More than 10 meq/L a) Increasing renin sectetion
1130. In the RBC series, proliferation occurs at which b) Increasng venous pressure
stage- (AIIMS 79, PGI 81} c) Decreasing cardiac output
a) Early normoblast b) Intermediate normoblast d) Increasing blood volume
c) Late normoblast d) Proerythroblast 1142. Life-span ofNeutrophil- (PGI 2000, 97)
1131. Recticulocytosis is not seen in- (AIIMS 94) a) 15 days b) 6 Hours
a) Hereditary sphercytosis c) 6 days d) 10 days
1143. Blood turbulence is Increased in which of the
b) Chronic renal failure
following situations- (AIIMS 2000)
c) Haemorrhage
a) Multiplemyeloma b)Leukemia
d) Paroxsmal nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
c) Polycythemia d)Anemia
1132. Earliest change in iron deficiency anaemia is- 1144. Left ventricular failure is indicated if pulmonary
a) Decreased serum iron (AI 95) artery wedge presure exceeds- (AIIMS 84)
b) Decreased serum ferritin a) 5mmHg b) lOOmmHg
c) Drcreased TIBC c) 15mmHg d)20mmHg
d) Decreased hemoglobin 1145. The coronary artery most commonly involved in
1133. Half life ofmonocytes in circulation is- atherosclerosis is- (AI 93)
a) 6 hrs b) 12 hes (JIPMER 79, PGI 81) a) Left main coronary artery
c) 24 hrs d) 1-3 days b) Right coronary artery
1134. ABO antigens are present in all except- (AI 97) c) Circumflex coronary artery
a) Sweat b) Saliva d) Anterior Descending artery
c) Semen d) CSF 1146. The oxygen consumption in the arrested, asystolic
113 5. Left ventricular systole corresponds to - heartis- (AIIMS8J,AMC84)
a) ST segment in ECG (JJPMER 92, Assam 95) a) 10 ml/min b) 100 ml/min
b) Right ventricular diastole c) 2 ml/min/1 00 gm d) 30 ml/min
c) PwaveinECG e) None of the above
d) Auricular diastole 1147. ••••• % of the cardiac output flows through the liver
1136. A loud first sound is heard frequently in all of a) 10 b)20 (PGI 88)
thefollowingexcept- (ICS 2K) c) 30 d)40
a) Mitral stenosis 1148. The percentage of the circulating blood volume
b) Fever inthe venous system and splanchnic vessels is
normally between- (JIPMER 70, AMU 88)
c) Lown-Ganong levine syndrome
a) 20-300/o b)40-50%
d) Mitral incompetence
c) 60-700/o d) None of these
1124)d 1125)b 1126)b 1127)b 1128)a 1129)c 1130)a,b,d 113l)b 1132)b 1133)d 1134)d 1135)d 1136)d
1137)c 1138)None 1139)d 1140)a 1141)None 1142)b 1143)d 1144)d 1145)d 1146)c 1147)c 1148)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.49]
1149. The greatest drop in systemic arterial blood 1162. Immunity is most suppressed in- (AP 88)
pressure occurs in- (JIPMER 79, PGI 84) a) Liver failure b) Patients on ACTH therapy
a) Capacitance vessels b) Venules c) Anemia d) Renal failure
c) Pre capillary resistance d) None of the above 1163. The cause
2
of post extrasystolic potentiation is-
1150. Carotidbodyisnotstimulatedby- (DNB 90, 91) a) Ca + b) K" (PGI 88)
+ 2+
a) Hypoxic hypoxia b) Anaemic hypoxia c) Na d) Mg
c) Stagnant hypoxia d) Histotoxic hypoxia 1164. Blood group antigens are- (AIIMS 82, AI 97)
1151. How much blood goes to brain in a normal a) Carried by sex chromosomes
healthy conscious individual- b) Attached to plasma proteins
a) Half of total cardiac output(Jipmer 81, AIIMS 84) c) Attached to Hemoglobin molecule
d) Found in Saliva
b) l/4th of total cardiac output
1165. Reticulocytes are stained with - (TN 90)
c) l/6th of total cardiac output
a) Methyl violet b) Brilliant cresyl blue
d) 1/8th of total cardiac output
c) Sudan Black d) Indigo carmine
1152. Pre-Capillary vessels in pulmonary circulations 1166. Autoregulation is seen in- (PGI 90)
differs from those of systemic circulation is, that a) Liver b) Muscles
in former, they are- (Jipmer 80, PGI 87) c) Kidneys d) Brain
a) Thick walled b) Thin walled 1167. Stimulation of baroreceptor leads of- (AI 90)
c) Easily distensible d) Both a and c are true a) Increase in B.P. and heart rate
e) Both band care true b) Decrease in B.P. and heart rate
1153. Minimum pressure in lt.atrium for development c) Increased intracranil tension
ofpulmonaryedema- (JIPMER 95) d) Decreased intracranial tension
a) 15mmHg b)20mmHg 1168. Conduction velocity is maximum in-(AI90,AIIMS 86
c) 30mmHg d)45mmHg a) SA node b) Av node Kerala 90, Delhi)
1154. In Hemophilla- (PGI 87, NIM 86, Keralal86) c) Bundle ofHis d) Right ventricle 86
a) Factor VIII is decreased 1169. Which is true about serum albumin- (AI 90)
b) Factor VII is decreased a) Contributes maximally to plasma oncotic presure
c) Bleeding time is increased b) It is anionic
d) Clotting time is increased c) FreelyperrneableinKidney
1155. T-Lymphocyte- (PGI 87, NIMHANS 85) d) Not synthesised in liver
a) Mature in lymphnodes 1170. CSF does not pass through- (AI 90)
b) Produce anti-bodies a) Ventricles b) Venous sinuses
c) Comprise 10 to 15% lymphnodes c) Epidural spaces d) Subarachnoid space
1171. Vagus inhibits pacemaker potential by all except-
d) Principal cells in lymphonode cortical centre
a) Hyperpolarisation (AI 90)
1156. Half life of transfused plateletes is- (AIIMS 87)
b) Increased pre potential
a) 4 Hours b) 4 Days
c) Stabilising resting membrane potential
c) 8 Days d) 15 Days +
d) Increase K permeability
1157. CSF pressure in the lying down posture is- (AI 88) 1172. P-R Interval in the ECG corresponds to- (AI 91)
a) 20-50mm b)50-150mm a) Time interval between onset of atrial contraction
c) 150-200mm d)200-300mm and onset of ventricular contraction
1158. NormalbloodpHis- (AI 88) b) Time delay in theA-V- Node
a) 7.20 b)7.30 c) S-A Nodal conduction time
c) 7.40 d)7.70 d) Ventricular depolarisation
e) 7.10 1173. Myocardialoxygendemand- (AI91)
1159. Life span ofRBC is- (AI 88) a) Inversely proportional to heart rate
a) 120 days b) 90 days b) Directly proportional to heart rate
c) 60 days d) 30 days c) Increased by digitalis
1160. Thrombostheninis- (AIIMS 84) d) Not related to heart rate
a) Coagulation factor 1174. Which of the following is true about ventircular
b) Contractile protein filling- (AI91)
c) A thrombosis promoting protein a) Atrial contraction mainly contributes
d) A protein regulation platelet producting b) Maximum during isometric ventricular relaxation
1161. Hemophillia is due to deficiency offactor- (AP 88) c) Filling pressure is important for cardiac output
~ ll b)V d) Inotorpic state of myocardium limits the cardiac
Vlil output
1149)c 1150)b 115l)c 1152)e 1153)c 1154)a 1155)None 1156)b 1157)b 1158)c 1159)a 1160)b 116l)c
1162)b 1163)a 1164)d 1165)b 1166)All 1167)b 1168)c 1169)a,b 1170)c 117l)b 1172)a 1173)b 1174)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.50]
1175. S.A. Node all are true except- (A/91) 1187. When pacemaker is in another area of heart, it
a) Initiates the impulse at faster rate denotes- (AIIMS 86)
b) Generate the impulse spontaneously a) Abnormal conducting tissue
c) Increased by the parasympathetic activity b) Abnormal S-A node
d) Increased by sympathetic activity c) Abnormal neural controlling system
1176. Decreased MCHC is found in- (A/91) d) None of the above
a) Microcytic hypochromic anemia e) All of the above
b) Megaloblastic anaemia 1188. Blood flow through left coronary artery -(AIIMS 85)
c) Sideoblastic anemia a) Regulated by sympatheticvasodilator nerves
b) Increase when myocardial hypoxia is present
d) Vit. B 12 deficiency
c) Greates during early systole
1177. The first reactive change to occur after hemorrhage
d) Decreased in reflex response to fall in blood
is- (All India 92)
pressure
a) Vasocontriction b) Tachycarida
1189. Endothelial cells synthesize- (Delhi 87, 93)
c) Raised cortisol d) Raised adrenaline
a) Fibrinogen b) Factor VII
1178. CSF is principally secreted by- (JIPMER 92) c) Factor X d) Factor XII
a) Choroid plexus 1190. Cardiaccycle duration in man is- (JIPME78,
b) Arachnoid granulation a) 0.4 Seconds b) 0.8 Seconds DNB92)
c) Floor offourth ventricle c) 1.2 Seconds d) 1.6 Seconds
d) Periaqueductal grey 1191. Normal hepatic blood flow per minute is-
1179. In wolf parkinson white syndrome, there exists a a) 50 cc/100 gm oflivertissue (DNB 90)
connection between atria and- (JIPMER 93) b) 100 eel l 00 gm ofliver tissue
a) Bundle of His b) Ventricles c) 200 cell 00 gm ofliver tissue
c) A.V. node d) Purkinjee fibres d) 300 cc/100 gm oflivertissue
1180. Conduction velocity is least in-(JIPMER 93,PGI 98) 1192. Dicrotic notch in aortic pressure curve is-
a)AVnode b)BundleofHs a) Magnified by aortic regurgitaion (AIIMS 86)
c) SA node d) Purkinjee fibres b) Absent in arteriosclerosis
1181. Upto what systolic pressure is the brain capable c) Of no diagnostic value
of autoregulation- (JIPMER 81, Delhi 92) d) Coincident with 2nd heart sound
a) 65mmofHg b)55mmofHg 1193. Under resting condition the cardiac output is-
c) 45mmofHg d)75mmofHg a) 2.5 b)4.25 (PGI87,PGI82)
1182. Sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone is diminished c)5.25 d)9.5
in response increased activity of- (PGI 81, 85) e)7.5
a) Carotid body chemoreceptors 1194. CardiacoutputinUmin divided by heart rate equals-
b) Carotid sinus pressure receptors a) Cardiac efficiency (AIIMS 93)
c) Plain receptors b) Cardiac index
d) Medullary chemoreceptors c) Mean stroke volume
1183. Direct Fick method of measuring cardiac output d) Mean arterial pressure
requires estimation of - (PGI 79, DNB 89) 1195. Electrocardiographic leads designated Vl, V2 etc.
a) 0 2 content of arterial blood refer to- (TN 89)
b) 0 2 consumption per unit time a) Unipolar limb leads b) Unipolar chest leads
c) Arteriovenous 0 2 difference c) Bipolar limb leads d) Bipolar chest leads
d) 0 2 content of blood from right ventricle 1196. What is not true for extrasystole in ventricle -
e) All of the above a) Fails to produce radial pulse (NIMHANS 87)
1184. Arneth Count is- (PGI 81, AIIMS 88) b) Hints at serious heart ailment
a) Counting the Lymphocytes c) Associated with abnormal QRS complex
b) Counting the lobes in the neutrophil d) Tendency to be followed by a compensatory
c) Counting the granules in the Eosinophil pause
d) WBC counting in Bone Marrow 1197. The basis for Korot koff ounds is due to-
1185. In vitro coagulation in intiated by factor- (PGI 78, a) AVvalve closure (PG/78, Delhi 83)
a) XII b) XI Delhi 86, 92) b) Aortic valve closure
c) X d)VII c) Arterial expansion
1186. CSF in comparison to blood contains all d) Arterial turbulence
except- (AMU90, Delhi93) 1198. The normalA/G ratio blood is- (AP 89)
a) Lower calcium b) Lower chloride a) 5:1 b)2:1
c) Lower sodium d) Lower cells c) 1:2 d) 1:1
1175)c 1176)All 1177)a 1178)a 1179)b 1180)a 118l)a 1182)b 1183)e 1184)b 1185)a 1186)b 1187)d 1188)b
1189)None 1190)b 119l)a 1192)d 1193)c 1194)c 1195)b 1196)b 1197)d 1198)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.51 ]
1199. Linear velocity of blood at normal cardiac output 1208. Venoconstriction is exhibited by all except-
in the aorta is- (ROHTAK 88) a) Valsalva manoeuvre (Delhi 90)
a) 32 ems/sec. b) 64 ems/sec. b) Asphyxia
c) 8 ems/sec. d) 50 ems/sec. c) Haemorrhage
1200. Which one of the following is released by blood d) Lying down
platelets during haemorrhage to produce e) Carotid artery occlusion
vasoconstriction - (Orissa 91) 1209. Ventricular fibrillation- (JIPMER 79, DNB 91)
a) Serotonin b) Histamine a) Follows ventricular tachycardia
c) Thrombosthenin d) Accelerator globulin b) Associated with quick fall in cardiac output
e) Bradykinin c) Induced by alternating current
1201. Which one of the following statements about d) Induced by alternating current during vulnerable
lymphocytes is incorrect- (AIIMS 80, Kerala 89) phase
a) Produced by thymus, red bone marrow, spleen 1210. What does prevent blood loss after rupture of
and lymph nodes small blood vessel- (Orissa 91)
b) Concentration falls in the blood abruptly and a) Vasocontriction
immune reaction is disturbed after removal of b) Forrnationoffibrin threads
thymus in adult c) Formation of platelet plug
c) Probably change into plasma cells d) Production ofhaematoma to increase perivascular
d) Constitute 20-40% ofleukocytes pressure
e) Do not perform an importantphygocytic function e) All of the above
1202. What increases the stroke work done by left 1211. Work performed by the left ventricle is greater
ventricle- (AIIMS 79, DNB 91) than that performed by the right ventricle due to
a) Systemic hypertension difference in- (JIPMER 81, AMU 86)
b) Increased sympathetic tone in heart a) Blood velocity b) Stroke volume
c) Aortic stenosis c) Arterial pressures d) Atrial pressures
d) Aortic insufficiency 1212. Essential hypertension is generally assocaited
e) All of the above with an early increase in- (Bihar 89)
1203. Which one of the following statements concerning a) Oxygen use b) Coronary flow
the monocyte is incorrect- (JIPMER 80, Kerala89) c) Cardiac work d) Cardiac ouput
a) More common in blood than eosinophil and basophil 1213. A procoagulant not normally circulating in the
b) Produced in the adult by the bone marrow and plasma is- (AIL?v!S 80, AMC 85)
lymph nodes a) Prothrombin b) Fibrinogen
c) Unlike neutrophil does not accumulate outside c) Antithemophilic factor d) Factor V
circulation in area of inflammation: e) None of the above
d) Not classified as a granulocyte 1214. FibresofA-Vjunction- (JIPMER 79,AMU91)
1204. During B.P. measurement if the muffled sound a) Modified muscle fibres
does not disappear with return of mercury to '0' b) Medified nerve fibres
the conclusion is- (AIIMS 79, ROHTAK 86) c) Highly contactile
a) Aortic stenosis d) Conduct impulse rapidly
b) Low haematocrit 1215. The arterial pulse pressure in the femoral artery
c) Zero diastolic pressure is normally- (PG191)
d) Patent ductus arteriosus a) Less than the pulse pressure in the upper aorta
1205. Patient with anaemia tends to have all, except- b) Less than 20 rnm Hg
a) Compensatory increase in cardiac output c) Greater than the pulse pressure in the upper aorta
b) Increased incidence ofheart mumurs (AIIMS 84) d) Equal to the pressure in the upper aorta
c) Pallor of mucous membrane e) None of the above
d) A low P02 in arterial blood 1216. Macrophages are the mature form of- (PG182)
1206. Vascular distensibility is least for the following a) Neutrophils b) Eosinophils
vascular segment- (DNB 89) c) Basophils d) Monocytes
a) Pulmonary artery b) Systemic artery e) Lymphocytes
c) Systemic vein d) Pulmonary vein 1217. Absolute refractory period in heart- (AIIMS 79,
1207. Pulse pressure in a particular vessel is determined a) Lasts till cardiac contraction ROHTAK 91)
chietlyby- (Bihar 91) b) Longer than refractory period in skeletal muscle
a) Distance from heart c) A phase of cardiac cycle in which heart cannot
b) Frictional characteristics lumen be stimulaed by any amount of stimulus
c) Distensibility d) Corresponds with duration of action potential
d) Cross sectional area e) All of the above
1199)a 1200)a 1201)b 1202)e 1203)b,cl204)b 1205)d 1206)b 1207)c 1208)d 1209)a,b,d 12010)e 12ll)c
1212)a,c 1213)e 1214)a 1215)a 1216)d 1217)e
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.52]
1218. Turbulant blood flow is produced by- (Delhi 88) 1230. Velocity of blood flow is inversely proportional to-
a) Decreased velocity of circulation a) Viscosity b) Flow (AIIMS 86)
b) Decreased cardiac output c) Cross-sectional area d) Length
c) Decreased heamatocrit 1231. Major blood reservoirs of the body include all of the
d) All ofthe above following except- (AIIMS 87)
1219. First component of first heart sound is usually a) Throracic vena caca
clearly heard on ventral surface of chest b) Liver sinuses
c) Majorabdominal viens
at- (ROHTAK 91)
d) Venous plexus of the skin
a) 2"d intercostal space to right of sternum
e) Venous sinuses of the spleen
b) znd intercostal space to left of stemmum
1232. Viscosity of blood is----- times that of urine-
c) 5th intercostal space to left or sternum a) Same as ofECF (PG/81, AIIMS 82)
d) 5th intercostal space over sternum b) 10 times of urine
1220. The second heart sound differs from first heart c) 5-6 times more than of water
sound in that- (TN 92) d) 5-6 times less than of water
a) Is ocassionally split 1233. In brain ischaemia, systemic blood pressure
b) Has higher frequency rises, that of water- (AIIMS 8 6)
c) Duration greater than first sound a) Monro-Kellie b) Cushing reflex
d) Due partly to turbulence set up by valve closure c) Autoregulation d) White reaction
1221. A decrease in the velocity of impulse conduction 1234. Which of the following is wrongly matched about
through theA-V node will usually cause- ECGwavesandtheirduration- (UPSC 82)
a) The PQ interval to increase (AIIMS 79, a) Pwave-O.lOsec
b) The PQ inteval to decrease AMC 83) b) S wave- 0.04 sec
c) Disappearance of the T-wave c) QRScomplex-maxO.lOsec
d) Qwave-O.lOsec
d) Increased heart rate
1235. To prolong lee white clotting time in a patient for
e) Atrial fibrillation
the next eleven hours what would be the procedure
1222. For each 1° rise of temperature, cerebral blood
of choice- (PGI 93)
flow falls by- (PGI 79, DELHI 89)
a) IIV heparin b) IV sodium citrate
a) 1% b)2%
c) IVVitaminK d) Dicumarol therapy
c) 4% d)7%
1236. All of the following ions cause vasodilatation except-
1223. Weightlessness result in- (DELHI 85, DNB 89)
a) Mg b) K (JJPMER 80, AIIMS 83)
a) Decreased cardiac output b) Hypotension
c) ca++ d) Kinins
c) Gutmotility d) Osteoporosis
1224. Blood supply of liver in ml per minute is- 1237. The oxygen consumption of human brain is-
a) 800 b) 1200 (JIPMER 79, AIIMS 83) a) 1.0 mJ/lOOg brain/min (JJPMER 82)
c) 1500 d) 1800 b) 1.5 mJ/1 OOg brain/min
1225. First heart sound occurs during the period of- c) 3.5m11100gbrain/min
a) Isotonic relaxation (JIPMER 80) d) 5.0m11100gbrain/min
b) Isovolumetric relaxation 1238. The renal blood flow (in mJ/mt) is- (AIIMS 86)
c) Isovolumetric contraction a) 250 b)800
d) Isotonic contraction c) 1260 d) 1500
1226. For cardiac muscle, V max can be used as a 1239. Right and left vagus respectively go to- (PGI 84)
measure of- (AIIMS 86) a) SA node, AV node
a) Excitability b) Contractility b) AV node, SA node
c) Rhythmicity d) Conductivity c) AV node, bundle of His
1227. Oxygen consumption of whole human brain in d) SA node, bundle of His
m1/min is about- (PGI 90, DNB90) 1240. Bathmotropic effect is produced by- (PGI 88)
a) 29 b)35 a) Stimulation of vagus
c) 49 d)61 b) Nerves other than vagus
1228. Oxygen consumption of renal cortex and inner c) Atropine
medulla are mJ/1 00/min respectively- (AIIMS 83) d) Section of vagus
a)9,4 b)4,9 1241. Liver has the maximum 0 2 consumption (51ml mt)
c) 9,0,4 d)o,4,6 the next organ to have the maximum 0 2 oxygen (ml/
1229. Repolarization ofventrucular muscle- (DNB 86) mt) is - (AIIMS 85)
a) Occurs last at apex b) Begins in septum a) Heart b) Brain
c) Bigins in epicardium d) Begins at AV node c) Skeletal muscle d) Kidney
1218)c 1219)c 1220)b 1221)a 1222)c 1223)d 1224)c 1225)c 1226)b 1227)c 1228)None 1229)c 1230)c
1231)a 1232)c 1233)b 1234)d 1235)a 1236)a,c 1237)c 1238)c 1239)a 1240)b,c,d 1241)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.53]
1242. The average coronary blood flow in human being 1256. The purkinje fibres- (AIIMS 85)
at rest is ------- % of cardiac output- (PGI 83) a) Are myelinated axons
a) 4-5% b)5-10% b) Have a conduction velocity of about fives time
c) 10-15% d) 15-20% that seen in heart muscle
1243. The resistance of a blood vessel is 16 PRU. c) Have action potentials about a tenth as long as
doubling the vessel diameters would change the those in heart muscle
resistance to - (AIIMS 89) d) All of the above
a) 1PRU b)2PRU 1257. Baroreceptors mainly act through- (AIIMS 86)
c) 8PRU d) 12PRU a) Sympathetic system b) Parasympathetic system
1244. R-wave in healthy subjects denote a dipole with c) Cerebml cortex d) Blood volume
and electrical axis of- (AIIMS 84) 1258. In athletes bradycardia is because of-
a) (jl b) -60° a) Decreased sympathetic tone (DELHI 86, 88)
c) 6(jl d) 120° b) Increased vagal tone
1245. Severe hypoxia may produce- (PGI 81, AMU85) c) Cardiac output
a) Bprise b)Bpfall d) Low venous return
c) Fall followed by Bp rise d) No change 1259. All of the following factors in increase cardiac
1246. Respiratory quotient of cerebral tissue is-(AMC 86) output except- (AMC 83)
a) 0.75-0.95 b) 0.95-0.99 a) Pregnancy in late stages
c) 1.0-1.1 d) 1.1-1.2 b) Histamine
1247. Q-wave in healthy individual denotes a diploe in c) Eating
a) Apexwithaxisof180% (PGI82) d) Sitting from lying position
b) Base with axis of 80 % 1260. Plasma sodium concentration is- (Kerala 94)
c) Basewithaxisof60% a) 120meq/l b)3.5meq/l
d) Apex with axis of 60% c) 140meq/l d) llOmeq/1
1248. The organ with maximum 0 2 consumption per 1261. Arteriolar dialation is caused by the following
minute- (PGI 84, 87) except- (Karn 94)
a) Liver b) Bmin a) Decrease in adrenergic discharge
c) Skeletal muscle d) Heart b) Histamine
1249. Major part of total peripheral resistance is due c) Substance P
to- (DNB 89) d) Serotonin
a) Medium and small arteries b) Venules
1262. Tachycardia at the ouest of exercise is due to
c) Capillaries d) Arterioles
stimulation of- (JIPMER 95)
1250. Blood flow in ml/100glmin is maximum in-
a) Chemoreceptors b) Baroreceptors
a) Kidneys b) Liver (Jipmer 80, Delhi80)
c) Heart d) Skin c) Stretch receptors d) Joint proprioceptors
1251. Cardiac index in a normal person is- (TN 86) 1263. During exercise, blood flow does not decrease in
a) 2.1 b)3.2 a) Cutaneous circulation (AI 95)
c) 4.6 d)5.9 b) Hepatosplanchnic circulation
1252. Heart sound heard immediately before the first c) Coronary circulation
heart sound when atrial pressure is high- d) Renal circulation
a) First b) Second (AP 86) 1264. Mean life ofRBCs in trans used blood is- (AI 95)
c) Third d) Fourth a) 120 b)IOO
1253. Splanchnic vessels and venules contain what c) ro d) 35
percentage of blood volume- (AMC 86,87) 1265. Normal QRS interval is- (AI 96, AIJMS 84)
a) 10-20% b)20-30% a) 0.08-0.1 sec b)0.12-0.20sec
c) 40-50% d)60-70% c) 0.24-0.32 sec d) 0.05-0.08 sec
1254. Calculate the peripheral resistance ifis 5.4 Land 1266. Arterial 0 2 content is reduced in one of
BP 90 mm Hg- (DELHI 89) following- (AI 96)
a) 11 b) 12 a) Stagnant hypoxia b) Anemic hypoxia
c) 14 d) 16 c) Histotoxic hypoxia d) Ischemic hyopxia
1255. Coronary blood flow stops during- (DELHI 84, 89) 1267. Capillaries with tight junctions allowing the
a) Protodiastole passage of only small molecules are found in-
b) End of deastole a) Bmin b) Skin (Delhi 96)
c) Isometric relaxation c) Kidney d) Muscle
d) Isovo1umetric contraction
1242)a 1243)b 1244)c 1245)a 1246)b 1247)a 1248)a 1249)d 1250)a 125l)b 1252)d 1253)b 1254)d 1255)d
1256)b 1257)a 1258)b 1259)d 1260)c 1261)d 1262)d 1263)a,c 1264)d 1265)a 1266)b 1267)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.54]
1268. Venous return (VR) is given by formula- (Delhi 96) 1279. Carotid sinus afferents pass through- (MAHE 98)
a) VR=RVR-RAP a) IX nerve b) X nerve
MFSP c) V nerve d) VII nerve
b) VR =MFSP-RVR 1280. Carotid sinus stimulation would result in-
RAP a) Decreased vagal activity (MAHE 98)
c) VR=MFSP-RAP b) Increased heart rate
RVR c) Decreased sympathetic discharge to heart
d) None d) Increased vasomotor tone
1269. Most potent stimulus for vasoconstriction is- 1281. True statement regarding CSF is- (MAHE 98)
a) Cerebral hypoxia (Kerala 96) a) Daily production< 700 ml
b) Renal perfusion b) CSF analysis rules out active secretion as a cause
c) Cardiac Perfusion of formation of CSF
d) Skeletal muscle perfusion c) It flow from III ventricle to the IV ventricle
e) None of the above d) Produced only by choroid plexus
1270. For cerebral blood flow to be doubled, PC02 should 1282. Immune complexes are removed from blood by-
be- (PGI 95) a) B cell b) Basephil (MAHE 98)
a) 40mmHg b) 80mmHg c) Plasma cell d) Kupffer cell
c) lOOmgHg d)200mgHg 1283. Which one of the following is the correct sequence
1271. In which of the following is change of blood flow in increasing order of their basal blood supply
least during exercise - (CUPGEE 96) (ml/min/100g of tissue)- (ICS 98)
a) Brain b) Heart a) Heart, brain, kidney b) Brain, Kidney, Heart
c) Skeletal Muscle d) GIT c) Kidney, heart, brain d) Brain, Heart, Kidney
1272. Biconcave shape ofRBC's is helpful because- 1284. Pre-capillary sphincter relaxation is caused by-
a) Easily passage through capillaries (AP 96)
a) Local metabolites (AIIMS 98)
b) Circulating catecholamines
b) Rouleax formation
c) Sympathetic activity
c) Increased surface area for a given diameter
d) Fall in capillary pressure
d) None
1285. Repolarization in isolated muscle piece fibre
1273. TrueaboutRhfactor- (AP 96)
proceeds from- (PGI 98)
a) Has no naturally occurring antibody
a) Epicardium to endocardium
b) Seen only in humans
b) Endocardium to epicardium
c) Not important for blood transfusion
c) Left to right
d) None
d) Right to left
1274. Ejection fraction of the ventricle refers to the ratio
1286. Increased blood viscosity and slow circulation
of- (UP 97)
causes - (TN 99)
a) Amount ofblood received/amount ofblood ejected a) RBC rouleux formation
b) Stroke volume/end-diastolic volume b) Increased plasma skimming
c) End-systolic volume/end-diastolic volume c) Increased number ofRBC in capillaries
d) Stroke volume /end-systolic volume d) None
1275. Fastest conducting tissue in human heart- (TN 97) 1287. Maximum heart rate with exercise- (JIMPER 99)
a) AVnode b) SA node a) 120 b) 140
c) Bundle of His d) Purkinje fibres c) 160 d)200
1276. Increased blood flow in muscle during exercise is 1288. Most permeable capillaries- (JIPMER 99)
not because of- (AI 97) a) Post pituitary b) Liver
a) Low PH b) High Lactate c) Kidney d) Small intestine
c) High C02 d) LowP0 2 1289. Reperfusion injury is caused by- (PGI 99)
1277. Splanchnic circulation in vigorous activity is a) Vitamin E b) superoxide ion
affectedby- (A/97) c) Calcium ion d) Magnesium ion
a) Decrease blood supply due to vasoconstriction 1290. The cardiac output can be determined by all except-
b) Decrease blood supply due to venoconstriction a) Fick's principle b) V /Q ratio
c) Decrease capacitance with shunting of blood c) Echocardiography d) Thermodilution
. d) Increase capillary congestion 12 91. True about blood flow in various organs -
1278. All are increased during exercise except- (AP 97) a) Liver> Kidney> brain> heart (PGI 99)
a) Cardiac output b) Liver> brain> Kidney> heart
b) Venous return c) Kidney> brain> heart> liver
c) Coronary blood flow d) Liver> heart> brain> kidney
d) Peripheral vascular resistance
1268)c 1269)a 1270)b 1271)a 1272)a,c 1273)a 1274)b 1275)d 1276)None 1277)c 1278)d 1279)a 1280)c
1281)c 1282)d 1283)d 1284)a 1285)a 1286)a,c 1287)d 1288)c 1289)b 1290)b 1291)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.55 J
1292. NotavitKdependentfactor- (PGI98) 1307. Occlusion of common carotid artery on both sides
a) ll b)VII leads to- (TN 2002)
c) IX d)XII a) Increase in HR & BP
1293. Activity of factor VIII procoagulant is deficient b) Increase in BP& decrease in HR
in- (PGI98) c) Decrease in HR & BP
a) Haemophilia b) Von Willibrand's disease d) No effect on BP & HR
c) ITP d) Sickle cell anemia 1308. Antigen presenting cells are specialised cells
1294. Helper and cytotoxic cells belong to- (PGJ 97) presention all of the following except- (TN 2002)
a) T cells b) B cells a) Skin b) Lymph node
c) Monocytes d) Macrophages c) Spleen d) Kidney
1295. Maximum surface area is present in- (Jipmer 90 1309. Physiological changes during severe exercise are
a) Capillary b) Arterioles Burdwan 2K) a) Hyperventilation in the beginning (PGJ 03)
c) Artery d) Vein b) Hyperkalemia c) J.edPa02
1296. Hypovolemic shock is characterised by all of the d) !edPaC02 e)ledH2C03
following except- (Kerala 2K) 1310. Central lymphoid organs are- (PGI 03)
a) Hypotension b) Cold and clammy skin a) Bone Marrow b) Lymph node
c) Intense thirst d) Tachycardia c) Thymus d) Spleen
e) Inhibition ofrespiration e) Tonsil
1297. If an unacclatimised person is suddenly exposed 1311. Function oflymphatics- (PGI 02)
to cold atmosphere, change seen are- (AIIMS OJ) a) Increase oncotic pressure
a) Increase in systolic BP b) Carries protein
b) Shift of blood from shell to core c) Immunocompetent cells
c) Non-thermogenic shivering d) Fat absorption
d) Tachycardia e) Preventive role in infection
1298. Nitric oxide is produced in - (PGI 2K) 1312. What is true ofiron- (PGI 2000)
a) Endothelium b) Plasma a) It is stored in ferritin
c) Platelets d) Serum b) It is absorbed by Transferrin in the intestine
1299. Ejection fraction increase witb- (DNB 2001) c) Spleen is major storage organ
a) End systolic volume d) Fe+~- is excreted in urine
b) End diastolic volume 1313. In a patient with a transplanted heart which of
c) Peripheral vasculalr resistance these are the reasons for increased cardiac output
d) Venodilation during exercise- (PGI 02)
1300. CSFproduction per minute- (SCTJMS 2K) a) Reinnervation of transplanted heart by vagus
a) 0.30-0.35 ml/min b) 0.5 ml/min b) Intrinsic mechanism
c) 2 ml/min d) 1 ml/min c) Epinephrine from medulla
1301. CSF pressure Qumbar)- (SCTIMS 2K) d) Bainbridge reflex
a) 70-180mmCSF b)50-100mmCSF e) Frank-Starlingmechanism
c) >200mmCSF d) 150-200mmCSF 1314. Pressure on carotid sinus cause- (PGJ 99)
1302. Volume of CSF is about- (SCTIMS 2K, PGI 85) a) Hyperapnea b) Reflex bradycardia
a) 50ml b) lOOml c) Tachycardia d) Dyspnea
c) 150ml d)200ml 1315. Blood pressure is defined as the product of-
1303. Below--- pressure, CSF absorption stops- a) Systolic pressure x pulse (PGI 98)
a) 60mmCSF b)68mmCSF (SCTIMS2K) b) Diastolic pressure x pulse rate
c) 80mmCSF d)50mmCSF c) Pulse pressure x pulse rate
1304. All the following are more in CSF compared to d) Cardiac output x peripheral resistance
plasma except- (SCTIMS 2K) 1316. In exercising muscle; true about metabolism
a) Mg b)Cl is- (PGI 98)
c) HC03 d) Glucose a) Same in aerobic and anaerobic
1305. Carotid body baroreceptor is most sensitive to- b) Fatty acids used mainly
a) Mean blood pressure (JJPMER 2001) c) Glycogen and creatine kinase used aerobically
b) Diastolic blood pressure d) All of the above
c) Systolic blood pressure 1317. Volume determining preload is- (PGI 98, AI 93)
d) Pulse pressure a) End diastolic volume of ventricles
1306. Blood flow through a vessel varies directly b) End systolic volume
with- (Kerala2001) c) Volume ofblood in aorta
a) Resistance b) Viscosity d) Ventricular ejection volume
c) Pressure of difference d) Length of vessel
1292)d 1293)a 1294)a 1295)a 1296)e 1297)b 1298)a 1299)b 1300)a 1301)a 1302)c 1303)b 1304)d 1305)a
1306)c 1307)a 1308)d 1309)a,b,d 13IO)a,c 1311)b,d,e 1312)a 1313)c 1314)b 1315)d 1316)c 1317)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.58]
1318. Cardiac index ratio is determined by- (PG/97) 1331. Endothelial derived relaxing factor include all
a) CO & surface area b) SV & surface area except- (Manipal 04)
c) Surface area only d) Peripheral resistance a) Deficiency presents as systemic hypertension
1319. Main site of peripheral vascular resistance is - b) Vasodilator
a) Pre-Capillary arterioles (Jipmer 04) c) Arises from arginine
b) Pre-Capillary sphincters d) Acts through adenyl cyclase
c) Capillaries 1332. In erythropoiesis- (Kerala 04)
d) Wind kessel vessels a) Size of the cells increases in subsequent stages
1320. Choose the right statement regarding red blood b) Haemolobin appears at early normoblast stage
c) Mitosis occurs in late normoblast at the fastest
cell physiology- (SGPGI 04)
rate
a) Erythropoietin is primarily produced in spleen
d) Folic acid is useful as a maturation factor
b) Mature red cell do not have ribosomes
1333. The pacemaker potential is due to- (Jipmer 03)
c) Haemoglobin has 3 pairs of polypeptide chains
a) Fast Na+ channel
d) 2,3 diphosphoglycerate cleaves haemoglobin b) Decrease inK+ permeability
into 3 fragments c) SlowCa++channel
1321. The pressure-volume curve is shifted to the left d) Rapid repo larisation
in- (AIIMS04) 1334. Two students, Vincent and Kamlesh were asked to
a) Mitral regurgitation b) Aortic regurgitation demonstrate in dogs the role of sinus nerve in
c) Mitral stenosis d) Aortic stenosis hypovolumic shock. Vincent severed the sinus nerve
1322. In which Hb iron is in Fe3+ form- (Kerala 03) when the mean blood pressure (MBP) was 85 mm
a) HbF b) HbA2 Hg and Kamlesh cut the sinus nerve when the mean
c) Hb gower d) Meth HB blood pressure was 60 mm Hg. On cutting the sinus
1323. During blood clotting, the conversion of nerve- (AI03)
fibrinogen to fibrin is catalysed by-(Kamataka 02) a) Vincent recorded the increasesin MBP but
a) Thrombin b) Thromboplastin Kamlesh recorded a decrease in MBP
c) Stuart-Power factor d) Proconvertin b) Vincent recorded a decrease in MBP but Kamlesh
1324. The type of hemoglobin without a-chain is- (TN 03) recorded an increase in MBP
a) Gower-1 b)Fetalhemoglobin c) Both recorded an increase in MBP
c) Hemoglobin d) Gower-2 d) Both recorded a decrease in MBP
1325. Bernoulli's principle states- (TN 03) 1335. Cardiac output measured by thermodilution
a) Sum ofkinetic energy of flow and pressure energy technique is unreliable in all of the following
is constant situations except- (AI 03)
b) Low tones producing maximal stimulation at apex a) Ventricular septal defect
b) Tricuspid regurgitation
of cochlea
c) Low cardiac output
c) Magnitude of the sensation felt is proportionate
d) Pulmonary regurgitation
to the intensity of stimulus
1336. As a part of space-research program, a physiologist
d) Force of contraction is proportional to the stretch was asked to investigate the effect of flight induced
of cardiac muscle stress on blood pressure. Accordingly, the blood
1326. Laminal flow is dependent on- (TN 03) pressure of the cosmonauts were to be measured
a) Critical velocity b) Viscosity twice: once before the take-off and once after teh
c) Constant velocity d) Critical closing pressure spacecraft entered the designated orbit around the
1327. AVnodaldelayis- (Orissa04) earth. For a proper comparison, the preflight blood
a) 0.2 sec b)O.l3 sec pressure should be recorded in- (AI 03)
c) O.Olsec d) 0.3 sec a) The lying down position
1328. Amount of coronary flow per minute is -(Orissa 04) b) The sitting position
a) 225ml b)300ml c) The standing position
c) 50ml d)300ml d) Any position as long as the post- flight recording
1329. Cardiac output= Slit/min. BSA = 1.7 m 2, calculate is made in the same position
the cardiac index- (PGI 04) 133 7. Calcium enters the cardiac cell during- (Karn 03)
a) 511m2 b)4.8 a) Rapid upstroke of the action potential
~3D ~3~ b) Down slope of the action potential
1330. Bilateral occlusion of carotids causes -(Manipal 04) c) Plateau phase ofthe action potential
a) tBP&tHR b)iBP& iHR d) Slow diastolic depolarization (phase 4) of the
iBP&tHR tBP&iHR action potential
1318)a 1319)a 1320)b 132l)d 1322)d 1323)a 1324)a 1325)a 1326)a,b1327)b 1328)a 1329)c 1330)b 1331)d
1332) d 1333) b 1334) c 1335) a,d 1336) a 1337) c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.57]
1338. Most potent Chemoattractent for neutrophils is b) Activation of parts of the apex of the heart are
dueto- (SGPG/05) abnormal
a) IL- 1 b) IL 6 c) There has been cardiac depression
c) IL-8 d)IL-2 d) There are no indications of cardiac abnormalities
133 9. Factors involved in intrinsic pathway are all except- 1348. Dicumarol is a drug that impairs the utilization
a) VJI b)VIII (SGPG/05) of vitamin K by the liver. Dicumarol therapy,
c) IX d)XII therefore, would decrease the plasma concentration
1340. ThromboxaneA. is produced mainly by- (SGPGI of which ofthe following procoagulants-
a) Vascularendothelium b)Platelets 05,A/95) a) Prothrombin (MAHA 05)
c) Liver d) Damaged tissue b) Fibrinogen
1341. In a standard Electrocardiogram, an augmented limb c) Antihemophillic factor (factor VIII)
lead measures the electrical potential difference d) Ac-globulin (factor V)
between- (Corned 05) 1349. Which of the following situations will lead to
a) Twolimbs increased viscosity of blood- (AIIMS NOV 05)
b) One limb and two other limbs a) Fasting state b) Hypoglycemia
c) One limb and neutral (Zero) c) Multiple myeloma d) Amyloidogenesis
d) Two limbs and two other limbs 1350. Distribution of blood flow in mainly regulated by
1342. Carotid sinus massage sometimes stops the- (AI 05)
supraventricular tachycardia because- (Corned 05) a) Arteries b) Arterioles
a) It decrease sympathetic discharge to SA node c) Capillaries d) Venules
b) It decrease vagal discharge to the conducting 1351. All ofthe following factors normally increase the
tissue between the atria and the ventricles length of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers
c) It decreases sympathetic discharge to the conducting except- (A/05)
a) Increased venous tone
tussue between the atria and the ventricles
b) Increased total blood volume
1343. Blood pressure in right ventricle- (MAHE 05)
c) Increased negative intrathoracic pressure
a) 25nnnHg b)80mmHg
d) Lying to standing change in posture
c) 95 nnnHg d) 120 mmHg
1352. S.A. node acts as a pacemaker ofthe heart because
1344. A 59 year old man complains of recurrent of pain
of the factthatit- (AI 05)
in the region ofleft shoulder radiating to sternum
a) Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously
stomach. The attacks of pain came at lengthy
b) Has rich sympathetic innervations
intervals until the two days when it became
c) Has poor cholinergic innervations
continuous. The physician diagnosed it as angina
d) Generates impulses at the highest rate
pectoris. In this case tbe pain pathway from the
1353. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in- (AI 05)
heart is carried by- (Jiprner 05) a) Kidney b) Liver
a) Superior cervical cardiac nerve c) Spleen d) Bone marrow
b) Middle and inferior cervical cardiac nerve 1354. The ECG of a 40 year old male was recorded
c) Thoracic splanchnic nerve using standard bipolar limb leads. The sum of
d) Vagus voltages of the three standard leads was found to
1345. A patient exhibits swelling of the ankles and a be 5 millivots. This indicates- (AIIMSMay 05)
bloated abdomen and has a history of malnutrition. a) A normal heart
The bloated abdomen is probable caused by- b) Right ventricular hypertrophy
a) Increased intestinal gas (MAHE 05) c) Left ventricular hypertrophy
b) Slow, chronic abdominal hemorrhage d) Increased cardiac muscle mass
c) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure 1355. The velocity of blood is maximum in the-
d) Decreased capillary colloid osmotic pressure a) Large veins b) Small veins (AI/MSMay 05)
1346. Baroreceptor stimulation produces- c) Venules d) Capillaries
a) Decreased heart rate & BP (PGI June 05) 1356. Which of the following methods is not used for
b) Increased heart rate & BP measurement of body fluid volumes-
c) Increased cardiac contractility a) Antipyrine for total body water (AI/MS May 05)
d) Decreased cardiac contractility b) Insulin for extracellular fluid
1347. A patient was admitted to the hospital, and ECG c) Evans blue for plasma volume
lead III was recorded. It was found to contain no d) 1251-albumin for blood volume
S wave. The P, R, and T waves appeared normal. 1357. Which one of the following is not a transport or
What conclusions can you draw- (MAHA 05) bindingprotein- (Al/MSMay05)
a) Activation of parts of the base of the heart are a) Erythropoietin b) Ceruloplasmin
abnormal c) Lactoferrin d) Transferrin
1338) c 1339) a 1340) b 1341) b 1342) c 1343) a 1344) b 1345) d 1346) a,d 1347) d 1348) a 1349) c 1350) b 1351) d
1352)d 1353)c 1354)d 1355)a 1356)d 1357)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.58]
1358. A pilot in Sukhol aircraft is experiencing negative the arterial line pressure compare with the true
G. Which of the following physiological events blood pressure- (Comed 07)
will manifest in such situation - (AI 06) a) It willbe 20 mm Hg higher
a) The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb b) It will be 15 mm Hg higher
increases c) It will be the same
b) The cardiac output decreases d) It will be 15 mm Hg lower
c) Black out occurs 1367. Von \Villebrand factor is produced hy- (Comed 07)
d) The cerebral arterial pressure rises a) Liver b) Platelets
1359. All of the following inflammatory mediators c) Endothelial cells d) Spleen
produce vasoconstriction except- 1368. The ECG change seen in hyerkalemia is-
a) Leukotrienes b) Bradykinin a) Narrowing of the QRS complex (Comed 08)
c) ThromboxaneA2 d) Platelet activating factor b) Increased amplitude ofP waves
1360. Which ofthe following is expected to increase in c) Narrowing and peaking ofT waves
response to haemorrhage- (HP 2006) d) Prominent U waves
a) Arteriolar diameter in skeletal muscle 1369. Which one of the following causes of hypoxemia is
b) Sympathetic activity NOT corrected by giving supplemental oxygen-
c) Sodium excretion a) Ventilation perfusion mismatch (Comed 08)
d) Water excretion b) Alveolar hypo ventilation
1361. Poiseuille's law is- (PGMCET07) c) Impairment of diffusion
d) Right to left shunt
1tr4
a) F=(PA PB)- 1370. The substance that is present in both serum and
1
Sn plasma is- (AI 07)
1tr4 a) Fibrinogen b) Factor VII
b) F =(PAX PB)-I c)FactorV d)Factorll
Sn 1371. Site ofRBC formation in 20 year old healthy male
1tr4 is- (AI 07)
c) F=(PA+PB)- a) Flat bones b) Long bones
Sn 1
4
c) Liver d) Yolk sac
F (PAIPB)~ 1372. Which of the following is true about fourth heart
d) 8nl sound '84'- (AI 07)
a) Can be heard by the unaided ear
1362. Laplace's law, all except- (PGMCET 07)
b) Frequency is greater than 20 Hz
a) P=T/r b)P=2T/r c) Heard during ventricular filling phase
c) T=Pr/w d)T=WP/r d) Heard during ventricular ejection phase
1363. Plateau phase of cardiac muscle is due to- 1373. Heart muscle, true are all except- (AI 07)
a) East Na+ channel opening (PGMCET07, a) Act as syncitiurn b) Has multiple nuclei
b) OpeaningofCa++Na+channels Jipmer95) c) Has gap junctions d) Has branching
c) Opening of Slow ca++ channels 1374. True regarding endothelin-1 are all except-
d) Opening ofK+ channels a) Bronchodilatation (Aiims May 07)
1364. Which one ofthe following is a potent stimulus for b) Vasoconstriction
the production of erythropoietin- (UPSC 07) c) Decreased GFR
a) Alpha interferon b) Interleukin- 3 d) Has inotropic effect
c) Hypoxia d) Hypercarbia 1375. True about blood pressure measurement is all/
1365. The fourth heart sound is caused by- except- (Aiims May 07)
a) Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves a) Cuff width should be 40% of arm circumference
b) Vibrations in the ventricular wall during systole b) Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fourth
c) Ventricular filling (Comed 07, Karn 04) Korotkoff sound
d) Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves c) Small cuff measures spuriously elevated Diastolic
1366. A 78-year-old patient is anaesthetized for resection blood pressure
of a liver tumour. After induction and tracheal d) Monkenberg sclerosis causes pseudohypertension
intubation, a 20 guage arterial line is placed and 1376. In isometric exercise all are increased except-
a) Heart rate (Aiims May 07)
connected to a transducer which is located 20 em
b) Cardiac output
below the level of heart. The system is zeroed at
c) Mean arterial pressure
the stopcock located at the wrist while the patient's
d) Systemic vascular resistance
arm is stretched out on an arm board. How will
1358)d 1359)b 1360)b 136l)a 1362)d 1363)c 1364)c 1365)c 1366)c 1367)c 1368)c 1369)d 1370)b 137l)a
1372)c 1373)b 1374)a 1375)b 1376)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.59]
1377. Which of the following does not occur as the blood 1386. Function of the blood plasma are all except-
passes through systemic capillaries-(PGMCET 07 a) Transport hormones (UP 08)
Maharashtra 07, AJIMS Nov 07) b) Transport oxygen
a) Increased protein content c) Transport antibodies
b) Shift ofhemoglobin dissociation curve to left d) Transport chylomicrons
c) Increased hematocrit 1387. Conversion of Prothrombin to thrombin requires-
d) Decreased pH a) Ca* b) Va, Ca* (UP 08)
13 78. Atrial natriuretic polypeptide (ANP) acts by- c) V, X, Ca* d) X, V, XII, & Ca++
a) Decreasing aldosterone production (MAHE 07) 1388. Albumin exerting high oucotic pressure
b) Decreasing sodium reabsorption from renal because- (UP 08)
tubules a) High molecular weight and low concentration
c) Inhibiting release of renin b) Low molecular weight and high concentration
d) All of the above c) High molecular weight and High concentration
1379. QRScomplexisdueto- (UP07) d) Low molecular weight and Low concentration
a) Ventricular repolarization 1389. Which ofthe following has high molecular weight
b) Ventricular depolarization and possess no role in transport mechanism is-
c) Atrial repolarization a) Albumin b) Alpha- globulin (UP 08)
d) Atrial depolarization c) Beta globulin d) Fibrinogen
1380. True about cardiac 0 2 demand is- (AIIMS Nov 07) 1390. Decrease in contributing factor in chronic
a) Directly proportional to mean arterial pressure hypertension is associated with- (UP 08)
b) Inversely proportional to heart rate a) Aldosterone b) Angiotensin II
c) Inversely proportional to cardiac work c) Nitric oxide d) Reduced sympathetic nerve
d) Has a constant relation to the external work done 1391. Slowest conduction of velocity occurs in- (UP 08)
by the heart a) Atrial muscle b) A.V. node
1381. Following change is noted during exercise- c) Purkinje fibre d) Ventricular muscles
a) Blood flow to brain increases with increase in mean 1392. Largest% of blood volume in- (UP 08)
systolic blood pressure (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Aorta b) Artery I Arterioles
b) Body temperature increases c) Venules I Veins d) Capillaries
c) Lymphatic flow from muscle decreases 1393. Lewis triple response is mediated by- (AI 08)
d) Blood flow to muscles increase after half a minute a) Histamine b)Axonreflex
1382. In a normal person which of the following occurs c) Injury to endothelium d) None of the above
when he changes to supine position from standing- 1394. Which of the following coagulation factors causes
a) Cerebral perfusion increases (A/IMS Nov 07) cross linking and stabilization of clot- (AI 08)
b) Heart rate settles to a higher level a) Factor XIII b) Thrombin
c) Immediate increase in venous return c) Factor VIII d) Factor IX
d) Decreased perfusion to the apex 1395. The blood within the vessels does not clot normally
1383. Changes in blood passing through the systemic because- (AI 08)
capillaries are all except- (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma
a) Increase in hematocrit b) Thrombiri has a positive feedback on plasminogen
b) pH decreases c) Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions
c) Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left. d) Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with
d) Increase in protein content glycocalyx
1384. Which of the following is not true about CSF- 1396. The blood pressure measured by a
a) Removal of CSF during dural tap causes intense sphygmomanometer- (AI 08)
intracranial headache (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Is lower than the intraarterial pressure
b) Normally contain no neutrophils b) Is higher than the intraarterial pressure
c) Formed by arachnoid villi within the ventricles c) Is same as the intraarterial pressure
d) pH less than that of plasma d) Is the same with different cuff sizes
1385. All are true about nitric oxide except- 1397. Which of the following statement is least correct-
a) Acts through cAMP (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Vagal stimulation decreases rate of contraction
b) Helps to regulate vascular tone b) Noradrenaline increases force of contraction
c) Important role in penile erection c) Denervated heart has more heart rate (AI 08)
d) Present in low concentration in cigarette smokers d) During Exercise systole is shortened more than
diastole
1377)b 1378)d 1379)b l380)a l38l)b l382)c 1383)c 1384)c l385)a 1386)b 1387)b 1388)b 1389)d 1390)c
139l)b 1392)c 1393)a 1394)a 1395)d 1396)b 1397)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.60]
1398. Which of the following statements regarding the c) Hypercarbia shifts curve to left
flow oflymph from lower limb is true- (AI 08) d) Acidosis shifts curve to left
a) ted with change from supine to standing position e) Left shift cause more 0 release to tissue
b) ..J, ed in increased capillary permeability 1410. About CSF following stat~ment (s) is/are true -
c) ..J, ed in deep vein valve incompetence a) Specific gravity is 1.003-1.0008 (PGI Dec 08)
d) t ed by massage of foot b) Specific gravity is 1.0003-1.0008
1399. What is the effect of moderate exercise on cerebral c) TotalvolumeofCSFis 150ml
blood flow? (AI 08) d) Daily production is 550 mVday
a) Does not change e) Dailyproductionis 1500mVday
b) Increases 1411. Mean circulatory filling pressure is?
c) Decreases
a) Difference between systemic and pulmonary
d) Intially increases and then decreases
arterial pressure (AIIMS Nov 08)
1400. In standing position, Venous return to heart from
b) Difference between central venous pressure and
lower limbs is affected by all of the following except-
a) Competant valves (Aiims May 08) central arterial pressure
b) Deep fascia c) Mean atrial pressure
c) Arterial pressure d) Arterial pressure taken at the point when heart
d) Contraction of calf muscles stops beating
1401. Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all except- 1412. Vagal stimulation of the heart causes-
a) Blood pressure (Aiims May 08) a) Increased heart rate (AIIMS Nov 08)
b) Arterial PCO2 b) Increased R-R interval in ECG
c) Potassium ions c) Increased force of heart contraction
d) Cerebral metabolic rate d) Increased cardiac output
1402. CSF pressure is mainly regulated by- 1413. CSF pressure is mainly regulated by-(AIIMS Nov 08)
a) Rate ofCSF formation (Aiims May 08) a) Rate ofCSF formation b)RateofCSF absorption
b) Rate ofCSF absorption c) Cerebral blood flow d) Venous pressure
c) Cerebral blood flow 1414. The oxygen - hemoglobin dissociation curve is
d) Venous pressure sigmoid because- (AI 09)
1403. Stroke volume is less than 50% of the end diastolic a) Binding of one oxygen molecule increases the
volume is seen in - (PGI June 08) affinity ofbinding other 0 2 molecules
a) CHF b) Binding of one oxygen molecule decrease the
b) Acute coronary syndrome affinity ofbinding other 0 2 molecules
c) Increased systemic arterial pressure c) Oxygen affinity of Hemoglobin decreases when
d) ACE inhibitor therapy the pH of blood falls
e) Cardiomyopathy
d) Binding of oxygen to Hemoglobin reduces the
1404. Turbulence ofblood flow increases when -(Manipal 08)
affmity ofHb for C0 2
a) Viscosity b) Diameter ofblood vessel..!,
1415. An increase in the concentration of 2 - 3
c) Density ..J, d) Straight arteries
1405. The duration of atrial systole is- (DPGEE 08) Biphosphoglycerate (2, 3 DPG) may be seen in all of
a) 0.80 second b) 0.57 second the following except- (AI 09)
c) 0.11 second d) 0.44 second a) Anemia b)Hypoxia
1406. The conduction velocity is maximum in-(DPGEE 08) c) Inosine d) Hypoxanthine
a) SAnode b)AVnode 1416. Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to
c) Bundle of his d) Purkinje fibres following changes in blood- (AI 09)
1407. During exercise, blood flow to brain is- a) tPC02 b)..I,PC02
a) Decreased (DPGEE 08) c) tw d)tP02
b) Increased 1417. The primary direct stimulus for excitation of central
c) Unaltered chemoreceptors is- (AI 09)
d) Initially increased and then decreases a) tw b)tco2
1408. Blood flow to brain is not influenced by? (APPG 08) c) to2 d)..J,co2
a) PaC02 b) P02 1418. During diastole, the arterial pressure is maintained
c) Cerebral circulation d) Systemic circulation by- (A/09)
1409. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true a) Elastic recoil of aorta
about Hb/02 dissociation curve- (PGI Dec 08) b) Musculature of arteries
a) Foetal Hb shift curve to left c) Constriction of capillaries
b) Hypothermia shifts curve to left Contraction ofleft ventricle
1398)d>A 1399)a 1400)c 140l)c 1402)b 1403)a,b,c,e 1404)b 1405)c 1406)d 1407)c 1408)b 1409)a,b
1410)a,c,d 141l)d 1412)b 1413)b 1414)a 1415)d 1416)a 1417)a 1418)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.61 ]
1419. Cyanosis does not occur in severe anemia because - 1429. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to left
a) Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin production in - (Corned 09)
b) Oxygen carrying capacity of available Hb is a) Metabolic acidosis b) Hyper apnoea
increased (AI 09) c) Hypothermia d) Increased2-3 DPG levels
c) Critical concentration ofHb required to produce 1430. Von Willebrand factor is produced by -(COMED 09)
cyanosis is reduced a) Liver b) Platelets
d) Oxygen Hemoglobin curve shift to the right c) Endothelial cells d) Spleen
1420. Which ofthe following is not involved in intrinsic 1431. The positive chronotropic action of epinephrine is
pathway? (AI 09) due to all of the following effecs on cardiac action
a) FactorXII b)FactorXI
potential, except- (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
c) FactoriX d)FactorVII
a) Increase in the rate of rise of phase zero
1421. Which ofthe following helps in bridging the fibrin
b) Increase in the rate ofrepolarization in phase one
in a clot and stabilizes the clot? (AI 09)
c) Shortening of phase two
a) FactorXIII b)FactorV
c) Factor VIII d) Factor III d) Increase in the rate of repo larization ofphase three
1422. When a person changes position from standing to 1432. Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex prevents
lying down, following change is seen- (AI 09) clotting because- (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
a) Heart rate increases a) Thrombomodulin inhibits prothrombin activator
b) Venous return to heart increases immediately b) Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex activities an
c) Cerebral blood flow increases tithrombin III
d) Blood flow at apices of lung decreases c) The binding of thrombomodulin with thrombin
1423. The main cause ofincreased blood tlow to exercising removes thrombin and also activities a plasma
muscles is - (AI 09) protein C which inactivates activated factors V &
a) Raised blood pressure VIII
b) Vasodilatation due to local metabolites d) Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex activates
c) Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral heparin
vessels 1433. Which of the following is not a measure of stroke
d) Increased heart rate volume? (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
1424. Which of the following statements about cutaneous a) Left ventricular end diastolic volume minus left
shunt vessels is true- (AI 09) ventricular end systolic volume
a) Perform nutritive function b) Ejection fraction times left ventricular end diastolic
b) Have role in thermoregulation volume
c) Not under the control of autonomic nervous system c) Ejection fraction times cardiac output
d) These vessels are evenly distributed throughout d) Cardiac output/heart rate
the skin 1434. On decreasing the alveolar ventilation to half of the
1425. Fetal hemoglobin has higher affinity for oxygen due normal, what will be the change in PaC02 ?
to - (AIIMS May 09) a) PaC0 2 double immediately (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
a) Decreased 2, 3 DPG concentration b) PaC0 2 halves immediately
b) Reduced pH c) PaC0 2 doubles over next several minutes
c) Increased release of carbon dioxide d) PaC0 2 halves over next several minutes
d) Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to right 1435. Platelets contribute to clot retraction by the
1426. During first 3-4 month of gestation erthrocytes are following mechanisms except -(DELHI PG Mar. 09)
formed by- (PGI June 09) a) By release of fibrin stabilizing factor
a) Yolksac b)Liver b) By activation ofthrombosthenin, actin and myosin
c) Spleen d) Bone marrow c) By release of Ca+ ions form its mitochondria
e) Thymus d) By activation offactor XIII
1427. The cell which forms blood-testis barrier is- 1436. Which of the following is not true about bone marrow
a) Spermatogonia (Corned 09) derived stem cells? (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
b) Primary spermatocyte a) A subset of bone marrow derived stem cells
c) Leydig cell circulate in peripheral blood
d) Sertoli cell b) Hematopoeisis occurs in marrow because of its
1428. The basis of Korotkoff sound is related to- specialized environment
a) Aortic valve closure (Corned 09) c) Hematopoeisis occurs in marrow as stem cells are
b) Production of heart sound restricted to the marrow
c) Arterial turbulence d) Bone marrow transplantation is done by infusing
d) Arterial valve expansion donor stem cells into peripheral blood
1419)c 1420)d 1421)a 1422)b 1423)b 1424)b 1425)a 1426)b,c 1427)d 1428)c 1429)c 1430)c 1431)c 1432)c
1433)c 1434)c 1435)d 1436)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.62]
1437. 0 2 (oxygen) dissociation curve is shifted to rightin 1447. At what stage of erythropoiesis does Hemoglobin
thefollowingEXCEPT- (UPSC-ll 09) appear? (DPG 10)
a) Rise in temperature b) Hypercapnia a) Reticulocyte
c) Riased 2, 3 DPG level d) Metabolic alkalosis b) Intermediate normoblast
1438. Myocardial oxygen demand depend upon- c) Early normoblast
a) Preload (PGI Nov 09) d) Erythroblast
b) After load 1448. Which one of the following is released by blood
c) Intramyocardial tension
platelets during haemorrhage to prod nee
d) Myocardial muscle mass
vasoconstriction? (DPG 10)
e) Blood Hb concentration
1439. Memory cells doesn't undergo apoptosis due to a) Serotonin b) Histamine
presence of which growth factor- (AIIMS Nov 09) c) Thrombosthenin d)Bradykinin
a) Platelet derived growth factor 1449. A patient was admitted to the hospital and ECG lead
b) Nerve growth factor m was recorded. It was found to contain no S wave.
c) Insulin like growth factor The P, R and T waves appeared normal. What
d) Fibroblast growth factor conclusions can you draw? (DPG 10)
1440. The main cause ofincreased blood fiowto exercising a) Activation of parts of the base of the heart are
muscles is - (AIIMS May 10) abnormal
a) Raised blood pressure b) Activation of parts of the apex of the heart are
b) Vasodilatation due to local metabolites abnormal
c) Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels c) There has been cardiac depression
d) Increased heart rate d) There are no indications of cardiac abnormalities
1441. Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors include- 1450. Which of the following does not occur as the blood
a) II and III b) IX and X (AI 10) passes through systemic capillaries?
c) III and V d) VIII and XII a) Increased hematocrit (Maharashtra 10)
1442. During heavy exercise the cardiac output (CO) b) Increased protein content
increases upto five fold while pulmonary arterial c) Shift of Hemoglobin dissociation curve to left
pressure rises very little. This physiological ability d) Decreased pH
of the puhnonary circulation is best explained by- 1451. Low pressure receptors that play role in Minimal
a) Increase in the number of open capillaries arterial pressure changes, due to volume changes
b) Sympathetically mediated greater distensibility of are located in- (Maharashtra 10)
pulmonary vessels (AI 10) a) LeftAtriurn b) RightAtriurn
c) Large amount of smooth muscle in pulmonary c) Puhnonary arteries d) All of above
arterioles 1452. In coagulation pathway,
d) Smaller surface area of puhnonary circulation "FffiRINSTABILIZINGFACTOR" is-
1443. Venous return to heart during quiet standing is a) Factor XII (Maharashtra 10)
facilitated hy all of the following factors, except-
b) Factor XIII
a) Calf muscle contraction during standing (AI 10)
c) High Molecular Weight Kinimogen (HMWK)
b) Valves in perforators
d) Factor IX
c) Sleeves of deep fascia
1453. Which of the following required for iron absorption
d) Gravitational increase in arterial pressure
is synthesized in liver and transported to intestine
1444. During cardiac imaging the phase of minimum
by secretion through bile? (Maharashtra 10)
motionofheartis- (AI 10)
a) Apoferitin b) Apotransferrin
a) Late systole b) Mid systole
c) Transferin d) All of the above
c) Late diastole d) Mid diastole
1445. All of the following statements about bronchial 1454. Which ofthe following is not true about "Laplace
circulation are true, except- (AI 10) Law"? (Maharashtra 10)
a) Contribute 2% of systemic circulation a) T Pr/W b)P 2T/r
b) Contribute to gaseous exchange c)P=T/r d)p=T/W
c) Cause venous admixing ofblood 1455. Relation between current, electromotive forces and
d) Provide nutritive function to lung resistance in a circuit by Ohm's law is stated as-
1446. Low CSF protein may be seen in all of the following a) i = E/R b) i = RIB (Maharashtra 10)
conditions,except- (AI 10) c) i =RE d) All of the above
a) Recurrent lumbar puncture 1456. A Patient with increased BP and decreased heart
b) Hypothyroidism rate is likely to have- (PGI Nov. 10)
c) Pseudotumor cerebri a) Increased ICT b) Deep sea diving
d) Infants c) Brain tumor d) Head tumor
1437)d 1438)All 1439)b 1440)b 1441)b 1442)a 1443)d l444)d 1445)b 1446)b 1447)b 1448)a 1449)d 1450)c
145l)d 1452)b 1453)b 1454)d 1455)a 1456)a,c,d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.63]
1457. Which is Vitamin K dependent clotting factor? 1469. NormalAV delay of0.1 seconds is due to~
a) Factor VII (AIIMS Nov 10) a) Decreaseinamplitudeoffrring (Jipmer 10)
b) Factor! b) Resistance offered by myocytes
c) FactorXI c) Decrease in number of gap junctions
d) Factor XII d) Lack of tight junctions
1458. True about shunt vessels~ (Al/MSMay 11) 1470. Cortisol therapy increases the count of all except ~
a) Evenly distributed throughout the skin a) RBC's b) Platelets (Jipmer 10)
b) Role in nutrition c) Eosinophils d) Monocytes
c) Play a role in thermoregulation 14 71. Not a complication of massive blood transfusion~
d) No autonomic nervous regulation a) Hyperkalemia (Jipmer 10)
1459. True regarding myocardial 0 2 demand~ b) Hypercalcemia
a) Inversely related to heart rate (AJJMS May 11) c) Volume overload
b) Has constant relation to external cardiac work d) Hypocalcemia
c) Directly proportional to duration of systole 1472. True regarding BP measurement with
d) Is negligible at rest sphygmomanometer versus intra arterial pressure
1460. The primary action of Nitric oxide (NO) in the measurement is~ (Jipmer 10)
gastrointestinaltract is~ (AI 11) a) Less than intra vascular pressure
a) Vasodilatation b) Equal to intravascular pressure
b) Vasoconstriction c) Depends on velocity of flow
c) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation d) Greater than intravascular pressure
d) Gastrointestinal slow smooth muscle contraction 1473. Detectable fall in blood pressure occur in-
1461. Orthopnea is heart failure develops due to~ (AI 11) a) Sympathetic stimulation (Jipmer 1OJ
a) Reservoir function of pulmonary veins b) Inhibition ofVMC
b) Reservoir function of leg veins c) Disinhibition ofVMC
c) Reservoir function of pulmonary arteries d) Stimulation of vagal centre
d) Reservoir function ofleg arteries 1474. Megaloblastic anemia is due to defective maturation
1462. Which of the following is true about lgG antibody? of~ (Jipmer 11)
a) Produced in primary immune response
a) DNA b)RNA
b) Cannot cross placenta (Karn 11)
c) Globin d) Cytoplasm
c) Provides local protection
1475. Compensatory mechanism in a patient with
d) Produced in secondary immune response
hypovolemic shock- (Jipmer 11)
1463. Korotkow's sound is produced due to~ (Karn 11)
a) Stream line flow ofblood a) Increased renal blood flow
b) Increase in viscosity of blood b) Decrease in cortisol
c) Murmur c) Decrease in vasopressin
d) Turbulent flow of blood d) Decreased cutaneous blood flow
1464. All are effects of sympathetic stimulation except~ 1476. Biconcave shape ofRBC is beneficial in all aspects
a) Increased conduction velocity (Punjab 10) except- (Jipmer 11)
b) Increased heart rate a) Cellularmetabolism
c) Increased refractory period b) Prevention of osmotic lysis
d) lncreaed contractility of heart c) Passage through small capillaries
1465. Normal cardiacindex is~ (PUNJAB 11) d) Increased diffusion of gases
a) 3.2 b)2.8 1477. Clotting of transfused blood is due to~
c) 2.4 d)4.4 a) ABO incompatibility (Jipmer 11)
1466. Serum does not contain~ (PUNJAB 11) b) Rh incompatibility
a) Fibrinogen b) Cerruloplasmin c) Transfusion with ringer lactate
c) Albumin d) Globulin d) Transfusion with 5% dextrose & water
1467. Osmotic fragility is increased in ~ (Jipmer 10) 1478. Kidney receives about _ _% of cardiac output~
a) Sickle cell anemia a) 5% b) 10% (Jipmer 11)
b) Thalassemia c) 15% d)20%
c) Hereditary elliptocytosis 1479. Total cardiac output doesn't change during-
d) Hemophilia a) Sleep (Jipmer 11)
1468. Preload to the heart depends on~ (Jipmer 10)
b) From supine to standing position
a) End diastolic volume b) End systolic volume
c) Exercise
c) Stroke volume d) Cardiac output
d) Arrhythmias
1457)a 1458)c 1459)b 1460)c 146l)b 1462)d 1463)d 1464)c 1465)a 1466)a 1467)c 1468)a 1469)c 1470)c
147l)b 1472)d 1473)b 1474)a 1475)d 1476)a 1477)a 1478)d 1479)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.64]
1480. Microcirculation consists of -(NEET/DNB Pattern) 1492. Gatekeeper of the heart is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Capillaries a) SAnode b)AVnode
b) Capillaries venules and arterioles c) Purkinje fibers d) Bundle ofHis
c) Aorta 1493. Maximum reservoir of blood- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Arteries and veins a) Large vein b) Aorta
1481. Arteriole is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Heart d) Capillaries
a) Conducting vessel b) Resistance vessel 1494. Increased BP & decreased heart rate is seen in -
c) Exchange vessels d) Capacitance vessel a) Hemorrhage (NEET/DNB Pattern)
1482. 3rd heart sound is d/t - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) High altitude
a) Closure of av valve
c) Raised intracranial pressure
b) Closure of aortic valve
d) Anemia
c) Mid diastolic flow in the ventricle
1495. Which of the following protein inhibits heme loss
d) Atrial contraction
from plasma- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1483. Volume receptors are- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Affected by total cardiovascular output a) Ferritin b)Hemopexin
b) Stimulated by atrial systole and diastole c) Ceruloplasmin d) Hemosiderin
c) Stimulated by left ventricular contraction 1496. P wave is absent in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Stimulated by aortic pressure a) Atrial fibrillation b) CCF
1484. Role of Vitamin K for activation in clotting cycle- c) Atrial flutter d) PSVT
a) Carboxylation (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1497. Hypokalemia ECG changes all except-
b) Hydroxylation a) Tall T wave (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Oxidation b) Prolonged QRS interval
d) Reduction c) Depressed ST segment
1485. Fourth heart sound is caused by- d) Prominent U waves
a) Closure of AV valves (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1498. Baroreceptor refiex, true is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Closure of semilunar valves a) From aortic and carotid body
c) Rapid ventricular filling b) Causes arterial vasoconstriction when BP falls
d) Atrial contraction c) Causes decrease in HR when BP increases
1486. Starlings law implies- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Causes increase in HR when BP increases
a) Increased VR- increased CO 1499. Isometric relaxation is defined as-
b) Increased discharge - increased CO a) relaxation ofboth atria (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Increased HR- increased CO b) relaxation of both atria with all valves open
d) Increased BP- increased CO c) relaxation ofLV with mitral & aortic valve closed
1487. 2nd Most Common lib in adultis-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
1500. Coronary blood fiow, true is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) a2f32 b)a2y2
a) 500ml/min
c) a 2 8 2 d) 13 2 'Y 2
b) Maximum during systole
1488. Isometric relaxation is defined as-
c) Adenosine decreases it
a) Relaxation ofboth atria (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Relaxation ofboth atria with all valves open d) More than skin
c) Relaxation of LV with mitral & aortic valve closed 1501. Conduction velocity is maximum in-
1489. Isotope used to measure RBC volume is- a) Bundle of His (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Cr51 (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Purkinje System
b) H3 c) Ventricularmuscles
c) Dp d) Atrial pathway
d) Jl35 1502. Einthoven 's triangle, what is the value oflead m when
1490. Windkessel effect is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) lead I= 2 mv and Lead ll = 1 mv- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Large elastic vessels a) l b) 2
b) Capacitance vessels c) 3 d)4
c) Throughfare channels 1503. AwaveinJVPisdueto- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Capillaries a) Atrial systole b) Atrial diastole
1491. On increasing vagal tone following occurs in c) Ventricular systale d) Ventricular diastole
pacemaker- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1504. Highest compliance is seen in which vessel-
a) Increased Na+ increased slop a) Arteries (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Decreased Na+ decreased slop b) Veins
c) Increased Na+ decreased slop c) Aorta
d) Decreased Na+ increased slop d) Capillaries
1480)b 1481)b 1482)c 1483)a 1484)d 1485)d 1486)a 1487)c 1488)c 1489)a 1490)a 149l)b 1492)b 1493)a
1494)c 1495)b 1496)a 1497)a 1498)c 1499)c 1500)None>d 150l)b 1502)a 1503)a 1504)b
PHYSIOLOGY [2.65]
1505. Erythopoiesis in gestation age takes place in - 1520. Rate ofimpulse generatin is maximum in-
a) Yolk sac (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) SA node (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Placenta b) AVnode
c) Amniotic sac c) Bundle of His
d) Chorion d) Purkinje system
1506. Thrombinactivityisinhibitedby- (AI 08) 1521. Mean arterial pressure depends upon-
a) Chymotrypsin a) Cardiac output (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Cardiac output & peripheral resistance
b) Heparin cofactor II
c) Arterial complaince
c) Alpha 2 antitrypsin
d) Peripheral resistance
d) Alpha 2 macroglobulin 1522. Ejection fraction is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1507. ANP acts at which site- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) SVIEDV b)EDVISV
a) Glomerulus b) Loop of Henle c) ESVIEDV d)SVIEDV
c) PCf d) Collecting duct 1523. ThromboxaneA2 causes- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1508. Which ofthese carries maximum blood? a) Vasodilatation and platelet aggregartion
a) Arteries b) Veins (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Vasodilatation and anti platelet aggregatory
c) Aorta d)Arterioles c) Vasoconstriction and anti platelet aggregatory
1509. Whatis the normal left ventricular ejection fraction? d) Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregartion
a) 200/o b) 30% (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1524. Preload leads to- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 500/o d)65% a) Isovolumetric relaxation
1510. Duration of2nd heart sound is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Isovolumetric contraction
a) 0.15sec b)O.l2 sec c) Peripheral resistance
c) 0.08 sec d) 0.1 sec d) Parasympathetic nervous system activation
1511. Brainbloodsupply- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 1525. Hb~has- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 55ml/100gm/min b)400ml/100gm/min a) a2~2 b)a2y2
c) 100ml/100gm/min d)200ml/100gm/min c) a2S2 d)y2 82
1512. HalflifeoffactorVIll- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1526. Cardiac output is increased in-
a) 2-4 hours b) 8-12 hours a) Sleep (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 6 minutes d) 60 days b) Pregnancy
1513. Cardiac output is determined by- c) Sitting
a) Ratio of organ to total peripheral resistance d) Standing
b) Mean stroke volume (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1527. Plateau phase of ventricular muscle is d/t opening
c) meanBP of- (NEETIDNB Pattern, PGI May 11)
d) Contractility of heart a) Na+ channel b) K+ channel
1514. Regulation of coronary circulation is? c) Ca- Na channel d) Closure ofK+ channel
a) Autonomic (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1528. Erythopoiesis in gestation age takes place in-
a) Yolk sac (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Autoregulatory
b) Placenta
c) Hormonal
c) Amniotic sac
d) Sympathetic
d) Chorion
1515. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is by-
1529. Largest cross-sectional area -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Prothrombin (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Artery b) Veins
b) Factor XIII c) Capillaries d) Venules
c) Thrombin 1530. Normal duration ofPR interval- (NEETIDNB
d) Kallikrein Pattern)
1516. Maximum reservoir of blood- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) 0.12 0.2sec. b)0.2-0.3sec.
a) Large vein b) Aorta c) 0.3-0.4 sec. d) 0.4-0.5 sec.
c) Heart d) Capillaries 1531. In Fetal Life RBC are produced in all except-
1517. About arterioles true is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Liver (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Resistance b) Exchange b) Lymph node
c) Reservoir d) Pressure c) Spleen
1518. All are vasodilators except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Bone marrow
a) Prostacyclin b) NO 1532. Prepotential SA node is due to all EXCEPT?
c) Bradykinin d) Endothe1in a) Ca2+spark (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1519. Normal cardiac index is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Fast sodium channels opening
a) 3.2 b)2.8 c) K+ decay
c) 2.4 d) 4.4 d) Transient Ca channel opening
1505)a 1506)d 1507) d 1508) b 1509) d 1510) b 1511) a 1512) b 1513) b 1514) b 1515)c 1516)a 1517) a 1518)d
1519)a 1520)a 1521)b 1522)a 1523)d 1524)b 1525)c 1526)b 1527)c 1528)a 1529)c 1530)a 153l)b 1532)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.66]
1533. Lymphocytes are produced in -(NEETIDNB Pattern) 1546. Anatomical dead space ofnormallung is-
a) Lymph node b) Thymus a) 150ml b)250ml (PGI78,AIIMS79)
c) Bone marrow d) None c) 300ml d)350ml
1534. Normal interstitial pressure is-(NEET/DNB Pattern) 1547. Most of the airway resistance is from- (UP 96
a) 10 to 15 mmHg b) -5 to 0 mmHg a) Terminal bronchioles AIIMS 79, JIPMER 80)
c) 20 to 30 mmHg d) -10 to -20 mmHg b) Respiratory bronchioles
1535. What is charle's law - (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Medium sized bronchi
a) PV = constant b) PIT constant d) Trachea
c) PV = nRT d) None 1548. Normal C02 tension in venous blood is-
1536. Which is not synthesised by vascular epithelium- a) 36-45 mm ofHg (UPSC 83, 86, 91,Delhi 84)
a) Prostacyclin (NEET/DNB Patter~
b) 32-37mmQfHg
b) Angiotensin 2 '
I c) 47-52mmofHg
c) Endothelin
d) 50-60 mm ofHg
d) Heparin
1537. Amount of blood in heart- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1549. The following are acceptable as normal results-
a) 250-300 ml b) 500-600 ml a) P0 2 100mmHg (JIPMER 79,AIIMS85)
c) l-2litre d) 100-200ml b) V/Qration 1.0
c) Resting tidal ventilation 5L/min
RESPIRATORY d) FEV 1 60% of vital capacity
1550. After hyperventilating for some time, holding the
1538. Unloading of oxygen to tissues cells by oxy-Hb is breath is dangerous since- (AIIMS 2K)
assisted by- (AIIMS 86) a) It can lead to C0 2 nacrosis
a) Bohr- affect b) Due to lack of stimulation by C02 anoxia can go
b) 2-3 diphosphoglycerate into dangerous levels
c) Low P0 2 and high PC0 2 in tissues c) Decreased C0 2 shift the oxygen dissociation
d) All of the above curve to the left
1539. The most important buffer in RBC is- d) Alkalosis cal lead on the tetany
a) 0 2 Hb + Na Hemoglobinate (JIPMER 92) 1551. A patient is having normal lung compliance and
b) 0 2 Hb + K Hemoglobinate increased airway resistance way ofbreathing for
c) ~C03 + KHC03 him- (AIIMS 2K)
d) H2C03 + NaHC03 a) Slow and deep b) Slow and shallow
1540. Halden effect is- (Delhi 96) c) Rapid and deep d) Rapid and shallow
a) Binding of02 to Hb favors exhalaion of Co 2 1552. After hyperventilation prolonged voluntary
b) Binding of C02 to Hb favors release of0 2 breath holding is dangerous because- (AJIMS 2K)
c) Important mechanism of 0 2 transport in body a) Tetany develops due to Ca2+
d) All of above b) Hypoxemia is furthur aggravated
1541. The cause of death in cyanide poisoning c) Shifts 0 2 Hb curve to lefts
is - (JIPMER 81, AIIMS 82) d) C0 2 fails to stimulate respiratory centre
a) Anoxic anoxia b) Anaemic anoxia 1553. Pulmonary surfactant is- (JJPMER 79, AIIMS 80)
c) Histotoxic anoxia d) Stagnant anoxia a) Lectithin
1542. Volume of air taken into the lungs in normal b) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline
respiration is known as - (PGI 88) c) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl serine
a) Vital capacity b) Timed vital capacity d) Sphingosine
c) Tidal volume d) Inspiratory reserve volume 1554. Pathological changes in Caison's disease is due
1543. The normal respiratory quotient is- (PGI 85) to- (NJMS 96)
a) 0.5 b)0.75 a) N2 b) 0 2
c) 0.8 d) 1.0 c) C02 d)CO
1544. Normal intrapleural pressure is- (PGI 85) 1555. Cyanosis in which Pa02 are normal often results
a) l-2mmHg b)2-4mmHg due to- (AIIMS 80, UPSC 81, 84)
c) 9.5-l.OmmHg d)-3to-4mmHg a) Congenital heart disease
1545. Increased resistance to airflow during expiration b) Respiratory disease
isdueto- ( AIIMS92) c) Valvular lesion
a) Bronchoconstriction d) Abnormal hemoglobin
b) Compression of airways 1556. Gas with greatest affinity for Hemoglobin-
c) Tubulent flow of air a) 0 2 b)CO (AIIMS 87)
d) High vapour saturation c) C02 d)Np
1533)c 1534)b 1535)b 1536)b 1537)b 1538)d 1539)b 1540)a 1541)c 1542)c 1543)c 1544)d 1545)b 1546)a
1547)d 1548)None 1549)a,c 1550)b 1551)a 1552)d 1553)b 1554)a 1555)d 1556)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.67]
1557. Siggard- Anderson normogram determines- 1571. J-Receptors are situated by- (PGI 88)
a) Plasma bicarbonate b) Hypercapnia a) Heart b) Blood vessels
c) Hypoxia d) Respiratory alkalosis c) Alveolar interstitium d) Carotid body
1558. Thenormaldeadspaceisabout- (Jipmer81 1572. Which of the following does not occur in high
a) 30% of tidal volume AIIMS 86, Delhi 96) altitude acclimatisation- (Jipmer 90)
b) 40% of tidal volume a) Reticulocytosis
c) 50% oftidal volume
b) Increase serum erythropoiten
d) 60% of tidal volume
c) Increased serum cortisol
1559. Ventilation perfusion ratio is- (AIIMS 79, DNB 89)
d) Increased blood glucose
a) 0.5 b)0.8
1573. Shift to right of 0 2 dissociation curve is seen
~lD ~12
1560. The sole channel of Hydrogen ion excretion from in- (AI 90)
the body is- (Jiper81, DNB 91) a) Increase Pa C0 2 b) Decreased Pa COz
a) Blood b) Utine c) Increased pH d) Decreased pH
c) Sweat d) Stools 1574. A person ascends to 12,000 feet develops acute
e) Bile breathlessness this is due to- (AI 90)
1561. The venous concentration of0iP02) is- (Delhi 96) a) Increased pulmonary blood flow
a) lOOmmHg b)46mmHg b) Carbon dioxide washout
c) 40mmHg d)60mmHg c) Decreased hypoxic stimulation of respiration
1562. In hyperbaric oxygenation the maximum allowed d) Mechanical interference of thorax
pressure of 0 2 is - (Delhi 96) 1575. InBohreffect- (Kerala 91)
a) 3 atm b) 1 atm a) 0 2 dissociation increased in hypoxia
c) 5 atm d) atm b) 0 2 dissociation decreases in hypoixa
1563. All of the following differ in males and females c) 0 2dissociation increase with elevated temperature
except- (Assam95)
a) Tidal volume b) Vital capacity
1576. In normal adult, the lung is kept dry because
c) Residual volume d) Expiratory reserve volume
1564. In hypercapnic acidosis all are correct except- of- (Kerala 91)
a) Plasma bicarbonate rises (AIIMS97) a) Osmotic pressure b) Surfactant
b) May be associated with pickwickian syndrome c) Hydrostatic pressure d) Tidal volume
c) Kaussmal breathing may be present 1577. Vital capacity is a measure of- (Kerala 91)
d) Cerebral vasodiliation can occur a) Total volume
1565. Type II pulmonary epithelial cells secrete- b) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve
a) Surfactant (AIIMS 85, 87, NIMHANS 86, volume
b) Mucus PGI 86, Kerala 88) c) Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume plus
c) Heparin expiratory reserve volume
d) Polypeptides d) Expiratory reserve volume plus reserve volume
1566. Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right 1578. TheAlveolarP02 is- (Jipmer 91)
in all except- (AIIMS 87, AI 86) a) lOOmmHg b) llOmmHg .
a) FallinpH c) 120mmHg d) 150mmHg
b) Rise in temperature 1579. Respiratory acidosis can cause- (Jipmer 91)
c) Increaseof2,3 DPG
a) Decreased PC0 2 and decreased PH
d)HbF
b) Increased PC0 2 and decreased PH
1567. Oxygen therapy is not affective in- (AIIMS 87)
a) Hypoxic hypoxia b) Anaemic hypoxia c) Increased PC0 2 and increased PH
c) Ischemic hypoxia d) Histoxic hypoxia d) Decreased PC0 2 and increased PH
1568. Spirometer cannot measure- (AI 89) 1580. Addition of glucose to stored blood is to -(AJIMS 91)
a) Tidal volume b) Vital capacity a) Prevent hemolysis b) Provide nutrition
c) Expiration reserve volume d) Residual volume c) Increase Hb content d) Increase 2,3 DPG
1569. Most potent respiratory stimulant is- (AI 89) 1581. Which occurs after hyperventilation with 6%
a) Oxygen b) Carbondioxide C02- (AIIMS 91)
c) H+ d)K+ a) Apnea
1570. Hypoxiaischaracterisedby- (AIIMS 84) b) Continued hyperventilation
a) Low arterial P02 c) Cheyne stoke's breathing
b) Intense chemoreceptor response d) Kussmaul's breathing
c) Favourable response to 100% oxygen
d) All of the above
1557)a 1558)a 1559)b 1560)b 156l)c 1562)a 1563)d 1564)c 1565)a 1566)d 1567)b,c,d 1568)d 1569)b
1570)d 157l)c 1572)d 1573)a,d1574)b 1575)d 1576)a 1577)c 1578)a 1579)b 1580)d 158l)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.68]
1582. The most important factor in transport of C02 1593. C02 is carried in the blood- (AIIMS81,
asBicarbonateis- (AIIMS 91) a) In combination with hemoglobin Orissa 91)
a) Affinity to Hb b) In physical solution in plasma
b) Basic nature ofHC03 c) In combination with plasma proteins
c) Increased solubility of C02 d) Mainly as bicarbonate
d) Carbonic anhydrase in RBC e) All of the above
1583. NormalvalueofFEV1 in an adult male is- 1594. The surfactant material lining the lung alveoli-
a) 800/o b) 95% (Jipmer 92) a) Decrease the surface tension of alveolar fluid
c) 65% d)50% b) Increase the compliance oflungs (AIIMS 86)
1584. 'J'ReceptorStimulationcauses- (AIIMS 92) c) Has increasingly less effect, the more lungs are
a) Tachynoea b) Apnoea inflated
c) Tachycardia d) Hypotension d) Is decreased when pulmonary blood flow is
1585. Closing volume oflung determines- (AI 93) interrupted
a) Distensibility oflung b) Residual volume e) All of the above
c) Small air way resistance d) Dead space 1595. The instrument used for measuring the vital
1586. The Aveolar ventilation in an individual with capacityandFEVis- (JIPMER 78, DNB 90)
Tidal volnme 600 mi. dead space 150 mi. and a) Wright peak flow meter b) Vitalograph
Respiratory rate of15/minute is- (Jimper 93) c) Carlen's catheter d) None of the above
a) 2.5Lit/Min b)4.0Lit/Min 1596. When the atmospheric pressure is halved, which
c) 6.75 Lit/Min d) 9 Lit/Min of the following is not likely to develop- (AIIMS 80,
1587. Which of the following diffuses freely from a) An increase in pulmonary ventilation 85)
plasma to extracellular space - (Jipmer 9 3) b) A fall in arterial pO2
a) C02 b)Hp c) A rise in arterial pH
c) Glucose d) Proteins d) A rise in cerebral blood flow
1588. What is not true for respiration centre -(AIIMS 79, 1597. The most important substance controlling
a) Situated in the medulla and pons AMU 91)
alveolar ventilation- (AIIMS 89)
a) 0 2 b)C02
b) Sends out regular bursts of impulses to expiratory
c) ~0 d) None of the above
muscles during quiet respiration
1598. Destruction of lung tissue and defective gaseous
c) Sends out regular impulses to inspiratory muscles
exchange causes all except- (AP 89)
during quiet respiration
a) Prominent P wave
d) Is inhibited during swallowing and vomiting
b) Decreased cerebral blood circulation
1589. Structure through which 0 2 must diffuse in c) Increased red cell number
passing from alveolar lumen to haemoglobin- d) Pulmonary hypertension
a) Surfactant containing liquid (PGI 81, 85) 1599. The diffusing capacity for carbon dioxide
b) Alveolar membrane basement membrane compared to that for oxygen is- (AllMS 79,
c) Capillary endothelium, Plasma and RBC membrane a) 20 times b) 10 times Delhi 84)
d) All of the above c) 5times d) 2 times
1590. An increase in ventilation occurs in all situation 1600. The intrapleural pressure at the end of deep
except- (AIIMS 84) inspiration is- (Delhi 93)
a) Fall in plasma bicarbonate a) -4mmHg b)+4mmHg
b) Sleep c) 18mmHg d)+ 18mmHg
c) FallinpHofCSF 1601. Effort during normal respiration is done due to-
d) Rise in blood adrenaline level a) Lung elasticity (Delhi 90)
1591. What happens when C02 in inspired air increases b) Respiratory air passages
beyond 10% at atmospheric pressure- (AP 89) c) Alveolar air spaces
a) Depression of CNS d) Creating negative pleural pressure
b) Decreased ventilation 1602. Compliance of the lung is decreased in all
c) Diminshed sensory acuity conditions except- (Jipmer81, Delhi 92)
d) Confusion, coma and death a) Fibrosis oflung b) Emphysema
e) All of the above c) Pulmonary oedema d) Kyphosis
1592. During the initial part of inspiration, which of 1603. N2 bas a role in body as it- (AIIMS 81, 80, 83
the following does not occur -(AIIMS 79, DNB 90) a) Decrease rate of combustion AMC 85)
a) Intrapulmonary pressure falls b) Delays alveolar collapse
b) Intrathoracic pressure rises c) Prevents atelectesis
c) Intrabdominal pressure rises d) All of the above
d) The partial pressure of02 in dead space rises
1582)d 1583)a 1584)a,b,d 1585)c 1586)c 1587)a 1588)b 1589)d 1590)b 159l)e 1592)b 1593)e 1594)e
1595)b 1596)None 1597)b 1598)b 1599)a 1600)c 1601)a 1602)b 1603)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.69]
1604. Arterial p02 is reduced in- (PGI 87) 1619. Hemotocritofvenous blood is- (PGI80, DNB 89)
a) Anaemia a) 3% greater than arterial blood
b) KCN poisoning b) 3 times greater than arterial blood
c) Pulmonary hypoventilation c) 3% less than arterial blood
d) CO poisoning d) 3 times less than arterial blood
1605. Oxygen dissociation curve is-(AIIMS 84, Delhi 85) 1620. Total dead space can be calculated from-
a) Bell shaped b) S-shaped a) PC02ofexpiredair (AIIMS78, UPSC80)
c) Normal curve type d) Delta shaped
b) PC02 of alveolar gas
1606. In strenuous exercise, P02 (mm/Hg) falls from
c) Tidal volume
a) 40to15 b)60to35 (AIIMS82)
c) 20to 10 d) 35 to 0 d) All of the above
1607. Work done in quiet breathing is- (AIIMS 79. 1621. Hyperbaric oxygenation is useful in all except-
a) 0.1 Kg-m/min b) 0.2 Kg-m/min ROHTAK 86) a) Congenital heart disease (JIPMER 80,
c) 0.5 Kg-m/min d) 2.5 Kg-m/min b) Gas gangrene AMC 83)
1608. Functional residual capacity in a male is- (PGI 80 c) Carbon monooxide poisoning
a) 3.8litres b) 3.3litres AI93) d) Nitrogen toxicity
c) 2.8litres d) 2.2litres 1622. In anemia, the concentration of2, 3-DPG is-
1609. Blood flow in carotid body in m]/100 gm of tissue- a) Decreased b) Increased (DNB 89)
a) 500 b)1000 (PGI80,AMU87} c) A orb d) Not changed
c) 2000 d) 4000 1623. Thereareabout- (AMC 87)
1610. In an normal adult, the ratio of physiological and a) 50 million alveoli in man
anatomical dead space is- (AMC 87, PGI 84) b) I 00 million alveoli in man
a) 2:1 b) 1:3 c) 300 million alveoli in man
c) 3:1 d) 1:1 d) 500 million alveoli in man
1611. Respiratory minute volume in a normal person- 1624. Rise of pulmonary arterial pressure is cause by-
a) 1.2Umin b)2.1 Llmin (PGI79, UPSC85) a) Hypoxia b) Acidosis (PGI 84,88)
c) 4.2Limin d)6.0L/min c) Alkalosis d) All of the above
1612. Maximum voluntary ventilation (L/min) is- 1625. In which of thf.: tr,l.lowing diseases would you expect
a) 90-120 b) 125-170 (AMC85, 86, 95) to find an increase in thickness ofthe respiratory
c) 170-210 d)210-250 membrane- (PGI 85)
1613. In cigarette smoking, surfactant is- (PGI 82) a) Emphysema
a) Increased b) Asthma
b) Decreased c) Pulmonary artery thrombosis
c) Increased followed decreases d) Skeletal abnormalities of the chest
d) Unaltered e) Pulmonary edema
1614. The most common form of hypoxia is- (AIIMS 86) 1626. Surfactant is- (Kerala 94)
a) Hypoxic b) Stagnant
a) Protein b) Glycoprotein
c) Anemic d) Histotoxic
c) Sphingolipid d) Alpha palmityllecithin
1615. C02 affects Respiratory centre via- (AIIMS 84)
+ 1627. Right shift of oxygen dissociation curve occurs
a) CSFH Cone.
in all except- (JIPMER 95)
b) Carotid body
a) Transfusion b) Shock
c) Inflation and deflation receptors
c) RDS d)CHF
d) Aortic body
1628. Chemoreceptor mechanism is not triggered
1616. H+ismoreboundto- (AMU 85)
in - (AIIMS 94, AI 97)
a) Deoxygenated hemoglobin
a) Anemic hypoxia b) Hypoxic hypoxia
b) Oxygenated hemoglobin
c) Stagnant hypoxia d) Histotoxi hypoxia
c) Both a+b equally
d) Not related to oxygenation 1629. Difference of pulmonary microcirculation from
1617. In a normal adult, 24 hour production of C0 2 is systemic is- (AI 95)
about- (UPSC 80) a) Resistance low, pulsatile flow
a) 150L b)290L b) Resistance low, capillary pressure decrease
c) 330L d)410L c) Capillary pressure high, pulsatile flow
1618. Oxygen toxicity limits exposures to less than - d) None of the above
hours and pressures to atmospheres or less 1630. One of the following does not stimulate peripheral
respectively- (AIIMS 82) chemoreceptors- (AI 95)
a) 3,5 b)5,3 a) Hypoxia b) Hypocapnia
c) 1,2 d)2, 1 c) Acidosis d) Low perfusion pressure
1604)c 1605)b 1606)a 1607)c 1608)d 1609)c 1610)d 161l)d 1612)b 1613)b 1614)a 1615)a 1616)a 1617)b
1618)b 1619)a 1620)a,c 1621)a 1622)b 1623)c 1624)a,b 1625)e 1626)d 1627)a 1628)a 1629)b 1630)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.70]
1631. Oxygen affinity is increased by all except- (AI95) 1644. Hypoxia causes vasoconstriction in- (JIPMER 99)
a) Alkalosis b) Hypoxia a) Muscle b) Lungs
c) Increased HbF d) Hyperthemia c) Liver d) Spleen
1632. Pulmonary surfactant reduces the following 1645. Which is seen in high altitude- (CUPGEE 99)
except- (Karnatak 96) a) Respiratory alkalosis b) Metabolic alkalosis
a) The filtration forces from pulmonary capillaries c) Respiratory acidosis d) Metabolic acidosis
b) The surface tension in the Lungs 1646. Oxygen affinity decreases in - (Calcutta 2K)
c) Transpulmonary pressure
a) Hypoxia b) Hypothermia
d) Alveolar radius
c) HbF d) Increase in pH
1633. Fastestactingenzymeis- (AI97)
a) Pepsin b) Trypsin 1647. Ifwe cut the spinal cord above medulla, what happens
c) Carbonic anhydrase d) Thrombin to respiration- (AIIMS 2K)
1634. All are true about 2,3 DPG except- (AI 97) a) It becomes slower and deeper
a) Low affinity of0 2 to Hemoglobin b) Apneustic breathing
b) Altered binding to fetal Hemoglobin c) Breathing ceases
c) Causes Bohr effect d) Irregular & gasping
d) High levels in red cells 1648. Decreased Oz affinity of Hb in blood with
1635. Lung diffusion capacity is measured with- decreased pH- (OrissaR, JIPMER95)
a) C02 b) CO (NMS 96) a) Haldane effect b) Double Haldane effect
c) 0 2 d)H2 c) Bohr's effect d) Double Bhor effect
1636. Ventilation perfusion Ratio is maximum in- 1649. Earliest change in high altitude is- (Kerala 2001)
a) Base of lung b) Apex oflung (AI 98) a) Hyperventillation
c) Post lobe oflung d) Middle lobe oflung b) Decrease in work capacity
1637. Moderate excercise tachypnea is due to c) Drowsiness
stimulation of which receptor- (AI 98, MP 98)
d) Polycythemia
a) Propioception b) J receptor
1650. Total lung capacity is- (CUPGEE 02)
c) Lung receptor d) Baroreceptor
1638. Non-respiratory function ofthe lung is- a) 3-4litres b) 4-5 litres
a) Dopamine metabolism (MAHE 98) c) 6-7litres d) 7-8 litres
b) Adrenaline metabolism 1651. Peripheral chemoreceptors is stimulated
c) Serotominmetabolism maximally by- (TN 2002)
d) PGE 2 preduction a) Cyanide b) Anaemia
1639. Vital capacity is- (ROHATAK 97) c) Hypocapnia d)Alkalosis
a) Tidal Volume+Expiratory Reserve Volume 1652. 0 2 delivery to tissue is decreased by- (PGI 03)
b) Tidal Volume+Inspiratory Reserve Volume a) !ed Haemoglobin level
c) I.RV+E.RV b) !edPa02 - c) iedPaC0 2
d) T.V+I.RV +E.RV d) !edHC03 e)iedpH
e) Tidal volume 1653. A mountaineer asc~nts 18,000 feet in 2 days
1640. C02 is transported in plasma- (India 99) without supplemental oxygen. At the height of
a) Bicarbonate b) Carbamine compounds ascent the changes are- (PGI 03)
c) Dissolved form d) CO a) i ed Pa C0 2 b) !ed Barometric pressure
1641. Flow during last stage of expiration decreases
c) !edinspired02 d)!edPa0 2
because of- (AIIMS 98)
e) iedPH
a) Braking by inspiratory muscles
b) Dynamic compression of airways 1654. True about pulmonary circulation- (PGI 03)
c) Collapse of alveoli a) It receives 30% of cardiac output
d) All b) Hypoxia causes vasoconstriction
1642. Oxygen dissociation is increased by all except- c) Blood volume in lung is 450 ml
a) Hypercapnia (AIIMS 98) d) Pulmonary capillaries contain most of the blood
b) 2,3 DPGincrease volume in lung
c) Increased temperature e) It has low resistance
d) Metabolic alkalosis 1655. Decompression sickness is seen in- (PGI 02)
1643. Role of2,3 DPG in hemoglobin- (TN 99) a) Diver
a) Unloading oxygen to tissues b) Pilot
b) Increased affinity for oxygen c) Diver and pilot
c) Buffering capacity d) Diver, pilot and mountainers
d) Osmotic fraglity e) Diver, pilot, mountainers and astronauts
163l)b,d 1632)c,d 1633)c 1634)c 1635)b 1636)b 1637)a 1638)c 1639)d 1640)a,b,c 1641)b 1642)d 1643)a
1644)b 1645)a 1646)a 1647)d 1648)c 1649)a 1650)b 165l)None 1652)a,b,e 1653)b,d,e 1654)b,c,e 1655)a,b,c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.71 ]
1656. Carbon dioxide retention is seen in the following 1667. Functional residual capacity oflung is defined as-
condition- (PGJ OJ) a) Volume expired after normal expiration (PGJ97)
a) Carbon monoxide poisoning b) Volume remaining after forced expiration
b) Lung failure c) ERV+RV
c) Drowning d) Tidal volume+ volume inspired forcefully
d) Ventilatory failure 1668. Apnoea is defmed as- (PGJ 02)
e) High altitude a) Stoppage of heart beat
b) Cessation of respiration
1657. Which of the following is seen in high altitude
c) Irregular respiration
climbers- (PGJOJ)
d)RR
a) Hyperventilation b) Decreased PaC0 2
1669. LeastamountofC02 isin- (Jipmer04)
c) Pulmonary edema d) Hypertension a) Anatomical dead space-end inspiration phase
e) Bradycardia b) Anatomical dead space-end expiration phase
1658. Oxygen dissociation curve shift to right in - c) Alveoli-end inspiration phase
a) Hypothermia b) Hypercarbia (PGJ 02) d) Alveoli-end expiration phase
c) Fetal Hb d) Sickly Hb 1670. Surfactant is- (PGJ 04)
1659. Central cyanosis is seen if- (PGJ OJ) a) Secreted by Type I pneumocytes
a) Methemoglobin 0.5 gmldl b) Secreted by bronchial glands
b) 0 2 saturation< 85% c) Contains mucin
c) 0 2 saturation< 94% d) Necessary for alveolar stability
d) Hb-4gm% e) Secreted as eosinophilic nodules
1660. Hyperbaric oxygen is dangerous because it- 1671. Surfactant is - (PGJ 04)
a) Decreases desplacement of 02 from Hb (PGJ99) a) Secreted by 26th week ofGA
b) Decreases repiratory drive b) Deficiency causes RDS in new born
c) Composed of cytokeratin
c) Enzyme damage
d) It can be used therapeutically
d) Is toxic to tissues
e) Increased in bronchoalveolar carcinoma
1661. InnormaladultVd!Vtratiois- (PGJ99) 1672. In Caissons disease all seen except- (Jharkand 03)
a) 20 b)0.35 a) Myonecrosis b) Lymphedema
c) 40 d)50 c) Paraplegia d) None
1662. In high altitude mountain sickness, feature of 1673. Dissolved oxygen is not dependent on-(Jharkand 03)
pulmonary edema is- (PGJ99) a) Hb b) Atmospheric pressure
a) Decreased pulmonary capiillary permeability c) Alveolar pressure d) Arterial tension of0 2
b) Increased pulmonary capillary pressure 1674. All of the following lead to increased dissociation
c) Normal!eft atrial pressure of02 from Hb except- (SGPGJ 05)
d) Increases left ventricular back pressure a) HbF b) Increased CO 2
1663. Administration of pure 0 2 to hypoxic patients is c) Increase H+ d) Increase Temperature
dangerous because- (PGJ99) 1675. Physiological effects of emphysma may include
a) Apnea occurs due to hypostimulation of all of the following, except- (SGPGI 05)
peripheral chemoreceptors a) Increased vital capacity
b) Pulmonary edema b) Irregular ventilation
c) Impaired gas diffuse
c) DPG
d) Pulmonary hypertension
d) Convulsions
1676. The primary function of surfactant is- (SGPGI 05)
1664. Nitrogen washout method is used for estimating- a) Prevent overexpansion of alveoli
a) Dead space volume (PGJ98) b) Decrease the surface tension of the fluid lining
b) Functional residual capacity the alveoli
c) Tidal volume c) Facilitate diffusion of oxygen
d) Diffusion capacity d) Prevent airway closure
1665. Following are true about HCO3 -except- (PGI 98) 1677. Respiratory burst in neutrophils occurs due
a) Extracellular concentration 25m mol to- (SGPGI 05)
b) Intracellular concentration 10m mol a) NADPHoxidase b)NADPoxidase
c) 7.5% solution gives 2 nmols c) FADH2oxidase d)FAD
d) In kidney, HC03 is produced by carbonic anhydrase 1678. Earliest symptom of acute mountain sickness is-
1666. Arterial blood 0 2 in ml of 0 2 per dL- (PGJ 02) a) Blurringofvision b)Fever (AMU05)
a) 12.1 b) 19.8 c) Nausea and vomiting d) Headache
15.6 27.8
1656)b,c,d 1657)a,b,c 1658)b,d 1659)b 1660)d 1661)b 1662)b,cl663)a 1664)b 1665)c 1666)b 1667)c 1668)b
1669)a 1670)d 1671)a,b,d 1672)b 1673)a 1674)a 1675)a,c 1676)b 1677)a 1678)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.72]
1679. The oxygen buffer function of haemoglobin is 1689. In which of the following a reduction in arterial
related to· ( COMEDK 05) oxygen tension occurs- (AI 05)
a) Dissociation curve shape a) Anaemia b) CO poisoning
b) Haldane effect c) Moderate exercise d) Hypoventilation
c) Bohr effect 1690. The vasodilatation produced by carbon dioxide
d) Respiratory exchange ratio is maximum in one of the following· (AI 05)
1680. Normal alveolar ventilation pressure on inspiration a) Kidney b) Brain
is - (MAHE 05) c) Liver d) Heart
a) -1 em water b) -1 cmHg 1691. The type of hemoglobin that has least affmity for 1,
c) + 1 em Water d)+ 1 em Hg 3- Diphosphoglycerate (2,3·DPG) or (2,3-BPG) is-
1681. The stimulation of which of the following causes a) HgA b) HgF (AI05)
hyperventilation a:t high altitude- (ICS 05) c) HB d) HgA2•
a) Peripheral chemoreceptors 1692. The intrapleural pressure is negative both during
b) Vagal afferents inspiration and expiration because- (AIIMS May
c) Central chemoreceptors a) Intrapulmonary pressure is always negative 05)
d) Proprioceptors b) Thoracic cage and lungs are elastic structure
1682. Which ofthe following conditions leads to tissue c) Transpulmonary pressure determines the negativity
hypoxia without alteration of oxygen content of d) Surfactant prevents the lungs to collapse
blood- (AIIMS May 05) 1693. Surfactant synthesis starts after about-
a) CO poisoning b) Met Hb a) 26 weeks of foetal life
c) Cyanide poisoning d) Respiratory acidosis b) 20 weaks of foetal life
1683. The spirometer can estimate all the following c) 30 weeks offoetallife
except· (APPGE 05) d) 18 weeks of foetal life
a) Total1ung capacity 1694. Which of the following true about ventilation and
b) Forced expiratory volume in 1 second perfusion in alveoli in erect posture- (Manipal 06)
c) Peak expiratory flow a) Ventilation/perfusion ratio is maxm at apex
d) Vital capacity b) Ventilation/perfusion ratio is maxm at base
1684. The volume of C0 2 exhaled by a healthy person is- c) Ventilation is max at apex
a) lOOm! b) 150m! (Orrisa05) d) Perfusion is max at apex
c) 200m! d)250ml
1695. Myoglobin binds to ___ molecules of02 -
1685. Arterial blood gas of a 5 year old child done at
a) 1 b) 2 (PGMCET 07, PGI 80, AP 85)
sea level gives the following results: pH 7 .41, Pa0 2
c) 3 d)4
100 mmHg, and PaC02 40 mm Hg. The child is
1696. J-receptors which are responsible for rapid shallow
being ventilated with 80% oxygen. What is the
(A-a)P02- (AIIMSNOV05) breathing are located in- (UPSC 07)
a) 570.4mmHg b)520.4mmHg a) Thoracic cage and lung
c) 470.4mmHg d)420.4mmHg b) Carotid artery
1686. Pulmonary function abnormalities in interstitial c) Alveoli-capillary junction
lung diseases include all of the following except- d) Respiratory musceles
a) Reduced vital capacity (AIIMSNOV05) 1697. Respiratory distress syndrome is due to a defect
b) ReducedFEV/FVCratio in the biosynthesis of- (Corned 07)
c) Reduced diffusion capacity a) Dipalmitoyllecithine b) Dipalmitoyl cephaline
d) Reduced total lung capacity c) Dipalmitoyl serine d) Dipalmitoyl inositol
1687. Fetal haemoglobin has all the following 1698. Carbon dioxide trasported in blood mostly as-
characteristic features except- (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Carboxy Hb (Corned 07, AI 05)
a) Strong affinity for 2, 3-DPG b) In combination with plasma proteins
b) Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to left c) Bicarbonate
c) At low fetal P0 2 gives up more oxygen to tissues d) Carbonic acid dissolved in plasma
than adult haemoglobin 1699. Toxic effects of high oxygen tension include all of
d) Forms 80% ofhaemoglobin at birth the following except- (AI 07)
1688. Pulmonarysurfactantissecreted by- (A/05) a) Pulmonary edema
a) Type I pneumocytes b) Decreased cerebral blood flow
b) Type II pneumocytes c) Retinal damage
c) Clara cells
d) CNS excitation and convulsion
d) Bronchial epithelial cells
1679)a 1680)a 168l)a 1682)c 1683)a 1684)c 1685)d 1686)b 1687)a 1688)b 1689)d 1690)b 169l)b 1692)b
1693)b 1694)a 1695)a 1696)c 1697)a 1698)c 1699)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.73 J
1700. Which of the following adaptations will be apt to 1710. Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifted to
increase the work capacity at high altitude- (AI 07) Right side in all EXCEPT- (UP 08)
a) Increasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise a) Fresh blood transfusion b) Anemia
b) Increasing workload, increasing duration of exercise c) Acidosis d) Alkalosis
c) Decreasing workload, increasing duration ofexercise 1711. Most important form of carbon-dioxide transport in
d) Decreasing workload, decreasing duration ofexercise the blood- (UP 08)
1701. 0 2 delivery to tissues depends on aWexcept- a) It is mostly transported as carboxy hemoglobin
a) Cardiac output (Aiims May 07) b) As dissolved C0 2
b) Type of fluid administered c) As bicarbonates
c) Hemoglobin concentration d) Due to C02 molecules attached to hemoglobin
d) Affmity of hemoglobin for 0 2 1712. Comparision ofthe apex of the lung, the base of the
1702. Not a correct formula for calculating the percentage lung has- (UP 08)
of0 2 saturation in arterial blood except-(MAHE 07) a) High pulmonary arterial pressure 0 2
a) Saturation 0 2% (oxygen content/oxygen) b) High pulmonary arterial pressure C02
b) Saturation 0 2% (oxygen carrying capacity) c) High ventilation I perfusion ratio
c) Saturation 0 2% =(carbon dioxide content/oxygen d) Same ventilation I perfusion ratio
carrying capacity) x 100% 1713. In which of the following conditions the respiratory
d) Saturation 0 2% = (oxygen content/carbon dioxide muscles are relaxed- (UP 08)
carrying capacity) x 100% a) Residual volume
1703. Pleural pressure positive in- (UP 07) b) Functional residual capacity
a) End of inspiration c) Expiratory reserve volume
b) End of expiration d) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) End of forced expiration 1714. In which of the following disease normalstructure
d) Start or beginning of inspiration of hemoglobin but their blood volume reduced
1704. Diffusion of gas in respiratory membrane-(UP 07) in- (UP08)
a) Directly proportional to thickness of respiratory a) Chronic blood loss b) Sickle- cell anemia
membrane c) Hemolytic anemia d) Thalassemia
b) Inversely proportional to molecular weight ofthe 1715. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic
gas circulation- (Aiims May 08)
c) No lipid- water solubility a) Pulmonary vasodilation in hypoxia
d) Inversely proportional to pressure gradient b) Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
1705. Surfactant production is accelerated by- (UP 07) c) Decreased blood volume during systole
a) Thyroxine b) Glucocorticoids d) Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
c) Carbamazepine d) Iodine 1716. Oxygen toxicity causes all except- (Manipal 08)
1706. Hyperventilation in high altitude is due to- a) Rupture of alveoli b) Atelectasis lung
a) Respiratory alkalosis (UP 07) c) Pulmonary edema d) Convulsions
b) Respiratory acidosis 1717. Oxygen carrying capacity of blood is largely
c) Hypercapnea determined by- (Manipal 08)
d) Decreased concentration of bicarbonate a) Hb level b) Amount of C0 2 in blood
1707. In hyperventilation- (PGI June 07) c) Acidosis d) Plasma concentration
a) p50 and Hb affinity for 0 2 increases 1718. P0 2 over 8 kPa is (Hb saturation)- (Manipal 08)
b) p50 and Hb affmity for 0 2 decreases a) 6()0/o b) 70%
c) p50 increases and 0 2 affinity decreases c) 80% d)90%
d) p50 decreases and 0 2 affinity increases 1719. In which of the following conditions oxygen delivery
e) No change is least to muscles? (APPG 08)
1708. The mechanism of action of surfactant is- a) Person inhaling 100 percent oxygent atthe top of
a) Lubricates the flow of C0 2 diffusion mount everest
b) Binds oxygen (AIIMS Nov 07) b) Marathon runner at sea level
c) Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic c) Person with carbon monoxide poisoning
d) Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli d) None of the above (this option none ofthe above
1709. The following factors shift the oxygen dissociation was also there)
curvetotheright,except- (UPSC-I 08) 1720. Hb 0 2 dissociation curve to left by? (APPG 08)
a) Hypoxia b)Fever a) Increase pH b) Increased PCO2
Increase in Increased 2.3. DPG Exercise
1700)c 1701)b 1702)a 1703)c 1704)None 1705)b 1706)a 1707)c 1708)d 1709)d 1710)d 1711)c 1712)c
1713)a 1714)d 1715)b 1716)a 1717)a 1718)d 1719)c 1720)a
PHYSIOLOGY [2.74]
1721. Attheendofnormalexpiration-(VELHJPGFeb. 09) 1731. C02 retention is seen in- (PGIMay 10)
a) The outward recoil tendency of the chest a) Carbon monoxide poisoning
b) The volume inside the lung is expiratory reserve b) Respiratory failure
volume c) High altitude
c) The chest wall has a tendency to move inwards d) Ventilatory failure
d) Alveolar pressure is usually negative e) Pulmonaryedema
1722. The following acute respiratory response to ascent 1732. True about normal expiration- {PGI Nov. 10)
to high altitude, there is normalization of blood pH. a) At the end of normal expiration air in lung is ERV
b) Chest wall has a tendency to move outward which
The mechanism is- (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
is balanced by inward recoil of alveoli
a) Increased erythropoesis leads to increased
c) In expiration pleural pressure is equal to alveolar
buffering by haemoglobin
pressure
b) Increased excretion ofHC0 3 by the kidneys d) Muscles that elevate the chest cage are classified
c) Increased levels of2, 3-DPG as muscles of expiration
d) Retention of bicarbonate by the kidneys 1733. Caisson's disease is- (AIIMS Nov 1 0)
1723. Physiological response to smoking, are all, except- a) Gas embolism b) Fat embolism
a) Decreased HDL {AllMS May 09) c) Amniotic fluid embolism d) Tumor embolism
b) Increased hematocrit 1734. In lung, true about Hyaline membrane disease-
c) Increased heart rate and increased catecholamine a) FRC is smaller than closing volume
release b) FRC is larger than closing volume
d) Decreased carboxyhemoglobin c) FRC is equal to closing volume (AIIMS Nov 1 0)
1724. Surfactant is produced by- (Corned 09) d) FRC doesn't depend on closing volume
a) Pulmonary alveolar macrophages 1735. Gas used to measure the diffusion capacity oflung -
b) Plasma cells a) CO b) NO (AllMS Nov 10)
c) Type 1 pneumocytes c) C02 d) Nitrogen
d) Type 2 pneumocytes 1736. Hypoxiema independent of- (AIIMS Nov 1 0)
1725. Stability of alveoloi is maintained by- a) Fi02 b) Altitude
a) Compliance of the lungs (AIIMS Nov 09) c) Hb d) PaC02
b) Residual air in alveoli 1737. Not a stimulus for normal/resting ventilation?
c) Negative intrapleural pressure a) Stretch receptors (AIIMS Nov 1 0)
d) Reduce surface tension by surfactant b) J receptors
1726. Pacemaker regulating the rate of respiration- c)P0 2
a) Pneumotaxic centre (AIIMS Nov 09) d)PC02
b) Dorsal group of nucleus 1738. C02 diffuses more easily through the respiratory
c) Apneustic centre membrane than 0 2 because it is- (AIIMS Nov 1 0)
d) Pre-BotzingerComplex a) Less dense
1727. An important non-respiratory function oflungs is- b) More soluble in plasma
a) Anion balance b) Sodium balance (A110) c) Less molecular weight
c) Potassium balance d) Calcium balance d) Less PC0 2 in the alveoli
1728. Arterial 0 2 content is reduced in one of the 1739. Pacemaker regulating the rate of respiration-
following- (DPG 10) a) Pneumotaxic centre (AIIMS Nov 10)
a) Stagnant hypoxia b)Anemichypoxia b) Dorsal group of nucleus
c) Histotoxic hypoxia d) Ischemic hypoxia c) Apneustic centre
1729. Vital capacity is sum of- (Maharashtra 10) d) Pre-Botzinger Complex
a) Inspiratory reserve volme, Tidal volume and 1740. Negative intrapleural pressure is due to-
Expiratory Expiratory reserve volume a) Uniform distribution of surfactant over alveoli
b) Tidal volume, Inspiratory reserve volume and b) Negative intraalveolar pressure
Residual volume c) Absorption by lymphatics (AIIMS Nov 1 0)
c) Expiratory reserve volume, Inspiratory reserve d) Presence of cartilage in the upper airway
volume and Residual volume. 1741. Cyanosis in trauma is interpreted as-
d) Residual volume, Inspiratory volume, and a) Early sign of hypoxia (AIIMS Nov 10)
Expiratory volume b) Late sign of Hypoxia
1730. Normal intrapleural pressure at the start/beginning c) Absence of cyanosis means adequate tissue
ofinspiration is em ofHp. ventilation
a)-7.5 b)-5.0 (Maharashtra 10) d) Absence of cyanosis means adequate tissue
c)-2.0 d)-0.5 oxygenation
172l)a 1722)d 1723)d 1724)d 1725)d 1726)d 1727)b 1728)b 1729)a 1730)b 173l)b,d,e 1732)a,b 1733)a
1734)a 1735)a 1736)c 1737)b 1738)b 1739)d 1740)c 174l)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.75]
17 4 2. The primary direct stimulus for excitation of central 1752. Respiratory causes of hypoxemia are all except-
chemoreceptors regulating ventilation is- a) Voluntary hypoventilation (Jipmer 11)
a) Increased H'" (AIIMS May 11) b) Physiological shunt
b) Increased C02 c) Ventilation perfusion mismatch
c) Increased 0 2 d) Dead space ventilation
d) Decreased C02 1753. Carbon monoxide poisoning is a type of-
1743. Nitrogen narcosis is caused due to-(AIIMS May 11) a) Anemic hypoxia (Jipmer 11)
a) Nitrogen inhibits dismutase enzyme
b) Histotoxic hypoxia
b) Increase production of nitrous oxide
c) Hypoxic hypoxia
c) Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell
membrane d) Stagnant hypoxia
d) Decrease in oxygen free radicals 1754. Inspiratory depth is halted by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1744. Small airways have laminar air flow because- a) Pneumotaxic centre b) Apneustic centre
a) Reynold'snumber>2000 (AI 11) c) Inspiratory centre d) Expiratory centre
b) Very small diameter 1755. Carbon monoxide poisoning is a type of -(Jipmer 11)
c) Extremely low velocity a) Anemic hypoxia b) Histotoxic hypoxia
d) Low cross sectional area. c) Hypoxic hypoxia d) Stagnant hypoxia
1745. Pulmonary Compliance is decreased in all ofthe 1756. Surfactant is secreted by which alveolar cells-
following conditions, Except- (AI 11) a) Type 1 cells (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Pulmonary Congestion b) COPD b) Type 2 cells
c) Decreased Surfactant d) Pulmonary Fibrosis c) Alveolar macrophages
1746. A man connected to a body plethysmograph for d) Endothelial cells
estimation ofFRC inspires against a closed glottis. 1757. Measurement of anatomic dead space is by-
Which ofthe following statements is true- (AI 11) a) 0 2 breath test (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) The pressure in both the lungs and the box b) Helium dilution test
increases c) N2 breath test
b) The pressure in both the lungs and the box d) PC02
decreases 1758. Best denotes airway resistance-
c) The pressure in the lungs decreases, but that in a) Vital Capacity (NEETIDNB Pattern)
the box increases b) Mid respiratory flow rates
d) The pressure in the lungs increases, but that in c) FEV1
the box decreases d) Total volume
17 47. A 32 year old high altitude mountaineer is observed 1759. Oxygen therapy is least useful in-
to have a hematocrit of 70 percent. Which of the a) Anemia (NEETIDNB Pattern)
following represents the most likely cause/ b) ARDS
explanation- (AI 11} c) Alveolar damage
a) Polycythemia with increased red cell mass d) COPD
b) Relative Polycythemia due to dehydration 1760. Which of these is not a cause of rightward shift
c) Polycythemia due to hemoconcentration of Oxygen- Hemoglobin dissociation curve?
d) Polycythemia with high altitude pulmonary edema
a) Increased hydrogen ions (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1748. Acclimatization does NOT include- (Karn 11)
a) Hyperyentilation b) Decreased C0 2
b) Decreased concentration of2,3 DPG in RBC c) Increased temperature
c) Increased erythropoiesis d) Increased BPG
d) Kidney excrete more alkali 1761. Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to right in-
1749. Depth of inspiration controlled by- (Punjab 10) a) Hyperkalemia (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Pneumotaxic center b) Posterior medula b) Hypokalemia
c) Apneustic center d) Pons c) Anemia
1750. 0 2 which is about21% of inspired air exerts a partial d) Metabalic alkalosis
pressure of- (Jipmer 10) 1762. Most important stimulus to peripheral
a) 160mmHg b)240mmHg chemoreceptrs- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 580mmHg d)760mmHg a) P02 b)C02
1751. Surfactantis synthesized by- (Jipmer 10) c) pH d)HC03
a) Type-I pneumocytes 1763. Difference in the amount of 0 2 inspired and C0 2
b) Type-II pneumocytes expired- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Alveolar macrophages ~20ml/nrin b)50ml/min
d) Dust cells c) 75ml/nrin d) lOOml/min
1742)a 1743)c 1744)c 1745)b 1746)c 1747)a 1748)b 1749)a 1750)a 175l)b 1752)d 1753)a 1754)a 1755)a
1756)b 1757)c 1758)b 1759)a 1760)b 176l)c 1762)a 1763)b
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.76]
1764. In moderate excercise the respiratory rate is 1776. Compliance oflung is measured by-
increased due to response of- (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Elasticity (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Propioception receptor in the joints b) Amount of air
b) tPCO in arterial blood c) Blood flow
c) tPO iharterial blood d) Presence if fluid
d) J-red~ptor stimulation 1777. Surfactant is secreted by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1765. Spirometry can demonstrate and measure all of the a) Type II pneumocytes
following except- (NEETIDNB Pattern, AI 97) b) Type I pnuemocytes
a) Tidal volume c) Alveolar capillaries
b) Residual volume d) Alveolar macrophages
c) Vital capacity 1778. Normal diffusion of C02 at rest-
d) Inspiratory reserve capacity a) 20-25m1/min (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1766. Oxygen therapy is least useful in- b) 50-100m1/min
a) Anemia (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 100-200m1/min
b) ARDS d) 300-400m1/min
c) Alveolar damage 1779. A person unacclimatised develops pulmonary
d) COPD edema- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1767. Peripheral & central chemoreceptors may both a) 19-21 days b) 2nd-3rd month
contribute to increased ventilation that occurs as a c) 2-3 days d) 6-7 days
result of decreased- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Arterial BP 1780. Haldane effect- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Arterial tension a) Effectof2,3-BPG
c) Arterial 0 2 concentration b) Dissociation of C02 on oxygenation
d)W c) Dissociation of02 on addition of C02
1768. Compliance oflungs is- (NEET!DNB Pattern) d) Chloride shift
a) 200 ml/cm water b) 500 ml/cm water 1781. Pulmonary vasoconstriction is caused by all except-
c) 800ml/cmwater d) lOOOml/cmwater a) Hypoxia (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1769. When gases flow through an orifice which factor is b) Hypercarbia
least likely to effect turbulence- c) Prostocyclin
a) Density of gas (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) Thromboxane A2
b) Viscosity of gas 1782. In caissons disease pain in joint is because of-
c) Pressure of gas a) Nitrogen bubble (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Diameter oforifice b) Oxygen bubble
1770. True about caisson's disease- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Carbon monoxide
a) 0 2 release from tissues d) Air in joint
b) C02 release from tissues 1783. Cyanosis is not seen in- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) N 2 release from tissues a) GIF b)COPD
d) H 2 release from tissues c) CO poisoning d) High altitude
1771. Difference in the amount of 0 2 inspired and C0 2 1784. Effect offetal hemoglobin on 0 2 dissociation curve-
expired- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Right Shift (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 20m1/min b)50ml/min b) Left Shift
c) 75 ml/min d) 100 ml/min c) No effect
1772. Increased oxygen delivery to tissues in reponse to d) May be right or left
increased C0 2 is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1785. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis shows-
a) Bohr effect b) Haldane Effect a) Increased pH with increased HC0 3- (NEET!DNB
c) Hamburger effect d) Chloride shift b) Increased pH with Decreased HCOr Pattern)
1773. Respiratory minute volume oflung is- (NEETIDNB c) Decreased pH with increased HC0 3-
a) <'L b) 4L Pattern) d) Decreased pH with Decreased HC0 3-
c) 500mL d) 125L 1786. False about the 0 2 dissociation curve:
1774. Carbon monoxide poisoning is a type of- (Jipmer 11) a) Sigmoid curve (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Anemic hypoxia b) Histotoxic hypoxia b) Combination of the first heme in the Hb molecule
c) Hypoxic hypoxia d) Stagnant hypoxia with 0 2 increases the affmity of the second heme
1775. Gas exchange in tissues takes place at- for0 2
a) Artery b) Capillary (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Increase in ph shifts curve to right
c) Vein d) Venules d) Fall in temperature shifts curve to left
1764)a 1765)b 1766)a 1767)d 1768)a 1769)c 1770)c 177l)b 1772)a 1773)a 1774)a 1775)b 1776)a 1777)a
1778)d 1779)c 1780)b 178l)c 1782)a 1783)c 1784)b 1785)d 1786)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.77]
1787. Increase in P50 in oxygenation curve is due to 1798. P0 2 is maximum - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
decrease in- (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Base of lung b) Posterior lol:ie
a) PH b) Oxygen c) Apex of lung d) Middle lobe
c) Temperature d) C02
1788. Regarding Dead space Volume in a normal individual- KIDNEY
a) Anatomical dead space>Physiological Dead space
1799. In metabolic acidosis, true about urinary change is-
b) Anatomical dead space=Physiological Dead space
a) Increase in ammonia (UPSC 83, Delhi 84)
c) Anatomical dead space<Physiological Dead space
b) Decrease in ammonia
d) Anatomical dead space is not related to
c) Decrease in lactic acid
Physiological Dead space (NEET/DNB Pattern)
d) HC03
1789. Alveoli are kept dry because of-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
1800. High threshold substance is- (Delhi 89)
a) Surfactants b) Glycoproteins
a) Uric acid b) Urea
c) Buffers d) Bohr's Effect
c) Glucose d) Creatinine
1790. Vital capacity is sum of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1801. Norman fdtration fraction is- (PGI 84)
a) Inspiratory reserve volme, Tidal volume and
a) 0.9 b) 0.2
Expiratory reserve volume.
c) 0.6 d) 1.0
b) Tidal volume, Inspiratory reserve volume and
1802. Normal PAH clearance is-m/minute-
Residual volume.
a) 100-250 b) 250-500 (AIIMS 84, 85)
c) Expiratory reserve volume, Inspiratory reserve
c) 500-800 d) 800-1200
volume and Residual volume.
1803. Minimum urinary pH that can be attained is-
d) Residual volume, Inspiratory volume, and
a) 3.8 b) 3.5 (PGI81, JIPMER 81)
Expiratory volume.
c) 4.8 d) 6.5
1791. Herring Breuer reflex is an increase in -
1804. Angiotensinogen is synthesized in the-
a) Duration of inspiration (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Liver b) Kidney (Jipmer 79, Aiims 80)
b) Duration of expiration c) Lungs . d) Adrenals
c) Depth of inspiration 1805. Glomerular filtration drops when the systolic
d) Depth of expiration pressure falls below- (JIPMER 86,87)
1792. Ventilation perfusion ratio is least at- a) 90mmHg b)80mmHg
a) Apex b) Middle lob (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) 70mmHg d)50mmHg
c) Base ~-a) None 1806. GFRisincreased when- (AllMS 87)
1793. When gases flow through an orifice which factor is a) Plasma oncotic pressure is increased
least likely to effect turbulence - b) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is decreased
a) Density of gas (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Tubular hydrostatic pressure is increased
b) Viscosity of gas d) Increased renal blood flow
c) Pressure of gas 1807. Each kidney contains about ----nephrons- (AP 88)
d) Diameter of orifice a) One million b) Two million
1794. Bohr Effect is? (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Four million d) Yz million
a) Facilitates oxygen transport 1808. The renal clearance of- (AI89)
b) Facilitates C02 transport a) Creatinine indicates glomerular filtration rate
c) Facilitates Chloride transport b) Insulin is lower than that of urea
d) None c) Chloride increases after an injection of
1795. Volume of air taken in and given out during normal aldosterone
respiration is referred to as- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) PAH continues to 1ise as the plasma concentration
a) IRV b)TV ofpAH rises.
c) FRV d)VC 1809. Normal levels of creatinine in serum is -(AIIMS 82,
1796. C0 2 increases ventilation by acting mainly on a) 0.6to 1.2mg% b) l to2mg% Al90)
receptors of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 0.01 to0.04mg% d)0.04to0.1 mg%
a) Apneustic center 1810. In renal glycosuria, the renal threshold for
b) Pneumotaxic center glucose is - (TN 90)
c) Ventral surface of medulla a) Low b) High
d)DRG c) Same d) Greatly increased
1797. Intrapleural pressure is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1811. In Hypertension, there is- (AIIMS 89)
a) Transpulmonary pressure + Alveolar pressure a) Reflex vasoconstriction
b) Transpulmonary pressure Alveolar pressure b) Renal afferent arteriolar dilatation
c) Transmural pressure +Alveolar pressure c) Sodium retention
d) Alveolar pressure - Transpulmonary pressure d) Water retention
1787)a 1788)b 1789)a 1790)a 1791)b 1792)c 1793)c 1794)a 1795)b 1796)c 1797)d 1798)c 1799)a 1800)c
1801)b 1802)c 1803)c 1804)a 1805)a 1806)d 1807)a 1808)a 1809)a 1810)a 18ll)c
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.78]
1812. Tubular maximum for kidney in practice is 1822. Where in the kidney does acitve reabsorption of
actually less than the calculated value because- sodium ions occur-
a) Different nephrons have different transport a) Collecting duct b) Distal tubule
maximum (TN 91) c) Ascending limb ofHenle d) All of the above
b) Depends on GFR e) Only Band C
c) Depends of renal blood flom 1823. The hyperosmolarity of the renal medulla is due
d) Depends on blood pressure to increased content of- (AIIMS 87)
1813. Major portion of glomerular filtrate is absorbed a) K b)Na
in- (A/92) c) Glucose d) Na+
a) Loop of henle b) Distal convoluted tubule 1824. The length of distal convoluted tubule is- (PGI80,
c) Collecting duct d) Proximal segment a) 2rrnn b)Smm AIIMS81)
1814. True statement regarding creatinine clearance is- c) 8rrnn d) 12rrnn
a) 80m1/min (AI 93) 1825. In humans, effective renal blood flow is-
b) Most accurate renal function test a) 425 b) 525 (AllMS 83, 86)
c) Represents tubular function c) 625 d) 725
d) Represents GFR 1826. The excretion of sodium (meq) in 24 hours is-
1815. Ammonia in the kidney tubules is excreted in a) Zero b) 50 (AIIMS 82)
exchange for- (JIPMER 93) c) 150 d)250
a) HC03 b) Na+ 1827. What is the glomerular filtration rate- .
c) CI- d)POt a) 100m1/min b) 125 m1/min (JIPMER 80,
1816. Two substances that can probably be used to c) 150m1/min d) 175m1/min PGI 81, 03)
determine filtration fraction are- (PGI79, 87) e) 200 m1/min
a) Insulin and mannitol b) Urea and diodrast 1828. Addis test is used for- (PGI 81, AMU 85)
c) PAR and phenol red d) Inulin and PAR a) Urinary sugar b) Urinary sediment
1817. Juxtamedullary nehprons in kidney are what c) Blood lactate d) Serum magnesium
percentage of total nephrons (JIPMER 81, 1829. Haemoglobin is a buffer because of- (Kerala 94)
a) 15 b) 50 Delhi 93) a) Histidine residue b) Glycoprotein nature
c) 70 d)90 c) Weak acidic nature d) Iron molecule
1818. In a normal adult the desire for micturition is 1830. One of the following does not form filtration
felt- (AllMS 81, AMC 87) barrierinnephrons- (A195)
a) When about 100-200 cc of urine has collected in a) Mesangium b) Podocytes
the bladder c) Endothelial cell d) Basement membrane
b) When about 300-400 cc of urine has collected 1831. Macula densa in kidney is located in relation to-
in the bladder a) PCT b) DCT (AMU95)
c) When about 600-800 cc of urine has collected c) Afferent arteriole d) Efferent arteriole
in the bladder 1832. Which one the following is not responsible for
d) When about 1000 cc of urine has collected in concentration of urine in the kidneys- (UPSC 97)
the bladder a) Aldosterone b) Angiotensin II
1819. Which ofthe following has no Tm value- c) Vasopressin d) Epinephrine
a) Albumin, arginine (AIIMS 78, Delhi 87) 1833. The urge for micturition is felt when the bladder
b) Betahydroxybutyrate, glucose is filled with- (TN 97)
c) Glucose haemoglobin, phosphate a) 100-200cc of urine b) 200-300ccofurine
d) Sulfate, Uric acid c) 500-700cc of urine d) 700-800cc of urine
e) Urea 1834. True statement among the following is- (MAHE 98)
1820. Inulin clearance closely resembles - (AIIMS 78, a) Bladder emptying cannot occur if volume< I OOml.
a) GF.R Delhi 92) b) Bladder muscles contains intrafusal fibres
b) Renal Plasma flow c) Pressure increase in bladder very linerly with time
c) Creatinine clearance d) One time of fluid intake results in complete
d) P.A.H. clearance excretion in 1 hour
1821. What is the urea clearance- (AIIMS 89) 1835. The majority ofbody sodium is present- (Karn 98)
a) 4.4mVmin b)88m1/min a) Extra cellular :fluid b) Intra cellular :fluid
c) 440m1/min d)44m1/min c) Plasma d) Bone
e) 22m1/min
1812)a 1813)d 1814)d 1815)a 1816)d 1817)a 1818)a 1819)e 1820)a 1821)b 1822)d 1823)b 1824)b 1825)c
1826)c 1827)b 1828)b 1829)a 1830)a 1831)c,d 1832)d 1833)a 1834)a 1835)d
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.79]
1836. True about nephron is- (AI 99) 1847. Which IS true about renin- (PGI 2000)
a) Na is absorbed actively in descending loop of a) It helps to convert angiotensinogen to
henle Angiotensin - I
b) 60 to 70% ofGFR is absorbed in proximal tubule b) Secreted by PCT
c) Absorption of water occurs in ascending loop of c) i GFR causes i secretion of renin
henle d) J. plasma Na+ & Hp
d) The filtrate reaching distal convoluted tubule is 1848. Loop of Henle handles the following ions except-
hypertonic with respect to surroundings a) Na+ b) K+ (PGI 97)
1837. Transport maximum (Tm) means- (JIPMER 2002) c) Q- d) Urea
a) Maximum reabsorption & secretion 1849. The renal plasma flow (RPF) of a patient was to
b) Maximum amount of glomerular filtration/min be estimated through the measurement of Para
c) Substance cleared from plasma/min Amino Hippuric acid (PAH) clearance. The
d) Amount of toxic substances excreted/min technician observed the procedures correctly but
1838. Following cells are responsible for acid secretion due to an error in the weighing inadvertently used
in kidney- (JIPMER 2002) thrice the recommended dose of PAH. RPF
a) I cells b) P cells estimated is likely to be- (AI 03)
c) Mesangial cell d) Pericytes a) False- high
1839. Relaxation ofmesangial cells ofkidney is brought b) False -low
aboutby- (JIPMER2002) c) False- high or false low depending on the GFR
a) cAMP b) Endothelin d) Correct and is unaffected by the PAH overdose
c) PGF2 Vasopressin 1850. GFR increases if- (Jipmer 04)
1840. Inulin clearance is equal to- (TN 2002) a) Efferent arteriole constricts
a) 55ml/min b)625ml/min b) Efferent arteriole dilates
c) 125ml/min d)40ml/min c) Afferent arteriole constricts
1841. P.G increasing the renal blood flow is/are- d) Afferent arteriole dilates
a) PG~ b)PGE2 (PG/03) 1851. Renalplasmaflowisbestdeterminedby- (TN02)
c) T~ d)PGF 1a a) Inulin b) Creatinine
e) PGF2 c) PAH d) Mannitol
1842. Renal medullary hyperosmolarity is due to- 1852. Filtration pressure in glomeruli of kidney-
a) Increased Na+ (PGI 03, PGI 04)
a) 10 mm ofHg b) 6 mm ofHg (Orissa 04)
b) Increased Na content
c) 15mmofHg d)2.0mmofHg
c) Increased Glucose
1853. Least clearance is for among these- (Jipmer 04)
d) Increased urea
e) Increased Potassium a) Glucose b) Inulin
1843. All of these are correct of renal physiology except- c) Urea d) Creatinine
a) Sodium absorption occurs in DCT (PGI 02) 1854. In renal disease albumin is first to appear in urine
b) Potassium is both secreted and absorbed in because- (AIIMS 04)
tubules a) Of its high concentration in plasma
c) Glucose is reabsorbed in DCT b) Has molecular weight slightly greater than the
d) Hb is not excreted as it is a large molecule molecules normally getting filtered
e) Amino acids are reabsorbed in CD c) High albumin : globulin ratio,
1844. Maximum water absorption takes place in- d) Tubular epithelial cells are sensitive to albumin
a) Proximal convoluted tubule (PGI 2000) 1855. Over half ofthe potassium that appears in the urine
b) Distal convoluted tubule of a patient, who has ingested some potassium salts,
c) Collecting duct is derived form- (UPSC 02)
d) Loop of Henle a) Glomerular filtrate
1845. Elimination of waste product from a normal b) Secretion by the distal tubule
person requires minimal amount of urine of- c) Reabsorption in the proximal tubule
a) IOOml b) 500ml (PGI98) d) Secretion by the loop of Henle
c) lOOml d)2000ml 1856. Potassium is maximally absorbed in which part
1846. True about juxta-glomerular apparatus ofkideny- ofnephron- (Jimper03)
a) Important source of angiotensinogen (PGI 2000) a) Proximal convoluted tubules
b) Important source of renin
b) OCT
c) Consist of macula dens a
c) Collecting ducts
d) Consist of afferent arteriole forming lacis cells
of Henle
1836)b 1837)a 1838)a 1839)a 1840)c 1841)a,b 1842)a,d,e 1843)c,d,e 1844)a 1845)b 1846)b,cl847)a 1848)b
1849)b l850)a,dl85l)c 1852)c 1853)a 1854)b 1855)b 1856)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.80]
1857. The kidney normally does NOT allow 1867. The prime driving force for counter current
transglomerular passage of- (SGPGI 05) multiplier system is- (AI 06)
a) B-2 microglobulin b) Lysozyme a) Medullary hyperosmolarity
c) Myoglobin d) Immunoglobulin b) Reabsorption ofNa+ in thick ascending limb
1858. GFR is measured by- (SGPGI 05) c) Action of ADH via aquaporin channels
a) Creatine clearance b) Inulin clearance d) Urea recycling
c) PAH clearance d) Creatinine clearance 1868. Hormones secreted by kidney- (PGI June 06)
1859. Endocrine functions associated with kidney a) Erythropoietin
include all of the following except- (SGPGI 05) b) 1, 25 dihydroxy cholecalcifevol
a) Erythropoietin secretion c) Granulocyte-Monocyte-CSF
b) Natriuretic peptide secretion 1869. The intravesical pressure rises abrupyly when the
c) l ,25 hydroxy D3 Formation bladder volume is about-
d) Renin secretion a) 400ml b)300ml
1860. PCTabsorbsA/E- (MAHE05) c) 200tnl d) 1OOml
a) Sodium b) Glucose 1870. Most important buffer system present in the distal
c) Hydrogen ions d) Amino acids convolutedtubule- (Manipal 2006)
1861. Stretch reflex of bladder is integrated at-(MAHE 05) a) Bicarbonate b) Phosphate
a) Sacral portion b) Lumbar portion c) Protein d) Ammonia
c) Substantia gelatinosa d) Sympathetic plexus 1871. Which ofthe following ion is secreted in proximal
1862. Which one of the following substances, actively convoluted tubule?
transported by the tubular cells, has the highest a) Na+ b)C
Tubular Transport Maximum- (ICS 05) c) K+ d) Mg+
a) Plasma protein b) Haemoglobin 1872. The plasma clearance value of glucose in a
c) Glucose d) Sodium diabetes mellitus patient will be- (Karnataka
1863. According to myogenic hypothesis of renal a) Zero PG MEE 2006)
autoregulation, the afferent arterioles contract in b) Equal to that of insulin clearance
response to stretch induced by- (AIJMS NOV 05) c) Greater than that of PAH clearance
a) NO release d) Greater than zero.
b) Noradrenaline release 1873. Which ofthe following hormone is not secreted by
c) Opening of Ca2+ channels the kidney- (AI 07)
d) Adenosine release a) Renin b) Angiotensin I
1864. Which one of the following statement regarding c) Erythropoietin d) 1, 25 DHCC
water reabsorption in the tubules- (AI 05) 187 4. During voiding (iv) pressure in bladder is-
a) The bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary a) 25-30mmHg (PGMCET(fl)
to Na+ reabsorption b) 50-70 mmHg
b) Majority to facultative reabsorption occurs in c) 70-lOOmmHg
proximal tubule. d) >lOOmmHg
c) Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent. 1875. Autosomal vanant of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d) 20% of water is always reabsorbed irrespective is due to defect in - (PGMCET rfl)
of water balance. a) Aquaporin 2
1865. Urinary concentrating ability of the kidney is b) Angiotensin I receptor
increased by- (AI 05) c) Angiotensin II receptor
a) ECF volume contraction d) VIP receptors
b) Increase in RBF 1876. Proximal convoluted tubule have which type of
c) Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity aquaporins- (Comed 08)
d) Increase in GFR a) Aquaporin 1 b) Aquaporin 2
1866. The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by- c) Aquaporin 5 d) Aquaporin 9
a) Sensing ofNa+ concentration in (AI06) 1877. The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is
the macula densa believed to control secretion of which of the
b) Sensing of Cl+ concentration in macula densa following hormones- (Comed 08)
c) Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa a) Antidiuretic hormone
d) Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in b) Oxytocin
afferent arteriole c) Growth hormone
1857)a 1858)b 1859)b 1860)c 186l)a 1862)c 1863)c 1864)a 1865)a 1866)c 1867)b 1868)a,bl869)a 1870)d
187l)a 1872)a 1873)b 1874)a 1875)a 1876)a 1877)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.81 ]
1878. Juxtaglomerular apparatus lies in relation to- 1890. Which ofthe following statement is true?
a) Proximal convoluted tubule (Aiims May 07) a) Fluid coming from the descending limb ofloop of
b) Ascending loop ofHenle Henle is hypotonic (AIIMS Nov 08)
c) Descending loop of Henle b) Descending limb ofloop ofHenle is permeable to
d) Glomerulus solutes
1879. Renin is secreted by- (Aiims May 07) c) If clearance of a substance is greater than GFR,
a) PCf b)DCT then tubular secretion must be present
d) Clearance of a substance is always more than GFR
c) Collecting duct d) Juxatglomerular apparatus
if there is tubular secretion
1880. True about free water clearance is- 1891. All of the following structures lie in the renal
a) Regulated by ADH (Aiims May 07) medulla, except- (AIIMS Nov 08)
b) Regulated by aldosterone a) Juxtaglomerular apparatus b) Loop of Henle
c) Increased by furosemide c) Collecting duct d) Vasa Recta
d) None of the above 1892. Macula densa is present in (Corned 09)
1881. GFR decreases with the following- (MAHE 07) a) Collecting tubule
a) Hypotension b)Hypoproteinemia b) Proximal convoluted tubule
c) ACE inhibitors d) All the above c) Distal convoluted tubule
1882. Rate of excretion of sodium in a normal male when d) Loop of Henle
GFR = 125 mL/min- (MAHE 07) 1893. All of the following statements about Renal
a) 400- 425 eq/min b) 60 - 70 eq/min physiology are true, Except- (AI 09)
c) 50- 60 eq/min d) 70 - 80 eq/min a) Distal tubule always receives hypoosmotic
1883. Ureteric peristalsis is due to intact supply of- solution
a) Sympathetic innervation (AIIMS Nov 07) b) The kidneys receive 5% of the cardiac output
b) Parasympathetic innervation c) GFR is controlled by resistance in afferent and
efferent arterioles
c) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
d) The Glomerulus receives capillaries from the
d) Intrinsic smooth muscle pacemaker activity of afferent arteriole
renal calyces 1894. Angiotensin II causes all of the following,
1884. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed in - except- (AI 09)
a) PCT (AIIMSNov 07) a) Stimulation of thirst b) IncreasedADH secretion
b)DCT c) Vasodilatation d) Aldosterone secretion
c) Thick ascending loop ofHenle 1895. What is the clearance of a substance, if its
d) Collecting duct concentration in plasma in 10 mgo/o, concentration
1885. Maximum absorption ofthe water occurs at- in urine is 100 mgo/o and urine flow is 2 ml/min-
a) Proximal convoluted tubule (UP 08) a) 0.2ml/min b)0.2ml/min (DelhiFeb. 09)
b) Distal convoluted tubule c) 2ml/min d)20ml/min
c) Collecting duct 1896. Which ofthe following product is primarily filtered
d) Loop ofhenle with little secretion or re-absorption in renal
1886. All are functions of angiotensin, except- tubules? (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
a) Acts on adrenal cortex to aldosterone secretion a) Sodium b) Creatinine
b) Decreases GFR (Manipal 08) c) Glucose d) Amino acids
1897. Which of the following is not a component of
c) Directly causes vasoconstriction
glomerular filtration barrier? (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
d) Acts on adrenal medulla and stimulates steroids a) Capillary endothelial cell
1887. Maximum osmotic gradient is found in-(Manipal 08) b) Basement membrane of endothelial and visceral
a) Outer medulla b) Inner medulla epithelial cells
c) Outer cortex d) Inner cortex c) Podocytes with their foot processes
1888. GFR is determined by the following- (Manipal 08) d) Mesangial cells
a) Bowman capsule pressure 1898. Kidney produces- (PGI Nov 09)
b) Hydrostatic pressure a) Vasopressin b) Erythropoietin
c) Plasma oncotic pressure c) Renin d) Angiotensinogen
d) All of the above e) 25 hydroxyvitD
1889. Mechanism by which water is reabsorbed from 1899. Substance (s) freely filtered across glomerular
proximal convoluted tnbule is- (DPGEE 08) capillaries- (PGI Nov 09)
a) Active transport b) Passive transport a) Glucose b)Albumin
c) Facilitated diffusion d) Osmosis c) Thyroxin d) Creatinine
e) Bicarbonate
1878)d 1879)d 1880)a 1881)a,c 1882)None 1883)d 1884)a 1885)a 1886)d 1887)b 1888)d 1889)d 1890)c
189l)a 1892)d 1893)b 1894)c 1895)d 1896)b 1897)d 1898)b,c 1899)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.82]
1900. Glomeruiar Filtration Rate is increased when- 1912. Relaxation of mesangial cells is caused by -
a) Plasma oncotic pressure is increased (DPG 10) a) Histamine (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is decreased b) Dopamine
c) Tubular hydrostatic pressure is decreased c) Angiotensin 2
d) Increased renal blood flow d) Vasopressin
1901. Minimum urine osmolality that can be human 1913. Which causes raised angiotensin in blood-
kindney- (Maharashtra 10) a) Increased blood volume (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) 100 mOsm!L b) 80 mOsm!L b) Raised cardiac output
c) 50 mOsm/L d) 20 mOsm/L c) Decreased blood pressure
1902. Not absorbed from the PCT- (AJIMSNov 10)
d) Increased sympathetic tone
a) Na+ b) Phosphate
1914. Leastreabsorptionoutof- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) HC03- d)W
1903. Angiotensin ll causes all of the following except- a) Glucose b) Urea
a) Stimulation of thirst (AIIMS May 11) c) Na+ d)HC0 3
b) Aldosterone secretion 1915. Net filtration pressure is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) lncreasedADH secretion a) 32mmHg b) lOmmHg
d) Vasodilation c) 60mmHg d)20mmHg
1904. Which of the following statement is true? 1916. Rennin is present in - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Fluid coming from the descending limb ofloop of a) Gastricjuice b)Liver
Henle is hypotonic (AIIMS May 11} c) Kidney d) Lung
b) Descending limb ofloop of Henle is permeable to 1917. Erythropoietin is secreted from -
solutes a) Juxtraglomerularcells (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) If clearance of a substance is greater than GFR b) Macula densa
then tubular secretion must be present c) Intersititial cells
d) Clearance of a substance is always more than GFR d) Glomerulus
if there is tubular secretion 1918. K +secretion from loop ofhenle is decreased by-
1905. In a healthy individual on a normal diet, which ofthe a) Furosemide (NEET/DNB Pattern)
following ion is completely absorbed in tubules- b) Thiazide
a) Na+ b) K+ (Jipmer 11) c) Spironolactone
c) Ct d)HC03 d) Acetazolamide
1906. Macula densa is a part of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1919. Rennin is presentin- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) pet b) dct a) Gastric juice b) Liver
c) Renal arteriole d) Glomerulus c) Kidney d) Lung
1907. Destruction of zona glomerulosa will deplete- 1920. Substance that is completely reabsorbed from the
a) Aldosterone (NEETIDNB Pattern) kidney- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Cortisol a) Na+ b)K+
c) Testosterone c) Urea d) Glucose
d) Catecholamines 1921. GFR is measured by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1908. Renin is secreted by- (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Urea b) Inulin
a) Juxtaglomerular cells b) Macula densa c) Creative d) Hippuric acid
c) Mesangial cells d) Glomerulus 1922. Normal range of urine osmolality(mosm/1)-
1909. The main cause of minimal change ds is: a) 50-1400 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Increase in pore size (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) 100-1400
b) Loss of negative charge on membrane c) 200-1000
c) Loss of cells d) 300-1200
d) Decreased circulation 1923. Two substances that can probably be used
1910. A negatively charged molecule is filtered with more to determinefiltration fraction are -
difficulty compared to a positive one because - a) Insulin and mannitol (NEETIDNB
a) Presence of negatively charged sialoproteins on b) Urea and diodrast Pattern, PGI 98)
the filtering membrane (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) PAH and phenol red
b) Negatively charged molecules are larger d) Inulin and PAH
c) Postively charged proteins on filtering membrane 1924. Renin secretion is increased by all EXCEPT?
d) Urine is acidic a) Na+ inPCT (NEET/DNB Pattern)
1911. Lacis cells are located at- (NEET/DNB Pattern) b) Low afferent arteriolar pressure
a) JGA b) Proximal tubule c) Na+inDCT
c) Distal tubule d) Loop pf henle d) Sympathetic nerve stimulation
1900)d 190l)c 1902)d 1903)d 1904)c 1905)d 1906)b 1907)a 1908)a 1909)b 1910)a 1911)a 1912)b 1913)d
1914)b 1915)b 1916)c 1917)c 1918)c 1919)a 1920)d 1921)b 1922)a 1923)d 1924)a
PHYSIOLOGY [ 2.83]
1925. Which ofthe following relaxes mesangial cells in 1930. Which of the following causesincrease in both GFR
glomerulus- (NEETIDNB Pattern) and renal plasma flow- (NEETIDNB Pattern}
a) Dopamine b) Histamine a) Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure.
c) ATTII d)PDGF b) Dilatation of afferent arteriales
1926. Which of the following relaxes mesangial cells in c) Constriction of afferent arterioles
glomerulus- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Increased tubular pressure
a) Dopamine b)Histamine 1931. Maximum reabsorption ofHC03-occurs in-
c) ATTII d)PDGF a) PCT (NEET/DNB Pattern)
1927. Countercurrent mechanism in the kidney is b) DCT
responsible for- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) CD
a) Absorption of glucose d) Loop ofhenle
b) Maintenance of blood flow 1932. Bicarbonate is absorbed- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Osmotic gradient in medulla a) Activity in PCT b) Actively in DCT
c) Indirectly in PCT d) Actively in DCT
d) Secretion of uric acid
1933. Counter current mem chanism, all are true except-
1928. Substrate which is both secreted & filtered-
a) Occurs due to opp flow in vasa recta and loop
a) UricAcid (NEET/DNB Pattern) of henle (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Glucose b) Seen in medullary nephron
c) Urea c) Helps in creating osmolarity gradient
d) Na+ d) Urea has no role
1929. Which of the following is most important in sodium 1934. As fluid comes down the PCT, what is true -
and water retention- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Concentration of urea falls(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Rennin angiotensin system b) Concentration ofHC03- falls
b)ANP c) Concentration of Na+ increases
c) BNP d) Concentration of inulin decreases
d) Vasopressin
***
1925)a 1926)a 1927)c 1928)a 1929)d 1930)b 1931)a 1932)c 1933)d 1934)b
BlOCH RY
BIOCHEMISTRY
STRUCTURE & FUNCTION 15. The colour of cheloglobin is- (AIIMS 83,86)
OF PROTEIN a) Red b)Pink
c) Orange d) Green
1. Sulphur containing amino acids are- (PGI 85,87 16. Sulphaemoglobin has a •...•.. colour - (AIIMS 80,
a) Cysteine b) Asparagine AP 86) a) Cherry Red b) Pink KERALA 88)
c) A and B d) Methionine c) Dirty Green d) Blue
e) Glycine 17. Siderophyllinis _ _ globulin- (AIIMS85)
2. Heme in Hemoglobin is in the - (AI 89) a) Alpha- 1 b) Alpha -2
a) Hydrophobic Pocket b) Positive region c) Beta d) Gamma
c) Negative region d) Polar region 18. Helical content of polypeptides can be estimated-
3. Blood group antigens belong to the class ....... a) By comparison of viscocity with polyproline
a) Conjugated proteins (AP 88) b) By analysis for related sheet structure (AIIMS 85)
b) Unconjugated proteins c) Only by X- ray crystallography
c) Simple proteins d) From optical rotatory
d) Hemoglobin binding proteins 19. In determining protein structure, performic acid
4. Fluorescamine is nsed to detect- (TN 89) is used to- (AIIMS 86)
a) Amino acids b) Fatty acids a) Identify N- terminal residue
c) Glucose d)All b) Identify C- terminal residue
5. Acidic amino acids are - (PGI 83) c) Denature protein
a) Asparagine b) Arginine d) Reduce disulphide bonds
c) Glutamine d) Lysine e) Oxidize disulphide bonds
e) None 20. In electrophoresis, if the pH is above isoelectric
6. Basic amino acids are- (PGI 83) point a protein will- (AIIMS 80, RPHTAK 87)
a) Asparagine b) Arginine a) Precipitate b) Not move
c) Glutamine d) Lysine c) Form a zwitterion d) Migrate to anode
e) All e) Migrate to cathode
7. Aromatic amino acids are- (PGI 83) 21. Which of the following is correct about
a) Typtophan b) Tyrosine breakdownofhemoglobin(Hb)- (AIIMS 85)
c) Lysine d) Arginine a) Hb-?Heme-Ybilirubin-Yurobilinogen
e) Phenylalanine b) Heme-7Hb-7biliverdin-Ybilirubin-7urobilinogen
8. Ninhydrin is a reagent used in detection of- c) Hb--YHeme--Ybiliverdin--Ybilirubin-7 urobilinogen
a) Ketone bodies b) Blood sugar (Kerala 90) d) Hb-?Heme-Ybilirubin-Yurobilinogen -7 biliverdin
c) Blood urea d) Alpha amino acids 22. Prophyrin is formed by joining together four
9. Non- Essentieal amino acid is- (AP 91) pyrrole rings by means of ..... bridges-(JIPMER 81)
a) Tyrosine b) Phenyalanine a) Hydrogen b) Hydroxy
c) Lysine d) Threonine c) Phosphate d) Metheny!
10. AlphaHelixstructure- (AI91) 23. Which ofthe following is a derived protein-
a) Free rotation a) Protamines b) Peptones (DNB 91)
b) Hydrogen bond between peptides c) Prolamines d) Lactalbumin
c) H bond with in peptide 24. Monoclonal electrophoresis is useful in the
d) Electrostatic band between two adjacent peptides diagnosis of - (AIJMS 84; Delhi 86)
11. Same charged two proteins separation is done by- a) Thalassemia b) Sickle cell anemia
a) Agrose b) DEAE Cellulose (AI 91) c) Multiple myeloma d) Gout
c) Sephadex d) None 25. Siderophyllin is- (PGI 84)
12. Iron in the haemoglobin is held by- (AI 91) a) Haematin b) Ferrtin
a) Polar bonds b) Non polar bonds c) Haemin d) Transferrin
c) Co- ordinate bonds d) Covalent bonds 26. Which ofthe following is not a part of hemoglobin
13. Vibrational property of proteins is due to ......... . molecule- (AIIMS 83)
structure- (AIIMS 92) a) Pyrrole rings b) Vinyl gourps
a) Primaty b) Secondary c) Histidine d) Ferric ions
c) Tertiary d) Quaternary 27. The Klett Summerson's photoelectric calorimeter
14. Tertiary structure of proteins is maintained by is used for haemoglobin estmation and the reagent
all except- (All India 93) used for this is- (AIIMS 84)
a) H2 bond b) Hydrophobic bond a) Ringer's solution b) Isotonic saline
c) Ionic bond d) Disulpide bond c) Nayem's reagent d) Drabkin's reagent
l)a,d 2)a 3)a 4)a 5)e 6)b,d 7)a,b,e 8)d 9)a IO)c ll)c 12)a 13)c 14)None
15)d 16)c 17)c 18)d 19)e 20)d 2l)c 22)d 23)b 24)c 25)d 26)d 27)d
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3A]
28. Aromatic ring is present in - (Delhi 90) 40. Iron is complexed in heamoglobin to- (AI 95)
a) Arginine b) Glycine a) Leucine b) Histidine
c) Phenylalanine d) Phenylalanine Glycine c) Isoleucine d)Valine
29. What is the average number of high energy bonds 41. Amino acid which does'nt participate in alpha-helix
required for the synthesis of 1 peptide bond - formation is- (All India 96)
a) 1 b) 2 (AIIMS 82) a) Leucine b) Glycine
c) 3 d) 4 c) Proline d) Lysine
e) 5 42. The amino acid whose Ionisation is maximum
30. Bohr effect is - (AIMS 82,84,85,87, PGI 88) affected by changes in local microenvironment-
a) Effect on Zn on carbonic anhydrase activity a) Glycine b) Histidine (AIIMS 95)
b) EffectofPC02 on oxyhemoglobin dissociation c) Glutamic acid d) Aspartic acid
c) HC03-leaving the RBC in exchange of Cl 43. The integral membrane glycoprotein of human
d) H leaving RBC for each CO 2 that inters RBCs is- (AIIMS 95)
31. Heme in hemoglobin is- (AIIMS 83) a) Porin b) Ankylin
a) Between Helix C and D c) Spectrin d) Glycophorin
b) Surrounded by non polar environment 44. In terms of chemical structure which one of the
c) Bonded to E7 histidine following is a tetramerlc glycoprotein- (UPSC 97)
d) Protoporphyrin IX a) Insulin receptors b) Leptins
32. Collagen is unique in that it contains much- c) Neuropeptide d) Thyrotrophin
a) Cystine b) Cysteine (TN 88) 45. The Coiling & folding of protein requires-
c) Hydroxyproline d) Lysine a) Amide bond b) Phosphate bonds (AIIMS 97)
e) Desmosine c) Sulphide bonds d) Hydrogen/covalent bonds
33. The most abundant protein in the human body is - 46. False statement about haemoglobin structure-
a) Myosin b)Albumin (PGI 83) a) Hb has 2 polypeptide (PGI 96)
c) Hemoglobin d) Collagen b) Iron is present in ferrous state
e) Keratin c) Hb structurally similar to myoglobin
34. Ninhydrin reaction gives a purple colour and d) Ferrous ions are in porphyrin rings
evolves C0 2 - (AIIMS 86) 47. Indole ring is present in- (Kerala 97, Delhi 87)
a) With peptide bonds b) With histamine a) Tryptophan b)Valine
c) With aspargine d) With serotonin c) Methionine d) Histidine
35. Collagen is a major component of- (AIIMS 84, 87) 48. Triple helix is found in - (All India 98)
a) Synovial fluid b) Wharton's jelly a) Cystine b) Collagen
c) Bone d) Hair c) Pectin d) DNA
e) Blood 49. Albumins and globnlins are proteins -(ROTHAK 97)
36. Flexibility of protein chain is determined by- a) Simple b) Derived
a) Glycine b) Tryptophan (AIIMS 88) c) Conjugated d) Structural
c) Serine d) Proline e) Lipoproteins
37. Myoglobin - (CMC 85) 50. Regarding isoelectric pH true is (regarding
a) Contains four hemes per molecule enzymes)- (AIIMS 98)
b) Shows the Bohr effect a) All amino acids exist as zwitter ions
c) Has an 0 2 dissociation curve that is unaffected b) Net+ ve and -ve on molecule are equal
by wide range of pH c) Enzyme activity maximum
d) None of the above d) None of the above
38. Quartenary structure of protein is - (Kerala 94) 51. Which is a denaturing agent- (AIIMS 98)
a) The arrangement sequence of amino acids in the a) Guanidine b) Glutamate
polypeptide chain c) Glycine d) Guanosine
b) Inter relation between amino acids in a single 52. Electrophoresis done under pH gradient is-
polypeptide chain a) Isoosmotic b) Isoelectric (CUPGEE 99)
c) Inter relation of amino acids in 2 polypeptide chains c) Ion exchange d) None
d) The inter relation and arrangement of polypeptides 53. Most abudant collagen in body is- (CUPGEE 99)
in a protein with more than 2 polypeptide chains a) Type I b) Type II
39. Structure of proteins is best studied by- c) Type V d) Type VI
a) X-ray crystallography (Kerala 94) 54. At pH 7 the binding of 2.3-DPG to hemoglobin
b) Ultra centrifugation occurs at which site - (AIIMS 2K)
c) Using sangers reagent a) Sulphydryl gorup b)Carboxyterminal
d) Sucrose density gradient centrifugation c) Aminoterminal d) Histidine
28)c 29)d 30)b 3l)b 32)c,d 33)d 34)c 35)c 36)a 37)c 38)d 39)a 40)b 4l)c
42)b 43)d 44)a 45)c 46)a,c 47)a 48)b 49)a 50)b 5l)a 52)b 53)a 54)c
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3.5]
55. Keratin in the nail is exceptionally stronger than 66. Proteins can be separated by the following except -
others because of- (AIIIMS 2K) a) Electrophoresis (Jipmer 03)
a) Disulphide bond b) Vander Wall's forces b) Ultra- centrifugation
c) Ionic bonds d) Calcification c) Gas chromatography
56. Phospholamban is a protein- (AIIMS 2K) d) Salt separation
a) That increase interaction of calcium with 67. The following separation technique depends on
myofilaments the molecular size of the protein- (AI 03)
b) That leads to sequestration of calcium in a) Chromatography on a carboxymethyl (CM)
endoplasmic reticulum cellulose column
c) That leads to sequestration of calcium by
b) !so-electric focusing
mitochondria
c) Gel filtration chromatography
d) That activates CaiNa pump
d) Chromatography on a diethylaminoethyl (DEAE)
57. When the following amino acids are separated by
cellulose column
running them on agarose gel, at pH 7, which one
ofthem will migrate slowest to the anodic end- 68. The conversion of optically pure isomer
a) Glycine b) Valine (enantiomer) into amixture of equal amounts of
c) Aspartic acid d) Lysine both dextro and levo forms is called as- (AI 03)
58. Molecular separation of two proteins with same a) Polymerization b) Stereoisomerization
charge can be done by- (PGI 97) c) Racemization d) Fractionation
a) Ion exchange chromatography 69. The collagen triple helix structure is not found in
b) Dialysis a) Cytoplasm (AI 03)
c) Gel diffusion chromatography b) Golgi apparatus
d) Electrophoresis c) Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum
59. Intact peptide bond is necessary for which test- d) Intracellular vesicles
a) UV diffraction b) Ninhydrin (PGI 98) 70. Protein acts as buffer due to which property-
c) Diazo reaction d) All a) Colloid (Orissa 04)
60. The best method to differentiate proteins is by- b) Basic
a) Gel chromatography (PGI 99) c) Acidic
b) Affinity chromatography d) Amphipathic (amphoteric in nature)
c) Ion exchange electrophoresis 71. Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of-
d) None of the above a) Primary structure (AI 04, COMED 06)
61. Defect in collagen formation is seen in- (PGI 02) b) Secondary structure
a) Scurvy b) Hunter's syndrome c) Tertiary structure
c) Marfan's syndrome d) Osteogenesis imperfecta d) Quaternary structure
62. Optical transmission through a solution depends 72. Cytochrome C ofthe bacteria has 50% identity of
on- (PGI03) amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of
a) Time b) Concentration the following is the most conserved parameter in
c) Scale d) Path length these 2 protreins- (AI 04)
e) Spectrophotometer a) Quarternary structure
63. Which of the following statement characterize b) Tertiary structure
both Hemoglobin and Myoglobin- (PGI 03) c) Amino acid sequence
a) Non-helical d) Loop and tum segments
b) Subunits which are held together by hydrogen bonds 73. Copper is required in collagen synthesis
c) Binds with 2 Hema for- (Jipmer 04)
d) Hema at hydrophobic pockets a) Lysyl hydroxylase b) Lysyl oxidase
e) Bind with 1 molecule of0 2 c) Prolyl hydroxylase d) Prolyl oxidase
64. At isoelectric pH protein - (PGI 03) 74. Which one ofthe following is not true for alpha helix-
a) Have Net charge '0' a) It is one of the most important secondary structure
b) Are positively charged b) It has a net dipole moment (AIIMS 04)
c) Are negatively charged c) All hydrogen bonds are aligned in the same direction
d) Don'tmigrate d) Long stretches ofleft handed helice occur in proteins
65. Proteins are separated on the basis of size by- 75. Which ofthe following amino acids have side chains
a) SDS-PAGE (PGI03) that are negatively charged under physiological
b) HPLC conditions- (SGPGI 04)
c) Affmity Chromatography a) Aspartic acid b) Histidine
d) Ion-exchange Chromatography c) Tyrosine d) Serine
55) a 56)b 57)d 58)c 59)b 60)a 61)a,d 62)b,d 63)d 64)a,d 65)a 66)None 67)c
68)c 69)a 70)d 71)b 72)b 73)b 74)b 75)a
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3.6]
76. Oneofthefollowingisanexampleof phosphoprotein- 88. Protein purification and separation can be done
a) Histone b) Casein (Karn 04) byallexcept- (AI07)
c) Ceruloplasmin d)Albumin a) Chromatography b) Centrifugation
77. Which of the following can be a homologous c) Electrophoresis d) Densitometry
substitution for valine in hemoglobin- (AI 04) 89. Protein that precipitates on heating to 45• C and
a) Isoleucine b) Glutamic acid redissolves on boiling is- (AI 07)
c) Phenylalanine d) Lysine a) Bence Jones Protein b) Gamma globulin
78. Biological value of protein is related to- (PGI 04) c) Albumin d) Myosin
a) Amino Acid content 90. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is based on -(Aiims May
b) Essential amino acid content
a) Molecular weight b) Charge 07)
c) N2 content
c) Solubility d) Calorimetric properties
d) Content ofNH 3 to urea
91. In collagen synthesis, hydroxyproline is formed
e) Protein quality
from- (MAHE 07)
79. The molecular weight of a protein can be determined
by- (JIPMER 05) a) Prolene b) Lysine
a) Native polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis (PAGE) c) Hydroxylysine d) None of the above
b) Sodium dodecyl Sulphate h-PAGe 92. Lipids and proteins interact in membrane by-
c) Isoelectric focusing a) Hydrophobic interactions (PGI June 07)
d) Ion Exchange Chromatography b) Both hydrophobic and covalent interactions
80. In chromatography mass movements of the c) Covalent bonds
substances in due to- (MARA 05) d) H bonds
a) Diffusion b) Electrophoresis 93. Which of the following is/are extracellular matrix
c) Paper chromatography d) Osmosis protein- (PGI Nov 09)
81. Zwitter ions, have- (Orissa 05) a) Collagen b)Laminin
a) +ve ions > - ions b) + ve ions < - ions c) Fibronectin d) Integrin
c) + ve ions= -ve ions d) None of these e) Elastin·
82. At physiological pH, the carboxy-terminal of a 94. Basic amino acid (s) is/are- (PGI Nov 09)
peptide is- (AIIMS Nov 05) a) Arginine b) Proline
a) Positively charged b) Negatively charged c) Lysine d) Histidine
c) Neutral d) Infinitely charged e) Methionine
83. Substitution of which one of the following amino 95. Folding protein are- (PGI Nov 09)
acids in place of alanine would increase the a) GLUT-1 b) Calnexin
absorbance of protein at 280 nm- (Al!MS Nov 05) c) Cytochrome 450 d) Insulin receptor
a) Leucine b) Arginine
e) Protein disulfide isomerase
c) Tryptophan d) Proline
96. Method (s) to determine protein structure
84. Secretory proteins are synthesized in -
is/are - (PGI Nov 09)
a) Cytoplasm (AIIMS Nov 05)
a) X-ray crystallography b) NMR spectroscopy
b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
c) First in cytoplasm and then in Endoplasmic Reticulum c) Electrophoresis d) Ultrasonography
d) First in Endoplasmic Reticulum and then in cytoplasm e) Infra red spectroscopy
85. Which one of the following can be a homologous 97. Which of the following has maximum buffering
substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence? capacity? (Maharashtra 10)
a) Methionine b) Aspartic acid (AI 06) a) Threonine b) Histidine
c) Valine d) Arginine c) Serine d) Arginine
86. Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They 98. Which component transfers four protons-
fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these a) NADH-Q Oxidoreductase (PGI May 10)
folded structures associate to form homo or b) Cytochrome-C Oxidase
hetero-dimers. Which one of the following refers c) Cytochrome-Q oxidoreductase
to this associated form- (AI 06) d) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
a) Denatured state b) Molecular aggregation 99. Hydrophobic amino acids are- (PGI May 10)
c) Precipitation d) Quaternary structure a) Methionine b) Isoleucine
87. The structural proteins are involved in maintaining c) Tyrosine d) Alanine
the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in e) Asparagine
the body. The shape ofthese proteins is - (AI 06) 100. Trypsin cleaves- (PGI May 10)
a) Globular b) Fibrous a) Arginine b) Glutamate
c) Stretch of beads d) Planar c) Lysine d) Proline
76)b 77)b 78)e 79)b 80)a 81)c 82)b 83)c 84)b 85)c 86)d 87)b 88)d 89)a
90)b 9l)a 92) a,d 93) a,b,e 94) a,c,d 95) b,e 96) a,b,e 97) b 98) a,c 99) a,b,d 100) a,c
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3.7]
101. Method (s) to determine protein structureis/are- 115. This attaches to protein before destruction-
a) X-Ray Crystallography (PGI May 1 0) a) Ubiquitin b) RNAseF (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) NMR Spectroscopy c) Zymase d) Chaperone
c) Electrophoresis 116. Taurine is biosynthesized by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Ultrasonography a) Arginine b) Leucine
e) Infra red spectroscopy c) Valine d) Cysteine
102. Non Polar Amino Acids are- (PGI Nov. 10) 117. Which is 21st amino acid- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Alanine b) Tryptophan a) Alanine b) Cystine
c) Isoleucine d) Lysine c) Arginine d) Seleno cysteine
e) Tyrosine 118. Separation of proteins by their mass -
103. Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis
a) Electrophoresis (NEETIDNB Pattern)
is/are- (PGI Nov.10)
b) Salting out
a) Phosphofructokinase
c) SDS-PAGE
b) Enolase
d) Ion exchange chromatography
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Phospho- glyceromutase 119. Protein segregation occurs in-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
e) Glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate- dehydrogenase a) Golgi appparatus b) Peroxisomes
104. Protein fragments separation is/ are done c) ER d) Mitochondria
by- (PG!Nov.10) 120. 250mmlightisabsorbed by- (NEETIDNBPattern)
a) Western blot b) Chromatography a) Arginine b) Alanine
c) Centrifugation d) Ultrafiltration c) Tyrosine d) Histidine
e) Electrophoresis 121. Protein folding is done by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
105. Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can a) Chaperones b) Preosomes
be seen by- (AIIMS May 11) c) Ubiquitin d) None
a) FISH b) FRAP 122. Which of the followingtripeptide-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Confocal microscopy d) Electron microscopy a) Glutathione b) Angiotensin
106. Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an c) Glucagon d) Oxytocin
alpha - keto acid is done by- (AI 11) 123. Non-essential amino acid- (NEETIDNBPattern)
a) Transaminases b) Oxidases a) Valine b) Leucine
c) Transketolases d) Deaminases
c) Tryptophan d) Aspartate
107. All are essential amino acids except- (Punjab 10)
124. Which of following is an analouge guanosine-
a) Glycine b) Valine
a) Abacavir (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Isoleucine d) Tryptophan
108. Function ofubiguitin in the cells is- (Jipmer 10) b) Allopurinol
c) Bromodeoxyuridine
a) Protein degradation
d) None
b) Election transport chain
125. About Denaturation of protein,which is true-
c) Endocytosis
a) Biological property persists
d) Acute inflammation
b) Primary structure lost (NEETIDNB Pattern)
109. Protein present in brown adipose tissue-
a) Thermogenin b) Dinitro protein (Jipmer 11) c) Always irreversible
d) Mostly renders protein insoluble
c) Spectrin d) Adiponectin
110. Alpha helix formation is inhibited by- (Jipmer 11) 126. Which process involves formation of non essential
a) Glutamate b) Valine amino acid from keto acid? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Deamination b) Transamination
c) Tryptophan d) Proline
c) Dehydrogenation d) Oxidation
111. Nitrogen content in a 200g protein is- (Jipmer 11)
127. Collagen in basement membrane-(NEETIDNBPattem)
a) 24g b)48g
a) Type I b) Type II
c) 16g d) 32g
c) Type III d) Type IV .
112. Functionofubiquitininthecellis- (Jipmer 11)
a) Protein degradation b) Electron transport chain 128. Sulphar containing bond is not found in -
a) Chondroitin (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Endocytosis d) Acute inflammation
113. Protein synthesis occurs in-(NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Keratan
a) Ribosome b) Golgi apparatus c) Dermatan
c) Lysosomes d) Endosomes d) Hyaluronic acid
114. In first step of Heme synthesis, what is required- 129. Myoglobin contains- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Fe b) Folate (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Iron b) Copper
c) Glycine d) Histidine c) Zink d) Selenium
101) a,b,e 102) a,d 103) b,d,e 104) b,c,d 105) b 106) a 107) a 108)a 109)a IlO)d lll)d 112)a 113)a
114) c 115) a 116) d 117) d 118) c 119) a 120) c 121) a 122)a 123)d l24)a 125)d 126)b 127)b
128)d 129) a
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3.8]
130. 1\vo same charged proteins can be separated by all 144. Tyrosinase is- (AIIMS 86)
except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Oxidase b) Transferase
a) Agarose b) DEAE Cellulose c) Lyase d) Isomerase
c) Sephadex d) None of these 145. Fumarase is a- (PGI 84)
131. Which of following is polar- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Oxidoreductase b) Transferase
a) Isoleucine b) Methionine c) Oxidase d) Lyases
c) Glutamic acid d) Tryptophan 146. Michaelis-Menten hypothesis states that- (DNB 91)
132. Precursor of norepinephrine -(NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Rate of enzymatic reaction is independent of
a) Tryptophan b) Tyrosine substrate concentration
c) Methionine d) Asparagine b) Rate of non enzymatic reaction is proportional
133. Which of the following is monoenoic to substrate concentration
acid- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Km is the enzyme-substrate complex association
a) Arachidonic acid b) Linoleic acid
constant
c) Oleic acid d) Linolenic acid
d) Enzyme-substrate complex formation is
134. True about alkaptonuria- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
essential in enzymatic reaction
a) Deficiency of Tyrosinase
147. Dehydrogenases use as coenzymes all of the
b) Urine is black
c) banedict test is not useful following, except- (AIIMS 86)
d) Fecl3 test gives red colour a) FMN b)FAD
135. The fold in collagen is because of presence of- c) NADOP+ d) NAD
a) Glutamate b) Glycine (NEETIDNB Pattern) e) Ferriprotoporphyrin
c) Arginine d) Histidine 148. Glutamine synthetase is a- (AIIMS 80, DELH/83)
136. Mostabundantinbone- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Isomerase b) Ligase
a) Alanine b) Hydroxyproline c) Lyase d) Transferase
c) Lysine d) Arginine 149. Histidine decarboxylase is present in- (AIIMS 86)
137. Which of the following dose not contain uronic acid- a) RBC's b) Heart
a) Hyaluronic acid (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Liver d) Kidney
b) Heparin 150. Coenzyme, in an enzymatic reaction usually
c) Heparan sulfate functions to- (AIIMS 86)
d) Keratan sulfate a) Activate the substrate
138. Amino acid sequence in protein is determined by- b) Increase the active sites of apoenzyme
a) Sanger's reagent (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Enhance the specificity of apoenzyme
b) Banedit's reagent d) Accept one of the cleavage products
c) Fehling's reagent 151. Coenzymes are ...........organic compounds-
d) Ehrlich's reagent a) Lipoprotein b) Proteinaceous (PG184)
139. Amino sugar are formed forms-(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Non-protein d) Any ofthe above
a) Glucose-1-phosphate b) Glucose-6-phosphate 152. Incompetitiveinhibition- (DELH/84)
c) Fructose-1-phosphate d) Fructose-6-phosphate a) Vmax unchanged
b) Apparent Km unchanged
ENZYMES c) Apparent Km decreased
d) Vmax decreased
140. Cardiacenzymesare- (PG/87) e) Rate independent of substrate concentration
a) CPK b)LDH 153. Which of the following is not a component of
c) SOOT d) Alk. Phosphatase coenzymeA- (AIIMS 83)
141. Enzymesstoredinmuscleis- (TN89) a) Pantothenic acid b) Adenylic acid
a) Alkaline phosphatase b)SGOT c) Sulfhydryl group d) Acetic acid
c) SGPT d)CPK 154. Kinases require- (AIIMS 84, Delhi 82)
142. The enzyme diagnostic of MI in a case of a) Mn++ b) Cu++
hypothyroidism is- (TN 91) c) Mg++ d) Inorganic phosphate
a) SGOT b)LDH 155. Lactate dehydrogenase is- (AIIMS 86)
c) Aldolase d) CPK- MB
a) Isozyme b) Coenzyme
143. Aspartate transaminase, an enzyme, is most
c) Antienzyme d) Zymogen
abundant in- (DELHI 83)
156. Hexokinase is a- (AIIMS 79, Delhi 85)
a) Brain b) Heart
a) Transferase b) Reductase
c) Spleen d) Retina
c) Oxidoreductase d) Oxidase
130)b 131)c 132)b 133)c 134)b 135)b 136)b 137)d 138)a 139)d 140)a,b,c 141)b,c,d 142)d
143)b 144)a 145)d 146)c,d 147)e 148)b 149)c,d lSO)d 151) c 152)a 153)d 154)c 155)a 156)a
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3.8]
157. The lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels are d) Same electrophoretic mobility
increased in- (UPSC 83, 86, AIIMS 83) e) Have different physical properties
a) Myocardial infarction 169. Trueaboutenzymespecificity- (PGI OJ)
b) Acute pancreatitis a) Amount of enzyme required per second, per mole
c) Diabetes mellitus of product formation
d) Acute glomerulonephritis b) Number of sites per substrate
158. Hormone substrate concentration affects the c) Amount of enzyme binding with various substrates
velocity of enzymatic action, this is known as - d) Number of enzyme units per milligram of enzyme
a) Zimmerman reaction (DNB 90, AIIMS 84, protein
b) Salkowskireaction PGI96) e) Amount ofenzyme causing transformation of 1 mol
c) Michales Menton reaction of substrate per minute under standard conditions
d) Lieberman-Burchard reaction 170. Ribozymes is/are- (PGI 02)
159. Which of the following enzymes do not need a) Splicing of heterogenous RNA (hnRNA) to form
cofactor- (Delhi 87) mRNA
a) Oxidoreductase b) Isomerase b) Splicing of polypeptide chain and mRNA
c) Aldolase d) Lyases c) Transcription of codons in introns
160. The combination of main snpporting enzyme is d) Recognition of codons in introns
called- (PGI 83, AIIMS 91) e) RNApolymerase
a) Apoenzyme b) Coenzyme 171. ~02 is breaked or formed by which of the following
c) Holoenzyme d) Constitutive enzyme enzyme- (PGI 03)
161. Coenzymes forms are correctly matched except- a) Oxidase b) Oxygenase
a) Biotin- carboxylated biotin (DNB 88) c) Hydrolase d) Peroxidase
b) Vitamin B - ATP e) Catalase
c) Niacin-NAD+NADP 172. Enzyme marker for Golgi apparatus- (PGI 03)
d) VitaminB2-FMN + FAO a) Peroxidase b) Galactosidase
162. Disopropyl phosphofluoridate (DFP) reacts with c) Galactosyl transferase d) Catalase
serine proteases irreversibly and therefore is - d) Acid phosphatase
a) Allosteric inhibitor (AP 87) 173. Which one of the following is an example of
b) Competitive inhibitor antioxidant endogenous enzyme- ( UPSC 02)
c) Non competitive inhibitor a) Cytochrome oxidase
d) A repressor b) Superoxide dismutase
163. AdenylCyclaseiscomposedof- (TN89) c) Creatine kinase
a) C-AMP d) Xanthine oxidase
b) Phosphodiesterase 174. In competitive inhibition the relation Km and
c) Nuclearreceptors Vmax is one ofthe following- (Jipmer 03)
d) GTP dependant regulatory proteins a) Km and Vmax are the same
164. The maximum number of substrate per mole b) Km increases and Vmax is the same
enzymes is seen with- (Al96) c) Km decreases and Vmax increases
a) Amylase b) Trypsin d) Km and Vmax decreases
c) Lipase d) Collagenase 175. The main enzyme responsible for activation of
165. Which ofthe following is a synthetic reaction- xenobiotics is- (AI 03)
a) Reduction b) Acetylation (Karnat 97) a) CytochromeP-450
c) Oxidation d) Hydrolysis b) Glutathione S - transferase
166. Km Increases but Vmax same enzyme is- (PGI 98) c) NADPH cytochrome P- 450 reductase
a) Competitive b) Non competitive d) Glucoronyl transferase
c) Irreversible d) Uncompetitive 176. The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at
167. Hydrogen peroxide is a product of reaction catalysed pHequalto- (A/03)
by- (TN 2002) a) 0.5pKa b)pKa
a) Fumarase c) pKa+l d)2pKa
b) Catalase 177. Kmofanenzymeis- (AIIMS03, PGI98)
c) L- amino acid oxidase a) Dissociation constant
d) Lactate dehydrogenase b) The normal physiological substrate concentration
168. True about isoenzymes is/are- (PGI 01) c) The substrate concentration at half maximum
a) Different km value velocity
b) Act on different substrate d) Numerically identical for all isozymes that catalyze
c) Consistofmultimeric complex a given reaction
157)a,b 158)c 159)c,d 160)c 16l)b 162)c 163)None l64)b 165)b l66)a 167)c 168) a,c,e 169) e 170) a,d
l7l)a,d,e 172)c 173)b 174)b 175)a 176)b 177)c
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3.10]
178. Non vitamin co enzyme is- (Orissa 04) 190. In muscle, phosphorylase b is inactivated by-
a) Lipoic acid b) Co A a) cAMP b) Ca ions (AIIMS Nov 08)
c) S-adenosyl methionine d) Niacin c) Glucose d)ATP
179. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one 191. All of the following enzymes are involved in
molecule to another are known as- (AI 05) oxidation-reduction reactions, Except- (AI 09)
a) Ligases b) Oxido-reductases a) Dehydrogenases b) Hydrolases
c) Transferases d) Dipeptidases c) Oxygenases d) Peroxidases
180. A common feature of all serine proteases is-(AI 06) 192. Serine pro teases- (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
a) Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor a) Hydrolyze peptide bonds involving carboxyl
b) Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor groups of serine residues
c) Cleavage of protein on the carboxyl site of serine b) Are characterized by having several active sites
residues per molecule, each containing a serine residue
d) Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the c) Are inactivated by reaching with one molecule of
active site di-isopropyl-fluorophosphate per molecule of
181. Which of the following is an example of a reverse protein
transcriptase - (Karnataka - PG MEE 06) d) Are exopeptidases
a) Gyrase b) Helicase 193. The specific activity of an enzyme would be reported
c) Telomerase d) RNA polymerase in which of tbe following units of measures ?
182. All of the following are true regarding oxygenases a) Millimoles per liter (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
except- (AI 07) b) Units of activity per milligram of protein
a) Incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen c) Micromoles per minute
b) Incorporate 1 atom of oxygen d) Units of activity per minute
c) Required for hydroxylation of steroids 194. A non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme -
d) Required for carboxylation of drugs a) Increases K.n with no or little change in Vmax
183. Treatment ofMultiple Carboxylase deficiency is- b) Decreases K.n (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
a) Biotin b) Pyridoxine (AI 07) c) Decreases Vmax
c) Thiamine d) Folic acid d) Increases V max
195. All known effects of cyclic AMP in eukaryotic cells
184. Which ofthe following enzymes is stable at acidic
results from- (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
pH- (A/07)
a) Activation of the catalytic unit ofadenylate cyclase
a) Pepsin b) Trypsin
b) Activation of synthetase
c) Chymotrypsin d) Carboxypeptidase
c) Activation of protein kinase
185. The adenylate cyclase system is mediated by-
d) Activation Phosphorylation of G protein
a) cAMP (MAHE 07)
196. Aspirin inhibits which of the following
b) Phosphodiesterase enzymes? (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
c) GTP regulating proteins a) Lipoprotein lipase b) Lipoxygenase
d) Nuclear receptors c) Cyclooxygenase d) Phospholipase D
186. Different sequence of amino acids having similar 197. Which of the follwing enzymes are activated in
structure of proteins is an example of- (AIIMS Nov dephosphorylatedstate- (PGI Nov 09)
a) Divergence b) Convergence 07) a) HMGCoAreductase
c) Opportunistic d) Incidental b) Glycogen phosphorylase
187. All are true about glutathione except- c) Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
a) It is a tripeptide (AIIMS Nov 08) d) Citrate lyase
b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin e) Glycogen synthase
c) It conjugates xenobiotics 198. True about reversible non-competetive inhibitors-
d) It is co-factor of various enzymes a) LowerVrnax b)LowerKm (PGINov09)
188. Non-functional enzymes are all except- c) NotaffectKm d)NotaffectVmax
a) Alkaline phosphatase (AIIMS Nov 08) e) Affect both V max & Km
b) Acid phosphatase 199. TrueaboutKm- (PGINov09)
c) Lipoprotein lipase a) Half the substrate concentration at which velocity
d) Gamma glutarnyl transpeptidase is maximum
189. Refsum's disease is due to deficiency of which of b) Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is
thefollowingenzyme? (AIIMS Nov 08) half the maximum
a) Malonate dehydrogenase c) Michaelis constant
b) Thiophorase d) Dissociation constant of enzyme-substrate
c) Succinate thiokinase complex
d) Phytanic alpha oxidase e) Dissication constant of enzyme-product complex
178)a 179)c 180)d 18l)c 182)d 183)a 184)a 185)a 186)b 187)b I88)c 189)d 190)d
19l)b 192)b 193)b 194)c 195)c 196)c 197) a,e 198) a,c 199) b,c
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3.11 ]
200. Which component transfers four protons- 211. Hexokinase is- (PUNJAB 11)
a) NADH-Q oxidoreductase (PGI Nov 09) a) Ligase b) Transferase
b) Cytochrome oxidase c) Oxidoreductase d) Reductase
c) Cytochrome-Q c oxidoreductase 212. The predominant isoenzyme ofLDH occuring in liver
d) Isocitrate dehydrogenase injury is- (PUNJAB 11)
e) Succinate Q reductase a) IDH-1 b)LDH-2
201. Zinc is a cofactor for- (AIIMS Nov 09) c) IDH-4 d)LDH-5
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase 213. Marker for peroxisomes- (Jipmer 10)
b) Pyruvate decarboxylase a) Glucose-6-phosphatase
c) a-keto glutarate dehydrogenase b) Glutamate dehydrogenase
d) Alcohol dehydrogenase c) 5-nucleotidase
202. Which of the following liver enzymes is d) Uric acid oxidase
predominantly mitochondrial- (AI 10) 214. Digestive enzymes are - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) SGOT (AST) b) SGPT (ALT) a) Hydrolases b) Oxidoreductases
c) OOf d) 5' Nucleotidase c) Dehydrogenases d) Ligases
203. Kinase require- (DPG 10) 215. Rate limiting enzyme in heme synthesis-
a) Mn++ b) Cu++ a) ALA synthase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Mg++ d) Inorganic phosphate b) Hmg coa reductase
204. Pyridoxal phosphate acts as coenzyme for the c) ALA dehydratase
followingexcept- (Maharashtra 10) d) Uroporphyrinogen 1 synthase
a) Alanine transferase b) Tranketolase 216. Zinc is a cofactor for- (NEET!DNB Pattern)
c) ALA Synthase d) Cystathionine Synthase a) Carbonic anhydrase
205. True about competitive inhibition of enzyme- b) Pyrovate carboxylase
a) iKm b) J, Km (PGI May 10) c) Alpha-ketoglutarate
c) iVmax d)NochangeinKmandVmax d) Enolase
e) Vmax remain same 217. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one
206. Non- competitive enzyme inhibition leads to-
molecule to another are known as- (AI 05,02, 92)
a) Vmaxi b)Vmax-1
a) Ligases b) Oxido-reductases
c) Vmaxunchanged d) Km i (PG!Nov.10)
c) Transferases d) Dipeptidases
e) Km-1
207. A transporter has a Km for glucose of 45 mM and a 218. Enzymes act by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
Vmax of 36 micromoles glucose sec/mg of a) Increase in activation energy
transporter. If the glucose concentration in b) Decrease in activation energy
peripheral blood is 15 mM, what will the rate of c) Shift equilbrium constant
glucose transport (in micromoles glucose/sec/mg d) None
transporter) be? (Karn 11) 219. Carboxylasesrequire- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) 6 b)3 a) Vitamin B 1 b) Vitamin B 2
c) 12 d) 9 c) VitaminB 12 d) VitaminB7
208. Which of the following causes hydrolysis of 220. Which of the following enzymes is active in
Peptidoglycans- (Punjab 10) phosphorylated form- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Lysozyme b) Lactoferrin a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) Protease d) Aflatoxin b) HMG-CoA reductase
209. Following is true statement about enzymes- c) HMG-CoA reductase kinase
a) In competitive inhibition Vmax unchanged but Km d) Pyruvate kinase
increased (Punjab 10) 221. Serum enzyme used for MI- (NEET!DNB Pattern)
b) In uncompetitive inhibition Km unchanged but a) CPK
Vmax increased b) Alkaline phosphatase
c) In uncompetitive inhibition Km unchanged but c) Acid phosphatase
Vmaxchanged d) Lipase
d) In uncompetitive inhibition mixed increase ofVmax 222. Km value is defmed as- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
andKmvalue
a) Substrate concentration at Vmax/2
210. All of the following cells contain telomerase enzyme
b) Substrate concentration of twice Vmax
except- (Punjab 10)
c) Substrate concentration ofthrice Vmax
a) Cancer cells b) Germ cells
d) Substrate concentration of one third Vmax
c) Somatic cells d) Hemopoetic cells
200)a,c 20l)d 202)a 203)c 204)b 205) a,e 206) b 207)c 208)a 209)a>c 210)c 2ll)b 212)d 213)d
214)a 215)a 216)a 217)c 218)b 219)d 220)c 221)a 222)a
223. Carboxylases requires- (NEET/DNBPattern) 235. CoA requires - (NEETIDNB Pattern)

a) VitaminB 12 b) Folic acid a) Pantothenic group b) Biotin
c) Niacin d) Biotin c) Folic acid d) Cabalamine
224. The predomiuant isoenzyme ofLDH occuring iu liver 236. Type of inhibition of aconitase by Transaconitate
injury is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Non-competitive b) Competitive
a) IDH-1 b)LDH-2
c) Allosteric d) None
c) IDH-4 d)LDH-5
237. Functional plasma enzyme is -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
225. In competitive inhibition the relation Km and a) Fibrinogen b)LDH
Vmax is one of the following- (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) SGOT d) SGPT
a) Km and Vmax are the same 238. Isoenzyme, true is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Km increases and Vmax is the same a) Same structure and similar function
c) Km decreases and Vmax increases b) Different structure and similar function
d) Km and Vmax decreases c) Catalse different reaction
226. What are isoenzyme- (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) Have same Km
a) Physically same forms of different enzymes 239. Aldolase is a/an- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Physically disinct forms of same enzyme a) Transperase b) Isomerase
c) Forms of same enzyme that catalyze different c) Lyase d) Reductase
reactions
d) Forms of different enzyme that catalyze same
RESPIRATORY CHAIN
reactions 240. All these reactions take place inside the mitochondria
227. Which of the following is not secreted as zymogen- except- (PGI 85, 86, Kerala, 88, AP 86, Delhi 86)
a) Pepsin (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) EM pathway b) Krebs cycle
b) Trypsin c) Urea cycle d) Electron transfer
c) Amylase e) Fatty acid oxidation
d) Colipase 241. Detoxification of drugs is controlled by- (AP 88)
228. Cofator for glutathione peroxidase- a) Cytochrome b)CytochromeP450
a) Mg+2 b) Se (NEET!DNB Pattern) c) Cytochrome C d) Cytochrome A
c) Mn+2 d) Ca+2 242. Livings cells require which of the following as a
229. Fumarase is- (NEET/DNB Pattern) component ofATP, NAD, NADP and tlavins-
a) Lyase b) Ligase a) Organic sulfar (Karnatak 89)
c) Hydrolase d) None b) Magnesium ion
230. Which isoform ofLDH is raised in Anemia- c) Inorganic phosphates
a) LDH 5 b) LDH 4 (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) Ferrous ion
c) LDH 3 d) LDH 2 243. The main function of mitochondria is- (Kerala 91)
231. Following is true statement about enzymes- a) Protein synthesis b) Oxidation
a) In competitive inhibition Vmax unchanged butKm c) Electron transfer d) Fat synthesis
increased (NEETIDNB Pattern) 244. The enzyme marker of electron transport system is-
b) In uncompetitive inhibition Km unchanged but a) Cytochrome reductase (All India 92)
Vmax increased b) Fumarase
c) In uncompetitive inhibition Km unchanged but c) Pyruvate
Vmax changed d) Malate dehydrogenase
d) In uncompetitive inhibition mixed increase ofVmax 245. Conversion of phenylacetic acid into phenol is
andKmvalue an example of- (PGI 82)
a) Oxidation b) Reduction
232. Apoenzyme is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Hydrolysis d) Conjugation
~Cofucror b)Coenzyme
246. Which of the following is a constituent of
c) Protein moiety d) None
CytochromeCreductase- (AIIMS 85, 82)
233. Enzyme causing covalent bond cleavage without a) B1 b)B,
hydrolysis ? (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Biotin d) Pyridoxine
a) Lyase b) Ligase e) Ascorbic acid
c) Hydrolase d) Transferase 247. Which of the following is not a component of
234. Specific activity of enzyme is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) transport system- (PG/79, Al!MS 81)
a) mol of enzyme per gram of substrate a) Receptor activation
b) Enzyme units per mg of protein b) Selective gate
c) Cone. of substrate transformed per minute c) Non-selective channel
d) None d) Energy coupling system
223)d 224)d 225)b 226)b 227)b 228)b 229)a 230)d 23l)a 232)c 233)a 234)b 235)a 236)b
237)a 238)b 239)c 240)a 241)b 242)c 243)c 244)a 245)None 246)b 247)a
248. Cytochromes are- (AIJMS 83, DNB 88) 261. Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by- (PGI 02)
a) Pyridine nucelotides a) Cyanide b) Aluminium phosphide
b) Metal containing flavoproteins c) Phenobarbitone d) Carbonrnonoxide
c) Peroxidases e) NO
d) Iron-porphyrin proteins 262. Mitochondrial membrane protein contain
249. Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation -(AllMS 81) transporter of- (PGI 03)
a) Snake venom b) High levels of serum bilirubin a) NADH b) Acetyl COA
c) High level ofT 4 d) High level of free F. A. c) NADPH d)ATP
e) All the above 263. Internal respiration are- (PGJ 03)
250. Aerobic oxidation of reduced cytochromes shows a) Exergonic and anabolic
P/0 ratio of- (AIIMS 79, 84)
b) Exergonic and catabolic
a) 4 b) 3
c) Endergonic and anabolic
c) 2 d) 1
d) Endergonic and catabolic
251. Cyanide is toxic because it- (Karnatak 94)
a) Inhibits cytochrome oxidase e) Cytochrome-C reductase involved
b) Forms cyan meth Hb 264. Intermediate metabolite in TCA cycle are AlE-
c) Inhibits ATP carrier in mitochondria a) Pyruvate b)lsocitrate (PGJOJ)
d) Inhibits Na-K-ATP ase c) Oxaloacetate d) Malonate
252. NADPH is used in- (AI 95, 98) e) Nitric oxide
a) Fatty acid synthesis b) Ketone synthesis 265. Electron transport chain is located in -(St.Johns 02)
c) Glucogenesis d) Glycolysis a) Inner mitochondrial membrane
253. Which of the following is an effect of dinitrophenol b) Inner part of mitochondrial membrane
on oxidative phosphorylation - c) Intermembranous
a) Inhibition of cytochrome b d) Matrix
b) Blockade of both electron transport and ATP 266. What is the connecting link between urea cycle
synthesis and TCAcycle- (Bihar 03)
c) Inhibition ofATP synthesis with normal electron a) Fumarate b) Sucinate
transport c) Oxaloacetale d) Arginino sucinate
d) Inhibition of electron transport but not ATP 267. Least important in final pathway of Electron Chain
synthesis Reaction is- (SGPGI 05)
254. In cytochrome P 450, P stands for- (AJ99) a) Ph
a) Structural proteins b) Substrate protein b) Temperature (morning)
c) Pigment d) Polymer c) Enzyme concentration
255. About oxidative phosphorylation true is- (PG197)
d) Substrate concentration
a) GenerationofATP's b)GenerationofADP's
268. All of the following is true when one molecule of
c) Utilization ofATP's d) Utilization ofNADP
acetyl CoA is oxidized by citric acid cycle except-
256. Acetyl CoA is necessary for- (PGI 97)
a) NADH is produced & each (SGPGJ 05)
a) Arninoacid b) Fatty acid synthesis
c) Glucose storage d)All of this molecule produces 3 ATP
257. In TCA cycle, C0 2 is released from- (PG198) b) FADH2 is produced which from 2 ATP
a) Thioinase c) Succinyl CoA to succinate-one molecule of ATP
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase is generated
c) Citrate dehydrogenase d) Total of 14 ATP are generated
d) Alpha ketoglutrate 269. NADPH+, H+ is generated in the reaction catalysed
258. Among the following, the maximum redox potential by- (SGPGI 05)
is for- (PG199) a) IDH b)G-6PD
a) NADHINAD b) Succinyl Co A fumarate c) G-3 PD d) Alcohol dehydrogenase
c) Ubiquinone d) Fe 2+ 270. Total number of dehydrogenases Krebs cycle-
259. Proper functioning of Kreb cycle does not occur a) 3 b)2 (MAHE05)
with deficiency of- (PGJ2000) c) 4 d) 5
a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin 271. True about electron transport chain-(PGJ June 05)
c) VitarninE d) Vit K a) FADH gives 2 ATP
260. In vivo control of citric acid cycle is effected by- b) Entry point ofNADH is at complex II
a) Acetyl CoA b)CoenzymeA (PGJOJ) c) NADH gives 3 ATP
c) ATP d) Citrate d) FADH gives 3 ATP
e) NADH e) NADH enters the step 1 of cycle
248)d 249)e 250)b,c 251)a 252)a 253)c 254)c · 255)a 256)b 257)b 258)d 259)a,b 260)c,e 261)a,d
262)a,c,d 263)b,e 264)a,d,e 265)a 266)a 267)c 268)d 269)b 270)c 271)a,c,e
272. During phagocytosis, the metabolic process caUed 284. Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of
respiratory burst involves the activation of -(AI 06) glucose to C02 to water is present in-
a) Oxidase b) Hydrolase a) Cytosol b) Mitochondria (Aiirns May 07)
c) Peroxidase d) Dehydrogenase c) Lysosomes d) Endoplasmic reticulum
273. The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which 285. First substrate ofKreb's cycle is- (Aiirns May 0 7)
fuel oxidation serves not to produce ATP but to a) Pyruvate b) Glycine
generate heat is- (AI 06) c) HO d) Lipoprotein
a) Adrenal gland b) Skeletal muscle 286. Cytochrome oxidase contains- (UP 07)
a) Ca++ b)Cu
c) Brown adipose tissue d) Heart
c) Mn d)Zn
274. The comparison of the amino acid sequence of
287. Which of the following metabolic pathways does not
Cytochrome C from different species shows many
generateATP- (AI 08)
variations. Most ofthese variations are found -
a) Glycolysis b) TCA cycle
a) Randomly (AI 06)
c) Fatty acid Oxidation d) HMP pathway
b) Only in helical regions 288. Transport of fatty acids through mitochondrial
c) Only in strand regions membrane is by- {DPGEE 08)
d) Mainly in loop regions a) Active transport b) Facilitated transport
275. 3 ATP's are formed in the foUowing steps ofkreb's c) Diffusion d) Lipases
cycle- (PGI June 06) 289. The following poisons act by causing inhibition of
a) Isocitrate dehydrogenase complex IV of respiratory chain except-
b) Succinate dehydrogenase a) Cyanide b) Malonate (Maharashtra 10)
c) Succinate thiokinase c) H2S d)CO
d) Malate dehydrogenase 290. Methionine can entre the TCA cycle at which
276. Which ofthe following inhibit complex IV- level - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Amylobarbital b)Aconitase (APPG06) a) Fumarate b) Oxabacetate
c) Secobarbitone d) Cyanide c) Succinyl - CoA d) Citrate
277. CoA and Acylcarier protein (ACP) are similar in 291. Cyanide inhibits - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
that- (PGMCET 07) a) Pyrurate kinase b) Cytochrome C oxidase
a) Both are present in mitochondria c) Enolase d) None
b) Both contain pantothenic acid 292. Mitochondria have- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Both are used in fatty acid degradation a) Plasmid DNA
d) Both are required for activation of fatty acids b) Circular DNA
278. Which of the following vitamin is used in the electron c) Single stranded DNA
transport chain- (PGMCET 07) d) Double stranded DNA
a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin 293. UncouplerinETC- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Nicotinic acid d) Vitamin B 12 a) H2S b) Antimycin a
279. Copper is a constituent of the enzyme -(Corned 07) c) 2, 4-dinitrophenol d) Barbiturates
a) Lysyl oxidase b) Glucose oxidase 294. The number of ATPs generated in krebs cycle are-
c) Xanthine oxidase d) Transketolase a) 12 b)24 (NEETIDNBPattern)
280. All the following are inhibitors of cytochrome c) 15 d) 30
oxidase except- (Corned 07) 295. Electron transport chain is located in- (NEETIDNB
a) Carbonmonoxide b)Amytal a) Inner mitochondrial membrane Pattern)
c) Cyanide d) Azide b) Inner part of mitochondrial membrane
281. A major lipid of mitochondrial membrane is- c) Intermembranous
a) Lecithin b) Inositol (Corned 08) d) Matrix
c) Plasmalogen d) Cardiolipin 296. Why citric acid cycle called amphibolic pathway-
282. All of the following occur in mitochondria except- a) Both exergonic and endergonic reactions takes
a) Citric acid cycle (Kreb's cycle) (AI 07) place (NEETIDNBPattern)
b) Glycogenolysis b) Metabolites are utilized in other pathways
c) Fatty acid oxidation c) It can proceed both in forward and backward
d) Electron transport chain direction
283. Dinitrophenol causes- (AI 07) d) Same enzymes can be used in reverse directions
a) Inhibition of ATP synthase 297. The activity of pyruvate carboxylase is dependent
b) Inhibition of electron transport upon the positive allosteric effector-
c) Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation a) Succinate b) AMP (NEETIDNBPattern)
d) Accumulation ofATP c) I so citrate d) Acetyl CoA
272)a 273)c 274)a 275) a,d 276) d 277)a 278)b 279)a 280)b 281)d 282)b 283)c 284)b 285)a
286)b 287)d 288)b 289)b 290)c 29l)b 292) b,d 293) c 294)None>a 295)a 296)a 297)d
298. Substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis is 311. High energy compound is- (NEETIDNBPattern)
seen in - (NEETIDNBPattern) a) ADP b)ATP
a) Pyruvate kinase b) Succinate thiokinase c) Glucose-6-phosphate d)AMP
c) Enolase d)PDH 312. Anaplerotic reaction is catalyzed by-
299. The biosynthesis of the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase a) Pyruvate carboxylse (NEET/DNB Pattern)
is repressed by- (NEETIDNBPattern)
b) Enolase
a) Insulin b) Glucagon
c) Pyruvate kinase
c) Cortisol d) Epinephrine
300. Which is inhibitor to cytochrome oxidase? d)G6PD
a) Malonate b) BAL (NEETIDNBPattern) 313. Rate limiting step in TCA cycle is catalyzed by -
c) Oligomycin d) Cyanide a) a-ketoglotarate (NEETIDNB Pattern)
301. Enzyme involved in oxidative phosphorylation- b) Pumarase
a) Pyruvate kinase (NEETIDNBPattern) c) Aconitase
b) Succinyl CoA thiokinase d) Thiokinase
c) NADH dehydrogenase 314. Complex! ofETC is inhibited by-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) None a) Amobarbital b) Cyanide
302. Which copple has minimum Redox potential- c) CD d) H2 S
a) NADP /NADPH (NEETIDNBPattern)
315. Rate limiting steps in TCA cycle- (NEETIDNB
b) NAD+/NADH
a) a Ketoglutarate~ Succinyl CoA Pattern)
c) FAD/FAD~
d) CoQ-CoQ H2 b) Citrate ~ Isocitrate
303. Substrate-level phosphorylation seen in reaction c) Succinyl CoA ~ Succinate
catalysed in- (NEETIDNBPattern) d) Succinate ~ Fumarate
a) Succinate dehydrogenase 316. Which of the following is physiological
b) Alfa-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase uncoupler- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Succinyl CoA thiokinase a) Thermogenin b) 2, 4 nitrophenol
d) Malate dehydrogenase c) 2, 4 Dinitrophanal d) Oligomycin
304. In ETC NADH generates- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 317. Maximum energy store in -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 1 ATPs b) 2ATPs a) Adipose b) Liver
c) 3 ATPs d) 4 ATPs c) Muscle d) Blood glucose
305. Total number of dehydrogenases Krebs cycle- 318. Cytochrome C oxidase is inhibited by- (NEETIDNB
a) 3 b)2 (NEETIDNBPattern)
a) Barbiturate b) 2, 4-dinitrophanol Pattern)
c) 4 d) 5
306. Energy currency of the cell is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) }\S d) Rotenone
a) Nucleotide diphosphate 319. ATP is generated in ETC by -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Nucleotide triphosphate a) Na+ K+ ATPase b) Na+ cr ATPase
c) Deoxynucleotide diphosphate c) FoF 1 ATPase d) ADP Kinase
d) Nuceotide monophosphate 320. Substrate for ATP synthase is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
307. Respiratory burst is due to which enzyme- a) AMP b)ADP
a) NADH oxidase (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) IMP d)GMP
b) Catalase 321. ATPs generated in TCA cycle- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) SOD a) 15 b)20
d) Glutathione peroxidase
c) 30 d) 40
308. Chemiosmotic coupling ofoxidation phosphorylation
is related to- (NEETIDNBPattern)
a) Formation of ATP at substrate level METABOLISM OF CARBOHYDRATE
b) ATP generation of pumping of protein
c) ATP generation of pumping of neutron 322. McArdles disease is due to the deficiency of-
d) ATP formation by transport of 0 2 a) Gluc-1, Phosphatase (JIPMER 86, PGI 86, 87
309. RQ is least in - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) G1uc-l, 6 diphosphatase Kerala 88)
a) Brain b) RBC c) Glue 6 phosphatse
c) Adipose d) Heart d) Myophosphorylase
310. Which of the following enters the TCA cycle at 323. NADPH is generated by the action of- (AIIMS 87)
succinyl-CoA- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Glucose 6 Phosphate dehydrogenase
a) Tyrosine b) Glucose 1 phosphate dehydrogenase
b) Methionine c) Glucose 1.6 diphosphate dehydrogenase
c) Tryptophan d) All of the above
d) Histidine
298)a 299)a 300)d 30l)c 302)a 303)c 304)None>c 305)c 306)b 307)a 308)b 309)d 310)b
311)b 312)a 313)a 314)a 315)a 316)a 317)a 318)c 319)c 320)b 32l)c 322)d 323)a
324. Cyclic AMP accelerates glycogenolysis by- 337. Oxaloacetate+Acetyl CoA+Hp=Citrate+CoA.

a) Converting inactive protein kinase (AIIMS 87) This is an example of- (TN 97)
to active protein kinase a) Hydration b) Deacylation
b) Acting on glue 1 phosphatase c) Dehydrogenation d) Condensation
c) Acting on glue 6 phosphatase 338. Which of the following is not decreased in diabetes
d) All of the above mellitus- (AI 90)
325. Von Gierke's disease is due to the deficiency of- a) Glucokinase b) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
c) Pyruvate carboxylase d) All
a) Gluc-6 phosphatase (PGI 85)
339. All increase serum glucose except- (AI 91)
b) Gluc-1 phosphatase
a) Glucagon b) Edpinephrine
c) Branching enzyme c) Cortisol d) Vasopressin
d) Mycophosphorylase 340. All are true regarding glucose-6-phosphate
e) Glue 1,6 diphosphotase deficiency except - (AI 91)
326. Galactosaemia commonly is due to deficiency of- a) Hyperuricemia
a) Galactose- I phosphatate uridyl transferas b) Hyperglycemia
b) Galactose- I phosphatase (PGI 85) c) Defective cori cycle
c) Glucose-1 phosphatase d) Increased mobilisation of glycogen from liver
d) Glucose-6 phosphatase 341. All are common in diabetes and starvation except
327. Adrenaline acts on which enzyme in glycogenolysis- a) Increased gluconeogenesis (AI 91)
a) Glucokinase b) Hexokinase (AI 89) b) Increased glycogen degradation
c) Phosphorylase d) Glue diphosphatase c) Increased fatty acid mobiliation from adipose
328. Insulin acts on which enzyme in glycolysis -(AI 89) tissue
a) Glucokinase b) Hexokinase d) Cholesterol synthesis
c) Glucose 6-Phosphatase d) Adenylate kinase 342. The end product of one stage fermentation is-
329. The tissue with the highest glycogen content a) Formic acid b) Pyruvate (JIPMER 91)
(mg/lOOmg)- (PGI 88) c) Lactate d) Ethanol
a) Liver b) Muscle 343. Glycogen synthetase is increased by -(JIPMER 91)
c) Kidneys d) Testes a) Cortisone b) Insulin
330. Which ofthe following are reducing sugars- c) CH d) Epinephrine
a) Sucrose b) Maltose (PGI 88) 344. TCAcycledoesnottakeplacein- (JIPMER91)
c) Trehalose d) Glucose a) Hepatocyte b) Osteocyte
e) Lactase c) Neuron d) Erythrocyte
331. Keyglycolyticenzymes- (PGI 88) 345. Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is seen in -(AI 92)
a) Phosphofructokinase b) Hexokinase a) Pompe's disease b) Von gierke's disease
c) Pyruvate kinase d) Glue 1,6 diphosphatase c) Me Ardles syndrome d) Downs syndrome
332. Sites where HMP shunts can occur include- 346. Whichisnotseeninstarvation- (Al92)
a) Liver b) WBC (PGI 83) a) Ketoacidosis b) Hypoglycemia
c) Lactatingmammany gland d) Testes c) Hypercholesterolemia d) Hypertriglyceridemia
e) All 347. Muscle glyocogen is mainly utilised for supplying
333. Glucose can be synthesised from all except- energyto- (AI92)
a) Amino acids b) Glycerol a) Liver b) Heart
c) Acetoacetate d) Lactic acid c) Brain d) Muscle
334. What is the major fate of glucose-6-phosphate 348. Major contribution towards gluconeo genesis is
in the tissue in the fed state- (AI 89) by- (AI 92)
a) Isomerisation to Fructose-6-phosphate a) Lactate b) Glycerol
c) Ketones d) Alanine
b) Hydrolysis to glucose
349. Lactate is transported from muscle to Liver
c) Conversion to glycogen
because- (AI 92)
d) Conversion to ribulose-6-phosphate
a) Liver has mitochondria
335. Which ofthe following is completely dependent on
b) Lactate is stored in Liver
glucose as fuel- (AIIMS 82)
c) Liver has Glucose-6-Phosphatase
a) Renal cortex b) Adrenal cortex
d) Lactate is Oxidised in Liver
c) Heart d) Retina 350. Which of the following is not a product ofliMP shunt
336. Gluconeogenesis does not occur significantly a) NADPH (AIIMS 92)
from ... in humans- (AIIMS 92) b) D fructose-6-phosphate
a) Lactate b) Fatty acids c) D sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
c) Pyruvate d) Amino acid d) D Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
324)a 325)a 326)a 327)c 328)a 329)a 330)b,c,d,e 33l)a,b,c 332)a,c,d 333)c 334)c 335)d 336)b
337)d 338)c 339)d 340)b 34l)d 342)d 343)b 344)d 345)b 346)c,d 347)d 348)d 349)c 350)c
351. Allosteric inhibition with ATP affects - (Al93) 363. The main products of HMP shunt are all
a) Phosphofructokinase except- (PG/81)
b) Phospho - enol - pyruvase a) 6-NADPH b)2-Fructose-6-P04
c) G-6PD c) l-Glyceraldehyde-3-P04 d) I-C02
d) Pyruvate kinase 364. Transketolase- (PG/82)
352. Gluconeogenesis occurs in the Liver and ..... - a) Transfers two carbon fragments to an aldehyde
a) Kidney b) Muscle (A/93) acceptor
c) Heart d) Fat b) Transfers a three carbon ketone containing
353. Insulin promotes transport of glucose in which fragment to an acceptor
of these- (JIPMER 93) c) Converts ribose-5-phophate to xylulose-5-
a) Hepatocytes b) Muscles phosphate
c) RBC d) Adipose tissue d) Concerts two five carbon sugar phosphates to
354. Which of the following hepatic enzyme activities fuctose-6-phosphate and erythrose-4-phosphate
is not increased in the diabetic state- (AP 89) 365. Which of the following has no free aldehyde or
a) Pyruvate carboxylase ketone group- {AllMS 87)
b) G-6-phosphatase a) Fructose b) Maltose
c) Serine dehydratase c) Sucrose d) Galactose
d) CoA - carntine acyl transferase 366. Dehydrogenases ofHMP shunt are specific for-
e) Citrate cleavage enzyme a) FAD b)NAD
355. An enzyme not involved in glycolysis is -(AIIMS 96) c) NADPH d)FMN
a) Enolase b) Phosphoglyceromulase 367. Which of the following is not an intermediate in
c) Aldolase d) Glycerophosphate dehydrogenase the formation of glucoronic acid from glucose
356. Glycerol is convered to glucose in- (AIJMS 86, is - {AllMS 85)
a) Liver b) Muscle Delhi 93) a) UDP glucose b) UDP gucoronic acid
c) Heart d) Brain c) UDP galactose d) Glucose-6-Po4
357. Starch and glycogen are both polymers of-(PGI 83) 368. Chitin is a- {AllMS 87)
a) Mannose b) Alpha-glucose a) Polypeptide b) Polysaccharide
c) Beta-glucose d) Fructose c) Fatty ester d) None
e) Glucose-1-phosphate 369. Which ofthe following is a debranching enzyme
358. G T.P. is a substrate for the following except- a) Glycogen synthetase (AIIMS 80)
a) Pyruvate carboxykinase (PGI 83) b) Glucose-6-phosphatase
b) Succinate thiokinase c) Amylo (1, 6) glucosidase
c) Nucleoside diphosphate kinase d) Amylo 1,4, -1, 6 transglycosylase
d) None of the above 370. Which of the following is a component of
359. In Glycolysis which ofthe ions is most important- polysaccharide- (PG/79, 82)
a) Ca b) Mg (PG/79, BIHAR 80) a) Synovium b) Glucosamine
c) Cu d)Zn c) Glucoronic acid d) Ascorbic acid
360. Which of following inhibitor in TCA cycle acts 371. I molecule of glucose forms ... molecules of pyruvate-
by blocking citrate- (ROHTAK 89) a) 1 b)2
a) Fluoroacetate b) Arsenite c) 3 d) 5
c) Malonate d) None of the above 372. In TCA cycle of tricarboxylic acid, which is first
361. About Galactose which is true- (AIIMS 83) formed- (RAJASTHAN92)
a) Has the same molecular weight as glucose a) Isocitrate b) Citrate
b) Is directly converted to glucose by the enzyme c) Succinate d) Fumarate
galactose oxidase 3 73. Which of the following enzyme is a constituent of
c) Is liberated when lactose is hydrolysed HMPshunt- (AIIMS 83)
d) From the diet is stored in the liver as galactose- a) Glucose-6-phosphatase b) Hexokinase
1-phosphate c) G-6-P dehydrogenase d) Phosphorylase
e) In the urine gives a positive test with clinitest tablets 374. UDP glucose is converted to UDP-glucoronic
362. Which of the following interconversions of acidby- (AllMS83)
monosacharides does not require a nucleotide a) ATP b)FAD
linked sugar intermediate- (ROHTAK 90) c) NAD d) NADP
a) Galactose-1-phosphate to glucose-1-phosphate 375. Which of the following cannot be metabolished
b) Glucose-6-phosphate to mannose - 6 -phosphate in the body- (AIIMS 84, Delhi 84)
c) Glucose-phosphate-UDP glucose a) Galactose b) Sucrose
d) D-glucuronic acid to UDP glucuronic acid c) Fructose d) Dextrose
351)a 352)a 353)a,b,d 354)e 355)d 356)a 357)b 358)c 359)b 360)a 361) a,c,e 362) b 363) d 364) a
365)c 366)c 367) c 368) b 369) c 370) b 371) b 372)b 373)c 374)c 375)b
376. Reduction of glucose with calcium in water 389. Enzyme that hydrolyzes sucrose is -
produces~ (AIIMS 86, 84) a) Invertase b) Amylase (PGI 78, Delhi 80)
a) Sorbose b) Dulcitol c) Emulsin d) Sucrose phosphorylase
c) Mannitol d) Sorbitol e) Saccharase
e) Glucuronic acid 390. Inhibition of glycolysis by 0 2 is known as-(DNB 91)
377. In TCA cycle, citrate is converted into, after a) Muni effect b) Pasteur effect
losingamoleculeofHP- (AMU 86) c) Hill reaction d) Gluconeogenesis
a) Isocitrate b) Cis~aconitate 391. Reduced glutathione- (BIHAR 88)
c) Oxaloacelate d) Glutarate a) Removes waterfromRBC
378. HMP shunt is of great importance in cellular b) Requires function of 6-6 PD
metabolism because it produces- (AIIMS 83) c) Maintains proper enzyme activity in tissue cells
a) ATP b)ADP d) All of the above
c) Acetyl CoA d) NADPH 392. The reducing ability of a carbohydrate is due to
379. MatureRBC contains all except~ (AIIMS 84) the presence of- (AIIMS 92)
a) Enzyme ofHMP shunt pathway a) A hemiacetal b) Cupric ions
b) Enzyme ofTCA cycle c) A free carboxy d) A free hydroxy
c) Glycolytic enzymes 393. A deoxy-sugar characteristic of blood group
d) Pyridine nucleotides polysaccharides is- (JIPMER 78, KERALA 88)
380. The sugar component of cerebrosides is- (PGI 81, a) L~Rhannose b) L-Fructose
a) Fructose b) Sucrose 85, 97) c) 2-deoxy-D-ribose d) 6-deoxy-L-mannose
c) Galactose d) Glucose 394. Enzyme deficiency in glycogen storage disease
381. Specific poison for succinate dehydrogenase is- type five is~ (Kerala 94)
a) Arsenic b) Cyanide (AIIMS 83) a) Glucose~6-phosphatase
c) Malonate d) Fluoride b) Acid maltase
c) Debranching enzyme
382. Abnormal glycogen structure is found in disorder
d) Myophosporylase deficiency
type~ (AIIMS 97)
395. Metabolites in HMP shunt are all except- (AI 95)
a) I b)II
a) Carbon dioxide b) Sedoheptulose phosphate
c) ill d)IV c) NADPH d) Glycerol-3-phosphate
e) V 396. In which type of glycogen storage disease is
383. The first product of glycogenolysis is- (DNB 90) hyperuricemia a feature- (TN 95)
a) Glucose 6 phosphate a) I b) II
b) Glucose I, 6 diphosphate c) ill d)IV
c) Glucose !-phosphate 397. Aldolase is an enzyme whose substrate is-
d) Fructose }-phosphate a) Glucose-6~phosphate (Delhi 96)
384. C-AMP increases glycogenolysis by - b) Fructose~6-phosphate
a) Contributing phosphate (AIIMS 94, 88) c) Fructose
b) Causing deposphorylation d) Fructose- I ,6-biphosphate
c) Uncoupling 398. Untreateddiabetesleadto- (AIIMS95)
d) All of the above a) Tissue use fatty acids as main fuel
385. Which of the following is not a polymer of b) Inhibition of gluconeogenesis & stimulation of
glucose ~ (JIPMER 78, DNB 88) glycolysis
a) Glycogen b) Cellulose c) Insulation of breakdown oftriacylglycercol
c) Amylose d) Inulin d) Storage of glucose as glycogen
386. What is the substrate for the only physiologically 399. Step in HMPpathway requiringTPP- (AP 96)
irreversible reaction in the Kreb's Citric acid cycle- a) G6PD
a) Citrate b) Alpha ketoglutarate (TN 89) b) 6 Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
c) Succinate d) Malate c) Transketolase
d) Transaldolase
387. Sorbitol is- (AIIMS 88, 87)
400. Increased uronic acid in the urine is pathogonomonic
a) A reducing sugar b) A sugar ester
of- (AIIMS 97)
c) Sugar alcohol d) An O~glycoside
a) Maple syrup urine disease
388. An essential for the conversion of glucose to b) Tyrosinemia
glycogen in liver is- (DNB 91) c) Mucopolysaccharidosis
a) UTP b)GTP d) Cushing disease
c) Pyrubate kinase d) Guanosine
376)d 377)b 378)d 379)b 380)c,d 381)c 382)c,d 383)c 384)a 385)d 386)b 387)c 388)a 389)a
390)b 391)d 392)a 393)None 394)d 395)d 396)a,c 397)d 398)a 399)c 400)c
401. All the following gluconeogenic except- 414. Which one of the following is the correct
a) Glycerol b) Alanine (AIIMS 97) sequential order in which the given enzymes of
c) Acetoacetate d) Lactate Kreb's cycle are formed after a molecule of acetyl
402. Andersen disease is due to deficiency of- (TN 97) CoA enters the cycle- (ICS 98)
a) Debranching enzyme a) Citrate, Oxaloacetate, Ketoglutarate
b) Branching enzyme b) Ketoglutarate, Oxaloacetate, Citrate
c) Myophosphorylase c) Citrate, Ketoglutarate, Oxaloacetate
d) Acid maltase d) Oxaloacetate, Ketoglutarate, Citrate
403. The major fuel for the brain after several weeks of 415. The reaction inhibited in thiamine deficiency is-
starvation- (AI 97) a) Pyruvate to acetyl CoA (AI 99)
a) Glucose b) Fatty acid b) Citrate to alpha ketoglutarate
c) Beta hydroxy butyrate d) Glycerol c) Succinyl CoA to fumarate
404. An Exclusive protein meal intake will cause - d) None
a) Hypoglycemia (JIPMER 98) 416. TCA cycle substrate level phosphorylation occurs
b) Hepatic glycogen stores depletion at- (AIIMS 98)
c) Decreased release of insulin a) Succinate dehydrogenase
d) Increase release of insulin b) Malonate reduction
405. Fluroacetate inhibits- (JIPMER 98) c) Thiokinase
a) Citrate synthetase d) Fructase
b) Aconitase 417. Production of fructose in seminal fluid is by
c) Succinic dehydrogenase following steps- (AIIMS 98)
d) Alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase a) Glucose-6-phosphate > fructose-6-phosphate
406. Heart uses one of following as energy source >fructose
during starvation- (JIPMER 98) b) Glucose-6-phosphate > sorbitol phosphate >
a) Glucose b) Acetoacetate fructose phosphate > fructose
c) Fats d) Proteins c) Glucose-6-phoaphate > glucose > sorbitol >
407. Muscle cannot make use of glycogen for energy fructose
due to the absense of- (PGI 9 7) d) Glucose-6-phosphate > fructose-1-phosphate >
a) Glucose-6-phosphatase fructose
b) Glucokinase
418. About glycolysis- true is- (PGI 88)
c) Phosphorylase
a) Glucose to 3 C products
d) Phosphoglucomutase
b) Takes place in mitochondria
408. First committed step in Glycolysis is- (AIIMS 97)
a) Hexokinase b) Glucokinase c) Complete breakdown of glucose
c) Phosphofructokinase d) Aldolase d) No ATP production
409. Pyruvate dehydrogenase contains all except- 419. Which one of the following enzymes use NADP
a) Biotin b)NAD (TN98) as coenzyme- (Kerala 2K)
c) FAD d)CoA a) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
410. Kreb's cycle does not occur in- (Kerala 97) b) Lactate dehydrogenase
a) Muscle b) RBC c) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
c) Heart d) All the above d) Beta hydroxy acyl CoA dehydrogenase
411. Aldose sugar is converted to ketose sugar by- e) Mitochondrial isocitrate dehydrogenase
a) Oxidoreductase b) Aldose (AP 98) 420. Insulin stimulate the activity of the following
c) Decarboxylase d) Isomerase enzymes except- (Kerala 2K)
412. The reaction : Acetoacetyl CoA + succinate a a) Acetyl CoA carboxylase b) Pyruvate kinase
succinyl CoA+acetoacetate occurs in all of the c) Hormone sensitive lipase d) Glycerol kinase
following except- (MAHE 98) e) Phosphofructokinase
a) Brain b) Striated muscle 421. Which is a fructosan- (J & K 2001)
c) Liver d) Cardiac muscle a) Pectin b) Chitin
413. Blood glucose levels cannot be augmented by c) Inulin d) Glycogen
mobilization of muscle glycogen due to lack of- 422. The oxidation of primary alcohol group iu glucose
a) G-6-P dehydrogenase (MAHE 98, JIMPER 93, results in - (TN 2002)
b) G - 6-phosphatase UP 99, AIIMS 98)
a) Gluconic acid b) Glutaric acid
c) Adolase
c) Glucuronic acid d) Hyaturonic acid
d) Glucokinase
40l)c 402)b 403)c 404)d 405)b 406)c 407)a 408)a 409)a 410)b 4ll)d 412)c 413)b 414)c
415)a 416)c 417)c 418)a 419)c 420)c,d 421)c 422)c
423. Enzyme levels which are decreased during 434. True statements about Glucokinase is/are-(PG/ 03)
starvation- (PGI 2002) a) Km value is higher than normal blood sugar
a) Fatty acid synthase b) CoA camitine transferase b) Found in liver
c) Citrate lyase d) Lipoprotein lipase c) G-6P inhibit it
e) Tyrosine kinase d) Has both glucose 6 phosphatase and kinase activity
424. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle e) Glucose enter into cells through GLUT-2
involves- (PGI 2002) 435. Phosho-dephosphorylatio ofphosphofrue tokinase
a) Alpha KG dehydrogenase and fructose 1, 6 Biphosphatase by fructose 2, 6
b) Succinate thiokinase Biphosphate regulation is seen in- (PGI 03)
c) lsocitrate dehydrogenase a) Brain· b)Liver
d) Fumarase c) Adrenal Cortex d) RBC
e) Malata dehydrogenase e) Muscle
425. Products accumulated in Hunter's syndrome 436. Marquios disease not seen is- (APPG 03)
are- (PG/02) a) Corneal opacity b) Mental retardation
a) Keratan sulfate b) Dermatan sulfate c) Stunted growth d) Absent clavicle
c) Chondroitin sulfate d) Heparan sulfate 437. Enzymes in glycogen metabolism- (PGI 04)
e) Hyaluronic acid a) Phosphorylase a b) Phosphorylase b
426. In starvation, nitrogen is carried from muscle c) Glycogen Synthase I d) GlycogenSynthaseC
to liver and kidney by- (PGI 97) e) Branching enzyme
a) Alanine b) Aspartic acid and Serine 438. In the fasting state, glucose is obtained
c) Glycine c) Asparagine from- (Jharkhand 03)
427. Pompe's disease is due to deficiency of which enzyme- a) Liver glycogen b) Muscle glycogen
a) Branching enzyme (PGI 97) c) Both d) None
b) Glucose 6 phosphatase 439. The metabolite that is regarded as the dead end
in glycolysis - (Kerala 04)
c) Acid maltase deficiency
a) Pyruvate b) Lactate
d) Muscle phosphorylase
c) 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate d) 3-phosphoglycerate
428. Muscles are not involved in which glycogen storage
440. Cyclic AMP increase the rate of glycogenolysis by-
disease- (PGI 97)
a) Promoting the formation of phosphorylated form
a) I b)II
of glycogen phosporylase (SGPGI 05)
c) III d)IV
b) Acting as a cofactor for glycogen phosphorylase
429. Fructokinase is necessary for- (PGI 98)
c) Furnishing phosphate for the phosphorylysis of
a) Fructose-l-P04
glycogen
b) Ructose 1,6 diphosphate d) Acting as a precursor of 5' AMP which is a
c) Fructose 6 phosphate cofactor for glycogen phosphorylase
d) Glyceraldehyde 441. The following types of reaction occur in
430. Reducing sugar in urine is seen in- (PGI OJ) glycolysis, except- (SGPGI 05, 97, AI 89)
a) Fanconi anemia b) Lactose intolerance a) Hydration b) Isomerisations
c) Galactosemia d) Phenylketonuria c) Phosphoryl transfer d) Aldol cleavage
e) Salicylate poisoning 442. Chitin contains- (AMU 05)
431. True regarding galactosemia- (PGI 0 J) a) Alfa 1-4 bond b) Alfa 1-6 bond
a) Mental retardation occurs c) ~-1-6 bond d) ~-1-4 bond
b) Absent disaccharidase in intestine 443. Enzymes not used in glycogen metabolism-
c) Defect in epimerase a) Glycogen phosphorylase B (PGI June 05)
d) Defect in galactose 1 PO 4 uridyl transferase b) Glycogen synthase I
432. Glycogen storage disesses include all the following c) Glycogen synthase C
except- (PGI OJ) 444. Hexose monophosphate shunt occurs in
a) Von Gierke's disease b) Fabry's disease AlE- (PG!June05)
c) Me Ardle's disease d) Fragile syndrome a) Liver b) Adipose tissue
e) Krabbe's disease c) Mammary gland d) Skeletal muscle
433. Which of the following enzymes is/are involved e) Skin
in neoglucogenesis all except- (PGI OJ) 445. Which ofthe following is an aldose- (J & K 05)
a) Phospoglycerate kinase a) Ribulose b) Ribose
b) Fructose 1, 6-biphosphatase c) Erythrulose d) Dihydroxyacetone
c) Phosphoglucomutase 446. End-Product of the action of salivary amylase is-
d) Pyruvate carboxylase a) Mannose b) Maltose (J & K 05)
e) Isomerase c) Sucrose d) Fructose
423) a,c 424) b 425) b,d 426) a 427) c 428) a 429) a 430) c 431)a,c,d 432)b,d,e 433)c 434)a,b,e 435)b
436)b 437)a,b,c,e 438)a 439)b 440)a 441)a 442)d 443)c 444)e 445)b 446)b
447. Biosynthesis of glucuronic acid requires the- 457. Hemolytic anaemia is seen most commonly due to-
a) Oxidation ofUDP glucose (MARA 05) a) Pyruvate kinase (PGMCET 07)
b) Oxidation of glucose 6-phosphate b) Phospho fructokinase I
c) Oxidation of6-phophogluconate c) Phosphofructokinase II
d) Oxidation of glucose d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
448. Which one of the following statements concerning 458. The activities of all the following enzymes are
gluconeogenesis is correct - (MAHA 05) increased in starvation except- (Corned 07)
a) It occurs in muscle a) Pyruvate kinase
b) It is stimulated by fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) It is inhibited by elevated levels of acetyl CoA c) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
d) Glucose 6-phosphatese
d) It is important in maintaining blood glucose during
459. The biosynthesis of the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase
the normal overnight fast
is repressed by- (Corned 08)
449. Composition of Hyaluronic acid- (APPGE 05)
a) Insulin b) Glucagon
a) N-acetyl glucosamine + b glucosamine acid c) Cortisol d) Epinephrine
b) N-acetyl glucosamine + b- glucoraunic acid 460. Regarding liMP shunt all of the following are true
c) N-acetyl glucosamine +sulfated glucosamine acid except- (AI 07)
d) N-acetyl glucosamine + iduranic acid a) Occurs in the cytosol
450. By which of the following anticoagulants used in b) No ATP is produced in the cycle
estimating blood glucose, glycolysis is c) It is active in Adipose tissue, Liver and Gonads
prevented- (AIIMS Nov 05, DNB 91) d) The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the
a) EDTA b) Heparin Non oxidative phase generates pyruvate
c) Sodium fluoride d) Sodium citrate 461. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by
451. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples which ofthe following regulating pathways-(Al 07)
for glucose estimation, inhibits the a) Hypoxia Stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by
enzyme- (A/05, ICS05, PGI 86, 93) increased 2, 3 DPG
a) Glucokinase b) Hexokinase b) Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase
c) Enolase d) Glucose-6-phosphatase c) Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic
452. The molecule, which is the intiator of cataract enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane
formation in the eye lens and whose 1-phosphate d) Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PH
derivative is responsible for liver failure, is- 462. Glycolysis occurs in - (Aiirns May 07)
a) Sorbitol b) Mannitol (AIIMS May 05) a) Cytosol b) Mitochondria
c) Inositol d) Galacticol c) Nucleus d) Lysosome
463. In Lysosomal storage disorders, true is-
453. Which ofthe following when absent would impair
a) The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
the rate limiting step of glycogenolysis- (HP 06)
b) There is a defect in the fusion oflysosomes and
a) 1,4-Glucoronosyl troanterase
phagosomes
b) Glycogen synthetase
c) There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane
c) Glycogen phosphorylase d) There is increased degradation of heteroglycans
d) Phosphoglucomutase 464. The rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis is- (UP 08)
454. Fructose 2-6 biphosphate is- (Manipa/2006) a) Glucose 6-dehydrogenase
a) Intermediate of glycosis b) Phosphofructokinase
b) Positive allosteric regulation of PFl c) Glucokinase
(phosphofructokinase 1) d) Pyruvate kinase
c) Negative allosteric regulation ofPFl 465. Maximum carbohydrate concentration in strict
d) Positive allosteric regulation ofPF2 vegetarian diet present is- (UP 08)
455. Positive signals for glycogen breakdown include a) Amylase b) Maltose
in all the following except- c) Fructose d) Glycogen
a) Cyclic AMP b) Blood glucose 466. In which of the following tissues, is glycogen
c) Epinephrine d) Ca2+ incapable of contributing directly to blood glucose ?
456. Essential Pentosuria is due to defect in - a) Liver b) Muscle (AI 08)
a) HMP pathway (PGMCET07) c) Both d) None
b) Glycolysis 4 67. Phosphorylase b is maintained in an inactivated state
c) Gluconeogenesis ~- ~~
d) Uronic acid pathway a) ATP b) cAMP
c) Calcium d) Insulin
447)a 448)d 449)b 450)c 451)c 452)d 453)c 454)b 455)b 456)d 457)a 458)a 459)a 460)d
461)c 462)a 463)a 464) b,c,d 465) d 466) b 467) d
468. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except - 479. True about gaucher disease- (PGI Nov 09)
a) Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity a) Due to deficiency of enzyme sphingomyelinase
b) Increases the transport of glucose into the cells b) Due to deficiency of enzyme 13-Gluco-
c) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase (Aiims May 08) cerebrosidase
d) Decreases intracellular cAMP level c) Deposition of glucosylceramide
469. Main source of energy derived from- (PGI June 08) d) Foam cell deposition
a) Fat b) Glycogen e) PAS staining positive
c) Lactate d) Ketone 480. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except-
e) Acetone a) Glucose b) Fatty acids (AIIMS May 10)
4 70. Enzyme regulated by phosphorylation-(PGIJune 08) c) Cholesterol d) Ketone bodies
a) Glucokinase 481. Mter overnight fasing, levels of glucose tranporters
b) Glycogen synthetase reduced in - (AIIMS May 1 0)
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase a) Brain cells b) RBCs
d) Isocitrate c) Adipocytes d) Hepatocytes
e) Citrate lyase 482. Insulin like fructans are used as prebiotics as they
471. After 50 gm of glucose of feed orally- are non digestible. Resistance to digestion in the
a) Decrease ketone body production (PGI June 08) upper G 1 tract results from- (AI 1 0)
b) Increased lactate production upon exercise a) Absence of digestive enzyme in the upper GIT
c) Decreased gluconeogenesis b) Beta configuration of anomeric C2
d) Increased gluconeogenesis c) Low pH ofthe stomach
472. High energy phosphates are produced in the d) Presence of a.-osidic linkages
following pathways except- (DPGEE 08) 483. Von Gierke's disease is due to the deficiency of-
a) HMP shunt b) Oxidative pathway a) Gluc-6 phosphatase (DPG 1 0)
c) Glycolysis d) TCA cycle b) Glue -1 phosphatase
473. Glycolytic enzymes (s) inhibited by fluoride- c) Branching enzyme
a) Hexokinase b) Aldolase (PGI Dec 08) d) Mycophosphorylase
c) Enolase d) Pyruvate kinase 484. Skeletal muscle is deficient in- (DPG 10)
e) Phosphofructokinase a) Glucose -6 phosphatase
474. NAD acts as aconfactor for- (PGI June 09) b) Hexokinase
a) Citrate synthetase c) Isomerase
b) Isocitrate dehyrogenase d) Phosphofructokinase
c) a. ketoglutarate dehyrogenase 485. Mechanism by which pyruvate cytosol is transported
d) Malate dehydrogenase to mitochondria is- (Maharashtra 1 0)
e) Succinyl thiokinase a) Chloride antiport b) Proton symport
475. Hyperammonaemia inhibitTCA cycle by depleting- c) ATP dependent antiport d) Facilitated uniport
a) Oxaloacetate b) a. ketoglutarate (PGI June 09) 486. Von Geirke's occurs due to deficiency of-
c) Citrate d) Succinyl Co-A a) Glucose-6-phosphatase (Maharashtra 1 0)
e) Fumarate b) Liver Phosphorylase
476. Which of the following metabolites is involved in c) Muscle phosphorylase
glycogenolysis, glycolysis and gluconeogenesis ? d) Debranching enzyme
a) Galactose-1-phosphate (DELHI PG Mar. 09) 487. Fhuoride inhibits - (Maharashtra 10)
b) Glucose-6-phosphate a) Glucose-6-phosphatase b) Glucokinase
c) Uridine diphosphoglucose c) Hexokinase d) Enolase
d) Fructose-6-phosphate 488. Epimer combination (s) is/are- (PGI May 1 0)
4 77. The activity of pyruvate carboxylase is dependent a) D-glucose & D-fructose
upon the positive allosteric effector : b) D-mannose & D-talose
a) Succinate b)AMP (DELHI PG Mar. 09) c) D-glucose & D-mannose
c) Isocitrate d) Acetyl Co A d) D-glucose & D-gulose
478. Epimer combination(s) is/are- (PGI Nov 09) e) D-galactose & D-glucose
a) D-glucose & D-fructose 489. Glycosphingolipid is made up of- (PGI May 10)
b) D-glucose & D-talose a) Glucose b) Glycerol
c) D-glucose & D-mannose c) Sphingosine d) Fatty acids
d) D-glucose & D-idose e) Thromboxane A 2
e) D-galactose & D-glucose
468)c 469)b 470)b,c 47l)a,c 472)a 473)c 474)b,c,d 475)b 476)b 477)d 478)c,e 479)b,c,e 480)a 48l)c
482)b 483)a 484) a 485) b 486) a 487)d 488) c,e 489) a,c,d
490. Enzymes of Calvin cycle are- (PGI May 10) 503. Benedict's test will be positive in the urine after
a) G-6-PD administration of- (Comed 10)
b) Sedoheptulose-!-7- bisphosphatase a) Folic acid b) Ascorbic acid
c) Glycerol Kinase c) Pantothenic acid d) Retinoic acid
d) Phosphoribulose kinase 504. Substrate level phosphorylation is catalysed by which
491. Which ofthe following substance binds to CoA and enzyme? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
condenses oxaloacetate to inhibit the TCA cycle- a) Succinate dehydrogenase
a) Malonate b)Arsenite (AIIMSNov 10) b) Alpha keto glutarate dehydrogenase
c) Fluoroacetate d) Fumarate c) Succinate thiokinase
492. Which of the following is not degraded by colonic d) Malate dehydrogenase
flora? (AIIMS May 11) 505. Co-factor for phosphofructokinase is- (NEETIDNB
a) Pectin b) Lignin a) Mg+2 b) Mn+2 Pattern)
c) Starch d) Glucose c) Fe+2 d) Zn
493. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except- 506. Reverse folding of proteins is carried out by which
a) Glucose b) Fatty acids (AIIMS May 11) enzyme- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Cholesterol d) Ketone bodies a) Valine b) Threonine
494. Enzyme deficient in von gierke's disease- c) Chaperone d) Aspartate
a) Glucose 1 phosphatase (Punjab 10)
507. In glycolysis, inorganic phosphate is used reaction,
b) Glucose 6 phosphatase catalyzed by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Acid maltase
a) Enolase
d) 13 Glucosidase
b) Pyruvate kinase
495. G6PD stands for- (Punjab 1 0)
c) Glyceraldehyde-3-p dehydrogenase
a) Glucose 6 phosphatase dehydratase
d) Aldolase
b) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
508. Glycogen storage disorder due to muscle
c) Glucose 6 phosphodiesterase
phosphorylase deficiency- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Glucose 6 phosphate decarboxylase
a) Mcardle's disease b) Pompe's disease
496. Compound that joints glycolysis with glycogenesis
and glycogenolysis is - (Punjab 1 0)
c) Andersen's disease d) Tarui's disease
a) Glucose 1, 6 biphosphate 509. Another name for glucose- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Glucose 1 phosphate a) Dextrin b) Dextrose
c) Glucose 6 phosphate c) Sucrose d) Saccharin
d) Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate 510. True about glycolysis- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
497. Substrate level phosphorylation is catalysed by- a) Hexokinase produce ATP
a) Succinate dehydrogenase (PUNJAB 11) b) 1 cycle produces 2 ATP
b) Pyruvate kinase c) It produces directly 2 molecules of lactate
c) Malate dehydrogenase d) Aldolase produces irreversible polymerization
d) Acetyl CoA carboxylase 511. Naf inhibits- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
498. Rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis- (PUNJAB 11) a) Enolase b) Glucokinase
a) Phosphofructokinase c) Hexokinase d) G-6 PD
b) Glucose 6 dehydrogenase 512. Essential fructosuria is due to deficiency of-
c) Pyruvate kinase a) 13-galactosidase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Pyruvate carboxylase b) Aldolase-B
499. Hydrogen ions are not formed by which complex or c) Fructokinase
which is not a proton pump? (PUNJAB 11) d) Aldose reductase
a) Complex I b) Complex II 513. 6-phosphoGluconatedehydrogenaseneed- (NEETI
c) Complexlll d)ComplexiV a) NAD b) NADP DNB Pattern)
500. Collagen has which amino acid- (PUNJAB 11) c) FAD d)FMN
a) Tryptophan b) Glycine 514. Von Geirke's occurs due to deficiency of-
c) Threonine d) Tyrosine a) Glucose-6-phosphatase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
501. Cofactor for glycogen phosphorylase -(Jipmer 10) b) Liver Phosphorylase
a) Thiamine pyrophosphate c) Muscle phosphorylase
b) Pyridoxal phosphate d) Debranching enzyme
c) Citrate 515. HexosaminidaseA deficiency causes-
d) FAD a) Tay-sach disease (NEETIDNB Pattern)
502. Von Grieke's disease includes all except-(Jipmer 11) b) Niemann pick disease
a) Hyperlipidemia b) Hyperuricemia c) Gaucher's disease
c) Muscle atrophy d) Metabolic acidosis d) Krabbe's disease
490) b,d 491) c 492)b 493)a 494)b 495)b 496)c 497)b 498)a 499)b SOO)b SOl)b 502)c 503)b
504)c 505)a 506)c 507)c 508)a 509)b SlO)b Sll)a 512)c 513)c 514)a 515)a
516. NADPH via glycerophosphate shunt makes how 528. Niemann-Pick disease is due to dificiency of-
many ATP- (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Hexosaminidase (NEETIDNBPattern)
~ 1 b)2 b) Sphingomyelinase
c) 3 d) 4 c) Galactokinase
517. Essential pentosuria is due to deficiency of- d) Glucosidase
a) Gulonolactone oxidase (NEETIDNB Pattern) 529. During starvation, brain utilizes- (NEET/DNB
b) Phosphoglucomutase a) Glycogen b) Fattey acids Pattern)
c) Xylulose reductase c) Ketone bodies d) None
d) Fructokinase 530. Glucose is converted to glucuronate by- (NEETI
518. The metabolite that is regarded as the dead end a) Oxidation of aldehydo group DNBPattern)
in glycolysis - (NEETIDNBPattern) b) Oxidation of terminal alcohol
a) Pyruvate c) Oxidation of both
b) Lactate d) None
c) 2,3-bisphosphog1ycerate 531. All of the following are regulating enzymes of
d) 3-phosphoglycerate glycolysis, except- (NEET/DNBPattern)
519. Pentosepathwayproduces- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Hexokinase b) Glucokinase
a) ATP b) NADPH c) Enolase d) Phosphofructokinase I
c) ADP d) Acetyl CoA 532. Glycogen phosphorylase is active in-
520. Fructose is transported by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Phosphorylated form (NEETIDNBPattern)
a) GLUT 5 b) GLUT 4 b) Dephosphorylated form
c) GLUT3 d) GLUT 7 c) Both phosphorylated & dephosphorylated form
521. Aldehyde dehydrogenase requires NAD as- d) No rate of phosphorylation
a) Cofactor (NEETIDNB Pattern) 533. Fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of?
b) Apoenzyme a) Aldolase B (NEETIDNBPattern)
c) Coenzyme b) Fructokinase
d) None c) Triokinase
522. Gaucher,s disease is due to deficiency of enzyme- d) Aldolase A
a) Sphingomyelinase (NEET/DNB Pattern) 534. Increased uric acid levels are seen in which glycogen
b) ~-Glucosidase storage disease- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Hexosaminidase-A a) Type I b) Type II
d) ~-Galactosidase c) Type III d) Type IV
523. Flouride cause inhibition of- (NEET/DNBPattern) 535. Gluconate dehydrogenase requires- (NEETIDNB
a) PDH b) Enolase a) NADP b) NAD Pattern)
c) G6PD d) Pyruvate kinase c) FAD d) FMN
536. Glycogen synthase is activated by- (NEET/DNB
524. Sandhotl's disease is d/t absence of which enzyme?
a) Insulin b) Glucagon Pattern)
a) Beta-hexosaminidase (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Epinophrine d) AMP
b) Beta-glucuronibase
537. Anerabic glycolysis occurs in all except- (NEETI
c) Aryl sulphatase
a) RBCs b) Lens DNB Pattern)
d) Alpha galactosidase c) Brain d) Testis
525. Muscle cannot make use of glycogen for energy 538. Which of the following is NADH linked-
because of deficiency of- (NEETIDNB Pattern, a) G6PD (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Glucokinase PGI Dec 97) b)APDH
b) Phosphoglucomutase c) a-keto glutarate dehydrogenaes
c) G-6-phosphatase d) None
d) Muscle phosphorylae 539. In glycolysis, NADH is produced at-
526. Net gain of ATP in glycolysis -(NEETIDNB Pattern, a) Pyruvate kinase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 5 b) 8 PGI Dec 97) b) Enolase
c) 15 d)20 c) Glyceraledehyde-3-P-dehydrogenase
527. Glucose oxidase converts glucose to- d) PFK-1
a) Gluconic acid (NEETIDNBPattern) 540. True about glycolysis- (NEET/DNBPattern)
b) Glucuronic acid a) Hexokinase produce ATP
c) Iduronic acid b) 1 cycle produces 2 ATP
d) Galactic acid c) It produces directly 2 molecules of lactic acid
d) Aldolase produces irreversible polymerization
516)None>b 517)) c 518)b 519)b 520)a 52l)c 522)b 523)b 524)a 525)c 526) None> b 527) a
528)b 529)c 530)b 53l)c 532)a 533)a 534)a 535)a 536)a 537)c 538)a 539)c 540)c
BIOCHEMISTRY (3.25]
541. The rate limiting step in glycolysis is catalyzed 552. Overnight fasting what occurs-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Glucose decreases
a) Pyruvate kinase b) Enolase b) FFA increases
c) Glucokinase d) Phosphofructokinase c) Increased gluconeogenesis
542. Inhibitors of glycolysis are all except- d) Increased beta-hydroxybutyrate
a) Fluoride (NEETIDNB Pattern) 553. Cori's cycle is concerned with transport of -(NEET/
b) Fluoroacetate a) Alanine b) Glutamate DNB Pattern)
c) Arsenite c) Lactate d) None
d) Iodoacetate 554. Essential pentosuria is seen in defect of which
543. Which of the following metabolites is involved in pathway- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
glycogenolysis, glycolysis and gluconeogenesis ? a) HMP shunt b) Uronic acid pathway
a) Galactose-1-phosphate (NEET/DNBPattern) c) TCA cycle d) Gluconeogenesis
b) Glucose-6-phosphate 555. Which ofthe following is not a ketose - (NEETIDNB
c) Uridine diphosphoglucose a) Ribose b) Erythrulose Pattern)
d) Fructose-6-phosphate c) Fructose d) Ribulose
544. Where can glucose 6 phosphate not be converted to 556. Final product in anaerobic glycolysis-(NEET/DNB
glucose ? (NEETIDNBPattern) a) Pyruvate b) Acetyl CoA Pattern)
a) Muscle b) Liver c) Lactate d) Oxaloacetate
c) Adipose tissue d) Kidney 557. All are substrates for gluconeogenesis except -
545. Glycogen storage disease which presents as a) Lactate (NEETIDNB Pattern)
lysosomal storage disease- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Propionate
a) Von gierke's disease b) Pompes disease c) Alanine
c) Mcardle's disease d) Andersen's disease d) Acetyl-CoA
546. Phosphofructokinase is the key enzyme of - 558. Rate limiting step in Gluconeoganesis is catalyzed
a) Glycogenolysis (NEETIDNBPattern) by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Glycogenesis a) Phyruvate Carboxylase b) Glucokinase
c) Glycolysis c) Glycoral kinase d) PDH
d) TCAcycle 559. Forbe's disease is due to deficiency of-
547. Hexokinase is inhibited by- (NEETIDNBPattern) a) Branching enzyme (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Glucose-6-phosphate b) Glucagon b) Debranching enzyme
c) Glucagon d) Insulin c) Myophosphorylase
548. Benedict test is for- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Hepatic phosphorylase
a) Bile salts in urine 560. Co-factor for phosphofructokinase is- (NEETIDNB
b) Bile pigment in urine +2 +2
a) M~
c) Reducing sugar in urine 2 b) Mn Pattern)
c) Fe d) Zn
d) Ketone bodies in urine 561. Aldolase-B is involved in metabolism of -(NEET/DNB
549. Which ofthe following is not a reducing sugar- a) Galactose b) Fructose Pattern)
a) Fructose (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Sucrose d) None
b) Galactose 562. ATP is consumed at which step of glycolysis-
c) Sucrose a) Enolase b)Hexokinase (NEETIDNB
d) Maltose c) Pyruvate kinase d) Isomerase Pattern)
550. Which one of the following statements concerning 563. Allosteric activator ofPFK- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
gluconeogenesis is correct- (NEET/DNBPattern) a) Fructose 1-6 bisphosphate
a) It occurs in muscle b) Fructose 2-6 bisphosphate
b) It is stimulated by fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate c) Phosphoenolpyruvate
c) It is inhibited by elevated levels of acetyl CoA d) Pyruvate
d) It is important in maintaining blood glucose 564. G-6-PD deficiency causes- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
during the normal overnight fast a) Leukemia b) Hemolytic anemia
551. Energy source of brain in later part ofstarvation- c) Hemophilia d) None
a) Glucose (NEETIDNB Pattern) 565. Enzyme deficient in Galactose, most
b) Fatty acids commonly- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Ketones a) Galactokinase b) Epimerase
d) Glycogen c) Uridyl transferase d) None
541) d >a,c 542) b 543) b 544) a 545) b 546) c 547)a 548)c 549)c SSO)d 55l)c 552)c 553)c 554)b
555) a 556) c 557) d 558) a 559) b 560) a 56l)b 562)b 563)b 564)b 565)c
566. Major amino acid released from muscles during 578. Essential fatty acids - (PGJ 86)
starvation- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Linoeic acid
a) Arginine b) Alanine b) Linolenic acid
c) Hitidine d) Glutamate c) Arachiconic acid Palmitic acid
567. Arsenite inhibits - (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Plamitic acid
a) Enolase b) G-6-PD e) Stearic acid
c) Phosphoglycarate Kinase d) Hexokinase 579. Atherosclerosis is due to- (AI 89)
568. Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis a) HDL receptor defect
is caused by - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Apo protein E deficiency
a) Insulin b) Glucogon c) DecreasedLDL activity
c) Glucocorticoid d) Epinephrine d) Decreased lipoprotein lipase
569. Which helps in production of more glucose - 580. Fredrickson's type II hyperlipoprotiemia is due
a) Pyruvate kinase (NEETIDNB Pattern) to excess amount of - (AP 88)
b) Pyruvate carboxylase a) VLDLremnats b)VLDL
c) PDH c) FloatingLDL d)HDL
d) Pyruvate decarboxylase 581. Examples ofmononusaturated fatty acids are-
570. Lactate is formed in all except-(NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Oleic b) Arachidonic acid (PGJ 83)
a) RBCs b) Lens c) Linolenic acid d) Lysine
c) Brain d) Testis e) None
571. Renal threshold for glycosuria- (NEETIDNB 582. Triacylglycerol synthesis is enhanced by-(PG/83)
a) 100 mg/dl b) 170 mg/dl Pattern) a) Cortisol b) Glucagon
c) 300 mg/dl d) 350 mg/dl c) Insulin d) Epinephime
572. Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis - 583. Cerebrosides contain which ofthe following-(A/89)
a) HMG CoA reductase (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Phytol b) Glycerol
b) HMG CoA synthase c) Galactitol d) Sphinogosine
c) Mevalonate kinase 584. The following is a Ketone body - (A/89)
d) Squalene synthetase a) Oxalocetate b) Pyruvic acid
573. Fluroacetate inhibits- (NEETIDNBPattern) c) Acetyl COA d) Acetoacetate
a) Citrate synthetase 585. Rare limiting step in cholesterol synthesis is -
b) Aconitase a) HMG CoA synthetase (A/90)
c) Succinate dehydrogenase b) HMG CoA lyase
d) Alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase c) HMG CoAreductase
57 4. Mechanism by which pyruvate cytosol is transported d) Mevalonate synthetase
to mitochondria is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 586. Stored triacy glycerol and cholesterol are released
a) Chloride antiport by- (A/91)
b) Proton symport a) Lysosomal lipase b) Lipoprtein lipase
c) ATP dependent antiport c) LCAT d) Harmone senstive lipase
d) Facilitated uniport 587. Cholesterol from the liver is transported to the
575. Which ofthe following is true- (NEETIDNB Pattern) tissue mainly by - (A/91)
a) Glucokinase has high effinity for glucose a) HDL b)LDL
b) Hexokinase has low affinity for glucose c) VI.DL d) Chylomicrons
c) Glucokinase has low effinity for glucose 588. Limiting factor for Fatty acid synthesis -
d) Hexokinase is induced by insulin a) Acetoacetate synthesis (JJPMER 91)
57 6. Which ofthe following is not a rate limiting enzyme- b) Acyl transferase
a) HMG CoA reductase (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Acetyl COAcarboxylase
b) Phosphofructokinase d) Biotin
c) Acetyl CoA carboxylase 589. Which is a lipotropic factor- (JJPMER 91)
d) Malonate dehydrogenase a) HDL b) Insulin
c) Choline d) Camitine
METABOLISM OF LIPID 590. Ketoacidosis without glycosuria is seen in -
a) Aspirin poisoning (JJPMER 92)
577. Lipotropic factors are- (PG/86) b) Renal tubular
a) Choline b) Betain c) Prolonged starvation
c) Methionine d) Tryptophan d) Paracetamol poising
566)b 567)c 568)a 569)b 570)c 57l)b 572)a 573)b 574)b 575)c 576)d 577) a,b,c 578) a,b,c
579)b 580)c 58l)a 582)c 583)d 584)d 585)c 586)d 587)b 588)c 589)c 590)c
591. NADPH is required in- (AJIMS 92) 606. If choline moity is replaced by ethanolamice the
a) HMP shunt b) Gluconeogensis net product is - {Al/MS 84)
c) Lipogensis d) Glycogenolysis a) Cerebroside b) Sphingomyelien
592. The Lipid which accumulates in fatty liver is- c) Ceaphalin d) Plasminogen
a) Trigylcerids b) FFA 607. Triglycerides in serum are transported by-
c) Lipoprotein d) Cholesterol a) HDL b)VLDL{Delhi 85, 90)
593. Which Cholesterol ester is maximum in plasma- c) IDL d) Chylomicron
a)HDL b)LDL (JIPMER93) 608. Cholestrol detection can be done with following
c) VLDL d)Chylomicron except- (PGI 78,DNB 88)
594. Which of the following has a Ketogenic effect a) Lieberman-burchard reaction
onliver- (JIPMER93) b) Zimmerman reaction
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Winslow test
c) GI d) Androgen d) Salkwski reaction
595. Which has highest cholestrol content -(JJPMER 93, 609. Which ofthe following essential fatty acid contains
a) HDL b)LDL AI90, UP97, TN99) maximum cnmber of carbon atoms- (AJIMS 83)
c) VIDL d) Chylomicron a) Linolic acid b) Linlenic
596. Substances that can be classified as steroids include- c) Arachidonic acid d) Oxaloacetic acid
a) Chenodoxycholic acid b) Prolactin (PGI 88) 610. Cholestrolis synthesized from- (ROHTAK 88,
c) Glucocerebroside d) Beta carotene a) AcetylCoA b)MalonateAJIMS84)
e) Testosterone c) Alpha keto glutaric acid d) Oxalate
597. Protectivefactorforheart- (MPGI 87) 611. Which of the following is not a ketone body-
a) LowHDL b)HighLDL a) Acetone b)Aceticacid (PGI84)
c) Hightriglyeride d) HighHDL c) Oxaloacetic d) Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
e) None of above 612. Which of the following aids in preventing fatty liver-
598. Which of the following undergoes auto-oxidation- a) Thiamine (AIIMS 84)
a) FFA b)PUFA (AJIMS 92) b) Guanidocetate
c) Chylomicrons d) Cholestrol c) Dietarycholine
599. C 17 H 29 COOH is formula of- (AIIMS 83, 84) c) Dimethyl propiothenate
a) Linoleic acid b) Linolenic acid 613. Ketosis is partly due to- (PGI 83)
c) Arachidonic acid d) Clupanodonic acid a) Overutilization of glucose
600. Ketone bodies are by products of metabolism b) Overproduction of acetyl CoA
of- (AIIMS81, UPSC 83) c) Under production of acetyl CoA
a) Carbohydrate b) Protein d) A slowdown in fat metabolism
c) Fat d) All of above 614. Which of the following is a product of microbial
601. Ketone bodies a!"e normaly synthesised from- reduction - (PGI80, AIIMS 82)
a) Acetyle-CoA b) Glucose (AP 88) a) Cholic acid b) Glycime
c) Glycerol d) Acetone c) Coprostanol d) Pregnenolone
602. In man the serum liprotein with the highest 615. Which of the following is a phospholipid -(.NZMHANS
cholesterol content is - (DELHI 92) a) Glycogen b) Sphingomyelin 88)
a) Prealbumin b) Chylomicrons c) Prostagladin d) Olic acid
c) Beta-lipoprotein d) Pre-beta-lipototein 616. The major lipid in adipose tissue is-(Rajasthan 89)
e) Alpha-lipoprotein a) Cholesterol b) Phospholipids
603. The daily normal excretion of ketone bodies is - c) Triglyceride d) Glyceride
a) O.lmg b)O.Smg (PGI8l,AMC87) 617. Which of following is not a constituent of
c) l.Omg d)2.0mg ganglioside molecule- (AIIMS 81, KERALA 87)
604. Basic structure unit from which fatty acids are a) Glycerol b) Sialic acid
derived - (JIPMER 80, DELHI 84) c) Lecithins d) Long chain fatty acid
a) Acetyle CoA b) Succinyl Coa 618. The transport offatty acids from adipose tissues to
c) Acetoacetate d) Mevalonate other tissues for metabolism is primarily a function-
605. Which of the following is not a phospho a) Carnitine b) Chylomicrons (DNB 89)
lipid - (PGI 83, AIIMS 84, 86, Kerala 87) c) Plasma albumin d) High density lipoproteins
a) Cerebroside b) Sphingomylein 619. Phosoholipids include all except - (DNB 90)
c) Lectithin d) Cephelin a) Plasmalogens b) Dipalmityllecithin
c) Ceramide d) Cardiolopin
59l)c 592)a 593) b 594) b,c 595) b 596) a,e 597) d 598) b 599)b 600)c 601)a 602)c 603)c 604)a
605)a 606)c 607)) b,d 608) c 609) c 610)a 6ll)b,c 612)c 613)b 614)c 615)b 616)c 617)a 618)c
619)c
620. The molecular weight of linoleic acid is 280 and 635. Type II hyperlipoproteinmia is characterized
atomic weight of iodine is 127. What is iodine by- (DELHI 96)
number ofthis acid - (AMU 87) a) IncreasedLDL b) DecreasedLDLreceptors
a) 270 b) 135 c) DecreasedHDL d) Increased triglycerides
c) 180 d)90 636. Which of the following biochemical changes is not
e) 0 indicative ofHyperlipidemia type lla -(CUPGEE 96)
621. In diabetes the factor limiting synthesis of a) VLDLis increased b) VLDLnormal
triglycerides in adipose tissue is- (JIPMER 80, c) LDL increased d) HDL increased
a) ATP b) Lectithin AMU 88) 637. Which is the most essential fatty acid-(CUPGEE 96)
c) Alpha-glycerophosphate d) Acetyl CoA a) Linolenic acid b) Linoleic acid
622. What is the following is a dietary essential fatty
c) Arachiodonic acid d) Oleic acid
acid- (DELHI 87, 88; UPSC 84, 88, PGI 83)
638. Accumulation of increased amount of sphingomyline
a) Glycine b) Cholesterol
in liver and spleen is found in - (KARNAT 97)
c) Glycerol d) Linoeic acid
e) Galactose a) Goucher's disease b) Niemann-Pick disease
623. "Squalene" is the intermediate product during c) Obstructive jaundice d) VonGierke's disease
synthesis of- (ROHTAK 86, BIHAR 91) 639. All of derived of cholesterol except - (AP 96)
a) VlDL b) Cholesterol a) ChenodeoxyCholic acid b) Glycocholic acid
c) Tachysterol d) Lanosterol c) Testesterone d) Cholecystokinin
624. A compound that stimulate transfer of acetate 640. One of the following is a scavenger of cholesterol
from cytosol into mitochondria is- (AIIMS 84) from tissue and prevents atheroscalerosis-(PGI 96,
a) TPP b) Carnitine a) VIDL b) LDL 97, AP 88)
c) Citrate d) Tetrahydrofolic acid c) Chylornicrons d)HDL
e) Acetyl CoA 641. Immediate precursor in the production of
625. Ganglioside is composed of all except- (AIIMS 86, acetoacetate is - (PGI 96)
a) Galactose b)Phosphate 92) a) Acetoacyl Co A b) Hydroxymethyl glutaryl
c) Ceramide d) Sialic acid c) Malonyl CoA d) Isocaleric acid
626. HMG-CoA is formed during metabolism of all except- 642. Multienzyme complex in humans - (PGI '96)
a) Cholesterol b) Lecucine (Kerala 94) a) Fatty acid synthetase
c) Ketone bodies d) Bile acids b) Malonyl Co A Carboxylase
627. Which of the following organs cannot use ketone c) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
bodies- (JIPMER 95) d) Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase
a) Brain b) Liver 643. The regulatory enzyme in the biosynthetic
c) Kidney d) Spleen
pathway of Cholesterol is correct - (UP 97)
628. Lipid from tissues is carried to liver by-(Kerala 95)
a) Hyfroxymethyl glutaryl co. A synthetase
a) IDL b)VLDL
b) Hydroxymethyl glutaryl co A reductase
c) HDL d) Chylomicrons
c) Mevalonate Kinase'
629. Unsaturated fatty acids are converted to-(Kerala 95)
a) Prostaglandins b) Cholesterol d) Isopentenyl 1 pyrophospho isomerase
c) Cell membrane lipid d) Saturated fatty acid 644. Camitineisformedfrom- (CUPGEE97)
630. The product of oxidation of odd chain fatty acids a) Arginine b) Leucine
is - (AIIMS 94) c) Lysine d) Serine
a) Aceto acetyle CoA b) Malonyl Co A 645. Apoprotein-Ais foundin- (AI98)
c) Propionyl Co A d) Fumaryl coA a) IDL b)HDL
631. Oxidation of fatty acids occur in - (TN 95) c) Chylomicrons d)VLDL
a) Cytoplasm b) Ribosomes 646. Triglyceride content is lowest in- (KERALA 98)
c) Centrioles d) Mitochondria a) HDL b)LDL
632. Endogenous triglyceride carrier in plasma is - c) VlDL d) Chylomicrons
a) Chylomicron b) VLDL (AI 96, 90) 647. Alcoholic group is found in - (PGI 98)
c) IDL d)HDL a) Galactoside b) Cerebroside
633. The apoprotein in HDL is mainly- (AI 96) c) Sphingomyelin d) Lecthin
a) B-100 b)B-48 648. Familial hypercholeserolemia is - (PGI 98)
c) A-1 d)C-1 a) Deficient LDL receptors
634. Cholesterol is a- (DELHI 96) b) Deficient HDL receptors
a) Steriod b) Tocopherol c) HMG Co A reductase deficiemcy
c) Lipoprotein d) Lipoposaccharide d) Deficient VLDL receptors
620)None 62l)c 622)d 623)b 624)b 625)b 626)d 627)b 628)c 629)a 630)c 63l)d 632)b 633)c
634) a 635) a,b 636) a,d 637) b 638) b 639) d 640)d 641)b 642)a 643)b 644)c 645) b,c 646) a 647)b,c
648)a
649. Which of the following is used to transport 663. Dietary cholesterol is transported to extrahepatic
cholesterol from intestine to liver - (AI 2K) tissue by - (PGI 02, AI 99)
a) ApoE b)ApoC a) lDL b)HDL
c) ApoA d)Apo B c) VIDL d) Chylomicrons
650. The metabolic adaptations in alcoholic are the e) ApoE
following except- (Kerala 2K) 664. Ketone body formation without glycosuria seen in-
a) Lactic acidosis a) DM b)DI (PGI97)
b) High NAD+ level c) Prolonged starvation d) Obesity
c) Accumulation of fat in the liver 665. Bile Salts undergo xenobiotics- (PGI 97)
d) Ketogenesis
a) After conjugation with taurine and glycine
e) Decreased excretion of uric acid
b) After conjugation with lysine
651. Which of the following acts as Lung
c) After conjugation with betaglucuronic acid
surfactant- (Kerala 2K)
d) After conjugation with derived proteins
a) Spingomyelin b) Lysolecithin
c) Dipalmitiyllecithin d) Cephalin 666. One of the following is having least density-
e) Phosphotidyl inositol a) Chylomicron b)HDL (PGI 98)
652. Fatty acid of Cholesterol are mainly- (PGI 2K) c) IDL d) VLDL
a) Oleic acid b) Linoleic acid 667. Alcoholic group is found in- (PGI 98)
c) Linolenic acid d) Palmitic acid a) Ganglioside b) Sphingomyelin
e) Stearic acid c) Cerebroside d) Terpen
653. Hormone sensitive lipase is not activated by - 668. Bile acids synthesized in liver (Primary bile acids)-
a) Insulin b)Glucagon (DNBOJ) a) Lithocolic acid (PGI 2000)
c) Catecolamines d) T4 b) Cholic acid
654. Which fatty acid is not synthesized by c) Chenodeoxycholic acid
man- (J&K OJ, AIIMS 86) d) Deoxycholic acid
a) Linoleic acid b) Stearic acid e) Taurocholic acid
c) Palmitic acid d) Oleic acid 669. True about lipid bilayer of cell wall- (PGI OJ)
655. Saponification means hydrolysis of fats by - a) Asymmetrical arrangement of cell wall component
a) Acid b)Alkali (J &K OJ) b) Lateral diffusion of ions
c) Water d) Enzymes c) Symmetrical arrangement of ce II wall components
656. Eicosanoids are derived from- (J&K OJ, Kerala OJ) d) Not made up of amphipathic lipids
a) NSAIDS b) 20 Carbon cyclic fatty acids 670. Hypolipidemic agents act on- (PGI 02)
c) Steroids d) Tyrosine a) HMG Co A synthetase b) HMG CoA oxygenase
657. The APO-B-48 & APO-B-100 are, main proteins c) HMG CoA reductase d) HMG CoA hydratase
of differentlipoproteins due to - (A12002) e) HMGCoAmutase
a) RNAsplicing b)RNAediting 671. In Abetaltipoproteinemia result in absence of-
c) Misreading of mRNA d) DNA Duplication a) Chylomicron b)LDL (PGJ02)
658. Ketone bodies utilized by conversion of - c) VIDL d)HDL
a) Acetoacetate to acetoacetyl CoA (NIMHANS OJ) e) 1G
b) Series of changes leads to Pyruvate 672. For reduction of cholesterol, the best management
c) Alphaketo glutaric acid includes- (PGI 03)
d) Succinyl CoA a) Cholesterol restricted diet
659. The following fatty acid does not belong to W6 b) High fiber diet
series - (JIPMER 02) c) Dietwithhigh unsaturated FA and low saturated FA
a) Linoleic acid b) Arachidinic acid d) Diet with low unsaturated FA and high saturated FA
c) Gamma linolenic acid d) Alpha linolenic acid e) Cholesterol restricted diet, high fiber and diet with
660. Which of the following is an activator ofLCAT- low saturted FA to unsaturated FA ratio
a) ApoB 100 b)ApoB48 (JIPMER02, 673. Beta-Oxidation in peroxisome is differentiated
c) Apo E d) Apo AI Orrisa R) from that occuring in mitochondria by- (PGI 03)
661. Eicosanoids are derived from - (TN 2002) a) Acetyl CoA
a) Oleoc acid b) Linoleic acid b) Hp2 formed
c) Linolenic acid d) Archidonic acid c) Different enzymes are found in different sites
662. Long chain fatty acid is transported into inner d) NADH is required
mitochondria membrane by- (I'N 02, JIPMER 95) 674. Lipotrophic factor are all except- (Jipmer 03)
a) Acyl carrier protein b) Acyl carnitine a) Choline b) Lecithin
c) Simple diffusion d) Energy mediated c) Arginine d) Methionine
649)d 650)b 651)c 652)a,b,d 653)a 654)a 655)b 656)b 657)b 658)a 659)d 660)d 66l)d 662)b
663)a 664)c 665)a 666)a 667)a,b,c 668)b,c 669)a 670)c 671)a,b,c,e 672)e 673)b 674)c
675. Enzyme deficient in 'J)'pe I Hyperlipidemia is- 687. In the mucosal cells triglycerides are formed
a) HMGCoAreductase (Jipmer03) primarily in the - (COMEDK 05)
b) Lipoprotein lipase a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c) Cholesterol acyl transferase b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) Peroxidase c) Golgi apparatus
676. Which one of the following pairs of lipids and d) Ribosomes
related compounds exhibits opposite biologic 688. A membrane phospholid that does not contain
activities- (Karnataka 03) glycerol is - (COMEDK 05)
a) 5 - HPETE and leukotriene D4 a) Lecithin b) Sphingomyelin
b) Cholic acid and lithocolic acid c) Cardiolipin d) Ceramide
c) ThromboxaneA2 and prostacyclin (PGI) 689. The principal precursor of cholesterol is-
d) Acetone and beta - hydroxybutyrate a) Citrate b) Acetate (MAHE 05)
677. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet c) Glycerol d) Lanosterol
continues to grow obese. Which of the following 690. ATP yield in stearic acid oxidation- (MAHE 05,
lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood- a) 146ATP b) 142ATP Rohtak87)
a) Chylomicrons b)VLDL (AI04) c) 129ATP d) 139ATP
c) IDL d)HDL 691. Ligand for LDL- (PGIJune 05)
678. Fatty acids does not produce glucose due to absence of- a) APOB 100 b)APOE
a) Glucokinase (Manipal 04) c) AP048 d)APOAll
b) Hexokinase 692. In synthesis of fatty energy is supplied by-
c) Phosphoenolpyruvate kinase a) NAD b) FAD (MAHA 05)
d) Strong extensor c) G1P d)NADPH
679. ApoproteinspresentinLDL- (Manipal 04) 693. Respiratory destress syndrome in premature
a) B-48 b)B-100 infants is due to inadequate secretion of which one
c) C.I d)C-m of the following lipids- (MAHA 05)
a) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine
680. Chylomicrons contain- (Jharkhand 03)
b) Spingomelin
a) Apo A b) Apo B
c) Cholesterol
c) Apo C d)ApoE
d) Phosphatidylinositol
681. All of the following statements about LDL are
694. To be defined as a ganglioside, a lipid substance
true except- (AIIMS 04)
isolated from nervous tissue must contain in its
a) It delivers cholesterol to cells
structure- (MAHA 05)
b) It contains only one Apoprotein a) N-Acetylneuraminic acid (NANA), hexoses,
c) It is a marker for cardiovascular disease sphingosine, long chain fatty acid
d) It contains Apo-B4 b) NANA, a hexose, a fatty acid, sphingosine,
682. Steroid biosynthesis occur at- (APPGE 04) phosphorylcholine
a) Rough endoplasmic retinaculum c) NANA, Phingosine, ethanolamine
b) Smooth endoplasmic retinaculum d) NANA, hexoses, fatty acid, glycerol
c) Nucleolus 695. The immediate precursor of mevalonic acid is-
d) Ribosomes a) Mevalonyl CoA (MAHA 05)
683. The highest quantity of lipid and lowest b) Mevalonyl pyrophosphate
concentration of protein are found in- (Kerala 04) c) Acetoacetyl CoA
a) Chylomicrons d) 3-hydroxy-3-methyglutaryl CoA
b) Very low density lipoproteins 696. The human plasma lipoprotein containing the
c) Low density lipoproteins highest percentage of triacyglycerol by weight
d) High density lipoproteins is - (AI 06, PGI 86, 87, AIIMS May 07)
684. Ketone bodies are formed in the -(TN 04, Kerala 91) a) VI.DL b) Chylomicrons
a) Liver b) Pancreas c) HDL d)LDL
c) Kidneys d) Lungs 697. Lack of alpha oxidation of fatty acids leads to -
685. Triglycerides are transported from the liver to a) Accumulation of phytanic acid (COMED 2006)
the tissues by- (TN 04) b) Formation of dicarboxylic acid
a) HDL b)LDL c) Formation of propionic acid
c) VI.DL d) Chylomicrons d) Oxidation of branched chain fatty acid
686. Cholesterol is a (an)- (CMC 05) 698. Organ which can utilize glucose, FA and ketone
a) Ester b) Phospholipid bodies is- (PGMCET (]7)
c) Sterol d) Lipoprotein a) Liver b) Brain
e) Protein c) Skeletal muscle d) RBC
675)b 676)c 677)b 678)c 679)b 680)All 681)d 682)b 683)a 684)a 685)c 686)c 687)b 688)b
689)b 690)a 691)a,b 692)d 693)a 694)a 695)d 696)b 697)a 698)c
699. Which cholesterol is designated as "Good 709. In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component
Cholesterol" - (Corned 07) for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are-
+
a) VI.DL b)LDL a) NADP b) NAD (PGI Dec 08)
c) HDL d)IDL c) NADPH d)FADH
700. Regarding synthesis of triacyl glycerol in adipose e) FAD
tissue, all of the following are tnre except- (AI 07) 710. All of the following statements about Lipoprotein
a) Synthesis from Dihydroxyacetone phosphate Lipase are true, Except- (AI 09)
b) Enzyme Glycerol kinase plays an important role a) Found in adipose tissue
c) Enzyme Glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase b) Found in myocytes
plays an important role c) Deficiency leads to hypertriacylglycerolemia
d) Does not require CII as cofactor
d) Phosphatidate is hydrolyzed
711. Which receptors are present in liver for uptake of
701. Cardiolipinisfoundin- (UP07)
LDL- (AJJMSMay 09)
a) Outer membrane ofMitochondria
a) ApoE b)ApoAandApoE
b) Inner membrane of mitochondria c) ApoEandApoBlOO d)ApoBIOO
c) Lysosomes 712. A patient was diagnosed with isolated increase in
d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum LDL. His father and brother had the same disease
702. Important intermediate product of biosynthesis of with increased cholesterol. The likely diagnosis is-
fatty acid is- (UP 08) a) Familial type III hyperlipoproteinemia
a) Cholesterol b) Malonyl CoA b) Abetalipoproteinemia (AIIMS May 09)
c) Acetyl CoA d) Thioesterases c) F amiliallipoprotein lipase deficiency (type I)
703. All of the following statements about apoproteins d) LDL receptor mutation
aretrueExcept- (AI 08) 713. The parameter used as an index oflipid peroxidation
a) ApoproteinA-1 activates LCAT is the level of - (Corned 09)
b) Apoprotein C-1 activates lipoprotein lipase a) Ascorbic acid b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Apoprotein C-11 inhibits lipoprotein lipase c) Malondialdehyde d) Volatile fatty acids
d) Apoprotein C-11 activates lipoprotein lipase 714. Saturated fatty acids containing np to 16
704. Which of the following types ofhypertriglyceridemia carbon atoms are assembled in -(DELHI PG Feb. 09)
is associated with an increase in chylomicron and a) Mitochondria
VLDL remnants? (AI 08) b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
a) Type I b) Type Ila c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) Type III d) Type IV d) Cytoplasm
705. The reaction which requires HMG-COA reductase 715. The elevated liver concentration ofNADH produced
activity- (Manipal 08) by ingestion of ethanol- (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
a) 13-hydroxy-b-methyl glutaryl COA ~Mevalonic a) Is restricted to the mitochondria
acid b) May lead to an acidosis by inhibiting the
b) Acetyl COA + C02 + ATP ~Malonyl COA + ADP gluconeogenesis from lactate
+Pi c) Leads to fatty liver by stimulating fatty acid synthesis
c) L-Methyl malonyl COA ~ Succinyl COA d) Increase the conversion of acetate to acetyl CoA
d) Lactose + Hp ~ Glucose+ Galactose 716. Which of the following may be classified as a
706. Apoprotein- C- (DPGEE 08) hydrophobic amino acid at pH 7.0 ?(DELHIPG Mar.
a) Activates lipoprotein lipase a) Isoleucine · b) Aginine 09)
b) Inactivates lipoproteindipase c) Aspartic acid d) Lysine
c) Facilitates triglyceride transport 717. The end product of cytosol fatty acid synthetase in
d) All of the above humans is : (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
707. Sphingolipids are chiefly accumulated in- a) Oleic acid b) Arachidonic acid
a) Cardiac muscle (DPGEE 08) c) Linoleic acid d) Palmitic acid
b) Adipose tissue 718. False about trans fatty acid- (PGI Nov 09)
c) Skeletal muscle a) Increase risk of cardiovascular disease
d) CNS b) Fried foods have high content ofTFA
708. Gangliosides consists of- (PGI Dec 08) c) Hydrogenation increases TFA
a) Long chain fatty acid (LCFA) d) Hydrogenation decreases TFA
b) Alcohol-sphingosine e) It1'LDL&J-HDL
c) Phosphate 719. Eukaryoticplasmamembraneismadeupofall except-
d) Sailic acid a) Carbohydrates b) Triglycerides (AIJMSMay 10)
e) Glycerol c) Lecithin d) Cholesterol
699)c 700)b 701)b 702)b 703)c 704)c 705)a 706)d 707)d 708) a,b,d 709) b,c 71 0) d 711) c
712)d 713)c 714)d 715)c 716)a 717)d 718)d 719)b
720. Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is 732. Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis -
defective in- (All 0) a) HMG CoA synthetase (PUNJAB 11)
a) Maple syrup urine disease b) HMG CoA lyase
b) Hartnup disease c) HMG CoA reductase
c) Alkaptonuria d) Mevalonate synthetase
d) GM1 gangliosidosis 733. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is activated by-
721. Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in- (AJIO) a) Malanyl CoA (Jipmer IO)
a) Niemann- Pick disease b) Farber's disease b) Citrate
c) Tay Sach's disease d) Krabbe's disease c) Palmitoyl CoA
722. Which of the following lipoproteins does not move d) Acetoacetate
towards charged end in electrophoresis- (All 0) 734. HDLisincreasedby- (Jipmer 11)
a) VIDL b)LDL a) Exercise b) 400 mg Vit. E daily
c) HDL d) Chylomicrons c) Aspirin d)DHEA
723. Phospholipids include all except- (DPG I 0) 735. Aromatic enzyme complex is used for the synthesis
a) Plasmalogens b) Dipalmitoyllecithin of- (Jipmer II)
b) Ceramide d) Cardiolipin a) Estradiol b) Cortisone
724. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants c) Cholesterol d) Progesterone
is due to inadequate secretion of which one of the 736. Metabolically the most active of the plasma lipids is-
following lipids? (DPG 10) a) Phospholipids b) Cholesterol (Corned IO)
a) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine c) Triacylglycerol d) Free fatty acids
b) Sphingomyelin 737. What will you give to stop chyluria in diet?
c) Cholesterol a) Small chain Fa' (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Phosphatidylinositol b) Medium chain Fa
725. Enzyme required for conversion of cholesterol to c) Long chain Fa
Pregnenalone? (Maharashtra 10) d) Omega 3 unsaturated Fa
a) Cytochrome P450 b) 11 ~-hydroxylase 738. Type 2 hypercholesterolemia occurs due to -
c) 3 ~-hydroxylase d) 17-hydroxylase a) Lipoprotein lipase deficiency (NEET /DNB
726. False about trans fatty acid- (PGI Nov. I 0) b) Absence ofLDL receptors on cells Pattern)
a) Fried rice have high content ofTFA c) Abnormality in apo E
b) Hydrogenation increases TFA d) LCAT deficiency
c) Refining decreases TFA 739. Type 2 hypercholesterolemia occurs due to-
d)tLDL a) Lipoprotein lipase deficiency (NEET IDNB
e) .LHDL b) Absence ofLDL receptors on cells Pattern)
727. Which ofthe following is a cardioprotective fatty
c) Abnormality in apo E
acid- (AI 11)
d) LCAT deficiency
a) Palmitic acid b) Stearic acid
7 40. In beta oxidation of fatty acids carnitine is required
c) Oleic acid d) Omega-3 fatty acids
for - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
728. Which of the following statements about High
a) Conversion of short chain fatty acids to long
Density Lipoprotein (HDL) is false- (Alll)
chain fatty acids
a) HDLincreases oxidationofLDL
b) Transport of long chain fatty acid to mitochondrial
b) HDLreduces foam cell production by LDL
inner layer
c) HDL is the best predictor of CAD
c) Transport of long chain fatty acid to cytoplasm
d) HDL helps to clear lipids from atheromas
d) Conversion of long chain fatty acids to short
729. All of the following are associated with increased
chain fatty acids
risk of atherosclerotic plaque formation except-
741. Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis-
a) Apo E mutation (AI 11)
a) HMG CoA reductase (NEET!DNB Pattern)
b) OxidizedLDL
b) HMG CoA synthase
c) Increased homocysteine
c) Mevalonate kinase
d) Increased Alpha 2 macroglobulin
d) Squalene synthetase
730. Which of the following is not a component of
Sphingomyelin? (PUNJAB 11) 742. Role of bile salts- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Choline b) Sphingosine a) Vit B 12 absorption b) Fonnationoflipidbilayer
c) Phosphoric acid (HlO .J d) Glycerol c) Emulsification oflipids d) Fatty acid degradation
731. Ketone bodies are synthesized in which part ofbody? 743. Essential fatty acid- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Brain b) Liver (PUNJAB 11) a) Linoleic acid b) Palmitoleic acid
c) Heart d) Intestine c) Oleic acid d) Arachidonic acid
720)a 72l)a 722)d 723)c 724)a 725)a 726) a,b,d,e 727) d 728) a 729) d 730) d 731) b 732)c 733)b
734)a 735)a 736)d 737)b 738)b 739)b 740)b 74l)a 742)c 743)a
744. 1st acetyl group donor in fatty acid synthesis is- 756. Adipose tissue fat metabolism is done by -
a) Malonyl CoA (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Lipoprotein lipase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Palmitate b) Hormone sensitive lipase
c) Acetyl CoA c) Acid lipase
d) Citrate d) Acid maltase
745. Enzyme deficient in Type I Hyperlipidemia is- 757. Oxidised LDL is more athreogenic because-
a) HMG CoA reductase (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Binds to Apo E (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Lipoprotein lipase
b) Binds to scavenger R
c) Cholesterol acyl transferase
c) Binds to ATP binding
d) Peroxidase
746. Rate controlling enzyme offatty acid synthesis- d) Accumulates in macrophages
a) Thioesterase (NEETIDNB Pattern) 758. Enzyme deficient in Type I Hyperlipidemia is-
b) Transacetylase a) HMG CoA reductase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase b) Lipoprotein lipase
d) Ketacyl synthase c) Cholesterol acyl transferase
747. Which of the following is required for fatty acid d) Peroxidase
synthesis - (NEETIDNBPattern) 759. Fatty acid metabolism gives- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) NADPH b)NADH a) Acetyl CoA b) Malonyl CoA
c) FADH d) None c) Ketone bodies d) Cholesterol
748. Which cholesterol is designated as "Good 760. Adipose tissue fat metabolism is done by-
Cholesterol"- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Lipoprotein lipase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) VillL b)LDL b) Hormone sensitive lipase
c) HDL d)IDL c) Acid lipase
749. Alloccurinmitochondriaexcept- (NEETIDNB d) Acid maltase
a) ECT b) TCA cycle Pattern) 761. Role ofsomatomediu in fat metabolism-(NEETIDNB
c) Ketogenesis d) Glycolysis a) Antilipolytic b) Lipolytic Pattern)
750. Mitochondriahave- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Ketogenic d) glucogenic
a) Plasmid DNA 762. Ketone body formation without glycosuria seen in-
b) Circular DNA a) DM b) DI (PGI June 97)
c) Single stranded DNA c) Prolonged starvation d) Obesity
d) Double stranded DNA 763. Arachidonic acid is synthesized from -
751. Serum appeary milky white in- a) Stearic acid (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Increased LDL (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Linodeic acid
b) Increased hDL c) Linolenic acid
c) Increased VLDL d) Oleic acid
d) Increased Chylomicrons 764. Hormone sensitive lipose is inhibited by-(NEETIDNB
752. Which fatty acid is not synthesized by man -
a) Thyroid homone b) Insulin Pattern)
a) Linoleic acid (NEETIDNB Pattern)
~GH ~ACTH
b) Stearic acid
765. Which is not true of chylomicrons-
c) Palmitic acid
d) Oleic acid a) Lowest desnsity (NEETIDNBPattern)
753. Which of the following is ro-6 fatty acid- b) Max. content is TGs
c) Max. content is cholesterol
a) Cervonic acid (NEETIDNBPattern)
d) Largest size
b) Linoleic acid
766. Ketone bodies are synthesized -(NEETIDNBPattern)
c) Alpha linolenic acid
a) Cytosol b)ER
d) Elaidic acid
c) Miochondria d) Peroxisomes
754. Apoprotein -C- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
767. Autooxidation is seen in - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Activates lipoprotein lipase
a) Cholesterol b) Arachidonic acid
b) Inactivates lipoprotein lipase
c) Stearic acid d) Palmitic acid
c) Facilitates triglyceride transport
768. Difference between ganglioside & cerebroside,all
d) All of the above
except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
755. What is true regarding medium chain fatty acids-
a) Don't require pancreatic lipase (NEETI) a) Charge
b) Not deposited in adipose tissue DNBPattern b) Presence of NANA
c) Diffuse directly into portal circulation c) Presence of carbohydrate
d) All of the above d) Native tissue
744)c 745)b 746)c 747)a 748)c 749)d 750)b 75l)d 752)a 753)b 754)d 755)d 756)b 757)d
758)b 759)b 760)b 761)a 762)c 763)b 764)b 765)c 766)c 767)b 768)c
769. Lipogenesis is stimulated by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 782. Glucosylceramide is accumulated in -

a) Insulin a) Tay-Sach disease (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Glucagon b) Krabbe's disease
c) Epinephrine c) Gaucher's disease
d) Corticosteroids d) Niemanm Pick disease
770. Chylomicron remnants are associated with - 783. Which of the following is a secondary bile acid -
a) Apo-A (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Cholic acid (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Apo-BIOO b) Chenodeoxy cholic acid
c) Apo-E c) LithoCholic acid
d)Apo-C d) None
771. Linoleic acid is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 784. Omega oxidation of fatty acids occur-(NEETIDNB
a) (1)-3 fatty acid b) (1)-6 fatty acid a) FR. b) Mitochondria Pattern)
c) (1)-9 fatty acid d) Saturated fatty acid c) Cytosol d) None
772. Ketosis is caused by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 785. Carnitine helps in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Excessine utilization of glucose a) Transportoffatty acids frommitochandria to cytosol
b) Over production of acetyl-CoA b) Transport offatty acids from cytosol to mitochondria
c) Excessine secretia of insulin c) Transport ofpyrurate into mitochondria
d) Excessine intake of carbohydrates d) Transport of Malate in Malate shuttle
773. Which of the following is a lipotropic factor:- 786. Desired ratio oftotal cholesteroi/HDL should be-
a) Sphingomyelin (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) <7.5 b)<IO (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Histidine c) <3.5 d)<4.5
c) Methionine 787. a-oxidation occurs in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Bilirubin a) Mitochondria b) Peroxisomes
774. Apo-E dificiency is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Cytosol d) Golgi apparatus
a) Tpye I hypolipoproteinemis 788. Accumulatiom of following causes fatty
b) Tpye II hypolipoproteinemis liver- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Tpye III hypolipoproteinemis a) Cholestrol b) Triglycerides
d) Tpye IV hypolipoproteinemis c) Cholestrol ester d) Phospholipids
775. In Zellweger syndrome,there is-(NEETIDNB Pattern) 789. Essential fatty acid- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Accumulation of long fatty acids a) Linoleic acid b) Palmitoleic acid
b) Accumulation of short chain fatty acids c) Oleic acid d) Arachidonic acid
c) Accumulation of very long chain fatty acids 790. Medium chain fatty acids - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Accumulation of medium chain fatty acids a) Require pancreatic lipase for digestion
776. Primary ketone body- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Absorbed through lymphatics
a) ~-hydroxybutyrate b) Acetoacetate c) Hydrolyzed in stomach
c) Acetone d) None d) Stored in Adipose tissue
777. Lipogenesis occurs in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 791. Phospholipid is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Liver b) Skeletal muscles a) Leukotrienes b) Lecithin
c) Myocardium d) Lungs c) Cerebroside d) Ganglioside
778. Free fatty acid produced in adipose tissue is 792. Ketone bodies are all except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
transported by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Acetoacetate b) Acetone
a) Globulin b) Albumin c) b-hydroxy butyrate d) Acetyl-CoA
c) Ceruloplasmin d) None 793. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is due to deficiency
779. Which of the following is not affected in of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
Abetalipoproteinemia- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Hexosaminidase A b) Hexosaminidase B
a) IDL b) VLDL c) Ceramidase d) Arylsulfatase
c) HDL d) IDL 794. LCAT is involved in - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Transport of dictory cholesterol
780. Endogenous triglycerides in plasma are maximally
b) Transport of dietory TGs
carried in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Reverse cholesterol transport
a) VI.DL b) Chylomicrons
d) None
c) IDL d)HDL
795. Citrate used in fatty acid synthesis uses which
781. Which ofthe following has maximum density- enzyme- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) VI.DL b)LDL (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Citrate Synthese b) ATP citrate lyase
c) HDL d) Chylomicrons c) Aconitase d) Malic enzyme
769)a 770)c 77l)b 772)b 773)c 774)c 775)c 776)b 777) a>d 778) b 779) c 780) a 78l)c 782)c
783)c 784)a 785)b 786)c 787)a 788)b 789)a 790)c 79l)b 792)d 793)d 794)c 795)b
796. Hurler syndrome is due to deficiency of- 808. Amino acids excreted in the urine in cystinosis-
a) Beta galactosidase (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Cystine b) Ornithine (PGI 87)
b) Sphingomyelinase c) Arginine d) Lysine
c) Induronate Sulfatase e) All of the above
d) Hyaluronidase 809. In maple syrup urine disease the amino acids
797. Endogenous triglycerides in plasma are maximally excreted in the urine are- (PGI 85, 87, AP 86)
carried in - (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Leucine b) Isoleucine
a) VIDL b) Chylomicrons c) Valine d) a, b & c
c) IDL d)HDL e) Arginine
798. Eicosanoids are derived from- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 810. In Hartnup's disease ..•... is excreted in the urine-
a) Oleoc acid b) Linoleic acid
a) Ornithine b) Glycine (PGI 86)
c) Linolenic acid d)Archidonic acid
c) Tryptophan d) Phenylalanine
799. Which of the following fatty acid has maximum
number ofcarbon atoms- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
e) Cystine
a) Oleic acid b) Linolenic acid 811. In alkaptonuria the urine contains- (NIMHANS 86)
c) Arachedonic acid d) Cervonic acid a) Homogentisic acid b) Phenylalanine
800. HMG-CoA in liver mitochondria is inhibited by- c) Ketones d) Acetates
a) Insulin (NEETIDNB Pattern) e) None of the above
b) Glucogon 812. Glutamate is not a precusor of- (AI 88)
c) Glucocorticoid a) Ammonia b) Proline
d) Epinephrine c) Glutathione d) Histidine
801. Common intermediate between gluconeogenesis and 813. All are essential amino acid except- (AI 89)
fatty acid synthesis- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Phenylalanine b) Lysine
a) Glucose-6-phosphate b) Acetyl-CoA c) Leucine d) Glycine
c) Citrate d) Succinyl-CoA 814. Bilirubin glucoronide in the urine in the absence
802. Receptors on blood cells accept choleterol from- ofUrobilinogen suggests- (AIIMS 86)
a) HDL b) LDL (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Hemolytic jaundice b) Hepatocellular jaundice
c) VIJJL d) Chylomicrons c) Obstructive jaundice d) None of the above
803. Scavanger receptors uptake -(NEETIDNB Pattern) 815. Which amino acid causes hypoglycemia-
a) Phenylalanine b) Lysine (AIIMS 86)
~HDL ~VLDL
c) Leucine d)Valine
c) IDL d)IDL
816. Glycine is used in the synthesis of- (PGI 88)
804. True abouttriacylglycerol and phospholipids-
a) Hearn b) Glycocholic acid
a) Same structure (NEET!DNB Pattern) c) Taurocholic acid d) Purines
b) Common pathway for synthesis e) All
c) Same pathway for catabolism 817. Which of the following are metalloporphyrines-
d) None a) Hemoglobin b) Catalase (PGI84)
805. All are true about fatty acid synthesis except- c) Bilirubin d) Cytochrome
a) Requires NADPH (NEET/DNB Pattern) e) Pyrolase
b) Requires NADH 818. Glycine is present in- (PGI 84)
c) Occurs in cytosol a) Hemoglobin b) Gulatathione
d) Intermediately linked with glycolysis c) Purine d) Creatine
806. True about conversion of20C fatty acid conversion e) All
to prostaglandin by prostaglandin synthase - 819. The semi essential amino acids are- (PG184, 85,
a) First PG synthesized is PGI Iz (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Phenylalanine b) Lysine 86, 89)
b) It is rate limiting enzyme c) Tryptophan d)Arginine
c) It couvertes PGI H2 to PGI E2 e) Histidine
d) The primary prostaglandin is PG H2 820. The immediate precurosor of nor epinephrine
is- (TN 87)
METABOLISM OF PROTEIN AND a) Epinephrine b) Tyrosine
AMINO ACID c) Dopamine .d) Phenylalanine
821. Metabolite of epinephrine is- (Al90, JIPMER 90)
807. Melatonin is synthesised from - (AIIMS 87 a) Metanephrine
a) Tryptophan b) Serotonin AI 89) b) Nor metanephrine
c) Phenyllanine d) Histidine c) Hydroxy mandelic acid
e) Leucine d) 3 methoxy-2 hydroxy glycol
796) c 797) a 798) d 799)d 800)a 80l)c 802)b 803)c 804)b 805)b 806)d 807)a 808)e 809)d
810)c,d 811)a 812)d 813)d 814)c 815)c 816)a,b,d 817)a,b,d,e 818)e 819) d,e 820) c 82l)a
822. The urea in the brain is derived from- (AI 91) 837. In ureotelic animals carbamoyl group are
a) Glutamine b) Glutamic acid transferred to- (PGI 83)
c) Lactate d) Uric acid a) Urea b) Uric acid
823. Aminoacid carrier defectis found in- (TN 91) c) Ornithine d) Creatine
a) Maple syrup urine disease e) Phosphate
b) Alcaptonuria 838. Decarboxylation yields a vasodilator from-
c) Phenylketonuria a) Aspartate b) Arginine (AIIMS 85,
d) Cystinuria c) Histidine d) Serine JIPMER 03)
824. Maple syrup urine disease is due to deficiency of- e) Glutamate
a) Decarboxylation b) Dehydroxylation (TN 91)
839. Which of the following is precursor of adrenaline
c) Transamination d) Deamination
and thyroxine synthesis- (AIIMS 84, 88, TN 98)
825. The amino acid that can be converted into a vitamin-
a) Phenyl alanine b) Tyrosine
a) Glycine b) Tryptophan (Kerala 91)
c) Phenylalanine d) Lysine c) Tryptophan d) None of the above
826. Histamine is produced by- (Kerala 91) 840. Kynurenine is formed from- (PGI 84)
a) Oxedation b) Reduction a) Phenylalanine b) Tryptophan
c) Deamination d) Decarboxylation c) Tyrosine d) Histidine
827. Glutathione is a- (Kerala 91) 841. Hair is rich in amino acid- (AIIMS 84)
a) Monopeptide b) Dipeptide a) Cystine b) Lysine
c) Tripeptide d) Tetrapeptide c) Glycine d) Leucine
828. Xanthurenic acid is a product of metabolism of- 842. Methionine is important in- (DNB 90)
a) Tryptophan (JIPMER 91) a) Chain termination in protein synthesis
b) Glucoronic acid b) Disulphide bridge formation
c) Xanthine c) Formation of choline
d) None of the above d) Transcarboxylation reactions
829. The following is false about Tryptophan- 843. Choline, a most important lipotropic factor is
a) Non essential amino acid (JIPMER 91) formed with the help offollowing- (NIMHANS 87)
b) Involved in serotonin synthsis a) Methionine b) Serine
c) Involved in niacin synthesis c) Glycine d) Histidine
d) Involved in melatonin synthesis 844. Which is the by product of the urea cycle-
830. Ammonia is detoxified in brain by- (JIPMER91, a) Aspartate b) Succinate (DNB 91)
a) Uricacid b)Glutamine AIIMS89,AI99) c) Ornithine d) Fumarate
c) Creatinine d) Urea 845. Which of the following is the initiating amino
831. Keyenzymein urea synthesis is- (AI92)
acid for protein synthesis- (AIIMS 84)
a) Urease b) Carbamoyl transferase
a) Alanine b) Methionine
c) Arginase d) Ornithine
c) Serine d) Lysine
832. S. Adenosyl methionine is necessary for synthesis
e) Cysteine
of- (JIPMER 92)
a) Serine b) Cysteine 846. Which of the following is seen in obstructive
c) Homocysteine d) Choline jaundice- (AIIMS 82, 83)
833. Melanin is synthesized from-(AIIMS 86, DELHI 93) a) Excess of urobilinogen in urine
a) Glycine b) Leucine b) Excess ofunconjugated serum bilirbin
c) Tyrosine d) Phenylalanine c) Excess ofbile salts in the urine
834. Guanido acetic acid is formed in .•...• from .•. - d) All of the above
a) Kidney; Arginine+ Glycine (JIPMER 80 847. Millon's testis usedfordectectionof- (DNB 91)
b) Liver; Methionine+ Glycine DNB 88) a) Phenylanine b) Cystine
c) Liver; Cysteine+ Arginine c) Tyrosine d) Tryptophan
d) Muscle; Citrulline+ Aspartate 848. Urea isproducedbytheenzyme- (PG/83)
835. Catabolism of tryptophan begins with formation a) Urease b) Uricase
of- (PGI 87) c) Arginase d) Glutaminase
a) N-formyl kynurenine b) Anthranilic acid 849. Coproporphyrin ill is- (Delhi 88, AI 88, AIIMS 83)
c) Uroconic acid d) Serotonin a) Normal hemoglobin breakdown product
836. DFP, is useful in enzyme chemistry; combine with b) Abnormal Hb precursor
anactivesiteof- (DNB 89) c) Excreted in lead poisoning
a) Serine b) Lysine d) Excreted in hepatic porphyria
c) Aspartate d) Histidine
822)a 823)d 824)a 825)b 826)d 827)c 828)a 829)a 830)b 831) None 832) b,c 833) c 834) a
835)a 836)a 837)c 838)c 839)b 840)b 84l)a 842)c 843)a 844)d 845)b 846)c 847)c 848)c
849)c
850. The most direct precursor oftaurine is-(AIIMS 8I) 863. In mammalian tissue glycine is not a synthetic
a) Glycine b) Cysteine precursor of- (DNB 89)
c) Methionine d) Glutathione a) Heme b) Thymine
851. Negative nitrogen balance is produced in humans c) Creatine d) Guanine
by elimination from the diet of all of the following 864. 5-HIAA test may be false negative if patient is
amino acids except- (Delhi 90, 9 3) taking- (JIPMER 79)
a) Aspirin b) Colchicine
a) Leucine b) Methionine
c) Phenothiazines d) Methotrexate
c) Lysine d) Serine
865. The rationale for feeding benzoic acids to subjects
e) Threonine
with a urea cycle enzyme defect is- (BIHAR 88)
852. Ingestion of benzoic acid in man result in an a) It provides an alternative route for N2 excretion
increase in urinary- (AIIMS 79, DNB 88) through glycine conjugate, hippuric
a) Hippuric acid b) Phenyl piruvic acid b) It provides an alternative route for N2 excretion
c) Phenlyalanine d) Noradrenaline through the N- acetyl glucoronic acid conjugate
853. Which of the following is found in conjugation kynurenine
with bile acids- (DELHI 84) c) It inhibits adenylate deaminase
a) Cholic acid b) Pregnenolone d) It inhibits glutamate dehydrogenase
c) Glycine d) Cholylacetyl CoA e) It neutralizes NH 3 in both blood as well urine
854. An essential amino acid in man is- (AP 87) 866. Sources ofthe nucleotide portion ofNAD include-
a) L-methionine b) L-tyrosine a) N-methylnicotinamide (TN 89)
c) L-serine d) L-proline b) The vitamin reboflavin
855. Betaine is a - (JIPMER 8I, DNB 88) c) PRPP
a) Purine like compound d) Tryptophan
b) Quarternary ammonium compound 867. The enzymes that synthesize pyruvate from cystine
c) Phosphagen and gamma amino levulinate from succinyl CoA and
d) Mammalian glycoside glycine are both- (BIHAR 89)
856. A plasma albumin concentration of less than 2g/ a) Metaloproteins
L would affect specifically the transport of-
b) Pyridoxil phosphate dependent
c) Biotin dependent
a) Glucose b)Iron (AIIMS88)
d) Flavoporteins
c) Bilirubin d) Cholesterol
e) Any
857. Which of the following is not a catabolic product
868. Ehrlich's test is done to detect -(PGI 8I, Kerala 88)
oftryptophan- (AMU 87)
a) Urinary amylase b) Urinary cystine
a) Glutamine b) Xanthrurenic acid
c) Abnormal porphyrin d) Urobilinogen
c) Nicotinic acid d) Urocanic acid
869. Enzyme deficiency in alkaptonuria is- (Kerala 94)
e) Kynurenine
a) Tyrosine hydroxylase
858. An amino acid not involved in urea synthesis is -
b) Homogentisic acid oxidase
a) Ornithine b) Citrulline (DNB 9I)
c) Cystathionine synthase
c) Histidine d)Arginine d) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
e) Aspartic acid . 870. Creatinine is synthesised from- (Kerala 94)
859. Decarboxylation of which ofthe following occurs a) Glycine, arginine and methionine
in the pathway for spermine and spermidine bio b) Glycine and methionine
synthesis - (AIIMS 79) c) Ornithine and glycine
a) Ornithine b) 5-hydroxytryptophan d) Thymine and ornithine
c) Glutamate d) Histidine 871. Homocystinuria is due to abnormal metabolism of-
e) Dihydroxphenylanine a) Methionine b) Valine (AI 95)
860. Major source of ammonia in the kidney is -(Delhi87, c) Tryptophan d) Leucine
a) Urea b) Aspartate Aiims 88) 872. The normal value of BUN is- (TN 95)
c) Glutamine d) Glutamate a) 20-40mg/dl b)40-60mg/dl
861. Which of the following is a precursor of c) 8-16mg/dl d) 10-20mg/dl
protoporphyrin- (PGI 83, AIIMS 8 I) 873. Acholuric jaundice is caused by- (TN 95)
a) Leucine b) Alanine a) Obstructive jaundice b) Hemolytic jaundice
c) Proline d) Histidine c) Cholestatic jaundice d) Infective jaundice
e) Glycine 874. The compound metabolized in a manner similar
862. Millon test is positive in- (PGI 83) to Xenobiotics is - (AIIMS 95)
a) Maple syrup disease b) Hartnup disease a) Bilirubin b) Cholesterol
c) Wilson's disease d) Tyrosinosis c) Urea d)Acetylcholine
850)b 851)d 852)a 853)c 854)a 855)b 856)c 857) a,d 858) c 859) a 860)c 861)e 862)d 863)b
864)a 865)a 866)c 867)b 868)d 869)b 870)a 871)a 872)d 873)b 874)a
875. Urea is formed in- (Kerala 96, AMC 90) 889. Which metabolite of TCA cycle is used in
a) Brain b) Kidney detoxification of ammonia in brain- (Al/MS 200 J)
c) Liver d) Intestine a) Alpha ketoglutarate b) Ornithine
e) Muscle c) Oxaloacetate d) Glycine
876. Which of the following amino acids is involved 890. Regarding glutathione which of the following is/
in the synthesis of thyroxine- (Karnat 97) are true- (PGI 2K)
a) Glycine b) Methionine a) It helps in the absorption of certain amino acids
c) Threonine d) Tyrosine b) It inactivates some enzymes
877. One nitrogen atom of urea is derived from- c) It help in membrane transport
a) NH 3 of Glycine (AP 96) d) It helps in conjugation reactions
b) Glycine of aspartate 891. Which of the following is not synthesised from
c) NH 3 of aspartate tyrosine- (KERALA 200J)
d) Glutamate of aspartate a) Norepinephrine b) Melatonin
878. Amino acid deficiency which result in defective c) Thyroxine d) Dopamine
phosphorylation in scurvy- (A/IMS 97) 892. Naturally occuring amino acids- (NIMHANS OJ)
a) Serine b) Folic acid a) Homocystein b) Beta alanine
c) Leucine d) Isoleucine c) Alanine d) Hydroxyproline
879. Tyrosinemia type n is due to deficiency of - 893. Carbamoyl phosphate is used in- (NIMHANS OJ)
a) Tyrosine Transaminase (TN 97} a) Urea b) Uric acid
b) Fenanyl acetoacetyl hydrolase c) Pyruvic acid d) Stearic acid
c) Tyrosine hydroxylase 894. Methyl donor is- (CIP OJ)
d) Tyrosinase a) N-5 methyl tetra hydro folate
880. Aminoacid that enters the TCA cycle for b) Homocystiene
gluconeogenesis & Ketogenic in nature- (PGI 96) c) Adenosyl methionine
a) Phenylalanine b)Alanine d) Tetra hydro folate
c) Glycine d) Serine 895. The following amino acid is essential for synthesis
881. Preservative used for urine in testing for porphyrin- ofnitricoxide- (JIPMER 02)
a) NaOH b) Formalin (JIPMER 98) a) Arginine b) Aspartate
c) lKL d) Boric acid c) Alanine d) Glycine
882. Mousy odour urine is seen in- (PGI 97) 896. Source ofammonia in urine- (JIPMER 02)
a) Phenylketonuria a) Glutaminase b) Urease
b) Maple syrup urine disease c) Glutamate dehydrogenase d) Arginase
c) Isovalericaciduria 897. Pigment providing colour to stoolis- (PGI 97)
d) None of the above a) Stercobilinogen b) Urobilinogen
883. Arthritis occur in- (Kerala 97) c) Mevobilirubin d) Bilirubin
a) Alkaptonuria b) Cytinosis 898. Succinyl Co- A is formed by- (PGI 98)
c) Maple syrup diseases d) Homocystinuria a) Histidine b) Leucine
884. Norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by- c) Valine d) Lysine
a) Dopamine hydroxylase (AP 98) 899. Phosphorylation of amino acid is by- (PGI 98)
b) Dopa decarboxylase a) Serine b) Tyrosine
c) 0-methylation c) Leucine d) Tryptophan
d) N-methylation 900. Glutamine in blood acts as- (PGI 98)
885. Guanido acetate is converted to- (AP 97) a) NH3 transporter b)Toxic element
a) Creatinine b) Creatine phoshpate c) Stored energy d)Abnormalmetabolite
c) Choline d) Hydroxyproline 901. Of the following groups of amino acids produce
886. Not produced in Adrenaline synthesis pathway- common component ofthe TCA cycle is- (PGI 99)
a) DOPA b)Dopamine (MP98) a) Alaine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine
c) Nor adrenaline d) Tyramine b) Serine, asparagine, glycine, glutamate
887. Decarboxylation of aromatic Amino acid c) Isoleucine, valine, methionine
produces all except- (MP 98) d) Prolone, leucine, tryptophan
a) Histamine b) Acetylcholine 902. The enzyme deficient in erythropoietic porphyria
c) Phenylalanine d) Tyramine is- (PG/99)
888. Regarding NH3 in glutamine-true is- (PGI 98) a) PBG deaminase
a) Cannot be used for purine syythesis b) Uroporphyrin II cosynthetase
b) Cannot be degraded by enzymes c) Coprophyrin
c) Toxic product d) Ferrochelatase
d) Major excretory pathway is kidney
875) a,c 876) d 877) c 878)None 879)a 880)a 881)c 882)a 883)a 884)d 885)b 886)d 887)b,c 888)d
889) a 890) a,d 891) b 892)d 893)a 894)a,c 895)a 896)a 897)a 898)c 899) a,b 900) a 90l)c 902)d
903. Metabolites oftryptopban can give rise to- (PGI 02) 913. During Protein biosynthesis, high energy bonds
a) Diarrhoea are not utilized in which one of the following steps-
b) Vasoconstriction a) Formation of aminoacyl RNA (ICS 05)
c) Flushing b) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to A site of ribosome
d) Can predispose to albinism c) Formation of peptide bond (peptidyl transferase
e) Phenylketonuria step)
904. Active sites of serine protease contain - (PGI 03) d) Translocation step
a) Histidine b) Lysine or threonine 914. Guanidinium group is associated with-(PG!June 05)
c) Arginine d) Serine a) Tyrosine b) Arginine
905. Amino acid used in the synthesis of purines- c) Histidine d) Lysine
a) Glycine b) Ornithine (Jipmer03) e) Tryptophan
c) Alanine d) Threonine 915. Transversion seen in- (PGI.June 05)
906. In porphyra cutanea tarda the type of porphyrin a) Guanine - cytosine b) Guanine - adenine
excreted in urine is - (Jipmer 03) c) Guanine- thymine d) Adenine thymine
a) Coproporphyrin- I e) Cytosine- thymine
b) Uroporphyrin - I 916. Which of these is a conservative mutator-
c) Uroporphyrins- II a) Glutamic acid-glutamine (MAHA 05)
d) Type I & III uroporphyrins b) Histidine glycine
907. The conjugation of bilirubin to glucuronic acid in c) Alanine-leucine
the liver- (AIIMS 03) d) Arginine - aspartic acid
a) Converts a hydrophilic compound to a 917. If cellular proteins do not fold into a specific
hydrophobic one conformation, their function are affected. Certain
b) Converts a hydrophobic compound to a disorders arise, if specific proteins are misfolded.
hydrophilic one Which of the following disorders arises due to
c) Enables the bilirubin molecule to cross the cell conformational isomerization - (AIIMS Nov 05)
a) Familial fatal insomnia
membrane
b) Hepatitis delta
d) Is increased during neonatal jaundice
c) Pernicious anemia
908. Which is false aboutAikaptonuria -(Jharkhand 03)
d) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
a) Genitourinary system not involved 918. The amino acid residue having an iminoside chain
b) Homogentistic oxidase deficiency is- (A/05)
c) Black urine a) Lysine b) Histidine
d) Calcification in vertebral bodies c) Tyrosine d) Proline
909. Which of the following gives a positive reaction 919. There are more than 300 variants of human
with Ferrous chloride- (APPGE 04) hemoglobin gene. Among these only a few are
a) Phenylketonuria fatal. Hence, the most important factor to be
b) Alkaptonuria conserved in a protein for its function is the-
c) Maple syrup urine disease a) Amino acid sequence (AI 06)
d) None b) Ligand binding residues
910. In the body, metabolism oflO gms. of protein would c) Structure
produce approximately- (Karnataka 04) d) Environment
a) 1 K. Caorie b) 41 K calories 920. All of the following amino acids are converted to
c) 410 K calories d) 41 calories succinyl-CoA, except- (AI 06)
911. A 45 years male, blood sample gives purple brown a) Methionine b) Isoleucine
colour in Ehlerich 's solution, the substance is- c) Valine d) Histidine
a) Urobilinogen (SGPGI 05) 921. The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia
b) Conjugated bilirubin from skeletal muscle to liver is- (AI 06)
c) Unconjugated bilirubin a) Alanine b) Methionine
d) Haemosedrin c) Arginine d) Glutamine
922. Hemoprosthetic group is found in- (PGI June 06)
912. Which one ofthe following combination is wrong-
a) Myoglobin b)Cytochromeoxidase
a) Phenylalanine- Niacin (SGPGI 05)
c) Xanthine oxidase d) Tyrosine
b) Tryptophan - Serotonin
923. Creatinine is formed from- (PGI June 06, DNB 91)
c) Phenylalanine Melanin a) Arginine b) Lysine
d) Tyrosine - Epinephrine c) Leucine d) Histamine
903)a,b,c 904)d 905)a 906)d 907)b 908)a 909)a 910)b 911)a 912)a 913)a 914)b 915)a,c,d
916)c 917)a 918)d 919)b 920)d 921)a 922)a,b 923)a
924. Mousy odour urine is seen in- (PGMCET 07, 937. All are true about glutathione except-
a) Phenylketonuria PGJ97) a) It is a tripeptide (Aiims May 08)
b) Maple syrup urine disease b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c) Homocystinuria c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) Tyrosinemia d) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
925. FIGLU is an intermediate in- (PGMCET(JJ) 938. PKU is a congenital amino acid metabolic disorder.
a) Valine b) Histidine In one of the following rare variants ofPKU dihydro
c) Methionine d) Arginine
biopterin synthesis is affected. The enzyme deficient
926. Which of the following amino acids is purely
ketogenic- (Corned 08)
is - (PGI June 08)
a) Phenylalanine b) Leucine a) Histidine decarboxylase
c) Proline d) Tyrosine b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
92 7. Regarding proteoglycans, false is- (AI 07) c) Dihydropterin reductase
a) Chondroitin sulfate is a proteoglycan d) Tyrosine deficiency
b) They hold less amount of water 939. All are aromatic amino acids except-
c) They are made up of sugar and aminoacids a) Lysine b) Phenylalanine (DPGEE 08)
d) They carry charge c) Tyrosine d) Tryptophan
928. The amino acid producing ammonia in kidney is- 940. Phenylketonuria is caused by deficiency of-
a) Glutamine b) Alanine (Aiims May 07, 86) a) Tyrosine transaminase (DPGEE 08)
c) Methionine d) Glycine b) Tyrosine hydroxylase
92 9. All of the following are essential aminoacids except- c) Phenylalanine transaminase
a) Methionine b) Lysine (Aiims May 07) d) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
c) Alanine d) Leucine 941. In which organelle (s) of hepatocyte, the elongation
930. The protein synthesis is sorted out at I by- oflong chain fatty acid takes place- (PGI Dec 08)
a) Ribosomes b) Mitochondria (UP07, 05)
a) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
c) Golgi-apparatus d) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi body
931. All the following degradation product of Glycine
except- (UP 06, 07) c) Mitochondria
a) Serine b) Oxalates d) Lysosomes
c) Pyruvates d) Ornithine e) Ribosome
932. "Classical phenyl ketonuria" is caused by 942. Which of the following are intracellular events
deficiency of- (UP 06, 07) occurring in fibroblast during synthesis of collagen-
a) Phenylalanine transaminase a) Hydrolysis of procollagen to collagen
b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase b) Glycosylationofproline (PGI Dec 08)
c) Tyrosine transaminase c) Formationoftriplehelix
d) Tyrosine hydroxylase d) Formation of covalent cross link b/w fibrils
933. The two nitrogen atoms that are incorporated into e) Self assembly of tropocollagen molecules into
the urea cycle. The source of the nitrogen are- fibrils
a) Glutamate & Aspartate (UP 07, 05) 943. What is role ofinsulin in lipid metabolism-
b) Aspartate & Arginine a) Activate lipoprotein lipase (PGI Dec 08)
c) Aspartate & NH 3 b) Increase lipolysis
d) Glutamate & NH3 c) Activate hormone sensitive lipase
934. Phenylalanine metabolism products are all except-
d) Activate acetyl CoA carboxylase
a) Epinephrine b) Dopamine (UP 08)
c) Melanin d) Melatonin e) Decrease free fatty acid level
935. Basic amino acids are- (UP 08) 944. Replacing alanine by which amino acid will increase
a) Lysine and arginine UV absorbance of protein at 280nm wavelength-
b) Serine and cystein a) Leucine b) Proline (AJIMS Nov 08)
c) Phenylalanine and tyrosine c) Arginine d) Tryptophan
d) Aspartic acid and Glutamic acid 945. All of the following can determine the protein
936. A young male presented with X-linked recessive structure, except- (AIIMS Nov 08)
disorder with hyper uricemia and mild retardation a) High performance liquid chromatography
develops- (UP 08) b) Mass spectrometry
a) Bronch chain amino acids metabolites deficiency c) X-ray crystallography
b) Homogentisate oxidase defective enzymes d) NMR spectrometry
c) Hypoxanthine phosphoribosyl transferase deficiency
d) Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
924)a 925)b 926)b 927)b 928)a 929)c 930)c 931)d 932)b 933)c 934)d 935)a 936)c 937)b
938)c 939)a 940)d 941)a,c 942)c 943)a,d,e 944)d 945)a
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3A1 ]
946. A protein with molecular weight of 100 kD is 955. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase catalyzes:
subjected to SDS PAGE electrophoresis. The SDS a) Dopa to dopamine (DELHI PG Mar. 09)
PAGE electrophoresis pattern show two widely b) Norepinephrine to dopamine
separated bands of 20kD after addition of c) Epinephrine to norepinephrine
Mercaptoethanol. The true statement regarding this d) Dopamine to norepinephrine
will be- (AI 09) 956. The rate limiting step for norepinephrine
a) The protein has undergone complete lysis synthesis - (DEIHl PG Mar. 09)
a) Conversion of phenylalanine to Tyrosine
b) The protein is a monomer of 20kD and 30kD
b) Conversion of Tyrosine to DOPA
protein
c) Conversion of DOPA to dopamine
c) The protein is a dimer of two 20kD proteins d) Conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine
d) The protein is a tetramer of20kd and 30kD proteins 957. Urea cycle enzymes are- (PGI Nov 09)
947. Which amino acid migrates fastest on paper a) Glutaminase
chromatography on methylcellulose medium? b) Asparginase
a) Aspartic acid b) Valine (AIIMS May 09) c) Arginosuccinate synthetase
c) Lysine d) Glycine d) Ornithine transcaroxylase
948. NO is synthesized by- (AIIMS May 09) e) Glutamate dehydrogenase
a) Uracil b) Aspartate 958. Two same charged proteins can be separated by-
c) Guanosine d) Arginine a) Agarose b)DEAECellulose (DPG 10)
949. Protein is purified using ammonium sulfate by- c) Sephadex d) None of these
a) Salting out (AIIMSMay 09) 959. In metabolic alkalosis, which Is true about excretion
b) Ion exchange chromatography in urine- (DPG 1 0)
c) Mass chromatography a) Moreof~
d) Molecular size exclusion b) Less of aceto-acetic acid
c) Betahydroxy butyric acid
950. InSDS-PAGE(SodiumDobecyiSulfate-polyacrylamide
d) Less ammonia
Gel Electrophoresis) proteins are seperated on basis
960. Nicotinamide is derived from- (Maharashtra 10)
of- (PGIJune09)
a) Histidine b) Methionine
a) Mass b) Charge c) Tryptophan d) Phenylalanine
c) Density d) Molecular weight 961. Urea cycle euzymes are- (PGI May 10)
e) Solubility a) Glutaminase
951. The amino acid that produces kinks in the f3 pleated b) Asparginase
structure of proteins is- (Corned 09) c) Arginosuccinate synthetase
a) Glycine b) Serine d) Ornithine transcaroxylase
c) Proline d) Alanine e) Glutamate dehydrogenase
952. During standard plasma electrophoresis, a protein 962. In Phenylketonuria the main aim offirst line therapy
that moves ahead of albumin is - (Corned 09) is - (AIIMS Nov 1 0)
a) Fibrinogen b) Alpha feto protein a) Replacement of the defective enzyme
c) Haemopexin d) Retinol binding protein b) Replacement of the deficient product
953. In type I collagen, telopeptides corresponds c) Limiting the substrate for deficient enzyme
to- (DELHIPGFeb. 09) d) Giving the missing amino acid by diet
963. Ureacycleoccursin- (Alll)
a) COOH-terminal with superhelical conformation
a) Liver b) Gastrointestinal tract
b) NH2-terminal with superhelical conformation
c) Spleen d) Kidney
c) Both COOH and NHrterminals with superhelical 964. All of the following represent disorders or protein
conformation misfolding,Except- (Alll)
d) Both COOH and NH2 -terminals superhelical a) Alzheimer's disease b) Tuberculosis
conformation c) Cystic fibrosis d) Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease
954. Branched chain amino acids- (DELHI PG Feb. 09) 965. Deamination of the following amino acid occurs in
a) Are normally completely catabolised by muscle liver- (Jiprner 10)
to C02 and H 20 a) Asparatate b)Alanine
b) Can be catabolised by liver but not muscle c) Glutamine d)Glycine
c) Are the main dietary amino acids metabolized by 966. Urea synthesis is mediated by- (Jiprner 11)
intestine a) Ornithine decarboxylase
d) Are a major source of nitrogen for alanine and b) Aspartate transaminase
glutamine produced in muscle c) Arginase
d) Citrulline synthase
946)c 947)b 948)d 949)a 950) a,d 951) a,c 952) d 953) d 954) d 955) d 956) b 957) c,d 958) c 959)d
960)c 961)c,d 962)c 963)a 964)b 965)c 966)c
967. Cysteine is formed from- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 981. Selenocysteine is derivative of which aminoacid-
a) Methionine and serine a) Cysteine (NEET/DNBPattern)
b) Methionine and glycine b) Alanine
c) Alanine and glycine c) Arginine
d) Serine and glycine d) Glycine
968. The following metabolite is a derivative of 982. Ochronosis is due to accumulation of?
tryptophan- (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Homogentisic acid (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Melatonin b) Thyroxine b) Phenylpyruvate
c) Epinephrine d) Nor epinephrine c) Xanthurenate
969. Carbamoyl phosphate is used in- (NEETIDNB d) Glyoxylate
a) Urea b) Uric acid Pattern) 983. Urea& Kreb'scyclearelinkedat- (NEETIDNB
c) Pyruvic acid d) Stearic acid a) Arginine b) Ornithine Pattern)
970. Glutathione is composed of- (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Oxaloacetate d) Fumarate
a) Cysteine & glycine 984. In blood bilirubin is with- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Glutamic acid, cysteine &glycine a) Protein b) Steroid
c) Glutamic acid, glycine & cystine c) Vitamin d) Carbohydrates
d) Lysine & methionine 985. Carnitine is synthesised from -(NEET/DNBPattern)
971. Beta-alanine is derived from -(NEETIDNBPattern) a) Lysine b) Agrinine
a) Adenosine b) Guanosine c) Histidine d) Choline
c) Adenosine d) Uricil 986. Which will activate carbomoyl phosphate
972. Glutamine synthetase is a- (NEETIDNB Pattern) synthase I- (NEET/DNBPattern)
a) Isomerase b) Ligase
a) Alanine b) N-acetyl glutamate
c) Lyase d) Transferase
c) Ornithine d) None
973. Which of the following amino acids is purely
987. Transamination ofAlanine results in formation of-
ketogenic- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Oxaloacetate (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Phenylalanine b) Leucine
b) Pyruvate
c) Proline d) Tyrosine
c) Aspartate
974. Gamma amino butyrate is synthesized from?-
d) Arginine
a) Fumarate b) Glutamate
988. UACto UAG- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Histidine d) Glycine
975. Which of the following transports nitrogen from a) Nonsense mutation b) Frameshift mutation
muscle to liver- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Deletion d) Missense mutation
a) Lactate b) Alanine 989. All are ketogenic & glucogenic amino acids
c) Glutamine d) Aspertate except- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
976. Increased uric acid level in plasma is due to- a) Tyrosine b) Isoleucine
a) Increased purine utilization(NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Phenyalanine d) Serine
990. Serotonin is synthesized from-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Decreased purine synthesis
a) Tryrosine b) Alanine
c) Decreased degradation of purine
c) Tryptophan d) Glycine
d) Decreased reutilization of purine 991. All are in cystinuria except -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
977. Which ofthe following porphuyrin is soluble in water a) Cystine b) Ornithine
and excreted in urine- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Alanine d) Arginine
a) Protoporphyrin b) Delta-ALA 992. Mousy odour urine is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Coproporphyrin d) Uroporphyrin a) Phenylketonuria
978. Glucuronyl conjugation of which amino acid leads b) Maple syrup urine disease
to maximum excretion through urine?-(NEETIDNB c) Homocystinuria
a) Glycine b)Alanine Pattern) d) Tyrosinemia
c) Proline d) Serine 993. Which of the following enzyme is not used by liver
979. NOissynthesi:T.«l by -(NEETIDNB Pattem,AIIMSMay09) in urea cycle- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Uracil b) Aspartate a) CPS-I b) CPS-II
c) Guanosine d) Arginine c) Arginase d) Arginosuccinate
980. Maple syrup urine disease is due to- 994. Acute intermittent porphyria is due to deficiency
a) a-ketoacid decarboxylase (NEETIDNBPattern) of- (NEETIDNBPattern)
b) Transaminase a) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
c) Isomerase b) Uroporphyrinogen III synthase
d) Mutase c) Ferrochelatase
d) ALA synthase
967)a 968)a 969)a 970)b 97l)d 972)b 973)b 974)b 975)b 976)d 977) d>c 978) b 979)d 980)a
98l)a 982)a 983)d 984)a 985)a 986)b 987)b 988)a 989)d 990)c 99l)c 992) a 993)b 994)a
995. Lecithine hydrolysis yeilds- (NEET/DNBPattern) 1008. Cystine is formed from- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Choline b) Pyruvate a) Arginine b) Histidine
c) Glycine d) None c) Cystane d) Alanine
996. Tryptophen is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1009. Which ofthe following is the rate limiting enzyme
a) Glucogenic in pyrimine synthesis - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Ketogenic a) Aspartate transcarbamylase
c) Both glucogenic & ketogenic b) Dihydro-orotase
d) None c) Redvctase
997. Hyperammonemia type I is due to deficiency of- d) UMP kinase
a) CPS-I (NEET/DNB Pattern) 1010. Maple syrup urine disease is due accumulation of-
b) CPS-II a) Phenylalanine (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Arginase b) Tyrosine
d) Arginosuccinase c) Branched chain amino acids
998. Which of the following amino acid is required for d) Tryptophan
synthesis of hemoglobin- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1011. Xanthurenic acid, accumulation occurs due to
a) Alanine b) Glycine pyridoxin deficiency, is a metaboline of which amino
c) Arginine d) Histidine acid- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Tyrosine b) Phenylalanine
999. Enzyme dificient in alkaptonuria- (NEETIDNB
c) Tryptophan d) Alanine
a) Kynureninase Pattern)
1012. Selenocystein is synthesized from- (NEETIDNB
b) Tyrosine hydroxylase a) Alamine b) Cysteine Pattern)
c) Homogentisate oxidase c) Arginine d) Histidine
d) Tyrosinase 1013. Tyrsoine is the precursor of all except -(NEETIDNB
1000. Defect in phenylketonuria- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Thyroxine b) Melanine Pattern)
a) Phenylanine hydroxylase c) Dopmine d) Nicotinic acid
b) Homogentisate oxidase 1014. Hydrolysis occurs at which step of urea cycle-
c) Pyruvate hydroxylase a) Cleavage of arginine (NEETIDNB Pattern}
d) Fumarylacetoacetate hydroxylase b) Formation ofArginosuccinate
1001. Transamination reaction requires- (NEET/DNB c) Formationofcitrullin
a) Biotin b) Folic acid Pattern) d) Formation of ornithine
c) Pyridoxin d) Niacin 1015. 1st product of tryptophan Catabolism-
1002. Major source of ammonia in kidney- (NEETIDNB (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Kynurenine b) xantheurenic acid
a) Glutamate b) Glutamine Pattern)
c) Bradykinin d) Melatonin
c) a-ketoglutarate d) Alanine 1016. Indole ring is present in - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1003. Amino acid used by liver in urea cycle-(NEETIDNB a) Tryptophan b) Tyrosine
a) Glutamine b) Glutamate Pattern) c) Phenylalanine d) Threonine
c) Aspartate d) Fumarate 1017. Neonatal tyrosenemia is due to deficiency of-
1004. Cysteine is synthesized from-(NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Tyrosinase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Methionine b) Arginine b) Furnarylacetoacetate hyroxyase
c) Histidine d) Lysine c) Hydroxyphenyl pyruvate hydroxylase
d) Tyrosine transminase
1005. Albinism is due to deficiency of- (NEETIDNB
1018. Xantheurenic acid is produced in-
a) Tyrosinase Pattern)
a) Tyrosine metabolism (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Homogentisate oxidase
b) Tryptophan metabolism
c) Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase c) Cysteine metabolism
d) Chylornicrons d) Valine metabolism
1006. Hartnup disease, limiting amino acid -(NEETIDNB 1019. Which of the following requires vitamin B12 -
a) Tyrosine b) Tryptophan Pattern} a) Serine to lysine (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Rhenylalanine d) None b) Homocysteine to methionine
1007. Enzyme deficient in Isovaleric acidemia- c) Serine to glycine
a) Isolvaleryl CoA dehydrogenase (NEETIDNB d) Glutamine to glutamate
b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase Pattern) 1020. Non-proteinnitrogenproductioblood-
c) Arginase a) Sucrose b) Triglyceride
d) None c) Urea d) Choksterol
995)a 996)c 997)a 998)b 999)c lOOO)a lOOl)c 1002)b 1003)c 1004)a .1005)a 1006)b 1007)a 1008)c
1009)a lOIO)c 10ll)c 1012)b 1013)d 1014)a 1015)a 1016)a 1017)c 1018)b 1019)b 1020)c
GENETICS & METABOLISM OF 1032. Inosinic acid is biological precursor of-

PURINE AND PYRIMIDINES a) Uracil and thymine (NIMHANS 87)
b) Purines and pyrimidines
1021. Which base is not found in DNA- (AI 89) c) Adenylic acid and guanylic acid
a) Adenine b) Guanine d) Orotic acid and uridylic acid
c) Cytosine d) Uracil 1033. In mammalian cells protein synthesis takes place
1022. End product of purine metabolism is- (JIPMER 90) chiefly at the - (AMU 8 7)
a) Creatinine b) Uric acid a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) Xanthine d) Phosphates b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
1023. Part ofM-RNA removed during protein synthesis c) Nucleus
a) Interon b)Codon (AI91) d) Nucleolus
c) Exon d) Cistron e) Lysosomes
1024. DNAdoublehelixisboundby- (AIIMS92) 1034. HbS has defect in aminoacid position -
a) Covalent bond b) Disulfide linkage a) 4 b)6 (PGI 84, TN91)
c) Vanderwaal forces d) Hydrogen bond c) 11 d) 12
1025. LeschNyhansyndromeisdurto- (AI92) 1035. Atoms found in UTP are derived from all of the
a) Total deficiency ofHGPRT following except- (DNB 89)
b) Partial deficiency ofHGPRT a) Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
c) Total deficeincy ofPRPP b) Aspartate
d) Partial deficeincy ofPRPP c) C02
1026. Sickle cell anaemia is the clinical manifestation d) Glutamine
ofhomozygous genes for an abnormal haemoglobin e) Glycine
molecule. The event responsible for the mutation in 1036. The percentage of a bacterial chromosome usually
the B chain is- (AIIMS 81,KERALA 90) involved in transformation is- (AIIMS 85)
a) Insertion b) Deletion a) 1 percent b) 10 percent
c) Nondisjunction d) Point mutation c) 25 percent d) 50 to 100 percent
1027. Orotic acid- (AIIMS 82) 1037. Doland and Da Silva method is used to
a) React with PRPP to from OMP detect- (AIIMS 83, 84)
b) Utilized for pyrimidine synthesis a) Hemosiderinuria b) Hemoglobinuria
c) Can be converted to UMP and CMP c) Sickling trait d) RBC fragility
d) All of the above 1038. R-RNAismainlyproducedin- (AIIMS 84)
e) None of the above a) Nucleus b) Nucleolus
1028. MRNAisacomplimentarycopyof- (DNB90) c) Ribosome d) Endoplasmic reticulum
a) TRNA b) RRNA 1039. The attachment site of DNA dependent RNA
c) Ribosomal DNA d) Both strands of DNA polymerase to a gene is the- (PGI 80, 89)
e)Asingle strand of DNA a) Operator b) Promoter
1029. A codon consists of- (DELHI 83) c) Structural gene d) Regulatory gene
a) Two complementary base pairs e) Repressor
b) Three consecutive nucleotide units 1040. Thetermmodifiedbaserefersto- (Orissa 89)
c) An individual ribosome a) Purine or pyrimidine attached to deoxyribose
d) Four individual nucleotides b) A purine or pyrimidine that has been altered
1030. The degradation ofRNA by pancreatic ribonuclease c) A nitrogen containing ring other than a purine
produces- (Kerala 90) or pyrimidine that is part of a nucleotide
a) Nucleoside 2' phosphates d) A purine or pyrimidine attached to a sugar by
b) Nucleoside 3' phosphates 0-glycoside linkage
c) Nucleoside 5' phosphates 1041. Chargaff rule states that- (BIHAR 89)
d) Nucleotides a) A+G==T+C b)NT==G/C
1031. In sickle cell anaemia, the defect can be explained c) A=U=T=G==C d)A+T=G+C
as having arisen from- (PGI 84) 1042. Thermo stability of DNA is provided by- (AI 96)
a) A base insertion in DNA a) G-Cbonds
b) A base deletion in DNA b) A-T pairing
c) A base substitution in DNA c) N-glycosolic bond
d) None of the above d) Antiparallel arrangement
102l)d 1022)b 1023)a 1024)d 1025)a 1026)d 1027)d 1028)e 1029)b 1030)b,c,d 103l)c 1032)c 1033)b
1034)b 1035)e 1036)a 1037)c 1038)b 1039)b 1040)b 104l)a 1042)a
1043. One of the following mutations is potentially lethal- 1056. Which one of the following is the function of small
a) Substitution of adenine for cytosine (Delhi 96) nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (SnRNP) -
b) Substitution ofmethylcytosine for cytosine a) Initiation of protein synthesis (ICS 98)
c) Substitution of guanine for cytoxine b) Activation of amino acids
d) Insertion of one base c) Processing ofRNA
1044. The breakdown product of ribonuclease action is- d) Replication ofDNA
a) Nucleoside 5' phosphates only (Delhi 96) 1057. Nonsense codons bring about- (I CS 98)
b) Nucleoside 3' phosphates only a) Elongation of polypeptide chain
c) Nucleoside 3' phosphate + oligonucleotides b) Pre-translational modificastion of protein
d) Purine & pyrimidine bases c) Initiation of protein synthesis
1045. Protein Synthesis takes place mainly in-
d) Termination of protein synthesis
a) The ribosomes (CUPGEE 96, JIPMER 92,
1058. Function of endonucleoses- (KERALA 98)
b) The mitochondria AIIMS 80, 81)
a) Cut DNA at specific DNA sequences
c) The Centrosome
d) The golgi apparatus b) To point out the coding regions
1046. Proteins binding to DNA has- (All India 97) c) Enhancers
a) Copper b) Zinc d) To find out antibiotic resisetance
c) Cobalt d) Iron 1059. Translation occurs at- (AI99)
1047. Restriction endonuclease cleaves- (All India 97) a) Mitochondria b) Centrosome
a) Double stranded DNA c) Nucleus d) Ribosome
b) Single stranded DNA 1060. Polymerase Chain Reaction is- (AI99)
c) Single stranded RNA a) Enzymatic amplificastion of gene
d) Polypeptide b) Genetic engineering mediated gene amplification
1048. DNA fragments are separated by- (AIIMS 96) c) Duplication of gene
a) Centrifugation d) Cleavage of gene
b) Paper chromatography 1061. Visualisation of specific RNA fragment using
c) Agarose gel electrophoresis RNA probe is- (ALL INDIA 99)
d) Thin layer chromatography a) Southern blotting b) Western blotting
1049. Enzyme most important in translation is- c) Eastern blotting d) Northern blotting
a) DNA polymerase (AHMS 96) 1062. Examples of conservative mutation is- (AJIMS 98)
b) RNA polymerase a) Glutamine to glutamate
c) T-RNA tranferase b) Alanine to leucine
d) Ribosomal transcriptase c) Aspartate to asparagine
1050. B-alaniane is a end product of- (JIPMER 98) d) Leucine to alanine
a) Heparin b) Albumin 1063. Photolyase helps in- (CUPGEE 99)
c) Adenosine d) Thymidylate a) DNArepair b)DNAreplication
1051. Histones activation in gene expression is c) Protein synthesis d) None
by- (AIIMS 97) 1064. What is the technique by which DNA can be
a) Formylation b) Methylation amplified- (Karnat 99)
c) Acetylation d) Aldolase a) Southern blot b) Polymerase chain reaction
1052. Unwinding ofDNA is done by- (AIIMS 97) c) Hybridization d) Western blot
a) DNAse b) Topoisomerase 1065. In restriction fragment length polymorphism,
c) Ligase d) Reverse transcriptase DNA separation is done using- (All India 2K)
1053. Leucine zipper motif is a mediator for- a) Gel electrophoresis
a) Membrane attack complexes (AIIMS97) b) Ultra centrifugation
b) Ligand membranes c) High performance liquid
c) Binding of regulatory proteins to DNA d) Ion exchange chromatography
d) Cyclic GMP 1066. Which one is nonsense codon- (Burdwan 2K)
1054. Fidelity enzyme in protein synthesis- (Al98) a) UUA b)UAG
a) DNA polymerase c) UGA d)UAU
b) RNA polymerase 1067. What is the first step in the synthesis of human
c) Amino-Acyl t-RNA synthase insulin by genetic engineering- (AIIMS 2K)
d) Amino acyl reductase a) CDNA identification in somatic cell
1055. Chain initiation in protein synthesis is by- b) Genomic DNA identification in Pancreatic cell
a) AUG b)GLAA (MAHE98,AIIMS82) c) CDNA identification in pancreatic cell
c) UGA d)UAG d) Genomic DNA identification in somatic cell
1043)d 1044)c 1045)a 1046)b 1047)a 1048)c 1049)None 1050)d 105l)b,c 1052)b 1053)c 1054)c 1055)a
1056)c 1057)d 1058)a 1059)d 1060)a 106l)d I062)a 1063)a 1064)b 1065)a 1066)b,c
1068. On complete hydrolysis of DNA we will get all 1082. Correct sequence of enzymes required for DNA
the following except- (AIIMS 2K) formation is- (PGI 01)
a) Deoxy pentose sugar b) Phosphoric acid a) DNA polymerase ~ Protein unwinding enzyme
c) Adenosine d) Purine bases ~ DNA ligase ~ DNA Isomerase ~
1069. Amber codon is- (AIIMS 2001) Polymerase- I

a) Initiator codon b) Terminator codon b) Protein unwinding enzyme ~ Polymerase 1 ~
c) Alters protein structures d) None DNA ligase ~ DNA Isomerase ~ DNA
polymerase
1070. Action of'Telomerase' is- (CUPGEE 2001)
c) RNA polymerase ~ DNA polymerase III ~
a) DNArepair
DNA polymerase I~ DNA ligase
b) Longetivity of cell- Ageing d) RNA polymerase ~ DNA Polymerase III ~
c) Breakdownoftelomer DNA ligase~ Exonuclease~ DNA polymerase I
d) None 1083. The hydrolytic step leading to release of polypeptide
1071. Which of the following is/are the features of chain from ribosomes is catalysed by- (PGI 02)
polymerase used in recombinant synthesis- a) Stop co dons b) Peptidyl transferase
a) Thermo stable (PGI 2K) c) Release factors d) AUG codon
b) Does not require a primer e) Dissociation of ribosomes
c) Unusually active 1084. TruestatementsaboutPCR- (PGI 02)
d) Replicates double stranded DNA a) Protein amplification
1072. Which ofthe following RNA contains thymidine- b) DNA amplification
a) TRNA b)RibosomalRNA (PGI2K) c) Same as western blot test
c) Eukaryotic RNA d) Prokaryotic RNA d) Detection of infecting organisms
1073. All are true ofthe genetic code except- (DNB 2001) 1085. TrueaboutPCR- (PGI02)
a) Degenerate b) Universal a) Primers required
c) Punctuation d) Non overlapping b) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
1074. Totalnumberofgenesin a human being is- c) DNA polymerase
a) 80,000 b) 50,000 (Kerala OJ)
d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
1086. Somatic mutations involve- (PGI 02)
c) 100,000 d)30,000
a) Deletion
1075. Northern blot uses- (AIIMS 2001)
b) Plasmid mediated
a) Amplification ofmRNA
c) Frame-shift alteration in coding nucleotides
b) Amplification of tRNA
d) Trinucleotide repeat mutations
c) Amplification ofnucleotides
e) Non-sense alteration of DNA
d) DNA
1087. True about coding strand of DNA- (PGI 03)
1076. Nucleic acid absorbs light at wavelength of 260
a) Template strand
mmdueto- (PGI 2002) b) Minus strand
a) Proteins b) Ribose c) Runs at 5'- 3' direction
c) Purines & Pyrimidines d) Deoxyribose d) Runs at 3'- 5' direction
e) Phosphates e) Plus strand.
1077. DNA finger printing is done by- (PGI 97) 1088. Autosomal dominant disorders are AlE- (PG1 03)
a) Splitting DNA b) DNA ofWBC a) Huntington's disease
c) DNA from nucleated cells d) All of the above b) Neurofibromatosis
1078. The enzyme deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is- c) Wilm'stumour
a) G1RT b) Glutaminase (PGI 99) d) Adult polycystic kidney disease
c) Transcarboxylase d)HGPRT e) Thalassemia
1079. DNA synthesis requires- (PGI 2000) 1089. Prenatal genetic diagnostic tests are performed
a) DNA polymerase b) DNA ligase in conditions- (PGI 03)
c) DNA topoisomerase d) Primase a) X-linked disorders
e) RNApolymerase b) Advanced maternal age
1080. Which is the smallest fundamental unit coding c) Infertility
for DNA synthesis- (PGI 01) d) Multiple spontaneous abortions
a) Cistron b) Operon e) Ethnic groups at high risks
c) Replican d) Anticodon 1090. True about telomerase or telomere is/are -(PGI 03)
1081. Polypetide chain termination is enhanced by- a) They are present at the ends ofeukaryotic chromosome
a) Stop codon b)Promoter (PGI01) b) Increased telomerase activity favours cancer cells
c) Ribosomal d) Peptidyl transferase c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
e) UAA d) DNA polymerase
1067)c 1068)c 1069)b 1070)b 107l)a,d 1072)a 1073)c 1074)d 1075)a 1076)c 1077)d 1078)d 1079)All
1080)a 1081)a,el082)c 1083)c 1084)b,d 1085)a,c 1086)a,c,d,e 1087)c 1088)e 1089)a,b,d,e 1090)a,b
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3A7]
1091. Metaphase II is seen in- (PGI 03) 1102. Starting from the 3' end (acceptor arm) the correct
a) 1 N Chromosome b) 2 N Chromosome sequence (towards 5' end) of arms in tRNA is-
c) 4 N Chromosome d) Seen only in Meiosis a) Pseudouridine arm, anticodon arm, variable arm,
e) Seen only in Mitosis Darm (UPSC02)
1092. Components of chromosome are- (PGI 03) b) D arm, anticodon arm, variable arm, pseudouridine
a) DNA b) tRNA arm
c) mRNA d)rRNA c) Pseudouridine arm, variable arm, anticodon arm,
e) Histones Darm
1093. Correct statements regarding restriction d) D ann, variable ann, anticodon ann, pseudouridine arm
endonuclease is/are- (PGI 03)
1103. Degenerancy of codons means- (Jipmer 03)
a) Restriction endonuclease recognizes specific sites
a) More than one codon for a single amino acid
of DNA sequence.
b) Termination of protein synthesis
b) Resteiction endonuclease recognizes short
c) Transcription
sequence of DNA
c) It acts at 5'- 3' direction d) Translation
d) It acts at 3' 5' direction 1104. The following enzymes are needed for DNA
1094. Autosomal recessive diseases are AlE- (PGI 03) synthesis except- (Jipmer 03)
a) Hereditary spherocytosis b) Thalassemia a) DNA polymerase b) Restriction endonuclease
c) Sickle cell anaemia d) Cystic fibrosis c) Ligase d) None
e) Haemophilia 1105. The primary role of chaperones is to help in -(AI 03)
1095. DNApolymerasehave- (PGI 03) a) Protein synthesis b) Protein degradation
a) 3'- 5'polymerase activity c) Protein denaturation d) Protein folding
b) 5'- 3' polymerase acitivity 1106. Which one of the following is not a post
c) 3'- 5' exonuclease activity transcriptional modification of RNA- (AI 03)
d) 5'- 3' exonuclease activity a) Splicing b) 5' capping
e) Endonuclease activity c) 3' polyadenylation d) Glycosylation
1096. Purpose of Gene therapy- (PGI 03) 1107. Restriction fragment length polymorphism is
a) Replacement of abnormal gene by normal gene used for - (AI 03)
b) Replacement of normal gene by abnoral gene a) Analysis of chromosomes structures
c) Knock out of abnormal gene b) DNA estimation
d) Introduction of viral gene c) Synthesis of nucleic acid
1097. Gene therapy methods are- (PGI 03) d) Detecting proteins in a cell
a) Electroporation 1108. Which one ofthe following procedures as routine
b) Intranuclear injection technique for karyotyping using light microscopy-
c) Site directed mutagenesis a) C - banding b) G- banding (AI 03)
d) Retrovirus c) Q- banding d) Brd V- standing
1098. Highly repetetive DNA is seen in- (PGI 03) 1109. At the physiological pH the DNA molecules
a) Cloning ofDNA b) Microsatelite DNA are- (AIIMS 03)
c) Telomere d) Centromere a) Positively charged b) Negatively charged
1099. Trueaboutreversetranscriptase- (PGI 03) c) Neutral d)Amphipathic
a) FormsDNAfromRNA 1110. Replication and transcription are similar
b) Forms RNA from DNA processes in mechanistic terms because both-
c) Important for replication ofHIV a) Use RNA primers for initiation (AIIMS 03)
d) Amplification ofDNA b) Use decoxybonucleotides as precursors
e) DNA dependent RNA polymerase c) Are semi conserved events
1100. MitochondrialDNAis- (PGI 03) d) Involve phosphodiester bond formation with
a) Paternally inherited elongation occuring in the 5' - 3' direction
b) Maternally transmitted 1111. Chromosomal nomenclature is based on-
c) Horizontal inheritance a) Position of the centromere (Karnataka 03)
d) Vertical inheritance b) Standing properties
1101. True about coding strand ofDNA- (PGI 03) c) Number of chromosomes
a) DNA acts as template formRNA d) Length of the arms
b) Minus strand 1112. Major componentofDNA- (PG/04)
c) Plus strand a) Histone b) Repressor
d) Matches with RNA transcript that encodes c) Deoxyribonucleotides d) Inducer
protein e) Uracil
109l)a,d 1092)a,e 1093)a,b 1094)b,c,d 1095)b,c,d 1096)a 1097)All I098)c,d 1099)a,c llOO)b llOl)d
1102)c 1103) a 1104) b 1105)d 1106)d 1107) a 11 08) b 1109) b 1110) d 1111) a 1112) c
1113. Codon consists of- (PGI 04) 1125. Number oft-RNA present in cells is- (AMU 05)
a) 3 base pair b) 2 Base pair a) 23 b)25
c) Two nucleotide d) 5 Base pair c) 28 d)30
1114. Operon model was elucidated by- (PGI 04) 1126. DNA repair proof reading in prokarytotes are
a) Jacob & Monad b)Waston&Crick caused by- (AMU 05)
c) Leiderburg & Tautum d) Twort D Herell a) DNA Polymerase I b) DNA polymerase II
e) Weibel palada c) DNAPolymeraeiii d) Gyrase
1115. DNA selected for genetic information as compared
1127. The relationship between sulphonamide and PABAis-
to RNA because- (PGI 04)
a) Metabolic antagonism (MAHE 05)
a) It is stable
b) Double stranded compared to RNA b) Synergism
c) Two strands are complementary c) Intermediate compound formation
d) I has genes d) Chelation
e) Scmireplicating 1128. Using written convention, which one of the following
1116. Selective suppression of a functional gene by a sequences is complementary to TGGCAGCCT-
funtional allele is called- (PGI 04) a) ACCGTCGGA b)ACCGUCGGA
a) Trans gene b) Pseudogene c) AGGCTGCCA d)TGGCTCGGA
c) Insertion d) Knockout 1129. A molecule used to direct the presence of specific
e) Repression fragment of DNA or RNA is known as- (ICS 05)
1117. Gene ampHfication is by- (PGI 04) a) Primosome b) Probe
a) Polymerase Chain Reaction c) Pseudo gene d) Signal
b) Ligase chain reaction 1130. Complemetary RNA sequence of 5'
c) DNAhybridization AGTCTGACT 3'- (PGI June 05)
d) In situ hybridization a) 5'UCAGACUGA3' b)5'UCAGACUGA3'
e) Cloning c) 5'UCAGACUGA3' d)5'UCAGACUGA3'
1118. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy e) 5'UCAGACUGA3'
from a single stranded RNA template molecule is 1131. DNA or RNA fragment which is radioactive or
known as- (AI 04) chemically labile to detect a specific fragment-
a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase a) Probe (PGJ June 05)
c) Reverse transcriptase d) Phosphokinase b) Okazaki fragment
1119. A segment of an eukaryotic gene that is not c) Antibody
represented in the mature mRNA, is known as- 1132. Acridine, which is a part of proflavin proflavin
a) Intron b)Exon (AI 04) producing genetic mutation- (PGJ June 05)
c) Plasmid d) TATA box a) Gene re-arrangement
1120. Which of the following groups of proteins assist b) Point mutation
in the folding of other proteins- (AI 04) c) Fram shift mutation
a) Proteases b) Proteosomes 1133. Enzyme used for proofreading- (PGJJune 05)
c) Templates d) Chaperones a) Prokaryote DNA polymerase 3 '-5' exonuclease
1121. In PCR,DNA polymerase is used in-(Jharkhand 03) activity
a) DNA replication b) DNA Elongation
b) Prokaryote DNA polymerase 5' - 3'
c) DNAMultiplication d)All
1134. PCR requires- (PGI June 05)
1122. Excessive ultraviolet (UV) radiation is harmful
a) Primer
to life. The damage caused to the biological systems
b) DNA Polymerase
by ultraviolet radiation is by- (AIIMS 04)
c) De-oxyribonucleotide phosphate
a) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
d) Di-oxyribonucleotide phosphate
b) Formation ofthymidine dimers
1135. Gene transfer in bacterial system by -(PGI June 05)
c) Ionization
a) Transformation b) Transduction
d) DNA fragmentation
1123. The protein rich in basic amino acids, Which functions c) Conjugation d) Location
in the packaging ofDNA in chromosomes is-(AI 03) e) Mutation
a) Histone 1136. All are true about topoisomerase- II- (PGI June 05)
b) Collagen a) Separates the DNA and ligates them
c) Hyaluronic acid binding protein b) Initiates RNA priers synthesis
d) Fibrinogen c) Cut single strand of DNA
1124. New DNA synthesis occurs in- (SGPGI 05) 1137. Watson and Crick theory is related to-(PGJ June 05)
a) Prophase b) Anaphase a) DNA structure b) RNA structure
c) Telophase d) Interphase c) Base pairing ofDNA
1113)a 1114)a 1115)a,b,c,e 1116)d 1117)a,e 1118)c 1119)a 1120)d 1121)c 1122)b 1123)a 1124)d 1125)a
1126)b 1127)a 1128)c 1129)b 1130)a ll3l)a 1132)c 1133)a 1134)a,b,c,e 1135)a,b,c 1136)a 1137)a
BIOCHEMISTRY [ 3A9]
1138. Wobble's hypothesis is- (PGI June 05) 1150. Base substitution mutations can have be following
a) First 2-bp are specific fort-RNA molecular consequence except- (AI 06)
b) First 3-bp are not specific fort-RNA a) Changes one codon for an amino acid into another
c) First 5-bp are specific fort-RNA codon for that same amino acid
1139. Apart from occurring in nucleic acids, b) Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon
pyrimidines are also found in- (AIIMS Nov 05) of another amino acid
a) Theophylline b) Theobromine c) Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant
c) Flavin mononucleotide d) Thiamine site
1140, Xeroderma pigmentation is caused due to a group d) Codon for one amino acid is changed into a
of closely related abnormalities in - translation termination codon
a) Mismatch repair (AIIMS Nov 05) 1151. The following methods can be used to detect the
b) Base excision repair point mutation in the beta (IJ)-globin gene that
c) Nucleotide excision rapair causes sickle cell anemia, except- (AI 06)
d) SOS repair a) Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific
1141. To synthesize insulin on a large scale basis, the oligonucleotide hybridization
most suitable starting material obtained from the b) Southern blot analysis
beta cells of the pancreas is- (AIIMS Nov 05) c) DNA sequencing
a) Genomic DNA b) Total cellular RNA d) Northern blot analysis
c) cDNAofinsulin d)mRNAofinsulin 1152. Stopcodon- (PGIJune06)
1142. Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively- a) UAG b)UCA
a) Uncondensed b) Condensed (AI 06) c) UAC d)AUG
c) Overcondensed d) Partially condensed 1153. Trinucleotide repeats are found in- (PGI June 06)
1143. Microsatellite sequence is- (AI 06) a) Huntington's disease
a) Small satellite b) Spinocerebellar ataxia
b) Extra chromosomal DNA c) Amyotropic lateral sclerosis
c) Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA 1154. Which of the. following are situated away from
d) Looped-DNA the coding region- (PGI June 06)
1144. MitocbondrialDNAis- (AI06) a) Promoter
a) Closed circular b) Nicked circular b) Enhancer
c) Linear d) Open circular c) Operator
1145. Which type of RNA has the highest percentage 1155. True statements abont DNA structure-
a) All nucleotides are involved in linkage
of modified base? (AI 06)
b) Antiparallel (PGI June 06)
a) mRNA b) tRNA
c) Parallel
c) rRNA d)snRNA
d) Bases are perpendicular to DNA
1146. The sigma (cr) subunit of prokaryotic RNA e) Attached by hydroxy bond
polymerase- (AI 06) 1156. Transcription is inhibited by- (PGI June 06)
a) Binds the antibiotic rifampicin a) ActinomycinD b)Amanitin
b) Is inhibited by a.-amanitin c) Chloramphenicol d) Streptomycin
c) Specifically recognizes the promoter site e) Puromycin
d) Is part of the core enzyme 1157. Zinc finger is - (PGI June 06)
1147. Which one of the following is the complementary a) Nuclearreceptor
sequenceof5'TTAAGCTAC 3'? (AI 06) b) Membrane receptor
a) 5'GTACGCTTAA3' b)5'AATTCGCJ\fG3' c) Receptor associated kinase
c) 5'CATGCGAJ\fT3' d)5'TTAAGCGTAC3' 1158. DNA fmgerpriutiug was founded by- (PGI June 06)
1148. During replication of DNA, which one of the a) Watson b) Galton
following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki c) Jeffrey
fragments - (AI 06) 1159. DNAAmplification is done in- (PGI June 06)
a) DNA Polymerase I b) DNA Polymerase II a) PCR
c) DNAPolymeraseiii d)RNAPolymerasel b) NASBA (Nucleic acid sequential based amplification)
1149. All of the following cell types contain the enzyme c) Ligase chain reactions
telemerase which protects the length of telomeres d) DNA sequencing
at the end of chromosomes, except- (AI 06) 1160. Anticodon is present in- (NIMHANS 06,
~ ~ b)Somatic a) mRNA b) tRNA Kerala 2k, 90)
c) Hemopoietic d) Tumor c) rRNA d)hnRNA
1138)a 1139)d 1140)c 114l)d 1142)a 1143)c 1144)a 1145)b 1146)c 1147)a 1148)c 1149)b 1150)c 115l)d
1152)a ll53)a,b 1154)a,b 1155)a,b,d ll56)a,b 1157)a 1158)c 1159)a,b,c 1160)b
1161. Okazaki fragment- (APPG 2006) 1174. The proteins presents in Deoxyribonucleic acid is-
a) DNA fragment a) Protamines b) Histone (UP 07)
b) RNA fragment c) Albumins d) Globulins
c) DNAfragmentwithRNAhead 1175. Human genome contains--- base pairs- (UP 07,
d) RNA fragment with DNA head a) 3 x 1Q9 b) 3 x I 08 PGI 05)
1162. In E.coli structural gene oflac operon is stimulated c) 3 X 107 d) 3 X 106
in- (Manipal 2006)
1176. "Transition mutation" occurs in- (UP 07)
a) Presence of glucose only
a) A-G b)A-C
b) Presence of lactose only
c) Presence of glucose and absence of lactose c) A-T d)D-G
d) Presence of lactose and absence of glucose 1177. What is involved in formation of d-TMP from d-
1163. Okazaki fragments are found during-(PGMCET(Jl, UMP- (PGI June 07)
a) Replication b) Translation AI 96) a) N5, Nl 0-methylene tetra hydro folate
c) Translocation d) Transcription b) Form imino folate
1164. Translocation is necessary for- (PGMCET 07) c) N5 formyl folate
a) Initiation of codon d) Dihydro folate
b) Binding of mRNA to ribosomes 1178. If there are 4 nucleotides instead of 3 in codon,
c) Finding of proteins how many amino acids may be formed-
d) Elongation of proteins a) 16 b) 21 (PGI June 07)
1165. Study of multiplication of proteins in disease c) 256
process is called- (AI 07) 1179. In leucine zipper model, leucine residue seen after
a) Proteomics b) Genomics
every- (PGI June 07)
c) Glycomics d) Nucleomics
a) 3 amino acids b) 6 amino acids
1166. Nothern blot is used for the separation of- (AI 07)
a) mRNA b)DNA c) 9 amino acids d) 12 amino acids
c) Protein d) Protein DNA interaction e) 7 amino acid
1167. Ragarding cytosolic Eukaryotic gene expression 1180. Cation used in PCR is- (AIIMS Nov 07)
false is - (AI07) a) Calcium b) Lithium
a) Capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 40 S c) Magnesium d) Sodium
Ribosome 1181. Lesch- Nyhan Syndrome- associated with- (UP 08)
b) N formyl methionine tRNA will be the :first t- RNA a) Purine necleoside phosphorylase deficiency
to come into action b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
c) EF2 shifts between GDP & GTP c) Hypoxanthine - guanine phosphoribosyl
d) Releasing factor releases the polypeptide chain transferase defect
from the P site d) Xanthine oxidase deficiency
1168. CAP in Lac operon is an example of- (AI 07, 01) 1182. Which of the following functionally competent of
a) Positive regulator b) Negative regulator
largest unit ofthe ribosomes- (UP 08)
c) Constitutive expression d) Attenuation
a) tRNA
1169. Rapid method of chromosome identification in
intersex is - (Aiims May 07) b) mRNA
a) FISH b)PCR c) Catalyze formation of the peptides
c) SSCP d) Karyotyping d) Formation of the polyribosomes
1170. SYBR Green Dye is used for- (Aiims May 07) 1183. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in
a) HPLC b) Immunofluorescence the folding of other proteins ? (AI 08)
c) PCR d) ELISA a) Proteases b) Proteosomes
1171. Y-chromosome is- (Aiims May 07) c) Templates d) Chaperones
a) Metacentric 1184. Proteins are sorted by- (AI 08)
b) Sub-metacentric a) Golgi bodies b) Mitochondria
c) Acrocentric c) Ribosomes d) Nuclear membrane
d) Longer than the X -chromosome 1185. Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis
1172. End product of purine metabolism in non-primate of- (AI 08)
mammals is- (Aiims May 07)
a) ds DNA b) ss DNA
a) Uric acid b) Ammonia
c) mRNA d)tRNA
c) Urea d)Allantoin
1173. Abnormal base in tRNA is- (MARE 07) 1186. Poly(A) tail translates into- (Aiims May 08)
a) Dihydrouracil b) Orotic acid a) Polyproline b) Polylysine
c) Methyl Xanthine d) Cystine c) Polyalanine d) Polyglycine
1161)c 1162)d 1163)a 1164)d 1165)a ll66)a 1167)b 1168)a 1169)a 1170)c 117l)c 1172)d 1173)a 1174)b
1175)a 1176)a 1177)a 1178)c 1179)e 1180)c 118l)c 1182)c 1183)d 1184)a 1185)a 1186)b
1187. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used 1197. The following is an example for unusual base-
for- (AiimsMay08) a) Di hydro uracil b) Adenine (Manipal 08)
a) To screen for recombinant vectors c) Cytosine d) Uracil
b) To detect gene mutations 1198. Folding of nascent polypeptide chains is tbe function
c) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in of- (DPGEE 08)
plasmid vectors a) Chaperones b) Proteosome
d) To detect host DNA in situ c) Heat shock proteins d) Ribosomes
1188. True about DNA polymerae in eukaryotes- 1199. Effect of ultraviolet radiation on DNA is formation
a) Components are a, J), y, A, E (PGI June 08) of- (DPGEE 08)
b) 13 associated with repair a) Purine dimers b) Pyrimidine dimers
c) y associated with repair c) DNA-DNA eros linking d) All of the above
d) A associated with synthesis of mitochondrial DNA 1200. Cytoplasmic translation system has the following
e) Alpha is abundant amount number oft-RNAs- (DPGEE 08)
1189. True about DNA reconstruction technology- a) 20 b)26
a) Restriction endonucleases are involved c) 28 d)31
b) DNA ligase is used (PG/ June 08) 1201. Which of the following bond is preserved during
c) Acid phosphatase is used denaturation of proteins- (DPGEE 08)
d) Reverse transcriptase needed a) Hydrogen bond b) Peptide bond
1190. DNA repair defect is seen in- (PG/ June 08) c) Ionic bond d) All of the above
a) Xeroderma pigmentosa 1202. Gene is? (APPG 08)
b) Bloom's syndrome a) Codon b) Anticodon
c) Ataxia telangiectasia c) Cistron d) Okazaki fragment
d) Li-Fraumani syndrome 1203. mRNAcodesforwhichtail? (APPG08)
e) Retinoblastoma a) Poly A b) Poly U
c) PolyC d)PolyG
1191. True about G-protein receptor complex-
1204. True about Hybridoma- (PGI Dec 08)
a) It interacts transmembrane domain (PG/ June 08)
a) Immortalise myeloma cell
b) GTP toGDP
b) Hybridorna cell produced by fusion ofT-cell &
c) Adenyl cyclase activation leads to increased
myeloma
cAMP
c) Cell is human origin
d) GPCR has no phosphorylation property
d) Prior immunisation is done
e) Helical structure
e) Produce monospecific & monoclonalAb
1192. 5' TTACGTAC-3'aftertranscription what will be
1205. Micro RNA transcribed by- (PG/ Dec 08)
theRNA- (PG/ June 08) a) RNApolymerasel b)RNApolymeraseii
a) 5'-TTACGTAC-3' b)3'-TTACGTAC-5'
c) RNApolymeraseiii d)DNApolymerase
c) 5'-CATGCATT-3' d)3'-CATGCATT-5' e) Drosha
e) 5' -GUACGUAA-3' 1206. DNA fingerprinting is based on possessing in DNA of-
1193. InPCR- (PG/ June 08) a) Constant tandem repeat (PGI Dec 08)
a) Thermostable enzyme is needed b) Variable number tandem repeats (VNTR)
b) 211 copies formed after 'n' numbers of multiple c) Non-repetative sequence
c) Non specific d) Exon
d) Thermolabile enzyme e) Intron in eukaryotes
e) Primer is needed 1207. What will happen to DNA if salt is added to it-
1194. RELP, True are- (PG/ June 08) a) Increase melting point (Tm) (PG/ Dec 08)
a) Endonuclease cuts DNA at nucleotide level b) Decrease Tm
b) It acts at specific site c) Not affect Tm
c) Only cohesive ends are produced d) Melting lead to denaturation of DNA
d) Only blunt ends are produced e) Both increase & decrease in Tm depending on
1195. Radiasensitive stage of cell cycle- (PGI June 08) concentration of salt
a) G2 b)M 1208. Which statements are true about E.coli
c) S d)G 1 chromosomal DNA in relation with eukaryotic
e) q chromosomaiDNA- (PGI Dec08)
1196. In conversion of DNA to RNA, enzyme a) Circular
required- (PG/ June 08) b) Packed into nucleolus
a) DNA-Polymerase b) DNA Ligase c) Postively supercoiled
c) DNA -Polymerase d) RNA polymerase d) Negatively sepercoiled
e) Primase e) Nucleus present
1187)c 1188)a,b 1189)a,b,d 1190)a,b,c 119l)a,b,c,e 1192)e 1193)a,e 1194)b 1195)a,b 1196)d 1197)a
1198)a 1199)b 1200)a 120l)b 1202)c 1203)a 1204)a,d,e 1205)b,e 1206)b 1207)a,d 1208)a,c,e
1209. Supercoiled DNA is separated by relaxed DNA 1219. All of the following statements about Lambda phase
by- (PGIDec08) are true, Except- (AI 09)
a) EUSA b) Gel electrophoresis a) In lysogenic phase it fuses with host chromosome
c) DNA footpriutiug d) DNA fmgerpriuting and remains dormant
e) Microarray assay b) In Lytic phase it fuses with host chromosome and
1210. Ribosome bas following enzymatic activity? replicates
a) Peptidyl transferase (AIIMS Nov 08) c) Both lytic and lysogenic phases occur together
b) Peptidase d) In lytic phase it causes cell lysis and releases virus
c) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase particles
d)GTPase 1220. False about eukaryotic protein synthesis is-
1211. Introu is not found in which DNA? (AIIMS Nov 08) a) N formyl Met is the firstt-RNA to come into action
a) NuclearDNA b)MitochoudrialDNA b) mRNAreadfrom5'to3' (AIIMSMay09)
c) BDNA d)ZDNA c) Ef2 shifts between GDP to GTP
1212. Synthesis of au immuuoglobuliu in membrane bound d) Capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 40 S
or secretory form is determined by -(AIIMS Nov 08) ribosome
a) One turn to two tum joining rule 1221. Which test uses oligomer with single base pair
b) Class switching substitution- (AIIMS May 09)
c) Differential RNA processing a) PCR
d) Allelic exclusion b) RFLP
1213. The gaps between segments of DNA on the lagging c) Error coded mutation analysis
strand produced by restriction enzymes are rejoined/ 1222. All of the following abbreviations are true except-
sealed by- (AI 09) a) AMP- adenosine monophosphate (PGI June 09)
a) DNA ligases b) DNA helicase b) CMP- Cutidine monophosphate
c) DNA topoisomerase d) DNA phosphorylase c) GMP- Guanosine monophosphate
1214. NormalroleofMicroRNAis- (AI 09) d) TMP- Thymine monophosphate
a) Gene Regulation e) UMP- Uracil monophosphate
b) RNA splicing 1223. Hemoproteins are- (PGI June 09)
c) Initiation of translation a) CytochromeC b)Cytochrome450
d) DNA conformational change c) Myoglobin d) Hemoglobin
1215. Splicing activity is a function of- (AI 09) e) Catalase
a) mRNA b) sn RNA 1224. Which DNA polymerase is/are involved in repair of
c) rRNA d)tRNA mammalian DNA- (PGI June 09)
1216. CAP in Lac operon is au example of- (AI 09) ~a b)~
a) Positive regulator b) Negative regulator c) "{ d)£
c) Constitutive expression d) Attenuation e) o
1217. All of the following are true about Sickle cell 1225. True about genetic code except- (PGI June 09)
disease, Except- (AI 09) a) Degenerate b) Overlapping
a) Single nucleotide change results in change of c) Ambiguous d) Universal
Glutamine to valine e) Commaless
b) RFLP results from a single base change 1226. True about generic code- (PGI June 09)
c) 'Sticky patch' is generated as a result of replacement a) AUA codes for methionine in mitochondria
of a non polar residue with a polar residue b) UGA codes for selenocysteine
d) HbS confers resistance against malaria in c) AUG codes for initiator codon in mammalian cell
heterozygotes d) AGA&AGG act as chain terminator in mammalian
1218. A ten year old child with aggressive behavior and e) UAA, UAG & UGA are stop codon.
poor concentration is brought with presenting 1227. TrueaboutmitochoudrialDNA- (PGIJune09)
complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. a) UGA codes for trytophan
Mother gives history of self mutilitative behavior b) codes for 13 protein
stating that he tends to mutilate his fingers. Which c) High content of untranslated sequence
of the following enzymes is likely to be deficient in d) Circular double stranded DNA
this child- (AI 09) e) Mitrochondrial disease occur due to point
a) HGPRTase b) Adenosine deaminase mutation and large scale rearrengements.
c) APRTase d) Acid maltase
1209)b 1210)a 12ll)b 1212)c 1213)a 1214)a 1215)b 1216)a 1217)c 1218)a 1219)c 1220)a 122l)b 1222)d,e
1223)Al1 1224) b,d 1225) b,c 1226) a,c,d,e 1227) a,b,d,e
1228. True about polymerase chain reaction (PCR)- 1238. A potent inhibitor of protein synthesis that acts as
a) Carried out by thermostable DNA polymerase au analogue of amiuoacyl t-RNAis- (DELHI PG Mar.
b) Exponential (PGI June 09) a) Mitomycin C b) Streptomycin 09)
c) Additive c) Nalidixic acid d) Puromycin
d) specific 1239. Components of60 S subunit of ribosome are-
e) Single-stranded DNA is required a) 5.8 S b) 23 S (PGI Nov 09)
1229. Mutation that completely disrupt the function ofthe c) 16S d) 18S
gene used in which ofthe following techniques- e) 28S
a) Knock out (PGI June 09) 1240. True about gene library- (PGI Nov 09)
b) Non sense mutation a) Also known as chromosome
c) Restriction fragment length polymorphism b) Library that contains books on gene
d) Targetted gene disruption c) Computer base with all gene knowledge
e) Knock-in d) DNA nucleotide or fragment
1230. Concentration of DNA is measured by- e) Complete collection of gene copies of one
a) Absorption of360 nm (PGI June 09) organism
b) D-oxyribose estimation 1241. tRNA met would recognize- (PGI Nov 09)
1231. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by the deficiency a) AUG b)UGC
of- (DELHIPGFeb. 09) c) GlD d)GCU
a) Folic acid e) UlJG
b) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II 1242. True about silent mutation in gene- (PGI Nov 09)
c) UMP synthase a) No change inmRNA
d) HGPRI b) No change in Amino acid sequence in protein
1232. Which of the following enzymes in DNA dependent c) No expression of protein
RNApolymerase- (DELHIPGFeb. 09) d) No change in expression of protein
a) DNAligase b)Primase e) Termination of protein synthesis
c) DNA polymerase III d) RNA transcriptase 1243. Antigen antibody reaction is detected by-
1233. TheZDNAhelix- (DELHIPGFeb. 09) a) EUSA b) Southern blot (PGI Nov 09)
a) Has fewer base pairs per turn than B DNA c) Northern blot d) Western blot
b) Is favored by an alternating GC sequences e) Eastern blot
c) Tends to be found at 3 end to genes 1244. Biotechnology is/are used for- (PGI Nov 09)
d) Is inhibited by methylation of the bases a) Viral vaccine production
1234. Which of the following is not true aboutthe buffering b) To cure genetic disorder
action of haemoglobin (Hb)? (DELHI PG Mar. 09) c) Genetic crop
a) Hb is technically intracellular buffer d) Gene production
b) Hb is functionally a plasma buffer e) Production of genetic products
c) Hb's buffering action is due to its histidine content 1245. True about ribosomes- (PGI Nov 09)
d) Oxygenated Hb is a strong base a) Conserved in nature
1235. Which one of the following is porphyrines gives b) Role is to bring t-RNA and m-RNA together
stools their characteristics brown c) DNA forms RNA and protein are formed from RNA
color ? (DELHI PG Mar. 09) d) They are always free
a) Biliverdin b) Urobilinogen e) Have two subunits
c) Heme d) Stercobilin 1246. True about nucleosome- (PGI Nov 09)
1236. Which of the following compounds is an analogue of a) Use only one type of histone protein
hypoxanthine? (DELHI PG Mar. 09) b) Each complex is separated from each other by non
a) Arabinoside C histone proteins
b) Allopurinol c) Regular repeating structure of DNA & histone
c) Ribose phosphate proteins
d) 5-phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) d) Reflect small nucleus
1237. Which of the following statements describing e) Core ofDNA with protein wrapped
restriction endonucleases is true ? 1247. True about Restriction enzymes- (PGI Nov 09)
a) They always yield overhanging single-stranded a) Palindromic
ends (DELHI PG Mar. 09) b) ProduceDNAstickyend
b) They recognize methylated DNA sequences c) Restrict replication ofDNA
c) They recognize triplet repeats d) Restriction sites are not specific
d) They cleave both strands in duplex DNA e) Breaks at sugar-phosphate bond
1228) a,b,d,e 1229) a,d 1230) a 1231) d 1232) b 1233) b 1234) b 1235) d 1236) b 1237) d 1238) d 1239) a,d
1240)d,e 1241)a 1242)b,d 1243)a,d 1244)All 1245)a,b,c,e 1246)c 1247)a,b,c,e
1248. Karyotyping under light microscopy is done by- 1260. PCRdetects- (Maharashtra IO)
a) R banding b) Q banding (AIIMS Nov 09) a) Antigen b) Antibody
c) G banding d) C banding c) Nucleic acid d) All of above
1249. Western Blot detects? 1261. High energy phosphate compounds are-
a) DNA b)RNA a) ATP b)ADP (PGIMayiO)
c) Protein d)mRNA c) Creatinine phosphate d) Acetyl CoA
1250. Splicing activity is a function of- (AIIMSMay IO) 1262. NoncodingRNAsare- (PGIMay IO)
a) mRNA b)snRNA a) siRNA b)miRNA
c) tRNA d) mRNA
c) tRNA d) rRNA
e) rRna
1251. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA
1263. Termination process of protein synthesis is
strands can be joined again by- (AIIMS May I 0) performedbyaHexcept- (PGI May IO)
a) DNA polymerase b) DNA ligase a) Releasing factor b) Stop codon
c) DNA topoisomerase d) DNA gyrase c) Peptidyl transferase d) UAA codon
1252. True about Sickle cell disease are all, except- e) AUG codon
a) Single nucleotide change results in change of 1264. Nucleosome consists of- (PGI May 10)
Glutamine to Valine (AIIMS May IO) a) Histone b)DNA
b) Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement c) RNA d) DNA & RNA both
of a non polar residue with a polar residue e) Carbohydrate
c) HbS confers resistance against malaria in 1265. Nucleoside is made up of- (PGI Nov. 10)
heterozygotes a) Pyrimidine b) Histone
d) RFLP results from a single base change c) Sugar d) Purine
1253. Which of following techniques is used for detection e) Phosphate
of variations in DNA sequence and Gene expression- 1266. True about lg gene rearrangement & Ig diversity-
a) Northern blot b) Southern blot (AI IO) a) Somatic mutations theory (PGI Nov. 10)
c) Western blot d) Microarray b) One loop and two loop joining theory
1254. Which of the following tests is not used for detection c) DNArearrangement
of specific aneuploidy- (AI 10) d) Appropriate class switching
a) FISH b)RT -PCR 1267. TrueaboutDNAmethylation- (PGI Nov. 10)
c) QF- PCR d) Microarray a) Alters gene expression
1255. Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of b) Genetic code remains intact
homozygous genes for an abnormal haemoglobin c) Role in carcinogenesis
molecule. The event responsible for the mutation in d) Protective mechanism aganist cleavage by
the Beta chain is - (DPG I 0) restriction endonuclease
a) Insertion b) Deletion 1268. Stop codons are- (PGI Nov. 10)
c) Non-disjunction d) Point mutation a) UAA b)UAG
1256. Xeroderma pigmentation is caused due to a group of c) UGA d)UAC
closely related abnormalities in- (DPG 1 0) e) UCA
a) Mismatch repair 1269. True about genes- (PGI Nov. I 0)
b) Base excision repair a) Smallest functional unit of genome
c) Nucleotide excision repair b) Not capable of independent expression
c) Promoter & ehnancer genes are typical example
d) SOS repair
d) Cistron is single funcitonal unit
1257. Formation of okazaki fragments occur in-
1270. True about DNA structure- (PGI Nov. 10)
a) Transcription b) Translation (Maharashtra
a) Purines are adenine and guanine & pyrimidines
c) Transduction d) Replication 10)
are uracil and cytosine
1258. A part from proteins which of the following exhibits
b) Waston and Crick discovered structure in 1973
the cataytic activity? (Maharashtra I 0)
c) Deoxyribose- phosphate backbone with bases
a) Phospholipids b)DNA
stacked inside
c) RNA d) Heteropolysacharides d) Mainly consists ofleft handed helix
1259. In cell with damaged DNA and potential for malignant e) 5-3 phosodiester bonding is present
transformation, the tumor suppressor p53 gene 1271. True statement about transgenic mice-(PGI Nov. I 0)
invoves- (Maharashtra IO) a) Developed from DNA insertion into fertilized egg
a) Triggering of the production ofp21 b) Have same genome as parentsexceptoneormore genes
b) Inducing apoptosis c) Identical genome to parent mice
c) Getting complexed with other transforming proteins d) Produced by breeding over several generations
d) All of the above e) Homozygous are selected
1248)c 1249)c 1250)b 1251)b 1252)b 1253)d 1254)d 1255)d 1256)c 1257)d 1258)c 1259)d 1260)c
1261) a,c,d 1262) a,b,c,e 1263) c,e 1264) a,b 1265) a,c,d 1266) a,c,d 1267) a,c,d 1268) a,b,c 1269) a,c,d 1270) c
1271)a,b
1272. Incorrect statement are- (PGI Nov. 10) 1281. True about Sickle cell disease are all, Except-
a) T4 DNA polymerase has 3' ->5' exonuclease a) Single nucleotide change results in change of
activity Glutamine to Valine
b) .Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I function b) Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement
is almost similar to T4 DNA polymerase of a non polar residue with a polar residue
c) Restriction endonuclease cut DNA chains at c) HbS confers resistance against malaria in
specific location heterozygotes
d) Endonuclease cut DNA at 5' terminus d) RFLP results from a single base change
e) Right handed helix of DNA is more common 1282. Which of the following process in a vector is used to
1273. A four-year-old child is diagnosed with Duchenne increase the yield of protein produced in
muscular dystrophy, an X-Iinked recessive disorder. recombinant protein synthesis - (AI 11)
Genetic analysis shows that the patient's gene for a) Promoter induction
the muscle protein dystrophin contains a mutation b) Origin of Replication
in its promoter region. What would be the most likely c) Translation Initiation
etJectofthismutation? (AIIMS Nov 10) d) Translation ofTranscription inhibition
a) Tailing of dystrophin mRNA will be defective. 1283. Which of the following factors is responsible for
deciding whether an antibody/immunoglobulin will
b) Capping of dystrophin mRNA will be defective.
remain membrane bound or get secreted- (AI 11)
c) Termination of dystrophin transcription will be
a) RNA Splicing
deficient.
b) Class Switching
d) Initiation of dystrophin transcription will be
c) Differential RNA Processing
deficient. d) Allelic Exclusion
1274. Methods ofintroducing gene in target cells are all 1284. Methods offusing two cells in genetic recombination
except- (AIIMS Nov 10) technique include all ofthe following techinques,
a) Electroporation Except- (AI 11)
b) Transfection a) Fusion mediated by Ethylene Glycol
c) Site directed recombination b) Fusion mediated by Electric current
d) FISH c) Fusion mediated by viral transformation
1275. CAP in LAC operon is - (AIIMS May 11) d) Fusion Mediated by altering membrane viscocity
a) Positive regulator 1285. Two transgenic plants were genetically enginerred
b) Negative regulator using Recombinant DNA technology. One plant was
c) Attenuation transformed using a plamid vector with GFP (Green
d) Constitutive expression Fluorescent Protein) gene and another plant was
1276. Apo B48 & Apo B100 is synthesized from the same transformed with Luciferase gene. Which of these
mRNA; the ditJerence between them is due to- two plants will glow spontaneously in the dark-
a) RNA splicing (AIIMS May 11) a) Plant with GFP Gene (AI 11)
b) Allelic exclusion b) Plant with Luciferase Gene
c) Deamination of cytidine to uridine c) Both plants
d) Upstream repression d) None of the above
1277. Gene duplication plays an important role in the 1286. During heme synthesis, which enzyme is
evolution of- (AIIMSMay 11) responsible for conversion of Coproporphyrinogen
a) mRNA b) rRNA ffi to Protoporphyrinogen ffi? (Karn 11)
c) tRNA d) hnRNA a) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
1278. Histone acetylation causes- (AIIMS May 11) b) Coproporphyrinogen reductase
a) Increased Heterochromatin formation c) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
b) Increased Euchromatin formation d) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
c) Methylation of cystine 1287. A hypothetical gene contains coding strand of 5' -
d) DNA replication TGGAATTGTATG-3. What would be the sequence
1279. TriplexDNAisdueto- (AIIMSMay 11) of the resultant mRNA following transcription-
a) Hoogsteen pairing a) 3'-ACCTTAACATAC-5' (Karn 11)
b) Palindromic sequences b) 5'-ACCUUAACAUAC-3'
c) Large no. of guanosine repeats c) 5'- UGGAAUUGUAUG-3'
d) Polypyramidine tracts d) 3'-UCCTTUUCAUAC-5'
1280. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA 1288. Eukaryotic DNA polymerase involved in proof
reading and DNA repair during replication is-
strands can be joined again by - (AIIMS May 11)
a) a b) 13 (Karn 11)
a) DNA polymerase b) DNA ligase
c) E d)O
c) DNA topoisomerase d) DNA gyrase
1272)~e 1273)d 1274)d 1275)a 1276)c 1277)a 1278)b 1279)a 1280)b 128l)b 1282)a 1283)c 1284)d
1285)b 1286)d 1287)c 1288)c
1289. Genetic material possessing the dual capacity to 1302. Ribosomes have following enzymatic activity-
exist chromosomal and extrachromosomal entity- a) Peptidyl transferase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Autosome b) Episome (Punjab 10) b) Peptidase
c) Endosome d) Mesosome c) Carboxylase
1290. Disorders associated with defect in Mitochondrial d) Dehydratase
DNAareallexcept- (Jipmer 10) 1303. Telomerase is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Leber's hereditary optic atrophy a) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
b) Mitochondrial encephalopathy with lactic acidosis
b) RNA dependant DNA polymerase
c) Huntington's disease
c) RNA dependant RNA polymerase
d) Pearson syndrome
1291. Defect in xeroderma pigmentosum- (Jipmer 10) d) DNA dependant DNA polymerase
a) Mismatch repair 1304. Pyrimidine metabolism end product-
b) Base excision repair a) Urea (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Nucleotide excision repair b) Uric acid
d) All of the above c) Beta alanine
1292. 7-methyl guanidine cap is added to- (Jipmer 11) d) AllantoiD
a) mRNA b)tRNA 1305. Nucleotide includes- (NEETIDNB Pattern}
c) rRNA d) DNA a) Base + sugar
1293. Porphyrias absorb light in the wavelength of- b) Base + phosphate group
a) 340nm b)400nm (Jipmer 11) c) Base+ sugar+ phosphate group
c) 540nm d)670nm d) None
1294. In sickle cell anemia, translocation on codon 6 is 1306. NotpresentinDNA- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
due to substitution of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Uracil b) Thymine
a) Valine for glutamate b) Glutamate for valine c) Cytosine d) Adenine
c) Isoleucine for valine d) Valine for isoleucine
1307. Which of the following usually require a RNA
1295. What do restriction endonucleases do- (NEET/DNB
intermediate for cloning/replication? (NEETIDNB
a) Cut ds DNA at specific sites Pattern)
b) Cut RNA at specific sites a) Transposons b) Plasmids Pattern)
c) Cut ss DNA at specific sites c) Phages d) Cosmids
d) Break peptide chains 1308. Inhibition of protein synthesis in translocation
1296. Primase functions as - (NEETIDNB Pattern) steps occurs by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Joining DNA fragments a) Tetracycline b) Erythromycin
b) Synthesining small RNA fragments during c) Aminoglycosides d) Penicillin
transcription 1309. In sickle cell anemia, translocation on codon 6 is
c) Synthesising small RNA fragments during due to substitution of- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
translation a) Valine for glutamate
d) Unwinding of DNA b) Glutamate for valine
1297. Which ofthe following is a ribozyme- (NEETIDNB c) Isoleucine for valine
a) Peptidyl transferase Pattern) d) Valine for isoleucine
b) Elongation factor 2 1310. Purine are formed by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Primase · a) Aspartic acid, glycine, uric acid
d) RNA polymerase
b) Aspartate, glycine,
1298. What is attatched to 3' end of mRNA after
c) Aspartate, glutamate
transcription - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Poly A tail b) CCA d) Aspartate,glycine,glutamine
c) lntron d) 7-methylguanosine 1311. Whatis the function of dna ligase?
1299. Not present in DNA- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Unwinding (denaturation) of dsDNA to provide
a) Uracil b) Thymine an ssDNA template (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Cytosine d) Adenine b) Seals the single strand nick between the nascent
1300. Oncogenes can be best studied by- chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand
a) Transfection (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Initiation of DNA synthesis and elongation
b) Transduction d) Initiates synthesis of RNA primers
c) Transformation 1312. Chargafrs rule states that- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Conjugation a) A=T,G=C
1301. Enzyme used in PCR is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b)A=QT=C
a) Reyerse transcriptase b) Taq polymerase c) A=C,G=T
c) RNA polymerase d) None d) Any combination possible
1289)b 1290)c 129l)c 1292)a 1293)b 1294)a 1295)a 1296)b 1297)a 1298)a 1299)a 1300)a 1301)b 1302)a
1303)b 1304)c 1305)c 1306)a 1307)a 1308)b 1309)a 1310)d 1311)b 1312)a
1313. In DNA, adenine always pairs with- (NEETIDNB 1327. Transcription is the process of-
a) Guanine b) Cytosine Pattern) a) Protein synthesis (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Thymine d) Uracil b) DNA replication
1314. R-RNAismainlyproducedin- (NEETIDNBPattern) c) Synthesis of RNA
a) Nucleus b) Nucleolus d) None
c) Ribosome d) Endoplasmic reticulum 1328. Nuclosomes are- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1315. Which of the following protein is synthesized in a) DNA+RNA
free ribosome- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) DNA+Histones
a) Cytosolic proteins
c) RNA+Histones
b) Secretery proteins
c) Membrane proteins d) DNA+RNA+Histones
d) None 1329. Which ofthe following is the disorder of purine-
1316. Watson crick model is for which DNA -(NEET/DNB a) Hyperammonemia (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) B DNA b) A DNA Pattern) b) Gout
c) C DNA d) Z DNA c) Orotic acduria
1317. Terminationcodonis- (NEETIDNBPattern) d) Hartnop disease
a) AUG b) UAA 1330. Codons are present in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) AUA d)AGG a) t-RNA b)r-RNA
1318. Which of the following is notinvolved in synthesis c) m-RNA d) si-RNA
ofpyrimidines? (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1331. Anticodon is presentin- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Glutamine b) C02
a) mRNA b) tRNA
c) Aspartic acid d) Glycine
c) rRNA d) hrnRNA
1319. Modified nucleotide is seen in- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) tRNA b) rRNA 1332. For RNA, which blotting technique is used-
c) hnRNA d)rnRNA a) Western blot (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1320. Which RNA is used in RNA spilicing- b) Northern blot
a) mRNA (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Southern blod
b) small nuclear RNA d) None
c) Small cytosolic RNA 1333. DNA replication occurs in how many phases-
d) tRNA a) Two b) Three (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1321. Chian initiation in protein synthesis is by- c) Four d) Five
a) AUA b)GLA (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1334. Enzyme require for cutting the strand DNA
c) UGA d)UAG synthesis - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1322. Nonsense codons bring about- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) DNA polymerase b) DNA ligase
a) Elongation of polypeptide chain c) Topoismerase d) Helicase
b) Pre-translational modificastion of protein 1335. In DNA, Cytosine is passed with - (NEETIDNB
c) Initiation of protein synthesis a) Thymine b) Guanine Pattern)
d) Termination of protein synthesis c) Ademine d) Uracil
1323. Protein glycosylation occurs in-(NEET!DNB Pattern) 1336. DNA synthesis occurs in phase - (NEETIDNB
a) ffi b) Golgi bodies a) Gt b) G2 Pattern)
c) Mitochondria d) Peroxisomes c) S d) M
1324. Function of UGA codon- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1337. Dihydrouridine is found in -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Initiates transcription a) DNA b) rnRNA
b) Translates c) tRNA d) rRNA
c) Terminates protein synthesis 1338. All ofthe following are require in protein synthesis
d) None except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
13 25. Glysine is useful in all of the following except- a) elF-1 b)rnRNA
a) Purine synthesis (NEET/DNBPattern) c) Mg+2 d) ca+2
b) Creatine synthesis 1339. Unwinding of DNA during replication is done by-
c) Spermine synthesis a) Ligase b) Helicase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Heme synthesis c) Polymerase d) Prinase
1326. Reverse transcription involves? (NEETIDNB 1340. Peptidyl transfer is a I an- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) RNA dependent DNA synthesis Pattern) a) Termination factor b) Elongation factor
b) DNA dependent RNA synthesis c) Rlbozyme d) None
c) DNA dependent DNA synthesis 1341. Nucleotide consists of all except-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) RNA dependent RNA synthesis a) Sugar b) Phosphate
c) Fatty acid d) Base
1313)c 1314)b 1315)a 1316)a 1317)b 1318)d 1319)a 1320)b 1321)a 1322)d 1323)b 1324)c 1325)c 1326)a
1327)c 1328)b 1329)b 1330)c 133l)b 1332)b 1333)b 1334)c 1335)b 1336)c 1337)c 1338)d 1339)b 1340)c
1341)c
BIOCHEMISTRY (3.58]
1342. Which of the following statements regarding mature 1355. Degeneracy of codon is related to-
cytoplasmic messenger RNA is true- a) Transcription (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Transcribed:fromNuclearDNA(NEETIDNBPattern) b) Translation
b) Has Thiamine in place ofUracil c) Post-translation modification
c) Sugar is DeoxyRibose d) None
d) Its molecular weight is more than hn-RNA
1343. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine- MEMBRANE STRUCTURE
a) Uracil b) Thymine (NEETIDNB Pattern) &FUNCTION
c) Adenine d) Cytosine
1344. Central Dugma of molecular biology includes all 1356. The lipid bilayer of cell membrane exists as-
except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Solid b) Semisolid (PG/93)
a) Transcription b) Translation c) Gel d) Fibres
c) RNA replication d) DNA replication 1357. Biological Cell membrane contains all the
1345. Uric acid is formed in humans in- (NEETIDNB followingexcept- (AI93)
a) Steroid receptors b) Prostaglandins
a) Liver b) GIT mucosa Pattern)
c) Cholesterol d) Cytochrome
c) Kidney d) Joints
1358. A bilipid layer is most permeable to- (AIIMS 82, 83,
1346. Primer function is in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Potassium b) Sodium 85, A188)
a) Transcription c) Glucose d) Urea
b) Translation 1359. The major driving force for formation of membrane
c) Initiation of DNA replication lipid bilayer is- (DNB 88; AIIMS 81)
d) Termination of DNA replication a) Hydrogen bonding b) Hydrophobic interactions
1347. Nitrogen atoms in purines are derived from all c) Vander waal forces d) Not known
except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1360. "Molecular logic of living state" states all except-
a) Aspartate b) Glutamine a) Cells maintain a rigid state (AP 87)
c) 1HF d) Glycine b) A basic simplicity in biological macromolecular
1348. Function of exonuclease- (NEETIDNBPattern) c) Cells maintain maximum economy
a) Polymerization b) Proofreading d) All of the above
c) Chain elongation d) Termination 1361. The following statement about biological membrane
1349. Sencentcells are deficient in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) is correct- (UP 97, AIIMS 82)
a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase a) They are symmetric bileaflet structure
c) Telomerase d) Helicase b) They constituent lipid & Protein moieties are
1350. Identification of individed by their DNA was held together by covalent interaction
inventedby- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) They are rigid assemblies of protein; lipid &
a) Shapiro b) Lewis carbohydrates
c) Jeffreys d) Pasture d) Their lipid molities are amphipathic in nature
1351. Adeninephosphoribosyl transferase is involved- 1362. Transition temperature of lipid bilayers of cell
a) De novo purine synthesis (NEETIDNB Pattern) membranes is increased by- (AIIMS 2K)
a) Cholesterol
b) Purine degradation
b) Saturated fatty acids
c) Salvage synthesis of purine nucleotides
c) Unsaturated fatty acids
d) None d) Hydrocarbons
1352. Deficiency of purine nucleoside phosphorylase 1363. In cell membrance, following are true except-
causes- (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Lipids are regularly arranged (PGI 98)
a) Complement deficiency b) Lipids are symmetrical
b) Cellular immunodeficiency c) Protein displaced laterally
c) Humoral immunodeficiency d) None
d) Combined immunodeficiency 1364. Which important component of cell wall has
1353. Transposons are- (NEETIDNB Pattern) carbohydrate moiety- (PGI 01)
a) Jumping genes b) Cosmid a) Phosphoglyceride b) Triacylglycerol
c) Episome d) None c) Sphingomyelin d) Cholesterol
1354. In which of the following oligonucleotide primer is e) GM2 Gangliosides
used- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1365. Bilayer cell membrane contains- (Orissa 04)
a) RFLP b) PCR a) Cholesterol b) Triacyl glycerol
c) FISH d) Chromosomal walking c) Cholesterol ester d) Glycerol
1342)a 1343)c 1344)c 1345)b 1346)c 1347)c 1348)b 1349)c 1350)c 135l)c 1352)b 1353)a 1354)b 1355)b
1356)c 1357)a,b l358)d l359)b 1360)a l36l)d 1362)b 1363)b 1364)e l365)a
1366. The transmembrane region of a protein is likely 1377. Biological membrane has all of the following
to have- (AI 04) properties except- (Punjab 1 0)
a) A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids a) A lipid bilayer
b) A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids b) Ion channels are mainly lipids
c) A disulphide loop c) Lipids form the membrane
d) Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino d) Signal transmission
acids
1367. Membrane fluidity is increased by -(AJIMS May 05, ENDOCRINOLOGY
a) Stearic acid b) Palmitic acid Kerala OJ)
c) Cholesterol d) Linoleic acid 1378. Insulin has.... amino acids- (NIMHANS 86)
1368. The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the a) 49 b)50
endosome because- (AI 06) c) 51 d)62
a) Of its large size 1379. Biochemical abnormalities in primary hyper
b) The vesicle looses its clathrin cost parathyroidism is- (PGI 87)
c) Of the acidic pH of the vesicle a) Increase Ca + increase PO 4
d) Of the basic pH of the vesicle b) Increase Ca2+decrease PO4
1369. Type of collagen forming basement membrane c) Decrease Ca2+decrease PO 4
of kidney- (PG!June 06) d) Decrease Ca2 +increase PO4
a) I b)II e) None of the above
c) ill d)IV 1380. 17-Alpha hdroxylase deficiency causes- (A.!. 89)
e) V a) Decreased testesterone
1370. Basement membrane degeneration is mediated by- b) Decrease of estrogens
a) Metalloproteinases b) Oxida~es (A/07) c) Decrease glucagon
c) Elastases d) Hydroxylases d) Increase estrogen
1371. What is marker for cell membrane -(PGI June 07) 1381. The most active form of vitamin Dis- (AJIMS 84)
a) 5' nucleotidase a) 25 Hydrocholecalciferol
b)IDH b) 25 Hydrooxyergocalciferol
c) Galactosyl transferase c) 24,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
1372. Which of the following statements about facilitated d) 1.25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
diffusion is true- (AI 09) 1382. Insulin resistance is seen in - (AIIMS 86, 81)
a) It is a form of active transport a) Hypothyroidism b) Acromegaly
b) It requires a carrier protein c) Addision's disease d) Hypopituitarism
c) Rate of transport is proportionate to the 1383. What is known as the "second messenger"? -
concentration gradient a) ATP b)ADP (AIIMS86)
d) Requires creatine phosphate c) CyclicAMP d)GMP
1373. Eukaryotic pla,ma membrane is made up of all 1384. Which of the following hormones are dependant
except- (AIIMSMay09) on cyclic AMP?- (AIIMS 86)
a) Carbohydrates b) Triglycerides a) Vasopressin b) Aldosterone
c) Lecithin d) Cholesterol c) Renin d) Angiotensin
1374. Plasmamembrane marker(s) is/are -(PGI June 09) 1385. Secondary hyperparathyroidsm is caused by-
a) 5'- Nucleotidase b) Galactosy Transferase a) Parathyroidenoma (TN 89)
c) ATP synthetase d) Adenyl cyclase b) Parathyroid hyperplasia
e) Na+-K+ ATPase c) Chronic renal failure
1375. Which of the following is/are plasma membrane d) Milk- alkali syndrome
enzyme(s)- (PGI June 09) 1386. In secondary hyperparathyroidism there is-
a) Glucose-6-phosphatase b) 5'- Nucleotidase a) Hypercalcemia (PGI 88)
c) Adenyl cyclase d) Na+-K+ ATPase b) Hypocalcemia
e) Sialyl transferase c) Increased parathoromone
1376. The translocation ofca++ across a membrane- d) Decreased parathoromone
a) Is a passive mediated transport 1387. Polypeptide hormones are- (PGI 86)
b) Is an example of a symport system a) Insulin b) Angiotensin
c) Involves the phosphorylation of a serine residue c) Growth hormones d) Progesterone
by ATP (DELHI PG Feb. 09) 1388. Major site of action ofinsulin are- (PGI 84)
d) May be regulated by the binding of a ca++_ a) Muscle b) Adipose tissue
calmodulin complex to the transporter c) Liver d) Kidney
1366)a 1367)d 1368)c 1369)d 1370)a 137l)a 1372)b 1373)b 1374)a,d,e 1375)b,c,d 1376)d 1377)b 1378)c
1379)b 1380)a 138l)d 1382)b 1383)c 1384)a 1385)c 1386)b,c 1387)a,b,c 1388)b
1389. RatioofadrenalinetoNoradrenaline- (PG/83) 1401. What serves as a precursor of testosterone-

a) 50:60 b)60:40 a) Aldosterone (Al!MS 86, A/90, PGI 84)
c) 70 : 30 d) 856 : 15 b) Estrone
1390. Tetany can becansed by- (PG/83) c) Methyltestosterone
a) Hypocalcemia b) Hypecalcemia d) Pregnenolone
c) Hyperthyroidism d) Hypomagnesemia e) Andrenosterone
1391. The Hormone which has a receptor in the plasma 1402. Which of the following contains an aromatic a
membraneis- (A/91) ring? (JIPMER 80, AMC 84}
a) Thyroxine b) Gonadotrophins a) Estradiol b) Testosterone
c) Cortisone d) Proclactin c) Aldosterone d) Cortisol
1392. The precursor of steroid is- (AI 9 I) e) Progesterone
a) Amino acids b) Fatty acids 1403. Steroles are metabolized to- (AMU 86}
c) Cholesterol d) None a) CoenzymeA b)VitA
1393. Which of the following is a direct precursor of c) VitD d) VitE
hormones- (Al!MS 92) 1404. Enzymes not important in testoterone
a) Ergosterol b) Cyclic AMP biosynthesis- (PGI 81)
c) Cholesterol d) Tyrosine a) 5-alpha reductase b) Delta 5-4 isomerase
1394. Biosynthesis of oestrogens: which is true- c) 18 hydroxylase d) Alpha hydroxylase
a) Phenol end product (Al!MS 86) 1405. Calcium as a second messenger in hormone action
b) Aromatization occurs, which requires 0 2 and involves all except- (PG/81, KERALA 87)
NADPH a) Gastrin b) Oxytocin
c) Angular methyl at C 10 is lost c) ADH d) Insulin
d) Androgens serve as precursors 1406. Estrogen receptors are seen in- (AI 95)
e) All of the above a) Microsomes b) Membrane bound
1395. Trueaboutlnsulinis- (Al!MS 83) c) Nucleus d) Mitochondria
a) Is a glycoprotein 1407. For which is cGMP second messenger- (TN 95)
b) Has a half - life of 4 hours after intervenous a) Thyroxine b) Atrial natriureptic peptide
injection c) GI d) Cortiosone
c) Increases protein synthesis from aminoacids 1408. Which inhibits adenyl cyclase enzyme- (TN 98)
in muscle a) Somatostatin b) Calcitonin
d) Increases the activity of glycogen phosphorylase
c) Epinephrine d) Thyroxine
1396. Steroids with 8-10 c-atorm side chains atC-17 and
1409. Insulin receptors are- (ROHTAK 98)
a OH group at C-3 are- (Al!MS 78, ROHTAK 89)
a) Tyrosine Kinase receptors
a) Androgens b) Andrenal corticoids
c) Progestins d) Sterols b) Phosphodiesterase
e) Bile acids c) Calcium cahnodulin
1397. Urine osmolality in Diabetes insipidus is- d) Lipoprotein lipase
a)< 150mmol!L b)<300mmolll (JIPMER 93) e) All
c) < 600 mmol!L d)< 900 mmol/L 1410. Which of the following belongs to steroidal
1398. Chemically~ oestrogens are characterised by- receptor superfamily- (Al!MS 98)
a) Absence of 02 at D- 17 (PGI 83) a) VitaminD3 b) Encephalins
b) Aromatic charactr at D-ring c) GI d) Insulin
c) Absence to methyl group at C -10 1411. Shortestpeptideis- (DNB 2001)
d) A 21 carbon steroid skeleton a) Encephalin b) Vasopressin
1399. Chemically steroids are derivatives of- (PG/85) c) Angiotensin III d) Glucagon
a) Cholesterol 1412. Followingaresecondmessengers- (PGI 2002)
b) Ergosterol a) CAMP b)CGMP
c) Fatty acids c) Inositol triphosphate d) Diacylglycerol
d) Perhydrocyclopentanophenantherene e) ADP
e) All of the above 1413. Insulin acts on glucose metabolism by- (PG/2000)
1400. Phosphaturia is seen in the following except- a) i permeability of glucose across cell membrane
a) Metabolic alkalosis (JIPMER 80, UPSC 86} b) i permeability across cell membrane against
b) Lead, cadmium or uranium poisonings glucose gradient
c) Hypervitaminosis D c) i permeability of renal cells
d) Hyperparathyriodism
d) i glucose transport to brain
1389)d 1390)a,d 139l)b,d 1392)c 1393)a 1394)e l395)c l396)d 1397)a 1398)c 1399)a,d 1400)a
140l)d 1402)a 1403)c 1404)c 1405)d 1406)c 1407)b 1408)a 1409)a 14IO)a 1411)c 1412)a,b,c,d 1413)b
1414. Which one of the following is present 1426. Increased blood levels of cholesterol that are seen
intracellularly in muscle cells - (AI 03) in hypothyroidism are most likely due to -
a) Insulin b) Corticosteroid a) Decreased calorigenesis (DELHI PG Feb. 09)
c) Epinephrine d) Glucagon b) Decreased production ofLDL receptor in liver and
1415. Early stage of trauma is characterized by- (AI 03) the thus decreased clearance by liver
a) Catabolism b) Anabolism c) Decreased production of LDL receptor in the
c) Glycogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis adipose tissue and increased release of
1416. Which of the following is an uncoupler -(Orissa 04) cholesterol from adipose tissues
a) Insulin b) Epinephrine d) Increased breakdown of lipoproteins releasing
c) GI d) Thyroxine cholesterol in circulation
1417. Which of the following is a membrane-bonnd enzyme 1427. Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insuHn
that catalyzes the formation of cycHcAMPfromATP- is - (AIIMS Nov 09)
a) Tyrosine kinase b) Polymerase (AI 04) a) GLUTl b)GLUT2
c) ATP synthase d) Adenylate cyclase c) GLUT3 d)GLUT4
1418. A small Ca2+ binding protein that modifies the 1428. Among the following all are hydrophilic hormones
activity of many enzymes and other proteins m that act on cytosolic receptors except one which is a
response to changes of Ca2+ concentration, is lipophilic hormone that acts on nuclear receptor-
known as- (AI 04) a) Thyroxine b)Epinephrine (AIIMSMay 11)
a) Cycline b) Calmodulin c) GH d)ACTH
c) Collagen d) Kinesin 1429. The rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of
1419. In which ofthe following tissues is glucose transport catecholamine is catalyzed by- (Corned 10)
into the cell enhanced by insuHn- (COMEDK 05) a) Tyrosin hydroxylase
a) Brain b) Lens b) Dopa decarboxylase
c) Red blood cells d) Adipose tissue c) Dopamine f3 hydroxylase
1420. All the following hormones use cylic AMP as a d) Catechol 0-methyl transferase
second messenger except- (COMED 2006) 1430. GLUT-5istransporterfor- (NEETIDNBPattern)
a) Glucagon b) Estrogen a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Epinephrine d) Luteinizing hormone c) Mannose d) Galactose
1421. Norepinephrine is synthesized from epinephrine 1431. Which ofthe following does not dependent on insulin
by- (PGMCET07) via GLUT4 for glucose uptake- (NEETIDNBPattem)
a) Hydroxylation b) N-methylation a) Brain b) Skeletal muscles
c) Cardiac muscles d) Adipose tissue
c) Deamination d) Carboxylation
1432. In which of the following conditions a low/controlled
1422. C terminal end of androgen receptor is concerned
glycemic index diet is preferred? (NEETIDNB
with- (AIO~
a) Diabetes b) hypertension Pattern)
a) Ligand binding c) children d) Normal adults
b) Increasing biological halflife 1433. Glucose transporter involved in insulin stimulate
c) Increasing the affinity of receptor to DNA glucose transport is GLUT- (NEETIDNBPattern)
d) Increasing the level of transcription a) 1 b) 2
1423. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for c) 3 d) 4
all except- (Aiims May 08) 1434. All are activated by insuHn except-
a) Steroid hormone a) Lipoprotein lipase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Transcription repressors b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Hormone responsive element c) Hormone sensitive lipase
d) Transcription activators d) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
1424. Human insulin gene receptor found on chromosome- 1435. Shortestpeptide- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 11 b)l5 (DPGEE08) a) Angiotensin II b) Angiotensin III
c) 19 d)21 c) Glycogon d) Vasopressin
1425. What is effect of cortisol on metabolism- 1436. InsuHn stimulates all except- (NEETIDNBPattem)
a) i Neoglucogenesis (PGI Dec 08) a) Glycolysis b) Lipolysis
b) i Lipogenesis c) Protein synthesis d) Lipogenesis
c) i Proteolysis 1437. GLUT responsible for secretion ofinsuHn from beta
d) Protein anabolism in liver cells of pancreas - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
e) i Glycolysis a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
1414)b 1415)a 1416)d 1417)d 1418)b 1419)d 1420)b 142l)b 1422)a 1423)b 1424)c 1425)a,c,d 1426)c
1427)d 1428)a 1429)a 1430)b 143l)a 1432)a 1433)d 1434)c 1435)b 1436)b 1437)b
1438. Mutation in GLUT-2 causes-(NEETIDNB Pattern) 1449. Vitamin C is present in largest amount in the
a) Dandy walker syndrome body in- (PGI 83, Al98)
b) Fanconi becker syndrome a) Eye b) Kidneys
c) Beckwith syndrome c) Testes d)Adrenalcortex
d) Menke's disease e) Pancreas
1439. Which ofthe following is not steroid -(NEETIDNB 1450. Metal in Vitamin B 12 is- (PGI 89)
a) Estrogen b) Cholic acid Pattern) a) Copper b) Cobalt
c) Leukotrians d) Vitamin D c) Iron d) Zinc
1440. Rate limiting enzyme in testosterone synthesis - 1451. Vitamin E prevents rancidity by virtue ofits ••.••••
a) 17, 20 lyase (NEETIDNB Pattern) property- (Kerala 90)
b) 20; 22-desmolase a) Antioxidant b) Oxidant
c) 3-~HSD c) Sulfuration d) Hydrogenation
d) 17-hydroxylase 1452. Malonyl aciduria is seen in deficiency of- (AIIMS
1441. Increased insulin receptors are seen in -(NEETIDNB a) Pyridoxine b) B 12 86, JIPMER 91)
a) Obesity b) Starvation Pattern) c) Folic acid d) Riboflavin
c) Acromegaly d) None 1453. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin requires-
a) Factorxon1y (AI92)
VITAMINS b) FactorY only
c) Factors VII,X,VandCa2+
1442. Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by deficiency d) Factors XI VI Ca2+
of- (AUNS 87, Al88) 1454. Conversion of proline to hydroxy proline is by-
a) B 1 b)B2 a) Vitamin C mediated hydroxylation (JIPMER 92)
c) B6 d)B 12 b) Reverse hydroxylation
e) B9 c) Inversion
1443. Vitamin essential for transamination is- (PGI 86, d) Post translation induction
JIPMER 87, A.!. 88, Kerala 88, NIMHANS 87) 1455. Biotin is essential for- (JIMPER 92)
a) B1 b)B 2 a) Translation b) Carboxylation
c) B6 d)B 12 c) Hydroxylation d) Choline
e) B9 1456. The Vitamine required for Carboxylation reaction
1444. Vitamin K dependent clotting factors are- is - (AI93)
a) ll b)Vll (PGI 85, 87) a) VitB2 b)VitaminB6
c)IX d)X c) Biotin d) VitB 12
e) All of the above 1457. Germ oil has a high content ofVitamin-
1445. Cofactor for transaminations is-(PGJ 86, AIIMS 87, a) B b)C (JIPMER 93)
a) Thymine JIPMER 87, Kerala 88) c) A+B d)E
b) Riboflavine 1458. Vit K plays an essential role in- (AIIMS 85)
c) Pyridoxine a) Preventing bile stasis
d) Niacin b) Electron transport
e) Cyanocobalamine c) Preventing thrombosis
1446. Vitamine B 12 is- (PGI 87) d) Biosynthesis of prothrombin and proconvertin
a) Extrinsic factor of castle e) Maintaining retinal integrity
b) Intrinsic factor of castle 1459. Pantothenicacidactson- (AIIMS 94)
c) Cyanocobalamine a) NADP b)NAOpH
d) Decrease Ca2+decrease Po4 c) FAD d)CoA
1447. Biotin is not a coenzyme in- (AI89) 1460. A vitamin which function as reducing agent is -
a) Propionyl-COA carboxylase a) VitaminC b)VitaminB 12 (AIIMS 86,
b) Pyruvate carboxylase c) Folic acid d) Thiamine PGI 83)
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase e) Nicotiarnide
d) Acetyl-COA carboxylase 1461. Biotin deficiency is characterized by the following
1448. Biochemical test in thymine deficiency is- execpt- (AIIMS 80, Kerala 88)
a) FIGLU test (PGI 88) a) Muscular pain b)Anaemia
b) Histidine test c) Nausea d) Dermatitis
c) Erythrocyte transketolase test
d) Ferric chloride test
1438)b 1439)c 1440)b 144l)b 1442)a 1443)c 1444)e 1445)c 1446)a,c 1447)c 1448)c 1449)d 1450)b 1451)a
1452)b 1453)c 1454)a 1455)b 1456)c 1457)d 1458)d 1459)d 1460)a 146l)b
1462. Biological activity of tocopherols has been 1474. Patients with severe renal disease may not be able
attributed, in part oftheir action as- (AIIMS 87) to use normal dietary sources of Vitamin-
a) Antioxidant a) A b)B (Bihar 89)
b) Anticoagulants c) C d) D
c) Provitamin e) E
d) Antidotes for selenium poisoning 1475. Wernickes encephalopathy is due to the dificiency
e) Carriers in electron transport system ~- ~ro~~
1463. Trigonelline, an excretory product is formed in a) Niacin b) Cyanocobalamine
detoxification of- (AIIMS 88) c) Pantothenic acid d) Thiamine
a) Thiamine b) Nicotinic acid 1476. Vitamin used in the treatment ofhomocysteinuria
c) Riboflavin d) Folic acid is - (Kerala 94)
1464. Which of the following vitamin act as a respiratory a) Bl b)B5
catalyst - (PGI 84) c) B12 d)B6
a) B2 b) Pyridoxine 1477. Vitamin necessary for CoA synthesis - (A/95,
c)B 12 d)C a) Pantothenic acid b) Vit C AIIMS 86)
1465. Which vitamin is found as a constituents of warburg c) B4 d) Biotin
yellow enzyme- (AMU 87) 1478. Thiamine is essential for - (All India 95)
a) B1 b)B 2 a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) Niacin d) Pantothen acid b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
1466. Which of the following compounds in not a metabolite c) Succinate dehydrogenase
ofniacin - (PGI 81) d) Acetyl CoA syntheatase
a) Nicotinuric acid 1479. People eating only maize as staple diet develop
b) Trigonelline niacin deficiency due to - (All India 95)
c) Para -aminobenzoic acid a) Low niacin b) Histidine
d) N-methylnicotinamide c) Isoleucine d) Valine
e) N- methyl-6 pyridone-3 carboxamide 1480. Vitamin also acting as hormone - (AIIMS 97)
1467. A vitamin related to a co-factor in glycine metabolism a) VitaminD b)VitaminA
is - (AIIMS 83, 85) c) VitaminBl d)VitaminC
a)VitE b)Folicacid 1481. Which vit is synthesized by intestinal sites-
c) Thiamine d) Cobalamine a) VitB b)VitA (JIPMER98)
e) Pantothenic acid c) VitD d) Vit K
1468. Two vitamins whose derivatives are involved in
1482. In Beri-Beri,which enzyme activity is
transformation of serine to glycine are - (PGI 86)
measured - (JIPMER 98)
a) B 6 andB 2 b) B 12 and nicotinamide
a) Transketolase b) Tranaminase
c) Folic acid and B6 d) Folic acid
1469. Whole wheat is an excellent source of- (AMU 88) c) Decarboxylase d) Deaminase
a) VitaminD b) Vitamin C 1483. Which is not Pyridoxine dependent- (AllMS 97)
c) Vitamin A d) Thiamine a) Oxaluria
1470. Which of the following is not a useful form of b) Homocystinurea
Vitamin A- (JIPMER 78, Delhi 85) c) Maple syrup urine disease
a) Retinol b) Retinal d) Xanthenuric aciduria
c) Retinoic acid d) None of the above 1484. All are vitamin K dependent clotting factors of
1471. Of prime importance in the structure of hepatic origin except- (PGI 99)
flavoproteins is - (AIIMS 78, 82) ~IT b)VIT
a) VitB6 b)VitB2 c) VIII d) X
c) VitBl d) VitA 1485. FIGLUisametaboliteof- (J&K01)
1472. Dicumarol is an antimetabolite of- (AMU 85, 88) a) Folic acid b) Histidine
a) Heparin b) Vit K c) Tyrosine d)Alanine
c) Prothrombin d) Folic acid 1486. Total serum folic acid is- (HPU 2001)
e) Coumarin a) 5-20mg/ml b) 10-20mg/ml
1473. A low serum carotene level is caused by- (PGI 83) c) 2-20mg/ml d) 15-20mg/ml
a) VitAdeficiency 1487. HDN is seen due to deficiency of vitamin-
b) Intrinsic factor deficiency a) A b) C (PGI99)
c) Malabsorption syndrome c) K d)E
d) Achlorhydria
1462)a 1463)b 1464)d 1465)b 1466)c 1467)b 1468)d 1469)d 1470)d 1471)b 1472)b 1473)c 1474)d 1475)d
1476)d 1477)a 1478)a 1479)a 1480)a,b 148l)d 1482)a 1483)c 1484)c 1485)b 1486)None 1487)c
1488. Metabolic bone disease is caused by excess intake 1501. Which of the following is a component of the visual
of which vitamin- (PGI 2000) pigmentrhodopsin- (AIIMSNOV05)
a) A b)B a) P-Carotene b) Retinal
c) C d)D c) Retinol d) Retinoic acid
e)E 1502. Vitamin A is stored mainly as retinol esters in -
1489. Which of the following acts as cofactor after it's a) Kidney b)Muscle (AIIMSNOV05)
modification- (PGI OJ) c) Liver d) Retina
a) Vtt-C b) Pantothenic acid 1503. Both Vitamin K and Care involved in- (AI 05)
c) Biotin d) Zinc a) The synthesis of clotting factors
e) Copper b) Post translational modifications
1490. Conversion of glycine to serine requires- (PGI 02) c) Antioxidant mechanisms
a) Folic acid b) Thiamine d) The microsomal hydroxylation reactions
c) Vtt. C d) Fe 2+ 1504. Vitamin B 12 acts as co-enzyme to which one of
e) Pyridoxal phosphate the following enzymes- (AI 06)
1491. During the formation of hydroxyproline and a) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
hydroxylysine, the essential factors required is/ b) Homocysteine methyl transferase
are- (PGI03) c) Glycogen synthase
a) Pyridxal phosphate d) G-6-P dehydrogenase
b) Ascorbic acid 1505. All of the following enzymes are regulated by
c) Thiamine pyrophosphate calcium or calmodulin, except- (AI 06)
d) Methylcobalamine a) Adenylate cyclase b) Glycogen synthase
1492. The pyruvate utilization in tissues is decreased in - c) Guanylyl cyclase d) Hexokinase
a) Pemicious anemia b) Scurvy (UP SC 02) 1506. Amino acid involved in 1 carbon metabolism-
c) Beriberi d) Pellagra a) Folic acid (PGI June 06)
1493. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of b) Thiamine
the following except- (AI 03) c) Pyridoxine
a) Food faddist b) Homocystinemia 1507. Consumption of raw egg may lead to deficiency of-
c) Chronic alcoholic d) Chronic heart failure a) Biotin b) Riboflavin ( COMED 06)
1494. The acitivity of the following enzyme is affected c) Thiamine d) Avidin
by biotin deficiency- (AIIMS 03) 1508. Principle function of cyanocobalamine is-
a) Transketolase b) Dehydrogenase a) Post translational carboxylation of protein
c) Oxidase d) Carboxylase b) Acts as coenzymes for methionine synthase and
1495. Not seen in thaimine deficiency- (APPG 03) L methyl melonyl CoA synthase
a) Cerebellar dysfunction b) Amnesia c) A coenzyme for one carbone transfer in nucleic
c) Confabulation d) Nystagmus acid metabolism
1496. Which ofthe following combinations of biologically d) A cofactor for decarboxylase ofketoacid
active molecules does vitamin A consists of- 1509. Pyridoxine in required as co-factor in all, except-
a) Retinol, retinal and retinoic acid (AIIMS 04) a) Transamination (PGMCET07)
b) Retinol, retinal and tetrahydrofolate b) Transketolation
c) Retinol, Iconjugase and retinoic acid c) Glycogen phosphonylase
d) PABA, retinal and retinaldehyde d) Decarboxylation
1497. Allareantixidantsexcept- (HPU05) 1510. Vitamin A intoxication causes injury to-
a) VItA b)VitC a) Lysosomes (Aiims May 07)
c) VitD d)VitE b) Mitochondria
1498. Tryptophan load test helps in the evaluation of c) Endoplasmic reticulum
deficiency ofthe Vitamin- (MAHE 05) d) Microtubules
a) Folic acid b) Niacinamide 1511. Active form of vitamin Dis- (Aiims May 07)
c) Pyridoxine d) Cyanocobolamine a) Cholecalciferol b) 24, 25 (OH)2 vit-D
1499. Diagnosis offolic acid deficiency is done by- c) 1,25(0H) 2 vit-D d)25-0Hvit-D
a) FIGLU estimation (MAHE 05) 1512. Vitamin which is excreted in urine is-
b) Peripheral blood smears a) VitaminA b)VitaminC (AiimsMay07)
c) AICARestimation c) VitaminD d)VitaminK
d) All the above 1513. Thiamine pyrophosphate is coenzyme required for-
1500. FoUowing Vitamin Prevents Peroxidation of lipids a) Branched- chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex
of cellular level- (Orissa 05) b) 2 - hydroxyphytanoyl- CoA lyase (MAHE 07)
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Transketolase
c) VitaminE d) VitaminK d) All of the above
1488)a,d 1489)b 1490)a 149I)b 1492)c 1493)b 1494)d 1495)a 1496)a 1497)c 1498)b 1499)d ISOO)c
ISOI)b 1502)c 1503)b 1504)b ISOS)d 1506)a 1507)a 1508)c 1509)b ISIO)a 15ll)c 1512)b 1513)d
1514. Thiamine deficiency, the thiamine level is best 1526. Which coenzyme is responsible for carboxylation
monitored by- (UP 07, 05) reaction? (AIIMS Nov 08)
a) Tansketolase level in serum a) Biotin b)FAD
b) Transketolase level in RBC c) NADH d) Thiamine pyrophosphate
c) Transaminase level in serum 1527. Panthothenic acid is coenzyme of which of the
d) Trans aminase level in RBC following reaction (s)- (PGI Dec 08)
1515. Biotin deficiency is due to- (UP 07) a) Dehydrogenation b) Oxidation
c) Decarboxylation d) Reduction
a) Avidin b) Flavoproteins
e) Acetylation
c) Metallo flavoproteins d) Oxireductase
1528. Initiation of visual impulse is associated with-
1516. Vitamin K is required for- (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Condensation of opsin with vitamin A aldehyde
a) Hydroxylation b) Chelation b) Photoisomerization and hydrolysis of visual
c) Transamination d) Carboxylation purple (AI 09)
1517. Which of the following is a Water soluble Vitamin? c) .tNADP
a) Folic acid b) VitaminA (AI08) d) .tNAD
c) VitaminK d) Linolenic acid 1529. Thiamin requirement increases in excessive intake
1518. Which vitamin is required for carboxylation of of- (AIIMSMay 09)
clotting factors? (AI 08} a) Carbohydrate b)Amino acid
a) VitaminA b)VitaminD c) Fat d) Lecithine
c) Vitamin£ d)VitaminK 1530. Overdose of vitamin A mainly affects.::------,,---
1519. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy a) Cytosol (Maharashtra 10)
production because- (Aiims May 08) b) Mitochondria
a) It is required for the process of transamination c) Lysosome
b) It is co-factor in oxidative reduction d) Cell membrance
c) It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose 1531. Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic
phosphate pathway acidosis? (AIIMS Nov 10)
d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase a) Riboflavin b) Thiamin
c) Niacin d) Panthotheic acid
1520. Diarrhea, Dementia and Dermatitis are seen in
1532. Vitamin K is involved in post translation modification
deficiency of- (Manipal 08)
of- (AI 11)
a) Niacin b) Thiamine
a) Glutamate b) Aspartate
c) Riboflavin d) Folic acid
c) Lysine d) Proline.
1521. Thiamine deficiency causes- (Manipal 08)
1533. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy
a) Wernickie psychosis b) Pellagra
production because- (AI 11)
c) Scurvy d) Night blindness
a) It is required for the process of transamination
1522. Thiamine pyrophosphate is coenzyme required for- b) It is co-factor for oxidative reduction
a) a-Ketoglutarate~ Succinyl COA (Manipal 08) c) It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose
b) Transketolase phosphate pathway.
c) Pyruvate~ Lactate d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and
d) All the above a- ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in Tricarboxylic
1523. Post-translational modification of clotting factors acid pathway.
requires- (DPGEE 08) 1534. Homocystinuria is caused by deficiency of-
a) VitaminA b)VitaminB a) Riboflavin b) Biotin (PUNJAB 11)
c) Vitamin£ d) Vitamin K c) Pyridoxine d) Thiamine
1524. Which of the following statement about thiamine is 1535. Conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA does not
true? (AIIMS Nov 08) require- (PUNJAB 11)
a) It is a co-enzyme of lactate dehydrogenase a) Thiamine b)TPP
b) Its deficiency is associated with scurvy c) Pyridoxine d) FAD
c) Its co-enzyme function is done by thiamine 1536. Which water soluble vitamin is synthesized in the
monophosphate body? (PUNJAB 11)
d) It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and a) Thiamine b) Vitamin C
a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine
1525. Carboxylation of clotting factors by vitamin K is 1537. Hypervitaminosis-A present with all except-
required to be biologically active. Which of the a) Hyperlipidemia (Jipmer 10)
following amino acid is carboxylated? b) Alopecia
a) Histidine b) Histamine (AIIMS Nov 08) c) Pseudotumor carebri
c) Glutamate d) Aspartate d) Hyperstosis
1514)b 1515)a 1516)d 1517)a 1518)d 1519)d 1520)a 1521)a 1522)d 1523)d 1524)d 1525)c 1526)a 1527)e
1528)b 1529)a 1530)c 153l)b 1532)a 1533)d 1534)c 1535)c 1536)c 1537)d
1538. Manifestations of Vitamin E deficiency does not 1551. Pantothenic acid is needed for donating the following
include- (Jipmer 11) moiety- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Hemolysis a) Acetyl (or acyl) Co A
b) Testicular atrophy b) Carboxyl
c) Neurological involvement c) Hydroxyl
d) Thrombocytopenia d) Amino
1539. Thiamin status of an individual can be detected by 1552. Mostpotentantioxidant- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
activity of which of the following enzymes in
a) VitA b) Vit K
erythrocytes? (Corned 10)
c) VitE d) Vit C
a) Transaldolase b) Glucose-6-phosphatase
c) Transketolase d) Enolase 1553. Which of the following is a canstituent of vitamin
1540. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of which vitamin- B12 - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) B2 b) B3 (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Iodine b) Zinc
c) B1 d) Folic acid c) Cobalt d) Iron
1541. Which ofthe following is not an antioxidant- 1554. Coenzyme form of pyridoxine is-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Beta carotene b) Vit C (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) ADP b)NAD
c) Vit E d) Vit Bt c) PLP d)FAD
1542. Carboxylation is governed by -(NEETIDNB Pattern) 1555. B 12 is needed in which step of folate
a) Biotin b) Niacin synthesis - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Thiamine d) Pyridoxine a) Tetrahydrofolate to folinic acid
1543. Ascorbic acid is required for synthesis of- b) Methyl tetrahydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate
a) Phenylserine (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Formyl tetrahydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate
b) Homoserine d) Methylene tetrahydrofolate to
c) Hydroxylysine
methyltetrahydrofolate
d) Selenocysteine
1556. Methylmalonyl aciduria is seen in deficiency of-
1544. Which vitamins are synthesised by intestinal
a) VitB12 b) Vit B6 (NEET/DNB Pattern)
bacteria ? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) VitC d) Folic acid
a) Vit K and D b) Vit K and B
1557. Vit Blis a cofactor for- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Vit K and H (biotin) d) Vit K and E
a) Transketolase b) Transaldolase
1545. What is function oflntrinsic Factor- (NEET IDNB
a) Increases cobalamin absorption Pattern)
c) Aldolase A d) AldolaseB
b) Increases folate absorption 1558. Transketolase activity is seen with which
c) Converts prothrombin to thrombin vitamin- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Converts fibrinogen to fibrin a) VitBl b)VitB2
1546. Role of Vitamin K for activation in clotting cycle- c) VitB3 d) Vit B4
a) Carboxylation (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1559. Pyridoxine helps in generation of which coenzyme-
b) Hydroxylation a) FAD b) ATP (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Transamination c) NAD d) None
d) Deamination 1560. Menadione is an analogue of- (NEETIDNBPattern)
1547. Which of the following is not an a) VitaminC b)VitaminA
antioxidant - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K
a) SOD b) Vitamin A 1561. Which vitamin is required for transfer oft-carbon
c) Gluthione peroxidase d) Xanthine oxidase unit- (NEETIDNBPattern)
1548. The role of vitamin Kin epoxide cycle is - a) Vitamin A b) Folic acid
a) Carboxylation of glucatamate(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Vitamin B 12 d ) Niacin
b) Dehydrogenation of glucatamate 1562. Scurvy is due to deficiency of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Carboxylation of glutamate a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin A
d) Dehydrogenation of aspartate c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin E
1549. Whichvitaminisrequiredforhydroxylationofproline- 1563. Diagnosis of vitamin B1 deficiency is made by-
a) A b)B (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Thiamine level (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) C d) D b) Transketolase activity
1550. In humans, ascorbic acid cannot be synthesized c) Carboxylase activity
because of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Transaminase activity
a) DeficiencyofG6PD 1564. Which vitamin deficiency causes glossitis and
b) Deficiency of xylulose kinase cheilosis - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Deficiency ofL-gulonolactone oxidase a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin
d) Deficiency of phosphoglucomutase c) Folic acid d) Vitamin A
1538)d 1539)c 1540)b 154l)d 1542)a 1543)c 1544)b>c 1545)a 1546)a 1547)d 1548)c 1549)c 1550)c
155l)a 1552)c 1553)c 1554)c 1555)b 1556)a 1557)a 1558)a 1559)c 1560)d 1561)b 1562)a 1563)b 1564)b
1565. 25 hydroxylation of vitamin D occurs- (NEETIDNB 1578. The serine proteases are all except-(AIIMS 82AI 89)
a) Skin b) Liver Pattern) a) Elastase b) Chymotrypsin
c) Kidney d) Spleen c) Trypsin d) Pepsin
1566. Only vitamin that help in carbon fnation- (NEETI 1579. The brush border bound hydrolase linked with
a) Folic acid b) Pantotheinc acid DNB Pattern) sucrase is - (AIIMS 82, A.l. 89)
c) Niacin d) Thiamine a) Alpha dextrinase b) Glucose hydrolase
1567. Vitamin E is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Trehalase d) Alpha fructase
a) Anticoagulant b) Coagulant 1580. The enzyme primarily responsible for protein
c) Antioxidant d) Antiinflammatory degradation in stomach is- (AI 91)
1568. Vitamin B6 deficiency cause increased oxcretion a) Trypsin b) Pepsin
of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Chymotrypsin d) Endopeptidase
a) Methylmalonyl CoA 1581. Which is not an endopeptidase- (Jipmer 92)
b) Xanthurenic acid a) Trypsin b) Pepsin
c) Branched cheun keto acids c) Chymotrypsin d) Aminopeptidase
d) Ketore Bodies 1582. Dietary fibre is rich in- (AIIMS 92)
1569. Which ofthe following is a Fat Soluble vitamin- a) Starch b) Pectin
a) Thiamine b) Niacine (NEETIDNB c) Collagen d) Proteoglycan
c) Vitamin A d) Ribaflavin Pattern) 1583. Zinc is a component of the following
1570. Vitamin required for collagen synthesis - except- (ROHTAK 87)
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C (NEETIDNB
a) Hexokinase b) Carbonic anhydrase
c) Thiamine d) Folic acid Pattern)
c) Insulin d) Carboxypeptidase
1571. Decarboxylation reactions require- (NEETIDNB 1584. Rennin is present in- (AMC 86, 89)
a) Riboflavin b) Thiamine a) Liver b) Kidney
c) Niacin d) Biotin c) Stomach d) Testes
1572. In folic acid deficiency which of the following is 1585. Which of the following is not a trace element-
excreted in urine- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Zn b) Cu (AIIMS 80, Delhi 86)
a) Kynurenine b) Xantheurenic acid c) Selenium d) Ca++
c) FlGLU d) Methylmalonate 1586. Ferritin an inactive form ofiron is stored in-
1573. Which ofthe following is rate limiting step- a) Gut b) Spleen (AMC 82; Delhi
a) 25 hydroxylation of vitamin D (NEETIDNB c) Liver d) All of the above 83, 87)
b) 24 hydroxylation of vitamin D Pattern) 1587. Tea and coffee contains- (Delhi 88)
c) 1 hydroxylation of vitamin D a) Tannin b)Zinc
d) None c) Amino acids d) Lactate
1574. Post translation carboxylation of clotting factors 1588. Iron overload- (PGI 84)
requires- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Cannot occur because very efficient excretory
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin K mechanism are available
c) VitaminA d)VitaminD b) Occur in a deficiency of ferroxidase I
1575. Which of the following in not a form of vitamin D- c) Would be accompanied by an increase in total
a) Cholecalceferol b) Calcifediol (NEETIDNB serum transferrin
c) Ergosterol d) Calcitriol Pattern) d) Might be caused by an ingestion of large
1576. Which ofthe following is a provitamin- amounts of iron alongwith alcohol
a) Ascorbic acid (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1589. pHismaximumin- (JIPMER 80)
b) Vitamin-E a) Pancreatic secretion b) Intestinal secretions
c) ~-carotene c) Salivary secretions d) Gastric secretion
d) Vitamin-K 1590. Alpha amylase acts on which bond- (AI 96)
a) Alpha 1-4 bond b)Alpha 1-6
NUTRITION & DIGESTION c) Beta 1-4 d) Beta 1-6
1591. All the following are trace elements required by
1577. Vit. B12 is absorbed in the- (JIPMER 85,NIMHANS body except- (TN 97)
a) Stomach 86, Kerala 87, 90) a) Zinc b) Copper
b) Duodenum c) Selenium d) Boron
c) Lowerjejunum 1592. Ferritin stores are present in following sites
d) Proximal ileum except- (JIPMER '98)
e) Terminal ileum a) Intestine b) Liver
c) Spleen d) Bone
1565)b 1566)a 1567)c 1568)b 1569)c 1570)b 1571)b 1572)c 1573)c 1574)b 1575)c 1576)c 1577)e 1578)d
1579)a 1580)b 1581)d 1582)b 1583)a 1584)c 1585)d 1586)d 1587)a 1588)d 1589)a 1590)a 1591)d
1592)None
1593. Glutathione peroxidase contains- (Orissa R, AI 98, 1606. Which of the following is a non-essential metal/
a) Selenium b) Iron 96, TN 04) mineral? (AIIMS Nov 1 0)
c) Zinc d) Copper a) Sodium b) Manganese
1594. Zinc is an essential component of the following c) lro!J. d) Lead
enzymes except- (Kerala 2K) 1607. Toxicity of ethanolis due to- (Jipmer 11)
a) Carbonic anhydrase b) Alkaline phosphate a) Increased NADH/NAD ratio
c) Xanthine oxidase d) Ethanol dehydrogenase b) Decreased lactate/Pyruvate ratio
e) Carboxypeptidase c) Inhibition of gluconeogenesis
1595. Absorption offats is associated with all except- d) Stimulation of fatty acid oxidation
a) Pancreatic lipase b) Co lipase (PGI 02) 1608. Which of the following trace elements is important
c) Gastric lipase d) Bilirubin for conversion of procollagen to collagen -
e) Bile salts a) Se b) Cu (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1596. Zinc acts as co-factor in- (PGI 02) c) Zn d) Mg
a) Lactate dehydrogenase 1609. The pyruvate utilization in tissues is decreased
b) Carbonic anhydrase in - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Glutathione peroxidase a) Pernicious anemia b) Scurvy
d) Alkaline phosphatase c) Beriberi d) Pellagra
e) Superoxide dismutase 1610. Which ofthe following is not a micronutrient-
1597. Ceruloplasmin has the activity of- (Jipmer 03) a) Iodine b) Iron (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Hydrolase b) Enolase c) Glucose d) Iron
c) Aminotransferase d) Ferroxidase r
1611. Conversion ofFe+2 to 3 reaction is called-
1598. Which of the following elements is known to a) Haber weiss reaction (NEETIDNB Pattern)
influence the body's ability to handle oxidative stress- b) Fenton's reaction
a)Calcium b)lron (AI04) c) Nemst reaction
c) Potassium d) Selenium d) Donnan reaction
1599. Best indicator ofiron deficiency- (Jipmer 04)
a) Serum iron b) Serum ferritin MISCELLANEOUS
c) TlBC d) Transferrin
1600. Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result 1612. Enzyme deficient in Marfans syndrome is-
of a defect in- (AI 04) a) Cystanthione B synthetase (AIIMS 87, PGI86
a) DNA polymerase III b) DNA polymerase II b) Elastase type II AI88)
c) DNA exonuclease d) DNA ligase c) Lysyl oxidase
1601. Dietary fibre contain- (UP 08) d) Collagenase
a) Collagen b) Pectin e) None of the above
c) Proteoglycans d) Starch 1613. Abnormal constituents of urine are-
1602. Which ofthe following vitamins deficiency occurs a) Ketone (PGI 87, UPSC86, AP 86)
in exclusively in carnivores- (UP 08) b) Glucose c) B2 globulin
a) Thiamine b) Niacin d) Creatinine e) Urea
c) Cobalamine d)VitaminC 1614. Amount of proteins excreted in urine/24 hours -
1603. Which ofthe following is considered the active form a) Less than 150mg b) 200 mg (PGI 87)
of calcium- (AI 08) c)225mg d)450mg
a) Ionised calcium e)800mg
b) Albumin bound calcium 1615. The following is not a carrier protein - (AP 88)
c) Phosphate bound calcium a) Ceruloplasmin b) Transferrin
d) Protein bound calcium c) Transcobalamine d) Haptoglobulin
1604. Which of the following plant components is not 1616. Abormal urinary constituents are- (PGI 89)
fermented by gastrointestinal microorganisms- a) Albumin b) Amino acid
a) Lignin b) Cellulose (AI 09) c) Creatinine d) Ketone
c) Hemicellulose d) Pectin e) Glucose
1605. Menkes Kinky hair syndrome is characterized by 1617. Physiological constituents of urine- (PGI 86)
congenital deficiency of- (Maharashtra 10) a) Urea b) Sugar
a) Serum ceruloplasmin c) Albumin d) Creatinine
b) Serum copper 1618. Myocardium normally utilises - (A./90)
c) Ferochelatase a) Glucose b) Lactose
d) Copper binding ATPase c) Fatty acid d) Ketones
1593)a 1594)c 1595)d 1596)a,b,d,e 1597)d 1598)d 1599)b 1600)d 160l)b 1602)d 1603)a 1604)a 1605)d
1606)d 1607)a 1608)b 1609)c 1610)c 16ll)b 1612)e 1613)a,b,c 1614)a 1615)Noneora 1616)a,d,e 1617)a,d
1618)c
1619. The cellular organelle that stores peroxidases is- 1634. The effect of2,4 dinitrophenol is to- (PGI 87)
a) Lysozomes b)Peroxisome (AJ91) a) LowerBMR b)RaiseR.Q.
c) Microsomes d) Mitochandria c) LowerR.Q. d) Decrease H. gradient
1620. True blood sugar level measures the levels 1635. The freezing point of normal human plasma is-
of- (JIPMER 92) a) 40C b)0°C
a) Glucose b) Frutose c) -0.54°C d) -4°C
c) Glucose and Ribose d) A+ B 1636. Xeroderma pigementosum, a rare skin disease is
1621. Skeletal muscle in comparison to Heart mnscle due to an autosomai recessive trait which causes a
bas- (AIIMS 80, PGI 87) deficiency of- (NIMHANS 86)
a) High phospholipid b) High cholesterol a) DNA polymerase
c) Low creatine d) High carnosine b) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
1622. Hemoglobinuria is detected by- (TN 91) c) DNA ligase
a) Presence ofRBC's on microscopy d) A specific DNA endonuclease
b) Spectrophotometry 1637. Which of the following is not a major reaction
c) Nitric acid test occuring in the bepatocytes- (AIIMS 87)
d) Fauchet's test a) Bile pigment synthesis
1623. Infant's gastric juice pH is -(AIIMS 94, Kerala 88) b) Esterification of cholesterol
a) 1.4 b) 2.1 c) Transamination
c) 5.0 d) 7.0 d) Glycogenolysis
1624. Anticoagulant used for preserving blood for protbro 1638. Myoglobin bas molecular weight of ..... -
-mbin time estimation is- (AIIMS 86,Delhi 82) a) 12,600 b) 16,800 (AIIMS 79, PGI 83)
a) Heparin b) Sodillin citrate c) 18,200 d)24,200
c) Double Oxalate d) Na 1639. ImmolofNaClcontains- (UPSC 81, 84)
1625. Excess of indican in urine is present in -(AIIMS 86) a) 35.5 g b) 58.3 g
a) Severe constipation b) Gangrene of lung c) 35.5mg d)58.3mg
c) Cholera d) Any of the above 1640. Bi-Urate testis mainly done for- (AIIMS 87)
a) Carbohydrate b) Protein
1626. Which of the following is not a correct Match-
c) Lipids d) Any ofthe above
a) Murexide test- Uric acid (AIIMS 83, 85)
1641. Endoplasmic reticulum is not permeable to-
b) Jaff's test- Creatinine
a) Malate b) Phenylpyruvate (Delhi82, 90)
c) Rothera's test- Acetone bodies
c) Glycopyrrote d) Triacylglycerol
d) Ehrlich's aldehyde test- Urobilinogen
1642. The blood concentration ofH2C03 (meq/L) is-
e) Fourchettest- bile a) 5 b) 15
1627. Ergotbioneineismainlyfoundin- (PGI 83) c) 20 d)50
a) RBC's b) Muscle 1643. Half saturation testis done for -(AIIMS 81,AMU 87)
c) Brain d) Testes a) Albumin b) Globulin
1628. Prostaglandins- (PGI 86, Kam 89) c) Fibrin d) Prothrombin
a) Increase irritability of nerve tissue 1644. The brain contains relatively high amounts of all
b) Synthesized from oleic acid of the following except- (AIIMS 83)
c) Are acyclic fatty acid derivatives a) Glutamine
d) Cause hypertension b) N-acetylaspartate
1629. All of the following are present in sweat except- c) Gamma-aminobulyricacid(GABA)
a) Calcium b) Lactic acid (AIIMS 94) d) Glycogen
c) Urea d) Uric acid e) Proteolipid
1630. Normaldiastaticindexis- (AIIMS 81) 1645. Urinary specific gravity in a new born is-
a) 7-33.3 b)31.3-51.2 a) 1.004-1.005 b) 1.005-1.007 (NIMHANS86)
c) 51.2-71.3 d) 71.3-93.1 c) 1.007-1.010 d) 1.010-1.020
1631. Indicaninurineistestedby- (AIIMS 84) 1646. The mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is
a) Ehrlich's aldehyde test b) Obemeyer's test foundprimarilyin- (DNB 89)
c) Hay's test d) Fouchet's test a) Cartilage
1632. Actin, a muscle protein of molecular weight... exists b) Mast cells
in two forms- (PGI 81, AMU 85) c) Outer layers of epidermis
a) 50,000A,B b)50,000C,D d) Vitreous humour of the eye
c) 60,000F,G d)60,000C,D 1647. The anticoagulant normally present in animal cell-
1633. Etheral su pbates are mainly excreted in- a) VitaminK b) Heparin (PGI 85)
a) Sweat b) Tears (PGI 85) c) Hyaturonidase d)Dicumarol
c) Urine d) Faeces e) None of the above
1619)? 1620)d 162l)d 1622)b 1623)c 1624)b 1625)d 1626)b 1627)a 1628)a 1629)d 1630)a 163l)b
1632)None 1633)c 1634)d 1635)c 1636)d 1637)a 1638)b 1639)d 1640)b 164l)b 1642)d 1643)b 1644)d
1645)a 1646)d 1647)b
1648. Benedict reagent can detect minimum of Glucose- 1663. Lamininispresentin- (AI95)
a) 0.001% b) 0.02% (JIPMER 79, DNB 88) a) Basement membrane
c) 0.1% d)0.3% b) Inner nuclear membrane
1649. The most important buffer in extracellular fluid is- c) Outer nuclear membrane
a) Hemoglobin b) Protein (AJIMS 83, 85, d) Mitochondria
c) Phosphate d)H20/IIC02 Delhi 85) 1664. The normal specific gravity of urine is- (TN95)
1650. The earliest sign of impaired renal tubular a) 1.005-1.015 b) 1.015-1.020
function is- (AIIMS 87) c) 1.030-1.040 d) None
a) Specific gravity 1665. Urinary protein is detected by- (AI 96)
b) Dilution test
a) Barfoed test b) Hay's test
c) Osmolality determination
c) Boiling test d) Ehrlich test
d) Free water clearance
1666. Which is correct about intracellular fluid-
1651. S.G ofwhole blood is- (AIIMS 87)
a) Amount less than ECF (Assam 95)
a) 1.025-1-1.035 b) 1.035-1.045
c) 1.045-1.065 d) 1.065-1.075 b) Amount more than ECF
1652. Colour index of blood is- (AIIMS 86) c) Amount equal to ECF
a) 0.1-0.5 b)0.6-0.9 d) 70% of total body weight
c) 0.9-1.0 d)l.0-1.2 1667. Keratin is chemically- (Assam 95)
1653. Addis urine sediment count is a renal- a) Leucine b) Cystine
a) Diagnostic test (AIIMS 81, 84) c) Lithium d) None of the above
b) Therapeutic test 1668. True about prostaglandins is- (AMU 95)
c) Test of severity of disease a) Short acting
d) All of the above b) Present in many tissues
1654. Which is the total energy expenditure for protein c) Some require C-AMP for their action
synthesis per day as a percent of basal metabolism d) All the true
in humans- (AIIMS 86, AMC 89) 1669. Liver doesn'tsynthesise- (UP 97)
a) 5% b) 15% a) Fibrinogen b) Prothrombin
c) 30 d)40% c) Alurnin d)Gammaglobulin
e) 500/o 1670. In which parameter monitoring urine sample is
1655. Sehlesingar's test is done to detect- (AIIMS 82) prevented from such exposure to prevent photo
a) Bile pigment b) Hemoglobinuria degradation- (JIPMER 98)
c) Urobilinogen d) Urobilin a) Creatin b) Carotein
1656. Modified koopanyi method is used to estimate c) Cortisol d) Uric acid
in urine- (PGI 81, AMU 84) 1671. Guaiac testis used for- (KARNAT. 98)
a) Bromide b) Galactose a) Pentosuria b) Fructosuria
c) Cystine d) Barbiturates c) Hematuria d) Pancreatitis
1657. Daily Excretion ofiron in urine is (JIPMER 79, 1672. Most important compensatory mechanism in
a) Nil b)O.Ol-0.04mg AMU85) metabolic acidosis- (ROTHAK 97)
c) 00.06-0.1 mg d) 0.1-0.8 mg a) Hyperventilation
1658. Winslow test is used to estimate serum or urinary- b) Increased NH3 excretion by kidneys
a) Calcium b) Chloride (AIIIMS 80, 81) c) Increased urinary phosphates
c) Amylase d) Lipase d) Increased HC03 production
1659. Gerhardt's test is positive in significant degree of- e) None
a) Hematuria b) Ketosis (AJIMS 85) 1673. Which is true regarding nitric oxide in human
c) Bilirubinuria d) Pancreatitis beings- (AI 99)
1660. Mature erythrocyte possesses- (Kerala 98) a) Produced from nitrous oxide
a) Lecithin b) Ganglioside b) Produced only in macrophage
c) Hemoglobine d)ATP c) Potent vasoconstrictor
e) All ofthe above d) Potent vasodilator effect
1661. The following are crystals of a abnormal urine 1674. lronstainingiswith- (TN 2001)
except- (PGI 81, 83) a) H-E stain b) Prussian blue
a) Leucine b) Tyrosine c) Giemsa stain d) Romanovsky stain
c) Cholesterin d) None of the above 1675. Which Amino acid can proteinate and
1662. Sulkowitch test is used to estimate of- (DNB 89) deproteinate at neutral pH is- {AIIMS 92)
a) Serum calcium b) Urinary calcium a) Serine b) Proline ·
c) Urinary 5 HIAA d) Acetone c) Glycine d) Histidine
1648)c 1649)d 1650)a 1651)c 1652)c 1653)c 1654)b 1655)d 1656)d 1657)c 1658)c 1659)b 1660)e 1661)c
1662)b 1663)a 1664)b 1665)c 1666)b 1667)b 1668)d 1669)d 1670)b 167l)c 1672)b 1673)d 1674)b 1675)d
1676. BaseStackingof DNAisby· (AIIMS92) 1690. The feature o Enzyme cascade system is-
a) Hyperchromicity b) Linear dichromicity a) Amplification (AIIMS 92)
c) Hypochromicity d) Electrophoresis b) Allostearic inhibition
1677. The physiologically important anion other than c) Feed back regulation
chloride is- (AIIMS 93) d) Counterregulation
a) Nitrate b) Phosphate 1691. In exercising muscle; true about metabolism is-
c) Bicarbonate d) Sulphate a) Same in aerobic and anaerobic (PGI 98)
1678. MarkerofGolgi apparatus- (A/95) b) Fatty acids used mainly
a) Galactosyl transferase c) Glycogen and creatine kinase used aerobically
b) Acetyl CoA synthase 1692. Melatonin is- (NIMHANS OJ)
c) Pyruvate kinase a) Serotonergic b) Dopaminergic
d) Malonyl Co A c) Adrenergic d) Estrogenic
1679. Most important intracellular anion is- (PGI 95) 1693. Iron is stored in the body in the following except-
a) Proteins b)HC03- a) R.E system b) Spleen (PGI 79, Rohtak 88)
c) cr- d) None c) Gall bladder d) Bone marrow
1680. Most diffusible ion in excitable tissue is- 1694. The state ofiron responsible for 0 2 transport-
a) Na+ b) K+ (AI98) a) Fe++ b) Fe+++ (NMS 96)
c) P04- d) cl- c) Both d) None
1681. Aggrecan are- (PGI 2K) 1695. Hemoglobin unlike myoglobin shows- (PGI 98)
a) Meant for platelet aggregation a) Parabolic curve of oxygen association
b) for adhesion of cells to basement membrane b) Positive cooperativity
c) For adhesion of fibrinogen receptors to platets c) Cooperativeindexof81
d) Proteoglycan found in cartilage d) Hill's cofficient of 1
1682. Energy of the brain starvation is form- (AI 88) 1696. Carbon monoxide combines with- (Calcutta 2K)
a) Glucose b) Ketones a) Heme part ofhemoglobin
c) Fatty acids d) Amino acids b) Glubin part of hemoglobin
c) Myglobin
1683. Levostatinactsby- (AIIMS 92)
d) Plasma
a) Metabolising cholesterol
1697. Hydroxylation of Lysine & Proline in collagen
b) HMG Co A reductase inhibition
synthesis requires all except- (All India 97)
c) Inhibiting mevalonate Kinase
a) Dioxygenase b) Ascorbate
d) Inhibition of Cholesterol absorption c) Pyridoxal phosphate d) 0 2
1684. Which is not encountered in HMG Co A pathway- 1698. One ofthe following is due to point mutation-
a) Cholesterol b) Mevalonate (PGI 93) a) Color blindness (JIPMER 80,92)
c) Acetyl Co A d) Pyruvate b) Sickle cell anemia
1685. The number of ATP molecules generated in the c) Diabetes mellitus
conversion of glycogen to lactate is- (PGI 93) d) Porphyria
a) 2 b)l4 1699. Gene mapping for segments larger than 50-100
c) 36 d)38 kilobases is done by- (PGI 98)
1686. A sprinter utilises in the first 3 to 4 minutes of a a) RFLP b)SSCP
race- (TN 97) c) Picking d) Chromosome walking
a) Creatinine Phosphate b) Muscle glycogen 1700. Glucose is indispensible source of energy for-
c) Blood glucose d) None of the above a) Muscle b) Kidney (JIPMER 95)
1687. The poison cyanide inhibits the reaction between- c) Heart d) Erythrocytes
a) Cytochrome oxidase and molecular oxygen 1701. Orange colour of the urine is associated
b) CytochromeAandcytochromeB (CUPGEE02) with- (JIPMER 92)
c) Phosphofructokinase and glucose oxidase a) Jaundice b) Diabetes insipidus
d) Haemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin c) Urobilinogen d) Alkaptonuria
1688. Gluconeogenesis is promoted by- (AI 97) 1702. Green colouration on Benedict's quantitative test
a) Insulin b) Calcitonin implies- (BIHAR 90)
a) Negative test
c) Gl d)LH
b) Sugar less than 05%
1689. Cyanide posoning affects function- (PGI 88)
c) Sugar between 05-1%
a) Respiratory b) Cardiac
d) Sugarbetween 1-2%
c) Renal d) Liver
e) Sugar over 2%
1676)a 1677)c 1678)a 1679)a 1680)d 1681)d 1682)a,b 1683)b 1684)d 1685)a 1686)b 1687)a 1688)c
1689)a 1690)c 1691)c 1692)a 1693)c 1694)a 1695)b 1696)a,c1697)c 1698)b 1699)d 1700)d 1701)None
1702)b
1703. Trace element in carbonic anhydrase is- 1715. The porphyrin present in normal erythrocyte
a) Copper b) Molybdenum (JIPMER 90) haemoglobin is- (PGI 81, AIIMS 87)
c) Zinc d) Magnesium a) Coproporphyrin I b) Uroporphyrin III
1704. DNAmeltingrefersto- (AIIMS 98) c) Protoprophyrin III d) Uroporphyrin I
a) Splitting of DNA into single strands 1716. Black Urine is seen in- (UPSC 87)
b) Breaking DNA into fragments a) Bilirubinuria b) Black water fever
c) Breaking DNA down to bases c) Melanuria d) Alkaptonuria
d) Fusion of DNA e) All
1705. RFLP is used to identify- (PGI 2002) 1717. Green urine is seen in- (UPSC 87)
a) Sickle cell anaemia b) B thalassemia trait a) Bilirubinuria b) Oxalate poisoning
c) Von Gierke's disease d) Gilbert's disease c) Pneumonia d) Pleural effusion
e) Phenylketonuria 1718. On a normal diet, the daily excretion of urea is
1706. Child ofVasanthi, was weaned from breast milk on about- (UPSC 95)
the fifth day and was given suger cane juice. The a) 0.5 gm b) 5.0 gm
child developed hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly. c) 25.0 gm d) 100.0 gm
Biochemical examination showed hypophosphatasia 1719. Acholuric jaundice is seen in- (JIPMER 98)
and reducing substances in urine. The child is a) Infective hepatitis
probably suffering from which of the following b) Hemolytic anemia
enzyme deficiencies- (AJIMS 2K) c) Ca head of pancreas
a) Aldolase B b) Fructok:inase d) Congenital atresia of bile ducts
c) Glucose 6 Phosphatase d) Beta galactosidase 1720. Hormone acting on distal convoluted tubule and
1707. Prenatal diagnosis is possible for all of following collecting tubule of kidney are- (Kerala 94)
except- (AI 96) a) Aldosterone b) Oxytocin
a) Sickle cell trait c) ADH d)Renin
b) B-thalassemia 1721. The action of insulin is primarily on- (PG/86)
c) Ectodermal dysplasia a) Muscle b) Liver
d) Duchennes muscular dystrophy c) Adrenals d) Nervous tissue
1708. Cataract in a diabetic is caused by sorbitol which e) Adipose tissue
is formed by interaction on glucose by- (AJIMS99) 1722. Enzyme deficient in diabetes mellitus
a) Glucose oxidase is - (JIPMER 79, PGI 84, A189)
b) Aldose reductase a) Glucokinase b) Hexokinase
c) NADPH dependent phosphokinase c) Phosphorylase d) Pyrophosphate
d) Hexokinase 1723. The following statement about magnesium are
1709. FIGLU determination in urine demonstrate true except- (KERALA 2K)
deficiency of- (AJIMS 88) a) It is the second most common intracellular electrolyte
a) Iron b) Vitamin B12 b) It plays a major role in glycolysis
c) Folic acid d) Pyridoxine c) Sixty percent of body magnesium is in bone
1710. The enzyme avidin inactivates .•• in the egg- d) Most ofthe intracellular magnesium is in the muscle
a) Pyriodoxine b) Riboflavin (NIMHANS 88) e) The range of serum magnesium normally is
c) Biotin d) Thiamine 15-18meq!L
1711. Micronutrients are those whose daily requirements 1724. Normal serum cholesterol level is- (AJIMS81,
is less than- (JIPMER 78, PGI 79) a) 50 to 150mg/100ml. UPSC84)
a) lOOmcg b) lOmg b) 300to350mg/100ml.
c) lOOmg d)2 gm c) 410 to 560 mg/lOOml.
1712. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect d) 20 to 30 mg/1 OOml.
of which enzyme- (JIPMER 2K) 1725. Methylmalonic aciduria is due to defect in the
a) Lysl hydroxylase b) Lysl oxidase metabolism of- (NIMHANS 01)
c) Procoilagen d) Peptidase a) Methylmalonic acid b) Valine
1713. Ferritin is the storage form of iron in -(Kerala 94) c) Lysine d)Arginine
a) Spleen b) Intestine 1726. Nitric oxide acts through- (AI2K)
c) Bone marrow d) Pancreas a) cGMP b) cAMP
1714. Thalassemia is produced by which of the c) Diacetyl glycerol d) Inositol triphosphate
following genetic changes- (PGI 2K) 1727. In sepectroscopy, necleotides absorb at 260 mm.
a) Frame shift mutations b) Non sense mutations This absorbence is due to- (PG/2002)
c) Missense mutations d) Deletions a) Purines and Pyrimidines b) Deoxribose
e) Point mutations c) Ribose d) Histone
e) Phosphate
1703)c 1704)a 1705)a,b 1706)a 1707)c 1708)b 1709)c 1710)c 1711)c 1712)a 1713)a,b,c 1714)a,b,d,e
1715)c 1716)b,c,d 1717)a 1718)c 1719)b 1720)a,c 1721)a,b,e 1722)a 1723)d,e 1724)a 1725)a 1726)a
1727)a
1728. The characteristic of collagen is presence of- e) V-oncos are identical with in humans cellular on
a) Glycine b)Methionine(DNB9J) cogenes (C-oncos)
c) Hydroxyproline d) None of the above 1739. Regarding oncogenesis- (PGI 02)
1729. In Metabolic alkalosis, which is true about a) Protooncogenes. are activated by chromosomal
excretion in urine- (PGI 97) translocation
a) More ofNH3 b) Malignant transformations involves accumulation
b) Less of aceto acetic acid of mutations in protooncogenes and tumour
c) Betahydroxy butyric acid suppressor genes
d) Less ammonia c) Point mutation of somatic cells
1730. Addition of water in C-C bond is by the enzyme- d) Increase in telomerase activity causes antitumour
a) Hydroxylase b) Dehydrogenase (PGI 98) effects
c) Hydrolase d) Hydratase e) At G2-M phase there is loss of inhibitors controlling
1731. Trueaboutnitricoxide- (PGIOJ) cell cycle
a) Free radical b) Vasodilator 1740. Cell surface molecules involve in peripheral
c) Oxidizing d) Catalyst tolerance induction are- (PGI 03)
e) Platelet aggregator a) B7 andCD28 b) CD40 andCD40L
1732. Which is common metabolic process in human c) CD34 andCD 51 d)B7 andCD 3
as well as bacteria- (PGI 0 J) 1741. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in-
a) Purine synthesis a) Sever combined immunodeficiency (PGI 03)
b) Nitrogen fixation b) Wiskot Aldrich syndrome
c) Mucolipid formation c) Agammaglobulinemia
d) Nonoxidative photophosphorylation 1742. Immunoglobulin that crosses to the fetus from
1733. Which of the following require template for it's mother- (PGI 03)
formation- (PGI OJ)
a) IgG b)lgM
c) IgD d)lgE
a) Carbohydrate b) Protein
e) lgA
c) Lipid d) Nucleic acid
1743. Cellular bearings ofherediatary diseases seen in-
e) Phospholipid
a) DNA b) Ribosome (PGI 03)
1734. Energy required for maintainenace of bodily
c) RNA d) Membrane
functions of a person weighing 40 kgs is-(PGI OJ)
e) Porteins
a) 1000 kilocalories b) 1500 kilocalories
1744. Enzyme deficiency seen in genetic diseases
c) 2000 kilocalories d) 2500 kilocalories
lib- (Pill~
e) 3500 kilocalories a) Tay sach's disease b) Gaucher's disease
1735. Complement fixation is done by- (PGI 02) c) Cystic Fibrosis d) Wilson's disease
a) IgG b)IgM e) Familial hypercholesterolemia
c) IgD d) IgA 1745. Hybridoma technique is used to obtain- (UPSC 02)
e) IgE a) Purified antibodies b) Purified antigens
1736. Bruton X-linKed agammaglobulinemia is c) Purified lymphocytes d) Purifiedmacrophages
characterised by- (PGI 02) 1746. Molisch's test is positive in all except- (Jipmer 03)
a) !edT-cell in circulation a) Mucoproteins b) Glycoproteins
b) Manifests at birth in male child c) Sucrose d) Phospholipids
c) B-cell normal in circulation 1747. Brain lipid binding protein is expressed by which
d) Mutation of gene coding tyrosine kinase oneofthefollowing- (AIIMS 03)
e) Lymphnode biopsy reveals a depletion of cells a) Mature astrocytes b) Oligodendrocytes
of bursa dependent area c) Purkinje cells d) Pyramidal neurons
1737. Dominant negative inheritance is seen in-(PGI 02) 1748. A buffer that is most effective at a pH of about 5
a) Ehler Danlos syndrome is - (AIIMS 03)
b) Marfan syndrome a) Acetate buffer b) Bicarbonate buffer
c) Hunter syndrome c) Phosphate buffer d) Tris buffer
d) Osteogenesis imperfecta 1749. Large amount ofSER are found in cells st01ing-
e) Hereditary retinoblastoma a) Lipoproteins b) Lipids (Orissa 04)
1738. Trueaboutoncogene- (PGI02) c) Glycogen d) Amino acids
a) Present in normal cell 1750. The most important source of reducing
b) They are of viral origin equivalents for fatty acid synthesis in the liver
c) They are transduced from virus infected cells is- (AIIMS04)
d) P53 is most common oncogene mutation causing a) Glycolysis b) TCA cycle
malignancy c) Uronic acid pathway d) HMP pathway
1728)c 1729)d 1730)c 173l)a,b,c,d 1732)a 1733)b,d 1734)a 1735)a,b,c,d 1736)d,e 1737)a,b,d 1738)c,d
1739)a,b,e 1740)a 1741)a 1742)a 1743)a 1744)a,b 1745)a 1746)d 1747)a 1748)a 1749)b 1750)d
1751. Biological role of metallothionens is to sequester 1763. Enzyme which is a marker for mitochondria is-
harmful metal ions. These bind- (AIIMS 04) a) Glutamate dehydrogenase (APPGE 05)
a) Cd++,Cu++&Zn++ b)AJ+++,Hg++&NH/ b) Acid phosphatase
c) Pt++, As+++ & P04 d) Fe+++, Na+ & K+ c) Alkaline phosphatase
1752. Structure of Antibodies is composed of -(SGPGI 04) d) Hexokinase
a) Single peptide chain 1764. Which of the following is NOT normally excreted
b) Two peptide chain in Urine- (APPGE 05)
a) Sodium b) HC03
c) Non sulphur aminoacid
c) Creatinine d) Uric acid
d) 2 heavy & 21ight peptidie chain
1765. Severe muscular exercise causes- (Orissa 05)
1753. Tocopherols are the derivatives of- (Kerala 04) a) Lactic acidosis b) Ketoacidosis
a) Isoprenoid ring b) Tocol c) Hypothermia d) i CPK levels
c) Sterol d) Ribitol 17 66. The predominant isozyme ofLDH in cardiac muscle
1754. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques is- (AI05)
except- (AI 04) a)LD-1 b)LD-2
a) Mass spectroscopy c) LD-3 d)LD-5
b) RIA 1767. What is the most acute effect of smoking cessation-
c) ELISA a) Shift of oxyhemoglobin curve to the right
d) Sequencing of nucleic acid b) Increased ciliary function (AIIMS May 05)
1755. A signal peptide is directed from cytoplasms to- c) Decreased mucous production
a) Nucleus b) Golgi bodies (SGPGI 05) d) Decreased incidence of post operative pneumonia
c) Lysosomes d) Endoplasmic retinaculum 1768. The long and short arms of chromosomes are
1756. Mucopolysaccharidoses are caused by- designated respectively as- (AI 06)
a) An increased rate of synthesis of proteoglycans a) p and q arms b) m and q arms
c) q and p arms d) I and s arms
b) Defects in the degradation of proteoglycans
1769. Markers of plasma membrane are- (PGI June 06)
c) The synthesis of polysaccharides with an altered
a) Galactosyl transferase b) 5- Nucleotidase
structure c) Adenyl cyclase d) ATP synthase
d) An insufficient amount of proteolytic enzymes e) Glucokinase
1757. Tartrate libile phosphatase is concentrated in the 1770. Brain fingerprinting- (PGI June 06)
following tissue- (MAHE 05) a) Used lie-detector
a) RBC b) Thyroid b) UsedbyEEGonlead
c) Prostate d) Bone c) Used for quantitative measurement of sulci, gyri
1758. Ladder pattern ofDNA electrophoresis in apoptosis d) Used by DNA
is caused by the action ofthe following enzyme- 1771. Rate limiting step in gluconeogenesis -
a) Endonuclease b) Transglutaminase a) Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphatase (PGI June 06)
c) DNAse d) Caspase (Jipmer05) b) Glucokinase
1759. Hepatic microsomal enzyme induction occurs by- c) Fructokinase
a) Located in smoothER (PGI June 05) 1772. Enzymes involved in PUPA synthesis -(PGIJune 06)
b) It's action always lead to inactivation ofxenobiotics a) Pyruvate carboxylase b) Acyl transferase
c) Causes oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis reactions c) Acetyl transferase d) Desaturase
1773. All are lysosomal disorders, except- (PGMCET 07)
d) Certain drug inactivates & certain drug enhances
a) Gaucher's disease b) Tay Sach's disease
its action
c) Neimann Pick disease d) Von Geirke's disease
1760. Professional antigen presenting cells-(PGJ June 05) 1774. Which of the following does not contain uronic
a) T-cells b) B-cells acid- (PGMCET 07)
c) Dendriticcells d)NKcell a) Heparin b) Keratin sulfate
e) Endothelial cells c) Chondroitin sulfate d) Dermatan sulfate
1761. NitricOxideSynthase- (MAHA 05) 1775. The cofactor required for the activity of Sulfite
a) Is inhibited by Ca++ oxidase is - (Comed 08)
b) Catalyzes a dioxygenase reaction a) Copper b) Selenium
c) Accepts electrons from NADH c) Molybdenum d) Zinc
d) Requires NADH, FAD, FMN & Heme iron 1776. Increased copper excretion in urine is seen in all except-
1762. Which one of the following has as one of its major a) Primary sclerosing cholangitis (Aiims May 07)
effects, the ability to inhibit platelets aggregation- b) Wilson's disease
a) LeukotrieneA4 b) Prostacyclin (MAHA 05) c) Primary biliary cirrhosis
c) Thromboxane A2 d) Prostaglandin H2 d) Hepatocellular carcinoma
175l)a 1752)d 1753)b 1754)c 1755)c 1756)b 1757)c 1758)a 1759)a,c,d 1760)c 176l)d 1762)b 1763)a
1764)b 1765)a 1766)a 1767)a 1768)c 1769)b,c 1770)b 177l)a 1772)d 1773)d 1774)b 1775)c 1776)d
1777. All take place in mitochondria except -(Aiims May 1790. Phosphatidyl choline in a lipid monolayer, at pH of
a) Fatty acid oxidation b) EMP pathway 07) 3.5leads to- (Aiims May 08)
c) Electron transport chain d) Citric acid cycle a) Decreased surface potential
1778. Which one of the enzyme deficiency is correctly b) Increased surface potential
paired ? (MAHE 07) c) Decreased dipole moment
a) Fabry's - alpha galactosidase d) Zero dipole moment
b) Gauchers- beta glucosidase 1791. True about G protein coupled receptors is-
c) Cystic fibrosis- glucosidase a) G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
d) Chronic bronchitis - alpha 1 antitirypsin b) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma
1779. Anion gap means- (MAHE 07) should bind to each other for G protein to act
a) Gap in anion molecule c) G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because
b) Difference between high and normal anion gap of difference in alpha subunit (Aiims May 08)
acidosis d) G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
c) Unmeasured ions 1792. Normal plasma osmolality is- (Manipal 08)
d) Primary deficit of anions a) 275-300rnilliosmollkg b)310-340milliosmol!kg
1780. Muscle is the major biochemical transducer c) 200-240rnilliosmollkg d) 160-180milliosmol!kg
because it- (UP 07) 1793. Fireflies produce light due to- (AIIMS Nov 08)
a) Converts potential energy into kinetic energy a) NADH b)GTP
b) Converts kinetic energy to potential energy c) ATP d) Phosphocreatinine
c) Converts thermal energy to kinetic energy 1794. Action of a-subunit of G protein is- (AIIMS Nov 08)
d) Converts thermal energy to potential energy a) Breakdown ofGTP to GDP
1781. Nephelometry is based on the principle of- b) Conversion of GDP to GTP
a) Light attenuated in intensity by scattering c) Internalization of receptors
b) Refraction oflight (AIIMS Nov 07) d) Binding of agonist
c) Reduced transmission of light
1795. Which of the following side chains is least polar-
d) Filtration of solutes by kidney
a) Methyl b) Carboxyl (AI 09)
1782. Peroxidase enzyme is used in estimating-
c) Amino d) Phosphate
a) Haemoglobin b)Ammonia (AIIMSNov07)
1796. After overnight fasting, levels of Glucose
c) Creatinine d) Glucose
transporters are reduced in- (AI 09)
1783. Molecular change in Lysosomal storage disorder
a) Braincells b) Hepatocytes
is - (AIIMS Nov 07)
c) Adipocytes d)RBCs
a) Defective fusion of lysosomes and phagosomes
1797. Acetyl CoA can be converted into all of the following
b) Increased synthesis of some substrates
c) Mutation of genes encoding lysosomal hydrolases Except- (AI 09)
d) Membrane defect of lysosomes a) Glucose b) Fatty acids
1784. All are involved in fast axonal transport, except- c) Cholesterol d) Ketone bodies
a) Kinesin b) Dynein (AIIMS Nov 07) 1798. Sickling in 'HbS' disease is primarily caused by-
c) Lysosomes d) Neurofilaments a) Decreased solubility (AI 09)
1785. Collagen of which type is found in hyaline cartilage- b) Decreased stability
a) Type I b) Type II (AIIMS Nov 07) c) Altered function
c) Type III d) Type IV d) Altered 0 2 binding capacity
1786. In sickle cell anemia, sickle shapes occurs due to 1799. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on-
polymerization of- (UP 08) a) Lean body mass (AI 09)
a) Oxyhemoglobin b) Deoxyhemoglobin b) Adipose tissue
c) Methoxyglobin d) Cyanohemoglobin c) Resting Heart rate
1787. Serum gamma glutamyl transpeptidase increase in d) Exercise
(GGT)- (UP08) 1800. Which of the following statements about
a) Hepatitis b)Alcoholism recommended dietary allowances (RDA) is true-
c) Muscular dystrophy d) Mycardial infarction a) RDA is statistically defined as two standard
1788. All of the following are trypsin inhibitors, Except- deviations (SD) above estimated average
a) Alpha- 1 antitrypsin (AI 08) requirement (EAR) (AI 09)
b) Alpha - I - antiproteinase b) RDA is defined as being equal to the estimated
c) Enterokinase average requirement (EAR)
d) Egg white c) RDA is defined as being equal to adequate intake
1789. Neutral molecules are transported by- (AI 08) (AI)
a) Porin channels b) Ionophores d) RDA is defined as the recommended minimum
c) Simple diffusion d) None of the above requirement
1777)b 1778)a 1779)c 1780)a 178l)a 1782)d 1783)c 1784)d 1785)b 1786)b 1787)b 1788)c 1789)c 1790)?
1791) c 1792) a 1793) c 1794) a 1795) a 1796) c 1797) a 1798) a 1799) a 1800) a
1801. Monoprotic acid are- (PGIJune09) 1812. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive
a) Formicacid b) Carbonic acid palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows
c) Acetic acid d) Citric acid calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding
e) Nitric acid Benedict's reagent to urine, it gives greenish brown
1802. 1-cell disease is associat~d with-(DELHIPG Feb. 09) precipitate and blue-black supernatant fluid. What.
a) Golgi apparatus b) Lysosomes is the diagnosis? (AIIMS May 10)
c) Peroxisomes d) Mitochondria a) Phenylketonuria
1803. The current view regarding self-tolerance is that b) Alkaptonuria
self antigens are presented along with nonself antigens c) Tyrosinemia type-2
but are then eliminated in the thymus during early d) Argininosuccinic aciduria
development. This is known as-(DELHI PG Feb. 09) 1813. Method of chromatography in which molecules that
a) Autoimmunity b) Clonal selection are negatively charged are selectively released from
c) Clonal anergy d) Clonal deletion stationary phase into the positively charged
1804. Base excision repair- (DELHI PG Feb. 09) molecules in mobile phase is termed- (AI 10)
a) Is used only for bases that have been deaminated a) Affmity chromatography
b) Uses enzymes called DNA glycosylases to b) Ion Exchange chromatography
generate an abasic sugar site c) Adsorbtion ·chromatography
c) Removes about 10-15 nucleotides d) Size- Exclusion chromatography
d) Requires the action to E. coli DNA polymerase III 1814. Rothera'stestusedfordetectimiof- (AI 10)
1805. Botulinum toxin produces skeletal muscle paralysis a) Proteins b) Glucose
by- (DElli! PG Mar: 09) c) Fatty acid d) Ketones
a) Enhancing release of norepinephrine 1815. Prenatal diagnosis of hemophilia is best done by-
b) Inhibiting release of acetylcholine a) PCR b) Linkage analysis (All 0)
c) Direct damage to nerve endings c) Cytometry d) Microarray
d) Producing hemolysis 1816. Detoxification of drugs is controlled by- (DPG 10)
1806. The predominant component of osteoid matrix of a) Cytochrome b) Cytochrome P450
bone is- (DELHI PG Mar: 09) c) Cytochrome C d) Cytochrome A
a) Type I collagen b) Chondroitin sulfate 1817. Maple syrup urine disease is due to deficiency of-
c) Keratin sulfate d) Dermatan sulfate a) Decarboxylation b) Dehydroxylation (DPG 10)
1807. Positive benzidine test is/are seen in- (PGI Nov 09) c) Transamination d) Deamination
a) Hemoglobin b) Myoglobin 1818. Which of the following is an inhibitor of platelet
c) Porphobilinogen d) Glucose aggregation? (DPG 10)
e) Bilirubin a) LeukotrieneA4 b) Prostacyclin
1808. Danaparoid contains- (PG!Nov09) c) ThromboxaneA2 d) ProtaglandinH2
a) Keratin sulphate b) Chitin 1819. Specific dynamic action is greatest of-(Mah-stra 10)
c) Dermatan sulphate d) Heparan sulphate a) Protein b) Carbohydrates
e) Keratin c) Fat d) Vitamins
1809. Which ofthe following act as antioxidants- 1820. Sulphur donor in phase ll Detoxification is
a) Vit. D b) Vit. C (PGI Nov 09) a) FeS b) SAM (Maharashtra 10)
c) Selenium d) Glutathione peroxidase c) PAPS d)GSH
e) Vit.E 1821. Chalonesareofcelldivision- (Maharashtra 10)
1810. InCRP,theCstandsfor- (AIIMS Nov 09) a) Regulators b) Promoters
a) CanavallinA c) Inhibitors d) Initiators
b) Cellular 1822. True aboutlocation oflg chromosome-(PG/Nov. 10)
c) Chondoitin sulfate a) k-2 b)k-6
d) C polysaccharide of streptococcus c) k-14 d)A--22
1811. Which statement is incorrect- (AIIMS Nov 09) e) A-10
a) Chemiluminescene: excited electron in higher orbit 1823. Correct order of switching oflg- (PGI Nov. 10)
comes to lower orbit by emitting energy in form of a) IgM to IgG b) IgM to IgG
photon c) IgM to IgA d) IgM to IgD
b) Bioluminescence: is a form of chemiluminescence e) IgEtoigG
c) Phosphorescence: is energy emitted following 1824. Correct pair oflg subclass with their heavy chain-
absorption of EM radiation a) IgM-a.(alpha) b)IgM-y(gamrna) (PG!Nov.10)
d) Electrochemiluminescence: is energy emitted by c) lgM-o(delta) d)IgE-y(gamrna)
photon e) lgA- y(gamrna)
180i)a,c,e 1802)b 1803)d 1804)b 1805)b 1806)a 1807)a,b 1808)a,c,d 1809)a,b,c,d,e 1810)d 1811)d
1812)b 1813)b 1814)d 1815)a 1816)b 1817)a 1818)b 1819)a 1820)c 182l)c 1822)a,d 1823)a,c 1824)None
1825. TrueaboutlgM- {PGINov.10) 1838. In a person fasting overnight with carnitine

a) Fix Complement deficiency, following chemicals increase in quantity
b) Increased in primary response in blood - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Fab region is composed of variable region a) Glucose b) Fatty acids
d) Fe is antibody- binding portion c) Amino acids d) Ketone bodies
1826. ThansportofADPinandATPoutofmitochondriais 1839. Weakest bond is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
inhibited by- (AIIMS Nov 10) a) Covalent b) Hydrogen
a) Atractyloside b) Oligomycin c) Electrostatic d) Vander wall
c) Rotenone d) Cyanide 1840. Oxidative deamination occurs in-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
1827. Following modification occurs in Gs suhunitwhich a) Cytoplasm of all cells
leads to watery diarrhea in cholera-(AIIMS May 11) b) Mitochondria of all cells
a) ADP ribosylation b) ATP-ADP transfer c) Cytoplasm of hepatocytes
c) Phosphorylation d) Dephosphorylation d) MitochonOria of hepatocytes
1828. Which ofthe following statement is true- (AI 11) 1841. Retheras test is used for- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Sulfonamides inhibit folate reductase irreversibility a) Bilirubine in urine
b) Ethanol inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase when b) Sugar in urine
used in methanol poisoning c) Protein in urine
c) Acetylcholinesterase inhibition by malathion can d) Ketone bodies in urine
be reversed by increasing the levels ofAcetylcholine 1842. Organ which can utilize glucose, FA and ketone
d) Fluoroacetate competitively inhibits Aconitase bodies is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1829. Phase-I ofxenobiotic reactions include- a) Liver b) Brain
a) Acetylation b) Methylation (Jipmer 10) c) Skeletalmuscle d)RBC
c) Hydroxylation d) Glucorinidation 1843. In FITC the color emitted after blue light
1830. All the following biochemical changes occur in acute absorption? (NEETIDNBPattern)
starvation exept- (Jipmer 10) a) Yellow green b) Orange red
a) Increased gluconeogenesis in liver c) Apple green d) Golden brown
b) Increased glycogenolysis in liver 1844. Which of the following occurs in mitochondria-
c) Increased lipogenesis a) Glycolysis b) HMP shunt (NEETIDNB
d) Ketone bodies utilized by brain for energy c) TCAcycle d) Glycogenesis Pattern)
1831. VitaleventinMI- (Jipmer 11) 1845. DNA microarrays allow detection of Gene mutations
a) Increase in ATP synthesis using- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Increased calcium e:ffiux from SR a) Polymerase chain Reaction b) Cloning
c) Increase in pH c) Southern Blotting d) Hybridization
d) Anaerobic glycolysis 1846. Which of the following is based on ionic charge-
1832. Northern blot is used for- (Jipmer 11) a) Filtration b) Dialysis (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) RNA b)DNA c) Electrophoresis d) Ultracentrifugation
c) Protein d) Antigens 1847. Brain cannot utilize- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1833. Which one ofthe following is a phase I reaction in a) Glucose b) Fatty acids
xenobiotics- (Jipmer 11) c) Ketone bodies d) None
a) Hydroxylation b) Methylation 1848. Chromosomal study is best carried out in -(NEETI
c) Conjugation d) Acetylation a) Prophase b) Metaphase DNB Pattern)
1834. Which ofthe following GAG is not sulphated- c) Telophase d) Anaphase
a) Chondroitin (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1849. NO is synthesized by all except-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Dermatan a) Endothelium b) Platelets
c) Keratan c) Neuron d) Macrophages
d) Hyaluronic acid 1850. Gas-liquid chromatography is used for -(NEETIDNB
1835. Protein glycosylation occurs in- (NEETIDNB a) Antigen b) Antibody Pattern)
a) ER b) Golgi bodies Pattern) c) Fatty acids d) Harmon receptor
c) Mitochondria d) Peroxisomes 1851. Substance with highest thermogenic effect -(NEETI
1836. Xanthoproteic reaction involves - (NEET Pattern) a) Fat b) Proteins DNB Pattern)
a) Nitric acid b) HCL c) Carbohydrate d) All are the same
c) H2S04 d) Carbolic acid 1852. Preteomics is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1837. Calorie provided by 1 gm dictery fibre is- a) Study of structure and function of proteins
a) 2 cal b) 10 cal b) Study of genome
c) 15 cal d) 20 cal c) Study of structure and function of a cell
d) Study of structure and function of sugar
***
1825)a,b,d 1826)a 1827)a 1828)d 1829)c 1830)c 183l)d 1832)a 1833)a 1834)d 1835)b 1836)a 1837)a
1838)b 1839)d 1840)d 1841)d 1842)c 1843)a 1844)c 1845)d 1846)c 1847)b 1848)b 1849)b 1850)c 1851)b
1852)a
NTIVE
E
SOCIAL. & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE
CONCEPT OF HEALTH AND DISEASE 11. The value of Human Development Index in India
is- (NEETIDNB Pattern, Jipmer 03)
HEALTH a) 0.500 b)0.545
c) 0.505 d)0.540
1. Defmition of health given by WHO includes which 12. Humandevelopmentindexincludes- (PGI Dec 07,
ofthe following dimension- (PGI Dec OJ) a) Crude death rate May 11)
a) Social b) Physical b) Life expectancy at one year
c) Mental d) Emotional c) Life expectancy at birth
e) Economic d) Adult literacy rate
2. Optimal healthy life includes- (PGI 2002) e) GDP
a) Moderate physical exercise 13. Human development index is composite of the
b) Athletic involvement followingexcept- (AI 11)
c) Sufficient nutrition a) Life expectancy at birth
d) Mental peace b) Adult literacy rate and mean year of schooling
e) Blood & urine examination at least twice a year c) GDP
3. Which of the following is the current trend in Health d) Life expectancy at one year
Care- (AI 10) 14. Age limit for HDI? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Qualitative enquiry a) 25 to 85 yrs b) 25 to 50 yrs
b) Community participation c) 15 to 45 yrs d) 50 to 75 yrs
c) Equitable distribution 15. Povertyindexdoesnotinclude? (DNBJune 20JO)
d) Primary Health Care a) Long life b) Knowledge
c) Standard ofliving d) Income
CONCEPT OF WELL BEING
CONCEPT OF DISEASE CAUSATION
4. Standard ofLiving (WHO) includes all except-
a) Income (NEET/DNB Pattern) 16. All of the following are components of
b) Sanitation & nutrition Epidemiological triad except- (AI 98)
c) Level of provision of health a) Environment b) Agent
d) Human rights c) Host d) Manpower
5. All of the following indicators are included in 17. The manner in which a disease behaves in a
Physical Quality ofLife Index (PQLI) except- community is determined by- (AIIMS 80,AMU 86)
a) Infant mortality rate (AI 06, 07) a) Infectiousness of disease
b) Life expectancy at age one b) Density of aggregation of population
c) Literacyrate c) Standard of hygiene
d) Per capita income d) Size of reservoir of infection
6. PQLiincludedare- (PGI June 08) e) All of the above
a) Literacy b) Infant mortality 18. Web Causation of disease is most appropriate -
c) Income d) Life expectancy at birth a) Mostly applicable for common disease
7. PQLI includes- (NEET/DNB Pattern) b) Better for all the related factors associated with
a) IMR b) Life expectancy at birth causation of disease (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) MMR d) Per capita income c) Epidemiological ratio
8. Human living standards can be compared in different d) Helps to interrupt the risk of transmission
countries by - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 19. Epidemiologic Web OfCausation'theme by-
a) IIDL b) PQLI a) Lui pasture (NEETIDNB Pattern)
~HPI ~DALY b) Robert Koch
9. Human development index includes AlE- c) McMahon and Pugh
a) Crude death rate (AIIMS May OJ) d) None
b) Education 20. Demarcation line in iceberg disease is between-
c) Life expectancy at birth a) Symptomatic and asymptomatic cases (AI 08)
d) GDP b) Diagnosed and undiagnosed cases
10. Human Development Index (HDI) values range c) Apparent and inapparent cases
between- d) Case and carriers
a) - 1 to + 1 b) 0 to 1
0 to 3 1 to 3
1) a,b,c,e 2) a,c,d 3) b 4)d 5)d 6)a,b 7)a 8)b 9)a lO)b ll)b 12) c> d,e 13) d>b,c
14)None>a 15)d 16)d 17)e 18)b 19)c 20)c
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [ 4A]
21. According to the concept oficeberge phenomenon 32. Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example-
of disease, all of the following statements about the a) Primordial prevention (AIIMSMay 10,AI09}
submerged portion of the ice berg are true except- b) Health promotion
a) It includes sub-clinical cases (Comed 07) c) Specific protection
b) It includes carriers d) Disability limitation
c) It constitutes undiagnosed reservoir of infection 33. Iodized salt in iodine deficiency control programme
d) Diagnosis can be made with available is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
techniques a) Primary prevention
22. All show iceberg phenomenon except- (JIPMER 98) b) Secondary prevention
a) Influenza b) Polio
c) Teriary prevention
c) Hepatitis d) Chicken pox
d) None
34. Pap smear is an example of- (AI 88)
CONCEPT OF CONTROL
a) Primary level of prevention
23. The term "Disease Control" describes ongoing b) Secondary level of prevention
operations aimed at reducing the following except c) Teritary level of prevention
the- (UPSC 2006) d) None of the above
a) Incidence of disease 35. Primary prevention in coronary heart diseases-
b) Financial burden to the community a) Exerciseinhighriskarea (PGI Dec 07)
c) Virulence of the disease agent b) BP monitoring
d) Disease duration c) Salt restriction
24. A state of disease endemicity in which disease d) Statins
transmission has been stopped but the agent persists e) TMT
is- (AI 12) 36. Primordial prevention in myocardial infarction are
a) Eradication b)Elimination all except- (All India 97)
c) Control d) Holoendemic a) Maintenance of normal body weight
25. The only disease which has been eradicated- b) Change in life style
a) Chickenpox b) Smallpox (AI 92) c) Change in Nutritional habits
c) Measles d) Influenza d) Screening for hypertension
26. Disease eradicated from India is/are -(PGI June 08) 37. An example of disability limitation is- (AJIMS May
a) Small pox b) Guinea worm disease a) Immunization against tetanus 08, 07, Nov 06)
c) Yaws d) Measles b) Providing children with polio with calipers
e) Polio c) Resting the affected limb in neutral position
27. Disease which is close to be eradicated in India - d) Arranging for schooling for children suffering
a) Diphtheria b) Measles (MAHE 2001) fromPRPP
c) Polio d) Guinea worm disease 38. Disability limitation is a part of
28. In a population to prevent coronary artery disease prevention- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
changing harmful lifestyles by education is referred a) Primary b) Secondary
toas- (AIIMSMay01) c) Tertiary d) None
a) High risk strategy 39. Any loss or abnormality of psychological
b) Primary prevention physiological or anatomical stuctures or function-
c) Secondary prevention a) Impairment b) Disability (AIIMS Nov 06)
d) Tertiary prevention c) Handicap d) Disease
29. A concept directed against prevention of risk factors 40. Which is the correct order - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
of coronary artery disease is- (AIIMS 01) a) Disease-impairment-disability-handicap
a) Primordial prevention b) Secondary prevention b) Disease-Diability-irnpairment-handicap
c) Health education d) Primary prevention c) Impairment-Disease-Handicap-Disability
30. All ofthe following are methods of health promotion d) None
except- (AIIMS 98) 41. The restoration of body function is known as-
a) Immunization b) Nutritional changes a) Vocational rehabilitation (AIIMS 81, PGI 84)
c) Behavioral changes d) Health education b) Medical rehabilitation
31. Immunization is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Social rehabilitaion
a) Primary prevention d) None of these
b) Secondary prevention 42. Loss of part or function - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Tertiary prevention a) Impairment b) Disability
d) Disability limitation c) Handicap d) Disease
2l)d 22)d 23)c 24)b 25)b 26) a,b 27) a,b,c 28) b 29) a 30)a 3l)a 32)c 33)a 34)b
35)a,b,c,d 36)d 37)c 38)c 39)a 40)a 41)b 42)a
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [ 4.5]
43. Which of the following is primordial prevention for 53. Missing cases are detected by- (AIIMS 99)
NCD (non communicable disease)- (PGI June 05) a) Active surveillance
a) Salt restriction in high NCD area b) Passive surveillance
b) Smoking cessation in high NCE area c) Sentinel surveillance
c) Preservation of traditional diet in low NCD area d) Prevalence rate
d) Early diagnosis & treatement 54. The most important function of sentinel surveillance
e) Excercise in high NCD area is- (AI 02)
44. Primordial prevention is done in population-
a) To fmd the total amount of disease in a population
a) With risk factors (AI 00)
b) To plan effective control measures
b) Without risk factors
c) Whole population with low prevalence of c) to determine the trend of disease in a population
disease d) To notifY disease
d) Population with disease 55. Disease under WHO surveillance- (AI 97)
45. Primary prevention does not include- (AI 00) a) Rabies b) Mumps
a) Early diagnosis and treatment c) Hepatitis d) Tetanus
b) Health promotion 56. International disease snrveillance is for -
c) Specific protection a) Hepatitis b) Polio (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Health education c) 1B d) Leprosy
46. Primary prevention- (PGI June 07) 57. Which disease comes under international
a) Marriage counseling surveillance - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Early diagnosis and treatment a) Typhoid fever b) Salmonellosis
c) Pap smear c) Chikungunya fever d) Hepatitis B
d) Self breast examination 58. True morbidity in a population can be calculated by-
e) Immunization a) Sentinel surveillance (AIIMS 02)
47. Primarypreventionincludes: (PGI Nov 10) b) Passive surveillance
a) Marriage counselling c) Active surveillance
b) Health education d) Monitoring
c) Papsmear 59. Sentinel surveillance is done to- (AIIMS 00)
d) Selfbreast examination a) Known the total no. of cases in community
e) Health promotion b) Know the hidden cases in community
48. Sputum examination for AFB is a type of- (AI 95} c) Know natural history of disease
a) Primaryprevention d) Plan intervention
b) Secondary prevention 60. HIV prevalence can be assessed by- (NEET/DNB
c) Tertiary prevention
a) Sentinel surveillance b) Active Pattern)
d) Primordial prevention
c) Passive d) Register
49. Iron and folic acid supplementation to the children
forms- (PGI June 06}
INDICATORS OF HEALTH
a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection
61. All are morbidity indicators execpt- (AI 91)
c) Primary prevention
a) Period of stay in hospital
d) Secondary prevention
b) Doctor : population ratio
50. Iron and folic acid supplementation forms- (AI 02)
c) Attendance at out patient department
a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection d) Notification rates
c) Primordial prevention 62. Which of one of the following is NOTa utilization rate-
d) Primaryprevention a) Population bed ratio (UPSC-II 09)
51. Analysis of routine measurement is aimed at b) Bed occupancy rate
detecting changes in environment- (NEETIDNB c) Bed turnover ratio
a) Monitoring b) Surveillence Pattern) d) Average length of stay
c) Isolation d) None 63. Sullivan's index indicates- (MAHE 98)
52. About monitoring true is I are- (PGI Dec 07) a) Life free of disability
a) Broader concept b) Pregnancy rate per HWY
b) Analysis of measurements for detecting changes c) Hook worm eggs/gm of stool
in health status d) Standard ofliving
c) An essential part of surveillance 64. Borden of disease is best detected by- (AIIMS 0 1)
d) Smaller concept a) DALY b) Sullivan's index
e) Continues after disease elimination c) IMR d) Survival index
43)c,e 44)b 45)a 46) a,e 47) a,b,e 48) b 49) b,c 50) b 51) a 52) b,c,d 53) c 54) a 55) a 56)b
57)b 58)c 59)b 60)a 6l)b 62)a 63)a 64)a
65. DALY true is - (NEET/DNB Pattern) 75. ICD-10codeinXXIinclndesallexcept- (A/09)

a) Indian life expectancy used as standard a) Lack of exercise b) Alcoholism
b) One DALY means one lost year of life c) Poisoning d) Unhealthy found
c) Mortility indicator 76. lCD chapter 21 includes all except- (NEETIDNB
d) None a) Alcohol b) Tobacco Pattern)
66. DALYmeasures- (AI 12) c) Injury d) Drugs
a) Years lost due to premature death and years lived 77. One of the following is not true oflnternational
with disability Classification of Disease- (Kerala 2K)
b) Years lost due to premature death and years lived a) It is revised once in 10 years
b) It was devised by UNICEF
without disability
c) The 1Qth revision consists of 21 major chapters
c) Years lost due to disability
d) It is accepted for National and International use
d) Years lived without disability
e) It provides the basis for use in other health fields
78. Which events occurred before 1900AD- (PGI Nov 10)
MISCELLANEOUS a) Establishment of seat of social medicine at Oxford
b) Epidemiological work on cholera by John Snow
67. James lind is known for - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Work on scurvy by James Lind
a) Germ theory of disease d) Use ofBCG vaccine
b) Multifactorial causation of disease e) Chadwick work on cholera in London
c) Prevention of scurvy by fruits 79. 'Secrete of national health lies in the homes of
d) None people' statement by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
68. Fatherofsnrgery- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Indira Gandhi b) Abhraham lincon
a) Hippocrates b) Ambroise pare c) Bhore d) Florence Nightingale
c) Sushruta d) Aristotle 80. Missing cases are detected by? (DNB Dec 2011)
69. Father of public health- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Active surveillance b) Passive surveillance
a) Cholera b) Plague c) Sentinel surveillance d) Monitoring
c) Leptospirosis d)Anthrox 81. Which ofthe following is not a primary prevention
70. EdwardJennerdiedin- (NEETIDNB Pattern) strategy? (DNB Dec 2011)
a) 1749 b) 1775 a) Breast self exam b) Control of tobacco
c) 1823 d) 1920 c) Radiation protection d) Cancer education
71. Socialization of medicine leads to all except - 82. Screening of the diseases is which type of
a) Ensures complete utilization of services by all prevention? (DNB Dec 2011)
people (AIIMS Nov 11, Nov 06) a) Primordial b) Primary
b) Free medical care supported by state c) Secondary d) Tertiary
c) Eliminates the competition among physicians in 83. Small pox vaccine was invented by? (DNB June 2011)
search of clients a) Louis pasture b) Edward Jenner
d) Ensures social equity, universal coverage of c) Paul Eugene d) John snow
health services 84. Physical quality oflife index includes- (DNB June
72. If alternate of medicine were accepted as a a) IMR, Literacy, Life expectancy at birth 2011)
modality of therapy, then 'Yoga' would be best b) IMR, Literacy, Life expectancy at one year
describedasaformof- (AI 12) c) MMR, IMR and Life expectancy
a) Physiotherapy b) Preventive Medicine d) MMR, intake of calories per capita and IMR
c) Emergency Medicine d) Caloric usurper 85. One DALY signifies? (DNB Dec 2010)
73. Which of the following is the contribution of a) 1 year of disease free life
GERMANY to public health- (PGI June 05) b) 1lost year ofhealthy life
a) Socialization c) 1 month ofbedridden life
b) Pasteurization d) None of these
c) Development of baths, sewers, aqueducts for 86. Desks provided with table top to prevent neck
sanitation problemsisanexampleof? (DNBDec 2010)
d) Instituting compulsory sickness insurance a) Primordial prevention b) Primary prevention
e) Quarantine around shipping area c) Specific protection d) Disability limitation
74. lCD 10 - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 87. James Lind is related to the discovery of:
a) Revised every 5 years a) Prevention of scurvy (DNB Dec 2010)
b) Consists of 10 chaptors b) Cause of scurvy
c) Arranged in 3 volumes c) Pathogenesis of scurvy
d) Was produced by UNICEF d) All
65)b 66)a 67)c 68)b 69)a 70)c 71)a 72)b 73)d 74)c 75)c 76)c 77)b 78)b,c,e
79)d 80)c 81)a 82)c 83)b 84)b 85)b 86)c>b 87)a
88. Theory of web of causation was given by? (DNB Dec 100. Emporiatrics deals with the health of- (DNB June
a) Me Mohan and Pugh b) Petfenkoffer 10) a) Farmers b) Travellers 08)
c) John snow d) Louis Pasteur c) Industrial workers d) Mine workers
89. All of the following are Eradicable diseases 101. Which of the following dieases is under
EXCEPf- (DNBJune2010) surveillance by WHO for notification by National
a) Tuberculosis b) Guinea worm health Authorities- (DNB June 08)
c) Polio d) Measles a) Louse-borne typhus fever b) Relapsing fever
90. DALY is- (DNBJune 10) c) Paralytic polio d) All of the above
a) Disease -Adjusted Life year 102. Prevention of emergence of risk factor is-
b) Disability Adjusted Life year a) Primordial prevention (DNB Dec 07)
c) Disease Associated Life year b) Primary prevention
d) Disability Associated Life year c) Secondary prevention
91. Demarcation line in iceberg disease is d) Tertiary prevention
between- (DNBJune 10) 103. Which ofthe following dimensions is not included
a) Symptomatic and asymptomatic cases in the WHO definition ofheatlh- (DNB Dec 07)
b) Diagnosed and undiagnosed cases a) Physical well being
c) Apparent and inapparent cases b) Occupational well being
d) Case and carriers c) Mental well being
92. Maximum damage to Napoleon's army during his d) Social well being
march to Moscow was done by? (DNB June 2010) 104. Years of life lost to premature death and years
a) Typhus b) Plague lived with disability is known as- (DNB Dec 07)
c) Diarrhea d) Typhoid a) HALE b)DALY's
93. ICD-10 has how many chapters? (DNB Dec 09) c) Suullivan'sindex d)HDI
a) 5 b) 12 105. 'Cource of a disease process without any'
c) 22 d)32 intervention is the definition of- (DNB Dec 07)
94. Sulllivian index- (DNB June 09)
a) Spectrum of disease
a) Measures disability b) Epidemiology of disease
c) Natural history of disease
b) Measures life years adjusted with disability
c) Measures life expectancy adjusted without d) Iceberg phenonenon
disability or free of disability 106. Who propounded the germ theory of disease-
d) Measures life expectancy a) Leeuwenhoek (DNB June 07)
95. Missing cases are detected by? (DNB June 09)
b) Robert koch
a) Active surveillance b) Passive surveillance c) Ambroise Parre
c) Sentinel surveillance d) Monitoring d) Louis Pasteur
96. Purpose of sentinel surveillance is -(DNB Dec 08) 107. A good indicator ofthe availability, utilization and
a) To know total number of cases effectiveness of health care services in a country is-
b) Health planning a) Maternal mortality rate (DNB June 07)
c) Prevention of disease b) Hospital bed occupancy rate
d) To know natural history of disease c) Infant mortality rate
d) DALY's
97. Sullivan'sindexmeasures- (DNBDec08)
a) Mortality b) Morbidty 108. The term 'disease control' employs all of the
c) Infectivity d) Disability following except- (DNB June 07)
a) Reducing the complications
98. P.Q.L.I. is- (DNB June 08)
a) IMR, Life expectancy, literacy b) Reducing the risk of further transmission
b) MMR, Life expectancy, literacy c) Reducing the incidence of disease
c) MMR, IMR, Life expectancy d) Reducing the prevalence of the disease
d) IMR, Life expectancy at 1 year of age, SE status 109. Which of the following is not tertiary level
99. Primordial prevention is the- (DNB June 08)
prevention- (DNB June 07)
a) Prevention of diseases among the hill-dwelling a) Total mastectomy for breast cancer
and tribal people b) Tendon transplant in leprosy
c) Physiotherapy in residual polio myelitis
b) Prolongation of human life span to the maximum
extent d) Provision of spectacles for refractive errors
c) Promotion ofhealth, well being and efficiency 110. WHO surveillance is done for all, except- (DNB
d) Prevention of diseases through modification of a) Polio b) Viral encephalitis June 07)
their risk factors c) Malaria d) Relapsing fever
88)a 89)a 90)b 91)c 92)a 93)c 94)c 95)c 96)a 97)d 98)d 99)d lOO)b lOl)d
102)a 103)b 104)a 105)c 106)d 107)c 108)d 109)a llO)b
111. Chemoprophylaxsis is prevention- 124. All the following indicators are used to measure
a) Primordial b)Primary (AIIHPH98) disability rates in a community except-
c) Secondary d) Tertiary a) Suillivan's index (Karnataka-PG MEE 2006}
112. Benzathine Pencillin prophylaxis for rheumatic b) Human poverty index
fevercomesunder- (MAHE 07) c) Health adjusted life expectancy
a) Primary prevention b) Primordial prevention d) Disability adjusted life yeart
c) Secondary prevention d) Tertiary prevention 125. All the following indicators are used to measure
113. Prevention ofdisease by immunization comes under disability rates in a community except? (DPG 11)
which category- (MAHE 07) a) Sullivan's Index
a) Primordial prevention b) Primary prevention b) HumanPovertylndex
c) Health Adjusted Life Expectancy
c) Secondary prevention d) Tertiary prevention
d) Disability Adjusted Life Year
114. Which one of the following modes of intervention
126. Which one of the following branches of Sociology
covers the process of advising a patient to change
studies the relationship between organism and
his lifestyle in order to prevent any risk factor for a environment- (UPSC 2K)
disease? (UPSC-11 09) a) Ergonomics b) Social physiology
a) Health promotion b) Specific protection c) Ecology d) Social pathology
c) Disability limitation d) Rehabilitation 127. Following are true about Kerala except- (MAHA 05)
115. Amniocentesis is early pregnancy for genetic a) Birth rate 291100
disorders is a kind of- (UPSC-II 09) b) Per capita annual income Rs. 2594
a) Primordial prevention b) Primary prevention c) Life expectancy 66.6 years
c) Secondary prevention d) Tertiary prevention d) Famale literacy rate 65%
116. Under which level of prevention should sentinel 128. Iceberg phenomena is not seen in- (Orissa 04)
surveillance be categorised - (UPSC-II 08} a) Measles b)AIDS
a) Primordial prevention b) Primary prevention c) Polio d) Rubella
c) Secondary prevention d) Tertiary prevention 129. Which of the following countries was the first to
117. Purpose of sentinel surveillance is- (COMED 06, institute compuJsory sickness insurance? (UPSC-II 09)
a) To know total number of cases DPG 09) a) USA b) England
b) Health planning c) France d) Germany
c) Prevention of disease 130. Provision of free medical care to the people at
d) To know natural history of disease government expense is known as - (UPSC 99)
118. Host related biological properties of a disease agent a) State medicine b) Social theraphy
are the following except- (UPSC 2006) c) Social medicine d) Preventive medicine
a) Vrrulence b) Infectivity 131. Epidemiology of cholera in England was classified
by- (BURDWAN 2K)
c) Pathogenicity d) Communicability
a) John Snow b) Winslow
119. Most important component oflevel of living is-
c) Chadwick d) Howard huges
a) Health b) Education (Kerala 04)
132. The concept of Social medicine was first introduced
c) Occupation d) Housing by- (Kerala 2K)
120. Living standard of people is best assessed by? a) Neumann and Virchow b) Robert Groijahn
a) Infant mortality rate (DPG 11) c) JohnRyle d) Rene sand
b) Maternal mortality e) Crew
c) Physical quality of life index 133. The term 'Social Medicine' was first introduced by-
d) Death rate a) John Snow b) David Morley (UPSC OJ)
121. Following index measures average achievements in c) Jules Guerin d) C.E.A. Winslow
basic dimensions of human development- 134. The pattern of disease in a community described in
a) Human poverty index (COMEDK 05) terms of the important factors which influence its
b) Human development index occurrence is known as- (UPSC 2006)
c) Gender empowerment index a) Epidemiology b) Confounding factors
d) Life expectancy at birth c) Iceberg of disease d) Community diagnosis
122. Sullivan index is an index for- (MAHE 07} 135. In what form is the example of "de-
a) Life free ofdisability b) Life expectancy professionalization" of medicine widely seen in India-
c) Earning capacity d) Population index a) Quack practitioners (UPSC 2006)
123. Sullivan's index measures- (MAHE 2001) b) Primary health care practices
a) Mortality b) Morbidty c) Irrational use of antibiotics
c) Infectivity d) Disability d) Non-ethical practices by doctors
lll)b ll2)c 113)b ll4)a 115)c 116)c 117)a ll8)d 119)a 120)c 12l)b 122)a 123)d 124)b
125)b 126)c 127)? 128)a 129)d 130)a 13l)a 132)a 133)c 134)d 135)b
EPIDEMIOLOGY 146. Direct standardization is used to compare the

mortality rates between two countries. This is done
MEASUREMENT OF MORTALITY AND becauseofthedifferencein- (NEETIDNBPattern,
MORBIDITY AIIMS Nov 11, May 10, Nov 06, May 06, AI 11, 07)
a) Causes of death b) Numerators
136. Denominator of crude death rate is- (AIIMS 97) c) Age distributions d) Denominators
a) 1000 live birth 147. About direct standardization all are true except -
b) Mid year population a) Age specific death rate is not needed (AI 00, 02)
c) Total number of deaths in a community b) A standard population is needed
d) Total number of case population in community c) Population should be comparable
137. Burden of disease is given by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Two populations are compared
a) Incidence 148. All the statements are true about standardization-
b) Crude death rate a) Standardization allows comparison to be made
c) Cause specific death rate
between two different populations (AI 06)
d) Proportional mortality rate
b) The national population is always taken as the
138. Following can be used as a yardstick for the
assessment of standards of therapy- standard population
a) Specific death rate c) For direct standardization age specific rates of
b) Case fatality rate the study population are applied to that of the
c) Proportional mortality rate standard population
d) Survival rate d) For indirect standardization age specific rates of
139. Simplest measure of mortality- the standard population are applied to the study
a) Crude death rate (NEETIDNB Pattern) population
b) Case fatality rate 149. The rate adjusted to allow for the age distribution of
c) Proportional mortality rate the population is- (AIIMS May 05, AIIMS 03)
d) Specific death rate a) Perinatal mortality rate
140. Proportional mortality rate is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Crude mortality rate
a) Number of death due to particular a cause c) Fertility rate
b) Number of death during that year
d) Age standardized mortality rate
c) Number of death in one month
d) None 150. All are true of standardised mortality ratio except-
141. Which one ofthe following is a good index of the a) Expressed as rate per year(NEETIDNB Pattern)
severity of an acute disease? (AI 05, AIIMS 04, 02, b) Can be adjusted for age
a) Cause specific death rate 99, 95) c) Can be used for events other than death
b) Case fatality rate d) Ratio of observed deaths to expected deaths
c) Standardized mortality ratio 151. Single best mortality indicator-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Five year survival a) CDR b) PMR
142. All is true regarding case fatality rate except- c) ASDR d) CFR
a) Represents killing power of disease (AIIMS 97) 152. Best method to compare vital statistics of two
b) Closely related to viruleance popnlations- (AI 97)
c) Very useful for chronic diseases a) Crude death rate
d) May vary in different epidemic for same disease b) Age specific death rate
143. In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2000 c) Age Standardized death rate
population 20 cases have occurred and 5 have died.
d) Multivariatie mortality rate
Case fatality rate is -
a) 1% b)0.25% 153. Between 2 countries mortality compared best by -
c) 5% d)25% a) Age adjusted rates (NEETIDNB Pattern)
144. Severity of acute diseases can be best analyzed by? b) Crude rates
a) Standardized mortality ratio (Alll,AIIMSMay04) c) Proportional rates
b) Cause specific death rate d) None
c) Case fatality rate 154. Which of the following statistics shonld be adjusted
d) Age specific death rate foragetoallowcomparisons- (AI 12)
145. Case fatality rate is - (NEETIDN/t Pattern) a) Age specific fertility rate
a) Severity of disease b) Crude mortality rate
b) Communicability of disease c) Perinatal mortality rate
c) Burden of disease d) Infant mortality rate
d) None
136)b 137)d 138)d 139)a 140)a 141)b 142)b 143)d 144)c 145)a 146)c 147)a 148)b 149)d
ISO) a 15l)c 152)c 153)a 154)b
155. In the International death certificate one of the d) Describes the balance between incidence,
following is not true- (Kerala 2K) mortality and recovery
a) Part I of the certificate deals with the immediate 164. If the prevalene is very low as compared to the
cause only incidence for a disease, it implies- (AIIMS 05, 03)
b) Part I of the certificate deals with the immediate a) Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable
cause and also the underlying cause b) Disease is nonfatal
c) Part II records significantly associated diseases
c) Calculation of prevalence and incidence is wrong
d) The certificate has been recommended by the
d) Nothing can be said, as they are independent
WHO for international news
165. Which of the following can cause an increase in
e) In part I the underlying cause of death is recorded
onlineC the prevalence of the disease- (AI 09)
156. In a community, an increase in new cases denotes- a) Immigration of healthy persons
a) Increase in incidence rate (AI OJ) b) Increased cure rate of disease
b) Increase in prevalence rate c) Longer duration of illness
c) Decrease in incidence rate d) Decrease in population
d) Decrease in prevalence rate 166. Which of the following will cause an increase in
157. Disease rate is- (JIPMER 98) the prevalence ofthe disease- (AIIMS Nov 07)
a) Risk of susceptibility a) Immigration of healthy persons
b) Usually expressed a percentage b) Increased cure rate of the disease
c) Time period in a calendar year c) Longer duration of the disease
d) Disease occurrence in a specified time period d) Emigration of diseased persons
158. Which one ofthe following is not a special incidence 167. If a new effective treatment is initiated and all other
rate- (NEETIDNB Pattern, UPSC 07) factors remain the same; when of the following is
a) Attack rate
most likely to happen- (AllMS 04)
b) Secondary attack rate
a) Incidence will not change
c) Hospital admission rate
b) Prevalence will not change
d) Standardized mortality rate
159. All are true of attack rate except- (Kerala 04) c) Neither incidence not prevalence will change
a) It is type of prevalence rate d) Incidence and prevalence will change
b) Expressed as percentage 168. A disease has 3 time more incidence in females as
c) Used when population is exposed to risk for a compared to males, with same prevalence in both
limited period of time males and females. TRUE statement is-(AIIMS 99)
d) Reflects extent of epidemic a) Increase fatality in women
160. From 1st Jan 2007 to 3011t June 2007, 22 new cases of b) More survival in women
tuberculosis were reported per 1, 65, 000 population. c) Better prognosis in men
But during this period 120 suspected cases ofTB d) Less fatality in man
were registered. What will be incidence rate? 169. In a population of 5000, incidence of disease is
a) 133 Per 10, 00, 000 population (AI 1 0) 100 in 1 year duration of disease studied for is 2
b) 90 Per 10, 00, 000 population years calculate Prevalance- (UP 96)
c) 75 Per 10, 00,000 population a) 20/1000 b)40/1000
d) 270 Per 10, 00, 000 population c) 80/1000 d)400/1000
161. For calculation of incidence denominator is taken
170. At the end of the year 1990, the population of
as - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
primary health centre was 30,000 and there were
a) Mid year population
b) Population at risk 120 cases of pulmonary tuberculosis. At the end
c) Total number of cases of the year 1991, the population was 30,600 and
d) Total number of deaths 30 new cases were detected and 2 cases had died.
162. In a stable situation- (NEETIDNB Pattern) Based on this data all ofthe following rates can be
a) Incidence= prevalence x Duration calculated except (UPSC 96)
b) Prevalence= Incidence x Duration a) Incidence b) Prevalence
c) Incidence Prevalence+ Duration c) Case fatality d) Proportional mortality
d) Prevalence= Incidence +Duration 171. True statement about case fatality rate is- (AI 97)
163. Prevalenceofadisease- (AIIMS02) a) It is a ratio
a) Is the best measure of disease frequently in b) It is a proportion
etiological studies c) Numerator is always constant
b) Can only be determined by a cohort study d) Numerator and denominator are separate entities
c) Is the number of new cases in a definedpopulation
155)a 156)a l57)d 158)d I 59) a l60)a 16l)b l62)b l63)d 164)a l65)c l66)c 167)a 168)a,c
169)b l70)d 17l)b
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [ 4.11 ]
172. All of the following statements regarding 184. Which is not an explanation for cyclic trend of
'prevalence' are true except- (AI 98, 96) diseases- (JJPMER 93)
a) It is rate a) Herd immunity variations
b) It is ratio b) Environmental conditions
c) Duration of disease effects 'prevalence' c) Build up of susceptibles
d) Numerator & denominator are separate entities d) Antigenic variations
173. The following is true about prevalence and 185. What do you understand by the term secular trend-
incidence- (AIIMS 05, 03) a) Long term changes (PGJ Dec 05)
a) Both are rates b) Short long term changes
b) Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not c) Seasonal changes
d) Periodical changes
c) Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not
e) Religion changes
d) Both are not rates
186. Secular trend is a- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
174. In crude death rate the population is taken as on- a) Long term b) Short term
a) 1st March b) 1st July (AIIMSOJ) c) Both d) None
c) 1st April d) 15th August 187. True about point source epidemic are all except-
175. Prevalence is a- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) The curve has rapid rise and slow decline
a) Rate b)Ratio b) All cases occur in one incubation period
c) Propotion d) Mean c) One single peak only (AIIMS Nov 06)
d) No secondary curves
EPIDEMIOLOGICAL STUDY 188. Regarding point source epidemic, false statement
(s) is/are: (PGI Nov 10)
176. The analytical study where population is the unit of a) Rapidrise&fall
study is- (AIIMS 04) b) Only infectious disease can cause
a) Cross sectional b) Ecological c) Explosive
c) Case-control d) Cohort d) Cases occur even after incubation period
177. All are analytic studies except- (AI 09) e) No secondary wave
a) Field trials b) Case-control 189. Which ofthe following is characteristic of a single
c) Cohort d) Ecological exposure common vehicle outbreak? (AIIMS 05)
178. Study oftimeplaceand person is called as- (AI99) a) Frequent secondary cases
a) Experimental epidemiology b) Severity increases with increasing age
b) Analytical epidemiology c) Explosive
c) Descriptive epidemiology d) Cases occur continuously beyond the longest
d) Randornised controlled trial incubation period
179. All are true regarding point-source epidemic except- 190. Regarding point source epidemic true-(PGI Dec 07)
a) All cases occur abruptly and simultaneously a) Rapid rise and fall b) Only infectious cause
b) Children are most commonly affected c) Explosive d) t secondary attack rate
c) Occurs within a specified period (AT 00) e) No secondary wave
d) No secondary waves 191. Which of the following is true about Secular
180. False regarding a propagated epidemic is- trend- (AI94)
a) No secondary waves (AIOO,AIIMS98) a) Road side accident is a good example
b) Spread depends on herd immunity b) Due to environmental factors
c) Person to person transmission occurs c) Is due to normally occuring variation in herd
d) Slowrise immunity
181. Bhopalgastragedyisanexampleof- (AI 99) d) Consistent change in a particular direction over
a) Point source epidemic a period of time
b) Propagated epidemic 192. All of the following are analytical epidemiological
c) Continous epidemic studies except- (AI 99)
d) Modern epidemics a) Cohort study b) Case-control study
182. Secular trend means- (PGI June 06, Dec 05) c) Ecological study d) Field trial
a) Seasonal changes b) Periodical changes 193. All of the following features are true about cross
c) Religion changes d) Long term changes sectional study except- (AI 98, 97)
e) Short term changes a) All cases are seen at one point in time
183. Which disease does not occur as seasonal variation b) Follow up is not a necessary feature
a) Measles b) Rubella (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) More useful for chronic disease
c) Gastroenteritis d) Cerebral meningitis d) Cause and effect relationship can beestabilished
172)a,d 173)c 174)b 175)c 176)b 177)a 178)c 179)b 180)a 18l)a 182)d 183)None 184)b
185) a 186) a 187)a 188)b,d 189)c 190)a,c,e 19l)d 192)d 193)d
194. Which of the following is not a feature of a cross 202. In case-control study there weve 35 cases oflnng
sectional study- (AI 96) cancer and 82 connols (without lung cancer).Among
a) Not expensive cases 33 had positive history of smoking and among
b) Observational study controls 55 had positive history of smoking. Odds
c) Used for chronic diseases ratio in this study is- (AI 99)
d) Well suited for establishing interrelationships a) 8 b)20
of diseases c) 50 d) 100
195. Residence of three village with three different types 203. The association between coronary artery disease
of water supply were to participate in a study to and smoking was found to be as follows-
identify cholera carrier because several cholera
deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually CAD No CAD
Smokers 30 l)
everyone present at the time submitted to
examination. The proportion of residents in each No smokers 20 l)
village who were carriers was computed and The odds ratio can be estimated as- (AI 02)
compared. Thisstudyisa- (AIIMS 03) a) 0.65 b) 0.8
a) Cross- sectional study c) 1.3 d) 2.25
b) Case- control study 204. All the following are advantages of case control
c) Concurrent cohort study stndiesexcept- (AI 02)
d) Non- concurrent a) Useful in rare disease
196. Prevalance of cataract at one point of time can be b) Relative risk can be calculated
determined by- (AIIMSMay 09) c) Odds ratio can be calculated
a) Longitudinal study d) Cost-effective and inexpensive
b) Cross-sectional study 205. In a case controlled study. It is found that the disease
c) Surveillance is more common in the group taking coffee as
d) Cohort study compared to the control group. The significance of
197. Natural history of disease is studied with- this is - (AIIMS 98)
a) Longitudinal studies (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Cause and effect relationship established
b) Cross-sectional studies b) Disease median can be calculated
c) Both
c) Caffeine is associated with occurrence of disease
d) None
d) Controls will not get the disease
198. In Longitudinal studies, which of the following is
206. In case control study of buccal carcinoma-
true- (AI 94)
a) Easy to conduct a) CA is connnoner in zarda pan users than non users
b) Detects only one risk factor b) Zarda pan is a cause ofbuccal CA (AIIMS 97)
c) Determines incidences of disease c) Zarda pan is associated with buccal CA
d) Have increased bias d) If use of zarda pan is stopped, number of cases
199. A one day census of inpatients in a mental hospital will reduce
could- (AIIMS May 05) 207. All of the following are characteristics of case
a) Give good information about the patients in that control study except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
hospital at that time a) Quick results are obtained
b) Give reliable estimates of seasonal factors in b) Measures incidence rate
admissions c) Proceeds from effect to cause
c) Enable us to draw conclusions about the mental d) Inexpensive study
hospitals of India 208. Which of the following statement is correct in
d) Enable us to estimate the distribution of different regards to case control study- (PG/Dec05,June01)
diagnosis in mental illness in the local area a) Proceeds from effect to cause
200. All of the following are true about case control study b) Exposure already occured
except- (AI 98) c) Odd's rad ratio can be determined
a) Rapid and inexpensive d) Incidence rate can be calculated
b) No risk to subjects e) Cases have to be followed for long time
c) Risk factor can be identified 209. True about case control study- (AIIMS 01)
d) Less prone to bias
a) Less expensive
201. In a case control study, the most characteristic
b) Those with disease and not diseased compared
feature is - (AI 96)
c) Attributable risk is estimated
a) Odds ratio estimation b) Problem bias
d) None of these
c) Yield incidence rate d) Expensive
194)d 195)a 196)b 197)a 198)c 199)a 200)d 20l)a 202)a 203)d 204)b 205)c 206)c 207)b
208) a,b,c 209) a
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE (4.13]
210. Case controlstudy, All can be measured except- 219. Attributable risk means- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Relative risk b) Incidence (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Strength of association
c) Odds ratio d) Cause & effect relation b) Temporal relation
211. Cohort study is a type of- (PGI 99) c) Causalrelation
a) Clinical trial b) Analytic study d) Potential for prevention
c) Descriptive study d) Experimental study 220. Incidence rate oflung cancer among smokers is 8
212. Incidence rate is measured by- (AIIMS 00, AI 98) per 1000 and among non-smokers is 1 per 1000.
a) Case control study Population attributable risk is- (PGI 99)
b) Cohort study a) 890/o b)95%
c) Cross sectional study c) 100/o d) 100%
d) Cross over study 221. Community physician takes action based on-
213. In a study 400 smokers and 600 non- smokers were a) Population attributable risk (AIIMS 98)
followed up over a period of 10 years to fmd out the b) Relative risk
incidence of hypertension. The following table c) Attributable risk
summarizes the data at the end of the study- d) Odds ratio
Hypertension 222. In a village of 1 lakh population, among 20, 000
exposed to smoking, 200 developed cancer, and
Yes No Total
among 40,000 people unexposed, 40 developed
Smoking Yes 120 280 400 cancer. The relative risk of smoking in the
No 30 570 600 development of cancer is- (AIJMS OJ)
Total 150 850 a) 20 b)IO
The risk ratio in this study is- (DPG 11, AIIMS 05) c) 5 d) 15
a) 0.06 b) 0.60 223. A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults
c) 6.0 d)60.0 in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol
214. In a prospective study comprising 10,000 subjects, consumption. The occurrence of cancer was studied
6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example
were not. 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung of- (A/04)
cancer and 2 out ofthe second 4000 developed lung a) Cross-sectional study
cancer. What is the interpretation of the above b) Retrosective cohort study
results ? (AI 02) c) Concurrent cohort study
a) Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer d) Case-control study
b) Beta carotene and Lung cancer have no relation 224. Advantage of case control over cohort study-
to each other a) Attributable risk can be calculated (PGI Dec 07)
c) The study design is not sufficient to draw any b) Odd's ratio can be calculated
meaningful conclusions c) For rare disease
d) Beta carotene is carcinogenic d) Bias minimum
215. Incidence of disease among exposed minus that of e) Large sample required
non exposed is equal to- (AIIMS 97, 96) 225. Cohort study is better than case control study in
a) Relative risk b) Attributable risk all ways except- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Odd ratio d) None of the above a) Greater comparability b) Lesser time spent
216. In a village ofllakh population, among 2,000 exposed c) Prospective analysis d) Less Bias
to smoking, 20 developed lung cancer and among 226. Relative risk is calculated in? (NEET/DNB Pattern)
8,000 unexposed people, 8 developed lung cancer. a) Cross sectional study b) Cohort study
What is attributable risk- (PGI99) c) Case control study d) None
a) 10% b)50% 227. Case-controlstudiesareusedfor- (AI95)
c) 90% d) 100% a) Study of common diseases
217. A women is exposed to multiple sex partners has 5 b) Findingmultipleriskfactors
times increased risk for- Ca. Cx the attributable c) Finding incidence rates
risk is - (AIJMS OJ)
d) Finding relative risk
a) 200/o b) 50%
228. All of following are advantages of case control study
c) 80% d) 100%
except- (AI 96)
218. Several studies have shown that 85% of cases of
lung cancer are due to cigarette smoking. It is a a) Cheaper
measureof- (AJ07,AJIMS05)
b) Less time consuming
a) Incidence rate b) Relative risk c) Possible to study many diseases
c) Attributable risk d) Absolute risk d) Less chances of bias
210)a,b,d 21l)b 212)b 213)c 214)b 215)b 216)c 217)c 218)c 219)d 220)a 22l)a 222)b 223)c
224) b,c 225) b 226) b 227) b 228) c,d
229. All of the following statements regarding case control 237. In a randomized controlled trial, the essential
and cohort studies aretme,Except- (AI 12) purpose of randomization is- (AIPGME 06)
a) Cohorts are chosen based on history of a) To produce double blinding
'Exposure' b) To decrease the follow- up period
b) Cohort studies require longer time frame than c) To eliminate the selection bias
d) To decrease the sample size
case control studies
238. All of the following are features of Cross-Over
c) Cohort studies are suitable to investigate 'rare' studies except- (AI 94)
disease a) All patients receive the new therapy
d) Cohort studies yield information about more b) Not suitable if drug on interest cures the disease
than one disease c) Not suitable if drug is effective only during a cer
230. In a case-control study of a suspected association tain stage of disease
between breast cancer and the contraceptive pill, all d) Not suitable if disease does not changes
ofthe following are true statements except- (AJIMS02) radically during the study
a) The control should come from a population that 239. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical
has the same potential for breast cancer as the trails is to- (AI 06)
cases a) Facilitate double blinding
b) Help ensure the study subjects are representative
b) The control should exclude women known to be
of general population
taking the pill at the time of the survery c) Ensure the groups are comparable on base line
c) All the controls need to be healthy characteristics
d) The attributable risk of breast cancer resulting d) Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
from the pill may be directly measured 240. Which of the following is not an accepted method of
231. As compared to a routine case control study, nested randomization- (AIIMS May 07)
case control study avoids problems (in study design) a) Computer drawn randomization
related to- (AIIMS Nov 04) b) Odd/even day hospital admission
a) Temporal association b) Confounding bias c) Lottery
c) Need for long follow up d) Randomization d) Random number table
232. Nestedcasecontrolstudyisatypeof- (AIIMSMay09) 241. Randomization means- (PGI Dec 98)
a) Mixing of cases and controls
a) Retrospective study b) Prospective study
b) Selecting cases
c) Descriptive study d) Cross sectional study c) Selecting controls
233. A total of 5000 pts of glaucoma are identified and d) Vaccine and Erythromycin
surveyed by pts. inteviews regarding family history e) Selecting cohorts
of glaucoma. Such a study design is called- 242. While analysing a data, allocation into similar
a) Case series report (AIIMS Nov 04) groups is done to ensure (AI 96)
b) Case control study a) Comparability b) Accuracy
c) Clinical trial c) Validity d) Sensitivity
d) Cohort study 243. For the purpose of Intervention Trials, the preferred
234. Incidence is calculated by- (AIIMS May 11, May 10, randomization unit is an individual for all of the
a) Retrospective study AI 09, AIIMS 95, Nov 08) followingexcept- (AI 12)
a) Vaccine b) Drug
b) Prospective study
c) Surgery d) Health Education
c) Cross sectional study 244. Which of the following is not true about non
d) Random study randomized trial? (Kerala 04)
235. Incidence of diarrhoea in a community can be a) Approach of comparability high
calculated by- (AIIMS 99) b) Degree of comparability high
a) Case control study c) The experiment can serve as its own control or
b) Cohort study can utilize a natural control
c) Cross sectional study d) Several trials may be needed before evaluation
d) Double blind placebo control study is considered conclusive
236. Not true about experimental study- (PGI Nov 09) 245. Which one oftbe following statements regarding
a) Always prospective prepost clinical trial is most appropriate-
a) They cannot be randomized (AIIMS May 05)
b) Unethical to use in animal
b) They are useful in studies involving mortality
c) Can not be double blinded in animal trials c) They use the patient as his or her own control
d) Interim analysis is permitted d) They are usually easier to interpret than the
e) Blinding is always needed comparable parallel clinical trial
l-29) c 230)d 23l)a 232)b 233)a 234)b 235)b 236) b,e 237) c 238)d 239)d>c 240)b 24l)a 242)a
243)d 244)b 245)c
246. Berkesonian bias is a type of ?(NEET!DNB Pattern) 256. An investigator found an association between beta
a) Selection bias b) lnterviever bias carotene consumption and reduced risk ofcolon cancer.
c) Information bias d) Recell bias But it was found that it may be also due to increased
24 7. When launching a study, many respondents are invited, fiber in such diets. Such a kind ofoccurrence is termed-
some of whom fail to come, this is called- (AJ96) a) Multifactorial causation (AJIMSNov-10, May 12)
a) Response bias b) Volunteer bias b) Confounding factor
c) Selection bias d) Berkesonian bias c) Misclassification
248. It is probable that physician have a higher index of d) None of these
suspicion for tuberculosis in children without BCG 257. The systematic distortion of retrospective studies
that can be eliminated by a prospective design is -
scar that those with BCG scar. If this is so and an
a) Confounding (AIIMS May 04)
association is found between Tuberculosis and not
b) Effect modification
having BCG scar, the association may be
c) Recall bias
dueto- (AIIMSNov05)
d) Measurement bias
a) Selection bias b) Interviewer bias 258. Problem of bias is maximum with -
c) Surveillance bias d) Non-response bias a) Cohort study (NEET/DNB Pattern)
249. Basic types of biases in epidemiological study- b) Case study
a) Investigation bias (PGI Dec 07) c) Case control study
b) Subject bias d) Experimental study
c) Random error 259. In a double blind clinical drug trial- (AIIMS Nov 03,
d) Analyzer bias a) Each patient receives a placebo AIPGME 06)
250. Which ofthe following types ofbias can be reduced b) Each patient receives both (double) treatments
by allowing equal interview time- (AI 08) c) The patients do not know which treatment they
a) Berkesonian bias b) Recall bias are receiving
c) Selection bias d) Interviewer bias d) The patients do not know that they are in a drug
251. Recall bias is more common with- (AIIMS Nov 09) trial
a) Cohort study 260. The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to-
b) Randomized control trial a) Achieve comparability between study and
c) Cross sectional study control groups (AI 06)
d) Case control study b) Avoid observer bias
252. Hawthorne effect is seen in- (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Avoid subject bias
a) Case-control study d) Avoid observer and subject bias
b) Cohort study 261. The major purpose of Randomization in clinical
trials is to- (AI 07)
c) Cross-sectional study
a) Facilitate double blinding
d) Retrospective cohort study
b) Help ensure that the study subjects are
253. Berkesonian bias refers to- (AI 96)
representative of general population
a) Bias arising from different rates of admission to
c) Ensure that the groups are comparable on
the hospital baseline characteristics
b) Bias arising from presence of confounding d) Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment
factors 262. Matching is done for removal of -
c) Bias arising from the case not being a) Bias
representative of general population b) Known confounding
d) Bias arising from improper selection of cases c) Unknown confounding
254. Factor which is associated both with exposure and d) Known confounding + Unknown confounding
disease is called- (COMEDK 05) 263. Randomisation is useful to eliminate-
a) Confounding factor b) Risk factor (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Proximal risk factor d) Case a) Observer bias b) Confounding factors
255. True about confounding factor- (AIIMS May 09) c) Patient bias d) Sampling bias
a) It is found equally between study and control groups 264. Confounding factors can be eliminated by all
b) It is itself a risk factor for the disease except- (PGI93)
c) Confounding can be eliminated by selecting a a) Matching b) Randomization
small group c) Ethical consideration d) Stratification
d) It is associated with either the exposure or the disease 265. Bias can be eliminated by all except-(AJIMS Nov 10
a) Matching b) Blinding (May 12)
c) Randomization d) Multivariate analysis
246)a 247)a 248)b 249)a,b,d 250)d 25l)d 252)b 253)a 254)a 255)b 256)b 257)c 258)c 259)c
260)d 26l)d 262)b 263) b 264) c 265) d
266. In a controlled trail to compare two treatments. the c) Cross sectional study
main purpose of randomization is to ensure that- d) Experimental study
a) The two groups will be similar in prognostic 275. Kaplan meier methods is used for -(AIIMS Nov 08)
factors (AIIMS Nov 02) a) Survival b) Prevalance
b) The clinician does not know which treatment c) Incidence d) Frequency
the subjects will receive 276. "Goitre is prevalent at higher altitude", is an
c) The sample may be referred to a known population exampleof- (PGMCET07)
d) The clinician can predict in advance which a) Direct association b) Indirect association
treatment the subjects will receive c) Causal association d)Temporal association
267. 100 people of viral fever are treated with a medicine. 277. Which of the following is not a criteria suggesting
94 percent were cured in 5-7 days. True statement casuality in non communicable diseases? (AI 08)
about efficacy of medicine- (PGI 98) a) Strength of association
a) Medicine is effective b) Dose response relationship
b) Cannot be commented c) Specificity of association
c) Medicine is ineffective d) Lack of temporal association
d) None of the above 278. Suspected cause preceding the observed effect is an
268. In a study in UK, an association was found between example for- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
sale of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in deaths a) Temporal association
due to asthma. This is an example of- b) Consistency of association
a) Ecological study (AIIMS Nov 11, May 08) c) Strength of association
b) Cohort study d) Coherence of association
c) Case reference study 279. Most difficult criterion to establish Causal
d) Experimental study Association in aetiology of a disease is-
269. A person wants to study a disease 'x' and fat a) Temporality (AIPGME 2008)
consumption. He obtained data for number of people b) Strength of association
affected with 'x' from the government and the details c) Specificity of association
of fat consumption from food industry.'!YPe of study d) Biological plausibility
is- (AIIMS Nov 10) 280. In a cohort study nonsmokers were found to have
a) Ecological study b) Cross sectional study carcinoma lung. This indicates- (AI 98)
c) Pesiological study d) Experimental study a) Smoking does not cause lung cancer
270. A person found some correlation between dietary
b) Etiology for lung Ca is multifactorial
factors and a disease; he did this by collecting data
c) Smoking is the only cause oflung cancer
from the food manufacturers and hospitals
d) Passive smoking also increases lung cancer
respectively, such a study is? (AJJMSNov 10, May 12)
281. Presence of infectious agent on clothes or dressings
a) Ecological b) Cross sectional
is termed- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Psephological study d) Experimental study
a) Infection b) Infestation
2 71. Which epidemiological study gives the most accurate
c) Contamination d) Contagion
result- (AIIMS Nov 11, Nov 06)
282. 'Endemic Disease' means that a disease- (AI 05)
a) Meta analysis
a) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
b) Cross-sectional study
b) Is constantly present in a given population group
c) Randomized control trial with double blinding
c) Exhibits seasonal pattern
d) Cohort study
d) Is prevalent among animals
272. Of the different epidemiological study designs
283. Occurence of disease in excess of expected
available to test the association between risk factor
frequency is known as- (PGI 99)
and disease, the best design is of- (AIIMS 05)
a) Endemic disease b) Epidemic disease
a) Case control study b) Ecological study
c) Ecdemic disease d) Sporadic
c) Cohort study d) Cross sectional study
284. Pandemic are caused by- (PGI Dec 2K)
273. To test the association between risk factor and
a) Hepatitis B b) Influenza-A
disease, which ofthe following is the wakest study
c) Influenza-B d) Influenza-C
design- (AIIMS 04)
e) Cholera
a) Case-control study b) Ecological study
285. Diseases which are imported into a country in which
c) Cohort study d) Cross-sectional study
they do not otherwise occur is-(JIPMER 81, PGI 84)
274. Causal association factors can be revealed by-
a) Exotic b) Epizootic PGMCET 07)
a) Case control study (AIIMS Nov 99)
c) Endemic d) None of the above
b) Cohort study
266)a 267)b 268)a 269)a 270)a 271)a 272)c 273)b 274)a 275)a 276)b 277)d 278)a 279)c
280)b 281)c 282)b 283)b 284) b,e 285) a
286. Virulence of a biological agent is defined as - 301. Time interval between invasion ofthe infection agent
a) Ability of the agent to invade and multiply in and appearance of first sign or symptom-
host (UPSC-11 09) a) Serial interval (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Proportion of clinical cases resulting in severe b) Incubation period
clinical manifestation c) Quarantine
c) Ability of the agent to induce a clinically d) Period of infectivety
apparent illness 302. All ofthe following are used as proxy measure for
d) Proportion of clinical cases in a virgin population incubation period except- (AI 04)
287. Soil acts as a source as well reservoir for- (PG199) a) Latent period b) Period of communicability
a) Rabies b) Tetanus
c) Serial interval d) Generation time
c) Typhoid d) Measles
303. Incubation period helps in determining all except-
288. Animal reservoir is seen in all except- (AJ99)
a) Period of isolation (AJIMS 99)
a) Rabies b) Yellow fever
b) Period of quarantine
c) Influenza d) Measles
289. Subclinical cases are seen in all except- (AJ99) c) Identification of source of infection
a) Measles b) Rubella d) Immunization
c) Polio d) Influenza 304. Application oflncubation period is all except-
290. Which ofthe following does not have non-human a) To differentiate co-primary cases from secondary
reservoir- (PGI Nov-09) cases (AIIMS May 12)
a) Salmonella typhi b) N. Gonorrhoea b) To find out time for isolation
c) E coli d) Clostridium tetani c) To find out time for Quarantine
e) Treponema pallidum d) To prevent infection to the contacts of the infected
291. All have incubatory carriers, except- (AI1MS 99, person
a) Tetanus b) Measles PGI June 05) 305. Disease highly transmitted during incubation period
c) Whooping cough d) Polio is - (PG/June 08)
292. Healthy carries are present in all except- a) Pertussis b) Cholera
a) Typhoid b) Cholera (Al1MS 96) c) Measles d) Brucellosis
c) Diphtheria d) Pertussis e) Chickenpox
293. Chronic carrier state is not seen in all except- 306. Time interval betwen inoculation of infection to
a) Poliomyelitis b) Measles (NEETIDNB maximuminfectivityis- (AJIMS 96)
c) Malaria d) Tetanus Pattern) a) Lead time b) Median incubation period
294. Carrier stage seen in - (PGI June 06) c) Generation time d) Serial inverval
a) Polio b) Cholera 307. Serial interval is - (NEETIDNB Pattern,
c) Pertusis d) Plague
AIIMS 02, 2K, 99, AI 02, 00)
e) Tetanus
a) Interval between primary and secondary case
295. Chronic carrier state is seen in all except-(A111, 07)
b) Interval between first case and last case
a) Measles b) Diptheria
c) Interval between primary case and all subsequent
c) Typhoid d) Gonorrhea
296. Incubatory carrier seen in - (PGI June 08) cases multiplied by secondary attack rate
a) Cholera b) Bubonic plague d) Interval between incubation period and
c) Mumps d) Measles gestational period
e) Influenza 308. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack
297. Carries are important in all the following except- rate includes- (AI 03, AIIMS 95)
a) Polio b) Typhoid (AI 11, 02) a) All the people living in next fifty houses
c) Measles d) Diphtheria b) All the close contacts
298. Soil may acts as reservoir for all except- (AI 08) c) All susceptible amongst close contact
a) Brucellosis b) Anthrax d) All susceptible in the whole village
c) Tetanus d) Coccidiomycosis 309. A certain commuity has 100 children out of whom
299. Following are examples of human "dead end" 28 are immunuzed against measles; 2 of them
disease except- (NEETIDNB Pattern) acquire measles simultaneously; Subsequently 14
a) Bubonic plague b) Japanies ecephalitis get measles. Assuming the efficacy of vaccine to be
c) Hydatid disease d) Leishmaniasis 100%. What is the sec. Attack rate- (AI OJ)
300. In an epidemiological study, the first case which comes a) 5% b) 10%
to the attention of the investigator is-(AIIMSNov07) c) 20% d) 21.5%
a) Reference case b) Index case
c) Primary case d) Secondary case
286)b 287)b 288)d 289)a 290)a,b,e 29l)a 292)a,d 293)c 294)a,b,c 295)a 296)c,d,e 297)c 298)a
299)d 300)b 30l)b 302)b 303) a 304) b 305) a,c,e 306) c 307) a 308) c 309) c
310. In a school within an unimmunized cohort of 100 324. Active and passive immunity should be given together
children, 1 child developed measles on January 1st. in all except- (AIIMS Nov 97, AIPGME 02, 06)
Following this, 35 children developed measles of a) Tetanus b) Rabies
which 3 cases occured on January 3rd and the c) Measles d) Hepatitis B
remaining 2-3 weeks later. What is the SAR- 325. Post exposure active immunization can be done for
a) 35% b)33.3% (AIIMS 02) a) Rabies b) Measles (AI 99)
c) 32% d) 36.5% c) Chloera d) Yellow fever
311. In a village of 100 children, 60% are immunized 326. Post-exposure prophylaxis is indicated in-
against measles. One child travelled and returned a) HBV b) Rabies (PGI Dec 07)
with measles and infected other 26 children. What c) Diphtheria c) Measles
is the secondary attack rate- (AIIMS 2K)
d) Tetanus
a) 67% b)27%
327. Post exposure immunization is given in-
c) 50% d)80%
312. In a 6 membered family, there are two parents and a) Rabies b) Pertussis (DPGEE 08)
four children all aged between 2-6 years. On eofthe c) Measles d) Yellow fever
children is completely immunized for his age, 3 28. Congenital passive immunity is NOT found in-
whereas other 3 siblings are totally unimmunized. a) Polio b) Mumps (UP 08)
One of the unimmunized child developed measles. 6 c) Rubella d) Measles
days later 2 other children developed measles. SARis- 329. Live attenuated vaccines are AlE- (PGI May 11)
a) zero b)33% a) Measles b) Rabies
c) 66% d) 100% c) Oralpolio d)Yellowfever
313. Secondary attack rate is a measure of- (AI 99) e) Influenza
a) Communicability b) Lethality 330. Which of the following statements regarding live
c) Strength of association d) None vaccines is false- (AI 08)
314. Second attack rate is minimum in- (NEETIDNB a) Two live vaccines cannot be administered
a) TB b) Diphtheria Pattern) simultaneously
c) Measles d) Whooping cough b) Booster doses are not required when live
315. Vertical transmission is by- (AMC 88, Delhi 87) vaccines are administered
a) Mosquitoes b) Direct contact c) Single dose gives life long immunity
c) Droplet d) Placenta d) Live vaccine contains both major and minor
316. In culex mosquito the type of biological transmission antigens
for filarial parasite is- (AI 2K, AIIMSMay 08, nov 08) 331. Which of the following is/are subunit vaccines:
a) Cyclo-developmental b) Cyclo-propagative
a) Typhoid Vi (PGINov 10)
c) Propagative d) Cyclical
b) H. influenza vaccine (Rib)
317. Cyclodevelopmental stage is seen in -
c) Hepatitis B vaccine
a) Malaria b) Filaria (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Plague d) Cholera d) Diphtheria
318. Transovarian transmission is a feature of- (PGI 80) e) Pneumococcal
a) Scrub fever b) Epidemic typhus 332. Toxoidispreparedfrom- (AI 2K)
c) Endemic typhus d) Trench fever a) Exotoxin b) Endotoxin
319. Transovarian transmission is seen in- c) Both d) None
a) Ticks b) Louse (NEETIDNB Pattern) 333. Live vaccines are- (PGI June 06, 02, 98 Dec OJ)
c) Flea d) None a) TT b)BCG
320. Transovarian transmission is seen in- (NEET/DNB c) DPT d)OPV
a) Rickettesial diseases b) Malaria Pattern) e)MMR
c) Filaria d) None 334. All are live vaccines except- (AI 98, 96)
321. Cyclopropagative? (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) 17 -D b) Rubella
a) Malaria b) Plague c) Salk d) Measles
c) Filaria d) None 335. Killed vaccine is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
322. Propagative? (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Hepatitis A b) Measles
a) Plague b) Filaria c) OPV d)BCG
c) Malaria d) All 336. Which ofthe following is a Live vaccine- (AI 94)
3 23. Transmission of agent by vectors is facilitated by the a)Salkpoliovaccine b)HDCV
followingwaysexceptone- (AI 11) c) Hepatitis B vaccine d) 17-D Vaccine
a) Contamination with body fluids of vectors 337. Vaccines -incorrect combination is- (PGI 04)
b) Scratching-in of infected feces
a) Measles- Jeryll Lyn strain b) Mumps- schwartz
c) Ingestion of infected material
c) Chichenpox- oka d) OPV- sabin
d) Regurgitation
e) Rubella- Copenhagen
310)b 3ll)a 312)d 313)a 314)a 315)d 316)a 317)b 318)a 319)a 320)a 321)a 322)a 323)c
324)c 325) a,b 326) a,b,c,d,e 327) a,c 328) None 329) b 330) a 331)a,b,c,e 332)a 333)b,d,e 334)c 335)a
336)d 337)a,b,e
338. Name of mumps vaccine is -(NEETIDNB Pattern) b) It is likely to be more for infections that do not
a) Jeryl Lynn b) Edmonshon zagreb have a sub-clinical phase
c) Schwatz d) Moraten c) It is affected by the presence and distribution of
339. Strain used for BCGvaccine- (AJPGME 07) alternative animal hosts
a) Edmonston Zagreb strain d) In the case of tetanus it does not protect the
individual
b) Oka strain
353. Disease elimination is helped by-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 'Danish' 1331
a) Herd immunity b) Isolation
d) RA 27/3strain c) Quarantine d) None
340. Which vaccine is given by subcutaneous route- 354. Which vaccine gives herd immunity - (NEETIDNB
a) In.J b) Measles (HPU05, a) OPV b) Typhoid Pattern)
c) Rabies d)DPT AIIMS95) c) Cholera d) None
341. Vaccine with highest efficacy- (AI 09) 355. Which of the following vaccine is not included in
a) Measles b)DPT EPI, schedule- (AI 07)
c) Oral typhoid d) Tetanus a) In.J b)DPT
342. Vaccine with maximum efficacy is- {AllMS May 10) c) MMR d)OPV
a) OPV b) Measles 356. In national immunization shedule oflndia, measles
c) In.J d) TT vaccine is given at- (PGI 99)
343. All vaccines are given in disaster,except - a) Birth b) 6 weeks
c) 9 months d) 5-6 years
a) Cholera b )Influenza (NEETIDNB Pattern)
357. 9th month immunization given is -
c) Measles d) Tetanus
a) Measles . b) DPT (NEETIDNB Pattern)
344. Which vaccine is contra indicated pregnancy-(A/92)
c) In.J d) All
a) Cholera vaccine b) Typhoid vaccine 358. In one single visit; a 9 month-old, on-immunized
c) Meningococcal vaccine d) Polio vaccine child can be given the following vaccination -
345. Vaccine, contrainidicated in pregnancy is- a) OnlyBCG
a) Tuberculin b) Typhoid (AIIMS 97) b) BCG,DPT-1,0PV-l
c) Influenza d)HBV c) DPT-1, OPV-1,Measles
346. The vaccine not to be given during pregnancy is- d) BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles
a) MMR b) Rabies (AIIMSNov 09) 359. A 3 yr old completely unimmunised child comes to
c) Hepatitis B d) Diphtheria an immunization clinic at PHC for the first time. He
347. A person is on intensive chemotherapy, which vaccine should receive- (AI 2004)
is contraindicated in this circumstance- a) BCG, Measles, Vitamin-A
a) MMR b) Hepatitis B (PGI Dec 08) b) DT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A
c) Pneumococcus d) DPT c) BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A
e) In.J d) DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A
348. Herd immunity provides protection to- (AJ96) 360. If a 11-month old child has received two doses of
a) Immunized persons DPT and polio, comes for further immunization after
b) Non immunized persons 5 months of the last dose, what should be done?
c) Both a) Repeat the whole course
d) None b) Repeat the 2nd dose and continue rest of the course
349. About herd immunity, all are true except- (AI 07) c) Give Jfd dose and continue the course
a) depends on clinical and subclinical cases d) Give only booster dose
b) Influenced by immunization 361. A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal
c) depends on the presence of alternative host clinic at a Primary Health Centre. She has not had
d) Herd immunity is constant any antenatal visit till now. The best approach
350. A herd immunity of over-% is considered necessary regarding tetanus immunization in this case would
beto- (AI04)
to prevent epidemic spread of diphtheria-
a) Give a dose ofTetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain
a) 500/o b) 55% (PGI 80, AIIMS 77)
to her that it will not protect the new born and
c) 600/o d) 70%
she should take the second dose after four weeks
351. Herd immunity is not nsefnl in- (AIIMS 2K, AJ95) even if she delivers in the meantime
a) Diphtheria b) Polio b) Don not waste the TT vaccine as it would
c) Measles d) Tetanus anyhow be of no use in this pregnancy
352. All ofthe following are true aboutthe Herd immunity c) Give one dose ofTT and explain that it will not
for infectious diseases except- (AI 05) be useful for this pregnancy
a) It refers to group protection beyond what is d) Give her anti-tetanus Immunoglobulin along with
aforded by the protection of immunized individuals the TT vaccine
338)a 339)c 340)b 341)a 342)b 343)a 344) None or d 345)a 346)a 347) a,e 348) b 349)d 350)d
351)d 352)b 353)a 354)a 355)c 356)c 357)a 358)d 359)b 360)a 361)a
362. Vaccine in the UPI which aims at preventing b) Transporting outdated vaccines from PHC to
blindness is- (AIIMS 98) district hospital
a) Measles b) Rubella c) Transporting vaccines to lab. to check its potency
c) DPT d) Polio d) Transporting vaccine form camps to sub - centre
363. In the WHO recommended EPI Cluster sampling 374. Isolation period should be- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
for assessing primary immunization coverage, the a) Minimum incubation period
age group ofchildren to be surveyed is -(AIIMSNov 05) b) Maximum incubation period
c) Period of communicability
a) 0-12months b)6-12months
d) None
c) 9-12 months d) 12-23 months
375. Quarantine is related to- (AIIMS 97)
364. False about vaccines is- (AIIMS May 11, Nov 08) a) Minimum incubation period
a) Thiomersal is preservative in DPT vaccine b) Maximum incubation period
b) Kanamycin is preservative in measles c) Serial interval
c) Magnesium chloride stabilizer used in 0 PV d) Generation time
d) Neomycin is a preservative in BCG vaccine 376. All of the statements about quarantine are true
365. Mass immunization is indicated in the following, except- (AIIMS Nov 04)
except- (AI 10) a) It is synonymous with isolation
a) Leprosy b)Cholera b) Absolute quarantine is restriction during the
c) Influenza d) Tuberculosis incubation period
366. Mass vaccination is ineffective in - c) Exclusion of children from schools is an example
a) Measles b) Polio (NEETIDNB Pattern) of modified quarantine
c) Tetanus d) None d) Quarantine should not be longer than the longest
367. All of the following vaccines are recommended for incubation period
elderly travelers, Except- (AI 12) 377. Isolation is strictly recommended for- (AI 08)
a) Influenza b) Pneumococcal a) Mumps b) Measles
c) Tetanus d) Measles c) Hepatitis A d) Pneumonic plague
368. The peripheral workers in a primary health centre 378. Isolation is done in following easels- (PGI Dec 06,
return one day late; after an immunisation session. a) T.B. b) Cholera 04, 02)
The primary health centre is locked. The vaccine c) Measles d) Typhoid
carrier still contains a few unopened vials ofDPT e) Tetanus
vaccine and sufficient ice. The workers are to - 379. 'frue about maximum isolation period ofenteric fever
a) Return the vaccine vials to the refrigerator in the is- (AIIMSNov 08)
morning of the next day (UPSC 2K)
a) Upto 3 days after starting the treatment
b) Get the health centre opned the same evening b) Till 3 consequent negative stool cultures are
obtained from the patient
and keep the vaccine vials in the refrigerator
c) Till the fever subsides
c) Discard the vaccine vials
d) Till widal becomes negative
d) Retain the vaccine in the ice box
380. 'Ring vaccination' is-(AIIMS 80, Delhi 93, MARE 05)
369. Vaccines at PHC are stored in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Given by a ring shaped machine
a) Ice box b) ILR
b) Given to produce a ring lesion
c) Deep freezer d) None
c) Given around 100 yards of a case detected
370. Vaccine which requires most stringent condition d) Given around a mile of a case
for storage- (Kerala 91)
381. Surveillance is necessary for all recommended by
a) DPT b)OPV WHO except- (AI 91)
c)HTI d)TT a) Relapsing fever b) Malaria
371. Vaccine which must be stored in the freezer c) Plague d) Tuberculosis
compartment of a fridge is/are- (PGI 85) 382. Internationally quarantinable disease are -(BHU 88)
a) HTI b)OPV a) Plague b) Cholera
c) Measles d)Smallpox c) Yellow fever d) All of the above
e) All of the above 383. The following disease require isolation to break
372. Vaccine (s) not to be frozen is/are- (PGI June OJ) transmission except- (AI 94)
a) HTI b)OPV a) Measles b) Mumps
c) DPT d) Measles c) Chicken pox d) Tetanus
e) TT 384. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts
373. Reverse Cold Chain is used for - (AI2K) of a patient ofpenumonic plague is- (AIIMS 02, 95)
a) Carrying stool samples of polio patiens from a a) Penicillin b)Rifampicin
PHC to the lab c) Erythromycin d) Tetracycline
362)a 363)d 364)d 365)a 366) None 367) d 368) d 369) b 370) b 371) b,c 372) c,e 373) a 374)c 375)b
376)a 377)d 378) a,b,c,d 379)b 380)c 381)d 382)d 383)d 384)d
385. No chemoprophylaxis for- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 399. All of following are false about bleaching powder
a) Typhoid b) Chicken pox except- (AI 96)
c) Influenza d) Cholera a) Contains 20% available chlorine
386. Chemoprophylaxis is notindicated in which ofthe b) 20 % solution used for disinfection of faeces
following- (AIIMS 2K) c) Unstable compound on storage
a) Measles b) Cholera d) Not used for disinfection of feces & urine
c) Meningococcemia d) Plague 400. Disinfection of sputum is done by- (PGI Dec 08)
387. Chemoprophylaxis with tetracycline is useful in a) Boiling b) Autoclaving
which of the following? (M 11) c) Sunlight d) Burning
a) Cholera b) Brucellosis e) Airing
c) Meningitis d) Leptospirosis 401. Sputum can be disinfected by all except-
388. Chemoprophylaxis is not required in- (NEETIDNB a) Autoclaving b) Boiling (AIIMS Nov 10)
a) Typhoid Pattern, AIIMS 97) c) Cresol d) Chlorhexidine
b) Meningococcal meningitis 402. Savloncontains- (AIIMSMay 10)
c) Bacterial conjunctivitis a) Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine
d) Malaria b) Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine +butyl alcohol
389. Chemoprophylaxis is done for all except- (AI 2002) c) Cetrimide +butyl alcohol
a) Cholera b) Taeniasis d) Cetrimide + Cetavlon
c) Malaria d) Leprosy
390. Chemoprophylaxis can be done for tbe following MISCELLANEOUS
except- (AI 09)
a) Meningitis b) Typhoid 403. Time between infection and maximum infectivity is
c) Cholera d) Diphtheria known as? (DNB Dec 2011)
391. Mass chemoprophylaxis in endemic area is a) Incubation period
recommended for all of the following, except- b) Serial interval
a) Yaws b) Leprosy (AI 10) c) Generation time
c) Trachoma d) Filaria d) Communicable period
392. Mass prophylaxis is given for a/e- (AIIMS Nov 10) 404. Communicability of disease is assessed by?
a) Lymphatic filariasis b) Vitamin A deficiency a) Secondary attack rate (DNB Dec 2011)
c) Scabies d) Worm infestation b) Generation time
393. Which of the following is not a complete sterilization c) Serial interval
agent- (AI OJ)
d) Incubation period
405. Isolation period ofHepatitisA- (DNB Dec 2011)
a) Glutaraldehyde
a) 1 week b) 2 weeks
b) Absolute alcohol
c) 3 weeks d) 4 weeks
c) Hydrogenperoxide
406. Cause to effect progression is seen in all EXCEPT:
d) Sodium hypochlorite a) Case control study (DNB Dec 2011)
394. Phenol Coefficient indicates- (JIPMER 91) b) Ecological study
a) Efficacy of a disifectant c) Cohort study
b) Dilution of a disinfectant d) Randomized control trial
c) Quantity of a disinfectant 407. Incidence of a disease in a population of30,000 and
d) Purity of a disinfectant 300 new cases is? (DNB Dec 2011)
395. Sharp instruments may be sterilized with - a) O.lperlOOO b)lOperlOOO
a) Radiation b) Lysol (Jipmer 80, Orissa 90) c) 100 per 1000 d) 1 per 1000
c) Hot air d) Any of the above 408. Selection bias can be eliminated by?(DNB Dec 2011)
396. Disinfectants used for blood spills -(AIIMS Nov 07) a) Randomization b) Single blinding
a) Phenol b) Glutaraldehyde c) Double blinding d) Matching
c) Ethanol d) Sodium hypochlorite 409. Syringes and glassware are sterilized by?
397. Best disinfectant of cholera stool is- (AIIMS 97) a) Irradiation (DNB June 2011)
a) Bleaching powder b) Cresol b) Autoclave
c) Phenol d)Lime c) Hot air oven
398. The amount of bleaching powder necessary to d) Glutaraldehyde
disinfect choleric stools, is - (NEET/DNB Pattern) 410. Which is not an analytical study? (DNB June 2011)
a) 50gmllit b)75 gmllit a) Case control b) Cohort study
90 100 c) RCT d) Cross sectional
385)b 386) a 387) a 388) a 389) b 390) b 391)b 392)c 393)b 394)a 395)c 396)d 397)b 398)a
399)d 400)a,b,d 401)d 402)a 403)c 404)a 405)c 406)a 407)b 408)a 409)c 410)c
411. Hypothesis is nottested by? (DNB June 2011) 423. Study time, place, and person of a disease is _ __
a) Descriptive studies b) Analytical studies study- (DNB June 2010)
c) Case control studies d) Cohort studies a) Descriptive b) Analytic
412. True about point source epidemic is?(DNB June 11) c) Association d) Comparison
a) Occurs in more than 1 incubation period 424. Recall bias is most commonly associated with which
study design- (DNBJune 2010)
b) Occurs in one incubation period
a) Case control study
c) The exposure is continuous
b) Cohort study
d) Epidemic curve falls very slowly c) Cohort case control study
413. Interval between primary and secondary case is d) Cross-sectional study
called as? (DNB June 2011) 425. The gas responsible for Bhopal gas tragedy was?
a) Generation time b) Serial interval a) Methyl isocyanate (DNB June 2010)
c) Incubation period d) Lead time b) Potassium isothiocyanate
414. First case that comes to notice of physician c) Sodium isothiocyanate
is? (DNBJune2011) d) Ethyl isothiocyanate
a) Primary case b) Secondary case 426. Serial interval is? (DNB Dec 09)
c) Index case d) Refer case a) Time interval between invasion of infection and
415. Confounding can be removed by? (DNB June 2011) appearance of first sign or symptom
a) Assign confounders to both cases and controls b) Time between onset of primary case and
b) Stratification secondary case
c) Matching c) Interval of time between receipt of infection by
d) All of the above a host and maximum infectivity
416. Cyclopropagative type of life cycle is seen in? d) Time in which infectious agent is transferred from
a) Cholera b) Filaria (DNB June 2011) one host to another
c) Plague d) Malaria 427. Point source epidemic tends to- (DNB Dec 09}
417. Berkesonian bias is due to? (DNBDec 2010) a) Continue over one incubation period
a) Presence of confounding factors in both cases b) Produce multiple peaks in the epidemic curve
& controls c) Be explosive
b) Questioning the cases more thoroughly as d) Tail gradually
compared to controls 428. Calculate the prevalence if incidence is 2 cases per
c) Different rates of admission to hospital due to 1000 population per year and mean duration is 4
different diseases years- (DNB Dec 09)
d) Better recall by the cases as compared to a) 8 Cases per 1000 population
controls b) 2 Cases per 1000 population
c) 0.5 Cases per 1000 population
418. In a study done to establish Smoking as a risk factor
d) 32 Cases per 1000 population
for a disease, 30 out of 50 smokers developed the
4 29. In a village with population of 5000, 50 people have a
disease while 10 out of 50 non-smokers developed
disease and 10 of them died. Wbat is case fatality
tbe disease. Odd's ratio is? (DNB Dec 2010)
rate? (DNB Dec 09)
~ 3 b)6 a) 1% b) 2%
c) 5 d) 10 c) 0.5% d) 20%
419. Sterilization & disinfection of blood spills is done 430. When an association between two variables is
by- (DNBDec2010} explained by a third variable due to indirect
a) Formaldehyde b) Sodium hypochlorite association, it is called as? (DNB Dec 09)
c) Tincture iodine d) Phenols a) Cognitive bias b) Confounding bias
420. Which type of vaccine is MMR? (DNB Dec 2010) c) Berkesonian bias d) Indirect bias
a) Live attenuated b) Killed 431. Cyclodevelopmentallife cycle is seen in -
c) Toxoid d) Subunit a) Malaria b) Plague (DNB Dec 09)
421. Cause to effect progression is seen in all EXCEPT- c) Yellow fever d) Filaria
a) Case control study (DNB June 2010) 432. The most heat sensitive vaccine is- (DNB Dec 09)
b) Ecological study a) Measles b) Hepatitits B
c) Cohort study c) DPT d)OPV
d) Randomized control trial 433. Secular trends are? (DNB June 09)
422. Case-controlstudy is a type of- (DNB June 201 0) a) Progressive changes occuring over long period
a) Descriptive epidemiological study of time
b) Analytical study b) Explosion of changes in a limited span of time
c) Longitudinal study c) Periodic changes occuring over a long period
d) Experimental epidemiological study d) Sudden epidemic of a new occurring
411)a 412)b 413)b 414)c 415)d 416)d 417)c 418)b 419)b 420)a 42l)a 422)b 423)a 424)a
425)a 426)b 427)c 428)a 429)d 430)b 43l)d 432)d 433)a
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [4.23]
434. Odds ratio is related to? (DNB June 09) 448. In a given population, prevalence of a disease can
a) Relative risk b) Incidence be rapidly determined by- (DNB Dec 07)
c) Prevalance d) Attributable risk a) Case control study b) Cross over study
435. Incidence can be calculated by- (DNB June 09) c) Cross sectional study d) Double blind study
a) Prospective study b) Retrospective study 449. The analytical study where population is the unit
c) Case control study d) Cross-sectional study ofstudy is- (DNB Dec 07)
436. Which ofthe following vaccine should not be given a) Cross-sectional b) Ecological
c) Case-control d) Cohort
during pregnancy ? (DNB June 09)
450. Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely
a) HBV b) Measles, mumps, rubella contraindicated in preganacy- (DNB Dec 07)
c) Typhoid d) Cholera a) Hepatitis-B b) Cholera
437. At PHC level vaccine storage is by? (DNB June 09) c) Rabies d) Yellow fever
a) IRL b) Walk in cold rooms 451. Zero dose of Polio vaccine in which is give-
c) Cold boxes d) Vaccine carriers a) Before giving DPT (DNB Dec 07)
438. Standardized mortality rate is- (DNB Dec 08) b) At birth
a) Standardized for age c) When child is having diarrhoea
b) Standardized for disease d) When child is having Polio
c) Standardized for regions· 452. Prevalence of a disease depends upon the following-
d) Standardized for a particular time period a) Incidence (DNB June 07)
439. Case fatality rate is a method of measuring- b) Duration
a) Infectivity b) Pathogenecity(DNB Dec 08) c) Both of the above
c) VIrulence d) Average duration of disease d) None of the above
440. In a stable situation- (DNB Dec 08) 453. If a new effective treatment is initiated and all other
a) Incidence prevalence x Duration factors remain the same; when of the following is
b) Prevalence Incidence x Duration most likely to happen- (DNB June 07)
c) Incidence= Prevalence+ Duration a) Incidence will not change
d) Prevalence Incidence+ Duration b) Prevalence will not change
441. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of -(DNB Dec 08) c) Neither incidence not prevalence will change
a) Point source epidemic d) Incidence and prevalence will change
b) Continuous epidemic 454. True about confounding factor- (DNB June 07)
c) Propagated epidemic a) It is found equally between study and the control
d) Slow epidemic groups
442. Storage temperature for vaccine is-(DNB June 08) b) It is itself a risk factor for the disease
a) -4°Cto0°C b)0°Cto4°C c) Confounding can be eliminated by selecting a
c) +2°Cto8°C d)+4°Cto l2°C small group
443. The following are live attenuated vaccines, d) It is associated with etiher the exposure or the
except- (DNB June 08) disease
a) Oral polio b) Yellow fever 455. Cyclodevelopmental stage is seen in -(DNB June 07)
c) Measles d) Influenza a) Malaria b)Filaria
444. In epidemic, 1st step is- (DNB June 08) c) Plague d) Cholera
a) Verification of diagnosis 456. Pasteurization is disinfection-(Orissa 05)
b) Isolation a) Precurrent b) Concurrent
c) Immunization c) Preconcurrent d) Terminal
d) Notification 457. In an epidemic first to be done is- (PGI 81, AMC 92)
445. Randomized controlled trials are -(DNB June 08) a) Identity the cases
a) Clinical trials b) Confirm the diagnosis
b) Preventive trials c) IdentifY the prone people
c) Before and after comparison studies d) IdentifY the causative factors
d) Evaluation of Health Services 458. While investigating an epidemic, search for more
446. Prevalence is a- (DNB June 08) cases is continued till what period? (UPSC-II 08)
a) Rate b)Ratio a) Twice the incubation period of the disease since
c) Proportion d) Mean occurrence of the last case
447. Chronic carrier state is not seen in all b) Thrice the incubation period of the disease since
except- (DNBJune08) occurrence of the case
a) Poliomyelitis b) Measles c) The longest incubation period for the disease
c) Malaria d) Tetanus d) Incubation period for the disease plus two
standard deviations
434)a 435)b 436)b 437)a 438)a 439)c 440)b 44l)a 442)c,d 443)None 444)a 445)a 446)c 447)c
448)c 449)b 450) b or d 451) b 452) c 453) a 454) a,b 455) b 456) a 457) b 458) a
459. Epidemiological studies is carried for a period of- 470. Which of the following estimating the burden of
a) Incubation period (Jiprner 03) a disease in the community is-(UP 07, Kamataka 05)
b) Twice the incubation period a) Disease specific mortality
c) Four times the incubation period b) Proportional mortality rate
d) Half the incubation period c) Maternal mortality rate
460. Case fatality rate is a method of measuring- d) Child mortality rate
a) Infectivity (Kamat 05)
471. Case-control study is a type of- (Corned 08)
b) Pathogenecity
a) Descriptive epidemiological study
c) VIrulence
b) Analytical study
d) Average duration of disease
461. A useful index to measure the lethality of an acute c) Longidutinal study
infectious diseases is-(PGI 81, AIIMS 88, AIIMS 04, d) Experimental epidemiological study
a) Attack rate b) Incidence rate AI 05) 472. What is nottrue about point source epidemic?
c) Case fatality rate d) None of these a) Plateau phase (APPG 08)
462. Death rates of two countries are best compared by- b) No secondary waves
a) Crude death rate (MAHE 05) c) Explosive epidemic
b) Proportional crude death rate d) Only one peak
c) Standardized mortality rate 4 73. A disease whose etiology is not known, the firststep
d) Age specific death rate in the formation of hypothesis will be -
463. Which of the following is used to compare the death a) Cross sectional study (PGMCET07)
rates of two different populations- (PGMCET 07) b) Descriptive epidemiology
a) Crude death rate c) Case control study
b) Age specific death rate d) Cohort study
c) Age standardized death rate 47 4. Descriptive Epidemiology is study in relation to-
d) Proportional mortality rate
a) Time b) Place (DPG 03)
464. In a outbreak of cholera in village of 2,000
c) Person d)All
population, 20 cases have occurred and 5 died. Case
fatality rate is- (Delhi PG Feb. 09) 475. Which of the following is a characteristic of a point
a) 1% b)0.25% source epidemic? (UPSC-II 08)
c) 5% d)25% a) Herd immunity regulates spread of cases
465. Standardised mortality rate is stadardised for b) Person to person transmission is seen
a) Age b) Disease (DPG 11) c) Secondary wave of cases is always seen
c) Region d) A particular time period d) All cases develop within one incubation period
466. Point prevalence over estimates the disease 476. Pointsourceepidemictendsto- (Corned09)
with- (Jiprner 11) a) Continue over one incubation period
a) High incidence b) Low incidence b) Produce multiple peaks in the epidemic curve
c) Low mortality d) High mortality c) Be explosive
467. "Incidence" is defined as- (MAHE 05, AI 89) d) Tail gradually
a) Number of new cases occurring in a defined 477. Trueregardingseculartrends- (MAHE05)
population a) Changes in disease pattern in terms of months
b) Total cases (new+old) occurring in a defined b) Changes in disease pattern seasonally
population
c) Changes in disease pattern over a short period
c) Number of exposed developing the disease in a
of timer
defmed population
d) None of the above d) Changes in disease patttern over a long period
468. The number of new cases occurring in a defined of time
population during a specified period of time is 478. Seasonal trends is shown by- (JIPMER 99)
called- (Corned 07) a) Varicella b) Polimyelitis
a) Period prevalence b) Point prevalence c) Malaria d) Measles
c) Prevalence d) Incidence 479. Cyclic trends are seen in which ofthe following-
469. Calculate the prevalence ifincidence is 2 cases per a) Rabies b) Measles (MAHE 07)
1000 population per year and mean duration is c) Cholera d) Hepatitis
4 years- (Corned 09) 480. The changes occuring in the disease frequency
a) 8 Cases per 1000 population over many years is called- (Karnataka 03)
b) 2 Cases per 1000 population a) Cyclic trend b) Seasonal trend
c) 0.5 Cases per 1000 population c) Secular trend d) None of the above
d) 32 Cases per 1000 population
459)b 460)c 461)c 462)c 463)c 464)a 465)a 466)c 467)a 468)d 469)a 470)b 471)b 472)a
473)b 474)d 475)d 476) a,c 477) d 478) a,b,c,d 479) b 480) c
481. False about longitudinal studies is- (UP 96) 493. The influence of maternal smoking and LBW
a) Identifies risk factor incidence is studied. Detailed smoking history is
b) Used to study natural history of disease taken at first antenatal visit and smoking history
c) Incidence can't be measured and birth weight were studied later. The type of study
d) All is- (Jipmer 11)
a) Retrospective cohart study
482. John Snow's discovery of cholera is an example b) Cross sectional study
of- (Manipal 08) c) Clinical trial
a) Natural experiments b) Spot map study d) Prospective cohort study
c) Randomized trial d) Short study 494. Bias is unlikely to invalidate cohort studies used to
483. In which one ofthe following does the host factor assess risk of exposure because- (UPSC 2K)
show bimodal incidence curve?- (UPSC 2006) a) Data collection is prospective
a) Kaposi's sarcoma b) Osteosarcoma b) Large number of subjects is usually included
c) Hodgkin's lymphoma d) LWlg cancer c) Exposure is usually determined prior to disease
484. True of case control studies- . (J1PMER 98) occurrence
a) It proceeds from cause to effect d) Actual relative risk can be determined
b) Odds ratio can be calculated 495. Relative risk of a disease measures which of the
foUowing- (Karnat 05)
c) Incidence can be calculated
a) Strength of association between suspected
d) Needs many patients cause and effect
485. Case control study is used for study of- (DPG 11) b) Biological plausibility between suspected cause
a) Common diseases b) Uncommon diseases and effect
c) Rare diseases d) Unkown diseases c) Temporal relationship between suspected cause
486. Case control study is- (A11HPH 98) and effect
a) Prospective b) Retrospective d) Specificity of association between suspected
c) Cross sectional d) None of the above cause and effect
487. A case control study is not characterized by - 496. A total of 3500 patient with thyroid cancer are
a) Cases with the disease are compared to controls identified and surveyed by patient interviews with
without the disease - (UPSC 04) reference to past exposure to radiation. The study
b) Assessment of past exposure may be biased design most appropriately illustrates- (UPSC 2K)
c) Definition of cases may be difficult a) Case series report b) Case control study
d) Incidence rates may be computed directly c) Case report d) Clinical trial
488. Case control study- estimate- (UP 08) 497. Non- Bias study is- (Jipmer 03)
a) Only odd's ratio a) Case control study
b) Odds ratio and attributable risk b) Cohort study
c) Relative risk, attributable risk, population c) Randomized controlled trials
attributable risk d) Umandomized trials
d) Incidence, Relative risk, and attributable risk 498. All are example for randomised control trials
except- (Manipal 08)
489. The association between disease & risk factor in a
a) Natural experiments b) Clinical trials
case control study is studied by- (A1IMS 96, MP 2K) c) Risk factor trials d) Preventive trials
a) Relative role 499. Which one of the following is the correct statement-
b) Attributable role In a study of relationship between obesity and
c) Population attributable role cardiovascular diseases, increased cholesterol and
d) Odds ratio hyperglycemia are? - (UPSC 2006)
490. Relative Risk can be obtained from -(AI 90,DPG 09) a) ConfoWlders b) Intervening variable
a) Case study b) Cohort study c) Direct causes d) Independent variables
c) Case control study d) Experimental study 500. Berkesonian bias is a selection bias which occurs in-
491. Which is false about cohort study- (J1PMER 92) a) CommWlity-basedstudies (UPSC-1109)
a) Incidence can be measured b) Hospital-based studies
b) Used to study chronic diseases c) Laboratory-based studies
c) Expensive d) Natural exposure studies
d) Always prospective 501. An epidemiological hypothesis should specify the
492. All are true about cohort studies except- (AP 96) foUowingexcept- (UPSC07)
a) Prospective a) Population
b) Useful for rare diseases b) Time response relationship
c) Necessary for incidence c) Geographical trends
d) Costly d) Expected outcome
48l)c 482)b 483)c 484)b 485)c 486)b 487)d 488)a 489)d 490)b 491)d 492)b 493)d 494)c
495) a 496) a 497) c 498)a 499)a 500)b 50l)c
502. Bacteria is not shed in- (MP 98) 515. The gap in time between the onset ofthe primary
a) Carrier state ·b) Latent infection case and the secondary case is caUed as-(UPSC-II 09)
c) Incubation period d) Subclinical infection a) Latent period b) Generation time
503. Reservoirofhookworm- (AP 97) c) Serial interval d) Communicable period
a) Human being b) Soil 516. Prognosis of a disease can be given by- (Manipal 08)
c) Faeces d) Monkeys
a) Secondary attack rate b) Incubation period
504. The person, animal, object or substance from which
c) Latency d) Serial interval
an infectious substance passes or is disseminated
by host is called- (COMEDK 05) 517. An important measure of the communicability of a
a) Reservoir b) Source disease is- (UPSC 2K, Corned 09)
c) Carrier d) Homologous reservoir a) Case fatality rate
505. No subclinical infection exists in- (Jipmer 03) b) Disease specific mortality rate
a) Polio b) Mumps c) Infection rate
c) Chicken pox d) Hepatitis A d) Secondary attack rate
506. First case in an epidemic is called- (AIIHPH 98) 518. A village has a total oflOO under-five children. The
a) Index case b) Primary case coverage with measles vaccine in this age group is
c) First case d) None of the above 60%. Following the occurrence of a measles case in a
507. Latent infection occurs in the following child after a visit outside, twenty six children developed
except- (UPSC 07) measles. The secondary attack rate ofmeasles is -
a) Mumps b) Herpes simplex
a) 25% b)40% (UPSC 2K)
c) Brill-zinsserdisease d) Ancylostomiasis
508. The following set of words can be used synonymously c) 500/o d) 65%
in epidemiology- (APPGE 05) 519. Isolation is not carried out in one ofthe following-
a) Source and Reservoir a) Plague b) Cholera (Jipmer 03)
b) Index and primary case c) AIDS d)Chickenpox
c) Latent infection and subclinical infection 520. Isolation as a method of a control is infection in
d) Serial interval and incubation period which ofthefoUowing disease ?(DelhiPG Mar. 09)
509. Which of the following carriers recieved source a) Diphtheria b) Plague
ofinfection from other carriers is called- (UP 07) c) Mumps d) Cholera
a) Incubatory carrier b) Convulescent carrier 521. In control of communicable diseases, the period of
c) Healthy carrier d) Chronic carrier quarantine in respect of a disease is determined
510. The type oftrasmission involved in the case of plague by- (Karnat 96)
in rat flea- (C. U.PG.E.E. 96, Kamataka 94)
a) Incubation period b) Infectivity period
a) Propagative b) Cyclo propagative
c) Duration of illness d) Carrier state
c) Cyclo- Developmental d) None
511. Vertical transmission is seen in- (UP 07) 522. International notification is a must in the following
a) Herpes simplex b) Leprosy except- (TN 03)
c) Tetanus d) Whooping cough a) Plague b) Cholera
512. The time interval between reception of infection and c) Yellow d) Paralytic polio
maximum infectivity of the host is know as -(MH 11) 523. Themosteffectivevaccineis- (JIPMER 91)
a) Generation time b) Serial interval a) IT b)OPV
c) Latent period d) Median incubation period c) B.C.G d)MEASLES
513. Serial interval measures- (Kerala 97) 524. Which vaccine is most effective- (AI 89)
a) Incubation period of disease a) Cholera b) Typhoid
b) Sensitivity c) Yellow fever d) Chicken pox
c) Specificity
525. The following are live attenuated vacciness, except-
d) Positive predictive value
a) .oc:G b) Oral typhoid (SGPGI 05)
514. Generation time in epidemiology is defined as-
a) The interval between marriage and the birth of c) Measles d) Pertussis
first child (Kama taka 04) 526. Which of the following is given as live oral vaccine-
b) The interval of time between the receipt of a) B.C.G b) Measles (ROHTAK 97)
infection by host and maximal infectivity of the c) Typhoid d) Rabies
host e) Hepatitis
c) The interval of time between primary case and 527. During pregnancy, vaccination can be given against
secondary cases all these diseases except- (UPSC 2006)
d) Interval of time between invasion by infectious a) Hepatitis b) Typhoid
agent and appearance of first sign or symptom c) Mumps d) Hepatitis B
of the disease in question
502)b 503)a 504)b 505)c 506)b 507)a 508)c 509)None 510)a 511)a 512)a 513)a 514)b 515)c
516)b 517)d 518)d 519)c 520) a,b,c,d 52l)a 522) d 523) d 524) c 525) d 526) c 527)c
528. Which of the following vaccine should not be given 543. Which one of the following disinfectant is not
during pregnancy?- (APPG 2006) effective in killing spores? (Jipmer 11)
a) HBV b) Measles, mumps, rubella a) Alcohol b) Aldehyde
c) Typhoid d) Cholera c) Halogen d) Phenol
529. Which of the following vaccine should not be given
during pregnancy? (DPG 11) SCREENING FOR DISEASE
a) HBV b) Measles, mumps, rubella
c) Typhoid d)Cholera 544. Active search for disease in an apparently healthy
530. Vaccines that can be safely given during pregnancy individualis kla- (A11MS Nov 07)
are the following except- (UPSC-11 09) a) Monitoring b) Case finding
a) Tetanus b) Influenza
c) Screening d) Sentinel surveillance
c) Rubella d) Pneumococcus
545. Time difference between screening test and standard
531. The dose of OPV, given at birth, in case of
test is known as- (PG1 June 99, Dec 98)
institutional deliveries is- (A11HPH 2001)
a) Zero dose OPV b) Initial dose a) Lead time b) Generation time
c) Primary dose d) First dose c) CIP d) Lag time
532. Vaccine which can be stored at-10°C temperature- e) Latent period
a) Polio b)Measles (AI1HPH2001) 546. A test bas been introduced that will detect a certain
c) BJ3 d)DPT disease 1 year earlier than it is usually detected.
533. Vaccine which requires most stringent condition Which of the following is most likely to happen to
for storage- (Kerala 91, DPG 09) the disease within 10 years after the test introduced?
~DPT b)OPV (Assumed that 1 year early detection bas no effect
c) BJ3 d)TT on the natural history of disease)-
534. The most beat sensitive vaccine is - (Comed 09) a) It will be a good screening test
a) Measles b) Hepatitits B b) The period prevelance will decrease
c) DPT d)OPV c) The apparent 5 year survival rate will increase
535. Frozen DPT vaccine should be- (UPSC 04) d) The incidence rate will decrease
a) Shaken thoroughly before use 547. Which is most economical and best screening-
b) Allowed to melt before use a) Mass screening (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Discarded b) High risk screening
d) Brought to room temperature before use c) Multiphasic screening
536. Freeze dried vaccines are all except- (Jipmer 05) d) Any of the above
a) BJ3 b)DPT 548. The screening strategy for prevention of blindness
c) Measles d) Yellow fever from diabetic retinopathy according to the NPCB
537. Strain used in mumps vaccine? (MH 11)
involves- (A110)
a) EdmonstenZagreb b)Oka
a) Opportunistic screening
c) JerylLynn d) Danish 1331
b) High risk screening
538. After administrating live vaccine, immunoglobulins
are given after- (UPSC 2002) c) Mass screening
a) 1 week b) 2 weeks d) Screening by Primary Care Physician
c) IOweeks d) 12 weeks 549. Screening for condition recommended when -
a) Low case fatality rate (NEETIDNB Pattern)
539. Herd immunity is not useful in- (AI1HPH 98)
b) Diagnostic tools not available
a) Diphtheria b) Tetanus c) No effective treatment available
c) Smallpox d) Mumps d) Early diagnosis can change disease course
540. At Primary Health Centre (PHC) level, vaccines are because of effective treatment
stored in the- (Karn 11) 550. The criteria for validity of a screening test are-
a) Cold box b) Deep freezer a) Accuracy (A11MS 96)
c) Ice lined refrigerator d) Walk in cold room b) Predictability
541. How many fully frozen ice packs should a vaccine c) Sensitivity & Specificity
carriercontain? (Karn 11)
d) Cost effectiveness
a) 2 b)4
551. Which of the following characteristics is not of much
c) 6 d) 8
importance in a screening test- (A11MS May 07)
542. Disinfection by autoclaving is NOT recommended
for- (Delhi pg Mar. 09) a) Low cost b) High safety margin
a) Sputum b)Linen c) High sensitivity d) High specificity
c) Sharp instruments d) Glass syringes
528)b 529)b 530)c 53l)a 532) a,b 533) b 534)d 535)c 536)b 537)c 538)b 539)b 540)c 54l)b
542)c,d 543)a 544)c 545)a 546)c 547)b 548)b 549)d 550)b 55l)d
552. Reliability means- (AIIMS Nov 09) c) True negative

a) Number of times the same results on repeated trials d) An ideal screening test should have 100% specificity
b) Number of times variation is seen 563. Diagnostic power ofthe test is reflected by -(AI 05)
c) Extent of accuracy a) Sensitivity b) Specificity
d) Level of simplicity c) Predictive value d) Population attributable risk
553. Validity of a test is based upon all except- 564. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude
a) Sensitivity b) Specificity (AIJMSNov 95) the disease is reflected by- (AI 06)
c) Precision d) Accuracy a) Sensitivity b) Specificity
554. Which one of the following will be affected by inter- c) Positive predictivity d) Negative predictivity
observer variation in epidemiological studies-
565. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a
a) Sensitivity (UPSC 07)
screening test, the denominator is comprised of-
b) Predictive value of the positive test
a) True positives +False negatives (A/99, 03)
c) Specificity
d) Reliability b) False positives+ True negatives
555. Validity of an indicator means- (Corned 07) c) True positives+ False positives
a) It should actually measure what it is supposed d) True positives + True negatives
to measure 566. Study this formula carefully- (AI03)
b) The answer should be same if measured by Total
different persons in similar circumstances ----------~----------X 100
True positive +False positives
c) Indicators should reflect changes in the situation
concerned This denotes
d) Indicators should have ability to obtain data needed a) Sensitivity b) Specificity
556. If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a c) Positive Predictive value
sample on repeated testing, it is inferred that the 567. Positive predictive value is most affected by-
measurement is- (AIIMSNov 02) a) Prevalence b) Sensitivity
a) Precise b) Accurate c) Specificity d) Relative risk
c) Specific d) Sensitive 568. If prevalence of a disease increases, what is true-
557. Using a new technique, Hb was estimated in a blood a) PPV increases (NEETIDNB Pattern)
sample. The test was repeated for 10 times. The b) PPV decreases
reports were: 9.5, 9.2, 9.4, 9.6, 9.7, 9.9, 10.2, 10.3, c) No effect on PPV
10.5, 12.1. Accurate value ofBb was estimated by d) PPV may increase or decrease
standard tests to be 10.2. The new technique has- 569. A test is done in community A and B, more false
a) High validity and high reliability (AIIMS Nov 06
positives were found in community A. The inference
b) Low validity and low reliability Nov 11)
is that- (AIIMS 99)
c) High validity and low reliability
a) Invalid test b) Prevalence less in A
d) Low validity and high reliability
558. Using a new technique, Hemoglobin was estimated c) Prevalence less B d) Prevalence is more inA
in a blood sample. The test was repeated for 10 times. 570. A screening test is used in the same way in two
The reports were 9.5, 9.2, 9.4, 9.6, 9.7, 9.9, 10.5, similar populations; but the proportion of false
12.1.Accurate value ofHb was estimated by standard positive results among those who test positive in
test to be 10.2. The uew technique bas- population A is lower than those who test positive in
a) High validity and high reliability (AIIMS Nov 11) population B. What is the likely explanation-
b) Low validity and low reliability a) The specificity of the test is lower in population A
c) High validity and low reliability b) The prevalence of the disease is lower in
d) Low validity and high reliability population A (Al/MS May 03)
559. L-J chart is used for monitoring- (AIIMS May 07) c) The prevalence of the disease is higher in
a) Accuracy b) Precision population A.
c) Sensitivity d) Specificity d) The specificity of the test is higher in population A
560. Specificity of a test refers to its ability to 571. Due to an effective prevention program, the
detect -(NEET/DNB Pattern, AIIMS Nov 06, May 09) prevalence of an infectious disease in a community
a) True positive b) True negatives has been reduced by 90%. A physician continues to
c) False negatives d) False positive use the same diagnostic test for the disease that she
561. Sensitivity means the ability to detect - (AI 97) has always used. Bow have the test's characteristics
a) True negative b) True positive changed?
c) False negative d) False positive a) Its sensitivity has increased
562. Specificity of a test means, all except - (AI2K)
b) Its positive predictive value has increased
a) Identifies those without disease
c) Its negative predictive value has increased
b) True positive
d) The test's characteristics have not changed
552)a 553)c 554)d 555)a 556)a 557)b 558)b 559)a>b 560)b 56l)b 562)b 563)c 564)d 565)c
566)a 567)a 568)a 569)b 570)c 57l)c
572. A new test for Diabetes mellitus is performed in a probability that a person, negative to this test, has
group containing diabetics and non-diabetics. If120 no disease- (AIIMS May 06)
mgldl ofblood sugar is taken as the cut-off, tbe area a) Less than 50% b)70%
shaded in the graph below represents- (AI 11) c) 95% d)72%
Test Cut-off 580. A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a
sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of0.90. A single
test is applied to each subject in the population in
which the diseased population is 10%. What is the
probability that a person positive to this test, has the
disease- (AIIMS Nov 05)
a) 90% b)81%
Non Dibetics Dibetics c) 50% d)91%
581. ELISA test has sensitivity of95% and specificity of
95%. Prevalence of HIV carriers is 5%. The
predictive value of positive test is-
120 mg/dl a) 95% b) 50% (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 1000/o d) 75%
a) True Positives b) FalsePositives
c) True Negatives d) False Negatives 582. Population is 10,000, ofthese 20% having disease.
573. Too much false positives in a test is due to which of The screening test has 95% sensitivity and 80%
the following- (AIIMS Nov 2K, 08) specificity. PPV is- (AIIMS Nov 09)
a) High prevalence a) 54.3% b)98.5%
b) Tests with high specificity c) 47.5% d) 20%
c) Tests with high sensitivity 583. In a village having population of 1000, we found
d) High incidence patients with certain disease and the results of a
574. More false positive cases in a community signify new diagnostic test on that disease are given below -
that the disease has-(AIIMS May 10, Nov 08,AI 01)
Disease
a) High prevalence b) High sensitivity
Test result Present Absent
c) Low prevalence d) Low sensitivity
57 5. The same screening test is applied to two com unities
+ 180 400
20 400
X andY; Y shows more false+ ve cases as compared
to X. The possibility is - (AI 01) Which of the following is the positive predictive
a) High sensitivity value of diagnostic test in that population- (AI 06)
b) High specificity a) 45 b) 31
c) Y community has high prevalence c) 95 d) 50
d) Y community has low prevalence
576. Which one of the following relationships shown MISCELLANEOUS (SCREENING)
between different parameters of a performance of a
test, is correct- (AIIMSMay 04) 584. Study the following table carefully and answer the
a) Sensitivity 1 - specificity
questions- (AIIMS 05)
b) Positive predictive value = 1 Negative
Disease
predictive value
c) Sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity Test result Present Absent
d) Sensitivity 1 -Positive predictive value +ve 40 225
577. High sensitive- (NEET/DNB Pattern) -ve 10 225
a) Low false positive b) Low false negative ..
The sensitiVIty ofth1s study 1s -
c) Low true negative d) Low true positive
578. Calculated positive predictive value of ELISA test a) 40 b)20
for HIV with sensitivity 99%, specificity 99% , c) 80 d) 50
prevalence ofHIV in population 5/1000- 585. A test was considered for diagnosing a disease. Out
a) 10 b)70 (AIIMS2001) of80 positive cases with this test, 40 actually had no
c) 33 d)99 disease. Out of 9920 tested negative cases 9840
579. A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a actually had no disease. Calculate the sensitivity of
sensitivity of a 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. A single the test- (AI 10)
test is applied to each subject in the population in a) 13% b)33%
which the diseased population is 30%. What is the c) 500/o d) 99%
572)d 573)c 574)c 575)d 576)c 577)b 578)c 579)c 580)c 581)b 582)a 583)b 584)c 585)b
586. In a group of patients presenting to a hospital 591. Mammography has 90% sensitivity and 98%
emergency with abdominal pain, 30% of patients specificity for breast carcinona. What is the
have acute appendicitis, 70% of patients with probability that a woman with breast carcinoma
appendicitis have a temperature greater than 37.5°C remains undiagnosed for 2 consecutive years?
and 40% of patients without appendicitis have a a) 1110 b) 2/10 (NEET/DNB Pattern)
temperature greater than 37.50C and 40% of patients c) 1/100 d) 2/100
without appendicitis have a temperature greater than 592. When a diagnostic test is used in series mode
37.5°C. Consdidering these findings, which of the then- (AIIMSNovO~
following statements is correct- (AIIMS Nov 04) a) Sensitivity increases but the specificity decreases
a) The sensitivity of temperature greater than
b) Specificity increases but the sensitivity decreases
37SC. as a marker for appendicitis is2114
c) Both sensitivity and specificity increase
b) The specificity of temperature greater than 37 SC
d) Both sensitivity and specificity decrease
as a marker for appendicitis is 42170
c) The positive predictive value of temperature 593. ELISA is performed on a population with low
greater than 37SC as marker for appendicitis is prevalence. What would be the result of performing
21/30 double screening ELISA tests - (AI OJ)
d) The specificity of the test will depend upon the a) Increased sensitivity and positive predictiv value
prevalence of appendicitis in the population to b) Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
which it is applied. c) Increased specificity and positive predictive value
587. The usefulness of a 'screening test' in a community d) Increased specificity and negative predictive value
depends on its- (AI 04) 594. In a surveillance centre for Hepatitis B, in a low
a) Sensitivity b) Specificity prevalance area, the method for testing for Hepatitis
c) Reliability d) Predictive value B was single ELISA. This policy was changed to
588. In a village having population of 1000, we found double testing in series. This would result in the
patients with certain disease. The results of a new following 2 parameters of the test being
d'Iagl!_ostic t est on th a td'1seaseare also f.0 llows- affected- (AI 02)
Disease a) Specificity and positive predictive value
Test result Present Absent b) Sensitivity and positive predictive value
+ 180 400 c) Sensitivity and negative predictive value
d) Specificity and negative predictive value
- 20 400
595. All comprise inherent properties of a screening test
What is the percent prevalence of disease- (AI 05) except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 0.20 b) 2 a) Sensitivity b) Specificity
c) 18 d) 20 c) Yield d) Predictive accuracy
589. The table below shows the screening test results of 596. Predictive value of a positive test is defined as-
disease Z in relation to the true disease status of the a) True+ ve/true + ve +false-vex 100 (AI 99)
population being tested- (AI 04) b) True+ ve/true + ve + false+ vex 100
Screening Disease Z Total c) False+ ve/true + ve +false+ vex 100
Test results d) False+ ve/true + ve +false-vex 100
Positive 400 200 600 597. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having
Negative 100 600 700 SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have
Total 500 800 1300 come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the
The specificity of the screening test is - probability of SLE at this point, you need to
a) 70% b)75% know- (AI 12, AIIMS Nov 11, Nov 06)
c) 79% d)86% a) Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and
590. A drug company is developing a new pregnancy-test specificity of each test
kit for use on an outpatient basis. The company used b) Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
the pregnancy test on 100 women who are known to c) Incidence and prevalence ofSLE
be pregnant. Out oflOO women, 99 showed positive d) Relative risk of SLE in this patient
test. Upon using the same test on 100 non-pregnant 598. Receiver operator characteristic (ROC) curve is
women, 90 showed negative result. What is the usually drawn between- (AI 06)
sensitivity of the test- (AIIMSMay 03) a) Sensitivity and specificity
a) 900/o b) (!-sensitivity) and specificity
b) 99% c) Sensitivity and (!-specificity)
c) Average of90 & 99. d) (!-sensitivity) and (!-specificity)
d) Cannot be calculated from the given data
586)b 587)a 588)d 589)b 590)b 591)c 592)b 593)c 594)a>b 595)c 596)b 597)a 598)c
599. In which of the following disease, the overall survival 612. Sensitivity is- (DNB June 08)
is increased by screening procedure-(AJJMS May 07) a) True positive/True positive + false negative
a) Prostate Ca b) Lung Cancer b) True positive/False positive+ true negvative
c) Colon Ca d) Ovarian Ca c) True negative/True negative+ false positive
600. Which of the following can be prevented by d) True negative/False negative+ true positive
screening- (PGI June 08) 613. The active search for unrecognized disease or
a) Cacervix b) Ca breast defect in apparently health people using rapidly
c) Ca prostate d) Ca Lung applied tests or procedures is- (DNB Dec 07)
e) Cacolon a) Case fmding b) Monitoring
601. Screening procedure is best for Ca of - c) Screening d) Active surveillance
a) Prostate b) Colon (NEETIDNB Pattern) 614. The time interval between diagnosis by early
c) Gastric d) None detection of screening and diagnosis by other
602. Screening for which carcinoma is beneficial - means is - (DNB Dec 07)
a) Carcinoma cervix (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Serial interval b) Lead time
b) Lung carcinoma c) Time lag d) Latent period
c) Stomach carcinoma 615. AD of the following are true for a screeing test except-
d) None a) Less accurate (DNB June 07)
603. Most number of false positives by a screening test is b) Fonns the basis for treatment
because orr (DNB Dec 2011) c) Test results are arbitrary
a) High specificity b) High sensitivity d) Less expensive
c) High prevalence d) Low prevalence 616. Multiphasic screening means- (DNB June 07)
604. Most important factor for a test to be a good a) Application of the two or more scrrening tests
screening test is? (DNB Dec 2011) in combination at one time
a) Specificity b) Sensitivity b) Application of two or more screening tests in
c) Reliability d) Predictive value combination at different time
605. Screening of cervical cancer at PHC level is done by? c) Application of two or more screening tests in
a) History and clinical examination combination at different geographical areas.
b) Colposcopy (DNBJune2011) d) Application of separate screening tests for
c) CTscan different diseases
d) PAP smear 617. Criteria for a disease fit for screening including-
606. Sensitivityis- (DNBJune2010) a) It should be an important public health problem
a) True positive/true positive + false negative b) Facilities should be available for confrrmation
b) True positive/false positive+ true negative c) There should be sufficiently long time available
c) True negative/true negative+ false positive d) All of the above (DNB June 07)
d) True negative/false negative + true positive 618. 'Lead time' refers to the time between- (Karn 11)
607. The ability of a test to correctly diagnose the a) Disease onset & fmal critical diagnosis
percentage of sick people who are having the b) Disease onset & first possible point of detection
condition is called as? (DNB Dec 09) c) First possible point of detection & final critical
a) Sensitivity diagnosis
b) Specificity d) First possible point of detection & usual time of
c) Positive predictive value diagnosis
d) Negative predictive value 619. A patient with cervix cancer is missed by a screening
608. Denominator of positive predictive value is- test and later diagnosed with advanced disease. This
a) True positve + False positive (DNB Dec 09) time interval is called ? (Jipmer 11)
b) True positive+ False negative a) Lead time b) Screening time
c) False positive+ True negative c) Serial interval d) Generation time
d) False positive+ False negative 620. The time interval between diagnosis by early
609. Specificity measures- (DNB June 09) detection and diagnosis by other means is-(Kerala 04)
a) True negative b) False positives a) Incubation period b) Lead time
c) True positives d) None of the above c) Serial interval d) Latent period
610. Truepositivityisindicatedby- (DNBDec08) 621. In selecting a screening test for a disease which of
a) Sensitivity b) Specificity the following should not be considered?(Jipmer 11)
c) Predictive value d) Validity a) Cost of the test
611. Positive predictive value is most affected by- b) Efficacy of the treatment
a) Prevalence b) Sensitivity (DNB Dec 08) c) Knowledge of the physician about the disease
c) Specificity d) Relative risk d) Sufferings from disease to the people
599)c 600)a,e 60l)b 602)a 603) b,d 604) b 605) d 606)a 607)c 608)b 609)a 610)a 61l)a 612)a
613)c 614)b 615)b 616)a 617)d 618)d 619)a 620)b 62l)c
622. Ifbiochemical test gives the same reading ofr given 633. Evaluation of screening testis by- (MAHE 05)
sample on repeated testing, it is inferred that the a) Sensitivity b) Specificity
measurement is- (HP 2006) c) Predictive value d) All the above
a) Precise b) Accurate 634. High false positive cases in a community signify
c) Specific d) Sensitive that disease has- (UP 08)
623. Validity of an indicator means- (Comed 07) a) High prevalence & Low incidence
a) It should actually measure what it is supposed b) High incidence & Low prevalence
to measure c) Low prevalence & Low incidence
b) The answer should be same if measured by d) High incidence & High prevalence
different persons in similar circumstances
635. Which one of the following will be affected by inter-
c) Indicators should reflect changes in the situation
observer variation in epidemiological studies-
concerned-
a) Sensitivity (UPSC 07)
d) Indicators should have ability to obtain data
b) Predictive value of the positive test
needed
624. True positivity is indicated by- (MAHA 05) c) Specificity
a) Sensitivity b) Specificity d) Reliability
c) Predictive value d) Validity
625. True negative means- (JIPMER 2002) BIOSTATISTICS
a) Sensitivity
b) Specificity 636. Central tendency is given by- (PGI Dec 01, 00,
c) Positive predictive value a) Mean b) Median June 99)
d) Negative predictive value c) Mode d) Variance
626. Specificity measures- (KERALA 97, MAHE 05) e) Range
a) True negative b) False positives 637. Most commonly used statistical average- (PGI 99)
c) True positives d) None of the above a) Mean b) Median
627. True regarding specificity: (DPG 11) c) Mode d) None
a) Identifies false +ve b) Identifies false -ve 638. Determination of which statistical parameter
c) Identifies true+ ve d) Identifies true -ve requires quantities to be arranged in an ascending
628. For a screening test, 90o/o specificity means that ordescendingorder's- (AIIMS95, 94)
90o/o of non-diseased persons will give a- a) Mean b) Median
a) True negative result (UPSC-II 09) c) Mode d)S.D.
b) True positive result 639. 10 babies were born in a hospitalS were less than
c) False negative result 2.5 kg. And 5 were greater than 2.5 kg the average
d) False positive result
is- (AIIMS 97)
629. The ability of a screening test to detect "true
a) Arithmetic average b) Geometric average
positives" is known as- (UPSC-II 09)
c) Median disposal d) Mode average
a) Sensitivity
640. Out of11 births in a hospital, 5 babies weighed over
b) Specificity
c) Positive predictive value 2.5 kg and 5 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value
d) Negative predictive value dose 2.5 represent- (AI 01)
630. Diagnostic accuracy of a test is determined by- a) Geometric average b) Arithmetic avemge
a) Sensitivity (MAHE 98, DPG 09) c) Median average d) Mode
b) Specificity 641. The median of values 2, 5, 7, 10, 10, 13,25-
c) Predictive value a) 10 b) 13 (AIIMS 01)
d) None b) 25 d)5
631. Denominator of positive predictive value is- 642. Calculate the median from the following values 1.9,
a) True positve +False positive (PGMCET 07) 1.9, 1.9, 2.1, 2.4, 2.5, 2.5, 2.9 - (AIIMS 00)
b) True positive + False negative a) 12 b) 1.9
c) False positive+ True negative c) 225 d)2.5
d) False positive+ False negative 643. Median value for the given data 5, 5, 50, 150, 10,20-
632. If the prevalence of a disease in a population a) 15 b) 10 (PGI Dec 99)
increases, the predictive value of a positive test- c) 20 d)40
a) Increases (Karn 11) e) 50
b) Decreases 644. Mode is defined as - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Remains constant a) Most frequent value b) Middle value
d) Becomes compromised Minimum value None
622)a 623)a 624)a 625)b 626)a 627)d 628)a 629)a 630)c 631)a 632)a 633)d 634)b 635)a
636) a,b,c 637) a 638) b 639) a,c 640) c 641)a 642)c 643)a 644)a
645. The frequently occurring value in a data 655. Standarddeviationisameasureof- (AI 08)
is- (TN91,NEETIDNBPattern) a) Chance
a) Median b) Mode b) Deviation from mean value
c) Standard deviation d) Mean c) Central tendency
646. In a bimodal series, if mean is 2 and median is 3, d) None of the above
what is the mode- 656. Square root of deviation is also called as-
a) 5 b)2.5
a) Standard deviation (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Standard error
c) 4 d) 3
c) Mean deviation
647. The number of malaria cases reported during the
d) Range
last 10 years in a town is given below, 250,320, 190, 657. If each value of a given group of observation is
300, 5000, 100, 260, 350, 320, and 160. The multiplied by 10, the standard deviation of the
epidemiologist wants to find out the average number resulting observation is- (AI 04)
of malaria cases reported in that town during the a) Original std. Deviation x 10
last 10 years. The most appropriate measure of b) Original std. Deviation! I 0
averageforthisdata will be- (AJIMSMay 01, Nov 04) c) Original std. Deviation -1 0
a) Arithmetic mean b) Mode d) Original std. Deviation itself
c) Median d) Geometric mean 658. In the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a
648. Number of cases of malaria detected in 10yrs are hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kgs, then the
100, 160, 190, 250, 300, 300, 320, 320, 550, 380. standard deviation of this sample will be-
How to calculate the average number of cases per a) 2.8 b)O (AJIMSMay06,AI01)
year- (AIIMSJune 2000) c) 1 d) .28
a) Arithmetic mean b) Geometric mean 659. Birth weight of all10 babies born in a nursing home
c) Mode d) Median
on a day was 2. 7 kg. Standard deviation is -
a) 0.00 b) 1.00 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
649. MeanvalueofweightofagroupoflOboyswasfound
c) 0. 27 d) 2.7
to be 18.2 kg. Later it was found that weight of one of
660. Best method of variability is- (AJIMS 96)
the boys was wrongly recorded as 2.0 kg that should a) Mean b) Mode
have been 20 kg. The true mean weight of the group c) Median d) Standard deviation
is- 661. Most common deviation used in social medicine
a) 18.2kg b)20.2kg is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 16.4kg d)20 kg a) Mean b) Range
650. All are measures of dispersion around central value c) Variance d) Standard deviation
except- (AIIMS Nov 07) 662. Correct relation between S =Standard deviation &
a) Mode b) Variance V=Variance- (MH 03)
c) Standard deviation d) Standard error of mean a) V square root of S b) S Square root ofV
651. Dispersion of data is measured by- (PGI May 10 c) V=2S d)S=2V
a) Coefficientofcorrelation Nov. 11) 663. Study done on a group of patients showed coefficient
b) Range of variance for BP and serum creatinine to be 20%&
c) Standard deviation 15% respectively. Inference is that -(AIIMS May 08)
d) Coefficient of variation a) Variation in BP is more than in serum creatinine
b) Variation in serum creatinine is more than in BP
e) Normal distribution curve
c) Standard deviation of BP is more than of
652. Find the value of range for the following data 7, 9, 6,
creatinine
8, 11, 10, 4- (Kerala 99) d) Standard deviation of creatinine is more than ofBP
a) 5 b) 6 664. Median weight of 100 children was 12 kgs. The
c) 7 d) 8 Standard Deviation was 3.Calculate the percentage
653. Calculate the range from the following distribution- coefficientofvariance- (AIIMS Nov 2000)
i) Size ~ 60 - 63 63 - 99 66-69 72-75 a) 25% b)35%
il) Number~ 5 18 142 27 c) 45% d)55%
a) 10 b) 15 665. A non-symmetrical frequency distribution is known
c) 20 d)25 as - (PGI June 06, 2000)
654. Mean deviation is- (PGI99) a) Skewed distribution
a) Measure of dispersion b) Normal distribution
b) Measure of dispersion c) Cumulative frequency distribution
c) Arange d) Bimodal distribution
d) An average e) J-shaped distribution
645)b 646)a 647)c 648)a 649)d 650)a 651) b,c,d 652) c 653) b 654) b 655)b 656)a 657)a 658)b
659)a 660)d 661)d 662)b 663)a 664)a 665)a,b,e
666. The standard normal distribution" (AI 05, 02) 677. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a
a) It skewed to the left normal distrubution with mean 300 1/min and
b) Has mean 1.0 standard deviation 20 1/min- (AI 05)
c) Has standard deviation= 0.0 a) About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260
d) Has variance= 1.0 and340 1/min.
667. When do variables follow standard distribution.;. b) The girls have healthy lungs
a) Mean median (AI 09) c) About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260 1/min.
b) Median Variance d) All the PEFR must be less than 340 1/min.
c) Mean= 2 Median 678. The fasting blood levels of glucose for a group of
d) Standard deviation= 2 variance normal curve diabetics is found to be normally distributed with a
668. A normal distribution curve depends on- (AI 00) mean of 105 mg per 1OOJ:Ql of blood and a standard
a) Mean and Sample size deviation oflOmg per 100ml ofblood. From this data
b) Range and Sample Size is can be inferred that approximately 95% of
c) Mean and Standard deviation diabetics will have their fasting blood glucose levels
d) Mean and median within the limits of- (AIIMS 03)
669. S.D. is 1.96 the confidence limit is- (AI 98, 96) a) 75 and 135 mgs b) 85 and 125 mgs
a) 63.6%. b) 66.6% c) 95 and 115 mgs d) 65 and 145 mgs
c) 95% d) W/o 679. Systolic BP of a group of200 people follows normal
670. Regarding the normal curve, true is!are-(PGIDec. 01) distribution. mean BP is 120 mm Hg and standard
a) Both limbs of the curve touch the baseline deviation 10. Which of the following is
b) Curve is bilaterally symmetrical true- (PGI May 10)
c) There is a skew to the right a) 68% of people have BP between 110-130 mm Hg
d) There is a skew to the left b) 95% of people have BP between 110-130 mm Hg
e) Mean, Median, Mode coincide c) 95%ofpeoplehaveBPbetween 100-140mmHg
671. Normal curve- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) 99% of pepole have BP between 100-140 mm Hg
a) Distribution of data is symmetrical 680. Ifa 95% confidence Interval for prevalence of cancer
b) Mean > Mode smokers aged> 65 years is 56% to 76%, the chance
c) Mode> Mean that the prevalance could be less than 56% is-
d) Median > Mean a) Nil b)44%
672. Confidence limit includes- (AI 99)
c)2.5% d)5%
a) Range & standard deviation
681. What is the probability that confounding factor fall
b) Median and standard error
to the right of95%-
c) Mean and standard error
a) 1 in 5 b) 1 in 10
d) Mode and standard deviation
673. A population study showed a mean glucose of86mgl c) 1 in20 d) 1 in40
dl. In a sample of 100 showing normal curve 682. If the distribution ofintra ocular pressure (lOP)
distribution, what percentage of people have glucose seen in 100 glaucoma patients has an average 30
above 86% ? (AI 02) mm with a SD of 10, what is the lower limit ofthe
a) 65 b)50 average that can be expected 95% of times-
c) 75 d)60 a) 28 b)26 (AIIMS 05)
674. Systolic BP of a group of persons follows normal c) 32 d)25
distribution curve. The mean BP is 120. The values 683. In a group of 100 children, the weight of a child is
above 120 are- (AIIMS 01) 15 kg. The standard error is 1.5 kg. Which one of
a) 25% b)75% thefollowingisTRUE- (AIIMS01)
c) 50% d) 100% a) 95% of all children weigh between 12 and 18 kg
675. For a 60 kg Indian male, the minimum daily protein b) 95% of all children weigh between 13.5 and 16.5 kg
requirement has been calculated to be 40 g (mean) c) 99% of all children weigh between 12 and 18 kg
and standard deviation is 10. The recommended daily d) 99% of all children weigh between 13.5 and
allowance of protein would be- (AI 02) 16.5kg
a) 60g/day b) 70g/day 684. Fasting Blood Sugar (FBS) of a population is known
c) 40g/day d) 50g/day to be normally distributed, with a mean of 105 mg%
676. If a value is choosen from a community what is the and standard deviation of 10 mg%. Thus 95% of
probability that it will be above the median- (AI97) the population will have FBS within- (AI 12)
a) 025 b)0.5
a) 104and106 b)95andll5
c) 0.6 d) 1
85 and 125 75 and 135
666)d 667)a 668)c 669)c 670) b,e 671)a 672)c 673)b 674)c 675)a 676)b 677)a 678)b 679)a,c
680)c 68l)d 682)a 683)a 684)c
685. Nonnal standard deviation true is-(NEET/DNB Pattern) 698. Confidence limits can be calculated using- (Al99)
a) Mean = Median b) Mean > Medion a)Mean and range
c) Median > Mean d) Mode > Mean b)Mean and standard error
686. Standard error of mean indicates~ (AIIMS 99) c)Median and range
a) Dispersion b) Distribution
d)Median and standard error
c) Variation d) Deviation
699. Confidence limit is calculated by-(NEET!DNB Pattern)
687. Standard error of mean is calculated by-
a) SD/n I b) SD/mean (AIIMS May 07) a) Mean and standard error
c) SD -v n d) Mean!SD b) Mean and standard deviation
688. In a population of pregnant female, Hb is estimated c) Median and standard deviation
on 100 women with standard deviation of lgm%. d) Median
The standard error is- (AIIMS OJ, May 04, 07) 700. 95% of confidence limit exist between- (A199,
a) I b)O.l a) ±l.S.D. b)±2S.D. AIIMS99)
c) O.Ql d) 10 c) ±3 S.D. d)±4 S.D.
689. Standard errors of mean, all are true except- 701. Area falling under 2 S.D. curve would be around-
a) Increases with increased number of samples a) 66% b) 95% (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Based on normal distribution curve c) 57% d)99%
c) Measure the confidence limit (AIJMS Nov 09)
702. Area between one standard deviation on either side
d) Standard deviation
690. While calculating the incubation period for measles of mean in normal distribution curve is -(AIIMS 95)
in a group of 25 children, deviation is 2 and the a) 62% b)68%
mean incubation period is 8 days. Calculate the c) 9()0/o d) 99%
standard error- (AJIMS 00) 703. If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a
a) 0.4 b) I mean of 130mmHg and a median of140 mmHg, the
c) 0.5 d)2 distribution is said to be- (AI 04)
691. If sample size is bigger in random sampling, which a) Symmetrical
of the following is TRUE- (AIIMS June 99) b) Positively skewed
a) It approaches maximum samples c) Negatively skewed
b) Reduces non sampling errors
d) Either positively or negatively skewed
c) Increases the precision of the result
depending on the Standard deviation
d) Decreases standard error
692. Estimated mean Hemoglobin (Hb) ofl 00 women is 704. For a negatively skewed data mean will be-
lOg%. Standard deviation (a) is lgm%. Standard a) Less than median (AIJMS 05, 02)
error of estimate will be- (AJ12) b) More than median
a) 0.001 b) 1.0 c) Equal to median
c) 10.0 d)0.1 d) One
693. Standard deviation of means measures- 705. In a distribution, if the mean is less median, then
a) Non-samplinr errors b) Sampling error the distribution is said to be- (AIIMS May 08)
c) Random errors d) Conceptual errors a) Negative skewed b) Positively skewed
694. Z score is for which type of distribution- (AJ95) c) Normal distribution d) No correlation
a) Normal b) Binomial
706. The distribution of random blood glucose
c) t d) Chi-square
measurements from 50 first year medical students
695. The Hb level is healthy women has mean 13.5 g/dl
and standard deviation 1.5 g!dl, what is the Z score was found to have a mean of3.0 mmol!litre with a
for a woman with Hb level15.0 g!dl- (AI 05) standard deviation of3.0 mmolllitre. Which of the
a) 9.0 b) 10.0 following is a correct statement about the shape
c) 20 d) 1.0 of the distribution of random blood glucose in these
696. Z score is used in- (AJJO) first year medical students- (AIIMS Nov 05)
a) Nominal data b) Normal distribution curve a) Since both mean and standard deviation are
c) t test d) Chi square test equal, it should be a symmetric distribution
697. About test of significance between two large b) The distribution is likely to be positively skewed
population, one of the following statements is true- c) The distribution is likely to be negatively
a) Null hypothesis states that 2 means are equal
skewed
b) Standard error of difference is the sum of the
d) Nothing can be said conclusively
standard error of 2 means (AJJMS 98)
c) Standard error of means are equal 707. Pearsonian measure of skewness- (Alll)
d) Standard error of difference between populations a) Mode Mean! SD b) Mean Mode/SD
calculated c) SD/Mode-mean d)Mean Mode/SD
685) a 686) a,c,d 687) c 688) b 689) a 690)a 69l)d 692)d 693)b 694)a 695)d 696)b 697)d 698)d
699) b>a 700) b 701) b 702) b 703) c 704)a 705)b 706)d 707)b
708. A chest physician observed that the distribntion 719. In a 3 x 4 contingency table, the number of degrees
of forced expiratory volume (FEV) in 300 smokers offreedom equals to- (AIIMS 04, PGI June 01)
had a median value of2.5 litres with the first and a) 1 b) 5
third quartiles being 1.5 and 4.5litres respectively. c) 6 d) 12
Based on this data now many persons in the sample 720. In the given data, degree offreedom will be-
are expected to have aFEV between 1.5 and 4.5litres- Duration of deve- Blood group
a) 75 b) 150 (AIIMS Nov 05) loping AIDS
c) 225 d)300
709. A measure oflocation which divides the distribution A B c D
in the ratio of3:1 is- (AI 03) 0-lOyears 20 30 48 7
a) Median b) First quartile 10-20years 100 15 38 10
c) Third quartile d) Mode 20-30years 12 9 8 3
710. First quartile ofthefollowing data is- 1, 3, 4, 2 a) 12 b)6
a) 1 b) 3 c) 9 d)20
c) 1.5 d)4 721. Chi sqnare test 5 rows/4 columns, degree of
711. The value between 1st pentile and 4th pentile freedom- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
includes- a)9 b)l2
a)20% b)40% c) 16 d) 20
c)60% d)80% 722. Yates correction is used in- (Jipmer 08)
712. For a group of n 250 subjects, 40th percentile a) Student 't' test b)ANOVA
would be the following value- c) Chi square test d) Wilcoxan test
a) 7th b)40th 723. Height to weight is a/an- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) lOOth d) I 40th a) Association b) Correlation
713. Meaning of baby has 15th percentile of head c) Proportion d)Index
circumference is- (AIIMS Nov 99) 724. NOT true about co-relation is- (AIIMS Feb 97)
a) 15% of children will have HC more than that a) Doesn't tell about causation
b) 15% ofHC, the child is having b) Tells about risk of the disease
c) 15% of children will have HC less than that c) -1.0 correlation shows linear relationship
d) Tells association between two variables
714. Central value of a set of 180 values can be obtained
725. If correlation between weight and heights are very
by-
strong what will be the correlation coefficient-
a) 2"d tertile b) 90th percentile
a) +1 b)>l (AIIMS Nov 2000)
c) 9th decile d) 2"d quartile
c) 0 d)-1
715. Chi- square test is used to measure the degree of- 726. The correlation between IMR and SocioEconomic
a) Causal relationships between exposure and status is best depicted by- (AJJMS Nov 0 I)
effect a) Correlation(+ l) b) Correlation (+0.5)
b) Association between two variables (AI 03) c) Correlation (-1) d) Correlation (-0.8)
c) Correlation between two variables 727. Mosquitoes decrease as height increases -
d) Agreement between two observations a) Positive correlation (NEETIDNB Pattern)
716. Not true about chi-square test is- b) Negative correlation
a) Tests the significance of difference between two c) Bidirectional
proportions d) Zero
b) Tells about presence or absence of an 728. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation
association between two variables coefficient (r = 0.090, p = 0.01) between the systolic
c) Directly measures the strength of association blood pressure values and serum cholestrol values
d) Can be used when more than two groups are of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the
two be compared following statements is a wrong interpretation of
717. TRUE regarding chi square test is - (AJIMS 99) the correlation coefficiency observed ? (AI 05)
a) Null hypothesis is equal a) Since there is a high correlation, the magnitude of
b) Dosen't test the significance both the measurements are likely to be close to
c) Measures the significance of difference between each other
two proportion b) A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also
d) Tests correlation and regression likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol.
718. While applying chi-square test to a contingency table c) A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also
of 4 rows and 4 columns, the degrees of freedom likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol.
wouldbe- (AJJMSMay06,AI95) d) About 80% of the variation in systolic blood
~ 1 b)4 pressure among his patients can be explained
c) 9 d) 8 by their serum cholesterol values and vice aversa
708)b 709)c 710)c 71l)c 712)c 713)c 714)a 715)b 716)c 717)c 718)c 719)c 720)b 72l)b
722)c 723)a 724)b 725)a 726)d 727)b 728)a
729. If coefficient of correlation between height and 739. If we know the value of one variable in an individual
weigh tis 2.6, TRUE is- (AIIMS June 2000) and wish to know the value of another variable, we
a) Positive correlation calculate- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) No association a) Coefficient of correlation
c) Negative correlation b) Coefficient of regression
d) Calculation of coeffecient is wrong c) SEofmean
730. Correlation coefficient tends to lie between- d) Geometric mean
a) Zeroto-1.0 b)-l.Oto+l (AIIMS 97) 740. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation
c) +l.Otozero d)+2.0to-2.0 coefficient (r = 0.90) between systolic BP and serum
731. The correlation between variables A and Bin a study cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic.
Which of the following statements is a wrong
was found to be 1.1 this indicates- (AI 02)
interpretation of the correlation coefficient observed-
a) Very strong correlation
a) Since there is a high correlation, the magnitude
b) Moderately strong correlation
of both the measurements are likely to be close to
c) Weak correlation each other
d) Computational mistake in calculating correlation b) A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also
732. Association can be measured by all of the following likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol.
except- (AIIMS May 09) c) A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also
a) Coorelation cofficient likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol
b) Cronbach 's alpha d) About 80% of the variation in systolic BP among
c) Pvalue his patients can be explained by their serum
d) Odds ratio cholesterol values
733. Correlation in height & weight are measured by- 7 41. Study find a correlation coefficient of +0. 7 between
a) Coefficient of variation (NEETIDNB Pattern) self reported work satisfaction and expectancy of
b) Range of variation life in a random sample of 5000 corporate workers.
c) Correlation coefficient (p =0.01 ). This means-
d) None a) Work satisfaction improves life expectancy
734. The regression between height and age follows b) Strong statistically significant (+) association
y=a+bx. The curve is - (AIIMS Nov 01) between work satisfaction and life expectancy.
a) Hyperbola b) Sigmoid c) 70% people who enjoy work shall live longer
c) Straight line d) Parabola d) 70% association between work satisfaction and
735. Total cholesterol level= a+ b (calorie intake)+ c life expectancy
(physical activity) + d (body mass index); is an 742. Weight in Kg is- (AI 96)
exampleof- (AI05)
a) Normal variable
b) Discrete variable
a) Simple linear regression
c) Confounding variable
b) Simple curvilinear regression
d) Continuous variable
c) Multiple linear regression
743. Numberoffamilymemberisa- (A/92)
d) Multiple logistic regression a) Qualitative variable b) Discrete variable
736. An investigator concluded that presence or absence c) Continuous variable d) Categorial variable
of five factors determine the disease condition. Which 744. Discrete variability are all except- (AI 91)
of the following would be most appropriate next study a) Color of skin b) Boys in the class room
to determine if any of these five factors are c) Obesity weight d) Leukocyte count
independent precursors of the disease? (AI 11) 745. If the grading of diabetes is classified as "mild",
a) Multiple linear regression analysis "moderate" and "severe" the scale of measurement
b) Multiple logistic regression analysis used is- (AI 04)
c) Analysis of variance (ANOVA) a) Interval b)Nominal
d) Kruskall-WallisAnalysis of ranks c) Ordinal d) Ratio
737. When the height and weight is perfectly correlated, 746. Results of a test were given as very satisfied, satisfied,
coefficient of correlation is- (AIIMS 2K) dissatisfied, it represents- (AIIMS May 10, AI 07)
a)+l b)-1 a) Nominal scale b) Ordinal scale
c) 0 d) More than 1 c) Interval scale d) Ratio scale
738. Test of association between two variables is done by- 747. Which of the following variables is measure on
a) X' b) Correlation ordinal scale- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Regression d) None a) Type of anemia b) Severity of anemia
c) Hemoglobin d) Serum ferritin
729)d 730)b 73l)d 732)b 733)c 734)c 735)c 736)b 737)a 738)a 739)b 740)a 74l)a 742)d
743)b 744)a,c 745)c 746)b 747)b
748. An investigator into the life expectancy of IV drug 757. A chi-sqaure test would be most appropriate for
abusers divides a sample of patients into mv positive testing which one of the following hypotheses?
and HIV negative groups. What type of data does a) That the meanAIPGE score of Delhi students is
this division constitute- greater than that of mumbai students
a) Nominal b) Ordinal b) That a smaller proportion of poeple who were
c) Interval d) Portion immunized against chicken pox subsequently
develop zoster than those who were not
749. In statistical literature data is broadly classified as
immunized
interval scale data, ordinal scale data & categorical
c) That the mean blood pressure of black and white
data. Blood groups will be an example of- male-hypertensive patients taking ACE inhibitors
a) Interval scale data b) Ordinal scale data is the same as that of black and white female-
c) Categorical data d) None hypertensive patients taking ACE inhibitors and
750. Mean and standard deviation can he worked out that ofblack and white males and females taking
onlyifdataison- (AIIMS Nov 05) diuretics and placebos
a) IntervaVRatio scale b) Dichotomous scale d) That the mean cost of treating a patient with
c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale coronary artery disease with angioplasty is
751. All the following are examples of nominal scale greater than the mean cost of providing medical
except- (AI96) treatment
a) Race b) Sex 758. A group tested for a drug shows 60% improvement
c) Iris color d) Blood pressure as against a standard group showing 40%
752. All of the following are example of nominal scale improvement. The best test to test the significance
ofresultis- (AIIMS Nov OJ)
except - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Student T test b) Chi square test
a) Age b)Sex
c) Paired T test d) Test for variance
c) Body weight d) Socio-economic status 7 59. In a particular trial, the association oflung cancer
753. Which is the best distribution to study the daily with smokin is found to be 40% in one sample and
admission of head injury patients in a trauma care 60% in another. What is the best test to compare
centre- (AIIMS May 08) the results- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Normal distribution a) Chi square test b) Fischer test
b) Binomial distribution c) Paired t test d)ANOVA
c) Uniform distribution 760. Height of group of20 boys aged 10 years was 140 ±
d) Poisson distribution 13 em and 20 girls of same age was 135 em± 7 em.
754. A study was conducted to test if use of herbal tea To test the statistical significance of difference in
played any role in prevention of common cold. Data height, test applicable is-
was collected on the number of people who developed a) X2 b)Z
cold and those who did not develop cold and data c) t d)F
761. A study was undertaken to assess the effect of a
was tabulated in relation to whether they consumed
drug in lowering serum cholesterol levels. 15 obese
Herbal tea not- (AI 07)
women and 10 non-obese women formed two limbs of
Herbal tea study. Which test would be useful to correlate the
Consumed Not consumed results obtained-
a) ANOVA b) Student t-test
Had cold 12 23
c) Chi-square test d) Fischer test
Did not have a cold 34 38 762. For testing the statistical significance of the
The analytical test of choice to test this study is- difference in heights of school children-
a) Student- t test (unpaired) (AI 07) a) Student's t test b) chi-square test
b) Student - t test (paired) c) Paired 't' test d)ANOVA
c) Chi square test 763. Notrequiredforchi-squaretest-(NEET/DNBPattem)
d) 'Z' test a) Mean & SD of the groups
755. Appropirate statistical method to compare two means b) Each expected cell frequency ~ 5
is- (NEETI[)NB Pattern) c) large sample
a) Chi-square test b) Student t-test d) Contingency table
c) Odds ratio d) Correlation coefficient 7 64. All are true regarding students t-test, except-
756. Appropriate statistical test to compare two a) Standard Error of Mean is not estimated (AI2K)
proportions is- b) Standard population is selected
a) Chi-square test b) Student's t-test c) Two samples are compared
d) Student's t-test map is required for calculation
c) Odds ratio d) Correlation coefficient
748)a 749)c 750)a 751)d 752)c 753)d 754)c 755)b 756)a 757)b 758)b 759)a>b 760)c 761)b
762)d 763)a 764)a
765. While testing a hypolipidemic drng, serum lipid significance of the change in blood pressure-
levels were tested both before and after its use. a) Paired t-test (AIIMS 04, 00; PGI Dec OJ; AI 97)
Which test is best suited for the statistical analysis b) Unpaired or independent t-test
oftheresult- (AI OJ) c) Analysis ofvariance
a) Paired T test b) Student's test d) Chi-square test
c) Chi squre test d) None of the above 772. In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before
766. Amount ofAlcohol consumption amongst a group and after giving a drug. The test which would give
of Alcoholics, before and after intervention was its singiftcance is - (AI 02)
recorded. The most appropriate statistical test to a) Unpaired test b) Paired t test
assess 'significant change' from the intervention c) Chi square test d) Fisher test
programmewouldbe- (AI J2) 773. Ten readings of BP taken before and after
a) Paired t test b) Unpaired t test treatment is studied by- (AIIMS 97)
c) Chisquare Test d) McNemar Test a) Paired 't' test b) 'Z' test
767. Mean bone density amongst two groups of 50 people c) Students 't' test d) Correlation test
each is compared with each other. The test of 774. ANOVA is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
significance used would be- (AIIMS May 08) a) Parametric test b) Non-parametric test
a) Paired-t-test b) Student t-test c) Qualitative test d) None
c) Analysis of variance d) Chi-Square test 775. After applying a statistical test, an investigator gets
768. For testing the statistical significance of the the 'p value' as 0.01. It means that-
difference in heights of school chlldren among three a) The probability of fmding a significant difference
socio-economic groups, the most appropriate is 1% (AIIMSMay08, 05)
statistical test is - (AIIMS May 03) b) The probability of declaring a significant
a) Student's 't' test difference, when there is truly no difference, is
b) Chi-square test 1%
c) Paired 't' test c) The difference is not significant 1% times and
significant 99% times
d) One way analysis of variance (one way ANOVA)
d) The power of the test used is 99%
769. An investigator wants to study the association
776. In assessing the association between maternal
between maternal intake of iron supplements (Yes/
nutritional status and the birth weight of the
No) and birth weights (in gms) of newborn babies.
newborns, two investigators A and B studied
He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant women
separately and found significant results with p values
and their newborns. What statistical test of
0.02 and 0.04 respectively. From this information,
hypothesis would you advise for the investigator in
what can you infer about the magnitudes of
this situation- (AIIMS May 03) association found by the two
a) Chi-Square test investigators - (AIIMS Nov 04)
b) Unpaired or independent t-test a) The magnitude of association found by
c) Analysis ofVariance Investigator A is more than found by B
d) Paired t-test b) The magnitude of association found by
770. An investigator wants to study the association Investigator B is more than found by A
between maternal intake ofiron supplements (Yes c) The estimates of association obtained by A and
or No) and incidence oflow birth weight (< 2500 or B will be equal, since both are significant
:2 2500 gms). He collects relevant data form 100 d) Nothing can be concluded as the information
pregnant women as to the status of usage of iron given is inadequate
supplements and the status oflow birth weight in 777. The 'P' value of a randomized controlled trial
their newborns. The appropriate statistical test of comparing operationA(new procedure) & operation
hypothesis advised in this situation is - B (Gold standard) is 0.04. From this, we conclude
a) Paired-t-test (AIIMSNov03) that - (AI 03)
b) Unpaired or independent t-test a) Type II error is small & we can accept the fmdings
c) Analysis of variance ofthe study
d) Chi-Square test b) The probability of false negative conclusion that
771. A cardiologist wants to study the effect of an operation A is better than operation B, when in
antihypertensive drug. He notes down the initial truth it is not, is 4%.
systolic blood pressure (mmHg) of 50 patients and c) The power of study to detect a difference between
then administers the drug on them. After a week's operation A & B is 96%
tretment, he measures the systolic blood pressure d) The probability of a false positive conclusion that
again. Which of the following is the most aproprate operation A is better than operation B, when in
statistical test of significance to test the statistical truth it is not, is 4%
765)a 766)a 767)b 768)d 769)b 770)d 771)a 772)b 773)a 774)a 775)c,d 776)d 777)c
778. P value indicates- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 787. P-value is the probability of-
a) Probability of the significance is< 0.05 a) Not rejecting a null hypothesis when true
b) Probability null hypothesis is correct b) Rejecting a null hypothesis when true
c) Probability null hypothesis is false c) Not rejecting a null hypothesis when false
d) To find out meaning of regression d) Rejecting a null hypothesis when false
779. 'P' value stands for- (AI 12) 788. All are true about P-value except-
a) Probability to achieve a correct result a) It is the probability of commiting type I error
b) Probability to achieve an incorrect result b) Is equal to 1-j)
c) Probability of concluding that a difference exist c) Is the chance that the presence of difference is
while in reality such a difference dose not exist concluded when actually there is none
d) Probability of concluding that a difference dose d) when p-value is less than a., the result is
not exist while in reality such a difference dose statistically significant.
exist 789. A radomized trial comparing the efficiancy of two
780. In a test of significance, p value is 0.023 the observed drugs showed a difference between the two with a p
difference in stndy can be considered as- (MH 05) value of< 0.005. In reality, however drugs do not
a) Null hypothesis accepted and the study is differ. This is an example of-
rejected a) Type I error (alpha error)
b) Null hypothesis rejected and the study accepted b) Type III error (Beta error)
c) Null hypothesis accepted and the study is c) 1-a.
accepted d) 1-j)
d) Null hypothesis rejected and the sutdy is also 790. A randomized trial comparing efficacy of two
rejected. regimens showed that difference is satisfically
781. The events A and Bare mutnally exclusive, so- significant with p < 0.001 but in reality the two drugs
a) Prob(AorB)=ProbA)+ProbB) (AI05) do not differ in their efficacy. This is an example of-
b) Prob (A or B)= Prob A) . Prob B) a) Type -I error(a.error) (AIIMSMay06,AIIMS02)
c) ProbA) Prob B) b) Type-II error (II error)
d) ProbA)+ ProbB)= 1 c) 1-a
782. If prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that d) 1-P
three people selected at random from the population 791. Power of a stndy can be increased by-
will have diabetes is- (AI 04) a) Increasing a error b) Decreasing i)-error
a) O.Gl b) 0.03 c) Decreasing a error d) Increasing i)-error
c) 0.001 d)0.003 792. Random error- (PGI 98)
783. Chance of passing a genetic disease 'y' trait by the a) Systemic error b) Bias
affected parents to children is 0.16. They plan to c) Confounding factor d) Reduces precision
have two children. Probability of both the children 793. Bias is - (AI 99)
having 'y' traitis- a) Systemic error
a) zero b) 0.16 b) Random error
c) 0.32 d) 0.0256 c) Both
784. If a life time probability to develop a lung cancer is d) Can be statistically correctable
25% than what are odds of deeveloping lung cancer 794. Low birth weight statistics of a hospital is best shown
in life time is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) by- (AIIMS 95)
a)3:1 b)l:3 a) Bar charts b) Histogram
c) 2:2 d)4: 1 c) Pictogram d) Frequency polygon
785. On a given day, a hospital had 50 admissions with 795. The best method to show the association between
about 20 girls and 30 boys, out of which 10 girls and height and weight of children in a class is by-(AI 02)
20 boys needed surgery. What is the possibility of a) Bar chart b) Line diagram
picking up a person requiring surgery- (AI 09) c) Scatter diagram d) Histogram
a)2/6 b)3/5 796. The best method to show the association between
c) 1/2 d) 6/25 height and weight of children in a class is by-
786. If we reject null hypothesis, when actnally it is true a) Bar chart b) Line diagram (AI 02)
it is known as- (AIIMS 04) c) Scatter diagram d) Histogram
a) Type I error b) Type II error 797. Trends can be represented by - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Power d) Specificity a) Line diagram b) Bar diagram
c) Scatter diagram d) None
778)a>b 779)c 780)b 78l)a 782)c 783)d 784)b 785)b 786)a 787)b 788)b 789)a 790)a 791)b
792) d 793) a 794) a,b,d 795) c 796) c 797) a
798. Best way to plot the change of incidence of disease 809. A population is divided into relevant subgroups and
over time - (NEETIDNB Pattern) random sample selection is done from each of the
a) Line diagram b) Bar chart subgroups. This is which type of sampling method?
c) Histogram d) Pie chart a) Systematic random sampling (AI 11)
799. Two variables can be plotted together in- b) Stratified random sampling
a) Pie chart (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Simplerandomsampling
b) Histogram d) Cluster sampling
c) Frequency polygon
810. A region is divided into 50 villages for the purpose of
d) Scatter diagram
a survey. 10 villages are then selected randomly for
800. Histogram is used to describe- (AIIMS May 06)
a) Quantitative data of a group of patients the purpose of a study. This type of sampling is
b) Qualitative data of a group of patients termed as- (AI 11)
c) Data collected on nominal scale a) Simple Random sampling
d) Data collected on ordinal scale b) Stratified sampling
801. The best graphic representation of frequency c) Cluster Sampling
distribution of data gathered of a continuous variable d) Systematic Sampling
is- (AIIMSMay 10) 811. All are true about cluster sampling except?
a) Simple bar graph b) Multiple bar a) Sample size is same as that of simple random
c) Line diagram d) Histogram sampling (AIIMS May 11, Nov 08)
802. Frequency distribution is studied by- (AI 09) b) It is a two stage sampling
a) Histogram b) Line diagram c) It is cheapter than other methods of sampling
c) Pie diagram d) Ski diagram d) It has a disadvantage of higher sampling error
803. Ogive is- (UPSC 09) 812. Sampling method used in assessing immunization
a) Barchart status of children under immunization programme
b) Histogram
is-
c) Cumulative frequency curve
a) Systemic sampleing b) Stratified sampling
d) Frequency polygon
804. All of the following are random sampling methods c) Group sampling d) Cluster sampling
except- (AIIMS Nov 2000) 813. Which of the following is/are non-random sampling
a) Simple random b) Cluster sampling methods- (PGI May 10)
c) Stratified random d) Quota sampling a) Quota sampling
805. In random sampling chance of being picked up is- b) Stratified random sampling
a) Same and known (AIIMS Nov 99) c) Convenience Sampling
b) Not same and not known d) Cluster Sampling
c) Same and not known 814. True statements with regard to sampling-
d) Not same but known a) Snowball sampling is used for hidden population
806. Which of the following statements about "Simple b) More sample in systemic random sampling
Random Sampling" is true- (AI 09) c) In stratified random sampling population is
a) Every element in the population has an equal divided into strata (PGIMay 11)
probability of being included d) Cluster sampling is less cost-effective
b) Sampling is based on similar characteristics 815. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study
c) Suitable for large heterogenous population
all of the following are necessary except- (AI 03)
d) Complete list of items within the sampling frame
a) Prevalence of the disease in population
is not required
807. For a survey a village is divided into Slanes then b) Power of the study
each lane is sampled randomly is an example is- c) Significance level
a) Simplerandomsampling (AIIMS96) d) Desired precision
b) Stratified random sampling 816. The number of patients required in a clinical trial to
c) Systemic random sampling treat a specific disease increases as- (AIIMS 02)
d) All of the above a) The incidence of the decreases
808. All of the following are true about cluster sampling b) The significance level increases
except- (AI07) c) The size of the expected treatment effect
a) Samples are similar to those in simple Random increased
sampling d) The drop out rate increases
b) Is a Rapid and simple method
c) The sample size may vary according to study design
d) It is a type of probability sample
798)a 799)d 800)a 801)d 802)a 803)c 804)d 805)a 806)a 807)c 808)a 809)b 810)c 8ll)a
812)d 813)a,c 814)a,c 815)b 816)b
817. All the following are true in a randomized control 826. The risk factor association of pancreatic cancer was
trial (RCT) except- (AI 06, AIIMS May 11, Nov 08) studied in a case control study. The values of the odds
a) Baseline characteristics of intervention and ratio and the confidence interval for various risk
control groups should be similar factors-areas below- (AIIMS Nov 09)
b) Investigator's bias is minimized by double Risk factors Odds ratio 95% Confidence limit
blinding
c) The sample size required depends on the A 2.5 1-3
hypothesis B 1.4 1.1-1.7
d) The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded c 1.6 0.9-1.7
from the analysis
Which is true:
818. Sampling error is classified as - (AI OJ)
a) Risk A has strongest association with pancreatic
a) Alpha error b) Beta error
c) Gamma error d) Delta error cancer
819. True about simple randomization is- (AIIMS 01, AI 08) b) Risk B has the strongest association
a) Every person has an equal chance of selection c) Risk C has the strongest association
b) Less number of samples are obtained d) All three are equally associated
c) Also known as systemic randomization 827. When an intervention is applied to community to
d) Groups are not distributed evaluate its usefulness, it is termed as a trial for -
820. 'Design Effect' is associated with which of the a) Efficacy (AIIMS Nov 04)
following sampling techniques- (AI 12) b) Effectiveness
a) Stratified sampling c) Efficiency
b) Systemic sampling d) Effect modification
c) Cluster sampling 828. When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in
d) Simple Random Sampling controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial
signifying- (AI 06, AIIMS Nov 05)
MISCELLANEOUS a) Efficacy b) Effectiveness
c) Efficiency d) Effect modification
821. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are 829. Drugs A& Bare both used for treating a particular
used for assessing- (AI 03) skin infection. After one standard application. Drug
a) Criterion validity b) Construct validity A eradicates the infection in 95% of both adults and
c) Discriminant validity d) Content validity children. Drug B eradicates the infection in 47%
822. The response which is graded by an observer on an of adults & 90% of children. There are otherwise
agree or disagree continuum is based on - (AI 03) no significant pharmacological differences between
a) Visual analog scale b) Guttman scale the two drugs and there are no significant side
c) Likert scale d) Adjective scale effects. However, the cost of Drug A is twice that of
823. Limits of confidence of a hypothesis determined by- Drug B.Dr. Ram, a general practitioner, always uses
a) Power factor (AIIMS 98) drug B for the first treatment, and resorts to Drug A
b) Level of significance if the infection persists. Dr. yogesh, another general
c) 1-powerfactor practitioner, always uses Drug A for adults and drug
d) 1-level of significance B for children.Ignoring indirect costs, which of the
824. When the confidence level of a test is increased which following statement is incorrect - (AI 02)
ofthe following will happen- (AIIMS May 07) a) Drug A is more effective than B for treating
a) No effect on significance children
b) Previously insignificant value becomessignificant b) Drug A is more cost - effective than drug B for
c) Previously significant value becomesinsignificant treating children
d) No change in hypothesis c) Drug A is more cost- effective than Drug B for
825. Which ofthe following statements about confidence treating children
limits I interval is true- (AI 1 0) d) Dr. Yogesh's regime achieves a higher level of
a) Smaller the confidence level larger will be the cost-effectiveness than Dr. Ram's
confidence interval 830. Best method to compare new test and gold standard
b) Less variable the data, wider will be the confidence test- (AIIMS Nov 11, May 07)
interval a) Correlation study
c) Sample size does not affect the confidence interval b) Regressive study
d) 95% confidence interval will cover 2 standard c) Bland and altman analysis
errors around the mean d) Kolmogorov smimov test
817)d 818)a 819)a 820)c 821)a 822)c 823)d 824)b 825)d 826)b 827)a 828)a 829)b 830)c
831. Which of the following is the national level system 843. Best method to show trend of events with passage of
that provides annual national as well as state level time is? (DNB Dec 2010)
reliable estimation of fertility and mortality- a) Line diagram b) Bar diagram
a) Civil registration system (AIIMS May 05, 03, 96) c) Histogram d) Pie chart
b) Census 844. Secular trend is best demonstrated by? (DNB Dec
c) Adhoc survey a) Line diagram b) Bar graph 201 0)
d) Sample registration system c) Stem-leafplot d) Box and whisker plots
845. Chi-square testis for? (DNB Dec 201 0)
832. Registration of birth & death with a 6 monthly
a) Standard error of Mean
surveyisdonein- (AIIMS 96)
b) Standard error of Proportion
a) National sample survey c) Standard error of difference between 2 Means
b) Vital statistical system d) Standard error of difference between Proportions
c) Census 846. Simple random sampling is ideal for?
d) Sample registration system a) Vaccinatedpeople (DNBDec 2010)
833. Under the registration act of 1969 Death is to be b) Heterogenous population
registered with in- (AI 99) c) Homogenous population
a) 7 days b) 14 days d) All of the above
c) 21 days d) 28 days 847. Rejecting a null hypothesis when itis true is called
834. Under the regist,ration Act of 1969, Birth should as? (DNB Dec 201 0)
be registered within- (AI 94) a) Type 1 error b) Type 2 error
a) 7 days after birth b) 20 days after birth b) Type 3 error d) Type 4 error
c) 14 days after birth d) 21 days after birth ,848. Degree offreedom of a chi square test in contingency
835. Sample registration system is done once in- table of2 by 2 is? (DNB Dec 09)
a) 6 months b) I year (PGI 95) a) 1.0 b) Zero
c) 2 d)4
c) 2 years d) 5 years
849. Graph to compare two quantitative data is?
836. Best method for collecting vital Statistics in
a) Histogram (DNB June 09)
fudia- ~llMS9~
b) Scatter. diagram
a)Active surveillance b) Passive surveillance c) Line Diagram
c) Sentinel surveillance d) Contact tracing d) Frequency curve
837. Evidence based medicine, which ofthe following is 850. Results of a test were given as very satisfied,
not useful- (PGI Dec 08) satisfied, dissatisfied, it represents -(DNB June 09)
a) Personal exposure b) RCT a) Nominal scale b) Ordinal scale
c) Case report d) Meta-analysis c) Interval scale d) Ratio scale
e) Systemic review 851. When the variables follow standard distribution-
838. Strong correlation is signified by a correlation a) Mean median (DNBDec08)
coefficient of? (DNB June 2011) b) Median= variance
a) Zero b) 1 c) Mean= 2 median
c) Less than I d) More than 1 d) Standard deviation= 2 variance
839. In a Left skewed curve, true statement is? 852. On a given day, a hospital had 50 admissions with
a) Mean= Median (DNB June 2011) about 20 girls and 30 boys, out of which 10 girls and
20 boys needed surgery. What is the possibility of
b) Mean< Mode
picking up a person requiring surgery- (DNB Dec 08)
c) Mean>Mode
a) 2/6 b)3/5
d) Mean = Mode c) 1/2 d) 6/25
840. Likert scale is? (DNB June 2011) 853. Which one of the following is not a measure of
a) Ordina1scale b)Nominalsca1e dispersion- (DNB June 08)
c) Variance scale d) Categorical scale a) Mean b) Range
841. Degree offreedom for 2/2 contingency table is? c) Mean deviation d) Standard deviation
a) 1 b) Zero (DNB June 2011) 854. Birth is to be registered within- (DNB Dec 07)
c) 2 d)4 a) 7 days b) 14 days
842. Children surveyed in cluster sampling for coverage c) 21 days d) 30 days
of national immunization programme in? 855. fu a normal curve, the area of one standard deviation
a) 30 ~lusterof5 children (DNB June 2011) around the mean includes which of the following
b) 20 cluster of 5 children percent of values in a distribution- (DNB Dec 07)
c) 30 cluster of 10 children a) 48.6% b) 68.3%
30 cluster of7 children c) 95.4% d) 99.7%
831)d 832)d 833)a 834)c 835)a 836)a 837)a,c 838)b 839)b 840)a 841)a 842)d 843)a 844)a
845)d 846)c 847)a 848)a 849)b 850)b 85l)a 852)b 853)a 854)c 855)b
856. All are non-parametric tests except -(DNB June 07) 867. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for the
a) Chi-square test b) Sign test Chi square test to compare- (UPSC 2K)
c) Fisher exact test d) Student t-test a) Both sample should be mutually exclusive
857. 9 families surveyed have 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4, 6, 7 chlldren b) Both sample need not be mutually exclusive
respectively. The mean, median, mode respectively c) Normal distribution
are- (Jipmer 11) d) All ofthe above
a) 3.4.,2,3 b)3,2,3 868. Birth is to be registered within- (PGMCET 07)
c) 3, 3, 3 d) 3.4, 3, 2 a) 7 days b) 14 days
858. In a normal curve, the area ofone standard deviation c) 21 days d) 30 days
around the mean includes which of the following per 869. In a community of 3000 people, 80 % are Hindus
10% Muslims, 5% Sikh, 4% Christians and 1
cent of values in a distribution- (UPSC-11 09)
% Jains To select a sample of300 people to analyses
a) 48.6% b) 68.3%
food habits, ideal sample would be- (MAHE 98)
c) 95.4% d)99.7%
a) Simple random b) Stratified random
859. A non-sysmmetrical frequency distribution is known c) Systematic random d) Inverse sampling
as- (Orissa 99) 870. Simplerandomsampling- (AP-06)
a) Normal distribution a) Provides least number of possible samples
b) Skewed distribution b) Haphazard collection of certain number for a
c) Cumulative frequency distribution sample
d) None of the above c) Picking every 5th or 1Oth at regular intervals
860. In the estimation of statistical probability, Z score d) Sample represent, a corresponding strata of
isapplicableto- (UPSC 2001) universe
a) Normal distribution b) Skewed distribution 871. What is the method of sampling in which the units
c) Binomial distribution d) Poisson distribution are picked up at regular intervals from the universe-
861. Standard error of mean is called as- (RJ-0 1) a) Sirnplerandomsampling (UPSC07)
a) Standard deviation b) Mode b) Systematic random sampling
c) Median d) Variable c) Stratified random sampling
862. Standard deviation does not depend on- (RJ-01) d) Snow-ball sampling
a) Mean b) Median 872. The relationship of mean height of two groups of
c) Range d) Sample size ·children is best studied by- (ICS 05)
863. Test used to study the ordinal data of two independent a) Student's t-test b) Linear regression
groupswhicharenotnormallydistributed? (Jipmer 11) c) Chi-square test d) Test of proportions
a) Student t test 873. Census is conducted in every years in
b) z test India- (Karnataka- PGE MEE 2006,
a) 25 b) 15 Jipmer 81, UPSC 85)
c) Single line analysis of variance
c) 10 d)20
d) Wilcoxan signed rank test
874. In which system, continuous enumeration ofbirths
864. Best for studying the decline in percentage of syphilis
and deaths by enumerator and an independent survey
in men and women in last 10 years- (Jipmer 11)
by investigator supervisor is done? (UPSC-11 09)
a) Pie chart b) Histogram a) Decadal Census Enumeration
c) Frequency polygon d) Line diagram b) Sample Registration System
865. If one wants to compare in two characteristics with c) Model Registration System
variable difference, which measurement should be d) National Farnily Health Survey
used? (MH 11)
a) Standard deviation COMMUNICABLE DISEASES
b) Percentile
c) Variance GENERAL
d) Co-efficient of variation
866. The following statistic is used to measure the linear 875. Incubation period ofinfluenza- (AI 98)
association between two characteristics in the same a) 18-72hrs b)l 6hrs
individuals- (Karnat 96) c) 5 - 10 days d) < 1 hrs
a) Coefficient of variation 876. Which of the following diseases have incubation
b) Coefficient of correlation period< 10 days- (PGI Dec 06)
c) Chi square a) Cholera b) Influenza
d) Standard error c) Plague d) Measles
e) Rubella
856)d 857)d 858)b 859)b 860)a 86I)a 862)b 863)d 864)d 865)d 866)b 867)a 868)c 869)b
870)b 87l)b 872)a 873)c 874)b 875)a 876) a,b,c
877. Incubation period of measles- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 888. Which of the following is not true about measles?
a) 14 days b) 1 Month a) High secondary attack rate (AI 08)
c) 3 Month d) 5 Month b) Only one strain causes infection
878. Measles is infectious during- (PGI Dec 98) c) Not infectious in prodromal phase
a) After 4 days of rash d) Infection confers lifelong immunity
b) 4 days before and 5 days after rash
889. Which of the following is the "Least common"
c) Throughout disease
d) Only in incubation period complication of measles- (AI 07)
879. Shortest incubation period is seen in- a) Diarrhoea b) Pneumonia
a) Influenza b) Hepatitis B (AIIMS Nov 08) c) Otitis media d) SSPE
c) Hepatitis A d) Rubella 890. In the UIP blindness can be prevented by the
administration of- (AIIMS 98)
CHICKENPOX a) Measles vaccines b) Rubella vaccines
c) BCG vaccines d) Diphtheria vaccines
880. The infectivity of chicken pox lasts for- (AI 02) 891. Keratomalacia is seen in which of the following
a) Till the last scab falls off infections- (PGI Dec 03, 02, 00)
b) 6 days after onset of rash a) Chickenpox b) Mumps
c) 3 days after onset of rash
c) Diarrhoea d) Measles
d) Till the fever subsides
881. Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is - e) Rubella
a) W b) 50 (NEETIDNB Pattern) 892. Reconstituted measles vaccine should be nsed with
c)~ d) 40 in- (AI 99)
882. Which is not a complication of chicken a) 1 hour b) 3 hour
pox- (AIIMS 86, UPSC 85) c) 6 hour d) 12 hour
a) Pancreatitis b) Pneumonia 893. The following vaccine, if contaminated can cause
c) Encephalitis d) Thrombocytopenia Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)- (AI 09)
883. Not true about varicella infection- (AIIMS Nov 10) a) Measles vaccine b)DPT
a) Secondary attack rate is 90% c) Hepatitis B d) Typhoral
b) Lesions occur on flexor surfaces 894. Measles vaccine given to contact of measles case
c) Only single stage oflesion is present at a time exerts protective effect within- (Delhi 96) _
d) Reactivation occur in 10-30% cases a) 1 day b) 3 days
884. Which of the following is true of chicken pox - c) 7 days d) 10 days
a) Virus not found in scab (AI 89) 895. All are true about measles except- (AI 98, 96)
b) Virus can be grown on the chick embryo a) Incubation period is 10-14 days
c) Caused by RNA virus b) Secondary attack rate is 3 0-40%
d) Does not cross the placental barrier c) Sub cutaneous vaccine is available
885. Chicken pox vaccine is - (NEET/DNB Pattern) d) Vaccine is live attenuated
a) Live vaccine b) ](jlled vaccine 896. Definition of measles elimination- (NEET/DNB
c) Conjugated vaccine d) None a) < 111000 b)< 1110000 Pattern)
c) < 1/100000 d)< 11100
MEASLES
897. Trueaboutmeasles- (PGI June 04)
886. All of the following statement regarding measles a) Koplik spot appears in prodromal stage
are true except- (PGI Dec 05) b) Fever stops after onset of rash
a) Rash appears first on leg c) Vaccine given at 9 months
b) Koplik spot are seen on retina d) It is not diagnosed when coryza and rhinitis is
c) Long term complication may be seen in form of absent
SSPE e) In India cyclical peaks occurs every 5 yrs
d) Caused by RNA virus 898. Subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis is associated
e) 1-P is 2-3 days with- (PG/June02)
887. Which of the following statements is true about the a) Mumps b) Measles
epidemological determinants of measles- c) Rubella d) Typhoid
a) Measles virus survives outside the human body e) Diphtheria
for 5 days (AIIMS 05, 98) 899. All offollowing are true about measles except-
b) Carriers are important sources of infection a) Maximum incidence in 6m-3 year age group
c) Secondary attack is less than that of rubella b) Best age for immunization is 9-12 months (AI 96)
d) Incidence of measles is more in males than c) Secondary attack rate is 30%
females d) I.P. 7-14days
877)a 878)b 879)a 880)b 88l)c 882)a 883) c 884) a 885) a 886) a,b,e 887) c 888) c 889) d 890)a
89l)c,d 892)a 893)a 894)c 895)b 896)c 897) a,b,c 898) b 899) c
900. Measles vaccination is given at-(NEET/DNB Pattern) 910. Not true regarding influenza virus is- (AIIMS 99)
a) 9 months b) At birth a) All types exhibit antigenic shift
c) 4 weeks d) 8 weeks b) Only type A shows antigenic drift
901. In measeles vaccine can be given within- (NEET/ c) Drift is accumulation of point mutations
a) 3 months b) 5 months DNB Pattern) d) None of the above
c) 7 months d) 6 months 911. Newer Influenza vaccine- (PGI June 08)
a) Split-virus vaccine
RUBELLA b) Neuraminidase
c) Live attennuated vaccine
902. Incubation period of rubella is- (AI- 93) d) Killed vaccine
a) 18-72hours b)2-3weeks 912. True about epidemology of influenza- (PGI June 05)
c) 1-3 months d)> 1 year a) Asymptomatic seen rarely
903. All of the following statements are true about b) Incubation period 10-12 hrs
congenital rubella except- (AI 05) c) Pandemic rare
a) It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM d) Extra human reserviour not seen
antibodies at birth e) All ages sex are equally affected
b) It is diagnosed when lg G antibodies persist for 913. Incubation period of swine Du -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
more than 6 months a) 1-3 days b) 2-3 weeks
c) M.C. congenital defects are deafness, cardiac c) 10-15 days d) 5 weeks
malformation and cataract
d) Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in DIPHTHERIA
major congenital defects
904. Under eradication of congenital rubella syndrome 914. Commonest age group for diptheria is- (PGI 86)
programme the first priority group for rubella a) 1-2Years b)2-5Years
vaccination is- (AI 07) c) 2-7Years d)2-9Years
a) All non pregnant women of age 15 to 34 915. The infectivity of a patient with diphtheria is-
b) All adolescent non pregnant girls 15 to 24 years a) Till cough subsides (AIIMS 91)
of age b) Till patient is febrile
c) All female children at one year c) Life long
d) All non pregnant women d) For 15 days after infection
905. Rubella vaccine is given in which age - 916. A herd immunity of over-% is considered necessary
to prevent epidemic spread ofdiphtheria-(NEET/DNB
a) 1-14 yrsb) < 5 yrs (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 50% b) 55% Pattern)
c)> 50 yrs d) None
c) 60% d)70%
906. Risk of the damage offetus by maternal rubella is
917. The type of Diphtheria with highest mortality is-
maximum if mother gets infected in-(AIIMS Nov 05) a) Pharyngeal b)Nasal (JIPMER 2K)
a) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy c) Laryngeal d) Conjuntival
b) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy 918. Positive schick's test indicates that the person is-
c) 21-25 weeks of pregnancy a) Immune to diphtheria (AIIMS Nov 07)
d) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy . b) Hypersensitive to diphtheria
c) Susceptible to diphtheria
INFLUENZA d) Susceptible and hypersensitive to diphtheria
919. Regarding schick's test which of the following is
907. Influenza pandemic is mainly caused by- (AI 99, false- (AIIMS 00)
a) Type A b) Type B PGI June 05) a) Erythematous reaction in both arms indicates
c) Type C d) All b) Positive test means that person is immune to
908. False about antigenic drift- (AIIMS 94) hypersensitivity diphtheria
a) Occur under pressure for immunity c) Diphtheria antitoxin is given intradermal
b) Responsible for epidemics of influenza 920. Regarding Diphtheria -Assertion A)- carriers to
c) Occurs only in influenza-A be given diphtheria toxoid. Reason (R)-
d) Occur every 10-12 years immunization does not prevent carrier stage-
909. Antigenic variation seen in which of the a) A and R both are true (AIIMS June 99)
following- (PGI Dec 04) b) R is correct explanation
a) Influenza virus b) Hepatitis virus c) A and R both are true but R is not a correctexplanation
Yellow fever virus d) R is true and A is false
900)a 901)d 902)b 903)d 904)a 905)a 906)a 907)a 908) c,d 909) a 910)a,b 911)a,b 912)e 913)a
914)b 915)d 916)d 917)c 918)c 919)b 920)c
921. Which of the following is not a part of control 931. The usual incubation period of pertusis is-
measures for diphtheria? (UPSC-II 08) a) 7-14 days b) 3-5 days (AIIMS 05)
a) Treatment of cases with erythromycin c) 21-25 days d) Less than 3 days
b) Treatment of carriers with antitoxin 932. True regarding pertusis is all, except -(AIIMS 97)
c) Isolation of cases a) Infectivity is highest in paroxysmal state
d) Regular innnunization of under-fives b) Cross immunity is not seen with B. parapertusis
922. Management of non Immunised diphtheria contacts c) Chronic carrier state is not seen
include all except- (AIIMS 92) d) Secondary attack rate is 90%
a) Prophylactic pencillin 933. In control of pertussis, the drug of choice for cases-
b) Single dose of Toxoid a) Erythromycin b) Ciprofloxacin (AI 94)
c) Daily throat examinations c) Tetracycline d) Penicillin
d) Throat swab culture 934. Which of the following statements is true regarding
pertussis ? (AI 02)
923. The following statements are true aboutDPTvaccine
a) Neurological complicationrateofDPT is I in 50000
except- (AI 04)
b) Vaccine efficacy is more than 95%
a) Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect
c) Erythromycin prevents spread of disease
b) Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertusis has between children
an adjuvant effect d) The degree of polymorphonuclear Leukocytosis
c) Presence of acellular pertusis component correlates with the severity of cough
d) Presence of H. influenzae type B component
increases its immunogenecity increase its MENINGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS
innnunolgenecity
924. Ideal temperature for DPTstorage- (Jipmer 91) 935. The following statements about meningococcal
a) Room temperature b) 4 to 8°C meningitis are true except- (AI 03, AIIMS 98)
c) 0 to- 20°C d) None a) The source of infection is mainly clinical cases
925. Which vaccine should not be given to a child b) The disease is more common in dry and cold
suffering from convulsions? (AIIMS Nov 07) months of the year
a) Measles b)BCG c) Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is
c) DPT d)OPV reconnnended
926. All of the followng statements are true about DPT d) The vaccines is not affective in children below 2
vaccine except- (AIIMS 02) year of age
a) It should be stored in deep freezer 936. Wbich of the following is true about meningococcal
b) Exposure to direct sunlight, when in use should Meningitis- (AI 91)
be avoided a) Case fatality less than 10% in untreated cases
c) Store stocks are needed for three months at PHC level b) Cases are the main source of infection
d) Half- used vials should not be put back into the c) Rifampicin is the drug of choice
cold chain after the session d) Treatment in the first 2 days can save the life of
927. Preservative added in DPT vaccine is- (AIIMS 98) 95% cases
a) Zinc phosphate b) Aluminium phosphate 937. Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in
c) MgS04 d) ZnS04 meningococcal meningitis is- (UP 10)
928. The adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is- a) Tetracycline b) Rifampicin
c) Streptomycin d) Erythromycin
a) Al b)Mg (AIIMSMay08)
938. Xavier and yogender stay in the same hostel of same
c) Zn d) Formaldehyde
university. Xavier develops infection due to group B
meningococcus. After few days yogender develops
WHOOPING COUGH (PERTUSSIS} infection due to Group C meningococcus. All of the
following are true statements except- (AI 02)
929. Which of the following is false about whooping a) Educate students about meningococcal
cough- · (AI 95) transmission and take preventive measures
a) Affects children 1 years of age b) Chemoprophylaxis to all against both group B
b) Contagious in the catarrhal stage and group C
c) Carriers are the most important source ofinfection c) Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of xavier
d) Secondary attack rate is high d) Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts ofyogendra
930. What is false about pertussis- (AIIMS 95) 939. Meningococcal vaccine- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Maternal antibody provides protection in infants a) ACW135Y b)ABCW135
b) Fomites play a small role in spread of disease c) CYW135 B d)ABCY
c) Commonly seen in infants
d) Males and females both are equally affected
92l)b 922) b,c,d 923) d 924) b 925) c 926) a 927)None 928)a 929)c 930)a,d 931)a 932)a 933)a 934)c
935)a 936) d 937) b 938) c 939) a
PNEUMONIA intercoastal retraction. The neonate should be

treated with- (UPSC 98)
940. Fast breathing in a 2 year old child is- (PGI 89) a) Normal saline nose drops
a) ;;:> 60 breath per minute b) Oral antihistamines
b) ;;:>50 breaths per minute c) Oral antibiotics
c) ;;:> 40 breaths per minute d) Parenteral antibiotics
d) ;;:> 30 breath per minute 947. Not a indication for admission in pneumonia-
941. According to IMNCI, fast breathing in 5 mth child a) Feverof39°c b) Cyanosis (AI 97)
is defined as - (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Chest retracion d) Not feeding well
a) >30/min b) 40
948. Most important feature to diagnose severe
c) 50 d) 60
pneumonia- (NEET!DNB Pattern)
942. A 2 year old female child was broughtto a PHC with
a) Cyanosis b) Chest indrawing
a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability
c) Nasal flaring d) Fast breathing
to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child
was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 949. In IMNCI, pneumonia is classified by- (NEETIDNB
45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as a) Fast breathing b) Wheezing Pattern)
suffering from- (AI 05, AIIMS 02) c) Fever d) Chest indrawing
a) Very severe disease b) Severe pneumonia
c) Pneumonia d) No pneumonia TUBERCULOSIS
943. A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary
Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever 950. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in humans
for the past 2 days. On examination, the child is most commonly because of- (NEET!DNB Pattern)
weighed llkg, respiratory rate was 38 per minute, a) Contact b) Inhalation
chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate c) Infiltration d) Inoculation
line ofmanagementfor this patient is? (AI 03) 951. One TB infected person can infect how many people
a) Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to in 1yr - (NEET!DNB Pattern)
secondary level hospital a) 20 b) 30
b) Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotics and c) 10 d) 5
advise to report after 2 days 952. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence
c) Classify as severe pneumonia, start antibiotics of tuberculosis infection in a community is- (AI 04)
and refer urgently a) Mass miniature radiotherapy
d) Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently b) Sputum examination
944. Ramu a 2 year old boy, presented with cough, fever c) Tuberculin test
and difficulty in breathing. His RR 50/min. There
d) Clinical examination
was no chest indrawing. Auscultation of chest
953. Which of the following is not true about Annual
reveals bilateral crepitations. The most probable
Infection rate oftuberculosis? (AIJO)
diagnosis is- (AI 02)
a) I% increase in AIR is equivalent to 70 new cases
a) V. severe pneumonia b) Severe Pneumonia
c) Pneumonia d) No pneumonia of1B
945. A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker b) It is one of the best indicator for evaluating
in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever. tuberculosis problem and its trend
On examination, there was chest indrawing and c) It expresses attacking force of Tuberculosis in
respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the community
following is best way to manage the child? (AI 04) d) It is 1. 7 % in India
a) The child should be classified as a case of 954. If the objective ofthe investigator is to assess the
pneumonia incidence of tuberculosis infection in a community,
b) Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give the most appropriate methodology would be
home care to- (AIIMS Nov 05)
c) Reasess the child within 2 days or earlier if the a) Identify all individuals with positive tuberculin test
condition worsens b) Perform sputum exa.rn4lation of chest symtomatics
d) Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first c) Identify new converters to Tuberculin test
dose of an antibiotic d) Screen all under-five children with Tuberculin test
946. A 10-day old neonate is brought by her mother to the 955. Prevalance of tuberculosis infection is determined
OPD with complaints of sneezing. On examination, by- (AIIMS91)
the respiratory rate is 40/minute and conducted a) Sputum examination b) Mantoux
sounds are heard on auscultation. There are no Clinical examination MMR
940)c 94l)c 942)a 943)c 944)c 945)d 946)a 947)a 948)b 949)a 950)b 951)c 952)c 953)a
954)c 955)b
956. Best method to fmd out cases ofTB in a community 966. A 'case' in TB is defmed as -(DPG Feb 09, AP 96)
is- (AIIMS 95) a) X-raypositive b) Culture positive
a) Chest X-ray c) SputumAFB positive d) Tuberculosis positive
b) Mantoux test 967. A patient with sputum positive pulmonary
c) Sputum smear examination tuberculosis is on ATT for the last 5 months but the
d) Sputum culture sensitivity
patient is still positive for AFB in the sputum. This
957. Case finding in RNTCP is based on- (AI 07)
case refers to- (AIIMS 0 I)
a) Sputum culture b) Sputum microscopy
c) X -ray chest d) Mantoux test I PCR a) New case b) Failure case
958. Tuberculin test denotes (AI 00) c) Relapse case d) Drug defaulter
a) Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle proteins 968. The diluent used for BCG is- (AI 99)
b) Patient is resistant to tuberculosis a) Distilled water b) Normal saline
c) Person is susceptible to tuberculosis c) Dextrose solution d) Ringer -lactate
d) Protective immune status of individual against 969. BCG is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
tuberculosis a) Live vaccine b) Killed vaccine
959. True statement regarding 'tuberculiDe test' is- c) Toxoid d) None
a) Used for diagnosis ofTB (AI 98) 970. Which of the following statements is true aboutBCG
b) Measures incidence of disease vaccination -(AIIMS May II, May 05, Nov 08; AI 07)
c) More than lOmm induration in 72 hrs. indicates a) Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG vaccine
positive test
b) The site for injection should be cleaned
d) Measure immunity status
960. For Montoux test, the standard dose of tuberculin thoroughly with spirit
used in India is- (UPSC 96) c) Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours
a) 0.5TU b) l.OTU of vaccination
c) 5.0TU d) lO.OTU d) WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for
961. False negative mantoux test is seen in AlE- (AI92) vaccine production
a) lmmunocompromised b) Chickenpox 971. All the following are correct regarding BCG
c) Malnourished d) Measles vaccination reactions except- (AIIMS 92)
962. TrueaboutMantouxtest- (PGI June 03) a) Ulceration with crust
a) < 5 em always +ve b) Heals within 6-12 weeks
b) Usually -ve after treatment c) Maximum size of papule is reached at 5 weeks
c) Positive reaction in children < 2 yrs is not d) Suppurative lymphadenitis
important than adult
972. BCG is not given to patient with- (AIIMS 85)
d) Usually read after 48 - 72 hours
e) False +vein post measles state a) Generalised Eczema
963. Which of the following is not true about the b) Infective dermatosis
Tuberculin Test- (AI 95) c) Hypogammaglobulinaernia
a) It is the only tool available for estimating the d) All of the above
prevalence ofTB in a community 973. DOTS chemotherapy is given for- (Kerela 02)
b) Induration of 10 mm indicates a positive test a) 1B b) Leprosy
c) It is a specific test c) AIDS d) Tetanus
d) New cases occur more commonly in patients 974. Why a TB patient is recommend a regimen of 4
who are tuberculin reactors drugs on 1st visit - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
964. The following statement stands true for Mantoux a) To avoid emergence of persistors
test- (AI96) b) To avoid side effects
a) Test is read before 48 hrs
c) To cure early
b) 6-9 mm induration shows maximum chances of
d) None
developing TB
c) A positive test does not indicate that the person 975. TB multidrugregimen is given ro-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
is suffering from disease a) Prevent resistance b) Broad spectrum
d) New cases are more likely to occur in tuberculin c) Prevent side effects d) None
negative person than those who already are 976. 4 drugs in AKT used because- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
tuberculin reactors a) Decrease in resistance by mutation
965. A patient of tuberculosis was put on ATT for 5 b) Decrease in resistance by conjugation
months. Sputum examination is positive for AFB. c) To cure disease early
The likely cause is- (AIIMS 99) d) None
a) Drug resistant b) Drug resistant
c) Relapse of disease d) Treatment failure
956)c 957)b 958)a 959)c 960)b 961)b 962)d 963)c 964)c 965)d 966)c 967)b 968)b 969)a
970)d 971)d 972)d 973)a 974)a 975)a 976)a
977. A 25-year-old female has been diagnosed to be 988. Which ofthe following is I are 1st line antitubercular
suffering from tuberculosis categorized as Category drugs in children- (PGI June 05)
II (Sputum+ve relapse). The treatment regimen a) Isoniazid b) Rifampicin
recommended under DOTS is- (AIIMS May 04) c) Pyrazinamide d) Ethambutol
a) 2 (HRZE\ + 5 (HR) 3 e) Streptomycin
b) 2 (HRSZE) 3 + (HRZE)3 + 5 (HR) 3
989. 'freatment of choice for sputum positive pulmonary
c) 3 (HRZE\ + 2 (HRE) 3 +4 (HR) 3
d) 3 (HRSZE)3 + 1 (HRZE) 3 + 6 (HRE)3 tuberculosis detected in 1st trimester of pregnancy-
978. In RNTCP what is the schedule for sputum a) Defertillsecondtrimester (AJIMSMay10)
examination after beginning the chemotherapy, in b) Start cat. I immediately
category I patients- (AIIMS 02) c) Start cat. II immediately
a) 2, 4 and 6 months b) 1, 2 and 3 months d) Start cat. III immediately
c) 3, 5 and 6 months d) 1, 3 and 5 months 990. A 30 yrs old female has sputum positive TB. Her
979. According to RNTCP, a case of tubercular child is 3 yrs old. What is the recommended
pericarditis should be treated under which category chemoprophylaxis- (AIIMS May 11)
of anti-tubercular regimen? (MH 11) a) INH 3mg/kg for 3 months
a) Category I b) Category II b) INH 5mg/kg for 3 months
c) Category III d) Category IV c) INH 3mg/kgfor 6 months
980. An adult male patient presented in the OPD with d) INH 5 mg/kg for 6 months
complaints of cough and fever for 3 months and
991. Basanti a 29 years female from Bihar present with
haemoptysis off and on, His sputum was positive for
active tuberculosis; she delivers baby all of the
AFB. On probing it was found that he had already
received treatment with RHZE for 3 weeks from a following are indicated except- (AI 01)
nearby hospital and discontinued. How will you a) Administer INH to the baby
categorize and manage the patient- (AIIMS 03) b) Withhold breast feeding
a)
Category III, start 2 (RHZ) 3 c) Give ATT to mother for 2 year
Category II, start 2 (RHZ) 3
b) d) Ask mother to ensure proper disposal of sputum
c)
Category I, start 2 (RHZ) 3 992. Most crucial part of tuberculosis control programme
Category II, start 2 (RHZ) 3
d) is- (AIIMS Feb 97)
981. Cat 1 TB treatment - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Contact tracing
a) HRZE b)HRE b) BCG vaccination
c) ZRE d) HRZES c) Treatment of sputum positive cases
982. Category II treatment- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Treatment of X-ray positive cases
a) 2HRZES b) 1 HRZE 993. The sputum examination under DTP is done when
c) 5 HRZ d) None the patient present with- (PGI June 02)
983. As per RNTCP Cat-1, should receive-(PGJJune 04) a)
Cough of 1-2 weeks duration
a) 4 drugs for 2 months and two drugs for 4 months Persistent cough of 1-2 weeks duration
b)
b) 3 drugs for two months and 2 drugs for four months c)
Hemoptysis
c) Includes Retreatment cases d)
Chest pain
d) Rx is given daily e)
Intermittent fever
e) Directly observed 994. Prevalence of open cases ofTB in India- (AIIMS 98)
984. Which is the right number of doses of ATT for a a) 0.4% b)0.01%
category II patient under DOTS-
c)0.5% d)1%
a) IP-24, CP-54 b) IP-36, CP-66
995. The direct BCG vaccination in India is given upto
c) IP-24, CP-48 d) IP-36, CP-54
985. Dose of rifampicin in RNTCP is-(NEETIDNB Pattern) age of- (AIIMS 81, DNB 92)
a) 600 mg b) 450 mg a) 10year b) 15 year
c) 300 mg d) 100 mg c) 20 year d) 25 year
986. Most common drug resistance in TB in India- 996. Me Keon, in nineteenth century studied the decline
a) INH b) Rifampin (PGI June 00) in the incidence of the infectious diseases like
c) Streptomycin d) Ethamutol tuberculosis and he explained the co-relation between
e) Pyrazinamide the decline in the incidence of infectious disease and
987. 'freatment of choice for sputum positive pulmonary told that the relation is better understood in terms
tuberculosis detected in 1st trimester of pregnancy- of- (AI 11)
a) Defer till second trimester (AIIMS May 09) a) Increased awareness and knowledge
b) Start cat. I immediately b) Social and economic factors
c) Start cat. II immediately c) Behavioral interventions
d) Start cat. III immediately d) Medical interventions
977)b 978)a 979) a 980) c 981) a 982) a 983) a,e 984) b 985)b 986)a 987)b 988)All 989) b 990)d
99l)b 992)c 993)c,d 994)None 995)None 996)b
997. Persistent diarrhea in infants- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1008. Trivalent oral polio vaccine contains, type 3
a) 7 days b) 14 days virus - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) 21 days d) 1 month a) 100,000 TCID 50 b) 200,000 TCID 50
c) 300,000 TCID 50 d) 400,000 TCID 50
POLIOMYELITIS 1009. OPV bivalent vaccine contains- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Polio virus 1 & 3 b) Polio virus 1 & 2
998. The most predominant type of polio virus during c) Polio virus 2 & 3 d) None
epidemics is- (Orissa 98) 1010. True about oral polio vaccine- (PGI June 03)
a) Type I b) Type II a) Poliomyelitis in recipients
c) Type III d) Combined infection of II & III b) Poliomyelitis in contact of recipient
c) Guillein Bare syndrome
999. For every clinical case of poliomyelitis subclinical
d) Vomiting and fever
cases are - (NEETIDNB PATTERN)
e) Heat stable
a) 500 in children and 75 in adults
1011. The characteristics of polio vaccine are all except-
b) 500 in children and 25 in adults a) Maintenance of cold chain (PGI 86)
c) 250 in children and 25 in adults b) 100% immunisation
d) 1000 in children and 75 in adults c) Killed vaccine is effective in India
1000. Polio virus is shed in stool upto-(NEETIDNB Pattern) d) 5 doses of OPV given
a) 6 weeks b) 8 weeks 1012. All are true about OPV except- (AIIMS Nov 09)
c) 10 weeks d) 12 weeks a) It is a killed vaccine
1001. Death in poliomyelitis is usually due to- (Al92) b) Stored at Sub-zero temprature
a) Hypertension b) Repiratory Paralysis c) Intestinal & humoral immunity
c) Aspiration d) Arrythmias d) Main problem is residual neuro-virulence
1002. True about polioviruses is- (AIIMS Nov 07) 1013. TrueaboutOPVstrain- (Jipmer 11)
a) Most cases are symptomatic a) Growswellat40°C
b) Spastic paralysis b) Grows well at decreaase concentration of
c) Injectables and severe exercise increases chance bicarbonate
of paralysis c) Nucleotide sequencing does not distinguish
d) Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less between wild strain and vaccine strain
than 3 years of age d) Poor growth in stable cell line of monkey kidney
1003. Salk vaccine is a- (PGI 88) 1014. Pulse Polio immunization was introduced in-
a) Live vaccine b) Live attenuated vaccine a) 1995 b)2000 (MAHE 07)
c) Killed vaccine d) Toxoid c) 1999 d)2001
1004. NOT true about IPV is- (AIIMS Feb 97)
1015. False about Pulse polio immunization is-
a) Mop up immunization is done in restricted
a) Given in 4 doses
geographical areas (AIIMS Nov 07)
b) Can't be given in AIDS patient
b) It is carried out in all children less than 5 yrs of age
c) Is a killed vaccine
c) Mopping up is done in areas where wild polio
d) Also known as salk vaccine virus is found
1005. All are true regarding killed polio vaccine except- d) AFP surveillance is done in all children< 5 years
a) Produces circulatory antibody (AI 90) of age
b) Does not require stringent refrigeration 1016. Acute flaccid paralysis is reported in a child aged-
c) Immunity against paralytic and wild strains a) 0-3 years b) 0-5 years (AI 02)
d) Not effective in an epidemic c) 0-15 d) 0-25 years
1006. AllaretrueaboutSALKvaccineexcept- (A/91) 1017. Prevalence of all clinical cases of polio can be
a) It prevents paralysis estimated by multiplying the no. of residual paralytic
b) Oral polio can be given as booster cases by- (AI 2000)
c) It is contraindicated in immunocompromised a) 1.33 b) 1.25
patients c) 3.00 d) 1.99
d) Easily transported 1018. The efficiency of cold chain system for oral polio
1007. All are true about SALK vaccine except-(Manipal 08) vaccine as monitored by Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM)
a) OPV cannot be given as booster dose depends on- (AIPGME 04)
b) Injections during epidemic can cause paralysis a) Change in the colour of vaccine
c) Induces circulating antibody but no local immunity b) Temperature indicator of the system
d) Does not prevent multiplication of wild virus in gut c) Viral potency test
d) Change in colour of monitor
997)b 998)a 999)d lOOO)d lOOl)b 1002)c 1003)c 1004)b 1005)c 1006)c 1007)a 1008)c 1009)a 1010)a,b
lOll)b 1012)a 1013)d 1014)a 1015)d 1016)c 1017)a 1018)d
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [ 4.52 J
1019. Vaccine Vial Monitors (VVM) have been extensively 1028. Cholera transmission by - (PGI Dec 06)
used in the Pulse Polio Programme to assess the a) Food transmits
effectiveness of cold chain. According to the b) Vaccination gives 90% efficiency
guidelines, the following changes in the VVM is an c) Healthy carrier
indication for discarding the vaccines- (Karn 03) d) Chlorination is not effective
a) Inner square is higher than outer circle
1029. The mechanisms by which cholera might be
b) Outer square is higher than inner circle
maintained during the intervals between peak cholera
c) Inner square is same colour as that of outer circle
d) Inner square is darker than outer circle seasons is - (AIIMS May 06)
1020. Under the National Polio Eradication Programme, a a) Carrier status in animals
case ofAcute Flaccid Paralysis is confirmed as Polio, b) Carrier status in man
under the following circumstances except- c) An environmental reservoir
a) If a case is lost to follow up (AIIMS Nov 2000) d) Continuous transmission in man
b) If a case could not be confirmed because the 1030. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the
patient died before that following measures are recommended except-
c) If a wild strain of polio virus is isolated from stool a) Mass chemoprophylaxis (AI 03)
d) If a patient develops paralysis 30 days after b) Proper disposal of excreta
diagnosis of AFP c) Chlorination of water
1021. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed d) Early detection and management of cases
for how many days for residual weakness- (AI 10,
1031. Which is cholera vaccine - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 30 days b) 42 days AIIMS May 12)
c) 60 days d) 90 days a) Ty21 A b) HGD -103
1022. Definite case of Polio is considered if -(AIIMS June c) WC-rBS d) None
a) Paralysis is for more than 6 weeks 99) 1032. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera
b) Antibody titre is more than 4 times of normal value in an adult is a single dose of- (AI 05)
c) Demonstration of Polio virus in stool a) Tetracycline b) Cotrimoxazole
d) Acute encephalitis with paralysis c) Doxycycline d) Furazolidone
1023. All of the following are true regarding acute attack 1033. The drug of choice for treating cholera in pregnant
of Polio, except- (AIIMS June 99) women is- (AIIMS 05)
a) Fecal sample is carried in cold box a) Tetracycline b) Doxycycline
b) Three consecutive stool samples are positive c) Furazolidone d) Cotrimoxazole
c) Investigation done in 48 hours 1034. Which of the following is the drug of choice for
d) Throat swab is taken for diagnosis
chemoprophylaxis of cholera- (AIIMS 05)
1024. Criteria for defining polio epidemic are all except-
a) 2 or more cases (Kerala 04)
a) Tetracycline b) Doxycycline
b) Cases should occur in same locality c) Furazolidone d) Cotrimoxazole
c) Caused by same virus type 1035. Chemoprophylaxis in cholera- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Cases occurring during 6 month period a) Tetracycline b) Ciprofloxacin
1025. In a epidemic of poliomyelitis, the best way to stop c) Erytromycin d) None
spread is by- (AI 94) 1036. Best emergency sanitary measure to control cholera
a) Injection of killed vaccine is - . (AIIMS96)
b) OPV drops to all children a) Desinfection of stool
c) Isolation of cases b) Mass vaccination
d) Chlorination of all wells c) Provision of chlorinated water
d) Chemoprophylaxis
CHOLERA 1037. ORS contains 75 m molllitre-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Sodium b) Potassium
1026. Commonest strain of cholera in India is-
a) Ogawa b) Inaba (AIIHPH01) c) Glucose d) Chloride
c) Hikojima d)NAG 1038. ORS new osmolarity is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
102 7. ElTor vibrio may be differentiated from classical a) 270 b) 245
vibrio byfactthatElTorvibrio- (CMC 86) c) 290 • d) 310
a) Agglutinate chicken and sheep erythrocytess 1039. The function of glucose in ORS- (PGI96)
b) Resistant to classical phage IV a) Increase Na+ absorption by Co-transport
c) Resistant to polymyxin B-5 unit disc b) Gives sweet taste to 0 RS
d) VP reaction and hemolytic test positive c) Increase osmolality of ORS
e) All of the above d) Increase Na+- K+ pump activity
1019)c 1020)d 102l)c 1022)c 1023)b 1024)d 1025)b 1026)a 1027)e 1028)a,c 1029)d 1030)a 103l)c 1032)c
1033)c 1034)a 1035)a 1036)c 1037)a 1038)b 1039)a
1040. WHOORShas- (PG!Dec06) FOOD POISONING

a) K+-?20mmol/L
b) Na+-?90mmol/L 1052. The following are characteristic features of
c) HC03·-?IOmmol!L staphylococcus food poisoning except- (AJIMS 04)
d) Osmolality-?150mmol/L a) Optimum temperature for toxin production is
1041. WHOORScontain- (PGI June 02) 37°C
a) Sodiumchloride2-5 gm
b) Intradietic toxin is responsible for intestinal
b) Potassium chloride 1.5 gm
symptoms
c) Sucrose 10 gm
d) Glucose 20 gm c) Toxin can be destroyed by boiling for 30 minutes
e) Potassium bicarbonate 2.5 gm d) Incubation period is 1-6 hours
104 2. Cholera prophylaxis is by- (PG!Dec98) 1053. Kalin; a 22 year old male had an outing with his
a) Doxycycline 300 mg OD b) Cephalosporin friends and developed fever of 38.5 degree C,
c) Streptomycin d) Cotrimexazole diarrhoea and vomiting following eating chicken
e) Erythromycin salad. 24 hours back. Two of his friends developed
1043. Dehydration in a child with diarrhea thirst present - the same symptoms. The diagnosis is- (AJIMS 01)
a) Mild b) Moderate (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Salmonella enteritis poisoning
c) Sever d) None b) Bacillus cereus
1044. What amount ofWHO ORS is required for a 1 year c) Staphylococcus aureus
old child in first 4 hours of diarrhea? (NEETIDNB d) Vibrio cholera
a) 200-400ml b) 400-600 ml Pattern) 1054. True regarding Staphylococcal food poisoning is-
c) 600-800ml d)800-l200ml
a) Caused by eating of dairy products
1045. A 12 kg child with diarrhoea, fluid to be replaced
b) Caused by endotoxins (AIIMS Feb 97)
in first 4 hours - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 0-400ml b) 400-800ml c) Caused by fishes
c) 800-1200ml d) 1200-1600ml d) Associated with abnormal movements
1055. True about Dracunculiasis except- (PGI June 05)
TYPHOID FEVER a) No animal Reservoir
b) Man is intermediate host
1046. All are true about 'l)rphoid except- (Jipmer 04) c) India has eradicate the disease
a) Incubation period 10 - 14 years d) Limited to tropical and subrtopical region
b) Most common among males e) Niridazole does not prevent transmission of
c) Carrier are treated by ampicillin disease effectivity
d) Highest incidence occur in 30 - 40 years age group 1056. How many guinea worm cases were identified in the
1047. Incubationperiodoftyphoid- (PG!June05) year 1999- (AIIMS 2K)
a) 3-20 days b) 14-45 days a) 0 b)9
c) 5-10 days d) 15-60 days
c) 2000 d) 4000
e) 10-14days ·
1057. Dracunculosis is most common in-(AJIMS 95,Al96)
1048. In typhoid a pennanent carrier is one who excretes
bacilli for more than- (Delhi 96) a) Gujarat b) Rajasthan
a) 3 months b) 6 months c) Madhya Pradesh d) Orissa
c) 1 year d) 3 years 1058. All of the following statements regarding
1049. 'l)rphoid oral vaccine is given- (UP 08) Dracunculiasis are true except- (Al!MS 04)
a) 1, 3, 5 days b) l, 2, 3 days a) India has eradicated this disease
c) 1, 2, 4 days d) 1, 7, 14 days b) Niridazole prevents transmission of the disease
1050. True statement about Vi polysaccharide vaccine is- c) The disease is limited to tropical and subtropical
a) Has many serious systemic adverse reactions regions
b) Has many serious local side effects d) No animal reservoir has been proved
c) Hasmanycontraindications (AJIMSNov 10) 1059. In Guinea wonn prophylaxis, all are true, except-
d) Can be administered with yellow fever and a) Acute search of new cases (AIIMS May 94)
hepatitis A vaccine b) Identification of carriers
1051. For a typhoid endemic country like India, the
c) Mass treatment with Mebendazole
immunization of choice is- (AIIMS 01)
d) Health education to people to use a sieve for
a) TAB vaccine
b) Typhoral 21 A oral vaccine straining drinking water
c) Monovalent vaccine
d) Any of these
1040)a 104l)a,b 1042)a 1043)a 1044)c 1045)c 1046)d 1047)a,e 1048)c 1049)a 1050)d 105l)b 1052)c 1053)a
1054) a 1055) b 1056) a 1057) None> b 1058) b 1059) c
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDI(:INE [ 4.54]
MALARIA 1070. Burden of malaria is best estimated by-

a) Mosquito rate b) API (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1060. True about epidemiology of malaria- (PGI DEC 04) c) Parasite rate d) SPR
a) Extrinsic incubation period 0-14 days 1071. All are true regarding malaria except- (AIIMS 99)
b) In India common during January to June a) Infant parasite rate is a poor indicator of malaria
occurrence in a community
c) Man act as definitive host
b) ABER is used for operational approach
d) Rare in urban
c) Spleen rate is an important indicator of endemicity
e) Mosquito acts as definitive host ofmalaria
1061. Typesofmalarianotseeninlndia- (PGI88) d) Usually caused by Plasmodium vivax
a) Ovale b) Falcipannn 1072. All is true about malaria, except- (AIIMS 97)
c) Vtvax d) Malariae a) Infant parasite index is a poor index for assessment
1062. Case of plasmodium ovale in India is/are reported in- for transmission of malaria in thecommunity
a) Orissa b) Gujrat (PGI May 11) b) Vector for transmission is Anapheles mosquito
c) Maharastra d) Delhi c) Newborns are resistant toP. falciparum infection
e) Karnataka d) A. culicifacies is common in rural area
1063. Incubation period of plasmodium vivax is- (Delhi 85, 1073. TreatmentofP.vivaxmalaria- (PGIDec2K)
a) 5-7 days b) 7-10 days UPSC 86) a) Chlorquine
c) 10-14days d) 15-30days b) Primaquine
c) Chloraquine +Primaquine
1064. In urban which Anopheles species is seen-(NEETI
d) None
a) Stephnsi b) Culicifacies DNB Pattern) 1074. Doseofchloroquineat4-8year- (AI 89)
c) Fluvitalis d) None a) 150mg. b) 300 mg.
1065. Malaria is transmitted by- (PGI Dec 04) c) 450mg. d)600mg.
a) Anopheles stephensi 1075. Treatment of choice for chloroquine resistant
b) Anopheles culicifacies malaria is- (AIIMS 2K, 99)
c) Culex a) Mefloquine
d) Phlebotomus b) Sulfadoxine +Pyrimethamine
1066. All are true about communicability of Malaria, c) Primaquine+ Chloroquine
except- (AIIMSNov06) d) Chloroquine+ Pyrimethamine
a) The number of gametocytes in blood increases 1076. A person wants to visit a malaria endemic area of
with time low level chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria.
The best chemoprophylaxis is- (AIIMS OJ)
b) Gametocytes appear in blood 4-5 days after the
a) Chloroquine
appearance of the asexual parasite, in vivax b) Proguanil +Pyrimethamine
infection. c) Sulfadoxine +Pyrimethamine
c) Gametocytes appear in blood 10-12 days after d) Mefloquine
the appearance of asexual parasite, in falciparum 1077. Prophaylaxis for malaria not used-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
infection a) Doxycycline b) Artesunate
d) In the early stage of infection, their density may c) Chloroquine d) Mefloquine
exceed 1000 per cmm ofblood. 1078. Chemoprohylaxis of chloroquine includes -
1067. In Sickle cell trait patients, there is reduced risk of a) 300 mg BD/week (NEETIDNB Pattern)
which of the following disease? (AI 10) b) 600 mg OD/week
a) Typhoid b) Malaria c) 600 mg/week
c) G-6PD deficiency d) Filaria d) 300 mg OD/week
1079. Patient was given chloroquine & doxycycline for 7
1068. The most sensitive index of recent transmission of
days. Patient's fever decreases in 4 days but,
malaria in a community is- (AIIMS Nov 03, 97)
peripheral smear showed occasional gametocytes
a) Spleen rate of plasmodium falciparum. This type .of drug
b) Infant parasite rate resistance is - (DPG 11)
c) Annual parasite incidence a) Rl type b) ~type
d) Slide positivity rate c) R, type d) R4 type
1069. A malarial survey is conducted in 50 villages having 1080. The current Global strategy for malaria control is
a population of one lakh. Out of 20000 slides called- (KARNATAKA 2001)
examined, 500 turned out to be malaria positive. The a) Modified plan of operation
annual parasite incidence is - (AIIMS May 01) b) Malaria Eradication Progranune
a) 200/o b) 5% c) Malaria Control Progranune
0.5% d)0.4% d) Roll back Malaria
1060)e 1061)a 1062)a,b,d 1063)c 1064)a 1065)a,b 1066)a 1067)b 1068)b 1069)c 1070)b 107l)a 1072)a
1073)c 1074)b 1075)b 1076)d 1077)b 1078)d 1079)b 1080)d
1081. Roll back Malaria program is- (Jipmer 04) c) Development oflymphoedema
a) Encourage the development of more effective d) Development of adult worm
and new anti malarial drugs and vaccines 1091. All are true statement about filaria except-
b) Encourage the proper and expanded use of a) Extrinsic incubation period of 10-14 days
insecticide treated mosquito nets b) Man is the intermediate host (AIIMS 9 7)
c) Training of village health workers and mother c) Adults live in the lymphatics of host
on early and appropriate treatment of malaria d) No multiplication in the mosquito
d) All of the above 1092. Microfilaria endemicity index is- (AI 91)
1082. Which one of the following is not a strategy under a) %of persons showing MF in blood and diseased
Roll Back Malaria- (UPSC 07) individual
a) Strengthening of health system b) % of persons showing MF in blood only
b) Use of insecticide treated bed nets c) Number ofMF in the blood
c) Anti-larval measures d) Average no. persons with positive slides
d) Development of new antimalaria drugs 1093. All of the following are commonly used Filarial
1083. A patient develops red eye, 2 two days after an indices except- (AI 94)
episode of malaria Probable cause is- (AIIMS 99) a) Microfilaria rate
a) Conjunctivitis b) Anterior uvelitis b) Filarial disease rate
c) Vrral keratitis d) Endophthalmitis c) Filarial epidemicity rate
1084. All of the following factors contribute to Resurgence d) Mosquito infection rate
ofmalaria,Except- (AI 11, 10) 1094. All ofthe following are helpful for elimination of
a) Drug resistance in host Filariasis, except- (AIIMSMay 12)
b) Drug resistance in parasite a) Microfilarias do not multiply in vectors
c) Insecticide resistance in vectors b) They do not multiply in humans
d) Antigenic variations in parasite c) Larvae are deposited on skin surface where they
can't survive
1085. All of the following factors are responsible for
d) None
resurgence of malaria, Except- (AI 11)
1095. Antropo-Zoonosesareallexcept- (AI95)
a) Drug Resistance in Parasite
b) Insecticide Resistance in vectors a) Guinea worm infestation b) Rabies
c) Antigenic mutations in parasite c) Plague d) Hydatid cyst
d) Use of bed nets 1096. Direct zoonose is- (PGI Dec 04)
a) Rabies b) Brucellosis
FILARIASIS c) Taeniasis d) Hydatid disease
1097. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease -(NEET/
1086. Human filariasis is caused by- (PGI Dec 08) a) Hydatid cyst b) Malaria DNB Pattern)
a) Loa-loa b) Onchocerca Volvulus c) Filariasis d) dengue fever
c) W. bancrafti d) B. Malayi 1098. All of the following are zoonosis Except- (AI 08)
1087. All are TRUE regarding filariasis except- a) Plague b) Japanese Encephalitis {JE)
a) Man is an intermediate host. (AIIMS Feb 97) c) HIV d) Tuberculosis (TB)
b) Caused by wuchereria bancrofti 1099. Zoonosis is/are- (PGI June 08)
c) Involves lymphatic system a) Anthrax b) Brucella
d) DEC is used in treatment c) Leptospirosis d) Chaga's disease
1088. The organism most commonly causing genital e) Tularemia
filariasis in most part of Bihar and easteran U.P. 1100. Animal to man transmission (zoonosis) is seen
is- (AI 03) in - (PGI Dec 05, June 99)
a) Wuchereria bancrofti b) Brugia malayi a) Rabies b) Japanese encephalitis
c) Onchocerca volvulus d) Dirofilaria c) HIV d) Plague
1089. Maximum density of microfilariasis in blood is e) Measles
reported to be between- (UPSC 85, AI 88)
a) 9pmto llpm b) 11 pmto2am
RABIES
c) 8 pm to 10 pm d) 2 am to 5 am
1090. 'Prepatent period' in lymphatic filariasis is defined
1101. In India, "Rabies free" zone is- (AIIMS79,
as the time interval between inoculation of infective
larvaeand- (UPSC-II08) a) Goa b) Lakshadeep DELHI93)
a) Blockage oflymphatics c) Sikkim d) Nagaland
b) First appearance of detectable microfilaria
108l)d 1082)c 1083)c 1084)a 1085)d 1086)All 1087)a 1088)a 1089)b 1090)b 109l)b 1092)a 1093)b
1094)c 1095)a 1096)a,b 1097)a 1098)c 1099)all llOO)a,b,d llOl)b
1102. Regarding Rabies, true is- (AI 00) 1114. Post exposure prophylaxis of rabies in immunized
a) Incubation period depends on the site of bite person- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Diagnosis is by eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion a) 0 b) 3
c) It is a RNA virus c) 7 days d) None
d) Caused only by dogs
1103. Rabies can be transmitted by all the following ARBOVIRAL DISEASES
routes except- (AI94)
a) Aerosol b) Bites 1115. Disease caused by arboviruses included-
c) Ingestion d)Licks (PGI June 02, Dec 2K)
1104. Neurological complications following Rabies a) Yellowfever b) Japanese encephalitis
vaccine is common with- (JIPMER 91) c) Trench fever d) Epidemic typhus
a) IIDCS Vaccine b) Chick embryo Vaccine e) Dengue
c) Semple Vaccine d) Duck Egg Vaccine 1116. Which one of the following arbovirus diseases bas
1105. All of the following rabies vaccines are uot been reported in India- (AIIMS 04)
commercially available except- (AI99) a) Japanese Encephalitis
a) Killed sheep brain vaccine b) Yellow fever
b) Human diploid cell vaccine c) Chikungunya fever
c) Vero continous cell vaccine d) Kyasanur forest disease
d) Recombinant glycoprotein 1117. True aboutArboviruses is- (AIIMS May 10)
1106. Which virus is used to produe rabies vaccine- a) Yellow fever is endemic in India
a) Wild b) Street (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Dengue has only one serotype
c) Fixed d) Live Attenuated c) KFD was first identified in West Bengal
1107. For the treatment of case of class ill dog bite, all of d) Chikungunya is transmitted by Aedes aegypti
the following are correct except - (AI 05) 1118. Following is absent in India - {NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Give Ig for passive immunity a) JE b) Yellow fever
c) Malaria d) Dengue
b) GiveARV
1119. All of the following arobiviral infections are
c) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
prevalent inlndiaexcept- (AI97)
d) lnunediately wash wound with soap and water
a) Dengue fever b) Western fever
1108. Class II exposure in animal bites includes the
c) Yellow fever d) Chikungunya
following- (.4103)
1120. Arboviral diseases common in India are the following
a) Scratches without oozing of blood
except- (AIJJ)
b) Licks on a fresh wound
a) Dengue fever b) Sandfly fever
c) Scratch with oozing ofblood on palm c) West Nile fever d) Yellow fever
d) Bites from wild animals 1121. Which of the following is exotic disease in India-
1109. Active immunisation following exposure is given a) Yellow fever b) KFD (NEETIDNB Pattern)
most commonly for- (AI 99) c) JE d) Dengue
a) Rabies b) Polio
c) Plague d) Measles YELLOW FEVER
1110. The schedule ofHDCV in rabies is- (Al96)
a) 0,3,7,10,14,28 b)0,3,10,30 1122. Yellow fever is caused by- (UPSC 88)
c) 3, 7, 14, 16,18 d)O, 7, 14, 16,18 a) Flavivirus b)A1pha virus
1111. In rabies, human diploid cell culture vaccine for post- c) Sindbis d) Chikungunaya virus
exposure vaccination is given on the following days- 1123. The incubation period of yellow fever is -(AIIMS 04)
a) 0, 7, 28 then booster dose 90 days (AI98) a) 3 to 5 days b) 3-4 weeks
b) 0, 7, 28 then booster dos in 2 years c) 1 to2weeks d)8-10weeks
c) 0, 3, 7, 14, 30 then booster dose 90 days 1124. Trueaboutyellowfever- (PG/June04)
d) 0, 3, 7 and booster dose 90 days a) I.P.is 10-14days
1112. Number of doses of HDCV vaccine required for b) Transmittd by Aedes
preexposure prophylaxis- (NEETIDNB PATTERN) c) It is found in Asia
~ 7 b)5 d) Incidence is increased by humidity
c) 3 d) 1 e) It is a flavivirus
1113. What is the correct recommended schedule (on days) 1125. According to international Health Regulation, there
for post- exposure treatment of person who have . is no risk of spread of yellow fever if the Aedes
been vaccinated for rabies previously with HDC- aegypti index remains below- (AI 04)
a) 0,3and7 b)0,3,7and14 a) 1% b)5%
c)0,3,7,14and28 d)Oand3 c) 8% d) 10%
1102)a 1103)c 1104)c 1105)d 1106)c 1107)c 1108)b 1109)a lllO)a llll)c 1112)c 1113)d 1114)a>b
1115)a,b,e 1116)b 1117)d 1118)b 1119)c 1120)d 1121)a 1122)a 1123)a 1124)b,d,e ll25)a
1126. Yellow fever aedes agypti index should be - 1138. Which of the following is not true about Japanese
a) <1% b)< 5% (NEET/DNB Pattern) encephalitis? (AI 11)
c) <100/o d) < 20% a) About 80% of the patients are children below 5
1127. Yellow fever is absent in India because- (Corned 08) years of age.
a) Climatic conditions are not favourable b) In epidemics, cases scatter with no more than
b) Virus is not present 1-2 per village
c) Vector mosquito is absent c) Overt disease to unapparent cases ratio is I : 100.
d) Population is immune d) Bite from infected mosquito always leads to the
1128. International certificate for travelling is required disease
fur- (AIIA1S9~ 1139. After vaccination against Japanese encephalitis
a) Pertussis b) Yellow fever immunity developes in- (AIIA1S 97; PGI June 98)
c) Cholera d) Plague a) 30 days b) 7 days
1129. Vector control for yellow fever around an airport is c) 10 days d) 21 days
done upto a distance of~ (AI 2K) 1140. SA-14-14~2 ~ (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) 400m b)200m a) Diploid cell inactivated
c) 500m d) lOOm b) Killed vaccine
1130. The distance from airport or seaport which has to c) Life long immunity
be free from mosquitoes is -(NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Primary immunization 2 doses
a) 400m b) 500m 1141. False about Japanese encephalitis is-(AHMS Nov 09)
c) 1 km d) lOOm a) Transmitted by Culex mosquitoes
1131. The international quarantine period for yellow fever b) Overhead tanks serve as breeding site
as approved by the Government oflndia is- c) Pigs are amplifiers
a) 6 days b) 9 days (UPSC 97) d) Primary dose of vaccine consists of two doses
c) 10 days d) 12 days 1142. The vector of Japanese Encephalitis in India is-
a) Culex tritaeniorhychus (AIIA1S 96)
.JAPANESE ENCEPHALITIS b) Culex vishnui
c) Aedes aegypti
1132. Japanese encephalitis is caused by- (NEET/DNB d) Anopheles
a) Culex b) F1avivirus Pattern) 1143. Inlndia,thevectorofJapaneseencephalitisis-(A/94)
c) Pigs d) None a) Aedes, aegypti b)Aedes culcifaciens
1133. Amplifier for Japanese encephalitis - c) Culex vishnui d) Mansonoides
a) Horse b) Pigs (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Dogs d) Monkey
1134. Japanese B encephalitis virus is transmitted
by- (Jipmer 86, Nimhans 87) 1144. Following are true ofkyasanur forest disease except-
a) Aedes aegypti a) Transmitted by Soft tick (AI 94)
b) Culex fatigans b) Caused by retrovirus
c) Culex tritaeniorhynchus c) Incubation Period is 3-8 days
d) Hard tick d) Killed vaccine available
e) Softtick 1145. Kyanasur forest disease is transmitted by - (TN 02)
1135. Epidemiological features are for japanese a) Haemaphysalis spinigera b) Culex vishnui
encephalitis include all of the following except- c) Aedes d) Anopheles
a) The virus infects extra-human hosts (AI 97; 1146. To prevent KFD which ofthe following is not used -
b) Man is an incidental host AIIA1S95; a) Self protection against ticks (AIIlvfS 0 1)
c) Infected pigs manifestation PGI Dec 99) b) Vaccination
d) Epidemics have been reported in Kamataka c) Deforestation
1136. All the following are true about japanese d) Control of cattle roaming in the forest
Encephalitis except- (AI 96)
a) Man to man transmission is not reported PLAGUE
b) Culex mosquito is the vector
c) 90%-l 00% mortality rate 1147. The following rodent is the natural reservoir of
d) There is no rash or local lesion plague - (KARN 94)
1137. True regarding japanese encephalitis is except- a) Mus musculus b) Tatera indica
a) Man to man transmission is not reported c) Rattus Rattus d) Rattus norvegicus
b) Colicine mosquitos zoophilic (AIJA1S 97) 1148. Plague is transmitted by- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Mortality is 80-90% a) Mite b) Flea
d) Cases show up of iceberg c) Sand fly d) None
1126)a 1127)b 1128)b 1129)a 1130)a 113l)a 1132)b 1133)b 1134)c 1135)c 1136)c 1137)c 1138)d 1139)a
1140)c 114l)b 1142)a 1143)c 1144)b 1145)a 1146)c 1147)b 1148)b
1149. Which is most dangerous for transmitting 1158. The following statements are true regarding
plague- (Orissa R) leptospirosis, except- (AIIMSMay 06)
a) Blocked flea b) Partial blocked flea a) It is zoonosis
c) Both d) Unblocked flea b) Man is the dead end host
1150. What is the best indicator for a potential c) Man is an accidental host
explosiveness of plague outbreak?- (UPSC 2006) d) Lice act as reservoirs of infection
a) Total flea index 1159. A sewage worker presents to the Emergency
b) Cheopis index
department with fever and jaundice. Laboratory
c) Specific percentage of fleas
findings reveal an elevated BUN and serum creatinine
d) Burrrow index
1151. Index for estimating explosion of plague? suggestive of renal failure. Which ofthe following
a) Cheopis index (NEETIDNB Pattern) antiboitics is recommended? (Alll)
b) Total flea index a) Cotrimaxozole b) Erythromycin
c) Burrow index c) Ciprofloxacin d) Penicillin G
d) None
1152. All of the following statement about plague are wrong KALAAZAR
except- (AJIMS04)
a) Domestic rat is main reservoir 1160. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by-
b) Bubonic is the most common variety a) L-braziliensis b) L. tropica (PGI 97)
c) The causative bacillus can survive upto 10 years c) L. donovani d) L-orientalis
in the soil of rodent burrows 1161. Reservoir oflndian Kala azar is- (AIIMS 03)
d) Incubation period for pneumonic plague is one a) Man b) Rodent
to two weeks c) Canine d) Equine
1153. In a plague epidemic all of the following are done to 1162. Trueaboutkala-azar- (PGI June 09)
control it, except (AIIMS May 02) a) More common in female than male
a) Isolation of contacts b) Eliminated from India
b) Vaccination of the susceptibles c) Non-human reservoirs are present
c) Surveillance d) Incubation period is 1-3 month
d) Chemoprophylaxis with tetracycline e) Rarely found in hilly areas
1154. True statement about plague is - (AI 97) 1163. Kala-azar in India is caused by- (AP 96)
a) Vaccine is not used to control epidemic of a) P. papatasi b) P. serpenti
pneumonic plague c) P. argentipes d) Oncocercus
b) Most important measure to control epidemic 1164. Drug(s) included in the treatment of visceral
rodent control leismaniasis is/are all except- (PGI June 09)
c) Septicemic plague is highly infectious a) Sodium stibogluconate
d) Live attenuated vaccines are used b) Pentamidine
1155. After two doses of vaccination against plague, the c) Miltefosine
immunity will last for- (UPSC 96) d) Liposomal amphtericine B
a) Six months b) One year e) Ketoconazole
c) Eighteen months d)Twenty-fourmonths
1156. Prophylaxis for health personnel working in a RICKETTSIAL DISEASES
plague ward is- (PGI Dec 98)
a) Vaccine 1165. Epidemic typhus cause & vector-(NEETIDNB Pattern}
b) Tetracycline throughout the duty a) Rickettessiae prowazki & Louse
c) A cource of tetracycline
b) R. typhi & mite
d) Vaccine and Erythromycin
c) R. conorii & tick
e) Observation
d) R. akari & mite
1166. A patient complained of chills and fever following a
LEPTOSPIROSIS
louse bite 2 weks before. He had rashes all over the
body and was delirious at the time of presentation to
1157. Which of the following statements about
the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A
Leptospirosis is true- (AI II)
provisional diagnosis ofvascnlitis due to Rickettsial
a) Rats are prime reservoirs
infection was made. Which one of the following can
b) Fluoroquinolones are the drug of choice
be causative agent.- (AI 06, Al96)
c) Person to person Transmission is common
d) Hepatorenal syndrome may occur in upto 50% of a) Rickettsia typhi b) Rickettsia rickettsiae
patients c) Rickettsia prowazekii d) Rickettsia akari
1149)b ll50)b 1151)a ll52)b ll53)b 1154)b ll55)a 1156)a,b 1157)a 1158)d 1159)d 1160)a 1161)a
1162)c,d,e 1163)c 1164)None 1165)a 1166)c
1167. Which of the following statements is true about 1177. A man presents with fever and childs 2 weeks after
endemictyphus- (AI03) a louse bite. There was maculo-papular rash on the
a) Is caused by R.rickettsii trunk which spread peripherally. the cause of this
b) Is transmitted by the bite of fleas infection can be- (AIIMS 03)
c) Has no mammalian reservoir a) Scrub typhus b) Endemic typhus
d) Can be cultured in chemically defined culture medium c) Rickettsial pox d) Epidemic typhus
1168. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that- 1178. Transovarian transmission is a feature of-(PGI 80)
a) Man is the only reservoir of infection a) Scrub fever b) Epidemic typhus
b) Flea is a vector ofthe disease (AIIMS May 06) c) Endemic typhus d) Trench fever
c) The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic
presentation TETANUS
d) Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture
is a diagnostic modality. 1179. Allaretrueregardingtetanusexcept-{AHMSNov10)
1169. Which of the following is incorrect about Scrub a) Transmission through contaminated wounds and
typhus? (AI I 0) injuries
a) Causative agent is R. tsutsugamushi b) More common in winters and dry weather
b) Important reservoir is trombiculoid mite c) Reservoir in soil and intestines of humans and
c) The adult mite feeds on vertebrate host animals
d) Tertacycline is drug of choice d) No herd immunity or life long immunity
1170. Vector of scrub typhus in man - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1180. To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, incidence
a) O.tsutsugamushi of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be
b) Leptotrombidium deliense reduced to less than- (UPSC 96)
c) Lice a) O.l b)0.2
d) Pediculous humanus c) 0.5 d) 1.0
1171. Scrub typus - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1181. Strategies for prevention ofNeonatal Tetanus include
a) R. tsutsugamushi b) R.typhi all ofthe following except- (AI 07)
c) R. akari d) R.conorii a) 5 clean practices
1172. Mode of transmission of Q fever is - (AIIMS 04) b) Giving penicillin to all the new boms
a) Bite of infected louse b) Bite of infected tick c) 2 doses ofTT to all pregnant women
c) Inhalation of aerosol d) Bite of infected mile d) Immunizing all married women
1173. Wbich ofthe following statements about Q fever is 1182. "Five clean practices" under strategies for
false- (AI 96) elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except-
a) Highly infectious zoonotic disease a) Clean surface for delivery (AI 04)
b) The mode of transmission is by inhalation b) Clean hand of the attendant
c) Arthropods are involved in its transmission to man c) New blade for cutting the cord
d) There is no rash or local lesion d) Clean airway
1174. Qfeveristransmittedby- (A/09) 1183. In child survival and safe motherhood programme
a) Ticks b) Mites which is not advised as a provision in conduct of
c) Louse d) Flea delivery- (AIIMS 94)
1175. All ofthe following statement are true regarding Q a) Clean room b) Clean tie
fever except- (AI 03) c) Clean periileum d) Clean cord
a) It is zoonotic disease 1184. True regarding tetanus toxoid is/are -(PGI June 09)
b) Human disease is characterized by an interstitial a) Plain toxoid have long duration
pneumonia b) Adsorbed toxoid are more beneficial
c) No rash is seen c) Should never freeze
d) Weil-felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis d) Stored at 0°C
1176. TrueaboutQfever- (AI 09) e) Both active & passive immunization can be given
a) Rash on palms and soles, headache and fever together
are common symptoms 1185. A full course of immunization against, Tetanus
b) Transmitted by human body louse with 3 doses of Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity
c) Inhaled aerosols spread the infection for how many years- (Corned 08)
d) Mosquito bite prevention is important in a) 5 b) 10
prevention c) 15 d)20
1167)b 1168)b 1169)c ll70)b 1171)a 1172)c 1173)c 1174)a 1175)d 1176)c 1177)d 1178)a 1179)b 1180)a
118l)b 1182)d 1183)c 1184)b,c,e 1185)a
1186. A person has received complete immunization 1194. All ofthe following are the mode of transmission of
against tetanus 10 years ago. Now he presents with leprosy except- (AI 04)
a clean wound without any lacerations from an injury a) Breast milk b) Insect bite
sustained 2.5 hours ago. He should now be given- c) Transplacental spread d) Droplet infection
a) Full course of tetanus toxoid (AI OJ) 1195. "Multibacillary" is a spectrum of disease, seen in-
b) Single dose of tetanus toxoid a) Leprosy b) TB (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Human tet globulin c) Tetanus d) Trachoma
d) Human tet globulin and single dose of toxoid 1196. Exacerbation of lesions in patients of borderline
1187. A 10 year old boy following a road traffic accident leprosy is seen in- (PGI June OJ)
a) ENL (erythema nodosum leprosum)
presents to the casuality with contaminated wound
b) Lepra reaction type 1
over the left leg. He bas received his complete
c) Jarisch-Herxheimerreaction
primary immunization before preschool age and
d) Resolving leprosy
received a booster ofDT at school entry age. All of
1197. The characteristic finding in a case of leprosy
the following can be done except- (AIIMS OJ)
is- (AIIMSDec 98)
a) Injection ofTT a) Culture test is positive in 2-3 months in LJ media
b) Injection of human antiserum b) Long contact with tuberculoid leprosy can
c) Broad spectrum antibiotics transmit the disease.
d) Wound debridement and cleaning c) CMI is seen in Lepromatous leprosy
1188. The most effective way of preventing tetanus is- d) Macule lesion heals spontaneously
a) Surgical debridement and toilet (AIIMS OJ) 1198. Slit smear negative leprosy is- (AI 97)
b) Hyperbaric oxygen a) Neuritic type b) Tuberculoid type
c) Antibiotics c) Indeterminate type d) Leprometous type
d) Tetanus toxoid 1199. Not true about lepromine test is- (AI 07, AIIMS 06)
1189. The active immunity offered by tetanus toxoid is a) Helps in classification ofleprosy
effective in nearly- (AIIMS Nov 02) b) Negative in most of the child in 1st 6 month of
a) 25% of the patients b) 50% of the patients life
c) 75% of the patients d) 100% ofthepatients c) It is a diagnostic test
1190. The true statement regarding tetanus is- (AI OJ) d) BCG vaccination converts lepra reaction from
a) Five dose immunisation provides life long immunity negative to positive
b) TT affords no protection in the present injury 1200. In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most
c) TT serves no use once 12 hours have elapsed useful for- (AI 03, AIIMS Nov 08)
following injury. a) Herd immunity
d) TT and lg may both be given in suspected tetanus b) Prognosis
c) Treatment
d) Epidemiological investigations
LEPROSY
1201. Which ofthe following statements about lepromin
test is not true -
1191. All of the following organs may be involved in a) It is negative in most children in first 6 months
Leprosy except- (AIIMS May J 0, AI 07) oflife (AIIMS May J 0, June 08, May 07, Nov 06)
a) Uterus b) Ovary b) It is a diagnostic test
c) Testes d) Eye c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy
1192. True about leprosy in India- (PGI June 07) disease
a) Prevalence decreasing in past decade d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from
b) Incidence highest in 1-5 yrs age group negative to positive
c) Highly pathogenic 1202. The following test is not used for diagnosis of
d) Highly communicable leprosy- (AIIMS 06)
1193. True about epidemiology ofleprosy- (PGI June 09) a) Lepromin test
a) If high prevalence of cases seen in childhood, it b) Slit skin smear
means disease is under control c) Fine needle aspiration cytology
b) Lepra bacilli cannot survive outside hman body d) Skin biopsy
c) Bacterial load is high in tuberculoid variety 1203. Duration of treatment in multibacillary leprosy
d) Insect can transmit the disease according to WHO is- (PGI June 02)
e) Relapse rate is indicator of efficacy of the drug a) 6 months b) 1 year
regimen c) 2 years d) 5 years
e) Lifelong
1186) b 1187) b 1188)d 1189) d 1190) d 1191) a 1192) a,d 1193) d,e 1194) c 1195) a 1196) b 1197) b 1198) a,b,c
1199)c 1200)b 1201)b 1202)a 1203)b
1204. Under leprosy eradication programme the 1214. Immunoprophylaxis ofleprosy includes-(PGINov I 0)
managment of single lesion is- (AllMS 02; PGI June a) :ocG b) MMR
a) Single dose of Rifampicin and Dapsone 00) c) ICRC bacillus d) Anthrax vaccine
b) Rifampicin and Dapsone for 6 months e) Mw
c) Rifampicin, ofloxacin and minocycline single dose 1215. All of the following statements about leprosy are
d) Rifampicin and minocycline for 6 months true except - (AI 04)
1205. A patient with leprosy had slightly erythematous, a) Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there
anesthetic plaques on the trunk and upper limbs. He are more than 5 skin patches
was treated with paucibacillary multidrug therapy b) New case detection rate is an indicator for
(PB-MDT) for 6 months. At the end of 6 months, he incidence ofleprosy
had persistent erythema and induration in the c) A defaulter is defmed as a patient who has not
plaque. The next step of action recommended by the taken treatment for 6 months or more
World Health Organization (WHO) in such a patient d) The target for elimination ofleprosy is to reduce
is - (AIIMS Nov 04) the prevalence to less than 1 per 10,000 population
a) Stop antileprosy treatment 1216. The screening method of choice in an area where
b) Continue PB-MDT till erythema subsides the prevalence ofleprosy is 1/1000 is- (AI 95)
c) Biopsy the lesion to document acitivity
a) Contact survey b) Group survey
d) Continue dapsoen alone for another 6 months
c) Mass survey d) Any of the above
1206. Treatment of severe ulnar neuritis in borderline
1217. Best mode to control leprosy eradication programme
tuberculoid leprosy is- (AI 07)
is - (AIIMS 96)
a) MDT only b) MDT +steroid
c) Wait and watch d) MDT+ thalidomide a) Mass chemotherapy
1207. The most rapidly bactericidal drug for M-Leprae is- b) Early diagnosis and treatment
a) Dapsone b)Clofazimine (PG/78) c) High risk chemotherapy
c) Ethionamide d) Rifampicin d) Health education
1208. For treatment ofpaucibacillary leprosy drugs used 1218. Most sensitive index of transmission in leprosy is-
are - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Incidence b) Detection rate (AIIMS 92)
a) Rifampicin & dapsone c) Disability rate d) Prevalence
b) Rifampicin, dapsone, steroids 1219. All are true about leprosy except- (PGI Dec 98)
c) Rifampicin, clofazimine, dapsone a) +2 mean 2 bacilli in 2 smear
d) None b) At least 7 smear examined
1209. According to WHO latest treatment ofleprosy is- c) Paucibacillary bacterial index< 2
a) 2 yrs. or negative slit smear negative (PGI 96) d) Multi bacillary bacterial index> 2
which ever is longer for multibacillary e) Negative smear denote- no bacilli in 100 fields
b) Life long treatment 1220. Which is true regarding leprosy in India? (PGI 04)
c) Six months treatment for paucibacillary a) Estimated 10 million cases
d) Not specified b) Prevalence= 3. 7/1000
1210. In multibacillary leprosy the follow up examination c) MDT- 99% coverage
after adequate treatment should be done yearly for- d) Eradicated in Orissa
a) 3 years b) 3 years (Delhi 96) e) Vaccine being developed in Bihar
c) 5 years d) 10 years 1221. Elimination ofleprosy is defined as prevalance-
1211. 2 yrs duration in terms ofleprosy is with regard a) < 1 per 1000 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
to - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b)< 1 per 10000
a) Rx of paucibacillary leprosy c) < 1 per 1 lakh
b) Rx of multibacillary leprosy d)< 1 per 100
c) Post Rx surveillance of paucibacillary leprosy 1222. Dharmendra's index and Jopling's classification
d) Post Rx surveillance of multibacillary leprosy deals with- (AI 08)
1212. Multibacillary leprosy follow up for- (NEET/DNB a) 1B b) Leprosy
a) 12-18 months b) 2 years Pattern) c) Syphilis d) Polio
c) 5 years d) 10 years 1223. Ifa claw hand develops in a patient with Leprosy, the
1213. A boy from Bihar comes with an erythematous deformity is - (Karn 11)
anaesthetized patch ou dorsum ofleft hand and a a) Grade 0 b) Grade I
tender enlarged ulnar nerve. Next line ofmanagement- c) Grade II d) Grade III
a) Split sking smear Biopsy from the lesion 1224. Leprosy is not yet eradicated because-
b) StartMDT-for6month (PGINov09)
a) No effective vaccine (AIIMS May 12)
c) Give thalidomide
b) Highly Infectious but low pathogenicity
d) Swab for AFB
c) Only humans are reservoir
e) Lepromin test
d) Long incubation period
1204)c 1205)a 1206)b 1207)d 1208)a 1209)c 1210)c 12ll)c 1212)c 1213)b 1214)a,c 1215)c 1216)b 1217)b
1218)a 1219)a 1220)None 1221)b 1222)b 1223)c 1224)a
1235. In which of the Indian states the maximum number

of AIDS cases have been reported till now-
1225. Which of the following is not a STD- (AP 85, a) Delhi b) Kerala (AIIMS 04)
a) Hepatitis B b) Amoebiasis UPSC 86) c) Tamil Nadu d) Bihar
c) Scabies d) Herpes simplex type 1 1236. lniDVwindowperiodindicates- (AIJMSNov07)
1226. Second most common STD after gonococcus - a) Time period between infection and onset of first
a) Chylamydia b) HSV (NEETIDNB Pattern) symptoms
c) H1V d) Syphilis b) Time period between infection and detection of
122 7. All ofthe following statements about 'yaws' are true,
antibodies against HIV
except- (AI 11)
c) Time period between infection and minimum
a) Caused by Treponema pertenue
b) Transmitted non venerally multiplication of the organism
c) Secondary yaws can involve bone d) Time period between infection and maximum
d) Late stages of yaws involve heart and nerves multiplication of the organism
1228. Regarding yaws, all are true except- (AI 08) 1237. In diagnosis of AIDS, criteria include the following
a) Caused by T. pertenue except- (PGI Dec OJ)
b) Sexually transmitted a) CD4<200
c) Cross reactive antibodies with syphilis b) CD8<500
d) Drug of choice is penicillin. c) CD4:CD8
1229. The following are the signs and symptoms included d) Presence of any of the opportunistic infections
in the syndromic approach of sexually transmitted tuberculosis, pneumosystic carinii, cytomegalovirus
diseases except- (Karnataka PG MEE 06) e) Western blot is positive
a) Genital ulcers 1238. Which of the following is an AIDS defming criteria
b) Urethral discharge in males according WHO- (PGI Dec OJ)
c) Dysuria in women a) Generalised lymphadenopathy
d) Vaginal discharge b) fever, weight loss and fatigue
1230. Syndromic management for genital ulcer disease in c) Pneumosystic carinii Pneumonia
India, includes following- (AIIMS Nov JJ) d) Mycobacterium avium infection
a) Chancroid chancre
e) Persistent diarrhoea
b) primary chanere, herpes genitalis
1239. WHO AIDS defining illnesses are all except-
c) Chancroid, primary chancre, herpes genitalis
d) Herpes genitalis only a) Persistant generilized lymphadenopathy
1231. A sexually active, long distance truck driver's wife b) Oropharyngeal candidiasis (PGI Nov 09)
comes with vaginal discharge. Under Syndromic c) CMV retinitis
Approach, which drng should be given? d) P. Carinii pneumonia
a) Metronidazole, Azithromycin, Fluconazole e) Primary brain lymphoma
b) Metronidazole (AJJMSMay J2) 1240. Persistent diarrhoea in AIDS is caused by AJE -
c) Azithromycin a) Microspora b) Cryptococcus (PGI OJ)
d) Metronidazole and Fluconazole c) Cryptosporidia d) Isospora belli
e) Giardialamblia
1241. Major signs for AIDS case definition according to
WHOare- (PG!June03)
1232. MC type of HIV in india - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Generalized lymphadenopathy
a) HIV-A b) HIV-B b) Prolong fever more than 1 month
c) HIV-C d) None c) Prolong cough for> 1 month
1233. True aboutiDV epidemiology- (PGI Dec 08) d) Chronic diarrhoea> I month
a) Children rarely affected e) Weight loss> 10%
b) < 10% of HIV infected person progress to AIDS 1242. WHO stage IV HIV includes all, except-
c) Southern africa have 72% of total global burden
a) Toxoplasmosis (AIJMSMay09)
d) Seminal secretion is more infectious than vaginal
b) Pneumocystis carinii
secretion
e) HIV cases can infect in the window period c) HIV wasting syndrome
1234. Which of the following exposure carries the d) Oral thrush
maximum risk oftransmisstion ofHIV- (AI 09) 1243. HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be started
a) Sexual intercourse b) Blood transfusion within - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Trans-placental d) Needle prick a) 1-2 hrs b) 14 hrs
18 hrs 72 hrs
1225)None 1226)a 1227)d 1228)b 1229)None 1230)c 123l)a 1232)c 1233)a,c,d,e 1234)b 1235)c 1236)b
1237) b,c,e 1238) a,b,c,e 1239) c,e 1240) c,e 1241) b,d,e 1242) d 1243) a
MISCELLANEOUS 1254. Chandlers index for Hookworm, when it is health

problem- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1244. A mother is HBsAg positive at 32 weeks of a) > 300 b) > 200
pregnancy. What should be given to the newborn to c) > 100 d)> 50
prevent neonatal infection- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1255. Chandlers index is used for- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Hepatitis B vaccine+ immunoglobulins a) Hookworm infestation b) Roundworm
b) Immunoglobulins c) Malaria d) Filaria
c) Hepatitis B vaccine only 1256. Chandler index is used for- (A/94)
d) Immunoglobulin followed by vaccine 1 month later a) Anchylostoma duodenale b) Ascariasis
1245. TrueaboutHPVvaccination (PGI Nov 10, Nov 09) c) Guinea worm infestations d) Filariasis
a) Given in woman age group 20-40 years 1257. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following
b) Primary dose consists of 2 dose modes, except- (AIIMS May 06)
c) Efficacy > 70% for cervical cancer a) Contact with infected placenta
d) Two typese are available in the market b) Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms
e) Protect against HPV 16 & 18 c) Person to person tranmission
1246. 1955 Hepatitis outbreak in Delhi - d) Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol
a) A b) B (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1258. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis B is -(ADMS May 95)
c) C d) E a) HBeAg b)HBcAg
1247. There is an outbreak ofMRSA infection in a ward. c) HBs Ag is used d) Anti HBc
What is the best way to control the infection - 1259. Emergency or reemergence seen in which of the
a) Vancomycin given empirically to all patients following organisms- (PGI Dec 04)
b) Fumigation of ward frequently (AIIMS Nov 10) a) Poliovirus b) Measles virus
c) Washing hand before and after attending patients c) Nipah virus d) West Nile virus
d) Wearing masks before any invasive procedure iniCU e) Hepatitis B virus
1248. True regarding Dengue fever is all, EXCEPT- 1260. In the grading of trachoma, trachomatous
a) Haemorrhagic tendency (AIIMS Nov 93) inflammation- follicular is defined as the presence
b) Spontaneous remission of- (AIIMS Nov 02)
c) Transmitted by Anopheles mosquito a) 5 or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
d) Fever is saddle back type b) 3 or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
1249. All of the following are true about Classical c) 5 or more follicles in the upper tarsalconjunctiva
dengue fever except- (A/94) d) 3 or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
a) Case fatality is low 1261. For the field diagnosis of trachoma, the WHO
b) Break bone fever recommends that follicular and intense trachoma
c) Positive tourniquet test inflammation should be assessed in -(AIIMS May 03)
d) It is a self limiting disease a) Women aged 15-45yrs
1250. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true b) Population of 10 to 28 years range
aboutdenguefever- (PGI June 09) c) Children aged 0-1 0 years
a) I Hematocrit d) Population above 25 years of age irrespective of
b) -1- Platelet sex
c) Positive tourniquet test 1262. In a trachoma survey of a community, the incidence
d) Vector (Aedes aegypticus) usually bites in day of inflammatory trachoma was 2% and incidence of
time cicatricial trachoma was 3o/o which ofthe following
1251. Which is the main vector of Dengue -(NEETIDNB statement is true- (AIIMS June 99)
a) A.aegypti b) A schleri Pattern) a) Problem is still there in the community
c) Culex d) Anopheles b) Problem was prevalent in part but now under control
1252. True statements regarding dengue fever- c) Problem was not prevalent but now prevalent
a) It is both endemic & epidemic (PGI Mayll) problem was prevalent
b) MC arboviral disease d) Problem was prevalent in pat & still prevalent
c) Unaffected by ambient temperature 1263. Azithromyan prophylaxis in trachoma is given when
d) Decreased incidence in last 30 yr in India prevalence is above? (AIIMSNov 11)
e) Self limiting a) 8% b)6%
1253. Chandler's index is- (Al!MS 98) c) 4% d) 10%
a) No. of eggs I gm of stool 1264. Disease to be eradicated by the year 2000 A.D.
b) No. oflarvae I 1OOg of stool is- (AIIMSMay 94)
c) No. oflarvae I gm of stool a) Typhoid b) Tetanus neonatorum
d) No. of eggs I 100 g of stool c) Filaria d) Malaria
1244)a 1245)c,d,e 1246)d 1247)c 1248)c 1249)c · 1250)All 125l)a 1252)a,b,e 1253)a 1254)a 1255)a
1256)a 1257)c 1258)d 1259)c,d,e 1260)c 126l)c 1262)b 1263)d 1264)b
1265. Reservoir ofBartonella angiomatosis-(PGJJune 08) 1278. Who is regarded as father of public health?
a) Cats b) Dogs a) Louis pasture b) Cholera (DNB June 2011)
c) Cattle d) Pigs c) John snow d) Robert Koch
1266. What is/are true about rat bite- (PGI Dec 08) 1279. Eight site rabies vaccine schednle is? (DNB June 2011)
a) Vaccinate with antirabies vaccine a) 0,3, 7,14,28 b)8-0-0-4-1-1
b) Give tetanus toxoid c) 8-0-4-0-1-1 d) 8-0-4-0-1-1
c) Rarely need rabies immunoglobulin 1280. Thbercnlin positive means? (DNB June 2011)
d) Wash with soap a) Immunodeficient patient
e) Use antiseptic cream b) Resistance to tuberculin protein
1267. The last case of small pox was reported in the world c) Patient is infected with mycobacterium
a) 1977 b) 1978 (PGI 84) d) Patient is suffering from disease
c) 1979 d) 1982 1281. To prevent Yellow Fever Aedes aegypti index shonld
1268. Small pox eradication was successful because of all be less than? (DNB Dec 201 0)
except- (AIIMS Nov 10) a)0.5% b)l%
a) Subclinical cases don't transmit disease c) 2% d)5%
b) Highly effective vaccine 1282. Yellow Fever certificate of vaccination is valid
c) Lifelongimmunity for? (DNB Dec 201 0)
d) Cross resistance with animal pox a) 6 years, starting from 6 days after vaccination
1269. Which amongstthe following biological agents has b) 10 years, starting from 10 days after vaccination
the least potential for use as a biological weapon for c) 10 years, starting from 6 days after vaccination
microbial bioterrorism?. (AJJJ) d) 6 years, starting from 10 days after vaccination
a) Plague (YersininaPestis) 1283. In a town with popnlation ofl 00,000, the number of
b) Small Pox (Variola Major) slides examined is 5000. Out of these, 100 slides
c) Botulism (C 1. Botulinum) werepositiveformalaria. TheAPiis?(DNBDec2010)
d) Brucellosis (Brucella sp)
a) 2 b)5
1270. Which amongst the following biological agents
c) 1 d)0.5
carries the highest potential for use as a biological
1284. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by?
weaponformicrobialbioterrorism? (AI 11)
a) Culex b) Aedes (DNB Dec 201 0)
a) Plague (YersiniaPestis)
b) SmallPox(VariolaMajor) c) Anopheles d) Hard tick
c) Botulism (Cl. Botulinum) 1285. Pig in H1N1 infiuenza acts as? (DNB Dec 201 0)
d) Brucellosis (Brucella sp) a) Carrier b) AmplifYing host
1271. Zoonoticdiseaseis/aretransmittedby-(PGJ May 10) c) Reservoir d) Vector
a) Ticks b)Ratflea 1286. Which of the folloiwng statements is false regarding
c) Sand fly d) Mosquito JapaneseEncephalitis- (DNBJune 2010)
e) Mite a) Transmitted by culex mosquitoes
1272. Black death - (NEET/DNB Pattern) b) Water tanks serve as breeding sites
a) Plague b) Dengue c) Pigs are amplifers
c) 1B d) Cholera d) Two dose of vaccine
1273. Concentration of sodium in mMol/L in low osmolar 1287. Ratis associated with? (DNB June 201 0)
ORS is? (DNB Dec 2011) a) Leptospirosis b) Measels
a) 45 b)75 c) Tetanus d) Influenza
c) 'X) d) 60 1288. Incubation period of Mumps- (DNB June 201 0)
1274. ORSshonldbediscardedafter? (DNBDec2011) a) 4-5 days b) 7-15 days
a) 54 hours b) 6 hours c) 12-24 days d) 50 days
c) 12 hours d) 24 hours 1289. All are zoonotic disease except- (DNB June 201 0)
1275. Generation time for leprosy bacillus is? (DNB Dec a) Brucellosis b) Leptospirosis
a) 8-lOdays b) 10-12 days 2011) c) Scabies d) Rabies
c) 12-15 days d) 15-20 days
1290. Which one of the following ricketsial diseases is
1276. Japanese encephalitis is caused by?(DNB June 2011)
transmmitedbymite- (DNB June 2010)
a) Culex b) Aedes
a) Murine typhus
c) Mansonia d) Anopheles
b) Rockey mountain spotted fever
1277. Prevalence ofleprosy in India per 10,000 is?
a) >1 b) 0.88 (DNB June 2011) c) Q-fever
c) 0.71 d) 0.69 d) Endemic typhus
1265)a 1266)c,d,e 1267)a 1268)d 1269)d 1270)a 1271)All 1272)a 1273)b 1274)d 1275)c 1276)a 1277)c
1278)b 1279)c 1280)c 1281)b 1282)b 1283)c 1284)a 1285)c 1286)d 1287)a 1288)c 1289)c 1290)b
1291. Regarding poliovirus responsible for poliomyelitis 1302. Prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is?
allaretrueEXCEPT- (DNBJune 2010) a) Ciprofloxacin b) Rifampicin (DNB Dec 09)
a) Type 3 is most common in India c) Penicillin d) Gentamycin
b) Type 1 is most common in India 1303. All are zoonoses except- (DNB Dec 09)
c) Type 1 is responsible for most epidemics a) Typhoid b) Brucellosis
d) Type 2 is eradicated worldwide c) Q fever d) Plague
1292. Tonsillectomy and 1M injections should be avoided 1304. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed
during polio epidemic because- (DNB June 2010) for how many days for residual weakness-
a) It is painful a) 30 days b) 42 days (DNB Dec 09)
b) It may lead to high grade fever c) 60 days d) 90 days
c) Risk of paralytic poliomyelitis increases 1305. Sputum positive TB is? (DNB June 09)
d) Risk of septicaemia a) 1 out of 2 sputum sample +ve
1293. True about polio vaccination is all EXCEPT- b) 2 out of 3 sputum sample +ve
a) Follow up of AFP for 30 days (DNB June 201 0) c) BECTEC +ve
b) Salk contains three types of polio virus d) None
c) Pulse polio doses are extra and supplemental 1306. Under the revised National Tuberculosis Control
d) Oral polio vaccine provides intestinal immunity Programme, schedule of treatment for category I
also patients is- (DNB June 09)
1294. Rabies vaccine for pre exposure prophylaxis is given a) 2 (HRZE) 3 + 4 (HR) 3
at? (DNB June 2010) b) 2 (HRZE)3 + 4 (HRE)3
a) 0, 3, 7 days b) 0, 3, 7,14 days c) 2 (HRZES) 3 + 1 (HRZE)3 + 5 (HRE) 3
c) 0, 3, 7,14, 30 days d) 0, 7, 28 days d) 2 (HRZ)3 + 4 (HR)3
1295. Chandler's index is used for- (DNB June 201 0) 1307. Which ofthe following aboutthe composition of new
a) Ankylostoma duodenale ORS is wrong? (DNB June 09)
b) Ascaris lumbricoides a) NaCl- 2.6 grams/litre
c) Strongyloides b) KCl-1.5 grams/litre
d) Trichuris trichiura c) Glucose- 13.5 grams/litre
1296. Rickettsial pox is caused by? (DNB Dec 09) d) Total osmolarity- 300 mmol/1
a) Rickettsia ricketsiae b) Rickettsia akari 1308. Pulse Polio immunization was introduced in-
a) 1995 b) 2000 (DNB June 09)
c) R. typhi d) Rickettsia coonri
c) 1999 d) 2001
1297. Endemic typhus is transmitted by? (DNB Dec 09)
1309. In multibacillary leprosy, the follow-up examination
a) Flea b) Tick
after adquate Rx should be done early for-
c) Mite d) Mosquito
a) 3 years b) 5 years (DNB Dec 08)
1298. With reference to lepromin test, which one of the c) 10 years d) 2 years
following statements is correct ? (DNB Dec 09) 1310. A full course of immunization against, Tetanus with
a) Lepromin test is strongly positive in tuberculoid 3 doses ofTetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how
leprosy many years- (DNB Dec 08)
b) It is not affected by BCG vaccine a) 5 b) 10
c) It can be used as a diagnostic test c) 15 d)20
d) Its interpretation is done within 24 hours 1311. To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, incidence
1299. Which of the following factors helped in smallpox of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be
eradication? (DNB Dec 09) reduced to less than- (DNB Dec 08)
a) Short incubation period of disease a) 0.1 b)0.2
b) Slow evolution of rashes over body c) 0.5 d) 1.0
c) Long-term carrier stages in patients 1312. Whichistrueoftyphoid- (DNBDec 08)
d) Life-long immunity after disease a) Female carriers are less common
1300. Infective diarrhea is caused by all except- b) Male carriers though less are more dangerous
a) Rotavirus b) Calcivirus (DNB Dec 09) c) Gall bladder usually not involved in carrier state
c) Flavivirus d) Eterovirus d) Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers
1301. In the case of dog bite the biting animal should be 1313. Chandler's index is used for- (DNB Dec 08)
observed for at least- (DNB Dec 09) a) Ankylostoma duodenale
a) 5 days b) 10 days b) Ascaris lumbricoides
c) Strongyloides
c) 15 days d) 3 weeks
d) Trichuris trichiura
129l)a 1292)c 1293)a 1294)d 1295)a 1296)b 1297)a 1298)a 1299)d 1300)c 130l)b 1302)b 1303)a 1304)c
1305)a 1306)a 1307)d 1308)a 1309)b 1310)a 13ll)a 1312)b 1313)a
1314. As per WHO, leprosy is a public health problem if 1327. Which one of the following diseases has the
prevalence is- (DNB Dec 08) shortest incubation period- ·(DNB Dec 07)
a) 0.1% b)O.Ol% a) Salmonella food poisoning
c) 0.5% d) 1% b) Staphylococcus food poisoning
1315. Incubation period of plasmodium vivax is- c) Cholera
a) 5-7 days b) 7-lOdays (DNBJune08) d) Diphtheria
c) 10-14days d) 15-30days 1328. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence
1316. Leprosy commonly spreads by- (DNB June 08) of tuberculosis infection in a community is-
a) Milk b) Droplet a) Mass miniature radiotherapy (DNB June 07)
c) Water d) Mosquitoes b)Sputumexamination
1317. Rabies free country is- (DNB June 08) c) Tuberculin test
a) USA b) Russia d) Clinical examination
c) Australia d) France 1329. The most predominant type of polio virus during
1318. Yellow fever is absent in India because- epidemics is- (DNB June 07)
a) Climatic conditions are not favourable a) Type I b) Type II
b) Virus is not present (DNB June 08) c) Type III d) Combined infection of II & III
c) Vector mosquito is absent 1330. Last case of small pox came from- (AJIHPH 2001)
d) Population is immune a) Somalia b) Ethiopia
1319. To eradicate measles the percentage of population c) India d) Bangladesh
to be caccinated is at least %- 1331. Which of the following factors helped in smallpox
a) 70 b) 80 (DNB June 08) eradication? (Delhi PG Mar. 09)
c) 85 d)95 a) Short incubation period of disease
1320. Scrub typhus is transmitted by- (DNB June 08) b) Slow evolution of rashes over body
a) Flea b) Mite c) Long-term carrier stages in patients
c) Tick d) Mosquito d) Life-long immunity after disease
1321. Targeted intervention for HIV is done for all 1332. If a mother has had measles, her newborn baby is
except- (DNB June 08) immune to this disease for- (Delhi PG Feb. 09)
a) Commercial sex worker a) 4 to 6 months b) 6 to 12 months
b) Migrant laborers c) I to 3 years d) 3 to 6 years
c) Street children 1333. lnfectivediarrhoeaiscausedby- (TN97)
. d) Industrial worker a) Rotavirus b) Calcivims
1322. All of the following are characteristics of the c) Flavivims d) Enterovirus
chicken pox rash except- (DNB Dec 07) 1334. The drug used by health workers in the management
a) Rash occurs in crops of acute respiratory infection- (KARN 99)
b) Pleomorphism is present a) Cotrimoxazole b) Chloramphenicol
c) Is centripetal in distribution c) Benzyl penicillin d) Gentamycin
d) Scab are infectious 1335. Isolation is not needed for measles due to-
1323. Measles epidemic can be anticipated when a) There are healthy carriers (Jipmer 95)
proportion of suceptible children in a community b) Carriers are convalascents
reaches - (DNB Dec 07) c) The infectivity in diseased is low
a) 20% b) 40% d) There are incubatory carriers
c) 60% d) 80% 1336. Incubation period of measles is- (MAHE 07)
1324. Which is not a zoonotic disease- (DNB Dec 07) a) 1-2 months b) 10-14 days
a) Giardia b) Leptospirosis c) 20-22 days d) 1-2 days
c) Brucellosis d) Rabies 1337. What is the period of infectivity in
1325. Examplefor"AMPLIFIERHOST"- (DNB Dec07) measles ? (UPSC-I 08)
a) PiginJE a) From 7 days before to 7 days after the rash
b) Dog in hydatid disease b) From 3 days before to 5 days after the rash
c) Cattle in mad cow disease c) From 9 days before to 12 days after the rash
d) Rat in plague d) From 5 days before to 9 days after the rash
1326. Yellow fever vaccination starts protection after 1338. Koplik spots is a feature of- (Corned 07)
how many days ofinjection- (DNB Dec 07) a) Rubella b) Meseals
a) 5 days b) 10 days c) Tetanus d) Mumps
15 20
I314)b 1315)c 1316)b 1317)c 1318)b 1319)d 1320)b 132l)d 1322)d 1323)b 1324)a 1325)a 1326)b 1327)b
1328)c 1329)a 1330)a 133l)d 1332)a 1333)a,b,d 1334)a 1335)d 1336)b 1337)b 1338)b
1339. In an area not covered by measles immunization, c) Erythromycin prophylaxis is indicated in the
the attack rate of measles is- (UPSC 04) neonate
a) 70% b)80% d) DPT vaccine is recommended for the elder child
c) 90% d) 100% 1350. With reference to meningococcal meningitis, which
1340. A child was immunized at 6 months of age because one of the following statement is not
of epidemic of measles. Now next step would be- correct- (UPSC 07)
a) Administer vaccine as soon as he completes 9 a) Fatality in untreated cases is 60 percent
months (PGMCET07) b) Disease spreads mainly by droplet infection
b) Administer vaccine after 4 weeks c) Treatment of cases has no significant effect on
c) Administer along with DPT
epidemiological pattern of disease
d) Nothing to be done
d) Mass chemoprophylaxis causes immediate drop
1341. Measles vaccine at a primary health centre should
in the incidence rate of cases
be stored at which temperature ? (UPSC-1 08, 2K)
1351. Most indicative sign of pneumonia in one year old
a) -20"C
b) O'C child with cough and fever is- (JIPMER 95)
c) +2°C to 8°C a) Intercostal retracion and fever
d) Any temperature not exceeding room temperature b) Grunting and resp. rate more than 60
1342. Efficiency of measles vaccine- (Jipmer 02) c) Temperature 39.5° and 60 resp. rate
a) 55% b)75% d) None of the above
c) 85% d) 100% 1352. A 2-years old female was brought to PHC with a
1343. True about measles vaccine is that it is- (Amu 95) history of cough & fever for 4 days with inability to
a) Thermolabile b) Thermostable drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child
c) Both d) None was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/
1344. If rubella occurs in 9-10 weeks of pregnancy what minutes with fever. The child will be classified as
is the chance of transmission to the fetus- suffering from- (MH 11)
a) 10% b)20% (JIPMER 99) a) Very severe disease b) Severe Pneunonia
c) 30% d)40% c) Pneumonia d) No Pneumonia
1345. Rubella vaccination is contraindicated in all except- 1353. A 'Case' in TB is defined as- (Delhi PG Feb. 09)
a) Patient on immunosuppressant (JIPMER 02) a) X-raypositive
b) Girl with Leukemia b) Culture positive
c) Girls between 11-14 years c) SputumAFB positive
d) Pregnancy d) Tuberculosis positive
1346. The most infectious variety of diptheria is- 1354. Under the revised National Thberculosis Control
a) Anteriornasal diptheria (UPSC 2K)
Programme, schedule of treatment for category I
b) Posterior nasal diptheria
patients is - (UPSC 04)
c) Faucial diptheria
a) 2 (HRZE) 3 + 4 (HR)3
d) Laryngeal diptheria
b) 2 (HRZE)3 + 4 (HRE)3
1347. Which ofthe following statements is true regarding
pertussis - (MAHE 05) c) 2 (HRZES\ + 1 (HRZE)3 + 5 (HRE)3
a) Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in d) 2 (HRZ)3 + 4 (HR)3
50000 1355. Minimum TB Resistance is seen with which
b) Vaccine efficacy is more than 95% drug- (Jharkand 03)
c) Erythromycin prevents spread of disease a) Isoniazid b) Rifampicin
between children c) Streptomycin d) None
d) The degree of polymorphonuclear leukocytosis 1356. In India, maximum cases ofThberculosis in AIDS
correlates with the severity of cough patient are due to- (Bihar 03)
1348. Matemalantibodiesdonotoccurfor? (DPG 11) a) M. tuberculosis b) M. aviumlntracellular
a) Polio b) Diphtheria c) M. Serofulaceum d) M. akari
c) Whooping cough d) Tetanus 1357. If after 2 months of conventional antituberculous
1349. 3 year old sister of a neonate is suffering from therapy, sputum smear examination is negative but
pertussis, which has been documented by isolation culture is positive, it indicates- (APPGE 05)
and culture of the organism. Most appropriate a) Treatrnentfailure
statement regarding this clinical situation is - b) Transitional resistance
a) If mother received pertussis vaccine, the neonate c) Resistant tuberculosis
is protected (MAHE 98) d) Category-II failure
b) Hyperimmune globulin is indicated for the neonate
1339)c l340)a 134l)c 1342)None 1343)c 1344)None 1345)c 1346)a 1347)c 1348)c 1349)c 1350)a 135l)c
1352)a l353)c 1354)a 1355)c 1356)a 1357)b
1358. Sputum positivity in T.B. is- (Jiprner 05) 1368. Pulse polio immunisation is done in India in Dec-
a) More sensitive than specific Jan because of- (AMC 99)
b) More specific than sensitive a) Administrative convenience
c) More sensitive as well as specific b) Easiness of maintaining cold chain
d) Non sensitive or specific c) As a tradition
1359. "DOTS indicates- (Karnataka PG MEE 2006) d) All of the above
a) Short term treatment under supervision e) None of the above
b) Short term treatment without 1369. The Pulse Polio Immunization (PPI) was first
c) Long term treatment with supervision launched in India in the year- (Corned 09)
d) Long term treatment without supervision a) 1995 b) 1996
c) 1999 d)2000
1360. TB pericarditis would be included in which category
1370. The most predominant type of polio virus during
ofRNTCP- (PGMCET 07)
epidemics is- (Orissa 98)
a) Category I b) Category II
c) Category Ill d) Category IV c) Type III d) Combined infection ofll & III
1361. A patient with tubercular pleural effusion falls 1371. Which of the following is a characteristic of
under category of WHO grading ofTB- poliomyelitis- (ICS 05)
a) I b)II (Corned07) a) Initial febrile illness followed by development of
c) ill d)IV asymmetrical paralysis
1362. If a new sputum smear positive patient of b) Symmetrical muscle weakness with frequent
tuberculosis continues to be smear positive at the paraesthesia but normal reflexes
end of intensive phase of category I treatment under c) Ascending motor paralysis with preservation of
DOTS, further management ofthis patient would be reflexes and sensation
to- (UPSC 07) d) Pain in the affected limb with sensorimotor deficit
a) Start category I treatment again 13 72. A country is certified for Polio eradication, if there
b) Treathim as failure and start category IT treatment is no virologically confirmed diagnosed case of polio
under DOTS for the last ----years- (MARE 05)
c) Continue the intensive phase or treatment for a) 1 b)2
one more month c) 3 d)5
d) Start continuation phase under category I 1373. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
1363. A person with tuberculosis on domiciliary treatment with regards to pulse polio immunization programme?
is expected to do all, except? (DPG 11) a) PPI aims at eradication of poliomyemilitis in India
a) Dispose sputum safely b) Wild virus is replaced by vaccine virus
b) Use separate vessels c) PPI aims at single dose administration of OIPV
on a single day (Karnataka - PG MEE 06)
c) Collect drugs regularly
d) It can be extended to even previously fully
d) Report to PHC if new symptoms arise
immunized children of0-5 years of age group
1364. Under DOTS chemotherapy, which one of the
1374. Which of the following is not true about sabin
following is not a correct dose for an adult vaccine? (MH 11)
weighing up to 60 kg- (UPSC 07) a) Three doses are given in primary immunization
a) Rifampicin 600 mg b) Isoniazid 600 mg b) The doses are given at 4-6 weeks interval
c) Pyrazinamide 1500mg d)Ethambutoll200mg c) Given intramuscularly
1365. What is the standard dose of PPD for Mantoux d) Contains all the 3 strains
test- (Corned 07) 1375. All are true regarding Acute flaccid paralysis in
a) 5TU b) lOTU National polio Eradication programme
c) 15TU d) 20TU except- (UP 08)
1366. Tonsillectomy and 1M injections should be avoided a) Acute flaccid paralysis in a child< 15 years ofage
during polio epidemic because- (UP SC 2002) b) All cases of AFP should be reported irrespective
a) It is painful of diagnosis within 6 months of onset stool
b) It may lead to high grade fever c) i Two specimens collected within 14 days of
c) Risk of paralytic poliomyelitis increases paralysis onset and at least 24 hours apart
d) Risk of septicaemia d) 30 days follow up examination
1367. Pulse polio in India is given- (CUPGEE 99) 13 76. Most common cause of epidemic of infective hepatitis
a) Below 5 yrs. b) Below 4 yrs. is - (Orissa R)
c) Below 1 yrs. d) None a) HAV b)HBV
c) HCV d)HEV
1358)b 1359)a 1360)a 136l)a,c 1362)c 1363)b 1364)a 1365)a 1366)c 1367)a 1368)a 1369)a 1370)a 137l)a
1372)d 1373)c 1374)c l375)d 1376)d
1377. A contact carrier in cholera has the following 1389. Which one of the following is an indicator of
characteristic- (Karnataka 02) operational efficiency for Malaria Control
a) Gall bladder is infected Programme in India- (UPSC-11 08; UPSC 07)
b) Stools are not positive for cholera vibrio a) API (Annual Parasite Incidence)
c) Does not play any role in spread of infection b) ABER (Annual Blood Examination Rate)
d) Duration of carrier state is less than 10 days c) AFI (Annual Falciparum Incidence)
1378. ORS contains how much potassium- (SGPGI 05, d) SPR (Slide Positively Rate)
~w ~~ M~
1390. Most sensitive indicator of recent transmission of
c) 40 d) 10 malaria of- (MH II)
a) Infant parasite rate b)ABER
1379. A freshly prepared oral rehydration solution should
c) Spleen rate d) Annual parasite index
not be used after- (COMEDK 05)
1391. Which oftbe following is not monitored in malaria
a) 4 hrs b) 6 hrs
surveillence now- (JIPMER 2K)
c) 12 hrs d) 24 hrs
a) ABER
1380. Amount of ORS to be given in the first 4 hours to a b) Infant parasite rate
child with some dehydration is- (Comed 09) c) Annual parasite incidence
a) 50 ml/kg body wt b) 75 mllkg bodywt d) Slide positivity rate
c) 100 mllkg body wt d) 200 ml!kg body wt 1392. In a community with one lakh population, 20,000
1381. Which of the following carriers recieved source slides were examined in a particular year. Out of
of infection from other carriers is called- (UP 07) these, 100 were positive for malarial parasite. What
a) Incubatory carrier b) Convulescent carrier is the Annual Parasite Incidence (API) in this
c) Healthy carrier d) Chronic carrier community? (UPSC-11 09)
1382. Duration of immunity after typhoid vaccination a) 5 b)2
is for- (St. Johns 02) c) 1 d)0.5
a) 3 years b) 5 years 1393. Forradicaltreatmentofmalaria,primaquineisgiven
c) 7 years d) 6 months in dosage of- (DPGEE 08)
1383. Typhoid vaccine efficacy is- (CMC-Vellore) a) 15 mg per day for 3 days
a) 85% b)50% b) 10 mg per day for 7 days
c) 95% d) 100% c) 15 mg per day for 5 days
1384. Case fatality rate of typhoid is- (AIIHPH 2K) d) 5 mg per day for 10 days
a) HJO/o b) 20% 1394. Incubation period for filariasis is- (IN 03)
c) 30% d)40% a) 1 - 8 months . b) 8 - 16 months
1385. The most practical way of treating typoid carrier c) 16-24 months d)> 24 months
1395. Which is not a zoonotic diseage- (UP 96)
is - (St. Johns 02)
a) Giardia b) Leptospirosis
a) Cholecystectomy b) Chemotherapy
c) Brucellosis d) Rabies
c) Vaccination d) Isolation
1396. In human dioploid cells rabies vaccine the schedule
1386. Time required for development of parasite from the
ofimmunisation is- (AI 98, 96, UPSC 07)
gametocyte to sporozite stage in mosquito is called a) 0,3,4,14,30,0 b)0,5,14,30,900
as- (Comed 08, UPSC 09) c) 0,3,7,14,30,90 d)0,37,14,30,70
a) Extrinsic incubation period 1397. In the Rabies vaccine schedule of 0,3,7,14,30,90,
b) Intrinsic incubation period 0 means- (ALLHPH 2001)
c) Generation time a) Day of dog bite
d) Median incubation period b) Day of first injection
1387. Urbanmalariaisspread by-(AIIMS 97, KARN 94) c) Day of symptom onset
a) Anopheles stephensi d) Day of dog death
b) Anopheles culcifacies 1398. Which ARV bas been recommended by WHO
c) Culex fatigans as the most effective- (TN 95)
d) Mansonides a) Duck cell vaccine
1388. Annual blood smear examination rate is an indicator b) Chick fibroblast vaccine
of- (JIPMER 98) c) HOCV
a) Disease rate (Prevalence) d) Sheep brain vaccine
b) Operational efficiency 1399. In the case of dogbite the biting animal should be
c) %of transmission of malaria observed for at least- (KARN. 96)
d) Infectivity rate a) 5 days b) 10 days
c) 15 days d}3 weeks
1377)d 1378)a 1379)d 1380)b 138l)None 1382)a 1383)a 1384)None 1385)b 1386)a 1387)b 1388)b 1389)b
1390)a 1391)b 1392)c 1393)c 1394)b 1395)a 1396)c 1397)b 1398)b 1399)b
1400. Usual time for symptoms to appear in Rabid animal- 1410. What is the average number of fleas of each
a) 2 days b) 7 days (Manipal 04) species per rodent called- (UPSC 0 7)
c) 10 days d) I month a) General Flea index
1401. Anti rabies vaccine is prepared b) Specific Flea index
from- (COMED06, UPSCOJ) c) Incidence of Flea Species
a) Wild virus b) Live attenuated virus d) Flea infestation Rate
c) Street virus d) Fixed virus 1411. Mostcontagiousplagueis-. (TN 03)
1402. A patients present with dogs bite in the palm, fingerS a) Bubonic plague b) Septicemic plague
and oozing of blood on the neck regions, belongs to c) Pneumonic plague d) Wild plague
which class ofthe exposures- (UP 08) 1412. Which one of the following ricketsial diseases is
a) Class I b) Class II transmmited by louse- (KERALA 95)
c) Class III d) None a) Murine typhus
1403. 17 D vaccine is used for the prevention and control b) Rockey mountain spotted fever
of- (Corned 09) c) Q-fever
a) Yellow fever d) Endemic typhus
b) Japanese encephalitis 1413. Which of the following is not transmitted by
c) Haemorrhagic fever Arthropod- (PGMCET07)
d) Dengue a) Qfever
1404. The breeding ground for the vectors of Japanese b) Rickettsial pox
B virus is- (UPSC 04) c) Rocky mountain spotted fever
a) Paddy field b) Mixed garbage d) Relapsing fever
c) Cooler water d) Stale food 1414. Best preventive measure against tetanus
1405. AllaretrueaboutJ.E.except- (MP 97) neonatorum- (Jipmer 95)
a) Transmitted by culex mosquito a) Active immunization of mother
b) Death occur in 9 days b) Passive immunization of child
c) Mortality 80 to 90% c) Active immunization of child
d) Prodromal symptoms at 9th day d) Passive immunization of mother
1406. AgentinKFD- (MAHE 05; Kerala 94) 1415. The active immunity offered by Tetanus toxoid is
a) Soft tick b) Hard tick effective in nearly- (HP 2006)
c) Louse d) Bug a) 25% b)50%
1407. Dengue haemorrhagic fever is diagnosed c) 75% d) 100% of the patients
by- (Delhi PG Feb. 09) 1416. Booster dose ofTetanus toxoid should be given every?
a) Acute onset ofhigh fever, presence of petechiae, a) 1 year b) 5 year (MH 11)
epistaxis and platelet count> 2 lakh c) lOyear d) 15year
b) Acute onset of high fever, positive toumiquest 1417. Which one of the following is/are used as
test, epistaxis or malena and malena and platelet operational indicators in antileprosy activity-
count > 1.5 lakh a) Incidence (UPSC 02)
c) Acute onset of high fever 2 to 7 days, associated b) Incidence and prevalence
with hemorrhagic manifestation e.g. hemoptysis c) Relapse rate and case detection ratio
and platelet count less than 1.5 lakh d) Incidence case detection ratio
d) Acute onset of high fever, positive tourniquet 1418. The multidrug regimen under the National Leprosy
test, bleeding gum and platelet count less than Eradication Programme for the treatment of all
l.Olakh multibacillary leprosy would include- (UPSC 97)
1408. In an epidemic of plague, within 48 hours of a) Clofazimine, thiacetazone and dapsone
application of insecticides by spraying the 'X' b) Clofazimine, rifampicin and dapsone
cheopis index should fall to- (Delhi 96) c) Ethionamide, rifampicin and dapsone
a) 1 b)O d) Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone
c) 2 d)5 1419. Trueabout"ROMtherapy"is- (MAHE 05)
1409. In total flea index true is- (MP 98) a) For single lesion b) Minocycline is used
a) Average all Xenopsella cheopis per rat c) Single dose is given d) All the above
b) Average number of all fleas of all species per rat 1420. Adequate treatment for multibacillary leprosy is for-
c) Average number of all fleas in a burrow a) 2 years b) 5 years (MAHE 05)
d) Average number of all fleas in all species of rats c) 10 years d)7 years
to burrow
1400)c 140l)d 1402)c 1403)a 1404)a 1405)c 1406)b>a 1407)d 1408)b 1409)b 1410)b 14ll)c 1412)None
1413)a 1414)a 1415)d 1416)b 1417)c 1418)b 1419)d l420)None
1421. WHO recommended modern single drug therapy 1432. In STD cases, a patient is asked to name other
in paucibacillary leprosy is- (UP 07) persons is his socio sexual group, then they are
a) Rifampicin, clofazimine, Dapsone investigated. This is a example of- (PGMCET 07)
b) Rifampicin, Dapsone a) Screening b) Contact tracing
c) Rifampicin, clofazimine c) Mass screening d) High riskscreening
d) Clofazimine, Dapsone 1433. Chandlers index is 225. What is the interpretation-
1422. In lepromatous leprosy the single drug dapsone is a) Potential danger to community (UPSC 02)
continue for- (UP 08) b) No danger
a) 9 days b) 90 days c) Minor public health problem
c) 1 years d) 10 years
d) Major public health problem
1423. Which one of the following statements about
1434. The most important reservoir of Leishmaniasis in
leprosy is true? (UPSC 04)
Indiais- (JIPMER2002)
a) Group surveys for case detection are carried out
a) Dogs
when prevalence of leprosy is less than 1 per 1000
b) For determining the bacteriological index,++ in b) Rodents
a smear indicates 2 bacilli in every field c) Case of acute visceral leishmaniasis
c) Minimum duration of treatment for paucibacillary d) Case ofpostkalazar dermal leishmaniasis
cases is for 9 months 1435. NottrueaboutKala-Azaris-(UPSC9J,Delhi89, 86)
d) Minimum duration of treatment for multibacillary a) Sandfly is the vector
case is for 12 months b) Man is the only reservoir in India
1424. Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansens disease is- c) Aldehyde test is diagnostic
a) Pain b) Touch (DPG 03) d) Man has flagellar stage of organism
c) Vibration d) Temperature 1436. Which one of the following is a characeristic of
1425. Which is a noveneral form oftreponemal infection- epidemiology ofleishmaniasis in India- (DPG 03)
a) Yaws b) Pinta (TN 95) a) It does no occur at high altitudes
c) Syphilis d)GV. b) Incubation period is 3-8 days
1426. Which of the following is an example of a non c) Females are more affected
venereal disease- (CUPGEE 96) d) It is not a fatal disease
a) Endemic syphilis b) Gonorrhoea 1437. Which viral infection always causes clinical disease
c) Chancroid d)LGV in human beingss- (Kerala 96)
1427. Commonest trophozoite infection by sexual a) Rubella b) Poliomyelitis
intercourse- (Orissa 99) c) Measles d) Chicken pox
a) Entamoeba histolytica e) Rabies
b) Trichomonas vaginalis 1438. The main vector of Dengue fever is- (Kam 11)
c) Trepanoma palidium a) Aedes aegypti b) Aedes albopictus
d) Giardia intestinales c) Aedes polynesiensis d) Aedes scutellaris
1428. The highest number of AIDS cases in India have 1439. Dengue virus appears to have a direct man-mosquito-
occurred in the age group of- (Kamat 05) man cycle in India. The mechanism of dengue virus
a) 0.14years b) 15-29years survival in the inter-epidemic period is- (DPG 11)
c) 30-44 years d) Above 45 years a) Non-human reservoir
1429. In the heterosexual transmission (from infective to b) Dormant or latent phase in man
non infective partner) of Human Immuno-deficiency c) Transovarian transmission of the virus
Virus infection (HIV)- (Karnataka 03, NIMS 96) d) Poor housekeeping by the public
a) There is a greater risk of transmission from man 1440. The mass treatment of trachoma is undertaken if
to a woman the prevalence in community is- (DELHI 96)
b) There is greater risk of transmission from woman a) 3% b) 10%
to man c)5% d)6%
c) Risk is equal either ways 1441. Maternal antibodies do not occur for -(ALLHBH OJ)
d) HIV infection is not transmission by a) Polio b) Diptheria
heterosexual act c) Whooping cough d) Tetanus
1430. All are major criteria for AIDS except- (AP 96) 1442. Mass treatment strategy is for treating-(Jipmer 03)
a) 10% weight loss b) Diarrhoea for 1 month a) Plague b) Filariasis
c) Cough for 1 month d) Fever for I month c) Cholera d) Diphtheria
1431. MortalityforAIDS- (Orissa R) 1443. White disease is synonymous with- (PGI 88)
a) 500/o . b)90% a) T.B. b)AIDS
c) 900/o d) 100% c) Syphilis d) Herpes
142l)b 1422)c 1423)d 1424)b 1425)a,b 1426)a 1427)b 1428)c 1429)a 1430)c 1431)d 1432)b 1433)a 1434)c
1435)c,d 1436)a 1437)c 1438)a 1439)c 1440)c 1441)c 1442)b 1443)b
1444. AIDS was first detected in India in the year- c) High blood pressure
a) 1975 b) 1981 (Kamat 99) d) Elevated serum cholesterol
c) 1986 d) 1991 1453. Which one of the following statements about
1445. The earliest case of severe acute respiratory influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart
syndrome (SARS) was reported in- (Corned 07) disease (CHD) is not true? (AI 05)
a) China b) Singapore a) Influence of smoking is independent of the risk
c) Vietnam d) Toronto
factors for CHD
1446. With statement to the epidemiology of severe
Acute Respiratory syndrome (SARS), which one b) Influence of smoking is only additive to other
ofthe following statements is not correct- risk factors for CHD
a) Patient is most infectious during the first five c) Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk
days ofillness (UPSC 07) factors for CHD
b) No evidence of mother to child transmission is d) Influence of smoking is directly related to
observed number of cigarettes smoked per day.
c) Children are rarely affected 1454. Which one of the following sets of components of
d) No evidence of child to child transmission is cigarette smoke is a casual agent of coronary artery
observed disease- (UPSC 99)
1447. Which of the following actions can help in the a) Tar and nicotine
prevention ofHIV transmission ? (Delhi PG b) Nicotine and carbon monoxide and tar
a) Use of copper T by sex workers Mar. 09) c) Corbon monooxide and Tar
b) Using safe injection techniques d) Carbon dioxide
c) Avoidance of smoking by drivers
1455. Which of the following is most strongly associated
d) Prohibiting voluntary blood donation
with coronary heart disease? (AI 06)
NON-COMMUNICABLE DISEASES a) Apolipoproteins b)VLDL
c) HDL d) Totallipoproteins
1448. The preferred public health approach to control non- 1456. Which of the following is maximally associated with
communicable diseases is- (AJIMS Nov 02) heart disease- (AIIMS Nov -10)
a) Shift the population curve of risk factors by a a) HDL b)VLDL
population based approach. c) IDL d) Chylomicrons
b) Focus on high risk individuals for reduction of 1457. Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention
risk of heart diseases include all ofthe following except-
c) Early diagnosis and treatment of identified cases. a) A decrease in complex carbohydrateconsumption
d) Individual disease based vertical programmes b) Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 precent of caloric
1449. Recommended interventions to reduce the incidence intake (AI 04)
of Coronary artery disease include the following c) Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less
except- (AI 11)
than 10% of total energy intake
a) Dietary cholesterol< 100/mg/1 000 kcallday
d) Reduction of cholesterol to below lOOmg per
b) Salt intake< 5 gm
c) No alcohol 1000 kcl per day
d) Fat intake< 10% of total energy 1458. Primary prevention in coronary heart diseases-
1450. The commonest cause of death in the sophisticated a) Exercise in high risk area (PGI Dec 07)
world - (TN 98) b) BP monitoring
a) Ischemic heart disease b) Accidents c) Salt restriction
c) Infectious disease d) None of the above d) Statins
1451. Following facts true stand for coronary heart disease e) TMT
inlndia,except- (AI 99) 1459. Primordial prevention in myocardial infarction are
a) CHD presents a decade later than in western all except- (All India 97)
countries a) Maintenance of normal body weight
b) Diabetes mellitus is the commonest cause b) Change in life style
c) More common in males than females c) Change in Nutritional habits
d) Heavy smoking is an etiological factor
d) Screening for hypertension
1452. All of the following are the well established
1460. Thue about Cardiovascular diseases (CVD)-
modifiable risk factors of coronary heart disease
except- (UPSC) a) Urban and rural areas have equal incidence
a) Cigarette smoking b) RHDisanimportantcauseofCVD (PGI May 10)
b) Drinking beverages c) Primordial prevention is best strategy
d) Coronary heart disease cause 25% of total death
1444)c 1445)a 1446)a 1447)b 1448)a 1449)d 1450)a 1451)a,b,c 1452)b 1453)b 1454)b 1455)a 1456)c
1457) a 1458) a,b,c,d 1459) d 1460) c,d
1461. CAD primodial prevention is by-(NEETIDNB Pattern) 1471. Which one of the following is the correct statement.
a) Lifestyle change b) Coronary bypass The body mass index is used as an indicator of
c) Treatment of CAD d) None obesity and is calculated as a ratio of the body weight
1462. Which one of the following intervention studies on to ? - (UPSC 06)
coronary artery disease did not observe significient a) Height b) Square root of height
changes in mortality or risk factors sine the control c) Square of height d) Cube ofheight
group was not properly chosen- (UPSC 07) 1472. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89
kg and height is 172 em- (AI 05)
a) Stanford- Three Community Study
a)Tl b)30
b) The North Kerelia Project
c) 33 d)36
c) Multiple Risk Factor intervention Trial 1473. ForobesityBMishouldbe- (AI 07)
d) Lipid Research Clinic Study a)> 20 b)> 50
1463. Which of the following study was conducted to c) >=40 d)>=30
determine that community health education 1474. BMI for normal weight- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
contributes to reduced risk of cardiovascular a) 18.5-22.99 b) 23.0 24.99
disease? (MH 11) c);;::: 25 d);;::: 30
a) Stanford study 1475. Overweight BMI?? (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) North Kerelia study a) 25 to 29.99 b) 15-18
c) Framingham heart study c) 18-20 d) None
d) All of the above 1476. BMI cut off for obesity is -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
1464. Which of the following studies have given coronary a) 28 b) 30
risk factor - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 32 d) 40
a) Framingham b) Stanford study 1477. The chosen method for measurement of obesity is-
c) North Kerala d) MONICA a) Skinfold thickness (PGI 80, AIIMS 83)
b) Body electrolyte count
1465. The non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension is-
c) Height- weight- sex charts
a) Obesity b) Age (Comed 07)
d) Basal oxygen consumption
c) Salt intake d) Environment stress 1478. Obesity indices are- (PGI Dec 04, 98)
1466. Measure of primary prevention of hypertension a) Broca's index b) Ponderal index
include all ofthe following except- (AI 97) c) Quetelet index d) Corpulence index
a) Weight reduction e) Lorentz'sformula
b) Exercise promotion 1479. Morbidobesitycausesdeathdueto- (PGI88)
c) Reduction of salt intake a) CVS complication
d) Early diagnosis of hypertension b) Pickwickian syndrome
1467. All are measures of primordial prevention of c) Hypothyroid crisis
hypertension, except- (AIIMS May 94) d) Cushing syndrome
a) Dietary changes · 1480. Primary prevention of obesity- (PGI Dec 07)
b) Restrain smoking a) Low fiber diet
c) Identification of hypertensive b) High fiber diet
d) Regular physical exercise c) High cholesterol diet
1468. Desired parameter for control ofHT -(PGIJune 00) d) High intake of protein
1481. Which of the following is height independent
a) Cholesterol/HDL < 3.5
index- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) HDL I cholesterol ration< 3.5
a) Ponderal b) Brocas
c) LDL/ cholesterol> lOmg%
c) Corpulence d) Lorent'z
d) HDL<30mg% 1482. A women with Body Mass index of20 is -(UPSC 07)
e) Cholesterol level< 200 mg/dl a) Undernourished b) Normal
1469. The term "Tracking" of blood pressure refers to - c) Overweight d) Obese
a) 24hrBPmonitoring (Kerala 04) 1483. One ofthe following is not true ofPonderal index-
b) Identifying children at risk of developing a) It is measure of obesity (Kerala 2K)
hypertension at future date b) Is height & weight independent
c) Pictorial representation ofBP c) Is height & weight dependent
d) BP control with nifedipine d) Age independent
1470. A person is obese if he is overweight by ••. % above e) Used for measurnment of body weight in adults
the accepted standards- (UPSC 85,86 1484. Body mass index is also known as- (UP 07)
a) 5% b) 10% JIPMER 80,86) a) Borca's index b) Corpulence inded
15% c) Quetelet's index d) Lorentz's formula
1461)a 1462)c 1463)a 1464)a 1465)b 1466)d 1467)c 1468)a 1469)b 1470)None 147l)c 1472)b 1473)d
1474)a 1475)a 1476)b 1477)a 1478)All 1479)a 1480)b 148l)c 1482)b 1483)b 1484)c
1485. What is the health indicator obtained by dividing 1499. Which one of the following is the most sensitive and
body height (in centimetres) by cube root of body specific screening test to detect breast cancer-
weight (in kilograms)- (UPSC-II 08) a) Regular X-ray (UPSC 2K
a) Quetelet's Index b) Broca Index b) Selfbreastexamination Kerala 01, 91)
c) Ponderal Index d) Corpulence Index c) Mammography
1486. Commonest carcinoma in men in tropical countries- d) Regular biopsy
a) Carectum b)Caoralcavity(A/97) 1500. The commonest cancer of adult man in India is-
c) Ca testis d) Ca bladder a) Calung b) Cacolon (AI91)
1487. The most common cancer, affecting both male and c) Ca stomach d) Aerodigestive Ca
females oftbe world, is- (AIIMS May 05,
1501. According to WHO, blindness is defined as a visual
a) Cancer of the pancreas Delhi 89, UPSC 87)
acuity of the better eye, less than-(NEETIDNB Pattern
b) Buccal mucosa cancer
a) 6/60 b) 5/60 AIIMS Nov 05, AI91)
c) Lung cancer
d) Colo-rectal cancer c) 4/60 d) 3/60
1488. Most common cancer world wid&-(NEEFIDNB Pattern) 1502. According to the world Health Organization, the
a) Lung b) Prostate definition of blindness is- (AI 06)
c) Liver d) Kidney a) Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with
1489. The most common cancer affecting Indian urban available correction
women in Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai is- (AIPGME b) Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with
a) Cervical cancer b) Ovarian cancer 05) available correction
c) Breast cancer d) Uterine cancer c) Visual acuity< 6/60 in the better eye with best
1490. Most common cancer reported in India correction
is- (AIIMS Dec 94) d) Visual acuity< 3/60 in the better eye with best
a) Cancer cervix b) Cancer breast correction
c) Cancer oral cavity d) Cancer lung 1503. 46 years old female in Eye OPD presents with right
1491. Incidence of cancer of breast in males in India - eye vision 6/60 and left eye vision as 3/60- (HP 2006)
a) 3% b) 5% (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Socially blind b) Low vision
c) 0 d) None c) Economically blind d) Normal vision
1492. Beer consumption is associated with- (AIJHPH 2K) 1504. The most common cause of blindness in India
a) Carcinoma cervix b) Carcinoma liver is- (AIIMSNOV05)
c) Carcinomarectum d) Carcinoma colon a) Cataract b) Trachoma
14 93. Occupational cancer involve following organs except- c) Refractive errors d) Vitamin A deficiency
a) Lung b) Breast (AIIMS May 08) 1505. Taking the defmition of blindness as visual activity
c) Bladder d) Liver less than 3/60 in the better eye, the number ofblind
1494. Most common occupational cancer in India-(AJ 08) persons per 100, 000 population in India is
a) Skin cancer b) Lung cancer estimated to be- (AIIMS 03)
c) Bladder cancer d) Brain cancer a) 500 b)700
1495. Nicotine responsible for oral cancer is- (NEETI c) 1000 d) 1500
a) 100/o b) 40% DNB Pattern) 1506. The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India
c) 90% d) 60% is- (AI 06)
1496. In which of the following disease, the overall survival a) Cataract b) Conjunctivitis
is increased by screening procedure- (AIIMS May c) Refractive error d) Trachoma
a) Prostate Ca b) Lung Cancer 08) 1507. All are common cause of blindness in children in
c) Colon Ca d) Ovarian Ca Indiaexcept- (AI07)
1497. All of the following statements relating to lung a) Malnutrition b) Ophthalmia neonatorum
carcinoma and occupation are true except- (AI 98) c) Glaucoma d) Congenital dacryocystitis
a) Risk is increased 1508. For every 1,00,000 population, the highest
b) Takes long time to develop prevalence of blindness in the world is seen
c) It takes less time to develop as compare to in- (AIIMS May 04)
general population. a) Sub-SaharanAfrica b) SouthAsia
d) It takes more time develop as compare to general c) Eastern Europe d) Latin America
population 1509. The visual acuity needed as cut-offfor differentiating
1498. Screening in general population done in cancers of- normal from abnormal children in the school vision
a) Breast b) Colon (PGI Dec 04) screening programme in India is- (HP 2006)
c) Cervix d) Ovarian a) 6/6 b)6/9
e) Pancreatic c) 6/12 d) 6/90
1485)c 1486)b 1487)c 1488)a 1489)c 1490)c 149l)c 1492)c 1493)b 1494)a 1495)c 1496)c 1497)d
1498)a,b,c,d 1499)c 1500)d 1501)d 1502)d 1503)b 1504)a 1505)b 1506)c 1507)d 1508)a 1509)b
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [ 4.75 J
1510. Under NPCB, screening of school children is first 1520. Prevalence ofRIID in children in India-
done by- (AIIMS Nov 07) a) 3/1000 b)6/1000 (BURDWAN2K)
a) School teachers c) 8/1000 d) 10/100
b) Village health guide
c) Ophthalmologic assistant MISCELLANEOUS
d) Medical officer
1511. Under the National Programme for Control of 1521. India causing maximum death -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
Blindness, the goal is to reduce the prevalence of a) Drowning b) Road traffic accident
blindness to a level of-(Comed 08,MAHE 98, 1N 98) c) Bums d) Poisoning
a) OJ% b)0.3% 1522. Commonest cause of stroke in our country-
c) 0.5% d) 1% a) Thrombosis b) Embolism
1512. All of the following is true regarding blindness c) Haemorrhage d) Infarction
except- (Manipal 2006) 1523. The prevelance of diabetes mellitus in India is-
a) There is estimated 45 million people blind world- a)2-5% b)5% (1N95)
wide c) 5-10% d) 10-15%
b) 20% of cases blindness in India is due to cataract 1524. Giving Benzathine penicillin in RIID is a type of -
c) Most common cause of blindness in India is a) Primaryprevention (AIIMSDec 95)
cataract b) Secondary prevention
d) Visual acuity less than 3/60 is blindness c) Tertiary prevention
1513. Percentage ofblindness due to cataractin India- d) Primordial prevention
a) 55 b)60 (PGIDEC96) 1525. WHO criteria for diagnosis of diabetes is -(MP 98)
c) 75 d)80 a) Venous blood fasting sugar 140 to 200 mg/1 OOml
1514. The WHO definition for blindness is the inability b) Venousbloodfastingsugar 120to 180mg/100rnl
of counting fingers in daylight at a minimum c) Venous blood fasting sugar 120 to 200mg/100ml
distanceof- (UPSC07)
d) Venous blood fasting sugar 140 to 180 mg/100
a) 3 feet b) 6 feet ni
1526. STEPS is the WHO recommended tool for-
c) 3 metres d) 6 metres
a) Surveillance of non-communicable diseases and
1515. Other than cataract, which one among the following
their risk factors (AI 09, AIIMS May 10, 09)
is the highest prevalent cause of blindness in the
b) Surveillance of communicable diseases and their
world- (UPSC-II 09)
risk 'factors
a) Corneal opacity b) Diabetic retinopathy
c) Surveillance of socio-economic status of the
c) Glaucoma d) Trachoma community
1516. All of the following statements about rheumatic d) Changes of trends of mortality in non-
fever/heart disease epidemiology in India are true communicable diseases
except- (AIIMS Nov 02) 1527. Rural and Urban difference in prevalence is seen in
a) Its prevalence varies between 2 to 11 per 1000 allofthefollowing,Except- (AI 10)
children aged 5-16 years a) Lung cancer b) Tuberculosis
b) Mitral regurgitation is the commonest cardiac c) Mental illness d) Chronic bronchitis
lesion seen 1528. Height in centimeters by cube root of body weight is
c) It occurs equally in females and males. also known as? (DNB Dec 2011)
d) Rheumatic fever occurs in about 2% of a) Quetlet index b) Broca index
streptococcal sore throats c) Ponderal's index d) Corpulence index
1517. NOT a feature of Rheumatic heart disease in India 1529. Least common asociation with Morbid Obesity is?
is- (AIIMSDec 94) a) RheumatoidArthritis (DNBDec2010)
a) CHF and cardiomegaly in most of the cases b) Diabetes Mellitius type II
b) Affects younger age group c) Essential Hypertension
c) Aortic valve is most commonly affected d) Large bowel cancers
d) School going population is most affected 1530. Type of surveillance included in integrated disease
1518. Which is the least common cause of heart disease control program for non-communicable disease is?
in India- (PGI 79, AMC 87) a) Sentinel surveillance (DNB Dec 201 0)
a) Rheumatic b) Hypertensive b) Regular Surveillance
c) Ischaemic d) Congenital c) Periodic regular survey
1519. The commonest heart disease In India d) Additional state priority
is- (UPSC 84, 86, AMC 84,87, Kerala 94) 1531. Normal range ofBMIAsian Individual is?(DNB Dec
a) Congenital b) Rheumatic a) 18.5to24.99 b)22.5to24.99 2010)
c) Hypertensive d) None of the above c) 18.5to22.5 d) 18.5to22.99
1510)a 1511)b 1512)b 1513)b 1514)c 1515)c 1516)b 1517)c 1518)d 1519)b 1520)b 1521)b 1522)a 1523)c
1524)b 1525)b 1526)a 1527)b 1528)c 1529)a 1530)c 153l)a
1532. Which index of obesity does not include 1544. In a demographic cycle, Late expanding stage
height? (DNB June 2010) indicates- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Brvtl b) Ponderal's index a) High birth and death rates
c) Broca's index d) Corpulence index b) Decreasing DR and stationary BR
1533. Calculate BMI if weight in kilograms is 98 and c) Decreasing BRand decreasing DR
bight in centimeters is 175- (DNB Dec 09) d) Low DR and BR
~ 28 b)32 1545. Which of the following statements about 'Late
c) 36 d)40 expanding phase' of Demographic cycle is true-
1534. Corpulence index means- (DNB Dec 08) a) Birth rate is lower than death rate
a) Measurement of obesity b) Death rate begins to decline while birth rate
b) Measurement of copper level in serum
remains unchanged (AI 09, AIIMS May 11)
c) Measurement of iron losses in faeces
c) Death rate declines more than birth rate
d) Pressure difference b/w chambers of heart
d) High death rate and high birth rate
1535. The most common cancer, affecting Indian urban
women in Delhi, Mumbai and Cbennai is - 1546. 3rd stage of demography indicates- (PGI Dec 04)
a) Cervical cancer (DNB Dec 07) a) High birth rate and high death rate
b) Ovarian cancer b) Death rate begins to decline
c) Breast cancer c) While the birth rate remains unchange
d) Uterine cancer d) Birth rate tends to fall and death rate declines
1536. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 still further
kg and height is 182 em- (DNB Dec 07) e) Low death rate and low birth rate
~ 26 b)30 (f) Birth rate lower than death rate
c) 33 d) 36 1547. The growth pattern of a population with an annual
growth rate of 1.5% to 2.0% is- (AI 95)
DEMOGRAPHY AND FAMILY PLANNING a) Stow growth b) Moderate growth
c) Rapid growth d) Very rapid growth
1537. Population countis taken on- (PGI 89) 1548. H annual growth rate of a population is 1.5-2%, what
a) 1st January b) 1st March number of years will be required to double the
c) Ist July d) Ist August population? (MH 11)
1538. India belongs to which stage of the demographic a) 70-47years b)47-35years
cycle- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 35-28years d)28-23
a) Slow stationary b) High stationary 1549. Annual growth rate is- (AI 97)
c) Early stationary d) Late expanding a) Crude birth rate-crude death rates
1539. Which countries have a higher growth rate than b) Crude death-crude birth rates
India- (PGJJune07) c) Crude birthrate-crude death rate x 100/crude birth rate
a) Myanmar b) Nepal d) Crude birth rate-crude death rate x 100/Mid year
c) Sri lanka d) Bangladesh population
1540. A community survey shows crude birth rate 23, and 1550. States, where crude birth rate is higher than the
crude death rate 6. The demographic stage of nationallevel: (PGI May 10)
population is- (AIIMS Nov 99, AI OJ) a) West Bengal b) Maharashtra
a) High stationary b) Early expanding c) Rajasthan d) Madhya pradesh
c) Late expanding d) Low stationary e) Himanchal pradesh
I 541. India is having crude birth rate from 93 to 80 and 1551. Big divide in India- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
death rate from 21 to 10, the country is in which a) 1915 b) 1921
stage of demographic cycle- (AIIMS Dec 97) c) 1947 d) 1983
a) Late expanding b) Early expanding 1552. People living in developing countries-(Manipa/ 04)
c) High stationary d) Low stationary a) 9()0/o b) 80%
1542. Demographic transition is- (PGJ Dec 98) c) 70% d)60%
a) No gap between birth rate and death rate 1553. The proportion of school age children in India's
b) High difference between CBR and CDR population is approximately- (Karnat 96)
c) Gap in sex percentage a) 15% b)25%
d) Gap is extreme ages c) 40% d)50%
1543. The growth rate oflndia is- (PGI 85) 1554. The percentage ofwomen in the reproductive age
a) 55% b)3% group is- (A/89)
c) 2.4% d) 2.2% a) 15% b)22%
e) 2% c) 30% d)40%
1532)d 1533)b 1534)a 1535)c 1536)b 1537)c 1538)d 1539)b,d 1540)c 1541)a 1542)a 1543)None 1544)c
1545)c 1546)d 1547)d 1548)b 1549)a 1550)c,d 1551)b 1552)b 1553)b 1554)b
1555. What is the percentage of population is below 5 1568. Life expectancy at per 91 census is -(AIIMS Dec 98)
yrs of age in India - (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) 60.1 year b)62.3year
a) 5% b) 10% c) 58.1 year d) 55 year
c) 15% d)20% 1569. Birth rate is- (PGI Dec 02)
1556. The age and sex structure of a population may be a) Live birth/1 000 mid yr. population
best described by a- (AIJMS Nov 03, May 05) b) Birth/1 000 mid yr population
a) Life table b) Correlation coefficient c) Live birth/1 0000 mid yr. population
c) Population pyramid d) Bar chart d) Live birth/1 0,000 population of reproductive age
1557. India population pyramid- (NEETIDNB Pattern) group (15-45)
a) Narrow apex b) Broad apex e) Live birthllOOOpopulation
c) Narrow base d) None 1570. General fertility rate is a better measure of fertility
1558. Sex ratio is- (PGI Dec 02) than the crude birth rate because the denominator
a) 1 male per 1000female includes- (AIIMS May 01)
b) 1000femalefor lOOOmale a) 15 - 45 years of age female
c) No. offemalefor 1000male b) Midyear population
d) 1000 female per 100000 male c) Total woman population
e) One lakh female per one lakh d) Married woman population
1559. Sex ratio of children population in the age group of 1571. Regarding crude birth rate all are true except-
0-6 years according to the 2011 census is -(AI 12) a) Unaffected by age distribution (AI 09,
a) 940 b)914 b) Indicator of fertility AIIMS May 1 0)
c) 944 d)933 c) Excludes the still births
1560. In calculating Dependency Ratio, the numerator is d) Better measure of fertility than general fertility rate
expressed as- (AIIMS May 03) 1572. True about crude birth rate is all except- (AI 09)
a) Population under 10 years and 60 and above a) Ratio
b) Population under 15 years and 60 and above b) Fertility indicator
c) Population under 10 years and 65 and above c) Stillborn excluded
d) Population under 15 years and 65 and above d) Not affected by age distribution of the population
1561. Dependency ratio includes- (PG!June 05) 1573. Denominator in general fertility rate is-(NEETIDNB
a) All women between 15-45 year age Pattern)
a)0-5yrsage b)6-14yrsage
b) All married women between 15-45 year age
c) 15-45 yrs age d)> 65 yrs
c) Total number oflive births
1562. Dependency ratio is includes- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Total number of all births
a) Less than 15 years b) Less than 85 years
1574. General fertility rate - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 30-50 years d) None a) Indicator of complete family size
1563. Demograpbicdividedisdueto- (Kerala 08) b) Measure of fertility
a) Increase fertility b) Decrease fertility c) Not bether than crude birth rate
c) Decrease in death rate d) None d) All
1564. In latest Indian census, population density is -per 1575. Most significant indicator of fertility is-
sq.km- (Delhi 93) a) Net reproductive rate (AIIMS Sep 96)
a) 152 b)204 b) Family size
c) 267 d)31 c) Gross reproduction rate
1565. Family size is- (AIIMS Sep 96) d) General fertility rate
a) Total number offarnily members in the family 1576. Population growth is said to be less than adequate
b) Total number offernale children born in the family requirement when NRR is- (PGI June 03)
c) Total number of children in the family a)< 1 b) 1
d) Total number of female children in the family c) >1 d)=O
considering the mortality 1577. Mortality statics are taken into account while
1566. According to 1991 census family size is- (AI 98) calculating- (PGI Dec 98, 99; AIIMSDec 94)
a) 2.4 b)3.9 a) GER. b)NRR
c) 4.4 d)5.6 c) TFR d) GMFR
1567. The Hteracy rate oflndian Population as per Census 1578. In family welfare programme, score of 1 is given to-
2001 is - (AIIMS Nov 04) a) Birthrate (AIIMSMay95)
b) Net reproduction rate
a) 54.5% b) 65.4%
c) Achievement of goal
c) 85.8% d) 75.5%
d) Total implementation of programme
1555)b 1556)c 1557)a 1558)c 1559)b 1560)d 1561)a,b,d 1562)a 1563)b 1564)None 1565)c 1566)b 1567)b
1568)a 1569)a 1570)a 1571)d 1572)a 1573)a 1574)b 1575)a 1576)a 1577)b 1578)b
1579. True statement about 'total fertility rate' is- (AI 98) 1589. Correct denominators of fertility indicators-
a) Indicates approximate magnitude of completed a) General fertility rate is calculated per 1000 women
family size in the reproductive age group (15-44 or 49 year)
b) Numerator is 'woman of child bearing age' in a given year (PGI Nov 11)
c) Numerator is 'all live births' b) Age specific fertility rate is per 1000 population
d) Numerator is 'married woman of child bearing in any specified age-group
age' c) Child-Woman ratio is per 1000 women of child-
bearing age
1580. The completed family size may be estimated by-
d) Crude Marriage rate is per 1000 population
a) Birthrate b) Death rate (AI 08)
e) General Marriage rate is per 1000 person age
c) Total fertility rate d) Age specific fertility rate 15-49
1581. Children borne by female at the end of reproductive 1590. In calculating crude birth rate wbich of the following
period is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) is used as denominator- (AIIMS Nov 2000)
a) TFR b)NRR a) Women in 15-49 yrs age group
c) BR d) None b) All persons in 15-49 yrs age group
1582. True abouttotal fertility rate- (PGI Nov 09) c) Mid year population
a) Average number of children born to a women d) All live births
during reproductive period 1591. The demographic data oflndia as per 2001 census
b) Average number of daughters born to a mother is/are- (PGI Nov 09)
c) Magnitude of completed family size. a) Death rate 8.9
d) Average number of live birth in year per 100 b) Birthrate25.9
women c) Female/male sexratio933 per 1000
e) Sum of age specific fertility rates d) Life expectancy at birth 58 years
1583. Total fertility rate- (PGI Dec 07) e) Literacy rate - 51%
1592. Present "General fertility rates"- (MAHE 05}
a) Total no. ofchildren born to a woman in a given year
a) 108 b) 118
b) Measure of completed family size
c) 128 d) 138
c) Sum offertility of all age
1593. Scope offamily planning services include all of the
d) No. offemale child born to mother
following except- (AI 03)
e) Total no. of child born to mother a) Screening for cervical cancer
1584. Wbich of the following is true aboutthe child-women b) Providing services for unmarried mothers
ratio- (AI 96) c) Screening for HIV infection
a) 0-4 years of children and 15-45 years of unmarried d) Providing adoption services
women 1594. All of the following statements are true,
b) 0-5 years of children and 15-49 years of age of except- (AIIMS Nov 93)
married women a) Population of women between 15-45 years is 22%
c) 0-4 year of children and 15-44 years of all women b) Eligible couples are 150/1000 population
d) 0-4 years of children and 20-30 years of married c) 20% eligible couples are in 15-24 year age group
women d) Every year 1 million eligible couples are added
1585. Which of the following indicators involve to the population
reproductivewoman- (PGI June 04) 1595. The couple protection rate at present in India is-
a) Birth Rate b) GF.R a) 38.1 b) 43.5 (Kerala 97)
c) T.F.R d) Maternal mortality rate c) 45.1 d)55.1
1586. The number of abortions performed divided by the 1596. Most widely practised method of family planning by
number of live births in the same period is known eligible couples in India is - (MAHE 98)
as- (ICS 05) a) IUCD b)OCPill
a) Abortion rate b) Abortion incidence c) Sterilization d) Nirodh
c) Abortion prevalence d) abortion ratio 1597. Most common method of sterilisation practised
1587. In defining General Fertility Rate, the denominator in India - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
is- (AIIMS Nov 03) a) Female sterilization b) Male sterilization
a) Population between 15 and 49 years of age c) Both d) None
b) Women between 15 and 49 years of age 1598. The Incorrect Statement regarding couple
c) Mid year population protection rate is- (All India 93)
d) Live births a) 50-60% ofbirths per year are birth order 3 ormore
1588. Denominator for GFR is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) To achieve NRR of 1, CPR should be 60%
a) Mid year population b) Females 15-44 years c) CPR was37%in 1987
c) Married female d) None d) CPR of 60% is equivalent to 3 children per couple
1579)a 1580)c 158l)a 1582)a,c,e 1583)b,c 1584)c 1585)b,c 1586)d 1587)b 1588)b 1589)a,c,d 1590)c
1591)a,c 1592)None 1593)c 1594)d 1595)c 1596)d 1597)a 1598)d
1599. Spacing methods used by familywe1fare programmes 1611. Following statements are correct about
are: (PGI Nov 10) levonorgestrel containing intrauterine
a) IUCD b)OCP contraceptive device (Mirena) except -(UPSC-1/ 09)
c) Vasectomy d) Condom a) It releases 20 J.tg/day oflevonorgestrel
e) Tubectomy b) It increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy
1600. Conventional contraceptives are- (MAHE 07) c) It increases the risk of ovarian cyst formation
a) IUCD's b) Coitus iterruptus d) It reduces the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease
1612. CuT 200 is so called- (PGI Dec 97)
c) Condom
a) 200 sqmm ofCu2+ over loop
1601. Safe period is calculated by- (UPSC-II 09)
b) 200 mm ofCu over loop
a) Length of menstrual cycle c) For 200 days, Cu concentration does not
b) DurationDate of ovulation changes
c) Length of ovulation d) 200 sqcm ofCu over loop
d) Length of luteal phase 1613. In Cu T-200, the nnmberdenotes-(PG/Dec 08, Nov 11)
1602. In calendar method of contraception, first day of a) Surface area b) Weight in microgram
fertile period is? (MH 11) c) Weight in miligram d) Effective halflife in week
a) 1Oth day of shortest menstural cycle e) Volumeofdevice
b) 18th day of shortest menstural cycle 1614. Mechanism of action ofiUCD is AlE- (PGI Dec 97)
c) lOth day oflongest menstural cycle a) Chronic endometrial inflanunation
d) 18th day oflongest menstural cycle b) Anovulation
1603. Barriermethod- (PG/99) c) Tubal motility alteration
a) Hormonal contraceptive b) IUD d) Endometrial atrophy
c) Condom d) Diaphragm 1615. Copper Tis ideally inserted at- (AIIMS 86)
1604. On an average failure rate in the couples using a) Just before menstruation b) Menstruation
c) Just after menstruation d) On the 14m day
condom is about- (PGI 80, AIIMS 86)
1616. Absolute contra indication for IUD are all except-
a) 0-5 percent b) 10-20 percent
a) Pregnancy (AI 97)
c) 30-40 percent d) 50 percent or more b) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
1605. Dutch cap is - (PGI 89) c) Pelvic infalmmatory disease
a) Diaphragm b) Condom d) Uterine malformation
c) Vaginal sponge d) None 1617. Most common complication ofiUCD is- (AI 95;
1606. Chemical use in vaginal sponge is- (AJIMS Dec 95) a) Bleeding b) Pain (AIIMS Sep 96)
a) Ethynil estradiol b) Progesterone c) PID d) Abortion
c) Mifepristone d) Nonoxynol-9 1618. The most common side effect ofiUD insertion, which
1607. Spermicide acts by- (A//MS 98) requires its removalis- (AIIMS Nov 1996)
a) Release of acrosomal enzymes a) Bleeding b) Pain
b) Lysis of cell membrane c) Pelvic infection d) Ectopic pregnancy
c) Glucose uptake inhibition 1619. IUD, associatiate most commonly with explusion-
d) Vaginal enzyme alteration a) Lippes loop b) T Cu- 200 (PG/ June 07)
c) TCu-380 d)LNG-IUD
1608. WhichiUCDactsfor10yrs- (AIIMSMay07) 1620. Copper-T with threads is visible in a case of early
pregnancy. Treatmentofchoiceis- (DPG 11)
a) Cu-T200B b)Nova-T
a) Remove CuT only
c) Cu-T 380A d) Multi load-250
b) Suction evacuation with Copper-T removal
1609. Life span of cut380a- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Reassurance and continue pregnancy
a) 10 yrs b) 20 yrs d) Laparotomy
c) 1 yrs d) None 1621. Mala-N contains- (A/IMS92)
1610. The following statements are true about Intrauterine a) Ethinyl estradiol30 meg
devices (IUD) except- (AI 04) b) Norgesterol50 meg
a) Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD c) Ethinyl estradiol 50 meg
b) The pregnancy rate of Iippes loop and Cu-T 200 d) Progesterone 10 mg
are similar 1622. In Emergency contraception which progesteron is
c) IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception used- (AIIMSNov09)
within 5 days a) Norethisterone
d) Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective b) Modroxy-progesterone
life of 5 years c) Desogestrel
d) Levonorgestrol
1599)a,b,d 1600)c 1601)a 1602)a 1603)c,d 1604)b 1605)a 1606)d 1607)None 1608)c 1609)a 1610)a
1611)c,d 1612)a 1613)a 1614)b 1615)b,c 1616)d 1617)a 1618)b 1619)a 1620)a 162l)a 1622)d
1623. Which one of the following is not a third generation 1634. In a heart patient, contraceptive of choice is-
progestrogen used in combined oral contraceptive a) Sterilization b)IUCD (PGI June 97)
pills? (UPSC-II09) c) OCP d) Norplant
a) Levonorgestrel b) Oesogestrel 1635. "Persna" is a method of- (Orissa 05)
c) Gestodene d) Norgestimate a) Natural contraceptive b) Hormonal contraceptive
1624. Mechanism of action of an oral contraceptive c) Barrier contraceptive d) IUCD
containing a combination of oestrogen-progestin 1636. "lmplanon" contains- (Orissa 05)
is the following except- (PGI 2K) a) Desonorgestrol b) Ethinyl estradiol
a) Inhibition of ovulation c) L-norgestrol d) None
b) A change in the cervical mucus
1637. The goal ofNRR=1 can be best achieved by use of
c) Inhibition of motility of the uterine tubes
following contraceptive methods- (AI 97)
d) Inhibition of motility of sperms
a) Condom 72/year b) IUCD
e) Changes in the uterine endometrium
b) Vasectomy d) Oralpills
1625. SIE of OC pills is- (PGI Dec 98)
a) Dysmenorrhoea b) Prolactin level 1638. Failure rate of contraceptive method is determined
c) Carbohydrate intolerance d) Endometriosis by- (AIIMSDec 95)
1626. ContraindicationofO.C.P- (PGI June 04) a) Pearl index
a) Liver disease b) PID b) Halflife
c) Renal disease d) Epilepsy c) Number of accidental pregnancies
1627. Combined oral pills protect the woman against all d) Period of contraceptive practice continued
EXCEPf- (UPSC-II09) 1639. Which of the foil owing is important in calculaton of
a) Menorrhagia pearl index- (PGI Dec 05)
b) Benign breast disease a) Number of abortions
c) Pelvic inflammatory disease b) Total accidental pregnancy
d) Venous thromboembolism c) Socioeconomic status
1628. On prescription of oral pills to the user, the health d) Total gestational period
worker will ask about the following except- 1640. Pearls index? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Number oflive children (AIIMS May OJ) a) Per 100 woman years b) Per 10 woman years
b) Calf tenderness c) Per 1000 woman years d) Per 50 woman years
c) Headache 1641. Best index of contraceptive efficacy is-(AJIMS Nov 08)
d) Swelling of the feet a) Pearl index b) Chandelers index
1629. With the use ofDMPA contraceptive, the side effects c) Quetlet index d) Broca index
are all of the following except- (AIIMS May 02) 1642. The MTP act defines the following- (Jipmer 90)
a) Change in quantity and quality of breast milk
a) Who should do termination of pregnancy
b) Weight gain
b) Where it should be done
c) Irregular bleeding
c) When it should be done
d) Increased reproductive tract inflection
d) All of the above
1630. Hormonal contraceptive of choice in a lactating
womanis- (UPSC-II09) 1643. Consent from guardian/husband for MTP is required
a) Combined pill b) Multiphastic pill if- (JIPMER 79, UPSC 93)
c) Mini-pill d) Centchroman a) Female is below 28 years of age
1631. Best contraceptive for newly married healthy couple- b) Female is below 23 years of age
a) Barrier method (AHMS May 09) c) Female is below 17 years of age
b) IUCD 1644. MTP Act of 1971 provides for termination of
b) Oral contraceptive pill pregnancy till how many weeks of pregnancy-
d) Natural methods a) 12weeks b) 16weeks (NEETIDNB
1632. Best contraceptive for newly married couples- c) 20weeks d) 24 weeks Pattern)
a) IUCD (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1645. MTPcanbedoneupto- (AIIMSDec97)
b) Hormonal pills a) 12 weeks b) 16 weeks
c) Rythem method c) 20weeks d) 10weeks
d) Condom 1646. Medical termination of pregnancy can be done by a
1633. Contraception of choice in diabetic patient- registered medical practitioner if the gestation
a) OCP (PGI Dec 97) period is less than- (Comed 09)
b) Barrier method a) 8 weeks b) 12 weeks
c) Permanent sterilization c) 20 weeks d) 24 weeks
d) Cu-T
1623)a 1624)c,d 1625)c 1626)a 1627)d 1628)a 1629)a 1630)c 1631)c 1632)b 1633)b 1634)a 1635)a 1636)a
1637)c 1638)a 1639)b 1640)a 1641)a 1642)d 1643)c 1644)c 1645)c 1646)b
1647. The National Population Polley 2001 aims to achieve 1657. In a community of 5000 people, the crude birth rate
net reproduction rate of 1 by the year~ is 30 per 1000 people. The number of pregnant
a) 2005 b)2010 (AIIMS Nov 02) females is? (DNB Dec 2010)
c) 2015 d)2050 a) 150 b)65
1648. The National Population Policy oflndia has set the c) 175 d)200
following goals except~ (AI 04, AIIMS Nov 08) 1658. National Family Health Survey is done every?
a) To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to a) 6months b) 1 year (DNBDec2010)
replacement levels by 2015 c) 5 years d) 10 years
b) To reduce the infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1659. The most common side effect ofiUD insertion is-
1000 live births . a) Bleeding b) Pain (DNB June 2010)
c) To reduce the maternal Mortality Rate to 100 per
c) Pelvic d) Ectopic pregnancy
100000 live births
1660. CuTwith10yearslifeis? (DNBJune2010)
d) 100 percent registration of births deaths
a) Cu380A b) Progestasert
marriages and pregnancies
c) CuT 200 d) Nova T
MISCELLANEOUS 1661. According to NFHS 3, percentage of wasting in India
is? (DNB June 2010)
1649. National Family Health Survey has successfully a) 23% b) 35%
completed- (AIIMS May 05) c) 40% d) 50%
a) One round b) Two rounds 1662. Denominator in General fertility rate is?
c) Three rounds d) Four rounds a) Married women in reproductive age group in a
1650. NFHS-3- (NEETIDNB Pattern) given year (DNB Dec 09)
a) 1995 b) 2000 b) Women in reproductive age group in a given year
c) 2005 d) 2010 c) Married women in any specified age group
1651. In India, family planning is managed by~ d) Women in any specified age group
a) 100% sponsored by Central government only 1663. Indicators of health in india are all EXCEPT~
b) 100% by state government only (AIIMS Dec 97) a) Crude birth rate- 22.5 (DNB June 09)
c) 50% state and 50% central government b) IMR 6011000 live births
d) Fully sponsored by central government with c) Crude death rate 7. 5
planning of state government d) Total fertility rate- 2.6
1652. The carrying capacity of any given population is 1664. Which of the following is not a goal for 2010 as per
determined by its~ (AIIMS May 05) national health policy 2002? (DNB June 09)
a) Population growth rate b) Birth rate a) Reduce mortality by TB by 50%
c) Death rate d) Limiting resource b) Eliminate kala azar
1653. KAP studies in India were first used to study~Vif 08, c) Reduce IMR
a) HIV b) Malaria (AIIMS Nov 08) d) Eradicate polio
c) Family planning d) Cancer cervix 1665. Second National Family Health Survey was done in
1654. For NRR to be 1, Couple protection rate should be? the year? (DNB June 09)
a) 200/o b)40% (DNB Dec 2011) a) 992-93 b) 1998-99
c) 60% d)80% c) 2005-2006 d)2008-2009
1655. Pearl index is? (DNB Dec 2011) 1666. CuT 380A IUCD should be replaced once in-
a) Failures per 1000 women-years of exposure a) 4 yrs b) 6 yrs (DNB Dec 08)
b) Failures per 100 women-years of exposure c) 8 yrs d) 10 yrs
c) Failures per 10 women-years of exposure 1667. Best index for measuring contraceptive efficacy
d) Failures per women-years of exposure is- (DNB June 08)
1656. According to 2006 Government oflndia guidelines a) Pearl index b) Life-table analysis
for sterilization all are true EXCEPT- c) Chandler's index d) Quetlet index
a) Should be married (DNB Dec 2011) 1668. The most common side effect ofiUD insertion is-
b) Female clients should be below the age of 45 a) Bleeding b) Pain (DNB Dec 07)
years and above the age of 20 years c) Pelvic infection d) Ectopic pregnancy
c) The couple should have at least one child 1669. In what stage of demographic cycle is India today-
whose age is above one year unless the a) Low stationary (DNB June 07)
sterilizationis medically indicated. b) High stationary
d) Clients or their spouses/partners must not have c) Early expanding
undergone sterilization in the past d) Late expanding
1647)b 1648)a 1649)c 1650)c 165l)a 1652)d 1653)c 1654)c 1655)b 1656)c 1657)a 1658)b 1659)a 1660)a
166l)a 1662)b 1663)b 1664)d 1665)b 1666)d 1667)b 1668)a 1669)d
1670. In the demographic study of population, a country 1680. As per the National Population Policy 2000, the
with low birth rate & a low death rate is in following medium-term objective is to bring the total Fertility
phase- (Delhi 96) rate to replacement level by which year ?
a) 1•• phase b) 2nd phase a) 2008 b)2010 (UPSC-1 08;
c) 3r<1 phase d) 4m phase c) 2012 d)2014 COMED 08)
1671. Pepulation growth is said to be explosive when growth 1681. Demographers are of the view that the demographic
rate is- (PGMCET07, MAHE OJ) goal ofNRR=1 can be achieved only if the couple
a) <0.5 b) 0.5 1 protection rate exceeds - (Karn 11)
c) 1 1.5 d)>2 a) 4V% b)50%
1672. The proportion of children in the age group ofO- 6 c) 60'% d) 70%
years, (who are the beneficiaries of integrated Child 1682. What is theiUCD of choice in women with
Development Services Scheme), in the population menorrhagia? (UPSC-ll 09)
is about- (Karnat 99) a) Lippe's loop b) Copper-T 200
a) 6% b) 13% c) Copper-T 380A d) Progesterone containing IUCD
c) 2()0/o d) 27% 1683. What is the content of ethinyl estradiol in very low
1673. Male to Female ratio is- (AP 96) dose oral contraceptives? (UPSC-11 09)
a) Males for 1000population a) 30 flg b) 25f.!g
b) Females for 1000 males c) 20 flg d) 15 flg
c) Males for 1000 females 1684. Best method of contraception in a commercial sex
d) None worker- (J/PMER 98)
1674. In census literacy rate is assessed by- (Jipmer 2K) a) IUCD
a) Attended literacy classes for one year b) OCP
b) Abilit"j to write signature c) Permanent sterilization
c) Ability to read and write d) Barrier methods
d) Ability to read newspapers 1685. Mfnipill containing 75 Jlg of desogestrel is used for
1675. In 2001 census, which one of the following contraception. Which of the following is its schedule
denominators was used for calculating the literacy of administration? (UPSC-1/ 09)
rate- (UPSC 2006, AI 93) a) Taken once a day pill for 3 months 7 days pill
a) Population 5 years of age and above free interval
b) Population 7 years of age and above b) Taken once a day pill for 2 months 7 days pill
c) Population 10 years of age and above free interval
d) People who can read and write irrespective of age c) Taken for 21 days with 7 days pill free interval
1676. With a birthrate of 30 per thousand, in a subcentre
d) Taken for 28 days with no pill free interval
of 5000 population, what would be the number of
1686. Calender method was described by- (AIIHPH 98)
pregnantwomen- (UPSC 07)
a) Bitings b) Ogino
a) 150 b) 155
c) Wallace d) Ogive
c) 160 d) 165
1677. Crude death rate is an indicator that shows 1687. The Pearl index indicates the number of accidental
relationship between- (Jipmer 05) pregnancies per- (UPSC 99)
a) Population & total mortality a) 1000 population
b) Population & proportional mortality b) 100 live births
c) Population & age-specific mortality c) 100 women in the age group of 15 to 44 years
d) None of the above d) 100 women years
1678. Crude birth rate denominator is- (SGPGI 05) 1688. Contraceptive efficacy expressed as- (Jipmer 04)
a) Total no of live births in that year a) 100womenmonths b) 1000womenyears
b) 1000 live births c) lOOwomenyears d) lOwomenyears
c) Total numbers of births 1689. 100 women, followed up for 20 months, with OCPs,
d) Mid year population 5 became pregnant, Calculate the Pearl Index-
1679. Declining death rate in India is attributed to- a) 100 b)200 (Bihar 03)
a) Absence of natural checks (Manipal 2006) c) 300 d)400
b) Mass control of disease e.g. small pox, plague, 1690. Which one of the following is a rare complication
cholera ofthe use of hormonal contraceptives- (Kerala 2K)
c) Extensive use of chemotherapeutic, antibiotics a) Contraceptive failure b) Cardiovascular effects
and insecticides c) Carcinogenesis d) Metabolic effects
d) All the above Liver disorders
1670)d 167l)d 1672)b 1673)b 1674)c 1675)b 1676)a 1677)a 1678)d 1679)d 1680)b 1681)c 1682)d 1683)c
1684)d 1685)d 1686)b 1687)d 1688)c 1689)c 1690)a
1691. DMPAis an injectible contraceptive given every- 1702. All of the following features contribute to high risk
a) Three weeks b) Two months (UPSC 2K) babies except- (AI 97)
c) Three months d) Two years a) Babies with working mothers
1692. Among the following, which one is the absolute b) Spacing ofless than 1 year
contraindication for combined oral contraceptive c) Artifical fed babies
d) Weight between 70-80% of reference wt.
pills- (UPSC 07)
1703. As per WHO low birth weight is defined as-
a) Diabetes mellitus a) Birth weight less than 2.5 kg (PGI Dec 03)
b) Migraine b) Birth weight< 1Oth percentile
c) Previous history of thrombo-embolism c) Gestational age< 34 weeks
d) Heart dsease d) Gestational age < 28 weeks
1693. Use of combined pill is contraindicated in women 1704. LBW is birth wt below - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
with any of the following conditions except- (UPSC- a) 1.5 kg b) 2.5 kg
a) Lactation b) Diabetes II 08) c) 3.0 kg d) 3.5 kg
c) Thromboembolism d) Tuberculosis 1705. According to Indian Scientists, the cut off for low
1694. Which of the following is not a barrier method ? birth weight in India is- (PGMCET 07)
a) Centchroman b) Today (APPG 08) a) 2.2kg b) 2.5 kg
c) 2.7kg d)2kg
c) Barrier d) None
1706. Small for date baby is- (PGI June 2000)
1695. A case of vasectomy is said to have failed as the a) < 10 percentile for that gestational age
vasectomised person's wife gives birth to a child ten b) < 50 percentile for that gestational age
months after the operation. Which one of the c) <2000gm
followingisthemostprohablecause? (DPG 11) d) <2500gm
a) Failure ofthe husband to use condom after vasectomy 1707. Preterm infant is defined as- (A1_01)
b) Smgical failme a) Born between 37-42 weeks
c) Recannalisation b) Born>42weeks
d) Wife had extramarital contact c) Born <37weeks
1696. First 5 year plan in India started at- (Burdwan 2K) d) Born< 25 weeks
1708. Extremely low birth weight baby is less than -
a) 1950 b) 1951
a) 1 kg b) 1.5kg (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 1952 d) 1953
c) 2 kg d) 2.5kg
1697. As per our National Population Policy 2000, the 1709. L.B W. Baby - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
long-term objective is to achieve the population a) 2.9-2.6 kg b) 2.7-2.9 kg
stability by which one of the following years? c) 3.2-3.5kg d) 1.5-2.5 kg
a) 2025 b)2035 (UPSC-I 09) 1710. MostcommoncauseofiUGRis- (AIIMSDec98)
c) 2045 d)2055 a) Idiopathic b) Intra uterine infection
c) Pili d) Smoking
OBSTETRICS. PAEDIATRICS AND GERIATRICS 1711. Road- to health chart was given by- (NEETIDNB
a) John Snow b) David Morley Pattern)
1698. The most effective step in MCH is- (AMC 99) c) Koch d) Henrey Ducant
a) Maternal health promotion 1712. 'Road to health card' top line is- (DNB 2001)
a) 3ro percentile b) 50th percentile
b) Child health promotion
c) 80th percentile d) 97th percentile
c) School health promotion 1713. Road to health card has 2 reference points, which
d) Non formal education ofthe mother are- (AIIMS May 12)
1699. Minimum antenatal visit as per MCH is- a) 30th percentile for boys and 3'd percentile for girls
a) 1 b)2 (PGI Dec 03) b) 50th percentile for boys and 3'd percentile for girls
c) 3 d) 4 c) 50th percentile for boys and 5th percentile for girls
e) 5 d) 80th percentile for boys and 1Oth percentile for
1700. High risk pregnancy- (PGI Dec 08) girls
a) Elderly primi b) Short statme primi 1714. A mother comes with her 3 year old female child
c) Vertex presentation d) Diabetes with complain ofthat child is not eating anything.
Her weight is 11 kg (50th percentile) and height is
1701. Comprehensive emergency obstetric care does not
88 em. (75th percentile). What should be done next-
include- (AIIMSMay07)
a) Vitamin rich tonic to be given (AIIMS Nov 99)
a) Manual removal of placenta b) Forceful eating
b) Hysterectomy c) Nothing should be done actively and assure the parent
c) Blood transfusion d) Complete investigation for UTI
Ceasarean section
169l)c 1692)c 1693)d 1694)a 1695)b 1696)b 1697)c 1698)a,b,c 1699)d 1700)a,b,d 1701)b 1702)d 1703)a
1704)b 1705)d 1706)a 1707)c 1708)a 1709)d 1710)None 1711)b 1712)b 1713)b 1714)c
1715. Deficit in weight for height in a 3 year old child 1727. In India all are direct causes of maternal mortality
indicates- (AIIMS Nov 05) except- (AIIMS May OJ)
a) Acute malnutrition a) Cardiac disease b) Eclampsia
b) Chronic malnutrition c) Hemorrhage d) Abortion
c) Concomittant acute and chronic 1728. The most common cause of maternal mortality in
d) Under weight India is-(AIIMS May 11, May 08, May 05,May 04, AI
1716. Best indicator for growth measurement is-(NEETI a) Toxaernias b) Puerperal sepsis 08, 98)
a) Height b) Weight DNB Pattern) c) Hemorrhage d) Abortion
c) Arm circumference d) None 1729. Maternal mortality is maximum in which period-
1717. Best indicator for nutritional status for a child is- a) Antepartum b) Peripartum
a) Mid arm circumference (AIIMS Nov 06) c) Postpartum d) None (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Head circumference 1730. Maternal mortality rate is- (AIIMS Nov 07)
c) Rate of increase of height and weight a) Maternal death! I 00 births
d) Chest circumference b) Maternal death! I 00 live births
1718. Acute malnutrition is manifested by- (PGI June 05) c) Maternal death/1000 births
a) Weight for age b) Weight for height d) Maternal death/1000 live births
c) Age for height d) Brocas index 1731. Denominatorinmaternalmortalityratio? (AI 11)
c) Ponderalindex a) Mid Year Population
1719. Deficit in weight for height in a 3 years old child b) Live births
indicates- (AIIMS May 05) c) Total births
a) Acute malnutrition d) Total number of pregnancies
b) Chronic malnutrition 1732. Most rare cause of maternal mortality is-
c) Concomittant acute and chronic a) Abortion b)Anaemia (AIIMS 98)
d) Under weight c) Toxaemia d) Hemorrhage
1720. Which ofthe following is the best indicator oflong 1733. Neonatal period is- (AI 99)
term nutritional status- (AI 07) a) Upto 1 year oflife
a) Mid arm circumference b) Height for age - b) Upto 28 days oflife
c) Weight for age d) Weight for height c) 28 days to 1 year oflife
1721. Common to both acute and chronic malnutrition d) First ?.days of life
is - (AIIMS May 07, May 12)
1734. Infant mortality does not include- (AI 05)
a) Weight for age b) Weight for height
a) Early neonatal mortality
c) Height for age d) BMI
b) Perinatal mortality
c) Post neonatal mortality
1722. MCH care is assessed by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Death rate b) Birth rate d) Late neonatal mortality
c) Maternal mortality rate d) Anemia in mother 1735. In IMR, age ofinfants is considered- (AIIMS Dec 97,
1723. Denominator of maternal mortality rate is- (AI 98, a) Below 1 month b) Below 1 year Nov 00)
96, AIIMSJune 97, Feb 97; PGI Dec 06, Dec 99) c) Upto 1 year d) 28 days
a) 1000 total births b) Mid year population 1736. Calculate IMR if in a population of 100000 there
c) 1000 live births d) Total live births are 3000 live births in a year and 150 infant deaths
1724. About Maternal mortality rate which ofthe following in the same year- (AIIMSNov OJ)
is true? (AI I 0) a) 75 b) 18
a) It is rate, not ratio. c) 5 d)50
b) Numerator includes complications related deaths 1737. According to ICMR the most common cause of infant
up to 42 days after pregnancy mortaliltyis- (AI97, 99)
c) Denominator includes still birth and abortions a) Prematurity
d) Expressed as rate per 1000 live births b) Diarrhoeal diseases
1725. A community has a population oflO,OOO and a birth c) Congenital anomalies
rate of36 per 1000. 5 maternal deaths were reported d) Acute repiratory infection
in the current year the MMR is- (AI OJ) 1738. Which is the least common cause among these of
a) 14.5 b) 13.8 infant mortality in India- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 20 d) 5 a) Infections b) Prematurity
1726. Maternal mortality is reduced to -
c) Birth injuries d) Congenital malformations
a) 100 b) 200 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 300 d) 400
1715)a 1716)b 1717)c 1718)b 1719)a 1720)b 1721)c 1722)c 1723)None 1724)b 1725)b 1726)b 1727)a
l728)c 1729)b l730)None 1731)b 1732)c 1733)b 1734)b 1735)b 1736)d 1737)a 1738)c
SOCIAL:& PREVENTIVE MEDICINE·[c4.:85]
1739. The socioeconomic status of community is:best 1749. Most common cause ofperinatalmortalityinindia is,.
indicated by-· (AIIMS Nov OJ, Dec 94) a) Birth defect b) Prematurity (AIIMSMay 95)
a) IMR e) Gllnfeetion d) Asphyxia
b) Under 5 mortality rate 1750. Still birth rate includes babies dead after- (AI 94)
a) 20 weeks b) 24 weeks·..
e). Maternal mortality rate .
e) 28weeks d) 32weeks
d) Perihatalmortality rate
1751. Perinatal mortality rate include whith of the
1740. Best indicator of availabllity,utilisation & following? · (AI 10)
effectiveness of health services-(NEETIDNB Pattern) ,a)cAbortions t Still birth+ early neonatal deaths
a) IMR . h) MMR b) Still birth+ early neonatal deaths
e}Hospital bed OCR · .. d) DALY . e) Abortions +early neonatal deaths
1741. Commonest cause of neonatal mortality in India is- . d) Deaths up to 42 dys after birth·
a} Diarrheal diseases (AJIMS May 03) 1752•. Ig. child death· rate, which of the following is
b) Birth injuries included- (PGI June 07)
e) Low birth weight a) Children<~ ye~rs b) Children< 10 years
d) Congenital anomalies c) Children l-4y{larsage d)Children10-15years
1753. In a populationof1lakh, with4000 liye birth per
1742. Most common cause of infant mortality?
annum and under5 population is15000 with infant
a) LBW b) Injury (NEET!DNB Pattern)
death per annum is 280,sp .theuml~.r .~mortality
e)ART d) Tetanus rate is- (AJIMSJune 2000)
1743. Which of the following is the least likely cause of a) 40% b) lPO%
neonatal death in India- (AIIMS Nov 1 0) c) 26.5% . d)()9%. , •· · :. .
a) Prematurity b) Infection 1754. The health status of children between 0 and.4 years
e) BirthAsphixia d) Congenital anomalies in a community will be adversely affected by all
1744. The least common cause of neonatal mortality in except- . . . · (AI 94)
india is- (NEET!DNB Pattern) a) Malnutrition
a) Prematurity b) Congenital malformations b) Birth weight ofiess than 2.5 Kg
e) Birth asphyxia d) LBW c) Matemalhemoglobil}.l2 gn::v'dL
1745. All of the following are ~ommo.n cause of post d) Infections · · ·
neonatal infant mortality in India, Except-. (AI 02) 1755. Health status of a child under 5 years of age will be
a) Tetanus adversely affected by all of the following except-(AJJ 0)
a) Malnutrition b)Lowbirtjlweight
b) Malnutrition
c) MatemaiHbofll gm% d) Infections ·
e) Diarrhoeal diseases
1756. Most common cause of death in children <5 yrs age-
d) Acute respiratory infection
a) Respiratory infection b) Diarrhoea (PGI2K)
1746. In a certain population, there were 4050 births in
c) Prematurity d) Accidents
last one year. There were 50 still births. 50 infants 1757. Mainly included in child survival index - .
died within 7 da~s where as 150 died within 28 days. a) MMR · (PGIJuneOJ)
What is the neonatal mortality rate-(AIIMS Nov 10, b) IMR
a) 50 b)6.5 Mayl2) e) Mortality between 1 to 4 yr. age
e) 12.5 d)49.4 d) Under 5 mortality . . ·
1747. The perinatal rate in India is- (AI 96) 1758. Current ilidicators ofMCH- .· .. (PGI Dec 04)
a) Late fetal death (still-birth)+ early neonatal death a) MMR3 -411,00,000
(under 1 week) b) IMR39/10,000
b) Late fetal death (stillbirth) + early neonatal deaths c) Delivery by trained personal42%
(under 4 weeks) 1759. The current neonatal mortality is- ·
c) Late fetal and early death of neonates weighing a) 28 b) 30 (NEET!DNB Pattern)
over 1 OOOg at birth e) 33 d) None
d) Late fetal and early death of neonates weighing 1760. All ofthe following statements are true about the
over 1500g at birth childhood mortality rates in India except-
1748. All of the following statements hold true for a) Almost 3/51h of infant mortality rate (IMR) occurs
perinatal mortality rate except- (AI 98) in neonatal period · (AlfMS Nov 05)
a) Deaths of neonate within one weak are included b) Almost 3/4th of the under-five mortality occurs in
b) Late still births and deaths beyond 28 weeks are the first year
c) About one in ten children die before they reach
included
the age of five years. ·
e) Deaths of children weighing more than 1000 gm
d) Neonatal mortality is higher among female children
is are included
as compared to males
d) 'Total number ofbirth' forms the denominator
1739)a 1740)a 1741)c 1742)a 1743)d 1744)b 1745)a 1746)a 1747)a 1748)d 1749)b 1750)c 175l)b 1752)c
1753)c 1754)e 1755)c 1756)a 1757)d 1758)c 1759)c 1760)c
1761. Benifits of breast milk are- (PGI June 08) 1774. According to WHO, exclusive breast milk is given
a) Better nutrition b) Less infection upto- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) More diarrhea d) Less allergy a) 6 months b) 4 months
e) High sodium contents c) 8 months d) 10 months
1762. Fatty acid characterstically present in breast milk 1775. In normal delivery, breast feeding should be started-
and essential for baby growth - (AIIMS Nov 11)
a) Yz hour after delivary (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Linoliec acid b) Palmitic acid
b) 2 hour after delivary
b) Arachidonic acid d) Docosahexaenoic acid
1763. The following statements about breast milk are true c) 4 hour after delivary
except- (AIIMSMay 11, AI04) d) 6 hour after delivary
a) The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months 1776. The current recommendation for breast feeding is
b) The coefficient ofuptake ofiron in breast milk is 700/o that- (AI 04)
c) Calcium absorption of human milk is better that a) Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till
that of cow's milk 6 month of age followed by supplementation with
d) It provides about 65 k cals per I 00 ml additional foods
1764. Not true about breast milk is? (AIIMS Nov 08) b) Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till
a) Maximum output is seen at 12 month 4 month of age followed by supplementation with
b) Breast milk protein is a reference protein additional foods
c) Calcium utilization from breast milk is more than c) Colostorum is the most suitable food for a new
cow's milk
born baby but it is best avoided in first two days
d) Coefficient of absorption of iron is 70%
1765. Calcium in human milk in mg/dl- (PGI Dec 97) d) The baby should be allowed to breast feed till
a) 28 b)45 one year of age
c) 35 d)55 1777. Who are NOT benificiaries ofiCDS scheme-
1766. Compared with cow's milk, mother's milk has more- a) Adolescent females (AIIMS Feb 97)
a) Lactose b) VitaminD (AI 07) b) School going children
c) Proteins d) Fat c) Pregnant females
1767. Hmnanmilk with respect to cow milk has-(PGIMay 11) d) Lactating females
a) Less fat b) Less protein 1778. Nutritional supplement for two year old child under
c) Less carbohydrate d) Less Calcium ICDS scheme is- (AIIMS June 2000)
e) Less Sodium a) 200 Calorie b) 300 Calorie
1768. What is deficient in exclusively breast fed baby- c) 400 Calorie d) 500 Calorie
a) VitaminB b) Vitamin A (AIIMS Feb 97)
1779. In ICDS the requirementin pregnantfemales is-
c) Vitamin C d) Proteins
1769. Exclusive milk ingestion can manifest as- a) 300cal, 15 gmprotein (AIIMS Nov 01)
a) Scurvy b)Beri-Beri (AIIMS 97) b) 300 cal , 25 gm protein
c) Phryenoderma d) Night blindness c) 500 cal, 15 gm protein
1770. What is absent in breast milk?(NEETIDNB Pattern) d) 500 cal , 25 gm protein
a) VitK b) Vit C 1780. Wrong about Mother and Child Health programme
c) Lactose d) Vit A is - (AIIMS May 94)
1771. Colostrum is rich in the following constituents as a) Useful for children upto 12 years of age
compared to breast milk- (AI 99) b) It's objective is to prevent against chronic
a) Minerals b) Proteins diseases
c) Fats d) Carbohydrates c) 100% immunization to be done by 200 A.D.
1772. Colostrums has in compared to normal milk - against six vaccine preventable diseases
a) Decreased K (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) To decrease acute respiratory infections
b) Decreased Na
c) Increased proteins 1781. All ofthe following are included in "Five cleans" of
d) Increased calories CSSMprogramme,except- (AIIMSDec 94)
1773. The guidelines according to Baby Friendly Hospital a) Clean cord b) Clean tie
Initiative includes all except-(AI 09, AIIMS May OJ) c) Clean perineum d) Clean room
a) Mothers and infant to be together for 24 hours a 1782. The child survival and safe mother hood (CSSM)
day programme includes all except- (AI 99)
b) Mother to initiate breast feeding within 4 hours a) Essential newborn care
of normal delivery b) Acute respiratory disease control
c) Giving newborn infants no food or drink other c) Nutrition supplementation
than breast milk d) Universal inununization
d) Encouraging breast feeding on demand
176l)a,b,d 1762)d 1763)a 1764)a 1765)c 1766)a 1767)a,b,d,e 1768)a 1769)None 1770)a 1771)b 1772)c
1773)b 1774)a 1775)a 1776)a 1777)b 1778)d 1779)None 1780)a,b 1781)c 1782)c
1783. In "safe motherhood schemes", (CSSM) major 1794. Per capita space for students is a class room should
thrust area is- (Karn 95) not be less than-- sq. feet- (PGI 80, AMU 92)
a) Promotion of reproductive health a) 5 b) 10
b) Elimination of maternal morbidity c) 20 d)50
c) Fertility regulation 1795. The school health programme came into vogne in-
d) To provide essential prenatal, Natal and postnatal a) 1946 b)l948 (PG/83)
services c) 1950 d) 1960
1796. Which country had introduced school health
MISCELLANEOUS services for the first time- (Karn 94)
a) France b) Russia
1784. Direct cash transfer scheme to adolescent girls is
c) United States ofAmerica d) India
covered under- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1797. With reference to healthful school environment
a) Indira Gandhi scheme b) Rajiv Gandhi scheme
which one of the following statements is not'
c) CSSM d) RCH
1785. Child rights are guaranteed in which article of the correct- (UPSC 2006)
constitution- (PGI Dec OJ) a) In the class room, desks should be of minus type
a) Article 24 b)Article 28 b) Per capita space per student should be 6 sq feet
c) Article 35 d) Article 42 c) Combined window and door area should be 25%
e) Article45 of the floor space
1786. The Children Act, 1960 (Amended 1977) provides d) One urinal should be provided for 60 students
for care, maintenance, welfare, training, education 1798. Perinatal mortality includes deaths-(DNB June 2010)
and rehabilitation of- (UPSC 06) a) After 28 weeks of gestation
a) Physically handicapped children b) First 7 days after birth
b) Delinquent children c) Both
c) Children below 6 years of age d) From period of viability
d) Malnourished children needing nutrition and 1799. Extended definition of perinatal mortality includes
preschool services crownheellengthof? (DNB June 2010)
1787. WHO defines adolescent age between- (AI 05) a) > 15 em at birth b)> 25 em at birth
a) 10-19yearsofage b) 10-14yearsofage c) >35cmatbirth d)>45cmatbirth
c) 10-25 years of age d) 9-14 years of age 1800. Perinatal mortality is expressed in terms of-
1788. Homes where children are placed under the care a) Deaths/1000 total births (DNB Dec 09)
of doctors and psychiatrists are called- (UPSC 04) b) Deaths/1 000 live births
a) Foster homes b) Borstals c) Deaths/ 10000 total births
c) Remand homes d) Child guidance clinics d) Deaths/1 0000 live births
1789. Boys over 16 years who are too difficult to be handled 1801. Desk for student is? (DNB June 09)
in a certified school or have misbehaved there are a) Minus desk b) Plus desk
sentto a:- (AIIMS 81, UPSC 83) c) Zero desk d) All the desks
a) Remand home b) Borstal 1802. Maternal mortility rate is- (DNB Dec 08)
c) Foster home d) Any of the above a) Maternal death/1 00 births
1790. Ujjwala is for- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Maternal death/1 00 live births
a) Child abuse b) Child trafficking c) Maternal death/ 1000 births
c) Child labour d) None d) Maternal death/1 000 live births
1791. In school health services the most important 1803. Perinatal mortality is expressed in terms of-
functionary should be- (PGI 79, AIIMS 86) a) Deaths/1000 total births (DNB June 08)
a) School teacher b) Health worker b) Deaths/1000 live births
c) Medical officer d) Health assistant c) Deaths/1 0000 total births
1792. According to school health services d) Deaths/1 0000 live births
recommendations, a school should have -(J & K 0J) 1804. The best parameter for assessment of chronic
a) 1 urinal/60 children and 1 privy for 100 children malnutrition is - (DNB Dec 07)
b) 1 urinal/SO children and 1 privy for 150 children a) Weight for age b) Weight for height
c) 1 urinal! 100 children and 1 privy for 100 children c) Height for age d) Any of the above
d) 1 urinal/1 00 children and 1 privy for 200 children 1805. Infant mortality does notinclude -(DNB Dec 07)
1793. Ideal desk recommended for a shool child a) Early neonatal mortality
is- (UP 07, OJ, PGI 80, UPSC 93) b) Perinatal mortality
a) 'Plus' desk b) 'Minus' desk c) Post neonatal mortality
c) Zero desk d) None of the above d) Late neonatal mortality
1783)d 1784)b 1785)a,e 1786)b 1787)a 1788)c 1789)b 1790)b 1791)a 1792)a 1793)b 1794)b 1795)d 1796)d
1797)b 1798)c 1799)c 1800)b 180l)a 1802)None 1803)b 1804)c 1805)b
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVEMEDICINE.£4.88]
1806. Major cause ofinfant mortality rate inlndia is-·. 1818 .. Maternal mortality refers to maternal deaths from
a) Inmuiturity (DNBJune 07) causes related to or aggravated by pregnancy and
b) Respiratory infections its management during- ·· (UPSC)
c) GIT infection a) Pregnancy, child birth or ftrst seven days after
d) Kwashiorkor delivery
1807. Homes where children are placed under the care of b) Child birth or ftrst fourteen days after delivery
doctors and psychiatrist are called- (DNB June 07) c) First 28 days after delivery
a) Foster homes b) Borstals d) Pregnancy, child birth or ftrst 42 days after
c) Remand homes d) Child guidanceclinics delivery · ··
1808. The maximum number of death in children occur 1819. All of the following are included as causes of
in following age group- (Delhi 96) maferllal death except- ' ' . . (MJiHE 07)
a) 2-5 years b) 1-2 years a) Following abortion ·· .· ·
c) ftrst 7 days · d) 6 months - 12 months b). During lactation 1st ~onth (Pueq)era.l)
1809. Infants constitute what% of population? c) During lactation 8th month . . ...
a) 2 b) 3 (Orissa 04) d) During the last tri:n:iester due to APfi . ,
c) 4 d) 5 1820. 15-50% of maternal deaths in I~diacan be averted
1810. A 14 year old boy having lost his father a year ago, ~- ~WMER9~
is caught shoplifting. The boy will be sent to- a) Appropriate Saging of delivery
a) An orphanage b) An anganwari (UPSC 02) b) Correction of anemia
c) A prison d) A remand home c) Anti malarial and tetan.us prophylaxi.s
1811. The ICDS scheme includes children upto ........ years d) Preventing puerperal haemorrhage .
ofage- (AMC 99) 1821. Among the cause of maternal mortality, which one
a) 6 b) 10 of the following is the correct descending order due
c) 4 d) 8 to which the maternal deaths occur in
1812. ICDSpackagedoesnotinclude- (AMC 99) India? (UPSC-II 08)
a) Nutrition b) Immunisation a) Haemorrhage, obstructed labour, abortion, sepsis
c) Health check up d) Formal education b) Obstructed labour, haetr10rrhag~, ~bortion, sepsis
1813. The growth monitoring of a child atAnganwadi is c) Sepsis, obstructed labour, abortion, haemorrhage
meantfor- (Karn 95) d) Haemorrhage, sepsis, abortion, obstructed labour
a) Detection of healthy babies 1822. A village with a population oflO,OOOhas a birth-
b) Diagnosis of growth retardation rate of 36/1000 population. In one year there has
c) Providing appropriate nutritional supplement been 5 maternal deaths. The MMRin this village is-
d) Estimation of malnutriton problem a)0.5 b)5 (J&K05)
1814. UndertheNationalMaternityBenefitscheme, what c) 7.2 d) 13.8
is the financial assistance given per birth for the 1823. Perinatal mortality is expressed in terms of-
first two births to all pregnant women who attain 19 a) Deaths/1 000 total births (Corned 09)
years of age and belong to BPL households ? b) Deaths/1000 live births
a) Rs. 500 b)Rs. 1,000 (UPSC-I 08) c) Deaths/ I 0000 total births
c) Rs.l,500 d)Rs.2,000 d) Deaths/1 0000 live births
1815. Low birth weight babies are at a higher risk of 1824. You were posted at aPHC catering to a population of
dying in the first week because- (UPSC 99) 1,20,000. In the year 2006, a total. number of2500
a) Congenital anomaly, birth injury and infections liver born babies were delivered. Number of children
b) Birth injury, convulsions and asphyxia dying under one year of age during 2006 was 150.
c) Convulsions, congenital anomaly and hypothermia What is the infant mortality rate of this population ?
d) Hypothermia, asphyxia and infections a) 00 b) 70 . . (UPSC-I 08)
1816. Which one of the following is categorised as a high c) 80 d)90
risk pregnancy? (UPSC-I! 08) 1825. Most common causes of perinatal mortality?
a) Birth order 3 a) Birthinjury (APPG08)
b) Maternal height 150 em b) Intra uterine infection
c) Twins pregnancy c) Birth asphyxia
d) Blood group AB +ve d)LBW
1817. The criteria for 'at risk' infant include the following 1826. According to international standards, still birth is
except- (UPSC 07) defined as weight offetus over? (MH 11)
a) Artiftcial feeding b) Grade II malnutrition a) 500gm b)850gm
c) Working mother d) Birth order 4 and more c) lOOOgm d)2000gm
1806)a 1807)c 1808)c 1809)b 1810)d 18ll)a 1812)d 1813)c 1814)a 1815)a 1816)c 1817)b 1818)d 1819)c
1820)b,d 1821)d 1822)None 1823)b 1824)a 1825)c 1826)c
SOCIAL·& PREVENTIVEMEDICINE[.4.89]
1827~ The followingdoes·not suggest deficiency in under 1838. All are criteria for normal Indian Reference male
five care in the comnl:uriity- (APPGE 05) except- (AIIMS May 08)
a) Infant mortality 'rate a) 60kg b)2200Kcallday
b) 1-4 year mortalitY ·. c) 8 hrs in bed d) 20-39 age
c) Neonatal tet~us · 1839. False aboutlndian reference female is-.
d) Deaths due·to diarrheal disease between 1-5 a) W~ighs55 kg (A11MS Nov 08)
b) Age20-39yrs ·
years
c) 8 hours of moderate work
1828. The milk ofwbich of the following contains the least
d) Walking or recreational work for 2 hours daily
amount of calcium? (UPSC-II 09)
1840. For Indian reference male is true-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
~Human b)Cow a) Weight 60 kg b) Works for 15 hours
c) Buffalo d) Goat c) Age 20-35yrs d) Daily exercise
1829. Which one is wrong about human milk- 1841. True about fudian Reference Male is-(Al.lMSMey 12)
a) Givesenergyof67KcaVl (JIPMER98) a) Age 18-29 yrs b) Weight 65 kg
b) Carbohydrate forms 40% of total energy . c) Work is mainly sedentary d) Works for 10 hrs
c) Fats forms> 50% of total energy 1842. Indian reference man is- (AI 09, AIIMS Mey I 0)
d) Proteins form 33% oftotal energy a) 55kg b)60kg
1830. Cow's milk contains what% proteins- (Orissa 05) c).65kg d)70kg
a) 1.1 b)3.2 1843. Energy requirement in late pregnancy-:-(NEETIDNB
c) 3.5 d)4.1 a) 2500 cal b) 1400 cal Pattern)
1831. Wbich one of the following nutrientis ri:wridn the c) 1000 cal d) 500 cal
. human milk as compared to cow's milk ~(UPSC 06, 1844. Extra calories in lactating mothers in first six
a) Protein . b) Calcium Corned 09) months ~ (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Cabobydrate d) Fat · a) 300 b) 500.
1832. Among the following milk sources, which one is the c) 600 d) 1000
correct sequence with decreasing fat content- 1845. The recommended daily energy intake of an adult
a) Buffalo, Cow, Goat, Human (UPSC-I1 08) womanwithheavyworkis- (AI 05)
b) Buffalo, Goat, CO,w, Huqmn a) 1800 b)2100
c) Buffalo, Human, Cow, Goat c) 2300 d) 2900
1846. Calorie requirement at 1 year of age is- (ai 96)
d) Buffalo, Goat, Human, Cow
a) 800 b) 1000
1833. Milk is a poor source of which of the following?
c) 1200 d) 1500
a) Essential fatty acids (UPSC-II 08)
1847. A 24 years old primigravida wt =57 kg, Hb 11.0
b) Iron, .
gm% visits an antenatal clinic during 2nd trimester
c) VltaminC
of pregnancy seeking advice on dieq.ry intake. She
d) VitaminA ·
should be advised- (AIIMSNov 05,Feb 97; AI 06)
1834.. In which one of the following is the caldum.content
a) Additional intake of300 K.cal
of milk lowest- · .(UPSC 06)
b) Additional intake of500K.ca1
a) Humanmilk b)Goatmilk c) Additional intake of650 K.cal
c) Cowmilk d);t)uffalomilk d) No e:x;traK.cal · · . .
1835. ICDSsehemedoes;notindude-- · (UPSC-1I 09) 1848. Additional daily energy requirement during the first
a) Children in the age group of0-6 years six months for a lactatfng woman is-
b) Primary schoolchildren .a) 350 K calories (AI1MS Nov 03, Dec 97~ Nov93;
c) Pregnant women . b) 450Kc<ilories · · · · AI99, 97)
d) Lactating women c) 550Kcalories ·
1836. In MCH programme the sampling is done by which d) 650 K calories
method- ·· (MH-00) 1849. Recommended Dietary allowance in pregnancy are-
a) Systemic 'b) ·Stratified a) +100-300cal b)30mgfron (PGINoviO)
c) Group· · d) Cluster~3o c) 4mgfolicacid d)2500mg;Mg
... •·
e) 220 J.lglodine ·
NUTRITION AND HEALTH · 1850. Which is NOT a micro nutrient- (AIIMS Sep 96)
a) Iodine b)VitaminA
c) Iron d) Vitamin C
1851. Which of the following trace element cannot be
1831; Weight of an indian referenc~ woman is •" completely supplemented by diet in pregnancy-
a) 45 kg . b) 50 kg · • (AllMS Nov 04) a) Fe b) Ca*+' · . ... (AI 99)
c) 55kg d)60kg · c) Zn .d) Manganese.
1827}c 1828)a , 1829)a,d 1830)b 1831}c 1832)b 1833)c 1834}a. 1835)b 1836)d 1837)c. 1838)b 1839)b 1840)a
184l)a 1842)b 1843)a 1844)c 1845)d 1846)b 1847)None 1848)None 1849}b,e l85())None 185l}a
PROTEINS 1860. Essential amino acids are AlE- (AI 99)

a) Leucine b) Proline
1852. Protein is assessed by- (PGI June 02) c) Lysine d) Methionine
a) Protein energy ratio b) BUN 1861. Semi essential amino acids are-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Per gm calories given d) Amino acid score a) Arginine b) Lysine
1853. Protein quality assessment is best done by- c) Leucine d) Histidine
1862. Highest amount of protein is seen
a) NPU (PGMCET 07, Kerala 94)
in- (AP85,PGI 86, Kerala 87, UPSC 88)
b) Biological value a) Soyabeans b) Groundnut
c) Digestibillity coefficient c) Bengal gram d) Mysore dhal
d) Amino acid score 1863. The reference protein is - (AIIMS Sep 96)
1854. Amino acidscoreofanimalfoods- (PGI92) a) Fish b)Egg
a) 40-50 b) 50-60 c) Rice d) Lemon
c) 70-80 d) 90-100 1864. Highest biological value of protein is seen in-
1855. Biological value is used for assessment of- (AI93) a) Eggs b) Fish (AI 94)
a) Fat quality b) Protein quality c) Soyabean d) Gram
c) Carbohydrate quality d) None 1865. Egg is ideal protein because it has- (PGI Dec 99)
1856. AllareTRUEregardingNetProteinUtilisation,except- a) High cholesterol
a) It is the increase in weight per unit weight of b) High protein per 100 gm
protein consumed (AI 2000) c) High biological efficiency and NPU
b) NPU ofcow-milkis81% d) No limiting anril;lo acid
1866. Cereals and pulses are considered complementary
c) NPU of average Indian foods is 50 80%
since - (AI 02; PGI Dec 05)
d) IfNPU is low, more protein is required
a) Cereals are deficient in methionine
1857. Which of the following statements is true about net b) Cereals are deficient in methionine and pulse are
protein utilization- (AIIMS May 11, Nov 08) deficient in lysine
a) It is the ratio of total nitrogen retained by total c) Cereals are deficient in lysine and pulses are
N2 intake multiplied by 100 deficient in methionine
b) If net protein utilization is high, the amount of d) Cereal proteins contain non - essential amino-
protein required in diet is high acids, while pulse proteins contain
c) It is the ration of energy from protein to total 1867. Pulse proteins are deficient in-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
energy in diet. a) Methionine b) Lysine
d) It is the amount of one amino acid per gram of a c) Threonine d) All
protein divided by the amount of same amino 1868. Cereal protein is deficient in which amino acid-
acid per gram of egg protein. a) Leucine b) Lysine (PGI June 97)
1858. Protein efficiency ratio is- (AI 94, 03) c) Phenylalanine d) Tryptophan
1869. What is the percent of total energy ratio supplied
a) Gain in weight per unit of protein consumed
by fish protein (PE% Kcal)- (UPSC 07)
b) Product of digestibility coefficient and biological
a) 20 b)40
value divided by 100 c) 6) d)80
c) Percentage of nitrogen retained out of the 1870. Best quality proteins are found in highest quantities
nitrogen absorbed in- (UPSC 85)
d) Percentage of protein absorbed after digestion a) Rice b) Wheat
1859. How is the protein Energy Ratio (PER) in diet c) Ragi d) Bajra
expressed as - (UPSC 07) 1871. What is the average protein requirement of a
Energy in diet referencelndianman- (AIIMS Nov 2000)
a) x 100 a) 50 gms b) 60 gms
Protein in diet c) 80gms d)40 gms
1872. In 13-15 year female child, Recommended Daily
Protein energy in diet Protein Intake is- (AIIMS May 12)
b) X 100
Total energy in diet a) 0.68 b) 0.95
c) 1 d) 1.33
Total protein in diet 1873. For a 60 Kg Indian male, the minimum daily protein
c) x 100
Total energy in diet requirement has been calculated to be 40g (mean)
& allowance of protein would be- (AI 02)
Total energy consumed a) 60g/dayb) 70g/day
d) X }00 c) 40g/dayd) 50g/ day
Total protein consumed
1852)a,dl853)a 1854)c 1855)b 1856)a 1857)a 1858)a 1859)b 1860)b 1861)a,dl862)a 1863)b 1864)a 1865)c
1866)c 1867)a 1868)b 1869)d 1870)a 187l)b 1872)c 1873)a
1874. Dally additional requirement of protein in lactation 1888. Vitamin A deficiency is considered a public health
is- (AIIMSDec 95) problem if prevalence rate of night blindness in
a) 25 gm b) 15 gm children between 6 months to 6 years is more than-
c) 35gm d)50gm a) 0.01% b) 0.05% (AIIMS May 06)
1875. Highest amount of saturated fatty acid is seen in- c) 0.1% d) 1.0%
a) Soyabean oil b) Groundnut oil (AI 08) 1889. Bitot's spot prevalence as public health problem-
c) Palm oil d) Sunflower oil a) > 1% b) > 2% (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1876. n-3 PUFAis present in all except- (AIIMS Nov 07) c) > 0.5% d) None
a) Mustard oil b) Corn oil 1890. RDA in infant of VitA is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Fish oil d) Groundnut oil
a) 350 g b) 450 g
1877. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid-
c) 600 g d) 1000 g
a) Oleic acid b) Stearic acid (AI 02)
1891. Under National Programme for Prevention of
c) Linoleic acid d) Palmitic acid
Nutritional Blindness, a child in the age group of 6-
1878. PUFAconsumptionisassociatedwith-(AIIMSNov06)
a) Lowering of serum cholesterol, rise in LDL 11 months is given a mega dose of vitamin A equal to-
cholesterol a) 50,000 ill b) 1 Lakh IU (AIIMS Nov 05)
b) Lowering of serum cholesterol, lowering of LDL c) 1.5LakhTIJ d)2LakhTIJ
cholesterol 1892. The vitamin A supplement administered in
c) Rise in serum cholesterol, rise in LDL cholesterol "Prevention of nutritional blindness in children
d) Rise in serum cholesterol, lowering of LDL programme" contain- (AI 03)
cholesterol a) 25,000i.u./ml b) 1lakhi.u./ml
1879. Vegetable fat differs from animal oil in being- c) 3lakh i.u./ml d) 5 lakh i.u./ml
a) More saturated (AIIMS June 2000) 1893. Medium term intervention for Vitamin A prophylaxis
b) More stable is - (AIIMS June 2000)
c) More atherosclerotic a) Measles immunization
d) Contains less fat soluble vitamin b) VitA supplementation
1880. The highest percentages of polyunsaturated fatty c) Fortificationoffood
acids are present in- (AIIMS May 06, AI 07, 08) d) Green leafy vegetables
a) Groundnut oil b) Soyabean oil 1894. A 10 month old child weighing 8kg has Bitot spots
c) Margarine d)Palmoil in both eyes. Which of the following is the most
1881. Eichosapentaenoic acid is present in- (AIIMS Nov appropriate schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this
a) Soyabean oil b) Corn oil 06) child- (AI 04)
c) Safflower oil d) Fish oil a) 2lakh units intramuscular (IM) on day 0, 14
1882. >50% PUFA is/are seen in- (PGI Nov I 0) b) llakh units IM on day 0, 14
a) Mustard oil b) Soyabean oil c) 2lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
c) Safflower oil d) Corn oil d) 1lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
e) Palmoil 1895. Dose of Vitamin A (I.U) and Vitamin D (I.U) in
1883. Food with maximum Cholesterol content-(AIZMS.M"ay 12) Daldais- (MAHE 98)
a) Egg b) Coconut Oil a) 1000& 100 b) 1500& 125
c) Hydrogenated Fats d) Ghee (Hydrogenated) c) 2000& 150 d)2500& 175
1896. The recommended daily requirement of vitamin A
VITAMINS forpregnantwomanis- (AMC 99)
a) 750mcg b)900mg
1884. Carotene is not found in high amounts in- c) 1200mcg d) 1500mg
a) Tomato b) Cabbage (AIIMS 94) 1897. Vitamin Dis absent in- (AIIMS June 98)
c) Potato d) Spinach a) Egg b)Milk
1885. The highest concentrations of Vitamin A is seen c) Fish fat d) Cod liver oil
in- (PGI88) 1898. Vitamin D is maximum in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Polar bear liver b) Cod liver oil a) Milk b) Fish fat
c) Shark liver oil d) Papaya c) Eggs d) Cod liver oil
1886. Vitamin A requirement in infant is- 1899. Richest sourceofvitamin Dis- (AIIMSMay07)
a) 350 g b) 600 g (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Milk b) Egg
c) 800 g d) 1000 g c) Green leafy vegetables d) Fish oil
1887. Vit. A deficiency is characterized by -(PGI Dec 04) 1900. Dose ofVit Din children with malnutrition-
a) Bitot's spot b) Xerophthalmia a) 100 ill b) 200 ill (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Night blindness d) Tranta's spot c) 60,000 ru d) 10,000 ru
1874)a 1875)c 1876)d 1877)c 1878)b 1879)d 1880)b 1881)d 1882)b,c,d 1883)a 1884)c 1885)b 1886)a
1887)a,b,c 1888)d 1889)c 1890)a 1891)b 1892)b 1893)c 1894)d 1895)d 1896)None 1897)None 1898)d
1899)d 1900)c
SOCI¥.&PREVENTIVE MEDICINE ['4.92]
1901, Niacin is synthesised from- . (Kerala 94) 1916. Zinc supplement given in·l2 month baby .;(.NEETI
a) Tryptophan . b) Tyrosine a)lgm/day b) 10 mg/day DNB Pattern)
~),Methionine d)Pbenylalanine . · c) 5 mg/day d) IS mg/day
1902~ :One mg. of Niacin is produced by ~·u·•·····mg. of 1917. Among the following, which one is not a gOOd dietary
Thyptophan- (PGI 85, 84) source ofiron- . (UPSC 07)
a) 22 . b)37 a) Liver b) Jaggery
~~ . . . ~00 . ·.· c) Fish •. d)Milk
1903. In Niacin deftcieri¢y, aJI ofthe following are seen 1918. Highestamountofironisseen,in7' · (PGI 86)
. except~ · · · ·(A/96) a) Milk .· b) Meat
a) Deafness · · b) Diarrhe~ · c) Spinach d) Jaggery
c) Dementia . . d) Dermatitis . . . 1919. Iron is maximum in .,. (NEETIDNB· Pattern)
1904. Niacin deficiency cau:se ,. (NEETIDN'B Pattern) a) Pista · b) Cashewnut
· a) Pellagra · b) Scurvy ·· · · ·· c) Meat ·. d) Milk
· , c)Rickets ····d) Lathyrism 1920. Nutrientri~hiniron- . (NEET/DNBPattern)
1905. Niacin deficiency in a maiZe-eating population is a) Almond .b) Pistachio .
dueto- · · ·· (AI 95) c) Ground nut d) Cashew nut .
a) High Tryptophan · b) Highlsoleucine 1921.. Iron absorption from intestine is regulated by-
c) High leucine , d}High Phenylalanine a) Acid secretion in stomach (KERALA 94)
1906; Jowar is Pelh.)gerogenkdue to. excess of- · b) Reducing substances in food ... · .
a) Leucine b) Lysine (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Mucosal block in the intestinal cells in according
c) Tryptophan d) Methionine · to iron requirement
1907. Beri-Beriis caused by- (AI 99) d) Alkalin.e medium in small intestine .......
a) Tirian;lip.e .·· · · · ,}>)Folic. acid 1922. Iron requirement in pregnancy,-,(NEET/DNB Pattern)
. . . c) Riboflavl:p d) Niacin .. a) lOOOmg b)35mg
1908. Thiamine deficiency is ~~en il) :tUexcept- .. c) 500mg d)800mg
a) Chronic diarrhoea· ·· · · · ·. (A!I/v!S May 07) 1923. Extra iron requireme:n:t for pregn!lnt wqmen in
b) Chronic alcoholism . IJ:uJia~ .. ·. · · · . . . . . (ljE~Til(}{B ,P,attern)
c) Homocystinemia a)l5 ing b)25 mg . . .
d) Food faddist . . .· .. . .·. ...... . . . c) 30 rug ·. d) 35 mg' ' . .
1909.. ,For every fOo kiiocalo.r~e~~·vita.Din B1 required 1924. Daily iron requirement in healthy litdian male is-
.. is'-'··.· ..... · .·· .. ·.· ..·. . (AI1MS8l,AMC87) a) 35 mg . . b) 17 mg. . ·. (NEETIDNB
a) o:os nig b) ' 0.5 mg . ' c) 10 mg d) 5 mg Pattern)
c) 5.0mg d) ·.. · l.Ogm .. , 1925. According to the WHO criteria, anaemhtin infants
1910. TRUE about folic ~tcid and vitamin B12 is all, of 6 months age is defined as lib lessthan -
except- · · · . · · (AIIMS June 99) a) 100 gmllitre b) i05 ,gm/litre (AIIJ)fS Nov OJ)
a) Both are required for DNA synthesis c) 110 gfu/litre · d) 115 gm/litre
b) Reconuneii(jed daily allowances for Folic acid is 1926. Best test to detect iron deficiency in comiPuirlty is-
1000 n:ricro gtarns ' · · · ·· · a) Jransferrin b) Serum ferritin (Af OJ)
· c) Vegetarians have vitamin B 12 deficit ·. c) Seiuili iion . d) Hei:nogl(jbib · ··
d) Deficiency ofboth causes megaloblastic anaemia 1927. First indices to change in iron deficiency anemia
1911. VitaminB 12 is notfound in- . (AI 97) is - · · (AI 97, 94)
a) Soyabean · · · b)Milk · a) S. iron b) Total iron binding capacity
c) Meat d)Fish c) s. ferritin d) s. haemoglobin concentration
1912. Which of the following drugs is supposed toprevent 1928. Tablets supplied by Govt. of India contain the
congenital neural tube defects- (AI 95) following · amdu.D.t of iron and folic
a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin· • · · · · 1tcid- (AIIMSMay 04, AI03;PGI June 2K)
c) Folic acid d) Pyridoxine a) 60 mg elemental iron+ 500 g FA
1913. On exposure to sunlight which Vitamin is lost- b) 100 ing elemental iron+ 500 gFA ·
a)VitaminA b)VitaminB 1 · (AMC2K) c) 200mgelementaliron+ I gFA
c) Vitamin B6 d) Vitamin C d) 100mgelementaliron+5 gFA
1914. The highest quantities of vitamin C is.found 1929. Elementaliron and folic acid contents of pediatric
in- (AP85, PGI86,Kerala87, UPSC88) iron folic aeid tablets supplied under Rural Child
a) Orange b)Lemon Heltlth (RCH) programme are- . ·(AI 03)
c) Indian gooseberry · d)Grapes a) 20 mg iron & 100 microgram folic acid'
1915, The daily requir:ementofVitamin Cis- · (AP 85) ·b) 40mg.iron& 100 n:ricrogfamfolicacid
a) 40mg. b)lOOmg. c) 40 mg iron &50 n:ricrogram folic acid ·
c) 200mg. · d)500mg. d) 60 mg iron & I 00 n:ricrogram folic acid ·
1901)a 1902)d 1903)a 1904)a 1905)c 1906)a 1907)a 1908)c 1909)a 1910)b 1911)a: 1912)c 1913)d 1914)c
1915)a I916)c 1917)d J918)b. 1919)c 1920)d 1921)c I922)b 1923)a· l924)b I925)c 1926)b ·1927)c 1928)h
1929)a
1930. Total body iodine is about- (PG/85, PG/83) 1944. Ragi is richest source of- (AI95)
a) 20mg b)30mg a) Carbohydrates b) Iron
c) 40mg d) 50mg c) Calci\llll d) Proteins
1931. Richest source ofiodine ~ (PG/99) 1945. What is known as 'poor man's meat'- (NEETIDNB
a) Sea food b) Milk a) Milk b) Pulses Pattern)
c) Meat d) Butter c) Fish d) egg
1932. Iodine RDA is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1946. AboutSoyabean true- (AIIMSMay 93)
a) 300 microgram b) 500 microgram a) Protein 40%
c) 150 microgram d). 50 microgram b) Minerals 8%
1933. The recommended content oflodine in salt at the c) Digestibility coefficient 75%
consumer level is- (Corned 08)
d) Highest quality protein amongst vegetarian food
a) lOppm b) 15 ppm
1947. Which one of the following pulses has the highest
c) 20ppm d) 30 ppm
content of iron- (AIIMS May 05)
1934. Iodine deficiency control programme-
a) Health education (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Bengal gram b) Black gram
b) Water testing c) Red gram d) Soyabean
c) Fortification of salt
d) None
1935. Spectrum ofiDD does NOT include- (APPGE 05)
a) Still births b) Hyperactivity 1948. Egg has all vitamins except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Deafness d) Delayed development a) Bl b)B6
1936. Efficiency of the goiter control program can be c) C d)E
assessed by- (AIIMS Nov 06) 1949. Egg lacks the following- (APPGE 05)
a) Neonatal thyroxine levels a) Protein b) Cholesterol
b) Goitre in pregnancy c) Carbohydrate d) Vitamins
c) Goitre in the age group of 12 to 18 yr 1950. Egg yields about .............K cal of energy-
d) Soil iodine levels a) 50 b)60 (UPSC 97)
1937. Best method to measure goitre prevalence rate in c) 70 d)80
community is- (AIIMS Sep 96, AI 05) 1951. Fat contentis highestin .............. - (A/98)
a) Neonatal hypothyroidism a) Beef b) Mutton
b) Iodine level in salt c) Chicken d) Fish
c) Adult hypothyroidism 1952. Fish is deficient in which of the following nutrients?
d) Thyroid function test screening a) Iron b) Iodine (AIIMSMayll.Nov08)
1938. As per the World Health Organisation guidelines, c) VitaminA d) Phosphorous
iodine deficiency disorders are endemic in a 1953. Kesban cardiomegaly- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
community if the prevalence of goiter in school age a) Se b) Cu
children in more than - (AIIMS Nov 02) c) Zn d) Fe
a) 1% b)5% 1954. Malnutrition in India is mainly attributed to-
c) 100/o d) 15% a) Protein deficiency (JIPMER 81, KERALA 90)
1939. Iodine comes in iodine salt Requirement in humans- b) VitaminAdeficiency
a) 5 PPM b) 15 PPM (NEETIDNBPattern) c) Iron deficiency
c) 25 PPM d) 35 PPM d) All of these
1940. Rice contains- (AP 96) 1955. Commonest malnutrition in India- (PG/96)
a) 20% protein b) 12% of protein a) Protein deficiency b) Calorie deficiency
c) 14% of protein d) 0.6% ofpotein c) VitaminAdeficiency d) Iron deficiency
e) 6.8% of protein 1956. Classification of grades of protein energy
1941. Par boiling of paddy helps in retaining- (Karn 94) malnutrition given by Indian academy of peadiatrics
a) VitaminC b) VitaminA as adopted- (UP SC 2K)
c) Niacin d) 'Thiamine a) ICMR standards
1942. Lysine is not presentin- (A/88) b) Standards developed by national institute of
a) Wheat b) Rice nutrition , Hyderabad
c) Bengal gram d) red gram c) Local standards
e) Red gram dhall d) NCHS standards
1943. Maizearedeficientin- (A/97) 1957. Index of durationofmalnutritionis- (PG/83)
a) Typtophan b) Threonine a) Weight for height b) Height for age
c) Methionine d) Leucine c) Weight for age d) None
1930)d 193l)a 1932)c 1933)b 1934)c 1935)b 1936)a 1937)a 1938)b 1939)b 1940)e 194l)c,d 1942)a 1943)a
1944)c 1945)b 1946)a 1947)d l948)c 1949)c 1950)c 1951)a 1952)a 1953)a 1954)d 1955)d 1956)a 1957)b
1958. Index of severity of malnutrition is- (PGI 83) 1970. Which of the following statements is/are true about
a) Weight for height b) Height for age lathyrism- (PGI Dec 08)
c) Weight for age d) None a) Vitamin C prophylaxis
1959. Grade m malnurtition according to lAP is- b) Banning of crop
a) 500/o b)51-60% (PGIJune99) c) Flaccid paralysis
c) 61-800/o d) 81-100% d) Parboiling detoxicates pulses
1960. A 2 year old child has a weight of 6.4 kg. and has e) BOAA is causative toxin.
vitamin A deficiency. What is the grade of 1971. Active principal ofLathyrus sativa is- (AIIMS
malnutrition in this child- (AIIMS 87) a) Pyrrolizidine b) Sanguinarine June 97)
a) First degree b) Second degree c) BOAA d) Jhunjhunia
c) Third degree d) Fourth degree 1972. Milk borne diseases are- (PG!May 11)
1961. The following statement about Gomez classification a) Salmonellosis b) E. coli
is false - (AI 08) c) Streptococcus d) Tub~rculosis
a) Based on height retardation e) Q fever
b) Based on 50th centile Boston standards 1973. True about Pasteurization of milk is all except-
c) Between 75 and 89% implies mild malnutrition a) Does not kill thermoduric bacteria (AI 2000)
d) This classification has prognostic value for b) Does not kill spores
hospitalization of children c) Cause> 95% decrease in bacterial count
1962. Village Health Guide measures the state of d) Kills tubercle bacillus
malnutrition in an under 5 child by using- (AI 2000) 1974. The following tests are used to check the efficiency
a) Mid arm circumference b) Weight for age of pasteurization of mild except- (AI 05)
c) Skin fold thickness d) Height for age a) Phosphatase test
1963. Assessment ofMalnutrition is/are done by all except: b) Standard plate count
a) Creatinine-height index (PGI May 10) c) Coliform count
b) Transferrin d) Methylene blue reduction test
1975. Which is not used in pasteurization-
c) Total lymphocyte count
a) Phosphatase test (NEET/DNB Pattern)
d) Albumin concentration
b) Methylene blue test
e) Folate concentration
c) Coliform count
1964. Double edged sword is- (AMC 84,85,89, PGI 82) d) Standard plate count
a) Chlorine b) Fluorine 1976. Efficiency of pasteurization can be best assessed
c) Lead d) Selenium by? (NEET/DNB Pattern, AI 11, AIIMS Nov 08)
1965. True regarding fluorosis are all except- a) Oxidase test b) Phosphatase test
a) Fluorosis is the most common cause of dental c) Catalase test d) Indole test
caries in children (AIIMS Nov 07) 1977. Post pasteurized milk's qualiy is tested
b) Fluorosis can cause fluoride deposition in bones by- (AIIMS Nov 08)
c) Defluoridation is done by Nalgonda technique a) Phosphatase test b) Methylene blue test
d) Fluorosis can cause genu valgum c) Catalase test d) Oxidase test
1966. 'NALGONDAtechnique'isusedin- (AI 99) 1978. Pasteurization of milk is achieved by boiling
a) Endemic-fluorosis b) Epidemic-dropsy at- (NEETIDNB Pattern, PGI June 97)
c) Endemic-ascites d) Neurolathyrism a) 65° c for 30 min b) 72° for 10 sec
1967. Process of deflouridation of water is - c) 100°for20sec d) l36°for30sec
a) Nalgonda technique (NEET/DNB Pattern) 1979. Hepatotoxic carcinogen is produced by-
b) NlNH a) Aspergillus flavus (PGI June 98)
c) Sand filter b) Claviceps fusiformis
d) Parboiling c) Aspergillus fumigatus
1968. Lathryism is due to - (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Argemone mexianna
a) Khesari dal b) Aflatoxins 1980. Aflatoxin is produced by- (PGI June 99)
a) Aspergillus flavus
c) Aspergillus d) Fluoride
b) Aspergillus farnigatus
1969. BOAAis- (Al96)
c) Calviceps purpura
a) Beta-oxalyl amino alanine
d) Argemone mexicana
b) Beta-oxalo acetoacetate
1981. Aflatoxin is produced by? (AI 11)
c) Beta-oxalyl aminoacetate a) Aspergillus niger b) Aspergilus flavus
d) Beta-oxalyl acetylacetate c) Candida albicans d) Actinomycetes
1958)a 1959)b 1960)c 1961)a 1962)a 1963)None 1964)b 1965)a 1966)a 1967)a 1968)a 1969)a
1970)a,b,d,e 197l)c 1972)All 1973)c 1974)d 1975)b 1976)b 1977)a 1978)a 1979)a 1980)b 1981)b
1981. Sanguinarine is derived from- (AI 97) 1992. All are indicators for the assessment of the
a) Fusorium incamatum b) Argemone oil nutritional programm except- (AIIMS May 01)
c) Jhumjhujia seeds d) Khesari-dhal a) Weight and height of the preschool child
1982. Epidemic dropsy is due to- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Prevalence of low Birth weight (less than 2.5 kg)
a) BOAA b) Aflatoxin in community
c) Mustard oil d) None c) Nutritional assessment of the preschool child
1983. All are features of epidemic dropsy, except- d) Prevalence of pregnant mothers having Hb <
a) Glaucoma b) Diarrhoea (AIIMS Sep 96) 11.5 g % in the 3'd trimester
c) Convulsion d) Heart failure 1993. Regarding nutritional status assessment, not true
1984. Manifestations of epidemic Dropsy are all except- is- (AI 09)
a) 1-4 years mortality b) Babies< 2.5 kg
a) Gastrointestinal bleed (PGI May II)
c) Mother'sHb < 11.5 d) None ofthe above
b) Cutaneous hemangiomas
1994. Mid-day meals provided in schools provide- (AI 97)
c) Breathlessness
a) 1/2 of total calories & 1/2 of protein
d) CHF b) 1/3 of total calories & 112 of protein
e) Glaucoma c) 112 of total calories & l/3 of protein
1985. Responsible for epidemic dropsy is- (NEET/DNB d) 113 oftotal calories & 1/4 of protein
a) Sanguinarine Pattern,PGI Dec 99, AIIMS Nov 07) 1995. Students receive how much cereal/day in mid day
b) Ergot alkaloids meal prog - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Pyrazolidine alkaloids a) 50 grn b) 100 grn
d) Aflatoxin c) 150 gm d) 75 grn
1986. Most sensitive & specific test for sanguinane- 1996. Suggestions to improve nutritious value of Mid-day
a) Fe Cl3 b) NO (NEETIDNB Pattern) meal- (PGI Nov II)
c) HQ d) Nitric Acid a) Sprouted pulse should be added as it has more
1987. Endemic ascitis is associated with the following- nutrient
a) Pyrrolizidine (AIIMS May 08, Nov 06) b) Cereals-pulse ratio of 1:3
b) Aflatoxin c) Rice water left after cooking should be mixed
c) Sanguinarine withdal
d) Beta oxalylamino alanine (BOAA) d) Fermentation J, nutritive value
e) Food grain should be stored away from moist area
MISCELLANEOUS 1997. Which of the following is the nodal ministry for
Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
1988. One of the following is not reported to be a clinical Programme Centre- (AIIMS May 04)
a) Ministry for Human Resource Development
manifestation of Zinc deficiency in children-
b) Ministry for Rural Development
a) Dwarfism and hypogonadism (DPG II)
c) Ministry for Health and Family Welfare
b) Liver and spleen enlargement
d) Social Justice
c) Impaired cell-mediated immunity
1998. Mid day meal programme comes under-
d) Macrocytic anaemia a) Ministry of Social Welfare (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1989. Trueabontdietaryfibres (PGI Nov IO) b) Ministry of education
a) Increase stool transit time c) Ministry of Human Resources Developments
b) Decrease post prandial glucose d) None
c) Decrease bile salt reabsorption 1999. The daily requirement offa tis ........... % oftotal
d) Decrease LDL cholestrol energy- (PGI 2K)
e) i Bulk of stool a) 10 b) 15
1990. Which of the following statements about Nutritional c) 20 d)25
surveillance is not true- (AI 08) e) 30
a) It is a diagnostic approach 2000. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 325 gm
b) Assessment involves precise measurements of carbohydrate, 65 gm protein and 35 gms fat in his
weight and height diet : the most applicable statement here is - (AI 0I)
c) Assessment is done by trained persons a) His total calorie intake is 3000 kcal
d) Done in all children <5 years b) The proportion of proteins, fats and
1991. What is/are components ofNutrition surveillance? carbohydrates is correct and in accordance with
a) Policy maker (PGI Dec 05) a balanced diet
b) Nutritional survey c) He has a negative nitrogen balance
d) 30% of his total energy intake is derived from fat
1982)c 1983)c 1984)a 1985)a 1986)d 1987)a 1988)d 1989)b,c,d,e 1990)d 199l)a,b 1992)d 1993)c 1994)b
1995) d 1996) a,c,e 1997) a 1998) b 1999) b,c,d,e 2000) b
2001. Calcium requirement above the normal during the 2013. RDA of calcium in normal adult male is?
first six month oflactation is- (AI92) a) 800mg b) 400 mg (DNB June 2011)
a) 400mg/day b) 550mg/day c) 1200mg d) lOOmg
c) 600mg/day d) 750mg/day 2014. All of the following are sources of vitamin A except:
2002. Adult non-pregnant female requires, calcium per a) Egg b) Milk (DNB June 2011)
day- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Sunflower seeds d) Tomato
a) 400 mg b) 600 mg 2015. Minimal level ofiodine at consumer level should be
c) 800 mg d) 1000 mg
............... ppm: (DNB June 2011)
2003. RDA cover of nutrient requirement of- (Kerala 08)
a) 50% of individuals a)5 b)lO
b) 75% of individuals . c) 15 d)30
c) 98% of individuals 2016. Reference weight oflndian men and women is?
d) Same as adequate intake a) 60 and 50 kg (DNB Dec 09)
2004. Dietary Reference Intake recommendations include b) 55 and 50 kg
allexcept- (AIIMSNov07) c) 65and55kg
a) Recommended Dietary Allowances d) 45 and 50 kg
b) Adequate Intake 2017. Which of the following is the richest source of
c) Upper tolerable level Vitamin C ? (DNB Dec 09)
d) Food based dietary advice a) Orange b) Guava
2005. Which of the following statements about c) Cabbage d)Amla
recommended daily allowance is false- (AI 08) 2018. Which of the following fats has the highest
a) The RDA is decided by a panel of experts and is concentration of saturated fatty acids -
based on scientific research a) Butter ' b) Palm oil (DNBDec 09)
b) The RDA caters to the dietry requirement of all c) Coconut oil d) Margarine
people 2019. Pulse proteins are poor in? (DNB June 09)
c) The RDA is often higher than the recommended a) Methionine b) Lysine
minimum requirement c) Threonine d) Alanine
d) The RDA is based on the estimated average 2020. Poor man's iron source is? (DNB June 09)
requirement (EAR) a) Almond b) Grapes
2006. All are food fortification except- (KERALA 94) c) Soya d) Jaggery
a) Addition of colour to saccharin 2021. Age independent anthropometric measure of
b) Addition of VitA to food stuff malnutrition is? (DNB June 09)
c) Addition of extra nutrients to food stuff a) Weight/height
d) Iodisation of salt b) Mid arm circumference
2007. High potassium diets are- (PGI Dec 08) c) Head circumference
a) Green leafy vegetables b) Milk d) Mid arm circumference/height
c) Banana d) Iodised salt 2022. Among the pulses, the highest quantity of protein is
e) Fish present in- (DNB June 09)
2008. Cereals are deficientin? (DNB Dec 2011) a) Green gram b) Red gram
a) Alanine b) Lysine c) Soyabean d) Black gram
c) Methionine d) Cysteine 2023. Indian reference man- (DNB Dec 08)
2009. Endemic cretinism is seen when Iodine uptake is a) 55 kg b) 60 kg
less than? (DNB Dec 2011) c) 65kg d)70kg
a) 5 micro gram/day b) 20 micro gram/day 2024. Among the pulses, the highest quantity of protein is
c) 50 micro gram/day d) 75 micro gram/day present in- (DNB Dec 08)
2010. The toxic agent in epidemic dropsy a) Green gram b) Red gram
includes- (DNB Dec 2011) c) Soyabean d) Black gram
a) BOAA b) Ergot alkaloids 2025. "Maldon Teeth" is due to- (DNB Dec 08)
c) Sanguinarine d) None ofthe above a) Lead b) Fluoride
2011. Milk pasteurization can be tested by- c) Calcicum d) Phosphorus
a) Orthotolidine test (DNB Dec 2011)
2026. Lathyrism results due to - (DNB June 08)
b) Phosphatase test a) Aflatoxin b) BOAA
c) Nitric acid test c) Pyruvic acid d) Sanguinarine
d) Acid chromatin test
2027. n-3 PUFA is present in all except- (DNB June 08)
2012. Cause of epidemic dropsy is? (DNB June 2011)
a) Mustard oil b) Com oil
a) Pyrolizidine b) Sanguinarine
c) Fish oil d) Groundnut oil
c) Fusarium toxin d) BQAA
2001)c 2002)b 2003)c 2004)d 2005)b 2006)a 2007)a,b,c,e 2008)b 2009)b 2010)c 2011)c 2012)b
2013)None 2014)c 2015)c 2016)None>a 2017)d 2018)c 2019)a 2020)d 202l)a,b 2022)c 2023)b 2024)c
2025)b 2026)b 2027)d
2028. Fish is deficient in which of the following 2040. The reference protein is- (UPSC 85, 86,
nutrients? (DNB June 08) a) Cow's milk b) Hens Egg Jipmer 88, 86,
a) Iron b) Iodine c) Meat d) Fish ALLHPH OJ)
c) VitaminA d) Phosphorous 2041. Which of the following has the highest protein
2029. True about mide-day meal given in school is- content per 100 gm ? (Delhi PG Mar. 09)
Calories Proteins (DNB June 08) a) Egg b) Groundnut
a) l/3 l/2 c) Soyabean d) Meat
b) 113 1/3 2042. Protein requirement of 4 kg new born (daily)-
c) 1/2 112 a) 3gm b)7 gm (A11HPH98)
d) 1/2 1/3 c) 9 gm d) II gm
2030. Reference protein is- (DNB Dec 07) 2043. Limiting amino acid in soyabean is- (PG1 78, AIIMS
a) Egg b) Fish a) Threonine b) Lysine 85, ALLHPH OJ)
c) Milk d) Meat c) Methionine d) Tryptophan
2031. Lysine is deficient in- (DNB Dec 07) 2044. Among the pulses, the highest quantity of protein
a) Pulse b) Wheat is present in- (Corned 08)
c) Both of the above d) None of the above a) Green gram b) Red gram
2032. The best indicator for monitoring the impact of c) Soyabean d)Blackgram
the Iodine Deficien~y Disorders Control 2045. Which ofthe following is least in protein quality ?
Programme is- (DNB Dec 07) a) Gelatin b) Lactalbumin (APPG 08)
a) Prevalence of goiter among school children c) Albumin d) Cashewnut protein
b) Urinary iodine levels among pregnant woemn. 2046. Saturated fatty acid is present in high quantity -
c) Neonatal hypothyroidism a) Coconut oil b) Sunflower oil (Assam 95)
d) Iodine level in soil c) Safflower oil d) Soyabeen
2033. Phosphatase test in milk is done to know- 2047. The highest percentage of essential fatty acid is
a) Quality ofpasteurizatrion (DNB Dec 07) found in- (Orissa 99)
b) Contaminationofmilk a) Butter fat (ghee) b) Sunflower seed oil
c) Nutritive value c) Com oil d) Ground nut oil
d) Coliform count 2048. Maximum amount ofPUFA is in- (UPSC 2002)
2034. The daily extra calorie requirement in first a) Palmitic acid b) Stearic acid
trimester of pregnancy is- (DNB June 07) c) Oleic acid d) Linoleic acid
a) 50 b) 150 2049. Which one of the following cooking oils contains
c) 350 d)450 highest percentage ofllnoleic acid ?- (UPSC 2006)
2035. Daily requirment ofiron in pregnancy is- a) Safflower oil b) Sunflower oil MP 98)
a) lmg b)2mg (DNBJune07) c) Com oil d) Groundnutoil
c)3mg d)3.5mg 2050. Which one of the following edible oil yields highest
2036. Net Protein utilization offish is- (DNB June 07) quantity of Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids?
a) 57% b)67% a) Coconut oil b) Com oil (UPSC 04)
c) 77% d)87% c) Groundnut oil d) Sunflower oil
2037. The value of proteins in Soyabean is about- 2051. Among the following which has the highest quantity
a) 43% b) 50% (DNB June 07) of retinol per 100 g of fruit? (UPSC-11 09)
c) 58% d)64% a) Papaya b) Orange
2038. Which of the following method of assessment of c) Ripe mango d) Tomato
quality of proteins gives complete assessment of 2052. The earliest clinical sign of Vitamin A deficiency
proteinquality? (MH 11) is - (Corned 08)
a) Biological value a) Conjunctival xerosis b) Corneal xerosis
b) Net protein utilization c) Bitots spots d) Keratomalacia
c) Digestibility coefficient 2053. Dose ofvitamin A prophytaxis given in age group 1-
d) Amino acid score 6 years - (PGMCET 07)
2039. Wrong statement is- (SGPG1 05) a) 2000iu b)20000iu
a) Pulses are diffident in methionine c) 200000 iu d) I 00000 iu
b) Cerels are deficient in lysine 2054. Daily regularment ofVit A in children is -
c) Wheat deficient in threonine a) 40 b)400 (SGPG105)
d) Maize is deficient in tryptophan & leucine c) 1500 d)5000
2028)a 2029)a 2030)a 2031)b 2032)a 2033)a 2034)c 2035)d 2036)c 2037)a 2038)b 2039)d 2040)b 2041)c
2042)None 2043)c 2044)c 2045)a 2046)a 2047)c 2048)d 2049)a 2050)b 2051)c 2052)a 2053)c 2054)b
2055. Absorption of vitamin A can be enhanced by 2067. The net protein utilization of rice is- (MP 98)
giving the child a diet rich in- (UPSC 07) a) 200/o b)40%
a) Fat b)Protein c) 63% d)81%
c) Minerals d) Carbohydrates 2068. The genetically engineered 'golden rice' is rich in-
2056. In South India pellagra is reported in population a) ~-carotene and magnesium (UPSC-1 08)
eating- (KARNAT98) b) Folic acid and iron
a) Ragi b)Jowar c) ~-carotene and iron
c) Bajra d) Minor millets d) Folic acid and magnesium
2057. As per nutritional surveys, the diet of an average 2069. The distinct golden colour in transgenic Golden rice
Indian of lower socioeconomic strata is highly is due to the presence of- (UPSC-1 09)
a) Riboflavin b) ~-carotene
deficientin- (UPSC 99)
c) VitaminB 12 d) Xanthophyll
a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin
2070. Soyabeanisrichin- (J&K 2001)
c) Nicotinic acid d) Vitamin C
a) Lysine b) Aspartic acid
2058. Folic acid supplementation during lactation c) Glycine d) Alanine
period is- (UP 07) 2071. Dates are rich source of- (APPGE 04)
a) 100 g/d b) 150 g/d a) Calcium b) Iron
c) 400 g/d d)450 g/d c) VrtC d) Carotene
2059. For which one of the following has the cytotoxic 2072. All ofthe following are used to assess the nutritional
effect of vitamin on human lymphocytes in vitro at status of an individual, except- (UP 97)
high concentration been reported- (UPSC 2006) a) Urinary nitrogen excretion
a) VitaminA b) Vitamin D b) Mid arm circumference
c) VitaminE d) Vitamin K c) Serum immunoglobulin
2060. Which of the following is the richest source of d) Serum transferrin
Vitamin C? (Delhi PG Mar. 09) 2073. Second degree of under nutrition means-(Orissa 99)
a) Orange b) Guava a) Weight below 50% of the harvard standard
c) Cabbage d)Amla b) Weight below 60% of the harvard standard
2061. The haemoglobin cut-off level for determining c) Weight between 60% & 81% of the harvard
prevalence of anemia among pregnant women standard
is- (KARN.99, Aiims 97, MAHE 05) d) Weight between 60% & 71% ofthe harvard standard
a) Less than 15g/dL b) Less than 13 g/dL 2074. Severe wasting is- (ORISSA R)
c) Less than 11 g/dL d) Less than 19 g/dL a) <60% b)<70%
2062. Elemental iron supplementation in Iron deficiency c) <80% d)<90%
anemiais- (UP08) 2075. The defluoridations process of drinking water
developed by theNEERI is popularly known as-
a) 300-400mg b) 150 200mg
a) Activated sludge process (KARN 95)
c) 100-150mg d)< 100mg
b) Recarbonation process
2063. In Iron deficiency anemia, after haemoglobin level
c) Nalgonda process
has returned to normal so that iron stores are d) Double pot method
replenished. The Iron tablets should be 2076. Nalgonda technique is related to? (MH 11)
recommended for- (UP 08) a) Fluorine b) Chlorine
a) 0-3 months b) 3-6 months c) Nitrate d) Nitrites
c) 6 12 months d) 12- 24 months 2077. Methylene blue reduction test is done for estimating-
2064. UnderthePreventionofFoodAduheration(PFA)Act, a) Fat content of milk (KARN 94, UPSC 88)
the expected level of iodine in iodized salt at b) Sugar content of milk
production levelis NOT less than- (Karn 11) c) Protein content of milk
a) 30ppm b)25ppm d) Bacterial activity in milk
c) 20ppm d) 15 ppm 2078. Pasteruisation of milk does not kills -
2065. Iodised salt was first started in which country? a) Anthrax (Rajasthan 97, TN90)
a) India b) UK (Jharkand 03) b) Brucella
c) Switzerland d)Germany c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2066. As per WHO guidelines, iodine deficiency disorders d) Streptococcus
are endemic in the community when prevalence of 2079. Test for detecting argemoue oil Contamination
goitre in school age children is more than- does notinclude- (AMC 99)
a) 1% b)5% (HP 2006) a) Nitric acid test b) Paper chromatography test
100/o 15% c) Aldehyde test d) None
2055)a 2056)b 2057)a 2058)None 2059)c 2060)d 2061)c 2062)c 2063)a 2064)a 2065)a 2066)b 2067)c
2068)c 2069)b 2070)a 2071)a 2072)c 2073)d 2074)b 2075)c 2076)a 2077)d 2078)a 2079)c
2080. Which is first and commonest clinical manifestation 2090. Vital layer in slow sand filter is seen in-(APPGE 04)
of Epidemic dropsy- (Orissa 99) a) Top of water b) On the sand bed
a) Bilateral swelling oflegs c) Near filter d) None
b) Gastrointestinal upsets 2091. Most important layer of a slow sand filter is-
c) Cardiac decomposition a) Vital layer b) Sand bed (Kerala 08)
d) Sarcoid c) Filter system d) Raw water
2081. TheiCDSschemeissponsoredby- (ALLHPH01) 2092. Slow sand filter is differentiated from rapid sand
a) Ministry ofhealth & family welfare filter by- (PG!June 08)
b) Ministry of Social welfare a) Bacteria are removed more effectively
c) Ministry of education b) Skilled person is needed
d) None c) Cost construction is cheaper
2082. Which one of the following Union Ministers d) Sand particles are of smaller size
administers the "Nutritional Programme for e) Longer duration is needed
Adolescent Girls"? (UPSC-1 09) 2093. Feature of slow filter (w.r.t. fast filter) is/are:
a) Ministry ofHealth and Family Welfare a) Occupies less space (PGI May 10)
b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment b) Highly skilled operation
c) Ministry ofWomen and Child Development c) Poor bacterial quality
d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty d) Takes more time for purification
Alleviation e) Size of sand is smaller
2083. Which one ofthe following describes the flavouring 2094. True about slow sand filter is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
substance asafoetida (Hing)? (UPSC-1 08) a) Occupies less space
a) Dried leaf extract b) More expensive
b) Exudate from chopped roots c) Requires longer duration
c) Pith of stem boiled and dried d) Sand size 0.4- 0.7 mm
d) Dried and hardened paste of fruit 2095. What is the size of particle is rapid sand filter?
a) O.lmm b)0.2 (APPG 08)
ENVIRONMENT AND HEALTH c) 0.5 d) 0.4 to 0.7 mm
2096. Which part of chlorine disinfection is most
WATER effective?- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Hypochlorous acid b) Hypochlorous ion
2084. Daily per capita water consumption is -{AI1HPH 2K c) Hypochlorite ion d) None
a) 50-lOOlitres Delhi92, UPSC87) 2097. All of the following are true about break point
b) 100-150 litres chlorination, except- (AIIMS May 04)
c) 150-200 litres a) Free chlorine is released in water after break point
d) 200-250 litres chlorination
2085. Safe yield of water source- (PG1 91) b) Chlorine demand is the amount needed to kill
a) Adequate supply for 50% of the year bacteria, oxidize organic matter and neutralize
b) Adequate supply for 60% of the year ammonia
c) Adequate supply for 80% of the year c) 1 ppm free chlorine should be present in water
d) None after break point has reached
2086. Ground water has the following advantages except- d) Contact period of 1 hour is necessary
a) Likely to be free from pathogenic organisms 2098. Which one of the following is the level of residual
b) Usually requires no treatment (Kerala 04) free chlorine recommended for swimming pool water
c) Supply is likely to be certain even during dry disinfection? (UPSC-II 08)
season a) 0.5 mg/litre b) 0.8 mgllitre
d) Likely to be hard c) 1 mg/litre d) 5 mg/litre
2087. All are water borne disease, except- (AIIMS Dec 9 7) 2099. Following are true regarding chlorination except-
a) Leptospirosis b) Schistosomiasis a) Residual chlorine is 0.5 mg/lit. (AI 93)
b) Fish tape worm d) Brucellosis b) Contact period- 30 minute
2088. Which of the following is water related disease- c) Water should not be turbid
a) Yellow fever b) Scabies (AI 89) d) Chlorine demand should be estimated
c) Cholera d) Dysentery 2100. Orthotolidinetestis used to determine-
2089. Which of the following is purification of water at a) Nitrates in water (AIIMS Nov 04, PGI June 06,
large scale- (PG1 June 08) b) Nitrites chlorine in water AI 11)
a) Disinfection of well b) Rapid sand filter c) Free and combined chlorine in water
c) Slow sand filter d) Household purification d) Ammonia content in water
2080) a 2081) b 2082) c 2083) b 2084) c 2085) None 2086) d 2087) d 2088) a 2089) b,c 2090) b 2091) a
2092)a,c,d,e 2093)d,e, 2094)c 2095)d 2096)a 2097)c 2098)c 2099)b 2100)c
2101. OrthotoluidineArsenite test determines- (PGI 06) 2112. Fluoride to be present in water (mg/L) to prevent
a) Free residual chlorine caries - (PGI Dec 97)
b) Combined chlorine a) 0.2 b)0.4
c) Free and combined chlorine separately c) 0.3 d)0.5
d) Free and combined chlorine together 2113. Indication of Fecal contamination of water is due to
2102. Residual chlorine is detected by- (AIIMS Dec 9 5) presence of- (PG1 Dec 03)
a) Horrock's test b) Ortho-toluidine test a) E.coli b)Coliform
c) Chromatography d) Polarimeter c) Enterococci d) Clostridium difficile
2103. Which one of the following method is used for the e) Streptococcus pyogene
estimation of the chlorine demand of water- 2114. Not seen in faecal pollution- (AIIMS May 1 0)
a) Chlorometer (AIIMS May 10, 07, 06) a) Staphylococcus b) Streptococcus
b) Horrock's apparatus c) E. coli d) Clostridium perfringens
c) Berkfeld filter 2115. According to the WHO, what is the minimum
d) Double pot method bacteriological standard for drinking water-
2104. The amount ofgood quality bleaching powder required a) All the samples should not contain coliform
for chlorinating a round well measuring 4 mtrs organisms (AIIMS Nov 2000)
diameter and depth ofwater column 6 mts, to get PPM b) 3 consecutive samples of water should not
of residual chlorine when the Horrok'stest gives contain any coliforms
definlte blue colour in the 3rd cup onwards, is - c) 3 coliforms in a I 00 ml water
a) 993.8 grams b) 99.38 grams (UPSC 96) d) I coliform ina IOOml water
c) 9.938 grams d) 0.9938 grams 2116. Which of the following is not true about water quality
2105. An are true regarding bleaching powder, except- estimation- (AIIMS May 10, AI 09)
a) Contains about 33% of available chlorine a) Clostridium spores indicate recent contamination
b) It is a stable compound (AIIMSDec 94, AI 98) b) Not more than 5% samples should have
c) White amorphous compound coliforms
d) Strong bleaching agent c) Sodium thiosulfate added to neutralize chlorine
2106. All of the following statements are true about d) Coli forms must not be detectable in 100 ml
bleachiilgpowderexcept- (AI 96) sample
a) It is a stable compound 2117. Presumptive count includes -(PGI 81, UPSC 91, 92)
b) Available chlorine is 33% a) No E. Coli
c) Has a Rapid and brief action b) Coliform but not only E. Coli
d) Recommended concentration of free chlorine is c) Gmm negative bacilli
0.5 mg at the end of I hour d) Any bacteria
2107. During water analysis in a hostel, amoebic cysts 2118. All of the following statements about purification of
were seen. The best step to manage it is - water are true except- (AIIMS May 11)
a) Iodine b) Boiling (AIIMS Nov 99} a) Presence of Clostridial spores indicate recent
c) U.VRays d) Chlorination contamination of water
2108. Horrok's apparatus determines Chloride which b) Coliforms must not be detectable in any IOO ml
has to have a holding level of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) sample of drinking water
a) 0.1 mg/L b) I mg!L c) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine
c) O.Oimg!L d) 0.5 mg!L d) Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube
2109. All of the following are acceptable criteria for water method & indole production
quality except- (AI 97) 2119. Test for coliform count? (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Dissloved 0 2 of5mg/L a) Eijkman test b) Casoni's test
b) Nitrates of 1 mg/L c) Nitrate test d) Urease test
c) Nitritesofl-2mg!L 2120. Coliform test is for- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Free & saline NH3 of0.05 mg!L a) Air pollution b) Water contamination
2110. Past contamination of water is indicated by- c) Sound pollution d) None
a) Free and saline ammonia 2121. Hardness of water is expressed as milli-equivalent
b) Dissolved ~S per litre (m Eq!L), one unit of which is equivalent to
c) Nitrites whichoneofthefollowing- (UPSC 2006)
d) Nitrates a) 20mgCaC03 (20ppm)
2111. The safe limit of Fluorine in drinking water is- b) 30mgCaC03 (30ppm)
a) 0.2-0.5 mg/L b) 0.5-0.8 mg!L (AI 94) c) 40mgCaC03 (40ppm)
c) 0.8-L2mg!L d) 1.2-2.0mg/L d) 50mgCaC03 (50ppm)
2101)c 2102)b 2103)b 2104)a 2105)b 2106)a 2107)a 2108)d 2109)None 2110)d 21ll)b 2112)d 2113)a,b,c
2114)a 2115)a 2116)a 2117)b 2118)a 2119)a 2120)b 2121)d
2122. Soft water has hardness levels of- (PGMCET 07) 2134. In Indoor air pollution, carbon monoxide is
a) 50 b) 100 produced by- (UP 07)
c) 150 d)200 a) Combustion equipment
2123. Temporary and permanent hardness of water is b) Stove
removedby- (AIIHPH2K) c) Gas heaters
a) Boiling b) Addition oflime d) All of the above
2135. Which ofthe following is not a indoor air pollutant?
c) Permutitmethod d)All
a) Carbon monoxide b) Nitrous oxide (AI 11)
2124. Hardness of water has a beneficial effect against
c) Radon d) Mercury
whichoneofthefollowing- (UPSC 2006) 2136. Air pollution may cause- (Kerala 90)
a) Renal diseases a) Dermatitis b) Carcinoma bronchus
b) Metabolic diseases c) Bronchiectasis d) Pneumonia
c) Cerebrovascular diseases 2137. Soiling index is measure for- (PGI June 98, 99)
d) Cardiovascular diseases a) Airpollution
b) Water pollution
c) Faecal contamination
d) Milk contamination
2125. Not a constituent of air- (AIIPHP 98) 2138. Smoke index is used for- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a)~ b)N2 a) Air pollution b) Sound pollution
c) 0 2 d)C02 c) Excreta d) None
2126. The acceptable level for physical comfort is- 2139. All are indicators for air pollution , except-
a) C02 b) S02 (AIIMS Dec 95)
a) Ambient temperature of36°F (Karn 95)
c) Soiling Index d) Smoke index
b) Corrected effective temperature upto 800f
2140. Which agency monitors air quality in India-
c) Effective temperature upto 120°F a) Central pollution control board
d) Ambient temperature of 40°F b) Central air quality board (NEETIDNB Pattern)
2127. An hour sweat rate should be MCARDLE's c) Central public works dept
maximumallowablesweatrate- (Jipmer 04) d) None
a) 3.5ltr b) 21ltrs 2141. The electrostatic precipitator are used in the
c) 2.5ltrs d) 4.5ltrs prevention of- (Karn 95)
2128. In severe heat strain the heat stress index (HIS) is- a) Radiation risks
a) 10-30 b)40-60 (Corned 09) b) Air pollution emissions
c) 70-90 d) 100 c) Mosquito nuisance
2129. Above which level of heat stress index it is not d) Diffuse vibrations
possible to work comfortably -(NEETIDNB Pattern) 2142. Which gas is NOT responsible for green house
a) 20- 40 b) 40- 60 affect- (AIIMS Dec 94)
c) 60 - 80 d) 80 - 100 a) Carbon monoxide b) Ozone
2130. A person working in hot environment who consumes c) Nitrous oxide d) Nitrogen
more water without salt is likely to develop a 2143. Among the following, which of the following is/are
condition called- (UPSC 02) the greatest contributor/contributors to global
a) Heat stroke b) Heat exhaustion warming as a consequence of human activities and
c) Heat cramps d) Heat hyperpyrexia life style? (UPSC-I 08)
2131. The number of times the air in a living room a) Carbon dioxide b) Chlorofluorocarbons
should be recycled is- (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Methane d) Ozone
a) 2-3 times b) More than 6 times 2144. 'frueaboutglobalwarmingis- (AIIMSMay 10)
c) 4 times d) None a) C02 is the major greenhouse gas
2132. Not a primary air pollutant- (Chandigarh Dec 96) b) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful
a) Smoke and dust b) S02 c) CFC increases stratosphere ozone layer
c) N02 d) Ozone d) Kyoto protocol called for 20% reduction in green
2133. The maximum ozon·e concentration in polluted house effect
atmosphere is dependent on the concentration and
ratio of nitrogen oxid~s and which one of the LIGHT
following- (UPSC 2006)
a) Carbon monoxide 2145. What is the basic minimum illumination required
b) Lead for satisfactory vision?- (UPSC 2006)
c) Volate organic compounds a) 10-15footcandles b) 15-20footcandles
d) Sulphur dioxide c) 20-25 foot candles d) 25-30 foot candles
2122)a 2123)c 2124)d 2125)a 2126)b 2127)d 2128)b 2129)b 2130)c 2131)a 2132)d 2133)c 2134)d 2135)d
2136)b 2137)a 2138)a 2139)a 2140)a 2141)b 2142)a,d 2143)a 2144)a 2145)b
2146. Recommended reflection factors include each of the 2160. The maximum permissible level of occupational
following, except- (AIIMS 81, AMC83) exposure to radiation is ••. per year- (AIIMS 85)
a) Ceilings 80% b) Roofs 40% a) 5 rad. b) 2 rad.
c) Walls 50 to 60% d) Fumitures 30 to 40% c)lOrad. d)50rad.
2147. Light index in living room is- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 2161. Radiation protection shields are made up of-
~ 8 b) 15 a) Copper b) Silver
c) 20 d) 25 c) Lead d) Tin
2148. Light requirement in watch manufacturing company 2162. Thickness oflead apron to prevent radiation-
is - (PGI 80, AMC 85, 86) a) lmm b)3mm (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) 2000-3000 Lux b) 5000-10000 Lux c) 0.5mm d)7mm
c) 10000-20000Lux d)50000Lux 2163. Psychrometer is used to measure- (AI 08)
a) Humidity b)Airvelocity
SOUND c) Room temperature d) Radiant temperature
2164. KataThermometer is used to measure-
2149. Normal voice beard from 1 meter, intensity of sound a) Maximum temperature (NEETIDNB Pattern)
reaching ear is (Jipmer 11) b) Minimum temperature
a) 20dB b)40dB c) Radiant heat
c) 60 dB d) 80 dB d) Cooling power of air
2150. The acceptable noise level is- (DPGEE08) 2165. Wind velocity is normally recorded at a height of-
a) 95dB b) lOOdB a) 1 mt. b) 1Omts. (AIIHPH 98)
c) 90dB d)85dB c) 15mts. d) 20 mts.
2151. Sound that can be tolerated- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 2166. Which one of the following is the standard
a) < 200 db b) 200-250 db prescribed for setback (open space around the house)
c) 250-300 db d) 80 db in rural areas? (UPSC-II 08)
2152. Auditory fatigue occurs at---- Hz- (AIIMS80, a) Built up area 113 and open space 2/3
a) 2000 b)3000 DNB91) b) Built up area 2/5 and open space 3/5
c) 4000 d) 8000 c) Built up area Yz and open space Yz
2153. Prolonged exposure to noise levels greater than the d) Built up area 14 and open space %
following can impair hearing permanently- 2167. Floor space of2 persons- (AIIHPH 2 K)
a) 40 decibels b) 85 decibels (Karnat 96)
a) 70-90sq.ft b)90-100sq.ft
c) 50-70 sq.ft d) 110-120 sq.ft
c) 100 decibels d) 140 decibels
2168. Controlled tipping is method of disposal of-
2154. Exposure to noise above- causes permanent hearing
a) Sullage (AIIMS May 93, 97, AI 94)
loss- (Jipmer 93)
b) Sewage
a) 90dB b) lOOdB c) Human excreta
c) 125dB d) 160dB d) Refuse
2169. Not safe disposal but good for soil building-
RADIATION a) Incineration (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Controlled tipping
2155. The source of endogenous radiation is -(APPGE 05) c) Composting
a) Radon b) Potassium d) None
c) Thorium d) Uranium 217 0. Ifland is available the best method of sewage disposal
2156. Terrestrial radiation is maximum in-(AIIMS Feb 97) is- (AMC 2K)
a) Kamataka b) Orissa a) Dumping b) Composting
c) West Bengal d) Kerala c) Trickling filter d) Activated sludge process
2157. What is the approximate penetrating ability of 2171. The disposal of night soil and refuse is by-
alpha particle radiation at tissue level- (UPSC 07) a) Chemicalsterilization (UPSCI87,AMC 198Y, 88)
a) 0.05mm b) O.lOmm b) Burning
c) 1.50mm d) 2.00mm c) Composting
2158. Curie is the unitfor- (AIIMS 78, 80Delhi 93) d) Any of the above
a) Radiation emitted b) Radiation absorbed 2172. Sullage is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Radiaoactivity d) All of the above a) Liquid excreta
2159. Unitofoneofradiationabsorbedis-(NEET/.D.iVBPattem) b) By product of chemical industry
a) Grey b) Roengten c) Waste water from kitchen
d) Waste water from an industry
Curie
2146)b 2147)a 2148)a 2149)c 2150)d 215l)d 2152)c 2153)c 2154)d 2155)b 2156)d 2157)a 2158)c 2159)a
2160)a 2161)c 2162)c 2163)a 2164)d 2165)b 2166)a 2167)d 2168)d 2169)c 2170)b 2171)c 2172)c
2173. 'Sanitation barrier' implies- (AI 99) 2187. Spread by mosquitoes: (PGINov 10)
a) Segregation of faeces a) Dengue b)Kalaazar
b) Personal hygiene c) Trypanosomiasis d) Listeriosis
c) Elemination of:flies e) Trench fever
d) Water pollution 2188. Aedes aegypti transmits following diseases-
2174. Trickling filter is used in- (AIIMS Dec 97) a) Yellow fever (PGI Dec 05, June 04)
a) Primary treatment of sewage b) Dengue
b) Scondary treatment of sewage
c) Japanese encephalitis
c) Oxygen ponds
d) Filariasis
d) Sewage farming
2175. A type of tertiary waste water treatment process 2189. Chikungunyais transmitted by- (AIIMSMay 10)
is- (Jipmer 81, UPSC 83) a) Aedes b)Culex
a) Reverse osmosis b) Sedimentation c) Mansonoides d) Anopheles
c) Both d) Neither 2190. Culex tritaenorrhyncus transmits- (AIIMS May OJ)
217 6. Aerobic digestion of sludge takes place in-(UPSC 2K) a) Dengue fever b) Yellow fever
a) Trickling filter b) Broad irrigation c) KFD d) Japanese encephalitis
c) Activated sludge d) Septic tank 2191. Which of the following is NOT transmitted by
2177. The heart to the activated sludge process is- Aedesaegypti- (AIIMS Dec 94)
a) Primary sedimentation tank (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Filariasis
b) Sludge digestor b) Yellow fever
c) Aeration tank c) Dengue fever
d) Final settling tank d) Chik:ungunyaHemorrhagic fever
2178. Biochemical oxygen demand is determined by- 2192. Which of the following is not spread by Aedes
a) Oranic matter and bacteria (AIIMS June 2000) mosquito- (AIIMS Nov 2000)
b) Oxygen content
a) Dengue fever b) Chickungunya
c) Alage content in water
c) Japanese encephalitis d) Yellow fever
d) Agriculture fertiliser content in water.
2179. The biological oxygen demand indicates- (AI 02) 2193. All of the following statements about mosquito are
a) Organic matter b) Bacterial content true except- (AIIMS Nov 04)
c) Anaerobic bacteria d) Chemicals a) It is a definitive host in malaria
b) It is a difmitive host in maria
ENTOMOLOGY c) Its life cycle is completed in 3 weeks
d) The female can travel upto 3 kilometers
2180. Definitive host is one in which the following lives- 2194. Soft tick transmits- (AI08)
a) Larvae b) Asexual form (PGI June 98) a) Relapsing fever b) KFD
c) Adultform d)AorD c) Tularemia d) Indian tick typhus
2181. Transovarian transmission of infection occurs in- 2195. Hard Tick causes a/e- (AIIMS Nov 10)
a) Fleas b) Ticks (UPSC 96) a) Relapsing fever b) KFD
c) Mosquitoes d) Sand:fly c) Indian tick typhus d) Tularemia
2182. Transovarian transmission is seen in which 2196. Lyme disease is transmitted by -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
infection - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Rat :flea b) Tick
a) Plague b) Filarial
c) Mite d) None
c) Guinea d) Yellow fever
2197. Mites are the vectors of the following diseases
2183. Man is intermediate host of- (PGI June 97)
a) Kala azar b) Filariasis except- (AIIMSNov03)
c) Hydatid cyst d) All of the above a) Scabies b) Scrub typhus
2184. Lice are not the vectors of- (AIIMSMay06, 07, 09, c) Rickettsial pox d) Kyasanur forest disease
a) Relapsing fever b) Q fever Nov 06, AI 07) 2198. Disease caused by mite is- (AI 95, AI 96)
c) Trench fever d) Epidemic typhus a) Scrub typhus b)Fever
2185. Mosquito borne infection is- (PGI June 97) c) Trench fever d) Endemic typhus
a) HIV b) Leprosy 2199. Diseases transmitted by louse- (PGI June 06)
c) Japanese encephalitis d) Plague a) Epidemic typhus b) Scrub Typhus
2186. Given three genera of mosquitoes (Culex, Anopheles c) Trench fever d) Q fever
and Aedes) act as vectors for which of the following e) Rocky mountain spotted fever
diseasesworldwide- (AI 12) 2200. Vagabond disease- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Malaria b) Dengue a) Louse b) Mite
c) Filariasis d) Yellow Fever c) Tick d) Black Fly
2173)a 2174)b 2175)d 2176)a,c2177)c 2178)a 2179)a 2180)c 2181)b,c 2182)d 2183)c 2184)b 2185)c 2186)c
2187)a 2188)a,b,d 2189)a 2190)d 2191)a 2192)c 2193)b 2194)a 2195)a 2196)b 2197)d 2198)a 2199)a,c
2200)a
2201. Disease not transmitted by Lice is- (AIJMS May 10) 2214. Which mosquito can fly the greatest distance-
a) Relapsing fever b) Trench fever a) Mansonia b) Aedes (Karn PGmee 06)
c) Q-fever d) Epidemic typhus c) Anopheles d)Culex
2202. Kala-azaristransmitted by- (AIIMSNov07) 2215. Aedes agypti can fly- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Reduvid bug b) Sandfly a) lOOm b) 200m
c) Tsetse fly d) Mosquito c) 1000 m d) 3-5 km
2216. The anopheles species most commonly found in
2203. Sandfty transmits- (PGI Dec 08)
coastal regions is- (Corned 08}
a) Kala-azar b) Oriental sore
a) Anopheles philippinensis
c) Relapsing fever d) Oraya fever b) Anopheles stephensi
e) Sleeping sickness c) Anopheles fluviatilis
2204. Rat flea transmits all the following except- (AI 95) d) Anopheles minimus
a) Plague b) Salmonellosis 2217. Nottrue about aedes mosquito-(Al/MSMay 10,Al09)
c) Hyrnenolopsis d) Endemic typhus a) Are recurrent day time biters
2205. Mites are known to transmit- (AI 97) b) Eggs cannot survive more than I week without
a) Scabies b) Relapsing fever water
c) KFD d) Human babesiosis c) Transmits dengue fever
2206. Vector borne diseases are- (PGI June 04) d) Prefer breeding in stagnant water
a) Syphilis b) Typhus 2218. Mosquito net hole diameter is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Dengue d)J.E. a) 0.02 inch b) 0.0475 inch
2207. Which of the following viral infections is transmitted c) 0.5 inch d) 0.1 inch
2219. Sandfly can fly upto- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
by tick ? (AI 05)
a) 50 yards b) 100 yards
a) Japanese encephalitis
c) 200 yards d) 300 yards
b) Dengue fever 2220. "Porters oflnfection" are- (Orissa 05)
c) k:yasanur forest disease (KFD) a) Anopheles b) Housefly
d) Yellow fever c) Aedes d) Cockroaches
2208. All are caused by common vectors, except- 2221. Best way to control houseflies- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Dengue fever (AIIMSDec 95) a) Eliminate breeding places
b) Yellow fever b) Insectiside spray
c) KFD c) Net use
d) Japanese encephalitis d) None
2209. Vector born diseases are- (PGI Dec 05) 2222. The average life of a cyclops is about- (PGI 79, 89)
a) Epidemic typhus b) Japanese encephalitis a) 1 month b) 2 months Bihar
c) Tetanus d) Hangra virus disease c) 3 months d) 4 months
e) KFD 2223. Drinking water is best made free of cyclops by-
a) Filtration b) Boiling (UPSC 88)
2210. All of the following are true about anopheles type
c) Chlorination d) None of the above
ofmosquitoExcept- (Jipmer 80, UPSC 86)
2224. Drinking water is best made free of cyclops by-
a) Eggs are boat shaped and provided with lateral a) Filtration b) Boiling (UPSC 88)
floats c) Chlorination d) None of the above
b) Larvae rest parallel to water surface 2225. The concentration of abate recommended for killing
c) Larvae have siphon tube cyclops is- (AIIMS 94)
d) Pupae have broad and short siphon a) 2mg!L b) 1 mg/L
e) Wings of adults are spotted c) 5mg!L d)Omg/L
2211. Anopheles mosquito lays eggs in- (AJIMS 87) 2226. True about sand flea- · (MP2K)
a) Clearwater b) Chlorinated water a) Not found in India b) Causes ulcer in foot
c) Running water d) Water logged dirty pools c) Caused bubo d) Causes plague
2212. Which is true of pathogenic mosquitoes- (AI 93)
a) Anopheles has spotted abdomen INSECTICIDES
b) Mansoni lays egges singly
2227. All are organophosphorus poison, except-
c) Culex cause yellow fever
a) Abate b) Dibenanone
d) Aedes has stripped yellow scales c) Propoxur d) Malathione
2213. "Nuisance mosquito" is- (AIIMS 80, AMC 84) 2228. Not a pyrethram derivative? (AI 10)
a) Anopheles b)Culex a) Cypermethrin b) Permethrin
c) Ades d) Tsetse fly c) DDT d) Resmethrin
2201)c 2202)b 2203)a,b,d 2204)b 2205)a 2206)b,c,d 2207)c 2208)c 2209)a,b,e 2210)c 22ll)a 2212)d
2213)b 2214)d 22l5)a 22l6)b 22l7)b 2218)b 2219)a 2220)b 222l)a 2222)c 2223)c 2224)d 2225)b 2226)a,b
2227)c 2228) c
2229. The essential ingredient in the space sprays for 2243. Phlebotomous argentipes is killed by-
vector controlis- (Karn 95) a) Malathion b) DDT (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Malathion b) Fenithion c) BHC d) Pyrethium
c) Pyrethrum d)BHC
2230. Which one of the following insecticides is commonly MISCELLANEOUS
used for ultra low volume fogging- (UPSC)
a) Abate b) DDT 2244. Hardness of drinking water should be?
c) Paris green d) Malathion a) >3 b)<l (DNB Dec 2011)
2231. Fenthion is- (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) 1-3 d)>6
a) Space spray b) Residual spray 2245. Which of the following is used as an indicator for
c) Stomach poison d) Fumgant recent fecal contamination of water?
2232. Malathion is used once every- (AI97) a) Ecoli (DNB Dec 2011)
a) 3 months b) 6 months b) Cornybacterium diptheriae
c) 9months d) 12months c) Pseudomonas
2233. All of the following methods are antilarval measures d) Streptococci
except- (AI 05) 2246. Disinfecting action of chlorine is due to?
a) Intermittent irrigation b) Paris green a) Hypochlorous acid (DNB Dec 2011)
c) Gambusiaaffmis d) Malathion b) Hypochlorite ion
2234. Recommended Larvicides for control of Malaria c) Hydrochloric acid
includes all of the following except- (AI 12) d) Both Hypochlorous acid and Hypochlorite ion
a) Abate b) Pyrethrum 224 7. Minimum chlorine content ofwater after chlorination
c) Fenthian d) Copper Acetoarsenite should be? (DNB Dec 2011)
2235. Which ofthe following represents a non deliberate a) 0.5mg!L b) 5 mg/L
cultural practice leading to anti-mosquito effect- c) 0.05 mg!L d) 50 mg/L
2248. Which is not caused by Aedes aegypti?
a) Use of alkaline detergent (AI 11)
a) Yellow fever (DNB June 2011)
b) Use oflarvicidal agents
b) Dengue
c) Use of bed nets
c) Japanese encephalitis
d) Use of repellents
d) Filaria
2236. Mineral oils are used in mosquito control measure
2249. The vital layer in a slow sand illter is?
as- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Sand bed (DNB June 2011)
a) A personal protection method
b) Under drainage
b) Larvicide c) Zoological layer
c) Adulticide d) Supernatant
d) Space spray 2250. Which of the following disease is transmitted by rat
2237. All of the following are larva control measures flea? (DNB Dec 2010)
except- (AIIMSMay11, Nov08) a) Trench fever b) Chages disease
a) Gambusia b) Intermittent irrigation c) Oriental sore d) Endemic typhus
c) DDT d) paris green 2251. Regarding Anopheles mosquito true is all except-
2238. WhichofthefollowingstatementaboutDDTisfalse- a) Eggs are laid singly on water (DNB June 2010)
a) It is contact poison (AIIMS May 11, Nov 08) b) Larva don't have siphon
b) Residual effect lasts for 18 months c) Wings are spotted
c) Immediately kills the prey d) Pupa don't have siphon
d) Permethrin has synergistic action 2252. Which is not caused by Aedes aegypti-
2239. DDTisa- (AIIMSFeb97) a) yellow fever (DNB June 201 0)
a) CNS poison b) Stomach poison b) Dengue
c) Contact poison d) None of the above c) Japanese encephalitis
2240. Organophosphate insecticides are all except- d) Filaria
a) Dieldrin b) Fenthion (PGI June 03) 2253. Marker of fecal contaminatin is- (DNB June 201 0)
c) Diazinon d) Propoxur a) Ascaris b) E. coli
e) Lindane c) guinea worm presence d) Balantidium coli
2241. ThefollowingareDDTresistantexcept- (Al11) 2254. The best parameter to measure air pollution is-
a) Phlebotomus b) Culex fatigans a)S02 b)C0 2 (DNBJune2010)
c) Anopheles stephenci d) Musca domestica c) CD d)Np
2242. Insecticide of choice for sandfly ? 2255. Number of holes in mosquito net(persq. inch)-
a) DDT b) HCH (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) 50 b) 150 (DNB Dec 09)
c) Malathione d) Paris green c) 100 d)200
2229) c 2230) d 2231) a 2232) a 2233) d 2234) b 2235) a 2236) b 2237) c 2238) a 2239) c 2240) a,d,e 2241) a 2242) a
2243)b 2244)c 2245)d 2246)d 2247)a 2248)c 2249)c 2250)d 225l)d 2252)c 2253)b 2254)a 2255)b
2256. Kala azar is spread by- (DNB Dec 09) 2268. Chlorine demand of water determined by-
a) House-fly b)Black-fly a) Horrocks apparatus (DNB June 07)
c) Sand-fly d) Tsetse-fly b) Chloronometre
2257. Which of the following chemicals is used for c) Berkefield filter
purification of water in India ? (DNB Dec 09) d) Doble Pot
a) Zinc sulphate 2269. Not seen in faecal pollution- (DNB June 07)
b) Iodine in oil form a) Staphylococcus b) Streptococcus
c) Potassium permanganate c) E. coli d) Clostridium perfringens
d) Bleaching powder 2270. Which of the following is not transmitted by lice-
a) Trench fever (DNB June 07)
2258. Day light factor in living room should be?
b) Relapsing fever
a) 8% b) 6% (DNB June 09)
c) Q-fever
c) 10% d) 15%
d) Epidemic typus
2259. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
2271. Following is a contact poison- (DNB June 07)
a) Carbonmonoxide (DNBJune09) a) BHC b)BaS04
b) Methane c) A+ B of above d) Paris green
c) Nitrous oxide 2272. Among the following, which one is not a major
d) Water vapour contributor to acid rains- (UPSC-1 09)
2260. Acceptable level for physical compfort-(DNB Dec 08) a) Carbon dioxide b) Carbon monoxide
a) Corrected effective temperature 79°F c) Nitric oxide d) Sulphur dioxide
b) Corrected effective temperature 70-76°F 2273. A mixture of rain and snow is called- (UPSC-1 08)
c) Corrected effective temperature 80-81 op a) Glaze b) Frost
d) Corrected effective temperature> 82°F c) Shower d) Sleet
2261. A person working in hot environment who consumes 2274. Disinfection of water is not required if the source is
more water without salt is likely to develop a from- (COMEDK 05)
condition called- (DNB Dec 08) a) Tube well b) Step well
a) Heat stroke b) Heat exhaustion c) Draw well d) River
c) Heat cramps d) Heat hyperpyrexia 2275. In a slow sand filter, the element responsible for
2262. Residual chlorine in chlorination of water should yielding bacteria-free water is the- (Karn 11)
be- (DNB Dec 08) a) Valve
a) I mg/1 after 1 hr b) 0.5 mg/1 after 1 hr b) Vital layer
c) 1 mg/1 after 30 mins d)0.5mg/l after30mins c) Supernatant water
2263. Percentage of para-para isomer in DDT is- d) Under-drainage system
a) 20-300/o b) 40-50% (DNB Dec 08) 2276. Venturi meter is used for- (UPSC 2002)
c) 60-70% d) 70-80% a) Measuring amount required for chlorination
2264. Which of the following is considered an adequate b) Measuring air velocity
water supply/head/day- (DNB June 08) c) Measuring bed strength in slow sand filter
a) 50-150L b) 150-200L d) Measuring dissolving capacity of gas
c) 200-250L d) 100-150L 2277. Effect of environment on genes is called-(Orissa 05)
2265. Hardness of water is contributed by following salts a) Positive Eugenics b) Negative Eugenics
except- (DNB June 08) c) Euthenics d) Enthenics
a) Calcium gluconate 2278. Contact period of chlorination ?(APPG 08, PG/86)
b) Magnesium chloride a) 1 hour b) 30 minutes
c) Calcium sulfate c) 1 112 hour d) 2 hours
d) Magnisum bicarbonate 2279. The minimum recommended concentration offree
2266. Which of the following viral infections is chlorine in drinking water at the end of one hour
transmitted by tick- (DNB Dec 07) (mg/L) is - (Corned 09)
a) Japanese encephalitis a) 0.1 b)0.5
b) Dengue fever c) 1.0 d) 1.5
c) Kyasanur forest disease (KFD) 2280. During the process of chlorination of water, the
d) Yellowfever disinfecting action of chlorine is due to the formation
2267. The biological oxygen demand indicates- of- (UPSC-1109)
a) Organic matter (DNB Dec 07) a) Hydrochloric acid only
b) Bacterial content b) Hypochlorous acid only
c) Anaerobic bacteria c) Hydrochloric acid and hypochlorite ions
d) Chemicals d) Hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite ions
2256) c 2257) d 2258) a 2259) a 2260) b 2261) c 2262) b 2263) d 2264) b 2265) a 2266) c 2267) a 2268) a 2269) a
2270)c 227l)a 2272)b 2273)d 2274)a 2275)b 2276)c 2277)c 2278)a 2279)b 2280)d
2281. When orthotoludine reagent is added to water and if 2291. Water sample which is likely to contain chlorine,
free cholrine is present, what colour will be produced? will affect the results of bacteriological analysis of
a) Pink b) Yellow (MH 11) water. Which one of the following, if added in small
c) Green d) Red amount in the test tube will help overcome it-
2282. To find out whether the water has been properly a) Potassium nitrate
chlorinated, the test used is- (Comed 07) b) Copper sulphate
c) Calcium hydrochloride
a) Horrock's test
d) Sodium thiosulphate
b) Ortho-toludine test
2292. Other than nitrogen and oxygen, which one of the
c) Presumptive coliform test following is the next most abundant gas in the dry
d) Total bacterial count airoflower atmosphere? (UPSC-I 08)
2283. What is the reagent used in Horrock's apparatus a) Argon b) Carbon dioxide
for determining chlorine demand of water- c) Helium d) Hydrogen
a) Orthotoluidine (UPSC-11 08) 2293. Kata thermometer is used for recording-
b) Methylene blue a) Maximum and minimum temperature (UPSC-II 09)
c) Starch iodide indicator b) Low air velocities
d) Sodium bicarbonate c) Relative humidity of the air
2284. Which of the following is not true regarding d) Mean radiant temperature
bleachingpowder- (SGPG/05) 2294. To feel comfortable and cool in a factory the
a) Contact period is one hour corrected effective temperature (in degree
b) Volume of water is estimated Farenheit) should be- (UPSC 99)
a) Less than 69 b) Between 69 and 76
c) Immediatly dissolved in water
c) Between 77 and 80 d) Between 81 and 82
d) Chlorine demand is estimated
2295. Corrected effective temperature is labelled as
2285. The following statements are true for bleaching comfortable ifit is (in degree F) - (UPSC 96)
powder, except- (SGPG1 05) a) Between 70 and 76 b) Between 77 and 80
a) Its action is slow and long acting c) Between 81 and 82 d) Above 83
b) A fresh sample contains 33% of available 2296. The air- quality standards proposed by the Indian
chlorine Central Pollution Control Board are based on limits
c) A strenghth of 1.3% will kill most organisms of concentration of- (UPSC 2002)
d) It is used for disinfection of faeces a) Suspended particulate matter and sulphur dioxide
2286. Maximum permissible chloride level is- (UP 08) b) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide and
a) 200 mg!litre b) 300 mg/litre oxides of nitrogen
c) 500 mg!litre d) 600 mgllitre c) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide and
2287. Which one of the following pairs for water quality oxides of nitrogen and oxidants
standards is correctly matched? (UPSC-II 08) d) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide and
oxides of nitrogen and carbon monoxide
Parameter Maximum tolerable limit
2297. In the composition of normal dry air of the
a) Chlorides 50 mg/litre atmosphere at ground level in an unpolluted area,
b) Nitrates 50 mg!litre which one among the following is found in highest
c) Hardness 50mg/litre concentration? (UPSC-I 09)
d) Total dissolved solids 50 mg/litre a) Carbon dioxide b) Hydrogen
2288. In doubtful cases, the presence of which organism c) Methane d) Nitrous oxide
confirms the fecal contamination of water- 2298. What is the main constituent gas in CNG?
a) Protozoa b) Yeast(Cosmed 06) a) Acetylene b) Butane (UPSC-I 08)
c) Clostridium perfringes d) Fungi c) Ethane d) Methane
2289. The following organism because ofits easy culture 2299. Centre of air pollution control by WHO-
methods is widely used as bacteriology indicator of a) Hyderabad b)Bombay (AIIPHP98)
water polution- (Karnat. 96, Jharkhand 03) c) Nagpur d) Kanpur
a) Foecal streptococci 2300. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse
b) Escherichia coli gas? (UPSC-I 09)
a) Carbon monoxide b) Methane
c) Clostridium perfringens
c) Nitrous oxide d) Water vapour
d) Salmonella Typhi
2301. For satisfactory vision the minimum illumination
2290. Old contamination of water is indicated by- accepted is- (AIIMS 80, AMC 84, UPSC 06)
a) Nitrites b) Nitrates (MAHE 98, a) 15 to 20 foot candles b) 30 to 40 candles
c) Ammonia d) Chlorides KARN 94) c) 40 to 50 candles e) 70 to 90 candles
228l)b 2282)b 2283)c 2284)c 2285)a 2286)d 2287)b 2288)c 2289)b 2290)b 229l)d 2292)b 2293)d 2294)b
2295)b 2296)b 2297)a 2298)d 2299)c 2300)a 230l)a
2302. The limit of loudness expressed as decibels that 2316. What is the size of ideal mosquito net? -
people can tolerate without substantial damage to a) 0.575 mm in one dimension (PUNJAB 2006)
their bearing is- (Corned 08, Jiprner 92) b) 0.0475 mm in any dimension
a) 55 b)65 c) 0.475 mm in one dimension and 0.575 in other
c)75 d)85 dimension
2303. Exposure to 90 db AND 4000Hz noise results in- d) 0.575 in both dimensions
a) Auditory fatigue (UPSC 07) 2317. Dose ofDDT for effective control of mosquitoes is-
b) Temporary hearing loss a) 1-2g/rn2 b)l-2g/rn2 (AP85,
c) Permanent hearing loss c) 2 4 g/m2 d) 2-4 g/rn2 Orrisa 04)
d) Rupture of tympanic membrane
2318. Which one ofthe following insecticides is not used
2304. Which of the following is a naturally occurring
as a larvicides? (UPSC 2006)
radioactive substance in the body in small quantities?
a) Abate b) Paris green
a) Radium226 b)Bismuth60 (J1PMER02)
c) Fenthion d) Dichloros
c) Iodine 131 d)Potassium40
2305. One gray of radiation is equal to- (Orissa 99) 2319. Effect of Pyrethrum on mosquitoes is described as-
a) lrad b) I Orad a) Residual b) Repellent (UPSC 02)
c) IOOrad d) IOOOrad c) Knock down d) Contact
2306. Which of the following kinds of radiations is/are 2320. Paris green is a- (KERALA 97, Jiprner 90, 04)
emitted by Uranium- 238? (UPSC-1 08) a) Stomach poison b) Contact poison
a) Alpha rays only c) Repellent d) Rodenticide
b) Alpha and Beta rays only 2321. Which of the following insecticides is a natural
c) Gamma rays only product? (Delhi PG Mar. 09)
d) Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays a) Dieldrin b) Pyrethrum
2307. Sling psychrometer is used for measuring- c) Parathion d) Carbaryl
a) Air velocity (Corned 08) 2322. The foHowing are all residual insecticides EXCEPT-
b) Rain fall a) Pyrethrum b)DDT (UPSC-1109)
c) Median radiant temperature c) GamrnaBHC d) Malathion
d) Relative humidity 2323. Least toxic organiophosphorus compound is:
2308. Biological oxygen demand is calculated to know-- a) DDT b) Paris green (DPG 11)
wastes- (AMC 2K) c) Malathion d) Parathion
a) Organic b) Inorganic 2324. Ovicidal drug for scabies is- (Orissa 05)
c) Total solid d) None a) BHC b)DDT
2309. Pit latrine has depth of---feet- (UPSC 87, c) illiC d) Permethrin
a) 2-4 b)4-6 AMC 92)
2325. In the bioaccumulation of DDT in the aquatic food
c) 6-10 d) 10-12
chain of Plakton ~ Clams ~ Fish-eating birds,
2310. Oxidation pond is used in---treatment-
which group of organisms exhibits highest
a) Sewage b) Effluent (DPG 03}
c) Night soil d) Sullage concentration of DDT (in their bodies) ?
2311. An inexpensive and efficient method of sewage a) Plankton b) Clams (UPSC-1 09)
disposal for a small community is- (UPSC 96) c) Fish d) Fish-eating birds
a) River outfall b) Oxidation pond 2326. Commonly used Rodenticide is- (HPU 05)
c) Trickling filter d) Activated sludge a) Zinc sulphate b) Copper sulphate
2312. All are transmitted by Soft Tick, except-(1'GMCET07) c) Zinc oxide d) Ferrous sulphate
a) KFD b) Tularemia 2327. Zinc phosphide is- (AMC 2K)
c) Q fever d) Relapsing fever a) Rodenticide b) Insecticide
2313. Soft tick transmits (MH 11) c) Larvicide d) All
a) KFD b)Qfever SOCIAL SCIENCE, MENTAL HEALTH &
c) Relapsing fever d) All GENETICS
2314. Which of the mowing mosq~itoes is involved in the
spread of Japanese encephalitis? (Delhi PG Mar. 09) SOCIAL SCIENCE
a) Aedes b) Anopheles
c) Culex d) Mansonoides 2328. Society is defined as- (A11MS June 97)
2315. Which of the following disease is transmitted by a) A conglomeration people
phlebotomus argentipes- (DPGEE 08) b) A group people bound with social norms
a) Epidemic typhus b) Kala-Azar c) An association with regulated membership
c) Relapsing fever d) Trench fever d) An association patterned the norms of interaction
2302)d 2303)a 2304)d 2305)c 2306)a 2307)d 2308)a 2309)d 2310)a 2311)b 2312)b 2313)d 2314)c 2315)b
2316)b 2317)a 2318)d 2319)d 2320)a 2321)b 2322)a 2323)c 2324)d 2325)d 2326)None 2327)a 2328)b
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [A.109]
2329,, Whatisthe definition of society,. . · • . (AI89) 2341. Which ofthe following is best suited for the role of
a) System of social relationship between individuals social worker- (AlJMSMay 12)
b) Soci~d relationship between families a) Health professional involved inphysiotherapy
c) Interaction of individuals and people b) Health professional involved in coping strategies,
d) Relationship of individual family and the country · iriteipet~onalst<.ins, adjustmetit withfalnily · ·
2330~ ·Studyofphysical,sochdandculturalhistoryofll1all c) A person involved in finding jobs an.d economic
is known as? · (NEETIDNB Pattern) support for disabled . . .
a) Social science b) Anthropology. · •·. d). Health professionaJ . . .. . . .. . .· . ..
c) Acculturation d) Sociology • · 2342. Kuppuswalni•s c}assifi_caffon is bas~d on all except-
2331. The Behav-ioural SCience used exJensiveJY ul PSM iS- a) Income · b)bccupation ·(AI94,AIIMS
a) :Anthropology b) Economics (AI 2000) c) Education d) Type ofhouse · .Nov 99)
c) Politics d)Law. 2343. Inner subjective thought of a person towards an
2332. Social psychology is - · (NEET!DNB Pattern) individual or situation is be~t termed as'"
a)· Human relationships & behaviour a) Attitude b)Value (AIIMS ]ffay 09)
b) Psychology of individuals in sociecy c) Belief d)Opinion
c) Cultural history of man 2344. A temporary, provisional view held by the: people on
d) None a pointofviewis- (AIIMSMay 09)
2333. Sociology- (NEET!DNB Pattern) a) Opinion • b) Practice
a) ·srudy of human:relatioriship·; c) Attitude · d}Belief
b) Study of behavior 2345. Which ofthe:following is assocbtted W:ith'emotional
c) Both valence and ls moSf 'likely tO be 'fnflutlnced by
d) None motivation- · · · (AI 10)
2334. All are components of Behaviour sciences a) Attitude b)Belief
except- , (AIIMSDec 98) c) Practice d) Knowledge .
a} Political Science .b) Anthropology 2~46. AI~ar.ned behaviour which is penn~me1,1t an.d consis
c) Sociology d) Psychology · tentbutJiabletochange~ · · ·. (AJIMSNov 09)
2335. Acculturation is defined as- (PGI June 98) a) Attitude · ... · . b) ~owledge .· ·.
a) Loss of culture sense c) Practice. · d) Cultural belief
b) Isolation of two cultures 234 7. An unstable and emotional temporary social group
c) Fading away of culture with a leader is known as- (Karn 1J)
d) Mixing of two cultures when coming in contact a) A band b)Acrowd
2336. What iS Acculturation- . (NEET/DNB Pattern) . c).Aherd d)Amob. ·
a) Uncultured 2348. Nuclear family consists of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Culture contact a) Husband, wife and son
c) Change from one culture to another b) Husband, wife and dependent children
·d) None· c) Husband and wife bnly
233 7. In a: social group a social act w~ich is considered d) Father mother hUsband and wife
natural and right is referred to as- (UPSC 96) 234 9. The following is true aboutthe term 'NewFahlilies'-
a) Taboo . b) Ritual a) It is a yatiant 6fthe 3~generation family ·.. .
c) Custom d) Tradition b) It is applied to all nuclear families ofless then: 10
2338. Process by which an indivi.dual gradually aquires years d~ation · • · ·. (A!IMS May 03)
cultureand becomes a member of a sociid group is c) It is a variat)tofthejoint family. .· . ·. . .· . •
called ? (APPG08) .d) It is applied to ali nu~lear families ofiess then 2
a) Socialization . b) Acculti"ation · years duration. . · ·· ·.
c) Socialism d) Custom ·. 2350. The poverty line limit for rural, ar~as is the
2339 •. SocialMobilityis~ (NEETIDNBPattern) purchasing capacity for a daily jntake of 2400
a) F;rom rural to urban areas for work calories per person. Which. one <tf tbe following
b} Industrialization · cal0rielimitsisforurban.areas? . (UPSC02)
c) ·Interaction between cultures . a) 1900 · b)2100
d).Movementin socio-economic stratas . c) 2400 . d) 2800
2340. Movement across socioeconomic levels is termed 2351. In npoverty lines" the expenditure required for a
as- (AI 10) daily calorie intake of--- in rota areas,. (UP08)
a} Social equality b) Social upliftment a) 22CXl' b)2400
c) Social mobility d) Social insurance c) 2100 d)2300
2329)b 2330)b 233l)a 2332)b .2333)c 2334)a 233S)d 2336)b · 2337)c 2338)a · 2339}d. 2340)c 234I)b 2342)d
2343)a 2344)a 2345)c: 2346)c 2347)d .2348)b 2349)b. 2350)b · 235l)b
2352. According to the World Health Report2000, India's 2364. The most commonly abused drug causing addiction
health expenditure is- (AI 06) among Indian is- (UPSC 97)
a) 4.8%ofGD.P. b)5.2%ofGD.P. a) Amphetamine b) Cocaine
c) 6.8%ofGD.P. d)7%ofGD.P. c) Cannaine d) Cannabis
2353. Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003 e) LSD
is- (AI 06) 2365. Which one of the following is an environmental
a) 6.0 b)6.5 factor associated with mental illness? (UPSC 02)
c) 7.8 d) 10.5
a) Emotional stress b) Frustration
2354. Most important epidemiological tool used for
c) Brokenhome d)Anxiety
assessing disability in children is- (AI 03)
a) Activities ofDaily Living (ADL) scale. 2366. The incidence of mental illness is the maximum if
b) Wing's Handicaps, Behaviour and Skills (HBS) the causal factors affect a particular period -(UPSC)
Schedule a) Perinatal period b) First five years oflife
c) Binet and Simon IQ tests c) School age d) Adolescence
d) Physical Quality ofLife Index (PQL 1) 2367. Major psychosis is- (Kerala 9 5)
2355. Inventory of material means which one of the a) Neurosis
following- (UPSC-II 08) b) Dementia
a) List of items procured c) Reactive depression
b) Stock distrubuted during a period d) Endogenous depression
c) The quantum of material ordered for 2368. Components of IDEAS include all of the following
d) Stock on hand at any given time except- (AI 09)
2356. Thanatology is the science which deals with- a) Selfcare
a) Death in its aspects (HP 2006) b) Communication and understanding
b) Identification of the living c) Economic condition
c) Solving paternity of the child
d) Performing in work
d) Detection oflife
2369. Mental health programme was started in-
2357. Putting profit ahead of health as a cause of disease
is provided by which theory of Sociology- a) 1982 b) 1987 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Feminist b) Parsonian (AIIMS May 09) c) 1990 d) 1995
c) Marxist d) Foucauldian
GENETICS
MENTAL HEALTH
23 70. Effect of environment on genes is called-
2358. A male child of 15 years with a mental age of9 years a) Positive Eugenics (NEETIDNB Pattern)
hasaniQof- (AI03) b) Negative Eugenics
a) 50 b)60 c) Euthenics
c) 70 d)80 d) Euthenics
2359. An IQ between 50 & 70 would be classified as what 2371. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy
kindmentalretardation- (AI 95) Weinberg principle? (AIIMS Nov 11)
a) Mild b) Moderate a) Small population b) Random mating
c) Severe d) Borderline c) Mutations d) Gene outflow migration
2360. IQ= 51 - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
2372. Hardy Weingberg law is violated in- (AIIMS Nov 11)
a) Mild MR b) Moderate MR
a) Random mating b) Mutation
c) Severe MR d) Profound MR
2361. Which of the following is not true regarding c) Small population d) Gene flow
imbecility- (DPGEE 08) 2373. Hardly-weinberglawisrelatedto-(NEETAJNBPattem)
a) Better than idiot a) Population genetics b) Health economics
b) Has feeble memory c) Social medicine d) None of the above
c) Has moral standards 23 74. The law stating that "the relative frequency of each
d) Can be roused to passion gene allele tend to remain constant from generation
2362. Chronological age lOyrs, mental age 4yrs. What to generation" is known as- (UPSC-II 09)
that person called as? (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Mendel's law b) Hardy-Weinberg law
a) Idiot b) Imbecile c) David-Morgan's law d) Lamarck's law
c) Normal d) Genius 2375. Commonest among diseases with Mendelian
2363. IQ =20-34 - (NEETIDNB Pattern) inheritance is - (AI 99)
a) Severe MR b) Profound MR a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive
c) Moderate MR d) Mild MR X-linked recessive X-dominant
2352)b 2353)c 2354)b 2355)d 2356)a 2357)c 2358)b 2359)a 2360)a 2361)c 2362)b 2363)a 2364)d
2365) a,b,c,d 2366) b 2367) d 2368) c 2369) a 2370) c 2371) b 2372) c >b 2373) a 2374) b 2375) a
2376. Polygenic inheritance seen in- (PGI Dec 04) HOSPITAL WASTE & DISASTER MANAGE-
a) Hypertension MENT, OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH
b)HOCM
c) Manic depressive psychosis HOSPITAL WASTE MANAGEMENT
d) Familial hyperlipidemia 2386. Hospital waste product accounts- (PGI June 04)
23 77. Punett square is used to- (AI 11) a) Paper 40% b) Plastic 10%
a) Predict genotype of offspring c) Infectious waste 30% d) Rage 30%
b) Statistical analysis e) Glass4%
c) Test a hypothesis 2387. Amount of waste infectious produced in hospitals-
d) Track family history and inheritance a) 45% b) 65% (NEETIDNB Pattern)
2378. What is the incidence of chromosomal c) 800/o d) 100%
abnormality per 1000 live births- (UPSC 07) 2388. 'frue about composition of hospital waste- (PGI June
a) 1.6 b)3.6 a)Metal1% b)Paper15% 09)
c) 5.6 d)7.6 c) Glass 5% d) Infectious waste 3%
2379. Which one of the following is a correct combination e) Plastica 3%
regarding Indian population? (UPSC-11 09) 2389. What is the color-coding ofbag in hospitals to dispose
a) Blood groupAB 20% Rh negative 15% off human anatomical wastes such as body parts-
b) Blood group A 40% Rh negative 80% a) Yellow b) Black (AI 05)
c) Blood group 0 40% Rh negative 7% c) Red d)Blue
d) Blood group B 33% Rh negative 99% 2390. Discarded medicine- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Blue bag b) Black
MISCELLANEOUS c) Yellow d) Red
2391. Disposal of expired & cytotoxic drugs is by-
2380. All ofthe following are taken into consideration in a) Separate land fill disposal (AIIMS Nov 09)
KuppuswamyscaleEXCEPT- (DNBDec2011) b) Municipal waste
a) Education status c) Autoclave
b) Occupational status d) Preserve for 10 years & land fill
c) Living/Housing conditions 2392. A known IDV positive patient is admitted in an
d) Per capita Income isolation ward after an abdominal surgery following
2381. The Socio-Economic/Housing Scale developed for an accident. The resident docter who changed his
rural setup is? (DNB Dec 09) dressing the next day found it to be soaked in blood.
a) Pareek b) Kuppuswami Which of the following would be the right method of
c) Bhore d) Adson's scale choice of descarding the dressing- (AIIMS Nov 05)
2382. Acculturation is? (DNB June 09) a) Pour 1% hypochloric on the dressing material and
a) Traige send it for incineration in a appropriate bag
b) Cultural changes due to socialisation b) Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing material
c) Attitude and send it for incineration in a appropriate bag
d) Belief c) Put the dressing material directly in an appropriate
2383. Extension phase of a nuclear family begins with- bag and send for incineration
a) Marriage (DNB June 08) d) Pour 2% Lysol on the dressing material and send
b) Birth of the first child it for incineration in a appropriate bag
c) Birth of second child 2393. In PHC how to dispose placenta-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Spouse death a) Incineration b) Microwaving
2384. Mental retardation is defined ifiQ is below- c) Autoclaving d) Chemical treatment
a)~ b) 80 (DNB Dec 07) 2394. Animal waste is disposed off by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 70 d) 60 a) Incineration b) Autoclave
2385. Scales used for assessing socio-economic status of c) Microwave d) None
populations are the following except- 2395. For the disposal of hospital refuse, the bag made
a) Modified udai Pareek scale (DNB June 07) with cadmium is not used because incineration of
b) Modiefied Kuppuswamy scale the bag causes poisonous toxic fumes evolution. The
c) Likert scale colourofthebagis- (AIIMSMayOJ)
d) BG Prasad scale a) Black b)Red
c) Blue d) Yellow
2376)a,c2377)a 2378)c 2379)c 2380)c 238l)a 2382)b 2383)b 2384)c 2385)c 2386)b,e2387)a 2388)a,b2389)a
2390) b 2391) a 2392) c 2393) a 2394) a 2395) b
'OCIAL &.PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [4..112>]
2396i AllQftbe followingstateQi(!iltsteg~trclingdisposal 2406. Triage is- (AI 99)

otbicn:n,edicat:W:asteare.trlie,6cept ,. (AI 11) a) Treating the most serious cases
a) Human Anatomical Waste is disposed in a Yellow b) Categorisation of the patients and treating them
bag according to the available resource··.
b) Contents frOm a Red bag may be, ~source of c) Cautery burns
contamination d) Treating mentally ill patients ·
c) Black bags are used for disposal of ash from 2407. Black colour code is used in four colour ctide system
incineration of triage management in disaster for"" (DPGEE 08)
9.} :Slue, bags contents.are disposed in secured landfill a) Ambulatory patients b) Low prioritfpatients
2397. Plastic wrapper of surgical syringe should be c) Dead patients · · d) High priority patients
discarded in? (AJIMSNov08) 2408. True about triage- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Bluebag. b)Bl;tckbag , a) Yellow-leastpriority b) Red --morbidity
c) Yellow bag d) Red bag . c) Green-ambulatory·· d) Blue-ambulatory
2398. All can be incinerated except-(AI07; .tfllMSNov 08, 2409. Black color in triage- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Cytotoxic waste AIIMS May 11) a) Death b) Transfer '
b). Sl:larps . c) High priority· · d}Lowpriority·
c) Anatomical wa~te. 2410. High priority in triilge iS for- (NEETIDNBPattern)
d) Infectious waste a) Red color :b) Yellow color
2399: All ofthe followillgare incinerated except: c) Greeri color d) Black color
a) Mercury (.fG!May 1 0)
b) Radiological waste OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH
c) Halogen containing plastics
d) Humananatomical.w;aste 2411. Ergonomics- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
e) Animal waste a) Adjusting the Worker to his job
2400. Incineration is done for - (NEETIDNiJ Pattern) b) Study of hull1ari behavior
a) Waste sharps c) Study of social mobility
b) Human .anatomk waste . d) None
c) ~~di'{graphi.c . waste, . 2412. The size of Respirable dust is- (All India 93,
d) Used batteries a) l-5microns b)5-10microns AI2K)
2401. Safe di,sposalofmercuryis- (AIIMSMay 10, 09) c) 15 microns d) 20 microns
a) C.oUect carefully and recycle 2413. Bagassosis is most likely caused due to the
b) Controlled combustion · inhalation of the dust of- (AIIMS Nov 03)
c) Treatment with. chemicals a) Free silica b) Cl)al
c) Sugar cane d) Cotton fib.re . , .
d) Deep b~al . . .. ... , .·
2414. Cause of Farmer's lung.:·· (NEET)DNB Pattern)
2402. Na~aldisaster causing ma~um deaths:
a) Cotton dust b)Grain dust
a) Hydn)logical ·. · · (AiiMS May 12)
c) Sugatcari~ dust d)froii ..
b) Meterological 2415. Minimum duration of developing coal minor
c) .(]eological . pneumo~oniasis is- · · (A! 98)
d) Fires · a) 2c4 years . . .. b) 4-6 years.
2403. Which is the cahimity with most ,am()unt of c) 8-1 Oyears d) Morethan f 0 years
damage~.·· · · . (NEETIIJNB Pattern) 2416. Mesothelioma is caused by..: · · · (AI99)
a) Flood. ~)~~qv.al<:e a) Asbestosis b) Silicosis
c) Landslides . d) Volcanoes . b) Baggasois d) Anthracosis ··
2404. Which of the. following is tlte nodal centre for 2417. All· of the following features· are suggestive of
disaster management - . (NEET/DNB. Pattern) asbestosis except-·· (AIIMSMay 03)
a) PHC . . b)CHC .. . . a) Occurs within five years of exposure·.·
c) Control room. . d) None . b) The disease progresses even after removal ofcorita.ct
2405. Whicl:tof tbe following isnotaftlndm,tental aspect c) Can lead to pJeural mesothelioma,
· · • o:fDisa~~er ~anagement? · ·· (MH 11) d) .Sputum contains asbestos bodies.. . .
a) Disaster response · · 2418. Acute sllicQs~.clinicatmanifest~tti()n is.-. (NEETI
l?) Disaster mitigation a) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosi~ . J)NBPattern)
· c) Disaster awakening. b) Hypersensitivity penumonitis,
d) Disaster preparedriess c) Hypersensitivity pneumonia
d) Forms nodules and causes pneumoconiosis
2396) d 2397).b 2398)b 2399) a,b,c 2400) b 2401) a . 2402) a . 2403) a 2404}e 2405) c · 2406) b< 2407) c 2408) c
2409)a 2410)a 241l)a 2412)a 2413)c 2414)b 2415)d 2416)a 2411)a 2418}a
SOCIAL &·PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [4.1'13]
2419. Tbermopbilus sacbaricauses? (NEETIDNB Pattern) 2430. Which occupational exposure· inay: cause s~erility
a).Bagassosis b) Siderosis. in females- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Byssinosis .. . d) Anthracosis a) Lead ·. b) Carbon monoxide
2420. Which fungicide is used as a spr:ay for the control c) Mercury d) Agricultural insecticides
. ofbagassQsis- (Jipmer 92) 2431. Socio-security measures that are provided to the
a) 2% acetic acid
workers by which ·of the following Act!Acts-
b) 2% formic acid
c) 2%propionicaci4. a) Factory Act (PGIDec03)
d) 25%phenyl mercury . . . b) Central Maternity Benefit Act
2421. M/C Heavy Metal poisoning in '{be World- (NEETI . c) Workrriari compehsati:bnActs
a) Lead .. b) ArSenic · . PNB Pattern) d) Disablement benefit Act
c) Mervl1I'Y . . . . . d) Cadmium . · . · · .· · · e) Personal Benefit Act ·
2422. All ofthe following are true for occup~rl,gnallead 2432. All the follo:ftrjng are Sta,ndards hiid down by the
poisoning except - (A!IMS Nov 02) FactoriesA'ctex4!ept ~ · ·..·. (AI 94)
a) Inhalation is the most common mode of a) MinimuptSOO c.ub1c feet space per worker
absorption. · .. · . b) Maximum w9~king hours including overtime per
b) Lead in blood and urine provi(Je quantitative . week: 60 hours . . . . . . ' ...· ·.
indicators of exposure. . · ··
c) Defines any factory that employs 10 or more work
c) Average blood is inore hnportanttlian number
of subjects with blood levels above threshold. ers where power: is not used -
d) Basophilic stippling is a sensitive paranieter of d) Prohibitionof employmen~ of chil9fe11 below 14
hematological response years of age
2423. Most common mode oflead poisoning- 2433. ESI act was mad.e in.. (Kerala 98, PGI 84)
a) Ingestion b) Denna:lly ··· (AIIMS May 09) a) J94Q .b) 1948
c) Inhalation c) Through conjuctiva c) 19?2 d) 1954
2424. All the following form part of occupational health 2434. ESiactis not applicable for- (AI 2000)
history except- (AI 90) a) Educational institutions
a) History of previous occupation b) Power working factory employing 10 people or
b) Exposure to dust more
c) Childhood immunisations
c) Non power working factory employing 20 people
d) Safety
2425. Preplacement examination in dye industry includes or more
all of the following except- (AI 98) d) Newspaper establishments
a) Anemia b) Asthma 2435. In ESI progamme central, state, Govt. employee
c) Precancerous lession d) Dermatitis contribute to the fund. Employer's contribution is-
2426. Which of the following diseases needs not to be a) 5.75% b) 4. 75% (Orissa R)
screened for, in workers to be employed in a dye c) 3.75% d) 2.75%
industryingujarat? (AI01} 2436. Benefits under the Employees State Insurance
a) Anemia b) Bronchial asthma scheme include all the following except- (UPSC 02)
c) Bladder cancer d) Precancerous lesion a) Dependent's benefit
24 2 7. The industry, with the highest accidental death rate b) Funeral benefit
and long held to be the most dangerous occupation
c) Dearness allowance
is- (AIIMS80, PGI 81}
a) Agriculture b) Construction d) RehabilitationAllowance
c) Mining and quarrying d) Trade 2437. Which of the following disease is NOT liable for
e) Service · extended sickness benefit for 309 days-
2428. All of the following statements relating to lung a) Leprosy (AIIMS Dec 94)
carcinoma and occupation are true except- (AI 98) b) Aplastic anemia
a) Risk is increased c) Immature cataract with vision 6/60 or less
b) Takes long time to develop d) Mental disease
c) It takes less time to develop as compare to 2438. Duration of maternal benefit under ESI acts is-
general population. · · . ·. a) 4wks b)8wks (Jipmer 91)
d) It takes more time develop as compare to general c) 12wks d)24wks
population
2439. Sickness benefit under ESI is available for a period
2429. Diffuse mesothelioma is seen with- (PGI Nov 09)
a) Asbestos b) Arsenic of- (AI 99)
c) Tobacco use d) TB a) 30 days b) 46 days
e) Histoplasmosis c) 56 days d) 86 days
2419)a 2420)c 2421)a 2422)c. 2423)c 2424)c 2425)a 2426)a 2427)c 2428)d 2429)a 2430)d 243l)a,b,c,d
2432)c 2433)b 2434)None>a 2435)b 2436)c 2437)None 2438)c 2439)d
MISCELLANEOUS 2454. Cytotoxic drugs and medicines which are discarded

are disposed in- {PGMCET 07)
2440. Plastic cover of syringes is disposed in? a) Black bag b) Red bag
a) Red bag b)Yellowbag (DNBDec2011) c) Yellow bag d) Blue container
c) Black bag d) Blue bag 2455. Which one of the following is the category 1 of
2441. Baggasosis is caused by dust of? (DNB June 2011) biomedical waste in India- (UPSC 07)
a) Jute b) Cotton a) Human anatomical waste
c) Sugarcane d) Textiles b) Microbiological and biotechnological waste
2442. Discarded cytotoxic medicines should be disposed c) Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs
in? (DNB Dec 2010) d) Animal waste
a) Blue bag b)Blackbag 2456. According to the Bio-medical waste (Management
c) Red bag d) Yellow bag and Handling) Rules, 1998 oflndia, the yellow colour
2443. Waste Sharps should be disposed in?(DNB Dec 2010) code is for- (MH 11)
a) Black bag b) Yellow bag a) Human anatomical waste
c) Blue bag d) None of these b) Chemical waste
2444. Which bag among the following shouldn't be c) Waste sharps
incinerated as it contains cadmium? d) Incineration ash
a) Blue b)Red (DNBDec2010) 2457. "3-D" means in hospital waste management is-
c) Black d) Yellow a) Disinfection, Disposal, Drainage (UP 08)
2445. Best way to dispose e-waste is? (DNB Dec 2010) b) Discard, Disinfection, Drainage
a) Burning b) Incineration c) Destruction, Deep burial, Drainage
c) In a landfill d) Recycling d) Destruction, Deep burial, Disposal
2446. The maximum hours of work per week prescribed 2458. Commonest occupational disease in developing
undertheFactoriesActis- (DNB June 2010) countries is - (Kerala 96)
a) 42 b)48 a) Pneumoconiosis b) Asbemstosis
c) Lung cancer d) Byssinosis
c) 54 d)60
e) Occupational poisoning
244 7. Plastic cover of syringes are disposed in-
2459. "Farmer's Lung" is due to inhalation of-(MAHE 05)
a) Red bag b) Yellow bag (DNB Dec 09)
a) Cotton fiber b) Sugarcane fiber
c) Black bag d) Blue bag
c) Hay dust d) Coal dust
2448. Study of designing equipment and devices that fit
2460. What is the proportion of daily rate wages payable
the human body, its movements, and its cognitive
as periodic cash payment under sickness Benefit
abilities is? (DNB Dec 09) ofESIAct- (UPSC 07)
a) Economics b)Ergonomics a) 5-12 of the average monthly wages
c) Bionomics d) Socionomics b) 7/12 of the basic monthly wages
2449. In ESI progamme central, state, Govt. employee c) 8/12 of the averate daily wages
contribute to the fund. Employer's contribution is- d) 10/12 of the average daily wages
a) 5.75% b)4.75% (DNBDec08) 2461. The factories Act (1976) prohibits employment of a
c) 3.75% d)2.75% person below- (DPGEE 08)
2450. Which one of the following is the category 1 of a) 10years b) 14years
biomedical waste in India- (DNB Dec 08) c) 18 years d) 21 years
a) Human anatomical waste 2462. ExtendedESibenefitareallexcept? (APPG 08)
b) Microbiological and biotechnological waste a) News paper establishments
c) Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs b) Non power 18 employees
d) Animal waste c) Non power< 18 employees
2451. The majority of the waste produced by health-care d) Small power 10 to 18 employees
providers is- (Karn 11) 2463. In the statement" •..... benefit under the ESI act to
a) Chemical waste b) Infectious waste an insured person in the case of sickness is payable
c) General waste d) Sharps waste for a continuous maximum period ofX days the daily
2452. Sharp instruments like needles, syringes, scalpels rate being Y ofthe average daily wages", X andY
hospital waste products are thrown in- (SGPGI 05, stand respectively for- (UPSC 96)
a) Yellow bag b) Red bag Jipmer 05, a) 91 and5112 b)91 and 7112
c) Blue bag d) Black bag DPG 09) c) 181and7/12 d)181and5112
2453. Biodegradable waste products, disposing in which 2464. Lung cancer is an industrial hazard in/
ofthe colour code oftbe bags- (UP 08) for- (UPSC06)
a) Blue b) Black a) Chimney sweepers b) Aniline industry
c) Green d) Yellow c) Gas industry d) Benzol industry
2440)c 2441)c 2442)b 2443)c 2444)b 2445)d 2446)b 2447)c 2448)b 2449)b 2450)a 245l)c 2452)c 2453)d
2454)a 2455)a 2456)a 2457)a 2458)e 2459)c 2460)b 2461)b 2462)d 2463)b 2464)c
2465. The cancerogenic chemical that has a very long 2476. All of the following statements are true about mass
latent period is- (Karn, 95) media education except- (AI 98)
a) Benzopyrine b) Vinyl chloride a) Rapid and speedy
c) Asbestos d) Estrogens b) High reach
2466. True combination is all except- (SGPGI 05) c) Distorted information
a) Cold-Trench foot d) Meets local community needs
b) Light-Miner's nystagmus 2477. Which of the following in not a feature of Mass-
c) Pressure-Caisson disease
Mediaeducation- (AI 96)
d) Cane fibre-Farmer's lung
a) Deals with local problems of the community
b) Easily understandable
HEALTH EDUCATION & HEALTH PLANNING
c) Wide approach
d) More effective than individual or group method
2467. Healtheducation- (AI 97)
a) Is health promotion 2478. The best method of teaching an urban slum about
b) Is health distortion ORS is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Is delivered through public health agencies only a) Lecture b)Roleplay
d) Does not help in prevention of cancer c) Demonstration d) Flash cards
2468. All of the following are approaches to health 2479. To increase awareness of rural population towards
education- (AIIMS May 09) small family norm, the best method is- (AIIMS 85,
a) Service approach a) Film show ESI 88, 89, 90)
b) Regulatory approach b) Charts Exhibitions etc
c) Health education approach c) Role playing
d) Mass media d) Setting and example
2469. The most important step in health education of a 2480. The information technology bas revolutionized the
community is- (AI 96) world of medical sciences. In which of the following
a) Contact with doctors year the Information Technology Act was passed
b) Community discussion by the Government oflndia- (AI 05)
c) Announcements to the community by loud a) 1998 b)2000
speakers c) 2001 d)2003
d) Knowledge oflocal needs 2481. Which of the following statements about Delphi
2470. Following are used in planning of Health education method is true- (AI 08)
except- (AI 93) a) Method involves formation of a team to undertake
a) Cover felt needs b) Using simple words and monitor a Delphi on a given subject
c) Catchy slogans d) Ensuring participation b) Selection of one or more panels to participate in
2471. While launching a community programme best the exercise. Customarily, the panelists are experts
methodofactionis- (AI 96) in the area to be investigated.
a) Publicity drive c) The first round in the Delphi method involves
b) Talk to community leaders development of a questionnaire
c) Involvement of voluntary agencies d) All are true
d) Organize lecture 2482. All are TRUE regarding health planning, except-
2472. Which of the following is not a 2 way a) Resource planning and implementation
communication- (AI 88) b) Eliminating wasteful expenditure (AIIMS Nov 99)
a) Lectures b) Group discussion c) Creating demands for needs
c) Panel discussion d) Symposium d) To devt!iop best course of action for best results
2473. Mass media communication- (PGI June 07) 2483. Planning cycle includes - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Television b) Lectures a) Analysis of situation b) Evaluation
c) Symposium d) Radio c) Resource assessment d) All
e) Internet 2484. In implementation of health programme, bestthing
2474. 4-8 qualified persons, discuss a topic in front of a todois- (AIIMS Nov 99)
large audience, is an example of- (AIIMS Dec 95) a) Discussion and decision taken by the health
a) Symposium b) Panel discussion ministry regarding implementation
c) Workshop d) Group Discussion b) Discussion with people in community and decide
24 75. All are true about panel discussion except- according to it
a) Two way discussion (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Discussion with leaders in community and
b) 6 to 20 members participates implement accordingly
c) Chief members initiates d) Discussion with doctors in PHC and implement
d) Each one prepares the topic of discussion
2465)c 2466)d 2467)a 2468)d 2469)d 2470)c 2471)b 2472)a 2473)a,d,e 2474)b 2475)b 2476)c 2477)d
2478)c 2479)d 2480)b 2481)d 2482)c 2483)d 2484)b
2485. Which of the following is a set point for term plans 2496 .. Retrospettive evaluation of medical performance is
but is yet something cannot be quantified or measured- known as- (AI 99)
a) Target b)Goal (AI09) a} Medicalaudit
c) Objective d) Mission, b) Medical evaluation
2486. When an outcome is .compared with intended c)· Performance evaluation. ···
objectives, it is called as.., (AIIMSNov 07, AI 09) d) Professional screening .
a} Monitoring •. b) Evaluation .· 2497. The national health policy is based on• · (AI 95)
c) Input-Output analysis d)Networkanalysis a) Comprehensive health care .·
2487. Regular reporting ofhealth information is used for b) Subsidized health care ..
c) Socialized medicine
allofthefollowing,Except"" · (AI 12)
a) For planning, administration and effective
af
·d) :Equitable distributiori' hei.l:ltK tesotitces .
2498. National Health Policy oflndia-2002 includes all of
management of health services·
the following as goals, except- (AIIMSMay04)
b) For epideririological research . .
a) Eradicated Polio and Yaws by.the )'ear 2005
c) For assessing attitudes and satisfaCtions of b) Achieve zero level transrhission of HIVIAIDS
people reporting information byyear'2010 · ·
d) For quantifying health problems and· assessing c) EliiniitateKala-azar by year 2005 ·
health care needs. · d) Elimirtate Lymphatic Filarittsis byyear20 I 5
2488. Networkanalysisis- (AI 99) 2499. According to National Health Policy 2002~ which of
a) Quantitative method b) Qn<ilitative method the following is to be eliminated in 2015'" (AI 10)
c) Health education d) None a) Malaria b)Yaws ·
2489. P.E.R.T. is a type of- (ALLHPH200J,UPSC96) c) Leprosy d) Filanasis
a) Input output analysis b )System analysis 2500. National Health Policy for 2010 includes-
c) Network analysis . . d)\V()rk SaJ11pling a) IMR<30/l00 . .. . . . (PGI June 06)
2490. Timetakan foranyprojediS.estimate4. by- b) Control of communicable diseasd ·
a) Worksampli~g · .·' .. (JIPMER 91) c) MMR <200/100000
b) Input/output analysis . · d) Registration ofbirth & de'aths ~ 80%
c) Network analysis e) 80% couple protection rate·
d) System analy~is 2501. Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was
2491. Path oflongest duration in network analysis is- introduced followmg the.reoommendation of-
a) Limiting path method (l14AHE 07) a) SrivaStava Committee. .(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Critical path method b) Bhore Committee
c) A&B c) Kartar Singli Committee
d) MudaliarCommittee
d) NeitherAnorB
2502. ROME scheme was introduced consequent to the
2492. In the critical path method, illness is the maximum
recommendation of- (KERALA 2K)
if the causal factors affect a particular period of
a) Srivastava Committee b) Chadah committee
life. The vulnerable period is- (UPSC 97)
c) Mukherjee committee d) Kartar Singli committee
a) Shortest b) Longest e) 20pointprogramme · · · ·
c) Cheapest · d) Costliest 2503. Recommendation ofshrivastbava committee was-
2493. Finding the most cost effective way doing a a) Abolition of private practice · · .. (PGI95)
project- (DNB 2001) b) Creation of multipurpose health workers
a) Network analysis b) S:1stem analysis c) CreationofPHC
c) Cost analysis d) Field analysis d) All of above
2494. The assessment of Health Programme where the 2504. Which of the following was the first to promote and
benefit is expressed in terms of results achieved is bring forward the primary health care concept in
called- (J & K 05) true sense? (AI 10)
a) Cost benefit analysis a} Bhore coll)llfittee
b) Cost effective analysis b) Alma ata declaration
c) Cost accounting c) Gobalforum for public health
d) Cost containment d) Mudaliar conunittee
2495. A systematic observation. and recording of 2505. Bajaj·eommittee; true is-. (NEET/DNB,Pattern)
activities of one or more indiyhluals at random a) Constituted in 1946
interval is done in- (UPSC 07, Corned 06) b) Recommends formation ofPHC
a) Systems analysis b) Network analysis c) Recommends health manpower policy
Work d) None
2485) b 2486) b 2487) c 2488) b 2489) c 2490) c 2491) b 2492) b 2493) c 2494) b 2495) c 2496) a 2497) a 2498) c
2499)d 2500)a 250l)c 2502)a 2503)b 2504)b 2505)c
2506. All are included in health sector policy in India 2515. Rural health scheme introduced by?
except- (AI 98) a) Bhore committee (DNB June 11)
a) Nutritional supplements b) Mukherjee committee
b) Medical education c) Shrivastava committee
c) Family welfare programme d) Mudaliar committee
d) Control of communicable disease 2516. Socratic of education consists of all
2507. All ofthe following are included in Health Sector except- (DNBDec 10)
Planning except- (AIIMS Dec 98) a) Lecture b) Group discussion
a) Medical education c) Seminar d) Panel discussion
b) Family planning 2517. Bajaj committee in 1986 proposed? (DNB Dec 10)
c) Control of communicable diseases a) Multipurpose health worker
d) Water and sanitation facilities b) Manpower and planning
2508. Which of the following (s) is are state responsibility c) Rural Health Service
for health- (PGI June 09) d) Integrated health services
a) Vital statics 2518. A set of statements for monitoring progress towards
b) Promotion of research through research centres goal completion is referred to as? (DNB Dec 10)
& other bodies a) Targets b) Objective
c) Prevention of adulteration c) Programme d) Procedure
d) Prevention of communicable disease 2519. True about "Zero base budgeting" is? (DNB June 10)
2509. Which ofthe following act(s) passed before 1980- a) Relies on data of previous budget
a) ESI act b) PNDT (PGI, Nov 09) b) Proceeds from resources to target
c) Factories act d) MTP act c) Proceeds from target to resource
e) Air pollution act d) Not a priority based budgeting
2510. Which one of the follwing is the correct 2520. Integration of health services was first proposed
chronological order in which the given Acts were
by? (DNB June 09)
passed in India- (UPSC-II 08)
a) Bhore committee
a) Quarantine Act, Vaccination Act, Sarda Act,
b) Jungalwalla commitee
Factory Act.
c) Mudaliar commitee
b) Quarantine Act, Sarda Act, Factory Act,
Vaccination Act. d) Srivastava commitee
c) Sarda Act, Vaccination Act, Quarantine Act, 2521. Which ofthe following is the socratic method of
factory Act, teaching- (DNB Dec 08)
d) Vaccination Act, Quarantine Act, Factory Act, a) Lecture b) Films
SardaAct, c) Exhibition d) Panel discussion
2511. Concurrent list does not encompass- (AI 08) 2522. Concept of multipurpose workers was given by-
a) Prevention Jf extension of communicable a) Mudaliar committee (DNB Dec 08)
disease from one unit to another b) Srivastava committee
b) Prevention of adulteration of food stuffs c) KartarSinghcommittee
c) Regulation and developement of medical d)Mukherjeecommittee
profession 2523. 'BARS' system is a method of- (DNB June 08)
d) Vital statistics a) System analysis
2512. Panchayati Raj includes all, except- (PGMCET07) b) Performance appraisal
a) Gram Sabha b) Gram Panchayat c) Network analysis
c) Nyaya Sabha d) Nyaya Panchayat d) None of the above
2513. Which one of the following is not source of 2524. The most effective method for motivating a couple
manager's power- (AI 05) for adopting family planning practices is-
a) Reward b) Coercive a) Printed material (UPSC 02)
c) Legitimate d) Efferent b) Films and television
c) Group discussion
MISCELLANEOUS
d) Inter- personal communication
2525. Panel discussion can be defined as- (COMEDK 05)
2514. A group of8 experts discussing and interacting about
a) Series of speeches
a topic in front of large audience is? (DNB Dec 11)
a) Workshop b) Symposium b) Discusion by 4-8 qualified persons
c) Seminar d) Panel discussion c) Groups describing individual experiences
wise formatted
2506)a 2507)None 2508)a,c,d 2509)a,c,d 2510)a 25ll)c 2512)c 2513)d 2514)d 2515)c 2516)a 2517)b
2518)c 2519)c 2520)b 252l)d 2522)c 2523)b 2524)d 2525)b
2526. Which of the following statements refers to 2536. One-third of the Rajya Sabha member's retire every-
propaganda? (Karn 11) a) Three years b) Four years (UPSC-1 08)
a) Appeals to emotion c) Two years d) One year
b) Develops individuality 2537. Which of the following allocates business to
c) The process is behaviour centred different Ministries/Departments in the
d) Makes people think for themselves Governmentoflndia? (UPSC-1 08)
2527. Not used in Health planning? (APPG 08)
a) PrimeMinister'soffice
a) Increasing demands for resources
b) Cabinet Secretariat
b) Analysis of health situation
c) Ministry of Parliamentary affairs
c) Assessment of Resources
d) Fixing priorities d) Lok sabha secretariat
2528. The critical path (CPM) method in health planning 2538. Which one ofthe following has the primary function
and management is- (UPSC 2001) of distributing the revenue between the Centre and
a) The shortest time taken to complete the project States? (UPSC-1 08)
b) The midpoint for review of the project a) DepartmentofExpenditureinthe UnionGovenunent
c) The longest path taken to complete the project b) Finance Conunission
d) Concerned with queuing theory c) Inter-State Council
2529. Predominantly, for management of which one of the d) Planning Conunission
following resources is the critical path method 2539. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held
(CPM) used as one of the health administration within- (UPSC-1 08)
techniques- (UPSC 2006) a) 1 month b) 3 months
a) Money b) Manpower c) 6 months d) 1 year
c) Time d) Material 2540. With reference to the Parliament of India, the
2530. In a programme, results analyzed in comparison to question as to whether the Bill is a money bill or not
cost is known is- (UPSC-11 09)
is decided by who among the following?
a) Cost benefit analysis
a) President oflndia (UPSC-1 08)
b) Management by objectives
c) Cost-effective analysis b) Prime Minister
d) Cost utility study c) Speaker ofLok Sabha
2531. The degree to which a specific health care d) Union Finance Minister
intervention achieves its objectives, when applied in 2541. How many Articles ofthe Constitution oflndia have
a given population, is termed as its- (UPSC-II 09) provisions for the "Right to Freedom ofReligion"?
a) Sensitivity b) Effectiveness a) Two b) Three (UPSC-1 08)
c) Efficiency d) Impact c) Four d) Five
2532. Bhore committee advised- (KERALA 97) 2542. Under the Rajiv Gandhi ShramikKalyan Yojana, in
a) Integration of health services case of closure of a factory/establishment, one gets
b) l 00% immunisation "UnemploymentAllowance" for- (UPSC-1 09)
c) Eradication of poverty a) 6 months b) 9 months
d) minimum needs programme c) 12 months d) 18 months
2533. Medical education which includes 3 months' 2543. Which among the following has the primary
training in preventive and social medicine was function of distributing the revenue between the
introducedby- (AMU05)
Centre and States in India? (UPSC-1 09)
a) Bhore conunittee
a) Planning Commission
b) Kartar Singh committee
c) Shrivastav committee b) Finance Conunission
d) Chadab conunittee c) Inter-state Council
2534. Social physian concept was mooted by- d) Department of Expenditure in the Central
a) Bhore Committee (UPSC-11 08) Govenunent
b) Chadha Committee
c) Shrivastav Conunittee HEALTH CARE OF THE COMMUNITY &
d) Kartar Singh Conunittee INTERNATIONAL HEALTH
2535. "The concurrent list" of the constitution oflndia
lists the following functions except- (Karn. 2001) 2544. Primary Health Care includes all, except-
a) Prevention of extension of conununicable disease a) Treatment is done by a doctor (AI 00)
b) Administration of hospital and health services b) Equitable distribution
c) Collection and compilation of vital statistics c) Intersectoral coordination
d) Labour welfare
2526)a 2527)a 2528)c 2529)c 2530)c 253l)b 2532)a 2533)a 2534)a 2535)b 2536)c 2537)b 2538)b 2539)c
2540)c 254l)c 2542)a 2543)b 2544)a
SOCIAL & PREVENTIVE MEDICINE [ 4..119]
2545. Primary health care, true are all except- 2555. MDG is to reduce MMR by - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Essential health care for all (AIIMSNov 07) a) 1/2 b) 2/3
b) Health services are taken to the doors of people c) 3/4 d) 4/5
c) Placing people's health in people's hands 2556. Millennium developmental goal for HIVI AIDS -
d) Sectors like agriculture, animal husbandary, food, a) 6 b) 3 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
industry & communication are involved c) 8 d) 1
2546. Elements of primary health care include all of the 2557. Health man power indicated by which of the
followingexcept- (AI03) following- (PGI June 05, AIIMS June 05)
a) Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation a) Doctor I per 35000 population
b) Providing essential drugs b) ANM 1 per> 1000 population
c) Sound referral system c) Lab technician 1 per 10000 population
d) Health Education d) Pharmacist 1 per 100000 population
2558. All are grass root worker's except- (AI 98)
2547. Increasing number of services in rural areas is
a) Anganwadi workers
a part of- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Traditional birth attendants
a) Intersectoral coordination
c) Village health guide
b) Equitible distribution
d) Health assitants
c) Appropriate technology
2559. Village-health guide scheme is not present in-
d) None
a) Kamataka b)J&K (AIIMS 98)
2548. Emphasis shifted from urban to rural services -
c) Tarnilnadu d) AU ofthe above
a) Equitable distribution (NEETIDNB Pattern)
2560. A Health Guide works at- (AI 2K)
b) Community participation
a) Each village level b) Sub-centre level
c) Intersectoral coordination
c) PHC level d) Community level
d) None
2561. The period of training for a village health guide is-
2549. Which of the following is NOT a component of
a) 1 month b) 3 months (Corned 07)
primary health care- (AIIMS Dec 94)
c) 6 months d) 12 months
a) Adequate nutrition
2562. A trained dai caters for a population of-
b) Adequate housing
a) 1000 b) 2000 (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Safe water supply
c) 3000 d) 4000
d) Provision of essential drugs
2563. Which is false regarding anAnganwadi worker-
2550. Elements of primary heath care are the following
a) Part timeworker (AIIMS 92)
except- (AI 10)
b) Undergoes 4 month training
a) Health education
b) Intersectoral coordination c) 1 for 1000 children
c) Cost effectiveness d) Selected from the community itself
d) Provision of essential drugs 2564. According to national health policy, a subcentre
2551. False regarding Health For All by 2000 A.D. is- caters to population in hilly and tribal areas -
a) All people will be healthy by 2000 A.D. (AI 00) a) 3000 b) 5000 (AIIMS Dec 97)
b) All people are accessible to health care services c) 1000 d)2500
c) All will have socially and economically 2565. A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of-
productive life a) 1000 b)2000 (AIOI)
d) Equal health status for people and countries c) 3000 d) 5000
2552. The Millennium Development Goals (MDG) is to 2566. Female health worker- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
be achieved by the year- (Corned 07) a) Covers 5000 population
a) 2010 b)2015 b) Covers 1000 population
c) 2020 d)2030 c) Covers 100 population
2553. Which of the following is nottargeted in Millennium d) None
Development Goals (MDGs)? 2567. Kit B is given at - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Eradicating extreme poverty a) PHC b) Subcenter
b) Fostering global partnership for development c) GIC d) FRU level
c) Reducing child mortality 2568. Kit B given at subcentre - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Improving health care delivery a) VitA b) ORS
2554. According to MDG child mortality has to be reduced c) Paracetamol d) Iron
by how, much by 2015 - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 2569. Population covered by a PHC in hilly region is-
a) One third b) Half a) 20,000 b)30,000 (AI 99)
c) Two third d) One fourth c) 40,000 d)25,000
2545)b 2546)c 2547)b 2548)a 2549)b 2550)c 2551)a 2552)b 2553)d 2554)a 2555)c 2556)a 2557)a,c2558)d
2559) d 2560) a 2561) b 2562) a 2563) c 2564) a 2565) c 2566) a 2567) b 2568) c 2569) a
2570. No of inpatient beds in PHC ?(NEETIDNB Pattern) 2580. Job functions of Health Assitant males are-
a) 6 b) 10 a) ORS distribution (PGI May 1 0)
c) 20 d) 25 b) Collect Smear from any fever case
2571. Function ofPHC are- (PGI June 03) c) Collection of sputum smear from havmg person
a) Referral services prolonged cough
b) Familyplanuing & referral services d) hnmunization
c) Basic laboratory services e) Check minimum of 10% house in a village
d) Specialist service 2581. Age limit in universal health insurance scheme is-
e) Collection and reporting of vital statistics a) 10-20years b)40-60years
2572. Difference between Dispensary and PHC is that a c) 50 -70 years d) 1-65 years
PHC- (AI 99) 2582. The premium of the "Community-based Universal
a) Gives integrated services Health Insurance Scheme" launched during 2003-
b) Is confined to particular area 04 ranges from ,.. (AI 06)
c) Is managed by medical officer a) Rs. I per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day
d) Is located in rural areas for a family of seven
2573. Under the Primary health care, which of the b) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 3 per
following staff is present at the subcentre level- day for a family of seven
a) Blockextensioneducator (AIIMS Nov 07) c) Rs. 2 per day poor and individual toRs. 12 per
b) Health guides day for a family of seven
c) Multipurpose health worker d) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 7 per
d) Medical officer day for a family of seven
257 4. Which is true abont community health center-
a) It covers a population of one lakh (AI 91) MISCELLANEOUS
b) It has an 60 beds with specialities in surgery
medicine and gynecology 2 583. Which of the following best reflects the highest level
c) Community health officer is selected with a of community participation- (AI 10)
minimum of 5 years exposure a) Planning of intervention by community
d) New medical post of community health officer is b) Intervention based on assessment of community
created needs
2575. Population oflOOO is covered by- (PGI Dec 2000) c) Provision of resources by community
a) Anganwadi worker b) Health assistant d) Community supports and cooperates with
c) Trained Dai d) Village health guide workers
2576. FunctionofHealthworkerfemale- (PGIDec05) 2 584. According to a joint study "Healthcare in India: The
Road Ahead" done by CII and MekinSey and
a) Perform 50% of deliveries
Company in 2002, India's executing bed population
b) Trains dais
rate is- (AIJMS Nov 05)
c) Enlist dais of the subcentre
a) 2: 1000 b) 1.5:1000
d) Chlorination of water
c) 9:1000 d)2.5:1000
e) Collectors of urine samples 2585. One of the following is not a Voluntary Health
2577. A female multipurpose worker does not do- (AI 89) agency- (Kerala 2K)
a) Distribute condoms a) FamilyplanuingAssociation oflndia
b) Malaria suruveillance b) Indian Council for child Welfare
c) Birth death statistics c) Ford Foundation
d) Immunisation of mothers d) Rockfeller Foundation
2578. A female multipurpose worker should be able to e) National Institute ofNutrition
detect all ofthe following except- (AIIMS 92) 2586. Members of southeast Asia ofWHO are-
a) Anemia b) Renal disease a) Japan b)Afganistan (PGI June OJ)
c) Hydramnios d) Malpresentation c) India d) Pakistan
2579. Functions offemale health worker includes- e) Srilanka
a) Visit 4 subcentres/month Health Assistment 2587. The world health organisation day is- (PGI 88)
b) Enlist dais of the sub-centre (PGJ June 06) a) 7thApril b)2P1 May
c) Conduct 50% delivery c) 2nd August d)3PtDecember
d) Chlorination of water Health worth male 2588. The WHO was set up in- (PGI 84)
e) Collection of urine sample a) 1929 b) 1946
c) 1948 d) 1952
2570)a 257l)a,b,c,e 2572)a 2573)c 2574)a 2575)a,c,d 2576)b,c 2577)b 2578)b 2579)b 2580)b,d,e 258l)d
2582) a 2583) a 2584) b 2585) e 2586) c,e 2587) a 2588) c
2589. WHO constitution was made in- (PGI 79, ESI 89.90) 2603. World health day is celebrated on? (DNB June 11)
a) 1947 b) 1950 a) l 51 December b)31 51 may
c) 1952 d) 1956 c) 7th April d) 8th may
2590. WHO formation day is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 2604. Which of the following is true about female health
a) 5 May b) 7 April worker? (DNB June 11)
c) 10 June d) 10 July a) Acts at PHC level
2591. The slogan for WHO 2005- (Manipal 2006) b) Covers a population of 5000 population
c) Chlorinates well at regular intervals
a) Road safety b) Maternal and child health
d) Makes at least 3 post natal visits for each delivery
c) Aging d) Physical activity
2605. All are principles of primary health care EXCEPT-
2592. Intermediate health agencies excluding WHO are- a) Intersectoral coordination (DNB June 09)
a) UNICEF b) FAO (AMC 84, AIIMS82, b) Community participation
c) UNESCO d) ILO UPSC 83, 86) c) Appropriate technology
2593. All ofthe following 'Reforms' have been proposed by d) Decentralised approach
the World Health Report (2008), except- (AI11) 2606. A suggested norm for health manpower in India is?
a) Service Reforms b) Leadership Reforms a) I health worker for 3500 population
c) Policy Reforms d) Economic Reforms b) 1 doctor per 5000 population (DNB June 09)
2594. UNICEF providesaDserviceexcept- (UP 2K) c) 1 nurse per 5000 population
a) Immunization b) Child d) 1 pharmacist for 5000 population
c) Nutrition d) Family planning 2607. Population covered by anganwadi in tribal area is?
e) Child education a) 1000 b)700 (DNBJune09)
2595. Head quarters ofFAO is at- (AIIHPH 2K) c) 400 d) 100
a) New york b) Geneva 2608. Highest level of integration in health service is?
c) Rome d) San francisco a) PHC b) Sub centre (DNB June 09)
c) Q-IC d) District hospital
2596. Latest WHO classification and measurement of
2609. Suggested doctor-population ratio as per
disability is- (AI 09)
Governmentoflndia- · (DNB June 08)
a) IDEAS b)ICF a) 1 per 3000 b) 1 per 3500
c) ICIDH-11 d) WHO DAS I c) 1 per 5000 d) 1 per 30,000
2597. Which of the following is False about Red Cross 2610. Population covered by a community health centre-
emblem- (AI 10) a) 5000 b) 30,000 (DNB June 08)
a) It came into existence in 1863 in Geneva meet c) 1000 d) 100,000
b) The vertical and horizontal lines are of equal 2611. Health care made universally accessible to
lengths individuals and acceptable to them is called-
c) It is used by members ofUNO a) Primary health care (DNB Dec 07)
d) Use of red cross symbol without permission of b) Essential health care
government oflndia is a punishable offence in India c) Community health care
2598. World health day- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Social Medicine
a) 7th april b) 7th July 2612. An ideal subcenter for a rural population should
c) 7th Dec. d) 7th Feb. cater a population of- (DNB June 07)
2599. World" No tobacco" day is- (Kerala 97) a) 1000 b)2000
a) May3Pt b)April5th c) 5000 d) 10000
2613. One Village health guide is for population of-
c) December 11th d) November 14th
a) 1000 b)5000 (DNBJune07)
2600. One village health guide is for population of- c) 10000 d) 50000
a) 1000 b)5000 (DNB Dec 11) 2614. Health care made universally accessible to
c) 10000 d) 50000 individuals and acceptable to them is called-
2601. Not under millennium development a) Primaryhealthcare (AIIHPH98)
goals? (DNB June 11) b) Essential health care
a) Reduction of cardiovascular health hazards c) Community health care
b) Eradication of extreme poverty d) Social Medicine
c) Global partnership for development 2615. All of the following are the principles of primary
d) Sustainability of the environment health care except- (UPSC 97)
2602. Millennium development goals aim to reduce MMR a) Social equity
by? (DNB June 11) b) Intersectoral coordination
a) 3/4 b) 2/3 c) Specialty services
l/4 1/2 d) Community participation
2589)a 2590)b 2591)b 2592)All 2593)d 2594)None 2595)c 2596)b>c 2597)c 2598)a 2599)a 2600)a
2601)a 2602)a 2603)c 2604)b 2605)d 2606)c 2607)b 2608)a 2609)b 2610)d 26ll)a 2612)c 2613)a 2614)a
2615)c
2616. Among theprinciplesofPrimaryHealth Care, the 2630. The headquarters of UNESCO is in- (UPSC 99)
one which is NOT included is- (Comed 09) a) Geneva b) Paris
a) Intersectoral coordination c) Newdelhi d)Newyork
b) Appropriate technology 2631. The WHO announced, immunisation is a primary
c) Equitable distribution responsibility of- (KERALA 96)
d) Information, Education and Communication a) States
2617. Principles of primary health care include all ofthe b) International community
following except- (Karn 03) c) Voluntary agencies
a) Political commiment to health for all d) An individual
b) Rosources allocation
2632. UNDP is an international agency which works for-
c) Disability prevalence
a) Development of children (UPSC 96)
d) Community involvement
b) Development of human & natural resources in a
2618. In Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), how
country
many goals are health related? (MH 11)
a) 1 outof8 b)2outof8 c) Economic development of the country
c) 3 out of8 d) 4 out of8 d) Research and technological deveplopment of the
2619. Village health guide scheme was started in- country
a) 1974 b) 1977 (MAHE 05) 2633. World Bank gives loan for- (AMU 05)
c) 1986 d) 1989 a) Economic growth
2620. An anganwadi worker is trained for- (AllHPH 2001) b) Microbiological culture TB control
a) 3 months b) 4 months c) Accident problems
c) 5 months d) 6 months d) All
2621. Peripheral level health workers are all except- 2634. The organization concerned with improving the
a) Anganwadi workers b) DAIS (TN 03) working and living conditions of the working
c) GramSevak d)VHNS population all over the world is- (MAHE 07)
2622. Antenatal support is NOT delivered by- a) IlO b)FAO
a) Anganwadi worker (APPGE 05) c) WHO d) UNDP
b) Female Health worker 2635. CARE is associated with- (Manipal 08)
c) Health supervisor female a) ICDS b)CRY
d) Traditional birth Attendant c) Ford Foundation d)RCH sheme
2623. Community health centres covering a population of- 2636. For inventing which one of the following is Marc
a) 40-60,000 b) 60-80,000 (UP 07) Koska best known? (UPSC-1 08)
c) 80-1.20,000 d) More than 1.20,000 a) Artificial blood
2624. A sub-centre caters the needs of ---population-
b) Disposable K1-syringe
a) 30000 b) 15000 (MAHE 05)
c) Vaccine against Polio
c) 5000 d) 10000
d) ELISA test
2625. Which ofthe following is a voluntary organization-
2637. In which year did the Kyoto Protocol come into force?
a) TB Association oflndia (J1PMER 95)
b) Directrate of Health Service a) 2001 b)2003 (UPSC-108)
c) Indian Medical Council c) 2005 d)2007
d) Council ofMedical Research 2638. Which one of the following was the major outcome
2626. Disbursement of old age pension by the of the famous Earth summit in Rio de Janeiro in
Governmentis- (Comed 07) 1992 - (UPSC-1 08)
a) Social assistance b) Social welfare a) Setting up of bio-safety standards
c) Social insurance d) Social defense b) Global strategy for control of pandemics
2627. In India, what is the approximate percentage oftotal c) Framework convention on climate change
land area which is categorised as nationally protected? d) Framework on strategies for sustainable
a) 3% b)5% (UPSC-108) development
c) ?0/o d) 9% 2639. All of the following activities of Junior Red cross
2628. Health for all by the World Health Organization except- (UP 07)
was announced at- (Manipal 04) a) Military hospital worker
a) USA b)USSR b) Village uplift
c) Canada d) Geneva c) Prevent epidemic work
2629. AimaataConfrerncewasheldin- (JIPMER95) d) Any of the above
a) 1978 b) 1956
c) 1977 d) 1948
2616)d 2617)c 2618)c 2619)b 2620)b 2621)c 2622)c 2623)c 2624)c 2625)a 2626)a 2627)b 2628)d 2629)a
2630)b 263l)a 2632)b 2633)a 2634)a 2635)a 2636)b 2637)c 2638)c 2639)a
HEALTH PROGRAMMES IN INDIA 2651. Strategies in National Leprosy Control programme-

a) Early detection of cases (AIIMS 79, PGI 90)
2640. NVBDCP includes all except?(NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Short course multi drug therapy
a) Malaria b) Filarial c) Rehabilitation
c) Kala azar d) Chikungunya d) Chemoprophylaxis with dapsone
2641. According to the World Health Report 2000, India's e) All of the above
health expenditure is- (AI 06) 2652. FALSE about Leprosy eradication programme is-
a) 4.8%ofGD.P. b)5.2%ofGD.P. a) Early detection of cases (AIIMS June 98)
c) 6.8% ofGD.P. d) 7% ofG.D.P. b) Disability limitation
2642. In which ofthe following year the Transplantation c) Long term multi drug therapy
ofHuman Organs Act was passed by Government of d) Health education
India? (AI 06, 05)
2653. Effective leprosy control programme may be
a) 1994 b) 1996
indicated by all ofthe following except-
c) 2000 d)2002
a) Increasing number of children affected
2643. License to blood bank is given by- (AIIMS May 09)
b) Decreased grade 2 disability (AIIMS Nov 09)
a) Drugs controller general ofindia
c) Low MDR resistant, multibacillary cases
b) Director general of health services
d) High new case detection rate
c) Director general, Indian council of medical
2654. Elimination of leprosy is defined as prevalance -
research
a) < 1 per 1000 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Director general ofblood bank services b)< 1 per 10000
2644. Which is not true of malaria Eradication programme c) < 1 per 1 lakh
a) Startedin 1953 (Allindia93) d)< 1 per 100
b) Modified plan started in 1970 2655. As per WHO, leprosy is a public health problem if
c) Incidence was 2 million cases in 1958 prevalence is- (AIIMS 98)
d) Incidence decreased to 50,000 in 1961 a) 0.1% b) O.oi%
2645. In NMEP, the recommendation for an area withAPI2 c)0.5% d)l%
areallexcept- (AI 95) 2656. SET centres are established if prevalence o/o leprosy
a) Presumptive treatment is- (MAHE 98, UPSC 88, PGI 81)
b) DDT spraying regularly throughout the year a) 0.5-111000 b) 1-5
c) Epidemiological investigation of all cases c) 5-10 d) 10
d) Follow-up of every case for one year and 2657. Best mode to control leprosy eradication-
monthly blood smears programme is- (AIIMS Sep 96)
2646. WHO Malaria Mass Drug Administration - a) Mass chemotherapy
a) API >5 b) > 2 (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Early diagnosis and treatment
c) 15 d) 25 c) High risk chemotherapy
2647. Under NMEP, the function offever depot treatment d) Health education
is- (AI 94) 2658. National Leprosy Eradication Programme was
started in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Diagnosis of cases + spraying
a) 1949 b) 1955
b) Collection of slides+ treatment of fever
c) 1973 d) 1983
c) Treatment of fever cases only
2659. Which one of the following statements is not
d) Treatment+ slide collection+ spraying
correct regarding National Leprosy Eradication
2648. Under the NMEP, the minimum annual blood Programme (NLEP)- (UPSC 07)
examination rate should be- (AI 94) a) Multibacillary leprosy treatment is recommended
a) 10% b) 12% for one year
c) 14% d) 18% b) Skin smear examination is done for classification
2649. In an area having annual parasite index ofless than into paucibacillary and multibacillary
2, the following is to be done- (PGI 89) c) Specia1Action Project for Elimination ofleprosy
a) Passive surveillance only is for rural areas
b) 2 rounds of DDT yearly d) Surveillance for two years for a treated case of
c) Entomological surveillance paucibacillary leprosy to be carried out
d) All positive cases blood smear to be done monthly 2660. Under National Leprosy Elimination Programme,
2650. Antimalarial month is- (AMU 05) Maharashtra state comes under which category?
a) April b) May a) Category I b) Category II (MH 11)
June c) Category III c) Category IV
2640) d 2641) b 2642) a 2643) a 2644) a,b 2645) d 2646) b 2647) b 2648) a 2649) d 2650) d 2651) a,b,c 2652) c
2653) a 2654) b 2655) b 2656) b 2657) b 2658) d 2659) b 2660) b
2661. Goal of National turberculosis control programme 2671. Features ofRNTCP AlE: (PGJMayJO)
is- (Kerala 96) a) Active case fmdings is not done
a) To eradicate TB b) Included in NRHM in 2005
b) To decrease the transmission ofTB c) Teachers act as DOTS agent
c) To treat all sputum +ve patients d) Microscopy centre is established/1 Lac
d) To decrease the incidence ofTB to such a low level e) Achievement of atleast 85% cure rate
that is no longer a major public health problem 2672. Most crucial part of tuberculosis control programme
e) BCG vaccination of all infants is- (AIIMS Feb 97)
2662. Which ofthe following is a novel feature ofRNTCP a) Contact tracing
(Revised National Tuberculosis Control b) BCG vaccination
Programme)- (UPSC-II08) c) Treatment of sputum positive cases
a) Achieving 80% BCG coverage d) Treatment of X-ray positive cases
b) Achieving 85% detection rate 2673. Case finding in RNTCP is based on-(AIJMS Nov 06)
c) Achieving 70% cure rate a) Sputum culture b) Sputum microscopy
d) Involvement ofNGOs c) X-ray chest d) PCR antibody detection
2663. In Revised National Tuberculosis Control 267 4. The sputum examination under DTP is done when
programme the silent features are to achieve - thepatientpresentwith- (PGJ June 02)
a) Cure rate 85% & diagnosis 85% (Jipmer 05) a) Cough of 1-2 wks duration
b) Cure rate 85% & diagnosis rate 80% b) Persistent cough of 1-2 wks duration
c) Cure rate 80% & diagnosis 85% c) Hemoptysis
d) Cure rate 80% & diagnosis rate 80% d) Chest pain
2664. Features ofRNTCP AlE- (PGJ June 06) e) Intermittent fever
a) Active case findings 2675. Important step in national TB control programme
b) Involvement ofNGO are all except- (AJJMS 97)
c) Sputum - 3 times a) Treatment of sputum positive cases
2665. District TB Control programme is mainly b) Treatment of contacts
concerned with- (UPSC 86, 88 AMC 87) c) BCG vaccination
a) Finding out new cases d) Isolation of sputum positive cases
b) Finding out resistant cases 2676. True about DOTS- (PGJ Dec 02, Dec 06)
c) Detecting cases and treatment a) Drugs are given on supervision
d) All of the above b) Streptomycin always given in first two months
2666. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be c) Intermittent regimen are used
called a PHC-R, requisite is- (AI 01) d) Same regimen is given in all patient
a) Microscopy b) Microscopy plus radiology e) In catagory - 1. new sputum positive cases
c) Radiology d) None of the above sputum examined in 2.5 and 6 months
2667. Which is not included in RNTCP- (PGI June 04) 2677. A peripheral Health institution under the distric
a) Active case finding b) Directly observed TB centre is termed as PH 1-T if it has- (AI 89)
c) X-ray is diagnostic d) Drugs given daily a) Radiology facility
2668. Diagnosis ofTB ace to DOTS? (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Microscopyfacility
a) 1 out of 2 samples positive c) Radiology and microscopy facility
b) 2 out of 3 samples positive d) Referral facility
c) 3 out of 3 samples positive 2678. Under the National Programme for Control of
d) None Blindness in India, medical colleges are classified
2669. True about revised National Tuberculosis as eye care centers of- (AIIMS Nov 03)
programme(NTP)- (PGJ June 03) a) Primary level b) Secondary level
a) Active case finding c) Tertiary level d) Intermediate level
b) DOTS applied 2679. About NPCB, all are true except- (AJJMS May 09)
c) Treatment is given only in smear positive cases a) Increase cataract surgery rate to 450 operations
d) General practitioners are restricted to give the per lakh population
treatment b) Intra-ocular lens implantation in more than 80%
e) It has replaced NTP cataract surgery cases
2670. RNTCP case finding is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) 100% coverage of vitamin A prophylaxis doses
a) Active b) Passive from 9 months to 3 years of age
c) Both d) None d) Development of 50 pediatric ophthalmic units
2661)d 2662)d 2663)None 2664)c 2665)a,c 2666)b 2667)a,d 2668)a 2669)b,e 2670)b2671)b 2672)c 2673)b
2674) c,d 2675) b,d 2676) a,c,e 2677) c 2678) c 2679) c
2680. Revised strategy for NPCB includes all except- 2691. The vitamin A supplement administered in
a) Fixed facility surgery (AIIMS Nov 06) "Prevention of nutritional blindness in children
b) IOL implantation for cataract programme" contain- (AI 03)
c) Mobile surgical camps a) 25,000 i.u./ml b) llakh i.u./ml
d) Uniform distribution c) 3lakh i.u./ml d) 5lakh i.u./ml
2692. Assessment and aiding for development offunds for
2681. The eye condition for which the World Bank
the National Blindness contr.ol Programme is done
assistance was provided to the National Programme by? (MH 11)
for Control of Blindness (1994-2001) is- a) UNICEF b) World Bank
a) Cataract (AIIMS May 03) c) DANIDA d) WHO
b) Refractive errors 2693. 4 components ofRCH elaborated-
c) Trachoma a) Prevention of STD (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) VitaminAdeficiency b) Family planning
2682. Vision 2020 "The right to sight" includes all c) Child survival
except- (AIIMS May 10, 07) d) All
a) Trachoma b) Epidemic conjunctivitis 2694. Essential component ofRCH Programme in India
c) Cataract d) Onchocerciasis include all of the following except- (AI 04)
a) Prevention and management of unwanted
2683. All ofthe following are given global prominence in
pregnancies
the VISION 2020 goals, except- (AIIMSMay 03) b) Maternal care including antenatal delivery &
a) Refractive errors b) Cataract post-natal services
c) Trachoma d)Glaucoma c) Reduces the under five mortality to half
2684. Vision 2020 include all ofthe following, Except- d) Management of reproductive tract infections &
a) Cataract (AI 12) sexually transmitted infections
b) Refractory Errors 2695. In Community Needs Assessment approach as part
c) VitaminADeficiency of the Reproductive & Child Health programme,
d) Diabetic Retinopathy the targets for various health activities are set at
2685. In Vision2020, thetargetforSecondarySevicecentre the level of- (AIIMS Nov 02)
is for how much population- (AIIMS May 12)
a) Community b) Sub-centre
c) Primary health-centre d) District
a) 10000 b)50000
2696. Under RCH programme, intervention .done in
c) llac d) 5lac selected districts - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
2686. In Vision 2020, Ophthabnic personnel per population a) Immunization b) Treatment of STD
ratio is - (AIIMS May 12) c) ORS therapy d) Vitamin A supplementation
a) 5000 b) 10000 2697. In reproductive and child health programme,
c) 50000 d) 1 lac districts are divided on the basis of- (AI 99)
2687. Under the WHO 'Vision 2020' programme, the a) Crude birth rate & infant mortality rate
'SAFE' strategy ·>adopted for which ofthe following b) Crude birth rate & female literacy rate
diseases - (AI 05, AIJMS 07) c) Crude death rate & crude birth rate
a) Trachoma b) Glaucoma d) Couple protection rate & infantmortality rate
c) Diabetic retinopathy d) Onchocerciasis 2698. Quality indicators ofRCH programme-(PGIDec 08)
a) Number ofhigh risk women referred
2688. All ofthe following are founding members of vision
b) Number of children immunized
2020 except (AIIMSNov 11) c) Numberofwomendied.
a) WHO d) Number of new born with birth weight recorded.
b) UNICEF e) Number of neonatal deaths
c) ORBIS 2699. As per RCH, the community health centre is a-
d) International Agency For Prevention Blindness a) First referral unit (AI 08)
2689. On SAFE strategy false is- b) Secondary referral unit
a) Screening (AI 07, AIIMS Nov 06,Nov 08) c) Teritary referral unit
b) Antibiotics d) Nota referral unit
c) Facialhygiene 2700. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric
d) Environmental modification ironfolic acid tablets supplied under Rural Child
Health (RCH) programme are- (AI 03)
2690. Which one of the following is not a target disease
a) 20 mg iron & 100 microgram folic acid
under 'Vision 2020 : The Right to Sight' -(UPSC 07) b) 40 mg iron & 100 microgram folic acid
a) Refractive error b) Trachoma c) 40 mg iron & 50 microgram folic acid
c) Corneal blindness d) Diabetic retinopathy d) 60 mg iron & 100 microgram folic acid
2680)c 268l)a 2682)b 2683)d 2684)Noneorc 2685)d 2686)c 2687)a 2688)b 2689)a 2690)d 269l)b 2692)b
2693) d 2694) c 2695) d 2696) b 2697) b 2698) a,b,d 2699) a 2700) a
2701. A total number of ...... tablets of iron with folic acid 2711. Target strategies in preventing the HIV
is given to a pregnant women by the Health worker- transmission include the following except- (AI 09)
a) 70 b) 90 (Jipmer88) a) Education
c) 100 d) 150 b) TreatmentofSTD
e) 200 c) Anti-retroviral treatment
2702. JSYstandsfor- (AI 10) d) Condoms
a) Janani social yojana 2712. Targeted intervention for HIV is done for all
b) Jan suchil yojana except- (AIIMSMay09)
c) Janani suraksha yojana a) Commercial sex worker
d) Jun sulab sauchalay yojana b) Migrant laborers
2703. RCH programme includes - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Street children
a) CSSM plus school health
d) Industrial worker
b) CSSM plus family planning
2713. According to CDC recommendations~ HIV
c) CSSM plus ORS
d) None screening of pregnant women is- (AIIMS May 09)
2704. Integrated management of childhood illness (IMCI) a) Opt in testing b) Opt out testing
intiative was taken to prevent morbidity and mortality c) Compulsory d) Symptomatic
from all ofthe following except- (AI 08) 2714. Which one of the following strategies is aimed at
a) Malaria b) Malnutrition AIDS control in India- (UPSC 99)
c) Otitis Media d) Neonatal tetanus a) Detection and treatment of AIDS cases in the
2705. IMNCI differs from IMCI in all of the following~ community
Except- (AI 10) b) Detection and isolation ofHIV infected persons
a) Malaria and anmeia are included in the community
b) 0-7 days neonates are included c) Immunoprophylaxis ofthe risk groups
c) Emphasis on management of sick neonates over d) Community education behavioral change
sick older children 2715. "3 by 5" initiative in AIDS control programme is-
d) Treatment is aimed at more than one disease at a a) Providing 3 million people treatment by end of
time 2005 (PGMCET 07)
2706. Integrated ManagementofNeonatal and Childhood b) Providing treatment to 3 out of 5 patients
Illness (IMNCI) includes all except- (AIPGME 09) c) Reducing incidence of AIDS by 3% by 2005
a) Malaria b) Respiratory infections d) All of the above
c) Diarrhoea d) Tuberculosis 2716. Which ofthe following drugs are supplied free of
2707. Differences between IMNCI and IMCI include the cost to the government Hospital by NACO-
following (MH 11)
a) Nevaripine (PGI Dec 08)
a) Identification and classification of common
b) Zidovudine
illnesses like malaria, diarrhoea, malnutrition
c) Nevaripine + Zidovudine
b) Incorporated guidelines on immunization
c) Training time devoted to sick young infant is more d) Zidovudine + Lamivudine
than for a child e) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevaripine
d) IMNCI includes 0-7 days age programme 2717. In National Water Supply & Sanitation programme
2708. IMNCI target group - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a problem village is defined as all except-
a) Up to 5yrs b) Upto 10 yrs (AIIMS Nov 06; May 08)
c) Upto 15 yrs d) Upto 20 yrs a) Distance of safe water is greater than 1.6 km
2709. National AIDS control Programme was started on- b) Water is exposed to the risk of cholera
a) 1977 b) 1980 (PGI93) c) Water source has excess iron & heavy metals
c) 1987 d) 1990 d) Water infested with Guniea worm
2710. Which ofthe following is not true about National 2718. Problem village is all except- (Jipmer 98)
AIDS Control Programme- (Kerala 04) a) Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km
a) Sentinel surveillance methodology has been from community
adopted h) Water is more than depth of 15m
b) Community based screening for prevalence of c) There is excess ofNa+, K+, F+ salts
HIVtakenup d) Risk of Guinea worm infection
c) Early diagnosis and treatment of STD is one of 2719. NRHM was started in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
major strategy to control spread ofHIV a) 2005 b) 2006
d) Formulating guidelines for blood banks, blood c) 2007 d) 2009
donors & dialysis units
2701)c 2702)c 2703)b 2704)d 2705)d 2706)d 2707)d 2708)a 2709)c 2710)b 27ll)c 2712)d 2713)b 2714)d
2715)a 2716)e 2717)d 2718)d 2719)a
2720. True about National Rural Health Mission- 2731. The objectives of minimum needs programme does
a) Provision of adequate Nurse & paramedical staff not include- (AI 93)
b) Inclusion oflndian system of medicine a) Integration of health, water and sanitation
c) Posting of anesthetist in first referral unit/CHC b) Urban area given priority
d) Posting of specialist of various field at CHC c) 1 PHC for30,000population
d) Link mid-day meal programme to Sanitation
e) Supply of generic drugs (PGI Nov 11)
2721. All are true regarding National Rural Health MISCELLANEOUS
Mission (NRHM) except- (AIIMS Nov 09)
a) Increasing the number of institutional deliveries 2732. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is:
b) Vertical Family welfare and health service a) Government run insurance scheme for its
c) Increase in number of ASHA employees (AIIMSMay 12)
d) Constitutes state & district health mission b) Government run insurance scheme for all citizens
2722. NRHM goal for IMR is to reduce it by - c) Government run insurance scheme for all poor
a) 10 b) 30 (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Private insurance company run scheme for all poor
c) 40 d) None 2733. The National Diabetes Control Programme in India
2723. TrueaboutASHAareallexcept- (AIIMSMay07) includes all the following activities except-
a) Primary prevention of diabetes (UPSC 2K)
a) One per l 000 rural population
through genetic testing and genetic counselling
b) Mobiliser of antenatal care b) Identification of high risk subject at an early
c) Female voluntary worker stage, and imparting appropriate health
d) Skilled birth attendant education
2724. Resource person for Training ofASHAare -(AI 12) c) Early diagnosis and management of cases
a)AWWandMPW b)AWWandANM d) Prevention arrest or slowing of metabolic and
c) MPW and ANM d) ANM and MO cardiovascular complications of the disease
2725. ASHA (Accredited social health activist) work at- 2734. True statement regarding objectives of Sterilisation
a) Communitylevel b) Village level (AI 10) beds programme is- (All India 93, PGI 79)
c) PHC level d) District level a) To have 2000 beds by 1987
2726. True aboutASHA(accredited social health activist) b) To provideRs. 1000/- per bed
c) To provide Sterillisation facilities to hospitals
is- (AIIMSNov06)
where they are not available
a) Mental health worker d) Voluntary agencies not included in the provision
b) Involved in minimum need program of facilities
c) Deployed 111000 population 2735. Which of the following conditions does not have a
d) To replace Anganwadi worker in ICDS program. NationalScreening/ControlProgramme? (AI 11)
2727. Which is the best indicator to assess the impact of a) Diabetes Mellitus b) Dental caries
ASHA- (AIIMS Nov 09) c) Refractive errors d) Carcinoma cervix
a) Number ofASHA trained 2736. Cancer control programme was launched in-
b) Infant mortality rate a) 1976 b) 1986 (OrissaR)
c) %of institutional deliveries c) 1970 d) 1992
d) Number of ASHA's attending meeting after one 2737. Under National Cancer control Programme,
oncology wings were sanctioned to- (UPSC 07)
year
a) Regional Cancer institutes
2728. Full form of ASHA- (NEET/DNB Pattern) b) District Hospitals
a) Associate social health activist c) Medical college Hospitals
b) Accredited social health activist d) Voluntary Agenecies treating cancer patients
c) Advanced social health activist 2738. National Guinea worm Eradication Programme
d) Assistant social health activist was launched in- (Kerala 04)
2729. Asha scheme is associated with- (Manipal 08) a) 1972-73 b) 1975-76
a) ICDS c) 1980-81 d) 1983-84
b) Rural health mission 2739. Which one of the following is the correct
c) 20 points programme chronological sequence in which the national programs
were launched in India for the given diseases ?
d) Minimum needs programme
a) Anemia, filaria, TB, malaria (UPSC-II 09)
2730. Basic need programme includes all, except-
b) Anemia, TB, malaria, filaria
a) Education of adult & child (AIIMS May 93) c) Malaria, filaria, TB, anemia
b) Doctor & nurse ratio d) Malaria, anemia, filaria, TB
c) Water supply
d) Sanitation
2720)All 272l)b 2722)b 2723)d 2724)b 2725)b 2726)c 2727)b 2728)b 2729)b 2730)b 273l)b 2732)c
2733)a 2734)c 2735)b 2736)a 2737)c 2738)d 2739)c
2740. National health policy which started before 1960 2 743. First disability census was done in the year?
is/are - (PGI Nov 11) a) 1881 b) 1951 (DNB June 11)
a) National Filaria Control Programme c) 1981 d)2001
b) National Malaria Control Programme 2744. Patient treated at home is allotted what color code
c) National Leprosy Control Programme according to IMNCI color coding- (DNB Dec 10)
d) National Tuberculosis Programme a) Pink b)Red
e) Goitre Control Programme c) Green d) Yellow
2741. Jananisuraksbayojanaincludes? (DNBDec 11) 27 45. If in a locality APl is more than 2, the folloiwng is
a) Tetanus immunization done- (DNB June 07)
b) Institutional deliveries a) 2 round ofDDT per year with active surveillance
c) Iron supplementation b) 2 rounds ofDDT per year with active and passive
d) Abortions surveillance
2742. Disease not under integrated disease surveillance c) Only active and passive surveillance
project is? (DNB Dec 11) d) 2 rounds of DDT per year only
a) 1B b) Meningoencephalitis
c) Cholera d) Herpes Zoster ***
2740)a,b,c 2741)b 2742)d 2743)c 2744)c 2745)b

MICRO GY
MICROBIOLOGY
GENERAL 13. Dark ground microscopy is used for- (PGI 98)

a) TPI b)FTA-ABS
MORPHOLOGY AND PHYSIOLOGY c) Kahn's test d)VDRL
OF BACTERIA 14. Dye used in fluorescent microscopy- (PGI Dec 04)
a) Thioflavin T b) Congo red
1. Eukaryotes are different in causing infection c) Brilliant blue d) Eosin
because- (NEETIDNB Pattern) e) Auramine
15. One of the following staining method is an
a) Divide by biniary fission
example of negative staining- (PGI 99)
b) Highly structured cell with organized cell organelles
a) Gram's staining
c) Dont have all organelles b) Fontana's staining
d) Evolutionally ancient c) India ink preparation
2. Prokaryote is- (PGI May 10) d) Ziehl-Neelsen staining
a) Bacteria b) Mycoplasma 16. In negative staining- (AI 95)
c) Fungi ' d) Blue green algae a) The structure to be demonstrated is stained
e) Protozoa " b) The structure to be demonstrated is not stained
3. Which is a eukaryote- (PGI Dec 08, PGI May 10) c) The background is not stained
a) Mycoplasma b) Bacteria d) The background and structure are stained
c) Fungus d) Chlymydia 17. Wet india ink preparation is used for demonstration
4. Prokaryotes are characterised by- (AI 99) of- (PGI May 1 0)
a) Absence of nuclear membrane a) Flagella b) Capsule
b) Presence of microvilli on its surface c) Slender organism d) Spirochetes
c) Presence of smooth endoplasmic reticulum e) Fimbriae
d) All of the above 18. Safetypinappearanceisshownby- (AI 89)
5. True about bacteria- (PGI Dec 2000) a) Hemophilus ducreyi b) Chlamydia
a) Mitochondria always absent c) Donovani granulomatis d) Mycoplasma
b) Sterols always present in cell wall 19. Correctorderofgramstainingis-(NEET/DNBPattern)
c) Divide by binary fission a) Gention violet ~ Iodine ~ Carbol fuchsin
d) Can be seen only under electron microscope b) Iodine ~ Gention violet ~ Carbol fuchsin
6. Which of the following is a bacteria taxonomically- c) Carbol fuchsin ~ Iodine ~ Gention violet
a) Chlamydia b) Rickettsia(PGJDec d) Carbol fuchsin ~ Gention violet ~ Iodine
20. Not a component of Gram stain -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Mycoplasma d)Prion 09)
a) Methylene blue b) Ethanol
e) Bacteriophage
c) Iodine d) Gentian violet
7. All the following pathogenic bacteria fulfill Koch's
21. The difference between gram + ve and gram -ve
postulates, except- (J & K 05)
organism is that Gram +ve org. contains- (PGI 98)
a) Treponema pallidum a) Teichoic acid
b) Yersinia pestis b) Muramic acid
c) Bacillus anthracis c) N-acetyl neuraminic acid
d) Helicobacter pylori d) Aromatic amino acids
8. To see the bacteria methods used are- (PGI 97) 22. Which of the following areAFB positive with 5%
a) Microscopy b) Stained preparations sulphuric acid- (PGI June OJ)
c) Both d) None a) M. avium b) M. leprae
9. Microscope used in microbiology- (PGI 98) c) M. tuberculosis d) Nocardia
a) Light microscope e) Rhodopus
b) Phase contrast microscope 23. Acid fast organisms are - (PGI June 08)
c) Fluoroscent microscope a) Spores b)Nocardia
d) All c) Legionella d) Rodococcus
10. Light microscopy resolution- (PGI Dec 05) e) Staphylococcus
a) 200nm b)20nm 24. Louis pasteur is not associated with- (JIPMER 91)
c) 0.2nm d) 300nm a) Introduction of Complex media
11. Dark ground microscopy is used to see- (AI 95, b) Discovery of Rabies vaccine
a) Refractile organisms b) Flagella AI 01) c) Discovery of M. tuberculosis
c) Capsule d) Fimbriae d) Disproved spontaneous generation theory
12. Dark ground microscopy is used for detection of- 25. Wet India ink preparation is used to demonstrate-
a) Spirochetes b) Chlamydia (AI 99) a) Flagella b) Capsule (Maharashtra 10)
c) Fungi d) Vrrus c) Spore d) Fibriae
1) b 2) a,b,d 3)c 4)a 5)a,c 6)a,b,c 7) a 8)c 9)d lO)d ll)b 12)a 13)a 14)e
15)c 16)b 17) b,c,d 18) a,c 19) a 20)a 21)a 22)b 23) a,b,c,d 24) c 25) b
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.4]
26. Electron microscopy is used for following except- 41. The cytoplasmic membrane ofbacteria is responsible
a) To differentiate T and B lymphocytes for- (Karna 09)
b) IgG deposits in kidney (UP 09) a) Selective permeability b) Motility
c) TPI c) Cell division d) Conjugation
d) Flagella 42. True about bacterial capsule is following except-
27. Peptidoglycans are present in- (AI 96) a) Prevents phagocytosis (MH 11)
a) Gram negative bacteria b} Stains by Gram stain
c) Protects bacteria from lytic enzymes
b} Gram positive bacteria
d) Lost by repeated subcultures
c) Fungi
43. AU are capsulated bacteria except- (UP 07)
d) Protozoa a) Neisseria
28. Bacterial cell wall is composed of all except- b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
a) Muramic acid b} Teichoic acid c) Haemophillus
c) Glucosamine d) Mucopeptide d) Streptococcus saliverius
29. Mesosomes in bacteria are functional unit for- 44. AU are capsulated Bacteria except- (AP 09)
a) Lipid storage b) Protein synthesis a) Strep Pneumoniae b) Kleb Pneumoniae
c) Respiratory enzymes d) None c) Vibrio cholerae d) H.Influenzae
30. Capsulated organism- {PGI June 03) 45. The endotoxin which leads to endotoxic shock is
a) Candida b) Klebsiella actually- (AIIMS 2K)
c) Proteus d) Cryptococcus a) Lipoprotein b) Lipopolysaccharide
e) Histoplasma c) Polysaccharide d) Polyamide
31. Stain is not taken by capsule in gram negative 46. Endotoxin from gram negative organism is-
organisms because the capsule consist of -(PGI 98) a) Polysaccharide (AIIMS June 2000)
a) Polysaccharides b) Lipopolysaccharides b) Glycoprotein
c) Lipoprotein
c) Lipids d) Protein
d) Lipopolysaccharide
32. Metachromatic granules are found in- (PGI 2000)
47. Exotoxins are- (AIIMS Dec 95)
a) Diphtheria b) Mycoplasma a) Lipopolysaccharide in nature
c) Gardenella vaginalis d) Staphylococcus b) Produced by gram -ve bacilli
33. Metachromatic granules are stained by- c) Highly antigenic
a) Ponder's stain b) Negative stain d) Very stable and resistant to chemical agents
c) Gram's stain d) Leishman stain 48. True about exotoxins - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
34. Bacteria with tuft of flagellae at one end are a) Lipopolysaccharide b) Not antigenic
called- (PGI 95) c) Can be toxoided d) Heat stable
a) Monotrichate b) Peritrichate 49. Streptolysin 0 functionally & structurally related
c) Bipolar d) Lophotrichate to- (PG/June 10)
35. Non motile organism - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Tetanolysin
a) E. coli b) Vibrio cholera b) Pneumolysin
c) Proteus mirabilis d) Shigella dysentery c) Streptolysin S
36. Microorganism adhere to host cell by -(PGIDec 08) d) Clostridium perfringes 0 toxin
a) Lipoic acid b) Lectin e) Listeriolysin
c) Fimbriae d) Capsule 50. Lipopolysaccharide structure is characteristic of -
a) Exotoxin b) Endotoxin (CUPGEE 95)
e) Viral capsid
c) Both d) None
37. Organofadhesionofbacteriais- (AI 98)
51. Exaltation is- (Orissa 02)
a) Capsule b) Slime a) Decreased virulence b) Increased virulence
c) Flagella d) Fimbriae c) No change d) None
38. Adbesin is useful in- (PGI 98) 52. Obligatory anaerobes cannot withstand oxygen
a) Motility b) Bacterial attachment because of absence- (APPGE 05)
c) Toxigenicity d) Bacterial division a) Superoxide dismutase b) Catalase
39. Flagella not true - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Peroxidase d) Cytochrome oxidase
a) Locomotion b) Attachment 53. Hot cold phenomenon is seen due to which toxin-
c) Protein in nature d) Antigenic a} Alpha lysin b) Beta lysin (MP 09)
40. Peptidoglycans are present in- (UP 07, 06) c) Gamma lysin d) Theta lysin
a) Gram '-ve' bacteria b) Gram '+ve' bacteria 54. Following grows in the cell free medium except-
c) Fungi d) Protozoa a) Rickettsia b) M leprae (PG/99)
c) Bartonella d) Syphilis
26) c 27) a,b 28) b 29)c 30) b,d 31) a,d 32} a,c 33) a 34)d 35) d 36)All 37) d 38)b 39)b
40)a,b 41)a 42)b 43)b 44)c 45)b 46)d 47)c 48)c 49) a,b,d,e 50) b 5l)b 52) a,b,c
53) b 54) a,b,d
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.5]
55. The term viable not cultivable is used 67. Cell wall structure is found in all except-
for- (PGI May 10, Dec 07,00) a) Staph aureus (UP 07, 06)
a) M.leprae b) M.tuberclosis b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Treponema pallidum d) Salmonella c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e) Staphylococcus d) Corynebacterium diphtherae
56. All of the following organisms are known to survive
intracellularly except- (AI 05) STERILIZATION AND DISINFECTION
a) Neisseria meningitides
b) Salmonella typhi. 68. 'Disinfectant' kills the following- (AIIMS 95)
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
a) All microorganisms
d) Legionella pneumophila
b) Pathogenic microorganisms
57. Which of the following are intracellular- (PGI 2K)
c) Vrruses and fungi
a) VlfUS b) Chlamydia
c) Mycoplasma d)Rickettsia d) Non- pathogenic microorganisms
58. Obligatory intracellular organism is -(NEETIDNB 69. Sterilising agents include - (PGI May 1 O,June 02)
a) Mycoplasma b) Chlamydae Pattern) a) Dry heat b) Ethylene oxide
c) Cryptococcus d) H.pylori c) Ether d) Alcohol
59. Which one of the following bacteria is classified as e) Chlorhexidine
facultativeanaerobe? (UPSC 07) 70. Agent used for sterilization - (PGI Nov 10)
a) Pseudomonas b) Bacteroides a) Ethylene oxide
c) Escherichia d) Clostridium b) Ionizing radiation
60. The following pathogen does not satisfy "Koch's c) 2% gluteraldehyde
postulates"- (AI 97, 94) d) Formaldehyde with low pressure steam
a) Bacillus anthrax e) Percholic acid
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 71. An 'Antiseptic' means- (AI 96)
c) Clostridium tetani a) An agent applied on skin to eradicate pathogenic
d) Lepra bacilli microbes
61. Correct sequence of bacterial growth curve- b) Used to sterilise inanimate objects
a) Log phase -Lag Phase- Stationary phase- Decline c) An agent which kills only bacteria but not spores
phase (PGI Dec07) d) Kills all microorganism
b) Lag Phase- Log phase- Stationary phase -Decline 72. The best skin disinfectant is- (AIIMS 78)
phase a) Alcohol b) Savlon
c) Stationary phase -Lag Phase -Log phase - Decline c) Betadine d) Phenol
phase
73. Which ofthe following can be reliably used for hand
d) Lag Phase- Exponential phase- Log phase- Death
washing- (PGI Dec 2000, June OJ)
phase
a) Chlorhexidine b) Isopropyl alcohol
e) Exponential phase - Lag phase - Death phase -
c) Lysol d) Cresol
Stationary
62. Sporulation occurs in- (AI 98) e) Glutaraldehyde
a) Lag phase b) Log phase 74. Steriliation of culture media containing serum is
c) Stationary phase d) Decline phase by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
63. Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at a) Autoclaving b) Micropore filter
temperature of- (PGI 98) c) Gamma radiation d) Centrifugation
a) -20°C to- 7°C b) -7°C to+ 20°C 75. Best method of skin disinfectant is- (TN 08)
c) 25°C to400C d) 55°C to 80°C a) Spirit b) 100%alcohol
e) 900C to 200C c) Tincture iodine d) Cetrimide
64. Which one ofthe following bacteria is classified as 76. Phenol Coefficient indicates- (JIPMER 09)
facultative anaerobe? (AI 97) a) Efficacy of a disifectant
a) Pseudomonas b) Bacteroides b) Dilution of a disinfectant
c) Escherichia d) Clostridia c) Quantity of a disinfectant
65. Which of the following is microaerophilic- d) Purity of a disinfectant
a) Campylobacter b) Vibrio (AIIMSMay09) 77. Rideal-Walker coefficient is related with -
c) Bacteroides d) Pseudomonas a) Disinfecting power (Orissa 98)
66. Cell wall deficient organisms are- (PGI 99) b) Parasitic clearance
a) Chlamydia b) Mycoplasma c) Dietary requirement
c) Streptococcus d) Anaerobes d) Statistical correlation
55) a,c 56) c 57) a,b,d 58) b 59) c 60) d 6l)b,d 62)c 63)c 64)c 65)a 66)b 67)c 68)b
69)a,b 70)a,b,c,d 71)a 72)c 73)a,b 74)b 75)c 76)a 77)a
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.6]
78. Heating and subsequent plating is a method used 91. Hospital dressing is best disposed off by- (TN 08)
for isolating- (PGI 83) a) Incineration b) Dumping
a) Corynebacterium b)Vibrio c) Autoclaving d) Burying
c) Salmonella d) Clostridia 92. Tyndallisation is a method of- (Karn 94)
79. All are methods of sterilization by dry heat except- a) Growing bacteria in pure culture
a) Flaming b) Incineration(PGI90) b) Sterilization
c) Hot air oven d) Autoclaving c) Inoculation of media
80. Which ofthe following is true about pasteurization d) Preserving cultures
a) It kills all bacteria and spores (AI 2K) 93. 40% formalin is used to sterilize- (AI 94)
b) It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria
a) Plastic syringes b) All microbes +spores
c) It kills 95% of microorganisms
c) Clothes d) Stitches
d) All bacteria are destroyed
94. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the
81. Moistheatkillsofthefollowingexcept- (PGI78, 83)
procedure room of the out patient department. To
a) Brucella b) Mycobacteria
c) Salmonella d) Coxiella burnetti make the instrument safe for use in the next patient
82. l)ndallisation is a type of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) waiting outside, the most appropriate method to
a) Intermittent sterilization b) Pasteurisation disinfect the endoscope is by- (AI 03)
c) Boiling d) Autoclaving a) 70% alcohol for 5 min
83. The best method ofsterilizaion of dusting powder is- b) 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 min
a) Autoclaving b) Hot air oven (PGI 95) c) 2% formaldehyde for 10 min
c) Inspissation d) Tyndallisation d) 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min
84. Bacterial spores are best destroyed by- (PGI98) 95. Endoscope tube is sterilized by- (NEETIDNB
a) UVrays a) Glutaraldehyde b) Formalin Pattern)
b) Autoclaving at 121 °C for 20 mints. c) Autoclaving d) Boiling
c) Hot air Oven 96. The operating temperature in an ethylene oxide
d) Infrared rays sterilization during a warm cycle is- (AIIMS Nov 04)
85. Autoclavingisdonein- (Koltata 08) a) 20-350C b)49-63°C
a) Dry air at 121 °C and 151 B pressure c) 68-88°C d) 92-11 OOC
b) Steam at 100°C for 30 minutes 97. False about alcohol in disinfection is-(PGI Dec 07)
c) Steam at 121°Cfor 15 minutes a) Ethanol is used
d) Dry air at 160°C for 30 minutes b) Isopropyl alcohol is used
86. Out of the following the true statement regarding c) Has sporicidal activity
sterilization is- (AI 97) d) Has bactericidal activity
a) Dry heat is the best method of sterilization of liquid
98. Which of the following is an important disinfectant
paraffin
on account of effectively destroying gram positive
b) All glass wares are best sterilized by boiling at
and gram negative bacteria, viruses and even spores
lOOOC
c) Bacterial vaccines are best sterilized by ethylene at low pH levels- (AIIMS 96)
oxide a) Phenol b) Alcohol
d) Pasteurization of milk by flash method is done by c) Chlorine d) Hexachlorophene
heating at 63°C for 30 minutes 99. Heat labile instruments for use in surgical
87. Glass vessels and syringes are best sterilised by - procedures can be best sterilized by - (AI 03)
a) Hot air Oven b) Autoclaving (AIIMS 86) a) Absolute alcohol
c) Irradiation d) Ethylene dioxide b) Ultravioletrays
e) Simple boiling c) Chlorine releasing compounds
88. Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all d) Ethylene oxide gas
except- (MP 98) 100. The sterilization method for the instruments which
a) Glass wares b) Dusting powder aredamagedbydryheatis- (AIIMSMay95)
c) Sharp instruments d)Liquidparaffm a) Steam b) Radiation
89. In 'Hotair oven' for holding period of one hour, c) Boiling d) Burning
temperature required is- (MH 11) 101. Which is a form of cold sterilization- (Jipmer 03)
a) 1000C b) 1200C a) Gammarays b) Beta rays
c) 14QOC d) 1600C c) Infrared rays d) Autoclave
90. Vaccines are sterilised by- (AI 89) 102. Irradiation can be used to sterilize AlE-
a) Seitz filtration b) Hot air oven a) Bone graft b) Suture (AIIMS May 10)
c) Autoclaving d) Heat inactivation c) Artificial tissue graft d) Bronchoscope
78)d 79)d 80)b 81)d 82)a 83)b 84)b 85)c 86)a 87) a 88) None 89) d 90) d 91)a
92)b 93)b 94)b 95)a 96)b 97)c 98)c 99)d lOO)b 101) a,b 102) d
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.7]
103. Best method of sterilising disposable syringes 116. Sputum can be disinfected by all except-
is - (USPSC 89, AIIMS 86) a) Autoclaving b) Boiling (AIIMS May 12,
a) Hot air oven b) UV rays c) Cresol d) Chlorhexidine Nov 1 0)
c) Boiling d) Gamma rays 117. Choose the correct ones for the decreasing order of
104. The disposable plastic syringes are best sterilized resistance to sterilization- (PGI Dec 07)
by- (Delhi 08) a) Prions, Bacterial spores, Bacteria
a) Formaldehyde b) Ethylene oxide b) Bacterial spore, Bacteria, Prions
c) Hexachloride d) UV radiation
c) Bacteria,Prions, Bacterial spores
105. Operationtheatresaresterilizedby- (DPG 10)
d) Prions, Bacteria, Bacterial spores
a) Carbolic acid spraying
b) Washing with soap and water e) Bacterial spores, Prions, Bacteria,
c) Formaldehyde 118. Which of the following is most resistant to
d) ETOgas sterilization? (AI 12, 08)
106. Gamma radiations are used for sterilizing -(UP 09) a) Cysts b) Prions
a) Syringes b) Cystoscopes c) Spores d) Viruses
c) Dressing aprons d) Metal instruments 119. Which of the following statements regarding
107. Sporicidal agents are- (PGI June 09,06) disinfectants is not true- (AI 09)
a) Gluteraldehyde b) Ethylene oxide a) Hypochlorites are bactericidal and inactivated by
c) Formaldehyde d) Benzaalkonium chloride organic matter
e) Chlorine b) Gluteraldehyde is sporicidal and not inactivated
108. All are sporicidal except- (PGI 99) by organic matter
a) Lysol b) Glutaraldehyde c) Formaldehyde is bactericidal, sporicidal and
c) Ethyleneoxide d)Formaldehyde virucidal
109. Sporicidal disinfectant is following except -(PGI 98) d) Phenol is bactericidal and readily inactivated by
a) Glutaraldehyde b) Formaldehyde
organic matter
c) Ethylene oxide d) Benzalkonium chloride
120. All are true regarding disinfectants except -
110. According spaulding classification system of
sterilization, following is true except- a) Gluteraldehyde is sporicidal (AIIMS May 11)
a) "Non-critical devices" come into contact with b) Hypochlorites are virucidal
intact skin (AIIMS Nov 10) c) Ethylene oxide is intermediate disinfectant
b) Sernicritical equipment need low-level sterilization d) Phenol usually requires oganic matter to act
c) "Semi-critical devices" come into contact with 121. Agent which on addition to a colony inhibits its
non-sterile mucous membranes or non-intact skin growth and on removal the colony regrows is-
d) Cardiac catheter is critical equipment a) Bacteriostatic b)Bactericidal (A/93,
111. Indicator used in autoclave is- (AIIMS Nov 11) c) Antibiotic d)Antiseptic 96)
a) Clostridium tetani
b) Bacillus stereothermophilus CULTURE MEDIA AND CULTURE METHODS
c) Bacillus purnilis
d) Bacillus subtilis Var Niger 122. Which is enrichment media- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
112. Browne's tube is used for- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Selenite F broth b) Chocolate media
a) Steam sterilization c) Meatextractmedia d)Eggmedia
b) Radiation
123. Selenite F broth is an enrichment media for-
c) Chemical sterilization
a) Salmonella b) Shigella (AIIMS93)
d) Filtration
113. Plasma sterilization acuracy is assessed by using- c) E. coil d) Campylobactor
a) Bacillussubtilis (AIIMS Nov 10) 124. Which one ofthe following is true- (AIIMS Nov 06,
b) Bacillus stereothermophilus a) Agar has nutrient properties AI 07)
c) Staphylococcus aureus b) Chocolate medium is selective medHHium
d) Clostrtidium tetani c) Addition of selective substances in a solid medium
114. Phenolic disinfectant are- (PGI 05) is called enrichment media
a) Dettol b) Cresol d) Nutrient broth is basal medium
c) Lysol d) Carbolic acid 125. In nutrient agar couc. of agar is -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
e) Savlon a) 1% b) 2%
115. Disinfection of sputum is done by- (PGI Dec 08) c) 3% d) 4%
a) Boiling b) Autoclaving 126. Blood agar is an example of -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Sunlight d) Burning a) Enriched media b) Indicator media
e) Airing c) Enrichment media d) Selective media
\103) d 104) b 105)c 106)a 107)a,b,c,e 108)a 109)d llO)b 1ll)b 112)a 113)b 114)b,c,d 115)a,b,d
116)d 117)a 118)b ll9)d 120) c,d 121) a 122) a 123) a,b 124) d 125) b 126) a
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.8]
127. Robert Koch assistant advised him to use agar 140. The segment of DNA between chromosomal and
instead of gelatine for solidifying culture media for extrachromosomal DNA molecules within the cells
cultivation of bacteria as- (NEETIDNB Pattern) are- (UP 06, 07, 09)
a) Agar has more nutrition a) Transposons b) Cosmid
b) Gelatin melts at 3lC c) Plasmid d) Episomes
c) Gelatin is not easily available 141. Bacteria may acquire characteristics by all of the
d) Agar is cheaper following except- (Kerla 09)
128. Medium for growth of anaerobic bacteria-
a) Taking up soluble DNA fragments across their
a) SN medium (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) LJmedium cell wall from other species
c) Blood agar b) Incorporating part of host DNA
129. Organisms that has not been cultured successfully c) Through bacteriophages
so far is- (J & K 2001) d) Through conjugation
a) Leptospira b) Treponema pallidum 142. Natural method of horizontal gene transfer among
c) Bordetella d) Staphylococcus bacteria includes- (PGI Nov 09)
130. Growth on a cell-free artificial solid medium is a) Electroporation b) Transduction
possible for following except- (TN 09) c) Transformation d) Conjugation
a) Ureaplasma urealyticum e) Mutation
b) Mycoplasma Pneumoniae 143. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell
c) C and L form of proteus vulgaris to another is known as- (AI 05,AIIMS 93)
d) Chlamydia a) Transduction b) Transformation
131. Mac Conkey's Agar is- (UP 07, 05) c) Transcription d) Integration
a) Enriched medium b) Enrichment medium 144. Mechanism of directtransfer offree DNA-
c) Differential medium d) Synthetic medium a) Transformation (NEETIDNB Pattern)
132. Loffler's medium is - (MH 11) b) Conjugation
a) Indicator medium b) Selective medium c) Transduction
c) Enrichment medium d) Enriched medium d) None
133. Smith Noguchi's media is used for- (AIMS 79, 85) 145. Plasmid- (PGI 98)
a) Salmonella b) Klebsiella a) Involved in multidrug resistace transfer
c) Spirochetes d) Bacillus b) Involved in conjugation
134. Noguchi's medium is used for- (JIPMER 81, c) Imparts capsule formation
a) Bordetella b) Brucella AMU 86) d) Imparts pili formation
c) Borrellia d) Corynebacterium 146. F factor integrates with bacterial chromosome
135. In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is- to form- (PGI 93)
a) 1:5 b) 1:20 (Jipmer 03) a) HFr b) RTF+r
c) 1:10 d)l:IOO c) F- d)RTF
136. pH of sabourauds dextrose agar is adjusted to- 147. Drug resistance is not transmitted by- (PGI 98)
a) 4-Q b) 1-2 (MP 09) a) HFr b) Transposons
c) 6-8 d)8-10 c) Plasmids d) Chromosomes
137. In a patient with UTI, CLED (Cystine, Lactose 148. Transfer of some chromosomal material from one
Electrolyte Deficient) Media is preferred over Mac bacteria uses- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
Conkeys media because- (AIIMS Nov 01, AI OJ) a) F factor b) R factor
a) It is a differential medium c) Transfer factor
b) In inhibits swarming of Proteus 149. Multiple drug resistance is spread by- (TN 08)
c) Promotes growth of Pseudomonas a) Transformation b) Transduction
d) Promotes growth of staph aureus and Candida
c) Mutation d) Conjugation
138. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of
150. Property of acquiring antibiotic resistance from
which Gram-negative organism-
viral colony is by- (PGI 96)
(NEETIDNB Pattern, AI 95)
a) Transferance b) Conjugation
a) Clostridium welchii b) Clostridium tetani
c) Transduction d) Mutation
c) Bacillus cereus d) Proteus mirabilis
151. Conjugation does not involve- (PGI 98)
a) Bacteriophages b) HFr
BACTERIAL GENETICS
c) Fr d) Plasmids
139. Jumping gene is - (PGI98) 152. Griffith demonstrated transformation with-
a) Transposon b)Episome a) H. influenzae b) E. coli (UP 03, 09)
c) Cosmid d) Plasmid c) Proteus d) Pneumococcus
127)b 128) a 129) b 130) d 131) c 132) d 133) c 134) c 135) c,d 136) a 137)d 138)d 139)a 140)a
141)b 142)b,c,d 143)a 144)a 145)a,b,d 146)a 147)a 148)a>c>b 149)d 150)c 151)a 152)d
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.9]
153. The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage IMMUNOLOGY

serves as a vehicle is - (Delhi 08)
a) Transformation b) Translation STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
c) Conjugation d) Lysogeny OF IMMUNE SYSTEM
154. Drug resistance transfer by bacteriophage involves-
a) Transduction b) Conjugation (MAHE 07) 165. Lymphoreticularsystemincludes- (PGI June 08)
c) Transformation d) Convocation a) T- cells b) B-cells
155. Multidrug resistance is transfered among bacteria
c) Platelets d) Macropahges
through plasmids by- (Jipmer 11)
e) Neutrophils
a) Transduction b) Transversion
c) Conjugation d) Transformation 166. AU are peripheral lymphoid organs except-
156. Thansfer of a portion ofDNAfrom one bacterium to a) Lymph nodes (PGI May 1 0)
another by the bacteriophage is known as- (MH 11) b) Spleen
a) Transformation b) Transduction c) Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
c) Transcription d) Lysogenic conversion d) Thymus
157. The mechanism by which specific information 167. CommonbetweenBandTcells- (PG/June07)
encoded in a nucleic acid chain in a virus transferred a) Origin from same cell lineage
to mRNA in known as- (Karnat 09) b) Site differentiation
a) Transcription b) Translation c) Antigenic marker
c) Transformation d) Transduction d) Both humoral and cellular immunity
158. Horizontal transmission of 'R' factor is by - e) Further differentiation seen
a) Transduction b) Transformation (Jipmer 168. Neonatalthymectomyleadsto- (Al 02)
c) Conjugation d) Fusion 09) a) Decreased size of germinal center
159. F plasmid of high frequency recombination is a- b) Decreased size of paracortical areas
a) Extrachromosomal b)Chromosomal (APPG09) c) Increased antibody production by B cells
c) Mesosomes d) Ribosomes d) Increased bone marrow production of
160. False regarding bacterial plasmids is ? lymphocytes
a) Extrachromosomal (Manipal 06, 09) 169. B cell maturation takes place in- (PGI 98)
b) Eliminated by treating with radiation a) Thymus b) Lymph node
c) Transmission of different species c) Bone marrow d) Spleen
d) Can cause lysogenic conversion 170. T cell dependent region is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Cortical follicles oflymphnode
MISCELLANEOUS b) Medullary cords
c) Mantle layer
161. The following phenomenon is responsible for d) paracortical area
antibiotic resistance in bacteria due to slime 171. T-cellmaturein- (Kerala 91)
production- (Al/MS Nov 03) a) Peyers patch b) lymph node
a) Co-aggregation c) Thymus d) Bursa offabricius
b) Biofilm formation 172. The following are true forT lymphocytes except-
c) Mutation evolving in altered target site for a) Consititute 70 to 80% of circulating pool of
antibiotics lymphocytes. (Karnat 96)
d) Mutation evolving a target bypass mechanism b) Release macrophage inhibition factor
162. lntraspecies competition is the competition among- c) Secrete specific antibodies
a) Species (AIIMS May 05)
d) Release lymphotoxin
b) Individuals of a population
173. Normal o/o ofCD4 cells in a newborn- (Jipmer 11)
c) Individuals of a community
a) 35% ofT cells b) 45% ofT cells
d) Populations and their regulatory factors
c) 55% ofT cells d) 65% ofT cells
163. The role of plasmids in conjugation was first
174. Function ofT-lymphocyte is/are- (TN 90)
described by Lederberg and Tatum(46) in- (Al/MS
a) Production ofinterferon
a) H.influenzae b) Corynebacterium 02)
b) Lymphokine production
c) Pseudomonas d) Esch.Coli
c) Rosette formation
164. The discovery of "gene transformation" came
from the study of one of the following bacteria- d) All of the above
a) Bacillus subtilis (PGI 95)
175. Rosette formation with sheep RBC's indicate
b) Streptococcus pyogenes functioningof- (Delhi 93)
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae a) T-cells b) B-cells
d) Escherichia coli c) Neutrophils d) Monocytes
153)None 154)a 155)c 156)b 157)a 158)c 159)a 160)d 161)b 162)b 163)d 164)c 165) a,b,e
166)d 167)a,e 168)b 169)c 170)d 17l)c 172)b,c 173)None 174)d 175)a
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.10]
176. T-cell are identified by- (Kerala 94) 189. In an inflammatory response, macrophages are
a) Rosette formation with sheep RBC usually derived from- (AI 94)
b) Immunoglobulins on their surface a) Monocytes ·b) Reticuloendothelial cells
c) EAC Rosette with sheep erythrocytes c) Neutrophils d) Lymphocytes
d) Have filamentous projections on their surface 190. Which is not a macrophage- (AIIMS Feb 97)
177. Humoral immunity arises from- (Jharkand 08) a) Monocyte b)Microglia
a) T cells b) B cells c) Kupffercells d) Lymphocytes
c) Null cell d) K cell 191. All of these are antigen presenting cells (APC's)
178. T4/T8 ratio reversal is seen in- (JIPMER 91, except- (PGI 02)
a) T-celllymphoma DPG 09)
a) Tcells b)Bcells
c) Fibroblasts d) Dendritic cells
b) Hairy cell leukemia
e) Langerhans cells
c) AIDS
192. Most potent stimulator of naive Tcells-
d) Infectious mononucleosis
a) Mature dendritic cells (AI 11, AIIMS Nov 08, 05)
179. T cell functions are assessed by- (Delhi 09) b) Follicular dendritic cells
a) Phagocyte index c) Macrophages
b) T cell count d) B cell
c) Migration inhibition test 193. Langerhans cells in skin are- (AI 96)
d) Immunoglobin index a) Antigen presenting cells
180. Apart from T & B lymphocytes, the other class of b) Pigment producing cells
lymphocytes is- (PGI 2002) c) Keratin synthesising cells
a) Macrophages b) Astrocytes d) Sensory neurons
c) NKcells d) Langerhans cells 194. The function common to neutrophils, monocyte
181. Helper cells belong to- (AI 96, 93) & macrophages is- (UP 97)
a) T cells b) Macrophages a) Immune response
c) B cells d) Monocytes b) Phagocytosis
182. All of the following are functions of CD 4 helper c) Liberation of histamine
cells, except - (AI 09) d) Destruction of old erythrocytes
a) Immunogenic memory 195. IgEissecretedby- (PGI02)
b) Produce immnoglobulins a) Mast cell b) Basophils
c) Activate macrophages c) Eosinophils d) Plasma cells
d) Activate cytotoxic cells e) Neutrophils
183. Plasma cells are derived from- (AI 99) 196. Possible source of"second signal" to a B-cell bound
a) T cells b) B cells by specific antigen include- (PGI 81, Delhi 91)
c) Macrophages d) Neutrophils a) EB virus b) Endotoxin
184. Which one of the following immunoglobulins c) Antigen-specific T-cells d) Plasma cells
constitutes the antigen binding component of 197. Which cells cause rosette formation with sheep
B-cell receptor- (ICS 05) RBCs- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) IgA b)IgD a) T cells b) NK cells
c) IgM d)lgG c) Monocytes d) B cells
185. Regarding NK cells, false statement is- (AI OJ) 198. What enhances multiplication of T cells in
a) It is activated by IL -2 culture- (AI 96, 93)
b) Expresses CD 3 receptor a) Phytohemagglutinin b) Chemotactic factor
c) It is a variant oflarge lymphocyte c) Leukotrienes d) Prostaglandins
d) There is antibody induced proliferation ofNK cells 199. Cellular immunity is induced by- (NEETIDNB
186. AllaretrueregardingNKcells- (PGI NovlO) a) NK-cells b) Dendritic-cells Pattern)
a) CD 16 positive c) TH 1-cells d) TH2-cells
b) CD 56 positive 200. Mononuclear phagocytes are produced by-
c) Secrete complement like substance a) Thymus b) Spleen (TN 89)
d) Important role in viral infected cell c) Bone marrow d) Liver
187. Innate immunity active against viral cells- (AI 07) 201. NK cells are- (DNB 91)
a) NK cells b) Cytotoxic T cells a) Activated macrophages
c) B cell d) Memory B cell b) Antibody-activated T cells
188. Killer cells & helper cells are part of- (PGI 97) c) Null cells activated by complement
a) B cells b) T cells d) Derived form plasma cells
c) Monocytes d) Macrophage e) Independent of antibody
176)a 177)b 178)c 179)c 180)c 18l)a 182)b 183)b 184)b,c 185)d 186)None 187)a 188)b
189)a 190)d 191)a,c 192)a 193)a 194)b 195)d 196)c 197) a>d 198) a 199)c 200)c 20l)e
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.11 ]
202. N.K. cell and cytotoxic cells are differentiated by- 216. Gene components ofHLA class I includes-
a) Interferons reduce N.K. cell activity a) A,B,C b)DR (NEETIDNB
b) Antibody specificity (JIPMER 92) c) DQ d)DP Pattern)
c) Receptor for lgG 217. Cell type which lacks HLA antigen is -(AIIMS May
d) Presence in spleen a) Monocyte b) Thrombocytes 05)
203. Difference between natural killer and cytotoxic cells c) Neutrophil d) Red blood cell
218. MHCIIarepresentedby- (PGINovlO)
~- ~r~
a) Macrophage b) Dendritic cells
a) Interferon decreases natural killer activity
c) Lymphocytes d) Eosinophils
b) NK cell has CD4
e) Platelets
c) Cytotoxic cell lyse lgG coated target cells 219. Peptide binding site on class I MHC molecules for
d) NK cell contain azurophilic granules presenting processed antigens to CDS T cells is
204. N.K. Cell provides immunity against-(JIPMER 93) formedby- (AI 10)
a) VIrus b) Bacteria a) Proximal domain of a subunits
c) Fungus d) Chlamydia b) Distal domain of a subunit
205. Which of the following cells is known as large c) Proximal domains of a and ~ subunit
granular lymphocyte (LGL)- (Karanataka 2001) d) Distal domains of a and ~ subunit
a) Plasma cells b) NK cells 220. T helper cells recognises - (PGI 2002)
c) T cells d) K cells a) MHC class I b) MHC class II
206. Most efficient antigen presenting cell in the skin - c) Processed peptides d) Surface lg
a) Dendriticcell b) Macrophages(Jipmer 11) 221. HLA complex is on chromosome-
c) Langerhans cell d) Kupffer cells a) 6 b) 7 (NEETIDNB Pattern)
207. Virus infected cells are killed by- (MP 02) c) 8 d) 9
a) Macrophages 222. HLAIDgenecodesfor- (Jipmer 03)
b) Complement system a) Immunological reaction in graft rejection
c) MHCIIrelatedcells b) Complement
d)NKcells c) Graft versus host reaction
208. Virus infected cell is killed by- (Kerala 96) d) Immunoglobulins
a) Interferons b) Macrophages 223. True about cytokinesis- (AIIMS 97)
c) Neutrophils d) Autolysis a) It is always a polypeptide
e) None ofthe above b) It acts on protein targets
209. The type of receptors present on T cells are- c) It takes part in intrinsic enzymatic reactions
a) lgG b)lgD (AI 96, 93) d) Chemotactic
c) CD4 d) Prostaglandins 224. Which of the following chemical mediators of
210. Which one of the following is a panT lymphocyte inflammation is an example of a C-X-C or alpha
marker- (AI 03) chemokine- (AIIMS 03)
~ CDQ b)CD3 a) LipoxinLXA-4
c) CD 19 d)CD25 b) Interleukin IL-8
211. Memory T cells can be identified by using the c) Interleukin IL-6
following marker- (AI 03) d) Monocyte chemoattractant protein MCP-1
~CD45RA b)CD45RB 225. IL-Iproduces- (AI 02)
c) CD45RC d)CD45RO a) T lymphocyte activation
b) Delayed wound healing
212. Immunoglobulin found in B lymphocyte - (UP 08)
c) Increased pain perception
a) lgA b)lgE
d) Decreased PMN release from bone marrow
c) lgG d)lgD
226. Interleukin I primarily acts on- (AIIMS 9 5)
213. B lymphocytes are associated with- (UP 2K)
a) T-lymphocytes b) B-lymphocytes
a) CD19 b)CD27
c) N eutrophils d) Macrophages
c) CD4 d) CD 35
227. IL-lisproduced by- (PGI 2000)
214. CD 4 are associated with- (Delhi 08)
a) Macrophage b) Helper T lymphocytes
a) Helper T cell b) Supressor T cell c) B cells d) Cytotoxic T-cells
c) NK cells d) T cell antigen receptor complex 228. IL-2 is secreted by- (AIIMS Feb 97, AI 2000, 97)
215. MHCclassillgenesencode- (AI03) a) CD4 lymphocytes b) CD8 cells
a) Complement component C3 c) Macrophages d) Neutrophils
b) Tumor necrosis factor 229. Cachectin is produced by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Interleukin 2 a) Neutrophils b) Eosinophils
d) Beta 2 micro globulin c) Macrophages d) Basophils
202)b 203)c 204) a 205) b,c 206) c 207) d >a 208) b 209) c 210) b 211)d 212)d 213)a 214)a 215)b
216)a 217)d 218)a,b,c 219)b 220)b 22l)a 222)b 223)a 224)b 225)a 226)a 227) a,e 228) a 229)c
230. Perforins are produced by~ (PGI 0 J) c) Changes in heavy and light chain in constant
a) Cytotoxic T cells b) Suppressor T cells region is responsible for class and subclass of
c) Memory helper T cells d) Plasma cells immunoglobulins
e) NK.cells d) These are areas in antigen that bind specifically
231. Leukotrienes are secreted by aU except~ to antibody
a) Macrophages b) T4 cells 243. Which of the following class specific antigenic
c) T8 cells d) Platelets determinants of an immunoglobulin is associated
232. Interleukin ~ 7 is produced by which one of the with? (AIIMS May 04)
following- (Kerala 2K) a) L-chain b) H-chain
a) Macrophage b) B cells
c) J-chain d) Variable region
c) T cells d) Dentritic cells
244. Variable portion of antibody molecnle is- (NEETI
e) Stromal cells
a) C-Terminal b) N-Terminal DNB Pattern)
233. Pro inflammatory cytokines include all of the
c) CHOmoiety d) None
followingexcept- (Delhi 08)
a) Interleukin 1 b)Interleukin2 245. Antigen binding site on antibody is- (PGI June 02)
c) Interleukin6 d)TNF-Alpha a) Hinge region b) Constant region
234. Most important inflammatory mediator-(Kolkata 08) c) Variable region d) Hypervariable region
a) 1NF b)IL-2 e) Idiotype region
c) Interferon d) PAF 246. Antigen idiotype is related to- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
235. Which is not pyrogenic- (Kolkata 05) a) Fe fragment b) Hinge region
a) IL-l b)TNF-a. c) C-terminal d) N-terminal
c) IL-4 d)~ 247. Idiotypic class of antibody is determined by- (NEET/
236. True about interferon- (PGI June 05) a) Fe region b) Hinge region DNB Pattern)
a) It is virus specific c) Carboxy end d) Amino end
b) It is Bacteria specific 248. Antibody diversity is due to - (PGI Dec 08)
c) Produced from Bacteria a) Gene rearrangement b) Gene translocation
d) Effective against viral infection c) Antigenic variation d) CD40 molecules
e) It is species specific e) Mutation
237. Fibroblasts in tissue culture form interferon oftyp~ 249. Which of the following statements is true regarding
a) Alpha b) Beta (AIIMS 98) kappa, lambda and heavy chain immunogloblins-
c) Gamma d) All of the above a) Coded in the same site of a chromosome (PGI OJ)
238. Aboutinterferon true is- (PGI 98) b) Coded in different sites of same chromosome
a) It is a synthetic antiviral agent c) The chains are formed by genetic rearrangement
b) Inhibits viral replication in cells after maturation
c) Is specific for a particular virus d) Different chains of same immunoglobulins are
d) None coded by different chromosomes
239. Interferon is... in nature- (Delhi 84) e) Different chains of same immunoglobulins are
a) Protein b)Lipid coded by same chromosomes
c) Polysaccharides d) All ofthe above 250. Immunoglobulin isotype class switching is
240. True about interferon is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) determined by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Host protein b) Viral protein a) Constant region of light chain
c) Inactivated by nucleases d) Virus specific b) Constant region of heavy chain
c) Variable region of light chain
ANTIBODY d) Variable region of heavy chain
251. Immunoglobulin changes in variable region-
241. A single immunoglobulin molecule contains~ a) Idiotype b) Isotype (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) I light chain, 1 heavy chain (AI 95) c) Allotype d) Epitope
b) 2 heavy chains, 1 light 252. Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with
c) 2light chains, 2 heavy chains molecular weight of 50,000- (JIPMER OJ)
d) 21ight chains, I heavy chain a) Secretory piece b) H Chain
242. Which of the following statements is true about c) LChain d) J piece
isotypic variation? (AIIMS Nov 08) 253. Structureofantibodiesiscomposedof- (UP08)
a) These result due to subtle amino acid changes a) Single peptide chain
resulting from allelic differences b) Two peptide chain
b) These result due to changes in amino acid in heavy c) Non sulphur amino acid
and light chain at variable region d) 2 long and 2 short peptide chains
230)a,e 23l)d 232)e 233)b 234)a 235)c 236)d,e 237)b 238)b 239)a 240)a 241)c 242)c 243)b
244) b 245) d,e 246) d 247)d 248)a,c,e 249)c,d 250)b 25l)a 252)b 253)d
254. Variable portion of antibody molecule is- (MP 09) 269. Activation of classical complement pathway-
a) C-terminal b)N-tenninal a) IgA b)IgG (NEETIDNBPattern)
c) Intermediate region d) Carbohydrate moiety c) IgM d)IgD
255. Antigen binding site in immunoglobulin is -(DPG 10) 270. TRUE about immunoglobulins is- (AIIMS Feb 97)
a) Variable region b) Hypervariab le region a) lgE fixes complement
c) Constant region d) Idiotope b) lgM fixes complement
256. Wbich immunoglobulin is scarce in human serum- c) lgG is found in minimum concentration.
a) IgA b)IgG (PGI June 05) d) lgG is elevated in primary immune response
c) IgM d)IgD 271. The Fe piece of which immunoglobulin fu:es C1-
e) IgE a) IgA b) lgG (MH 11)
257. True about immunoglobulins - (NEETIDNB c) IgM d)lgE
a) IgE has maximum concentration Pattern) 272. First immunoglobulin to appear following infection-
b) IgG has maximum concentration a) IgG b)IgM (SGPGI09)
c) IgA has minimum concentration c) lgA d)IgE
d) IgM has minimum concentration 273. Complement binding immunoglobulin via the
258. Trueofthefollowingis/are- {PGIJuneOJ) classical pathway is- (PGI 89)
a) IgA crosses placenta a) IgG&IgM b)IgG&IgA
b) Halflife oflgG is 23 days c) IgG&IgD d)IgD&IgE
c) IgD is heat stable 27 4. Hemagglutinin (AntiAandAnti B) are which type of
d) IgE has highest carbohydrate content antibodies- (MH 11)
e) IgG induces leukotrienes release during inflammation a) IgG b) M
259. Pentavalent immunoglobin is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) lgA d)lgE
a) IgA b) IgG 275. When an antigen is administered for the first time
c) IgM d) IgE to an animal or a human being who has never been
260. Wbicb of the following immunoglobulins can cross
exposed to it, the first antibody to develop-(Kerala 08)
placenta- (NEETIDNB Pattern, PGI June 01, AI 99)
a) IgGtype b) lgM type
a) lgA b)lgM
c) IgA type d) lgE type
c) IgG d)IgD
276. Predominant class of immunoglobulin during
261. The serum concentration of which of the following
primary immune response is- (Karn 11)
human IgG subclass is maximum? (AI 05)
a) lgA b)lgE
a) IgGl b)IgG2
c) IgM d)IgG
c) IgG3 d)IgG4
262. The commonest Ig G with maximum individual 277. First antibody response is mediated by-
variation is- (PGI 96)
a) IgE b) IgM (Jharkand 08)
a) IgGl b)IgG2 c) IgA d)lgD
c) IgG3 d)IgG4 278. In respiratory and GIT infections, which is the most
263. Maximum half life - (NEETIDNB Pattern) affected immunoglobulin- (AI 94)
a) lg G b) Ig A a) IgA b)IgG
c) lg M d) lg E c) IgM d)IgD
264. The following constitutes approximately 75% of 279. The secretory component of immunoglobulin
total immunoglobin in humans- (Karnataka 02) molecule is- (PGI OJ)
a) IgG b)IgM a) Formed by epithelial cells of lining mucosa
c) IgE d) IgA b) Formedbyplasmacell
265. Antibodytrausfermothertofetus- (Bihar 08) c) Formed by epithelial cell and plasma cell
a) IgG b)lgM d) Secreted by bone marrow
c) IgD d)IgA 280. Function oflgAis- (Kerala 01)
266. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by a) Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
the fetus is- (AI 03) b) Circulating antibody
a) IgA b)lgG c) Kills virus infected cells
c) IgE d) IgM d) Activates macrophages
267. The most avidly complement fixing antibody is- e) Causes delayed hypersensitivity reaction
a) IgA b) IgG (AIIMS May 02) 281. Bronchial secretion secretes- (UP 07, 05)
c) lgM d)lgE a) lgA b)lgE
268. Which of the following immunoglobulin is c) IgM d)IgG
responsible for opsonisatiou - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 282. IgA secretion is seen in - (MP 08)
a) lg A b) lg G a) Tears and saliva b) CSF
c) Ig M d) Ig E c) Hairs d) Vaginal fluid
254) b 255) b,d 256) e 257) b 258) b,c,d 259) c 260) c 261) a 262) a 263)a 264)a 265)a 266)d 267)c
268)c>b 269)c 270)b 27l)c>b 272)b 273)a 274)b 275)b 276)c 277)b 278)a 279)a 280) a 281)a
282)a
283. PKreactiondetects- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 296. Which of the following is very difficult to induce
a) IgG b) lgA antibody- (PGI97)
c) IgE d)lgM a) Polysaccharide b) Protein
284. Which of the following statements concerning c) Antigen d) Repeated infections
immunoglobulinsiswrong- (AI97) 297. All of the following statements about carbohydrate
a) IgM does not cross placenta antigen are true except- (AI 11; AIIMS Nov 08)
b) lgE is i ed in parasitic infection a) It has lower immunogenicity
c) lgM increased in primary response
b) Memory response is seen
d) Fetal infection is characterised by increase in lgG
285. Antibody elevated in parasitic infection- c) Cause polyclonal B cell stimulation
a) IgA b)IgE (NEETIDNB d) Does not require stimulation by T cells
c) lgG d) IgM Pattern) 298. Which ofthe following T cell independent Antigen
286. Which of Immunoglobulins is associated with acts through - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
allergic disorders ? (Corned 08) a) T-cell b) B-cell
a) IgG b)IgM c) Macrophages d) CD8+ T cells
c) IgA d)IgE 299. Which part of bacteria is most antigenic-
287. Which of the following immunoglobulins shows a) Protein coat (NEETIDNB Pattern)
bomocytotropism- (Maharashtra 10) b) Lipopolysaccharide
a) IgG b) lgA c) Nucleic acid
c) IgE d)Igd d) Lipids
288. Atopy is mediated by- 300. Antigen combining site of the antibody- (TN 08)
a) IgE b)lgD a) Idiotype b) Paratope
c) lgM d)IgA c) Epitope d) Hapten
289. Pentameric structure- (NEET/DNB Pattern,PGI99) 301. Which one ofthe following chemical nature makes a
a) IgM b)IgG better antigen? (Karn 11)
c) lgA d)IgD a) Lipids b) Nucleic acids
290. Which precipitates at 500C-60°C but disappears on c) Polysachharides d) Proteins
beating- (AI 96) 302. A superantigen is a bacterial product that- (AI 08)
a) Heavy chain b) Light chain a) Binds to B7 and CD28 costimulatory molecules
c) Both d) None of the above b) Binds to the beta chain ofTCR and MHC class II
291. Bence jones proteins are best described as- (AI96) molecules ofAPC stimulating T cell activation
a) chains b) y chains c) Binds to the CD4 + molecule causing T cell
c) Kappa & Lambda chains d) Fibrin split products activation
292. Synthesis of an immunoglobulin in membrane bound d) Is presented by mactrophages to a larger-than-
or secretory form is determined by - (AIIMS normal number ofT helper CD4 +lymphocytes.
a) One turn to two tum joining rule May 12) 303. Superantigens true is- (AIIMS May 10)
b) Class switching a) They bind to the cleft of the MHC
c) Differential RNA processing b) Needs to proccessed before presentation
d) Allelic exclusion c) They are presented by APC'S toT cells
d) Directly attached to lateral aspect ofTCR ~ chain
ANTIGEN 304. Superantigen causes - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Polyclonal activation ofT-cells
293. Haptenis- (AI98)
b) Stimulation ofB cells
a) Same as epitope
c) Enhancement of phagocytosis
b) Small molecular weight protein
d) Activation of complement
c) Requires carrier for specific antibody production
305. Superantigens are- (PGI June 05)
d) Simple haptens are precipitate
294. Which of the following statements is true about a) Erythrotoxin of staph. Aureus
hapten- (NEETIDNB Pattern, AI 04) b) Cl. Difficile toxin
a) It induces brisk immune response c) Staphyloccocal toxic shock syndrome toxin
b) It needs carrier to induce immune response d) Cholera toxin
c) It is a T-independentAntigen 306. Autoantigen is-
d) It has no association with MHC a) Blood group antigen b) Forssman antigen
295. The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the c) Both d) None
immune system is called as - 307. The main aim of an adjuvant is to increase-
a) Clone b) Epitope a) Distribution b) Absorption
c) Idiotope d) Effector c) Antigenicity d) Metabolism
283)c 284)d 285)b 286)d 287)c 288)a 289)a 290)b 29l)c 292)c 293)c 294)b 295)b 296)a
297)b 298)b 299)d 300)a,b 30l)d 302)b 303)d 304)a 305) a,c 306) d 307)c
ANTIGEN ANTIBODY REACTION 319. Which is not a heterophile agglutination test-

a) Weil Felix test b) Widal test (PGI 99)
308. All of the following forces are involved in Antigen c) Paul Bunnell test d) Streptococcus MG
antibody reaction except- (AJ98, AJIMS Sept 96) 320. Heterophile antibody is found in - (NEET!DNB
a) Vander Waal 's forces b) Electrostatic bond a) Weil Felix test b) Widal test Pattern)
c) VDRL d)All
c) Hydrogen bond d) Covalent bond
321. Which of the following is agglutination test -
309. Which of the following statement is
a) Widal test (NEETIDNB Pattern)
true- (AIJMS Dec 94) b) VDRL
a) Paul Bunnell test is used to diagnose measles c) Ascoli's test
b) Rose Waaler test is a complement fixation test d) Kahn test
c) Indirect hemagglutination test is less sensitive 322. Paul bunnel reaction is a type of- (NEETIDNB
than gel diffusion test a) Agglutination b) CF Pattern)
d) Antigen antibody reaction cannot occur in the c) Precipitation d) Flocculation test
absence of electrolytes 323. Which of the following is a flocculation test-
310. The reaction between antibody and soluble antigen a) Widal test b) Weil- felix test (Kar 08)
is demonstrated by- (AI 94) c) VDRL d) Paul- Bunnel test
a) Agglutination 324. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is known
b) Precipitation as- (TN09)
c) Complement fixation test a) Agglutination b) Precipitation
c) Flocculation d) Complement fixation
d) Hemagglutination test
325. Agglutination test is-
311. Skin test based on neutralization reaction
a) ABO incompatibility b) VDRL
is/are- (PGI June 04)
c) Weil- felix test d) FTA-ABS
a) Casoni test b) Lepromin test
326. Rapid serological diagnostic tests include all except-
c) Tuberculin test d) Schick test a) Latex agglutination (Delhi 09)
312. Nagler reaction is type of- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Spectrophotometry
a) Neutrilization reaction b) CFT c) Gel electrophoresis
c) Precipitation d) Agglutination d) Radioimmunoassay
313. Coombs test is- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 327. VDRLisa- (TN95)
a) Precipitation test b) Agglutination test a) Slide flocculation test
c) CFT d) N eutrilization test b) Tube flocculation test
314. Prozone phenomenon is seen with- c) Gel precipitation test
a) Same concentration of antibody and antigen d) Indirect haemagglutination test
b) In antigen excess to antibody (NEET!DNB 328. lsoantigens are- (Delhi 08)
c) Antibody excess to antigen Pattern) a) Found in some but all members of species
d) Hyperimmune reaction b) Found in some but not all members of species
315. Prozone phenomenon is due to-(AI 96, PGIJune 03) c) Occurs in different biological species, class and
a) Excess antigen kingdoms
b) Excess antibody d) All individuals in a particular species
c) Hyperimmunereaction 329. Antibodies aremostresponsiveto- (SGPGI 05)
d) Disproportionate antigen-antibody levels a) Recipients tissue b) Donor tissue
316. Prozone phenomenon is a feature is- (PGI OJ) c) Isografts d) Autograft
a) Tularemia b)Legionnaire's disease 330. Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface
c) Plague d) Brucellosis of antigen is called- (Kerala 96)
317. Antigen antibody precipitation is maximally seen in a) Opsonisation b) Chemotaxis
which of the following? (AIIMS May 10) c) Decoding d) CFT
a) Excess of antibody 331. All statements are correct about immunologic
b) Excess of antigen techniques, except- (PGI 97)
a) ELISA can detect both antigens and antibodies
c) Equivalence of antibody and antigen
b) Immunofluorescence test uses fluorescein and
d) Antigen Hapten interaction
rhodamine
318. The following methods of diagnosis utilize labelled
c) Radioimmunoassay is used to quantitate antigens
antibodies except- (AIIMS May 05) and haptens
a) ELISA (Enzyme Linked ImmunosorbentAssay) d) Immunoblotting is also called northern blotting
b) Hemagglutination inhibition test 332. DNAisdetectedby- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Radioimmunoassay a) Southern blot b) Northern blot
d) Immunofluorescence c) Western blot d) Eastern blot
308)d 309)d 310)b 311)d 312)a 313)b 314)c 315)b,d 316)d 317)c 318)b 319)b 320)a 32l)a
322)a 323)c 324)b 325)c 326)b 327)a 328)b 329)b 330)a 33l)d 332)a
333. Most sensitive test for antigen detection is- 344. Type of immunity conferred on an individual by
a) RIA (PGI 97) vaccination is- (Karn 11)
b) ELISA a) Artificial active b) Artificial passive
c) Immunofluorescence c) Natural active d) Natural passive
d) Passive hemagglutination 345. Immunity acquired due to the injection of
334. Hormones are best assessed by- (PGI 98) immunologicaUy competent lymphocytes is termed
a) Flowcytometry b) Electrophoresis as- (Comed 07)
c) ELISA d) RIA a) Innate immunity b) Adoptive immunity
c) Active immunity d) Local immunity
IMMUNITY 346. The following is NOT a component of innate
immunity- (COMED 06)
335. All of the foUowing are a part of the innate immunity a) Epithelial surfaces b) Antibody
except- (AIIMS May 05) c) Lysozyme d) Sebum
a) Complement b) NK cells 347. Primary immune response is mediated by -(PGI 94)
c) Macrophages d) T cells a) IgE b) IgM
336. All are ture about innate immunity except- c) IgA d)Igi>
a) Non-specific (NEETIDNB Pattern) 348. Binary (secondary) exposure to an antigen results
b) First line of defence in sudden increase in-
c) Not affected by genetic affected a) lgA b) Igi>
d) Includes complement c) IgG d)IgM
337. Componentsofinnateimmunityare- (PGINov 10) 349. True about secondary immune response is-
a) T lymphocytes b) Complement proteins a) Long latent period (PGI 98)
c) B lymphocytes d) NK cells b) Usually oflow titre
e) Integrins c) Antibodies appear in short time
338. Which is conerned with cell mediated immunity- d) Persist for long
a) B-Lymphocytes b) T-Lymphocytes (AI 98)
c) Eosinophils d) Monocytes HYPERSENSITIVITY
339. Active immunity is not acquired by-
350. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the
a) Infection
foDowing immunoglobulins ? (NEETIDNB Pattern,
b) Vaccination
a) lgA b) IgG AI 05)
c) Immunoglobulin transfer
c) IgM d)IgE
d) Sub-clinical infection 351. The most important cells in type I hypersensitivity-
340. Trueaboutactiveimmunity- (AI 93) a) Macrophages b) Mast cells (AI 92)
a) Less effective c) Neutrophils d) Lymphocytes
b) Can be given in immunodeficient state 352. Mast cell synthesize and/or secrete- (PGI June 03)
c) Immunological memory present a) Adrenaline b) Ach
d) No lag period c) Histamine d) Heparin
341. Adoptiveimmunityisby- (PGI May 10) e) Neutrophilic chemotactic factor
a) Infection 353. Type 1 hypersensitivity includes all of the following
b) Injection of antibodies except- (PGI 2000)
c) Injection oflymphocytes a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d) Immunization b) Anaphylaxis
342. When transfer factor is given as treatment results c) Extrinsic asthma
in - (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Hay fever
a) Natural active immunity 354. Graves disease is an example of which type •..•••
b) Artificial active immunity immunologic response- (PGI 91)
c) Artificial passive immunity a) Type I b) Type II
d) Adoptive immunity c) Type III d) Type IV
343. Lysozyme is present in the following secretions e)TypeV
of the body except- (PGI 94) 355. Killer cells are associated with type ••.••
immunologicresponse- (AI 89)
a) Lacrimal secretions
b) CSF
c) Type III d) Type IV
c) Saliva
e) TypeVI
d) Respiratory tract secretions
333)a 334)d 335)d 336)c 337)b,d 338)b 339)c 340)c 34l)c 342)d 343)b 344)a 345)b 346)b
347)b 348) d 349) c,d 350) d 351) b 352) c,d,e 353) a 354) b,e 355) None
356. Typeffireactionis- (AI 93) 369. Skin tests are used for which hypersensitivity
a) Antibody mediated reactions? (PGI June 07)
b) Immune complex mediated a) I b)ll
c) Cellmediated c) lli d)IV
d) None e) V
357. Delayed hypersensitivity involves- (AIIMS 92) 370. The prototype oftype-ll hypersensitivity reaction is-
a) Neutrophils b) Monocytes a) Arthus reaction (Kerala 91)
c) Eosinophils d) Lymphocytes b) SI.E
358. Which of the following is an example of Type IV c) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
hypersensitivity- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Contact dermatitis
a) Arthrus reaction b) Serum sickness 371. Which is an example oftype-m hypersensitivity
c) Shwartzman reaction d) Granulomatous reaction a) Contact dermatitis (JIPMER 91)
359. Type I hypersensitivity, the mediator is -(UP 07, 05) b) Hemolytic anemia
a) IgE b)IgD c) Serum sickness
c) IgM d)IgC d) Good pasture syndrome
360. Which of the following responses is found in atopic 372. Arthus phenomenon is an example of which
individuals- (Corned 07) hypersensitivity- (Corned 07)
a) IgM production a) Type I b) Type II
b) IgE production c) Typeiii d)TypeiV
c) IgA production 373. All are type-ll hypersensitivity reaction except-
d) Hypogammaglobulinemia a) Hemorrhagic disease ofnewbom (Delhi 08)
361. WhichoneofthefollowingisFalse- (AI 95) b) Graves disease
a) Theobald - smith phenomenon is a type 1 c) Autoimmune disease
hypersensitivity reaction d) Hemolytic anemia
b) Serum sickness is a type IT hypersensitivity reaction 374. Tuberclin test is reaction of- (UP 08)
c) Allograft rejection is a type IV hypersensitivity a) Anaphylaxis mediated
reaction b) Cell mediated
d) Transfusion reaction is a type II hypersensitivity c) Antibody mediated
reaction d) Immune complex mediated
362. Examples of type 1 hypersensitivity is- (AI 98) 375. Blood transfusion mismatch in erythroblastosis
a) Lepromin test b) Tuberculin fetalis is a type of- (NIMS 96)
c) Casoni's test d) Arthus reaction a) Atopic hypersensitivity
363. The hypersensitivity reaction involved in the hyper b) Cell mediated cytotoxicity
acute rejection of renal transplantis- (AIIMS c) Arthus phenomenon
a) Type I b) Type II May 05) d) Delayed hypersensitivity
c)Type III d) Type IV 376. All of the following are immune complex disease
364. Contact dermatitis is- (A1 94) except- (CUPGEE 08)
a) Type-I hypersensitivity a) Serum sickness b) Farmer's lung
b) Type-II hypersensitivity c) SI.E d) Graft rejection
c) Type-III hypersensitivity 3 77. Erythroblastosis fetalis is an example of which type
d) Type-IV hypersensitivity ofhypersensitivityreaction- (UP 07, 05)
365. In contact dermatitis which cells play major role- a) Type I b) Type II
a) T-cells b)B-cells (PGI June 08) c) Type III d) Type IV
c) Langhans cells d) Macrophage 378. All the following types of hypersensitivity reactions
366. Note a delayed type of hypersensitive can be demonstrated by skin test except-
reactions - (PGI June 05) a) Type I b) Type II
a) Arthus reaction b) Bronchial asthma c) Type III d) Type IV
c) Hemolytic anemia d) Multiple sclerosis 379. Animal used to demonstrate anaphylaxis in the
367. Wheal & flare reaction is what type of lab is- (JIPMER 98)
hypersensitivity reaction? (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Rabbit b)Adultmice
a) Type I b) Type II c) Monkey d) Guinea Pig
c) Type III d) Type IV 380. Delayed tuberculin test response is due to- (TN OJ)
368. Spring catarrh is which type of hypersensitivity a) B lymphocytes b) T lymphocytes
reaction- (PGI June 05) c) Monocytes d) Histiocytes
a) type I b) type II 381. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by-
c) type II & III d) type IV a) B lymphocyte b) NK. cell (Kar 09)
e) typeV c) Mast cell d) T lymphocyte
356)b 357)d 358)d 359)a 360)b 361) b 362) c 363) c 364) d 365) a 366) a,b,c 367) a 368) a,d
369)a,b 370)c 371)c 372)c 373)a 374) b 375) None 376) d 377) b 378) b 379) d 380) b 381) d
382. AB blood group antigen are known as....factor- 391. Most common cause of chronic granulomatous
a) DuffY b) Landsteiner disease in children is- (AI 98)
c) Rhesus d) Lutheran a) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
e) Kidd b) Defective phagocytosis
383. 45 Year old homeless man has chronic cough and c) Defective H2 0 2 production
cavitatory lesion of lungs. His sputum is positive d) Job's disease
for acid fast bacilli which of the following is the 392. The NBT (nitroblue tetrazolium) reduction assay
peripheral form of defense by which his body is used to- (AIIMS 81, 85)
fights this infection- (HP 2006) a) Evaluate granulocyte function
a) Antibody b) Evaluate T-cell function
b) Cell mediated hypersensitivity c) Determine whether polymorphonuclear leucocytes
c) lg A mediated hypersensitivity can produce superoxide
d) lg E mediated hypersensitivity d) Stain B-lymphocytes
384. Autoimmunity can be caused due to all of the 393. The commonest Primary immunodeficiency is -
following except- (AIIMS May 05) a) Common variable innnunodeficiency (AI 94,
a) The pressure of forbidden clones b) IsolatedlgAimmunodeficiency PGI June 05)
b) Expression of cryptic antigens c) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
c) Negative selection ofT-cells in the thymus d) AIDS
d) Inappropriate expression of the MHC proteins 394. A child present with recurrent episodes of
385. AllaretrueaboutAutoimmunedisease except- sinopulmonary infection by bacteria with
a) T cells recognise self antigen (PGI May 10) polysacharide rich capsule. Deficiency of which of
b) Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an example the following immunoglobulin subclasses should be
c) Higher incidence among males specifically investigated- (AI 12, AIIMS May 12)
d) Polyclonal B cell activation a) IgA b) lgGl
e) Co-stimulatory molecules involvement c) IgG2 d) IgA + lgG2
386. Epstein Barr virus causes autoimmunity by -(AI 12) 395. WiskottAldrich not true is- (AIIMS 97)
a) Molecular Mimicry a) Raised lgE b) Raised lgM
b) Release of Sequestrated Antigen c) Reduced lgA d) CD4 and CD8 defect
c) Inappropriate Expression ofMHC Class II Molecules 396. A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, eczema
d) Polyclonal B cell Activation and recurrent infection - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Wiskott -Aldrich syndrome
IMMUNODEFICIENCY b) Digeorge syndrome
c) Agammaglobulinemia
387. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in the d) SCID
following- (AI 01, 05) 397. All are true regarding agammaglobulinemia
a) Common variable immunodeficiency. except- (PGI 01)
b) Severe combined immunodeficiency a) Loss of germinal centre in lymph node
c) Chronic granulomatous disease b) Normal cortical lymphocytes
d) Nezelofsyndrome c) Normal cortical lymphocytes in paracortex and
388. SCID which is true - (NEET/DNB Pattern) medulla
a) Adenosine deaminase deficiency d) Decreased red pulp in spleen
b) Decreased circulating lymphocytes e) Immunodeficiency (cell mediated)
c) NADPH oxidase deficiency 398. Which is found in DiGeorge's syndrome- (PGI 01)
d) C 1 esterase dificiency a) Tetany
389. Which one ofthe following statements is correct b) Eczema
regarding chronic granulomatous disease- (AIIMS c) Mucocutaneous candidiasis
a) It is an autosomal dominant disease Nov 04) d) Absent B and T cells
b) It is characterized by abnormal bacterial phagocytosis e) Total absence ofT cells
c) Recurrent streptococcal infections are usual in this 399. Chediak higashi syndrome, defect is-(NEET/DNB
disease a) Fusion of lysosome b) T-cells Pattern)
d) Nitroblue tetrazolium test is useful for screening c) B-cells d) Complement
390. Chronic granulomatous disorder is due to defect 400. Chediak-ffigashi syndrome, true is-
in - (NEETIDNB Pattern) (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) B-cell b) NADPH oxidase a) Defect in phagocytosis .b) Neutropenia
c) IgA d) T-cell c) Aganunaglobulinemia d) lgA deficiency
382)b 383) b 384) c 385) c 386) d 387) b 388)a 389)d 390)b 39l)c 392)c 393)b 394)d 395)b,c
396)a 397) b,c,d 398) a,c 399) a 400) a
401. True about Bloom Syndrome- (Jipmer 11) 413. Runt disease is- (TN 2002)
a) Decreased lgG b) Decreased lgM a) Graft rejection
c) IgA absent d) Increased lgE b) Graft versus host reaction
402. Which fungal infection is commonest to occur in c) Deficient T cell function
neutropenia- (AIIMS June 99) d) Complement deficiency
a) Candida b) Histoplasma
c) Aspergillus niger d) Aspergillus fumigatus COMPLEMENT SYSTEM
403. Nucleotidase deficiency- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Humoral immunity deficiency 414. Complement formed in liver- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Acquired immunity deficiency a) C2,C4 b)C3,C6,C9
c) SCIDs c) C5,C8 d)Cl
d) Cell mediated immunity deficiency 415. Which of the following best denotes classical
404. Phagocytic function is assessed by- (MP 09) complement pathway activation in
a) Proloiferative response to mitogen immunoinflammatorycondition- (AIIMS 04)
b) Reduction ofNBT( Nitroblue tetrazolium test) a) C2, C4, C3 decreased
c) Serum immunoglobulin assay b) C2 and C4 normal, C3 is decreased
d) Skin test with purified protein derivative c) C3 normal and C2 C4 decreased
405. Candida infections are seen in - (Jipmer 11) d) C2, C4, C3 all are elevated
a) Chronic granulomatous disease 416. C3 convertase acts on- (Manipal 06)
b) Chediak-Higashi syndrome a) C4b2b b) C4b2B3a
c) Myeloperoxidase deficieny c) C4b d)C3
d) Lazy leucocyte syndrome 417. Which complement component is involved in both
406. Digeorge syndrome is characterized by all except- classicaland alternative pathways- (AI 11)
a) Congenital thymic hypoplasia (SGPGI 08) a) Cl b)C2 .
b) Abnormal development of third and fourth pouches c) C3 d)C4
c) Hypothyroidism 418. Center of complement pathway -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Hypocalcemic tetany a) C3 b)Cl
407. Which of the following about severe combined c) Ci d)C2
immunodeficiency is not true- (Jipmer 11) 419. C-3 convertase in alternate complement pathway-
a) Due to deficiency of adenylate kinase a) C4b2a b) C3b (NEETIDNB
b) Toxicity to leucocytes due to accumulation ofdAMP c) C3bBb d) C3a Pattern)
c) Both cellular and humoral immunity affected 420. Chemoattractantis- (PGI 89)
d) Bone marrow transplantation is the treatment a) C5a b)Cl
408. Which of the following about SCID is false- c) C3 d)C2
a) Failure of descent of thymus (Jipmer 11) 421. Opsonins are- (AI 93)
b) Peyer 's patches are present and normal a)C3a b)C3b
c) X -linked type is the most common c) C5a d)C5-C9
d) Gene therapy can be used 422. In cell lysis by compliments - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) They activate cyclise
IMMUNOLOGY OF TRANSPLANTATION b) Inhibits elongation factor p
c) Destruction of cell wall
409. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant d) Increased permeability of cell membrane
from her sister who is an identical twin. What type 423. Recurrent Neisseria infections are predisposed by-
of graft it is? (AI 05) a) Early complement component deficiency (PGI 93)
a) Xenograft b) Autograft b) Late complement component deficiency
c) Allograft d) Isograft c) C 1 esterase deficiency
410. Graft versus Host reaction is caused by -(PGI 86) d) Properdin deficiency
a) B-lymphocytes b) T-lymphocytes 424. Complement necessary for neisseria infection is/
c) Macrophages d) Complement are- (PGI Nov 09)
411. Type of T-lymphocyte responsible for a) C5 b)C6
histocompatibility reaction is- (AIIMS 89) c) C7 d)C8
a) Suppressor T-cell b)ActivatorT-cell e) C9
c) Effector T-cell d) Helper T-cell 425. Hereditary angioneurotic edena is due to -
412. Transplantation of the hosts own tissue is known a) Deficiency of C1 inhibitor (NEETIDNB
as- (DNB 91) b) Deficiency ofNADPH oxidase Pattern)
a) Isograft b)Allograft c) Deficiency ofMPO
c) Xenograft d) Autograft d) Deficiency of properdin
401)b 402)a 403)a 404)b 405)c 406)c 407)a 408)b 409)d 410)b 4ll)d 412)d 413)b 414)b
415)a 416)d 417)c 418)a 419)c 420)a 421)b 422)d 423) b,d 424)All 425) a
MISCELLANEOUS c) It is related to the concentration of antibody

d) It is prolonged by administration of
426. Which ofthe following features is not shared between immunosuppressive drugs
'T cells' and 'B cells'- (AI 12) 437. The protection against small pox by previous
a) Positive Selection During Development infection with cowpox represents- (AIIMS May 04)
b) Class I MHC Expression a) Antigenic cross-reactivity
c) Antigen Specific Receptros b) Antigenic specificity
d) All of the above c) Passive immunity
427. Vaccination is based on the principle of- (AI 12) d) Innate immunity
a) Agglutination 438. Acute phase reaction in acute inflammation are-
b) Phagocytosis a) Albumin b) Fibrinogen (PGI June 03)
c) Immunologic Memory c) Haptoglobulin d) Gammaglobulin
d) Clonal Detection 439. C-reactiveproteinis- (AI 94)
428. Ovalbumin was injected into a rabbit. Which ofthe a) An antibody produced as a result of pneumococ
following classes of antibodies are likely to be cal infection
producedinitially- (AI 11) b) Derived from pneumoconiosis
a) IgG b) lgM c) Detected by precipitation reaction
c) IgE d)lgD d) Increased in pneumococcal infection
429. All of the following statements about hybridoma 440. C-ReactiveProteinis- (AIIMS91)
technology are true except- (AIIMS Nov 08) a) Produced by pneumococcus
a) Specific antibody producing cells are integrated b) AmarkerofSepticemia
with myeloma cells c) Raised in acute inflammation
b) Myeloma cells with mutation salvage pathway d) Low in Rheumatoid arthritis
grows well in HAT medium. 441. Following is true about C reactive protein- (AIIMS
c) Aminopterin, a folate antagonist, inhibits denovo a) Detected by precipitation with carbohydrate 95)
pathway
b) Raised in acute pneumococcal infection
d) HGPRT ase and thymidylate synthetase are
c) It is an antibody
required for salvage pathway
d) Detected by agglutination test.
430. The process increasing the ability for phagocytosis
442. C-reactive proteins are- (PGI Dec 2000)
offoreign bodies by body is called -
a) Alpha-1 globulin
a) Cross reactivity b) Opsonisation
b) Beta-1 globulin
c) Immune Tolerance d) Immune Surveillance
c) Alpha-2 globulin
431. Opsonisation is by- (PGI 94)
a) IgA b)lgE d) Non-specific inflammatory protein
c) IgG d)lgM 443. 'C' inC reactive protein stands for - (AI 11)
432. Opsonization occurs due to all except- (PGI 99) a) Capsular polysaccharide in pneumococcus
a) Endotoxin b) Complement b) Concanavalin-a
c) IgM d)lgD c) Calretinin
433. Bacteria coated with complement and lg; d) Cellular
phagocytosis is enhanced by- (AIIMS Nov 11)
a) Receptor mediated endocytosis BACTERIA
b) Pseudopod formation
c) Myeloperoxidase mediated destruction 444. Staphylococcus is- (AI 96)
d) C3b- Fe mediated destruction a) Gram- positive cocci b) Gram- negative cocci
434. Opsonization takes place through- (NEETIDNB c) Gram- positive bacillus d) Gram- negative bacillus
a) C3a b)C3b Pattern) 445. Gram negative cocci is/are- (PGI may 10)
c) C5a d) C5b a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae b) Bacillus
435. First chemical barrier encountered by c) Staphylococci d) Streptococci
microorganism for common exposed sites - e) Neisseriameningitidis
a) Lysozyme b) Acidic pH (AIIMS Nov 11)
c) Skin d) Lactose STAPHYLOCOCCI
436. Specific immunological unresponsiveness is called
tolerance. Which one of the following statements 1. STAPH AUREUS
best describes immunological tolerance-
a) Immunologic maturity of the host does not play a 446. Staphyloccocal pathogenicity is indicated by-
major role a) Coagulase positivity b) Hemolysis (PGI 98)
b) It occurs only with polysaccharide antigens c) Lipoteichoic acid d) Endotoxin
426)a 427)c 428)c 429)b 430)b 431) c,d 432) a 433) d 434) b 435)b 436)d 437)a 438)a,b,c
439)d 440)c 441)b,d 442)b,d 443)a 444)a 445)a,e 446)a
447. Staph aureus virulence is due to- (PGI 98) 459. Incubation period of staphylococcal food poisoning
a) Pathogenicity correlated with coagulase is- (PGI 95)
b) Endotoxin a) 4-6 hrs b) 6-12 hrs
c) Hemolysis c) 12-18hrs d) l8-24hrs
d) Pigmented colonies 460. Staph. aureus causes vomiting in 16-18 hours. The
448. All are true regarding staphylococcal toxin except- mechanism of action is- (AIIMS May 02)
a) Beta haemolysin shows hot cold phenomenon a) Stimulation of cy AMP
b) Vagal stimulation
b) Mainly endotoxin (AIIMS Dec 97)
c) StimulationofCyGMP
c) Enterotoxin causes food poisoning
d) Acts through ganglioside GM receptor
d) Exfoliative toxin causes Reiter's syndrome 461. In carriers, staphylococci are found in the
449. Synergohymenotroic toxins of Staphylococcal following sites except- (AIIMS 94)
consists- (PGI May 11) a) Throat b) Nose
a) a. toxin b) 13 toxin c) Skin d) Anal canal
c) ytoxin d)otoxin 462. Common source of staph in hospital- (PG!June 01)
e) Panton-Valentine toxin a) IVfluids
450. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused b) Infective wounds
by- (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Hands of hospital personnel
a) Hemolysin b) Coagulase d) Bed linen
c) Enterotoxin d) Epidermolytic toxin e) Instruments
451. Toxinofstaphylococcus- (Bihar 09) 463. All of the following statements about staphylococcus
a) Hemolysin b) Leucocidin aureusaretrue,Except- (AI 10)
c) Enterotoxin d)All a) Most common source of infection is cross infection
452. Staphylococcus secrete all except- (Bihar 08) from infected people
a) Lipase b) Cellulose b) About 30% of general population is healthy nasal
c) Coagulase d) Lecithinase carriers
453. Staphylococcus aureus remains in the skin for c) Epidermolysin and TSS toxin are superantigens
longer period because of- (MAHE 01) d) Methicillin resistance is chromosomally mediated
a) Catalase b) Coagulase 464. Staphylococcuscancanse- (PGI June 01)
c) Hyaluronidase d)None a) Ecthyma b) Erythrasma
454. Staphylococcal toxic syndrome is due to-(Orrisa 2K) c) Furuncle d) Impetigo contagiosa
a) Enterotoxin A b) Enterotoxin B e) Sycosis barbae
c) Enterotoxin C d) Enterotoxin D 465. Staph aureus causes - (NEET!DNB Pattern)
455. Toxic shock syndrome is Staphylococcus infection a) Erythrasma b) Chancroid
is due to- (Jipmer 11) c) Acne vulgaris d) Bullous impetigo
a) Superantigen b)Alpha-hemolysis 466. Which of the following organism is implicated in
c) Coagulase d) Penton Valentine factor the causation ofbotryomycosis- (PGI 01)
a) Staphylococcus aureus
456. Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the
b) Staphylococcus alb us
followingfeature- (AIIMS 01)
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a) Incubation period of 24 hrs.
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Requires immediate antibiotics
e) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Common with dairy products
467. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by- (PGI May 10,
d) Heat labile enterotoxin
a) Streptococcus pyogenes PGI Dec 07)
457. The following are characteristic features of b) Staphylococcus aureus
staphylococcusfoodpoisoningexcept- (AIIMS 04) c) Strept albicans
a) Optimum temperature for toxin production is 37°C d) E.durans
b) Intradietic toxin is responsible for intestinal 468. True about TSS- (PGI Nov 10)
symptoms a) Most commonly due to TSST-1
c) Toxin can be destroyed by boiling for 30 minutes b) Mensturation is a risk factor
d) Incubation period is 1-6 hours c) Anti- staph antibodies are contraindicated
458. A child after consuming food in a party complains of d) Most common cause is S. aurens
diarrhea within 1-5 hours. The diagnosis is- e) TSST-1 acts like superantigen
a) S. aureus (AIIMS 01, 96, 95) 469. Toxic shock syndrome was first discovered
b) Streptococcus in- (JIPMER 91)
c) Clostridium perfringens a) Tampoon users b) Diabetic septicemia
d) Clostridium botulinum c) Drug addicts d) None
447)a 448) b 449) c,e 450) d 451) d 452) b 453) c 454) b,c 455) a 456) c 457) c 458)a 459)a 460)b
46l)d 462) b,c 463) a 464) a,c,d,e 465) d 466) a 467) a,b 468) a,d,e 469) d >a
470. Toxic shock syndrome is due to- (Comed 07) 478. Transfer ofdrug resistance in staphylococcus is by-
a) Septic abortion b) Forgotten tampons a) Transduction b) Transformation (PGI 97)
c) IDCD d) Pelvic examination c) Conjugation d) Transfection
471. Staphylococcus in stool occurs in- (PGI Dec OJ) 479. A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to S.
a) Staphylococcal food poisoning aureus, which was found to be methicillin resistant
b) Ischiorectal abscess on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the
c) Toxic shock syndrome following antibiotics will be appropriate except-
d) May be a normal finding
a) Vancomycin b) Imipenem (AI 06)
e) pseudomembranous colitis
c) Teicoplanin d) Linezolid
472. Blood culture is positive in which infection of staph.
aureus- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 480. The most common mechanism of drug resistance in
~TSS b)SSSS staphylococci -
c) Infective endocarditis d) Impetigo a) Conjugation b) Plasmids
473. True about methicillin-resistance staphylococcus c) Transduction d) Translation
aureus (MRSA)- (PGI June 09) 481. Coagulase negative staphylococci includes all of the
a) Isoxazolyl penicillin is highly effective following except- (UP 08)
b) All MRSA are multidrug resistance a) Staph epidermidis b) Staph haemolyticus
c) Vancomyin is effective c) Staph intermedius d) Staph saprophyticus
d) MRSA are more virulent then sensitive strains 482. Novobiocin susceptible staph is- (UP 08)
e) Resistance develop due to altered binding protein a) Staph aureus b) Staph epidermidis
474. All ofthe following statements are true regarding c) Staph hemolyticus d) Staph saprophyticus
Staphylococci except- (AIIMS Nov 04) 483. Which of the following is the most useful to
a) A majority of infections caused by coagulase- differentiate micrococci from Staphylococci-(MH JJ)
negative Staphylococci are due to Staphylococcus a) Catalase test b) Hugh Leifson test
epidermidis
c) Oxidase test d) All of the above
b) ~-lactamase production in Staphylococci is under
plasmid control
c) Expression of methicillin resistance in 2. COAGULASE NEGATIVE STAPHYLOCOCCI
Staphylococcus aureus increases when it is
incubated at 37°C on blood agar. 484. A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood culture
d) Methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus shows growth of gram positive cocci which are
is independent of ~-lactamase production catalase positive and coagulase negative. The most
475. Which of the following is not a mechanism for likely etiological agent is- (AIIMS May 03)
resistancetoMRSA- (AI 10) a) Staplylococcus aureus
a) Resistance is chromosomally mediated b) Staplylococcus epidermidis
b) Produced mainly by alteration in PBP's c) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) MRSA resistance is absolutely beta lactamase d) Enterococcus faecalis
dependent 485. Staphylococcus differes from streptococcus by-
d) Intrinsic resistance is known a) Coagulase test b) Catalase test
476. All of the following are true about Methicillin c) Phasphatase d) Gram negative
resistance in MRSA, except- (AI 11) 486. Catalase positive, beta-hemolytic staphylococcus -
a) Resistance is produced as a result of altered PBP's
a) S. aureus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Resistance may be produced by hyperproduction
b) S. epidermidis
ofbeta lactamase
c) Resistance is primarily mediated/transmitted via c) S. saprophyticus
plasmids d) None
d) Resistance may be missed at incubation 487. Catalase positive coagulase negative beta hemolytic
temperature of 37°C during susceptibility testing bacteria- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
477. Which of the following statements is most correct a) Strep pyogens b) Staph aureus
regarding resistance to methicillin in MRSA- c) Coagulase negative staph d) Enterococci
a) Resistance is produced as a result of alteration in 488. True statement regarding non-coagulase
Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBP) (AI 11) staphylococci is- "(AI 99)
b) Resistance is produced by production of beta a) They are non-pathogenic
lactamase b) They commonly infect indwelling prosthesis
c) Resistance is mediated by plasmids c) They may cause scarlet fever
d) Expression of resistance is enhanced by incubating d) They are seperated by gram staining
at 37°C during susceptibility testing
470)b 471)a 472)c 473)b,c,d,e 474)c 475)c 476)c 477)a 478)a>c 479)b 480)c 48l)c 482)b,c
483)b 484)b 485)b 486) a 487) c 488) b
489. Which one of the following gram positive organism 499. Catalase negative beta hemolytic streptacocci
is most common cause of UTI among sexually active is - {NEETIDNB Pattern)
women- (PGI 99) a) Str. pneumoniae b) Str. pyogenes
a) Staphylococcus epidennidis c) Str. aglactiae d) Enterococcus
b) Staphylococcus aureus 500. Classification of pathogenic streptococci into group
c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus A, B, C, D and G is based on- (Karnataka 08)
d) Enterococcus a) Color of colonies on blood agar
490. A30year old femaleis on antibiotics with prolonged b) Antigenicity of cell wall carbohydrate
IV Cannulation, bas spike offever, the likely cause is- c) Presence or absence of capsule
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (AIIMS Nov 99) d) Presence or absence of M protein
b) Coagulase negative Staphylococci 501. Streptococcus is classified based on- {Kerala 94)
c) Streptococcus agalactiae a) M protein b) Cultural characteristics
d) E. Coli c) Bile solubility d) Cell wall carbohydrate
491. Staphylococcus aureus differs from staphylococcus 502. Streptococcus pyogenes is- (PGI 99)
epidermidis by- (AI 02) a) Gram positive cocci b) Gram negative cocci
a) Is coagulase positive c) Gram positive bacilli d) Gram negative bacilli
b) Forms white colonies 503. Which of the following factor is mainly responsible
c) A common cause ofUTI for virulence in Streptococcus- {AIIMS Dec 94, 9 5)
d) Causes endocarditis in drug addicts a) Carbohydrate b) Streptokinase
492. A 25 year old man with 3 weeks fever presented with c) Streptodornase d) M protein
tricuspid valve vegetation. Patient is intravenous 504. All are true about streptococcus except - {AI 01)
drug abuser. Most common cause of endocarditis in a) M protein is responsible for production of mucoid
this patientis- (AIIMS Nov 09)
colonies.
a) Staph. aureus b) Candida albicans
b) M protein is responsible for virulence
c) Pseudomonas d) Strep. viridans
c) Mucoid colonies are virulent
493. A patient has prosthetic valve replacement and he
d) No resistance to penicillin has been reported
develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism
505. Streptococcal Toxic shock syndrome is due to the
responsible is- {AIIMS Nov 10)
following virulence factor- (AIIMS May 03, Dec 98)
a) Staph. aureus b) Strept. viridans
a) M protein b) Pyrogenic exotoxin
c) Staph. epidennidis d)HACEK
c) Streptolysin 0 d) Carbohydrate cell wall.
494. Causes of community acquired native valve
506. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock
endocarditis are- {PGI Nov 10)
a) Streptococcus viridians syndrome is- {AI OJ)
b) Staphylococcus aureus a) Pyrogenic toxin b) Erythrogenic toxin
c) Diphtheriods c) Hemolysin d) Neurotoxin
d) Staphyloccous epidennidis 507. Which ofthe following streptococcal antigen cross
e) Enterococci reacts with synovial fluid? {AI 08)
a) Carbohydrate (group A)
STREPTOCOCCI b) Cell wall protein
c) Capsular hyaluronic acid
495. All are medically important streptococci except- d) Peptidoglycan
a) Strep. pyogenes b) Strep. agalactiae {AI 93) 508. Which toxin of streptococcus causes hemolysis -
c) Strep. equisirnilus d) Strep. salivarius a) Streptolysin 0 b) Streptolysin S {PGI 97)
496. C-carbohydrate in Streptococcus hemolyticus is c) Streptodornanse d) Hyaluronidase
importantfor- (AIIMS June 98) 509. Streptolysin 0 functionally & structurally related
a) Lancefield classification b) Phagocytic inhibition to- {PGI Nov 09)
c) Toxin production d) Haemolysis a) Tetanolysin b) Pneumolysin
497. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using- c) Streptolysin S d) ClostridiumperfringesOtoxin
a) M Protein (AIIMS Nov 07) e) Listeriolysin
b) Group C peptidoglycan cell wall 510. Streptococcus all are true except-{AIIMSMay 11, 10)
c) Group C carbohydrate antigen a) Streptodornase cleaves DNA
d) Staining properties b) Streptolysis 0 is active in reduced state
498. A child presents with sepsis. Bacteria isolated c) Streptokinase is produced from serotypeA,C,K
showed beta hemolysis on blood agar, resistance to d) Pyrogenic toxin A is plasmid mediated
bacitracin, and a positive CAMP test. The most 511. Virulence factor of group. A beta hemolytic
probable organism causing infection is- (AI 10) streptococci- {NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) S. Pyogenes b) S. Agalacitae a) Prt.M b)Prt. T
c) Enterococcus d) S. Pneumoniae c) Prt. R d) Lipotechoic acid
489) c . 490) b 491)a 492)a 493)c 494)a,b,d,e 495)d 496)a 497)c 498)b 499)b 500)b 501)d 502)a
503)d 504)a 505)b 506) a,b 507) c 508) a,b 509) a,b,d,e 51 0) d 511) a
512. The commonest organism causing cellulitis is- 520. Streptococcus causing rheumatic heart disease is-
a) Streptococcus pyogenes (AIIMS Nov 02) a) Streptococcus milleri (MP 09)
b) Streptococcus faecalis. b) Streptococcus mutans
c) Streptococcus viridans. c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Microaerophilic streptococci d) Streptococcus equisimilis
513. A child presents with infective skin lesion of the leg
521. Group A streptococcus causes all except -(Bihar 08)
culture was done which showed gram+ve cocci in
chains which where hemolytic colonies. The test to a) Scarlet fever b) Erysipelas
confirm the organism is- (AIIMS Nov 11, May 07, c) Impetigo d) Epidermolysis bullae
a) Bile solubility Nov 06, AI 07) 522. True about streptococcus are all except- (MP 08)
b) Optochin sensitivity a) Group C causes no human infection
c) Bacitracin sensitivity b) Classification by lancefield based on carbohydrate
d) Catalase positive antigen
514. A farmer presents with pustules showing gram c) Group B causes neonatal meningitis
positive cocci, beta hemolysis, catalase negative. To d) Group B lives in female genital tract
show it is group A streptococci, which of the 523. An outbreak of streptococcal pharyngitis has
following test is done- (AI 07) occured in a remote village. In order to carry out
a) Bacitracin b) Optochin
the epidemiological investigations of the outbreak
c) Novobiocin d) Bile solubility
it is necessary to perform the culture of the throat
515. In a school child had abscess on lower leg. Swab
swab of the patients suffering from the disease. The
taken revealed gram positive beta-hemolytic
streptococci, and these were bacitracin sensitive. transport media of choice would be- (AIIMS Nov 04)
School physian observed that similar organism was a) Saltmannitolmedia b)Pike'smedia
isolated from throats of many other children. Which c) Stuart'smedia d)CaryBlairmedia
of the following is true statement with ragards to 524. RegardingASO titre all are seen except-
this patient- (AIIMS Nov 10) a) ASO can be increased in school children
a) Difference in surface protein can differentiate the b) May be negative in post streptococcal
pathogenic bacteria from the pharyngeal culture glomerulonephritis (AIIMS Nov 09)
bacteria. c)ASO titre included in major criteria in Jones criteria
b) Component C carbohydrate can differentiate the d) May not be elevated in 20% cases of carditis
pathogenic bacteria from the throat culture 525. True statement about Antistreptolysin '0' titre is-
bacteria. a) In normal people the titre is< 200 (AI 97)
c) MEG 3 positive are throat culture streptococci. b) In acute glomerulonephritis the titre is low
d) Depending on M protein the cutaneous c) ASO titre> 200 indicate rheumatic fever
pathogenic bacteria can be differentiated from the d) Streptozyme test is an active haemagglutination
pharyngeal culture bacteria test
516. A boy with skin ulcer on leg, culture reveals beta 526. Streptococcal GN is best diagnosed by- (PGI 99)
hemolysis. Cultures from school children with sore a) ASO titre b) AntiDNAse
throat some days back also revealed beta hemolysis. c) Antihyaluronidase d) Culture
What is the similarity between both-(AIIMS Nov 10) 527. 11 Year old child presented with sore throat since
a) Mec A gene is related to it
3 days, which medium is used to culture the throat
b) M protein is same
swab- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) C carbohydrate antigen is same
a) Blood agar b) L. J. medium
d) Strains causing both are same
517. False regarding streptococcus pyogenes- c) Stewart medium d) Chocolate agar
a) Causes necrotizing fascitis (NEETIDNB 528. Treatment for streptococcal necrotizing fascitis-
b) Beta hemolytic Pattern) a) Surgical debridement b) Penicillin (PGI June 08)
c) M. protein is virulece factor c) Clindamycin d) Metronidazole
d) Resistant to bacitracin e) Vancomycin
518. Impetigo contagiosa is caused by- (Jharkhand 08) 529. Anti streptolysin 0 test is diagnostic in- (AI 89)
a) Group A beta hemolytic streptococci a) Acute rheumatic fever
b) Staphylococcus b) SI.E
c) H.influenzae c) SBE
d) Pseudomonas d) Rhematoid arthritis
519. Virulence determinant implicated in pathogenesis 530. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is due to
of scarlet fever is - (Karn 11) liberation of- (Kerala 08)
a) Hyaluronidase b) M protein a) TSS - 1 b) Enterotoxin
c) Pyrogenic exotoxin d) Streptokinase c) Pyrogenic exotoxin d) Endotoxin
512)a 513)c 514)a 515)d 516)c 517)d 518)a 519)c 520)c 52l)d 522)a 523)b 524)c 525)b
526) b,c 527) a 528) a,b,c 529) a 530) c
531. True about streptococcus- (PGI Dec 03) 538. Causative organism of late prosthetic valve
a) Lancefield classification is based on M protein. endocarditis is- (AIIMS 97)
b) Group 'G' not found in human a) Str. viridans
c) Group 'B' causes neonatal meningitis b) Proteus mirabilis
d) Group 'C' can be isolated from vaginal flora c) Beta hemolytic streptococci
e) Group 'D' causes urinary tract infection d) Staphylococci
532. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous 539. Bacteria implicated in dental caries -
line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and a) Streptococcus mutans (AIIMS May 94)
amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a b) Pneumococci
spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for c) Streptococcus pyogenes
gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase d) Staphylococcus aureus
negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but 540. False about gram positive cocci is- (AI 08)
the cnlture remained positive for the same organism a) Staph. saprophyticus causes UTI in females
even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely b) Most enterococci are sensitive to penicillin
organism causing infection is- (AIIMS Nov JJ, c) Non pathogenic strains are coagulase negative
a) Staphylococcus aureus May 06, Nov 06, AI 07) d) Neonatal meningitis causing streptococci
b) Viridans streptococci hydrolyses hippurate
c) Enterococcus faecalis 541. True statement about streptococcus faecalis-
d) Coagulase negative Staphylococcus a) Growns in 6.5% Nacl solution (Kolkata 08)
533. 45 yrs old Ramlal has intraabdominal sepsis. The b) Are lactose fermenter
causative organism was found to be vancomycin, c) Easily destroyed at 60°C for 30 minutes
gentamycin and ampicillin resistant. It grows well d) Classified on the basis ofteichoic acid of cell wall
in presence of 6.5% NaCl and arginine. Bile 542. Culture of streptococcus viridans resemble-(1N 89)
esculin hydrolysis is positive. Which of the a) Staphylococcus b) Strept. pyogenes
following is this organism?- (AIIMS Nov OJ) c) Pneumococcus d) Strept. fecalis
a) Streptococcus agalactae
b) Enterococcus fecalis PNEUMOCOCCI
c) Streptococcus bovis
543. The following are. features of pneumococcus
except- (PGI 97)
534. A beta hemolytic bacteria is resistant to vancomycin
a) Bile insolubility b) Optochin sensitivity
shows growth in 6.5% NaCI, is non bile sensitive. It c) Gram positive d) Encapsulated
is likely to be- (AI OJ) 544. In a patient of orbital cellnlitis, micro organism on
a) Strep agalactiae b) Strep pneumoniae culture show greenish colonies and optochin
c) Enterococcus d) Strep bovis sensitivity. The most likely organism is- (AI 2000)
535. Which group of streptococcus grow at> 60°C - a) Strep. viridans b) Staphylococcus
a) A b)B (NEET/DNB Pattern) c) Pseudomonas d) Pneumococcus
c) C d)D 545. A infant had high grade fever and respiratory
536. Which of the following organisms, when isolated in distress at the time of presentation to the emergency
the blood, requires the synergistic activity of room. The sample collected for blood culture was
penicillin plus an aminoglycoside for appropriate subsequently positive showing growth of a
therapy- (AIIMS Nov 04) haemolytic colonies. On Gram staining these were
a) Enterococcus faecalis gram positive cocci. In the screening test for
b) Staphylococcus aureus identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be
c) Str. pneumoniae susceptible to the following agent- (AIIMS May 06)
d) Bacteroides fragilis a) Bacitracin b) Novobiocin
537. A patient ofRHD developed infective endocarditis c) Optochin d)Oxacillin
after dental extraction. Most likely organism 546. A 65 years old man presenting with complaints of
causing this is- (AIIMS Nov OJ) chest pain, fever, cough with sputum. 0/E of sputm
a) Streptococcus viridans pus cells with gram positive cocci present. Blood
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae agar showed positive result. How will you
c) Streptococcus pyogenes differentiate this from other gram positive
d) Staphylococcus aureus cocci? (AIIMS Nov 09)
a) Bacitracin b) Optochin sensitivity
c) Bile solubility d) Coagulase positive
53l)c,e 532)c 533)b 534)c 535)d 536)a 537)a 538)a 539)a 540)b 541)a 542)c 543)a 544)d
545) c 546) b,c
547. The sputum specimen of a 70 year old male was 556. Post-splenectomy patient is in need o f ' - - -
cultured on a 5o/o sheep blood agar. The culture vaccination - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
showed the presence of a-haemolytic colonies next a) Pneumococcal b) Rota virus
day. The further processing ofthis organism is most c) OCD d) MMR
likely to yield- (AIIMS Nov 05) 557. Diplococcus pneumoniae shows the following
a) Gram positive cocci in short chains, catalase characters except- (PGI 94)
negative and bile resistant a) Capsulate
b) Gram positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative and b) Bile solubility test positive
bile soluble c) Causes meningitis
c) Gram positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive d) Not pathogenic to mice
and coagulase positive 558. Which of the following statements about
d) Gram negative coccobacilli catalase positive and pneumococcus is false- (AI 11)
oxidase positive a) Capsule aids in virulence
548. A patient presents with signs of pneumonia. The b) Commonest cause of otitis media
bacterium obtained from sputum was a Gram positive c) Causes mild form of meningitis
cocci which showed alpha hemolysis on sheep agar. d) Respiratory tract of carriers is the most important
Which of the following test will help to confirm the source of infection
diagnosis ? (AI 11) 559. Most common causative organism for lobar
a) Bile solubility b) Coagulase test pneumonia is- (AIIMS 04)
c) Bacitracin test d) CAMP test a) Staphylococcus aureus
549. A person presents wth pneumonia. His sputum was b) Streptococcus pyogenes
sent for cnltnre. The bacterium obtained was gram c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
positive cocci in chains and alpha hemolytic colonies d) Haemophilus influenzae
on sheep agar. Which of the following will help in 560. The 23 valent pneumococci vaccine is recommended
in all except- (DPG 09)
confirming the diagnosis- (AIIMS May 12)
a) CSFleak
a) Novobiocin b) Optochin
b) Chronic cardiac disease
c) Bacitracin d) Oxacillin
c) Chidren less than 2 years
550. Pnemococcus producing mucoid colonies most
d) Nephrotic syndrome
often is type- (PGI 82)
561. Polysaccharide capsule resistance to phagocytosis
a) I b)II
is seen in - (NIMHANS 01,
c) ill d)IV
a) N. meningitis JIPMER 90)
551. Which of the following is not true of Diplococcus b) K. pneumoniae
pneumoniae- (Karnataka 2001)
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
a) Bile solubility b) Optochin resistance d) Yeast
c) Causes Meningitis d) Possesses capsule 562. Virulence or pathogenicity of pneumococcus
552. True statements abont Pneumococcus are all except- depends npon- (Kolkata 09)
a) Pneumolysin a thiolactivated toxin, exerts a variety a) Capsular polysaccharide
of effect on ciliary & PMN's (AI 98) b) Cell wall antigen
b) Autolysin may contribute to the pathogenesis of c) Flagellar antigen
pneumococcal disease by lysing the bacteria d) Firnbrial antigen
c) Anticapsular antibodies are serotype specific 563. QueUung reaction is associated with- (Delhi 87,
d) The virulence of pneumococci is dependent only a) Capsular degeneration Orissa 91)
on the production of the capsular polysaccharide b) Capsular delineation
553. True statement regarding Pneumococcus is- c) Capsular absence
a) VIrulence is due to polysaccharide capsnle(A/ 99) d) Lecithinase production
b) Capsule is protein in nature 564. QueUung reaction is due to- (Kerala 09)
c) Antibodies against capsule are not protective a) Capsular swelling b) Mitochondrial swelling
d) Resistance to antibiotics has not yet been reported c) RBC swelling d) Ribosomal swelling
554. Risk of pneumococcal meningitis is seen in- 565. Pneumococcus can be differentiated from
a) Post splenectomy patient (AIIMS 99) streptococcus by- (PGI 98)
b) Patient undergone neurosurgical intervention a) Type ofhemolysis b)Gramstaining
c) Patient following cardiac surgery c) Growth characteristics d) Bile solubility
d) Patient with hypoplasia oflung 566. Streptococcus and pneumococcus are differentiated
555. After splenectomy, most common infection- by- (PG/97)
a) Pneumococcal b) E. coli (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Bile salt solubility b) Growth characteristic
c) Klebsiella d) Streptococcus c) Gram staining d) Inulin fermentation
547)b 548)a 549)b 550)c 55l)b 552)d 553)a 554)a 555)a 556)a 557)d 558)c 559)c 560)c
56l)c 562)a 563)b 564)a 565)d 566)a,d
NEISSERIA 580. 'Watercan'perineumiscaused by- (MP 09)

a) E.coli
1. GONOCOCCUS b) Enterococcus fecalis
c) N eiserria gonorrhoea
567. Gonococcus is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Treponemia palladium
a) Extracellular gram positive 581. Gonococcus ferments- (AP 97)
b) Intracytoplasmic gram positive a) Glucose b) Maltose
c) Intracytoplasmic gram negative c) Sucrose d) Fructose
d) Intranuclear gram positive 582. Neisseria infection are associated with-
568. Differentiation of N. gonorrhea and N. a) Deficiency of early complements (CUPGEE 95)
meningitides can be done by- (AI 96) b) Deficiency oflate complements
a) Glucose fermentation b) V. P. Reaction c) There is no such association
c) Maltose fermentation d) Indole test
d) Any deficiency can be associated
569. Meningococci differ from gonococci in that they-
583. The best site to obtain a swab in asymptomatic
a) Are intra-cellular (NEETIDNB Pattern)
gonorrheais- (AI 95)
b) Possess a capsule
a) Endocervix b) Urethra
c) Cause fermentation of glucose
d) Are oxidase positive c) Lateral vaginal wall d) Posterior fornix
570. The virulence factor of Nisseria gonorrhoeae 584. Selective medium for Gonococci- (PGI 95)
includes all of the following except -(AIIMS May 03) a) Thayer- martin medium
a) Outer membrane proteins b) IgA protease b)Umedium
c) M proteins d)Pili c) DCA medium
571. Virulence of gonococciis due to- (NEETIDNB d) MacConkey's medium
a) Pili b) Endotoxin Pattern) 585. Organism showing marked resistance to
c) Exotoxin d) None multidrugtherapy- (AIIMS May 93)
572. Gonococcus does not involve- (AIIMS Dec 1994) a) Haemophilus ducreyi
a) Epididymis b) Testis b) Calymmobacterium granulomatosis
c) Prostate d) Anterior urethra c) Gonococci
573. N. gonorrhea causes- (PGI Dec 06) d) Treponema pallidum
a) Urethritis b) Salpingitis 586. Which of the following is not true about Neisseria
c) Cervicitis d) Vaginitis gonorrhoea- (AIIMS Nov 09)
e) Conjunctivitis a) It is an exclusive human pathogen
574. Where does gonococci initially infect - b) Some strains may cause disseminated disease
a) Vagina b)Cervix (NEETIDNB c) Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation
c) Uterus d) Fallopian tubes Pattern) in males
575. Which is not a metastatic complication of d) All strains are highly sensitive to penicillin
gonococci- (PGI 96) 587. Selective media for N. gonorrhoeae-
a) Endocarditis b) Meningitis a) Thayermartinmedia (Maharashtra 10)
c) Nephritis d)Arthritis b) Smith noguchi media
576. AU are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except- c) Proskaur and Bech media
a) Grampositivecocci (AIIMS OJ) d) Bordet gongue, media
b) Cause stricture of urethra
588. A pus culture on chocolate agar shows gram negative
c) Involves seminal vesicles and spreads to epididymis
cocci most likely organism is - (UP 04)
d) Drug of choice is ceftriaxone
a) H. ducreyi b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
577. Which is the true statement regarding gonococcal
urethritis- (PGI Dec 01) c) Str. pyogenes d) Str. pneumoniae
a) Symptoms are more severe in females than in males 589. Gonococci in gram stained smears are seen inside
b) Rectum and prostate are resistant to gonococci the- (Kerala 94)
c) Most patients present with symptoms of dysuria a) Lymphocytes b) Neutrophils
d) Single dose ofciprofloxacin is effective in treatment c) Mast cells d) Macrophages
e) Commonly leads to arthritis
578. Incubation period of gonorrhoea is- (JIPMER 92) 2. MENINGOCOCCUS
a) Less than 24 hrs. b) 1 to 2 days
c) 2 to 15 days d) 12 to 25 days 590. CSF in meningococcal meningitis shows -(PG/98)
579. Which of the following is most resistant to a) Gm '+ve' Diplococci, in pus cells
gonococcal infection- (Kerala 08) b) Gm '-ve' Diplococci in pus cells
a) Prostate b) Epididymis c) Gm '-ve' bacilli
c) Testis d) Urethra d) Gram '+ve' bacilli
567)c 568)c 569)b 570)c 57l)a 572)b 573)All 574) b 575)c 576)a 577) c,d 578) c 579)c 580)c
58l)a 582)b 583)a 584)a 585)c 586)d 587)a 588)b 589)b 590)b
591. Virulence factors for meningococci- (PGI Dec 07) 602. Treatment of choice of meningococcal infection is -
a) Capsule b)Pili a) Tetracycline b) Clindamycin (AI 99)
c) Endotoxin d) Coagulase c) Gentamycin d) Cephalosporin
e) M. Protein
592. Skin lesion in meningococcal meningitidis is due to- CORYNEBACTERIUM
a) Exotoxin b) Endotoxin (Kerala 94)
c) Allergic reaction d) Direct vascular Damage 603. C. diphtheriae is also called as -{NEETIDNB Pattern)
593. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is seen in- a) Koch's bacillus b) Roux bacillus
a) Pneumococci b) N. Meningitidis(NEET!DNB c) Klebs-loeffler bacillus d) Yersin bacillus
c) Pseudomonas d) Yersinia Pattern) 604. Leather term is used for- (UP 09)
a) Anthrax b) Proteus
594. Meningitis with rash is seen in -{NEET!DNB Pattern)
c) Diphtheria d) Neisseria
a) Neisseria meningitidis b) H. influenzae 60S. KLBanothernameis- (Jharkhand 09)
c) Strepto. agalactae d) Pneumococcus a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
595. The most important source of infection for b) Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriae
meningococci- (AI 96) c) Clostridium tetani
a) Case b) Subclinical case d) Anthrax
c) Carriers d) Latent case 606. Incubation period ofDiptheria is- (Manipal 06)
596. The following statements about meningococcal a) 2- 6 days b) 2- 6 hrs
meningitis are true except- (AI 03) c) 2- 6 weeks d) 2- 6 months
a) The source of infection is mainly clinical cases 607. The type ofDiphtheria with highest mortality is -
b) The disease is more common in dry and cold a) Pharyngeal b)Nasal (Jipmer 09)
months of the year c) Laryngeal d) Conjuctival
c) Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is 608. Which of the following is known as Preiz Nocard
recommended bacillus- (PGI 79, AIIMS 82)
d) The vaccines is not effective in children below 2 a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
yrs of age b) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
597. Xavier and yogender stay in the same hostel of same c) Influenza bacillus
university. Xavier develops infection due to group B d) Sahnonella
meningococcus. After few days yogender develops 609. The bacteria frequently used as an immuno
infection due to Group C meningococcus. All of the modulatoris- (COMEDK05)
following are true statements except - (AI 02) a) Corynebacterium parvum
a) Educate students about meningococcal b) Mycobacterium marinum
c) Chromobacterium violasium
transmission and take preventive measures
d) Flavobacterium meningosepticum
b) Chemoprophylaxis to all against both group B and
610. Aboutdiphtheriatrueis- (AIIMSMay95)
groupe a) Capsulated bacteria causes infection
c) Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of xavier b) Ratio of carriers and clinical cases is one
d) Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of yogendra c) Gram positive and motile
598. The vaccine against N-meningitides contains - d) Lysogenic phase causes disease
a) Whole bacteria (ICS 2K) 611. One of the following about corynebacterium
b) Capsular polysaccharide diphtheriae is wrong- {PGI 91)
c) Somatic '0' antigen a) Gram negative
d) Lipopolysaccharide -protein complex b) Ernest babes granules seen
599. Vaccine is available against which type of c) Chinese letter pattern
meningococcus- (AIIMS 86) d) Prevented by immunisation
a) TypeA b)TypeB 612. Trueaboutdiptheriais- (PG/98)
c) TypeAandC d) Type B andD a) Loffer's serum is highly selective medium for
600. Conjugate vaccines are available for the prevention C. diptheria
of invasive disease caused by all of the following b) Elek's Gel is a precipitation test
except- (AIIMS 04) c) Metachromatic granules is produced on stain
a) H influenzae only by one strain of C.' diphtheria
b) Strep pneumoniae d) Gm-ve bacilli, non motile, non capsulated
c) N. meningitidis (group C) 613. Daisy head colonies are seen with-
d) N. meningitidis (group B) a) Staph. Aureus
601. Selective medium for meningococcal infection is- b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c) Staph. Pyogenes
a) DCA b) Blood agar {PG 99)
d) Anthrax
c) Umedium d)Thayer-martinmedium
59l)a,b,c 592)b 593)b 594)a 595)c 596)a 597)c 598)b 599)c 600)d 60l)d 602)d 603)c 604)c
605)a 606)a 607)c 608)b 609)a 610)d 61I)a 612)b 613)b
614. True statement about diptheria toxin is- (AI 99) 624. Toxigenicity of C. diphtheria is determined
a) Toxin is phage mediated by- (Bihar 09)
b) Toxin is required for local infection a) Elek's gel ppt test b) Aselole's reaction
c) Endotoxaemia causes systemic manifestation c) Nagler's reaction d) All
d) Toxin acts by inhibiting synthesis of capsule 625. A 12-year-old child presents with fever and cervical
615. Diphtheria toxin acts by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) lymphadenopathy. Oral examination shows a grey
a) Inhibiting acetyl choline release membrane on the right tonsil extending to the
b) Inhibiting glucose transport anterior pillar. Which of the following medium will
c) Increasing levels of cyclic AMP be ideal for the culture of the throat swab for a rapid
d) Inhibiting protein systhesis identification of the pathogen- (AIIMS Nov 02)
616. All are true regarding diphtheria toxin except- a) Nutrient agar
(AIIMS June 97, AIIMS Sept 96, AI 98) b) Bloodagar
a) Toxin blocks elongation of protein c) Lofiler's serum slope
b) Beta lysogenic strain produces toxin d) Lowenstein Jensen medium
c) Iron is critical for toxin production 626. In a completely and adequately immunized child
d) Toxin is necessary for local wound production against Diphtheria, the throat swab was collected. It
617. Which of the following statements about C. showed thepresenceofCorynaebacterium diphtheriae
diphtheria is false- (AI II) like organisms on Albert staining. These orgainisms
a) Toxin production is mediated by native chromosome can have one of the following properties on further
b) Organism may be identified by tests for toxigenicity laboratory processing- (AITMS Nov 04)
c) Toxin acts by inhibiting protein synthesis a) It can grow on Potassium tellurite medium
d) Toxin may affect the heart and nerves b) It would show a positive Elek's gel precipitation test
618. True about comebacterium diphtheriae is all except- c) It can be pathogenic to experimental guinea pigs
a) Deep invasion is not seen (AIIMS May 07 d) It can produce cytotoxicity in tissue cultures
b) Eleks test is done for toxigenicity Nov 0 7) 627. A child presents with a white patch over the tonsils,
diagnosis is best made by culture in- (AI OJ)
c) Metachromatic granules are seen
a) Loefiler medium b) U medium
d) Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change
c) Blood agar d) Tellurite medium
619. True about corynebacterium diptheriae-
628. A child has respiratory infection with membrane
a) All types produce toxin (NEET/DNB Pattern)
over Peritonsillar area. Swab was taken from the
b) Toxin production is dependent upon critical
local area. The appropriate media for culture is-
concentration of iron
a) L.J. media (AIIMS Nov 99)
c) Heat stable toxin
b) Blood tellurite media
d) Inhibit cAMP c) Carymedia
620. Which of the following is true about Diphtheria d) Loeffler serum slope
except- (PGI Dec 05) 629. A child come with fever, cold, cough, membrane
a) Faucial diphtheria is more dangerous than over tonsils; nasal swab is taken, culture should
laryngeal diphtheria be done on which medium for earliest diagnosis -
b) Laryngeal diphtheria mandates tracheotomy a) Loffelers serum slop (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Child is more toxic with faucial diphtheria b) L. J. media
d) Myocarditis may be a complication c) MC Conkey's Agar
e) Palatal paralysis is irreversible d) Citrate media
621. Clinical diphtheria is caused by- (PGI June 09) 630. Corynebacterium diphtheriae can be grown within
a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae 6-8 hour on- (PGI 98)
b) Corynebacterium parvum · a) Potassium tellurite media with iron
c) C. ulcerans b) McConkey's agar
d) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Dorseteggmedium
e) C. Pseudodiphthericum d) Loefiler's serum slope
622. Lysogenic conversion is seen in - (NEET/DNB 631. Investigation of choice of diphtheria carrier is -
a) Diphtheria b) Salmonella Pattern) a) Throat Swab Culture (AJTMS June 97)
c) Staphylococcus b) E. coli b) Gram's stain
623. One unit of diphtheria antitoxin was defmed as the c) Albert's stain
smallest amount of antitoxin required to neutralise- d) Zeil Nelson's stain
a) lOOMLDoftoxin (SGPGI09) 632. Confirmatory tests for C. diphtheriae-
b) 200MLDoftoxin a) Serological tests (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) 300MLDoftoxin b) Isolation in selective media
d) 400 MLD of toxin c) Tests for toxin
614)a 615)d 616)d 617)a 618)d 619)b 620)a,b,e 62l)a 622)a 623)a 624)a 625)c 626)a 627)d
628)a 629)a 630)d 631)a 632)b
633. TeUurite stimulates growth of- (Kerala 91) 644. Toxin is/ are produced by aU except-
a) E.coil a) Corynebacterium diptheriae
b) CL tetani b) Corynebacterium hofmannii
c) Corynebacterium diptheriae c) Corynebacterium xerosis
d) Salmonella d) Corynebacterium ulcerans
634. Culture mediam for corynebacterium diphtheria-
e) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
a) Loefflers serum slope (JIPMER OJ)
b) McConkey 645. Erythrasma is caused by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Saburauds agar a) Corynebacterium minutissimum
d) Lowenstein Jensen medium b) Diphtheriae
635. Elek's gel precipitation test is for- (Kerala 94) c) C. ulcerans
a) Gonococcus b) Diphtheria d) C. Vaginale
c) H. influenza d) Anthrax
636. True about diphtheria is- (SGPGI 08) BACILLUS
a) Cause cranial nerve palsies in 2"d & 3'd week
b) Treatment with erythromycin 1. BACILLUS ANTHRACIS
c) It is gram negative organism
d) Passive immunization is harmful and should not 646. A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a
be tried pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the
637. Drug of choice for carriers of diphtheria is- lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli
a) Penicillin b) Septran (PGI 91) in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's
c) Tetracycline d) Erythromycin reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is -
638. Truestatementregardingdiptberiais- (Al97) a) Clostridium tetani (AI 04)
a) It can be diagnosed by demonstration of b) Listeria monocytogenes
antibodies by ELISA c) Bacillus anthracis
b) Immunisation prevents carriers state d) Actinomyces sp
c) Treatment of contacts is not indicated 64 7. The "String of pearl" colonies on Nutrient agar
d) Iron has critical value in the production of toxin is produced by- (PGI 95)
639. TrueaboutDiptberia- (PGI May 10) a) Klebsiella b) Proteus
a) Caused by Gram negative bacilli c) Bacillus d) Salmonella
b) Incubation period 2-5 days
648. Which of the following is true regarding anthrax-
c) Chemoprophylaxis is done with rifampicin
a) M' Fadyean reaction shows capsule (PGI Dec 01)
d) Previously immunized asymptomatic household
contact should receive booster dose b) Humans are usually resistant to infection
e) Child recovered from illness- give active c) Less than 100 spores can cause pulmonary infection
inununization d) Gram stain shows organism with bulging spores
640. Ehrlich phenomenon is seen in- (PGI May 11) e) Sputum microscopy helps in diagnosis
a) Myobacterium T.B. b) Proteus 649. Trueaboutautbrax- (PGI june 09)
c) Staphylococcus d) Cornebacterium a) Cause by Gram positive bacilli
e) Mycoplasma b) Soil reservoir
641. Positive sbick's test indicates that person is- c) Spore formation takes place
a) Immune to diptheria (AI 02, AIIMS Nov 07) d) More common in carnivorous than herbivores
b) Hypersensitive to diptheria e) penicillin is drug of choice
c) Susceptible to diptheria 650. Inverted tlr tree appearance is characteristic-
d) Carrier of diptheria a) Bacillus anthrax (Jipmer 04)
642. Regarding shick's test which of the following is false- b) Hemophilus influenzae
a) Erythematous reaction in (AIIMS 2000) c) Yersinia pestis
both arm indicate hypersenstivity d) Brucella
b) Positive test means that person is immune to 651. Medusa bead colonies on nutrient agar is seen in-
diphtheria a) Pneumococcus b)Legionella (PGI 81)
c) Diphtheria antitoxin is given intradermally c) Brucella d) Anthrax
d) Test done to find out immune status against 652. All of the following are true about bacillus anthrax
diphtheria except- (AI 98)
643. Schick test is for - (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Plasmid is responsible for toxin production
a) Susceptibility to diphteria b) Cutaneous anthrax generally resolve spontaneously
b) Susceptibility to tetanus c) Capsular polypeptide aids virulence by inhibiting
c) Susceptibility to scarlet fever phagocytosis
d) Susceptibility to RF d) Toxin is a complex of two fractions
633)c 634)a 635)b 636)b 637)d 638)d 639)b,d 640)d 641)c 642)b 643)a 644)b,c 645)a 646)c
647) c 648) a,b,c,e 649) a,b,e 650) a 651) d 652) d
653. True regarding anthrax is all except- 663. Incubation period for B. cereus- (PGI June 08)
a) Caused by insect bite (AIIMS Dec 97) a) l-6hrs b) 8-16hrs
b) Caused by rubbing of skin c) 24 hrs d)> 24 hrs
c) Cutaneous type is rare nowadays e)weeks
d) Pulmonary infection occurs by inhalation 664. Characteristic of Bacillus cereus food poisoning is-
654. A person working in an abattoir presented with a) Presence offever (AIIMS Nov 10)
pustule on hand which turned into ulcer, which will b) Presence of pain in abdomen
best help in diagnosis- (AIIMS Nov 06, AI 07, c) Absence of vomiting
a) Trichrome methylene Blue AIIMS May 12) d) Absence of diarrhoea
b) Carbol fuschin 665. A person after 6 hr. of consuming rice pudding in
c) Acid fast stain restaurant develops vomiting. True statements
d) Calcoflour white regarding food poisoning- (PGI Nov 11)
655. 'Malignant pustule' is -(PGI Nov-11, AIIMS Nov 10) a) Caused by staphylococcus aureus
a) Anthrax ulcer b) Preformed toxin
b) Proliferating rodent ulcer c) Caused by vibrio parahaemolyticus
c) Malignant melanoma d) Heat labile toxin
d) Matjolin's ulcer e) Culture of food is more useful than stool
656. TrueaboutBacillusanthracis- (PGI Dec 04)
a) Zoonotic disease CLOSTRIDIUM
b) Man to man transmission possible
c) Agent for bioterrorism 666. Following clostridia are saccharolytic except-
d) Antibiotic has no role a) Welchii b) Sporogenes (AIIMS 84)
e) Me Fadydean's reaction seen c) Septicum d) Oedematiens
657. All are true about cutaneous anthrax except- 667. Drumstick appearence is seen in -
a) Extremelypainful (UP 09) a) Cl. tetani b) Cl. Tetanomorphum
b) The whole area is congested and edematous c) Cl. Sphenoids d)All
c) Central crustation with black eschar 668. Subterminal spores are found in- (PGI Dec 08)
d) Satellite nodule around inguinal region a) Clostridium sordelli
658. Woolsorter's disease is- (AIIMS 86)
b) Clostridium sporogenes
a) Pneumonic form of anthrax
c) Clostridiumdifficile
b) Pneumonic plague
d) Clostridium tertium
c) Hydatid disease of the lung
d) Caused by psittacosis e) Clostridium botulinum
659. Charbon is a term used for- (PGI 85) 669. True about Clostridium tertium- (PGI June 08)
a) Leptospirosis b) Cutaneous tuberculosis a) Gram variable
c) Bubo of plague d) Malignant pustule b) Terminal spore
660. Malignant pustule is seen in infection with- c) Produces exotoxin
a) Versinia pestis (Maharashtra 10, d) Causes septicemic orchitis
b) Bacillus cereus Jharkhand 08) 670. Oval bulging terminal spores seen in- (MP 08)
c) Clostridium welchii a) Cl. tertium b) Cl. welchii
d) Bacillus anthracis c) Cl. perfringens d) Cl. histolyticum
671. Non motile clostridia is- (Delhi 09)
2. BACILLUS CEREUS a) Cl. perfringens b) Cl. novyi
c) Cl. botulism d) Cl. difficle
661. Anthrax bacilli differs from anthracoid bacilli by
being- (PGMEE 06) 1. CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGENS fWELCHII)
a) Non-capsulated
b) Strict aerobe 672. Regarding gas gangrene one of the following is
c) Non-motile correct- (AI 04)
d) Haemolytic colonies on blood agar a) It is due to clostridium botulinum infection
662. Food poisoning has occured due to ingestion of b) Clostridial species are gram-negative spore
contaminated fried rice, most likely forming anerobes
organism- (PGI 97)
c) The clinical features are due to the release of
a) Staph aureus b) Bacillus cereus
protein endotoxin
c) Vibrioparahemolyticus d)Yersinia
d) Gas is invariably present in the muscle compartments
653)c 654)a 655)a 656)a,c,e 657)a 658)a 659)d 660)d 66l)c 662) b 663) a,b 664) b 665) b,e 666) b
667)a 668)a,b,c,e 669)a,b,d 670)a 671)a 672)d
673. The following statements are true regarding 685. Naglers reaction is shown by- (Maharashtra 10,
Clostridium perfringens except- (AI 05) a) Cl. tetani b) Cl. botulinumKerla 2000)
a) It is the commonest cause of gas gangrene c) Cl. perfringens d) Cl. septicum
b) It is normally present in human faeces
c) The principal toxin of C. perfringens is the alpha 2. CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI
toxin
d) Gas gangrene producing strains of C. perfringens 686. Clostridium tetaniis ~ (PGI 94)
produce heat resistant spores. a) Gram positive bacilli b) Gram negative bacilli
674. Most common organism responsible for gas c) Gram positive cocci d) Gram negative cocci
gangrene is- (AI 99) 687. True abont clostridium tetani- (PGI Dec 03)
a) Clostridium perfringens a) It is gram +ve
b) Clostridium difficile b) Drum stick appearance
c) Clostridium tetani c) Grows in aerobic environment
d) Clostridium septicum d) It is gram -ve
675. Gas gangrene is due to- (PGI June 08) 688. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of
a) Alpha toxin b) Theta toxin which Gram positive organism- (AI 9 5)
c) Beta toxin d) Delta toxin a) Clostridium welchii b) Clostridium tetani
e) Epsilon toxin c) Bacillus cereus d) Proteus mirabilis
676. Opacity around colonies of clostridium perfringens 689. All are true regarding tetanus except-
is due to - (PGI 94) a) Transmission through contaminated wounds and
a) Theta toxin b) Lecithinase IDJunes (AIIMS Nov 10)
c) Desmolase d) Cytokinin b) More common in winters and dry weather
677. Each of the following statements concerning c) Reservoir in soil and intestines of humans and
clostridium perfringes is correct except - animals
a) It causes gas gangrene
d) No herd immunity or life long immunity
b) It causes food poisoning
690. Tetanus affects trimarily- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) It produces exotoxin
a) Presynaptic terminal of spinal cord
d) It is a gram negative rod that does not ferment lactose
b) Post synaptic terminal of spinal cord
678. Gasterointestinal enteritis necroticans is caused
c) Neuromuscular junction
by- (PGI Dec 07)
d) Muscle fibres
a) Clostridium difficale b) Clostridium perfringens
691. Trueabouttetanus- (PGI Dec 04}
c) Botulinum d) C. Jejuni
a) Gram -ve spore forming organism
e) Pseudomonas
679. Regarding Clostridium perfringens gas gangrene, b) Produces tetanolysin and tetanospasmin
false is- (AIIMS Nov 10, 09) c) Trismus and neck stiffness are early sign
a) Common cause of gas gangrene d) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure occurs on
b) Nagler reaction positive hyperstimulation
c) Most common toxin is hyaluronidase e) Wound debridement is necessary
d) Food poisoning strain of Cl. perfringens produces 692. Mechanism of action of tetanospasmin-
heat resistant spores a) Inhibition ofGABA release(NEETIDNB Pattern)
680. Incubation period of gas gangrene is- (PGI 94) b) Inhibition cAMP
a) 1-3 days b) 4-6 days c) Inactivation of Ach receptors
c) 7-lOdays d) 10-ISdays d) Inhibition of cGMP
681. Gas gangrene is caused by all except- 693. Which of the following are true about tetanus-
a) Cl. histolyticum b) Cl. novyi (AIIMS May 09) a) Gram -ve spore forming aerobe (PGI Nov 09)
c) Cl. septicum d) Cl. sporogenes b) Because of tetanospasmin
682. Gas gangrene is/are caused by- (PGI May 11) c) Muscle enzymes are normal
a) C. novyi b) C. septicum d) Vegetative cell will die with tetracycline
c) C. histolyticum d) C. perfringens e) Muscle spasms seen
e) C. tetani 694. A person has received complete immunization
683. "Citron bodies" boat or leaf shaped pleomorphic againsttetanns 10 years ago. Now he presents with
organism in an exudate is- (PGI 94) a clean wonnd without any lacerations from an injury
a) Cl. welchii b) Cl. edematiens sustained 2.5 hours ago. He should now be given-
c) Cl. septicum d) Cl. tetani a) Full course of tetanus toxoid (AI OJ)
684. Nagler reaction detects- (PG/86) b) Single dose of tetanus toxoid
a) Coagulase b) Hyaluronidase c) Humantetglobulin
c) Lecithinase d) None of the above d) Human tet globulin and single dose of toxoid
673)d 674)a 675)a,b 676)b 677)d 678)b 679)c 680)a,b 681)d 682)a,b,c,d 683)c 684)c 685)c
686)a 687) a,b 688) b 689) b 690)a 691) b,c,e 692) a 693) b,e 694) b
695. A 10 year old boy following a road traffic accident 703. Botulism is most commonly due to -(NEETIDNB
presents to the casuality with contaminated wound a) Egg b) Milk Pattern)
over the left leg. He bas received his complete c) Meat d) Pulses
primary immunization before preschool age and 704. All occurs in botulism except- (AIIMS Dec 97)
received a booster ofDT at school entry age. All of a) Diplopia b) Diarrhoea
the following can be done except- (AIIMS 01) c) Dysphagia d) Dysarthria
a) Injection ofTT 705. An 18 year old male presented with acute onset
b) Injection ofhuman antiserum descending paralysis of3 days duration. There is
c) Broad spectrum antibiotics also history of blurring of vision for the same
d) Wound debridement and cleaning duration. On examination, the patient has
696. The most effective way of preventing tetanus is - quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are
a) Surgical debridement and toilet (AIIMS OJ) non-reactive. The most probably diagnosis is-
b) Hyperbaric oxygen a) Poliomyelitis b) Botulism (AIIMS 06)
c) Antibiotics c) Diphtheria d) Porphyria
d) Tetanus toxoid 706. All of the following statements about Botulism are
697. The following statements are true aboutDPTvaccine true except- (AI 97)
except- (AI 04) a) Botulism is caused by endotoxin
a) Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect b) Honey ingestion causes infant botulism
b) Whole killed bacteria ofBordetella pertussis has c) Constipation is seen
an adjuvant effect d) Detection of antitoxin in the serum can aid in
c) Presence of acellular pertussis component diagnosis
increases its immunogenecity 707. Botulisim causes- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Presence of H. influenza type B component a) Descending flaccid paralysis
increases its immunogenicity b) Descending spastic paralysis
698. All of the following statements rearding Clostridium c) Ascending paralysis
tetani are true, except- (AI 11) d) Ascending spastic paralysis
a) Spores are resistant to heat 708. Nottrueaboutbotulinumtoxin- (PGIDec07)
b) Primary immunization consists of three doses a) Short life span
c) Incubation period is 6-10 days b) Increased acetylcholine release .
d) Person to person transmission does not occur c) Used for the treatment of Blepherospasm, static
and dynamic wrinkles
3. CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM d) Irreversibly decreases acetylcholine in
neuromuscular junction
699. Among the toxin produced by clostridium 709. Botulinum toxin acts on- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
botulinum, the non neurotoxic one is- (Kerala 2K) a) Parasympathetic system b) Sympathetic system
~ A b)B c) Brain d) Sensory nerves
c) Cl d)C2
e) D 4. CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICILE
700. Botulinum toxin acts on- (AI 92)
a) Sympathetic system 710. Most common organism responsible for pseudo
b) Parasympathetic system membranous colitis is - (AI 91, 99)
c) Amygdala a) Clostridium difficile
d) Motor cortex b) Clostridium botulism
701. Botulinum affects all except- (AI 07) c) Clostridium histolyticum
a) Neuromuscular junction d) Clostridium butyricum
b) Preganglionic junction 711. Clostridium difficale infection occurs after -
c) Post ganglionic nerves a) After prolong antibiotic therapy (PGI June 08)
d) CNS b) Pantoprazole increases the risk
702. The following statements are true regarding c) Associated with use of rectal thermometer
botulism except- (AIIMS May 03) d) Increased with proportion of hospital stay
a) Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of 712. A patient ofAcute lymphocytic leukemia with fever
preformed toxin and neutropenia develops diarrhoea after
b) Clostridium botulinum A, B, C and F cause human administration of amoxicillin therapy, which of the
disease following organism is most likely to be the causative
c) The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a agent- (AIIMS Nov 05)
bacteriophage. a) Salmonella typhi b) Clostridium difficile
d) Clostridium baratti may cause botulism c) Clostridium per:fringens d) Shigellaflexneri
695)b 696)d 697)d 698)None 699)d 700)b 701)d 702)a 703)c 704)b 705)b 706)a 707)a 708)a,b
709)a 710)a 71l)All 712) b
713. Cause of clostridium difficle associated diarrhea - c) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

a) Trauma (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Actinomyces israeli
b) Dairy products e) All
c) Fried rice 722. Effective for common gram-negative anaerobes-
d) Antibiotic use a) Aztreonam b) Doxycycline (Comed 07)
714. True regarding pseudomembranous colitis are all c) Vancomycin d) Tobramycin
except- (AI 2000)
a) It is caused by clostridium difficile ENTEROBAC"I"EmACEAE
b) The organism is a normal commensal of gut
c) It is due to production of phospholipase A 723. Enterobacteriaceae are AlE- (PGI Dec 06)
d) It is treated by vancomycin a) Pseudomonas b) Klebsiella
715. Pseudomembranous colitis, all are true c) V. cholera d) Proteus
except- (AIIIMS May 07) e) E.coli
a) Toxin A is responsible for clinical manifestation 724. Which is trueofEntero bacteriacae- (A/96, 93)
b) Toxin B is responsible for clinical manifestation a) All are oxidase negative
c) Blood in stools is a common feature b) Nitrate reduction negative
d) Summit lesions is early histopathological finding c) Glucose not femented by all
d) Motility by polar flagellum
NONSPORING ANAEROBES 725. E. coli gives pink colour with- (PGI 99)
a) Chocolate agar b)L.J.medium
716. One ofthe following infections is caused by anaerobic c) MacConkey's medium d) Saline broth
gram-positivecocci- (AI 95)
a) Puerperal infection b) Food poisoning 1. E.COLI
c) Endocarditis d) Septicemia
717. All are used for anaerobic streptococci except- 726. A 20 year old male had pain in abdomen and mild
a) Penicillin b) Carbenicillin(AIIMS Dec 97) fever followed by gastroenteritis. The stool
c) Clindamycin d) Vancomycin examination showed presence of pus cells and RBCs
718. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following on microscopy. The etiological agent responsible is
statements are true, except- most likely to be- (AIIMSMay 03)
(AIIMS Nov 11, May 06,Nov 06, May 03, AI 07) a) Enteroinvasive E. coli.
a) B. fragilis is the same frequent anaerobe isolated b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli.
from clinical samples. c) Enteropathogenic E. coli.
b) B. fragilis is not uniformaly sensitive to d) Enteroaggregative E. coli.
metronidazole 727. Watery diarrhea in children is caused by -
c) The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is a) EIEC b)EPEC (NEETIDNB Pattern)
structurally and functionally different from the ~Ellie ~EAEC
conventional endotoxin 728. RegardingETEC, true is- (AIIMS Nov 10)
d) Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation a) Invades submucosa
are common in Bacteroides bacteremia b) Most common in children of developing countries
719. A patient present with frontal abscess. Foul smelling c) Fomite borne and person to person
pus is aspirated. Pus shows red fluorescence on d) Not a common cause of traveller's diarrhea
ultraviolet examination.The most likely organism 729. MC cause of diarrhea in children of developing
causing the frontal abscess is- (AIIMS May 02) country is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Bacteroides b) Peptostreptococcus ~EHEC b)ETEC
c) Pseudomonas d) Acanthamoeba c) EAEC
720. Which of the following statement is true about 730. All are true about enterohemorrhagic E.co6 Except-
Bacteroides- (Orisa 02, MARA 05) a) Sereny test positive (AIIMS June 99)
a) It is gram positive bacilli b) May cause diarrhoea
b) It is strictly aerobic c) Can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome
c) It may cause peritonitis d) Verocytotoxin is produced
d) Presence in stool culture indicates need for 731. Which of these are true ofE. coli- (PG!June 02)
treatment a) The L.T (labile toxin) in ETEC acts via cAMP
721. Which of the following are non-spore forming b) In types causing UTI the organism attaches via pili
anaerobic bacteria that assume major c) The ST (stable-toxin) ofETEC is responsible for
significance in disease processes- (Delhi 93) causing hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
a) Bacteroides fragilis d) EIEC invasiveness is under plasmid control
b) Fusobacterium nucleatum e) In EPEC the toxin helps in invasion by the bacteria
713)d 714)c 715)c 716)a 717)b 718)d 7l9)a 720)c 72l)e 722)a 723)a,c 724)a 725)c 726)a
727)b 728)b 729)b 730)a 73l)a,b,d
732. With reference to infections with Escherichia coli 743. The mechanism of action ofEnteropathogenic E.coli
thefollowingaretrueexcept- (AI 05) is - (Kerala 9 7)
a) Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated with a) Adherance to enterocytes
Persistent diarrhoea. b) Stimulates adenyl cyclase
b) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli can cause haemolytic c) Produces secretory diarrohea
uraemic syndrome
c) Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease similar
to salmonellosis. 744. EnteropathogenicE.coli- (AIIMS 90)
d) Enterotoxigenic E. coli is a common cause of a) Causes acute gastroenteritis in infants
travelers' diarrhoea b) Invades intestinal epithilium
733. A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic c) Produces cholera like toxin
colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in d) It is Non-motile
pure cultnre. The following serotype of E.coli is 745. Which of the following is true aboutEnteropatho
likely to be causative agent- (AI 04) genic E coli- (AI 96)
a) 0157:H7 b)O 159:H7 a) Causes diarrhea in infants
c) 0107:H7 d)055:H7 b) Acts by invasion of Intestinal epithelial cells
734. AllaretrneaboutEHECexcept- (AI OJ) c) Adults are mostly affected
a) Sereny test is positive
d) Affects immunocompromised host
b) Ferments sorbitol
c) Causes HUS 746. Most common strain of E.coli giving rise to
d) Elaborates shiga like exotoxin traveller's diarrhea is-
735. Cultnre media used for diagnosis ofEHEC 0157: a) Entero-invasive E. coli (EICE)
H7 is- (AI 09) b) Entero-pathogenic E.coli (EPEC)
a) 0 7 culture b) SorbitolMacConkeymedia c) Entero-toxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
c) XLD agar d) Deoxycholate media d) Entero-aggregative E.coli (EAEC)
736. In E. coli true is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 747. Traveller's diarrhoea is caused by-
a) ETEC is invasive a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) EPEC acts via cAMP b) Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
c) Pilli present in uropathogenic type c) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
d) ETEC causes HUC
d) Enteroinvasive E. coli
737. Labile toxin ofE.coli can be detected by the following
methods ofincubation exc~pt- 748. Hemolytic uremic syndrome is due to -(JIPMER 95)
a) Into infant rabbit bowel a) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b) Into adult rabbit skin b) Enterohemorhagic E. coli
c) Intra gastrically into infant Mouse c) Shigella
d) Into Tissue Culture of Chinese Hamster ovary cells d) Salmonella
e) Into Yl Mouse adrenal cells 749. Persistant diarrhea is caused by- (Delhi 09)
738. WhichtoxinisnotmediatedbycAMP-(A.llAJS.June98) a) EIEC b)EPEC
a) V. choleraOl c) EIEC d) EAEC
b) Heat stable E. coli toxin 750. A20yearold man presented with hemorrhagic colitis.
c) HeatlabileE.coli toxin The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in
d) V.cholera0137
pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is
739. CGMPisactivatedby- (AIIMS 98)
a) E. coli stable toxin b) E. coli labile toxin likely to be the causative agent- (DPG 10)
c) Cholera toxin d) EL tor toxin a) 0157:H7 b)Ol59:H7
740. E.coli gets attached to a surface with the help of- c) 0107:H7 d)055
a) Fucose b) Concavatin (AI 2K) 751. Most common organism causing UTI- (AI 96)
c) Phytohaemagglutinin d) Lactin a) E. coli b) Proteus
741. Verocytotoxin ofE. coli actS by- (BHU 09) c) Klebsiella d) Staphylococci
a) Increasing cAMP 752. True about E. coli is- (AIIMS May 94)
b) Decreasing cAMP a) Sereny test is done to diagnose Enterotoxigenic E.
c) Decreasing protein synthesis coli(ETEC)
d) Decreasing cGMP b) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) are also
742. Invitrotestforenterotoxin- (Manipal 04)
enteroinvasi ve
a) Mac Conckey's culture
b) Blood agar culture c) UTI is caused by single serotype at a time usually
c) Rabbit ileal loop culture d) E. coli is the most common causative organism to
d) None infect bum wounds
732)c 733)a 734)a 735)b 736)c 737)c 738)b 739)a 740)a 741)c 742)d 743)a 744)a 745)a
746)c 747)c 748)b,c 749)d 750)a 751)a 752)c
753. A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for 763. Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting
preventation of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E.coli protein synthesis- (AI 04)
to the specific receptors in the gastro-intestinal a) Cholera toxin b) Shiga toxin
tract. All of the following fliDbrial adhesions would c) Pertussis toxin d) LT of enterotoxigenic E. coli
be appropriate vaccine candidates except- (AI 04) 764. All are true about Shigella except- (AIIMS Nov 99)
a) CFA-1 b)Pl-Pili a) Large dose is required for infection
c) C8-2 d)K88 b) Associated with hemolytic uremic Syndrome
c) Causes bloody diarrhea with mucus
2.PROTEUS d) Gut pathology is due to toxin.
765. Which of the following statement regarding shigella
754. Allofthefollowingaretrueexcept- (AI 01) dysentriae type lis true- (AI 99)
a) E. coli is an aerobe and facultative anaerobe a) It can lead to haemolytic uremic syndrome
b) Proteus forms uric acid stones b) It produces an invasive enterotoxin
c) E. coli is motile by peritrichate flagella c) It is an facultative aerobe
d) Proteus causes deamination of phenylalanine to d) It is MR negative
phenylpyruvic acid 7 66. True aboutshigella dysentriae except- (Delhi 08)
755. Dienes' phenomena is seen with- (PGI 02) a) It invades colonic mucosa
a) Proteus mirabilis b) Klebsiella b) It can cause HUS
c) Proteus vulgaris d) Providentia c) Produces verocytotoxin
e) Morganella d) Produces mildest form of dysentry
767. Shigellosis is best diagnosed by- (AIIMS 86, 89)
3. KLEBSIELLA a) Stool examination b) Stool culture
c) Sigmoidoscopy d) Enzyme
756. Friedlander's bacillus is- (PGI 97) 768. A person returns to Delhi from Bangladesh after 2
days and has diarrhoea. Stool examination shows
a) E.coli
RBCs in Stool. The likely organism causing is-
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a) Enteropathogenic E. Coli (AIIMS Nov 99)
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
b) Enterotoxigenic E. Coli
d) Vibrio parahemolyticus
c) Salmonella typhi
757. Which of the following is associated with extremely
d) Shigella dysentriae
foul-smelling infection - (Maharas htra 10)
769. Invasive testfor shigella is- (Orissa 2K)
a) Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
a) Dick's test b) Sereny's test
b) Klebsiella seeberi
c) Schick's test d) Rabbit ilealloop
c) Klebsiella zygomaticus
d) Klebsiella ozaenae
5. SALMONELLA
4.SHIGELLA 770. The following are gas producing salmonella
except- (AI 92)
758. Shigella can be differenciated from E. Coli by all of a) S. typhi b) S. enteritidis
the following features except- (AI 99) c) S. cholera d) S. typhimurium
a) Shigella does not produce gas from glucose 771. Agglutination with '0' antigen of S. typhi is
b) Shigella does not ferment lactose inhibited by- (AIIMS 92, AI 95)
c) Shigella does not ferment mannitol a) Vi antigen b) Pili antigen
d) Shigella has no flagella is non motile c) Flagellar antigen d) All ofthe above
7 59. Shigella are be divided into subgroup on the basis of 772. There has been an outbreak offood born salmonella
abllitytoferment- (AI 97) gastroenteritis in the community and the stool
a) Lactose b) Maltose samples have been received in the laboratory. Which
c) Fructose d) Mannitol is the enrichment medium of choice-{AII.MS May 03)
7 60. Most virulent variety of shigellosis is caused by- a) Cary Blair medium
a) S. Dysenteriae b) S. Sonnei b) VRmedium
c) S. Flexneri d) S. Boydii c) Selenite "F" medium
761. Lactose nonfermenting are all except- (MP 09) d) Thioglycholate medium
a) Shigella sonnei b) Shigella dysenteriae 773. All of the following Salmonellae are motile except-
c) Shigella flexneri d) Shigella boydii a) S. typhi (SGPGI 09)
7 62. Which of the following produces enterotoxin-(AI 95) b) S. enteridis
a) Sh. dysenteriae b) Sh. sonnei c) S. gallinarum pullorum
c) Sh. flexneri d) Sh. boydii d) S. chester
753)b 754)b 755) a,c 756) c 757)d 758)c 759)d 760)a 76l)a 762) a>b,c,d 763)b 764)a 765)a
766)d 767)b 768)d 769)d 770)a 77l)a 772)c 773)c
774. Which of the following organism requires 785. All are correct regarding widal test, except-
tryptophan for growth- (JIPMER 78, DNB 98) a) Baseline titres differ depending on the endemicity
a) H. influenza b) Vibrio of the disease (AIIMS Nov 09)
c) Gonococci d) Salmonella typhi b) High titre value is a single widal test is not
775. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid confirmative
fever. The infective does ofS.typhi -(AI12, AIJMS 06) c) 0 antibody last longer and hence is not indicative
a) One bacillus b) l0q010 bacilli of recent infection
5
c) Hf-1 0 bacilli d) 1-10 bacilli d) H antibody cannot differentiate between types
776. Incubation period of salmonella typhi -(NEETIDNB 786. True statement aboutwidal test in typhoid is-(AI 99)
a) 2-5 days b) 3-21 days Pattern, PGI June 05) a) Widal test is confrrmative in endemic areas
c) 14-25 days d) 10-60 days b) Antibiotic treatment does not alter widal test results
e)> 60 days c) Previous infection alters widal test
777. Pea-soup stool is characteristically seen in- d) Widal test does not alter with prior vaccination
a) Cholera b) Typhoid · 787. Most immunogenic in Typhoid- (PG/ 96)
c) Botolism d) Polio a) 0 antigen b) H antigen
778. AD of the following are true regarding typhoid except- c) Vi antigen d) Somatic antigen
a) Urinary carriers are more dangerous 788. Which of the following is true regarding Salmonella
b) Vi ab is used for detecting carrier (AIIMS June 99) infection- (AI 96)
c) Vi is seen in normal population a) Urine culture is+ ve in 1st week
d) Urine carrier is associated with anomalies b) Stool culture is+ ve in pt week
779. Trueabouttyphoidis- (UP08) . c) Blood culture is+ vein 3-7 days
a) Incubation period 3-6 weeks d) Widal test is +ve in 1st week
b) Chronic carrier is 10-15% 789. Microorganisms that enter freshly laid eggs are
c) Widal test is specific a) Salmonella b) Brucella (Karnataka 03)
d) Vi polysaccharide of bacterial cell used for c) Shigella d) Vibrio cholerae
vaccination 790. Following are true ofWidal test except- (AI 92)
780. Diagnosis of typhoid in the first week is by- (NEET/ a) High titre in first sample is diagnostic
a) Widal test b) Stool culture DNB Pattern) b) 'H' antigen is specific for serotyping
c) Highly +ve H titre not diagnostic
c) Urine culture d) Blood culture
d) Maximum titre in third week
781. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of
791. Correct statement about widal test- (Kolkata 08)
onsetoffeverisbestdoneby- (AIOJ, 02)
a) Only 0 antigen is used
a) Blood culture b) Widal b) Is a tube agglutination test
c) Stool culture d) Urine culture c) Any antibody titre is diagnostic
782. A 24 year-old cook in a hostel mess suffered from d) Antibody appears after 1-10 days of fever
enteric fever 2 years back. The chronic carrier state 792. Widal test is an example of- (DNB 08)
in this patient can be diagnosed by- (AIIMS Nov 02) a) Flocculation b) Agglutination
a) Vi agglutination test. c) Both d) None
b) Blood Culture in Brain Heart infusion broth. 793. Growth factor needed for salmonella- (Kerala 98)
c) Widal test a) Tryptophan b) Niacin
783. True statement about Widal test in typhoid is- c) B-12 d) Citrate
a) 0-antigen titre remains positive for several months 794. Carriers of Salmonella typhi can be detected by-
& reaction to it is rapid (AI 99) a) Widal test (Karnataka pgmee 06)
b) H-antigen titre remains positive for several months b) Blood culture
& reaction to it is rapid c) Sputum culture
c) Both remain positive for several months & reaction d) Culture of feces
to both is rapid 795. Typhoid carriers are detected by following except-
d) None a) Isolation of bacteria from urine (Delhi 08)
784. Which is true about Widal reaction- (AI 93) b) Isolation ofbacteria from bile
a) Antibody to HAg appears first and persists c) Vi antigen
b) Antibody to 0 Ag appears first and persists d) Widal test
c) Antibodies to H & 0 Ag appears simultaneously 796. Drug commonly used against enteric fever are all
except- (AI 08)
and persists
a) Amikacin b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Ceftriaxone d) Azithromycin
774)d 775)c 776)b 777)b 778)c 779)d 780)d 781)a 782)a 783)b 784)a 785) c,d 786) c 787)b
788)c 789)a 790)a 791)b 792)b 793)a 794)d 795)d 796)a
797. Resistance of Salmonella typhi to the following 807. The characteristic features ofE1 tor cholera are
antibiotics is not reported as yet in India- (NEETI all except- (AI 97)
a) Chloramphenicol b)Ampicillin DNB Pattern) a)More of subclinical cases
c) Ciprofloxacin d) Ceftriaxone b)Mortality is less
798. Vi antigen found in- (PGI June 05) c)Secondary attack rate is high in family
a) Salmonella paratyphi 'A' d)E I tor vibrio is harder and able to survive longer
b) Salmonellaparatyphi 'C' 808. NottrueaboutEitorvibrio01- (AI 10}
c) Salmonelladublin a) Animals are the only reservoir
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae b) Epidemiologically indistinguisible from V. cholera
e) Citrobacter fregalis 0130
799. Trueabouttyphoid- (PGI June 03) c) Human acts as vehicle for spread
a) It is caused by food poisoning d) The efficacy of vaccine against El torvibtio is great
b) Water can transmit the disease 809. Vibrio cholera was discovered by- (Kerala 94)
c) Ty21 a is an oral vaccine a) Koch b) Mekintoff
d) Chronic carrier is called when transmitted upto 6 month c) John snow d) Vrrchow
e) Widal test +vein 1st week 810. True about cholera vibriosis- (PGI 98)
800. AU of the following statements about non typhoid a) Can tolerate wide range of alkaline pH
salmonellaaretrue,except- (AI 09) b) Nonmotile bacilli
a) Humans are the only reservoirs c) Can't be grown in media
b) Transmission is most commonly associated with d) NaCl stimulates growth
eggs, poultry and undercooked meat 811. AU the following are true regarding Vibrio cholerae
c) Common in immunocompromised individuals except- (Al94)
d) Resistance to fluoroqinolones has emerged a) Transported in acidic medium
801. All are true about non typhoid salmonella except- b) Gram-negative
a) Poultry is source (AIIMS May 11) c) Aerobic organism
b) Can cause invasive disease in neonates d) Ferments glucose
c) Blood culture is more sensitive than stool culture 812. The following are true of vibro cholerae except
in gastroenteritis in adults a) Produces indole and reduces nitrates (AI OJ)
d) Resistance to fluoroquinolone has emerged b) Synthesises neuraminidase
802. Salmonella gastroenteritis is- (PGI 02) c) Dies rapidly at low temperature
a) Mainly diagnosed by serology d) Vaccine confers long immunity
b) Blood and mucus present in blood 813. V. cholera true is- (PGI 98)
c) Caused by animal products a) Very resistant to alkaline pH
d) Symptoms appear by 4-48 hr b) Nutritionally fastidious
e) Features are due to exotoxin released c) Bestgrowthat24°C
803. Prolonged salmonella septicemia is caused by- d) Rod shaped bacilli
a) S. enteritidis b) S. cholerae-suis 814. Selective media for vibrio- (AIIMS May 08, Nov 07}
c) S. typhimurium d) S. typhi (PGI 95) a) TCBS b) Stuart
804. DT 104 strain is belongs to which of the following c) Skirrows d)MYPA
bacteria- (PGI Nov 11} 815. All of the following statements about cholera are
a) Salmonella Gallinarum true except- (AI 97)
b) Salmonella Typhi a) 0 & H antigens measure carrier state
c) Salmonella Enteritidis b) Culture medium is TCBS Agat
d) Salmonella Paratyphi A c) Produces indole and reduces nitrate
e) Salmonella Typhimurium d) Synthesize neuraminidase
816. Which of the following statement is true about
VIBRIO vibriocholerae- (AI 99)
a)
There is no natural reservoir
1. V. CHOLERAE Transported in alkaline peptone water medium
b)
c)
Halophilic
805. Strain ofV. cholerae in Bengal- Oxidase negative
d)
a) 0:037 b)0:139
817. Which organism grows in alkaline pH? (NEET/
c) 0:17 d)0:40
a) Vibrio b) Klibsiella DNB Pattern}
e) 0:149
c) Pseudomonas d) E.coli
806. Cholera is caused by- (PGI june 09)
818. Transport medium for cholera- (NEETIDNBPattem)
a) Vibrio cholerae-01 b) Vibrio cholerae-0139
a) Umedium b)CaryBlairmedium
c) Vibrio parahemolyticus d) NAG vibrio
c) MYPAmedium d) Stewart medium
797) d 798) a,b,c,e 799) b,c 800) a 801) c 802) c,d 803) b 804) e 805) b 806) a,b 807) c 808) a 809) a
810)a,d 811)a 812)c,d 813)a 814)a 815)a 816)b 817)a 818)b
819. 'fransport media for cholera- (Jharkhand 08) 831. Which ofthe following is true of cholera-(PG/ 02)
a) VRmedium b)LZmedium a) Recent epidemic was due to classical type
c) Bile salt agar d) TCBS b) Causes secretory diarrhoea
820. 'fransport media for cholera- (Jharkhand 08) c) Caused by endotoxin
a) VR medium b) LZ medium d) Vibriocidal antibodies correspond to susceptibility
c) Cary-Blairmedium d) Stauretmedium 832. 'frue about V. Cholerae is- (AIIMS May 02)
821. TRUEregardingcholerais- (AIIMSDec 95) a) One attack ofV. Cholerae gives live-long immunity
b) Affects adults and children with equal propensity
a) Toxin acts on GMl receptor
in non epidemic regions.
b) Toxin action is cAMP mediated
c) In between epidemics, carrier states maintain the
c) Peritrichate flagella organism
d) Utilises arginine and lysine d) Pathogencity of0-139 vibrio is due to 0 antigen
822. Cholera toxin is due to- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 833. In a patient presenting with diarrhoea due to vibrio
a) Chromosome b) Plasmid cholera, which of the following will be present -
c) Phage d) Transposons a) Abdominal pain (PGI Dec OJ)
823. Cholera toxin- (AIIMS May 06) b) Presence ofleukocytes in stool
a) Increases the levels of intracellular cylic GMP c) Fever
b) Acts through the receptor the opiates d) Neutrophilia
c) Causes continued activation of adenylate cyclase e) Ocurrence of many cases in the same locality
d) Inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase 834. True about cholera - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
824. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by- (AI 05) a) Gram negative rod
a) ADP ribosylation of the G regulatory protein b) Associated with fever
b) Inhibition of adenyl cyclase c) Causes painful watery diarrhea
c) Activation ofGTP ase d) It is an achlorhydria which renders an individual
d) Active absorption ofNaCl susceptible to disease
825. Which of the following bacteria act by increasing c- 835. 7th Pandemic of cholera was caused by- (Delhi 09)
AMP- (AIIMSNov06,AI07) a) El Tor
a) Vibrio cholera b) 0139 V. cholerae
b) Staphyloccus aureus c) Classical V. cholerae
c) E. coli, heat stable toxin d) V. mimicus
d) Salmonella 836. True about vibrio cholerae is- (SGPGI 09)
a) Disease more common in woman
826. Cholera toxin effects are mediated by stimulation of
b) Classical vibrio protect against development of
which of the following second messengers -(AI 12)
0-13 9 Tor is milder than classical
a) cAMP b) cGMP
c) El- Tor is milder than classical
c) Ca++ -calmodulim d)IP/DAG
d) Erythromycin is used in treatment
827. Cholera toxin acts by- (Kolkata 08)
837. The cholera vibrio- (MAHE 05)
a) Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition
a) Is strongly anaerobic
b) Adenylate cyclase stimulation b) Grows best at 25°C
c) Opening of chloride channel c) Has marked tolerance of alkaline pH
d) Stimulation of Ca++channel d) Grows over a wide range but best at a slight acid pH
828. The function ofB subunit of cholera toxin is- 838. The transport medium for stools samples in cholera
a) ADPribosylationofGprotein (BHU 08) is- (ICS 98)
b) To bind GM1 ganglioside receptor a) Thioglycolate b)CaryBlairmedium
c) To stabilize cholera toxin c) Dubos medium d) Selenite 'F' broth
d) To increase cGMP 839. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera
829. The endotoxin of the following gram negative in an adult is a single dose of- (AI 05)
bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis a) Tetracycline b) Cotrimoxazole
of the natural disease. (AIIMS 06, AI12) c) Doxycycline d) Furazolidone
a) E. coli b) Klebsiella 840. The drug of choice for treating cholera in pregnant
c) Vibrio cholerae d) Pseudomonas women is- (AIIMS 05)
830. V. cholera is able to stay in GIT because of- a) Tetracycline b) Doxycycline
a) Acid resistance (PGI Dec 06) c) Furazolidone d) Cotrimoxazole
b) Bile resistance 841. Which of the following is the drug of choice for
c) Motility chemoprophylaxis of cholera- (AIIMS 05)
d) Binds to specific receptors a) Tetracycline b) Doxycycline
e) Anaerobic potential c) Furazolidone d)Cotrimoxazole
819)a 820)a 82l)b 822)c 823)c 824)a 825)a 826)a 827)b 828)b 829)c 830)c 83l)b 832)d
833) d,e 834) a,d 835) a 836)c>d 837)c 838)b 839)c 840)c 84l)a
842. Cholera vaccine effectiveness is- (TN 97) 853. Halophilicvibriosare- (PGI Nov 10)
a) 20% for 12 months b) 50% for 12 months a) V chlorae b) V. vulnificus
c) 20% for 36 months d) 50% for 36 months c) V parhemolyticus d) V mimicus
843. True about epidemiology of cholera- (PGI 03) e) V. alginolyticus
a) Chemoprophylaxis is not effective 854. Which of following 'Vibrios' is most commonly
b) Boiling of water cannot destroy the organism associatedwithearinfections- (AI 12)
c) food can transmit the disease a) V Alginolyticus b) V Parahemolyticus
d) Vaccination give 90% protection c) V Vulnifcus d) Vibrio fluvialis
844. Which is not true about vibrio cholera- (AI 07) 855. A 32 year old male, Kallu, who recently visited a sea
a) It is non halophilic coast presented with ulcer over the left leg. The
b) Grows on simple media pro~able cause is- (AIIMS May 01)
c) Man is the only natural host a) P!1-sturella multocida
d) Cannot survive in extracellular environment b) Micrococcus halophillus
845. True about V cholera 0139 aU except- (AI 07, 08) c) Vibrio vulnificus
a) Clinical manifestations are similar 01 Eltor strain d) Neisseria gonorrhea
b) First discovered in Chennai 856. Vibrio parahemolyticus food poisoning is caused
c) Epidemiologically indistinguishable from 01 Eltor by ingestion of- (AI 96)
strain a) Eggs and Poultry products
d) Produces 01 Lipopolysaccharide b) Raw vegetable
846. Cholera transmission by - (PGI Dec 06) c) Catfish, shellfish, seafood
a) Food transmits d) Milk products
b) Vaccination gives 90% efficiency 857. The growth factor required for the growth of
c) Healthy carrier vibrio parahemolyticus is-
d) Chlorination is not effective a) Saline · b) Tryptophan
847. AU of the following statements about El-Tor vibrios c) Bile d) Citrate
aretrue,Except- (AI 10)
a) Humans are the only reservoir
PSEUDOMONAS
b) Can survive in ice cold water for 2-4 weeks
c) Killed by boiling for 30 seconds
858. An organism grown on agar shows green coloured
d) Enterotoxin can have direct effects on other tissues
colonies, likely organism is- (AI 01)
besides intestinal epithelial cells
848. Which of the following about cholera is true- a) Staphylococcus b) Streptococcus
a) Invasive , (AI 90) c) Pseudomonas d) E. coli
b) Endotoxin is released 859. Which bacteria acts by inhibiting protein synth~_sis-
c) Recent infections in india are of classical type a) Pseudomonas b) Staphylococcus (A'l97)
d) Vibriocidal antibody titre measures prevalence c) Streptococcus d) Klebsiella
849. "Darting motility" is shown by- (TN 97) 860. Ecthyma gangrenosum is caused by-
a) Proteus b) Serratia a) Pseudomonas (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Vibrio d) E. coli b) Streptococcus
850. Invasive infection is caused by aU except- c) Staphylcoccus
a) V cholerae (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) H. influenzae
b) Neisseria 861. Shock with bullous skin lesion is seen in infection
c) Streptococci with-
d) H. influenzae a) E. coli b) Pseudomonas
851. In cholera the highest case fatality is observed in c) Meningococci d) Candida
case of- (Orissa 98) 862. Which one of the following drugs is an
a) Classical cholera vibrio b) Vibrio El tor antipeudomonal penicillin? (AI 06)
c) Vibrioparahemolyticus d) NAGvibrios a) Cephalexin b) Cloxacillin
c) Piperacillin d) Dicloxacillin
2. HALOPHILIC VIBRIOS 863. Pseudomonal infection, not cleaned by-
a) Dettol (NEETIDNB Pattern)
852. All of the following Vibrio sp. are halophilic,
b) Hypochloriti~
except- (AI 05)
c) Chlorine
a) V cholerae b) V parahaemolyticus
d) Betadine
c) V. alginolyticus d) V fluvialis
842)b 843)c 844)d 845)d 846)a,c 847)d 848)d 849)c 850)a 85l)a 852)a 853) b,c,e 854) a 855) c
856)c 857)a 858)c 859)a 860)a 86l)b 862)c 863)a
MELIOIDOSIS 871. A farmer presents to the emergency department with

painful inguinal lymphadenopathy and history of
864. The following statements are true regarding fever and flu like symptom. Clinical examination
melioidosis except- (AI 05) reveals an ulcer in the leg. Which ofthe following
a) It is caused by Burkholderia mallei stains ahould be used to detect suspected bipolar
b) The agent is a gram negative aerobic bacteria stai~ed organisms - (AI 11, AIIMS Nov 09)
c) Bipolar staining of the aetiological agent is seen a) Albert's stain b) Wayson's stain
with methylene blue stain. c) Ziehl Nelson stain d) Me Fayden's stain
d) The most common form of melioidosis is 872. A girl from shimla presented to OPD with fever,
pulmonary infection
hyp~tension, malaise and axillary and inguinal
865. Glanders disease is caused by-
lymplladenopathy. Culture in glucose broth shows
a) Burkholderia mallei
stahicqte growth. Most likely causative organism
b) Diphtheria
is - (AIIMS Nov 08)
c) Mumps
d) Burkholderia pseudomallei a) Yersinia pestis b) Francisella tularensis
866. A 50 year old chronic alcoholic male agricultural c) Brucella abortus d) Coxiella burnetti
worker presented with high grade fever of one week 873. True statements about Y. Pestis is/are-
duration with spells of chills and rigor. Examination a) Gram positive (PGI June 04)
of the respiratory system revealed bilateral b) Non-motile
crepitations with scattered rhonchi. Multiple c) Benzyl penicillin is given in prophylaxis
subcutaneous nodules were found on the extensor d) Patients are kept isolated ti1148 hours of treatment
surface of the left forearm, arm and left leg. Direct e) Repeated blood culture is diagnostic
microscopy of the pus aspirated from the skin nodule 87 4. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts
revealed plenty of Gram negative bacilli with bipolar o{ a patient of pneumonic plague is- (AIIMS Nov 02)
staining. Culture revealed distinct rough corrugated a) Penicillin. b) Rifampicin
grey-white colonies on Blood agar. The organisms c) Erythromycin d) Tetracycline
were motile a~:td oxidase positive. The most likely 875. Which of the following drug(s) is/are used in
diagnosis is- · (AIIMS Nov 03) treatment in plague- (PGI Dec 08)
a) Plague b) Melioidosis a) Streptomycin b) Tetracycline
c) Bartonellosis d) Actinomycosis c) Ciprofloxacin d) Chloramphenicol
e) Cotrimoxazole
YERSINIA 876. What is not true about yersiniosis -(NEETIDNB
a) Zoonosis Pattern)
8.67. True about Y. Pestis- (PGI Dec 03, Dec 06)
b) Caused by Y pestis
a) Gram+ve b)Gram-ve
c) By yersinia enterocolitica
c) Motile d) Non-motile
d) By yersinia pseudotuberculosis
e) It is coccobacilli
877. Appendicitis like syndrome is caused by all except-
868. Stalactite growth in ghee broth is due to-
a) H. influenza b) C. diphtheria a) Yersinia enterocolitica (MAHE 07)
c) Y. pestis d) T. pallidium b) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
869. All of the following statement about plague are wrong c) Pasteurella septica
except- (AIIMS 04) d) Yersenia pestis
a) Domestic rat is main reservoir 878. Most common mode oftransmission ofPasturella
b) Bubonic is the most common variety multocida is- (A/09)
c) The causative bacillus can survive upto 10 years a) Animal bites or scratches b) Aerosols or dust
in the soil of rodent burrows c) Contaminated tissue d) Human to human
d) Incubation period for pneumonic plague is one to
two weeks HAEMOPHILUS
870. A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat
grain godown. After 5 days he developed fever and 879. Which of these need both V and X factors-(PGI
had axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was sent to a) Hemophilus influenzae b) H. ducrei May 11)
the laboratory to perform a specific staining. Which c) H. paraphrophilus d) H. aegyptius
one of the following staining method would help in e) H. haemolyticus
the identification ofthe suspected pathogen- (AI 06) 880. The major antigenic determinant ofH.influenzae is-
a) Albert staining. b) Ziehl-Neelsen staining a) 'M' protein b) Capsular polysaccharide
c) McFadyean's staining d) Wayson staining c) Catalase d) Coagulase (PGI 99)
864)a 865)a 866)b 867)b,d,e 868)c 869)b 870)d 87l)b 872)a 873) b,d,e 874) d 875) a,b,d,e 876) b
877)d 878)a 879) a,d,e 880) b
881. About H. Influenza all true except- (AJIMS Nov 09, 890. Thumb print appearence in culture film smear is
a) Requires factor X and V for growtb Nov 10) seen-
b) Rarely presents as meningitis in children less than a) Bacillus antracis b) Brucella species
2 months of age c) Bordetella pertussis d) Clostridum Welchii
c) Capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for 891. The usual incubation period ofpertusis is-
virulence
a) 7-14 days b) 3-5 days (AIIMS 05)
d) M.C invasive disease ofH influenza is meningitis
882. Disease caused by hemophilus- (PGI June 09) c) 21-25 days d) Less than 3 days
a) Chancroid b) Influenza 892. What is true about Bordetella pertussis- (PGI 95)
c) Acute epiglottitis d) Brain abscess a) Adheres to normal mucosa
e) Brazilian purpuric fever b) Destroys cilia
883. Satellitism is seen in cultures of- (NEETIDNB c) Local tissue destruction
a) Hemophilus b) Streptococcus Pattern) d) All of the above
c) Klebsiella d) Proteus 893. Pertusis toxin acts by all of the following
884. A 2 years old child is brought to the emergency mechanisms except? (AIIMS Nov 08)
with history of fever and vomiting. On examination a) ADP ribosylation of proteins associated with
he has neck rigidity. The CSF examination shows
receptors
polymorphs more that 2000/ml protein 100 mgldl
b) Increase cyclic AMP
and glucose 10mg/dl. The Gram stain shows the
presence of Gram negative coccobacilli. The culture c) Increased calcium release from sarcoplasmic
shows growth of bacteria only on chocolate agar and reticulum
not on blood agar. The caustive agent is- d) Acts through G alpha subunit
a) Neisseria meningitides (AIIMS Nov 2002) 894. The following are true for Bordetella pertussis except-
b) Haemophilus influeuzae a) It is a strict human pathogen (AI 03)
c) Branhamella catarrhalis b) It can be cultured from the patient during catarrhal
d) Legionella pneumophila stage
885. All ofthe following are true regardingHaemophilus c) It leads to invasion of the respiratory mucosa
intlueuzaeexcept- (AIIMS Nov 03) d) Infection can be prevented by a acellular vaccine
a) It can be a part of the normal flora in some persons 895. True regarding pertussis vaccine is- (AIIMS June
b) The serotyping is based on the bacterial outer
a) 95% of vaccinated are protected 2000)
membrane porteins
c) It requires Haemin and NAD for growth in culture b) Erythromycin should be given to contacts
medium c) Neuroparalytic Complication is seen in 1 in 15000
d) Type b is responsible for invasive disease d) Leucocytosis is diagnostic
886. True about H influenza- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 896. Acellular pertusis vaccine contains-(AJIMS May 11)
a) Grown on sheep blood agar & C02 a) Pertactin, flagillary hemagglutinin, cytotoxin,
b) It is not capsulated endotoxin
c) Invasive strain is most common b) Pertactin, flagillary hemagglutinin, fimbriae,
d) Gram positive endotoxin
887. A 20 years old male patient present to the STD clinic c) Pertactin, cytotoxin, fimbriae, pertusis toxin
with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear d) Flagillary hemagglutinin, pertusis toxin, fimbriae
from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The
897. Mouse is used for pathogenicity testing in -
most appropriate media for culture would be-
a) Thayer-Martin Medium (AI 04) a) M. Tuberculosis (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Blood agar with X & V factors b) C diptheriae
c) Chocolate agar with isovitate X c) Bordetella pertussis
d) Tellurite blood agar d) Brucella
888. Chancroid is caused by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 898. Whooping cough is caused by -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) H. ducreyi b) T. pallidum a) B. pertussis b) H. influenzae
c) Gonococcus d)HSV c) Pneumococcus d) Meningococcus
BORDETELLA BRUCELLA
889. Culture media for pertussis is- (PGI 94)
899. Brucella melitensis is commonly found in (animal)-
a) L-J medium
b) Chocolate media a) Pig b)Camel (PG!Mayll)
c) Wilson blair medium c) Sheep d) Goat
d) Bordet- Gengou medium e) Reindeer
881)c 882)a,c,d 883)a 884)b 885)b 886)c 887)c 888)a 889)d 890)c 891)a 892)d 893)b 894)d
895) b 896) d 897) c 898) a 899) b,c,d
900. Regarding Brucellosis, all ofthese are true except- 910. Acid fastness of tubercle bacilli is attributed to -
a) Man to man transmission (PGI June 02) a) Presenceofmycolicacid (AllMS 91)
b) A zoonosis b) Integrity of cell wall
c) Blood cultures used in diagnosis c) Both of the above
d) B melitensis is the most common cause d) None of the above
e) Transmitted via animal products
911. The medium used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
901. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all ofthe following
modes, except- (AllMS May 07, Nov 06, AI 07) is- (AI96)
a) Contact with infected placenta a) Sabouraud'smedium b)LJmedium
b) Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected forms c) Pick's medium d) NIH medium
c) Person to person transmission 912. The tuberculous bacilli was discovered by- (TN 04)
d) Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol a) Robert Koch b) Edward Jenner
902. A farmer rearing sheep, presented with complaints c) Louis pateur d) Jonas Salk
of fever and weakness for the last one month. 913. Which one of the following bacteria contains mycolic
There is generaUsed lymphadenopathy. There was acid in the cell wall? (Karn 11)
also associated hepatomegaly Biopsy of liver a) Escherichia b) Mycoplasma
showed non caseating granuloma. These are most c) Mycobacteria d) Staphylococcus
likely due to infection with- (AIIMS Nov 2000) 914. Mycobacterial species differentiated by all except-
a) Yersinia pestis b) Brucella Canis a) Catalase test b)Amidase (Jipmer 04)
c) Francisella tularensis d) Brucella melitenesis
c) Niacin d) Oxidase
903. Malta fever is caused by- (AllMSMay 08)
a) Treponema pallidum 915. Niacin is required for growth of- (Kerela 91)
b) Borrelia burgdorfri a) M. tuberculosis b) M. kansasii
c) Brucella melitensis c) M. Scrofuloderma d)M.Avium
d) Pseudomonas aeroginosa 916. BCG, True about it- (UP 07)
904. A farmer presenting with fever off-and on for the a) Killed vaccine
past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from b) Subcutaneously given
chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological c) Given in positive tubercular patients
tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this state d) Live vaccine
except- (AI 04) 917. The factor which promotes virulence of M.
a) Standard Agglutination test tuberculosis-
b) 2 Mercapto-ethanol test a) WaxD b) Cord factor
c) Complement fixation test
c) Muramyl dipeptide d) Mycolic acid
d) Coomb's test
905. All are true about Brucella except- (AIJMS May 11) 918. Reinfection tuberculosis is almost exclusively a
a) B. abortus is capnophilic disease ofthe- (PGJ 94)
b) Transmission by aerosol can occur occasionally a) Lungs b) Bones
c) Paesturisation destroys it c) Joints d)Brain
d) 2ME is used to detect lgA 919. Reactivation ofTB is almost exclusively a disease of-
906. Treatment of Brucellosis- (PGI June 08) a) Bone b) Lymph nodes
a) Doxycycline b) Streptomycin c) Lung d) Brain
c) Erythromycin d) Penicillin 920. The commonest focus of Scrofuloderma is- (AI96)
e) Rifampin a) Lung b)Lymphnode
907. Milk ring test is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Larynx d) Skin
a) Brucellosis b) Bacteroides 921. In which type of cutaneous tuberculosis caseation is
c) Tuberculosis d) Salmonellosis
most commonly seen- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
908. Undulantfeveriscaused by- (JJPMER91)
a) Papulonecrotic b) Serofuloderma
a) Bartonella b) Brucella melitensis
c) Bordetella d) Borelia recurrentis c) Lupus vulgaris d) Erythema nodusum
922. Collection of urine sample of a patient ofTB/kidney
MYCOBACTERIA is done- (AIIMS June 2000)
a) 24 hrs urine b) 12 hrs urine
1. M.TUBERCULOSIS c) in early morning d) Any time
923. Rapid examination ofTubercle bacilli is possible with-
909. True about M. tuberculosis is- (PGI 94) a) Ziehl-Neelsen stain (AI 96)
a) Strict aerobes b) Gram negative b) Kin young stain
c) Thin cell wall d) Curved rod c) Auramine-Rhodamine stain
d) Giemsa stain
900)a 901)c 902)d 903)c 904)a 905)d 906) a,b,e 907) a 908) b 909) a,d 91 0) c 911)b 912)a 913)c
914)d 915)a 916) d 917)b 918)a 919)c 920)b 921)c 922)c 923)c
924. Anti-tubercular drug susceptibility can be done by b) Second Generation Quanti FERON-TB (Gold)
all of the following methods, except- assay used ESAT-6 and CPF -10
a) Resistance ratio method (AIIMS May 04) c) These tests can distinguish between M.
b) Disc diffusion method tuberculosis and M. bovis
c) Molecularmethod d) None of the non-tuberculosis mycobacteria give
d) Radiometric broth method a positive reaction with the test
925. Drug resistance in Thberculosis is due to- 935. True regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis is -
a) Transformation b) Transduction a) Produces visible colonies in I weeks time on
c) Conjugation d) Mutation Lowenstein-Jensen media (PGI June 02)
926. Mycobacterium TB can be differentiated from b) Decolorised by 20% sulfuric acid
other mycobacterium by- (Kerala 200 I) c) Facultative aerobe
a) Production of niacin d) Niacin positive
b) arylsulphate test 936. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is diffentiated from
c) Coagulase test other atypical mycobacteria by- (PGI 95)
d) Bile solubility test a) Niacin test b) AFB staining
927. Rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis is possible with- c) PAS staining d) None
a) Auramine-rhodamine stain (ICS 2K) 937. Commonest mycobacterial infection is patient is
b) Zeil Neelsen stain tropical contries- (PGI 02)
c) Geirnsa stain a) M. Leprae b) M. avium intracellulare
d) Leishman stain c) M. tuberculosis d) M. kansasii
928. The best diagnostic procedure ofM.tuberculosis- 938. All the following are true ofThberculosis except-
a) PCR b) Auramin rhodamin stain a) For sputum to be positive, (AI 94)
c) Sputumculture d)ESR (SGPGI08) bacilli should be > 1()4 I ml
929. Stain for the diagnosis oftuberculosis- (MP 09) b) Niacin test differentiates M. tuberculosis and M.
a) Auramine-rhadomine b)India-ink bovis
c) Geirnsa stain d) Zeihl Neelsen stain c) Pathogenicity to rabbits differentiates M.
930. Thberculin test positive is dependent on- (AI 96) tuberculosis and M. bovis
a) Erythema b) Nodule formation d) Culture techniques have low sensitivity
939. In TB,immunityis provided by- (PGI 98)
c) Induration d) Ulcerative change
a) CD4+ b)CD8+
931. Trueaboutmontouxis- (PGIJuneOI)
c) JgG d)IgM
a) False negative in fulminant diseases
b) If once done, next time it is always positive
2. ATYPICAL MYCOBACTERIA
c) Results are given in terms of positive & negative
d) Indurations given in terms of length & breadth 940. Which one of the following statement is true
e) Always indicate active TB infection regarding pathogenicity ofMycobacteria species-
932. TrueaboutMantouxtest- (PGI June 03) a) M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M.bovis
a) < 5 em always +ve to the humans (AI 06)
b) Usually -ve after treatment b) M. Kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable
c) Positive reaction in children< 2 yrs is not important from tuberculosis
than adult c) M.Africanum infection is acquired from the
d) Usually read after 48 - 72 hours environmental source
e) False +ve in post measles state d) M.Marinum is responsible for tubercular
933. True about tuberculin test are all except- lymphadenopathy
a) Recent conversion in adult is an (PGI 98) 941. True about mycobacterium other than tuberculosis-
indication for ATT a) Causes disseminated infection
b). INH prophylaxis is started if the test is positive b) Occurs in persons with normal immunity
c) Noriskinnegative c) Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross
d) May be false negative in immunocompromised immunity
patients d) Person to person transmission is seen
934. Which of the following statements regarding- 942. Which of the following is photochromogenic-
Gamma-Release-Assays for diagnosis ofThberculosis a) M. kansasii (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) M. scrofulorurn
is true - (AI 12)
c) M. intracellulare
a) First Generation Quanti FERON-TB assay used
d) M.avium
ESAT-6
924)b 925)d 926)a 927)a 928)c 929) a,d 930) c 931) a 932)d 933)c 934)b 935)d 936)a 937)c
938) c,d 939) a 940)b 94l)c 942)a
943. Pigment producing atypical mycobacteria- 955. Mycobacterianon-pathogenictoman- (Delhi 08)

a) M. fortution and M. chelonae (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) M. bovis b) M. Kansai
b) M. xenopi and MAC c) M.avium intracellular d) M.phlei
c) M. gordonae and M. szulgai 956. Notapathogenicmycobacterium- (TN 99)
d) M. ulcerans a) M. paratuberculosis b) M. kansasii
944. Which of the following are photo-chromogens- c) M. ulcerans d) M. intracellulare
a) M. kansasii b) M. chelonae (PGI Nov 957. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be differentiated
c) M. fortuitum d) M. simiae 09) from other mycobacteria by- (Kerala 09)
e) M. marinum a) Production ofNiacin b) Aryl sulphatase test
945. Battey bacillus or mycobacterium intracellulare c) Coagulase test d) Bile Solubility test
is- (AIIMS 84) 958. Which does not cause skin involvement- (PGI 84)
a) Photochromogen b) Scotochromogen a) M. tuberculosis b) M. Ulcerans
. c) N on-photochromogen d) Rapid grower c) M. Marinum d) M. Kansasii
946. Which of the following is not a pathogenic 959. The mycobacteria which grows in culture with in
mycobacteria- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 1-2 weeks are- (Delhi 96)
a) M. Kansasii b) M. scrofulaceum a) M. Kansasli b) M. Leprae
c) M. cheolonei d) M. smegmatis c) M. Chelonei d) M. Avium intracellulare
947. Cutaneous lesions may be produced by the following 960. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by- (AI 89)
mycobacteriaexcept- (DPG-99) a) M. Bovius b) M. Ulcerans
a) M. intracellulare b) M. Leprae c) M. Kansasii d) M. Balanei
c) M.marinum d) M. tuberculosis 961. Mycobacteriumaviumis- (MH 11)
e) M. ulcerans a) Scotochromogen b) Photochromogen
948. Fish tank granuloma is seen in- (NEETIDNB c) Rapid grower d) Nonphotochromogens
a) M fortuitum b) M kansasi Pattern)
c) M marinum d) M leprosy 3.M.LEPRAE
949. Buruli Ulcer is caused by -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Streptococcus b) Spirillium minus 962. Which of the following is true regarding globi in a
c) M. Ulcerans d) Brucella patientwitblepromatousleprosy- (AI 02)
950. Tuberculosis complex include all except- a) Consists of lipid laden macrophages
a) M. tuberculosis (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Consists ofmacrophages filled withAFB
b) M. bovis
c) Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria
c) M. kansasii
d) M. microti d) Consists of activated lymphocytes
951. Scotochromogensare- (PGI Dec 08) 963. For experimental work, Lepra bacilli are best
a) Mycobacterium gordonae cultured in- (AI 96)
b) Mycobacterium marinum a) Armadillos b) Mouse foot pad
c) Mycobacterium intracellulare c) Guinea pigs d) Rabbit testes
d) Mycobacterium avium 964. Leprosy spreads by-
e) Mycobacterium kansaii a) Skin to skin contact b) Blood transfusion
952. Which of the following is scotocbromogen- (JIPMER c) Droplet spread d) Ingestion
a) M. scrofulaceum b) M. ulcerans 91) 965. The animal model frequently used for M. Leprae
c) M. Kansasii d) M. fortuitum is - (Karn 94)
953. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum which cause a) Mice b) Guinea pig
scrofula, belongs to which groups of atypical c) Rabbits d) Golden hamsters
mycobacteria- (Kerala 2K) 966. Culture oflepra bacilli done in- (Delhi 09)
a) Photochromogens a) Nine banded armdillo b) Tail of mouse
b) Scotochromogens c) Foot pads of mice d) Nutrient agar
c) Non-photochromogens 967. Neurological involvement is pronounced in
d) Rapid growers whichtypeleprosy- (Al93)
e) None of the above a) Tuberculoid b) Lepromatous
954. All are rapid growers except- (SG PGI 09) c) Borderline d) Lucio leprosy
a) M.fortuitum 968. Single skin lesion is seen in which type ofleprosy -
b) M.chelonae
a)IL b)TT (A/93)
c) M.avium intracellulare
c) BL d)BL
d) M. Smegmatis
943)c 944)a,d,e 945)c 946)d 947)a 948)c 949)c 950)c 95l)a 952)a 953)b 954)c 955)d 956)a
957) a,b 958) d 959) c 960) d 961) d 962)b 963)a 964) a,c 965) a 966)a,c 967)a 968)b
969. The characteristic finding in a case of leprosy 981. The following drug is used for the treatment of type
is - (AIJMS Dec 98) ll lepra reaction, except- (AIIMS 06)
a) Culture test is positive in 2-3 months in LJ media a) Chloroquine b) Thaliodomide
b) Long contact with tuberculoid leprosy can transmit c) Cyclosporine d) Corticosteroid
the disease 982. ENL is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) CMI is seen in Lepromatous leprosy a) Lepromatous leprosy
d) Macule lesion heals spontaneously b) Tuberculoid leprosy
970. The following test is not used for diagnosis of c) Iderminate leprosy
leprosy- (AIIMS 06) d) Pure neuritic leprosy
a) Lepromin test 983. Fastest microhiocidal agent against M.leprae-
a) Clofazimine b) Dapsone (AI 04)
b) Slit skin smear
c) Rifampicin d) Minocycline
c) Fine needle aspiration cytology
984. Under leprosy eradication programme the
d) Skin biopsy
managment of single lesion is- (AIIMS 02)
971. Subtype ofleprosy with maximum number ofTH -1 a) Single dose of Rifampicin and Dapsone
cells- (UP 08) b) Rifampicin and Dapsone for 6 months
~ TT ~BB c) Rifampicin, ofloxacin andminocycline single dose
c) IL d) Borderline leprosy d) Rifampicin and minocycline for 6 months
972. Lepra cells found in lepromatous leprosy are- 985. True about lepra bacilli is- (AIIMS May 94)
a) Neutrophils b) Lymphocytes (Karn 94) a) INH inhibits their growth
c) Macrophages d) Plasma cells b) Antileprosy vaccine can give life long protection
973. Lepracellsare- (JIMPER 79, Delhi 93) c) Mycobacterium leprae can be grown in foot pad of
a) Neutrophils b) Lymphocytes mice
c) Histiocytes d) Plasma cells d) Incubation period is 3-4 months
974. Globi is- (Jharkhand 08)
a) Histiocyte containing acid fast bacillus SPIROCHETES
b) Lymphocyte containing acid-fast bacillus
c) Neutrophile containing acid-fast bacillus 1. TREPONEMA
d) Large lymphocyte containing acid fast bacillus
975. Generation time oflepra bacilli is- (Manipal 06) 986. Syphilis was first identified b- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) 12 days b) 5 minutes a) Fraenkel b) Nicolaicu
c) 10 hours d) 24 hrs c) Schaudinn & Hoffman d) Ogston
976. Mitsuda reaction is read after- (AIIMS 93) 987. Following is true ofT. pallidum, except- (PGI 98)
a) 3 days b) 3 hours a) Can be maintained in rabbit testis
b) Motile by peritrichate flagella
c) 3 weeks d) 3 months
c) To visualise, dark ground microscopy is used
977. In the management ofleprosy, lepromin test is most
d) TPI test is very-useful
usefulfor- (AI 03)
988. Stainfortreponema- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Herd immunity b) Prognosis a) Fontana's b)Acid-facid
c) Treatment d) Epidemological investigatins c) Methenamine-silver d) PAS
978. Exacerbation of lesions in patients of borderline 989. TrueaboutT.pallidumis- (AJIMS 97)
leprosy is seen in- (PGI June OJ) a) Sialic acid on surface inhibits activation of
a) ENL (erythema nodosum leprosum) alternate complement
b) Lepra reaction type 1 b) Hyaluronidase - enhances invasiveness
c) Jarisch-Herxheirnerreaction c) Antibody specific DPG
d) Resolving leprosy d) Glycosaminoglycan on outer sheath inhibits
979. Characteristic of type ll lepra reaction- antibody mediated killing of organism
a) Erythema & edema b) ENL (PGJ Nov 09) 990. Incubation period of syphilis -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Lymphadenopathy d) Uveitis a) 1 hour - 5 hour b) 24 hour - 48 hour
e) Trophic ulcer c) 1 days - 10 days d) 10 days - 90 days
980. The main cytokine, involved in erythma nodosum 991. All are true about secondary syphilis except-
leprosum (ENL) reaction is- (AIIMS 06) a) Gumma formation (PGI May 10)
a) Interleukin 2 b) Condyloma lata
b) Interferon - gamma c) Palmarerythema
c) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha d) Chancre may occur
d) Macrophage colony stimulating factor e) Mucosal patch
969)b 970)a 97l)a 972)c 973)c 974)a 975)a 976)c 977)b 978) b 979) a,b,c,d 980) c 981) c
982)a 983)c 984)c 985)c 986)c 987)b 988)a 989)b 990)d 99l)a,c
992. In a syphilis patient, site which does not help in 1003. Most sensitive test for Treponema-
isolation of organism - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) VDRL b)RPR (AIIMSMayJO)
a) Gunnna b) Pr chancre c) FTA-ABS d) Kahn
c) Mucosal patch d) Maculopapular rash 1004. False+ ve VDRL, is seen in all except- (AI 2000)
993. Trueaboutprimarychancre- (PGI Dec 08) a) Lepromatous Leprosy
a) Painless ulcer b) Infectious mononucleosis
b) Painless lymphadenopathy c) IllV
d) Pregnancy
c) Covered with exudate
1005. False +ive VDRLtest is/are seen in- (PGI May 11)
d) Indurated lesion
a) Leprosy b) Malaria
e) Organism can be cultured from exudative fluid c) Relapsing fever d) LV. drug user
994. The skin lesions of secondary syphilis include all e) HIV infection
ofthefollowingexcept- (AIIMS 97) 1006. False positive nontreponemal serological test for
a) Macules b) Vesicles & Bullae syphilis are seen in - {PGI Dec 08)
c) Nodule d) Papulosquamous a) HIV infection b) Collagen disorders
995. A 23year old male had unprotected sexual c) Paediatric age group d) Tuberculosis
intercourse with a commercial sex worker. Two e) Chronic liver disease
weeks later, he developed a painless, indurated ulcer 1007. TrueaboutVDRLtest- (AIIMS 2001)
on the glans that exuded clear serum on pressure. a) Non- specific
Inguinal lymph nodes in both groins were enlarged b) Slide flocculation test
and not tender. The most appropriate diagnostic test c) Best followed for drug therapy
is- (AIIMS May 04) d) AU
a) Gram's stain of ulcer discharge 1008. Regarding syphilis, all are true, except-
b) Dark field microscopy of ulcer discharge a) VDRL titre decreases or even absent after treatment
c) Giemsa stain oflymph node aspirate b) VDRL becomes positive after 10-14 days of
infection (AIIMSNov 93)
d) ELISA for HIV infection
c) Earliest serological test to become positive in
996. Trueaboutprimarychancre- (PGI Dec 04)
untreated primary syphilis is TPHA
a) Multiple ulcers
d) Yaws and Pinta cannot be differentiated
b) Painless solitary ulcer
1009. All are true about FTA- ABS in Syphilis, except-
c) Most infective state
a) FTA- ABS becomes negative after treatment
d) Heals automatically in few months without treatment
b) Present in secondary syphilis (AI 2000)
e) Penicillin is the drug of choice c) It is a specific test
997. Tabes dorsalis is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) May be positive in Lyme's disease
a) Primary syphilis b) Secondary syphilis 1010. 25 year old labourer 3 years back presented with
c) Tertiary syphilis d) Latent syphilis penile ulcer not treated. Later he presented with
998. Which one of the following is the most contagious neurological symptoms for which he got treated.
lesion in syphilis? (UPSC 97) Test to monitor response to treatment is -
a) Primary sore b)Gumma a) VDRL b) FTA-ABS (AIIMS Nov 09)
c) Condylomata d) Papular skin rash c) TPI d)RPR
999. In secondary syphilis, which one of the following 1011. Features of congenitalsyphilis are- (PGI May 10)
featuresisnotfound- (UPSC 04) a) Snuffles is late manifestation
a) Maculopapular rashes b) Perforation in cartilaginous part of nose
b) Generalised non tender lymphadenopathy c) Mulberrymolar
c) Aortitis d) Saddle nose deformity
d) Follicular syphilides 1012. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by-
1000. After giving treatment for Syphilis, the response to a) IgMFTA-ABS b)IgG FTA-ABS (AI OJ)
treatment can be best assessed by- (AIIMS Nov 99) c) VDRL d)TPI
a) FTA-ABS b)VDRL 1013. A VDRLreactive mother gave birth to an infant. All
c) TPHA d) Immobilization test of the following would help in determining the risk
1001. Diagnostic test of choice for neurosyphilis is- of transmission to the infanct except- (AI 06)
a) VDRL b) FTA-ABS (PGI May 10) a) TPHA test on the serum sample of the mother
c)TPI d)RPR b) TPHA test on the serum sarnle of the infant
1002. Investigation of choice for detection of syphillis c) VDRL on the paired serum sample of the infant
in a patient after 2 course of complete therapy- and mother
a) FTAABS b) VDRL (AI 02) d) Time interval between the treatment ofthe mother
c) TPI d) Dark ground microscopy and her delivery
992)a 993)a,b,c,d 994)b 995)b 996)b,d,e 997)c 998)c,d 999)c lOOO)b lOOl)a 1002)b 1003)c 1004)d
l005)All 1006)a,b 1007)d 1008)b,c 1009)a 1010)a lOll)b,c,d 1012)a 1013)b
1014. Confinnatory test for syphilis- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1027. Yaws is caused by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) VDRL b)FTA-ABS a) Treponema pallidum b) Treponena carateurn
c) RPQ d) None c) Treponema refrigens d) Treponema pertenue
1015. T. paUidum was discovered by- (Maharashtra I 0)
a) Schaudinn and Hoffi:nann 2.BORRELIA
b) Ellerman and Bang
c) 1\vort 1028. Lyme disease caused by- (PGI June OJ)
d) Robert koch a) Leptospira b) Borrelia
1016. VDRL is a- (TN 95) c) Treponema d) Bordetella
a) Slide flocculation test e) Arbovirus
b) Tube flocculation test 1029. Spirochetes among following are- (PGI Dec 06)
c) Gel precipitation test a) Syphilis b) Leptospira
d) Indirect hemaglutinatioin test c) Mycoplasma d) Brucella
1017. The following is not true ofsyphilis- (AIIMS 91) e) Borrelia
a) TPI is most specific 1030. Which one of the following microorganisms uses
b) VDRL is not specific antigenic variation as a major means of evading host-
c) VDRL is negative in secondary syphilis defences- (AIIMS Nov 04)
d) lgM test is specific for congenital syphilis a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
1018. Which is false about syphilis- (AI 92) b) Borrelia recurrentis
a) TPI gives definite diagnosis c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) TPHA is earliest to be +ve d) Listeria monocytogenes
c) VDRL is +ve l week after appearance of chancre 1031. True about B. recurrentis- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Serologically not different from yaws a) Causes leptospirosis b)Water borne disease
1019. Which ofthe following is the most specific test to c) Vector borne disease d) Transmitted by tick
diagnose syphilis- (Corned 0 7) 1032. Borrelia recurrentis is transmitted by- (MH 11)
a) VDRL Test b) Wassermann Test a) Mite b) Louse
c) RPR Test d) FTA-ABS c) Tick d) Mosquito
1020. The most commonly performed test for serodiagnosis 1033. The following are true regarding Lyme's Disease,
of syphilis is - (Kar 09) except- (AI 03)
a) TPHA b) Waserman a) It is transmitted by ixodid tick.
c) TPT d)VDRL b) Erythema chronicum migraines may be a clinical
1021. VDRL is most sensitive for diagnosis during which feature
stage of syphilis- (Jipmer 11) c) Borrelia recurrentis is the aetiological agent
a) Prirruuy b) Secondary d) Rodents act as natural hosts
c) Tertiary d) Congenital 1034. Which of the following is not the manifestation of
1022. False positive FluorescentTreponemal antibody test BorreliaBurgdorferi- (PGI May 10)
is seen is - (Jipmer 11) a) Erythema chronicum migrans
a) lllV b) Lyme disease b) Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans
c) Infectious mononucleosis d)SLE c) Lymphogranuloma venerum
1023. Non venereal treponemas is/are-(PGIMay 10June04) d) Granuloma fasiale
a) T. Pertenue b) T. Carateum e) Lichen planus
c) T. Pallidum d) T. Cuniculi 1035. Kelly's medium is used in the isolation of-
1024. Regarding yaws, all are true except- (AI 08) a) Leptospira b) Borrelia (PGI 81)
a) Caused by T. pertenue c) Bartonella d) Brucella
b) Sexually transmitted 1036. Lymes disease all are true except-
c) Cross reactive antibodies with syphilis a) Borellia bourgdorferi replicates locally and invades
d) Drug of choice is penicillin. locally (AIIMS May 11, 10)
1025. All of the following statements about 'yaws' are true b) Infection progresses inspite of good humoral
except- (AI 11) immunity
a) Caused by Treponema pertenue c) Polymorphonuclear lymphocytosis in CSF suggest
b) Transmitted non venerally meningial involvement
c) Secondary yaws can involve bone d) lgA intrathecally confirms meningitis
d) Late stages of yaws involve heart and nerves 1037. All of the following species ofborrelia are associated
1026. Bejel is caused by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) with tick horne relapsing fever, except- (AI 09)
a) T. pallidum b) T. endemicum a) Borrelia recurrentis b) Borrelia hermsii
c) T. pertunae d)T. carateum c) Borrelia turicatae d) Borrelia duttani
1014)b l015)a 1016)a 1017)c 1018)b 1019)d 1020)d 102l)b 1022)b 1023)a,b 1024)b 1025)d l026)b
1027)d 1028)b 1029)a,b,e 1030)b l03l)c 1032)b 1033)c l034)c,d,e 1035)b 1036)c 1037)a
1038. Tick born relapsing fever is/are caused by -(PGI Dec 1048. Culture media ofleptospirosis- (AIIMS May 09)
a) Borreliarecurrentis b)Borreliaduttonii 08) ~ Korthof b)Perkin
c) Borrlia burgdorferi d) Borreliaherrnsii c) Tinsdale d) Baker's
e) None of above 1049. The following about leptospirosis is true except-
1039. Louse borne relapsing fever -(NEETIDNB Pattern) a) High fever with chills (PGI 02)
a) B duttoni b) B recurrentis b) Seen in sewage workers
c) B parkeri d) B burgdorferi c) Jaundice is present
d) Acute renal failure may occur
3. LEPTOSPIRA
e) Tetracycline is the drug of choice
1040. A bacterial disease that has been associated with 1 050. All of the following statements about leptospirosis
the 3 "Rs" i.e. rats, ricefields, and rainfall is- are true except - (AI 09)
a) Leptospirosis b) Plague (AI 05) a) Infection acquired by direct contact with infected
c) Melioidosis' d) Rodent- bite fever urine
1041. Reservoirofleptospira- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Mortality is 5-15% in severe cases
a) Cat b)Dog c) Antibodies are usually detectable in the first week
c) Rat d) Monkey d) Iv penicillin is recommended for treatment of
1042. Which of the following is transmitted by rat urine? severe cases
a) Leptospira (NEET/DNB Pattern, AI 02) 1051. Which of the following statements about
b) Listeria Leptospirosis is true- (AI 11)
c) Legionella a) Rats are prime reservoirs
d) Mycoplasma b) Fluoroquinolones are the drug of choice
1043. Leptospira icterohemorrhagica infection is c) Person to person transmission is common
transmitted by- (TN 95) d) Hepatorenal syndrome may occur in upto 50% of
a) Bats b) Rats
patients
c) Birds d) Dogs
1052. A sewage worker presents to the emergency
1044. A 25-year old farmer presented with history of high
grade fever for 7 days and altered sensorium for 2 department with fever and jaundice. Laboratory
days. On examination, he was comatosed and had findings reveal an elevated BUN and serum
conjunctival hemorrhage. Urgent investigations creatinine suggestive of renal failure. Which ofthe
showed a hemoglobin of 11 gm/dl, serum bilirnbin 8 following antibiotics is recommended? (Alii)
mg/dl and urea 78 mg/dl. Peripheral blood smear a) Cotrimaxozole b) Erythromycin
was negative for malarial parasite. What is the most c) Ciprofloxacin d) Penicillin G
likely diagnosis- (AIIMS Nov 05) 1053. Considerthefollowingstatements- (UPSC 07)
a) Brucellosis b) Weil's disease L In leptospirosis, the incubation period ranges from
c) Acute viral hepatitis d) Q fever 2 to20 days.
1045. Not used in leptospirosis- (AIIMS May 10) 2. In leptospirosis, urine may show microscopic
a) Microscopic agglutination test haematuria
b) Dark field illumination Which ofthe statements given above is are correct?
c) Macroscopic agglutination test a) 1 only b) 2 only
d) Weil felix reaction c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
1046. A fourteen year old body is admitted with history of
1054. Leptospira canicola infection usually present as-
fever, icterus, conjunctival suffusion and haematuria
a) Aseptic meningitis (Karnat 98)
for twenty days. Which of the following serological
test can be of diagnostic utility- (AIIMS Nov 04) b) Jaundice
a) Widal test c) Diarrhoea and vomiting
b) Microscopic Agglutination Test d) Lobar pneumonia
c) Paul Bunnell test 1055. The Leptospira interrogans complex- (PGI88)
d) Weil felix reaction a) Causes disease in rodents which is usually fatal
1047. A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was b) Mostly affects the kidney and liver
admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The c) Causes rise in lgM antibodies which disppears
most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in after the first week of the disease.
this patient is- (AI 03) d) Causes primarily vascular changes
a) Weil Felix test e) Can be prevented by an effective vaccine which
b) Paul Bunnell test is used world wide
c) Microscopic agglutination test
d) Micro immunofluorescence test
1038)b,d 1039)b 1040)a 104l)c 1042)a 1043)b 1044)b 1045)d 1046)b 1047)c 1048)a 1049)e 1050)c
1051) a 1052) d 1053) c I 054) a 1055) b,d
MYCOPLASMA 1067. "L-form" phenomenon is most likely to occur in-

a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (DPG 10)
1056. Cell wall deficient organisms are- (PGI 99) b) Pseudomonas
a) Chlamydia b) Mycoplasma c) Proteus
c) Streptococcus d) Anaerobes d) Mycoplasma
1057. Eatonagentis- (Jipmer 11) 1068. Which one of the following needs cholesterol and
a) Chlamydia b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae otherlipidsforgrowth- (MH 11)
a) Mycobacterium TB b) Chlamydia
c) Klebsiella d) H. influenzae
c) Hemophilus d) Mycoplasma
1058. Eaton agent is- (Rohtak 86)
1069. TRUEaboutmycoplasmais- (AJIMSDec95)
a) Corynebacterium b) Pseudomonas a) Causes lung infection
c) Mycoplasma d) Gonococcus b) Penicillin is drug of choice
1059. The following statements are true with reference to c) Thick cell wall
Mycoplasma except- (AJIMS Nov 05) d) Thallium acetate inhibits the growth
a) They are the smallest prokaryotic organisms that 1070. Mycoplasma pneumonia is characterised by all except-
can grow in cell free culture media a) Diagnosed by serum cold antibody ·
b) They are obligate intracellular organisms b) Treatment is erythromycin (AIIMS June 98)
c) They lack a cell wall c) Cannot be cultured from sputum
d) They are resistant to Beta-lactam drugs d) Raised ESR
1060. Diene'smethodisusedfor- (PG/99) 1071. All are features ofUreaplasma urealyticum except-
a) Mycoplasma b) Chlamydiae a) Non gonococcal urethritis (AI OJ)
c) Plague d) Diphtheria b) Salpingitis
1061. Fried Egg colony is seen in culture of- c) Epididymitis
a) Mycoplasma (NEETIDNB Pattern) d) Bacterial vaginosis
1072. Trueaboutmycoplasma- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Legionella
a) L-funn b) Multi drug resistant
c) Trachoma
c) Cause NGU d) Penicillin effective
d) Hemophilus 1073. Trueaboutmycoplasmais- (MP 98)
1062. In reference to the mycoplasmas, the following are a) Not sensitive to antibiotics
true except- (AJIMS May 05) b) L. form is commonest
a) They are inhibited by penicillins c) Culture in sabouraud's media
b) They can reproduce in cell free media d) Most common cause of non gonococcal urethritis
c) They have an affinity for mammalian cell
membranes ACTINOMYCETE&
d) They can pass through filters of 450 nm pore size
1063. True about mycoplasma are all except- 1074. True about actinomyces is- (AJIMS Dec 95)
a) They are L forms (AIIMS May 08) a) Gram+ve
b) Sterol enhances growth b) Most common site is brain
c) Can grow in cell free media c) Tetracycline is drug of choice
d) When grown in liquid medium do not produces d) Portal of entry is inhalation
turbidity 1075. Which of the following is not trne ofActinomycosis-
a) Demonstration of filaments (Al94)
1064. The following is true for Mycoplasmas except-
b) Caused by actinomyces israelii
a) Multiply by binary fission. (AIIMS Nov 02)
c) Organism cannot be cultured
b) Are sensitive to beta-lactam group of drugs. d) Sulphur granules in pus
c) Can grow in cell free media. 1076. Which of the following is the most predominant
d) Require sterols for their growth constituent of sulfur granules of Actinomycosis is-
1065. Ureaplasma is naturally resistant to - a) Organisms (AIIMS May 04)
a) Erythromycin (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Neutrophils and monocytes
b) Tetracycline c) Monocytes and lymphocytes
c) Chloramphenicol d) Eosinophils
d) Cephalosporins 1077. Color of granule of actinomycetes-
1066. True about mycoplasma- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Black b) Yellow (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Obligate intracellular organism c) Red d) Brown
b) Penicillin is effective treatment 1078. Actinomycosis most common site- (NEETIDNB
c) Require cholesterol for growth a) Cervicofacial b) Thoracis Pattern)
d) Have thick cell wall c) Abdomen d)Brain
1056) b 1057) b 1058) c 1059) b 1060) a 1061) a 1062) a 1063) a 1064) b 1065) d 1066) c 1067) d 1068) d 1069) a
1070)c 107l)b 1072)c>a 1073)b 1074)a 1075)c 1076)a 1077)b 1078)a
1079. Actinomycetes is- . (AI 88, Bihar 05) 1088. Tumbling motility is shown by- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Gram positive bacteria a) Listeria monocytogenes b) Proteus vulgaris
b) Gram negative bacteria c) Borrelia d) Clostridia
c) Fungus 1089. A major step in the pathogenesis of listeriosis is-
d) A yeast like from a) The formation of antigen-antibody complexes
1080. A clinical specimen was obtained from the wound of with resultant complement activation and tissue
a patient diagnosed as Nocardiosis. For the selective damage (AIIMS Nov 05)
isolation of Nocardia sp. wbich one of the following b) The release ofhyaluronidase by L. monocytogenes,
would be the best method- (AIIMS May 04) which contributes to its dissemination from local
a) Paraffin bait technique sites
b) Castaneda's culture method c) The antiphagocytic activity of the L.
c) Craige's tube method monocytogenes capsule
d) Hair bait technique d) The survival and multiplication of L.
1081. Nocardia is stained by all except- (AIIMS May 08) monocytogenes within mononuclear phagocytes
a) Acid fast stain b) Kiram's stain and host epithelial cells
c) Alcian blue stain d) Mucin stain 1090. The Anton test is used in the diagnosis of- (AIIMS
1082. Nocardia is differentiated from Actinomyces by- a) C. diphtheriae b) H. influenzae 79)
a) Gram stain (PGI June 02) c) L. monocytogenes d) S. pneumoniae
b) ZN stain 1091. 'fumbling motility is shown by-
c) Nocardia causes mycetoma, Actinomyces does not a) Proteus vulgaris b) Proteus mirabilis
d) Nocardia is faculative anerobe c) Vibrio d) Listeria
1083. A patient presents to the emergency department with 1092. A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history
history of persistent fever & cough. Radiological presents with fever. The blood culture from the
features are suggestive of pneumonia. Sputum patient grows gram-positive small to medium
examination cultures reveal aerobic branching coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short
Gram positive f'IIaments that are partially acid
chains. Direct wet from the culture shows tumbling
fast.Which of the following is the most likely
motility. The most likely organism is- (AI 04)
etiological agent- (AI 11)
a) Listera monocytogenes
a) Actinomyces israeli
b) Corynebacterium sp.
b) Nocardia asteriodes
c) Enterococcus sp.
c) Aspergillus fumigatus
d) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
d) Staphylococcus aureus
1084. A charachteristic infection ofNocardiaAsteroides 1093. A3-week old child presented to the pediatrician with
is- (AI 12)
meningitis. A presumptive diagnosis oflate onset of
a) Diarrhea a perinatal infection was made. The CSF culture
b) Secondary Dissemination to liver was positive for gram positive bacilli. Wbich of the
c) Brain Abscess following characteristic of this bacteria would be
d) Colonic Diverticulosis helpful in differentiating it from other bacteria
1085. Nocardia resemble actinomyces morphological agents- (AIIMS May 05)
but- (ICS 2K) a) Ability to grow on blood agar
a) Are anaerobic b) Are faculative anaerobic b) Ability to produce catalase
c) Are aerobic d) Require C02 for growth c) Fermentative attack on sugars
d) Motility at 25°C
LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES 1094. In patient with listeria meningitis who is allergic to
penicillin the treatment of choice is- (PGI 99)
1086. All of the following are true about Listeria except- a) Vancomycin
a) Transmitted by contaminated milk (AI 02) b) Gentamycin
b) Gram negative bacteria c) Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole
c) Cause abortion in pregnancy d) Ceftriaxone
d) Causes meningitis in neonates
1087. Microorganism motile at 2sec but not motile at COMPYLOBACTOR
37°C- (PGI Nov 09)
a) Listeria monocytogens 1095. Regarding Campylobacter jejuni not true is-
b) Campylobacter a) Most common cause ofCampylobacteriosis
c) Yersinia pestis b) Poultry is the cause of the disease
d) Streptococcus agalctiae c) Human is the only reservoir (AIIMS Nov 09, AI 11)
e) E. coli d) Causes Gillian barrie syndrome
1079)a 1080)a 1081)b 1082)b1083)b 1084)c 1085)c 1086)b 1087)a 1088)a 1089)d 1090)c 1091)d 1092)a
1093)d 1094)c 1095)c
1096. Campylobacter culture media are- (PGI Dec 08) 1105. True about helicobacter pylori are all except-
a) Schaedler's agar b) CVAmedium a) Urea breath test is diagnostic (AI 98)
c) Regan-Lowe medium d) Skirrow medium b) Gram negative, flagellate bacilli
e) Campylobacter blood agar c) Risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma
1097. A35 year old patient complains ofabdominal cramps of stomach
along witb profuse diarrhea. The treating physician d) It provides life long immunity
wants to process the stool specimen for isolation of 1106. Helicobacter pylori is not associated with-
Campylobacter jejuni. Which of the following is the
a) Gastrointestinal lymphoma (AIIMS Nov 03)
method of choice for tbe culture of stool-
b) Gastric cancer
a) Culture on TCBS medium incubated at 37°C under
aerobic conditions (AIIMS Nov 04, AI 05) c) Gastric leiomyoma
b) Culture on Skirrow's medium incubated at 42°C d) Peptic ulcer
under micro-aerophilic conditions. 1107. All are true regarding H.Pylori except- (AIIMS Sept
c) Culture on MacConkey's medium incubated at a) Less prevalent in developing countries 96,
42°C under anaerobic contions b) Ulcer is caused by toxigenic strains Feb 9 7)
d) Culture on Wilson and Blair's medium incubated c) Urea breath+ ve test is a rapid method ofdetection
at 37° under microaerophilic conditions d) Gram-ve organism
1108. All of the following are true about Helicobacter
HELICOBACTER pylori except- (AI 98)
a) About 50% of world population affected
1098. Bacterial geuome has been completely recognised b) 85% of population is affected in some developing
for which one of the following agents- (AI 98) contries
a) H. pylori c) All childrens in developing countries have
b) Yersiniaenterocolitis immunity by five years of age
c) Campylobacterjejuni
d) Infection is common in low socioeconomic status
1109. TrueaboutH.pylori- (PGI Dec 2000}
1099. WhatistrueaboutH.pylori- (PGIDec05)
a) Gram -ve Cocci curved .. a) Seen in 85 to 90% cases of gastric ulcer
b) Gram +ve Cocci straight b) Seen in 20 to 25% cases of duodenal ulcer
c) Gram +ve bacilli curved c) Transmitted from man to man, feco-orally & by
d) Gram -ve bacilli straight orogastric route
e) Gram -ve spiral bacteria d) Common in adults of developing countries
1100. True about H. pylori is- (AIIMS 97) 1110. TrueaboutHelicobacterpyloriis- (AI 98)
a) Vacuolating cytotoxin a) Culture and gram staining of biopsy is the gold
b) Antiurease antibody detection specific for type I standard investigation
c) Found in the jejunum b) Controlled urea breath is negative with massive
d) Treatment isAl(OH)2 infection.
1101. True about H. Pylori is all except- (PGI June 2000) c) Anti urease antibody are produced only by
a) It splits urea & produces ammonia to survive invasive strains
b) Produces gastric carcinoma d) Urease activity provides protective environment
c) Gram -ve curved rods to the bacilli.
d) Cag-A gene is not associated with risk of duodenal
1111. Non invasive test for H.pylori- (PGI June 08)
ulcer
a) Rapid urease test
1102. True about H. Pylori- (PGI June 04)
a) It is flagellated b) Urease breath test
b) Involved in causation of peptic ulcer disease c) Stool antigen assay
c) Hypergastrinemia caused by it d) Stomach aspiration culture
d) Eradication leads to improved life style e) Biopsy
e) It is a gram -ve organism 1112. Maximum urease +ve is produced by- (PGI 2000)
1103. Seven sheathed flagella is seen in -(NEETIDNB a) H. pylori b) P. Mirabilis
a) V cholera b) H pylori Pattern) c) K. rhinomatis d) Ureaplasma
c) Ps aeroginosa d) Spirochetes 1113. The most sensitive test for H. pylori is - (PGI 99)
1104. ltis true about H. Pylori that it- (DPG 10} a) Breath test
a) Is gram -ve spiral organism b) Rapid urease test
b) Is a protozoa c) Culture of biopsy
c) Causes chronic gastritis in adults due to reinfection d) Microscopy of biopsy
d) Treatment prevents gastric lymphoma
1096)b,d,e 1097)b l098)a 1099)e llOO)a 1101)d 1102)All 1103)b 1104)d 1105)d 1106)c 1107)a 1108)c
1109) c 1110)d 1111) b,c 1112) a 1113) a
1114. Which of the following is false regarding H pylori- 1122. Pontaic fever is caused by-
a) With chronic infection urease (AIIMS 2000) (NEETIDNB Pattern, PGI Dec 07, Nov 11)
breath test become negative a) Legionella b) Listeria
b) H. pylori infection remains life long if untreated c) Scrub typhus d) Leptospira
c) Endoscopy is diagnostic e) Rickettsia
d) Toxigenic strains usually cause ulcer 1123. Which ofthe following is a good media to use for
1115. H. pylori true about- (PGI June 04) diagnosis of Legionnaires disease- (AIIMS Nov OJ)
a) Gram +ve spiral organism a) Thayer MartinMedia b)BCYEagar
b) It is a protozoa c) BordetGengumedia d) Chocolate agar
c) Causes chronic gastritis in adults due to re-infection 1124. BCYE medium is used to culture- (PGI 99)
d) Treatment causes regression of gastric lymphoma a) Mycoplasma b) T. pallidum
e) Duodenal mucosa normal c) H.pylori d) Legionella
1116. Regarding H. pylori, all are true except- 1125. A elderly male patient presented with fever, chest
a) Gram-negative bacillus (PGI June 02) pain and dry cough, sputum cultured on charcoal
b) Strongly associated with duodenal ulcer (DU) yeast medium, the organism is -(AIIMS Nov 11, 06,
c) Associated with lymphoma a) H. influenzae b) Moraxella cartarrhalisA/ 07)
d) C-14 urea breath test is used in diagnosis c) Legionella d) Burkholderia cepacia
e) It should be eradicated in all cases whenever detected 1126. True about legionella - (PGI Dec 06)
1117. Rapid urease positive test is done in - (PGI Dec 05) a) Epidemics(+)
a) H. Pylori b) S. Aureus b) Splenomegaly
c) Klebsiella d) Staphylococcus c) Easily seen on sputum
d) Scanty neutrophils with fed organisms
LEGIONELLA e) Purulent sputum common
1118. All of the following are correct regarding Legionella RICKETTSIACEAE

except- (AIIMS Nov 04)
a) Legionella can be grown on complex media
1127. The following is the etiological agent of Rocky
b) Legionella pneumophila serogroup l is the most
mountain spotted fever- (AIIMS May 05)
common serogroup isolated from humans
a) Rickettsia rickettsii
c) Legionella are communicable from infected patients
b) Rochalimaea quintana
to others
d) Legionella pneumophila is not effectively killed c) Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
by polymorphonuclear leukocytes d) Coxiella bumetii
1119. A 60-year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from 1128. Mite is a vector for - (PGI June 08)
Legionnaires' disease after the returns home from a) R.typhi b) R.prowazeki
attending a convention. He could have acquired it- c) R.rickettsii d) R.tsutsugamushi
a) From a person suffering from the infection while e)R.conori
travelling in the aeroplane (AI 2003) 1129. Transovarian transmission is a feature of-(PGI 98)
b) From a chronic carrier in the convention center a) Scrub fever b) Epidemic typhus
c) From inhalation of the aerosol in the air conditioned c) Endemic typhus d) Trench fever
room at convention center 1130. Scrub typhus is transmitted by- (AIIMS Nov 07)
d) By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate a) Reduvid bug b) Trombiculid mite
at the convention c) Enteric pathogens d) Cyclops
1120. Legionnaire disease is caused by- 1131. Mite transmits- (AI 91)
a) Motile gram positive (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Scrub typhus b) Trench fever
b) Motile gram negative c) Endemic typhus d) Epidemic typhus
c) Non-motile gram positive 1132. Scrub typhus is caused by- (Maharashtra 10)
d) Non-motile gram negative a) R. tsutsugamushi b) R. Prawazekii
1121. Devi, a 28 year female, has diarrhea, confusion high c) R. rickettsii d) R. Akari
grade fever with bilateral pneumonitis. The 1133. Q fever is caused by- (Kerala94)
diagnosis is - (AI 2000)
a) Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
a) Legionella
b) R. prowozekii
b) Neisseria meningitidis
c) R. quintana
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) C. bumetti
d) H. influenzae
lll4)a 1115)d lll6)e 1117)a lll8)c lll9)c l120)b 1121)a 1122)a 1123)b 1124)d 1125)c 1126)a 1127)a
1128)d 1129)a 1130)b 1131)a 1132)a 1133)d
1134. All are true about Rickettsia except- 1146. An army jawao posted in remote forest area had
a) obligate intracellular (AIIMS June 99) fever and headache. His fever was 104°F and pulse
b) Gram +ve bacillus was 70 per min. He had an erythematous lesion of
c) Arthropods are vector about 1 em on the leg surrounded by small vesicles,
d) Weil felix test is diagnostic along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time
of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood
1135. Which rickettesiae are able to grow in cell free
sample was collected to perform serology for the
media-
diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the
a) R. Quintana b) R. Rickettsii following results in Weil-felix reaction will be
c) R. Typhi d) R. Tsutsugamushi diagnostic in this clinical setting- (AI 05)
1136. A mao with very high fever shows strongly a) HighOX-2 b)HighOX-19
positive agglutination test with OXK antigen. The c) HighOX-K d)HighOX-19andOX-2
most likely diagnosis is- (AI 2K) 1147. A patient complained of chills and fever foUowing a
a) Tsutsugamushi fever b) Trench fever louse bite 2 weeks before. He had rashes aU over the
c) Undulent fever d) Relapsing fever body and was delirious at the time of presentation to
1137. All of the following statement are true regarding Q the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A
fever except- (AI 03) provisional diagnosis of vasculitis due to Rickettsial
a) It is zoonotic disease infection was made. Which one of the following can
b) Human disease is characterized by an interstitial be causative agent- (AI 06)
a) Rickettsia typhi b) Rickettsia rickettsiae
pneumonia
c) Rickettsia prowazekii d) Rickettsia akari
c) No rash is seen 1148. All are true about B. Quintana except-
d) Weil-felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis a) Causes trench fever (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1138. Well felix reaction for Scrub typhus shows positivity b) Not detected by weil felix reaction
for - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Recurrence is common
a) OXK. b) OXK + OX19 d) Tick is the vector
c) OX-2 d) OX-19 1149. It is true regarding endemic typhus that-
1139. Tunica reaction is seen in- (Al/MS 79, 81) a) Man is the only reservoir of infection (AIIMS 06)
a) H. influenzae b) Plague b) Flea is a vector for the disease
c) R. mooseri · d) B. Anthrax c) The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic
1140. Neill-Mooser reaction is used to diagnose- (PGI 99) presentation
a) Rickettsiae b) Chlamydiae d) Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is
a diagnositc
c) Mycoplasma d) Herpes
1150. Which of the following statements is true about
1141. Well felix reaction with OXK antigen indicates
endemic typhus- (AI 03)
infectionwith- (JIPMER90) a) Is caused by R. rickettsii
a) R. tsutsugamushi b) R. Mooseri b) Is transmitted by bite of fleas
c) R. Quintana d) R. Akari c) Has no mammalian reservoir
1142. Well Felix test is useful in diagnosis ofthe foUowing d) Can be cultured in chemical defined culture medium
except- (MH 11) 1151. Which is not transmitted by arthopod-
a) Epidemic typhus b) Scrub typhus a) Rickettsia prowazakii (AIIMS Feb 97)
c) RMSF d) Trench fever b) Coxiella burnetii
1143. For all of the following Weil Felix reaction is c) Rickettsia akari
diagnostic except- (SGPGI 05) d) Rickettsia rickettsii
a) Endemic typhus b) Scrub typhus 1152. ModeoftransmisstionofQfever- (AIIMS04)
a) Bite of infected louse b) Bite of infected tick
c) Epidemic typhus d) Q fever
c) Inhalation of aerosal d) Bite of infected mice
1144. About rickettsiae, all are true except- (UPSC 09)
1153. Rickettsiae- (AIIMS 94)
a) These are transmitted by arthropod vectors a) Multiply only within living cell
b) Eschar is not seen in RMSF b) Produce typhus fever of epidemic type only
c) Weil-Felixreaction may be diagnostic c) Transmitted by atbropod vectors
d) Cephalosporins are drugs of choice d) Respond to tetracycline therapy
1145. The primary site of multiplication of rickettsial 1154. A man present with fever, chills 2 weeks after a
organisms is in the - louse bite. There was maculopapular rash on the
a) Parenchymal cells of the liver trunk which spread peripheraUy. The cause of this
b) Endothelial cells of small vessels infection can be- (AIIMS 03)
c) Media of arteries a) Scrub typus b) Endemic typhus
d) Adventitia of all blood vessels c) Rickettsial pox d) Epidemic typhus
1134)b 1135)a 1136)a 1137)d 1138)a 1139)c 1140)a 114l)a 1142)d 1143)d 1144)d 1145)b 1146)c 1147)c
1148)d 1149)b 1150)b 115l)b 1152)c 1153)a,c,d 1154)d
1155. Which ofthe following is used for Rickettsia - 1166. Chlamydia trachomatis serovars D-K cause-
a) Weil-Felix reaction (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Arteriosclerosis (AI 98)
b) Rose-waler test b) Trachoma
c) Poul-Bunnel test c) Lymphogranuloma venereum
d) VDRL d) Urethritis
1167. Which of the following regarding chlamydia
CHLAMYDIAE trachoma tis is true- (AI 89)
a) Gram negative b) Susceptible to pencillins
1156. Which of the following is an obligate parasite-0I98) c) Cause infertility d) Transmitted p~renterally
a) Mycoplasma b) Chlamydia trachomatis 1168. Chlamydia causes all the following diseases except-
c) Gram- ve bacilli d) Gram+ ve cocci a) Non-gonococcal urethritis (AI 95)
1157. The following statements are true regarding b) Pneumonia
Chlamydia except- (AIIMS May 05) c) Trachoma
a) Erthromycin is effective for therapy ofChamydial d) Parotitis
infections 1169. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with the
b) Their cell wall lacks a peptidoglycan layer following except- (AI 2005)
c) They can grow in cell free culture media a) Endemic trachoma
d) They are obligate intracellular bacteria b) Inclusion conjunctivitis
1158. Chlamydia trachomatis false is -(AJJMSNov 06,AIJO, c) Lymphogranuloma venereum
a) Elementary body is metabolically active 07) d) Community acquired pneumonia
b) It is biphasic 1170. Chlamydia trachomatis does not cause-
c) Reticulate body divides by binary fission a) Salpingitis b) Vulvitis (AIIMS Dec 94)
d) Inside the cell it evades phagolysosome c) Cervicitis d) Urethritis
1159. Inclusion body is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1171. Chlamydia causes- (PGI Dec 2000)
a) Rickettsiae b) Chlamydia a) Infertility
b) Pneumothorax
c) Mycoplasma d) H. Pylori
c) Pelvic inflamatory disease
1160. All of the following are true about Chlamydia except-
d) Cong. malformation in fetus
a) Grampositive (NEET/DNBPattern)
1172. Chlamydiadoesnotcause- (AI 2000)
b) Causes trachoma
a) Qfever b) Non gonococcal urethritis
c) Causative organism of psittacosis
c) Trachoma d) Salpingitis
d) Are also called basophilic viruses
1173. Chlamydial infection is a/w- (PGI Dec 05)
1161. Which one of the following statements is true a) Coronary heart disease
regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae- (AI 05)
b) I.GV
a) Fifteen serovars have been identified as human c) Ophthalmia neonatorum
pathogens. d) Atypical pneumonia
b) Mode of transmission is by the airborne bird excreta e) Atypical endocarditis
c) The Cytoplasmic inclusions present in the sputum 1174. Chlamydia trachomatis infection commonly
specimen are rich in glycogen causes- (MP 98)
d) The group specific antigen is responsible for the a) Infertility b) Post coital bleeding
production of complement fixing antibodies c) Amenorhoea d) Malignancy
1162. Chlamydiae are- (Kerala 94) 1175. Chlamydia trachomatis infection causes the
a) VIruses b) Fungi following exept- (Corned 07)
c) Protozoa d) Bacteria a) Pneumonitis b) Rhinitis
1163. Chlamydia trachomatis true is- (Kar 09) c) Conjunctivitis d) Urethritis
a) Is a yeast 1176. The following is not a method of isolation of
b) Is an intracellular organism chlamydia from clinical specimens -(AIIMS Nov 05)
c) Forms extracellular bodies which are diagnostic a) Yolk sacinoculation
d) Is never demonstrable in conjuctival scrapping b) Enzyme immunoassay
1164. Lymphogranulomavenerumiscausedby- (MH 11) c) Tissue culture using irradiated McCoy cells
a) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Tissue culture using irradiated BHK cells
b) Calymmatobacter granulomatis 1177. Which of the following is used for isolation fo
c) Haemophilus ducreyii chlamydia- (AIJO)
d) Treponema pallidum a) Microirnmunofluoroscence
1165. Infectious part of chlamydia is- (Jharkhand 08) b) Yolk sac ioculation
a) Elementary body b) KP body c) ELISA
c) Reticulate body d) None d) Immunofluroscence
1155)a 1156)b 1157)c 1158)a 1159)b 1160)a 116l)d 1162)d 1163)b 1164)a 1165)a 1166)d 1167)a,c1168)d
1169)d 1170)b 117l)a,c 1172)a 1173)All 1174)a 1175)b 1176)b 1177)b
1178. Chlaymydia in asymptomatic carriers, the most c) Complete elimination of target produces resistance
sensitive test is - (AIIMS Nov 09) to vancomycin
a) Tissue culture b) Nucleicacidampli:ficationtest d) Alteration in target protein leads to pneumococcal
c) Serology d) Serum electrophoresis resistannce
1179. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical 1189. All of the following agents have polysaccharide
Chlamydia trachomatis infection is- (AI 04) capsule related antigen antibody responses
a) Direct fluorescent antibody test except- (AI 11)
b) Enzyme immunoassay a) Pneumococcus b) Meningococcus
c) Polymerase chain reaction c) Haemophilus influenza d) Bordetella pertussis
d) Culture on irradiated McConkey cells 1190. Which of the following is not true about
1180. MostcommondiagnostictestinLGVis- (PG/93) transmission- (AI 09)
a) Fluorescent Antibody a) Legionella may be transmitted through water
b) Complement fixation test aerosols
c) Cell culture b) Listeria may be transmitted through refrigerated
d) Frei's test food
1181. Chlamydia grows in which of the following cell lines- c) Leptospirosis may be transmitted through water
contaminated with rat urine
a) Hela (PGI Dec 01)
d) Tetanus may be transmitted through dust and
b) HeP2
droplets
c) McCoy
1191. Septicemia is-
d) Human diploid fibroblast series
a) Bacteria in blood
e) Vero cells ·
b) Toxin in blood
1182. All of the following statements about Chlamydia c) Pus in blood
trachomatis are true except- (AI 09) d) Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
a) Genital chlamydia! infections are often asymptomatic 1192. Which ofthe following organisms does not enters
b) Can be cultured through abrasions in the skin - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Inclusion conjuctivitis is caused by C. trachomatis a) E rhusiopathiae b) E corrodens
serotypes D-K c) C hominis d) C violaceum
d) Penicillin is the treatment of choice 1193. BACEK group includes all except- (AIIMS Nov 07
1183. Chlamydia psittacosis all are true except- (AI 07) a) Hemophilus aprophillus May 08)
a) Acquired from bird's droppings b) Acinetobacter baumanni
b) Causes urethreitis c) Eikenellacarrodens
c) Causes pneumonia ·d) Cardiobacterium hominis
d) Treatment is tetracycline 1194. Cat scratch disease is- (PGI 98)
1184. Levinthai Coles Lillie bodies are seen in- a) ·Associated with positive Frei skin test
a) liN b) Psittacosis (AIIMS 85) b) Caused by a DNA virus
· c) KalaAzar d)Chickenpox c) Associated with a pathognomonic histological
picture
MISCELLANEOUS d) Associated with regional lymphadenopathy
e) Associated with a positive Hangar-Rose test
1185. Ehrlichia chaffeensis is causative agent of- 1195. Bartonella henselae causes all except-
a) HME b) HGE (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Oroya fever (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Glandular fever d) None b) Cat scratch disease
1186. All cause fournier gangrene except-(NEET/DNB c) Bacillary angiomatosis
a) Staphylococcus b) Streptococcus Pattern) d) SABE
c) Clostridium d) Bacteroides · 1196. Rat bite fever may be caused by- (PGI 85)
1187. Necrotizing fascitis is caused by- (NEETIDNB a) Leptospira canicola
a) Staphylococcus aureus Pattern) b) Streptobacillus moniliformis
b) Beta hemolytic streptococci c) Borreliarecurrentis
c) Clostridium perfringens d) Spirillumminus
d) Pneumococcus 1197. An 8 year old chlld with history ofpain & discharge
1188. Which of the following regarding bacterial drug from right ear presents with fever, neck rigidity & a
resistance is not true- (AIIMSMay 12, Nov 11, positive Kerning's sign. Discharge was stained with
a) Most bacterial drug resistance is due AI 12) Gram stain which revealed Gram positive cocci.
Which of the following is the most likely organism?
to production of penicillin degrading enzymes
a) H. influenzae b) Staphylococcus (AI 11)
b) Plasmid mediated resistance is always transmitted
c) Pneumococcus d) Pseudomonas
vertically
1178)b 1179)c 1180)c 118l)a,c1182)d 1183)b 1184)b 1185)a 1186)c 1187)b 1188)b 1189)d 1190)d 1191)d
1192)c 1193)b 1194)c,d 1195)a 1196)b,d 1197)c
1198. A female· presents with symptoms and signs 1210. Red legdisease is caused by- (PGI OJ)
suggestive of meningitis. MRI reveals a ring a) Pseudomonas b) Moudly sugar cane fibre
enhancing lesion in the frontotemporal region while c) Coniosporium d) Aeromonas
CSF grows Gram positive bacilli. Other findings 1211. Serological diagosis is made in- (PGI Nov 10)
are minimally abnormal. Which of the following a) Actinomycosis b)T.B.
organisms is the most likely etiological agent- c) Syphilis d) Gonorrhoea
a) Listeriamonocytogenes (AI 11)
e) Qfever
b) Hemophilus influenza
1212. Endotoxin causes- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Pneumococcus
a) Diarrhea b) Muscle damage
d) Staphylococcal aureus
1199. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following c) Septic shock d) None
microbial agents except- (AI 05) 1213. Which is the most common micro-organism known
a) Mycoplasma to cause tropical pyomisitis? (UPSC 07)
b) Legionella pnelimophila a) Streptococcus viridans
c) Human corona virus b) Staphylococcus albus
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
1200. Enterotoxins are produced by all except- (AI 89) d) Staphylococcus aureus
a) Clostridium perfringens 1214. Post operative parotitis is caused by - (Delhi 09)
b) Staphylococcus aureus a) Staph aureus b) Streptococcus
c) Streptococcus pyogenes c) E.coli d) Pneumococcus
d) Bacillus cereus 1215. Neonatal meningitis acquired during passage
1201. Manistheterminalendfor- (AIIMS 79). throughbirthcanalisdueto- (TN 2002)
a) Gonococcus · b) Treponema a) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Tetanus · d)Ankylostomiasis
b) S. equisimilus
1202. Chancre redox is a clinical feature of-
c) S. pyogenes
a) Early relapsing syphilis
d) Pnemococci
b) Late syphilis
c) Chancroid 1216. Causative agent ofSABE should be culture on-
d) Recurrent herpes simplex infection a) Nutrient agar b) Blood agar (UP 08)
1203. Most common organism causing meningitis in c) LJmedium d)Tellurite broth
patientswithCSFleak- (AI 10) 1217. Whichofthefollowingislanceolate- (PGI79, 82)
a) Pneumococcus b) H. influenzae a) Cl. tetani b) Donovania
c) Staphylococcus d) E. coli c) Pneumococci d) Meningococci
1204. Darting motility which occur in V.cholerae, also 1218. Draughtman concentric rings on culture are
found in- (PGI Dec 08) produced by- (AMU 87, UP 05)
a) Shigella b) Campylobacter jejuni a) Yersina pestis b) H. ducreyi
c) Pneumococcus d) Bacillus anthrax c) B. pertusi d) Pneumococi
e)Aeronomas e) B. anthracis
1205. Which toxin acts by ADPribosylation- (PGI June 07) 1219. Most common cause of community acquired
a) Botulinum toxin b) Shiga toxin pneumonia- (UP 08)
c) V.cholerae toxin d) Diphtheria toxin a) Strep pneumoniae b) Kleb pneumoniae
e) Pertussis toxin
c) Vibrio cholera d) H. influenzae
1206. Urease negative is- (AI 99)
a) E. coli b) Proteus
c) Klebsiella d) Staphylococci VIROLOGY
1207. Most common agents responsible for human bite
infections are- (AI 98) GENERAL PROPERTIES OF VIRUSES
a) Gram- ve bacilli b) Gram+ ve bacilli
c) Spirochaete d) Anaerobic streptococci 1220. DNA covering material in a virus is called as-
1208. Ascending UTI caused by- (PGI June 05) a) Capsomere b) Capsid (PGI 96)
a) Salmonella b)T.B. c) Nucleocapsid d) Envelope
c) E.coli d) Chlamydia 1221. All ofthefollowing are general properties of Viruses
e) Klebsiella except- (AI 94)
1209. In a splenectomized patient there is increase of a) May contain both DNA and RNA
infection by all the organisma except- (SGPGI 05) b) Form extracellular infectious particles
a) Pneumococci b) Klebsiella c) Heat labile
c) H.influnzae d) Staph.aureus d) Not affected by antibiotics
1198)a 1199)d 1200)c 1201)c 1202)a 1203)a 1204)b 1205)c,d,e 1206)a 1207)d 1208)c,d,e 1209)d 1210)d
1211)c,d,e 1212)c 1213)d 1214)a 1215)a 1216)b 1217)c 1218)d 1219)a 1220)b 1221)a
1222. Both intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusion is 1238. Which of the following does not possess both DNA
seen in - (NEETIDNB Pattern) &RNA- (Kerala 96)
a) Poxvirus b) Herpesvirus a) Bacteria b) Fungus
c) Measles virus d) Mumps virus c) Vuus d) Spirochete
1223. Bollinger bodies are seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1239. Which one given below is a DNA virus?(Corned 08)
a) Chickenpox b) Cowpox a) Polio virus b) Adenovirus
c) Fowlpox d) Smallpox c) Parvovirus d) Hepatitis A virus
1224. Appearance of cowdry type A inclusion bodies - 1240. DoublestrandedRNAisseenin- (JIPMER 93)
a) Granular (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Reovirus b) Rhabdovirus
b) Circumscribed c) Parvovirus d) Retrovirus
c) In polio 1241. Positive sense nucleic acid genome is found in -
d) None a) Poliovirus b) Papovavirus (UP 09)
1225. The symmetric protein shell which encases the c) Influenza d) Picornavirus
nucleic acid core of virus- (MAHE 05) 1242. Segmented genome is found in- (AJ/MS June 98)
a) Capsomere b) Capsid a) Retrovirus b) Rotavirus
c) Basidiomycetes d) Fungi imperfecti c) Poliovirus d) Rhabdovirus
1226. All of the following are having lipid envelope except- 1243. Segmented RNA is found in- (AJIMSJune 97,A/ 91)
a) FllV b) Rabies virus (AMU 05) a) Influenza virus
c) Varicella d) Enterovirus b) Rabies virus
1227. Lipid envelope is found in which virus- (PGI 98) c) Herpes virus
a) Reo b) Herpes d) Molluscum contagiosum virus
c) Picorna d) All of the above 1244. Segmented double stranded RNA virus is seen in-
1228. In which of the following has genome double a) Reovirus b) Myxovirus (PGI 97)
strandednucleicacid- (PGI May 10) c) Rabies d) Parvovirus
a) Orthomyxoviruses b) Poxviruses 1245. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by
c) Parvoviruses d) Reoviruses cultivationinthefollowingexcept- (AI 05)
1229. WhichofthefollowingvirusespossessesDNAacapsid a) Tissue culture b) Embryonated eggs
with icosahedral symmetry and no lipid envelope- c) Animals d) Chemically defined media
a) Herpesvirus b)Adenovirus (PGI87) 1246. Hep-2 cells are a type of- (Karn 95)
c) Poxvirus d) Papovavirus a) Primary cell cultures b) Diploid cell strain
1230. HPV belongs to - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Continuous cell lines d) Explant culture
a) Papova virus b) Parvovirus 1247. Which of the following is primary cell line-
c) Herpes virus d) Poxvirus a) Chick embryo fibroblast (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1231. Which of the following is not an RNA virus- b) Hela cells
a) Ebola b) Simian40 (AJIMSNov08) c) Vero cells
c) Rabies d) Vesicular stomatitis virus d) WI-38
1232. Which is enveloped virus - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1248. Which of the following is a primary cell culture-
a) Dengue virus b) Norwalk virus a) Chick fibroblast (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Hep A virus d) Adenovirus b) Hela
1233. Non-enveloped ss-RNA virus is-(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) HEP-2
a) Picornavirus b) Poxvirus d) HL-8
c) Retrovirus d) Bunyavirus 1249. Influenza virus culture is done on -
1234. Which of the following virus has negative sens a) Chorioallantoicmembrane (NEETIDNB Pattern)
RNA? ~19~ b) Allantoic cavity
a) Rabies b) Reovirus c) Yolksac
c) Coronavirus d) Calci d) All
1235. Negative sense nuclei acid genome is found in- 1250. Human fibroblast cell line is used for cultivation of-
a) Poliovirus b) Rabies (PGI May 1 0} a) Adenovirus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Measles d) Picornavirus b) Poliovirus
e) Influenzae c) FllV
1236. The virus with smallest genome is - d) Measles
a) Reovirus b) Parvovirus 1251. Which is not a cytopathic effect of virus-
c) Picornavirus d)HIV a) Syncytium formation
1237. Smallest DNA virus is- b) Budding
a) Herpes virus b) Adenovirus c) Ballooning and floating
c) Parvovirus d) Poxvirus d) Focal degeneration
1222)c 1223)c 1224)a 1225)b 1226)d 1227)b 1228)b,d 1229)b,d l230)a 123l)b 1232)a 1233)a 1234)a
1235) b,c,e 1236) b 1237) c 1238) c 1239) b 1240) a 1241) a,d 1242) b 1243) a 1244) a 1245) d 1246) c 1247) a
1248)a 1249)b 1250)b 125l)b
1252. Which of the following produces pocks on BACTERIOPHAGE

chorioallantoic membrane of chick embryo-
a) Myxovirus b)Varicella (AIIMSDec94) 1264. Bacteriophages are mostly needed for -(AJJMS 97)
c) Herpes simplex d) Cytomegalovirus a) Bacterial identification
1253. Pocks on chick embryo are formed by all except- b) Epidemiologically
a) Variola b) Vaccinia (PGJ 97) c) As antibacterial agent
c) Chickenpox d) Cowpox d) Conversion property in bacteria
1254. Viral plaque is made in lab for- (AJJMS Sept 96, 1265. Lysogenic conversion is- (PGI 96)
a) Quantitative assay of infectivity ofvirus A198) a) New properties in a bacterium due to integration
b) Diagnosis ofvirus of phage genome
c) Qualitative assay of infectivity of virus b) Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another
d) Type of virus by a bacteriophage
1255. Virus quantification is done by-(NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Transfer of free DNA
a) Egg inoculation b) Hemadsorption d) Transfer of genome during physical contact
c) Plaque assay d) Electron microscopy 1266. Lambda phage which ofthe following is true-
1256. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract a) It causes mad cow disease (AJIMS May 11)
infection can be established by all ofthe following b) Lysogenic to lytic conversion cannnot occur
tests except- (AI 04) c) Lysogenic form incorporates in host DNA &
a) Detection of virus specific lgM antibodies in remain dormant
single serum specimen d) Lytic phase incorporates in host DNA, proliferate
b) Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect & causes rupture of cell
immunofluorescence assay in nasopharynegeal 1267. All of the following statements are true about
washing bacteriophage except- (AJIMS Nov 08)
c) Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced a) It is a virus that infect bacteria
culture b) It helps in transduction of bacteria
d) Detection of viral heamagglutionation inhibiting c) It imparts toxigenicity to bacteria
(HAl) antibodies in a single serum specimen d) It transfers only chromosomal gene
1257. Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reactions 1268. Which of the following statement is true about
can aid in diagnosis of all of the following viral bacteriophage- (AJIMS May 11)
infections except- (AI 97) a) It is a bacterium
a) Adenovirus b) Astrovirus b) It helps in transformation
c) Rotavirus d) Poliovirus c) It imparts toxigenicity to bacteria
1258. Vaccine preparation requires which virus as vector- d) It transfers only chromosomal gene
a) Rhinovirus b) Vaccinia (PGI June OJ) 1269. Phage typing is useful as an epidemiological tool
c) Adenovirus d) Ebola in all, except -
e) Hepatits B a) Salmonella b) Staph aureus
1259. Susceptible cultured cells infected with which of c) V. cholerae d) Shigella dysenteriae
the following viruses would exhibit hemadsorption 1270. Phage typing is widely used for the intraspecies
withtheappropriateerythocyte- (AJJMS 93, 84) classification of one of the following bacteria -
a) Sindbis virus b) Rabies virus a) Staphylococci
c) Measles virus d) Respiratory syncytial virus b) E. coli
1260. Property of elution is found in- (PGI 96) c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
a) Myxoviras b) Togavirus d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Parvovirus d) Adenovirus
1261. One virus particle prevents multiplication of second POX VIRUSES
virus. This phenomena is- (PGI 96)
a) Viral interference b) Mutation 1271. Small pox belongs to which class ofpoxviruses-
c) Supervission d) Permutation a) Parapoxvirus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1262. VonMagnusphenomenon- (PGI 97) b) Capripoxvirus
a) Is a normal replicative cycle c) Leporipox virus
b) Virus yield has low hemagglutination d) Orthopoxvirus
c) Virus has high infectivity 1272. Which ofthe following is not a pox virus-(AJJMS 92)
d) Virus yields has high hemagglutination titre but a) Cowpox b) Molluscum contagiosum
low infectivity c) Small pox d) Chicken pox
1263. Vaccine prepared by embryonated Hen's egg are- 1273. Following virus is of pox virus -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Measles b) Rabies (PGI June 04) a) Variola b) Coxsachie
c) Rubella d) Varicella c) ECHO d) HSV
1252)c 1253)c 1254)a 1255)c 1256)d 1257)a 1258)b,c 1259)b,c 1260)a 1261)a 1262)d 1263)b 1264)a
1265)a 1266)c 1267)d 1268)c 1269)d 1270)a 1271)d 1272)d 1273)a
1274. Brick*shaped virus* (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1286. Encephalitis is caused by- (AIIMS Dec 98)
a) Chickenpox b)Smallpox a) HSV-1 b)EBV
c) CMV d)EBV c) Infectious mononucleosis d)CMV
1275. Inclusion bodies of vaccinia is known as- (PGI 86) 1287. All ofthe following are true about Herpes group
a) Guarnieri bodies b) Negri bodies virusexcept- (AI 98)
c) Asteroid bodies d) Schuffuer dots a) Ether sensitive
1276. Which virus cannot he cultivated- b) May cause malignancy
a) Vaccinia (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) HSV II involves below diaphragm
b) Variola d) Burkitt's lymphoma involves Tcells
c) Molluscum contagiosum 1288. Regarding HSV-2 infection- (PGI June 02)
d) Cowpox a) Primary infection is usually wide spread
1277. Which cox wont grow in egg, animal cells- b) Recurrent attacks are due to reactivation of latent
a) Cow pox (NEETIDNB Pattern) infection
b) Vaccinia c) Encephalitis can be caused by HSV - 2
c) Variola d) Newborn may acquire infection via the birth canal
d) Molluscum at the time oflabour
1278. Most common molluscum virus-(NEETIDNB Pattern) e) Treatment is with acyclovir
a) 1 b) 2 1289. TrueaboutHerpesvirus- (PGI Dec 03)
c) 3 d) 4 a) HSV encephalopathy is treated with acyclovir
1279. Umblicated nodules are produced by- b) Oropharyngeal involvement is common in HSV- 1
a) Poxvirus (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Recurrent genital involvement is seen in HSV- 2
b) Enterovirus d) Reccurance is rare in HSV- 1
c) Rhinovirus
d) Myxovirus 2. VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS
HERPES VIRUSES 1290. Herpes- Zoster is caused by- (AI 99)

a) Herpes- simplex type I b) Herpes- simplex type II
1280. Varicella are classified under- (AI 96) c) Epstein- barr virus d) Varicella
a) Enterovirus b) Retrovirus 1291. Most common extra skin manifestation of
c) Poxvirus d) Herpesvirus varicella is involvement of-
1281. HHV-6B causes - a) CNS b) Lungs
a) Carcinoma cervix c) Kidneys d)CVS
b) Carcinoma endometrium 1292. Which virus reactivates & involves the eye- (AI98)
c) Clear cell carcinoma a) Herpes zoster b)CMV
d) Focal encephalitis c) E. B. virus d) Enterovirus 70
1282. HHV-8 causes - (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1293. Varicella zoster remains latent in- (AI 1 0)
a) Burkitt's lymphoma a) Lymphocytes b) Monocytes
b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma c) Trigeminal ganglion d) Plasma cells
c) Kaposi sarcoma 1294. Zoster recurrance occur after infection with-
d) Hepatic carcinoma a) HSVl b)HSV2 (A/99)
1283. All enveloped RNA viruses belong to one large group c) Varicella d) Small pox
except- (Kar 09) 1295. Infectivity of chicken pox last for- (AI- 02)
a) Influenza b) Parainfluenza a) Till the last scab falls off
c) Mumps d) Herpes b) 6 days after onset of rash
1284. True about Herpes virus- (Bihar 09) c) 3 days after onset of rash
a) HSV 1 causes encephalitis d) Till the fever subsides
b) EBVaffects 1296. Tests of chicken pox- (PGI Dec 08)
c) CMV is always symptomatic a) FAMA b)ELISA
d) Herpes zoster is not activated c) Widal d) PCR
1297. Chickenpox- (PGI 85)
1. HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS a) Is commonly seen in a congenital form
b) May be severe in a newborn child infected by
1285. Herpes simplex virus is- (Al 91) the mother in late pregnancy
a) Single stranded DNA c) Affects the limbs more than the trunk
b) Double stranded DNA d) May cause pneumonitis
c) Single stranded RNA e) Should be treated by intravenous vidarabine
d) Double stranded RNA when there is evidence of hepatitis
1274)b 1275)a 1276)c 1277)d 1278)a 1279)a 1280)d 1281)d 1282)c 1283)d 1284)a 1285)b 1286)a 1287)d
1288)a,b,d,e 1289)a,b,c 1290)d 1291)a 1292)a 1293)c 1294)c 1295)b 1296)a,b,d 1297)b,d
1298. Shingles are seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1310. Epstein Barr virus causes all except- (Kerla 97)
a) lMN b) Herpes zoster a) Bukitt's lymphoma
c) Chicken pox d) Small pox b) Infectious mononucleosis
1299. Which virus remains dormant but can be reactivated c) Nasopharnygeal carcinoma
is- (UP 09) d) Carcinoma cervix
a) Herpes simplex b) Herpes zoster 1311. Virus implicated in Burkitt's lymphoma is-
c) EBvirus d)CMV a) EB virus b) Arbo virus (MAHE 07)
c) Picoma virus d) Coxsackie virus
3. EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS 1312. African Burkitt's lymphoma is caused by- (UP 09)
a) CMV b)EBV
1300. Ebstein Barr virus is associated with- c)HZV d)HSV
a) Carcinoma larynx: (AJIMS Nov 04) 1313. The following are true about EBV except- (MP 09)
b) Carcinoma bladder a) A member ofherpes virus family
c) Carcinoma nasopharynx b) Infects epithelial cells of oropharynx
d) Carcinomamaxilla c) The main target of virus is the T- cell lymphocytes
1301. A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul BunneR d) It is implicated in nasopharyngeal carcinoma
test. The causative organism is-(NEETIDNB Pattern) 1314. EBVinfects.;. (UP 09)
a) EBV b) Herpesvirus a) T- cells b) Monocytes
c) Adenovirus d) CMV c) B- cells d) Eosinophils
1302. Paul BunneR antibodies are reactive in an except- 1315. Most sensitive test for diagnosis ofiMN-
a) Ck b) Sheep (SGPGI 05) a) Monospot test (Kerala 09)
c) Dog d) Horse b) Paul Bunneltest
1303. True about infectious mononucleosis -(PGI June 08) c) Lymphocytosis in peripheral smear
a) Associated with heterophile antibodies d) Culture
b) Monocytosis
c) Associated with cold agglutinin 4. CYTOMEGALOVIRUS
d) Associated with CMV infection
e) Selflimiteddisease 1316. The most common presentation of congenital CMV
1304. Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes are seen infection is- (PGI 94)
in infection with- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Hepatosplenomegaly b) Microcephaly
~HSV ~HBV c) Cerebral calcification d) Chorioretinitis
c) EBV d)RSV 1317. Which ofthe foBowing does not establish a diagnosis
1305. Burkitt's virus is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) of congenital CMV infection in a neonate? (Al-95)
a) EBV b)HPV ~UrinecultureofCMV
c) fllV d) HAV b) Ig G CMV antibodies in blood
1306. E. B. virus causes all EXCEPT- (AIIMSNov 99) c) Intra-nuclear inclusion bodies in hepatocytes
a) Infectious mononucleosis d) CMV viral DNA in blood by polymerase chain
b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma reaction
c) Burkitt'sLymphoma 1318. Im.mnnocompromised patient due to transplantation
d) Carcinoma cervix is suffering from pyrexia and neutropenia. Most
1307. Paul Bunnell test for - (NEETIDNB Pattern) likely cause is - (PGI97)
a) Malta fever a) HSV b)CMV
b) Typhus fever c) Gram (-) ve organism d) Gram (+) ve organism
c) Enteric fever 1319. All are true regardingCMV except- (Kolkata 09)
d) Infectious mononucleosis a) It is a DNA virus
1308. Estein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the b) Most commonly infects in last trimester
following malignancies except- (AI 04) c) Diagnosed by increased lgA in fetal blood
a) Hodgkin's disease d) Most common cause of congenital viral infection
b) Non Hodgkin's lymphoma 1320. Cytomegalovirus causes what cancer in AIDS
c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma patients- (Kerla 94)
d) Multiple myeloma a) Lymphoma b) Kaposi sarcoma
1309. IMN, true is all except- (Kerala 09) c) Leukemia d) Glioma
a) Caused by EBV 1321. Most common disease caused by CMV in a post
b) Also called kissing disease bone-marrow transplant patients- (Jipmer 11)
c) Diagnosed by Paul Bunnel test a) Pyelonephritis b) Meningitis
d) RNA virus c) Pneumonia d) GI ulceration
1298)b 1299)b 1300)c 1301)a 1302)a 1303)a,c,d,e 1304)c 1305)a 1306)d 1307)d 1308)d 1309)d 1310)d
13ll)a 1312)b 1313)b 1314)c 1315)a 1316)a 1317)b 1318)b 1319)c 1320)None l321)c
ADENO VIRUSES 1337. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by-

a) Enterovirus 70 b) Adenovirus (AJ97)
1322. Virus causing hemorrhagic cysititis, diarrhea and c) Poliovirus d) Hepadnavirus
conjunctivitisis- (AI OJ) 1338. Enterovirus 72 is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) RSV b) Rhinovirus a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis E
c) Adenovirus d) Rotavirus c) Hepatitis G d) Hepatitis C
1323. Pharyngoconjunctival fever is caused by- 1339. Which of the following is associated with acute
a) Adenovirus 3 and 7 (NEET/DNB Pattern) hemorrhagic conjuctivitis- (Kerala 09)
b) Adenovirus 11, 21 a) Rhabdovirus b) Enterovirus
c) Adenovirus 40, 41
c) Calcivirus d) Echovirus
d) Adenovirus 8, 19
1340. Enteroviruses causes- (Bihar 08)
1324. Adenovirus causes all except -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Acute hemorrhagic conjuctivitis
a) Hemorrhagic cystitis
b) Acute follicular conjuctivitis
b) Diarrhea
c) Respiratory tract infection c) Posterior follicular conjuctivitis
d)IMN d) Epidemic Keratoconjuctivitis
1325. Which virus can cause hemorrhage- (JIPMER 93) 1341. Enterovirus causes an, except- (MAHA 05)
a) Parvovirus b) Adenovirus a) Hemorrhagic fever b) Pleurodynia
c) HPV d) Coronavirus c) Herpangina d) Aseptic meningitis
1326. Adenovirus causes- (Kerala 94) 1342. Coxsackie B virus causes all except- (Jipmer 11)
a) Keratoconjuctivitis b) Diarrhoea a) Aseptic meningitis b) Herpangina
c) Parotid enlargement d) All of the above c) Myocarditis d) Bornholm disease
1343. The following virus can be grown only in suckling
PICORNA VIRUSES mice- (JIPMER 2002)
a) Coxsackie virus b) Rhinovirus
1327. AD belong to Picorna viruses except- (PGI 98) c) Echovirus d) Poliovirus
a) Enterovirus 70 b) Coxsackie virus
c) Rhinovirus d) Herpes simplex virus POLIOVIRUS
1328. Coxsackie virus is- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Harpes virus b) Pox virus 1344. All are true about poliovirus, except-(Al/MS May 02)
c) Enterovirus d) Myxovirus a) Type I is responsible for most epidemics
1329. Suckling mice is used for isolation of- (NEETI b) Very difficult to eliminate type I
a) Coxsachie virus b) Pox DNB Pattern) c) Type I responsible for vaccine paralytic polio
c) Herpes d) Adenovirus
myelitis
1330. AD are in included in picorna group of viruses
d) Type I most commonly associated with paralysis
except- (Kerla 04)
1345. Epidemic ofPolio is due to- (Kolkata 09)
a) Encephalo myocarditis b)HEV
a) Type I virus
c) Foot and mouth virus d) Poliovirus
1331. Epidemic hemorrhagic conjuctivitis is caused by- b) Type II virus
a) HSV b)HZV (Delhi 09) c) Type III virus
c) HlV d) Picoma virus d) Combine type II and III virus
1332. Enterovirus causes aD except-(AJIMS Nov 01, A1 09) 1346. Death in Poliomyelitis is due to- (Orissa 05)
a) Haemorrhagic fever b) Pleurodynia a) Infection b) Neurogenic shock
c) Herpangia d) Aseptic Meningitis c) Cardiac failure d) Respiratory paralysis
1333. Which of the foDowing virus is shed in stool- 1347. AD of the foDowing statements are true regarding
a) Herpangina b) Influenza poliovirus except- (AI 04)
c) Varicella d) Small pox a) It is transmitted by feco-oral route
1334. Coxsackie group A commonly cause- b) Asymptomatic infections are common in children
a) Conjunctivits b) Aseptic meningitis c) There is a single serotype causing infection
c) Hepatitis d) Myocarditis d) Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity
1335. Herpangina is caused by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1348. False about Palio - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Enterovirus b) Rhinoviruses a) Descending paralysis
c) Myxovirus d) Rabies virus b) Bilateral symmetrical
1336. Conjunctivitis is caused by all except -(AIIMSDec 98) c) Non-progressive
a) CMV b) Enterovirus 70 d) LMN type paralysis
c) CoxsackiesA24 d) Adenovirus
1322)c 1323)a 1324)d 1325)b 1326)a,b 1327)d 1328)c I329)a 1330)b 133I)d 1332)a 1333)a 1334)b
1335)a 1336)a l337)a 1338)a 1339)b 1340)a 134l)a 1342)b 1343)a 1344)c 1345)a 1346)d 1347)c 1348)b
1349. The most definitive method for laboratory diagnosis 1359. False about antigenic drift- (AJIMS94)
of poliomyelitis are AlE- a) Occur under pressure for immunity
a) Virus isolation from blood b) Responsible for epidemics of influenza
b) Vtrus isolation from CSF c) Occurs only in influenza-A
c) Virus isolation from faeces or throat d) Occur every 10-12 years
d) Serological diagnosis 1360. False about antigen drift- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1350. Diagnosis of polio - (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Causes pandemic
a) Detection of polio virus in stool b) Occurs due to mutation
b) Serology c) Occurs more frequently
c) Limb wasting d) Affected by previous antibodies
d)AFP 1361. Antigenic shift - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1351. Trueaboutpolio- (AIIMS Nov 07, May 08) a) Occurs every 2-3 years
a) Paralytic polio is most common b) Gradual change over time
b) Spastic paralysis c) Results from genetic recombination
c) IM injections and increased muscular activity lead d) Occurs in all influenza viruses
to increased paralysis 1362. Not true regarding influenza virus is- (AJIMS 99)
d) Polio drops given only in < 3 year a) All types exhibit antigenic shift
1352. Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly- (PGI OJ) b) Only type A shows antigenic drift
a) Gastrointestinal tract b) Nasal mucosa c) Drift is accumulation of point mutations
c) Lung d) Skin d) None of the above
1353. The virus, which spreads by both hematogenous and 1363. Antigenic variation seen in which of the
neural ronte is - following- {PG!Dec 04)
a) Rabies virus b) Varicella zoster virus a) Influenza virus b) Hepatitis virus
c) Poliovirus d) E. B. virus c) Yellowfevervirus d) Leptospira
1364.Trueaboutinfluenza- (UP 2K)
MYXO VIRUSES a) Epidemic is due to antigenic drift
b) Has double standed RNA
1354. Myxoviruses include- (PGI Dec08) c) Nucleocapsid is protective
a) Orthomyxovirus b) Influenza d) Neuraminidase & haemagglutination are specific
c) Measles d) Polio 1365. Causes ofantigenic drift in influenza viral infections-
e) HSV a) Small mutation in neuraminidase and
1355. Which of the following statement is/are true of hemagglutinin (MAHE 07)
all paramyxoviruses- b) Large mutations in hemagglutinin only
a) They contain a single standed RNA genome of c) Step mutations in viral genome
negative polarity d) None of the above
b) Envelope is derived from the host cells plasma 1366. Which of the following is true regarding influenza-
membrane a) It is caused by an enveloped DNA virus (MP 09)
c) They have a cytoplasmic site of replication b) Laboratory studies may show neutropenia early
d) They enter the body by the respiratory route in the course of disease
c) Primary infectious pneumonia is less common than
A.ORTHOMYXOVIRUS (INFLUENZA) secondary bacterial pneumonia
d) Antiviral agents given early prevents complications
1356. Reye's syndrome following influenza is most 1367. H5Nlis a strain of- (AI 08)
commonly associated with- (AIIMS 93) a) Avian flu
a) TypeA b)TypeB b) New vaccine againstAIDS
c) Type C d) All of the above c) Agent for japanese encephalitis
1357. Influenza vaccines is administered- d) Causes chickengunya fever
a) Subcutaneosly b) Intradermal
c) Nasal drops d) Intrathecal B. PARAMYXOVIRUSES
1358. TruestatementaboutinfluenzaAis- (AI 99)
a) It has a double stranded segmented RNA 1368. Paramyxovirusiocludes- (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Pandemic are caused by antigenic drift a) Retrovirus b) Poliovirus
c) Nucleocapsid antibody is not specific c) Parainfluenza d) Rabies
d) Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase is strain specific
1349) d 1350) a 1351) c 1352) a 1353) c 1354) a,b,c 1355) a,b,d 1356) b 1357) a,c 1358) d 1359) c,d 1360) a
1361) c 1362) a,b 1363) a 1364) a,d 1365) a 1366) c 1367) a 1368) c
1.MEASLES 1379. Classic triad of congenital rubella includes all

except - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1369. Measles virus is- (PGI 97) a) Cataract b) Deafness
a) Paramyxovirus b) Orthomyxovirus c) Retinitis d) CHD
c) Poxvirus d) Picornavirus 1380. Defect most commonly occuring in congenital
1370. Which of the following is the "Least Common" rubella is- (TN 89, 90)
complication of measles? (AI 98) a) Cataract b) Deafness
a) Diarrhoea b) Pneumonia c) Microcephaly d) Blindness
c) Otitis media d) SSPE 1381. The congenital rubella syndrome- (Delhi 08)
1371. Giant cell (Hecht's) pneumonia is due to- a) May be prevented by vaccination in early pregnancy
a) CMV b) Measles (PGI Dec 98) b) Causes IUGR
c) Malaria d) P. carinii c) Causes cataract
d) Causes deafness only if acquired only if acquired
2.MUMPS
before 16 weeks of gestation
1372. Commonest complication of mumps is- (AI 00)
a) Orchitis and oophritis b) Encephalitis ARBOVIRUSES
c) Pneumonia d) Myocarditis
1373. With reference to mumps which of the following is 1382. Following areArboviral diseases- (PGI June 03)
true- (AI 06) a) KFD b) West Nile Fever
a) Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis c) Ganjamvirus d)RSV
b) Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotid e) Puumala virus
c) The patient is not infectious prior to clinical 1383. Viruses causing hemorrhagic fever are-
parotid enlargement a) Lassa fever virus (PGI Nov 10)
d) Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility b) Yellowfevervirus
c) West Nile virus
3.R.S.V. d) Crimean Congo virus
e) Ross river virus
1374. Most common agent responsible for Bronchiolitis 1384. Hemorrhagic fever is caused by-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
is- (AI94) a) West-Mile fever b) Sandfly fever
a) RSV b) Adenovirus c) Ebola virus d) All of the above
c) Herpesvirus d) Influenza virus 1385. Fever & hemorrhagic rash are seen in all except-
1375. Virus lacking hemagglutinin and neuraminidase a) Dengu fever (PGI Nov 11)
but having membrane fusion protein is- b) Lassas fever
a) RSV b)CMV c) Rift Valley fever
c) HSV d)EBV d) Sand fly fever
e) Yellow fever
RUBELLA 1386. Hemmorrhagic fever is not caused by -
a) Yellow fever (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1376. lncubationperiodofrubellais- (AI- 93) b)KFD
a) 18-72hours b)2-3weeks ·c) Japenese encephalitis
c) 1-3 months d)> 1 year
d) Dengue fever
1377. All of the following statements are true about
1387. Which of the following is/are arboviral diseases-
congenitalrubellaexcept- (AI 05)
a) It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies a) Japanese encephalitis (PGijune 09)
at birth b) Dengue
b) It is diagnosed when lg G antibodies persist for c) Yellowfever
more than 6 months d) Hand-foot-mouth disease
c) M.C. congenital defects are deafness, cardiac e) Rocky montain spotted fever
malformation and cataract 1388. Which of the following is not common in India-
d) Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in a) Japanese B encephalitis (AI 91)
major congenital defects b) Lassa fever
1378. Risk of the damage to fetus by maternal rubella is c) KFD
maximum if mother gets infected in- (AIIMS 05) d) Dengue
a) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy 1389. Group B (flaviviruses) Arboviruses is/are-(PGIDec
b) 20-24weeksofpregnancy a) Dengue fever b) Rift valley fever 06)
c) 24-28 weeks of pregnancy c) Chik:ungunya fever d) J.E.
d) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy e) Yellow fever
1369)a 1370)d 1371)b 1372)a 1373)a 1374)a 1375)a 1376)b 1377)d 1378)a 1379)c 1380)a,b 1381)b,c
1382) a,b,c,e 1383) a,b,d 1384) c 1385) d 1386) c 1387) a,b,c 1388) b 1389) a,b,e
1390. Wbich ofthe following statements is true regarding 1402. Amplifier host is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
Arbo viruses- (AI 04) a) Pig in JE b) Dog in rabies
a) Yellow fever is endemic in India c) Man in JE d) Cattle in JE
b) Dengue virus has only one serotype 1403. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by- (AI 09)
c) Kyasanur Forest disease (K.FD) is transmitted by a) Type I dengue virus
ticks · b) Reinfection with same serotype of dengue virus
d) Mosquito of culex visnoi-complex is the vector of c) Reinfection with a different serotype of dengue
Dengue fever virus
1391. The vector of Japanese B encepalitis virus d) Infection in an immunocompromised host
is - (DPG 10, Kam 94) 1404. Most virulent dengue fever strain is-
a) Anopheles mosquito b) Culex mosquito a) 1 b) 2(NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Aedes mosquito d) All ofthe above c) 3 d) 4
1392. In India, human infections has been reported with 1405. Most sensitive diagnostic test for dengue is ?
Dengue virus type- (AI 91) a) IgMELISA (AIIMS Nov 08)
a) Types 1 and 2 b) Types 1 and 3 b) Complement fixation test
c) Types 2 and 4 d) All4 types c) Neutralization test
1393. Break bone fever is caused by- (Bihar 08) d) Electron microscopy
a) Variola b) Coxsackie
c) Arbovirus d) Adenovirus RHABDOVIRUS (RABIES)
1394. Break bone fever is caused by - (MP 09)
a) 'huiola b)Coxsackie 1406. Which ofthe following statements is true about
c) Dengue d) Adenovirus rabies virus- (AI 03)
1395. Which of the following Davivirus is closely related a) It is double stranded RNA virus
to Russian spring summer encephalitis causing b) Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
c) RNA has a negative polarity
virus- (APPGE 04)
d) Affects motor neurons
a) Dengue b) Chickengunya
1407. About rabies true is -
c) KFD d) West Nile fever
a) Vaccine causes life long immunity
1396. All of the following are true about the papovavirus
b) Multiple strains are found
except- (AI 95)
c) CNS infection occurs through viremia
a) They are non-enveloped icosahedral viruses
d) Bullet-shaped nonenveloped, double stranded
b) Produce papilloma and warts in humans
RNA virus
c) RNA virus
1408. Rabies virus is inactivated by- (PGI 97)
d) SV 40 is oncogenic
a) Phenol b) UV radiation
1397. Which of the following is true- (AIIMS May 08) c) BPL d)All
a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by 1409. Negri bodies are located in- (BIHAR 91, DNB 92)
inhalation of rodent urine and feces a) Astrocytes b) Oligodendroglia
b) K.FD is caused by bite of wild animal c) Neurons d) Microglia
c) Lyssa virus is transmitted by tick 1410. Rabies virus- (MARA 05)
1398. All are true regarding Banta virus Except- a) Can be isolated from the blood of infected patients
a) DNA virus (AIIIMS Sept 96) b) Has multiple antigenic types
b) Carried by rodents c) Can be transmitted by a dog 4 weeks before the
c) Causes recurrent respiratory infection dog becomes noticeably ill
d) Haemorrhagic manifestation may occur d) Produce infection that is almost fatal to humans
1399. Following are true ofkyasanur forest disease except- 1411. The staining useful for antemorten diagnosis of
a) Transmitted by Soft tick (AI 94) rabies is- (Karn. 95)
b) Caused by retrovirus a) Seller b)Macchiavillo
c) Incubation Period is 3-8 days c) Giernsa d) Fluorescent
d) Killed vaccine available 1412. In Rabies, the characterstic pathological
1400. Wbich ofthe following are true regarding KFD- manifestation is (AI 97)
a) It is zoonosis (PGI 97) a) Ventriculitis
b) Affects monkeys b) Brainstem encephalitis
c) Caused by bacteria c) Basal ganglia affection
d) Caused by rickettsia d) Meningitis
1401. In Japanese Encephalitis, pigs acts as- (PGI 2000) 1413. Negribodiesarefoundin- (NEET/DNBPattern)
a) Amplifier b) Definitive host a) Hypothalamus b) Hippocampus
c) Intermediate host d) Any of the above c) Midbrain d) Medulla
1390)c 1391)b 1392)d 1393)c 1394)c 1395)c 1396)c 1397)a 1398)a 1399)b 1400)a,b 1401)a 1402)a
1403)c 1404)b 1405)c 1406)c 1407)None 1408)d 1409)c 1410)d 14ll)d 1412)b 1413)b
1414. Rabies is identified by- (AIIMS May 10, AI 07) 1424. Active immunisation following exposure is given
a) Guarneri bodies b) Negri bodies mostcommonlyfor- (AI 99)
c) Cowdry A bodies d) Cowdry B bodies a) Rabies b) Polio
1415. RegardingRabies,trueis- (AI 00) c) Plague d) Measles
a) Incubation period depends on the site of bite 1425. The schedule ofiiDCV in rabies is- (AI 96)
b) Diagnosis is by eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion a) 0,3,7,10,14,28 b)0,3,10,30
c) 3, 7, 14, 16, 18 d) 0, 7, 14, 16, 18
c) It is a RNA virus
1426. In rabies, human diploid cell culture vaccine for post-
d) Caused only by dogs
exposure vaccination is given on the following days-
1416. A 15 year old girl was admitted to tbe infectious disease
a) 0, 7, 28 then booster dose in 90 days (AI 98)
hospital with a provisional diagnosis of rabies. b) 0, 7, 28 then booster dose in 2 years
The most suitable clinical sample that can confirm c) 0, 3, 7, 14, 30 then booster dose in 90 days
the antemortem diagnosis is- (AIIMS Nov. 04) d) 0, 3, 7 and booster dose in 90 days ·
a) Serum for anti-rabies IgG antibody 1427. Number of doses of IIDCV vaccine required for
b) Corneal impression smear for inununofluorescence preexposure prophylaxis-
stain a) 7 b)S
c) CSF sample for viral culture c) 3 d) 1
d) Giemsa stain on smear prepared from salivary 1428. What is the correct recommended scbednle (on days)
secretions for post- exposure treatment of person who has
1417. True about Rabies virus is- (AIIMS May 94, AI 97) been vaccinated for rabies previously with BDC -
a) Rabies is diagnosed by immunofluorescence a)0,3and7 b)0,3,7and14
b) Rabies causes life long immunity c) 0,3,7,14and28 d)Oand3
c) Rabies bas various strains of viruses
d) Rabies vaccine is always live attenuated HEPATITIS VIRUSES
1418. Neurological complications following Rabies
1429. HCV is- (PGI Dec 05, June 08)
vaccine is common with
a) EnvelopedRNA
a) HDCS Vaccine b) Chick embryo Vaccine b) Nonenveloped RNA
c) Semple Vaccine d) Duck Egg Vaccine c) Nonenveloped positive strand RNA
1419. AH of the following rabies vaccines are commercially d) Enveloped negative strand RNA
available except- (AI 99) c) DNA virus
a) Killed sheep brain vaccine 1430. Most common route of spread of Hepatitis E is-
b) Human diploid cell vaccine a) Sex b) Feco-oral (AI 93)
c) Vero continous cell vaccine c) Blood transfusion d) IV injections
d) Recombinant glycoprotein 1431. Non-parenteral hepatitis is- (AI 2000)
1420. Recommended vaccines for rabies- a) Hepatitis E b) Hepatitis B
a) Semple c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis D
b) Duck embryo vaccine 1432. Incubation period ofHBV is-
c) Suckling mouse brain vaccine a) 45 to 180 days b) 6 to 60 days
d) :m:x:;v c) 10 days d) 10 hrs
1421. Which anti-rabies vaccine has been recommended 1433. Carrier state does not exist for-
a) Hepatitis B virus
by WHO-
b) Hepatitis A virus
a) Duck cell vaccine b) Chick fibroblast vaccine
c) NonA Non B Hepatitis
c) :m:x:;v d) Sheep brain vaccine
d) Delta agent
1422. For the treatment of case of class m dog bite, all of 1434. Age group affected by Hepatitis' A' virus-
thefollowingarecorrectexcept- (AI 05) a) Children b)Adult (PGI 99)
a) Give lg for passive inununity c) Old age d) Any age
b) GiveARV 1435. Which is ssrna unenvloped virus-
c) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage a) HBV b) HEV (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Immediately wash wound with soap and water c) HCV d) None
1423. Class II exposure in animal bites includes the 1436. Acute liver failure is caused by AlE- (NEETIDNB
following- (AI 03) a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B Pattern)
a) Scratches without oozing of blood c) Hepatitis E d) Hepatitis C
b) Licks on a fresh wound 143 7. Which hepatitis virus had been called as enterovirus-
c) Scratch with oozing ofblood on palm a) HAV b) HBV (MP 09)
d) Bites from wild animals c) HCV d)HEV
1414)b 1415)a 1416)b 1417)a 1418)c 1419)d 1420)d 142l)b 1422)c 1423)b 1424)a 1425)a 1426)c 1427)c
1428)a 1429)a 1430)b 1431)a 1432)a 1433)b 1434)a 1435)b 1436)d 1437)a
1438. Potent vaccine is available for- (Delhi 09) 1452. About Hepatitis 'A'trueis- (PGI Dec 08)
a) Hepatitis C b) Hepatitis A a) Causes mild illness in children
c) Hepatitis D d) Hepatitis E b) 3% incidence of carrier state
1439. In chronic Hepatitis B infection, which one of the c) 10% transform into HCC
following markers is indicative of active viral d) Vertical transmission never seen
replication and the corresponding risk of disease 1453. Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by- (AI01)
transmission ? (UPSC 07) a) IgM antibodies in serum
a) HBe antigen b) HBs antigen b) Isolation from stool
c) Anti - HBe d) Anti- HBs c) Culture from blood
1440. Serological marker of infectivity of Hepatitis 'B' is- d) Isolation from bile
a) HBsAg b) HBeAg (Kerala 09) 1454. Transmission of hepatitis A virus occurs -(PGI 99)
c) lgM anti Hbc d) HBcAg a) One week before and one week after onset ofsymptom
1441. Which of the following hepatitis has a poor
b) 2 weeks before onset of symptoms
prognosis- (UP 09)
c) 2 weeks after onset of symptoms
a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B
d) 1 week after onset of symptoms
c) Non-A Non-B type d) Hepatitis C
1455. Cultivable (in vitro) hepatitis virus is-
1442. Cell-Fraction derived vaccine is- (AP 97)
a) Hepatitis-B b) Measles a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B (AIIMS May 07)
c) Mumps d)Rubella c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis D
1443. Hepatitis 'C' virus resembles which of the following
virus groups- (Comed 07) 2. HEPATITIS B VIRUS
a) Picarno viruses b) Herpes viruses
c) Hepadna viruses d) Flavi viruses 1456. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a DNA
1444. Which hepatitis virus is notorious for causing virus- (AIIMS May 03, PGI dec 04)
chronic hepatitis evolving to cirrhosis- (Kar 09) a) Hepatitis C virus b) Hepatitis B virus
a) HCV b)HBV c) Delta agent d) Hepatitis E virus
c) HEV d)HAV 1457. All of the following are components of Dane
1445. Chronic hepatitis is seen in- (JIPMER 99) Particle except- (AIIMS 98)
a) Hepatitis C b) Hepatitis D a) Surface antigen b) Core antigen
c) Hepatitis A d) Hepatitis E c) C-antigen d) Delta antigen
1446. Which of the following does not go into chronic 1458. HBV present in India is-
hepatitis stage- (TN 2001) ~Adw b)Ayw
a) HBV b)HCV c) Adr d)Ayr
c) HDV d)HEV 1459. Reverse transcriptase ofHBV is coded on following
1447. The commonest cause of viral hepatitis in India - gene- (AI 00)
a) Hepatitis type A virus (DNB 92) a) c gene b) s gene
b) Hepatitis type B viurs c) p gene d) x gene
c) Enterically transmitted NANB virus 1460. Hepatitis B is not transmitted by-
d) Parenterally transmitted NANB virus a) Blood transfusion b) Pasteurised albumin
e) Delta virus c) Cryoprecipitate d) Sexual contact
1448. Regarding hepatitis E, it is true that- (DPG 10) 1461. Which of the following hepatitis virus have
a) Occurs with Hepatitis B
significant perinatal transmission- (AI 03)
b) Is single stranded DNA virus
a) HEV b)HCV
c) Occurs along with HIV
c) HBV d)HAV
d) Increases mortality in pregnancy
1462. Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis
1449. Which of the hepatitis prevalent in pregnancy-
a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B (UP 07) indicates- (AIIMS 92)
c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis E a) Simple carriers b) Late convalescence
1450. The most common HIV subtype in India is- c) High infectivity d) Carrier status
a) A b)D (Kama 09) 1463. HBV all true, except- (PGI 98)
c) E d)C a) It is a DNA virus
b) Spreads by blood transfusions
1. HEPATITIS A VIRUS c) HBs Ag marker of infection
d) Least chance of chronicity
1451. Hepatitis A is transmitted by- (AI 93) 1464. HBVis associated with all of the following except-
a) Blood route b) Inhalation a) Hepatic cancer b) Chronic hepatitis
c) Feco-oral route d) All c) Hepatic adenoma d) Cirrhosis
1438)b 1439)a 1440)b 1441)b 1442)a 1443)d 1444)a 1445)a,b 1446)d 1447)c 1448)d 1449)d 1450)d
1451)c 1452)a 1453)a 1454)b,d 1455)a 1456)b 1457)d 1458)b,c 1459)c 1460)b 1461)c 1462)c 1463)d
1464)c
1465. Hepatitis B vaccination is given to a patient. His 1474. First antibody to appear in hepatitis-
serum will reveal- (AIIMS May 02) a) IgM anti-HBe (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) HBsAg b) IgG-anti-HBe
b) Anti-HBsAg c) IgM anti-HBc
c) IgM Anti-HBcAg and HBsAg d) lgM anti-HBs
d) lgM and IgG Anti-HBcAg 1475. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis B is by- (AI 9 7,
1466. A thirty year man presented with nausea, fever and a) HBeAg b) HBc Ag AIIMS May 95)
jaundice of 5 days duration. The biochemical c) HBsAg is used d)AntiHBc
tests revealed a bilirubin of 6. 7 mgldl (conjugated 1476. Infection/ multiplication ofHBsAgis best/commonly
5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT/SGPT (AST/ALT) of1230/ diagnosed by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
900 IU/ml. The serological tests showed presence a) HBeAg b) HbsAg
of HBsAg, lgM anti HBc and HBe Ag. The most c) HBVDNA d) Anti HBs Ag
likely diagnosis- (AIIMS 02) 1477. Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is -
a) Chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity a) Subcutaneous b) Intradermal
b) Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity c) Intramuscular deltoid d) Intramuscular gluteal
c) Chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity 1478. A blood donor is not considered for safe transfusion,
d) Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity if he bas- (AI 00)
1467. Serological testing of patient shows HBsAg, a) Anti HBsAg +ve
lgM anti-HBc and HBeAg postive. The patient b) Anti HBsAg and HBcAg (+)ve
base - (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) HBsAg +ve and IgM anti HBc +ve
a) Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity d) AntiHBc+ve
b) Acute hepatitis B with high infectivity
c) Chronic hepatitis with high infectivity 3. HEPATITIS C VIRUS
d) Acute on chronic hepatitis
1468. The serological marker of acute Hepatitis B 1479. Hepatitis C virus is a- (NEETIDNB Pattern,
infection is- (AJ93) a) Togavirus b) Flavivirus AIIMS May 04)
a) HBsAg + HBeAg b) HBsAg+Core antibody c) Filovirus d) Retrovirus
c) HBsAg d) HBcAg 1480. Max. Hepatitis C virus transmission to foetus in
1469. Acute Hepatitis B can be earliest diagnosed pregnancydependson- (PGI 2000)
by- (AIIMS Nov OJ) a) Duration of illness b) Time of infection
a) lgM anti HBc ab b) Hbs Ag c) Route of delivery d) HIV infection
c) lgC anti HBc abs d) Anti HBs Ag ab e) HighlevelofHCVRNA
1470. Recent Hepatitis infection is best diagnosed 1481. Hepatitis C virus TRUE finding is- (AIIMS Dec 98)
by- (AIIMS Nov OJ) a) Spreads along fecooral route
a) Hbs Ag b) Ig G Anti HBe abs b) Antibody to HCV may not be seen in acute stage
c) Anti HBs Ag abs d) lgM anti HBc abs c) Does not cause chronic hepatitis
1471. A 30 year old patient presented with history of d) It cannot be cultured
jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests showed 1482. HCV is associated with- (AI 00)
bilirubin of 10 mg/dl, SGOT/SGPT- 1100/1450, a) AntiLKM-1 antibody b) Scleroderma
serum alkaline phosphatase- 240 IU. He was positive c) Cryoglobulinemia d) Polyarteritis nodosa
for HbsAg. What should be the confirmatory test to 1483. Commonest hepatotropic virus causing increased
estabilish acute hepatitis B infection- (AIIMS 06) chronic carrier state is - (AIIMS 97)
a) lg M anti-HBc antibody a) HEV b)HAV
b) HbeAg c) HBV d)HCV
c) HBVDNVbyPCR 1484. Chronic liver disease is caused by- (AI 00)
d) Anti-HBc antibody a) Hepatitis B b) Hepatitis A
1472. AntiHBsAbindicates- (AIIMS 93) c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis E
a) Resistance to Hepatitis B 1485. Nextto HBV, virus implicated in hepatocellular Ca
b) Acute infection is- ~ill~
c) Good Prognosis a) HN b) Herpes
d) Hepatocellular Carcinoma c) HAV d)HEV
1473. In a patient only anti HBsAg is positive in serum, 1486. Which ofthe following statements about Hepatitis
all other markers are negative. This indicates - 'C' is true - (AI 09)
a) Acute hepatitis (AIIMS 00) a) DNA virus
b) Chronic active hepatitis b) Most common indication for liver transplant
c) Persistent carrier c) Does not cause liver cancer
d) Hepatitis B vaccination d) Does not cause coinfection with hepatitis B
1465)b 1466)b 1467)b 1468)b 1469)a 1470)d 147l)a 1472)a 1473)d 1474)c 1475)d 1476)a 1477)c 1478)c
1479)b 1480)e 1481)b,d 1482)a,c 1483)d 1484)c,a 1485)a 1486)b
4. HEPATITIS E VIRUS 1498. lllV gene is/are- (PGI June OJ)

a) Gp73 b)P24
1487. Which of the following is Calcivirus-(AIIMS Nov OJ) c) GPI20 d) Gp5
a) Hepatitis E b) Hepatitis B 1499. Nef gene in lllV is for use- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis A a) Enhancing the expression of genes
1488. With which ofthe following ofviral hepatitis infection b) Enhancing viral replication
in pegnancy, the maternal mortality is highest - c) Decreasing viral replication
a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B(AIIMS 06) d) Maturation
c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis E 1500. A HIV mother delivers a baby All are true,
1489. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant except- (AIIMS Nov 99)
hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent a) Risk ofHIV in the baby is upto 90%
is- (AI 04) b) HIV infection cannot be diagnosed in the baby
a) Hepatitis B virus b) Hepatitis C virus with available methods.
c) Hepatitis E virus d) Hepatitis A virus c) AIDS can be transmitted from mother to child
1490. A pregnant woman from bihar presents with hepatic during delivery.
encephalopathy. The likely diagnosis- (AI OJ) d) Breast feeding can transmit AIDS
a) Hep.E b)Hep.B 1501. TrueaboutHIV- (PGI 2000)
c) Sepsis d) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy a) Not transmitted through semen
1491. Regarding Hepatitis E true is- (AIIMS 98) b) More chances of transmission during LSCS than
a) Occurs with Hepatitis B normal labour
b) Single stranded DNA virus c) More infectious than hepatitis B
c) Occurs along with HIV d) Male to female transmitted> female to male
d) Mortality increased in pregnancy 1502. The chance that a health worker gets mv from an
1492. Hepatitis E clinically resembles- accidental needle prick is- (PGI June 99)
a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B a) 1% b) 10%
c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis D c) 95% d) 100%
1503. lllV can- (PGI June 08)
5. HEPATITIS D VIRUS a) Cross blood brain barrier
b) RNA virus
1493. Which of the following is a defective virus- (AI OJ) c) Inhibited by 0.3% HP2
a) HAV b)HBV d) Thermostable
c) HCV d)HDV 1504. What is the sequence which a retrovirus follows
1494. HBVandHDVfalseis- (NEETIDNB Pattern) on entering a host cell- (AI 2K)
a) Both can infect simultaneously a) RNA-DNA-RNA b)RNA-DNA
b) HDV causes more serious infecton d/t superinfection c) DNA-RNA d)DNA-RNA-DNA
c) HDV cannot infect in absence of HBV 1505. Regarding lllV infection, not true is (AI OJ)
d) DNA viruses a) p24 is used for early diagnosis
1495. HDVis-0 (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Lysis of infected CD4 cells is seen
a) SS-RNA virus b) SS-DNA virus c) Dendritic cells do not support replication
c) DS-RNA virus d) DS-DNA virus d) Macrophage is a reservoir for the virus
1506. Regarding mv which of the following is not true-
6. HEPATITIS G VIRUS a) ItisaDNAretrovirus (AI 02)
b) Contains Reverse Transcriptase
1496. Choose the false statement regarding Hepatitis G c) may infect host CD4 cells other than T lymphocytes
virus- (Karnataka 200J) d) Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage
a) Also called GB virus of disease
b) BloodbomRNAvirus 1507. mvaffects- (AIMS98)
c) Mostly infected with C virus a) Only T helper cells
d) Responds to Lamivudine b) T helper and macrophages
c) NKcells
HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS d) B - lymphocytes
1508. mv infects most commonly- (AIIMS Jun 00, AI 09)
1497. mv virus contains- (AI 02) a) CD4+helper cells b) CD8+cells
a) Single stranded DNA c) Macrophage d) Neutrophil
b) Single stranded RNA 1509. AIDS involves- (AI 98)
c) Double stranded DNA a) T-helper cells b) T-suppressor cells
d) Double stranded RNA c) T-cytotoxic d) B. cells
1487)a 1488)d 1489)c 1490)a 1491)d 1492)a 1493)d 1494)d 1495)a 1496)c,d 1497)b 1498)None 1499)c
1500)a 1501)d 1502)a 1503)a,b,c 1504)a 1505)c 1506)a 1507)b,d 1508)a 1509)a
1510. The receptor through which M-tropic HIVstrains 1523. WmdowperiodinHIVisfrom- (Jimper 04)
bmd- (MHJ~ a) Infection to appearance of antibodies in serum
a) CCR5 b)CXR4 b) Infection to appearance of viral particles in blood
c) CXCR5 d) Any of the above c) Infection to appearance of symptoms
1511. All the followmg are true about HIV except -(1N 99) d) Infection to decrease of CD4 lymphocytes
a) A DNA virus belonging to lentivirus 1524. The commonly used screening test for Human
b) Attacks CD4 lymphocytes immunodeficiency virus is- (Karnat. 96)
c) CD4: CDS ratio is reversed a) VDRL test b) Weil-Felix test.
d) Mostly spread by heterosexual contact c) ELISA test d) Western blot test
1512. WhichofthefollowfugisnotastructuralgeueofHIV- 1525. Reverse Transcriptase is- (AP 96)
a) Gag b) Pol (Maharashtra 10) a) DNA polymerase
c) ENV d)Tat b) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
1513. The gene codmg for core ofHIV is- (Delhi 96) c) RNA dependant DNA polymerase
a) GAG b)ENV d) None
c) POL d) TAT 1526. lllVviruscaubeisolatedfromallexcept-(ALLPH98)
1514. Which of the following gene is associated with a) Semen b) Saliva
encoding of reverse transcriptase - (Delhi 09)
c) Blood d) Skin scraping
a) Pol b) Env
1527. Full blown Immunodeficiency syndrome is-
c) Gag d)LTR
a) High viral titres with low CD 4 count (SGPGI 09)
1515. Gaggeneencodesfor- (Bihar 09)
b) Low viral titres with low CD 4 count
a) Reverse transcriptase b) Core antigen
c) Envelope d) Gene activation c) Low viral titres with high CD 4 count
1516. Chemokine co-receptor for HIV found on d) High viral titres with high CD 4 count
macrophage is- (Karn 11) 1528. Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS in
a) CD4 b)CDS India- (Orissa 04)
c) CCR5 d)CXCR4 a) Toxoplasmosis b) Crytococcosis
1517. Gloves, syringes, needles etc., used for patients c) Cryptosporidium d) TB
whose HIV test results is not known, should be 1529. The common causative agent in diarrhea in AIDS
immersed in- (UPSC 99) patients is- (UP 07)
a) Povidone - iodine 1% a) Toxoplasma b) Cryptosporidium
b) Boiling water c) Salmonellae d) Mycobacteria
c) 1% solution of sodium hypochlorite 1530. Which is not increased in HIV infection -(Delhi 08)
d) 10% solution of dettol a) CMV
1518. The HIV virus cau be destroyed in vitro by which of b) Kaposi sarcoma
thefollowmg- (Karnat.96) c) Mycobacterial infection
a) Boiling b) Ethanol d) Pneumococcal infection
c) Cidex d) All of the above 1531. Which of the following mycobacteria can cause
1519. In the heterosexual trnsmission ofHIV -(Kerala 09) disease in HIV+ve patient with a CD4 count of 600/
a) There is greater risk of transmission from man to cu.mm? (Comed 07)
woman a) M. tuberculosis b) MAC
b) There is greater risk of transmission from woman c) M. chelonei d) M. fortuitum
tomau 1532. Sero conversion in HIV Infection takes place in-
c) Risk is equal in either ways a) 2weeks b)4weeks (JIPMER 93)
d) HIV infection is not transmitted by heterosexual c) 9 weeks d) 12 weeks
act 1533. p24 antigen disappears from the blood after how
1520. AIDS is not transmitted by- (Kerala 09) manyweeksinHIV- (AMU 05)
a) Blood transfusion b) Cryoprecipitate a) 2-4weeks b)4-6weeks
c) Breast milk d) Plasma c) 6-8 weeks d) 8-1 0 weeks
1521. Risk ofHIV transmission is not seen with - 1534. Most common mode of transmission ofHIV world
a) Whole blood (Delhi 09) wide is- (SGPGI 04)
b) Platelets a) Heterosexual b)Homosexual
c) Plasma derived hepatitis B vaccine c) IV-drug abuse d) Contaminated blood products
d) Leucocytes vaccines 1535. LatentphaseofHIV- (PGI Dec 06)
1522. During the Wmdow period of patient with AIDS- · a) Vtral Replication
a) ELISA is- ve (NIMS 96)
b) Sequestred in lymphoid tissue
b) Western Blot is - ve
c) Infective
c) Both are- ve
d) Not infective
d) PCRis-ve
e) Rapid decline ofCD4 count is common
1510)a 1511)a 1512)d 1513)a 1514)a 1515)b 1516)c 1517)None 1518)d 1519)a 1520)b 1521)c 1522)c
1523)a 1524)c 1525)c 1526)d 1527)a 1528)d 1529)b 1530)None 1531)a 1532)b 1533)c 1534)a 1535)a,b,e
1536. HlV infection is associated with- (PGIJune 02) 1548. Fungal infectious associated with AIDS patient
a) A glandular fever like illness are- (PGI Dec 03)
b) Generalised lymphadenopathy a) Pneumocystis carinii b) Penicillium marneffei
c) Gonococcal septicemia c) Candida d) Cryptococcus
d) Sinus disease e) Cryptosporidium
e) Presenile dementia 1549. Which infection is not common in HlV patients-
1537. Most common agent causing tuberculosis in AIDS a) Cryptosporidiosis (AIIMS Feb 97)
patient in tropical countries is- (AI97) b) Atypical mycobacterial infection
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis c) Aspergillosis
b) Mycobacterium intracellulare d) Candidiasis
c) Mycobacterium parvum 1550. Fungalinfection in AIDS- (PGI Dec 06)
d) Mycobacterium atypical a) Mucormycosis
1538. InlndiamostcommoncauseofT.B.inHlV- b) Aspergillosis
a) Myco. Tuberculosis (PGI 2000) c) Disseminated candidiasis
b) Myco. Avium intracelluare d) Mucocutaneous candidiasis
c) M. bovis e) Pneumocystis jiruveci
d) M. scrofulaceum 1551. Most common genital lesion in HlV patient is-
1539. CMV retinitis in HlV occurs when the CD4 counts a) Chlamydia b) Herpes (AIJO)
falls below- (AI 02) c) Syphilis d) Candida
a) 50 b) 100 1552. Commonest helminthic infection in AIDS is -(Al99)
c) 200 d) 150 a) Trichuris trichura
1540. An HlV patient complains of visual disturbances. b) Strongyloides stercoralis
Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates c) Enterobius vermicularis
and perivascular haemorrhges. Which of the d) Nector-arnericanus
following viruses are most likely to be responsible 1553. Which ofthe foolwing is not seen in mv Patient
with CD count less than 100 Per micro litre, who
for this retinitis- (AI 04)
has non productive cough- (AIIMS June 99)
a) Herpes simplex b) Varicella zoster
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Cytomegalovirus d)EBV
b) Pneumocystis carinii
1541. The most common organism amongst the following
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is-
d) Cryptococcal infection
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae (AI 05)
1554. The tissue of origin of the Kaposi's sarcoma is -
b) Stepto coccus agalactiae a) Lymphoid b) Vascular (AIIMS May 05)
c) Cryptococcus neoformans c) Neural d) Muscular
d) Listeria monocytogenes 1555. Multifocal tumor of vascular origin in a patient of
1542. Common CNS lesions in HlV is caused by-(PGijune AIDS- (AI 00)
a) Cryptococcus b) Toxoplasma 09) a) Kaposi sarcoma b) Astrocytoma
c) Neurocysticercosis d) Mucormycosis c) Gastric Carcinoma d) Primary CNS lymphoma
e)Lymphoma 1556. A patient with HlV has diarrhoea with AFB (+)ve
1543. Importantfeatures ofAIDS are- (PGIJune OJ) organism in stooL The most likely organism is-
a) Follicular tonsillitis b) Lichen planus a) Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (AI 00)
c) Oral candidiasis d) Hairy leukoplakia b) Mycobacterium TB
e) Mitotic lesions of oral cavity c) Mycobacterium leprae
1544. Which of the following lesions is associated with d) Mycoplasma
HlV infection- (AIIMS May 04) 1557. TrueaboutHIV all except- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Hairy leukoplakia b) Ecythroplakia a) PML caused by JC virus
c) Oral lichen planus d) Bullous pemphigoid b) CNS lymphoma is the most common CNS tumor
1545. In a patient having HIV infections, oral ulcer is c) CMV is the most common cause of retinitis
mostcommonlydueto- (Orissa 05) d) Most common cause of seizure is candida
a) Candida b) Cryptococcosis 1558. InHlVwindowperiodindicates- (AHMSNov07)
c) Histoplasma d) Trichophyton a) Time period between infection and onset offrrst
1546. Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by- (NEET/DNB symptoms
a) HSV b) EBV Pattern) b) Time period between infection and detection of
c) CMV d)HPV antibodies against HIV
1547. Persistent diarrhoea in AIDS is caused by AlE- c) Time period between infection and minimum
a) Microspora b) Cryptococcus (PGI OJ) multiplication of the organism
c) Cryptosporidia d) Isospora belli d) Time period between infection and maximum
e) Giardia lamblia multiplication of the organism
1536)a,b,d,e 1537)a 1538)a 1539)a 1540)c 1541)c 1542)a,b,e 1543)c,d 1544)a 1545)a 1546)b l547)c,e
1548)a,b 1549)c 1550)c,d 155l)b 1552)b 1553)c 1554)b 1555)a 1556)a 1557)d 1558)b
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5. 72]
1559. mv can be detected and confirmed by- (AI 05) 1569. Maternal to child transmission ofiDV is prevented
a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) by - (AIIMS Nov 11)
b) Reverse Transcriptase - PCR a) Nevirapine b) Lamivudine
c) RealTimePCR c) Didanosine d) Abacavir
d)MimicPCR 1570. Which one ofthe following is true regarding HIV
1560. ELISA test when compared to western blot technique infection- (AI 04)
is - (AI 93, 96) a) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced
a) Less sensitive, less Specific by adminsitration of nucleoside analogues
b) More sensitive, More specific b) CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease
c) Less sensitive, more specific progression
d) More sensitive, less Specific c) Infected T cells survive for a month in infected
1561. Most sensitive test for mv infection -(NEETIDNB patients
a) Western blot b) ELISA Pattern) d) In latent phase HIV has minimal replication
c) Agglutination test d) CFT
1562. Following is the marker of HIV infection in ONCOGENIC VIRUSES
blood- (AIIMS 94)
a) Reverse Transcriptase b) DNA polymerase 1571. Which is NOT an oncogenic virus-(AIIMSJune 97)
c) RNApolymerase d)None a) HTLV- 1 b) Herpes simplex
1563. All of the following methods are used for the c) Papilloma virus d) HBV
diagnosis ofHIV infection in a 2 month old child, 1572. Oncogenic RNA virus is-
except- (AIIMS May 03) a) Avian leukosis virus b) Herpesvirus
a) DNA-PCR b) Vrral culture. c) Adenovirus d) Togavirus
c) HIVELISA d) p24 antigen assay 1573. All oncogenic viruses containing RNA belongs to-
1564. A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore a) Picornaviridae (NEETIDNB Pattern)
throat, diarrhoea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. b) Herpesviridae
The best investigation to rule out HIV is- (AI 00) c) Retroviridae
a) P24 antigen assay b) ELISA 1574. MostcommononcogenicRNA virus-
c) Western blot d) Lymphnode biopsy a) Retrovirus (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1565. False about p24 is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Picornavirus
a) Seen after 3 weeks of infection c) Orthomyxovirus
b) Cant be seen in frrst week d) Paramyxovirus
c) Cant be detected after seroconversion 1575. Oncogenic virus is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Detected by ELISA a) CMV b)VZV
1566. ·In diagnosis of AIDS, criteria include the following c) Polio virus d)EBV
except- (PGI Dec 01) 1576. All of the following are DNA oncogenic viruses
a) CD4<200 except- (COMED 06)
b) CD8<500 a) Epstein Barr virus
c) CD4 :CD8= 1 b) Hepatitis B virus
d) Presence of any of the opportunistic infections c) Adult T cell Leukemia/lymphoma virus
tuberculosis, pneumosystic carinii, cytomegalovirus d) Kaposi sarcoma virus
e) Western blot is positive 1577. The following viruses bas been associated with
1567. A resident doctor sustained a needlestick injury oncogenesis except- (UP 97)
while sampling blood ofa patient who is IDV positive. a) Human Papilloma Viruses
A decision is taken to offer him post-exposure b) EpsteinBarrvirus
prophylaxis. Which one of the following would be c) Human T cell leukemia virus
the best recommendation? (AIIMS Nov 03) d) Varicella Zoster virus
a) Zidovudiue + Lamivudine for 4 weeks 1578. Which of the following "oncogenic viruses" is so
b) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks far not shown to be (oncogenic) in man- (DNB 92)
c) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks a) Hepatitis B virus
d) Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks. b) Epstein - Barr virus
1568. Antenatal maternal mv diagnosis is ofimportance c) Herpes simplex Type 2
in- (Japmer 04) d) Adenovirus
a) To prevent vertical transmission e) Human T celllymphotrophic virus 1(HTLVI)
b) To terminate 1579. All are oncogenic viruses except- (JIPMER 98)
c) To discharge a) EB virus b) Reo virus
d) To isolate the patient c) Retrovirus d) Human papilloma virus
1559)b 1560)d 1561)b 1562)a 1563)c 1564)a 1565)a>c 1566)b,c,e 1567)c 1568)a 1569)a 1570)a 157l)None
1572)a 1573)c 1574)a 1575)d 1576)c 1577)d 1578)d 1579)b
1580. All viruses are oncogenic except- (MP 98) 1593. Which ofthe following is true about Rotavirus -
a) EBV b)H.TLV-1 a) Commonly affects children (AI 94)
c) HSV-1 d)HPV b) Double Stranded DNA
1581. The only oncogenic virus whose pathogenicity has c) Can be grown easily on cell culture
beenprovedwithoutdoubtis- (JIPMER 05)
d) Egg shell appearance under electron microscope
~ HTLV-1 b)HTLV-ll
1594. Viral enterotoxin is detected as a possible of
c) HTLV-ill d)HTLV-IV
mechanism pathogenesis in- (AI 98)
HUMAN PAPILLOMA VIRUS a) Adenovirus b) Rotavirus
c) Calcivirus d) Astrovirus
1582. Most common tumour caused by virus is- 1595. ROTA virus is diagnosed by- (AIIMS Nov 99)
a) Warts (AIIMS Dec 97) a) lgM specific antibody in stool
b) Carcinoma cervix b) ELISA demonstrates antibody in stool
c) Nasopharyngeal corcinoma c) Immunoflorescence antigen in stool
d) Lymphoma d) Culture ofrotavirus
1583. Condyloma acuminatum is caused by - 1596. Rotavirus infection is diagnosed by the presence of-
a) HSV b)HPV (NEETIDNB
a) Antigen in stool by ELISA (AI 2()()())
c) HIV d)VZV Pattern)
b) Virus in stool
1584. Which of the following statement is correct-
c) Antigen in blood
a) Viral warts usually resolve spontaneously
b) Plantar warts should not be excised (PGI 05)
d) Antibody in stool
c) Callosities are formed occupationally 1597. Rotavirusis detected by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Com's are viral in etiology a) Antigen in stool
e) Plantar warts are painless b) Antibody in serum
1585. HPVvaccineis- (AIIMSNov09) c) Demonstration of virus
a) Monovalent b) Bivalent d) Stool culture
c) Quadrivalent d) Both bivalent and quadrivalent 1598. Best vaccine for rota virus infection is- (AI 98)
1586. ThueaboutHPVvaccination- (PGI Nov 09) ·a) Asymptomatic neonatal vaccine
a) Given in women age group 20-40 years b) DNA vaccine
b) Primary dose consists of 2 doses c) Genetic reassortment
c) Efficacy> 70% for cervical cancer d) Capsular component vaccine
d) Two types are available in market 1599. Genetic reassortment is seen with- (AIIMS Nov 10)
e) Protect against HPV 16 & 18 a) Astrovirus b) Herpes virus
1587. Human papillomatosis is caused by- c) Rotavirus d) Hepadena virus
a) HSV b HPV (NEETIDNB 1600. Rota virus causes- (Delhi 08)
c) HIV d)HBV Pattern) a) Acute nonbacterial gasteroeuteritis in adult
1588. Most common type ofHPV associated with cervical b) Infantile diarrhea
cancer- (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Teratogenic effects
a) 6, 11 b) 5, 8 d) Respiratory infection in immunocompromised
c) 16, 18 d) 6, 8
1601. The following is true of Rota virus - (AI 92)
1589. Condyloma accminatum is caused by HPV types of-
a) Easily grown in cell culture
a) 18,31 b) 17,12 (UP 09)
b) Double stranded DNA
c) 6,11 d)16,18
1590. Type of human papilloma virus associated with c) Terminal ileum villi destroyed
cacinomacervix- (JIPMER 98) d) Adult and old people account for 60% of infection.
a) Types 6,12,18 b)Types 16,18,31
c) Types 6,8,11 d) Types 3,10,19 SLOW VIRAL DISEASES
ROTAVIRUS 1602. Which of the following is not consider to be a slow

viruse diseases -
1591. All are cultivable virus Except- (AIIMS Dec 97) a) Kuru b) Scrapie
a) Rotavirus b) Enterovirus c) Creutzfeldt Jakob disease d) Maedi
c) ECHO virus d) Coxsackie virus e) Sarcoidosis
1592. All are true about Rota virus except- (AIIMSDec 97) 1603. True about prion protein diseases is all, except-
a) Causes diarrhoea iu man and children. a) Myoclonus is seen in 10% of the patients
b) Rota B Can be grown in cell culture. b) Caused by infectious protein (AliMSNov OJ)
c) Rota C can cause diarrhoea in children c) Brain biopsy is diagnostic
d) Culture cannot be done d) Commonly manifests as dementia
1580)None 158l)a 1582)a 1583)b 1584)a,b,c 1585)d 1586)c,d,e 1587)b 1588)c 1589)c 1590)b 159l)a
1592)b 1593)a 1594)b 1595)c 1596)a 1597)a 1598)c 1599)c 1600)b 160l)c 1602)e 1603)a
1604. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is caused by- (PGI 99) 1616. One of the following is not a cultivable virus -(AI 97)
a) Prion b) JC virus a) Papova b) Parvovirus B-19
c) Genetic factors d) Nutritional deficiency c) Herpes d) Adenovirus
1605. Prions are- (AI 08) 1617. Parvoviruscauses- (PGI Dec 07)
a) Made up of bacterial and viral particles a) Aplastic anemia
b) Immunogenic b) Erythema infectiosum
c) Infectious c) Roseola infantum
d) RNA particles d) Arthritis
1606. Prions consists of- (AIIMS Nov 07) 1618. In Parvovirus infection whatis common in adult -
a) DNAandRNA b)DNA,RNAandProtein a) Bone marrow aplasia b) PRCA (PGI June 07)
c) RNA and protein d) Only proteins c) Erythema infectiosum d) Arthropathy
1607. Regarding prion protein which of the following 1619. Parvovirus infection is associated with- (PGI June
statment is true- (AIIMS Nov 08) a) Hydrops fetalis b) Aplastic anemia 08)
a) It is protein product coded in viral DNA c) Abortion d) Sixth disease
b) It catalyses abnormal folding of other proteins e) Hemophagocytic syndrome
c) It protect disulfide bonds from oxidation 1620. All ofthe following statements about Parvovirus
d) It cleaves normal proteins B-19 are true except- (AI 09)
1608. Trueaboutprionsis- (AI 11) a) DNA virus
a) Encoded by viral genome b) Crosses placenta in only < I 0% of cases
b) Associated withmisfolding of protein c) Can cause severe anemia
c) Non infectious d) Can cause aplastic crises
d) Immunogenic 1621. All of the following statements about parvovirus
1609. Mad Cow disease (Spongiform disease) occurs due B-19 are true, except- (AI 11)
to- (AIIMS Dec 97)
a) <1 0% spread by transplacental route
a) CJ virus b) Arena virus b) Respiratory route is the primary mode of
transmission
c) Kuru virus d) Parvo virus
c) It is a DNA virus
1610. Mad Cow disease (Bovine Spongioform
d) Affects erythroid progenitors
Encephalopathy)issimilarinmanto- (AIIMS 96)
1622. Parvovirus B19 does not cause- (AIIMS May 08)
a) Alzheimer's Disease
a) Roseola infantum
b) Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
b) Aplastic anemia in sickle cell disease
c) Huntingtons Chorea
c) Fetal hydrops
d) Picks Disease
1623. Slapped cheek sign is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1611. Fatal familial insomnia is associated with- (A/99) a) Parvovirus Bl9 b) JC virus
a) Prion disease b) Degeneration disease c) Rota virus d) Mumps
c) Neoplastic disease d) Vascular disease 1624. Infection with which of the following agents is
1612. Madcowdiseaseisdueto- (Culcutta 2K) particularly dangerous for anemic patients -(HP 06)
a) Slow virus b) Mycoplasma a) Adenovirus b) Cytomegalovirus
c) Bacteria d) Fungus c) Herpes simplex virus d) Parvovirus
1613. Which one of the following not a prion associated
disease- (JIPMER 05) MISCELLANEOUS
a) Srapie
b) Kuru 1625. The viruses causing gastroenteritis are- (PGI Dec
c) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease a) Rotavirus b) Norwalk virus 08)
d) Alzheimer's disease c) Adenovirus d) Hepatadenovirus
1614. Which of the following is NOT a prion disease? e) Enterovirus
a) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (K.arn 11) 1626. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except -
b) Transmissible mink encephalopathy a) RSV is the most common cause ofbronchiolitis in
c) Scrapie infants (AIIMS Nov 07)
d) Progressive multifocalleucoencephalopathy b) Mumps causes septic meningitis in adult
c) Measles causes SSPE
PARVOVIRUS d) EBV causes pleuritis
1627. Choosethecorrectmatches- (PGIJune02)
1615. The virus which causes aplastic anemia in chronic a) Mumps-RA27/3strain
hemolytic diseases is- (PGI 96) b) Rubella- Jeryl- Lynn strain
a) Adenovirus b) Hepatitis virus c) Measles - Edmonston - Zagreb strain
c) EB virus d) Parvovirus d) BCG- Danish 1331 strain
1604)a,c 1605)c 1606)d 1607)b 1608)b 1609)? 1610)b 161l)a 1612)a 1613)d 1614)d l615)d 1616)b
1617)a,b,d 1618)d 1619)a,b,c,e 1620)b 162l)a 1622)a 1623)a 1624)d 1625)a,b,c,e '1626)b 1627)c,d
1628. Latency seen in viral infections- (PGI Dec. 08, June 1641. Emergence or resurgence seen in which of the
a) HSV -II b) CMV 05) following organisms- (PGI Dec 04)
c) Rotavirus d)HIV a) Poliovirus b) Measles virus
e) EBV c) Nipah virus d) West Nile virus
1629. HTLV extra gene is - (NEETIDNB Pattern) e) Hepatitis B virus
~ ~ b)Pol 1642. New infectious agents are- (PGI Dec 07)
c) Env d)px a) Nipah virus b) Pneumocystisjieruveci
1630. Incubation period less than 10 days seen- c) Corona virus d) SARS
a) Influenza b) Cholera (PGI Dec 02) e) Prion
c) Plague d) Chickenpox
1643. Virus that affect lymphoid tissue- (PGI Dec 06)
e) Rabies
a) Adenovirus b) Herpes virus
1631. Human to human transmission not seen in-
c) CMV d)HIV
a) SARS b) Japanes B encephalitis
e) HBV
c) Bird's flu d) Poliomyelitis
e) HlV (PGI June 05) 1644. For which of the following are live vaccines used-
1632. Which of the following pair is correct- a) Measles b) Cholera (PGJ 88)
a) RSV- Bronchiolitis (PGI Dec 05) c) Smallpox d)OralPolio
b) Orf- viral infection is transmitted from sheep 1645. Electron microscopy is helpful in diagnosis of-
c) Parvovirus B 19- Exanthema subitum a) Rotavirus b) RSV (PGN June 03)
d) HHV6 - kaposi Sarcoma c) Herpesvirus d) Prion
1633. All of the viruses cause pneumonia except- ( AJ-95) 1646. CultnreofCSFeasilydetect- (PGJ Nov 09)
a) Cytomegalovirus b) Mumps a) CMV b) Echovirus
c) Measles d) Retrovirus c) Coxsakie d) HSV
1634. Renal involvement is seen in which of the following e) Mumps
infections- (PGI 03) 1647. Which of the following does not cause conjuctivitis-
a) Cytomegalovirus b) Polyoma virus a) Adenovirus b) Enterovirus(JIPMER 92)
c) Human Papilloma virus d) HIV c) Coxsackie virus d) Herpes virus
e) HBV 1648.Kaposisarcomaiscausedby- (Delhi 09)
1635. All of the following statements are true regarding a) EBV b) Parvovirus
central nervous system infection, except- c) Herpes virus d) Rotavirus
a) Measles virus is the causative (AIIMS- 04) 1649. Ebola virus is a- (Delhi 96)
agent for subacute sclerosing panencephalitis a) Reovirus b) Filovirus
b) Cytomegalovirus causes bilateral temporal lobe c) Arbovirus d) Arenavirus
hemorrhagic infarction
1650. MgCiz is added to polio vaccine because of the
c) Prions infection causes spongiform
following- (JIPMER79, UPSC 89, 92)
encephalopathy
d) JC virus is the causative agent for progressive a) Potentiates the vaccine
multifocal leucoencephalopathy b) Vaccine can be kept at higher temperatures
1636. PMLiscausedby- (PGI 2000) c) Preservative
a) CMV b) Papova virus d) None of the above
c) HlV d) Polio virus 1651. Which virus given below is not a teratogenic
1637. Progressive multifocalleukoencephalopathy is virus ? (Corned 08)
caused by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Rubella b) Cytomegalovirus
a) CMV b)EBV c) Herpes simplex d) Measles
c) JC virus d) RSV 1652. An emerging viral pathogen causing pyelonephritis
1638. SARS true are- (PGI June 06) in kidney allografts is- (Corned 08)
a) Severe acute respiratory syndrome a) Molluscum contagiosum
b) Documented respiratory route spread b) Herpes simplex virus
c) Effective vaccine available c) Polyoma virus
d) Cause atypical pneumonitis d) Influenza virus
e) Group coronavirus
1639. Causative organism ofSARS -(NEETIDNB Pattern) PARASITOLOGY
a) HlNl b) Corona virus
c) Rotavirus d) RSV GENERAL
1640. Which pathogens adhere to respiratory epithelium-
a) RSV b) Influenza(PG/ Dec 06) 1653. Which of the following is a protista- (NEETIDNB
c) Parainfluenza d) HBV
a) Algae b) Fungi Pattern)
e) Picornavirus
c) Protozoa d) Bacteria
1628)a,b,d,e 1629)d 1630)a,b,c 1631)bl632)a,b 1633)b 1634)d,e 1635)b 1636)b 1637)c 1638)a,b,d,e
1639)b 1640)a,b,c,e 164l)c,d 1642)a,c,d 1643)c,d,e 1644)All 1645)a,e 1646)All 1647)None 1648)c
1649)b 1650)b 1651)d 1652)c 1653)c
1654. Nematodes are differentiated from other worms 1663. The pathogenecity of Entamoeba histolytica is
by- (PGIDec05) indicated by- (APPGE 05)
a) Segmentation absent b) Separate celomic cavity a) Zymodemepattem b)Size
c) Sexes separate d) They are cylindrical c) Nuclear pattern d) ELISA test
e) GIT is formed completely 1664. The main reservoir for entamoeba histolytica is -
1655. Trne about trematodes- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Man b)Dirtywater (A/91)
a) Two host required c) Soil d) Ponds
b) Segmented 1665. Amoebiasis is transmitted by all except-(AIIMSNov 10)
c) Anus present a) Cockroach b) Faeco oral
d) Body cavity present c) Vertical transmission d) Oro- rectal
1656. Hemoftagellate- (AIIMS90) 1666. All are seen in cyst ofE.Histolytica except-
a) Requires intermediate host a) Glycogen mass (Kerala 94)
b) Grows in living tissue b) Chromatid bars
c) Does not grow in culture media c) Eccentric nucleus
d) Has undulating membrane d) Refractile nucleus
1667. Primary amoebic meningitis caused by- (SGPGI
PROTOZOA a) Naeglerifowleri b)E.histolytica 05)
c) E.coli d)B.coli
1. ENTAMOEBA
1668. The most distinctive feature of pathogenic
Entamoeba histolytica on fresh stool examination
1657. All the following amoebae live in the large intestine
except- (Karnat 89) is- (UP 97)
a) E.coli b) E. nana a) Presence of active pseudopodia
c) E.gingivalis d) l.butschii b) Erythrophagocytosis
1658. Non-pathogenic amoebae is/are- (PGI May 10) c) Presence of intracytoplasmic vacuole
a) E. histolytica b) E.coli d) Presence of two nucleoli
c) Acanthanmoeba d) E.Hartmanni 1669. Regarding cutaneous amoebiasis which is not true-
e) Balamuthia a) It is a spreading necrotising (Karn 94)
1659. Which of the following is true about mature cysts of inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
E. histolytica- (AI 96) b) Rapid improvement with anti-amoebic treatment
a) Endoplasm and ectoplasm are clearly defined occurs
b) Eight chromatid bodies c) Can occur in the perianal region
c) Shows chromatid bodies and glycogen mass d) The infection reaches the skin through the blood
d) Nuclear structure retains characteristics of stream
trophozoite 1670. True about amoebic colitis is- (PGI June 02)
1660. All are true about Entamoeba Histolytica except- a) Caused byE histolytica
a) Cyst are 8 nucleated (AI 91) b) Cyst contains eight nuclei
b) Cyst are 4 nucleated c) Flask-shaped ulcers are present
c) Trophozoites colonise in the colon d) Cecum is most commonly affected
d) The chromatid bodies are stained by Iodides e) Is premalignant
1661. Which is true of trophozoites ofE.histolytica- 1671. Stain with parasite having charcot-laden crystals
a) Has eccentric Karyosome (AI 93)
but no pus cells- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Nuclear membrane with chromatin
a) Giardia b) Tenia
c) Shows erythrophagocytosis
c) E. histolytica d) Trichomonas
d) Presence of bacteria inside cell
1662. Which one of the following statements is false- 1672. Invasive amoebiasis can be best diagnosed by-
a) The presence of ingested erythrocytes is seen a) ELISA (AIIMS Nov OJ)
only in Entamoeba histolytica (AIIMS Nov 03) b) Countercurrent inununoelectrophoresis
b) Young adult male of low socioeconomic status c) Indirect hemaglutination test
are most commonly affected by invasive amoebiasis d) Complement fixation test
c) A low iron content in the diet predisposes to 1673. Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by
invasive amoebiasis demonstrating- (AI 91)
d) The pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains of E. a) Cysts in the sterile pus
histolytica can be differentiated by the b) Trophozoites in the pus
electrophoretic study of zymodemes c) Cysts in the intestine
d) Trophozoites in the feces
1654)a,c,d,e 1655)a 1656)a,b,d 1657)c 1658)b,d 1659)d 1660)a,d 1661)b,c 1662)c 1663)a 1664)a 1665)c
1666)d 1667)a 1668)b 1669)d 1670)a,c,d 1671)c 1672)a 1673)b
1674. Significant titres of IHA is seen in all types of 1685. Eiosinophilic meningoencephalitis is caused by-
amoebiasis except- (AIIMS 98) a) Gnathostoma spinigerum (PGI 2000)
a) Acute amoebic dysentery b) Naegleria
b) Brain abscess c) Toxocara canis
c) Liver abscess d) Angiostrongylus cantonensis
d) Cyst passers 1686. Most fatal amoebic encephalitis is caused by-
1675. A patient presents with lower gastrointestinal bleed. a) E.histolytica b) Naeglaria (Bihar 09)
c) E. dispar d) Acanthamoeba
Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcer in the sigmoid. Biopsy
1687. Fulminant Amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by-
from this area shows flask-shaped ulcers. Which of
a) Acanthamoeba b) N.fowleri (AP 96)
the following is the most appropriate treatment- c) E.Histolytic d) E. Coli
a) Intravenous ceftriaxone (AIIMS 05) 1688. Selective medium for Naegleria fowleri is-
b) Intravenous metronidazole a) Nutrient agar rich withE coli (Maharashtra 10)
c) Intravenous steroids and sulphasalazine b) NNNmedia
d) Hydrocortisone enemas c) Non-nutrient agarwithE.coli
1676. Commonest site of extraintestinal amoebiasis is- d) Diamond media
a) Brain b)Liver (Delhi 93)
c) Spleen d) Lungs 2. GIARDIA LAMBLIA
1677. Chronic amoebic keratitis is seen in- (UP 07)
a) E. histolytica b) Acanthamoeba 1689. Giardiasis is associated with- (AIIMS Feb 97,
c) Naegleria c) Haemoflagellates a) Common variable immunodeficiency Nov 02)
1678. E. Histocytica. True are- (PGI June 06) b) cl esterase deficiency
a) Mostly symptomatic c) C 8 deficiency
b) Differentiated morphologically from E. dispar d) Anaemia
c) Anti genically different from E. disper 1690. The normal habitat of giardia is-
1679. The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica differs a) Duodenum and jejunum (NEETIDNB Pattern)
from Entamoeba coli, in the following except- b) Stomach
a) Size is 6 to 15 microns (Karnat. 96) c) Caecum
b) Nuclei are 1 to 4 in number d) ileum
c) Karyosome is central in position 1691. An anxious mother brought her 4 year old daughter
d) Chromatid bars seen to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky
1680. The cystic form of all are seen in man except- stools for tbe past 20 days. This was often associated
a) E.histolytica b) Giardia (NEET/DNB Pattern) with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the
c) Trichomonas d) Toxoplasma stool examination, which showed the following
1681. Cyst phase does not exist in- (TN 03, UP 09) organisms. Identify the organism- (AI 03)
a) Gardenella vaginalis a) Entamoeba histolytica
b) Giardia Iamblia
b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Cryptosporidium
c) Entamoeba hystolytica
d) E.Coli
d) Entamoeba coli
1682. Neuropathogenic amoeba are- (JIPMER 85)
a) Acanthamoeba b) Ent. coli
c) Nageleria d) Ent. Histolytica
1683. A 30-year old patient presented with features of
acute meningoencephalitis in the casualty. His CSF
on wet mount microscopy revealed motile unicellular
microorganisms. The most likely organism is-
a) Naegleria fowleri (AIIMS May 05)
1692. True about Giardiasis- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Acanthamoeba Castellani a) Only cyst is infective
c) Entamoebahistolytica b) Reside in ceacum
d) Trypanosoma cruzi c) Only man to man transmission
1684. Acute Primary Amoebic meningoencephalitis true is- d) Exist in one phases
a) Meningitis caused by acanthamoeba species is 1693. True about Giardia is- (AIIMS May 94)
acute in nature (AIIMS MAY 08) a) May cause traveller's diarrhoea
b) Diagnosis is by demonstration of trophozoite in CSF b) Giardia inhabits ileum
c) Caused by feco-oral transmission c) Trophozoites are infective to man
d) More common in tropical climate d) None of the above
1674)d 1675)b 1676)b 1677)b 1678)c 1679)d 1680)c 1681)a,b 1682)a,c 1683)a 1684)b 1685)a,d 1686)b
1687)b 1688)c 1689)a 1690)a 169l)b 1692)a 1693)a
1694. Which of the following infestation leads to 1705. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by- (PGI 86)
malabsorption- (AI 05, AIIMS 04) a) Tse-Tse fly b) House fly
a) Giardialamblia c) Sand fly d) Simulium fly
b) Ascaris lumbricoides
c) NecaterAmericana 4. LEISHMANIA
d) Ancylostoma duodenale
1695. Digestion in intestinal mucosa is inhibited by- 1706. "Amastigote forms" are seen in- (PGI June OJ)
a) V cholera b) G Iamblia (MARA 05) a) Leishmania donovani b) Toxoplasma gondi
c) Enterokinase d) S haematobium c) Leishmania major d) Entamoeba
1696. A patient presents with diarrhoea. analysis of stool 1707. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by-
on wet mount shows mobile protozoa without RBCs a) L-braziliensis · b) L. tropica (PGI 97)
and pus cells. The diagnosis is- (AI 2000) c) L. donovani d) L-orientalis
a) Balantidium coli 1708. Amastigote form is seen in- (Orissa 09)
b) Giardiasis a) Macrophages b)RES
c) Trichomonas hominis c) Lymphocytes d)RBC
d) Entamoeba histolytica 1709. The most important reservoir of Leishmaniasis in
1697. Which of the following is true with Giardia lamblia- India is- (JIPMER 09)
a) Malabsorption commonly seen (PGI Dec 05) a) Dogs
b) Trophozoite forms is binucleate b) Rodents
c) Diarrhea is seen c) Acute visceral leishmaniasis
d) Jejunal wash fluid is diagnostic d) Cases ofpost kalaazar dermal leishmaniasis
1698. The following is true of Giardiasis except- 1710. Double rise of temperature in 24 hours is seen in
a) Complement fixation test is diagnostic (AI 92) case of- (JIPMER 02, Bihar 02)
b) Stools contain only cysts a) KalaAzar b) Malaria
c) Habitat is colon c) 1B d) Hodgkin's lymphoma
d) Trophozoites and cysts are found in duodenum. e) Brucellosis
1699. Which of the following is true about giardia- 1711. Visceral leishmaniasis- (PGI Dec 02)
a) CFT is diagnostic (PGI 95) a) Caused by L. tropica
b) Trophozoites and cysts are seen in man b) Post-leishmaniasis dermatitis is common
c) Lives in lower intestine c) Antimonials are useful drugs
d) Invades normal mucosa d) Diagnosed by blood smear
e) Vector is phlebotomus sergenti
3. TRYPANOSOMA 1712. Drug not used in visceral leishmaniasis-
a) Sitamoqine b) Paromycin (AIIMS Nov 09)
1700. Vectorfor T.cruziis- (JIPMER 90) c) Miltefosine d) Hydroxychloroquine
a) Reduvid bug b) Tsetse fly 1713. Which of the following is most severely affected
c) Sand fly d) Hard tick inKalaazar- (JIPMER81,BIHAR90)
1701. Protozoa associated with megaesophagus- a) Spleen b) Liver
a) Trypanosome (NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Adrenal gland d) Bone marrow
b) Ameba 1714. The following are true ofkala-azar except-
c) Giardia a) Persistent hypergarnmaglobulinemia
d) Gnathostoma b) Pancytopenia
1702. Parasitic disease affecting intestine is -(Kerala 96) c) Cancruni oris can occur
a) Chagas disease b) Malaria d) Full treatment prevents post kala-azar dermal
c) Kalaazar d)Fasciola leishmaniasis
1703. Tse-tse fly transmits- (Kerala 94) 1715. A 20 years fernie has hepatosplenomegaly, fever,
a) Trypansoma brucei b) T.cruzi pallor and generalized lymphadenopathy. Lab test
c) Kala-azar d) Oriental sore useful for diagnosis is/are- (PGI June 09)
1704. Winter bottoms sign in sleeping sickness refers a) ESR
to- (NEETIDNB Pattern) b) Electrophoresis
a) Unilateral conjunctivitis c) Parasite detection in aspirate
b) Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy d)EUSA
c) Narcolepsy e) Routinehaemogram
d) Transient erythema
1694)a 1695)b 1696)b 1697)b,c 1698)a,b,c 1699)b 1700)a 170l)a 1702)a 1703)a 1704)b 1705)a
1706) a,c 1707)a 1708)b 1709) c 1710) a 1711) c,d 1712) d 1713) a 1714) d 1715) a,c,e
1716. The following tests help in laboratory diagnosis 1729. Pernicious malaria is a complication seen in
ofKala-azar except- (AI 02) infection with - (Karn 11)
a) Bone marrow examination a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Innnobilisation test b) Plasmodium falciparum
c) Bloodsmearexamination c) Plasmodium malariae
d) Plasmodium ovale
d) Aldehyde test
1730. The most virulent plasmodium species causing
1717. In a case ofKala-azar aldehyde test becomes positive malaria is- (DPG 10, J & K 05)
after- (PGI 93) a) Plasmodium vivax b) Plasmodium falciparum
a) 2 weeks b) 4 weeks c) Plasmodium ovale d) Plasmodium malariae
c) 8 weeks d) 12 weeks 1731. Splenic rupture is most common in infection with-
1718. Leishmania is cultured in........media- (NEETIDNB a) P. vivax b) P ovale (Delhi 08)
a) Chocolate agar b) NNN Pattern) c) P. malariae d) P. falciparum
c) Tellurite d) Sabourauds 1732. In malaria the Shutfner's dots aredueto-(SGPGI 09)
a) The disintegrated parts of the parasite
5. PLASMODIUM b) The intracellular space not occupied by parasite
c) The pigment released from breakdown of
hemoglobin
1719. Causativeagentofmalaria- (NEETIDNBPattern)
d) The gametocytes
a) Protozoa b) Mosquito 1733. In malaria, sexual cycle is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Bacteria d) Vnus a) Sporozoite to gametocytes
1720. The scientist who discovered the transmisssion of b) Gametocytes to sporozoite
malaria by anopheline mosquito- (NEETIDNB c) Occurs in human
a) Laveran b) Paul muller Pattern) d) Responsible for relapse
c) Ronald Ross d) Pampana 1734. In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers-
1721. Malarial parasite was discovered by- (NEETIDNB a) Sporozoite b) Merozoite (PGI 79)
a) Ronald ross b) Paul muller Pattern) c) Hypnozoite d) Gametocyte
c) Laveran d) Pampania 1735. Infective form of mosquito in plasmodiumfalciparum
1722. Infectious stage of plasmodium is- (Kerala 09) is - (AIIMS Nov 09)
a) Merozoites b) Sporozoites
a) Trophozoite b) Cryptozoite
c) Gametocytes d) Trophozoites
c) Sporozoite d) Merozoite 1736. The cycle of malaria parasite Is in sequence of -
1723. In plasmodium falciparum the number of cycles, 1) Exoerythrocytic stage
the parasite undergoes in the liver is - 2) Gametocytic stage
a) 0 b) 1 (JIPMER 09) 3) Erythrocytic stage
c) 2 d) 3 4) Sporogony
e) 5 a) 1,2,3,4 b)l,3,2,4
1724. Band shaped trophozoites are seen in- (TN 89) c) 1,4,2,3 d) 1,4,3,2
a) P. ovale b) P. vivax 1737. In which type of malarial parasite is the
c) P. falciparum d) P. Malariae exoerythrocytic stage absent- (PGI 96)
1725. Parasitemia is highest in- (MP 09)
a) P ovale b) P vivax
c) P falciparum d) P malariae
a) Vivax malaria b) Ovale malaria
1738. Malaria parasites- (AIIMS 84)
c) Fa1ciparummalaria d) Quartan malaria a) Has man as its intermediate host
1726. Multiple infection of red blood cell is seen with- b) Has a life cycle that alternates between man
a) Plasmodiumovale (Karnat 08) and tse-tse fly
b) Plasmodium vivax c) Has 4 important species in man
c) Plasmodium falciparum d) Can be easily cultured in the laboratory
d) Plasmodium malariae 1739. Malaria carriers contain- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1727. Which of the following is true about malaria- a) Trophozoite b) Gametocytes
a) Gametocyte harbourers are carrier (Delhi 09) c) Merozoites d) Trophozoites
b) All stage in erythrocytic schizogony seen in 1740. Plasmodium falciparum infection of man is
falciparum infection in peripheral blood characterized by- (AI 97)
a) The erythrocytes are increased in size
c) Schizonts ofvivax do not completely fill the RBC
b) All stages of erythrocytic schizogony are seen in
d) All the correct peripheral blood
1728. In malaria reservoir, parasite remains as- c) Multiple infection of erythrocytes are seen
a) Merozoite b) Sporozoite (AIIMS Nov d) Each erythrocytic cycle lasts 72 hours
c) Trophozoite d) None 03)
1716)b 1717)d 1718)b 1719)a 1720)c 1721)c 1722)c 1723)b 1724)d 1725)c 1726)c 1727)a 1728)d 1729)b
1730)b 1731)d 1732)c 1733)b 1734)a 1735)c 1736)b 1737)c 1738)a,c 1739)b 1740)c
1741. Which of the following is true about malaria- 1754. P.F. causes- (PGI June 03)
a) Size ofRBC is enlarged in Vivax infection (AI 96) a) Thrombocytopenia b)DIC
b) Size ofRBC is enlarged in Falciparum infection c) Hemolysis d) Haematemesis
c) Sch"~Jffner's dots are seen in Malariae 1755. Which type of malaria is associated with renal
d) Relapse is seen in Falciparum infection failure- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1742. Which ofthe following is true about P. falciparum- a) Falciparum b) Vivax
a) James dots are seen (AI 96) c) Malariae d) Ovale
b) Accole forms are seen
1756. Malaria causing nephrotic syndrome-(NEETIDNB
c) Relapses are frequent
d) Longest incubation period , a) P. vivax b) P. falciparum Pattern)
1743. Stages seen in peripheral smear of falciparum c) P. malariae d) P. ovale
malaria- (PGI Dec 05) 1757. Cerebral malaria is caused by plasmodium -(PGI 97)
a) Schizonts b) Gametocytes a) Falciparum b) Ovale
c) Accole d)Ringfonn c) Malariae d) Vivax
e) Trophozite 1758. Which one of the following is detected by the antigen
1744. In plasmodium falciparum following are seen in detection test used for the diagnosis ofP. falciparum
blood except- (PGI 97) malaria- (AIIMS Nov 04)
a) Schizonts b) Mature trophozoite a) Circum-sporozoite protein
c) Mature gametocytes d) None b) Merozoite surface antigen
1745. Stage offalciparum not seen in PBS is- (PGI 99) c) Histidine-Rich-Protein I (HRP-1)
a) Schizont b) Gametocyte d) Histidine,..Rich-Protein n (HRP-11)
c) Ring form d) Double ring 1759. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to
1746. Not seen in the peripheral smear in plasmodium identify- (AIIMS May 93)
falciparum infection- (PGI 97) a) Schizont b) Gametocyte
a) Accole b) Maurer's dot c) Plasmodium parasite d) Type of parasite
c) Shuffners dots d) Schizonts 1760. True of malaria diagnosis- (PGI 2000)
1747. Whichistrueofmalaria- (AI 93) a) Thick smear to identify parasite
a) Rods forms are seen in P. malariae b) ABER reveals positivity by 100
b) RBC size is more in P. vivax c) All have same Incubation
c) Relapse seen in P. falciparum d) Fluorescent Ab within 1 week
d) Male and female mosquito transmit disease 1761. What is the treatment of choice for benign tertian
1748. Patient diagnosed to have malaria, smear shows malaria? (UPSC 07)
all stages of schizonts 14-20 merozoites, yellowish a) Sulfamethaxazole- pyrimethamine
-brown pigment Tbetypeofmalaria is- (AIJMSOJ) b) Quinine
a) Pl. falciparum b) Pl. malariae c) Mefloquine
c) Pl. vivax d) Pl. ovale d) Chloroquine
1749. RBC's are enlarged in infection with- (AIIMS 02)
a) P. vivax b) P. malariae 6. TOXOPLASMA
c) P. ovale d) P. falciparum
1750. Senescent RBC's are mainly attacked in- (PGI 02) 1762. Oocyst oftoxoplasma is found in- (AIIMS Dec 97)
a) Vivax malaria b) Ovale malaria a) Cat b) Dog
c) Falciparummalaria d) Quartan c) Mosquito d) Cow
1751. Malarial pigment is formed by- (AIIMS May 94) 1763. True about Toxaplasma gondii is, it is carried by-
a) Parasite b) Bilirubin
a) Cats b) Dogs (AIIMS 97)
c) Hemoglobin d) Any of the above
c) Rats d) Cow
1752. Malarial parasite - which statement is false
1764. Tachyzoites are seen in- (PGI 97)
regarding communicability- (AIIMS Nov 06)
a) Toxoplasma b) Toxocara
a) The gematocytes appear in blood 4-6 days after a
c) Pulmonary eosinophilia d) Ascaris
sexual phase in p. vivax.
b) The gametocytes appear in blood 10-12 days after 1765. All of the following statements about toxoplasmosis
a sexual Phase in p .. falciparum are true except- (AI 97)
c) The number of gametocytes increases in blood a) Oocyst in freshly passed eat's faeces is infective
with time b) May spread by organ transplantation
d) The number ofgametocytes increases by 1000 times c) Maternal infection acquired after 6 months has
1753. Chronic complication of malaria- (PGI Dec 02) high risk of transmission.
a) Splenomegally b) Nephrotic syndrome d) Arthalgia, sore throat and abdominal pain are the
c) Pneumonia d) Hodgkins's disease most common manifestations
1741)a 1742)b 1743)b,c,d 1744)a,b 1745)a 1746)c,d 1747)b 1748)c 1749)a,c1750)d 175l)c 1752)c 1753)a,b
1754)All 1755)a 1756)c 1757)a 1758)d 1759)d 1760)a 176l)d 1762)a 1763)a 1764)a 1765)a,d
1766. The infective form of toxoplasma gondii is- 7. BALANTIDIUM COLI

a) Oocyst b) Bradycyst (Karn. 94)
c) Tachyzoite d) All of the above 1777. Cyst form is found in- (AIIMS 89)
1767. Route of transmission of toxoplasma- (DNB 09) a) Entamoeba fragilis b)B.Coli
a) Blood b) Feces c) T. vaginalis d) T. Intestinalis
c) Urine d) None
8. CRYPTOSPORIDIUM
1768. Cat is an agent for transmission of the following
disease of man- (AIIMS 82) 1778. True about cryptosporidium parum- (POI 03)
a) Isospora hominis b) Fasciola hepatica a) Affect only in imrilunocompromised patient
c) Toxoplasma gondii d) Chilomastixmensili b) It is one of the common opportunistic infection in
1769. Frenkel's skin test is positive in-(PGI 79,AIIMS 94) AIDS
a) Spinal cord compression c) Cystsize l2-15mm
b) Toxoplasmosis d) AFB (+)ve cyst
c) Pemphigus e) Treatment is metronidazole
d) ·Pemphigoid
1770. All are true regarding Toxoplasmosis, except- 9.BABESIA
a) Subclinical in most cases among adults
1779. True about Babesiosis- (PG/June 03)
b) Intracerebral calcification in children a) Caused by Babesia microti
c) IgM antibody in new born suggests congenital b) Resides in RBC
infection (AIIMS Nov 93) c) Resides in WBC
d) NOT infective in 3n1 trimester in pregnancy d) Chloroquine is the treament of choice
1771. Sabin feldman Dye test is used to demonstrte e) It is filarial parasite
infection with- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1780. Babesiosis is transmitted by- (MP 09)
a) Filaria b) Toxoplasma a) Tick b) Mites
c) Histoplasma d) Ascaris c) Flea d) Mosquito
1772. True about toxoplasmosis is all except- 1781. Maltese cross is characteristic feature of- (AI 09)
a) In adults toxoplasmosis is usually asymptomatic a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) lgG antibodies are diagnostic in Congenital b) Babesia microti
toxoplasmosis (AIIMS Nov OJ) c) Blastomycosis
c) Is a antroponotic disease d) Penicilliummarfeni
d) Encephalitis is uncommon (rare) m
immunocompetent individuals HELMINTHOLOGY
1773. Congenital toxoplasmosis- False is-(AIIMS May I 0)
a) Diagnosed by detection of IgM in cord blood 1. TAENIA
b) IgA is more sensitive than IgM for detection
c) Dye test is gold standard for IgG 1782. Tape worm is found in- (PGI 96)
d) Avidity testing must be done to differentiate a) Stomach b) Liver
c) Ileum and jejunum d) Caecum
between IgA & IgM
1783. Man is both intermediate and definitive host
1774. Toxoplasmosis in the foetus can be best confirmed
for- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
by- (AIIMS02) a) T. Solium b) T.Saginata
a) IgM antibodies against Toxoplasma in the mother c) D. Latum d) Dicroftis hominis
b) lgM antibodies against Toxoplasma in the foetus 1784. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause
c) IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma in the mother which of the following helminthic disease- (AI OJ)
d) IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma in in the foetus a) Tinea saginata b) Tinea solium
1775. Congenital toxoplasmosis false is- (AIIMS May 09) c) Hydatid cyst d) Trichuris trichura
a) IgA is better than IgM in detection 1785. Cysticercosis is caused by- (PGI June 05)
b) Diagnosed by detection of lgM in cord blood a) T. Solium b) T. Saginata
c) IgG is diagnostic c) A. duodenale d) E. Granulosus
d) Not recalled e) E. Multilocularis
1776. True about toxoplasmosis- (PGI Dec 03) 1786. The following regarding cysticercosis are true
a) Due to ingestion of sporocyst with meat except- (PGI 95)
b) Due to ingestion of oocyst from eat's faeces a) Commonest sites are meninges and cerebral ventricle
c) Spiramycin given in pregnancy b) Calcification is common
d) Due to bite of anopheles mosquito c) Causes focal neurological complication
e) Mostly symptomatic d) Found in subcutaneous tissues
1766)a,b l767)a,b 1768)c 1769)b 1770)d 1771)b 1772)b 1773)d 1774)b 1775)c 1776)b,c 1777)b
1778) b,d 1779) a,b 1780) a 1781) b 1782) c 1783) a 1784) b 1785) a 1786) a
178 7. Neurocysticerosis, following are true except - 1800. Hydatid disease is caused by- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Not acquired by eating contamined vegetables a) Echinococcus b) Tapeworm
b) Caused by regurgitation oflarva (PGI 98) c) Ascaris d) Clonorchis
c) Acquired by orofecal route 1801. The following infection resembles malignancy -
d) Acquired by eating pork a) Echinococcus granulosus (JIPMER 2002)
1788. Which ofthe following is the most common location b) E. multilocularis
ofintracranial neurocysticercosis- (AIIMS Nov 05} c) E. vogeli
a) Brain parenchyma b) Subarachnoid space
d) E. oligarthus
c) Spinalcord d)Orbit
1789. Commonest parasite of CNS in India is- (AI 99) 1802. What is malignant hydatid disease- (DNB 09)
a) Schistosomiasis b) Cysticercosis a) Malignant change into hydatid cyst
c) Trichenella-spiralis d) Hydatid cyst b) Infection with E. multilocularis
1790. Which of the following is the most common c) Hydatid disease in immunocompromised host
central nervous system parasitic infection- d) None of the above
a) Echinococcosis b) Sparganosis(A//MS03) 1803. The defmitive host for echinococcous granulosa is-
c) Paragonimiasis d) Neurocysticercosis a) Man b) Sheep (Delhi 09)
1791. The larval form ofTaenia is referred to as - c) Hound d) Dog
a) Cysticercus b) Cysticercoid (Delhi 08)
c) Echinococcus d) Conerus 3. HYMENOLEPSIS NANA
1792. The most commonly affected tissues in
cysticercosis is- (AIIMS 8l,PGI 79) 1804. Dwarf tapeworm refers to- (AIIMS 84)
a) Brain b) Eye a) Echinococcus b) Loa Loa
c) Muscles d) Liver c) Hymenolepsis nana d) Schistosoma mansoni
1793. Spinal cord compression may be caused by- 1805. The egg which of the following parasites consist
a) Cysticercosis (Kerala 94) of polar filaments arising from either end of the
b) Ankylostomiasis ambrophore-
c) Echinoccus Granulosus a) Taenia saginata
d) Visceral larva migrans b) Taenia solium
c) Echinococcus granulosus
2. ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS d) Hymenolepis nana
e) Diphyllobothrium latum
1794. Hydatid disease of liver is caused by- (PGI Dec 01)
a) Strongloides 4. SCHISTOSOMA
b) Echinococcus granulosus
c) Taenia solium 1806. Schistosomajaponicum resides in- (AI 92)
d) Trichinella spiralis a) Vesical Plexus b) Splenic Vein
e) Echinococcus multilocularis c) Systemic Circulation d) Gall bladder
1795. Intermediate host for hydatid disease- 1807. Natural habitat of Schistosoma (blood flukes)-
a) Man b)Dog (AIIMSMay09) a) Veins of the urinary bladder (PGI 80)
c) Cat d) Foxes b) Portal & pelvic veins
1796. Least common site of calcified hydatid cyst c) Vesical plexuses
is- d) All of the above
a) Lung b) Mediastinum 1808. Terminal spined eggs are seen in- (PGI 95)
c) Extraperitoneal site d) Liver a) Schistosoma haematobium
1797. Arc-C-5 in Countercurrent electrophoresis of b) Sch.mansoni
Serum is diagnostic of-
c) Sch.japonicum
a) Cysticercosis b) Cryptococcosis
d) Chlonorchis sinensis
c) Hydatidosis d) Brucellosis
1809. Painless terminal hematuria is seen as one of
1798. Which of the following show regressive
the manifestations in the infection caused by-
metamorphosis- (MH 11)
a) Hydatid cyst b) Cysticercoid a) Schistosoma japonicum (Karnat 96)
c) Cysticercus bovis d) Cysticercus cellulosae b) Schistosoma mansoni
1799. A company executive, who travels world wide, c) Schistosomahaematobium
presents with upper abdominal mass and + ve d) Plasmodium falciparum
casoni's test. The organism is- (AI 2000) 1810. Katayamafeveriscausedby-(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Echinococcus b) Entamoeba histolytica a) F. hepatica b) C. sinensis
c) Hepatitis d) Ascariasis c) S. haematobium d)A.lumbricoides
1787)a,d 1788)a 1789)b 1790)d 1791)a 1792)c 1793)a 1794)b,e 1795)a 1796)a 1797)c 1798)a 1799)a
1800)a 180l)b 1802)b 1803)d 1804)c 1805)d 1806)b 1807)d 1808)a 1809)c 1810)c
1811. Amanonretumfromaconntrycomplainsofpainin 1822. Most common presenting symptom ofthread worm

abdomen, jaundice, with increased alkaline infection amongst the following is- (AI 97)
phosphatase and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. a) Abdominal pain b) Rectal prolapse
USG shows blockage in the biliary tree. What could c) Urticaria d) Vaginitis
bethecause- (AIIMSMay 09)
a) Fasciola buski b) Clonorchis sinensis 8. ASCARIS LUMBRICOIDES
c) Strongyliodes d) Ancylostoma
1823. Ascariasis causes - (MAHE 07)
1812. Which is not a liver fluke- (PGI Nov 10)
a) Appendicitis b) Intestinal obstruction
a) Paragoniomus b) Whipworm c) Bile duct obstruction d) All of the above
c) Clonorchis sinensis d) Gnathostoma spinigerum 1824. Specific diagnosis of ascaris is made by- (PGI Dec
e) Opisthorchis a) Adult worm in stool b) Egg detection 04)
c) Antigen detection d) Antibody detection
5. STRONGYLOIDES e) Skin test
1813. Parasitic intestinal infestation seen in 9. FILARIOIDEA

immunosuppressed patientis- (Del- 85)
a) Giardiasis b) Ascariasis 1825. A child from Bihar comes with fever. Blood
c) Liverfluke d) Schistosomiasis examination shows sheathed microfilaria with nuclei
e) Strongyloides upto tail tip. The diagnosis is- (AI 2000)
1814. Infection with colitis is caused by- (PGI 2000) a) B.malayi b)W. bancrofri
a) Enterobius vermicularis c) Loa loa d) Oncocerca volvulous
b) Trichuris trichura 1826. All of the following are true about Brugia malayi
c) Strongyloides except- (AI 95)
d) Clonorchis a) The intermediate hosts in India are Mansoni
1815. The cause oflarva currens- (TN 09) b) The tail tip is free from nuclei
a) Strongyloides stercoralis c) Nuclei are blurred, so counting is difficult
b) Necator americanus d) Adult worm is found in the lymphatic system
c) Ankylostoma duodonale 1827. Sheathed microfilaria is/are- (PGI Dec 04)
d) ,H. nana a) W. bancrofti b)Loa-loa
c) M. perstans d) B. malayi
&.HOOKWORM 1828. Wucheria bancrofti, true is -(NEET/DNB Pattern)
a) Unsheathed b) Tail tip free from nuclei
1816. Ankylostoma enters the humfln body by-(Kerala 09) c) Non-periodic d)All
a) Ingestion b) Inhalation 1829. Lymphatic filariasis caused by- (PGINov 10)
c) Penetration of skin d) Inoculation a) W. bancrofti b)Brugiamalayi
c) Schistosoma d) B. timori
1817. Habitatof hookworm is- (Kerala 94)
e) Onchocera volvulus
a) Jejunum b)ileum
1830. Which is non lymphatic filarisis-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Colon d) Duodenum
a) Loa loa b) Wucheria bancrofti
1818. The hookworm thrives on- (PGI 86)
c) Brugia malai d) Brugia timori
a) Whole blood b) Plasma
1831. The organism most commonly causing genital
c) Serum d) RBC filariasis in most part of Bihar and easteran U.P. is-
1819. The average blood loss in ankylostomiasis per a) Wuchereria bancrofti (AI 03)
worm is- (PGI 79) b) Brugia malayi
a) 0.2 ml/day b) 2 ml/day c) Onchocerca volvulus
c) 0.33 mllday d) 1 ml/day d) Dirofilaria
1820. ffighest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to- 1832. Which is false about Wuchereria bancrofti-
a) Hookworm b)ThreadWorm (TN97) a) Causes filariasis (AI 90)
c) Ascaris d) Guinea worm b) Body is long and slender
c) Terminal nuclei absent
7. ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS d) Man and anopheles are host
1833. False regarding filariasis is- (AIIMS Nov 93)
1821. Seatwormis- {AIIMS 80, 84) a) Morbidity increase with age in endemic areas
a) Enterobius b) Dracunculus b) Humoral immunity plays dominant role
c) Ankylostoma d) Necator c) Usually unilateral
d) Man is the only host for filariasis
18ll)b 1812)a,b,d 18l3)e 1814)c 1815)a 1816)c 1817)a>d>b 1818)b 1819)a 1820)a 1821)a 1822)a
1823)d 1824)a,b,d 1825)a 1826)b 1827)a,b,d 1828)b 1829)a,b,d 1830)a 1831)a 1832)d 1833)b,d
1834. In which stage of filariasis are microftlaria seen in 1844. Definitive host for Guinea worm is- (JIPMER 93)
peripheral blood- (AI OJ) a) Man b) Cyclops
a) Tropical eosinophilia c) Snail d) Cyclops & man
b) Early adenolymphangitis stage 1845. Cycolps are intermediate hosts for- (Kerala 95)
c) Late adenolymphangitis stage a) Kalaazar
d) Elephantiasis b) Schistosomiasis
1835. All are TRUE regarding filariasis except- c) Dracunculus medinensis
a) Man is an intermediate host. (AIIMS Feb 97) d) Teniasis
b) Caused by wuchereria bancrofti
c) Involves lymphatic system 12. LARVA MIGRANS
d) DEC is used in treatment
1836. Meyers Kouwenaar syndrome is a synonym for- 1846. Cutaneous larva migrans is due to- (AI 88)
a) Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (PGI 88) a) Ankylostoma braziliensis
b) Larva migrans b) W.bancrofti
c) Occult filariasis c) B. Malayi
d) Cutaneous allergic reactions to Ascariasis d) D. medinensis
1837. Which is not a featnre oftropical eosinophilia- 1847. Viscerallarva migrans is associated with- (AI 11)
a) Eosinophila more than 3000/mm3 a) Strongyloids stereoalis
b) Micro filariae in tissues b) Ankylostoma brazilensis
c) Microfilariae in blood c) Toxocara canis
d) Lymphadenopathy d) Visceral leishmaniasis
1838. Calabar swelling is produced by-
.a) Onchocerca volvulus b) Loa loa MISCELLANEOUS
c) Burgia malayi d) Wuchereria bancrofti
1839. KaDu a30year old man, presented with subcutaneous 1848. Second intermediate host of Dichyllobothrium
itchy nodules over the left iliac crest. On latum is - (PGI 86)
examination they are firm, non tender and mobile. a) Cycolps b) Man
Skin scrapping contains microfilaria and adults c) Snail d) Fresh water fish
worms of- (AIIMS May OJ) 1849. 24 Year old AIDS pt. develops chronic abdominal
a) Loa Loa b) Onchocerca volvulus pain, low grade fever, diarrhoea, malabsorption.
c) Brugiamalayi d) Mansonella persutans Oocysts demonstrated in stool. Likely cause of
his diarrhoea is- (HP 2006)
10. TRICHURIS TRICHURA a) E. histolytica b) G Iamblia
c) Microsporidia d) Isospora belli
1840. Chronic dysentery, abdominal pain, and rectal 1850. HIV ptwith malabsotion, fever, chronic diarrhoea,
prolapse in children is caused by- (UP 07) with acid fast positive organism. What is the
a) Enterobius vermicularis causative agent? (AIIMS May J0)
b) Ascariasis a) Giardia b) Microsporidia
c) Trichuris trichura c) Isospora d) E. histolytica
d) Trichinella spiralis 1851. Which of the following is true with microsporidia-
a) It is fungus (PGI Dec 05)
11. DRACUNCULUS MEDINENSIS b) It is a protozoa
c) It is a bacteria
1841. Dracunculosis infection occurs through- d) It is associated with diarrhoea in HIV
a) Ingestion of water containing cyclops(Kerala 94) 1852. Definitive host is one- (PGI 2K)
b) Ingestion of water containing the parasite a) In which sexual multiplication takes place
c) Ingestion offish b) In which asexual multiplication takes place
d) Penetration of skin c) Harbors adult form
1842. Dragonorserpentwormis- (AIIMS OJ) d) Harbors larval form
a) Enterobius b) Trichuris 1853. Man is the definitive hostfor- (PGI June 05)
c) Dracunculus d) T. Solium a) E. granulosus b) T. Solium
1843. Tbe slender rbabditiform larvae of which of the c) T. Saginata d) T. Cannis
following helminths move about in water and are e) E. Multilocularis
ingested by species of cyclops - (MAHE 05) 1854. Man is secondary host for- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) D.latum b)D.medinensis a) Malaria b) Tuberculois
c) W.bancrofti d) S. mansoni c) Filariasis d) Relapsing fever
1834)b 1835)a 1836)c l837)c 1838)b 1839)b 1840)c 1841)a 1842)c 1843)b 1844)a 1845)c 1846)a 1847)c
1848)d 1849)d 1850)c 1851)b,d 1852)a,c 1853)b,c 1854)a
1855. Fish acts as intermediate host in- (PGI June 04) 1868. The egg of which helminth can be concentrated in
a) D.latum b) Clonorchis sinensis saturated salt solution- (AIIMS May 93)
c) H. Diminuta d) H. Nana a) Taenia saginata
1856. Nottransmittedbyfish- (AIIMS Nov 93) b) Taenia solium
a) Paragonimus westermanii c) Unfertilized egg ofAscaris
b) Clonorchis sinensis d) Ancylostoma duodenale
c) Diphyllobothrium latum 1869. In formal ether concentration technique, which layer
contain parasites- (MH 11)
d) Schistosoma japonicum
a) Ether b) Fecal debris
1857. Man is a definitive host of which parasite-
c) Formal water d) Sediment
a) Malaria b)Filaria (HPU 05) 1870. Larva found in muscle is- (Al/MS Dec 98)
c) Measles d) Tapeworm a) Trichinella spiralis
1858. Man is a definitive host for- (KERALA 2K) b) Ankylostoma duodenale
a) Echinococcos b) Malaria c) Trichuris trichura
c) Filariasis d) Rabies d) Enterobius vermicularis
e) Leishmaniasis 1871. Larval form of which parasite resides in
1859. Which of the following parasite does not enter into muscle- (AIIMS Dec 94)
the body by skin penetration- (AIIMS Dec 97) a) Taenia saginata b) Echinococcus
a) Dracunculus b) Necatar americanus c) Trichinella d) All of the above
c) Ancylostoma duodenale d) Stronglyoides 1872. In which parasitic infestation sputum examination
1860. Parasites penetrating through skin for entry into is not ofmuch value- (AHMS Sept 96)
thebodyare- {PGIJune01) a) Trichuris trichura
a) Ankylostoma duodenale b) Strongyloides b) Strongyloides
c) Round worm d) Trichuris trichura c) Ancyclostoma duodenale
d) Paragonimus Westermanii
1861. Autoinfection is seen with- (AIIMS Nov 01)
1873. Sputum examination is not useful in diagnosis
a) Ankylostoma b) Enterobius
of- (AI 98)
c) Echinococcus d) Ascariasis a) Trichuris trichura b) Ank:. duodenale
1862. Autoinfection is seen with- (AIIMS May 09) c) Paragomniasis d) Strongyloides
a) Cryptosporodium b) Strongyloides 1874. Which one of the following doest not pass through
c) Giardia d) Gnathostoma the lungs - (AI 96)
1863. Autoinfection is a mode of transmission in- (AI 2K) a) Hookworm b) Ascaris
a) Trichinella b) Cycticercosis c) Strongyloides d) Enterobius Vermicularis
c) Ancylostoma d) Ascaris 1875. Parasites causing lung infestation are-
1864. Autoinfection is seen with- (A.P 97) a) H. nana {PGI Dec 03)
a) Trichuris trichura b) Ankylostoma duodenale b) Paragonimus westermanii
c) Ascaris d) Enterobius c) Taenia saginata
1865. On microscopic examination eggs are seen, but on d) E. granulosus
saturation with salt solution. no eggs are seen, The e) E. multilocularis
eggs are likely to be of- (AIIMS Nov 99) 1876. Which of the following is NOT responsible for
a) Trichuris trichura pulmonary eosinophilia- (AIIMS Dec 94)
b) Tenia solium a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Paragonimus westermanii
c) Ascaris lumbricoides
c) Wuchereria bancrofti
d) Ancylostoma duodenale d) Babesia microti
1866. All float in a saturated salt solution except- 1877. Pulmonary eosinophilia is seen in the following
a) Clonorchis sinensis (AIIMS May 95) parasiticinfectionsexcept- (AI 2000)
b) Fertilised eggs of ascaris a) Babesiosis b) Hookworm infection
c) Larva ofstrongyloids c) Strongyloidiasis d) Viscerallarvamigrans
d) Trichuris trichura 1878. Parasite causing pulmonary eosinophilia
1867. Saturated salt solution concentrates eggs of all, syndrome- (PGI 98)
except- (AIIMS Dec 95) a) Strongyloides b) Enterobiasis
a) Unfertilized egg of ascaris c) Hookworm d) Trichinella
b) Trichuris 1879. Which organism can be isolated from stool &
c) Hymenolepis nana sputum- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Echinococcus granulosus a) Paragnomus b) Fasciola
c) Chlornchis d) P. carini
1855)a,b 1856)d>a 1857)b,d 1858)c,e 1859)a 1860)a,b 1861)b 1862)b 1863)b 1864)d 1865)b 1866)a,c
1867)a 1868)d 1869)d 1870)a 1871)d 1872)a 1873)a 1874)d 1875)b,d 1876)d 1877)a 1878)a,c 1879)a
1880. All are inhabitants of Liver except- (AI 94) 1894. Which of the following parastie passes through
a) F. hepatica b) F. buski three hosts- (UP 09)
c) Clonorchis sinensis d) Opisthorchis felincus a) Fasciola hepatica b) Fasciola buski
1881. Liver is the target organ for- (AIIMS June 97) c) Schistosoma haematobium d) Clonorchis sinensis
a) Fasciola buski 1895. Water host required for schistosomiasis-
b) Paragonimus westermani
a) Fish b) Cyclops (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Clonorchis sinenses
d) Schistosoma Haematobium c) Snails d) Crabs
1882. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite- 1896. Schistosomiasis is transmitted by-
a) Taeniasolium b)Acantarnoeba (A/05) a) Cyclops b) Fish (NEET/DNB Pattern)
c) Naegleria d) Trichinella spiralis c) Snaile d) Cattle
1883. Parasitic Encephalitis is caused by- (PGI Dec 05) 1897. Crab is the intermediate host for-
a) Naegleria b) Acanthamoeba a) Clonorchis sinensis (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Balarnuthia d) Gnathostoma b) Paragonimus westermani
1884. Skin snip is used in the diagnosis of- (JIPMER 02) c) Fasciola hepatia
a) Trichinosis b) Strongyloidosis d) Schistosoma hematobium
c) Schistosomiasis d) Onchocerciasis 1898. Dogs are responsible for transmission of all the
1885. Larval form in stool is found in- following except- (JIPMER 2000)
a) Strongyloides (PGI May JO, Dec OJ)
a) Hydatid disease b) Toxoplasmosis
b) Ancylostoma duodenale
c) Kala-azar d) Toxocara canis
c) Ascaris lumbricoides
1899. All of the following disease may be acquired by
d) Necator americanus
e) Trichura ingestion except- (AI 94)
1886. Which of the following is detected in peripheral blood a) Taeniasis b) Guinea worm
smear- (PGI Dec 04) c) Toxoplasmosis d) Leishmaniasis
a) Malaria b) Toxoplasma 1900. Which if the following diseases is transmitted by
c) Babesia d) Brucella egg ingestion- (AI 95)
e) Filaria a) Taeniasis b) Trichinosis
1887. Microcytic hypochromic anemia found in infestation c) Hydatidosis d) Strongyloidosis
of- (PGI June 06) 1901. Cercariae are infective form of- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Ancylostoma b) Ascaris a) S. hematobium b) P. westermanii
c) Necator d) Diphyllobothrium c) F. hepatica d) T. solium
1888. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by- 1902. Pancreatic Ca is caused by- (AI OJ)
a) Diphyllobothrium latum (AIIMS Dec 95) a) Fasciola b) Clonorchis
b) Schistosoma hematobium c) Paragonimus d) None
c) Echinococcus granulosus 1903. Cholangiocarcinoma is caused by- (PGI June 02)
d) Taenia solium a) Fasciola infestation
1889. Rhabditiform larvae in freshly passed stools are seen b) Clonorchis infestation
with- (Maharashtra JO) c) Paragonimus infestation
a) Toxoplasma b) Trichuris d) Ascaris infestation
c) Ankylostom d) Srongyloides e) None of these
1890. Which egg does not float in a saturated solution of 1904. Causes of biliary tract carcinoma after ingesting
saline? (DPG JO) infected fish- (AIIMS Nov 10)
a) Ankylostoma eggs a) Grathostoma
b) Trichuris eggs b) Angiostrongylus cantonens
c) Unfertilized eggs of ascaris c) Clonorchis sinesis
d) Fertilized eggs of ascaris d) H. dimunata
1891. Simple life cycle requires- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1905. Which of the following does not cause biliary tract
a) One host b) Two host
obstruction? (AI 08)
c) Three host d) Four host
a) Ascaris lumbricoides
1892. Simple life cycle is seen in - (PGI dec 06)
a) Ascaris b) T. solium b) Ankylostoma duodenale
c) Toxoplasma d) Giardia c) Clonorchis sinensis
e) Schistosoma d) Fasciolahepatia
1893. Two hosts are required in- (PGI dec 02) 1906. Which of the following may cause biliary
a) T. solium b) E. histolytioca obstruction- (AI JO)
c) T. saginata d) Giardia a) Ancylostoma b) Entrobius
e) Toxoplasma c) Strongyloides d) Clonorchis
1880)b 188l)c 1882)d 1883)All 1884)d 1885)a,b,d 1886)a,b,c,e 1887)a,c 1888)a 1889)d 1890)c 1891)a
1892)a,c 1893)a,c,e 1894)d 1895)c 1896)c 1897)b 1898)b 1899)d 1900)c>a 1901)a 1902)b 1903)a,b
1904)c 1905)b 1906)d
1907. Pigs are reservoir for- (AI 2000) 1921. Which worm is longest- (HPU 2001)
a) T. Solium b) T. Saginata a) T. solium b) T. saginata
c) Trichinella spiralis d) Ancyclostoma c) Hook worm d) A. Lumbricoides
1908. The largest trematode infecting man is- (AI 96) 1922. Respiratory symptoms are associated with-
a) F. hepatica b) F. buski a) Rocky mountain spotted fever (MAHE 98)
c) E. Granulosus d) Clonorchis sinensis b) Strongyloides
1909. Which worm is longest- (SGPGI 09) c) T.Solium
a) T. solium b) T. saginata d) Onchocerca
c) Hookwonn d)A.lumbricoides 1923. Filariform larva is infective in- (MH 11)
1910. Largest intestinal protozoa is- (NEETIDNB Pattern) a) Enterobius vermicularis b) Ascaris lumbricoides
a) E. coli b) Balantidium coli c) Necator americanus d) Trichuris trichura
c) Giardia d) T. gondii
1911. All canse malabsorption except -(AIIMS May1 0,09) ARTHROPOD BORN DISEASES
a) Giardiasis b) Ascaris lumbricoides
c) Strongyloides d) Capillaria phillipinesis 1924. Reduviid bug is a vector for the transmission
1912. 25 years old male presented with diarrhea for of- (AIIMS 05)
6 months. On examination the causative agent a) Relapsing fever b) Lyme's disease
was found to be acid fast with 12 micro meter c) Scrub typhus d) Chaga's disease
diameter. The most likely agent is- (AIL'v!S May 09) 1925. Culex mosquito is associated with the transmission
a) Cryptosporidium b) Isospora of- (PGI Dec 01)
c) Cyclospora d) Giardia a) Malaria b) Filariasis
1913. Which of the following is viviparous- (SGPGI 05) c) Dengue d) Japanese encephalitis
a) Strongyloidis stercoralis b) Trichinella spiralis e) Typhus
c) Enterobius d) Ascaris 1926. Aedes aegypticus transmits- (PGJ June 04)
1914. All are intracellular parasites, except- (Orissa 08) a) JE b)K.FD
a) Leishmania b) Plasmodium c) Yellow fever d) Filaria
c) Toxoplasma d) None of these e) Dengue
1915. A 7 year old presented with intermittent abdominal 1927. Which of the following is not transmitted by lice-
cramps, loose stool and on stool examination eggs of a) Q fever (AIIMS Nov 06)
size 100 mare seen, which is not the cause- b) Trench fever
a) Fasciola gigantica (AIIMSNov 09) c) Relapsing fever
b) Echinostoma iliocanum d) Epidemic typhus
c) Gastrodiscoides hominis 1928. Vector for Kala-azar- (AIIMS Nov 07)
d) Opisthorcis viverni a) Flea b) Tsetse fly
1916. Which of the following is toxic to parasite - c) Sandfly d) Tick
a) Peroxidase (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Interferon MYCOLOGY
c) IL-2
d) JL.6 GENERAL PROPERTIES OF FUNGUS
1917. Hanging drop method is used for- (NEETIDNB
a) T. trichomonas b) Plasmodium Pattern) 1929. Fungi are- (AI 92)
c) Toxoplasma d) Cryptosporidium a) Prokaryotes b) Eukaryotes
1918. Which of the following parastites is uncommon in c) Plant d)Animals
india- (AP 97) 1930. The fungi which do not have sexual phase belong
a) Pinworm b) Schistosoma to which of the following groups- (PGI 94, 96, 97)
c) Hookworm d) Roundworm a) Phycomycetes b) Fungi Imperfecti
1919. Most common nematode in south India is -(DPG 10, c) Basidiomycetes d) Asomycetes
a) Brugia timori Kerla 09) 1931. Aseptate hyphae are seen in -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Brugia malayi a) Phycomycetes b) Ascomycetes
c) Onchocerca volvulus c) Basidiomycetes d) Deutromycetes
d) Wuchereria bancrofti 1932. Which ofthe following is produced sexually-
1920. Which ofthe following organism is biggest- a) Ascospore b)Conidium (AIIMS81)
a) Balantidiumcoli (JIPMER 93) c) Oidium d) Yeast buds
b) Entamoebacoli 1933. A sporangium contains- (AIIMS 02)
c) Escherichia coli a) Spherules b) Sporangiospores
d) Entamoeba histolytica c) Chlamydospores d) Conidia
1907)a,c 1908)b 1909)a 1910)b 191l)b 1912)c 1913)b 1914)d 1915)d 1916)a 1917)a 1918)b 1919)b
1920)a 192l)b 1922)a,b 1923)c 1924)d 1925)b,d 1926)c,d,e 1927)a 1928)c 1929)b 1930)b 1931)a 1932)a
1933)b
1934. Fungalsporesmaybeproduced- (AII.MS 02) 1944. The culture media for fungus is- (PGI 94)
a) Singly b) In chains a) Tellurite medium b) NNN medium
c) In sporangium d) All of the above c) Chocolate agar medium d) Sabourauds medium
1935. Budding reproduction in tissue is seen in- 1945. Stain used for staining fungal elements-
a) Cryptococcus, candida (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Acid fast stain {All.MS Nov 09)
b) Candida, rhizopus b) Mucicarcmine
c) Rhizopus, mucor c) Methanamine silver
d) Histoplasma, candida d) Gram stain
1936. All the following are yeast like fungi except- 1946. Which dye is most suitable for fungus demonstration
a) Candida b) Geotrichum (AJIMS 97) in biopsy- (All.MS Nov 06)
c) Cryptococcus d) Trichophyton a) Alizarin red b) Veirhoff dye
1937. Which of the following is only yeast - c) Mason's trichome d) PAS
a) Candida (NEETIDNB Pattern) 1947. Correctly matched stain- (PGI June 06)
b) Mucor a) Mucicarmine- Cryptococcus
c) Rhizopus b) Giemsa-Candida
d) Cryptococcus c) Methanamine silver Histoplasma
1938. All are yeast like fungus except- (AIIMS Feb 97) d) Gram's - Pneumocystis carinii
a) Cryptococcus b) Candida 1948. Which ofthe following fungi is/are difficult to isolate
c) Trichophyton d) None of the above culture- (PGI Dec 03)
1939. In mv infected individual Gram stain oflung aspirate a) Candida
shows yeast like morphology. AU of the following b) Dermatophytes
are the most likely diagnosis except- c) Cryptococcus
a) Candida tropicalis (AJI.MS Nov 05) d) Malassezia furfur
b) Cryptococcus neoformans e) Coccoidiodomycosis
c) Pencilliummameffi 1949. Which organism cannot be cultured -(PGI Nov 10,
d) Aspergillus fumigates a) Klebsiellarhinoscleromatis June 07)
1940. A 25 years old female complains of recurrent b) Klebsiella ozaenae
rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal c) Klebsiella granulomatis
blockage since one year. She has history of asthma d) Pneumocystis jiroveci
and allergy. On examination multiple ethmoidal e) Rhinosporidium seeberi
polyps are noted with mucosal thickening and 1950. Which organism cannot be cultured in cell free
impacted secretions in both the nasal cavities. media- (PGI Nov 11)
Biopsy is taken and the material is cultured a) Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
which shown the growth of many hyphae and b) Klebsiella ozaenae
pseudohyphaewith dichotomous branching typically c) Treponema pallidum
at 45•. Which of the following is the most likely d) Pnemocystis jiroveci
responsible organism? (AI 10) e) Rhinosporidium seeberi
a) Aspergillus fumigatus b) Rhizopus 1951. Fungus not cultivable usually- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Mucor d) Candida a) Rhinosporidium b) Cryptococcus
1941. A diabetic patient present with bloody nasal c) Dermatophytes d) Histoplasma
discharge, orbital swelling and pain. Culture of 1952. Wood's light can be used for evaluation of-
periorbital pus showed branching septate hyphae. a) Tinea capitis b) Freckles (PG!June 02)
Which of the following is the most probable c) Vitiligo d) Tuberous sclerosis
organism involved- (AI 10) 1953. Wood's Lamp used in- (PGI Nov I 0, June 06)
a) Mucor b) Candida a) Tinea pedis
c) Aspergillus d) Rhizopus b) Pityriasis versicolor
1942. Gram stained periorbital exudates in severe c) Sporotrichosis
panophthalmitis with cellulitis in an elderly diabetic 1954. Which ofthe following is a nonculturalable fungus-
shows irregular branching aseptate and broad hyphae. a) Rhinosporidium b) Candida (MANIPAL OJ)
Which oftbe following is the most likely diagnosis- c) Sporothrix d) Penicillium
a) Candida (AI 12) 1955. Not be cultured in Sabouraund's agar- {MAHE 07)
b) Aspergillus a) Blastomyces b) Coccidiodes
c) Pencillium c) Sporotrichum d) Rhinosporidium seeberi
d) Apophysomyces species 1956. Dimorphic fungus- (PGI Dec 02)
1943. Aseptate hyphae is not seen in -(NEETIDNB Pattern} a) Candida b) Cryptococcus
a) Rhizopus b) Mucor c) Blastomycosis d) Coccidioidomycosis
c) Aspergillus d) None e) Sporotrichosis
1934)d 1935)a 1936)d 1937)d 1938)c 1939)d 1940)a 194l)c 1942)d 1943)c 1944)d 1945)c 1946)d 1947)~,c
1948)d 1949)d.e 1950)c,d.e 195l)a 1952)All 1953)b 1954)a 1955)d 1956)a,c,d,e
1957. All are dimorphic fungi except- (AIIMS May 09) 1967. Dermatophytoses in caused by- (Delhi 02)
a) Blastomyces dermatitidis b) Histoplasma a) Herpes simplex b) Papilloma virus
c) Pencillium mameffi d) Phialopora c) Trichophyton d) Candida
1958. Dimorphic fungus- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 1968. Trichophyton species can infect- (Karn 94)
a) Candida b) Hisplasma a) Skin, hair and nail b) Skin and nail
c) Rhizopus d) Mucor c) Hair and nail d) Skin and hair
1959. The following fungi are thennally dimorphic except- 1969. The organism that does not affects hair-
a) Sporothrix schenkii (AIIMS Nov 03, AI 97,
a) Trichophyton rubrum (APPGE 05)
b) Epidermophyton floccosum
b) Cryptococcus neoformans NEETIDNB Pattern) c) Microsporum
c) Blastomyces dermatitidis d) All
d) Histoplasma capsulatum 1970. WhichoneofthefollowingfungusdoesNOTinfecthair?
1960. Dimorphic fungi are all except- (UPSC 97, AI 91) a) Epidermophyton b) Microsporum (Karn 11)
a) Coccidioidomycosis b) Blastomycosis c) Trichophyton d) Trichosporon
c) Candida d) Histoplasma 1971. Tinea Capitis is caused by all except- (JIPMER 97)
e) Sporothrix schenckii a) Epidermophyton b) Microsporum
1961. Whichofthefollowingisadimorphicfungi-(Jprnerll) c) T. Violaceum d) T. Schoenleinii
a) Rhizopus b) Sporothrix schenckii 1972. The causative agent of Favus is - (Corned 08)
c) Tinea versicolor d) Microsporum a) Microsporum audounii
1962. The medium of choice for culturing yeast form of b) Microsporum canis
dimorphic fungi is- (DNB 89) c) Trichophyton mentagrophyte
a) Brain-heart infusion d) Trichophyton schoenleinii
b) Sabouraud's 1973. Tinea pedis is caused by which of the following-
c) Sabouraud's plus antibiotics a) E. floccosum b) M.furfur (MAHA 05)
d) Any medium incubated at 35-37°C c) M.canis d) E.wemeckii
1963. Systemic fungal infections can be caused by the 197 4. Keroin is caused by- (PGI 98)
following- (AIIMS 85) a) Candida b) Streptococcus
a) Cryptococcus neoformans c) Dermatophytes d) Herpes
b) Histoplasma capsulatum 1975. Black dot ring worm is caused by- (UPSC 04)
c) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis a) Microsporum b) Trichophyton
d) Naegleria fowleri c) Epidermophyton d) Candida
e) Isospora berilli 1976. T. capitis (endothrix) is caused by- (PGI Dec 2000)
a) Epidermophyton b) T.tonsurans
DERMATOPHYTES c) T.violaceum d) Microsporum
e) T.rubrum
1964. Dermatophytesinfecting- (Delhi 89, 93) 1977. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by- (NEETIDNB
a) Subcutaneous tissue a) E. floccosum b) M. gypseum Pattern)
b) Systemic organs c) M. furfur d) T. tansurans
c) Nails, hair and skin 1978. Selenium sulfide is indicated for treating -
d) Superficial skin and deep tissue a) Tinea versicolor (Corned 08)
1965. Which of the following infects hair, skin and b) Tinea corporis
nails- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Mixed mycotic infections
a) Trichosporum b) Trichophyton d) Candidiasis only
c) Microsporum d) Epidermophyton 1979. Trichophyton species which is zoophilic -
a) T. tonsurans (NEETIDNB Pattern)
1966. A patient made a self-diagnosis of athlete's foot (tinea
b) T. violaceum
pedis) and began using a product advertised on
c) T. schoenleinii
television. The condition improved but did not clear
d) T. mentagrophytes
and then the patient showed himself to a
1980. Tinea cruris is caused by- (PGI 97)
Dermatologist. A skin scraping was sent to the a) Epidermophyton b) Trichophyton
laboratory for culture, including culture for fungi. c) Microsporum d) Candida
The fungal culture yielded a slow growing colony, 1981. Which of the following does not produces
which produced a few small microconidia. This is dermatophytosis in India- (PGI Dec 04)
consistent with isolation of a dermatophyte of the a) Trichophyton rubrum
genera- (AIIMS Nov 03) b) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
a) Trichophyton b) Microsporum c) Microsporidium distortum
c) Epidermophyton d) Trichosporon d) Epidermophyton floccosum
1957)d 1958)b>a 1959)b 1960)None 1961)b 1962)c 1963)a,b,c 1964)c 1965)b 1966)a 1967)c 1968)a
1969)b 1970)a 1971)a 1972)d 1973)a 1974)c 1975)b 1976)b,c 1977)c 1978)a 1979)d 1980)a,b 198l)c
1982. Which of the following is spread from animals to 1994. Which of the following is false about mycetoma-
man- (Al92) a) Can affect lower and upper extremities (Al9 5)
a) T. rubrum b) T. tonsurans b) Caused by actinomycetes and filamentous fungi
c) E. floccosum d) T. verrucosum c) Diagnosis is by examination of pus
1983. Hair perforation test is positive in infection d) Uncommon in India
with- 1995. Which ofthe following organisms is implicated in
a) Trichophyton b) Microsporum the causation of botryomycosis- (PGI Dec 0 1)
c) Epidermophyton d) All of the above a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Staphylococcus albus
MYCETOMA c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Streptococcus pneumonia
1984. A farmer has an nicer on leg with indurated margin e) Streptococcus pyogenes
and mnitiple sinuses with discharging grannies. The 1996. A farmer presents with mnitiple dicharging sinuses
likely diagnosis is - (AJIMS Dec 94) in the leg not responding to antibiotics. Most likely
a) Mycetoma b) Scrofuloderma diagnosis is- (AJIMS May 02)
c) Lupus vulgaris d) Actinomycosis a) Madurella b)Actino-mycetoma
1985. Mycetoma is caused by the following agents except- c) Nocardia d) Sporothrix
a) Allescheria boydii ( Comed 08) 1997. Discharging sinus is seen in- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
b) Madurella mycetomii a) Sporotrichosis b) Cryptococcosis
c) Trichosporum beigelli c) Histoplasmosis d) Mycetoma
d) Nocardia asteroides 1998. Trueaboutmaduramycetoma- (PGIJune05)
1986. All of the following cause sulfur granules a) Fungal infection
except- (AMU 05) b) Presented as non-painful nodular lesion for many
a) Chromoblastomycosis months
b) Botryomycosis
c) Discharging sinus
c) Mycetoma
d) Bone involvement seen
d) Actinomycosis
1987. Sulphur granules are composed of- (J & K 2001)
CANDIDA
a) Organisms b) Leucocytes
c) Erythrocytes d) Keratinocytes
1999. True about Candida albicans is- (AIIMS May 94)
1988. The causative organism in Madura Mycosis
a) Candida is pathogenic to mice
Mycetomais- (AI 96)
a) Nocardia b) Dimorphic fungus b) It's growth is inhibited by Griseofulvin
c) Aspergillus d) Dermatophytes c) Candida shows mycelia and chlamydospores on
1989. Mycetoma foot can be caused by following- com meal agar
a) Cladosporium (PGI May 10) d) Candida is present in normal feces
b) Phialophora jeanselmei 2000. Renauld Braud phenomenon is seen in -
c) Madurella mycetomi a) Candida albicans (NEETIDNB Pattern)
d) Allescheria boydii b) Candida pscitasi
1990. Actinomycetomaiscausedby- (PGI Dec 05) c) Histoplasma
a) Actinomyces b) Nocardias d) Cryptococcus
c) Streptomyces d) Madura mycosis 2001. The following is not true of candida albicans -
1991. The most common cause of mycetoma in India- a) Yeast like fungus (Al92)
a) Nocardia braziliensis (PGI 97) b) Forms chlamydospores
b) Actinomadura madurae c) Blastomeres seen in isolates
c) Piedra d) Causes meningitis in immunocompromised
d) Tinea cruris 2002. Candida albicans causes all oftbe following except-
1992. The granules discharged in mycetoma contains- a) Endocarditis b)Mycetoma (Al95)
a) Bone specnies (AIIMS May 02) c) Meningitis d) Oral thrush
b) Fungal colonies 2003. Which fungal infection is commonest in neutropenia-
c) Pus cells a) Candida (AIIMS 99)
d) Inflammatory cells b) Histoplasma
1993. True about mycetoma- (PGI Dec 08, 04) c) Aspergillus niger
a) Commonly occurs in hands d) Aspergillus fumigatus
b) Commonly erodes bone 2004. M.C. fungal infection in febrile neutropenia is-
c) Drains through lymphatics a) Aspergillus niger b) Candida (Al01)
d) Antibiotics has no role c) Mucormycosis d) Aspergillus fumigatus
1982)d 1983)a 1984)a 1985)c 1986)a 1987)a 1988)a 1989)b,c,d 1990)a,b,c 1991)b 1992)b 1993)b 1994)cl
1995)a 19%)a 1997)d 1998)All 1999)d,c 2000)a 200l)c 2002)b 2003)a 2004)b
2005. Candida infection is predisposed by all, except- 2016. Which is false regarding cryptococcus neoformans-
a) Menstruation (AIIMS Sept 96) a) Growsat5°Cand37°C (AI95)
b) Diabetes b) It has 4 serotypes
c) Minipill users c) Urease negative
d) Combined pill users d) Causes superficial skin infection
2006. A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic 2017. All are true about cryptococcus except -(APPGE 04)
endophthalmitis on culture yields Gram-positive a) Polysaccharide capsule
round to oval cells, 12-14 m in size. The aspirate on b) Reproduces by budding
Gram staining shows the presence ofpseudohyphae. c) Pseudohyphae
Which of the following is the most likely aetiological d) Mycelium have a narrow base
agent? (AI 06)
2018. Which is not true of cryptococcus neoformans-
a) Aspergillus b) Rhizopus
a) Grows at 37°c (JIPMER 92)
c) Candida d) Fusarium
b) Grows on sabourauds agar
2007. A IDV positive female presents with an indurated
ulcer over the tongue. Laboratory findings show c) Polysaccharide capsule
growth in cornmeal agar at 20 degree celcius, d) Urease negative
microscopy showing hyphae and growth in human 2019. Most fulminant fungal meningitis is caused by-
serum at 37 degree celcius show budding yeasts. a) Coccidioides b) Histoplasma (AP OJ)
The probable cause is- (AIIMS May OJ) c) Cryptococcus d) Mucormycosis
a) Candida albicans b) Histoplasmosis 2020. Phagocytosis of C.neoformans is inhibited by-
c) Blastomycosis d) Coccidioidomycosis a) Cryptococcal capsular material (PGI 83)
2008. Candida is most often implicated in causation -(Delhi b) The size of the yeast cells
a) Conjunctivitis b) Tinea capitis 9 3) c) The cells walls
c) Desert rheumatism d) Thrush d) Toxins produced by the organism
2009. Germ tube test is used in diagnosis for- (Kama 09) 2021. Cryptococcus is least likely to cause infection of-
a) Candida albicans b) Cryptococcus a) Skin b)Bone (AI 95)
c) Histoplasma d) Coccidiomycosis c) Brain d) Kidney
2010. Candidiasis is associated with all except-(Kerala 09) 2022. Cryptococcus has predilection for- (PGI 98)
a) OCPuser b)IUCDuser a) Lungs b) Meninges
c) Diabetes d) Pregnancy c) Liver d) GIT
2023. Cryptococcal meningitis is common in- (PGI 2000)
CRYPTOCOCCUS a) Renal transplant recipient
b) Agammaglobulinemia
2011. All are true regarding cryptococcal infection, except c) Neutropenia
a) Occurs in immunodeficient states -(A/IMS Sep 96) d) IgA deficiency
b) Capsular antigen in CSF is a rapid method of 2024. The most common organism amongst the following
detection that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patient is -
c) Anticapsular antibody is protective a) Streptococcus pneumoniae (AI 05)
d) Urease +ve b) Streptococcus agalactiae
2012. TRUE about cryptococcus neoformans is all except- c) Cryptococcus neoformans
a) Anticapsular antigen is detected in C.S.F. (AI 98) d) Listeria monocytogenes
b) Common in immunocompromised patient 2025. Eucalyptus camaldulensis is associated with the
c) Anticapsular antibody prevents recurrence transmission of- (PGI 99)
d) Strongly positive mucicarmine stain of the a) Blastomyces dematitidis b) Histoplasma
organism in tissue is diagnostic c) Cryptococcus d) Coccidioides immitis
2013. The capsule of cryptococcus ueoformans in a CSF 2026. Fungi that possess a capsule is-(NEETIDNB Pattern)
sample is best seen by- (NEETIDNB Pattern, AI 05)
a) Candida b) Aspergillus
a) Gram stain b) India ink preparation
c) Cryptococcus d) Mucor
c) Giemsa stain d) Methanamine-silver stain
2027. Cryptococcus-neoformansisa- (AI99)
2014. Cryptococcus can be readily demonstrated by-
a) Albert's stain b) India ink stain (PGI June 02) a) Protozoa b) Fungus
c) Giema's stain d) Gram's stain c) Parasite d) Mycoplasma
e) Z-N stain 2028. Aspergilloma has- (DPG JO, JIPMER 99)
2015. Latex agglutination study of the antigen in CSF helps a) Septate hyphae
in the diagnosis of- (AI 2000) b) Pseudohyphae
a) Cryptococcus b) Candidiasis c) Metachromatic hyphae
c) Aspergillosis d) Histoplasmosis d) No hyphae
2005)a 2006)c 2007)a 2008)d 2009)a 2010)b 201l)c 2012)c 2013)b 2014)b 2015)a 2016)c 2017)c,d
2018)d 2019)c 2020)a 2021)d 2022)a,b 2023)a 2024)c 2025)c 2026)c 2027)b 2028)a
ASPERGILLUS 2040. Select the false statement about P. jiroveci-

a) It is seen in only inununocompromised individuals
2029. What is the most probable portal of entry of a b) Frequently associated with CMV (AI 08)
Aspergillus- (AIIMS 80, DNB 91) c) May be associated with pneumatocele
a) Puncture wound b) Blood d) Diagnosed with sputum microscopy
c) Lungs d) Gastrointestinal tract 2041. A patient of acute leukemia is admitted with febrile
2030. An elderly diabetic has left sided orbital cellulites, neutropenia. On day four ofbeing treated with broad-
spectrum antibiotics, his fever increases. X-ray
CT scan ofparanasal sinuses shows evidence ofleft
chest shows bilateral fluffy infdtrates. Which of the
maxillay sinusitis. Gram stained smear of the orbital
following should be the most appropriate next step
exudates shows irregularly branching septate in the managment- (AIIMS Nov 04)
hyphae. The following is the most likely a etiological a) Add antiviral therapy b) Add antifungal therapy
agent- (AIIMS Nov 03) c) Addcotrimoxazole d) Continue chemotherapy
a) Aspergillus b) Rhizopus 2042. Pneumocystis carinii is diagnosed by- (Delhi 08)
c) Mucor d) Candida a) Sputum examination for trophozoites and cyst
2031. Branched septate hyphae found on cornmeal under microscope
smear in a case of corneal ulcer is- (AIIMS June b) Culture
a) Candida b) Mucor 2000) c) Positive serology
c) Aspergillus d) Histoplasma d) Growth on artificial media
2032. Common fungus causing corneal ulcer-
a) Aspergillus b) Mucor (PGI June OJ) ENDEMIC MYCOSIS
c) Fusarium d) Sprothrix
2033. In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled 2043. Endemic fungal infection- (PGI Dec 05)
septate hyphae, which of the following is likely a) Coccidioides immitis b) Cryptococcus
c) Histoplasmosis d) Aspergillus
etiologic agent- (AI 02)
e) Blastomyces
a) Mucor b) Aspergillus
2044. True about histoplama capsulatum- (PGI 97)
b) Histoplasma d) Candida a) Dimorphic fungus
2034. Which of the following is the most common b) Causative organism of moniliasis
etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses ? c) Causative organism of valley fever
a) Aspergillus spp (AIIMS May 06) d) Capsulated
b) Histoplasma · 2045. Darling disease is caused by - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
c) Conidiobolus coronatus a) Histoplasma b) Candida
d) Candida albicans c) Cryptococcus d) Rhizopus
2035. A.flato:xinsareproducedby- (AI 11) 2046. What is true about Histoplasmosis-
a) Aspergillus flavus b) Aspergillus niger a) In early stage it is indistinguishable from TB
c) Aspergillus fumigatus d) Candida b) Culture is not diagnostic (AIIMS May 08)
c) Hyphal forms are infectious form
P.CARINII d) Person to person spread occurs by droplet infection
2047. "Thberculate spores" are characteristic features
2036. Pneumocystis carinii is a fungus because - of- (PGI May 10)
a) Candidia b) Histoplasma
a) rRNA, mitochondrial protein gene (PGI Dec 2000)
c) Coccidiodomyces c) Cryptococcus
sequence & presence of thymidy late synthase
2048. All the following regarding histoplasmosis are
b) Cell wall contains glucans true except- (MP 09)
c) Angifungals are effective against P. carini a) Very rare in patients with AIDS
d) Conunonest infection in AIDS b) Bone marrow is involved
2037. Pneumocystis carinii is a- (PGI June 06) c) Gomori methamine silver stain used·
a) Fungi d) Dimorphic fungi
b)Protozoa 2049. In tissue, Coccidioides immitis produces-
c) Gram negative a) Spherules and endospores (AIIMS 84)
2038. Which of the following is a fungus- (PGI June 07) b) Encapsulated yeast cells
a) Klebsiella b) Clostridia c) Fine, delicate hyphae
c) Pneumocystisjerovecii d) Listeria d) Coarse, septate hyphae
2039. P. Carni causes infection of primarily - 2050. Valley fever or desert rheumatism is caused by-
a) Rats b) Mice (NEET/DNB Pattern) a) Sporothrix b) Cladosporium (AIIMS 86)
c) Humans d) Rabbits c) Phialophora d) Histoplasma
2029)c 2030)a 203l)c 2032)a,c 2033)b 2034)a 2035)a 2036)a,b,c 2037)a 2038)c 2039)a 2040)b 204l)c
2042) a 2043) a,c,e 2044) a 2045) a 2046) a 2047) b 2048) a 2049) a 2050) None
2051. Coccidioides immitis is identified in tissues on the MUCORMYCOSIS

basis of which ofthe following-(AIIMS79, Orissa 90)
a) Budding yeast cells with pseudohyphae 2061. Mucormycosis- (PGI Dec 02)
b) Yeas like forms with very large capsules a) Angio-invasion
c) Arthrospores b) Lymph invasion
d) Endosporulating spherules c) Septate hyphae
2052. Blastomycosis is characterized by all except- d) Long term deferoxamine therapy is predisposing
a) Yeast like fungus (JIPMER 81, Delhi 92)
factor
b) Commonly involves lung and skin
e) It may lead to blindness
c) Dimorphic fungus
d) Common in South America 2062. Orbital mucormycosis is a complication of-
a) AIDS b) Steroid therapy
CHROMOBLASTOMYCOSIS c) Cushing's disease d) Diabetic ketoacidosis
2063. Vascular invasion is characteristic feature
2053. Causative microorganism of chromo-blastomycosis- of- (AIIMS 80)
a) Cladosporium (AIIMS May 93) a) Candidiasis b) Mucormycosis
b) Blastomyces c) Blastomycosis d) Sporotrichosis
c) Sporotbrix 2064. Vascular involvement and thrombosis is seen
d) Histoplasma capsulatum in - (Corned 08)
2054. Sclerotic bodies 3-15u in size, multiseptate, a) Coccidioidomycosis b) Aspergillosis
chestnut brown colour seen in- (A.P 97) c) Mucormycosis d) Histoplasmosis
a) Rhinosporidiosis
b) Chromoblastomycosis MISCELLANEOUS
c) Phacohypomycosis
d) Histoplasmosis 2065. Which of the following is the most common fungal
2055. Sclerotic bodies is seen - (NEET/DNB Pattern)
infection in immunocompetent patient- (Alll}
a) Sporotbrix b) Blastomycosis
a) Candida b)Aspergillus
c) Chromoblastomycosis d) Coccidiodes
c) Cryptococcus d) Penicillium
2066. White piedra is caused by - (MH 11)
SPOROTRICHOSIS
a) Piedra hortae
b) Pityrosporum orbicularea
2056. A gardener has multiple vesicles on hand and
c) Hortae wernickii
multiple eruptions along the lymphatics. Most
common fungus responsible is? (AIIMS Nov 08) d) Trichosporum beigelli
a) Sporothrix schenckii b) Cladosporium 2067. Which is not a fungus -
c) Histoplasma d) Candida a) Rhinosporidiosis b) Sporotrichosis
2057. A patient, resident of Himachal Pradesh presented c) Torulosis d) Candidiasis
with a series of ulcers in a row, on his right leg. The 2068. True about Rhinosporidium Seebri- (PGI June 06)
biopsy from the affected area was taken and cultured a) Fungi
on Sabouraud's Dextrose agar. What would be the b) Bacteria
most likely causative organism? (AIIMS Nov 03) c) Ketoconazole-treatment
a) Sporothrix schenckii b) Cladosporium spp. d) Present in coastal India
c) Pseudoallescheria boydii d) Nocardia brasilinsis 2069. Neurotropic fungus is/are- (PGI Dec 02)
2058. A former from the sub-Himalayan region presents a) Cryptococcus neoformans b) Histoplasmosis
with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely causative c) Trichophyton d) Candida
agent is- (AI 12) e) Aspergillosis
a) TrichophytonRubrum 2070. Cerebral infarction is caused by- (PGI June OJ)
b) Cladosporium species a) Toxoplasma b) Cryptococcus
c) Sporotbrix Schenckii c) Aspergillus d) Mucor
d) Aspergillus e) Histoplal,!ma
2059. Cigar body is seen in- (NEET/DNB Pattern) 2071. Farmers lung is caused by- (PGI 87)
a) Cryptococcosis b) Histoplasmosis a) Micromonospore faenia b) Aspergillosis
c) Sporotrichosis d) Aspergillosis c) Histoplasma capsulatam d) All of the above
2060. Asteroid bodies and cigar shaped globi may be 2072. Which one of the following diseases is endogenous
produced by- (AIIMS 87) in origin- (PGI 80)
a) Sporothrix b) Sporotrichosis a) Aspergillosis b) Candidiasis
c) Phialophora d) Aspergillus c) Phycomycosis d) All of the above
205l)c,d 2052)d 2053)a 2054)b 2055)c 2056)a 2057)a 2058)c 2059)c 2060)a,b 2061)a,d,e 2062)d
2063) b 2064) b,c 2065) a 2066) d 2067) a 2068) b,d 2069) a,b,d,e 2070) a,c,d 2071) a 2072) b
2073. Penicillium marneffei is seen in- (Orissa 04) 2085. Which of the following grows in cell culture media-
~ TB b)AlDS a) Chlamydia (PGI June 08)
c) Diabetes d) Kala azar b) Ureoplasma urealyticum
c) Pseudomonas
MISCELLANEOUS (MICROBIOLOGY) d) Trophyrema whippeli
2086. 1Y.Pe of graft, best suited for renal transplantation-
207 4. Which of the following is a killed vaccine- a) Allograft b)Autograft (AI 99)
a) Hepatitis B b) Measles (Jipmer 11) c) Xenograft d) Isograft
c) Yellow fever d) Japenese encephalitis 2087. A neonate develops encephalitis without any skin
207 5. What will happen if a bacteria acquires genes coding lesions. Most probable causative organisms is-
for restriction endonuclease- (AIIMS Nov 1 0) a) HSVI b)HSVIT(AIIMSMay02)
a) Bacteria will die as lacks methylase c) Meningococci d) Streptococci
b) It will damage the host cell 2088. Category A bioterrorism agents are-(!liiMS Nov 06)
c) It will have capacity to divide & multiply many a) Ebola
times b)Yersinia
d) Enhances proof reading activity of that bacteria c) Clostridium botulinum d) Rickettsia
2076. Antigenic variation is/are seen in- (PGI May 10) e) Cholera
a) Treponema pallidum b) Neisseria 2089. Micro-organism used as weapon in biological
c) Corynebacterium d) Borrelia recurrentis terrorism- (PGI Dec 02)
2077. Maltess cross seen on polarizing microscopy in- a) Small pox V b) Rabies V
a) Cryptococcus neoforrnans (AIIMS May 1 0) c) Ebda V d)InfluenzaCV
b) Penicillium mameffi e) Human parvovirus
c) Blastomyces 2090. Which amongst the following biological agents
d) Candida albicans carries the least potential for use as a biological
2078. Which of the following does not have non-human weapon for microbial terrorism? (AI 11)
reservoir- (PGI Nov 09, June 09)
a) Plague (Yersinia pestis)
a) Salmonella typhi b) N. Gonorrhoea
b) Small pox (variola major)
c) E. coli d) Clostridium tetani
c) Botulism (CL botulinum)
e) Treponema pallidum
d) Brucellosis (Brucella sp)
2079. Man is the only reservoir of- (AIIMS 90)
2091. Which amongst the following biological agents has
a) Rabies b) Measles
the highest potential for use as a biological weapon
c) Typhoid d) Japanese B encephalitis
2080. Biosafety precaution grade ill is practiced in all of for microbial bioterrorism- (AI 11)
the following organisms except ? (AIIIMS Nov 08) a) Plague (Yersinia pestis)
a) Human influenza virus b) Small pox(variolamajor)
b) St. louis encephalitis virus c) Botulism (Cl. botulinum)
c) Coxiella burnetti d) Brucellosis (Brucella sp)
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 2092. Which of the following is not a group A bioterrorism
2081. The following diagnostic tests are useful for agent- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
corresponding purposes except- (AI 02) a) Small pox b) Hemorrhagic fever
a) Ziehl- N eel sen staining- Detection of mycobacteria c) Salmonella d) Botulism
b) Immunoflorescence Detection oflnfluenza virus 2093. A child with fever and pharyngitis which of the
c) Specific IgM antibodies- Immunity against Rubella following investigation should not to be done-
d) Specific IgM antibodies -Detection of acute infection a) Widal test (AIIMS 2000)
2082. All of the following cause hemolytic uremic b)ASO
syndrome except- (AIIMSMay 07) c) Throat swab and culture
a) Shigella b) Campylobacter d) Chest x-ray
c) EHEC d) Vibrio cholera 2094. Acute intravascular hemolysis can be caused by
2083. Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by- infection due to all of the following organisms except-
a) EIEC b) Shigella (PGIDec07) a) Clostridium tetani (AIIMS Nov 03, AI 03)
c) Salmonella d) Cholera b) Bartonella bacilliforrnis
e) Klebsiella c) Plasmodium falciparum
2084. All cause meningitis in the elderly except- (AI 08) d) Babesia microti
a)HSV2 2095. Infective endocarditis is common in- (PGI June OJ)
b) Pneumococci a) MR b) Coarctation of aorta
c) Gram negative bacteria c) AR d)MS
d) Listeria e) TS
2073)b 2074)d 2075)a 2076)b,d 2077)a 2078)a,b,d 2079)b,c 2080)a 208l)c 2082)d 2083)b,c 2084)a
2085) a,b,d 2086) d 2087) b 2088) a,b,c 2089) a 2090) d 2091) a 2092) c 2093) a 2094) a 2095) a,c
MICROBIOLOGY [ 5.95 J
2096. Zoonotic diseases are all except- (PGI Dec 01) 2108. Recentnobleprizefor- (AIIMS Nov 09)
a) Typhoid b) Anthrax a) RNAi
c) Rabies d) Q fever b) Lipoxin
2097. Loeffler's syndrome occurs in all except- (AIIMS c) T beta transcription factor
a) Toxocara b) Strongyloides May 07) d) Mitochondrial DNA
c) Ascaris d) Giardia 2109. Pigment producing colonies are seen in-(Kamat 09)
2098. Which of the following is an antimicrobial a) Pseudomonas
susceptibility testing- (PGI June 05) b) Atypical mycobacteria
a) Kibrybaurmethod b)ATCC c) Serratia marsescens
c) NCTC d) Stockes method d) All of the above
e) NCCLS 2110. Pasteurdevelopedthevaccinefor- (MAHA05)
2099. Which of the following is/are transfusion a) Anthrax b) Rabies
transmitted viruses- (PGI Dec 03) c) Chicken cholera d) All of the above
a) Hepatitis B b)CMV 2111. AU are transmitted by milk except- (AI 90)
c) H1LV- 1 d) Rubella a) Tuberculosis b) Brucellosis
e) HHV -8 c) QFever d) Leishmaniasis
2100. Which of the following is transmitted by blood- 2112. All cause brain lesions except- (TN 98)
a) Toxoplasma b) Syphilis (PGI OJ) a) Giardiasis b) Tuberculosis
c) CMV d) Hepatitis B and C c) Cysticercosis d) Bacteriodes
e) Hepatitis A 2113. Refrigerated blood stored up to 48 hours before
2101. Diseases which can be transmitted by milk-(AJ 88) transfusion can destroy which of the following-
a) Q Fever b) Poliomyelitis a) HlV (JIPMER 02)
c) Whooping cough d) Diphtheria b) Hepatitis B
2102. The single most common cause of pyrexia of c) Treponema pallidum
d) P.Vivax
unknown origin is- (AIIMS May 06)
2114. Draining sinuses are seen in- (PGI 90)
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a) Mycetoma b) Scrofula
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Lupus vulgaris d) Pediculosis
c) Brucella sp
2115. Abdominal pain, fat malabsorption & frothy
d) Salmonella paratyphi A
stools suggests- (JIPMER 98)
2103. A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin.
a) Amoebiasis b) Bacillary dysentry
His blood culture in special laboratory media was
c) Giardiasis d) Pancreatic enzyme deficiency
positive for gram-negative short bacilli which was
2116. The phenomenon of genetic reassortment-
oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the a) Can occur during reovirus replication (PGI 88)
likely organism grown in culture? (AI 06) b) Involves the crossing over of genes within an
a) Pasteurella spp b) Francisella spp RNA segment
c) Bartonella spp d) Brucella spp c) Can occur during influenza virus replication
2104. Organism most likely to cause "fever of unknown d) Can occur only with RNA viruses of plus polarity
origin" in a farmer who raises goats- (MAHA 05) 2117. Post exposure immunization is done for-
a) Brucella melitensis a) Measles b) Polio (JIPMER 95)
b) Clostridium novyi c) Rabies d) Chicken pox
c) Histoplasma capsulatum 2118. Necrotizing granulomatous inguinal
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis lymphadenopathy is caused by- (JIPMER 95)
2105. Infection occuring after man's bite is- a) Syphilis b) Granuloma inguinale
a) Spirochetes (ATIMS Sep 96) c) Sarcoidosis d) Tuberculosis
b) Staphylococcus 2119. Which of the following is not a sexually
c) Anaerobic streptococci transmitted disease - (FN 04)
d) Candida a) Hepatitis B b) Amoebiasis
2106. Probioticsareusefulfor- (AI 08) c) Bacterial vaginosis d) Yaws
a) Necrotizing enterocolitis 2120. The ratio of anaerobe to aerobes in stoolis-
b) Breast milk jaundice a) 10:1 b) 100:1 (JIPMER 81)
c) Hospital acquired pneumonia c) 1000:1 d) 10000:1
d) Neonatal seizures 2121. The predominant colonic bacteria are- (PG/88)
2107. Vaccination causing intussusception -(PGI dec 07) a) Largely aerobic b) Largely anaerobic
a) Rotavirus b) Parvovirus c) Bacteroides d) Staphylococci
c) Poliovirus d)BCG 2122. Most dominant colonic bacteria is -(JIPMER 2002)
e) Measles a) E. coli b) Bacteroides
c) Clostridium d) Veilonella
2096)a 2097)d 2098)e 2099)a,b,e 2100)All 210l)a,d 2102)a 2103)d 2104)a 2105)b 2106)a 2107)a 2108)a
2109)d 2110)d 2lll)d 2112)a 2113)c 2114)a,b 2115)c,d 2116)a 2117)a,c 2118)a,d 2119)d 2120)c 212l)b
2122)b
2123. Microorganism used as weap~on in biological 2132. Most common catheter related blood stream infection
terrorism is- (DPG 10) is - (AIIMS May 07)
a) Smallpox virus b) Rabies virus a) Candida
c) Influenzae virus d) Human narvovirus b) Gram negative organisms
2124. All causes brain lesions except- (DPG 10) c) Coagulase positive staphylococci
a) Giardiasis b) Tuberculosis d) Coagulase negative staphylococci
c) Cysticercosis d) Bacteroids 2133. Commonest cause of nosocomial infection-(JIPMER
a) Pseudomonas b) Staphylococci 08)
c) Klebsiella d) Enterobacteriacea
NOSOCOMIAL INFECTIONS
2134. There is an outbreak ofMRSA infection in a ward.
What is the best way to control the infection-
2125. A person get infected in a hospital and clinical a) Vancomycin given emperically to all the patients
manifestation appear after he is discharged this is b)Fumigationofwardfrequently (AIIMSNov 10)
called- (Manipal 06) c) Washing hand before & after attending patient
a) Nosocomial infection d) Wearing mask before any invasive procedure in
b) Opportunistic infection IaJ
c) Epizootic infection
d) Physician induced SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES
2126. All the following are trne about nosocomial infections
except- (AI 04) 2135. All of the following are sexually transmited, Except-
a) May manifest within 48 hours of admission a) Candida albicans (AI 02)
b) May develop after discharge of patient from the b) Echinococcus
hospital c) Molluscum contagiosum
c) Denote a new condition which is unrelated to the d) Group B streptococcus
patient's primary conditions 2136. Which of the following is/ are not STD-
d) May already present at the time of admission a) HAV b)HPV (PG!Nov 10)
2127. Hospital acquired organisms are all except~(UP 09) c) HlV d) Varicella zoster virus
a) Staphylococcus b) Acinobacter e)HTLV-1
c) Streptococcus d) Pseudomonas 2137. Genital ulcers are seen in all except- (PGI may 10)
2128. The most common pathogens responsible for a) H. aegypticus b) H.ducreyi
nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are- (AI 05) c) HSV d) Chlaymdia
a) Gram positive organisms e) T. pallidum
2138. Correct combination of incubation period is-
b) Gram negative organisms
a) Syphilis : 9-90 days (PGI May 11)
c) Mycoplasma
b) Herpes genitalis : 4-5 wk
d) Vlrus infections
c) LGV: 3d-6wk
2129. Which of the following causes highest risk of
d) Donovanosis : 1-4 wk
nosocomial infection to a patient- (AIIMS May 09)
e) Chancroid: 2-3 wk
a) Patient admitted for elective surgery
2139. A 30 year old male, Kalin, with a history of sexual
b) HN patient coming in follow up OPD
exposure comes with a painless indurated ulcer over
c) Patient undergoing endoscopy
the penis with everted margins. The diagnosis is -
d) Patient admitted for normal delivery a) Syphilis (AIIMS May 01,
2130. Most common species of pseudomonas causing b) Chancroid NEET/DNB Pattern)
intravascular catheter related infections is ? c) Lymphogranuloma venerum
a) P. cepacia (AIIMS Nov 08) d) Granuloma inguinale
b) P. aeruginosa 2140. A patient has multiple necrotic ulcers over glans
c) P. maltiphila penis with tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The
d) P. mallei likely diagnosis is- (AIIMS Dec 94)
2131. In a post operative intensive care unit, five patients a) Haemophilus ducreyi
developed post- operative wound infection on the b) Chlamydia trachomatis
same wound. The best method to prevent cross c) Herpes simplex
infection occuring in other patients in the same d) Candida albicans
ward is to- (AIIMS Nov 10, AI 03) 2141. Indonovanosis- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward a) Pseudolymphadenopathy
b) Fumigate the ward b) Penicillin is used for treatment
c) Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite c) Painful ulcer
d) Practice proper hand washing d) Suppurative lymphadenopathy
2123)a 2124)a 2125)a 2126)d 2127)b 2128)b 2129)a 2130)b 213l)d 2132)d 2133)b 2134)c 2135)b 2136)a,b
2137)a 2138)a,c,d 2139)a 2140)a 2141)a
2142. A male patient presented with granulomatous penile 2150. Treatment of partner is required in all infections
ulcer. On Wright geimsa stain tiny organisms of2 except- (PGI 2000)
microns within macrophages seen. What is the a) Candida b) Herpes
causative organism? (AIIMS May JO) c) Trichomonas d) Gardnerella
a) LGV
b) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis GASTROENTERITIS
c) Neisseria
d) Staph aureus 2151. A cook prepares sandwitches for 10 people going
2143. A 45 year old female complaints oflower abdominal for picnic. Eight out of them develop severe
pain and vaginal discharge. On examination there gastroenteritis within 4-6 hrs of consumption of the
is cervicitis along with a mucopurulent cervical sandwitches. It is likely that on investigations the
discharge. The best approach to isolate the possible cook is found to be the carrier of- (AIIMS Nov 02)
causative agent would be- (AIIMS Nov 05) a) Salmonella typhi.
a) Culture chocolate agar supplemented with Haemin b) Vibrio cholerae
b) Culture on McCoy cells c) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Culture on a bilayer human blood agar d) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Culture on vero cell lines 2152. Kalin, a 22 year old male had an outing with his
2144. A man presents to a STD clinic with urethritis and friends and developed fever of38.50C, diarrhoea,
urethral discharge. Gram stain shows numerous and vomiting following eating chicken salad, 24
pus cells but no microorganism. The culture is hours back. Two of his friends developed the same
negative on the routine laboratory media. The most symptoms. Thediagnosisis- (AIIMS OJ)
likely agent is- (AJJMS Nov 02, 07) a) Salmonella enteritis b) Bacillus cereus
a) Chlamydia trachomatis c) S. aureus d) Vibrio cholerae
2153. Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured
b) Haemophilus ducreyi
from a single source at a picnic party. Twenty
c) Treponema pallidum
children developed abdominal cramps followed by
d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
vomiting and watery diarrhea 6-10 hours after the
2145. A young male patient presented with UTI, on urine
party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is-
examination pus cells were found but no organisms.
a) Rotavirus infection (AI 03)
Which method would be best used for culture-
b) Entero-toxigenic E. coli infection
a) McCoy cell line (AIIMS May J2, Nov 11,
c) Staphylococcol toxin
b) Thayermartinmedium 06, AI 07)
d) Clostidium perfringens infection
c) LJ. medium 2154. Most Probable cause offood poisoning in a child
d) Levinthal medium who has eaten Ice Cream 16-18 hrs earlier is-
2146. A 30 year old male patient presents with urethritis. a) Staph aureus (AIIMS 92)
All ofthe following can be the causative agent except- b) Clostridium perfringens
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (AIIMS Nov 04) c) Clostridium botulinum
b) Chlamydia trachornatis d) Salmonella typhimurium
c) Trichomonas vaginalis 2155. Food poisoning case with diarrhea within 6 hours-
d) Haemophilus ducreyi (NEETIDNB Pattern)
2147. Most common cause of Non gonococcal urethritis a) Staph aureus b) Cl. perfringens
is - (AIIMS May 93, AI 96) c) Cl. botulinum d) V. cholerae
a) Meningococci b) E. coli 2156. 18 years old girl presents with watery diarrhea. Most
c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Mycoplasma likely causative agent- (NEETIDNB Pattern)
2148. A 28 year old sexually active male presents with a) Rota virus b) V. cholerae
burning micturation. On clinical examination no c) Salmonella d) Shigella
ulcer in the genitals. Urine examination shows 50 2157. Preformed toxin is important in food poisoning due
WBCs/HPF, no RBCs, leucocyte esterase positive, toaUEXCEPT- (AIIMS Nov OJ)
gonococcal culture negative. What could be the most a) Staph aureus b) Clostridium botulism
probable causative organism ? (AIIMS Nov 07) c) EfEC d) B.cereus
a) Treponema pallidum b) Neisseria 2158. Toxins are implicated as the major pathogenic
c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) H. ducreyi mechanism in all of the following bacterial
2149. Green frothy vaginal discharge is produced by- diarrheas except- (AI 04)
a) Herpes simplex (AIIMS May 94) a) Vibrio cholerae
b) Candida albicans b) Shigella sp.
c) Trichomonas vaginalis c) Vibrio parahemolyticus
d) Normal vaginal flora d) Staphylococcus aureus
2142)b 2143)b 2144)a 2145)a 2146)d 2147)c 2148)c 2149)c 2150)a,d 2151)d 2152)a 2153)d 2154)d 2155)a
2156) b 2157) c 2158) c
2159. In a patient presenting with diarrhea and pus cells 2170. Recommended transport medium for stool specimen
in stool, the causative organism can be all except- suspected to contain enteric pathogens is -
a) Non-01 vibrio cholerae (PGI Dec OJ) a) Arnie's medium (NEET/DNB Pattern)
b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli b) Buffered glycerol saline medium
c) Enteromvasive E. coli c) MacConkey medium
d) Shigella dysenteriae 1 d) Stuart's medium
e) Vibrio cholera 2171. Food poisoning is seen with -(NEETIDNB Pattern)
2160. Micro-organisms invading the GIT causing a) Staph aureus b) Staph. epidermidis
gasteroenteritis- (PGI dec 07) c) Strep. pyogenes d) Staph saprophyticus
a) EHEC b) Shigella
c) Vibryo parahemolyticus d) Campylobacter NORMAL MICROBIAL FLORA
e) Salmonella
2161. A child with fever with RBCs & pus in stools, OF HUMAN BODY
causative organism is - (NEETIDNB Pattern)
a) ETEC b)EHEC 2172. Common natural flora of skin are- (PGI june 09)
c) EPEC d) EAEC a) Streptococcus
2162. Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is b) Staphylococcus aureus
caused by all the following except- (AI 02) c) Candida albicans
a) Bacillus cereus b) Yersinia enterocolitica d) Bacteriods fragilis
c) Staphylococcus d) Clostridium perfringens e) Propionibacterium acne
2163. Traveller'sdiarrhoeais caused by-(AJIMSDec97) 2173. Transient colonization is caused by- (PGI Dec 08)
a) Shigella b) E. Coli a) HSV b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) E. histolytica d) Giardiasis c) H. inlfuenzae d) N. Gunorrhae
2164. The most common causative organism for e) Staphylococcus aureus
Traveller's diarrhoea is- (AIIMS Dec 94) 2174. Commonnaturalfloraofskinare- (PGI Dec 08)
a) E. coli b) Shigella a) Streptococcus b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Norwalk virus d) Rotavirus c) Diphtheriod d) E.coli
2165. A person returns to Delhi from Bangladesh after 2 e) Enterococci
days and has diarrhoes. Stool examination shows 2175. Which of the following is the main colonizer of
RBC's in stool. The likely organism causing is- sebaceous gland- (PGZ June 07)
a) Enteropathogenic E. Coli (Kerala 04) a) Propionic bacterium acnes
b) Enterotoxigenic E. Coli b) Diptheria
c) Salmonella typhi c) Strep.pyogens
d) Shigella dysenteriae d) Staph. aureus
2166. Fecalleucocytes are absent in all the following e) Candida
EXCEPT- (Corned 08) 2176. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes
a) Giardiasis
by a ratio of- (AJIMS May 06)
b) Cryptosporidiasis
~illl ~100:1
c) Campylobacter infection
c) 1000:1 d) 10,000:1
d) Clostridium perfringes infection
2167. In India which of the following is true regarding 2177. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora
the cause of Travellers diarrhea- (SGPGI 05) present on the skin and mucous membranes that-
a) Giardiasis · a) It cannot be eradicated by (AI 05)
b) E.coli antimicrobial agents
c) Amoebiasis b) It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
d) Idiopathic without any causative organisms c) It establishes in the body only after the neonatal
2168. Stool examination is required for diagnosis of period.
infection with- (PGI June OJ) d) The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of
a) Staph food poisoning b) Clostridia the trachea
c) Shigella 2178. MCcommensalgutflorainadult- (PGI 2000)
d) Campylobacter a) Lactobacillus b) Bacteroides
e) E, vermicularis c) E. coli d) Klebsiella
2169. Detected by stool examination except- (PGI 2000) 2179. The following micro -organism constitutes the
a) Staphyloccous food poisoning normal flora of oral cavity- (Karnataka 02)
b) Giardiasis a) Esch. coli
c) Fungus b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Staphylococcal pseudomembranous colitis c) Branhamella catarrhalis
d) Picornavirus
***
2159)a,b,e 2160)All 216l)b 2162)d 2163)b 2164)a 2165)d 2166)c 2167)b 2168)a,b,c,d 2169)None
2170)b,d 217l)a 2172)a,b,c,e 2173)a,b,e 2174)All 2175)a 2176)c 2177)a 2178)b 2179)c

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9th Edition : July 2013

Price Rs. 610

Published by : Dr. Rakesh Dubey & Rahul Singh

Review of P.G.M.E. Exam. by AmitTripathi,ArvindArora &Ashish Gupta

Laser Typesetting at:

1. INTRODUCTION 2.03 2.87

1. STRUCTURE & FUNCTION OF PROTEIN 3.03 3.81

1. CONCEPT OF HEALTH AND DISEASE

GENERAL 13. Ossification in foetus starts in - (DNB 90)

623. Allaresupportsofuterusexcept- (AIIMS92) 636. Fascia ofDenonvilliers - (Karn 94)

1510. Frontaleyemotorareais- {DNB89) 1523. Cerebral aqueduct (Duct of Sylvius) -which is

INTRODUCTION 12. Resting membrane potetial is close to the

637. Specificdynamicactionismaximumin- (A.I90) c) Ketone bodies are used in starvation

223. Carboxylases requires- (NEET/DNBPattern) 235. CoA requires - (NEETIDNB Pattern)

324. Cyclic AMP accelerates glycogenolysis by- 337. Oxaloacetate+Acetyl CoA+Hp=Citrate+CoA.

769. Lipogenesis is stimulated by- (NEETIDNB Pattern) 782. Glucosylceramide is accumulated in -

GENETICS & METABOLISM OF 1032. Inosinic acid is biological precursor of-

1069. Amber codon is- (AIIMS 2001) Polymerase- I

1389. RatioofadrenalinetoNoradrenaline- (PG/83) 1401. What serves as a precursor of testosterone-

1825. TrueaboutlgM- {PGINov.10) 1838. In a person fasting overnight with carnitine

65. DALY true is - (NEET/DNB Pattern) 75. ICD-10codeinXXIinclndesallexcept- (A/09)

EPIDEMIOLOGY 146. Direct standardization is used to compare the

552. Reliability means- (AIIMS Nov 09) c) True negative

PNEUMONIA intercoastal retraction. The neonate should be

1040. WHOORShas- (PG!Dec06) FOOD POISONING

MALARIA 1070. Burden of malaria is best estimated by-

1235. In which of the Indian states the maximum number

MISCELLANEOUS 1254. Chandlers index for Hookworm, when it is health

PROTEINS 1860. Essential amino acids are AlE- (AI 99)

2396i AllQftbe followingstateQi(!iltsteg~trclingdisposal 2406. Triage is- (AI 99)

MISCELLANEOUS 2454. Cytotoxic drugs and medicines which are discarded

HEALTH PROGRAMMES IN INDIA 2651. Strategies in National Leprosy Control programme-

2740)a,b,c 2741)b 2742)d 2743)c 2744)c 2745)b

GENERAL 13. Dark ground microscopy is used for- (PGI 98)

153. The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage IMMUNOLOGY

ANTIGEN ANTIBODY REACTION 319. Which is not a heterophile agglutination test-

MISCELLANEOUS c) It is related to the concentration of antibody

NEISSERIA 580. 'Watercan'perineumiscaused by- (MP 09)

713. Cause of clostridium difficle associated diarrhea - c) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

MELIOIDOSIS 871. A farmer presents to the emergency department with

943. Pigment producing atypical mycobacteria- 955. Mycobacterianon-pathogenictoman- (Delhi 08)

MYCOPLASMA 1067. "L-form" phenomenon is most likely to occur in-

1118. All of the following are correct regarding Legionella RICKETTSIACEAE

1252. Which of the following produces pocks on BACTERIOPHAGE

HERPES VIRUSES 1290. Herpes- Zoster is caused by- (AI 99)

ADENO VIRUSES 1337. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by-

1.MEASLES 1379. Classic triad of congenital rubella includes all

4. HEPATITIS E VIRUS 1498. lllV gene is/are- (PGI June OJ)

ROTAVIRUS 1602. Which of the following is not consider to be a slow

1766. The infective form of toxoplasma gondii is- 7. BALANTIDIUM COLI

1811. Amanonretumfromaconntrycomplainsofpainin 1822. Most common presenting symptom ofthread worm

1813. Parasitic intestinal infestation seen in 9. FILARIOIDEA

ASPERGILLUS 2040. Select the false statement about P. jiroveci-

2051. Coccidioides immitis is identified in tissues on the MUCORMYCOSIS

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