English And Reading Comprehension

Questions 1 to 10: Choose the most appropriate word to fill the blanks in passage given below without altering its
meaning or flow of the passage in any manner:

Agricultural progress provided the stimulus necessary to set (I)___ economic expansion in medieval France. As long
as those (II)___ worked the land were barely able to ensure their own subsistence and that of their landlords, all other
activities had to be minimal, but when food surpluses increased,it became possible (III)___ release more people for
governmental, commercial, religious and cultural pursuits.

However, not all the funds from the agricultural surplus were actually available (IV)__ commercial
investment . Much of the surplus, in the form of food increases, probably went (V)___ raise the subsistence level; an
additional amount, in the form of currency gained from the sale of food, went (VI)___ the royal treasury to be used in
waging war . Although Louis VII of France levied a less crushing tax burden (VII)__ his subjects than did England's
Henry II, Louis VII did spend great sums on an unsuccessful crusade, and his vassals- both lay and ecclesiastic-took
(VIII)____ spending where their sovereign stopped. Surplus funds were claimed both by the Church and by feudal
landholders, whereupon cathedrals and castles mushroomed throughout France.

The simultaneous progress of cathedral building and, for instance, vineyard expansion in Bordeaux
illustrates the very real competition for available capital (IX)______ the Church and commercial interests;the former
produced inestimable moral and artistic riches, but the latter had a stronger immediate impact upon gross national
product. Moreover, through all wars by definition are defensive, the frequent crossings of armies that lived (X)____
the land and impartially burned all the huts and barns on their path consumed considerable resources.

Question 1:

A) On
B) In
C) Off
D) Away

Question 2

A) Who
B) When
C) For
D) Which
Question 3

A) To
B) Of
C) By
D) For

Question 4

A) Off
B) On
C) For
D) To

Question 5

A) To
B) For
C) At
D) Of

Question 6

A) By
B) For
C) Over
D) Into

Question 7

A) For
B) On
C) To
D) Under

Question 8

A) On
B) Over
 C) In
D) To

Question 9

A) For
B) Over
C) Between
D) To

Question 10

A) Off
B) On
C) In
D) By

For Questions 11 to 15, Choose the closest synonym to the word from the options provided:

Question 11: Esoteric

A) Easy
B) Recondite
C) Pitiful
D) Civic

Question 12: Herald

A) Prophet
B) Soothsayer
C) Harbinger
D) Messenger

Question 13: Portent

A) Omen
B) Deadly
C) Pugnacious
D) Calamitous
Question 14: Resolute

A) Intransigent
B) Acquiescent
C) Complaisant
D) Incipient

Question 15:Ancestor

A) Progenitor
B) Founder
C) Progeny
D) Prototype

For Questions 16 to 20, choose the sole correctly spelled word from the options provided:

Question 16:

A) Liasion
B) Liason
C) Laision
D) Liaison

Question 17:

A) Vaccum
B) Vacum
C) Vaccumm
D) Vacuum

Question 18:

A) Consencus
B) Concencus
C) Consensus
D) Concenses

Question 19:

A) Accommodate
 B) Acomodate
C) Accomodate
D) Accomdate

Question 20:

A) Sattelite
B) Satellitte
C) Satellite
D) Satelite

For Questions 21 to 24, there is an error in the sentence provided that when removed makes the sentence
grammatically proper, choose from the options the number marking the part of the sentence where the error
is present.

Question 21:

You should have (1)/ told me the actual facts (2)/ about the case. (3)/ No error (4)

A) (1)
B) (2)
C) (3)
D) (4)

Question 22:

He studied at the (1)/ government school (2)/ and worked hard to make his way on to Harvard (3)/.No error (4).

A) (1)
B) (2)
C) (3)
D) (4)

Question 23:

All the furnitures (1) have been (2) sent to the new house.(3) No error (4)

A) (1)
B) (2)
C) (3)
 D) (4)

Question 24:

The village was (1)/ nestled among (2)/ the forest and the lake. (3)/ No error (4)

A) (1)
B) (2)
C) (3)
D) (4)

For Questions 25 to 28, The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the
given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

Question 25:

P) The Hounds of Baskerville was feared by the people of the area.

Q) The Hounds of Baskerville remains an unsolved mystery

R) Some people spoke of seeing a huge shadowy form of the hound at midnight of the moon.

S) Nobody had actually seen the hound.

A) PQRS
B) PSRQ
C) SPQR
D) SPRQ

Question 26:

P) The path of venus lies inside the path of the earth.

Q) When at its farthest from the earth, Venus is 160 million miles away.

R) No other body ever comes so near the Earth, with the exception of the Moon and the occasional comet or asteroid.

S) When Venus is at its nearest to the Earth, it is only 26 million miles away.

A) PSQR
B) QPRS
 C) SQRP
D) SRPQ

Question 27:

P) The name of the island is derived from the Sanskrit word „dweepa‟.

Q)At the entrance of the Gulf of Kahmbat is the picturesque little island of Diu.

R) Diu, which is barely 40 sq.km in area, was once a flourishing port.

S) The Portuguese occupied it in 1593.

A) SPQR
B) QPSR
C) RSPQ
D) PSQR

Question 28:

P) Silence is unnatural to man.

Q) In the interval he does all he can to make a noise in the world.

R) There are few things of which he stands in more fear than of the absence of noise.

S) He begins life with a cry and ends it in stillness

A) SRQP
B) RSPQ
C) PSQR
D) QPSR

Questions 29 and 30

Choose from the options, the correct meaning for the idiom provided in the questions:

Question 29: To Drive Home

A) To Emphasize
B) To feel nostalgic about something
C) To return to the original position
 D) To Return to ones ancestral home

Question 30: To set one's face against

A) To judge by appearance
B) To determine for oneself
C) To look at one steadily
D) To oppose with determination

Questions 31 to 35, each question contains a word which is used by courts. Choose from among the options
the correct meaning of the word.

Question 31: Aliunde

A) Alias
B) In association with something else
C) Considering something in isolation
D) From a source extrinsic to the matter

Question 32:Amicus Curiae

A) Someone who has been appointed to advice and assist the court in a particular case
B) Aperson appointed by the court to represent an indigent plaintiff.
C) Aperson appointed by the court to protect a minor‟s interests.
D) Aperson appointed by the court to take care of a property involved in a suit.

Question 33: In Loco Parentis

A) The Grandparents
B) In place of the parent
C) Right of a parent over the child
D) As against the parent

Question 34: Corpus Delicti

A) Body of law
B) Body of the deceased
C) Body of facts surrounding the crime
D) Body of opinions on a question of law.
Question 35: Deponent

A) Aperson who makes a deposition under oath

B) Aperson who has deposited a surety before the court
C) Aperson who is to be cross examined.
D) Aperson who has been summoned before the court.

For Questions 36 to 40 read the passage given below and answer the questions based on your understanding
of the passage:

Hard cases, it is said, make bad law. The adage is widely considered true for the Supreme Court of India which held in
the height of the Emergency, in ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla that detenus under the Maintenance of Internal
SecurityAct (MISA) could not approach the judiciary if their fundamental rights were violated. Not only was the law
laid down unconscionable, but it also smacked of a Court more “executive-minded than the executive”, complicit in
its own independence being shattered by an all-powerful government. So deep has been the impact of this judgment
that the Supreme Court‟s current activist avatar is widely viewed as having its genesis in a continuing need to atone.
Expressions of such atonement have created another Court made to measure — this time not to the measure of the
government but rather the aggrandised self-image of some of its judges.

Let us look back to the ADM Jabalpur case. As a court of law, the Supreme Court was called upon in the case to
balance the interest of public order in an Emergency with the right to life and personal liberty guaranteed to every
person. Nine High Courts called upon to perform the same function had found a nuanced answer by which they had
held that the right to life cannot be absolutely subservient to public order merely because the government declared so
— the legality of detentions could be judicially reviewed, though the intention of the government would not be
second-guessed by the Court. This was a delicate balance. The Supreme Court however reversed this view and made
the right to life and personal liberty literally a bounty of the government. Given that the consequences of their error
were entirely to the government‟s advantage, it was widely viewed as the death of an independent judiciary. The
excessively deferential, almost apologetic language used by the judges confirmed this impression.

Today, however, while public interest litigation has restored the independent image of the Supreme Court, it has
achieved this at the cost of quality, discipline and the constitutional role judges are expected to perform. The Court
monitors criminal trials, protects the environment, regulates political advertising, lays down norms for sexual
harassment in the workplace, sets guidelines for adoption, supervises police reform among a range of other tasks of
government. That all these tasks are crucial but tardily undertaken by government can scarcely be questioned. But for
an unelected and largely unaccountable institution such as the Supreme Court to be at the forefront of matters relating
to governance is equally dangerous — the choice of issues it takes up is arbitrary, their remit is not legal, their results
often counterproductive, requiring a degree of technical competence and institutional capacity in ensuring compliance
that the Court simply does not possess. This sets an unhealthy precedent for other courts and tribunals in the country,
particularly the latter whose chairpersons are usually retired Supreme Court Justices. To take a particularly egregious
example, the National Green Tribunal has banned diesel vehicles more than 10 years old in Delhi and if reports are to
be believed, is considering imposing a congestion charge for cars as well. That neither of these are judicial functions
and are being unjustly being usurped by a tribunal that has far exceeded its mandate, is evidence of the chain reaction
that the Supreme Court‟s activist avatar has set off across the judicial spectrum.

Finally, the Court‟s activism adds to a massive backlog of regular cases that makes the Indian justice delivery
mechanism, slow, unreliable and inefficient for the ordinary litigant. As on March 1, 2015, there were over 61,000
cases pending in the Supreme Court alone. It might be worthwhile for the Court to set its own house in order,
concomitantly with telling other wings of government how to do so.

As we mark 40 years of the Emergency and the darkest period in the Supreme Court‟s history, it might be time to not
single-mindedly harp on the significance of an independent judiciary. Judicial independence, is and must remain a
cherished virtue. However, it would be blinkered to not confront newer challenges that damage the credibility of our
independent judiciary today — unpardonable delays and overweening judges taking on the mantle of national
government by proxy. The Supreme Court 40 years on is a different institution — it must be cognizant of its history
but not at the cost of being blind to its present.

Question 36

Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage?

A) AnAtonement Gone Too Far

B) Sactimony From ARuined Pedestal
C) TheADM Jabalpur‟s Case: The Supreme Court‟s Darkest Hour
D) Overcompensating For Past Mistakes

Question 37

The author says that the Supreme Court was “more executive-minded than the executive” during the Emergency.
Which of the following options captures the essence of what the writer means by the phrase: 'more “executive-
minded than the executive”'?
 A) The Supreme Court abdicated its independence to an authoritarian government by embracing its
perspective.
B) The Supreme Court was more emphatic than the Government about exercising executive power under the
MISA.
C) The Supreme Court reflected the unconscionable actions taken by the government by upholding its laws.
D) The Supreme Court wanted to curry favor with the government through its deferential decisions during
Emergency.

Question 38:

Which of the following cannot be reasonably inferred from the passage?

A) The Supreme Court was complicit in curbing judicial independence during the Emergency.
B) Public interest litigations have, post-Emergency, led to the judiciary overreaching into the realm of
legislature.
C) The Indian Judiciary ought not indulge in general supervisory jurisdiction to correct actions and policies of
government.
D) The Indian judiciary must be equipped with technical competence and institutional capacity to ensure
compliance to orders passed in relation to public interest litigations.

Question 39

The word “egregious” in the passage is farthest in meaning to:

A) outrageous
B) flagitious
C) distinguished
D) arrant

Question 40

Which of the following is the author least likely to agree with?

A. The rise in judicial activism is in danger making the Supreme Court diffuse and ineffective, encroaching into
the functions of government.
B. Where the Supreme Court is only moved for better governance and administration, which does not involve
the exercise of any proper judicial function, it should refrain from acting.
 C. Adoption, police reform and environment issues are the remit of the judiciary.
D. The Indian judicial system needs to focus on clearing the massive backlog of cases to re-establish its
credibility.

Current Affairs and General Knowledge

Questions 1 to 50: Choose the correct answer from the options provided.

Question 1:

Who was honoured by the Indian National ScienceAcademy with the 2017 INSAMedal For Young Scientist?

A) Rifath Sharook
B) Sanjay Pratihar
C) Harshit Jindal
D) Aditya Bhargava

Question 2:

Name the Indian who was bestowed with the Grand Cordon of the Order of the Rising Sun by Japan?

A) Arun Jaitley
B) Rajnath Singh
C) Pranab Mujherjee
D) Ashwani Kumar

Question 3:

India‟s first Aquatic Rainbow Technology Park(ARTP) for ornamental fish will be set up in which city?

A) Mumbai
B) Kochi
C) Chennai
D) Kolkata

Question 4:

Which city will soon have the country's first underwater metro link?
 A) Kolkata
B) Mumbai
C) Delhi
D) Kochi

Question 5:

Who represented India at the 2017 Universal Periodic Review before the United Nations Human Rights Council?

A) Rajiv Kumar Chander

B) Rajesh Mishra
C) Harish Salve
D) Mukul Rohatgi

Question 6:

Who is serving as France's current Prime Minister?

A) Emmanuel Macron
B) Alain Juppe
C) Philippe Petain
D) Edouard Philippe

Question 7:

Who is the current National SecurityAdvisor to the President of the United States ofAmerica?

A) Michael T Flynn
B) H.R. McMaster
C) Susan Rice
D) James Mattis

Question 8:

With which company did the Indian Railways enter into a PPP arrangement to redevelop the Habibganj railway
station?

A) GMR Infrastructure
B) DLF
C) Larsen and Toubro
 D) Bansal Construction Group

Question 9:

Name the refugee camp which has become the first in the world to be powered entirely by renewable energy?

A) Azraq
B) Manus Island
C) Zataari
D) Dadaab

Question 10:

Which one of the following countries has not legalised gay marriage?

A) Germany
B) Malta
C) Sweden
D) Switzerland

Question 11:

Who holds the record for the first dual ascent made by a woman on Mount Everest summit within five days?

A) Anshu Jamshenpa
B) Ang Rita
C) MelissaArnot
D) Malavnath Purna

Question 12:

Who is the current head of FIFAGovernance Committee and Review Committee?

A) Sundaram Ravi
B) Mukul Mudgal
C) Navi Pillai
D) Ron Popper

Question 13:

Name the heaviest satellite to be launched from Indian soil?

 A) GSAT 17
B) GSAT 19
C) CARTOSAT 2E
D) GSLV Mk III

Question 14:

What is NASA's first spacecraft to be named after a living individual?

A) S.S John Glen

B) Parker Solar Probe
C) James Webb Space Telescope
D) MAVEN

Question 15:

Name the first city in the world to have a Microsoft font named after it?

A) Toronto
B) New York
C) Dresden
D) Dubai

Question 16:

Which Indian is to be honoured with the Carnegie medal this year?

A) Adi Godrej
B) Andrew Liveries
C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
D) Azim Premji

Question 17:

Name the Indian who won 'Diana Legacy Award' this year for her activities in providing access to education for the
under privileged?

A) Nikhiya Shamsher
B) Ananya Vijay
C) Ankit Kawatra
 D) Nisha Dutt

Question 18:

Who won the Miss World Bodybuilding Title and a gold medal at the championship this year?

A) Bhumika Sharma
B) Manushi Chillar
C) Sana Dua
D) Priyank Kumari

Question 19:

Name the author who won the Man Booker International prize for the book - 'A Horse Walks into a Bar'?

A) Paul Beaty
B) Deborah Levy
C) David Grossman
D) Roy Jocobson

Question 20:

What is the name of the next generation bullet train which made its debut recently in China?

A) Fujing
B) Fuxing
C) Jaoming
D) Jialong

Question 21:

Which one of the following Middle-East nations did not sever diplomatic ties with Qatar on the charges of supporting
terrorism?

A) Kuwait
B) Saudi Arabia
C) UAE
D) Bahrain

Question 22:
Name the documentary film on Amartya Sen which became controversial due to CBFC's demand that certain words
be censored?

A) TheArgumentative Indian
B) Indu Sarkar
C) BeyondAll Boundaries
D) An Insignificant Man

Question 23:

Which country is at present the fourth largest market for domestic aviation in the world?

A) China
B) India
C) Japan
D) United States

Question 24:

Portugal's Torre do Tombo will share digital copies from which of its collections with the National Archives of India?

A) The Saint Petersburg Bede

B) Eça de Queirós
C) Vedas Secas
D) Moncoes do Reino

Question 25:

How many cities will be assessed under the City Liveability Index which was launched in June?

A) 116
B) 100
C) 112
D) 132

Question 26:

Name the project by the Railways to give a complete makeover to the Rajdhani and Shatabdi Express services?

A) OperationAnubhooti
 B) Mission Retro fitment
C) Operation Swarn
D) Vikalp Scheme

Question 27:

What is the name given to India's first rural LED streetlighting project?

A) UJALADistribution Scheme
B) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
C) Bachat Lamp Yojana
D) Street Lighting National Project

Question 28:

Name the MP who participated in the most number of debates and discussions according to the report by PRS
Legislative?

A) Bhairon Prasad Mishra

B) Kulmani Samal
C) Ramesh Chander Kaushik
D) Gopal Shetty

Question 29:

India and Pakistan were admitted as full members of which international organisation this June?

A) AIIB
B) ASEAN
C) SCO
D) CPEC

Question 30:

Which famous fictional series is celebrating its twentieth anniversary this year?

A) Harry Potter
B) Star Wars
C) Lord of the Rings
D) Chronicles of Narnia
Question 31:

Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the National Commission for Schedules Castes?

A) L Murugan
B) Krishnaswamy Kasturirangan
C) Ram Shankar Katharia
D) Shashi Shankar

Question 32:

India opened the first air cargo corridor with which one of the following countries this June?

A) Pakistan
B) Nepal
C) Bangladesh
D) Afghanistan

Question 33:

Which state in the country recently implemented a green protocol to make weddings for environmental friendly?

A) Tamil Nadu
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) West Bengal
D) Kerala

Question 34:

India has signed a MoU with which of the following countries to improve the National Campaign For Water
Conservation in India?

A) Germany
B) China
C) Norway
D) Israel

Question 35:

The Election Commission of India will collaborate with which tech giant in a drive to encourage voter registration?
 A) Facebook
B) Google
C) Intel
D) Twitter

Question 36:

Which one of the following is not true about the development of the Kalvari class submarines which are expected to
be Indian navy's submarine mainstays?

A) The technology transfer for the project was carried out by France and is based on the French Scorpene class.
B) The first of the six submarines, INS Khanderi, was launched on 1st April 2015
C) TheAir Independent Propulsion Module will not be incorporated into any of the vessels.
D) They are being manufactured by the Mazgaon Dock Ltd. in Mumbai.

Question 37:

Which one of the following countries is one of the two countries to never be a party to the Paris summit?

A) Ecuador
B) North Korea
C) Iraq
D) Nicaragua

Question 38:

The Tories entered into an arrangement with which political party to form the minority government after the 2017
General Elections?

A) Scottish National Party

B) UK Independence Party
C) Democratic Unionist Party
D) Plaid Cymru

Question 39:

Who is the entrepreneur behind the world's biggest startup hub, Station F, situated in France?

A) Elon Musk
B) Jeff Bezoz
 C) Javier Bardem
D) Xavier Niel

Question 40:

What is the title given to the Irish Prime Minister?

A) Taoiseach
B) Dáil Éireann
C) First Minister
D) Secretary of State

Question 41:

India's first indigenous floating dock was build by which company?

A) Bharath Heavy Electricals

B) Larsen and Toubro
C) Reliance Defence and Engineering
D) GMR Infrastructure

Question 42:

Which of the following sect was founded by Guru Jambeshwar in the late 15th century?

A) Bishnoi
B) Hare Krishnana
C) Terpanth
D) Bhakti

Question 43:

What is the name of the Indian Navy's first sailing vessel?

A) INSV Tarini
B) INSV Sahyadri
C) INSV Jyoti
D) INSV Madhei

Question 44:
Name the first woman to win the Fields medal?

A) Maryam Mirzakhani
B) MuzoonAlmellehan
C) Yusra Mardini
D) Shakuntala Devi

Question 45:

Which day is observed as the World DayAgainst Child Labour?

A) May 14
B) July 20
C) June 12
D) July 3

Question 46:

Which city's metro services became the first to hire individuals from the transgender community as part of the
workforce?

A) Kochi
B) Bangalore
C) Kolkata
D) Delhi

Question 47:

Who is the chairman of the National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga?

A) Uma Bharti
B) Narendra Modi
C) Dr Sanjeev Balyan
D) Shashi Shekhar

Question 48:

Till date how many banks have been bought under prompt corrective action by the RBI in the last one year?

A) 4
 B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

Question 49:

Which state has the largest tiger population in South India?

A) Tamil Nadu
B) Karanataka
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Telangana

Question 50:

Who represented India at theAnnual Meeting ofAsian Infrastructure Investment Bank this year?

A) Rajnath Singh
B) Arun Jaitley
C) Urijith Patel
D) Kaushik Basu

Legal Aptitude
For Questions 1 to 25, choose the correct answer from the options provided:

Question 1:

Which part of a judgement will act as a binding precedent on a lower court considering a similar question of law in a
later case?

A) Ratio Decidendi
B) Obiter Dicta
C) Decree Nisi
D) Stare Decisis

Question 2:

Which Constitutional Amendment Act is referred to as the 'Mini Constitution'?

 A) 29th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 102nd Amendment
D) 76th Amendment

Question 3:

Which article in the Indian Constitution recognises English and Hindi in the Devanagiri script as official languages of
the Union?

A) Article 343
B) Article 349
C) Article 345
D) Article 348

Question 4:

Which constitutional amendment inserted Article 21A to the Indian Constitution, guaranteeing a fundamental right to
free and compulsory education for children between the ages 6 to 14?

A) 86thAmendment
B) 92ndAmendment
C) 102ndAmendment
D) 110thAmendment

Question 5:

Which constitutional amendment introduced the Goods and Service Tax?

A) 101st Amendment Act

B) 100th Amendment Act
C) 102nd Amendment Act
D) 99th Amendment Act

Question 6:

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that any Member of the legislative assembly, Member of a legislative
council or Member of Parliamentwho has been convicted of a crime and sentenced for a minimum of two year
imprisonment will loss his membership with immediate effect?
 A) Indra Sawhney v Union of India
B) Aruna Shanbaug v Union of India
C) MC Mehta v Union of India
D) Lily Thomas v Union of India

Question 7:

In which case did Supreme Court order the Election Commission to provide NOTA as one of the options for the
voters?

A) NALSAv Union of India

B) PUCLv Union of India
C) NBAv Union of India
D) Lawyers Collective v Union of India

Question 8:

Under which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 are confessions or statements before a magistrate during
a police investigation recorded?

A) Section 161
B) Section 172
C) Section 164
D) Section 193

Question 9:

Which of the following designations is not an office referred to in the Constitution of India?

A) Leader of Opposition
B) Prime Minister
C) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D) Chief Election Commissioner of India

Question 10:

Name the former Chief Justice of India, who passed away in June, who is remembered by most as the person behind
the PIL system?

A) Krishna Iyer
 B) PN Bhagwati
C) Altamas Kabir
D) K Subba Rao

Question 11:

Which one of the following contracts is not a void contract?

A) Acontract with a minor

B) Acontract with a person of unsound mind when he unsound
C) Acontract for the manufacturing of bombs
D) Acontract made between parties where one was in a position to exercise undue influence on the other

Question 12:

The reputation enjoyed by a company is referred to in law as?

A) Fame
B) Recognition
C) Stature
D) Goodwill

Question 13:

Culpable homicide is defined under which section of the IPC?

A) Section 300
B) Section 302
C) Section 309
D) Section 306

Question 14:

Who is the only Chief Justice to have exercised powers of the President in his absence?

A) M Hidayatullah
B) Krishna Iyer
C) YV Chandrchud
D) T S Thakur
Question 15:

What is the name given to a person who has filed a writ petition in a court?

A) Petitioner
B) Appellant
C) Applicant
D) Plaintiff

Question 16:

Under which intellectual property regime will an authors right over the books he write be protected?

A) Copyright
B) Patent
C) Designs
D) Trademark

Question 17:

Which of the following is not a condition that a person must fulfil before he can enrol as an advocate?

A) Citizen of India
B) Has completed the age of 21 years
C) Has a law degree from a university recognised by the Bar Council
D) Has cleared theAll India Bar Examination

Question 18:

Constitution of India was adopted on?

A) 15August 1947
B) 15August 1950
C) 26 November 1949
D) 26 January 1950

Question 19:

Which article of the Indian constitution was referred to as 'the heart and soul of Indian constitution' by B.R.
Ambedkar?
 A) Article 19
B) Article 32
C) Article 14
D) Article 21

Question 20:

Who is the highest law officer of a state in India?

A) Attorney General
B) Advocate General
C) Solicitor General
D) Accountant General

Question 21:

In which case did the Supreme Court order that it is mandatory for all theatres to play the national anthem?

A) Shyam Narayan Chouski v. Union of India

B) Samantha v State ofAndhra Pradesh
C) Vishakha v State of Rajsthan
D) Sushil Ansaar v State

Question 22:

India has not yet ratified which of the following core labour conventions?

A) Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention

B) Minimum Age For Employment Convention
C) Worst Form Of Child Labour Convention
D) Forced Labour Convention

Question 23:

The provision in which of the following statutes was struck down by the Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal v Union
of India?

A) Income Tax Act, 1961

B) Indian Penal Code, 1860

C) Information TechnologyAct, 2000

D) Special MarriageAct, 1954

Question 24:

Which case is important for having recognised the transgender community as the third gender in the country?

A) NALSAv Union of India

B) Naz Foundation v Govt of NCT of Delhi

C) Suresh Kumar Koushal v Union of India

D) Sankalp Rehabilitation Trust v Union of India

Question 25:

Which one of the following natural entities is the first to get the status of a legal person?

A) Ganga

B) Yamuna

C) Whanganui

D)Amazon

For Questions 26 to 50, read the principles provided and apply them strictly to the fact situation and choose
the correct answer from the options.

Question 26:

Principle I: Aperson under the age of twelve years cannot give consent.

Principle II: Nothing which is done in good faith for the benefit of a person under twelve years of age by or by
consent, either express or implied, of the guardian or other person having lawful charge of that person, is an offence by
reason of any harm which it may cause, or be intended by the doer to cause or be known by the doer to be likely to
cause to that person.

Principle III: An act done in goof faith is not an offence merely due to harm being caused if the person who suffered
the harm had consented to the act knowing the likelihood of the harm being caused to him.
Facts: B, a girl of thirteen years, goes to the hospital without her parents for a routine checkup. Dr. A discovered that
she was suffering from a medical condition that could prove life threatening if not treated immediately. B was not
given an opportunity to talk to her parents due to the paucity of time. She was explained of the necessity for the
surgery, and consented to the same, but she was not told the fact that there is a high risk of complications that can arise
from the surgery. B died due to complications from the surgery while being operated upon by Dr.A.

Is Dr.Aliable?

A) Dr.Ais liable because B could not have given a consent.

B) DrAis liable because consent of her parents was not taken.
C) DrAis not liable because the act was done in good faith.
D) DrAis liable because B did not give an informed consent.

Question 27:

Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid act or omission which he can foresee
would injure his neighbour, the neighbour for this purpose is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to
be affected by his act.

Fact: R caused the death of S due to rash driving. The severity of the accident was such that there was a lot of blood
pooling around making a gruesome sight. The reports of the accident was shown on live news with the images of the
accident scene. The telecast cause O, an old lady suffering from cardiac ailments, to have a heart attack. Legal heirs of
O sued R for the her death.

Is R liable?

A) R is liable as the accidental death was caused by S in this manner due to the rash driving.
B) R is liable as he had a duty towards everyone to drive carefully on the road.
C) R is not liable as this was too remote a consequence for him to have expected.
D) R is not liable because it was the duty of the news company to not telecast images.

Question 28:

Principle: A person is liable for an offence if the same was done under a state of intoxication and the intoxicant was
administered to him without his knowledge or against his will.

Facts: P, a teetotaler, goes to a pub with his friends. The friends in an attempt to induce him into drinking alcohol gives
him a can of beer stating that it is a non alcoholic beverage. P, knowing fully well that the can contains beer drinks it to
keep up the ruse becoming very intoxicated. When his friends start to tease him afterwards on having drunk beer, he
punches two of them hard on the face.

Is P liable?

A) Yes, he is liable because assault is a crime.

B) No, he is not liable as his friends had provoked him.
C) No, he is not liable because peer pressure made him drink.
D) Yes, he is liable because it was administered to him with his knowledge.

Question 29:

Principle: A person is liable for an offence if the same was done under a state of intoxication and the intoxicant was
administered to him without his knowledge or against his will.

Fact: G had to undergo a medical procedure involving a complex surgery for his back pain. He was told that he will
be administered an anaesthetic for the duration of the surgery and that the effects will wear off immediately thereafter.
He was not however correctly informed as to the precise duration and the extent to which the anaesthetic will
impair his faculty but he knew that certain anaesthetic could have a more severe impact on certain people. After being
discharged after the surgery he tried to drive back home on his own, his dull senses however led to him hitting a
pedestrian on the road causing severe injuries.

The pedestrian sued G, is he liable?

A) G is liable because he knew that the anesthetic had been administered to him.
B) G is liable because he should not have been driving so soon after a surgery.
C) G is liable because he knew that he had been administered the anesthetic and that it was making him dull.
D) G is not liable because the hospital should have been more clearer and specific as to the impact.

Question 30:

Principle No Person shall be prosecuted for the same offence twice.

Facts: Shreejith was driving his BMW when he drove the car on the pathway and crushed three people to death. Due
to lack of evidence he is acquitted, now the prosecution finds eye witness and evidence against him. They want to
prosecute him again.

A) Shreejith cannot be prosecuted again.

B) He can be prosecuted since there is fresh evidence against him.
 C) He cannot be prosecuted as his grandfather was the chief ofArmy.
D) He can be prosecutes again as he was not punished at all.

Question 31:

Principle: A contract is said to be induced by undue influence where the relations subsisting between the parties are
such that one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair
advantage over the other for himself either directly or indirectly.

Facts: A, son of B who is an ailing old woman, persuades his mother to gift away her house and other property to his
wife on the ground that it will make it easier for them to care for her.

Has Aexercised undue influence in obtaining that gift?

A) No. He did not take the property for himself.

B) No. He was not in a position to exercise undue influence on her.
C) No. What he said was a good point as the old lady could not have effectively managed the property herself.
D) Yes. It is irrelevant whether the advantage was direct or indirect so long as the transaction was to his benefit.

Question 32:

Principle: Where a person acting with the intention of causing the death of one person causes the death of others. He
shall be liable for the death of the other persons as if he had intended to cause their death through his actions.

Fact: P, gave A a halwa poisoned with cyanide iin order to kill him. A not knowing that the halwa was poisoned gave
the same to P's children. The children quickly died.

Is P liable?

A) No. P is not liable as no father would want to cause the death of his children.
B) No. P is not liable as he only intended to kill A.
C) Yes. P is liable as he was negligent.
D) Yes. P is liable as his actions to cause the death ofAcaused the death of the children.

Question 33:

Principle: Aperson is said to have abetted the commission of an offence if he knowing that his words or actions might
cause a person to commit an offence engages in the act.
Facts: A writes a letter to B exhorting her to kill C for all the perceived wrongs that has been done to her by C. The
letter is received by F, B's brother, who on reading the letter gets enraged and kills C.

CanAbe said to have abetted the commission of the offence?

A) Ais not liable as the letter was intended for B only.

B) Ais not liable as F ought not to have read the letter.
C) Ais not liable as the statements in the letter were true.
D) Ais liable as she knew that the writing were such that it would instigate someone.

Question 34:

Principle: Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in
which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person.

Facts: A was going back home on his usual route only to find that most of the road was blocked by the cart of C, a
hawker. While there was enough room to make his way aroung the cart A would have to step on a dirty
patch. Despite repeated requests on the part of A, C refused to move the cart. A was forced to take the longwinded
route back to his home.

Is C guilty of wrongful restraint?

A) No, C is not guilty as the obstruction did not prevent Afrom taking the road he had a right to take.
B) B) No, C is not guilty as it was a public road intended to be used as people deemed fit.
C) Yes, C is guilty as it is a public road.
D) Yes, C is guilty as he left Awith no choice but to backtrack.

Question 35:

Principle I: Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in
which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person.

Principle II: Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceedings
beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said "wrongfully to confine" that person.

Facts: A, the local goon, catches hold of B and at the threat of imminent harm to his family force B into a jeep. They
spend the next week travelling together through scenic areas and reside in expensive in hotels. B is however clearly
and sternly informed to not leave the room without A being with him and is not allowed to travel other than with A
and on a route decided byAwhen they leave the hotel.
Is Aguilty of any offence?

A) Ais not guilty of any offence as B was never put under any threat of harm.
B) Ais not guilty of any offence as they traveled to all the posh and exotic locales on his expense.
C) Ais guilty of wrongful restraint
D) Ais guilty of wrongful confinement

Question 36:

Principle: Whoever takes or entices any person under eighteen years of age, or any person of unsound mind, out of the
keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor or person of unsound mind, without the consent of such guardian, is
said to kidnap such minor or person from lawful guardianship.

Facts: A entices B, a girl of seventeen years, to go with him without the consent or knowledge of her parents. A and B
had done the same as they knew that B's parents were extremely unwilling to support their relationship. A and B later
get married and B's parents pardonAfor his actions.

Is Aliable under law for his actions?

A) Ais not liable as they were both in love.

B) Ais not liable as the action has been pardoned by the parents.
C) Ais liable as the offence is said to have been committed the moment B was enticed away.
D) Ais not liable because he was left with no choice.

Question 37:

Principle I: No person can be made liable for an act by a retrospective law, that is a law enacted after the act was
committed.

Principle II: Ignorance of law is not an excuse.

Facts: Alucio is a country where murder of suspected persons accused of murder is permitted under law. Dacula is a
mercenary who gets paid by the government to kill extremely powerful persons accused of murder who
are unwilling to stand trial and whose arrest the government believes will lead to a law and order problem. The
government issues a bounty on a wanted terrorist and Dacula takes up the bounty. While he is trying to complete the
bounty, the government enacts a new law penalising murder of suspected murderers instead requiring that they be
bought alive. Dacula while being unaware of this development kills his target.

Is Dacula liable?
 A) Dacula is not liable as he was on a contract for the government.
B) Dacula is not liable as he was unaware of the legal development
C) Dacula is not liable as the law cannot be applied retrospectively.
D) Dacula is liable as he committed the act after the law came into force.

Question 38:

Principle: Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to intimidate, insult or annoy
any person in possession of such property, or having lawfully entered into or upon such property, unlawfully remains
there with intent thereby to intimidate, insult or annoy any such person is said to commit criminal trespass.

Facts: A group of wandering herdsmen decide to squat on a pasture land which belongs to the government. The
government officials havent evicted them knowing that they will eventually leave for greener pastures when summer
begins. A few days later however there is theft of a lot of gold ornaments from the homes of the villagers with the
prime suspect being one of the herdsmen as the real culprit. The inaction on the part of the police leads to some
villagers forming a mob who attack the squatting herdsmen, destroy their possessions and drive them away.

Who, if any, has committed criminal trespass?

A) Both the villagers and herdsmen

B) Only the villagers
C) Only the herdsmen
D) Neither the villagers nor the herdsmen

Question 39:

Principle: Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to commit an offence or to
intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property, or having lawfully entered into or upon such
property, unlawfully remains there with intent thereby to intimidate, insult or annoy any such person, or with intent to
commit an offence, is said to commit “criminal trespass”.

Facts: Lupin, a famous thief of valuable artefacts gains the trust of Goldilock, a very wealthy magnate. Lupin sees
Goldilocks as a friend and is allowed to let himself into the house whenever he wishes. Lupin knowing fully well that
police is on to him after his latest heist intends to take refuge at Goldilock's home till things calm down However
Lupin is arrested by Detective Conan who had been f.ollowing his movements since the heist.

Is Lupin liable for criminal trespass?

A) Lupin is liable as he was using the house as a hideout.

 B) Lupin is liable as Goldilock would not want a thief staying with him.
C) Lupin is not liable as he had lawfully entered the house and did not intend to commit any offence.
D) Lupin is liable as he was using the house for an unlawful purpose

Question 40:

Principle: Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to commit an offence or to
intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property, or having lawfully entered into or upon such
property, unlawfully remains there with intent thereby to intimidate, insult or annoy any such person, or with intent to
commit an offence, is said to commit “criminal trespass”.

Facts: A, a friend of B's and a regular visitor to B's house, spends some time conversing with B. He comes to know
that B will be keeping a large sum of cash at his home for his daughters marriage. 'A' while at 'B's' home to assist with
the marriage ceremony comes to see the unlocked safe with the money in it. He makes up his mind to take the money
and use it to pay his debts but before he can actually take it 'A' comes into the room and locks the safe. B does not get
any opportunity to take the money.

Is Aguilty of criminal trespass?

A) He is not guilty of criminal trespass as he was in the house for a lawful purpose.
B) He is not guilty of criminal trespass as he never committed any theft.
C) He became guilty of criminal trespass the moment he made his mind up to take the money.
D) He became guilty of criminal trespass the first time he entered after hearing of the money.

Question 41:

Principle I: If a person commits an act by which death is caused to another person and the act is done with the
intention of causing death, that person is liable for murder.

Principle II: A person has a right of self defense to the extent of causing death to another provided he apprehends death
by the act of the latter.

Facts: Shiva went to a hardware shop owned by Anup. Bargaining on some item led to altercation between the two
and Shiva picked up a sharp object and hit at Anup. When Anup started bleeding, his wife Mridula intervened and she
was also hit by Shuva and she became unconscious. Finding himself totally cornered, Anup delivered a severe blow
to Shiva with a sharp object. Shiva died instantly.

A) Anup is liable because he ought to have know that hitting with a sharp object will lead to death.
B) Shiva did not have intention to kill Anup or his wife. It was due to provocation and thus Anup is liable.
 C) Anup is not liable because he had attacked Shiva only on apprehending death to himself and his wife to
defend himself.
D) Anup is liable because he used disproportionate force to defend from Shiva.

Questions 42 to 45:

Principle I: An owner of land has the right to use the land in any manner he or she desires. The owner of land also
owns the space above and the depths below it.
Principle II: Rights above the land extend only to the point they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land.
Principle III: An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above his or her land is put to
reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the owner would have no reasonable use of it and it does not
affect the reasonable employment of his or her land.

Question 42:

Ramesh‟s case: Ramesh owns an acre of land on the outskirts of Sullurpeta, Andhra Pradesh. The Government of
India launches its satellites into space frequently from Sriharikota, near Sullurpeta. The Government of India does not
deny that once the satellite launch has traveled the distance of almost 7000 kilometres it passes over Ramesh‟s
property. Ramesh files a case claiming that the Government of India has violated his property rights by routing its
satellite over his property, albeit 7000 kilometers directly above it.

Applying only Principle I to Ramesh‟s case, as a judge you would decide:

A) In favour of the Government of India because the transgression was at a height at which Ramesh could not
possibly have any use for.
B) That ownership of land does not mean that the owner‟s right extends infinitely into space above the land.
C) In favour of Ramesh because he has the right to infinite space above the land he owns.
D) In favour of the Government of India because it would lead to the absurd result that Ramesh and most other
property owners would have a claim against airline companies and other countries of the world whose
satellites orbit the earth.

Question 43:

Shazia‟s case: Shazia owns a single storeyed house in Ahmedabad which has been in her family for more than 75
years. The foundation of the house cannot support another floor and Shazia has no intention of demolishing her
family home to construct a bigger building. Javed and Sandeep are business partners and own three storey houses on
either side of Shazia‟s house. Javed and Sandeep are also Ahmedabad‟s main distributors for a major soft drinks
company. They have erected a huge hoarding advertising their products, with the ends supported on their roofs but the
hoarding also passes over Shazia‟s house at 70 feet and casts a permanent shadow on her terrace. Shazia decides to
hoist a huge Indian flag, going up to 75 feet, on her roof. She files a case, asking the court to order Javed and Sandeep
to remove the hoarding for all these reasons.

Applying only Principle II to Shazia‟s case, you would decide in favour of:

A) Javed and Sandeep because Shazia can easily hoist a flag below 70 feet.
B) Shazia because she has the right to put her land to any use and the court cannot go into her intentions for
hoisting a flag at 75 feet.
C) Shazia because she has the absolute right to the space above her land.
D) Javed and Sandeep because hoisting a flag 75 feet above one‟s roof is not essential to the use and enjoyment
of the land.

Question 44:

Applying only Principle III to Shazia's case, you will decide

A) In her favour because hoisting a 75 feet high flag is reasonable.

B)Against her because a 75 feet high flag is not reasonable.

C)Against her because the hoarding is a reasonable use of the space above her land.

D) In her favour because the permanent shadow cast by the hoarding affects the reasonable enjoyment of her land.

Question 45:

Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm,
if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding
other harm to a person or property.

Facts: Mr. Sharman, the Captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his part, finds
himself in such a position that, before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty or
thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that, by changing his course, he must incur
the risk of running down a boat C with only two passengers on board and which he may possibly clear.

A) Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity
B) Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence
C) Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide
D) This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible
Question 46:

Principle: Wilful rash driving is an offense.

Facts: Mr. Tiwari was driving his car after drinking alcohol. Police books him for wilful negligent driving. Is the act of
the police lawful?

A) No, because Mr. Tiwari was not driving rashly; he was drunk while driving.

B) No, this is not a negligent act.

C) Yes, because Mr. Tiwari was driving rashly.

D) Yes, because the police has the power to arrest a person driving rashly.

Question 47:

Principle: Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse

Fact: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on
28 Nov. 1962 it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared
it in the „Manifest for Transit‟. On 26th Nov. 1962 the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its
earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.

Is X liable?

A) X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued two days
ago
B) X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable
C) X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable
D) X‟s liability would depend on the discretion of the court

Question 48:

Principle: Proposal (communication) + Acceptance (communication) + Consideration = Contract. The

communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

Facts: A lost his wallet while returning from the academic block to the hostel. A asked his friends to go look for it.
While his friends were bust searching, A send out a mail offering a reward of Rs 100 for anyone who discovers the
wallet. His friend D, unaware of this offer, returns the waller to A. Later on coming to know of the offer, he sues A for
the reward.
Will his action succeed?

A) His action would fail because he was not aware of the offer
B) His action would not fail because it was a general offer
C) The fact that he was not aware of the offer does not make any difference and hence it was a valid contract. It
is a mere formality
D) A's obligation is still valid and binding morally and thus can be enforced,

Question 49:

Principle: Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody‟s possession without lawful justification is called
trespass of goods.

Facts: Z purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and sent it to a garage for repair. X believing wrongly that
the car was his, removed it from the garage.

A) X can be held responsible for trespass of goods

B) X cannot be held responsible for trespass of goods as he was under a wrong belief.
C) X has not committed any wrong.
D) None of the above

Question 50:

Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the possession of any person without
that person‟s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.

Facts: Robin Hood leaves on a journey to York. Prior to leaving for the journey, he leaves his bow with his neighbour,
Sergei. Sergei was instructed to send the bow to Maid Mariam for safekeeping. He instead sold the bow to the Sheriff
of Nottingham.

Is Sergei liable for theft?

A) Sergei has committed theft

B) Sergei has not committed theft
C) Sergei has committed criminal misappropriation
D) Sergei was within his legal right to sell the bow.
 Logical Reasoning
Question 1:

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the
group?

(a) Clove

(b) Cinnamon

(c)Apricot

(d) Cardamom

Question 2:

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXPERIMENT each of which have as many letters between
them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

(a) None

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Three

Question 3:

Pointing to a photograph Rasika said “He is the grandson of my grandmother‟s only son.” How is the boy in
photograph related to Rasika ?

(a) Son

(b) Nephew

(c) Brother

(d) Cannot be determined

Question 4:

Statements :
Some shoes are socks.

All socks are towels.

All towels are bedsheets.

No bedsheet is blanket.

Conclusions :

I. No towel is blanket.

II. Some shoes are towels.

III. Some shoes are bedsheets.

(a) Only I and II follow

(b) Only II and III follow

(c) Only I and III follow

(d)All follow

Question 5:

Statements :

Some fruits are flowers.

Some flowers are buds.

No bud is leaf.

All leaves are plants.

Conclusions :

I. No plant is bud.

II. Some plants are flowers.

III. Some buds are fruits.

(a) None follows

(b) Only I follows

(c) Only II and III follow

(d) Only III follows

Question 6:

Statements :

Some pearls are gems.

Some gems are diamonds.

All diamonds are rings.

All rings are bangles.

Conclusions :

I. Some bangles are rings.

II.All rings are diamonds.

III.All diamonds are bangles.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only I and II follow

(c) Only I and III follow

(d)All follow

Question 7:

Statements :

All chairs are tables.

All tables are telephones.

All telephones are cell phones.

No cell phone is computer.

Conclusions :

I.All cell phones are tables.

II. Some chairs are computers.

III. No chair is computer.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Only III follows

(d) Only either II or III follows

Question 8:

Statements :

Some rocks are hills.

All hills are mountains.

All mountains are rivers.

No river is Canal.

Conclusions :

I.All rocks are rivers.

II. Some hills are canals.

III. Some rivers are canals.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II and III follow

(c) Only I and III follow

(d) None follows

Direction for Question s 9 to 13: Study the following information carefully to answer the Question s given
below it—

Seven professionals A, B, C, D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in different

cities Chennai, Banglore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar
not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different profession Doctor, Engineer,
Pharmacist, Lawyer, Counsellor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in the same order.
A is a Pharmacist and practises in Bhubaneshwar. D practises in Banglore but is not a
Doctor or an Artist. The one who practises in Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a
Counsellor and does not practise in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a Lawyer and practises in
Ahmedabad. F practises in Chennai but is not an artist. C practises in Mumbai.

Question 9:

What is D‟s profession ?

(a) Doctor

(b) Professor

(c) Engineer

(d) Cannot be determined

Question 10:

Who is the professor ?

(a) B

(b) C

(c) D

(d) E

Question 11:

Which of the following combinations of profession and place is correct ?

(a) Pharmacist—Jaipur
(b) Engineer—Chennai

(c) Doctor—Bangalore

(d)Artist—Mumbai

Question 12:

Which of the following persons work in Jaipur ?

(a) B

(b) G

(c) C

(d) B or G

Question 13:

Who is the Doctor?

(a) D

(b) B

(c) C

(d) None of these

Question 14:

What should come next in the following number series ?

9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5 __

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 2

(d) 1

Question 15:
Meeta correctly remembers that her father‟s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th
July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father‟s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day
of July was definitely their father‟s birthday ?

(a) 10th

(b) 11th

(c) 10th or 11th

(d) Cannot be determined

Question 16:

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group ?

(a) B D F

(b) V X Z

(c) F I K

(d) M O Q

Direction for Question s 17 to 23: In each Question below is given a group of digits/symbols
followed by four combinations of letters lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find
out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on
the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.
If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (e) i.e. „None of these‟ as the
answer.

Digit/Symbol :

4%39$18@©2#56*7d

Letter Code :

P M I T R Question J F HAE U N B G L

Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.

(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the
digit.

(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as „X‟.

(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as „Y‟.

Question 17:

4%@93*

(a) PMFTIB

(b) PMFTIP

(c) BMFTIB

(d) XMFTIX

Question 18:

$1896©

(a) RQJTNH

(b) HQJTNR

(c) RQJTNR

(d) YQJTNY

Question 19:

2*#836

(a) YBEJIY

(b)ABEJIN

(c) NBEJIA

(d) XBEJIX
Question 20:

8732@9

(a) TGIAFJ

(b) YGIAFY

(c) JGIAFT

(d) XGIAFX

Question 21:

7#$%35

(a) GERMIU

(b) UERMIG

(c) GERMIG

(d) None of these

Question 22:

931%©d

(a) TIQMHL

(b) LIQMHT

(c) LIQMHL

(d) TIQMHT

Question 23:

46*389

(a) PNBIJT

(b) XNBIJX

(c) TNBIJP
(d) PNBIJP

Question 24:

Which one comes first as per Dictionary words?

Knowledge, Knife, Known, Kite

(a) Kite

(b) Knowledge

(c) Known

(d) Knife

Question 25:

Choose the missing term from the given alternative.

ZUA, XOC, VIE, TEG, (….)

(a) SAG

(b) RAI

(c) RAJ

(d) QAE

Question 26:

Fill in the blanks at the place of ? in the following :

Calendar : Date : : Dictionary : ?

(a) time

(b) words

(c) numbers

(d) weight
Direction for Questions 27 to 31: Read the following information carefully and answer the Question s given
below it.

(i) Madhu and Shobha are good in Dramatics and Computer Science.

(ii) Anjali and Madhu are good in Computer Science and Physics.

(iii) Anjali, Poonam and Nisha are good in Physics and History.

(iv) Nisha andAnjali are good in Physics and Mathematics.

(v) Poonam and Shobha are good in History and Dramatics.

Question 27:

Who is good in Computer Science, History and Dramatics ?

(A)Anjali

(B) Madhu

(C) Shobha

(D) Nisha

Question 28:

Who is good in Physics, Dramatics and Computer Science?

(A) Shobha

(B) Poonam

(C) Madhu

(D)Anjali

Question 29:

Who is good in Physics, History and Dramatics?

(A) Poonam

(B) Shobha
(C) Madhu

(D)Anjali

Question 30:

Who is good in History, Physics, Computer Science and Mathematics?

(A) Poonam

(B) Nisha

(C) Madhu

(D)Anjali

Question 31:

Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics but not in Computer Science?

(A) Madhu

(B) Poonam

(C) Nisha

(D)Anjali

Direction for Questions 32 to 36: Read the following information carefully and answer the Question s given
below it.

I. Eight persons E, F, G, H, l, J, K and Lare seated around a square table- two on each side.

II. There are three lady members and they are not seated next to each other.

III. J is between Land F.

IV. G is between I and F.

V. H, a lady member, is second to the left of J.

VI. L, a male member, is seated opposite of E, a lady member.

VII. There is a lady member between F and I.

Question 32:

Who among the following is seated between E and H ?

(a) F

(b) I

(c) J

(d) None of these

Question 33:

How many persons are seated between K and F ?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Cannot be determined

Question 34:

Who among the following are the three lady members?

(a) E, G and J

(b) E, H and G

(c) G, H and J

(d) Cannot be determined

Question 35:

Who among the following is to the immediate left of F?

(a) G

(b) I

(c) J
(d) Cannot be determined

Question 36:

Which of the following is true about J?

(a) J is a male member

(b) J is a female member

(c) Sex of J cannot be determined

(d) Position of J cannot be determined

Direction for Questions 37 to 40: In each of the following Question s, five (or four) numbers are given. Out of
these four (or three) are alike in some way but rest one is different. Choose the one which is different from the
other.

Question 37:

(a) 27

(b) 63

(c) 42

(d) 07

Question 38:

(a) 100

(b) 125

(c) 169

(d) 196

Question 39:

(a) 275

(b) 451
(c) 297

(d) 254

Question 40:

(a) 901

(b) 432

(c) 562

(d) 789

Quantitative Aptitude
Question 1:

In the series: 664, 332, 340, 170, ____, 89, ... What number should fill the blank?

A) 85
B) 97
C) 109
D) 178

Question 2:

In the series: 4, 7, 25, 10, __, 20, 16, 19, ... What number should fill the blank?

A) 13
B) 15
C) 20
D) 28

Question 3:

How many bricks, each measuring 25 cm x 11.25 cm x 6 cm, will be needed to build a wall of 8 m x 6 m x 22.5 cm?

A) 5600
B) 6000
C) 6400
 D) 7200

Question 4:

Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5:7:8. There is a proposal to increase these by
40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?

A) 2:3:4
B) 3:2:7
C) 2:4:7
D) 2:4:2

Question 5:

Ashopkeeper sells 150 bags for Rs 7500. By doing so he gains the cost of Rs 250 bags. Find his percentage gain.

A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 66.67%
D) 16.67%

Question 6:

The current value of a bike purchased 2 years ago is Rs 72,000. Its value has constantly depreciated at the rate of 2%
per year. What was its approximate original value?

A) Rs. 73,469
B) Rs. 74,969
C) Rs. 75,124
D) Rs 76, 260

Question 7:

The current population of a village is 5000. The population in this village increases at a steady rate of 20% per year.
What will be the population of the village after 2 years?

A) 7200
B) 6900
C) 7000
D) 7100
Question 8:

In a city, the population increases in the first year by 10%, increases in the second year by 10% and decreases in the
third year by 10%. If the population now is 100,000, what is the population after three years?

A) 104,000
B) 108,000
C) 121,000
D) 108,900

Question 9:

Ganesh spends 15% of his salary on fuel, 20% on house rent, 40% on other house expenditures and the remaining
amount on his children‟s education. What is the amount spend on fuel if the children‟s education costs him Rs 5000?

A) Rs. 3000
B) Rs. 3500
C) Rs. 4000
D) Rs. 4500

Question 10:

A club has an average of 455 visitors on Wednesdays and 225 on other days. What is the average number of visitors
per day in June, which begins on a Monday?

A) 256.33
B) 265.33
C) 255.67
D) 252.67

Question 11:

In a test, Jay‟s marks were wrongly entered as 75 instead of 60, This increased te average marks of the class by 0.5.
What is the number of students in the class?

A) 50
B) 35
C) 45
D) 30
Question 12:

A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. Pipe C is twice as fast as B and Pipe B is twice as fast as A. How
much time will PipeAalone take to fill the tank?

A) 20 Hrs
B) 25 Hrs
C) 35 Hrs
D) 40 Hrs

Question 13:

12 carpenters working 6 hours a day can make 240 tables in 20 days. How many tables will 16 carpenters working
10 hours a day make in 24 days?

A) 640
B) 560
C) 480
D) 520

Question 14:

In a 500m race, B starts 45m ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is still 35m behind. What is the ratio of the
speeds ofAto B assuming that they both start at the same time?

A) 25:21
B) 25:20
C) 5:3
D) 5:7

Question 15:

Mr Singh while travelling to office walks at a speed of 6 kmph and reaches 10 mins earlier. One day he walks at a
speed of 4 kmph and reaches 6 minutes late. What distance does he travel to reach office?

A) 4.2 km
B) 5.2 km
C) 3.6 km
D) 2.2 km
Question 16:

If a boat is moving upstream with a speed of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a speed of 40km/hr then what is
the speed of the stream?

A) 13km/hr
B) 27km.hr
C) 14 km/hr
D) 20 km/hr

Question 17:

Seven students save together Rs 700. If each student saves twenty more than the previous student, how much does the
first student save?

A) Rs 20
B) Rs 60
C) Rs 80
D) Rs 40

Question 18:

A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old the son. The sum of the father‟s and the
mother‟s age is 51 years. What is the age of the son?

A) 7
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3

Question 19:

What is the largest number that leaves an equal remainder when leaving an equal remainder when dividing 300, 344
and 465?

A) 11
B) 24
C) 15
D) 9
Question 20:

There are three classes of 91, 143 and 206 students respectively who go out together for physical training. All the
students are divided into groups of equal sizes and each group contains students from only one of the classes. What
would be the largest possible group?

A) 4
B) 7
C) 11
D) 13