1000 PMP Questions PDF

S AMPLE T EST 1
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1. Project risk is characterized by three factors: _____.
A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact
B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact
C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
D. Occurrence, frequency and cost
2. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and
provides the resources to meet the risk events.
A. Address
B. Classify
C. Assign
D. Resolve
3. Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP® Professional Code of
Conduct?
A. Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are
currently working in.
B. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision.
C. Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management
services are provided
D. Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of
impropriety.
4. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control?

A. Organizational procedures
B. Performance reports
C. Project plan updates
D. Performance measurement
5. _____________ invloves using statitical relationship between historical data and other variables .
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric estimating
D. Bottom up estimating
Sample Test 1 1-1

S A M P L E TE S T 1
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6. One of your employees is up for promotion. If the promotion is granted, the employee will be
reassigned elsewhere causing a problem for you on your project. You can delay the promotion until
your project is completed. You should:
A. Support the promotion but work with the employee and the employee's new
management to develop a good transition plan
B. Ask the employee to refuse the promotion until your project is completed.
C. Arrange to delay the promotion until the project is completed
D. Tell the employee that it is his responsibility to find a suitable replacement so that the
project will not suffer
7. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is the
_____________.
A. Magnitude of the impact on the project
B. Project manager's perception of risk
C. Project manager's ability to influence the risk
D. Use of more or less contractors
8. Which is an input to resource planning?

A. Historical information
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost management plan
D. Chart of accounts
9. _____________ involves allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish
a cost baseline for measuring project performance.
A. Resource planning
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
10. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by senior
management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while working on
your project. You should:
A. Follow instructions
B. Inform the corporate auditors
C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action
D. Try to close down the project
1-2 Sample Test 1

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11. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the _____ of the project.
A. Manager
B. Detriment
C. Schedule
D. Budget
12. _____________ /top-down estimating is generally the least accurate.

A. Using stakeholders to predict cost
B. Parametric modeling
C. Analogous estimating
D. Computerized estimating
13. Using a contractor to perform a high risk task is which form of risk response?
A. Mitigation
B. Acceptance
C. Transference
D. Avoidance
14. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete
project activities.
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
15. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to use
personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In these situations
the project manager's most appropriate response would be:
A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract.
B. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost.
C. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work
D. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.
Sample Test 1 1-3

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16. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is
entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree
with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be
taken?
A. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices
B. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
interpretations and disputes
C. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in
favor of the contractor
D. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the
customer
17. The most rapid cost estimating technique is:

A. Square foot estimating
B. Template estimating
C. Computerized estimating
D. Analogous estimating
18. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most desirable
method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be:
A. Compromise
B. Forcing
C. Controlling
D. Confrontation
19. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies of
his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be
identified. The project manager should:
A. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge
areas
B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
C. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas
D. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination
1-4 Sample Test 1

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20.An example of a conflict of interest would be:

A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you
personally
B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate
C. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company
strategy
D. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.
21. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Planning include of the following except?
A. Avoidance
B. Expert judgment
C. Transference
D. Acceptance
22. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a proposal for a
$1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not. This is defined as:
A. Sources of risk
B. Potential risk events
C. Stakeholder risk tolerances
D. Expected monetary value
23. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and
customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any
client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The
action to take in this case would be:
A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts.
B. Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential
C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.
D. Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.
24. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.

A. Computerized
B. Bottom up estimating
D. Square foot
Sample Test 1 1-5

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25. Tool and techniques for Risk Identification include all but:
A. Checklists
B. Delphi technique
C. Triggers
D. Interviewing
26. What are the inputs to Project Plan Execution?

A. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action.
B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective
action.
C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action.
D. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons
learned.
27. Change control requests:

A. Must be relayed in writing
B. Provide the baseline against which changes will be controlled
C. Are always initiated externally
D. Are inputs to integrated change control
28. Cost control is concerned with:

A. Managing changes when they occur
B. Resource rates
C. Chart of accounts
D. Organizational policies
29. _____________ is another term for top down estimating.

C. Parametric modeling
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30. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After contract award, the customer
provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice president for engineering says
that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a different test matrix, which should give
better results. This is a violation to the SOW. Suppose your sponsor is also the vice president for
engineering. You should:
A. Use the customer's test matrix.
B. Use the engineering test matrix without telling the customer.
C. Use the engineering test matrix and inform the customer.
D. Tell your sponsor that you want to set up a meeting with the customer to resolve the
conflict.
31. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect
project objectives.
A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
32. A person who is attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied which needs?
A. Esteem
B. Self-Actualization
C. Physiological
D. Social
33. Which of the following choices would indicate that your project was 10% under budget?
A. The BCWS was 110, and the BCWP was 100
B. The ACWP was 100, and the BCWP was 110
C. The BCWS was 100, and the ACWP was 110
D. The ACWP was 110, and the BCWP was 100
34. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is

A. Bidder Negotiations
B. Bidder Auction
C. Bidder Conference
D. Bidder Selection
Sample Test 1 1-7

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35. Risk response planning is one of the _______________ processes

A. Planning core processes
B. Planning facilitating processes
C. Controlling core processes
D. Controlling facilitating processes
36. Which of the following is not one of the Risk Management processes?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk quantification
C. Risk assessment
D. Risk response planning
37. The project plan:

A. Is a management control that will change only intermittently and only in response to an
approved scope change
B. Usually includes the work break down structure but not major milestones
C. Is used to manage project execution
D. Includes open issues, but not pending decisions
38. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured methodologies that
ensure all project elements are evaluated. This is done as a tool and technique during?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Risk identification
C. Risk management planning
D. Risk monitoring and control
39. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items:

A. Computerized
D. Square foot
40. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is:
A. CPPC
B. FPI
C. CPIF
D. CPFF
1-8 Sample Test 1

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41. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you discover
that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous projects. You should:
A. Reject the estimate and remove the functional manager from the project
B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared.
C. Accept the estimate and plan to use the additional funding as a reserve.
D. Question each functional manager for information about this estimate.
42. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean?
Project "B" Activities LOW MOST LIKELY HIGH
Gather requirements 40 45 80
Write specifications 35 50 100
Review specifications 10 15 30
Build model 18 25 50
Inspect model 10 20 40
Prepare defects/issues list 10 25 60
Resolve defects/issues 15 20 40
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
43. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.

A. Project Management Policy of Ethics
B. Project Management Professional Standards
C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards
D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
Sample Test 1 1-9

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44. The communication management plan is a document that provides:

A. A collection of filing structures with detailed methods to store information
B. A description of the information to be distributed, including format, content, and
conventions/definitions to be used
C. A method for updating and refining the communications management plan as the
project progresses and develops
D. All of the above
45. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
46. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur?
A. Risk management plan
B. Project plan
C. Corrective action plan
D. Contingency plan
47. ____________ involves determing the information and communication of stakeholders.

A. Communications planning
B. Process control
C. project status reports
D. Information distribution planning
48. What are the tools and techniques for project plan development?
A. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the work breakdown structure
B. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and historical information
C. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and the project plan
D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
information system (PMIS) and earned value management (EVM)
1-10 Sample Test 1

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49. The objective with which the project team will measure the effectiveness of its execution of the
risk response plan is based on the?
A. Overall risk ranking for the project
B. Probability rating
C. Risk assessment score
D. Acceptable threshold for risk
50. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the implementation
phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives.
During the implementation phase, some indications of riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's
objectives. may be:
A. Instability of project progress information
B. Loss of focus on the work by line supervisors
C. Conflict between project manager and customer
D. All of the above
51. Parametric cost estimating involves:

A. Using the work breakdown structure as the basis for estimating
B. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle
C. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package
D. Using rates and other factors based on lesson learned/historical data to estimate costs
52. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation,
collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project information.
A. Project communication management
B. Quality standards
C. Process control
D. Project quality control
53. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or performance of
the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk of:
B. Different project strategies
C. Different network paths
D. Individual activities
Sample Test 1 1-11

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54. What is the Delphi forecasting technique?

A. Regression analysis on historical information
B. Intuitive expert opinion
C. Simulation models
D. Probabilistic sensitivity analysis
55. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development?

A. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, project plan and stakeholder skills
B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other
planning outputs
C. Assumptions, constraints, supporting detail, project plan and change requests
D. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting detail
56. Project Integration Management

A. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work
required to complete the project successfully
B. Describes the processes required to ensure timely completion of the project
C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for
which it was undertaken
D. Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are
properly coordinated
57. To maintain the customer's schedule, massive overtime will be required between Christmas and
New Years. Many of your team members have put in for vacation during this time. You should:
A. Let the schedule slip and inform the customer
B. First give the employees the choice of working overtime
C. Make the employees cancel their vacation plans and work overtime
D. Hire temporary employees for the overtime
58. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically detailed.
These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and are a risk to the
contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as required in common law
and legislation.
A. Operability and durability
B. Lawful use of the product and safety of use
C. Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution
D. Merchantability and fitness for purpose
1-12 Sample Test 1

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59. Your executives, in appreciation for the success of your project, have given you a $10,000 bonus to
be disbursed among your five-team members. One of the five, who is a substandard worker and
accomplished very little on your project, is in your car pool. You should:
A. Provide everyone with an equal share
B. Provide everyone a share based upon their performance
C. Ask the workers to decide among themselves how the bonus should be subdivided
D. Ask the sponsor to make the decision
60. Inputs to risk quantification include which of the following?

A. Stakeholder risk tolerance
B. Sources of risk
C. Potential risk events
D. Historical data
61. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most authority?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Projectized
D. Strong Matrix
62. In order for the project manager to fully and effectively understand a stake holder's personal
concerns or grievances it may necessary to:
A. Ask for a written description of the problem and submit it through the project office
B. Schedule a project review session with the entire project team
C. Attempt to empathize with the stakeholder
D. Involve the project sponsor as an arbitrator
63. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is:
A. CPIF
B. FPI
C. FFP
D. CPFF
64. Which is a document is not used to solicit proposals from potential buyers?
A. IFQ
B. IFB
C. RFP
D. RFQ
Sample Test 1 1-13

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65. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40, respectively. The
mean is _____.
A. 20.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
66. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager can
calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an informed
decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is $10,000, value of the
property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance:
A. Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable losses
B. Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses
C. Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk
D. Is indeterminable because of insufficient data
67. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of
project management most effectively by:
A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
B. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property
C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management
D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed
68. The output from resource planning includes:

A. Salary options
B. Job descriptions and responsibilities
C. Resources required
D. Current job openings
69. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.

B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
1-14 Sample Test 1

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70. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
71. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule
overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:
A. High than the ACWP
B. Higher than the BCWS
C. Lower than the ACWP
D. Lower than the BCWS
72. Project cost management includes all of the following functions except:
B. Resource leveling
C. Cost estimating
D. Cost budgeting
73. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:

B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Quantitative risk analysis
D. Risk control management
74. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for your
multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The appropriate
action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to:
A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
B. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects
C. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information
D. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific
communications infrastructure.
Sample Test 1 1-15

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75. The project is one with many hazards that could easily injure one or more persons and there is no
method of avoiding potential for damages. The project manager should consider _____ as a means
of deflecting the risk.
A. Abandoning the project
B. Buying insurance for personal bodily injury
C. Establishing a contingency fund
D. Establishing a management reserve
76. Which is a phased budget used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project?
A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
D. EAC
77. _________ is the formal procedure for sanctioning project work to ensure it is done at the right
time.
A. Work-authorization system
B. Organizational procedures
C. Status review
D. Project planning
78. Tools and techniques used in Quantitative Risk analysis include all of the following except?
A. Interviewing
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Avoidance
79. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted outcome of
alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is:
A. Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollars
B. Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
C. Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
D. Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars
1-16 Sample Test 1

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80. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer
system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a
common data communication. The integration of data protocols has never been accomplished
before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a _____ contract and the contractor will
sign only a _____ contract.
A. Letter, formal
B. Fixed price, cost plus
C. Cost plus, fixed price
D. No-fault, no obligation
81. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of contract is
essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A tort is a personal
wrong and includes _____.
A. An automobile accident
B. An accident on commercial premises
C. Slander or libel
D. All of the above
82. For Christmas, you give your government client a leather brief case. You are in violation of the
responsibility to:
A. Comply with the law.
B. Comply with regulations.
C. Provide accurate information.
D. Protect conflict of interest.
83. Earned value can be described as:

A. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the current date
B. The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project date
C. A method of measuring project performance
D. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date
84. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA
and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should:
A. Do nothing; it's not your problem
B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated
C. Talk to the corporate legal department
D. Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations
Sample Test 1 1-17

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85. Which describes how cost variances will be managed?

A. Cost management plan
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimate
86. To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called?
A. Duration compression
B. Crashing
C. Program evaluation and review technique
D. Perform either a forward and backward pass to determine the critical path
87. Which of the following is an input to the team development process?

A. General management skills
B. Inputs to performance appraisals
C. Staffing pool description
D. External feedback
88. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the life cycle of
a project.
A. Researching, reviewing and acting on
B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to
C. Reviewing, monitoring and managing
D. Identifying, reviewing and avoiding
89. Which is not another term for contract?

A. Agreement
B. Purchase Order
C. Proposal
D. Memorandum of Understanding
90. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value
to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can have the
following affect:
A. Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damages
B. Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights
C. Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent
D. All of the above
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91. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project stakeholders receive
and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering information to the
stakeholders the project manager should attempt to:
A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before
transmitting information
B. Identify only those stakeholders that have a the same background experience as the
project manager
C. Filter the information to remove any details
D. Restrict information to specific technical details
92. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This new
team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of
proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team
in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new
hire's condition of employment. You should:
A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire.
B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the
offer.
C. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the
project's financial status.
D. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project
93. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should:
A. Determine the risks associated with the violation
B. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
C. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results
D. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response
94. Communication technology factors that may affect the project include:
A. Learning upgrades of new system
B. The immediacy of the need for information
C. The availability of technology
D. All of the above
Sample Test 1 1-19

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95. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has been
estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next scheduled delivery,
it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50 %, based on the fact that this
has happened before on the project. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event
occurring:
A. $3,500
B. $4,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500
96. Outputs to Risk Response Planning include all of the following except?
A. Risk response plan
B. Corrective action plan
C. Contractual agreements
D. Residual risks
97. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or project
completion.
A. Project plan completion model
B. Performance reporting
C. Administrative closure
D. Process control
98. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have been set at
8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are _____ as the project
nears completion.
A. Retained at the remaining dollar level
B. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
C. Decreased to reduce the accounting work
D. Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget
99. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages of a
project.
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Answers
100. Project "A," a fast-track design-build, has a probability of scope change of 85 %, and the
probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the project
will have scope changes and not be terminated?
A. 13 %
B. 6 %
C. 100 %
D. 72%
ANSWERS
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1. C. PMBOK , page 134
2. A. PMBOK , page 143
3. B. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct
4. D. PMBOK , page 48
6. A.
7. C.
10. C. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct
11. B. PMBOK , page 207
16. B.
18. D. PMP Exam Cram, page 7-162
19. B.
20. A. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct
22. C.
23. C. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct
Sample Test 1 1-21

1 Answers

30. D.
32. C. PMP Exam Cram, page 7-165
40. A. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-228
42. C. Triangular distribution mean = low + most likely + high /3 = 138 + 200 + 400 /3 = 246
43. D. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct
54. B. PMP Exam Cram, page 9-205
57. B.
59. C.
62. C.
1-22 Sample Test 1

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Answers

65. C. Triangular distribution mean = low + most likely + high /3
67. A. PMP® Professional Code of Conduct
70. C.
77. A. PMBOk , page 47
81. D. A tort is defined as damage, injury, or a wrongful act done willfully, negligently, or in
circumstances involving strict liability, but not involving breach of contract, for which a civil suit
can be brought.
94. D. PMP Exam Cram, 8-184
Sample Test 1 1-23

1 Answers

100. D. 85% scope change, 85% project not being terminated = .85 * .85 = .72 or 72%
1-24 Sample Test 1

S AMPLE T EST 2
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A. Computerized
D. Square foot
2. A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the
organization's needs regarding control of the project.
A. True
B. False
3. In the phase sequence defined by project life cycles, a phase is not begun until all
deliverables are approved from the preceding phase.
A. True
B. False
4. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model.

5. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely
affect project objectives.
A. Likely events
Test 2 2-31
2
6. _____________ is generally the least accurate.

7. The _____________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration:

A. Start-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Start-to-finish
D. None of the above
8. The contingency allowances established to cover unforeseen costs on your project have
been set at 8% of total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowances are
_____ as the project nears completion.
A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
B. Increased to meet the unidentified surprises
9. Contract close-out contains:

A. Contract documentation
B. Procurement audits
C. Formal acceptance and closure
D. All of the above
10. General Management encompasses all but:

A. Finance and accounting
B. Strategic planning
C. Sales and marketing
D. Developing a new product or service
2-32 Test 2
.....
11. A program is defined in the PMBOK as:

A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available
from managing them individually
B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team
to ensure the completion of a desired outcome
C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome
D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments
12. Which process is not included in Project Time Management?

A. Activity definition
B. Activity sequencing
C. Schedule development & schedule control
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
13. Performance improvements include all but:

A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team behaviors
D. Improvements in team capabilities

B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimate
15. __________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. Resource planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Executing process
Test 2 2-33
2
16. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called:

A. Procurement planning
B. Source selection
C. Contract administration
D. Contract closeout
17. The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:

A. A mathematical analysis technique for schedule development
B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration
C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development
D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity
duration estimates
18. The core planning processes are:

A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity
definition
B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management
C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control
D. Scope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract
administration

B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
20. Key Management skills include:

A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Negotiating
D. All of the above
2-34 Test 2
.....
21. The process that is not a part of time management is:

A. Activity Definition
B. Resource Planning
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Sequencing
22. The outputs from schedule control include all except:

A. Schedule updates
B. Revisions
C. Corrective action
D. Lessons learned
23. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the
work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
A. Project plan update
B. Project scope management
C. Scope change control
D. Product description
24. Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project.

A. True
B. False
25. A resource pool description provides:

A. The unit cost for each resource
B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns
C. Performance of the pool resources
D. Duration of the project
Test 2 2-35
2
26. _________ recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization
to do so.
A. Initiating process
B. Solicitation process
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process
27. An output of scope definition is:

A. Work breakdown structure
B. Scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Corrective action
A. Manager
B. Detriment
C. Schedule
D. Budget
29. A RAM is defined as:

A. Random access memory
B. Rapid air movement
C. Responsibilities and methods
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
30. A key barrier to team development is:

A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.
B. A strong matrix management structure.
C. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.
D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented.
2-36 Test 2
.....
31. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process
and provides the resources to meet the risk events.
A. Address
B. Classify
C. Assign
D. Resolve
32. ____________ devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business
need that the project was undertaken to address.
A. Development process
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process
D. Information development process
33. Staffing requirements do not define:

A. What types of skills are required
B. What time frames
C. What kinds of individuals or groups
D. What type of resource planning is required
34. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be
_____.
D. Deterministic
Test 2 2-37
2
35. Topics that deal with people include:

A. Leading, communicating, and negotiating with others
B. Delegating, motivating, coaching, mentoring, and other subjects related to dealing with
people
C. Performance appraisal, recruitment, retention, labor relations, health and safety
regulations, and other subjects related to administering the human resource function
D. All of the above
36. An output of the scope change control process is:

A. Scope statement
B. Lessons learned
C. Formal acceptance
D. Work breakdown structure
37. Constraints do not include:

A. Impacts of weather
B. Organizational structure of the performing organization
C. Collective bargaining
D. Expected staff assignments
38. _____________ is not one of the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:
A. Contract change control system
B. Contract negotiation
C. Payment system
D. Performance rating
39. Operations and projects share many characteristics.

A. True
B. False
2-38 Test 2
.....
40. The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and
payment requests.
A. True
B. False
41. The _____________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the
project was undertaken to create.
A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Project description
D. Scope statement
42. Outputs from the initiation process are:
A. Project manager identified/assigned
B. Constraints
C. Assumptions
D. All of the above
43. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.

A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
44. _____________ involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project
activities.
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
Test 2 2-39
2
45. Project Scope Management includes which processes:

A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Performance Reporting
46. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages
of a project.

48. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the
life cycle of a project.
2-40 Test 2
.....
49. Inputs to contract administration do not include:

A. Contract
B. Change requests
C. Work results
D. Market conditions
50. The duration of most activities will be significantly influenced by the resources assigned
to them.
A. True
B. False
51. The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project
decisions is called:
A. Scope development
B. Scope planning
C. Project development
D. Project selection
52. Project selection criteria cover management concerns such as:

A. Financial return
B. Market share
C. Public perception
D. All of the above
53. The WBS is:

A. An organization oriented family tree of the project.
B. A task oriented family tree of the project.
C. A cost centered structure of the project.
D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages
are difficult to construct.
Test 2 2-41
2
54. Which process is not included in Project Cost Management?

A. Closeout
B. Estimating
C. Budgeting
D. Control
55. _____________ allocating the overall costs to individual work items in order to establish
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
56. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning?

A. Scope statement
B. Contract
C. Product design
57. A project can best be defined as:

A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives.
B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a well-
established end point.
C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and
consumes human and non-human resources.
D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes
both human and non-human resources with certain constraints."
58. Characteristics of project phases are:

A. Milestones
B. Deliverables
C. Activities
D. All of the above
2-42 Test 2
.....
A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
D. EAC

61. A project is defined in the PMBOK as:

A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end
62. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large,
complex project?
A. A strong matrix organization
B. A project coordinator
C. A project expeditor
D. Direct executive involvement
63. Project Stakeholders are defined as:

A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product
B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected
as a result of project execution or successful project completion
C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources
D. All of the above
Test 2 2-43
2
64. The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are:
A. Product analysis
B. Project schedule development
C. Expert judgment
D. Project budget
65. Likely schedule durations for activity duration estimating are available from historical
information that is derived from the following sources except:
A. Commercial duration databases
B. Project files
C. Project team knowledge
D. Outside consultants
66. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to

complete project activities.
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
67. ____________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
68. _____________ is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
2-44 Test 2
.....
69. A process that is not part of Project Risk Management is:

A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
D. Response Development
70. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions is:
A. Project scope
C. Project control
D. Product scope
71. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40,
respectively. The mean is _____.
A. 20.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
72. The scope management provides:

A. A basis for future decisions about the project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
73. Project Procurement Management includes:

B. Solicitation planning
C. Solicitation
D. All of the above
Test 2 2-45
2
74. A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is
mandatory.
A. True
B. False
75. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can
be used to:
A. See what mistakes others have made
B. See how others have solved problems
C. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"
D. All of the above
76. The major project scope management processes include:

A. Change order control
B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope statement
77. A graphic display of resource usage hours is:

A. Organizational chart
B. Responsibility matrix
C. WBS
D. Histogram

B. Cost baseline
2-46 Test 2
.....
79. Which tools or techniques are not used in activity sequencing?

A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
C. Expert judgment
D. Network templates

81. _______________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
progress and taking corrective action when necessary.
A. Project controls
B. Controlling process
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
82. You have a choice of accepting a fixed price contract for $115,000 with a liquidated
damages clause or $100,000 without the clause. There is a 60% chance your cost will be
$90,000 and a 40% chance your cost will be $80,000. There is a 98% chance of meeting
your schedule but the penalty if missed is $50,000. Which is the best contract choice and
how much profit would you make?
A. Contract without the clause; profit is $14,000
B. Contract without the clause; profit is $27,980
C. Contract with the clause; profit is $14,000
Test 2 2-47
2
83. An example of a project is:

A. Billing customers
B. Managing an organization
C. Constructing a building or facility
D. Providing technical support
84. Inputs to Team Development include all but

A. Project staff
B. Reward and recognition systems
C. Performance reports
D. Project plan
85. The optimal organization structure for the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
D. Dedicated project team
86. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses which of the following dependencies
A. Finish-to-start
B. Start-to-start
C. Finish-to-finish
D. Start-to-finish
87. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection?

A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
2-48 Test 2
.....
88. What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
89. ____________ formalizes the acceptance of the project or phase and bringing it to an
orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process
C. Project completion checklist
D. Stakeholder buyoff

B. Resource rates
91. Resource leveling allocates scarce resources to critical path activities first.
A. True
B. False
92. The closing process scope includes:

A. Contract closeout
B. Final reporting
C. Punch list
D. Exit interview
Test 2 2-49
2
93. An input to the scope planning process is:

A. Product description
B. Project schedule
C. Strategic plan
D. Historical information
94. Scope planning is:

A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders
B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope
D. Planning project milestones
95. Activity definition inputs include all except:

B. Product description
C. Constraints
D. Assumptions
96. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is not considered in the selection of
a staff?
A. Previous experience
B. Staff age
C. Availability
D. Personal interest

A. Computerized
D. Square foot
2-50 Test 2
.....


100. In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan
prepared?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Definition
D. Scope verification
Test 2 2-51
2 ANSWERS
....................................................
ANSWERS
1. B. Bottom up estimating
2. B. False
3. B. False
4. C. Parametric modeling
5. D. Uncertain occurrences
6. C. Analogous estimating
7. D. None of the above
8. A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
9. D. All of the above
10. D. Developing a new product or service
11. A. A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available
12. D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
13. A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
14. A. Cost management plan
15. D. Executing process
16. A. Procurement planning
17. C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development
18. A. Scope definition, Resource planning, Cost estimating, Schedule development, Activity
definition
19. D. Cost control
21. B. Resource Planning
22. B. Lessons learned
23. B. Project scope management
24. B. False
25. B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns
26. A. Initiating process
27. A. Work breakdown structure
28. B. Detriment
29. D. Responsibility assignment matrix
30. A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.
2-52 Test 2
.....
ANSWERS
31. A. Address
32. C. Planning process
33. D. What type of resource planning is required
34. C. Statistically independent
37. A. Impacts of weather
38. B. Contract negotiation
39. A. True
40. A. True
41. C. Project description
43. B. Process
44. A. Resource planning
45. A. Initiation
46. A. Analogous estimating
47. C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for
48. B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to
49. D. Market conditions
50. A. True
51. B. Scope planning
53. B. A task oriented family tree of the project.
54. A. Closeout
55. C. Cost budgeting
56. B. Contract
57. D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes
59. A. Cost baseline
60. C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
61. C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
62. A. A strong matrix organization
Test 2 2-53
2 ANSWERS
64. C. Expert judgment

65. D. Outside consultants
66. B. Cost estimating
67. B. Project performance
68. B. Project verification
69. B. Solicitation
70. A. Project scope
71. C. 25.0
72. D. All of the above.
74. A. True
76. B. Initiation
77. D. Histogram
78. A. Historical information
80. D. The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by
PMI, and PMPs are expected to adhere to its standards.
81. B. Controlling process
83. C. Constructing a building or facility
84. B. Reward and recognition systems
85. D. Dedicated project team
86. A. Finish-to-start
87. C. Payment system
88. A. Staffing management plan
89. B. Closing process
90. A. Managing changes when they occur
91. A. True
92. A. Contract closeout
93. A. Product description
94. B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
95. B. Product description
96. B. Staff age
2-54 Test 2
.....
ANSWERS
98. C. Computerized estimating

100. B. Scope Planning
Test 2 2-55
2 ANSWERS
2-56 Test 2
S AMPLE T EST 3
...................................
3
.....
1. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has
been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next
scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50
%, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected
monetary value of this risk event occurring:
A. $3,500
B. $4,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500

C. Solicitation
D. All of the above
3. ________________ involves collecting and disseminating performance information in

order to provide stakeholders with information about how resources are being used to
achieve project objectives.
A. Monthly update reports
B. Executive top-down reporting
C. Performance reviews
D. Performance reporting
Test 3 3-57
3
4. Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project, and the
_____________ of the project.
A. Quality, schedule
B. Objectives, organization
C. Management, product
D. Customer requirements stakeholders

B. What time frames

A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Negotiating
D. All of the above
7. The Risk Management Plan does not include:

A. Risk management procedures
C. Alternative strategies
D. Allocation of reserves

D. All of the above
3-58 Test 3
.....
9. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should
occur:
B. Project plan
D. Contingency plan
10. Outputs to Risk Response Development do not include:

A. Reserves
D. Risk management plan
B. Templates

13. Descriptions of potential risk events should include estimates of the following:
A. Probability that the risk event will occur
B. Alternative possible outcomes
C. Expected timing of the event
D. All of the above
Test 3 3-59
3
14. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection:

B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
15. _____________ is a structured tool, usually industry- or activity-specific, used to verify

that a set of required steps has been performed.
A. Process control model
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Checklist
D. Project plan
16. A key input to quality planning that documents major project deliverables as well as the
project objectives is:
A. Control charts
B. Quality tolerance checklist
C. Scope statement
17. _____________ evaluates overall project performance on a regular basis to provide

confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Process control

B. Resource rates
3-60 Test 3
.....

A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
20. _____________ monitors specific project results to determine if they comply with
relevant quality standards and identifies ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory
performance.
A. Quality planning
C. Quality control
D. Process control
21. A(n) __________ definition describes, in very specific terms, what something is, and how
it is measured by the quality control process.
A. Operational
B. Process control
C. Quality policy
D. Hierarchical system model

people
D. All of the above
Test 3 3-61
3

C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standars

A. Computerized
D. Square foot

26. Which is not input to Risk Identification:

B. Cost estimates
C. Product information
D. Checklists
27. _____________ is an analytical technique which helps identify which variables have the
most influence on the overall outcome.
A. Critical path method
B. Contemporaneous scheduling
C. Design of experiments
D. Benchmarking
3-62 Test 3
.....
A. Project controls
C. Control logs
D. Project chart

30. Project information that may be distributed using a variety of methods including project
meetings, hard copy document distribution, shared access to networked electronic
databases, fax, electronic mail, voice mail and video conferencing is called:
A. Project controls
B. Project information management systems (PIMS)
C. Informational distribution systems
D. Project distribution systems

C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
Test 3 3-63
3

A. Project staff
D. Project plan
34. The purpose of the PMBOK is to identify and describe knowledge and practices that must
be applied uniformly on all projects.
A. True
B. False

A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.
36. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Development do not include:
A. Procurement
B. Expert judgment
C. Insurance
D. Alternative strategies
probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the
project will have scope changes and not be terminated?
A. 13 %
B. 6 %
C. 100 %
D. 72 %
3-64 Test 3
.....

B. Source selection
A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
D. EAC
40. ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner.
A. Executive management updates
B. Project status reports
C. Information distribution
D. Process control
41. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or

performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk
of:
Test 3 3-65
3
42. _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to
quality, as formally expressed by top management.
A. Top-down reporting
B. Project management procedure
C. Quality policy
D. Quality assurance

A. True
B. False
44. Company "A," which is highly profitable, is willing to spend $250,000 to develop a
proposal for a $1 billion contract; Company "B," which is operating at break-even, is not.
This is defined as:
A. Sources of risk
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
3-66 Test 3
.....
47. Which is not an input to Procurement Planning:

A. Scope statement
B. Contract
C. Product design

definition
D. Cope definition, Team development, Schedule control, Budget control, Contract
administration
a staff?
B. Staff age
C. Availability

51. Tools and techniques for Team Development include all except:
A. Team-building activities
B. General management skills
C. Role and responsibility assignments
D. Rewards and recognition systems
Test 3 3-67
3
52. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or

project completion.
D. Process control

54. The tools and techniques used for quality planning include all but:
A. Comprehensive checklists
B. Benefit/cost analysis
C. Flowcharting
D. Benchmarking

56. _____________ are meetings held to assess project status or progress.

A. Performance reviews
B. Status reviews
C. Weekly progress meetings
D. Progress informational update meetings
3-68 Test 3
.....
mandatory.
A. True
B. False
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process

60. Project management process can be organized into:

B. Planning process
C. Controlling and executing process
D. All of the above
61. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade. Grade
is:
A. A system to measure operational planning techniques
B. A category for quality improvement
C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for
quality
D. A check list for quality management techniques
Test 3 3-69
3

A. Closeout
B. Estimating
C. Budgeting
D. Control
63. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be
achieved by:
A. Planning it into the project.
B. Developing final inspections for quality.
C. Striving to do the best job possible.
D. Conducting quality circle activities.

C. WBS
D. Histogram

B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control

3-70 Test 3
.....
67. Inputs to risk quantification do not include:

B. Sources of risk
D. Historical data
68. _____________ identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and
determines how to satisfy them.
A. Quality planning
C. Quality control
D. Process control
69. An input to the quality assurance process is:

A. Customer satisfaction
B. Quality management plan
C. Product description
D. Standards and regulations
payment requests.
A. True
B. False

A. True
B. False
A. True
B. False
Test 3 3-71
3

D. All of the above
74. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate
generation, collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project
information.
C. Process control
complex project?
76. Quality is defined as:

A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs
B. Verifying the customers requirements are met
C. Meeting the project quality checklist without flaws
D. Satisfying the customers' needs within the stakeholders' budget
A. Checklists
B. Risk assessment
C. Flowcharting
D. Interviewing
3-72 Test 3
.....

C. Risk qualification
D. Risk response development
79. The quality management processes do not include:

A. Quality planning
C. Quality control
D. Overall change control

D. All of the above
81. A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is:
A. CPM
B. Flowchart
C. Bar chart
D. Network diagram
82. The tools and techniques for performance reporting are:

B. Earned value analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. All of the above
Test 3 3-73
3
83. Tools and techniques used in Risk Quantification include:

A. Expected monetary value
B. Decision trees
C. Simulation
D. All of the above
C. Payment system
85. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean:
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
3-74 Test 3
.....
86. _____________ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other
projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a standard by which to
measure performance.
A. Process adjustments
B. Operational definitions
C. Benchline parameters
D. Benchmarking
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
88. _____________ can be shared by team members through a variety of methods including
manual filing systems, electronic text databases, project management software, and
systems which allow access to technical documentation such as engineering drawings.
A. Informational retrieval systems
B. Informational distribution systems
C. Project records
D. Project informational systems

A. Initiation
Test 3 3-75
3
90. An outputs from the quality planning process is:

A. Quality improvements
C. Acceptance decisions
D. Process adjustments

A. True
B. False
93. Fast Tracking is defined as:

A. A method of project scheduling
B. Linking of a project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization
C. The overlapping of project phases
D. A method of construction
D. All of the above
3-76 Test 3
.....
95. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the
needs for which it was undertaken.
A. Quality planning
C. Process control
D. Project quality management

A. Milestones
B. Deliverables
C. Activities
D. All of the above

A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
to do so.
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process

A. Contract
B. Change requests
C. Work results
Test 3 3-77
3
100. Project procurement management is discussed from the perspective of the

_____________ in the project:
A. Owner
B. Buyer
C. Seller
D. Stakeholder and the vendor
3-78 Test 3
.....
ANSWERS
....................................................
ANSWERS
1. C. $5,000
3. D. Performance reporting
4. C. Management, product
7. C. Alternative strategies
9. D. Contingency plan
10. B. Corrective action plan
15. C. Checklist
16. C. Scope statement
17. B. Quality assurance
19. B. Solicitation
20. C. Quality control
21. A. Operational
26. D. Checklists
27. C. Design of experiments
30. C. Informational distribution systems
Test 3 3-79
3 ANSWERS

34. B. False
35. A. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers.
36. B. Expert judgment
37. D. 72 %
40. C. Information distribution
41. A. Risk management plan
42. C. Quality policy
43. B. False
44. C. Stakeholder risk tolerances
47. B. Contract
definition
49. B. Staff age
51. C. Role and responsibility assignments
52. C. Administrative closure
54. A. Comprehensive checklists
56. A. Performance reviews
57. A. True
61. C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for
quality
62. A. Closeout
3-80 Test 3
.....
ANSWERS
63. A. Planning it into the project.

64. D. Histogram
65. D. Cost control
67. D. Historical data
68. A. Quality planning
69. B. Quality management plan
70. A. True
71. A. True
72. B. False
74. A. Project communication management
76. A. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs
77. D. Interviewing
78. C. Risk qualification
81. B. Flowchart
85. C. 246
86. D. Benchmarking
88. A. Informational retrieval systems
89. A. Initiation
92. B. False
93. C. The overlapping of project phases
95. D. Project quality management
Test 3 3-81
3 ANSWERS
97. B. Process
98. B. Solicitation process
100. B. Buyer
3-82 Test 3
S AMPLE T EST 4
...................................
4
.....
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400

orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process
Test 4 4-83
4
4. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is
the _____.
A) Magnitude of the impact on the project
B) Project manager's perception of risk
C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk
D) Use of more or less contractors
A) Retained at the remaining dollar level
B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
C) Decreased to reduce the accounting work
D) Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget

4-84 Test 4
.....
7. Inputs to Integrated Change Control include:

A. Project plan, performance reports and change request
B. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned
C. Project plan, project reports and change request
D. Product plan, performance reports and change request
8. Project Scope Management is:

A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in
order to complete the project successfully
B. The features to be included in a product or service
C. Is synonymous with change control management
D. Is conducted primarily by external stakeholders
9. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team.
This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a
substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This
information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business.
You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You
should:
B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider
the offer.
Test 4 4-85
4
10. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the
competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for
improvement will be identified. The project manager should:
areas
11. Which is not a part of the cost budgeting process?

A. Project Schedule
B. Cost estimates
C. Resource requirements
D. WBS
A. Project controls
C. Control logs
D. Project chart

B. What time frames
4-86 Test 4
.....
14. What are the tools & techniques of Project Plan Execution?
A. General Management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,
status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and
organizational procedures
B. General Skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system, status review
meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational procedures
C. General management skills, project skills and knowledge, work authorization system,
lessons learned, project management information system (PMIS) and organizational
procedures
D. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,
status review meetings, project management information system (PMIS) and lessons
learned based on historical information
15. You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor
and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts
from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the
contract. The action to take in this case would be:
A. Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the
gifts.
Test 4 4-87
4
16. Using the chart below, what is the cost variance?
PV EV AC
$10,000 $12,000 $15,000
A. -$3,000
B. $5,000
C. $3,000
D. -$2,000
17. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for
your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available.
The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be
to:
C. Risk assessment
4-88 Test 4
.....
achieved by:
A. Planning it into the project
B. Developing final inspections for quality
C. Striving to do the best job possible
D. Conducting quality circle activities
20. Which of the following is a primary motivational tool of McGregor's Theory X?

A. Trust
B. Safety
C. Self Esteem
D. Self Actualization
21. Cost estimating is:

A. Assessing how much the organization will charge for the product or service
B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service
C. Establishing a baseline to use in measuring project performance
D. Analyzing positive and negative variances
22. Which of the following are outputs from Project Plan Development?
A. Supporting plan and the WBS
B. Project plan and historical information
C. Project Plan and supporting detail
D. Supporting detail and lessons learned
23. When negotiating what is meant by fait accompli?

A. Pretending to show interest in the other side
B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't
C. Means the same as acting in good faith
D. Compromised agreement
Test 4 4-89
4
24. Theory X management is based upon an assumption that:

A. Quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles
B. Profits are tied to meeting the project's baseline milestones
C. Absenteeism is tied to poor working conditions
D. Workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance

A) Regression analysis on historical information
B) Intuitive expert opinion
C) Simulation models
D) Probabilistic sensitivity analysis
26. Which is not a facilitating process?

A. Solicitation planning
B. Quality planning
C. Communications planning
D. Resource planning
27. 5. At XYZ Company, the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is $14.00. The annual
audit shows that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60%
of wages plus fringe benefits. What is the "loaded" hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker
at XYZ Company?
A. $22.40
B. $26.60
C. $29.12
D. $30.33
28. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12 % interest is:
A. $4,702
B. $4,982
C. $5,287
D. $5,394
4-90 Test 4
.....
29. Outputs of organizational planning are:

A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates
B. Work breakdown structure, lessons learned, budget balances
C. Project organization charts and lessons learned
D. Staff management plan, project templates and lessons learned
30. Which scope management process creates the WBS?

A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope definition
31. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the
profession of project management most effectively by:


Test 4 4-91
4
34. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is:
A. When a problem surfaces
B. After the schedule is published
C. During the close-out phase
D. During the planning phase
35. Which of the following is not part of a modern quality management concept?
A. Performance standard is zero defects
B. Quality must be inspected in
C. 85% of failures occur because of the process, not the worker
D. Quality is a 4 cycle process - plan/do/check/act
36. An example of a conflict of interest would be:

personally
strategy
37. Core processes:

A. Can interact differently with one-another, depending on the nature of the project
B. Have clear dependencies
C. Must be preformed simultaneously
D. Are managed by the same staff members throughout the project
38. Poor scope definition may cause all but:

A. Rework
B. Increased productivity
C. Schedule delays
D. Low morale
4-92 Test 4
.....
39. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by
senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while
working on your project. You should:
40. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method
of scheduling is the:
A. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate method
B. Precedence diagramming method is a more accurate method
C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
D. There is no difference
41. Collocation can mean:

A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team
B. Team members work better at different locations
C. Multiple locations are connected by local area networks
42. The Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs
from the Critical Path Method because the PERT method:
A. Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule
B. Uses "free float" instead of "total float" in the schedule calculations
C. Uses "dummy" activities to represent logic ties
D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration

Test 4 4-93
4
44. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area?

A. Communications Management
B. Procurement Management
C. Change Control Management
D. Project Integration Management
45. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of
contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A
tort is a personal wrong and includes _____.
A) An automobile accident
B) An accident on commercial premises
C) Slander or libel
D) All of the above
46. Outputs of Integrated Change Control include:

A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
B. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned
C. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure
D. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings
47. The role of advertising in the solicitation process:

A. Is required by state law
B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders
C. Can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes
D. Finds the cheapest contractor available
48. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to

ensure that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.
A. Formal procedure
B. Informal procedure
C. Exchange procedure
D. Monitoring procedure
4-94 Test 4
.....
49. You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates
OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should:
50. You've been engaged to manage a project with an estimated cost of $1,000,000 that has
been publicly approved by the project's sponsor. Your earned value calculations indicate
that the project will be completed on time and under budget by $200,000. Based on this
calculation, your personal profit will decrease by $2,000. You should plan to:
A. Invoice for the full amount because the budget has been made public
B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes
C. Add features to improve the quality without exceeding the public budget
D. Inform the end-user that you can add features without exceeding the budget
51. Possible socioeconomic influences on the project include

A. Budgetary considerations
B. Internationalization
C. Activity based costing
D. Matrix organization
52. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a
computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer
protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols
has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a
_____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract.
A) Letter, formal
B) Fixed price, cost plus
C) Cost plus, fixed price
D) No-fault, no obligation
Test 4 4-95
4

54. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project
stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to
delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to:
project manager
55. Procurement documents should be structured to:

A. Describe the desired form of response
B. Include a complete statement of work
C. Outline cost criteria
D. A and B
56. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager
can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an
informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is
$10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance:
A) Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable losses
B) Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses
C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk
D) Is indeterminable because of insufficient data
4-96 Test 4
.....
57. Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include:

A. Economic models & comparative approaches
B. Economic models & linear programming methods
C. Linear programming methods & cost basis models
D. Linear programming models & economic models
58. A packing process results a product with a mean weight of 8 ounces. The process has a
standard deviation of 0.5 ounce. What percentage of samples will weigh between 7.5 and
8 ounces?
A. 31.74
B. 34.13
C. 68.26
D. 95.46
59. Characteristics of a code of account are:

A. It includes work packages
B. It is a numbering system
C. It is the same as a cost account
D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS
60. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured
methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is best
suited to start the structured analysis of project risk is the _____.
A) Contract
B) Specification
C) Statement of work
D) Work breakdown structure
61. What are the outputs of Project Plan Execution?

A. Work results and status review meetings
B. Work results, change requests and lessons learned
C. Work results and project knowledge
D. Work results and change requests
Test 4 4-97
4
62. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a
schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:

A. Agreement
B. Purchase Order
C. Proposal
64. Which of the following is not an output of the initiation process?

A. Project charter
B. Constraints
C. Alternatives identification
D. Assignment of the PM
65. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the
first steps to take is to:
A. Revise project plan
B. Conduct a risk-benefit analysis
C. Conduct a needs analysis
D. Increase the estimated cost
66. A precise description of a deliverable includes a:

A. Specification
B. Baseline
C. Work package
D. WBS element
4-98 Test 4
.....
67. Acceptance of work results is crucial to what phase of the scope management process
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Change Control
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized

B. Bidder Auction
D. Bidder Selection
70. The lowest level of the WBS is:

A. Control account
B. Code of accounts
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
71. Hertzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers.
Examples of satisfiers are:
A. Fringe benefits
B. More vacation time
C. Completion bonus
D. A sense of personal achievement
Test 4 4-99
4
72. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except:
A. Constraints
B. Project charter
D. Budget/cost analysis
B. Crashing

75. Using the current date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP is 110.
This tells you that your project is currently 10 percent:
A. Behind schedule
B. Over budget
C. Ahead of schedule
D. Under budget

planning outputs
D. Assumptions, constraints, project planning methodology, project plan, supporting
detail
4-100 Test 4
.....
77. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the
project during the:
A. Closeout phase
B. Development phase
C. Execution phase
D. Concept phase
78. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except:
A. Product analysis
B. Status reporting
C. Progress reporting
D. Forecasting
79. The primary outputs of team development are:

A. Improved project performance
B. Improved team morale
C. Better performance appraisals
D. Better working conditions

A. True
B. False
81. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically
detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and
are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as
required in common law and legislation.
A) Operability and durability
B) Lawful use of the product and safety of use
C) Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution
D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose
Test 4 4-101
4

A. True
B. False
84. The scope management plan includes:

A. An assessment of the stability of the project scope
B. How changes will be integrated into the project
C. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classified
D. All of the above
85. Scope change is defined as:

A. Change in project personnel
B. Change in technical specifications
C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS
D. Modification to the project product as defined in the WSB
86. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the
implementation phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the
more attractive alternatives. During the implementation phase, some indications of
riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) may be:
A) Instability of project progress information
B) Loss of focus on the work by line supervisors
C) Conflict between project manager and customer
D) All of the above
4-102 Test 4
.....
87. Contract closeout documentation includes:

A. Technical documentation
B. Financial documentation
C. All of the above
88. Based on the life cycle model of the typical project, which stage is expected to experience
the highest resource usage?
A. Initial phase(s)
B. Intermediate phase(s)
C. Closing phase(s)
D. Staffing phase(s)
89. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted
outcome of alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is:
A) Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollars
B) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
C) Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
D) Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars

91. Earned Value is:

A. The amount future value of a present investment
B. The actual hours worked on the project multiplied by the budgeted labor rate
C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished
D. PV-AC
Test 4 4-103
4
92. Which of the following is not part of the quality assurance process?
A. Operational definitions
B. Quality policy
C. Quality audits
D. Quality improvement
93. The project schedule is not used to determine:

A. The project's budget
B. The float of the project
C. Occasional changes to the activity listing
D. The starting and finishing dates of the activities
94. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright

have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a
project can have the following affect:
A) Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damages
B) Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights
C) Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent
D) All of the above
95. A project is a _____________ effort undertaken to create a _____________ product or

service.
A. Unique, temporary
B. Significant, necessary
C. Organized, profitable
D. Temporary, unique
96. Which of the following is not a considered a failure cost?

A. Rework
B. Training
C. Rejects
D. Scrap
4-104 Test 4
.....
97. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you
discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous
projects. You should:
98. Constructive team roles include:

A. Investigator, clarifier, and closer
B. Compromiser, blocker, and closer
C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper
D. Investigator, recognizer, and summarizer
99. What are the inputs to project Plan Execution?

corrective action
B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action
C. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action
learned

D. All of the above
Test 4 4-105
4 ANSWERS
....................................................
ANSWERS
1. C. 246
3. D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
4. C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk
5. B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
7. A. Project plan, performance reports and change request
8. A. Used to make sure that all work required, and only the work required, is included in
9. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider
the offer.
10. B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
11. C. Resource requirements
14. A. General management skills, product skills and knowledge, work authorization system,
15. C. Contact your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.
16. A. -$3,000
17. A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
18. C. Risk assessment
19. A. Planning it into the project
20. B. Safety
21. B. Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service
22. C. Project plan and supporting detail
23. B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't
24. D. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance
25. B) Intuitive expert opinion
26. D. Resource planning
27. C. $29.12
4-106 Test 4
.....
ANSWERS
28. C. $5,287
29. A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates
30. C. Scope definition
31. A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
34. D. During the planning phase
35. B. Quality must be inspected in
36. A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you
personally
37. B. Have clear dependencies
38. B. Increased productivity
39. C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action
40. C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
41. A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team
42. D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration
44. C. Change Control Management
45. D) All of the above
46. A. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
47. B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders
48. A. Formal procedure
49. B. Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated
50. B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes
51. B. Internationalization
52. B) Fixed price, cost plus
54. A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before
55. D. A and B
56. C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk
57. A. Economic models & comparative approaches
58. B. 34.13
59. D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS
Test 4 4-107
4 ANSWERS
60. D) Work breakdown structure

61. D. Work results and change requests
62. D. Lower than the BCWS
63. C. Proposal
64. C. Alternatives identification
65. D. Increase the estimated cost
66. A. Specification
67. D. Scope verification
69. C. Solicitation selection
70. C. Work Package
71. D. A sense of personal achievement
72. D. Budget/cost analysis
73. B. Crashing
74. D. Are inputs to integrated change control
75. C. Ahead of schedule
76. B. Assumptions, constraints, organizational policies, historical information and other
planning outputs
77. D. Concept phase
78. A. Product analysis
79. A. Improved project performance
80. B. False
81. D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose
83. B. False
85. C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS
87. C. All of the above
88. B. Intermediate phase(s)
89. B) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
90. C. Is used to manage project execution
91. C. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished
92. B. Quality policy
93. A. The project's budget
4-108 Test 4
.....
ANSWERS

95. D. Temporary, unique
96. B. Training
97. B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared.
98. C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper
99. B. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action
Test 4 4-109
4 ANSWERS
4-110 Test 4
S AMPLE T EST 5
...................................
5
.....
orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process

B. Source selection


A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
5. The duration of most activities will be significantly influenced by the resources assigned
to them.
A. True
B. False
Test 5 5-111
5
6. A resource pool description provides:

A. The unit cost for each resource
B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns
C. Performance of the pool resources
D. Duration of the project
7. In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan
prepared?
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope Definition

C. Solicitation
D. All of the above
9. Outputs from the initiation process are:

A. Project manager identified/assigned
B. Constraints
C. Assumptions
D. All of the above
10. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can
be used to:
A. See what mistakes others have made
B. See how others have solved problems
C. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"
D. All of the above
5-112 Test 5
.....
B. Templates

A. True
B. False


A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
Test 5 5-113
5

A. Owner
B. Buyer
C. Seller
17. Resource leveling allocates scarce resources to critical path activities first.
A. True
B. False

C. WBS
D. Histogram

A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
D. EAC
5-114 Test 5
.....
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process

B. Final reporting
C. Punch list
D. Exit interview
23. An output of the scope change control process is:

A. Scope statement
B. Lessons learned
C. Formal acceptance
D. Work breakdown structure

A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
Test 5 5-115
5
26. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 15, 20 and 40,
respectively. The mean is _____.
A. 20.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
27. The WBS is:

A. An organization oriented family tree of the project.
B. A task oriented family tree of the project.
C. A cost centered structure of the project.
D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages
are difficult to construct.
C. Payment system
29. What are the tools and techniques of the Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Checklists, flowcharting, interviewing
B. Interviewing, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, simulation
C. Checklists, sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, information gathering
techniques
D. Interviewing, checklists, assumption analysis, risk probability impact

5-116 Test 5
.....
31. Scope planning is:

A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders
B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope
D. Planning project milestones



A. Computerized
D. Square foot

B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
Test 5 5-117
5

A. True
B. False

A. Closeout
B. Estimating
C. Budgeting
D. Control
38. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions is:
A. Project scope
C. Project control
D. Product scope
39. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the
work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
A. Project plan update
B. Project scope management
C. Scope change control
mandatory.
A. True
B. False
5-118 Test 5
.....

B. Cost baseline
42. A project can best be defined as:

A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives.
B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a well-
established end point.
C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and
consumes human and non-human resources.
D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes

44. The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are:
A. Product analysis
B. Project schedule development
C. Expert judgment
D. Project budget

Test 5 5-119
5

47. The scope management provides:

A. A basis for future decisions about the project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
48. _____________ is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
A. Project scope
C. Project control
D. Product scope
49. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process
and provide the resources to meet the risk events.
A. Address
B. Classify
C. Assign
D. Resolve
A. Project controls
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
5-120 Test 5
.....

people
D. All of the above


B. What time frames
Test 5 5-121
5
A. Manager
B. Detriment
C. Schedule
D. Budget
56. Which tools or techniques are not used in activity sequencing:

A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
C. Expert judgment
D. Network templates
to do so.
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process
a staff?
B. Staff age
C. Availability
59. The _____________ are typically defined in terms of the product and can cover the full
range of possible management concerns.
A. Resource breakdown structures
B. Change requests
C. Project selection criteria
D. Performance measurements
5-122 Test 5
.....
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
61. Which process is not included in Project Time Management?

A. Activity definition
B. Activity sequencing
C. Schedule development & schedule control
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
62. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be
_____.
D. Deterministic

payment requests.
A. True
B. False
Test 5 5-123
5

definition
administration
complex project?


B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimate

D. All of the above
5-124 Test 5
.....


A. Contract
B. Change requests
C. Work results
72. The outputs from schedule control include all except:

A. Schedule updates
B. Revisions
C. Corrective action
D. Lessons learned
73. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely
affect project objectives.
A. Likely events

A. Scope statement
B. Contract
C. Product design
Test 5 5-125
5


B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control

B. Resource rates

A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Negotiating
D. All of the above

B. Planning process
D. All of the above
5-126 Test 5
.....
A. True
B. False

A. Computerized
D. Square foot

A. Milestones
B. Deliverables
C. Activities
D. All of the above
83. _____________ is the cost estimating technique used most frequently in the early stages
of a project.
84. The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project
decisions is called:
A. Scope development
B. Scope planning
C. Project development
D. Project selection
Test 5 5-127
5
85. The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:

A. A mathematical analysis technique for schedule development
B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration
C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development
D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity
duration estimates
A. True
B. False
87. An output of scope definition is:

B. Scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Corrective action
activities.
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control

A. True
B. False
5-128 Test 5
.....
A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
B. Increased to meet the unidentified surprises
91. The major project scope management processes include:

A. Change order control
B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope statement
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
93. The _____________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the
project was undertaken to create.
A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Project description
D. Scope statement
94. _____________ is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to

complete project activities.
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
Test 5 5-129
5
95. _____________ is the process of formally recognizing that a new project exists or that an
existing project should continue into its next phase.
A. Project Scheduling
C. Initiation
D. Project verification
96. Likely schedule durations for activity duration estimating are available from historical
information that is derived from the following sources except:
A. Commercial duration databases
B. Project files
C. Project team knowledge
D. Outside consultants
97. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____ risk factors throughout the
life cycle of a project.

99. The _____________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration:

A. Start-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Start-to-finish
5-130 Test 5
.....
100. An input to the scope planning process is:

A. Product description
B. Project schedule
C. Strategic plan
D. Historical information
Test 5 5-131
5 ANSWERS
....................................................
ANSWERS
3. C. Computerized estimating
4. B. Solicitation
5. A. True
6. B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns
7. B. Scope Planning
13. B. False
14. C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake
15. B. Process
16. B. Buyer
17. A. True
18. D. Histogram
26. C. 25.0
27. B. A task oriented family tree of the project.
29. B. The Quantitative Risk Analysis process has four tools and techniques: interviewing,
sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, and simulation.
31. B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
5-132 Test 5
.....
ANSWERS
36. B. False
37. A. Closeout
38. A. Project scope
39. B. Project scope management
40. A. True
41. A. Historical information
42. D. "Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes
47. D. All of the above.
48. B. Project verification
49. A. Address
52. C. Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for
55. B. Detriment
57. A. Initiating process
58. B. Staff age
59. C. Project selection criteria
61. D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
62. C. Statistically independent
Test 5 5-133
5 ANSWERS
64. A. True
definition
72. B. Revisions
73. D. Uncertain occurrences
74. B. Contract
76. D. Cost control
80. B. False
84. B. Scope planning
85. C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule development
86. B. False
87. A. Work breakdown structure
89. A. True
90. A. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
91. B. Initiation
93. C. Project description
94. B. Cost estimating
95. C. Initiation
96. D. Outside consultants
97. B. Identifying, analyzing and responding to
5-134 Test 5
.....
ANSWERS

100.A. Product description
Test 5 5-135
5 ANSWERS
5-136 Test 5
S AMPLE T EST 6
...................................
6
.....
A. True
B. False

This is defined as:
A. Sources of risk
probability of the project being terminated is less than 15 %. What is the probability the
project will have scope changes and not be terminated?
A. 13 %
B. 6 %
C. 100 %
D. 72 %

Test 6 6-137
6

A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
D. EAC
7. Simulation uses a representation or model of a system to analyze the behavior or

performance of the system. The results of a schedule simulation will not quantify the risk
of:

D. All of the above
to do so.
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process
6-138 Test 6
.....

B. What time frames

12. Inputs to risk quantification do not include:

B. Sources of risk
D. Historical data
13. A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is:
A. CPM
B. Flowchart
C. Bar chart
D. Network diagram
14. Tools and techniques used in Risk Quantification include:

A. Expected monetary value
B. Decision trees
C. Simulation
D. All of the above
Test 6 6-139
6


A. Project staff
D. Project plan

C. Solicitation
D. All of the above
18. ________________ involves collecting and disseminating performance information in

order to provide stakeholders with information about how resources are being used to
achieve project objectives.
A. Monthly update reports
B. Executive top-down reporting
C. Performance reviews
D. Performance reporting

B. Planning process
D. All of the above
6-140 Test 6
.....
mandatory.
A. True
B. False

A. Contract
B. Change requests
C. Work results

B. Resource rates
23. Project "A" has experienced difficulties in the deliveries of one of its key suppliers. It has
been estimated by the project team that, if the supplier is one week late for the next
scheduled delivery, it will cost $10,000. The probability of the supplier being late is 50
%, based on the fact that this has happened before on the project. What is the expected
monetary value of this risk event occurring:
A. $3,500
B. $4,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500
24. _____________ evaluates overall project performance on a regular basis to provide

confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
A. Quality planning
C. Quality control
D. Process control
Test 6 6-141
6
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process

A. Checklists
B. Risk assessment
C. Flowcharting
D. Interviewing

B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system

6-142 Test 6
.....

31. _____________ involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other
projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a standard by which to
measure performance.
A. Process adjustments
B. Operational definitions
C. Bench line parameters
D. Benchmarking

B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
33. Project information that may be distributed using a variety of methods including project
meetings, hard copy document distribution, shared access to networked electronic
databases, fax, electronic mail, voice mail and video conferencing is called:
A. Project controls
B. Project information management systems (PIMS)
C. Informational distribution systems
D. Project distribution systems
34. Descriptions of potential risk events should include estimates of the following:
A. Probability that the risk event will occur
B. Alternative possible outcomes
C. Expected timing of the event
D. All of the above
Test 6 6-143
6
A. True
B. False
36. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade. Grade
is:
A. A system to measure operational planning techniques
B. A category for quality improvement
C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for
quality
D. A check list for quality management techniques

A. True
B. False
38. _____________ can be shared by team members through a variety of methods including
manual filing systems, electronic text databases, project management software, and
systems which allow access to technical documentation such as engineering drawings.
A. Informational retrieval systems
B. Informational distribution systems
C. Project records
D. Project informational systems
6-144 Test 6
.....

A. Closeout
B. Estimating
C. Budgeting
D. Control

42. _____________ includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate
generation, collection, dissemination, storage and ultimate disposition of project
information.
C. Process control
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized

D. All of the above
Test 6 6-145
6

A. Scope statement
B. Contract
C. Product design


A. Quality planning
C. Quality control
a staff?
B. Staff age
C. Availability
49. _____________ identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and
determines how to satisfy them.
A. Quality planning
C. Quality control
D. Process control
6-146 Test 6
.....
A. Project controls
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
A. True
B. False
52. _____________ is a structured tool, usually industry- or activity-specific, used to verify

that a set of required steps has been performed.
A. Process control model
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Checklist
D. Project plan

54. _____________ monitors specific project results to determine if they comply with
relevant quality standards and identifies ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory
performance.
A. Quality planning
C. Quality control
D. Process control
Test 6 6-147
6

A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
56. A(n) __________ definition describes, in very specific terms, what something is, and how
it is measured by the quality control process.
A. Operational
B. Process control
C. Quality policy
D. Hierarchical system model
achieved by:
A. Planning it into the project.
B. Developing final inspections for quality.
C. Striving to do the best job possible.
D. Conducting quality circle activities.

B. Source selection

6-148 Test 6
.....

D. All of the above

A. True
B. False

definition
administration
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
64. The tools and techniques used for quality planning include all but:
A. Comprehensive checklists
B. Benefit/cost analysis
C. Flowcharting
D. Benchmarking
Test 6 6-149
6
65. ____________ makes the needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner.
A. Executive management updates
B. Project status reports
C. Information distribution
D. Process control
66. Which is not input to Risk Identification:

B. Cost estimates
C. Product information
D. Checklists
B. Templates
68. _____________ is an analytical technique which helps identify which variables have the
most influence on the overall outcome.
A. Critical path method
B. Contemporaneous scheduling
C. Design of experiments
D. Benchmarking

A. Computerized
D. Square foot
6-150 Test 6
.....
70. For project "B," with a triangular distribution, what is the project mean:
A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400
71. An input to the quality assurance process is:

A. Customer satisfaction
D. Standards and regulations
72. What document outlines the action steps to be taken if an identified risk event should
occur:
B. Project plan
D. Contingency plan
Test 6 6-151
6

people
D. All of the above

A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
75. ____________ generates, gathers, and disseminates information to formalize phase or

project completion.
D. Process control

A. Milestones
B. Deliverables
C. Activities
D. All of the above
77. An outputs from the quality planning process is:

A. Quality improvements
C. Acceptance decisions
D. Process adjustments
6-152 Test 6
.....

D. All of the above
79. _____________ includes the process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the
needs for which it was undertaken.
A. Quality planning
C. Process control
D. Project quality management
80. The tools and techniques for performance reporting are:

B. Earned value analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. All of the above
81. The Risk Management Plan does not include:

A. Risk management procedures
C. Alternative strategies
D. Allocation of reserves

A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Negotiating
D. All of the above
Test 6 6-153
6
83. Tools and techniques for Risk Response Development do not include:
A. Procurement
B. Expert judgment
C. Insurance
D. Alternative strategies

85. _____________ are meetings held to assess project status or progress.

B. Status reviews
C. Weekly progress meetings
D. Progress informational update meetings

A. Reserves

6-154 Test 6
.....
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls

A. Owner
B. Buyer
C. Seller
payment requests.
A. True
B. False

implied needs
Test 6 6-155
6
93. Project quality management must address both the _____________ of the project, and the
_____________ of the project.
A. Quality, schedule
B. Objectives, organization
C. Management, product
D. Customer requirements stakeholders
94. A key input to quality planning that documents major project deliverables as well as the
project objectives is:
A. Control charts
B. Quality tolerance checklist
C. Scope statement
95. _____________ is the overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to
quality, as formally expressed by top management.
A. Top-down reporting
B. Project management procedure
C. Quality policy
D. Quality assurance

A. Initiation
complex project?
6-156 Test 6
.....


C. WBS
D. Histogram
C. Payment system
Test 6 6-157
6 ANSWERS
....................................................
ANSWERS
1. B. False
3. D. 72 %
6. A. Cost baseline
7. A. Risk management plan
12. D. Historical data
13. B. Flowchart
18. D. Performance reporting
20. A. True
23. C. $5,000
24. B. Quality assurance
27. D. Interviewing
29. A. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.
31. D. Benchmarking
32. D. Cost control
6-158 Test 6
.....
ANSWERS
33. C. Informational distribution systems

35. B. False
36. C. A rank given to entities having the same functional use but different requirements for
quality
37. B. False
38. A. Informational retrieval systems
40. A. Closeout
42. A. Project communication management
45. B. Contract
48. B. Staff age
49. A. Quality planning
51. B. False
52. C. Checklist
55. B. Process
56. A. Operational
57. A. Planning it into the project.
61. A. True
definition
64. A. Comprehensive checklists
Test 6 6-159
6 ANSWERS
65. C. Information distribution

66. D. Checklists
68. C. Design of experiments
70. C. 246
72. D. Contingency plan
74. B. Solicitation
75. C. Administrative closure
79. D. Project quality management
81. C. Alternative strategies
83. B. Expert judgment
85. A. Performance reviews
90. B. Buyer
91. A. True
implied needs
93. C. Management, product
94. C. Scope statement
95. C. Quality policy
96. A. Initiation
6-160 Test 6
.....
ANSWERS

99. D. Histogram
Test 6 6-161
6 ANSWERS
6-162 Test 6
S AMPLE T EST 7
...................................
7
.....
planning outputs
detail


A. Reserves

A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
Test 7 7-163
7



A. Project controls
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
7-164 Test 7
.....
8 ounces?
A. 31.74
B. 34.13
C. 68.26
D. 95.46
10. Which type of cost estimate is based on individual activities?

A. Top-down
B. Bottom-up
C. Parametric
D. Analogous

12. Which of the following is an input to the team development process?

A. General management skills
B. Inputs to performance appraisals
C. Staffing pool description
D. External feedback

B. Resource rates
Test 7 7-165
7

B. What time frames

B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimate

A. Project Schedule
B. Cost estimates
D. WBS
17. Using a contractor to perform a high risk task is which form of risk response?
A. Mitigation
B. Acceptance
C. Transference
D. Avoidance
18. Which of the following is not a part of the information distribution process?
A. Project plan
B. Project records
C. Communication skills
D. Stakeholder analysis
7-166 Test 7
.....
19. Which is a tool or technique of the schedule development process?

A. Resource pool description
B. Supporting detail
C. Duration compression
D. Activity duration estimates
20. Which is the process that involves documenting project results in order to formalize the
acceptance of the product by the sponsor, client, or customer?
A. Information distribution
B. Scope acceptance
C. Performance reporting
D. Administrative closure
21. Which is a document is not used to solicit proposals from potential buyers?
A. IFQ
B. IFB
C. RFP
D. RFQ
A. True
B. False

A. Rework
B. Training
C. Rejects
D. Scrap
Test 7 7-167
7

A. Trust
B. Safety
C. Self Esteem

A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope definition
gifts.

A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
A. Cost baseline
B. Project schedule
D. EAC
7-168 Test 7
.....

30. Risk response planning is one of the _______________ processes

A. Planning core processes
B. Planning facilitating processes
C. Controlling core processes
D. Controlling facilitating processes


Test 7 7-169
7
33. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After the contract is
awarded, the customer provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice
president for engineering says that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a
different test matrix, which should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. You
should:
A. Use the customer's test matrix
B. Listen to your boss because you’re worried he might fire you
C. Use the matrix your boss suggested and not discuss further with the customer
D. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the vice president is not your sponsor

B. Planning process
D. All of the above
orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process
36. In order to balance the needs of the many stakeholders involved in your project the most
desirable method to achieve resolution of conflicts would be:
A. Compromise
B. Forcing
C. Controlling
D. Confrontation
7-170 Test 7
.....
37. In which organizational structure is the project manager likely to have the most authority?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Projectized
D. Strong Matrix
38. Which theory specifies money as an important employee motivator?

A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Theory Z
D. Theory Q
B. Quality policy
C. Quality audits

41. The contract type that represents the greatest risk to the buyer is:
A. CPPC
B. FPI
C. CPIF
D. CPFF
Test 7 7-171
7


B. Quality planning
payment requests.
A. True
B. False

A. Control account
B. Code of accounts
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
7-172 Test 7
.....

49. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to
use personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In
these situations the project manager's most appropriate response would be:
A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract.
B. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost.
C. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work
D. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.

B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control
A. Initial phase(s)
C. Closing phase(s)
Test 7 7-173
7


A. Formal procedure
procedures

B. Final reporting
C. Punch list
D. Exit interview
7-174 Test 7
.....
57. What are outputs of Project Plan Execution?

This is defined as:
A. Sources of risk
PV EV AC
$10,000 $12,000 $15,000
A. -$3,000
B. $5,000
C. $3,000
D. -$2,000
Test 7 7-175
7

61. As the project manager for a very large and highly visible project you receive a
preliminary press release for your approval before distribution. You are expected to
approve the release without comment. Your review identifies a major discrepancy
regarding some key project financial estimates that may mislead the intended recipients.
As the project manager it is your responsibility to:
A. Inform the project sponsor of the discrepancy and refuse to approve the release
B. Approve the release but send a memo to the sponsor advising that you are aware of the
discrepancy and will refer any questions your receive to the sponsor
C. Completely rewrite the press release and include the correct information
D. Approve the release as requested

A. Computerized
D. Square foot
63. A person who is attempting to fulfill the need for safety has already satisfied which
needs?
A. Esteem
B. Self-Actualization
C. Physiological
D. Social
7-176 Test 7
.....
C. Schedule control
D. Project controls
66. You have been assigned as the project manager to two projects. Because of the nature of
the projects, you have a conflict of interest. You should:
A. Do nothing and tell no one
B. Ask to be removed from one of the projects
C. Inform your clients and ask them to settle it
D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice
B. Scoping process
C. Planning process

B. Source selection
Test 7 7-177
7
69. What best defines scope management?

A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development,
implementation, and termination phases of a project.
B. Approval of the scope baseline.
C. Approval of the detailed project charter.
D. Configuration control.
70. The contract type that represents the lowest risk to the buyer is:
A. CPIF
B. FPI
C. FFP
D. CPFF
71. Dual reporting is most likely to occur in which type of organization?

A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Laissez-faire

A. Quality planning
C. Quality control
to do so.
C. Scoping process
D. Planning process
7-178 Test 7
.....
activities.
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost budgeting
D. Cost control

76. Tools & techniques for risk identification include

A.. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
analysis, diagramming techniques
B. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
C. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists,
assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques
D. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists,
assumptions analysis, diagramming techniques

A. Individuals and organizations that use the project's product
C. Individuals and organizations that provide the financial resources
D. All of the above
Test 7 7-179
7
78. Communications is best described as:

A. E exchange of information.
B. Providing written or oral directions.
C. Consists of senders and receivers
D. All of the above
A. Checklists
B. Risk assessment
C. Flowcharting
D. Interviewing
A. True
B. False
81. A method of shortening the duration of the project is:

A. Lead
B. Creating milestones
C. Fast tracking
D. Leveling

A. True
B. False

implied needs
7-180 Test 7
.....

D. PV-AC

86. Core processes:


A. Milestones
B. Deliverables
C. Activities
D. All of the above
C. Risk assessment
Test 7 7-181
7

service.

A. Agreement
B. Purchase Order
C. Proposal

corrective action
corrective action
learned
C. Payment system
93. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12% interest is:
A. $4,702
B. $4,982
C. $5,287
D. $5,394
7-182 Test 7
.....

A. Project charter
B. Constraints
95. An activity has an optimistic duration estimate of 2 days, a mostly likely estimate of 5
days, and a pessimistic estimate of 8 days. What is the weighted average duration?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 5.2
D. 6
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
mandatory.
A. True
B. False
Test 7 7-183
7

B. Bidder Auction
D. Bidder Selection
100. Which method does not use boxes or nodes to represent work or activities?
A. PERT
B. PDM
C. ADM
D. GERT
7-184 Test 7
.....
ANSWERS
....................................................
ANSWERS

planning outputs
9. B. 34.13
10. B. Bottom-up
12. D. External feedback
17. C. Transference
18. D. Stakeholder analysis
19. C. Duration compression
20. D. Administrative closure
21. A. IFQ
22. B. False
23. B. Training
24. B. Safety
27. B. Process
30. B. Planning facilitating processes
Test 7 7-185
7 ANSWERS

33. D. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the vice president is not your sponsor
36. D. Confrontation
37. C. Projectized
38. A. Theory X
41. A. CPPC
45. A. True
46. C. Work Package
49. A. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract.
50. D. Cost control
59. A. -$3,000
61. A. Inform the project sponsor of the discrepancy and refuse to approve the release
7-186 Test 7
.....
ANSWERS
63. C. Physiological
66. D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice
69. A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development,
implementation, and termination phases of a project.
70. C. FFP
71. C. Matrix
76. B. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
79. D. Interviewing
80. B. False
81. C. Fast tracking
82. B. False
implied needs
90. C. Proposal
corrective action
93. C. $5,287
Test 7 7-187
7 ANSWERS

95. B. 5
98. A. True
100.C. ADM
7-188 Test 7
S AMPLE T EST 8
...................................
8
.....
A. Rework
B. Training
C. Rejects
D. Scrap

3. Hertzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers.
Examples of satisfiers are:
A. Fringe benefits
B. More vacation time
C. Completion bonus
D. A sense of personal achievement


D. All of the above
Test 8 8-189
8


A. The project's budget
B. The float of the project
C. Occasional changes to the activity listing
D. The starting and finishing dates of the activities
8. Your project is running out of cash and significant work remains. You are directed by
senior management to instruct your people to use another project's charge numbers while
working on your project. You should:
9. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the
competencies of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for
improvement will be identified. The project manager should:
areas
10. Poor scope definition may cause all but:

A. Rework
B. Increased productivity
C. Schedule delays
D. Low morale
8-190 Test 8
.....
11. ___________ ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring
A. Project controls
C. Control logs
D. Project chart
B. Crashing
13. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method
A. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate method
B. Precedence diagramming method is a more accurate method
C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
D. There is no difference

A) Regression analysis on historical information
B) Intuitive expert opinion
C) Simulation models
D) Probabilistic sensitivity analysis
Test 8 8-191
8

17. 5. At XYZ Company, the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is $14.00. The annual
audit shows that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60%
of wages plus fringe benefits. What is the "loaded" hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker
at XYZ Company?
A. $22.40
B. $26.60
C. $29.12
D. $30.33
gifts.
8-192 Test 8
.....

A. 216
B. 225
C. 246
D. 400

service.

Test 8 8-193
8
22. You are negotiating with a contractor to provide the installation and integration of a
computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer
protocols and provide a common data communication. The integration of data protocols
has never been accomplished before. Attempting to avoid risk, you would like to award a
_____ contract and the contractor will sign only a _____ contract.
A) Letter, formal
B) Fixed price, cost plus
C) Cost plus, fixed price
D) No-fault, no obligation
23. An example of a conflict of interest would be:

personally
strategy
24. Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright

have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a
project can have the following affect:
A) Cause a lawsuit to be initiated for damages
B) Cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights
C) Cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent
D) All of the above
25. Characteristics of a code of account are:

A. It includes work packages
B. It is a numbering system
C. It is the same as a cost account
D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS
8-194 Test 8
.....

planning outputs
detail
A. True
B. False
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized

B. Quality planning
30. There may be implied warranties associated with a contract which are not specifically
detailed. These represent future costs for failure to meet the contract requirements, and
are a risk to the contractor. Implied warranties are usually those associated with _____, as
required in common law and legislation.
A) Operability and durability
B) Lawful use of the product and safety of use
C) Regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution
D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose
Test 8 8-195
8

A. Initiation
B. Scope planning
C. Scope definition
32. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the
first steps to take is to:
A. Revise project plan
B. Conduct a risk-benefit analysis
C. Conduct a needs analysis
D. Increase the estimated cost
B. Quality policy
C. Quality audits
34. Theory X management is based upon an assumption that:

A. Quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles
B. Profits are tied to meeting the project's baseline milestones
C. Absenteeism is tied to poor working conditions
D. Workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance

A. Project charter
B. Constraints
8-196 Test 8
.....
36. Contract closeout documentation includes:

A. Technical documentation
B. Financial documentation
C. All of the above
37. The Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs
from the Critical Path Method because the PERT method:
A. Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule
B. Uses "free float" instead of "total float" in the schedule calculations
C. Uses "dummy" activities to represent logic ties
D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration

8 ounces?
A. 31.74
B. 34.13
C. 68.26
D. 95.46
40. When negotiating what is meant by fait accompli?

A. Pretending to show interest in the other side
B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't
C. Means the same as acting in good faith
D. Compromised agreement
Test 8 8-197
8
A. Initiation
B. Scope planning

A. True
B. False
44. The scope management plan includes:

A. An assessment of the stability of the project scope
B. How changes will be integrated into the project
C. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classified
D. All of the above
45. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except:
A. Product analysis
B. Status reporting
C. Progress reporting
D. Forecasting
orderly end.
A. Punch list
B. Closing process
8-198 Test 8
.....

A. Agreement
B. Purchase Order
C. Proposal

B. What time frames
49. Constructive team roles include:

A. Investigator, clarifier, and closer
B. Compromiser, blocker, and closer
C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper
D. Investigator, recognizer, and summarizer

51. Collocation can mean:

A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team
B. Team members work better at different locations
C. Multiple locations are connected by local area networks

Test 8 8-199
8
53. Outputs of organizational planning are:

A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates
B. Work breakdown structure, lessons learned, budget balances
C. Project organization charts and lessons learned
D. Staff management plan, project templates and lessons learned
54. The role of advertising in the solicitation process:

A. Is required by state law
B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders
C. Can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes
D. Finds the cheapest contractor available
55. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team.
This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a
substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This
information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business.
You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You
should:
B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider
the offer.

A. Trust
B. Safety
C. Self Esteem
8-200 Test 8
.....
57. Using the current date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP is 110.
This tells you that your project is currently 10 percent:
A. Behind schedule
B. Over budget
C. Ahead of schedule
D. Under budget

A. Project Schedule
B. Cost estimates
D. WBS
59. Scope change is defined as:

A. Change in project personnel
B. Change in technical specifications
C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS
D. Modification to the project product as defined in the WSB
A. Initial phase(s)
C. Closing phase(s)
C. Risk assessment
Test 8 8-201
8
62. A precise description of a deliverable includes a:

A. Specification
B. Baseline
C. Work package
D. WBS element
63. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project
stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to
delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to:
project manager


66. The primary characteristic that distinguishes between external and internal risk areas is
the _____.
A) Magnitude of the impact on the project
B) Project manager's perception of risk
C) Project manager's ability to influence the risk
D) Use of more or less contractors
8-202 Test 8
.....

68. Project risk should be identified and assessed during the planning phase. Once the
implementation phase starts, it may be too late to objectively assess risk and select the
more attractive alternatives. During the implementation phase, some indications of
riskiness (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) may be:
A) Instability of project progress information
B) Loss of focus on the work by line supervisors
C) Conflict between project manager and customer
D) All of the above
69. The future value of $3000 invested for 5 years at 12% interest is:
A. $4,702
B. $4,982
C. $5,287
D. $5,394
procedures
Test 8 8-203
8

corrective action
corrective action
learned
73. While reviewing the estimates from the functional managers assigned to your project you
discover that one cost estimate is clearly higher than those submitted for previous
projects. You should:

A. Formal procedure
8-204 Test 8
.....

A. Control account
B. Code of accounts
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
76. Core processes:


D. PV-AC
78. You've been engaged to manage a project with an estimated cost of $1,000,000 that has
been publicly approved by the project's sponsor. Your earned value calculations indicate
that the project will be completed on time and under budget by $200,000. Based on this
calculation, your personal profit will decrease by $2,000. You should plan to:
A. Invoice for the full amount because the budget has been made public
B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes
C. Add features to improve the quality without exceeding the public budget
D. Inform the end-user that you can add features without exceeding the budget
79. In risk analysis, expected value can be used as a means of determining the weighted
outcome of alternatives. The formula for this weighted outcome is:
A) Probability of outcome divided by the outcome in dollars
B) Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
C) Desired outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
D) Desired outcome divided by the outcome in dollars
Test 8 8-205
8
80. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is:
A. When a problem surfaces
B. After the schedule is published
C. During the close-out phase
D. During the planning phase

83. Project risk through liability comes in two forms: breach of contract and tort. Breach of
contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product. A
tort is a personal wrong and includes _____.
A) An automobile accident
B) An accident on commercial premises
C) Slander or libel
D) All of the above
84. Procurement documents should be structured to:

A. Describe the desired form of response
B. Include a complete statement of work
C. Outline cost criteria
D. A and B
8-206 Test 8
.....

86. The primary outputs of team development are:

A. Improved project performance
B. Improved team morale
C. Better performance appraisals
D. Better working conditions
A) Retained at the remaining dollar level
B) Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
C) Decreased to reduce the accounting work
D) Spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget
88. As part of your project plan you must develop an effective method of communication for
your multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available.
The appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be
to:
89. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except:
A. Constraints
B. Project charter
Test 8 8-207
8
D. Budget/cost analysis
PV EV AC
$10,000 $12,000 $15,000
A. -$3,000
B. $5,000
C. $3,000
D. -$2,000

B. Bidder Auction
D. Bidder Selection
92. Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, time, and cost of the
project during the:
A. Closeout phase
B. Development phase
C. Execution phase
D. Concept phase
achieved by:
A. Planning it into the project
B. Developing final inspections for quality
C. Striving to do the best job possible
D. Conducting quality circle activities
8-208 Test 8
.....
94. Your schedule has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a
schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much:
95. Assigning values of risk for a project is best accomplished through structured
methodologies that ensure all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is best
suited to start the structured analysis of project risk is the _____.
A) Contract
B) Specification
C) Statement of work
D) Work breakdown structure
97. Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include:

A. Economic models & comparative approaches
B. Economic models & linear programming methods
C. Linear programming methods & cost basis models
D. Linear programming models & economic models
Test 8 8-209
8
98. Risk of property loss may be transferred to an insurance company. The project manager
can calculate the ratio of insurance premium to the Expected value of a loss, to make an
informed decision about buying insurance. For example, if the insurance premium is
$10,000, value of the property is $200,000 and probability of loss is 4%, the insurance:
A) Is desirable because it will cost less than the probable losses
B) Is undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses
C) Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk
D) Is indeterminable because of insufficient data
99. What are the outputs of Project Plan Execution?


8-210 Test 8
.....
ANSWERS
....................................................
ANSWERS
1. B. Training
2. D. Are inputs to integrated change control
3. D. A sense of personal achievement
7. A. The project's budget
8. C. Understand the background of management's instructions before taking any action
9. B. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
10. B. Increased productivity
12. B. Crashing
13. C. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
15. B) Intuitive expert opinion
17. C. $29.12
19. C. 246
22. B) Fixed price, cost plus
23. A. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you
personally
25. D. It uniquely identified each element of the WBS
planning outputs
27. B. False
30. D) Merchantability and fitness for purpose
Test 8 8-211
8 ANSWERS

32. D. Increase the estimated cost
34. D. workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance
36. C. All of the above
37. D. Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration
39. B. 34.13
40. B. Claiming this issue has already been decided when it hasn't
42. B. False
45. A. Product analysis
47. C. Proposal
49. C. Initiator, encourager, and gatekeeper
51. A. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the team
53. A. Project organization charts, staffing management plan and project templates
54. B. Is an effective way of expanding the list of potential bidders
55. B. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider
the offer.
56. B. Safety
57. C. Ahead of schedule
59. C. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS
62. A. Specification
63. A. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before
8-212 Test 8
.....
ANSWERS

66. C. Project manager's ability to influence the risk
69. C. $5,287
corrective action
73. B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly prepared.
75. C. Work Package
78. B. Inform the project sponsor of the projected financial outcomes
79. B. Probability of outcome multiplied by the outcome in dollars
80. D. During the planning phase
84. D. A and B
86. A. Improved project performance
87. B. Reduced to reflect a percentage of the remaining work
88. A. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
89. D. Budget/cost analysis
90. A. -$3,000
92. D. Concept phase
93. A. Planning it into the project
Test 8 8-213
8 ANSWERS
94. D. Lower than the BCWS

95. D. Work breakdown structure
96. D. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
97. A. Economic models & comparative approaches
98. C. Depends upon the project's attitude toward risk
8-214 Test 8
S AMPLE T EST 9
...................................
9
.....
a. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis,
diagramming techniques
b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis,
c. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
d. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
taken?
a. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices interpretations and
disputes
b. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of
the contractor
c. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customer
d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
3. Your customer wants your project, a process to dump "bad" eggs before it reaches the store
shelves, to be completed 5 months earlier than planned. You believe you can meet this target by
overlapping project activates. The approach you plan to use is known as:
a. Concurrent engineering
b. Crashing
c. Fast-tracking
d. Leveling
Test 8 9-215
9
4. Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure?
a. Each level represents an increasing level of detail
b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented
c. The work breakdown structure is a detailed management process
d. None of the above
5. Examples of team building activities include:

a. Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict.
b. Regular progress reviews.
c. Periodic social events for team members.
d. All of the above
6. Resource planning involves determining what ____________ resources and what

_______________ of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project
activities.
a. Physical resources, quantities
b. Quantities, physical resources
c. Dynamic resources, parametric modeling technique
d. Parametric modeling, dynamic resources
time.
a. Organizational procedures
b. Status review
c. Work-authorization system
d. Project planning

a. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned
b. Project plan, project reports and change request
c. Product plan, performance reports and change request
d. Project plan, performance reports and change request
9-216 Test 8
.....
9. A tool and technique of quality control that keeps errors from reaching the client is
a. Corrective action
b. Inspection
c. Product scope management
d. Product quality management
10. The risk management plan us a major component of

a. The procurement plan
b. The project charter
c. The project plan
d. The project scope
11. Characteristics of a code of accounts are

a. It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structure
b. It includes work packages
c. It is a numbering system
d. All of the above
12. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by
procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be
accomplished?
a. After contract negotiation
b. During the scope definition effort
c. During the cost definition effort
d. While creating the work breakdown structure
13. Inputs to contract closeout include

a. Contract documentation
b. Contract Updates
c. Procurement audits
d. Procurement management plans
Test 8 9-217
9
14. If the acceptance sampling attribute for a production lot is 20 percent

a. Twenty percent of all lots must be test
b. Twenty percent of all lots must pass the test
c. Any given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects
d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects
15. ___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or
negative effect on a project.
a. Assumption analysis
b. Delphi technique
c. Risk
d. Triggers
16. Outputs of procurement planning include

a. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract
b. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract
c. Procurement management plan and statement of work
d. Procurement management plan and contract changes
17. Establishing minimum requirements of performance for evaluation criteria is also know as a
a. Weighting system
b. Screening system
c. Estimating system
d. Change control criteria
18. Inputs to quality planning include

a. Quality policy, historical information, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
c. Quality policy, quality management plan, operational definitions, product description
standards and regulations
d. Quality policy, checklists, quality management plan, product description standards and
regulations
9-218 Test 8
.....
19. When the project does not obtain products and services from outside the performing
organization, the processes from solicitation planning through contract closeout would
a. Still be performed
b. Would not be performed
c. Would be performed in stages
d. Would be associated with the work breakdown stages
20. The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by?
a. EV/PV
b. EV/AC
c. ACWS/PV
d. PV/EV
21. The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by:
a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method
(PDM) of scheduling.
b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints.
c. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work.
d. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work.
22. Response development is sometimes referred to as

a. Response planning & risk mitigation
b. Reponses planning and risk control
c. Risk control and response mitigation
d. Risk mitigation and response control
23. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure
in project organization refer to the-
a. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals
b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
c. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager
d. Degree to which team members bond together
Test 8 9-219
9
24. The project manager should be assigned during what phase

a. Initiation
b. Project Planning
c. Scope Planning
d. Scope Definition
25. Effective communication is critical for project success. Scope changes, constraints,
assumptions, integration and interface requirements, overlapping roles and responsibilities, and
many other factors all pose communications challenges. Communication barriers lead to -
a. Reduced productivity
b. Increased hostility
c. Low morale
d. Increased conflict
26. In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)?
a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred
to as "float time."
b. Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities.
c. There is no difference; the two terms are functionally equivalent.
d. An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's total
float.
27. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies
of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be
a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
b. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas
c. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas
d. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination
b. Performance measurement
c. Performance reports
d. Project plan updates
9-220 Test 8
.....
29. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method (CPM)
a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a more accurate method.
b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)-a deterministic method whereas the precedence
diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method.
c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method whereas the arrow
diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method.
d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.
30. Tools and techniques of performance reporting include

a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
distribution tools and techniques
b. Performance reviews, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools
and techniques, work breakdown structure
c. Performance reviews, variance analysis, earned value analysis, external information,
information distribution tools and techniques
d. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
retrieval systems
31. Inputs to scope definition include

a. Scope requests, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
b. Scope statements, scope statement updates, other planning outputs, historical information
c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
d. Scope statements, scope measurement plan, other planning outputs, historical information
32. Contracts may be called -

a. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understanding
b. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing request
c. An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
33. A scope change is defined as

a. Change in technical specifications
b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure
c. Change in product description
d. Change in the personnel authorization system
Test 8 9-221
9
34. Inputs to communication planning include

a. Communication requirements, communications management plan, constraints, assumptions
b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions
c. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, constraints, assumptions
d. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, performance reports, change
request procedures
35. ____________ sometimes, called risk symptoms or warning signs, are indications that a risk
has occurred or is about to occur.
b. Delphi technique
c. Risk
d. Triggers
36. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager
should:
a. Determine the risks associated with the violation
b. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results
c. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response
d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
37. The project charter should be issued by

a. The project manager
b. Client requesting services
c. Manager external to project
d. Manager internal to the project
38. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP

a. Project Management Policy of Ethics
b. Project Management Professional Standards
c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
d. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards
39. All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams except

a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables
b. Pareto diagrams are histograms
c. Pareto diagrams rank order
d. It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule
9-222 Test 8
.....
40. Inputs to scope verification include the following

a. Work results, project documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project
plan
b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and
project plan
c. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope change control, and
project plan
d. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and
project performance measurement
41. The most common communication problem during negotiations is that

a. One side may try to confuse the other side
d. One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said
c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said
d. Each side may give upon the other side

a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
b. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned
c. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure
d. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings
43. Residual and secondary risks are outputs from

a. Risk management planning
b. Risk identification
c. Quantitative risk analysis
d. Risk response planning
44. One of the outputs of risk identification is

a. Potential risk events
b. Corrective actions
c. Alternate strategies
d. Alternative action
45. Tools and techniques for administrative closure include

a. Performance reporting tools, project reports, project presentations
b. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project management skills, project presentations
c. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project analysis
d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations
Test 8 9-223
9
46. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution?
a. PM Information system
b. Organizational procedures
c. General management skills
d. Change control system
47. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This
new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial
amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you
and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete
clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should:
a. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire.
b. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's
financial status.
c. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project
d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.
48. Tools and techniques for scope planning include

a. Performance measurement, product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification,
expert judgment
b. Performance reports, performance measurement, alternative identification, expert judgment
c. Project analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, and expert judgment
d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment
49. What is the preferred method of verifying scope?
a. Work results
b. Inspection
c. Acceptance
d. Lessons learned
50. One way to shorten your project schedule is to assign three developers to each activity in the
project design phase instead of two. Although you are considering this approach, your design
phase project team would double in size as a result. This approach tends to -
a. Reduce productivity
b. Increase productivity
c. Reduce the need for quality auditing, thereby reducing overall resource costs
d. Improve production proportionately more than the increase in resources
9-224 Test 8
.....
51. What is the work breakdown structure typically used for?

a. To define the project schedule
b. To define who is responsible for completing a task
c. To manage scope change
d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
52. To the extent possible, final contract language should reflect all agreements reached. Subjects
usually covered contract financing, price and
a. Responsibilities/authorities
b. Applicable terms and law
c. Technical and business management approaches
d. All of the above
53. In the first attempt in resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur?
a. For the number of required resources to increase during certain time periods of the project.
b. For the number of required resources to decrease during certain time periods of the project.
c. For the overall project duration to increase.
d. All of the above.

a. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action
b. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action
c. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned
d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective
action
55. Scope verification differs from quality control in that it is primarily concerned with
a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
correctness of the work results.
b. Correctness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
acceptance of the work results.
c. Completeness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
d. That all items requested in the scope statement have been completed
Test 8 9-225
9
56. Tools and techniques of quality control include

a. Benchmarking, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend
analysis
b. Design of experiments, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts,
trend analysis
c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis
d. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, quality audits, quality
improvements
57. In the closing phase of your project, a number of administrative issues must be completed. A
concern is to assess project effectiveness. One way to accomplish this task is to---
a. Prepare a performance report
b. Perform an inspection
c. Hold a performance review
d. Conduct a procurement audit
58. A person's negotiating skills/temperament certainly are influenced by his/her culture. However,
other factors, such as education and experience, also are at work. And over time, an individual
who is living in a culture that is different from his or her own may take on characteristics of the
new culture. This person may behave from a new frame of reference. With respect to
negotiation, this illustrates the importance of-
a. Always looking at those with whom you are negotiating as members of a particular cultural
group
b. Becoming overly dependent on cultural knowledge as the cornerstone for all negotiations
c. Recognizing that cultural stereotyping should be used as a starting point for all international
negotiations
d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique
personality traits and experiences
59. Scope definition is

a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components
b. Involves communicating changes with the client
c. Is the sole responsibility of the project manager
d. Is the responsibility of the expeditor
9-226 Test 8
.....
60. As a project manager your responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the
following except
a. Personal integrity
b. Project integrity
c. Product integrity
d. Integrity of others
61. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment because -
a. The team members do not want to move on to new assignments
b. They believe that no one will want to leave the project
c. The functional managers do not want the team members to return
d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process
62. Monte Carlo analysis is

a. Not accurate
b. Rarely used
c. The basis for most schedule simulations
d. Is an estimate of the probability that a given risk will happen within a certain time frame.
63. Inputs to risk management include

a. Project charter, project plan, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance,
templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure
b. Project plan, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
stakeholder risk tolerance, templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work
breakdown structure
c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
breakdown structure
d. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, responsibility assignment matrix,
breakdown structure
64. The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project
team members are-
a. Focused on individual project activities
b. Politically sensitive to top management's needs
c. Problem oriented
d. Focused on customer demands
Test 8 9-227
9
65. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to
complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the
worst case. What is the PERT estimate for he expected duration of the work package?
a. 65 weeks
b. 70 weeks
c. 75 weeks
d. 80 weeks
66. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure
that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.
a. Informal procedure
b. Exchange procedure
c. Formal procedure
d. Monitoring procedure
67. The work breakdown structure which is an output of scope definition is

a. A object-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope
of the project
b. A multi-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope
of the project
c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total
scope of the project
d. Is a listing of items outside the scope management plan which will need to be included in the
project planning phase/requirements
68. Tools and techniques of procurement planning include

a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, and market conditions
b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection
c. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract
d. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract
69. Common causes of variances are a result of all of the following except:
a. Variances that are random
b. Variances that are always present
c. Variances that are predictable
d. Variances that are special
9-228 Test 8
.....
70. The work breakdown structure is an output of what phase

a. Initiation
b. Scope planning
c. Scope definition
d. Scope verification

a. The starting and finishing dates of the activities.
b. Occasional changes to the activity listing.
c. The total float of the activities.
d. The project's budget.
72. Scope definition is necessary to

a. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimates
b. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
c. Define a baseline for progress measurement and control
d. All of the above
73. Risk identification should be done

a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle
b. Early in the planning phase
c. In the design phase
d. When creating the work breakdown structure
74. Inputs to cost estimating include the following

a. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, scope statement, and organizational policies
b. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, assumptions, constraints, and risks
c. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, historical information, code of accounts, risks
d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, historical information, chart of accounts, risks
75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a work package?

a. It is a summary task at the top level of the Work breakdown structure
b. It is a summary task at the middle level of the Work breakdown structure
c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure
d. It usually takes not more than 80 hours to complete
Test 8 9-229
9
76. Quality audits when preformed correctly will provide the following benefit(s)
a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards
b. Allow for applicable laws and standards not to adhered to
c. Corrective action is implemented continuously throughout the project
d. Quality improvements need not be identified
77. Outputs from response development could include all except?

a. Risk management plan
b. Insurance policies
c. Contingency plan
d. Corrective action
78. In dealing with the client/customer, the project manager should always -
a. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business
b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship
c. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep
d. Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from litigation
79. The level of authority of the project manager:

a. Is dependent on corporate policies.
b. Varies considerably from company to company.
c. Is delegated by senior management.
80. You are the project manager and responsible for quality audits. You have been accused of being
a fanatic because of your practice of conducting not one, but multiple, quality audits on a
project. Which one of the following types of audits is not an example of a quality audit?
a. Internal
b. System
c. Baseline
d. Scope
81. Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The
successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship
has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a non-workday. What can
be determined from these data?
a. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 7 days.
b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
c. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 12 days.
d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days.
9-230 Test 8
.....
82. In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which statement is true
regarding conflict in projects?
a. Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they can dictate
their needs to functional managers.
b. Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract administrative
procedures, and type of contract.
c. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible.
d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to
ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers.
83. Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helps

a. Determine how various statistical data will interrelate based on results
b. Anticipate the probability that something will fail
c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come
d. Allow for random sampling
84. A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It
includes
a. Performance measurement, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing
changes
b. Paperwork, project management information system (PMIS), and appropriate approval level
for authorizing changes
c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
d. Project management information system (PMIS), change requests modification system, and
appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
85. Which of the following is true regarding schedule variances?

a. The always impact the schedule and never the cost
b. The always impact the cost
c. They sometimes impact the schedule
d. They sometimes impact the schedule and always the cost
86. When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is to-
a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task
b. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas
to perform each task
c. Refer to the project charter developed by top management
d. Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure
Test 8 9-231
9
87. Steps in effective goal setting are:

a. Negotiation, resource allotment, published goals.
b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards.
c. Setting quality standards, setting quantity standards, defining other contributions.
d. Establish project goals, establish sub team goals, establish individual goals, define reward
and recognition plan.
88. Two of the types of discretionary dependencies that typically have an effect on the sequencing
of the activities in the schedule are those containing "hard logic" and those containing "soft
logic." An example of a "soft logic" dependency would be:
a. Project A, the company's participation in a Pump Industry trade show, depends on the
successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype pump that is going to be
displayed.
b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.
c. To schedule all moving of equipment weighing in excess of 5 tons because it would take too
much time now do move the equipment.
d. For the wrapping of a box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first.
multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The
appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to:
a. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects
b. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information
c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
d. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific
90. You are managing the development of a highly controversial project. Today you called a team
meeting and explained the project objectives to the team and several members stood up and left
citing philosophical objections to the project. You chased them down the hall trying to convince
them to work on the project and explaining that you would use the best quality management
plan available for this work. One of the team members stopped abruptly and demanded to know
what the purpose of such a plan would be. You explained that the objective of any quality
management plan is to-
a. Create some regulations to govern the project
b. Ensure that process adjustments are made in a timely fashion
c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance
d. Ensure that the scope management plan is followed
9-232 Test 8
.....
91. Inputs to procurement planning include

a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs and expert judgment
b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs, constraints and assumptions
c. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs and work breakdown structure
d. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs and procurement documents
92. Information typically required to determine project communications requirements include

a. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relations
b. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project
c. External information needs
d. All of the above
93. You are managing a project to develop nutritional soda for the "under 20" market. You have
recently heard that the client calls your progress reports the "Code of Crap" because they seem
to be written in a foreign language and incomprehensible. This situation could have been
avoided by-
a. Informing the client at the start of the project of the types of reports they will receive
b. Using risk management techniques to identify client issues
c. Hiring an expert report writer to prepare standard reports
d. Developed a communications plan
94. Investment in project development prevention is most often borne by the

a. Performing organization
b. Project manager
c. Project team
d. Product user
95. Inputs to contract administration include

a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices
b. Contracts, work results, scope request and seller invoices
c. Contracts, work results, contract change control system
d. Contracts, work breakdown structure, change request and seller invoices
Test 8 9-233
9
96. The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person should-
a. Be as brief as possible
b. Provide options, including the pros and cons
c. Remain patient
d. Speak as quickly to ensure that all the information is conveyed
a. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
b. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
c. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
98. The diagram which ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence, using a histogram to
depict 100 percent of the defects is called:
a. Bar chart
b. Critical path
c. Network chart
d. Pareto chart
99. Team development is based on the-

a. Individual development of each team member
b. Training provided to the project team
c. Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and trust
d. Organizational structure of the project
100. You are ready to enter a negotiating session with a group that is from Russia. The Russians have
been known to be aggressive and assertive people who like to talk much more than they like to
listen. To earn your bonus, you must not be at a disadvantage in your negotiations with them.
Therefore, you must concentrate on-
a. Active listening
b. Earning the trust on the other side of the negotiating table
c. Seating arrangements in the negotiating room
d. Setting and following strict time limits at each step of the negotiating process
9-234 Test 8
.....
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
....................................................
1. b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
2. d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
3. c. Fast-tracking
4. b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented
5. d. All of the above
6. a. Physical resources, quantities
7. c.
8. d. Project plan, performance reports and change request
9. b. Inspection
10. c. The project plan
12. b. During the scope definition effort
13. a. Contract documentation
14. d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects
15. c. Risk
16. b. Procurement management plan and statement of work
17. b. Screening system
18. b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
19. b. Would not be performed
20. a. EV/PV
21. a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method
22. a. Response planning & risk mitigation
23. b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
24. a. Initiation
25. d. Increased conflict
26. a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred
to as "float time."
27. a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
28. b. Performance measurement
29. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.
Test 8 9-235
9 ANSWERS
30. a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
31. c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
32. d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
33. b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure
34. b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions
35. d. Triggers
36. d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
37. c. Manager external to project
38. c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
39. a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables
40. b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, project
plan
41. c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said
42. a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
43. d. Risk response planning
44. a. Potential risk events
45. d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations
46. d. Change control system
47. d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.
48. d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment
49. b. Inspection
50. a. Reduce productivity
51. d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
54. d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective
action
55. a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
56. c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis
57. c. Hold a performance review
58. d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique
59. a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components
9-236 Test 8
.....
ANSWERS
60. d. Integrity of others

61. d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process
62. c. The basis for most schedule simulations
63. c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
breakdown structure
64. c. Problem oriented
65. b. 70 weeks
66. c. Formal procedure
67. c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total
68. b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection
69. d. Variances that are special
70. c. Scope definition
71. d. The project's budget.
73. a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle
74. d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
75. c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure
76. a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards
77. d. Corrective action
78. b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship
80. d. Scope
81. b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
82. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to
83. c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come
84. c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
85. c. They sometimes impact the schedule
86. a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task
87. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards.
88. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.
Test 8 9-237
9 ANSWERS
89. c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their
90. c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance
91. b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
93. d. Developed a communications plan
94. a. Performing organization
95. a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices
96. a. Be as brief as possible
97. d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
98. d. Pareto chart
99. a. Individual development of each team member
100. a. Active listening
9-238 Test 8
S AMPLE T EST 10
...................................
10
.....
1. As the leader of a project team, the project manager may be required to assess the competencies
of his or her team members. Occasionally, some weaknesses or areas for improvement will be
a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
b. Remove any team members who have demonstrated weaknesses in critical knowledge areas
c. Hire additional resources to compensate for weak areas
d. Wait for the team members to fail in an assignment to justify termination
2. Scope definition is necessary to

a. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimates
b. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
c. Define a baseline for progress measurement and control
d. All of the above
3. Inputs to quality planning include

a. Quality policy, historical information, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
c. Quality policy, quality management plan, operational definitions, product description
standards and regulations
d. Quality policy, checklists, quality management plan, product description standards and
regulations
4. What is the work breakdown structure typically used for?

a. To define the project schedule
b. To define who is responsible for completing a task
c. To manage scope change
d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
Test 8 10-239
S A M P L E TE S T 1 0
10
5. Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to
complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the
worst case. What is the PERT estimate for he expected duration of the work package?
a. 65 weeks
b. 70 weeks
c. 75 weeks
d. 80 weeks
6. Residual and secondary risks are outputs from

a. Risk management planning
b. Risk identification
c. Quantitative risk analysis
d. Risk response planning
7. The level of authority of the project manager:

a. Is dependent on corporate policies.
b. Varies considerably from company to company.
c. Is delegated by senior management.
8. You are managing a project to develop nutritional soda for the "under 20" market. You have
recently heard that the client calls your progress reports the "Code of Crap" because they seem
to be written in a foreign language and incomprehensible. This situation could have been
avoided by-
a. Informing the client at the start of the project of the types of reports they will receive
b. Using risk management techniques to identify client issues
c. Hiring an expert report writer to prepare standard reports
d. Developed a communications plan
9. A work authorization system is a _________________ for sanctioning project work to ensure

that work is done at the right time and in the proper sequence.
a. Informal procedure
b. Exchange procedure
c. Formal procedure
d. Monitoring procedure
10-240 Test 8
.....
10. The work breakdown structure is an output of what phase

a. Initiation
b. Scope planning
c. Scope definition
d. Scope verification
11. As a project manager your responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the
following except
a. Personal integrity
b. Project integrity
c. Product integrity
d. Integrity of others
12. Common causes of variances are a result of all of the following except:
a. Variances that are random
b. Variances that are always present
c. Variances that are predictable
d. Variances that are special

a. Project plan, performance reports and lessons learned
b. Project plan, project reports and change request
c. Product plan, performance reports and change request
d. Project plan, performance reports and change request
14. Response development is sometimes referred to as

a. Response planning & risk mitigation
b. Reponses planning and risk control
c. Risk control and response mitigation
d. Risk mitigation and response control
15. Tools and techniques of quality control include

a. Benchmarking, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend
analysis
b. Design of experiments, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts,
trend analysis
c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis
d. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, quality audits, quality
improvements
Test 8 10-241
10
16. When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is to -
a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task
b. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas
to perform each task
c. Refer to the project charter developed by top management
d. Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure
17. Characteristics of a code of accounts are

a. It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structure
b. It includes work packages
c. It is a numbering system
d. All of the above
18. One of the outputs of risk identification is

a. Potential risk events
b. Corrective actions
c. Alternate strategies
d. Alternative action
19. A person's negotiating skills/temperament certainly is influenced by his/her culture. However,

other factors, such as education and experience, also are at work. And over time, an individual
who is living in a culture that is different from his or her own may take on characteristics of the
new culture. This person may behave from a new frame of reference. With respect to
negotiation, this illustrates the importance of-
a. Always looking at those with whom you are negotiating as members of a particular cultural
group
b. Becoming overly dependent on cultural knowledge as the cornerstone for all negotiations
c. Recognizing that cultural stereotyping should be used as a starting point for all international
negotiations
d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique
20. Team development is based on the-

a. Individual development of each team member
b. Training provided to the project team
c. Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and trust
d. Organizational structure of the project
10-242 Test 8
.....
21. Inputs to procurement planning include

a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs and expert judgment
b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
c. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs and work breakdown structure
d. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
planning outputs and procurement documents
22. If the acceptance sampling attribute for a production lot is 20 percent

a. Twenty percent of all lots must be test
b. Twenty percent of all lots must pass the test
c. Any given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects
d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects
23. Inputs to scope definition include

a. Scope requests, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
b. Scope statements, scope statement updates, other planning outputs, historical information
c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
d. Scope statements, scope measurement plan, other planning outputs, historical information
24. In the first attempt in resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur?
a. For the number of required resources to increase during certain time periods of the project.
b. For the number of required resources to decrease during certain time periods of the project.
c. For the overall project duration to increase.
25. You are ready to enter a negotiating session with a group that is from Russia. The Russians have
been known to be aggressive and assertive people who like to talk much more than they like to
listen. To earn your bonus, you must not be at a disadvantage in your negotiations with them.
Therefore, you must concentrate on-
a. Active listening
b. Earning the trust on the other side of the negotiating table
c. Seating arrangements in the negotiating room
d. Setting and following strict time limits at each step of the negotiating process
Test 8 10-243
10
26. Resource planning involves determining what ____________ resources and what
_______________ of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project
activities.
a. Physical resources, quantities
b. Quantities, physical resources
c. Dynamic resources, parametric modeling technique
d. Parametric modeling, dynamic resources
27. The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the critical path method (CPM)
a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a more accurate method.
b. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)-a deterministic method whereas the precedence
diagramming method (PDM) is a probabilistic method.
c. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a deterministic method whereas the arrow
diagramming method (ADM) is a probabilistic method.
d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.
28. The work breakdown structure which is an output of scope definition is

a. A object-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope
of the project
b. A multi-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope
of the project
c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total
d. Is a listing of items outside the scope management plan which will need to be included in the
project planning phase/requirements
29. The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by?
a. EV/PV
b. EV/AC
c. ACWS/PV
d. PV/EV

a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned
b. Project plan updates, performance updates and lessons learned
c. Project plan updates, corrective action and work breakdown structure
d. Project plan updates, corrective action and progress meetings
10-244 Test 8
.....

a. Project plan, work breakdown structure, organizational policies, preventive action and
corrective action
b. Project plan, work results, change requests, preventive action and corrective action
c. Project skills, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and lessons learned
d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective
action
32. Effective communication is critical for project success. Scope changes, constraints,
assumptions, integration and interface requirements, overlapping roles and responsibilities, and
many other factors all pose communications challenges. Communication barriers lead to-
a. Reduced productivity
b. Increased hostility
c. Low morale
d. Increased conflict
33. The most common communication problem during negotiations is that

a. One side may try to confuse the other side
d. One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said
c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said
d. Each side may give upon the other side
34. The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person should-
a. Be as brief as possible
b. Provide options, including the pros and cons
c. Remain patient
d. Speak as quickly to ensure that all the information is conveyed
35. When the project does not obtain products and services from outside the performing
organization, the processes from solicitation planning through contract closeout would -
a. Still be performed
b. Would not be performed
c. Would be performed in stages
d. Would be associated with the work breakdown stages
Test 8 10-245
10
36. Investment in project development prevention is most often borne by the

a. Performing organization
b. Project manager
c. Project team
d. Product user
37. One way to shorten your project schedule is to assign three developers to each activity in the
project design phase instead of two. Although you are considering this approach, your design
phase project team would double in size as a result. This approach tends to-
a. Reduce productivity
b. Increase productivity
c. Reduce the need for quality auditing, thereby reducing overall resource costs
d. Improve production proportionately more than the increase in resources
38. Scope definition is

a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components
b. Involves communicating changes with the client
c. Is the sole responsibility of the project manager
d. Is the responsibility of the expeditor
39. In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which statement is true
regarding conflict in projects?
a. Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they can dictate
their needs to functional managers.
b. Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract administrative
procedures, and type of contract.
c. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible.
d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to
40. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP

a. Project Management Policy of Ethics
b. Project Management Professional Standards
c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
d. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards
10-246 Test 8
.....
41. Outputs from response development could include all except?

a. Risk management plan
b. Insurance policies
c. Contingency plan
d. Corrective action
42. Tools and techniques for administrative closure include

a. Performance reporting tools, project reports, project presentations
b. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project management skills, project presentations
c. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project analysis
d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations
43. You are managing the development of a highly controversial project. Today you called a team
meeting and explained the project objectives to the team and several members stood up and left
citing philosophical objections to the project. You chased them down the hall trying to convince
them to work on the project and explaining that you would use the best quality management
plan available for this work. One of the team members stopped abruptly and demanded to know
what the purpose of such a plan would be. You explained that the objective of any quality
management plan is to-
a. Create some regulations to govern the project
b. Ensure that process adjustments are made in a timely fashion
c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance
d. Ensure that the scope management plan is followed
44. Establishing minimum requirements of performance for evaluation criteria is also know as a -
a. Weighting system
b. Screening system
c. Estimating system
d. Change control criteria
multinational team of stakeholders. You have several choices of media available. The
appropriate action to take in the development of the communication plans would be to:
a. Use the standard media that has been in effect for your previous projects
b. Use multiple forms of media to ensure that everyone receives the information
c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their input
d. Obtain additional funding from the project sponsor and develop a project specific
Test 8 10-247
10
46. All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams except

a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables
b. Pareto diagrams are histograms
c. Pareto diagrams rank order
d. It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule
47. A tool and technique of quality control that keeps errors from reaching the client is
a. Corrective action
b. Inspection
c. Product scope management
d. Product quality management
48. In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)?
a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred
to as "float time."
b. Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities.
c. There is no difference; the two terms are functionally equivalent.
d. An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's total
float.
49. In dealing with the client/customer, the project manager should always -
a. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business
b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship
c. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep
d. Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from litigation
50. Scope verification differs from quality control in that it is primarily concerned with
a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
b. Correctness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
c. Completeness of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
d. That all items requested in the scope statement have been completed
10-248 Test 8
.....

a. Decision tree analysis, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis,
b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis,
c. Periodic risk response audits, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
d. Risk probability and impact, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions
52. The project charter should be issued by

a. The project manager
b. Client requesting services
c. Manager external to project
d. Manager internal to the project
53. The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project
team members are-
a. Focused on individual project activities
b. Politically sensitive to top management's needs
c. Problem oriented
d. Focused on customer demands
54. Two of the types of discretionary dependencies that typically have an effect on the sequencing
of the activities in the schedule are those containing "hard logic" and those containing "soft
logic." An example of a "soft logic" dependency would be:
a. Project A, the company's participation in a Pump Industry trade show, depends on the
successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype pump that is going to be
displayed.
b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.
c. To schedule all moving of equipment weighing in excess of 5 tons because it would take too
much time now do move the equipment.
d. For the wrapping of a box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first.
time.
b. Status review
c. Work-authorization system
d. Project planning
Test 8 10-249
10
56. Quality audits when preformed correctly will provide the following benefit(s)
a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards
b. Allow for applicable laws and standards not to adhered to
c. Corrective action is implemented continuously throughout the project
d. Quality improvements need not be identified
57. Tools and techniques of performance reporting include

a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
b. Performance reviews, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information distribution tools
and techniques, work breakdown structure
c. Performance reviews, variance analysis, earned value analysis, external information,
information distribution tools and techniques
d. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
retrieval systems
taken?
a. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices interpretations and
disputes
b. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of
the contractor
c. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customer
d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
59. Your customer wants your project, a process to dump "bad" eggs before it reaches the store
shelves, to be completed 5 months earlier than planned. You believe you can meet this target by
overlapping project activates. The approach you plan to use is known as:
a. Concurrent engineering
b. Crashing
c. Fast-tracking
d. Leveling
10-250 Test 8
.....
60. Inputs to cost estimating include the following

a. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, scope statement, and organizational policies
b. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, assumptions, constraints, and risks
c. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
estimating publications, historical information, code of accounts, risks
d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,

a. The starting and finishing dates of the activities.
b. Occasional changes to the activity listing.
c. The total float of the activities.
d. The project's budget.
62. Examples of team building activities include:

a. Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict.
b. Regular progress reviews.
c. Periodic social events for team members.
d. All of the above
63. Contracts may be called -

a. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understanding
b. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing request
c. An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
64. Which of the following is true regarding schedule variances?

a. The always impact the schedule and never the cost
b. The always impact the cost
c. They sometimes impact the schedule
d. They sometimes impact the schedule and always the cost
65. A scope change is defined as

a. Change in technical specifications
b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure
c. Change in product description
d. Change in the personnel authorization system
Test 8 10-251
10
66. Inputs to risk management include

a. Project charter, project plan, defined roles and responsibilities, stakeholder risk tolerance,
templates for the organization's risk management plan, and the work breakdown structure
b. Project plan, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
breakdown structure
c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
breakdown structure
d. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, responsibility assignment matrix,
breakdown structure
67. Inputs to scope verification include the following

a. Work results, project documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and project
plan
b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and
project plan
c. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope change control, and
project plan
d. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, and
project performance measurement
68. During your assignment as project manager you add a new member to your project team. This
new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial
amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you
and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete
clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should:
a. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire.
b. Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's
financial status.
c. Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project
d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.
69. In the closing phase of your project, a number of administrative issues must be completed. A
concern is to assess project effectiveness. One way to accomplish this task is to---
a. Prepare a performance report
b. Perform an inspection
c. Hold a performance review
d. Conduct a procurement audit
10-252 Test 8
.....
70. ____________ sometimes, called risk symptoms or warning signs, are indications that a risk
has occurred or is about to occur.
b. Delphi technique
c. Risk
d. Triggers
71. The risk management plan us a major component of

a. The procurement plan
b. The project charter
c. The project plan
d. The project scope
72. Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helps

a. Determine how various statistical data will interrelate based on results
b. Anticipate the probability that something will fail
c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come
d. Allow for random sampling
73. A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It
includes
a. Performance measurement, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing
changes
b. Paperwork, project management information system (PMIS), and appropriate approval level
for authorizing changes
c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
d. Project management information system (PMIS), change requests modification system, and
appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
74. Inputs to communication planning include

a. Communication requirements, communications management plan, constraints, assumptions
b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions
c. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, constraints, assumptions
d. Performance measurement documentation, project archives, performance reports, change
request procedures
Test 8 10-253
10
75. To the extent possible, final contract language should reflect all agreements reached. Subjects
usually covered contract financing, price and
a. Responsibilities/authorities
b. Applicable terms and law
c. Technical and business management approaches
d. All of the above
76. Information typically required to determine project communications requirements include

a. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relations
b. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project
c. External information needs
d. All of the above
77. Tools and techniques for scope planning include

a. Performance measurement, product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification,
expert judgment
b. Performance reports, performance measurement, alternative identification, expert judgment
c. Project analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, and expert judgment
d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment
78. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment because -
a. The team members do not want to move on to new assignments
b. They believe that no one will want to leave the project
c. The functional managers do not want the team members to return
d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process
79. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure
in project organization refer to the-
a. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals
b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
c. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager
d. Degree to which team members bond together
10-254 Test 8
.....
a. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
b. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
c. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
81. Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by
procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be
accomplished?
a. After contract negotiation
b. During the scope definition effort
c. During the cost definition effort
d. While creating the work breakdown structure
82. ___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or
negative effect on a project.
b. Delphi technique
c. Risk
d. Triggers
83. Risk identification should be done

a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle
b. Early in the planning phase
c. In the design phase
d. When creating the work breakdown structure
84. Monte Carlo analysis is

a. Not accurate
b. Rarely used
c. The basis for most schedule simulations
d. Is an estimate of the probability that a given risk will happen within a certain time frame.
Test 8 10-255
10
85. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a work package?

a. It is a summary task at the top level of the Work breakdown structure
b. It is a summary task at the middle level of the Work breakdown structure
c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure
d. It usually takes not more than 80 hours to complete
86. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of project plan execution?
a. PM Information system
b. Organizational procedures
c. General management skills
d. Change control system
87. The project manager should be assigned during what phase

a. Initiation
b. Project Planning
c. Scope Planning
d. Scope Definition
88. Outputs of procurement planning include

a. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract
b. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract
c. Procurement management plan and statement of work
d. Procurement management plan and contract changes
89. What is the preferred method of verifying scope?

a. Work results
b. Inspection
c. Acceptance
d. Lessons learned
90. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager
should:
a. Determine the risks associated with the violation
b. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results
c. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response
d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
10-256 Test 8
.....
91. Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure?
a. Each level represents an increasing level of detail
b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented
c. The work breakdown structure is a detailed management process
d. None of the above
92. The diagram which ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence, using a histogram to
depict 100 percent of the defects is called:
a. Bar chart
b. Critical path
c. Network chart
d. Pareto chart
93. Inputs to contract closeout include

a. Contract documentation
b. Contract Updates
c. Procurement audits
d. Procurement management plans
94. Tools and techniques of procurement planning include

a. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, and market conditions
b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection
c. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection, contract
d. Scope statement, Correspondence, contract file, contract
95. Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The
successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship
has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a non-workday. What can
be determined from these data?
a. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 7 days.
b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
c. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 12 days.
d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days.
96. Inputs to contract administration include

a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices
b. Contracts, work results, scope request and seller invoices
c. Contracts, work results, contract change control system
d. Contracts, work breakdown structure, change request and seller invoices
Test 8 10-257
10
97. Steps in effective goal setting are:

a. Negotiation, resource allotment, published goals.
b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards.
c. Setting quality standards, setting quantity standards, defining other contributions.
d. Establish project goals, establish sub team goals, establish individual goals, define reward
and recognition plan.
98. The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by:
a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method
b. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints.
c. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work.
d. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work.
99. You are the project manager and responsible for quality audits. You have been accused of being
a fanatic because of your practice of conducting not one, but multiple, quality audits on a
project. Which one of the following types of audits is not an example of a quality audit?
a. Internal
b. System
c. Baseline
d. Scope
b. Performance measurement
c. Performance reports
d. Project plan updates
10-258 Test 8
.....
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
....................................................
1. a. Communicate those weaknesses and establish a performance improvement program
3. b. Quality policy, product description, scope statement, product description standards and
regulations
4. d. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
5. b. 70 weeks
6. d. Risk response planning
8. d. Developed a communications plan
9. c. Formal procedure
10. c. Scope definition
11. d. Integrity of others
12. d. Variances that are special
13. d. Project plan, performance reports and change request
14. a. Response planning & risk mitigation
15. c. Inspection, control charts, Pareto diagrams, statistical sampling, flow-charts, trend analysis
16. a. Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task
18. a. Potential risk events
19. d. Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with unique
20. a. Individual development of each team member
21. b. Scope statement, Product description, Procurement resources, market conditions, other
22. d. A sampling of a given lot must have 20 percent or fewer defects
23. c. Scope statements, constraints, assumptions, other planning outputs, historical information
25. a. Active listening
26. a. Physical resources, quantities
27. d. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line.
28. c. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total
29. a. EV/PV
Test 8 10-259
10 ANSWERS
30. a. Project plan updates, corrective action and lessons learned

31. d. Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective
action
32. d. Increased conflict
33. c. Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said
34. a. Be as brief as possible
35. b. Would not be performed
36. a. Performing organization
37. a. Reduce productivity
38. a. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components
39. d. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to
40. c. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
41. d. Corrective action
42. d. Performance reporting tools and techniques, project reports, project presentations
43. c. Improve quality in every aspect of project performance
44. b. Screening system
45. c. Discuss the available options with the stakeholders and obtain their
46. a. Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables
47. b. Inspection
48. a. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred
to as "float time."
49. b. Develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship
50. a. Acceptance of the work results while quality control is primarily concerned with the
51. b. Documentation reviews, information-gathering techniques, checklists, assumptions analysis,
52. c. Manager external to project
53. c. Problem oriented
54. b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.
55. c.
56. a. The product of the project is fit for use and meets safety standards
57. a. Performance reviews, variance analysis, trend analysis, earned value analysis, information
58. d. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
10-260 Test 8
.....
ANSWERS
59. c. Fast-tracking
60. d. Work breakdown structure, resource requirements, resource rates, activity duration estimates,
61. d. The project's budget.
63. d. An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding
64. c. They sometimes impact the schedule
65. b. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure
66. c. Project charter, organizational risk management policies, defined roles and responsibilities,
breakdown structure
67. b. Work results, product documentation, work breakdown structure, scope statement, project
plan
68. d. Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise her to reconsider the offer.
69. c. Hold a performance review
70. d. Triggers
71. c. The project plan
72. c. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come
73. c. Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes
74. b. Communication requirements, communications technology, constraints, assumptions
77. d. Product analysis, benefit/cost analysis, alternative identification, expert judgment
78. d. They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in the process
79. b. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
80. d. Project planning methodology, stakeholder skills and knowledge, project management
81. b. During the scope definition effort
82. c. Risk
83. a. On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle
84. c. The basis for most schedule simulations
85. c. It is a summary task at the lowest level of the Work breakdown structure
86. d. Change control system
87. a. Initiation
88. b. Procurement management plan and statement of work
Test 8 10-261
10 ANSWERS
89. b. Inspection
90. d. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
91. b. The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented
92. d. Pareto chart
93. a. Contract documentation
94. b. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, contract type selection
95. b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
96. a. Contracts, work results, change request and seller invoices
97. b. Definition, setting completion time, resource allotment, quality standards.
98. a. Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method
99. d. Scope
100. b. Performance measurement
10-262 Test 8

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S AMPLE T EST 1

4. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in integrated change control?

Sample Test 1 1-1

8. Which is an input to resource planning?

1-2 Sample Test 1

12. _____________ /top-down estimating is generally the least accurate.

Sample Test 1 1-3

17. The most rapid cost estimating technique is:

1-4 Sample Test 1

20.An example of a conflict of interest would be:

24. _____________ is the most accurate cost estimating technique.

Sample Test 1 1-5

26. What are the inputs to Project Plan Execution?

27. Change control requests:

28. Cost control is concerned with:

29. _____________ is another term for top down estimating.

1-6 Sample Test 1

34. Meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal is

Sample Test 1 1-7

35. Risk response planning is one of the _______________ processes

37. The project plan:

39. _____________ involves estimating the cost of individual work items:

1-8 Sample Test 1

Project "B" Activities LOW MOST LIKELY HIGH

Write specifications 35 50 100

Prepare defects/issues list 10 25 60

43. Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP.

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44. The communication management plan is a document that provides:

47. ____________ involves determing the information and communication of stakeholders.

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51. Parametric cost estimating involves:

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54. What is the Delphi forecasting technique?

55. Which of the following are inputs to Project Plan Development?

56. Project Integration Management

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60. Inputs to risk quantification include which of the following?

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68. The output from resource planning includes:

69. _____________ is controlling changes to the budget.

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73. Which is not a process included in Project Risk Management:

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83. Earned value can be described as:

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85. Which describes how cost variances will be managed?

87. Which of the following is an input to the team development process?

89. Which is not another term for contract?

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25. C. PMBOK , page 132

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63. C. PMP Exam Cram, page 10-228

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99. A. PMBOK , page 88

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4. _____________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model.

6. _____________ is generally the least accurate.

7. The _____________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration: