iSQI Selftestengine CTFL - Foundation v2019-06-15 by Laura 119q PDF

CTFL-Foundation.
119q
Number: CTFL-Foundation
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
https://www.gratisexam.com/
Certified Tester - Foundation Level (Syllabus 2011)
Exam A
QUESTION 1
During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is
not found by software testing and is released into live.
What is the definite consequence of this mistake?
A. The system will fail, causing a defect.

B. If the defect is executed, the system may fail.
C. Loss of money, time, or business reputation.
D. Contractual requirements have not been met by testing.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?
A. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process
C. Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly
D. Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company. Which one of the following is the BEST approach?
A. Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects
B. Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool’s script
C. Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool’s script for ease of maintenance
D. Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?
A. The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B. The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action
C. The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring
D. The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software.
The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.
A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.
The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to
create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.
The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.
Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?
A. a, d, c, b, e
B. a, c, b, d, e
C. e, a, b, c, d
D. e, a, d, c, b
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box
technique and one white box technique for test case design.
Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?
A. Statement testing and exploratory testing

B. Decision testing and equivalence partitioning
C. Decision testing and decision table testing
D. Boundary value analysis and decision table testing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?
A. Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited
B. Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing
C. Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis
D. Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
А garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs.
1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times
2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on, ranging from 1 to 60
Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?
A. Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60
B. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second
C. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 60, 61
D. Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?
A. Event C from S3
B. Event E from S4
C. Event B from S2
D. Event D from S4
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.
Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?
Test Case 1:
An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.
Test Case 2:
An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.
Test Case 3:
An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.
A. Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid. Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B. Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid. Test Case 1 is Invalid.
C. Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.
D. Test Case 2 is Valid. Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?
A. Error, fault, failure

B. Fault, bug, mistake
C. Mistake, failure, fault
D. Failure, bug, error
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's system test level?
A. Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute
B. Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company
C. Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests
D. Minimizing contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?
A. System and Component test levels only
B. All 'Development' test levels, i. e. those before Acceptance testing
C. Component and Component integration test levels only
D. All test levels
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organization?
A. To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B. To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards
C. To limit communication between developers and testers
D. To provide better metrics for the stakeholders
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?
A. Identifying a failure
B. Locating the cause of failure
C. Fixing the defect
D. Checking the fix has resolved the failure
A. a & d
B. a & b
C. b & c
D. c & d
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?
A. Data migration
B. System retirement
C. System modification
D. Introduction of a test management tool
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
А live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.
Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?
A. Dynamic analysis tool

B. Monitoring tool
C. Configuration management tool
D. Coverage measurement tool
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Why is measurement of code coverage important?
A. Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B. Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors
C. Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests
D. Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?
A. Prepare and acquire the test data

B. Set up and check the test environment
C. Write test summary reports
D. Review tests developed by others
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
А system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.
What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?
A. Stress testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Load testing
D. Usability testing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.
Test Case 1: Search for an item: Available Flights.

Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights.
Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted.
Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights.
Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit.
Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight.
Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?
A. 6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
B. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?
A. Decision Coverage
B. Error Guessing
C. Statement Coverage
D. Equivalence Partitioning
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?
A. Memory is leaking
B. Features are only partially implemented
C. Data structures that are used before initialization
D. Division by zero
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is correct?
A. Intrusive test tools are that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B. Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers
C. Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system
D. Testing tools allow developers do testing. Use of such tools changes the role of the test team
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?
A. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools
B. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations
C. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free
D. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?
A. Code inspection
B. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it
C. Functional Testing
D. Coverage analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?
A. By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B. By an independent test team at the developing organization’s location
C. At the developing organization’s site, but not by the developing team
D. By customers or potential customers at the developing organization’s site
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?
A. Finding defects
B. Providing information for decision-making
C. Analyzing and removing the cause of failures
D. Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which statement about use case testing is true?
A. The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow
B. The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow
C. The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers
D. The test cases are always designed by customers or end users
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
When testing a mission critical system, a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based
coverage technique in order to achieve the highest coverage?
A. multiple condition coverage

B. decision table
C. use case testing
D. statement coverage
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?
A. The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects
B. The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected
C. Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system
D. Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
The following program part is given:
IF (condition A)
then DO B
END IF
How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. a very high number
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?
A. Modeling tool
B. Static analysis tool
C. Coverage measurement tool
D. Defect tracking tool
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage
of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?
A. 11
B. 5
C. 45
D. 3
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?
A. Defect debugging and resolution

B. The outcome of testing of previous test cycle
C. Characteristics of the development process
D. Characteristics of the product
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which of the following is a task of the “Test Analysis and Design” activity of the test process?
A. Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared
B. Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases
C. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly
D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Given the following requirement:
Requirement ID: 2.8
Requirement Description: Additional Entrance Fee
Detailed Description:
An additional fee of $3 is charged during the weekend, but
1. Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.
2. Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.
3. Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.
Age should be an integer of 0 or above.
Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.
B. Thursday is a valid input boundary value
C. A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age
D. $3.01 is a valid output boundary value
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?
A. Variables that are never used

B. Coding standard violations
C. Memory leaks
D. Uncalled functions and procedures
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?
A. How to fix the defect

B. Severity and priority
C. Test environment details
D. How to reproduce the defect
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?
A. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality
B. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects
C. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system
D. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the
following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?
A. Implementation and execution

B. Requirements specification
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D. Analysis and design
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another. The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests
on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?
A. Regression tests
B. Non-functional tests
C. Structural tests
D. Unit tests
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the “Group Size” parameter, as defined by the following statement:
“In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be
anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors”.
A. 0, 1, 8, 21, 22
B. 0, 1, 2, 3, 10, 19, 20, 21, 22
C. 2, 3, 19, 20
D. 1, 2, 20, 21
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a
team to test a number of candidate applications.
Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?
A. A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B. A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department
C. A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on daily basis
D. A team from the company’s testing team, due to their experience in testing software
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers.
1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower’s data
3. Remove a borrower from the system
4. Loan a book to a borrower
5. Return a book from a borrower
6. Reserve a book for a borrower
7. Send “reservation ready” message to a borrower
Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case?

(a test sequence always start with test #1)
A. 1-4-2-7-5-6-3
B. 1-6-2-5-7-4-3
C. 1-6-4-7-5-3-2
D. 1-2-6-7-4-5-3
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer.
- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.
- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15.
- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur.
Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?
A. 0-1999-2000-5000
B. 1-2000-5001-10000
C. 0-100-2000-6000
D. 0,99-1-2000-4999,99
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.
What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?
Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by: Joe Smith
Test level: System test
Test case: Area 5/TC 98
Build version: 2011-16.2
Defect description: After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, I click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.
A. Add an impact analysis

B. Add information about which developer should fix the bug
C. Add the time stamp when the incident happened
D. Add information about which web browser was used
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Incident management tools are used by testers only

B. A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing
C. Test management tools are used by managers only
D. A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
On organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.
Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.
Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.
The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up – from the previous morning. However, the changes
made by him yesterday were lost forever.
Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam’s updates?
A. Incident Management Tool

B. Configuration Management Tool
C. Test Execution tool
D. Backup tool
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.
II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.
III. Several tests cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.
IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. II, IV
D. I, IV
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
One of the exit criteria for a SW project was defined as “80% statement coverage”.
A test manager submitted the following report:

“We did not measure the statement coverage. However, we ensured 80% branch coverage, therefore the exit criteria was met”.
Is the test manager right?
A. No. There is not direct relationship. 80% branch coverage does not guarantee 80% statement coverage.
B. Yes. 50% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. With 80% branch coverage, the exit criteria is easily met.
C. No. The relation works the other way. 80% statement coverage guarantees 80% branch coverage
D. Yes. Coverage of 80% of the branches in the control flow guarantees 80% statement coverage.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Load testing tool checks for:
A. presence of bugs in user interface

B. the number of testers needs in order to achieve “dead line”
C. correct functional behavior of the system under test
D. time response and resource utilization
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://tryqa.com/what-is-load-testing-in-software/
QUESTION 53
Which of the following can be a common objective of testing?
A. Gaining confidence about the level of the system’s quality

B. Fixing defects to improve the system’s quality characteristics
C. Providing information as part of the debugging activity
D. Making sure the system performs as fast and as efficient as needed
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 54
A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6. The user noticed that the result given is 6. This is an example of:
A. Failure
B. Mistake
C. Fault
D. Error
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is by definition a reactive test approach?
A. Risk-based testing
B. Automation of regression tests
C. Exploratory testing
D. Requirements-based testing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 56
How many minimum test cases are required to cover 100% Statement coverage and Decision coverage?
Consider the following pseudo-code

If (Walking && Midnight)
If (Raining)
Take umbrella and search light
Else
Take searchlight
End IF
Else if (Running && Sunshine)
IF (Raining)
Take umbrella
End IF
Else keep doing what you were doing
End IF
A. 5 for Statement, 5 for Decision

B. 4 for Statement, 5 for Decision
C. 8 for Statement, 6 for Decision
D. 6 for Statement, 8 for Decision
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://guide2mobiletesting.blogspot.com/2016/08/istqb-easiest-way-to-solve-statement.html
QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements are true?
A. Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only
B. Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box testing has been finished.
C. Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing.
D. Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.testingexcellence.com/retesting-and-regression-testing/
QUESTION 58
Which of the following lists contains only black-box test techniques?
A. Exploratory testing, State transition testing, Control flow testing

B. Decision table testing, Use case testing, Control flow testing
C. Decision table testing, Use case testing, State transition testing
D. Use case testing, Statement testing, State transition testing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 59
Which of the following is an example of Static testing?
A. Calculating path coverage using tools

B. Performance testing
C. Requirements review
D. Usability testing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 60
Which of the following test execution outcomes are likely to increase the overall quality of the software:
I. A test case passes

II. A test case fails, defect gets logged which subsequently gets fixed
III. Some tests are deferred because test environment is not available
IV. A bug is found but there is no corresponding test case
A. I, II, and III

B. I and IV
C. I and II
D. I, II, and IV
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 61
Which of the following approaches is/are used in integration tests?
A. Both functional and structural

B. Usability
C. Functional only
D. Structural only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://softwaretestingfundamentals.com/integration-testing/
QUESTION 62
Which of the following are part of ISTQB code of ethics?
I. Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest.
II. Certified software testers shall always sign a NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) in presence of customer data
III. Certified software testers shall maintain integrity and independency in their professional judgment
IV. Certified software testers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and employer, consistent with the public interest
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, III, IV
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 63
Which of the following correctly describes the goal of Statement Testing?
A. Reduce the number of tests needed to test the system

B. Assess of the correctness of key statements in each module of the application
C. Increase the percentage of executable statements that are exercised by a test set
D. Assess the number of code statements needed to implement each feature
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.guru99.com/code-coverage.html
QUESTION 64
Agile development can be classified as which life cycle model?
A. Agile development is not related to any life cycle model

B. RAD
C. V model
D. Iterative Incremental
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.mountaingoatsoftware.com/blog/agile-needs-to-be-both-iterative-and-incremental
QUESTION 65
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: “The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment”. If this risk materialized,
it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
A. It is a project risk since successful completion of the project depends on successful and timely completion of the tests.
B. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timelines is a product risk.
C. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product.
D. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 66
A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:
Group I: 0-12
Group II: 13-18
Group III: over 18
Which of the below represent boundary values?
A. (0,12,13,18,19)
B. (-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19)
C. (4,5,15,20)
D. (-1,0,12,13,18,19)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 67
What type of testing is important after Migration, retirement or enhancement of an existing system?
A. Regression testing
B. Operational acceptance testing
C. System testing
D. Maintenance testing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://istqbfoundation.blogspot.com/p/24-maintenance-testing-k2.html
QUESTION 68
Which of the following are typical defects discovered by static analysis tools?
A. Slow transaction times

B. Variables that are never used
C. Usability flaws in user interface design
D. Non-functioning control buttons
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
Which of the following test types are non-functional tests?
I) Acceptance test
II) Regression test
III) Stress test
IV) Component test
V) Reliability test
A. II, III and V

B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and V
D. III and V
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 70
A company that created software for managing libraries won a contract to write an application for managing inventories in a large hospital pharmacy.
The test manager decided that the test policy and all work procedures must be reviewed and updates to meet this new challenge.
Which of the following is the best explanation for this decision?
A. Large organizations have bigger budgets and hence strict testing is required
B. The size of the software for the new project is different than previous ones. This requires more testing.
C. Revising the test policy and work procedures need not be done at the beginning of each project
D. Different industries have different risks and quality requirements. This impacts the test process.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Which of the following statements is a basic testing principle?
A. Testing always enhances the software’s quality

B. The number of detected defects is proportional to the hours invested in testing
C. Testing can be effective only if done by an independent testing expert
D. Testing cannot prove that there are no defects
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?
A. Referencing a variable with an undefined value

B. Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. Potentially endless loops
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 73
A program controls a switch:
The program has three buttons:
- “ON” to turn the switch ON, or leaves it ON if it were ON.
- “OFF” to turn the switch OFF, or leaves it OFF if it were OFF.
- “Toggle” to change the state of the switch (turn it ON if it was OFF; turn it OFF if it was ON)
The following drawing shows drawing shows the state diagram of the program (only the states are marked; the arrows mark possible transitions and are
intentionally left unlabeled)
What percentage of the transitions in the State Transition diagram is guaranteed to be covered by the test case given above?
Note: The number of covered transitions depends on the initial state of the switch! Look for the minimum coverage case.
A. 33%
B. 83%
C. 50%
D. 66%
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 74
Who closes normally the defect reports?
A. Marketing
B. Analysts
C. Developers
D. Testers
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 75
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Functional tests consider the external behavior of the software.

B. Functional tests may be performed at all test levels.
C. Non-functional tests may be performed at all test levels.
D. Non-functional tests test the interoperability with other systems.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 76
As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some characters (A, X and Z) sent via a serial
port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the “bit parity”
parameter.
Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?
A. Test setup details

B. Actual result
C. Expected result
D. Test case identifier
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives
B. Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity
C. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions
D. Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 78
Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?
A. Metric analysis
B. Kick-off meeting
C. Low cost
D. Individual preparation
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 79
Which of the following is NOT an objective of pilot project for the introduction of a new tool?
A. Allow the people that evaluated the tool to gain further experience with it
B. Assessment of whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost
C. Highlight where, if necessary, changes should be made to the test process
D. Identify rules and conventions that should be defined for the extensive use of the tool
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which of the following statements correctly emphasize the viewpoint of a developer and a tester with respect to the testing psychology?
I. If a developer implements a fundamental design error (e.g. conceptual misunderstanding), it is HIGHLY probable that he/she will not find is using own tests.
II. The tester can observe the object to be tested without prejudices. It is not his/her own product and the assumptions and misunderstandings of the developer are
not, in general, the same as those of the tester.
III. An independent tester must acquire knowledge about the object to be tested in order to create test cases; the developer has good knowledge of the object to be
tested and this saves time: hence, it is advisable to assign the test activities to the developer
IV. The weakness of the tests done by the developer is that developers tend to be optimistic about their own software. The risk is that reasonable test cases are
forgotten because the developer is more interested in development than testing.
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II
D. III, IV
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 81
A company wants to enforce use of coding standards.
Which type of test tool would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Test execution tool

B. Modeling tool
C. Configuration management tool
D. Static analysis tool
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 82
Which of the following activities BEST represents the main concerns of maintenance testing?
I. Patches to correct newly-exposed vulnerabilities.

II. Review of system architecture.
III. Migration to a new operating system.
IV. Database upgrade to the latest version.
V. Pre-release changes to system requirements.
A. III, IV, V
B. I, II, V
C. II, III, IV
D. I, III, IV
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 83
Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?
A. Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.
B. Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can.
C. A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.
D. A peer reviews find defects while static analysis finds failures.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which of the following is Structure-based (or White-Box) Technique:
I. Requirement Coverage
II. Condition Coverage
III. Use Case Coverage
IV. Multiple Condition Coverage
V. State Transition Coverage
A. I, III
B. I, III, V
C. II, IV
D. II, IV, V
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 85
Which of the following is NOT one of the test objectives?
A. Preventing defects
B. Fixing bugs
C. Gaining confidence about the level of quality
D. Finding defects
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 86
The following chart represents metrics related of a project that was completed. Indicate what is represented by the lines A, B, and the axes X, Y
A. X – Time
Y – Percent
A - % of functional tests in the test suite
B - % of non-functional tests in the test suite
B. X – Time
Y – Cost
A – Cost of test (per week)
B – Cost of finding a single bug (per week)
C. X – Time
Y – Number of defects
A – Number of open defects
B – Number of closed defects
D. X – Time
Y – Count
A – Total number of executed tests
B – Number of open bugs
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which one is the definition of Use Case?
A. A response of one system to users interacting with other, integrated systems

B. A sequence of transactions between a user and a system to achieve a certain goal
C. A description of an environment in which a system needs to operate
D. An operation on a system by a user, with no regards to the system’s response
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 88
What is “Component Testing”?
A. A test level
B. Functional testing
C. Experience-based testing
D. Integration Testing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.istqb.org/certification-path-root/foundation-level/foundation-level-learning-objectives.html
QUESTION 89
For which of the following activities is a static analysis tool NOT useful?
A. Detecting dependencies in software modules

B. Quantitative analysis related to the tests (e.g. tests passed)
C. Enforcement of coding standards
D. Calculation of complexity of the code
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://tryqa.com/what-is-static-analysis-tools-in-software-testing/
QUESTION 90
Which of the following are valid testing principles?
I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.
II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.
III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.
IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.
V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product.
A. I, IV, V
B. I, V
C. I, III
D. II, IV
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.guru99.com/software-testing-seven-principles.html
QUESTION 91
What is an inspection?
A. A review conducted by an external auditor.

B. A rigorous review technique aimed at identifying defects.
C. An informal review of code or documents performed by colleagues.
D. An activity which can be scheduled before an Acceptance test.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Which of the following is a characteristic of white-box techniques?
A. Models, either formal or informal, are used for the specification of the problem to be solved, the software or its components.
B. Test cases are derived from functional and non-functional requirements.
C. The knowledge of testers, developers, users and other stakeholders about the software, its usage and its environment is one source of information.
D. The extent of the code coverage can be measured for existing test cases, and further test cases can be derived systematically to increase coverage.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://softwaretestingtimes.com/2010/04/test-design-techniques_29.html
QUESTION 93
Test Driven development means
A. Development progress is allowed only upon successful completion of tests in previous stage
B. Automated tests written by test engineers
C. An approach in which test cases are written and sometimes even automated before coding
D. Development of test cases by programmers rather that test engineers
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 94
Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

B. Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity
C. Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product
D. Looking for defects in a system may require ignoring system details
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 95
Which of the following statements about test automation is CORRECT?
A. When using data-driven testing, testers create and store test inputs separately from the test script allowing the same test script to be run with different data sets
B. Test management tools should not interface with other testing tools as they are only required for use by the test manager
C. When performing automated static analysis, warning messages that do not stop the code from being compiled and translated into an executable program,
should be ignored
D. In keyword-driven testing specific keywords are included in scripts to indicate to the tester that they must enter a particular value at that point
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 96
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Because independence of testers enhanced quality and improves testing, test planning should not take into account constraints from the development team.
B. Since test planning is influenced by the developers work, test planning should not start before the entire project plan of the development team is available
C. Test planning is an activity that is only performed at the very beginning of the project
D. Test planning is influenced by, among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the availability of resources.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 97
Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?
A. All transitions between states are explicitly shown in the state table.
B. Usually it is not possible to create tests to cover all transitions and all states.
C. The size of the state table depends on the number of possible transition between the states.
D. The state transition diagram explicitly shown all invalid transitions
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 98
Which of the following statements is correct about Statement coverage and Decision coverage?
A. 100% Statement coverage guarantees 100% Decision coverage

B. 100% Decision coverage guarantees 100% Statement coverage
C. 100% Decision coverage never guarantees 100% Statement coverage
D. 100% Decision coverage may also guarantee 100% Statement coverage
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://tryqa.com/what-is-decision-coverage-its-advantages-and-disadvantages/
QUESTION 99
Which of the following is a Black Box test technique?
A. Technical review
B. Static Analysis
C. Statement Testing and Coverage
D. Equivalence Partitioning
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.guru99.com/equivalence-partitioning-boundary-value-analysis.html
QUESTION 100
A tester thinks of a likely cause for a specific bug. Should the tester make a comment about this in the bug report?
A. No. Such addition may bias the developers’ attitude when they attempt to fix the bug
B. No. A bug report must only include factual information, and not unsupported hypothesis
C. Yes. Observations that may help correct a bug should be included in the bug report
D. Yes. It will reduce the risk that the bug fix will cause a regression
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 101
Consider the following scale used to award grades to students of an engineering college:
Which set of marks given below falls in a single equivalence class as per above classification?
A. 60, 79, 80
B. 60, 75, 79
C. 55, 65, 89
D. 49, 50, 59
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 102
Which of the following statements is true?
A. 100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage.

B. 100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage.
C. 100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage and vice-versa.
D. It is impossible to achieve 100% statement coverage.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/35069/istqb-question-statement-and-decision-coverage
QUESTION 103
Consider a document containing a classification of all the defects found during the system test phase and after the delivery in the production environment.
This document can be considered a test basis for which of the following test design techniques?
A. Structure-based testing
B. Experience-based testing
C. Decision coverage testing
D. Specification-based testing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 104
Which of the following is NOT a typical task for a test leader?
A. Select the test approach

B. Coordinate the test strategy
C. Prepare and acquire test data
D. Estimate the cost of testing
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference https://istqbfoundation.wordpress.com/category/chapter-5-test-management/section-5-1-test-organization-k2/5-1-2-tasks-of-the-test-leader-and-tester-
k1/
QUESTION 105
Which of the following statements about Use Case Testing is FALSE?
A. Use case generally has a mainstream scenario and may have many alternate or exceptional scenarios.
B. A use case can be defined at the abstract level, detached from the implementation, or at the system level, describing a set of executed functions
C. Use case testing does not find defects caused by interaction of different components
D. Each use case has preconditions which need to be met for the use case to work successfully
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference http://tryqa.com/what-is-use-case-testing-in-software-testing/
QUESTION 106
Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test process (leaving out the activity of control which should
take place in parallel to all the other activities)?
A. Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria
B. Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities
C. Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing
D. Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference https://www.rogeriodasilva.com/five-fundamental-test-activities-and-tasks-from-planning-to-test-closure-istqb/
QUESTION 107
Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem:“An Integer numeric field shall contain values from 1 to 80 both values
inclusive”
A. Less than 0, 1 to 79, 80 and more than 80

B. Less than 0, 1 to 80, more than 80
C. Less than 1, 1 to 80, more than 80
D. Less than 1, 1 to 79, more than 80
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 108
Which type of automation test design is used in the example below?
An automation team designs an automation framework for testing of their web-based applications. Realizing that they need to use different data for different test
cycles, they decide not to hard-code any data in their scripts. Instead they read all the data from text files while test execution is in progress.
A. Dynamic test design

B. Data-driven
C. Keyword-driven
D. Data coverage analysis
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 109
When a test case is created based on a Use Case, what type of test is created?
A. Structural Test
B. Functional Test
C. Performance test
D. Regression Test
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 110
Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of non-functional testing?
A. It covers the evaluation of the interaction of various specified components.

B. It tests “how” the system works.
C. It may include testing the ease of modification of systems.
D. It may be performed at unit, integration, system and acceptance test levels.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 111
Which of the following statements are “testing general principles”?
I. Exhaustive testing is impossible
II. The defects found during the pre-release tests, or the operational failures, are uniformly distributed across the system’s software modules
III. Testing can show the presence of defects, but cannot demonstrate their absence
IV. Testing is context-independent
A. I, III
B. I, II
C. I, IV
D. II, III
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference https://www.utest.com/articles/seven-testing-principles
QUESTION 112
Which test design technique can be used for effectively testing system requirements consisting of logical conditions?
A. Boundary value analysis

B. Use case testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Decision table testing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://quiz-istqb.com/istqbsyllabus-4/test-design-techniques-k4/
QUESTION 113
Which of the following is a correct statement about informal reviews?
A. The usefulness of an informal review is highly variable and strongly dependent on the reviewers.
B. Informal review must be done by the author of the reviewed material, before it is submitted for formal review
C. The moderator of an informal review should not be the author of the reviewed material
D. An informal review has no impact on the quality of the product, just on the level of knowledge of the reviewers
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 114
Which of the following sentences is correct?
A. Functional and Structural tests can be performed at all test levels

B. Functional tests can be performed at Unit and Integration test levels, while Structural tests can be performed at System test level.
C. Functional and Structural test levels can be performed for all test types
D. Functional tests can be performed at Integration and System test levels, while Structural tests can be performed at Unit test level.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 115
Which two of the following statements are true?
A) Software testing can be necessary to fulfill legal or contractual obligations.

B) Software testing is done to essentially increase the quality of developers.
C) Intensive testing can help reduce risks and problems during operation.
D) Intensive testing is used to prove correctness.
A. C and D are true, A and B are wrong.

B. A and C are true, B and D are wrong.
C. B and D are true, A and C are wrong.
D. B and C are true, A and D are wrong.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 116
Why is it important to select a test technique?
A. Test techniques define the number of regression cycles, which in turn impact the project schedule.
B. Selecting the right test technique in a given situation increases the effectiveness of the test process by creating tests with higher chance of finding bugs.
C. The only way to test a software application is by using well proven test techniques.
D. There are usually too many test cases that may be run on a system. Test technique help reduce the number of tests.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 117
What is a peer review?
A. An informal review without moderator

B. A review done by developers and testers together
C. A review done by developers only
D. A review done by colleagues at the same organizational level
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 118
The following condition is given:
Integer x, y;
IF x > 0 AND x < 100
y=y+x;
END-IF
Using boundary analysis for x, which test cases are required?
A. -1, 0, 1, 99, 100, 101

B. -1, 0, 100, 101
C. -500, -10, 0, 1, 99, 100, 101, 500
D. 0, 1, 99, 100
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 119
Which test level is concerned with testing the smallest bodies of software?
A. Component test
B. Feature test
C. Functional test
D. Subsystem test
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://blog.qatestlab.com/2011/05/20/what-is-a-component-testing/

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CTFL-Foundation.

Certified Tester - Foundation Level (Syllabus 2011)

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

A. The system will fail, causing a defect.

A. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

A. The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

A. Statement testing and exploratory testing

A. Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid. Test Case 2 is Invalid.

A. Error, fault, failure

A. To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

A. Dynamic analysis tool

A. Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

A. Prepare and acquire the test data

Test Case 1: Search for an item: Available Flights.

A. Intrusive test tools are that do not exhibit the probe-effect

A. By customers or potential customers at their own locations

A. multiple condition coverage

A. Defect debugging and resolution

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. Variables that are never used

A. How to fix the defect

A. Implementation and execution

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

A. A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

1. Add a new borrower to the system

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case?

Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

A. Add an impact analysis

A. Incident management tools are used by testers only

A. Incident Management Tool

A test manager submitted the following report:

Is the test manager right?

A. presence of bugs in user interface

A. Gaining confidence about the level of the system’s quality

Consider the following pseudo-code

A. 5 for Statement, 5 for Decision

A. Exploratory testing, State transition testing, Control flow testing

A. Calculating path coverage using tools

I. A test case passes

A. I, II, and III

A. Both functional and structural

A. Reduce the number of tests needed to test the system

A. Agile development is not related to any life cycle model

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

A. Slow transaction times

A. II, III and V

Which of the following is the best explanation for this decision?

A. Testing always enhances the software’s quality

A. Referencing a variable with an undefined value

A. Functional tests consider the external behavior of the software.

A. Test setup details

A. Test execution tool

I. Patches to correct newly-exposed vulnerabilities.

A. A response of one system to users interacting with other, integrated systems

A. Detecting dependencies in software modules

A. A review conducted by an external auditor.

A. Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

A. 100% Statement coverage guarantees 100% Decision coverage

A. 100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage.