Odd 11 VI

11- 03- 2020 Batch : ODD BATCH Version
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - UNIT VI A A1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
331
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720
PHYSICS 5. A moving block of mass m collides with

1. A light inextensible string goes over a another stationary block having mass
smooth fixed pulley as shown in figure 4 m. The lighter block comes to rest
connects two blocks of masses 0.36 kg after collision. If the initial velocity of
and 0.72 kg. Taking g = 10 m/s2 find lighter block is v. The value of co-
the work done (in joules) by the string efficient of restitution e is
on the block of mass 0.36 kg during 1) 0.5 2) 0.25
the first second after the system is
released from rest 3) 0.8 4) 0.4
6. A shell of mass 200 g is ejected from a
gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that
generates 1.05 KJ of energy. The initial
velocity of bullet is
1) 40 m/s 2) 120 m/s
3) 100 m/s 4) 80 m/s
1) 6 joules 2) 5 joules 7. A ball of mass m suspended from a rigid
3) 8 joules 4) 2 joules support by an inextensible massless
2. Two springs of spring constants 1500 string is released from a height h above
N/m and 3000 N/m respectively are the lowest point. At its lowest point it
stretched with same force they will collides elastically with a block of mass
have potential energy in the ratio. 2 m at rest on a frictionless surface.
1) 4:1 2) 1:4 Neglect the dimensions of the ball and
the block. After collision the ball rises
3) 2:1 4) 1:2
to a maximum height of
3. A body of mass of 0.5 kg travels in
straight lines with velocity V  ax 3 2
where a  5 m1 2s 1 . The work done by
the net force during displacement from
x= 0 to x = 2 m is
1) 1.5 J 2) 50 J
3) 10 J 4) 100 J 1) h 3 2) h 2
4. A rubber band is stre tched by a
distance x. It exerts a restoring force 3) h 8 4) h 9
of magnitude F  ax  bx 2 , where a and
b are constants. The work done in 8. A particle of mass m moving with
stretching the unstreched rubber band velocity v strikes a stationary particle
by L is of mass 2m and sticks to it. The speed
of the system will be
1
1) aL2  bL3 2)  aL2  bL3 
2 1) V 2 2) 2V
aL2 bL3 1  aL2 bL3 

3)  4) 2  2  3  3) V 3 4) 3V
2 3  
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
9. A mass M is split into two parts, m and 13. A bullet is fired normally on an
(M – m). They are then separated by a immovable wooden plank. It loses 25%
certain distance. The gravitational of its momentum in penetrating a
force between these two parts will be thickne ss of 3.5 cm. The total
thickness penetrated by the bullet is
m
maximum if the ratio is equal to
M 1) 8 cm 2) 10 cm
1 1 3) 12 cm 4) 14 cm
1) 2)
4 3 14. The bob of a pendulum is released from
a horizontal position A as shown in Fig.
1 1 The length of the pendulum is 2 m. If
3) 4) 10% of the initial energy of the bob is
2 1
dissipated as heat due to the friction
10. An elastic string of unstretched length of air, what would be the speed of the
L and force constant k is stretched by bob when it reaches the lowermost
a small length x. It is further stretched point B? Take g = 10 ms–2.
by another small length y. The work
done in the second stretching is
1 2
1) ky
2
1
2) k  x 2  y2 
2
1
k x  y
2
3)
2
1) 3 ms–1 2) 4 ms–1
1
4) ky  2x  y  3) 5 ms–1 4) 6 ms–1
2
11. A constant force acts on a body of mass 15. A body of mass m thrown vertically
m which is at rest. A velocity v is upwards attains a maximum height h.
acquired in moving a specific distance. At what height will its kinetic energy
v and m are related as be 75% of its initial value?
1 1 h h
1) v  2) v  1)
6
2)
5
m m
h h
3) v  m 4) v  m 3) 4)
4 3
12. A mass m, moving horizontally with a
velocity v0, strikes a pendulum of mass 16. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes
m. If the two masses stick together into two pieces of masses 18 kg and
after the collision, then the maximum 12 kg. The velocity of 18 kg mass is
height reached by the pendulum is: 6 ms –1 . The kinetic energy of the
other mass is
1) v 02 / g 2) v 02 / 2g
1) 324 J 2) 486 J
3) v 02 / 4g 4) v 02 / 8g 3) 256 J 4) 524 J
17. Force between two objects of equal 21. There are two fixed heavy masses of
masses is F. If 25% of mass of one magnitude M of high density on the X-
object is transferred to the other object. axis at a distance 2d apart. A small
Then the new force will be mass m moves in a circle of radius R
placed symmetrically in the Y-Z plane.
1) F 4 2) 3 F 4 The speed of the small particle is;
15 2GMR 2
3) F 4) F
R  d2 
3
16 1) 2 2
18. Three identical thin rods, each of mass

m and length l are joined to form an 2GMR 2
equilateral triangular frame. The 2)
radius of gyration of the frame about R 2  d2
an axis parallel to its one side and
3
passing through the opposite vertex  2GMR 2  2
3)  2 2 
5 5  R d 
1)  2) 
4 12 1
  2
1 1  2GMR 2 
3)  4)  4)  2 3 
12 6 R  d2  2 
 
19. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg
and 10000 kg separated by a distance 22. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius
1m. At what distance from the smaller R rolls without slipping down an
body, the intensity of gravitational field inclined plane of length L and height
will be zero. h. The speed of its centre of mass when
it reaches the bottom of the inclined
1) 1 9 m 2) 110 m plane.
1) gh 2) 5gh
3) 111 m 4) 1011 m
20. The ratio between the values of

acceleration due to gravity at a height 3 4
1 km above and at a depth 1 km below 3) gh 4) gh
4 3
the earth surface is
23. Masses M, m, m and m are placed at
R2 points A, B, C and D of an equilateral
1)
R 1 triangle ABC. A, B and C being the
corners and D being the midpoint of BC.
R If the netfield at the centroid is zero,
2) then
R 1
1) M = m
R2
3) 2) M = 2m
R
3) M = 3m
2R
4) 4) M = 5m
R 1
24. A particle of mass m0 is placed at the 28. An artificial satellite of mass m orbits
centre of a fixed, uniform semicircular earth at a height R above the surface of
ring of radius ‘R’ and mass m as shown earth. If g denotes gravitational field
in the figure. The work required to intensity at the surface of earth of
displace the particle from centre of the radius R, the kinetic energy of the
ring to infinity is revolving satellite will be
mgR mgR
1) 2)
4 2
mgR mgR
3) 4)
3 5
29. A body of mass m is taken from earth
Gmm 0 surface to a height equal to radius of
1) 2) Gmm 0 earth. The increase in potential energy
2R R
will be
Gmm 0
3) 4) 2Gmm 0 mgR
2R R 1) mgR 2)
2
25. A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting the
mgR
earth at a height of 6R above the sur- 3) 2mgR 4)
face of earth, R being radius of earth. 4
The time period of another satellite at
30. Energy required to move a body of mass
a height of 2.5R from the surface of
m from a height R to 2R is (where M =
earth is
Mass of the earth, R = Radius of the
earth)
1) 10 hr 2) 6 2 hr
GMm GMm
6 1) 2)
3) 6 hr 4) hr 12R 3R
2
26. Two satellites A and B go round a planet

P in circular orbits having radii 4R and GMm GMm
R respectively. If the speed of the 3) 4)
8R 6R
satellite A is 3v, the speed of satellite B
will be 31. 3 particles of masses 2kg each are
placed such that one lies on –ve x -
1) 12 v 2) 6 v axis 2nd one lies on –ve y - axis and
4v 3v the third one lies on +ve Z-axis at
3) 4) distances of 2m, 3m and 1m
3 2
respectively from the origin. Then the
27. The orbital angular momentum of a square of the distance of CM of the
satellite revolving at a distance r from system from the origin is
the centre is L. If the distance is
increased to 16 r, then new angular 1) 1.55 m2
momentum will be 2) 1.35 m2
1) 16 L 2) 64 L
3) 1.45 m2
L
3) 4) 4 L 4) 1.25 m2
4
32. A thin uniform circular disc of mass M 36. A block of mass ‘m’ welded with a light
and radius R is rotating in a horizontal spring of stiffness ‘k’ is in equilibrium
plane about an axis passing through on a smooth inclined plane with angle
its centre and perpendicular to its of inclination ‘  ’. If a variable external
plane with an angular velocity  . force is applied slowly till the spring
Another disc of the same dimensions comes to its relaxed position, find the
but of mass M/4 is placed gently on work done by spring force
the first disc coaxially. The angular
velocity of the system now becomes
 
1) 2)
2 4
3 4
3) 4)
4 5
1  mg sin  
2
33. Two particles of masses 4kg and 8kg
1)
are seperated by a distance of 12m. If 2 2K
they are moving towards each other
under the action of mutual force of m 2 g 2 sin 
attraction, then the two particles will 2)
2K
meet each other at a distance of
1) 6m from 8kg mass 2m 2 g 2 sin 
3)
2) 2m from 8kg mass K
3) 4m from 8kg mass
 mg sin  
2
4) 8m from 8kg mass 4)

2K
34. A wheel is at rest. Its angular velocity
increases uniformly and becomes 37. Four point masses each of value m, are
placed at the corners of a square ABCD
80 rad s 1 after 5 s. The total angular of si de l. The moment of inertia of the
displacement is system about an axis passing through A
and parallel to BD is
1) 800 rad 2) 400 rad
3) 200 rad 4) 100 rad
35. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a
circular disc and a circular ring of the
same radii about a tangential axis
perpendicular to plane of disc or ring
is 1) 2) 3 ml 2
3ml 2
1) 1 : 2
3) ml 2 4) 2 ml 2
2) 5: 6
38. The ratio of translational energy and
3) 2 : 3 total energy of a rolling sphere is given
by
3 1) 5 : 7 2) 3 : 5
4)
2
3) 1 : 3 4) 2 : 5
39. The kinetic energy of rotational motion 44. The moment of inertia of a door of mass
of a rolling body is 40% of its kinetic m, length 2l and width l about its longer
energy of translational motion. The side is
body is
1) Solid sphere 2) Solid cylinder 11 ml 2 5 ml 2
1) 2)
3) Disc 4) Ring 24 24
40. A square lamina of side l has mass M.
Its moment of inertial about one of its
ml 2
3) 4) None of these
diagonal is 3
Ml 2 Ml 2 45. Two billiard balls of same size and mass
1) 2) are in contact on a table. A third billiard
6 8
ball of same size and mass strikes
Ml 2 Ml 2 them symmetrically and come to rest
3) 4) after impact. Coefficient of restitution
12 16
between the balls is:
41. Four identical rods, each of mass m
and length l, are joined to form a rigid
1 3
square frame. The frame lies in the 1) 2)
X-Y plane with centre at the origin. 2 2
The moment of inertia of the system 2 3
about Z-axis is 3) 4)
3 4
2ml 2 4ml 2 CHEMISTRY
1) 2)
3 3 46. 2 mole of ideal gas at 270C temperature
is expanded reversibly from 2 litre
3ml 2 5ml 2 to 20 litre. Find entropy change
3) 4)
5 7 (R = 2 Cal/mol K)
42. A rigid spherical body is spinning 1) 92.1 Cal 2) 0 Cal
around an axis without any external
3) 4 Cal 4) 9.2 Cal
torque. Due to change in temeprature,
the volume increases by 1%. Its 47. For the reaction,
angular speed will
C3H8(g )  5O2(g )  3CO2(g )  4H2O()
1) Increase approximately by 1%
2) Decrease approximately by 1% at constant temperature, H  U is
3) Decrease approximately by 0.67% 1) +RT 2) –3RT
4) Decrease approximately by 0.33% 3) +3RT 4) –RT
43. Two discs of same thickness but of
48. In a closed insulated container a liquid
different radii are made of two
is stirred with a paddle to increase the
different materials such that their
temperature. Which of the following is
masses are same. The densities of the
true?
materials are in the ratio 1 : 3. The
moments of inertia of these discs about 1) U  W  0,q  0
the respective axes passing through
their centres and perpendicular to 2) U  W  q  0
their plane will be in the ratio
3) U  0, W  q  0
1) 1 : 3 2) 3 : 1
3) 1 : 9 4) 9 : 1 4) W  0, U  q  0
49. In which of the following processes of 54. For the gas phase reaction,
neutralization magnitude of Hneutralization

PCl5(g )  PCl3(g )  Cl2(g )
is less than that of Hionization of water?
Which of the following conditions are
1) HCl + NaOH correct?
2) H2SO4 + NaOH
1) H  0 and S  0
3) CH3COOH + NaOH
2) H  0 and S  0
4) HClO4 + KOH
50. The bond energies of H–H, Br–Br and 3) H  0 and S  0
H–Br are 433, 192 and 364 KJ mol–1
4) H  0 and S  0
respectively. The H for the reaction,
0
55. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with

H2(g )  Br2(g )  2HBr(g ) is : H2O2 in acidic condition gives
1) Mn+4 and O2
1) –261 kJ 2) 103 kJ
2) Mn+2 and O2
3) 261 kJ 4) –103 kJ
3) Mn2+ and O3
51. A reaction occurs spontaneously if :
4) Mn4+ and MnO2
1) TS  H and both H and S are
56. Which of the following statements
positive about hydrogen is incorrect?
2) TS  H and both H and S are 1) Hydrogen never exist as cation in
positive ionic salts
3) TS  H and both H and S are 2) Hydronium ion, H 3O + exists freely

in solution
negative
3) Dihydrogen does act as a reducing
4) TS  H and H is positive and S agent
is negative
4) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which
52. The work done during expansion of a tritium is the most common
gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3
57. Which of the following compounds is a
against a constant external pressure
peroxide?
of 3 atm is
1) NO2 2) MnO2
1) –6J 2) –608 J
3) KO2 4) BaO2
3) +304 J 4) –304 J
58. Which of the following statements is
53. The H–H bond energy is 430 kJ mol–1
correct for a reversible process in a
and Cl–Cl bond energy is 240 kJ mol–1.
state of equilibrium?
Hf for HCl is –90 kJ. The H–Cl bond
energy is about : 1) G0   2.303RT log K
1) 425 kJ mol–1 2)  G 0  2.30 RT log K

2) 213 kJ mol–1
3) G   2.30 RT log K
3) 306 kJ mol–1
4) G  2.30 RT log K
4) 180 kJ mol–1
59. The standard electrode potential of the 64. During the electrolytes of molten
half cells are given below sodium chloride, the time required to
produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using
Zn2  2e  Zn;E   0.762 V a current of 3 amperes is
1) 53.6 minutes 2) 107.2 minutes
Fe2  2e  Fe;E   0.44 V
3) 214.4 minutes 4) 330 minutes
The emf of the cell
65. If the E0cell for a given reaction has a
Fe2+ + Zn  Zn2+ + Fe is
negative value, which of the following
1) 1.54 V 2) –1.54 V gives correct relationships for the
3) 0.3222 V 4) 0.19 V values of G0 and Keq?
60. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by, 1) G 0  0 ; K eq 1 2) G 0  0 ; K eq  1

1) G / S
3) G 0  0; K eq 1 4) G 0  0; K eq  1
2) G / H
66. An electric current is passed through
3) S/ G silver nitrate solution using silver
electrodes. 10.79 g of silver was found
4) H / G to be deposited on the cathode. If the
same amount of electricity is passed
61. The correct order of the mobility of through copper sulphate solution using
the alkali metal ions in aqueous copper electrodes, the weight of copper
solution is deposited on the cathode is
1) K+ > Rb+ > Na+ > Li+ 1) 6.4 g 2) 2.3 g
2) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+ 3) 12.8 g 4) 3.2 g
3) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ 67. Aqueous solution of which of the
4) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Li+ following compounds is the be st
conductor of electric current?
62. The weight of silver displaced by a
quantity of electricity which displaces 1) Ammonia, NH3
5600 mL of O2 at STP will be 2) Fructose, C6H12O6
1) 5.4 g 2) 10.8 g 3) Acetic acid, CH3COOH
3) 54 g 4) 108 g
4) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
63. For a cell involving one electron
68. Standard free energies of formation (in
E0cell  0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium kJ/mol) at 298 K are –237.2, –394.4
constant for the cell reaction is : and –8.2 for H 2 O ( ) , CO 2 (g) and
pentane (g) respectively. The value of
2.303 RT
[Given that  0.059 V at E0cell for the pentane oxyge n fuel
F
T =298 K) cell is :
1) 1.0 × 102 2) 1.0 × 105 1) 2.0968 V 2) 1.0968 V
3) 1.0 × 1010 4) 1.0 × 1030 3) 0.968 V 4) 1.968 V

–
69. A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+, I and I2 74. Number of moles of MnO4 required to
ions. E0 for Fe 3+/Fe 2+ is 0.77 V and oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate
–
E0 for I2/I = 0.536 V. The favourable completely in acidic medium will be
redox reaction is :
1) 0.2 moles 2) 0.4 moles
–
1) I will be oxidised to I2
3) 0.6 moles 4) 7.5 moles
2) Fe2+ will be oxidised to Fe3+
75. Oxidation number of P in H 4 P 2 O 5 ,
–
3) I2 will be reduced to I H4P2O6, H4P2O7 are respectively
4) There will be no redox reaction 1) +3, +4, +5 2) +4, +3, +5
70. Standard electrode potential of three 3) +3, +5, +4 4) +5, +3, +4
metals X, Y and Z are –1.2 V, +0.5 V
76. Which of the following does not involve
and –3.0 V respectively. The reducing
oxidation of iron?
power of these metals will be
1) Rusting of iron sheets
1) X > Y > Z
2) Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe
2) Y > X > Z
3) Liberation of H2 from steam by iron
3) Y > Z > X at high temperature
4) Z > X > Y 4) Decomposition of blue copper
71. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a sulphate solution by iron
moderately strong oxidizing agent. 77. The oxidation states of sulphur in the
Which of the following reactions does
anions SO23 ,S2O24 and S2O62 follow the
not show oxidizing behaviour?
order :
1) CaF2  H2SO4  CaSO4  2HF
1) S2O24  SO32  S2O26
2) Cu  2H2SO4  CuSO4  SO2  2H2O
2) SO23  S2O24  S2O62
3) 2S  2H2SO4  2SO2  2H2O
3) S2O24  SO32  S2O62
4) C  2H2SO4  CO2  2SO2  2H2O
4) S2O62  S2O24  SO23
72. The correct order of N-compounds in
its decreasing order of oxidation 78. Which of the following is responsible
states is for depletion of the ozone layer in the
upper strata of the atmosphere?
1) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
1) Fullerenes 2) Freons
2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
3) Pyrene 4) Ferrocene
3) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
79. The gas leaked from a storage bank of
4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 the union carbide plant in Bhopal gas
tragedy was :
73. In acidic medium, H 2 O 2 changes
Cr2O72 to CrO5, which has two (–O–O–) 1) Ammonia
bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is 2) Phosgene
1) +5 2) +3 3) Methylisocyanate
3) +6 4) –10 4) Methylamine
80. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X 86. Under isothermal condition, a gas at
as a by product. This is colourless gas 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L
with choking smell of burnt sulphur against a constant external pressure
and causes great damage to respiratory of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is
organs. Its aqueous solution is acidic, 1) –30 J 2) 5 kJ
acts as a reducing agent and its acid
has never been isolated. The gas X is : 3) 25 J 4) 30 J
1) SO2 2) CO2 87. The bond dissociation energies of X2,

Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1.
3) SO3 4) H2S H for the formation of XY is
81. Which of the following is not a common –200 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation
component of photochemical smog? energy of X2 will be
1) 800 kJ mol–1 2) 100 kJ mol–1
1) Ozone
3) 200 kJ mol–1 4) 400 kJ mol–1
2) Acrolein
88. Three moles of an ideal gas expanded
3) Peroxyacetyl nitrate spontaneously into vacuum. The work
4) Chlorofluorocarbons done will be :
82. Which of the following is a sink for CO? 1) Infinite 2) 3 joules
1) Micro organism present in the soil 3) 9 joules 4) Zero

89. At 27 0 C latent heat of fusion of a
2) Oceans
compound is 2930 J/mol. Entropy
3) Plants change during fusion is
4) Haemoglobin 1) 9.77 J/mol K 2) 10.77 J/mol K
83. Which oxide of nitroge n is not a 3) 9.07 J/mol K 4) 0.977 J/mol K

common pollutant introduced into the
90. For the reaction : X2O4 ()  2XO2 (g)
atmosphere both due to natural and
human activity? U  2.1K Cal , S  20Cal K 1 at 300 K.
1) N2O 2) NO2 Hence G is
3) N2O5 4) NO 1) 9.3 K Cal 2) –9.3 K Cal
84. Among the following, the one that is 3) 2.7 K Cal 4) –2.7 K Cal
not a greenhouse gas is : BIOLOGY
1) Nitrous oxide 2) Methane 91. Select the correct statement with
3) Ozone 4) N2 respect to mitosis
1) Chromatids separate but remain in
85. If the enthalpy change for the transition
the centre of the cell in anaphase
of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol–1
at 27 0C, the entropy change for the 2) Chromatids start moving towards
process would be opposite poles to telophase
1) 100 J mol–1 K–1 3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic
reticulum are still visible at the end of
2) 1 J mol–1 K–1 prophase
3) 10 J mol–1 K–1 4) Chromosome move to the spindle
4) 0.1 mol–1 K–1 equator and get aligned along
equatorial plate in metaphase
92. Which of the following statement is not 97. Which of the following does not lead to
true for Homologous chromosome pairs? genetic variability?
1) They come from only one of the 1) crossing over during meiosis
individuals parents 2) division of chromosome during
2) They usually contain sl ightly anaphase of mitosis
different versions of the same genetic 3) orientation of chromosomes during
information metaphase- I of meiosis
3) They segregate from each other 4) random segregation of anaphase - I
during meiosis I
98. Arrange the following events of meiosis
4) They synapse during meiosis I in correct sequences?
93. Which one is correct about bivalent i) Crossing over
1) Bivalent are tetrads ii) Synapsis
2) A bivalent means 4 chromatids and iii) Terminalisation
2 centromere
iv) Chiasmata formation
3) Bivalent form in zygotene
1) ii, i, iv, iii 2) ii, iv, iii, i
4) All are correct
3) i, ii, iii, iv 4) iv, iii, i, ii
94. Find out the wrong match
99. Spindle fibres of a mitotic cell consists
of
1) Zygote ne Synaptonemal complex
2) Pachyte ne Re combination nodule 1) Collagen 2) Fibrin
3) Diplote ne Chiasmata 3) Tubulin 4) vimentin
4) Diakine sis Bivale nt formation 100. Which of the following is not the
characteristic of prophase- I
95. In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic
spindle breaks down and nuclear 1) Synapsis
membrane form. This is essentially by 2) Segregation
the opposite of what happens to
3) Crossing over
1) Metaphase
4) chiasmata formation
2) Prophase
101. Mitosis is characterised by
3) Interphase
1) cell of the lining of gu t be ing
4) Anaphase constantly replaced
96. At which stage the homologous 2) growth of multicellular organism
chromosomes separate due to
repulsion, but are yet held by 3) restore the nucleo cytoplasmic ratio
chiasmata? 4) all the above
1) Zygotene 102. Interval between two successive cell
2) Pachytene division is called
1) Cell cycle 2) Interphase
3) Diplotene
3) S- phase 4) interkinesis
4) Diakinesis
103. Identify the wrong statement about 109. r- RNA is synthesised in
meiosis 1) Nucleolus
1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes 2) Mitochondria
2) Four haploid cells are formed 3) Chloroplast
3) At the end of meiosis number of 4) Golgi body
chromosomes are reduced to half
110. Which structure perform the function
4) Two cycles of DNA replication occur of mitochondria in bacteria
104. During anaphase - I of meiosis 1) Mesosomes 2) Nucleoid
1) Homologous chromosomes separate 3) Ribosomes 4) Cell wall
2) Non homologo us chromosomes 111. Which of the following pair of organelles
separate does not contain DNA
3) Sister chromatids of chromosomes 1) Chloroplast and Mitochondria
separate
2) Lysosomes and vacuoles
4) Non- si ster chromatids of
chromosomes separate 3) Nuclear envelop and mitochondria
105. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) if 4) Mitochondria and Nucleus

defective in a human cell, which of the 112. Oxysomes or F0 - F1 particles occur on
following is expected to occur
1) thylakoids
1) Chromosome will be fragmented
2) Mitochondrial surface
2) Chromosome will not segregate
3) Inner mitochondrial membrane
3) Recombination of chromosome does
not occur 4) Chloroplast surface
4) Chromosome will not condense 113. Select the wrong statement
106. Spindle fibres attach on to 1) Prokaryotic cell plasma membrane
semipermeable in nature.
1) Centromere of the chromosome
2) Mycoplasma is a wall-le ss
2) Kinetosome of the chromosome microorganism
3) Telomere of the chromosome 3) Bacterial cell wall is made up of
4) kinetochore of the chromosome peptidoglycan
107. Cytoskeleton of cell is made of 4) Pili and Fimbriae are mainly involved
in motility of bacterial cell
1) Protein 2) Lipid
114. Centrosome is an organelle usually
3) Carbohydrate 4) Nucleic acid containing two cylindrical structures
108. Which of the following is wrong called
1) Elaioplast - Fat and oil 1) pericentriolar material
2) Aleuroplast - Fatty acid 2) centrioles
3) Amyloplast - Starch 3) hub
4) Chromoplast - Carotene 4) spokes

115. Select correct statement about 119. The term glycocalyx is used for
nucleoplasm.
1) A layer present between cell wall
1) Chromatin absent and membrane of bacteria
2) Cell wall of bacteria
2) Nucleoli are linear structure present
in the nucleoplasm 3) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to
possess N-glycosy-lated proteins
3) It is a site for active mRNA synthesis
4) A layer surrounding the cell wall of
4) Nucleoplasm otherwise known as bacteria
nuclear matrix 120. Which is common betwe en
chloroplasts, chromoplasts and
116. Which of the following is not true for a leucoplasts
eukaryotic cell?
1) presence of pigments
1) Cell wall is made up of
peptidoglycans 2) presence of thylakoids and grana
3) storage of starch, proteins and lipids
2) It has 80s type of ribosome present
in the cytoplasm 4) ability to multiply by a fission - like
process
3) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
121. Important site for formation of
4) Membrane bound organelles are glycoprotein and glycolipid is
present 1) lysosome
117. Which of the following statements 2) plastid
regarding mitochondria is incorrect? 3) golgi apparatus
1) Enzymes of electrons transport are 4) vacuole
embedded in outer membrane
122. The main arena of various activities of
2) Inner membrane is convoluted with a cell is
infoldings 1) mitochondrion
3) Mitochondrial matrix contains single 2) cytoplasm
circular DNA molecule and ribosomes
3) endoplasmic reticulum
4) Matrix contain 70(S) ribosome 4) plasma membrane
118. Correctly match the name of the cell 123. In chemical re action the rate of
organelle and its function physical or chemical process can be
defined as
1) The amount of reactant consumed
1) Smooth endoplastic
reticulum
synthesis of lipids per unit time
2) golgi apparatus synthesis of protein 2) The amount of product formed per
produce cellular unit time
3) mitochondrion energy
in the form of ADP
3) The bond energy released during
bond formation per unit time.
4) Lysosome protein synthesis
4) All of the above
124. Lipid are found in acid insoluble 130. An aminoacid under certain conditions
fraction during the analysis of have both positive and negative charges
chemical composition of tissues. Give simultaneously in the same molecule.
the reason Such a form of aminoacid is called
1) It has very high molecular weight 1) Acidic form 2) Basic form
2) It is Polymer 3) Aromatic form 4) Zwitterionic form
3) It has low molecular weight 131. The primary structure of a protein
4) On grinding, the biomembrance are molecules has
broken into pieces and form insoluble 1) Two ends 2) One end
vesicles.
3) Three ends 4) No ends
125. The stored form of sugars in animal is
1) Homopolysaccharide 132. The bond between the phosphate and
2) Heteropolysaccharide hydroxyl group of sugar is an
3) Oligosaccharide 1) peptide bond
4) Disaccharide 2) ester bond
126. In a protein molecule, the aminoacid 3) hydrogen bond
units are linked together by .............
bonds formed between the aminoacid 4) 3 , 5 -phosphodiester bond
units and the carboxyl group of 133. Which of the following nitrogenous base
successive amino acids is double ringed
1) Peptide 2) Hydrogen 1) Guanine 2) Thymine
3) Covalent 4) Ionic 3) Uracil 4) Cytosine
127. Enzymes that break nucleic acids into
134. A non - proteinaceous enzyme is
nucleotides belongs to which of the
following class 1) Ligase
1) Oxidoreductase 2) Transferases 2) Deoxyribonuclease
3) Hydrolases 4) Lyases 3) Lysozyme-4
128. Glycerol is 4) Ribozyme
1) Tetrahydroxy propane 135. A competitive inhibitor, competes with
2) Trihydroxy propane the substrate for the substrate binding
3) trihydroxy butane site of enzyme due to its
4) Tetrahydroxy butane 1) Structural similarity with substrate
129. In human skeletal muscles, under 2) Molecular weight similarity with
anaerobic conditions, A is formed, substrate
under normal aerobic condition B is
3) Larger size than that of substrate
formed. And in yeast the same pathway
leads to the production of C . 4) Both 1 and 3
Fill in the blanks with correct options 136. The two functional groups
1) A-lacticacid, B-glucose, C-alcohol characteristic of sugars are
2) A-pyruvic acid, B-lacticacid, C- 1) Hydroxyl and methyl
ethanol 2) Carbonyl and methyl
3) A-lacticacid, B-pyruvic acid, C-
3) Carbonyl and Phosphate
ethanol
4) Carbonyl and hydroxyle
4) A-pyruvate, B-ethanol, C-ethanol
137. Which of the following glucose - 143. Part of brain carrying the weight of
transporter is insulin - dependent forebrain consisted of
1) GLUT II 2) GLUT III 1) Midbrain and Hindbrain
3) GLUT IV 4) GLUT I 2) Cerebellum, Pons and Spinal cord
138. The sugar found in polynucleotides is
either A or B . Choose the appropriate 3) Midbrain, Pons and medulla
options to fill the blanks A and B oblongata
1) ribose, sucrose 4) Midbrain, Pons, Medulla oblongata
2) 2 deoxyribose, ribose and spinal cord
3) ribose, dextrose 144. Based on the given figure, select the
4) deoxyribose, ribulose relevant description for labelled parts
A,B,C,D and E.
139. Adult human haemoglobin consists of
1) 2 subunits 1) Condensed ribosomes / RER
2) Secretes myelin
2) 4 subunits  2, 2 
3) Electrically active region
3) 2 subunits  ,   4) Acts as insulator
4) 3 subunits  2,1  5) Storage of neurotransmitters
140. Which of the following polysaccharide

is present as a store house of energy
in plant tissues?
1) Glycogen 2) Cellulose
3) Insulin 4) Starch
141. Broca’s area is connected with
1) Sensation of smell
2) Leaning and reasoning
3) Speech
4) Receiving impulse from eye
142. Find the false statements
a) Bonylabyrinth is filled by perilymph
b) Membranous labyrinth is filled by
endolymph
c) Membranous labyrinth is
surrounded by perilymph
d) Membraneous labyrinth is a series
of cavities of temporal bone
ABCDE ABCDE
e) Bonylabyrinth is a structure made 1) 2)
up of membranes and containing 45212 35124
receptors for hearing and balancing
ABCDE ABCDE
1) c and d 2) d and e 3) 4)
41253 35421
3) c, d and e 4) a and c
145. We do not feel our clothes once they 150. Match the following based on the given
are put on because figure. Find relevant description for
parts of human eye labelled as A,B,C,D
1) Cutaneous receptors do not respond
and E.
to this stimulus
2) No receptors are present over the 1) Maximum visual acuity
skin to sense their presence 2) Prevents Total Internal Reflection
3) They activate the tactile receptors
3) Densely packed collagen fibres and
which are rapidly adapting receptors
highly sensitive
4) They fail to generate activity in any
of the cutaneous receptors 4) Retinal blood vessels enter
146. Reflex arc consists of : 5) Helps in accommodatory power of eye

1) Receptor, Afferent fiber and Efferent
fibre
2) Motor nerve, Sensory nerve and
Receptor
3) Receptor, Interneuron and Effector
4) Sensory nerve, Receptor, Motor
nerve, Effector and interneuron
147. The term co-ordination can be best
defined as
1) Point to point co-ordination of body
activities
2) Interactions of two or more organs ABCDE ABCD E
complementing the functioning of one 1) 2)
25134 4 25 13
another
3) Interactions of two or more organs ABCD E ABCD E
to control their functions 3) 4)
25143 3 1452
4) All the above
151. Hypothalamus regulates all except
148. Parasympathetic stimulation would
decrease the following except 1) Food intake
1) SA node rhythmicity 2) Temperature
2) Heart beat rate 3) Anticipatory rise in heart beat
3) AV conduction time of impulse 4) Circadian rhythm
4) Atrial contractility
152. The most superficial part of each
149. Role of cerebellum in control of cerebral hemisphere is called
movements include :
1) Cerebrum
1) Initiate muscular movements
2) Programming and planning of 2) Pia mater
movements 3) Cerebral white matter
3) Maintain muscular movements 4) Cerebral cortex
4) Co-ordinate voluntary movements
153. Match the following 155. Select the false statements
a) Axon of sensory hair cells of Organ
of Corti constitute auditory nerve
Column I Column II b) Base of sensory hair cell of Organ of
A) Cristae 1) Yellowish Corti bears stereocilia
ampullaris pigmented spot c) Auditory nerve transmit impulses for
2) Generate auditory hearing only
B) Ear ossicles
impulse d) Handle of malleus is attached to the
C) Macula lutea
3) Amplification of inner surface of tympanum
sound e) Foot plate of stapes is attached to
D) Otolith organ 4) Static equilibrium the oval window.
E) Organ of Corti 5) Utricle and Saccule 1) a,b and c 2) c, d and e
6) Dynamic equilibrium 3) b,c and e 4) b and c
156. Site where perilymph is not seen
1) Scala vestibuli 2) Scala media
ABCDE
1) 3) Scala tympani 4) Helicotrema
63452 157. Find the correct match
ABCDE 1) Optic nerve Axons of ganglion cells

2)
63152 2) Scala vestibuli Base has round window
3) Scala tympani Base has oval window
ABCDE Between bonylabyrinth
3) 4) Scala media
43652 and Basilar membrane
5) Eustachian Connects middle ear
tube and inner ear
ABCDE
4)
25364 158. Helicotrema connects :-
1) Middle ear and pharynx
154. Select the correct options
2) Scala vestibule and scala media
a) Voluntary functions
3) Utriculus and sacculus
1) Amygdala
of body 4) Scala vestibule and scala tympani.
b) Control temperature
2) Hypothalamus and urge for eating and
159. When light falls on rods
drinking
c) Control involuntary
3) Cerebral cortex 1)
actions
4) Cerebellum d) Rage and fear
5) Medulla e) Balance and
oblongata Equilibrium 2)
1) 1-d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - e, 5 - c
3)
2) 1-d, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - e, 5 - c
3) 1-b, 2 - d, 3 - a ,4 - e, 5 - c.
4)
4) 1-d, 2 - e, 3 - a , 4 -c, 5 - b.
163. Hypothalamic hormones are carried to
160. Match the following
the adenohypophysis through
1) Hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal vein

1) Location on
A) Vitreous chamber
basilar membrane 2) Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract
2) Between lens
B) Pitch of sound
and Cornea 3) Blood vessels and lymph vessels
3) Crossing region
C) Cerebral aqueduct 4) Both 1 and 2
of optic nerves
4) Between lens
D) Aqueous chamber 164. Match the following
and retina
5) Visual and
E) Optic chiasma
auditory reflex
Column I Column II
F) Corpora 6) CSF filled
A) Pituitary 1) Leaf like
quadrigemina passage
B) Pineal 2) Pea seed like
C) Thyroid 3) Tricone hat shaped
ABCDEF ABCDEF D) Pancreas 4) Butterfly shaped
1) 2)
216435 453216 E) Adrenals 5) Pinus cone shaped
ABCDEF ABCDEF
3) 4)
635142 416235 ABCDE ABCDE
1) 2)
161. What was the reason for the evolution 52413 31524
of a co-ordinting system called
endocrine system despite the point to ABCDE ABCDE
point rapid coordination among organs 3) 4)
53142 25413
provided by neural system?
1) Endocrine coordination is slow but 165. Find the false statement about thyroid
long living gland
2) Neural coordination is fast but short 1) Only endocrine gland storing its own
lived hormone for a longer period
3) Nerve fibres do not innervate all cells 2) Highly vascularised and bilobed
of the body and the cellular functions
need to be continuously regulated 3) Thyroid hormone is stored in the
parafollicular cells
4) Hormones can elicit response in all
cells of the body 4) Thyroid follicular cells produce
thyroxine
162. Select the set containing only
endocrine glands 166. All are reasons for hyper-thyrodism
1) Hypothalamus, Thyroid, Pituitary except
and Pineal gland
1) Cancer of thyroid gland
2) Thyroid, Pituitary , Adrenal, Pineal
and Parathyroid 2) Development of nodules in thyroid
gland
3) Gonads, Kidney, Heart, Placenta and
GI tract 3) Antibodies acting as TSH
4) Pancreas, Hypothalamus, Pituitary 4) Development of exophthalmic goitre

and Thyroid
167. Find the set of only hyper glycaemic 171. Find the hormone secre ted by
hormones neurosecretory cells
1) Glucagon, Cortisol and adrenalin 1) Somatostatin
2) Thyroid hormone, Growth hormone
2) Somatomedin
and Testosterone
3) Insulin, Parathormone and glucagon 3) Pancreatic Somatostatin
4) Somatostatin, Prolactin and insulin 4) Epinephrine

168. Match the following 172. Match the following
Column I Column II Column I Column II

A) Pituitary 1) Leydig cells A) Insulin 1) Hypernatremic
B) Thyroid 2) Sella tursica B) Aldosterone 2) Hypercalcemic
C) Testis 3) Catecholamines C) Thyrocalcitonin 3) Hyponatremic

D) ANF 4) Hypoglycemic
D) Adrenal medulla 4) Composite gland
E) Parathormone 5) Hyperglycemic
E) Pancreas 5) Isthmus
F) Adrenalin 6) Hypocalcemic
ABCDE ABCDE
1) 2) ABCDEF ABCDEF
25341 43152 1) 2)
416325 532164
ABCDE ABCDE
3) 4) ABCDEF ABCDEF
25134 34251
3) 4)
421635 264513
169. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy
causes all the following except 173. Muscular growth, Aggressiveness, Low
1) Defective devel opment and pitch voice, Expression of libido etc are
maturation of foetus promoted by
2) Abnormal skin, deaf- mutism and 1) Growth hormone
stunted growth in new born
2) Testosterone
3) Simple goitre, irregular menstrual
cycle etc 3) Adrenalin and Testosterone
4) Cretinism, Mental retardation or low 4) Estrogen and testosterone
IQ in the neonate
174. False abou t characteri stics of a
170. Which of the following is not a function hormone
of adenohypophyseal hormone?
1) A physiologically active substance
1) Stimulates the synthesis and
release of glucocorticoids 2) Released in response to a specific
2) Stimulates the synthesis and stimulus
secretion of androgens 3) Released directly into the
3) Stimulates the synthesis and
release of epinephrine and nor circulation in small amounts
epinephrine 4) Mainly synthesised from cholesterol
4) Stimulates the synthesis of melanin
and thus promotes pigmentation
175. Find the correct match 179. Hormone derived from the aminoacid
tyrosine are
1) Erythropoietin Liver 1) Thyroid hormone and
2) Cholecystokinin GI tract
catecholamines
3) ANF Entire heart wall
4) Angiotensinogen Kidney 2) Melatonin and Catecholamines
176. Select the true statements 3) Glucocorticoids and
a) Thyroxine is more potent than T3 for mineralocorticoids

about 3-4 times
4) Adrenalin , Nor adrenalin and
b) Glucagon stimulates the cellular Melatonin
uptake and utilisation of glucose
c) Thyroid hormone maintain water and 180. Match the following
electrolyte balance
d) Glucocorticoids are produced by zona Column I Column II
glomerulosa of adrenal cortex
1) Hyposecretion
A) Myxoedema
e) Parathyroid hormo ne increases of Insulin
intestinal absorption of calcium B) Graves 2) Hypothyroidism
1) c and e 2) a,b and d disease in adulthood
3) a, c and e 4) b,d and e C) Addison's 3) Hypersecretion of
disease GH in adulthood
177. Lipophobic hormone initiate
D) Diabetes 4) Hypoadreno
biochemical changes by
mellitus corticoidism
1) Making changes in gene expression
E) Acromegaly 5) Hyperthyroidism
2) Activating secondary messengers
3) Activating intracellular hormone
receptors
ABCDE
4) Promoting protein synthesis 1)
52413
178. All the following are the functions of
cortisol except
ABCDE
1) Promotes gluconeogenesis and 2)
25143
lipolysis
2) Acts as anti inflammatory as well ABCDE
as antiallergic agents 3)
41532
3) Inhibit cellular uptake and utilisation
of glucose ABCDE
4)
4) Acts as antistress as well as 25413
analgesic agents
Version
11- 03- 2020 Batch :ODD BATCH
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - UNIT VI A A1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID
(P + C + B) Key with hints
331
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org
PHYSICS
a
 0.72  0.36  
0.36
 10 
10
m /s 2
1. 3
0.72  0.36 1.08 3
mg  T  ma
10 1 2 1 10 2 5 5
T  0.72  10  0.24   4.8 N ; S  at    1  m ; W  F S  4.8   8 J
3 2 2 3 3 3
F2 U1 K 2 3000 2
2. 3 U   
2K U2 K1 1500 1
3 1
3. 2 V  ax 2
a  5m 2
s 1
acceleration a 0 
dv
dt
V
dv
dx
3
 ax 2
d
dx
3
ax 2 
3 3 1 3 3
 ax 2
a  x 2  a 2 x 2 ; F  ma 0  m a 2 x 2
2 2 2
2 2 3 1 1
W  0
F dx  0 2
ma 2 x 2dx ;  ma 2  8  0.5  25  8  50 J
2 2
L
L  ax 2 bx 3  aL2 bL3

W  ax  bx  dx  
2
4. 3 = 
0
 2 3 0 2 3
5. 2 Law of conservation of linear momentum mv  4mv 1
v
v' 
4
velocity after separation

Co-efficient of restitution e  velocity after approach
V
 4  0.25
V
v1 m2 4
6. 3 m1v1  m2 v 2  0 ; v   m   0.2  20
2 1
1 1
v1  20 v 2 ; m1v12  m2 v 22  1.05  103 v1  100 m /s
2 2
v 2  v1
7. 4 v  2gh ; mv  mv1  2mv 2 v1  2v 2  v e 1 v 2  v1  v
v0
2
 2hg 
 
v2  v v1  v ; H v1  3 
2
h
3 3 max   
2g 2g 9
8. 3 mv   m  2m  v ' ; v  v 3
m M  m dF m 1
9. 3 F  G ; For maximum force, 0 or M – 2m = 0  
R2 dm M 2
10. 4 Elastic force in string is conservative in nature.
W = –DV1
where, W = work done by elastic force of string
W    Vf  Vi   Vi  Vf
1 2 1 1 2 1
kx  k  x  y  kx  k  x 2  y 2  2xy 
2
or W  or W 
2 2 2 2
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 1
 kx  kx  ky  k  2xy    kxy  ky 2  ky  2x  y 
2 2 2 2 2 2
Work done against elastic force Wex = – W
11. 1 Work done = Force × displacement
The energy is manifested as kinetic energy
1
K.E. = mv 2  constant since v is acquired is of a definite magnitude.
2
1 2 1
mv 2 = constant; v2   constant or v 
2 m m
v0
12. 4 By conservation of linear momentum,  2m  v  mv0  0 or v 
2
(i)
1 v2
 Potential energy = Kinetic energy   2m  gh   2m  v2  h  (ii)
2 2g
2
v2  v0  1 v 20 v 02
or h       height reached by the pendulum =
2g  2  2g 8g 8g
13. 1 Let u cms–1 be the speed of the bullet. Since the mass of the bullet remains
3u
unchanged, its speed becomes   cms 1 after it penetrates a distance x =
4
3.5 cm. The retardation a due to the resistance of the wooden plank is given by
2
 3u 
u    2ax or u     2a  3.5
2 2 2
 4 
u2
which gives a  cms 2 . The bullet will come to rest when its velocity   0 . If
16
x' is the thickness penetrated by the bullet, then
u2 u2
u    2ax 
2 2 or x  . But, a  cms 2
2a 16
u 2 16
Therefore x    8 cm
2u 2
14. 4 PE at A = mgh. Since 10% of this energy is lost, KE at point
90
B  mgh   0.9 mgh. Therefore,
100
1
m2  0.9 mgh or v2 = 1.8 gh = 1.8 × 10 × 2 = 36
2
v = 6 m/s.
Hence the correct choice is (4)
15. 3 As the body rises, the initial kinetic energy is converted into potential energy.
At the maximum height h, the energy is entirely potential = mgh, which is
equal to the initial kinetic energy. Let h' be the height where the kinetic
energy is 75% of its initial value. At this height, the potential energy must be
25% of its maximum value, i.e. at height h', PE = 0.25 mgh. Thus mgh' = 0.25
h
mgh or h' = . Hence the correct choice is (C)
4
16. 2 According to law of conservation of angular momentum,
30 × 0 = 18 × 6 + 12 × v  108  12v  v  9m / s

Negative sign indicates that both fragments move in opposite direction.
1 1
K.E. of 12 kg  mv 2   12  81  486 J
2 2
Gm1m2 Gm
17. 3 F  2
r2 r
G  m1  0.25m1   m2  0.25m1  G m2 1  0.25 1  0.25  15 F

F'  2
F'  2

r r 16
18. 2
GM1 GM2 100 10000

19. 3   x1 m
 1  x  1  x 
2 2 2
x2 11
 2h 
20. 1 g 1  
gh R  R  2h R  2
   

gd g 1  d
R 
Rd R 1
21. 4 along x axis Fnet  0
along y axis Fnet  2F cos 
GMm R 2GMmR
Fnet  2   
R d R 2  d2  R 2  d2  2
2 2 3
mv 2 2GMmR   2
  2GMR 2 
V
 R 2  d2  3
2
R  2 3 
  R  d  
2 2
22. 4
23. 4
Gm1m2
24. 2 Gravitational PE  
r
G  mm0
W
r
T12   7R  T2   3.5 R 
3 3
25. 2 T2  a 3
3
242  7R 
  T 6 2
T2  3.5R 
GM v1 R2 3v R 1
26. 2 Orbital velocity   v;      v 2  6v
R v2 R1 v2 4R 2
27. 4 Angular momentum L  m 2GMr  L r
L2 r 16r
 2  4; L2 = 4L1 = 4L
L1 r1 r
GM GM GM
 For orbital velocity, v0   v 02  
2
28. 1
r R  R 2R
1 1 GM m  gR 2 mgR
 K.E.  mv 02  m  or K.E.  
2 2 2R 4R 4
mgR
 Kinetic energy =
4
gR 2 gR 2 gR 2 g
29. 2 At height h = R; g    
R  h R  R 
2 2
4R 2 4
Potential energy at surface of earth = – mgR

Potential energy at height = –mg'h
g  mgR
 P.E.   m    R  R  
4 2
 mgR  mgR mgR

 Increase potential energy =    mgR    mgR 
2 2 2
GMm  GMm  GMm

30. 4 Energy spent = Increase in potential energy   
3R  2R  6R
31. 1 R 2  X 2  Y 2  Z2
Applying conservation of angular momentum  

1 1 M
32. 4 MR 2     M   R 2  or
2  2 4 
4
 
5
8  0  4 12
33. 3 Two particles will meet at their C.M is  4m
84
34. 3
35. 4
36. 4
37. 2
38. 1 Total kinetic energy = K.E. of Rotation + K.E. of translation
1 2 1 2 12 2 2 1
v  R ; E   MR    M  R
2
E I  Mv 2 , for sphere I  MR 2 ,
2 2 5 25  2
7 7
E MR 2 2  Mv 2 ;
10 10
1 1
mv 2 Mv 2
ET 2 2 5
  
E 7 7
MR 2 2 Mv 2 7
10 10
1 2
I
K.E. of Rotation 40 2 2 2 2 Mv 2
   I . 2
39. 1
K.E. of translation 100 5 ; 1
Mv 2 5 5  . But v  R
2
2
Hence I  MR 2 . The body is a solid sphere.
5
40. 3 Moment of inertia of a square about an axis passing through its centre and
perpendicular to its plane.
M 2 M 2 2 Ml 2
I0   l  b    l  l  
2
12 12 6
The two diagonals of a square are mutually perpendicular to each other. Let I =
M.I. about any diagonal.
By theorem of perpendicular axes.
I1 + I2 = I0; I + I = I0; Ml 2 Ml 2
2I   I
6 12
41. 2
 ml 2 ml 2  4ml 2  4 4ml 2
I  IG  Md where d = l/2.;
2 I   12  4   4 or I  
  12 3
1/3
4  3V 
42. 3 Volume of sphere  R 3  R  
3  4 
2/3
 3V 
L  I   MR    M 
2
  = (Constant) V 2/3 .
 4 
Since angular momentum L remains constant.
V 2/3 = constant. Take log and differentiate.
2 dV d d 2 dV
 0 or   0.67%
3 V   3 V
 Percentage change in   0.67%
 Minus sign indicates that there is a decrease in  .
  decreases by 0.67%.
1
43. 2 Moment of inertia of disc  MR 2
2
Mass M M
Density    or R2 
Volume R 2 t t
1 M I1 1 M 2 2t2 2 3
I . M. ;  . .  
2 t I 2 2 t1 M2 1 1
ml 2
44. 3 I  about YY  
12
ml 2 ml 2 ml 2
Using parallel axis theorem : I  about AD    
12 4 3
45. 3
CHEMISTRY
V2 20
46. 4 S  2.303 nR log10  2.303  2  2  log10  2.303  2  2  1  9.212Cal
V1 2
47. 2 H  U   ng RT ;  ng  3  6   3 ; H  U   ng RT   3RT

48. 1 For insulated container q = 0
q  U  W (1st law of thermodynamics) U  W  0
49. 3 Hneut of weak acid is less because a part of heat is used in dissociation of
CH3COOH, a weak acid. Enthalpy of ionization of water (H2O  H  OH ) is
57.1 kJ
50. 4 H0   B.E (r)   B.E (p)  [B.E HH  B.EBr Br ]  [2B.E(H Br ) ]
 [433  192]  [2  364]   103 kJ
51. 2 G  H  TS
when H   ve(not favourable); S   ve(favourable)and if TS  H
G  -ve (spontaneous reaction). Hence 2 is the correct answer

52. 2 Work done, W  Pext (V2  V1 )  3  (6  4)   6 L  atm
  6 101.32 J(1L atm 101.32 J)   607.92   608 J
1 1
53. 1 H2  Cl2  HCl ; H   90 kJ
2 2
1
 Hr  B.E(reac tan ts )  B.E(products )  (B.EHH  B.ECl Cl )  B.EHCl
2
1 1
or 90   430   240  B.EHCl  B.EH Cl  425 kJ mol 1
2 2
54. 1  H   ve (Dissociation reactions)
& S   ve (The disorder increases with increase in moles)
55. 2 KMnO4 oxidises H2O2 to O2 and itself gets reduced to Mn2+ ions. Thus
2KMnO4  3H2SO4  5H2O2  K 2SO4  2MnSO4  8H2O  5O2
56. 4
57. 4
58. 1 G0   2.303RT log k
Oxidation
59. 3 Fe2+ + Zn Zn2+ + Fe
Reduction
EMF, Ecell  Ecathode  Eanode  EFe2 /Fe  E Zn2 /Zn  0.44  0.762  0.322 V
0 0 0 0 0
G
60. 2 Efficiency, 
H
61. 2 Smaller is the size of ion, more is hydration, lesser is mobility, ie, mobility of
ion in aqueous solution decreases with increase in size of hydrated ion. The
size of hydrated ions is in the order
Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+; Mobility of ions : Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
32
62. 4 Mass of 5600 mL of O2 at STP =  5600  8g
22400
According to Faraday’s second law of electrolysis,
WAg E Ag WAg 108
 ;   WAg 108 g
WO2 EO2 8 8
0.059
63. 3 Ecell  Ecell
0
 log  ...(1)
n
0.059 E0 0.59
0  E0cell  log K eq (from eq (1)) ; log K eq  cell  10; K eq 1010 1 1010
1 0.059 0.059
64. 2 According to Faraday’s first law of electrolysis
W = Zit; Where, i = current, t = time
eq.wt 35.5
Z  ; W = 0.10 mol = (0.10 × 71) g = 7.1 g
96500 96500
W 7.1
t   6433s 107.22 min 110 min
Zi 35.5
3
96500
65. 1 As E0cell is negative so reaction is non-spontaneous. For non spontaneous reaction,

G0 is always positive and Keq is always less than 1
66. 4 Number of equivalents of silver formed = Number of equivalents of copper formed
In AgNO3, Ag is in +1 oxidation state
In CuSO4, Cu is in +2 oxidation state
108
Equivalent weight of Ag = 108
1
63.6
Equivalent weight of Cu =  31.8
2
W1 E1 10.79 108
 or 
W2 E2 WCu 31.8 ;
10.79  31.8
WCu   3.177  3.2 g
108
67. 4 Aqueous solution of HCl is the best conductor of electric current because HCl
is strong acid, so it dissociates completely into ions
3387 103
68. 2 G   nFE ;
0 3387
0 10 3
  32  96500  E 0
; E 0
 1.0968 V
32  96500
69. 1 2I 

oxidation
 I2  2e (anode)

Fe 3   e    
reduction
 Fe 2  ]  2 (cathode)
2I  2Fe3  I2  2Fe2
E0cell  Ec0  Ea0   EFe

0
3
/Fe2 
 EI0 /2I  0.77  0.536  0.164 V
2
Since, E0cell is +ve, so this reaction will occur ie, I– is oxidised and Fe 3+ is
reduced.
70. 4 Lower the standard electrode potential, stronger is the reducing agent. Thus,
reducing power decreases in the order Z (–3.0 V) > × (–1.2 V) > Y (0.5 V)
2 1 1 6 2 2 6 2 1 1
71. 1 Ca F2  H2 S O4  Ca S O4  2 H F
6 2 4
C u0  2H2 S O4  C uSO4  S O2  2H2O
0 6 4
2S 2H2 S O4  2 S O2  2H2 O
0 6 4 4
C  2H2 S O4  C O2  2 S O2  2H2O
1st reaction is not a redox reaction as the oxidation number of element remains
unchanged.
72. 3 The correct decreasing order of oxidation states of given N-compounds is
5 2 0 3
HN O3  N O  N2  N H4Cl
73. 3 When H2O2 is added to an acidified solution of a dichromate, Cr2O72 a deep blue
coloured complex chromic peroxide, CrO5 is formed
Cr2O72  2H  4H2O2  2CrO(O2 )2  5H2O

This deep blue coloured complex has the following structure
O
O O
Cr
O O
Oxidation state of Cr is +6 due to the presence of two peroxide linkages
x + (–1) + (–2) = 0 ; x – 6 = 0 ; x = +6
74. 3
75. 1 H4 P2O5 :4 1  2  x  (2)  5  0
 x 3
x
H4 P 2 O6 : 4 1  2  x (2) 6  0
 x 4
H4P2O7 : 4 × 1 + 2 × x (–2) × 7 = 0
 x5
76. 2
77. 1 S in S2O42 , SO32 and S2O26 has +3, +4 and +5 oxidation number
78. 2 Freons are responsible for depletion of ozone layer
79. 3 Methylisocyanate CH3NCO
80. 1
81. 4
82. 1
83. 3
84. 4
H 30,000 J mol 1
85. 1 S   100 J mol 1K 1
T 300 K
86. 1 Wirr   Pext V   2  (0.25  0.1)2   2  0.15   0.30   0.30 100   30 J
1 1 
87. 1 0H    a   0.5a   [1  a]
2 2 
a a 2a  a  4a a
 200    a ;  200   ; a = 800 kJ mol–1
2 2 4 4
88. 4 W  Pext  V ; In vacuum, Pext = 0

 W  0  V  0
Hfusion 2930
89. 1 Sfusion    9.77 J mol 1 K 1
T 300
90. 4 X 2O4 ( )  2XO2(g ) ; ng  2
H  U  ng RT  (2.11000)  (2 1.98  300)  2100  1188  3288 Cal mol 1
Now, G  H  TS  3288  (300  20)  3288  6000   2712Cal   2.712kCal

BIOLOGY
91. 4 106. 4 121. 3 136. 4 151. 3 166. 4
92. 1 107. 1 122. 4 137. 3 152. 4 167. 1
93. 4 108. 2 123. 2 138. 2 153. 2 168. 3
94. 4 109. 1 124. 4 139. 2 154. 2 169. 3
95. 2 110. 1 125. 1 140. 4 155. 1 170. 3
96. 3 111. 2 126. 1 141. 3 156. 2 171. 1
97. 2 112. 3 127. 3 142. 2 157. 1 172. 1
98. 1 113. 4 128. 2 143. 3 158. 4 173. 2
99. 3 114. 2 129. 3 144. 4 159. 3 174. 4
100. 2 115. 4 130. 4 145. 3 160. 4 175. 2
101. 4 116. 1 131. 1 146. 4 161. 3 176. 1
102. 2 117. 1 132. 2 147. 2 162. 2 177. 2
103. 4 118. 1 133. 1 148. 3 163. 1 178. 3
104. 1 119. 4 134. 4 149. 4 164. 4 179. 1
105. 2 120. 4 135. 1 150. 1 165. 3 180. 4

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11- 03- 2020 Batch : ODD BATCH Version

PHYSICS 5. A moving block of mass m collides with

aL2 bL3 1  aL2 bL3 

18. Three identical thin rods, each of mass

20. The ratio between the values of

26. Two satellites A and B go round a planet

4) 8m from 8kg mass 4)

55. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with

3) TS  H and both H and S are 2) Hydronium ion, H 3O + exists freely

1) 425 kJ mol–1 2)  G 0  2.30 RT log K

60. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by, 1) G 0  0 ; K eq 1 2) G 0  0 ; K eq  1

1) 1.0 × 102 2) 1.0 × 105 1) 2.0968 V 2) 1.0968 V

3) 1.0 × 1010 4) 1.0 × 1030 3) 0.968 V 4) 1.968 V

1) SO2 2) CO2 87. The bond dissociation energies of X2,

82. Which of the following is a sink for CO? 1) Infinite 2) 3 joules

1) Micro organism present in the soil 3) 9 joules 4) Zero

83. Which oxide of nitroge n is not a 3) 9.07 J/mol K 4) 0.977 J/mol K

105. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) if 4) Mitochondria and Nucleus

1) Elaioplast - Fat and oil 1) pericentriolar material

2) Aleuroplast - Fatty acid 2) centrioles

3) Amyloplast - Starch 3) hub

4) Chromoplast - Carotene 4) spokes

4) 3 subunits  2,1  5) Storage of neurotransmitters

140. Which of the following polysaccharide

146. Reflex arc consists of : 5) Helps in accommodatory power of eye

ABCDE 1) Optic nerve Axons of ganglion cells

1) Hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal vein

4) Pancreas, Hypothalamus, Pituitary 4) Development of exophthalmic goitre

4) Somatostatin, Prolactin and insulin 4) Epinephrine

Column I Column II Column I Column II

C) Testis 3) Catecholamines C) Thyrocalcitonin 3) Hyponatremic

176. Select the true statements 3) Glucocorticoids and

a) Thyroxine is more potent than T3 for mineralocorticoids

5. 2 Law of conservation of linear momentum mv  4mv 1

velocity after separation

30 × 0 = 18 × 6 + 12 × v  108  12v  v  9m / s

G  m1  0.25m1   m2  0.25m1  G m2 1  0.25 1  0.25  15 F

GM1 GM2 100 10000

21. 4 along x axis Fnet  0

along y axis Fnet  2F cos 

27. 4 Angular momentum L  m 2GMr  L r

Potential energy at surface of earth = – mgR

 mgR  mgR mgR

GMm  GMm  GMm

Applying conservation of angular momentum  

38. 1 Total kinetic energy = K.E. of Rotation + K.E. of translation

47. 2 H  U   ng RT ;  ng  3  6   3 ; H  U   ng RT   3RT

 [433  192]  [2  364]   103 kJ

when H   ve(not favourable); S   ve(favourable)and if TS  H

G  -ve (spontaneous reaction). Hence 2 is the correct answer

59. 3 Fe2+ + Zn Zn2+ + Fe

65. 1 As E0cell is negative so reaction is non-spontaneous. For non spontaneous reaction,

69. 1 2I 

2I  2Fe3  I2  2Fe2

E0cell  Ec0  Ea0   EFe

Cr2O72  2H  4H2O2  2CrO(O2 )2  5H2O

86. 1 Wirr   Pext V   2  (0.25  0.1)2   2  0.15   0.30   0.30 100   30 J

88. 4 W  Pext  V ; In vacuum, Pext = 0

90. 4 X 2O4 ( )  2XO2(g ) ; ng  2

H  U  ng RT  (2.11000)  (2 1.98  300)  2100  1188  3288 Cal mol 1

Now, G  H  TS  3288  (300  20)  3288  6000   2712Cal   2.712kCal

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