NEET Pattern Test Paper

Academic Session 2019 - 2020

Target : NEET/AIIMS - 2020

Physics : Mathematical Tools, Units & Dimensions,

Measurement & Error, Rectilinear Motion,
Electrostatics
Chemistry : Atomic Structure, IUPAC Nomenclature ,
Structure Isomerism , Periodic Table & BIN
Biology : Biological Classification, Reproduction In
Organism, Digestion & Absorption

Paper Code : NP01

Date : 24-Mar-2020 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 720

Important Instructions:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. The candidate must immediately fill their details on the OMR Sheet before attempting the Test
Booklet.

2. The Test is of 3 hours duration. Test Booklet contains 180 questions.

3. There are three parts in the question paper I , II consisting of Physics, Chemistry having 45
question in each part and Part III Biology having 90 questions. Each question is allotted 4(Four)
marks for correct response and –1(One) for incorrect response. The maximum marks is 720.

4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing/marking responses on OMR Sheet. Use of pencil
is strictly prohibited.

5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone any electronic device etc, except the Identify card inside the examination hall/room.

6. Rough work is to be done only on the specified space provided in the Test Booklet.

7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty
in the room/hall. However, the candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

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Where is the Best Team for MBBS & IITian ?

 PART-I      
9. If | A  B | = 3 A . B , then the value of | A  B |
PHYSICS
This section contains 45 multiple choice questions is :
numbered 1 to 45. Each question has 4 choices (1),  2 AB 
1/ 2
2
(2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 2
(1) (A + B + AB) 2 1/2
(2)  A  B  

 3

1. The physical quantities not having same (3) A + B (4) (A2 + B2 + 3 AB)1/2
dimensions are-
(1) Stress and Young's modulus
(2) Speed and (0 0 )–1/2 10. If a verctor 2 î +3 ĵ + 8 k̂ is perpendicular to the
(3) Torque and work vector 4 ĵ – 4 î +  k̂ , then the value of  is :
(4) Momentum and Planck's constant
1
2. Dimensions of 1/(00) where symbols have their (1) –1 (2)
2
usual meaning, are-
1
(1) [L2T –2 ] (2) [L T–1 ] (3) – (4) 1
–1 2
(3) [L T] (4) [L–2 T2 ]
   
3. The dimensional formula of magnetic flux is- 11. If | A B| = | A –B|
(1) [ML2 T–2 A–1 ] (2) [ML0 T–2 A–2 ] The angle between the two vectors is :
(3) [M0 L–2 T –2 A–2 ] (4) [ML2T –1 A3 ] (1) 90° (2) 60°
(3) 75° (4) 45°
4. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is
100 dynes. In another system where the
fundamental physical quantities are kilogram, 12. A and B are two vectors and  is the angle
meter and minute, the magnitude of the force is-
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.36 between them, if A  B = 3 ( A  B ) the value
(3) 3.6 (4) 36 of  is :
(1) 60º (2) 45º
5. Pick out the right choice S2 = at4 . Here S is
(3) 30º (4) 90º
measured in meters, t in second. Then the unit of
‘a’ is  
13. Six vectors, a through f have the mangitudes
(1) ms–2 (2) ms2
(3) m s2 4 (4) m2s–4 and directions indicated in the figure.Which of the
following statements is true ?
6. If the units M and L are increased three times,     
a b c
then the units of energy will be increased by -  
 f
(1) 3 times (2) 6 times d e
(3) 27 times (4) 81 times   
(1) b + c = f
  
7. The SI unit of length is the meter. Suppose we (2) d + c = f
adopt a new unit of length which equals to x   
(3) d + e = f
meters. The area 1m2 expressed in terms of the   
new unit has a magnitude - (4) b + e = f
(1) x (2) x2
1 14. The projection of a vector 3 î  4k̂ on y-axis is :
1
(3) x (4) (1) 5 (2) 4
x2
(3) 3 (4) zero
8. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to
their vector differences. In that case, the forces 15. Two forces of 12N and 8N act upon a body. The
(1) are not equal to each other in magnitude resultant force on the body has a maximum value
(2) cannot be predicted of :
(3) are equal to each other (1) 4N (2) 0N
(4) are equal to eah other in magnitude (3) 20 N (4) 8N

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16. Two objects moving along the same straight line
are leaving point A with an acceleration a, 2 a &
velocity 2 u, u respectively at time t = 0. The
distance moved by the object with respect to point (1) (2)
A when one object overtakes the other is :
6u2 2u 2
(1) (2)
a a

4u2
(3) (4) none of these (3) (4)
a

17. A particle is moving along x axis with constant

acceleration. At t = 0 , the particle is at x = 3 m 23. In 1.0 sec. a particle goes from point A to point B
dx moving in a semicircle of radius 1.0 m. The
and = + 4 m/s. The maximum value of x co-
dt magnitude of average velocity is:
ordinate of the particle is observed 2 seconds later.
Starting from t = 0 sec after what time particle
reaches its initial position again?
(1) 4 sec. (2) 6 sec.
(3) 8 sec. (4) 12 sec.

18. The displacement ‘x’ and time of travel ‘t’ for a (1) 3.14 m/sec (2) 2.0 m/sec
particle moving on a straight line are related as t = (3) 1.0 m/sec (4) zero
( x  1)( x  1) . Its acceleration at a time t is
24. If velocity varies with time as  = 4t, find the
1 1 1 distance travelled by the body in the interval of
(1) – 2 (2)
x x x3 2 s to 4 s.
(1) 24 m (2) 240 m (3) 2.4 m (4) 0.24 m
 t2 t
(3) (4)
x 3
x2 25. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t
as x = ae–t + bet, where a, b,  and are positive
19. A particle is moving along straight line with initial constants. The velocity of the particle will
velocity 48 m/sec and acceleration –10m/s2. The (1) go on decreasing with time
distance travelled by particle in 5th second is : (2) be indepenent of  and 
(1) 3m (2) 115 m (3) drop to zero when  =
17 14 (4) go on increasing with time
(3) 5 m (4) 5 m
26. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed
20. Three particles are projected upward with initial of 10 m/s when it has reached one half of its
speeds 10m/s, 20m/s and 30 m/s. The maximum height. How high does the ball rise ?
displacements covered by them in their last second (Taking g = 10 m/s2)
of motion are x ,x and x then : (1) 15 m (2) 10 m
1 2 3
(1) x : x : x = 1 : 2 : 3 (2) x : x : x = 1 : 4 : 9 (3) 20 m (4) 5 m
1 2 3 1 2 3
(3) x : x : x = 1 : 5 : 7 (4) None of these 27. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a
1 2 3
time t (in seconds ) the distance x (in metres) of
21. Two particles are projected vertically upwards the particle from O is given by
with the same velocity on two different planets x = 40 + 12t – t3
with acceleration due to gravities g 1 and g2 How long would the particle travel before coming
respectively. If they fall back to their initial points to rest ?
of projection after lapse of time t 1 and t 2 (1) 24 m
respectively, then (2) 40 m
(1) t1 t2 = g1 g2 (2) t1g1 = t2 g2 (3) 56 m
(3) t1 g2 = t2 g1 (4) t1 + t2 = g1 + g2 (4) 16 m
22. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. The graph
between its speed v and time t is given by (neglecting
the air resistance) the following figure :

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28. Two bodies, A (of mass 1kg) and B (of mass 3kg) (1) V/6r (2) V/4r
are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, (3) V/3r (4) V/2r
respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them
to reach the ground is : 35. A hollow sphere of radius 5 cm is uniformly charged
(1) 5/4 (2) 12/5 such that the potential on its surface is 10 volts
(3) 5/12 (4) 4/5 then potential at centre of sphere will be :
(1) Zero
29. The position x of a particle with respect to time t (2) 10 volt
along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 – t3 where x is in (3) Same as at a point 5 cm away from the surface
metre and t in second. What will be the position (4) Same as at a point 25 cm away from the centre
of this particle when it achieves maximum speed
along the + x direction? 36. A particle of mass 2 g and charge 1C is held at
(1) 32 m (2) 54 m rest on a frictionless horizontal surface at a
(3) 81 m (4) 24 m distance of 1 m from a fixed charge of 1 mC. If
the particle is released it will be repelled. The
30. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform velocity speed of the particle when it is at distance of 10
vu and returns to X with a uniform velocity vd. m from the fixed charge is:
The average velocity for this round trip is : (1) 100 m/s (2) 90 m/s
2v d v u (3) 60 m/s (4) 45 m/s
(1) v  v (2) vu vd
d u 37. You are given an arrangement of three point
v dvu charges q, 2q and xq separated by equal finite
v uv d
(3) v  v (4) distances so that electric potential energy of the
d u 2
system is zero. Then the value of x is :

31. A flat circular fixed disc has a charge +Q 2 1 2 3

(1)  (2)  (3) (4)
uniformly distributed on the disc. A charge +q is 3 3 3 2
thrown with kinetic energy K, towards the disc 38. A sphere of radius 1 cm has potential of 8000 V.
along its axis. The charge q : The energy density near the surface of sphere
(1) may hit the disc at the centre will be:
(2) may return back along its path after touching (1) 64 × 105 J/m3 (2) 8 × 103 J/m3
the disc (3) 32 J/m3 (4) 2.83 J/m3
(3) may return back along its path without touching
the disc 39. Two equal charges q are placed at a distance of
(4) any of the above three situations is possible 2a and a third charge -2q is placed at the midpoint.
depending on the magnitude of K The potential energy of the systemis.....
32. A 5 coulomb charge experiences a constant force 9q 2 q2
of 2000 N when moved along electric field (1) (2)
80 a 80 a
between two points separated by a distance of 2
cm in a uniform electric field. The potential 7q 2 6q 2
difference between these two points is: (3)  (4)
80 a 80 a
(1) 8 V (2) 200 V
(3) 800 V (4) 20,000 V 40. The electric potential V as a function of distance
x (in metre) is given by
33. An equipotential surface and an electric line of V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt.
force : The value of electric field at x = 1 m would be :
(1) never intersect each other (1) – 20 volt/m (2) 6 volt/m
(2) intersect at 45º (3) 11 volt/m (4) –23 volt/m
(3) intersect at 60º
(4) intersect at 90º
41. A uniform electric field having a magnitude E0
34. A hollow uniformly charged sphere has radius r. and direction along positive X-axis exists. If the
If the potential difference between its surface and electric potential V is zero at x = 0, then its value
a point at distance 3r from the centre is V, then at x = +x will be :
the electric field intensity at a distance 3r from (1) Vx = xE0 (2) Vx = –xE0
the centre is: (3) Vx = x2E0 (4) Vx = –x2 E0

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42. Due to an electric dipole shown in fig., the electric 47. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound
field intensity is parallel to dipole axis : is :

CH3

CH 3

(1) 1, 2-Dimethyl cyclopentene

(2) 2, 3-Dimethyl cyclopentene
(1) at P only (2) at Q only (3) 1, 5-Dimethyl cyclopentene
(3) both at P and at Q (4) neither at P nor at Q
(4) 1, 2-Dimethyl cyclopent-2-ene

43. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges

48. The correct decreasing order of size of a
each of magnitude 1.0 C, separated by a distance
isoelectronic series is -
of 2.0 cm. The dipole is placed in an external
(1) Se-2 > Br¯ > Kr > Rb+> Sr+2
electric field of 1.0 × 105 N/C. The maximum torque
on the dipole is : (2) S-2 > Cl¯ > K+>Ar> Ca+2
(1) 0.2 × 10–3 N-m (2) 1.0 × 10–3 N-m (3) N-3> O-2> Ne > F¯ > Ca+2
(3) 2.0 × 10–3 N-m (4) 4.0 × 10–3 N-m (4) F¯> Ne >Na+> Al+3> Mg+2

44. Two opposite and equal charges of magnitude 4 49. If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is
2p
× 10–8 coulomb each when placed 2 × 10–2 cm
apart form a dipole. If this dipole is placed in an written as 1s2. 2s2 it would violate :
external electric field of 4 × 108 N/C, the value of (1) Hund's rule
maximum torque and the work required in rotating (2) Pauli exclusion principle
it through 180º from its initial orientation which is (3) Both Hund's and Pauli's principles
along electric field will be : (Assume rotation of (4) None of these
dipole about an axis passing through centre of the
dipole): 50. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
(1) 64 × 10–4 N-m and 44 × 10–4 J is valid ?
(2) 32 × 10–4 N-m and 32 × 10–4 J (1) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = +1/2
(3) 64 × 10–4 N-m and 32 × 10–4 J (2) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 1, s = 0
(4) 32 × 10–4 N-m and 64 × 10–4 J (3) n = 2, l = 2, m = +1, s = – 1/2
(4) n = 2, l = 2, m = +2, s = – 1/2
45. At a point on the axis (but not inside the dipole
and not at infinity) of an electric dipole 51. Maximum number of total nodes is present in :
(1) The electric field is zero (1) 5s (2) 5p (3) 5d
(2) The electric potential is zero (4) All have same number of nodes.
(3) Neither the electric field nor the electric
potential is zero 52. Magnetic quantum number specifies
(4) The electric field is directed perpendicular to (1) Size of orbitals (2) Shape of orbitals
the axis of the dipole (3) Orientation of orbitals (4) Nuclear stability

53. For the element X, student Donald Trump

PART-II
measured its radius as 102 nm, Katrina as 143
CHEMISTRY nm and Virat Kohli as 98 nm available techniques.
This section contains 45 multiple choice questions Their teacher explained that measurements were
numbered 46 to 90. Each question has 4 choices (1), correct by saying that recorded values by three
(2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. students were in order
(1) Metallic, vander Waal and covalent radii
46. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy of (2) Covalent, Metallic and vander Waal radii
B, C, O & N is : (3) Vander Waal, Metallic and covalent
(1) B < C < N < O (2) B < C < O < N (4) None is correct
(3) O < N < B < C (4) N < O < C < B

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54. Give the correct order of initials T (true) or F 61. The E.N. of H, X, O are 2.1, 0.8 and 3.5
(false) for following statements. respectively comment on the nature of the
(I) Top positions of Lother-Mayer ’s atomic compound H–O–X, that is :
volume curve are occupied by Alkali metals. (1) Basic
(II) Number of elements presents in the fifth (2) Acidic
period of the periodic table are 32. (3) Amphoteric
(III) 2nd IE of Mg is less than the 2nd IE of Na. (4) Can't be predicted
(IV) A p-orbital can take maximum of six
electrons. 62. A golf ball has a mass of 40 g and a speed of 45
(1) TFTF (2) TFFT m/s. If the speed can be measured within accuracy
(3) FFTF (4) TTFF of 2%, calculate the uncertainty in the position.
(1) 1.46 × 10–33 m
55. The electronic configurations of 24Cr and 29Cu
(2) 1.46 × 10–31 m
are abnormal.
(1) Due to extra stability of exactly half filled and (3) 1.46 × 10–30 m
exactly fully filled sub shells (4) 1.46 × 10–33 m
(2) Because they belong to d-block
(3) Both the above 63. Which of the following configuration will have
(4) None of the above least electron affinity -
(1) ns2np5 (2) ns2np2
56. Pd has exceptional valence shell electronic (3) ns2np3 (4) ns2np4
configuration of 4d105s0. It is a member of -
(1) 5th Period, Group 10 64. The process requiring the absorption of energy
(2) 4th Period, Group 12 is -
(3) 6th Period, Group 10 (1) F  F– (2) Cl  Cl–
(3) O  O 2– (4) H  H–
(4) 5th Period, Group 14

57. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 65. Amphoteric behaviour is shown by the oxides of :
7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2eV respectively. The (1) Al and Ca
element is likely to be - (2) Pb and Ba
(1) Na (2) Si (3) Cr and Mg
(3) F (4) Ca (4) Ga and Al

58. The electronic configurations for some neutral

66. Which of the following sets of quantum
atoms are given below :
(i) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 (ii) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1 numbers represents the highest energy of
(iii) 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p (iv) 1s2, 2s2 2p6,3s2 3p3
2 2 6 2 2 orbital?
Which of these is expected to have the highest (1) n = 3,  = 1, m = 1, s = +½
second ionization enthalpy ? (2) n = 3,  = 2, m = 1, s = +½
(1) (i) (2) (ii) (3) n = 4,  = 0, m = 0, s = +½
(3) (iii) (4) (iv)
(4) n = 3,  = 0, m = 0, s = +½
59. The ionic radius of Cr is minimum in which of the
following compounds ? 67. The outer electron configuration of Gd (1tomic
(1) CrF3 (2) CrCl3 N : 64) is -
(3) Cr2O3 (4) K2CrO4 (1) 4f3 5d5 6s2 (2) 4f8 5d0 6s2
(3) 4f4 5d4 6s2 (4) 4f7 5d1 6s2
60. Considering the elements B, C, N, F and Si, the
correct order of their non-metallic character is 68. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n
(1) B > C > Si > N > F and l :
(2) Si > C > B > N > F (1) n = 4, l = 1 (2) n = 4, l = 0
(3) F > N > C > B > Si (3) n = 3, l = 2 (4) n = 3 = l = 1
(4) F > N > C > Si > B

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 can be placed in order of increasing energy as 74. A, B and C are hydroxy-compounds of the
(1) (2) < (4) < (1) < (3) (2) (1) < (3) < (2) < (4) elements X, Y and Z respectively. X, Y and Z are
(3) (3) < (4) < (2) < (1) (4) (4) < (2) < (3) < (1) in the same period of the periodic table. A gives
an aqueous solution of pH less than seven. B
69. Which of the following is violation of Pauli’s reacts with both strong acids and strong alkalis. C
gives an aqueous solution which is strongly alkaline
exclusion principle ?
Which of the following statements is/are true:
(1) I : The three elements are metals
II : The electronegativities decrease from X to
(2) Y to Z.
III : The atomic radius decreases in the order
(3) X, Y and Z.
IV : X, Y and Z could be phosphorus,
(4)
aluminium and sodium respectively :
(1) I, II, III only correct
70. The quantum numbers +1/2 and –1/2 for the (2) I, III only correct
electron spin represent (3) II, IV only correct
(1) rotation of the electron in clockwise and (4) II, III, IV only correct
anticlockwise direction respectively 75. & are
(2) rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and
(1) Tautomers (2) Functional
clockwise direction respectively (3) Position (4) All the above
(3) magnetic moment of the electron pointing up
and down respectively 76. Which pair of the following is not an example of
(4) two quantum mechanical spin states which position isomerism :
have no classical analogue (1) Ethylene chloride and ethylidene chloride
(2) n-Propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol
71. Which of the following statement is not true? (3) n-Pentane and isopentane
(1) F atom can hold additional electron more tightly (4) n-butyl alcohol and sec butyl alcohol.
than Cl atom
(2) Cl atom can hold additional electron more 77. The following are metamers of ethyl acetate
tightly than F atom except :
(3) The incoming electron encounters greater
(1) methyl propanoate (2) methyl acetate
repulsion for F atom than for Cl atom
(3) isopropyl formate (4) propyl formate
(4) It is easier to remove an electron from F¯
than Cl¯.
78. Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name
72. The first (IE1) and second (IE2) ionization energies is 3–Ethyl-2-hydroxy–4–methylhex–3–en–5–
(kJ/mol) of a few elements designated by Roman ynoic acid is :
numerals are given below. Which of these would
be an alkali metal ?
IE1 IE2 (1)
(1) I 2372 5251
(2) II 520 7300
(3) III 900 1760
(4) IV 1680 3380 (2)

73. M(g)   M+(g) + e–, H = 100 eV

M(g)   M2+(g) + 2e–, H = 250 eV
Which is incorrect statement ? (3)
(1) IE1 of M(g) is 100 eV
(2) IE1 of M+(g) is 150 eV
(3) IE2 of M(g) is 250 eV
(4) IE2 of M(g) is 150 eV (4)

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79. Which of the following compound is wrongly (3) s-Butyl group –CH–CH2–CH3
named? |
CH3
(1) CH CH CH CHCOOH ; 2-Chloro
3 2 2
pentanoic acid (4) Ethylene chloride CH2Cl –CH2Cl
|
Cl
84. Select the pair of chain isomers.
COOH
(2) CH 3C  CCHCOOH ; 2-Methyl hex-3-enoic (1) COOH
and
| acid
CH 3 OH
(2) OH
and
(3) CH3CH2CH=CHCOCH3 ; Hex-3-en-2-one Et
(3) and Et
(4) CH 3  CHCH 2CH 2CHO ; 4-Methyl pentanal
| NH2
CH 3 (4) N
and

85. Which of the following has incorrect relation

80. Me
Pr Pr
(1) & identical
The IUPAC name of the above structure is : Me
(1) 2, 4, 5 - Triethyl-3-nonene
Me Et
(2) 5, 6 - Diethyl -3- methyl -4-decene
(2) & positional isomers
(3) 2, 4, 5 - Triethyl -3- octene Pr Pr
(4) 3 - Heptyl - 5- methyl-3- heptene
Et Et
(3) & positional isomers
81. The IUPAC name of following polyfunctional Pr
compound is - Pr
Me
Me
Et
(4) & homologues
Pr

(1) 2,4-dioxo cyclohexanoic acid

HO O
(2) 2,4-dioxo cycloheptanoic acid
(3) 4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexane-1carboxylic acid C—O
86. and
(4) 2,4-dioxo cyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
Cl
82. The IUPAC name of
Cl O
is -
C—O OH are
(1) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl-5-methyl hept-5-en-1-yne
(2) 5-methyl-4-ethyl-6-chloro-5-hepten-1-yne (1) Functional isomers
(3) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl-5-methyl-1-hepten-5-yne (2) Metamers
(4) 2-Chloro-4-ethyl-methyl-6-hepten-2-ene (3) Positional isomers
(4) Chain isomers
83. Which of the following is not correctly matched:
(1) Acetonitrile CH2 = CHCN
(2) Allyl chloride CH2 = CH – CH2Cl

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87. The formation of the oxide ion O2–(g) requires first 92. Sphincter of oddi is present in -
an exothermic and then an endothermic step as (1) Common bile duct
shown below : (2) Pancreatic duct
O(g) + e– = O–(g) ; H° = – 142 kJmol–1 (3) Hepatopancreatic duct
O– (g) + e– = O2– (g) ; H° = 844 kJmol–1 (4) Hepatic duct

This is because : 93. Read the following statements -

(1) oxygen is more electronegative. (1) The opening of the stomach into the
(2) oxygen has high electron affinity. duodenum is guarded by cardiac sphincter
(3) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of another (2) Small intenstine is divided into 3 regions, a
electron. U-shaped duodenum a long colied middle
(4) O– ion has comparatively larger size than portion ileum and highly colied jejunum
oxygen atom. (3) The stomach is located in the upper rigth
portion of abdominon cavity
(4) The oral leads on to pharnx which serves as
88. CH3CH2 CH2CH2OH common passage for food and air
I How many statements are not correct -
OH (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) All
CH3CH2CHCH3 CH3CCH3
94. The propenzyme pesiongen is converted into
OH CH3 active enzyme pepsi by the secretion of -
II III (1) Goblet cells (2) Peptic cells
Among these, III is the chain isomer of (3) Chief cells (4) Parietal cells
(1) I only (2) II only
(3) both I and II (4) none of these 95. Find out the incorrect statement -
(1) Fats are broken down by lipase and with the
89. The number of structural isomers possible from help of bile into di-and monosaccharides
the molecular formula C2H2FClBrI is (2) Mucus along with the biacarbonate from the
(1) 5 (2) 6 pancrease protects the intestinal mucosa
(3) 7 (4) 8 from acid as well as provide alkanile
medium
90. The number of esters possible from molecular (3) Polysaccharide like starch is hydrolysed by
formula C5H10O2 is pancreatic amylase into dissacharides
(1) 5 (2) 6 (4) Nucleses in pancreatic juice acts on nucleic
(3) 8 (4) 9 acids to from nucleotides and nucleosides
96. Which of the following is the correct labelling
PART-III for the diagram-
BIOLOGY
This section contains 90 multiple choice
questions numbered 91 to 180. Each question
has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

91. In the wall of alimentary canal, the muscularis is

formed by -
(1) Smooth muscles usually arranged into an
outer circular and inner longitudinal layer (1) A-Cystic duct, B-Hepatic duct, C -
(2) Smooth muscles usually arranged into an Duodenum, D-Hepatopancreatic duct
inner circular and outer longitudinal layer (2) A-Common bile duct, B-Hepatopancreatic
(3) Striated muscles ususally arranged into an duct, C - Jejunum, D-Pancreatic duct
outer circular and inner longitduinal layer (3) A-Duct of gall bladder, B-Common bile, C -
(4) Striated muscles ususally arranged into an
Duodenum, D-Hepatopancreatic duct
inner circular and outer longitduinal layer
(4) A-Cystic duct, B-Cmmon bile duct, C -
Jejunum, D-Pancreatic duct

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97. Which of the following statements is not correct (3) Fat  Fatty acids and glycerol 
for liver of human - Chylomicron Micelle  Lymph capillaries
(1) It is situated in the abdominal cavity, just
(4) Fat  Fatty acids and glycerol  Micelle
below the diaphagm
 Chylomicron  Lymph capillaries
(2) The hepatic lobules are the structural and
functional units of liver 101. Biochemical resemblances are used in the
(3) Each hepatic lobule is covered by a thin identification of :
connective tissue sheath called the Glisson's (1) Protistan species
capsule (2) Moneran species
(3) Fungal species
(4) The bile secreted by the hepatic cells passes
(4) Higher plants
through the hepatic ducts and is stored and
dilluted in gall bladder 102. Which of the bacteria are autotrops
(1) Pathogenic
(2) Saprophytic
98. Read the following statements (A to D) -
(3) Denitrifying
(1) Principal organ of digestion and absorption of (4) Chemosynthetic
nutrients is small intestine.
(2) Absorption of water, some minerals and 103. Camel, Cattle, shee & goats can digest cellulose
durgs takes place in large intestine. by virtue of
(1) Their enzyme
(3) Absorption of water, simple sugars and
(2) Symbiotic E. coli
alcohols takes place in stomach. (3) Symbiotic bacteria & protozoa
(4) Certain drugs come in contact with the (4) Symbiotic virus & nematods
mucosa of oral cavity are absorbed into
104. Bacteria responsible for nitrification comes under
blood capillaries.
(1) Coccus (2) Vibrio
How many statements are correct - (3) Bacillus (4) Spirilla
(1) One (2) Two
105. When pathogenic Streptococcus is kept with
(3) Three (4) All non-pathogenic strain of Streptococus patho
genicity is transfered without the agency of
99. Match the column - I with column - II. virus of visual contact this Phenomena is termed
(1) Tranduction (2) Transformation
Column - I Column - II (3) Conjugation (4) Sex duction
(i) Vomiting (1)Inadequate enzyme secretion
106. What is the agent of transformation in bacteria
(ii) Diarrhoea (2) Irregular bowel moment (1) DNA (2) RNA
(iii) Constipation (3) Increased liquidity of faecal (3) Protein (4) Murein
discharge
107. Under optimal conditions of temperature and
(iv) Indigestion (4) A feeling of nausea nutrition, most of the bacteria divide at an interval
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d of :
(1) 24 Hrs (2) 20 minutes
(2) i-d, ii-b, iii-b, iv-a
(3) 60 minutes (4) 5 minutes
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
108. Which is the most resistant structure in bacteria
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(1) Endospore (2) Cyst
(3) Conidia (4) Gonidia
100. Which of the following is the correct sequence
109. Asexual reproduction in bacteria does not occurs
of digestion and absorption of fats -
by :
(1) Fats  Fatty acids and glycerol  Micelle (1) Conidia formation
 Chylomicron  Blood capillaries (2) Cyst formation
(3) Endospore formation
(2) Fats  Fatty acid and glycerol  (4)All of above
Chylomicron  Micelle  Lymph capillaries

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110. Kingdom of unicellular eucaryotes : (1) A single gamete without fertilization
(1) Monera (2) Protista (2) Fertilization of female gamete with female
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae gamete
(3) Fertilization of male gamete with male gamete
111. Who among the following proposed a (4) Vegetative structure.
classification in which plants with one stamen
were placed under the class Monandria, with 120. Reproduction which does not involve gametic union
two in Diandria and with many stamens in is
polyandria– (1) Parasexual reproduction.
(1) Hutchinson (2) Apomixis
(2) Bentham and Hooker (3) Parthenogenesis
(3) Cronquist (4) Agamospermy
(4) Linnaeus
121. Vegetative propagation through budding occurs in
112. Sequence of which of the following is used to (1) Rose (2) Agave
know the phylogeny– (3) Yeast (4) Ginger
(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA
(3) t-RNA (4) DNA 122. Binary fission is a regular mode of multiplication
in
113. In five kingdom system, the main basis of (1) Yeast (2) Bacteria
classification : (3) Marchantia (4) Mosses
(1) Structure of nucleus
(2) Nutrition 123. Onion is propagated through its
(3) Structure of cell wall (1) Tubers (2) Bulbs
(4) Asexual reproduction (3) Seeds (4) Rhizomes

114. According to Whittaker kingdom monera includes : 124. Bulbils are employed for multiplication of
(1) Unicellular eukaryotes (1) Bryophyllum (2) Crocus
(2) Prokaryotes & akaryotes (3) Agave (4) Strawberry
(3) Slime molds & protozoa 125. Leaf tips help in vegetative propagation in
(4) Multicellular & eukaryotes (1) Begonia
115. According to latest view the “Red algae” belongs to: (2) Bryophyllum
(1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Sensevieria
(3) Plantae (4) Animalia (4) Adiantum caudatum

126. Bryophyllum diagremontianum is characterised by

116. Linnaeus proposed an outline of plant the formation of
classification in : (1) Plantlets in leaf notches while attached to plant
(1) Genera Plantarum (2) Species Plantarum (2) Plantlets from marginal notches when the leaf
(3) Systema Naturae (4) Philosophia Botanica falls on the ground
117. Apomixis is (3) Buds in the marginal notches of leaves
(1) Development of plants in darkness (4) Plantlets on the leaves in the region of injury.
(2) Development of plants without fusion of 127. Corm is used as a means of vegetative
gametes multiplicaiton in
(3) Inability of perceive stimulus for flowering. (1) Ginger (2) Gladiolus
(4) Effect of low temperature on plant growth. (3) Banana (4) Pineapple
118. Amphimixis is development of an organism 128. Banana is multiplied by means of
obtained through. (1) Seeds (2) Leaf cuttings
(1) Apospory (3) Rhizome (4) Offsets
(2) Apogamy
(3) Fusion of gametes 129. In grafting, scion forms
(4) Without fusion of gametes. (1) Shoot system (2) Root system
(3) New plant (4) Hybrid plant
119. Parthenogenesis is development of new individual
from

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130. Vegetatively propagated plants 139. Cyanobacteria belong to monera because of their-
(1) Show adaptive variations (1) Cell structure
(2) Better fitted in the struggle for existence (2) Blue-green pigment
(3) Stouter than parents (3) Non-motile nature
(4) Clone of their parent. (4) N2 fixing ability

131. Clone is 140. A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme

(1) Descendants of a single parent level of heat, dryness and toxic chemicals. This
(2) Vegetatively produced descendants of a single indicates that it is able to form -
parent. (1) Endotoxin
(3) Sexually produced descendants of a single (2) Endospore
couple. (3) A thick walled spore with peptidoglycan wall
(4) All the above (4) Endogenous bud

132. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella differ in - 141. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria as they
(1) Structure and functioning lack -
(2) Type of movement (1) Proteins
(3) Location and mode of functioning (2) Polysaccharides
(4) Microtubular organization (3) Glycoproteins
(4) Peptidoglycans
133. DNA of E. coli is-
(1) Double stranded and circular 142. Which statement depicts incorrect characteristic
(2) Single stranded and circular of cyanobacteria?
(3) Double stranded and linear (1) These have chlorophyll as similar to green
(4) Single stranded and linear plants.
(2) These are unicellular, colonial or filamentous
134. Characteristic pigment of cyanobacteria is- in form.
(1) Chlorophyll a and c (3) Motile specialized cells "heterocysts" are
(2) fucoxanthin present which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
(3) Phycocyanin (4) These form water bloom in polluted water
(4) Chlorophyll a and d bodies.

135. Cell wall is made up of polysaccharides and amino 143. On the basis of …………, the protists are grouped
acids and mode of nutrition is autotrophic as well as photosynthetic algae, slime moulds and
as heterotrophic. protozoans.
These attributes are shown by kingdom - (1) Complexity of cells
(1) Monera (2) Protista (2) Complexity of organisms
(3) Plantae (4) Fungi (3) Mode of nutrition
(4) All are correct
136. Which among the following statement is true for
mycoplasma? 144. Which of the following macromolecule can be
(1) Presence of cell wall found in the slimy capsule surrounding some
(2) Presence of nucleus bacterial cells?
(3) Definite shape (1) Proteins
(4) Can survive without oxygen (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Proteins and polysaccharides
137. Cyanobacteria differ from bacteria as these- (4) Nucelic acids and polysaccharides
(1) Produce oxygen in photosynthesis.
(2) Exhibit sort of sexual reproduction. 145. The digestive tracts of ruminate contain -
(3) Do not have membrane bound cell organelles. (1) Halophilic bacteria
(4) Have circular double stranded DNA. (2) Thermoacidiophilic bacteria
(3) Methanobacteria
138. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the (4) Mycoplasma
group-
(1) Monera (2) Fungi
(3) Plantae (4) Animalia

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146. Lichen are - (4) Initially lytic then lysogenic
(1) Slowest growing plants of nature
(2) Air pollution indicator 155. Which is present in cell wall of bacteria?
(3) Shows sexual and asexual reproduction both (1) N-acetyl phenylamine
(4) All correct (2) N-phenyl glucosamine
(3) N-acetyl glucosamine
147. A bacterial cell undergoes binary fission in every (4) Glycoproteins
twenty minutes. Starting with a single bacterium
how many bacteria will be formed at the end of 3 156. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t. the given BGA?
hours? (1) It produces oxygen during photosynthesis.
(1) 128 (2) 256 (2) It has dual function as photosynthesis along
(3) 512 (4) 1024 with nitrogen fixation.
(3) Mucilage sheath is present in the place of cell
148. The somatic phase of slime moulds lacks - wall.
(1) Cell wall (2) Nucleus (4) It contains specialized cells called heterocysts.
(3) Cytoplasm (4) both (1) and (3)
157. Photosynthetic bacteria have -
149. The soil which is used in polishing, filtration of oils (1) Chlroplasts
and syrups are made of - (2) Chromoplasts
(1) Cellulosic plates on surfaces of dinoflagellates (3) Chromatophores
(2) Cell wall of chrysophytes (4) Leucoplasts
(3) Cell body of desmids
(4) Extremely resistant spores of slime moulds 158. Plasmids are -
(1) Small coils of DNA
150. Red tide is caused by- (2) Small coils of RNA
(1) Gonyaulax (2) Trypanosoma (3) Small particle of RNA and proteins
(3) Entamoeba (4) Desmids (4) Small photosynthetic particles of bacteria

151. Select the correct statements w.r.t. characteristics 159. All life forms on earth derive their energy directly
of certain organism. or indirectly from sun, except-
(1) Methanogens are archaebacteria which (1) Fungi and slime moulds
produce methane in marshy areas. (2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(2) Nostoc is a filamentous green algae which fixes (3) Symbiotic bacteria
atmospheric nitrogen. (4) Cyanobacteria
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize
cellulose from glucose. 160. The main difference between Gram (+)ve and
(4) Mycoplasma lack cell wall and can survive Gram (-)ve bacteria is of -
without oxygen. (1) Cell wall
Options (2) Composition of protoplasm
(1) (1),(2),(3) & (4) (3) Genophore
(2) (1), (2) and (4) (4) Plasmids
(3) (3) & (4)
(4) (1) & (4) 161. Bacterial genome is generally called genophore
due to -
152. Which among the following organism plays a great (1) Presence of plasmids
role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, (2) Presence of only one chromosome
phosphorous, iron and sulphur? (3) Absence of histone protein
(1) Archaebacteria (4) Presence of episomes
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycoplasma 162. Which among the following category of bacteria
(4) Chemosynthetic bacteria is incorrect w.r.t. their shape?
(1) Spherical: coccus
153. The life cycle of HIV is - (2) Rod shaped bacillus
(1) Lysogenic (3) Fibre shaped: vibrium
(2) Initially lysogenic then lytic (4) Spiral: spirillum
(3) Lytic

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163. The function of mesosome is - (4) Fungi are strictly asexual, and plants undergo
(1) Respiration sexual reproduction.
(2) Equal distribution of genetic material
(3) Both (1) and (2) 173. Fungi obtain nutrients through _____.
(4) Synthesis of food (1) Chemosynthesis (2) Photosynthesis
(3) Absorption (4) All of above
164. Bacteria are different from fungal groups in one
of the following features : 174. The body of most fungi consists of threadlike
(1) Cell wall of fungal cellulose _____, which form a network called a _____.
(2) Heterotrophic nutrition (1) mycelia ... dikaryon (2) hyphae ... chytrid
(3) Brinary fission (3) mycelia ... hypha (4) hyphae ... mycelium
(4) Presence of chromtophores
175. Fungi have cell walls made of _____.
165. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles (1) chitin (2) cellulose
eukaryotic cell is - (3) peptidoglycan (4) amylopectin
(1) Cell wall (2) Plasma membrane
(3) Nucleus (4) Ribosomes 176. Fungi cannot make their own food, and they
cannot move. How do they obtain nutrition once
166. Monera devoid of cell wall are - they have exhausted their food source?
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Mycoplasma (1) They produce huge numbers of thick-walled
(3) Eubacteria (4) Actinomycetes tiny spores.
(2) They grow rapidly.
167. Bacteria are considered as plants because they - (3) They produce huge numbers of spores, and
(1) Are green in colour they grow rapidly.
(2) Have rigid cell wall. (4) They produce huge numbers of spores, they
(3) Have chlorophyll a. grow rapidly, and they poison anything nearby.
(4) Have similar cell membrane structure as plants.
177. The diploid phase of the life cycle is shortest in
168. Bacteria do not have - which of the following -
(1) Protein synthesizing apparatus (1) angiosperm (2) fungus
(2) Cell wall (3) fern (4) gymnosperm
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Chloroplast 178. Fungi are classified on the basis of _____.
(1) their source of food
169. Which of the following is not prokaryote? (2) their sexual stage
(1) Chlorobium (2) Rhodospirillium (3) their commercial use
(3) Nostoc (4) Gonyaulax (4) the number of nuclei that are found in a
dikaryon
170. Ascospores and conidia are _______ and
_______ respectively, in origin 179. Fungi of the phylum Ascomycetes are recognized
(1) endogenous and exogenous on the basis of their production of _____ during
(2) exogenous and endogenous sexual reproduction.
(3) haploid and diploid (1) saclike structures
(4) diploid and haploid (2) lichens
(3) a dikaryotic structure
171. Fungus without any mycelium is (4) flagellated zoospores
(1) Albugo (2) Agaricus
(3) Puccinia (4) Saccharomyces 180. From the human perspective, which of the
following kinds of fungi would be considered the
172. Which of the following is a difference between least useful or beneficial?
plants and fungi? (1) yeasts (2) rusts
(1) Plants have diploid and haploid phases, and (3) truffles (4) decomposers
fungi have only haploid stages.
(2) Fungi have cell walls.
(3) Fungi are heterotrophic, and plants are
autotrophic.

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