Aristo Mock Paper 07 Paper 1+2+ans

HKDSE BIOLOGY: Connecting Concepts
Mock Exam (January 2020)
BIOLOGY PAPER 1
Time allowed: 2 hours 30 minutes

This paper must be answered in English.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are TWO sections, A and B, in this Paper. You are advised to finish Section A in about 35
minutes.
2. Section A consists of multiple-choice questions in this question paper. Section B contains

conventional questions printed separately in Question-Answer Book B.
3. Answers to Section A should be marked on the Multiple-choice Answer Sheet while answers to
Section B should be written in the spaces provided in Question-Answer Book B. The Answer
Sheet for Section A and the Question-Answer Book B for Section B will be collected
separately at the end of the examination.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Read carefully the instructions on the Answer Sheet. After the announcement of the start of the
examination, you should fill in the information required in the space provided. No extra time will be
given for filling in the required information after the ‘Time is up’ announcement.
2. When told to open this book, you should check that all the questions are there. Look for the words
‘END OF SECTION A’ after the last question.
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. You are advised to use an HB pencil to mark all the answers on the
Answer Sheet, so that wrong marks can be completely erased with a clean rubber. You must mark
the answers clearly; otherwise you will lose marks if the answers cannot be captured.
5. You should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you mark more than one answer, you will
receive NO MARKS for that question.
6. No marks will be deducted for wrong answers.
Not to be taken away before

the end of the examination
2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 1 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

SECTION A (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS)
There are 36 questions in this section.

The diagrams in this section are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
1. Which of the following molecules always contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen?
(1) DNA
(2) protein
(3) fat
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
2. The diagram below shows a section of a plasma membrane.
The structure labelled “N” is a
A. glycoprotein.
B. cholesterol.
C. channel protein.
D. phospholipid.
3. Which of the following is a role of the glycoproteins on animal cell membranes?
A. as additional energy reserves

B. as markers for cell recognition
C. increase membrane fluidity
D. enable water uptake by osmosis

4. The diagram below shows a set-up designed to investigate osmosis using a potato. The cavity
made in the potato is partly filled with 5% maltose solution. The whole potato was peeled, boiled
and then immersed partly in a container containing 20% maltose solution.
5% maltose solution
potato
20% maltose solution
The level of maltose solution inside the cavity remains the same after 20 hours. Which of the
following is a possible explanation?
A. Water moves into the potato cells and out at the same rate by osmosis.
B. Maltose diffuses from the 20% maltose solution into the cavity.
C. The cells of the potato become impermeable to water after boiling.
D. The cell membrane of the potato is destroyed after boiling and the whole potato
become fully permeable.
5. An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on enzyme activity. The
graph below shows the results.
Rate of
reaction
0 35 45 50
Temperature (oC)
Which of the following combinations correctly describes the enzyme activity at different
temperatures?
Temperature Description
A. 0 oC Most enzymes are denatured
o
B. 35 C Some enzymes are inactive
o
C. 45 C All enyzmes are inactive
o
D. 50 C All enyzmes are denatured

Directions: Questions 6 and 7 refer to the graph below, which shows the mass of product resulting
from an enzymatic reaction.
r s t u
16
Mass of product (mg)

12
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
Time (s)
6. What is the initial rate of the reaction?
A. 0.6 mg s-1
B. 0.8 mg s-1
C. 0.95 mg s-1
D. 1.8 mg s-1
7. To study the effect of enzyme concentration on the rate of the enzymatic reaction, which of the
following would be the best time period for the measurement?
A. period r B. period s
C. period t D. period u
8. The table below shows the results of food tests carried out on a food sample.
Using DCPIP
Test Iodine test Benedict’s test Grease spot test
solution
Result Negative Positive Positive Negative
The food sample contains
A. vitamin C and starch.

B. vitamin C and reducing sugar.
C. fat and starch.
D. fat and reducing sugar.

9. A student adds oil to water. He then puts drops of the mixture onto a microscope slide. The
diagram below shows oil droplets floating on the water, as seen using a microscope.
The student then adds different solutions to three separate samples of oil droplets floating on the
water. Diagrams X, Y and Z show the possible appearance of the oil droplets after each solution
is added.
X Y Z
Which of the following is a possible combination of the solutions added to the oil droplets in
diagram X, Y and Z respectively?
X Y Z
A. bile and protease lipase bile
B. lipase boiled bile protease
C. boiled lipase bile protease
D. boiled bile bile boiled lipase
10. Which of the following mechanisms is mainly used in the transport of fat through the epithelial
cells of the small intestine?
A. diffusion
B. active transport
C. phagocytosis
D. exocytosis

11. Gas exchange in humans takes place in the lungs. Various features in the lungs help gas exchange
by different mechanisms. Which of the following combinations is correct?
Feature Mechanism
A. numerous air sacs provide a short distance for diffusion
B. water film lining air sacs increases the surface area for diffusion
C. blood flow in capillaries maintains a steep concentration gradient of
gases between the blood and air sacs
D. thin walls of air sacs allow gases to dissolve
Directions: Questions 12 and 13 refer to the diagram below, which shows a human heart and its
main blood vessels.
12. Which of the following blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood?
A. P and Q
B. P and R
C. S and Q
D. S and R
13. Which of the following blood vessels receives blood with nicotine first when a person is
smoking?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S

Directions: Questions 14 and 15 refer to the diagram below, which shows an experimental set-up
prepared by a student to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of
transpiration.
graduated glass tube
leafy shoot
conical flask
water
14. The student began his first trial run at 15 oC. He found that the movement of the water level in the
graduated glass tube was only 3 mm after waiting for 1 hour. He decided to modify the set up so that
greater movement of the water level can be observed. What should he do?
(1) use a narrower graduated glass tube

(2) use a shoot with more leaves
(3) use a larger conical flask
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
15. Which of the following steps are necessary when preparing the set-up?
(1) Vaseline should be applied at the contact point the leafy shoot and the stopper holding it.
(2) The leafy shoot should be placed in dark for 48 hours.
(3) The stem of the leafy shoot should be cut under water.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

16. During which stage of the cell cycle will there be a decrease in the surface area to volume ratio
of a cell?
A. anaphase
B. telophase
C. cytokinesis
D. interphase
17. Which of the following statements about meiotic cell division is correct?
A. One nuclear division is involved in the process of meiotic cell division.

B. Cells are produced for growth in the process of meiotic cell division.
C. Only gametes are produced in the process of meiotic cell division.
D. Diploid cells are produced in the process of meiotic cell division.
18. The sketch of a photomicrograph below shows some stages of meiosis taking place in the testis
of a grasshopper.
region X
centromere
What process appears to be taking place at region X?
A. separation of sister chromatids

B. crossing over
C. formation of spindle fibres
D. duplication of chromosome
19. At which stage of meiosis may crossing over occur?
A. interphase
B. metaphase I
C. metaphase II
D. cytokinesis

20. The diagram below shows a section of the eye of a person with a type of eye defect.
part of retina detached

from the choroid
yellow spot
Which of the following descriptions about the above situation is/are correct?
(1) Light sensitive cells on the detached part of the retina will die as they cannot receive
oxygen from the choroid.
(2) The person will no longer have colour vision.
(3) No image will be formed on the detached part of the retina.
A. (1) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
21. Which of the following structures will vibrate when there are sound waves?
(1) eardrum
(2) ear bones
(3) oval window
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

22. The diagram below shows a cross section of a spinal cord. A student thinks about a question and
then raises his hand to ask the question. Which part(s) of the spinal cord will the nerve impulses
pass through to cause the action?
X
Y
A. X only
B. X and Y only
C. Y and Z only
D. X, Y and Z
23. Interneurones can be found in
(1) the brain

(2) the spinal cord
(3) the muscles
A. (2) only
B. (1) and (2) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)
24. A food chain is shown below.
unicellular alga  microscopic animal  shrimp
How is it possible for the food chain to continue to exist if the total biomass of unicellular algae
is smaller than that of microscopic animals?
A. The unicellular algae exist in greater number than the microscopic animals.
B. The shrimps feed not only on microscopic animals.
C. The unicellular algae have a higher reproductive rate than the microscopic animals.
D. Other animals eat the unicellular algae.

25. Radioactive CO2 was given to a plant exposed to light for 24 hours. A section of the root was
tested for radioactivity. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the areas that were
tested positive for radioactivity?
A. B.
C. D.
Key:
positive for
radioactivity
26. From which of the following molecules is the second carbon dioxide molecule released during
aerobic respiration?
A. 3-C compound
B. 6-C compound
C. pyruvate
D. Acetyl-CoA
27. ATPs required by the red blood cells are synthesized by
A. oxidative phosphorylation of other cells.

B. oxidative phosphorylation of red blood cells.
C. anaerobic glycolysis inside other cells.
D. anaerobic glycolysis inside red blood cells.

Directions: Questions 28 and 29 refer to the following experimental set-up.
ballon
25 % glucose
solution with 50 % glucose
1 g of yeast solution with
1 g of yeast
water (25 oC) water (40 oC)
at the beginning of the experiment
25 % glucose 50 % glucose
solution with solution with
1 g of yeast 1 g of yeast
water (25 oC) water (40 oC)
at the end of the experiment
28. What is the gas that caused inflation of the balloon?
A. oxygen B. nitrogen
C. carbon dioxide D. carbon monoxide
29. What conclusion can be drawn from the results of the experiment?
A. Anaerobic respiration is carried out faster at a higher temperature.

B. Aerobic respiration is carried out faster at a higher temperature.
C. Anaerobic respiration is carried out faster at a higher concentration of glucose
solution.
D. No valid conclusion can be drawn.
30. Which of the following organs are used for excretion?
A. stomach and liver

B. skin and pancreas
C. brain and kidney
D. lungs and skin

31. Dengue fever is spread by mosquitoes. Which of the following measures is not effective in reducing
the incidence of dengue fever?
A. reduced cost of vaccines for dengue fever

B. clearance of standing water
C. cook raw food thoroughly
D. wear long sleeve clothes
32. Which of the following statements about antibiotics and antibodies are correct?
A. They can disintegrate viruses.

B. They can kill certain bacteria.
C. They can engulf certain pathogens.
D. They are produced by plasma cells.
33. Cystic fibrosis is carried by a recessive allele on chromosome 7. A woman who has one recessive
allele for cystic fibrosis has children with a man who has also one recessive allele for cystic fibrosis.
What are the chances of their child being a boy having cystic fibrosis?
A. 12.5%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
34. What is the number of chromosomes in a human gamete that may cause Down’s syndrome?
A. 23
B. 24
C. 45
D. 46
35. Which of the following correctly compares transcription and translation?
Transcription Translation
A. uses a mRNA molecule as the template uses a DNA molecule as the template
B. requires ribosomes requires no ribosomes
C. occurs in the nucleus occurs in the cytoplasm
D. products will be transported out of the products will be transported out of the
cell nucleus

36. If the coding strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence –CGATTCCCTTAG-, the mRNA
strand would be
A. -CGATTCGGTTAA-.
B. -GCTAAGGGAATC-.
C. -CGAUUCCCUUAG-.
D. -GCUAAGCCAATU-.
END OF SECTION A
Go on to Question-Answer Book B for questions on Section B

B Name
Class
HKDSE BIOLOGY:
Class number
Connecting Concepts
BIOLOGY PAPER 1
SECTION B: Question-Answer Book B
This paper must be answered in English
INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION B Teacher’s
(1) After the announcement of the start of the Use Only

examination, you should first write your name, class Question No. Marks
and class number on this page.
1
(2) Refer to the general instructions on the cover of the
2
Question Paper for Section A.
3
(3) Answer ALL questions.
4
(4) Write your answers in the spaces provided in this
Question-Answer Book. Do not write in the margins. 5
Answers written in the margins will not be marked.
6
(5) Supplementary answer sheets will be provided on
7
request. Write your name, class and class number; fill
in the question number on each sheet, and fasten 8
them with string INSIDE this Question-Answer Book.
9
(6) Present your answers in paragraphs wherever
10
appropriate.
Total
(7) The diagrams in this section are NOT necessarily
drawn to scale.
(8) No extra time will be given to you for filling in your

name, class and class number after the ‘Time is up’
announcement.
2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1B 1 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

Page total
SECTION B
Answer ALL questions. Put your answers in the spaces provided.
1. (a) Select from Column II all correct example(s) that belong(s) to the two types of glands in
Column I and put the letter(s) in the spaces provided. (2 marks)
Column I Column II
(i) endocrine gland A. salivary gland
(ii) exocrine gland B. pancreas
C. heart
D. skin
E. gastric gland

(b) State one difference between endocrine glands and exocrine glands. (2 marks)

Page total
2. Yeast and Euglena are single-celled organisms. The diagrams below show the structure of these
organisms.
A E
F
C
B
G

Yeast Euglena
(a) (i) State two main chemical components that make up structure F. (2 marks)
(ii) Using the letters given in the diagram, state where transcription and translation take
place. (2 marks)
(b) Give one evidence from the diagram that supports the following statement. (1 mark)
Yeast cells produce enzymes.

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(c) What is the importance of structure A to yeast? (1 mark)
(d) Euglena is a freshwater organism. How can it carry out photosynthesis efficiently? Explain
your answer based on the diagram. (2 marks)


Page total
3. The graph below shows the change in air pressure in the lungs of a man when he was at rest. The
atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg.
Air pressure in the lungs
762
(mm Hg)
760
Time
758
P Q R S T

(a) State the period of time during which the man was breathing out air. Explain your answer.
(2 marks)
(b) Describe the breathing actions that brought about the air movements in the period of time
in (a). (3 marks)

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(c) At which point of time on the graph is the volume of the lungs the largest? (1 mark)
(d) Describe two ways how the human body deals with the bacteria and dust particles in the
incoming air during inhalation. (2 marks)


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4. The photomicrograph below shows some cells of a human blood smear.
Q
P
(a) Name cell types P and Q. (2 marks)

P: Q:
(b) Explain why the central part of cell type Q looks lighter in colour. How is this
characteristic related to its function? (4 marks)
(c) With reference to the role of cell type P in human body, account for the change in the
amount of cell type P at a wound. (2 marks)

Page total
5. An investigation was carried out to study the digestion of lipids by two kinds of digestive juices,
X and Y. Reaction mixtures were put into different flasks and the pH values of the mixtures were
measured using a pH indicator. The results are shown in the following table.
pH after
Flask Content of reaction mixture
20 minutes
A 2 cm3 of oil + 2 cm3 of X + 2 cm3 of Y + 2 drops of pH indicator 5
2 cm3 of oil + 2 cm3 of X + 2 cm3 of distilled water

B 7
+ 2 drops of pH indicator
2 cm3 of oil + 2 cm3 of Y + 2 cm3 of distilled water
C 6.5
+ 2 drops of pH indicator
D 2 cm3 of oil + 4 cm3 of distilled water + 2 drops of pH indicator 7

(a) Digestion of lipids causes the pH value of the reaction mixture to drop. Explain why.
(1 mark)
(b) State which digestive juice contains enzymes. Explain your answer. (3 marks)
(c) State how the presence of X affects the ability of Y to digest lipids. (1 mark)

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(d) (i) X caused an observable effect to the oil in flasks A and B. Name this effect. (1 mark)
(ii) State the importance of this effect in the digestion of lipids. (2 marks)


Page total
6. Figure 1 shows the testis and its associated structures. Figure 2 shows the photomicrograph of a
section of a certain structure shown in Figure 1.
section C
section A
section B

Figure 1
Figure 2
(a) Which section (A, B or C) is shown in Figure 2? Name the structure. (2 marks)

Page total
(b) (i) Sperms will mix with seminal fluid to form a mixture. Name the mixture. (1 mark)
(ii) Describe how the fluid is transported from a man to a woman. (3 marks)
(c) Using the letters provided, in which part in Figure 2 are sperms produced? (1 mark)

(d) Suggest one cause that may make a male infertile. (1 mark)

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7. The pictures below show five different organisms.
A B

C D

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(a) Name the kingdom that D and E each belongs to. (2 marks)
D: E:
(b) What is the difference between the cell wall of C and that of plant cells? (1 mark)
(c) Explain the role of C in the cycling of materials in a forest. (2 marks)

(d) B consumes more food per unit mass every day when compared with A. Suggest an
explanation for this. (4 marks)

Page total
8. Scientist Frits Went (1926) carried out an investigation to find out whether the following notion
is correct:
“Uneven distribution of auxin is caused by unilateral light causing auxin to move away from the
illuminated side to the shaded side of the shoot tip.”
He carried out the following investigation:
agar agar
plate block A block B
shoot tip
unilateral
light agar agar
block A block B
shoot M shoot N

agar agar
block C block D
plate
unilateral
light agar agar
block C block D
shoot O shoot P
Results:
12 o 12 o
shoot M shoot N
6o 18 o
shoot O shoot P

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(a) Describe the results. (3 marks)
(b) What conclusion can be drawn from the results? (1 mark)

(c) What assumption should be made before the investigation? (1 mark)
(d) (i) What property should the plate possess in order for the investigation to be
successfully carried out? (1 mark)
(ii) Suggest a material that can be used to make a plate that has such property. (1 mark)
(e) This investigation is done after the notion “uneven distribution of auxin at the shoot tip is
not cause by destroy of auxin by unilateral light” being ruled out by a previous
investigation. What does this tell us about the nature of science? (1 mark)

Page total
9. Red-green colour blindness is an X-linked genetic disorder. The pedigree below shows the
inheritance of red-green colour blindness in a family.
1 2 3 4 Key: Female with red-green

colour blindness
Male with red-green

5 6 colour blindness
Female with normal

colour vision
7 Male with normal

colour vision
(a) State the defect that occurs in the retina of people with red-green colour blindness.

(1 mark)
(b) With reference to the pedigree, is the allele for red-green colour blindness dominant or
recessive? Explain your answer. (4 marks)
(Marks will not be awarded for genetic diagrams.)

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(c) Use R to represent the allele for normal colour vision and use r to represent the allele for
red-green colour blindness. State the genotypes of individuals 3 and 5. (2 marks)
(d) With the use of a genetic diagram, find out the probability that the next child of individuals
5 and 6 will be a girl with normal colour vision. (4 marks)


Page total
For the following question, candidates are required to present their answer in essay form. Criteria
for marking will include relevant content, logical presentation and clarity of expression.
10. ‘Caroline was studying. She heard a ringing sound of the phone. She then picked up the phone.’
Describe the biological mechanisms behind the above incident that lead to Caroline’s response.
(12 marks)


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END OF PAPER 1

BIOLOGY PAPER 2
Time allowed: 1 hour

This paper must be answered in English.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are FOUR sections, A, B, C and D in this Paper. Attempt ALL questions in any TWO
sections.
2. Write your answers in the Answer Book provided. Start each question (not part of a question) on a
new page.
3. Present your answers in paragraphs wherever appropriate.
4. Illustrate your answers with diagrams wherever appropriate.
5. The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
Not to be taken away before

the end of the examination
session
2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 2 1 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

SECTION A Human Physiology: Regulation and Control
Answer ALL parts of the question.
1. (a) The photomicrograph below shows a section through the cortex of a kidney, with the
epithelial tissue lining a proximal convoluted tubule.
structure X
epithelial cells
(i) Name structure X. Explain how structure X can facilitate the process of
reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule. (2 marks)
(ii) With reference to the permeability of membranes, describe one difference in the
content between the fluid in proximal convoluted tubule and the blood. Account for
the difference you describe. (2 marks)
(iii) Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a disease characterized by large amounts of urine

produced due to a lack of ADH. A doctor carried out a test to find out whether the
patients have DI or not. Part of the procedure for carrying out the test is given
below:
 The patient does not drink for the duration of the test.
 The patient is weighed at the beginning of the test and after collecting each
urine sample.
 Urine samples are collected at regular intervals over a period of up to 9 hours.
 The solute concentration of each urine sample is measured.

(1) The graph below shows the results of the test carried out on two different
patients.
13
Key:
12
11 patient 1
10 patient 2
Solute concentration of urine
9
8
(arbitrary unit)
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Time (hour)
Suggest and explain which of the two patients would be diagnosed with
diabetes insipidus. (5 marks)
(2) State one way in which the composition of urine of a person with diabetes
insipidus will be different from that of a person with diabetes mellitus.
(1 mark)

1. (b) The graph below shows how basal body temperature and the concentration of luteinising
hormone (LH) varied during one menstrual cycle of a woman. Basal body temperature is
the temperature of the body just after waking in the morning.
basal body temperature

10 36.8
Basal body temperature (oC)

Concentration of LH in
8 36.7
plasma (arbitrary unit)
6 36.6
4 36.5
2 36.4
LH
0 36.3
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29 31
Time (day)
(i) With reference to the change in the concentration of LH shown in the above graph,
state and explain the process that took place in the ovary on day 14. (3 marks)
(ii) With reference to the above graph, explain why measuring basal body temperature
can be used as a method for contraception. (4 marks)
(iii) Explain how progesterone-containing contraceptive pills can prevent pregnancy.

(3 marks)

SECTION B Applied Ecology
2. (a) The slurry from a farm leaked into a nearby river. Water samples were taken at different
points along the river for investigation. The oxygen content of the water samples was
measured. The results are shown in the graph below.
7
Oxygen content of water
6
(arbitrary unit)
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120
Distance (m)
(i) State the distance that indicates the point at which slurry is most likely to have
entered the river. (1 mark)
(ii) Describe and explain the effect of the slurry leak on the oxygen content of the river
between 20 and 40 metres. (4 marks)
(iii) Calculate the percentage change in the oxygen content of the river between 40 and
120 metres. Suggest a reason for this change. (3 marks)
(iv) Suggest how the investigation could be improved in order to determine more
precisely the site of the slurry leak. (1 mark)
(v) Waterways can also be polluted by chemical fertilizer run-off. The effects of
chemical fertilizer run-off and pollution by slurry are different in some ways.
Suggest and explain one of these differences. (2 marks)

2. (b) Copper can react with nitric acid to form copper salts. Many copper salts are
water-soluble and toxic to organisms in aquatic systems.
A landfill containing old copper pipes is located near to an industrial area, where a
number of factories emit nitrous oxide and nitrogen dioxide. A lake is located near to the
landfill.
factory
factory
× A
× B × C × D
landfill
factory lake
A scientist measures the concentration of

 acid in soil from the landfill (locations A and B)
 copper salts in water from the lake (locations C and D)
The results are shown below.
Location Acid (pH) Copper salts (mg/L)

A (soil) 4.2 -
B (soil) 5.1 -
C (water) - 1.6
D (water) - 1.2
Note: Any pH level below 6.0 indicates high acid concentration.

The concentration of copper salts that can cause harmful effects on aquatic
organisms is 1.9 mg/L.
(i) Account for the pH of soil at locations A and B. (2 marks)
(ii) Based on the information above, state the likely source of the copper salts at
locations C and D. Explain your answer. (2 marks)
(iii) Define the term bioaccumulation. Comment on the effects of bioaccumulation of

copper salts on aquatic organisms in the lake. (3 marks)
(iv) State one global environmental issue caused by excessive emission of nitrogen
oxides. Suggest one of its harmful effects on the organisms. (2 marks)

SECTION C Microorganisms and Humans
3. (a) John is suffering from a bacterial disease. In order to decide on which antibiotic to be
used, a microbial sample was taken from him and cultured. A viable cell count was done.
The diagram below shows the steps in the preparation of the viable cell count.
Step 1 Step 2 Step 3
microtube inoculating loop

bacterial agar plate
culture
Step 4
incubator
(i) How should the agar plate be sterilized before the experiment? (3 marks)
(ii) Describe the aseptic technique that should be done during the inoculation of
bacteria. (4 marks)
(iii) What is the significance of raising the lid of the Petri dish with just enough space
for inserting the inoculating loop instead of completely removing the lid?
(2 marks)
(iv) Why should the agar plate be kept in the incubator? (2 marks)

3. (b) It was found that there are three types of bacteria in John’s microbial sample. An
experiment was conducted to study the effectiveness of three antibiotics over these
bacteria. Three agar plates were prepared each with one of the three bacteria (A, B and C).
Circular paper discs were soaked with antibiotics R, S and T of the same concentration
and then placed on the surface of the agar plates. The diagram below shows the results.
R R R
S S S
T T T
bacteria A bacteria B bacteria C
Key:
clear zone
area with bacterial growth
(i) What is the independent variable of this investigation? (1 mark)
(ii) If the bacteria that cause the disease have not yet been identified, which antibiotic
is the best choice for the doctor to administer? Explain your answer. (3 marks)
(iii) It was found later that bacteria B releases a toxin that results in John’s disease.
Which antibiotic should be used by the doctor? Explain your answer. (3 marks)
(iv) In case of a viral disease, explain why the doctor may still administer antibiotics
for the patient. (2 marks)

SECTION D Biotechnology
4. Black Seabream is a fish that is commonly found in market in Hong Kong. It has a high
economic value. Scientists in the past have been trying to find a way to increase the economic
value of the fish by increasing the amount of eggs produced.
Scientists have identified a gene in Black Seabream which codes for a reproductive hormone
called Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH). This gene can be modified to produce GnRH
which is more resistant to be broken down by enzymes, leading to an increase in the amount of
eggs produced by the fish.
(a) (i) To prepare the genes for modification, copies of DNA fragments containing the
GnRH gene are first produced by a PCR. Describe the three major stages involved
in a PCR cycle briefly. (3 marks)
(ii) Why are heat resistant DNA polymerases used in the PCR cycle? (1 mark)
(iii) These heat resistant DNA polymerases can be found in the bacteria living in certain
habitats. Name one of these habitats. (1 mark)
(iv) The DNA fragment containing the GnRH gene can be cut by a restriction enzyme
at the middle of TATGGA. The diagram below shows part of the nucleotide
sequences of the DNA fragment containing the original GnRH gene and the
modified GnRH gene:
1st bp 181th bp 360th bp
CGG…….CAGCACTGGTCGTATGGACTGAGTCCAGGA……GCA
Part of the DNA fragment with the original GnRH gene
CGG…….CAGCACTGGTCGTATAGACTGAGTCCAGGA……GCA
modified part
Part of the DNA fragment with the modified GnRH gene

(1) With the use of the restriction enzyme described above and gel
electrophoresis, the original DNA fragment can be differentiated from the
modified one. Draw the DNA band patterns observed on the gel shown
below. (2 marks)
Well on the gel Well on the gel

containing the original containing the modified
DNA fragment DNA fragment
(2) Explain the DNA band patterns shown in (1). (4 marks)

4. (b) The DNA fragment containing the modified GnRH gene is now being incorporated into a
plasmid so that the gene can be transferred into bacteria for the production of the
modified GnRH. The diagram below shows a plasmid with one antibiotic resistance gene
and two cut sites for restriction enzyme X and Y:
Cut site of restriction

enzyme Y:
C C A C G A
gene for amoxicillin G G T G C T
resistance
Cut site of restriction

enzyme X:
G A A T T C
C T T A A G
(i) Restriction enzyme Y is used for the formation of the recombinant plasmid.
Explain why restriction enzyme X is not used. (1 mark)
(ii) A number of nucleotides are added to the two ends of the DNA fragment
containing the modified GnRH gene as shown below.
1st bp 360th bp
CCACGAGAATTCCGG……..……TATAGA…………………..GCACCACGA
DNA fragment with the modified GnRH gene with added nucleotides to both ends
(1) What is the significance of adding the nucleotides CCACGA to both ends of
the DNA fragment? (3 marks)
(2) After transformation, the bacteria are cultured on an agar plate for screening.
Describe the process of screening. Explain how it works. (2 marks)

(3) Some transformed bacteria that cannot be screened out by the process in
(ii) (2) still cannot produce the modified GnRH. This is because they have
picked up self-ligated plasmids in the transformation process.
It is known that each colony on the agar plate contains bacteria with either
recombinant or self-ligated plasmids only.
To identify the colonies with bacteria containing recombinant plasmids, 5

bacteria colonies are randomly picked out from the agar plate. The plasmids
are extracted and cut with restriction enzyme X. Gel electrophoresis is
performed and the results are shown below.
Colony 1 2 3 4 5
Which of the colonies has/have bacteria containing recombinant plasmids?

Explain your answer. (3 marks)
END OF PAPER 2

BIOLOGY MOCK EXAM January 2020

ANSWERS
Paper 1
Section A Multiple-choice questions (36 marks)
Question No. Answer Question No. Answer
1. D 19. B
2. A 20. A
3. B 21. D
4. C 22. C
5. B 23. B
6. B 24. C
7. A 25. A
8. B 26. B
9. B 27. D
10. A 28. C
11. C 29. D
12. B 30. D
13. D 31. C
14. C 32. B
15. B 33. A
16. D 34. B
17. C 35. C
18. B 36. C
2019 MAR MOCK BIO ANS A1 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

Section B Structural questions (84 marks)
1. (a) (i) B (1)

(ii) A, B, D, E (1)
(b) Endocrine glands are ductless glands and secrete hormones directly into blood vessels (1)
while exocrine glands have ducts to carry their secretions. (1)
Total: 4 marks
2. (a) (i) Phospholipids (1)

Proteins (1)
(ii) Transcription: C (1)
Translation: E (1)
(b) Yeast cells have rough endoplasmic reticulum (structure B). (1)
(c) Structure A carries out respiration to release energy for metabolic activities / growth. (1)
(d) Euglena has chloroplasts (structure D) for photosynthesis. (1)
Euglena has flagellum (structure G) to move closer to the light source. (1)
Total: 8 marks
3. (a) PR (1)
During period PR, the air pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure.(1)
(b) The intercostal muscles relaxed, causing the ribs to move downwards and inwards. (1)
The diaphragm muscles relaxed, causing the diaphragm to return to dome shape. (1)
As a result, the volume of thoracic cavity decreased and the lungs deflated. (1)
The air pressure in the lungs increased and became higher than the atmospheric pressure.
Air is forced out of the lungs.
(c) T (1)
(d) Any two of the following: (2)
 Hairs at the nostrils filter out dust and other particles from the air. (1)
 Mucus at the wall of the nasal cavity traps bacteria and dust particles. (1)
 The beating action of the cilia sweeps the mucus towards the throat (pharynx) to be
swallowed or coughed out. (1)
 Phagocytes engulf and digest bacteria and dust particles if they reach the air sacs. (1)
Total: 8 marks

4. (a) P: phagocyte (1)
Q: red blood cell (1)
(b) Red blood cells (cell type Q) are biconcave in shape / the central part of red blood cells
contains less cytoplasm. (1)
More light can pass through the centre. (1)
This provides a larger surface area to volume ratio / shorter distance (1)
to facilitate the diffusion of gases into and out of the cells. (1)
(c) The amount of phagocytes (cell type P) increases at a wound. (1)
More phagocytes reach the damaged tissue to engulf / kill pathogens. (1)
Total: 8 marks
5. (a) Lipids are digested into fatty acids which are acidic. (1)
(b) Digestive juice Y contains enzymes (1)
which can digest lipids into fatty acids. (1)
Thus, the pH value of the reaction mixture in flask C decreases.
Digestive juice X does not contain enzymes to digest lipids. Thus, the pH value of the
reaction mixture in flask B remains unchanged. (1)
(c) The presence of X increases the ability of Y to digest lipids. (1)
(d) (i) Emulsification (1)
(ii) Digestive juice X emulsifies lipids into small oil droplets. (1)
This increases the surface area of lipids for the action of enzymes, thereby speeding
up the digestion of lipids. (1)
Total: 8 marks
6. (a) B (1)
Seminiferous tubule (1)
(b) (i) Semen (1)
(ii) The penis becomes erect (1)
and it is inserted into the vagina. (1)
Semen is then ejaculated. (1)
(c) Q (1)
(d) Low number of sperm produced / decreased sperm motility / sperms with abnormal
shapes / blockage of sperm ducts (1)
Total: 8 marks

7. (a) D: Animalia (1)
E: Protista (1)
(b) The cell wall of C is made of chitin while the cell wall of plant cells is made of
cellulose. (1)
(c) C acts as a decomposer. (1)
It breaks down dead organic matters into inorganic matters
so that materials can be recycled into the ecosystem. (1)
(d) B has a higher body temperature than A. (1)
This enables B to achieve a higher metabolic rate. (1)
Thus, B needs more food for respiration to release more energy (1)
to compensate for the faster heat loss to the surrounding. (1)
Total: 9 marks
8. (a) Both agar blocks A and B cause the same degree of bending in shoot M and N. (1)
Agar block D causes the most bending in shoot P when compared with shoots
M, N and O. (1)
Agar block C causes the least bending in shoot O when compared with shoots
M, N and P. (1)
(b) Unilateral light causes auxin to move from the illuminated side to the shaded side of
the shoot tip. (1)
(c) The removal of the shoot tip does not affect the result of the investigation. (1)
/ All shoots are growing at the same rate upon stimulated by the same amount of auxin.(1)
(or other reasonable answers)
(d) (i) The plate should not allow auxin to pass through. (1)
(ii) Mica / Metal (or other reasonable answers) (1)
(e) Science is a process of ongoing inquiry. (1)
Total: 8 marks

9. (a) There is a malfunction or deficiency of red or green cone cells (or both) in the retina. (1)
(b) Since red-green colour blindness is X-linked and individual 7 has red-green colour
blindness, individual 7 must have received the allele for red-green colour blindness from
his mother (individual 5). (1)
Since individual 5 has normal colour vision, she must have at least one allele for normal
colour vision. (1)
Therefore, individual 5 is heterozygous.
In the heterozygous condition, only the dominant allele can express its effect. (1)
Thus, the allele for red-green colour blindness is recessive. (1)
(c) Individual 3: Xr Y (1)
Individual 5: XR Xr (1)
(d)
Individual 5 Individual 6
Parents: XR Xr × XR Y (1)
Gametes: XR Xr XR Y (1)
Offspring
Genotypes: XR XR XR Xr XR Y Xr Y (1)
Wrong format: deduct 1 mark

Wrong use of symbols: deduct 1 mark
The probability that the next child of individuals 5 and 6 will be a girl with normal colour
vision = 50% (1)
Total: 11 marks

10.
Stimuli reception
 Caroline’s pinna collects and directs the sound waves of the ringing sound into the auditory canal.
(1)
 The auditory canal directs the sound waves to the ear drum. (1)
 The ear drum converts the sound waves into mechanical vibrations which are transmitted to the
ear bones. (1)
 The ear bones amplify and transmit the vibrations to the oval window. (1)
 The oval window transmits the vibrations from the ear bones to the perilymph of the cochlea. (1)
 The perilymph vibrates which in turn cause vibration in the endolymph. (1)
 The endolymph vibrates to stimulate the sensory hair cells. (1)
 The sensory hair cells are stimulated to produce nerve impulses. (1)
 The nerve impulses are transmitted along the auditory nerve to the auditory centre of the cerebral
cortex. (1)
 The auditory centre produces the sensation of hearing. (1)
max. (6)
Signal integration
 The auditory centre / sensory areas of the cerebrum will send nerve impulse to the association
areas, the association areas will process the impulses (1)
 and relay them to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex. (1)
(2)
Response initiation
 The motor areas of the cerebral cortex send nerve impulses to the muscles. The muscles of her
arm contract to pick up the phone. (1)
(1)
Communication: max. (3)
Total: 12 marks

Paper 2
Section A
1. (a) (i) Microvillus / Microvilli (1)
This can increase the surface area for the reabsorption of substances from the
glomerular filtrate into the blood. (1)
(ii) The blood contains blood cells / plasma proteins while the fluid in proximal
convoluted tubule dose not. (1)
Blood cells / plasma proteins are too large to pass through the wall of the
glomerulus. (1)
(iii) (1) Patient 1 was with diabetes insipidus. (1)
The blood water potential of patients decreased under the test. (1)
However, patient 1 failed to release ADH by pituitary gland (1)
to reabsorb water at the collecting duct. (1)
Therefore, the urine produced by patient 1 was consistently diluted. (1)
(iv) (2) Glucose is present in the urine of patients with diabetes mellitus while it is
absent in the urine of patients with diabetes insipidus. (1)
Total: 10 marks
1. (b) (i) Ovulation (1)

The level of LH reaches its peak on day 14. (1)
A high level of LH stimulates ovulation to occur on day 14. (1)
(ii) The basal body temperature rises rapidly after the level of LH reaches its peak, (1)
indicating ovulation has occurred. (1)
Avoid having sexual intercourse for several days around the time of ovulation (1)
can prevent fertilization. (1)
(iii) A high level of progesterone inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH from the
pituitary gland. (1)
The low level of FSH is not sufficient to stimulate follicular development. (1)
The low level of LH is not sufficient to stimulate ovulation. (1)
As a result, no fertilization takes place.
Total: 10 marks

2. (a) (i) 20 m (1)
(ii) The oxygen content decreases dramatically. (1)
Slurry contains a rich source of organic nutrients. (1)
The nutrients support the growth of bacteria, so the bacteria population increases
rapidly. (1)
These bacteria carry out aerobic respiration and consume dissolved oxygen in the
river. (1)
(iii) (7.0 – 1.6) / 1.6 x 100 (1)
= 337.5% (1)
Dilution from rainfall / other waterways with higher oxygen content (1)
(iv) Samples could have been taken at smaller intervals. (1)
(v) Pollution caused by chemical fertilizer run-off lasts longer (1)
due to continuous fertilizer run-off / relatively slow speed of algal bloom and
death. (1)
Total: 11 marks
2. (b) (i) Nitrogen dioxide emitted from the factories dissolves in water to form
nitric acid, (1)
causing the soil to become acidic. (1)
(ii) Copper pipes in the landfill can be a source. (1)
Nitric acid in soil reacts with copper to form soluble copper salts which are carried
by water run-off into the lake. (1)
(iii) Bioaccumulation is the increase in the concentration of a chemical up the food
chain. (1)
Copper salts can be accumulated along the food chain (1)
and reach a certain amount in the bodies of the top consumers in the lake,
causing harmful effects on them. (1)
(iv) Global warming (1)
Melting of ice sheets in the polar regions can lead to loss of habitats of organisms
/ shortage of food for organisms living in the polar regions. (1)
OR
Acid rain (1)
Acid rain can lead to poor plant growth / death of aquatic organisms. (1)
Total: 9 marks

3. (a) (i) Put the plate in an autoclave (1)
under high pressure and heat (for 15 minutes) (1)
to kill the bacteria and fungi and their spores. (1)
(ii) Any four of the following: (4)
 Always cover the mouth of the microtube with a lid. (1)
 Flame the inculating loop until it is red hot and cool it before use. (1)
 After removing the lid from the microtube, flame the mouth of the microtube.
(1)
 After removing the bacterial culture from the microtube, flame the mouth of
the microtube and cover it with the lid. (1)
 After successfully introducing the bacterial culture onto the surface of the
agar plate, cover the agar plate with the lid immediately. (1)
(iii) Lower the chance of other microorganisms in the air to (1)
move into the petri dish and contaminate the culture. (1)
(iv) The incubator can be continuously set to an optimum temperature (1)
so that bacteria can grow rapidly. (1)
Total: 11 marks
3. (b) (i) The antibiotic used (1)

(ii) Antibiotic R (1)
because it acts on all three bacteria / is a broad spectrum antibiotic. (1)
There is a better chance for eliminating the bacteria involved in John’s infection.(1)
(iii) Antibiotic S (1)
because antibiotic S gives the biggest clear zone in the plate with bacteria B, (1)
suggesting that it is most effective in inhibiting its growth. (1)
(iv) The virus would probably weaken the immune system of the patient. (1)
The patient may be more susceptible to infection by different kinds of pathogens
(e.g. bacteria). (1)
Total: 9 marks

4. (a) (i) DNA molecule are denatured / separated / unwounded to form single strands at the
DNA denaturation stage. (1)
Primer with complementary bases anneals to the single-stranded DNA molecule at
primer annealing stage. (1)
Complementary free nucleotides (dNTPs in PCR) join to the primer accordingly
to extend the DNA molecule at the extension stage. (1)
(ii) All enzymes and substrate are added at the very beginning. The enzymes used in
PCR cycle should be able to withstand high temperature (~90oC) during the
breaking of DNA molecules to single strand at the DNA denaturation stage. (1)
(iii) Volcanoes / Hot springs (1)
(iv) (1)
Well on the gel Well on the gel

containing the original containing the modified
DNA fragment DNA fragment
(2)
(2) The original DNA fragment is cut half into two shorter DNA fragments of
the same length by the restriction enzyme. (1)
Since the modified DNA fragment cannot be cut by the restriction enzyme,
only one long DNA fragment is produced. (1)
DNA fragments will move towards the (positive) end in gel electrophoresis.
(1)
DNA fragments with shorter lengths will move faster than those with longer
length, and so they move further than the longer one. (1)
Total: 11 marks
4. (b) (i) It is because the gene for amoxicillin resistance should be preserved for screening
out transformed bacteria in the later stage. (1)
(ii) (1) By adding CCACGA to both ends of the DNA fragment, cut site of
restriction enzyme Y can be found at both ends of the DNA fragment. (1)
As a result, two sticky ends / single-stranded DNA ends will be produced at
the plasmid and on the DNA fragment (1)
which are complementary for incorporation of the DNA fragment into the
plasmid. (1)
(2) After transformation, pour amoxicillin solution onto the agar plate with the
bacteria. (1)
The bacteria that have successfully picked up the plasmids will survive as
they possess the gene for ampicillin resistance. (1)
(3) Colonies 2 and 4 (1)
Colonies having bacteria with self-ligated plasmids have only one cut site for
restriction enzyme X and only one band can be observed (1)
while colony having bacteria with recombinant plasmids have two cut sites
and two bands can be observed. (1)
Total: 9 marks

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HKDSE BIOLOGY: Connecting Concepts

Mock Exam (January 2020)

Time allowed: 2 hours 30 minutes

2. Section A consists of multiple-choice questions in this question paper. Section B contains

INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS)

3. All questions carry equal marks.

6. No marks will be deducted for wrong answers.

Not to be taken away before

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 1 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

There are 36 questions in this section.

2. The diagram below shows a section of a plasma membrane.

The structure labelled “N” is a

3. Which of the following is a role of the glycoproteins on animal cell membranes?

A. as additional energy reserves

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 2 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

20% maltose solution

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 3 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

Mass of product (mg)

The food sample contains

A. vitamin C and starch.

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 4 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 5 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

12. Which of the following blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood?

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 6 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

graduated glass tube

(1) use a narrower graduated glass tube

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 7 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

A. One nuclear division is involved in the process of meiotic cell division.

What process appears to be taking place at region X?

A. separation of sister chromatids

19. At which stage of meiosis may crossing over occur?

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 8 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

part of retina detached

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 9 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

23. Interneurones can be found in

(1) the brain

24. A food chain is shown below.

unicellular alga  microscopic animal  shrimp

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 10 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

27. ATPs required by the red blood cells are synthesized by

A. oxidative phosphorylation of other cells.

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 11 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

water (25 oC) water (40 oC)

at the beginning of the experiment

water (25 oC) water (40 oC)

at the end of the experiment

28. What is the gas that caused inflation of the balloon?

A. Anaerobic respiration is carried out faster at a higher temperature.

30. Which of the following organs are used for excretion?

A. stomach and liver

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 12 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

A. reduced cost of vaccines for dengue fever

A. They can disintegrate viruses.

35. Which of the following correctly compares transcription and translation?

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 13 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1A 14 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.

Mock Exam (January 2020)

SECTION B: Question-Answer Book B

This paper must be answered in English

INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION B Teacher’s

(1) After the announcement of the start of the Use Only

(8) No extra time will be given to you for filling in your

2020-JAN-MOCK-BIO 1B 1 © Aristo Educational Press Ltd.