(1015CMD303319077) Test Pattern

*1015CMD303319077*
NEET(UG)
36 This Booklet contains 36 pages.
MAJOR
[
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4 , 4 contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
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03032020/Hindi Major/Page 1/36

 LEADER COURSE (PHASE : MLE,MLF,MLG,MLH & MLSP)

ALLEN MAJOR TEST DATE : 03 - 03 - 2020

SYLLABUS – 01 & 02
PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units,
Dimensions and Measurement, Kinematics, Laws of Motion
and Friction, Work, Energy & Power, Circular Motion, Collisions
and Centre of Mass, Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Properties
of matter and Fluid Mechanics.

CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry, Atomic Structure

Chemical Equilibrium & Ionic Equilibrium, Thermodynamics &
Chemical energetics, Redox reactions, Behaviour of Gases,
Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding, s-Block Elements, Hydrogen
& It’s Compounds

BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World : (i) The living world

(ii) Biological Classification (iii) Plant Kingdom
Structural Organisation in Plants :
(i) Morphology of Flowering plants
(ii) Anatomy of Flowering Plants,
Structure and Functions : (i) Cell : The Unit of Life

(ii) Biomolecules (iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division

Plant Physiology : (i) Transport in Plants (ii) Mineral Nutrition
(iii) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants (iv) Respiration in Plants
(v) Plant Growth and Development, Enzyme

Major/Page 2/36 03032020/Hindi

1. A boy walks uniformally along the sides of a 1. 400 m × 300 m,
rectangular park of size 400 m × 300 m, starting from , ,
one corner to the other corner diagonally opposite. %
Which of the following statement is incorrect ;
(1) He has travelled a distance of 700 m (1) } ; 700 m
(2) His displacement is 700 m (2) 700 m
(3) His displacement is 500 m (3) 500 m
(4) His velocity is not uniform throughout the walk (4) ; ,
2. Two trolleys of mass m and 3m are connected by 2. m 3m , }
a spring. They were compressed and released
once, they move off in opposite direction and % S1 S2 ; #
comes to rest after covering distances S1 and S 2 ; ? ,
respectively. Assuming the coefficient of friction S 1 : S2
to be uniform, the ratio of distances is (1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 3
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
2
3. If the value of g at the surface of the earth is 3. ; 9.8 ]
9.8 m/s2, then the value of g at a place 480 km 480 'g'
above the surface of the earth will be ( 6400 )
(Radius of the earth is 6400 km) 2 2
(1) 8.4 (2) 9.8
(1) 8.4 m/sec2 (2) 9.8 m/sec2
2 2
(3) 7.2 m/sec2 (4) 4.2 m/sec2 (3) 7.2 (4) 4.2
4. A cube has a side 1.2 × 10–2m. Its volume will be 4. ? 1.2 × 10–2m ] ?
best recorded as - &
(1) 1.728 × 10 –6
m 3
(1) 1.728 × 10–6 m3
(2) 1.72 × 10–6 m3 (2) 1.72 × 10–6 m3
(3) 1.7 × 10–6 m3 (3) 1.7 × 10–6 m3
(4) 0.72 × 10–6 m3 (4) 0.72 × 10–6 m3
5. A uniform square plate abcd has a mass of 1kg. 5. abcd 1 ;
If two point masses each of 20g are placed at the 20g b c
corners b and c as shown, then the centre of mass :-
shifts on the line :-
a x b
a x b

w y
w y O
O

d z c
d z c
(1) Ow (2) Ox (3) Oy (4) Oz (1) Ow (2) Ox (3) Oy (4) Oz
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 3/36

6. If a particle of mass m is moving with constant 6. m , x-y v x-
velocity v parallel to x-axis in x-y plane as shown ;t
in fig. Its angular momentum with respect to origin ;
at any time t will be y
y m
m v
v
b
b
O x
O x

(1) mvb kˆ (2) mvb kˆ (3) mvb ˆi (4) mv ˆi (1) mvb kˆ (2) mvb kˆ (3) mvb ˆi (4) mv ˆi
7. A ball of mass 400 gm is dropped from a height 7. 400 , 5
of 5m. A boy on the ground hits the ball vertically [ ,
upwards with a bat with an average force of 100 N ;
100 newton so that it attains a vertical height of 20 ] ;
20 m. The time for which the ball remains in ] 2
[g 10 m / s ]
contact with the bat is [g 10 m / s2 ] (1) 0.12 s (2) 0.08 s
(1) 0.12s (2) 0.08 s (3) 0.04 s (4) 12 s (3) 0.04 s (4) 12 s
8. The angular speed of earth, so that the object on 8. ; , /;
equator may appear weightless, is
2
(g = 10 m/s2, radius of earth 6400 km) (g = 10 , = 6400 )
–3 –3
(1) 1.25 × 10–3 rad/sec (2) 1.56 × 10–3 rad/sec (1) 1.25 × 10 rad/sec (2) 1.56 × 10 rad/sec
(3) 1.25 × 10–1 rad/sec (4) 1.56 rad/sec (3) 1.25 × 10–1 rad/sec (4) 1.56 rad/sec
9. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. 9. , ; ;
The corresponding velocity-time graph of the :-
same body is:-
a
a

t
t
v v v v

(1) (2) (1) (2)

t t t t
v v
v v

(3) (4) (3) (4)

t t
t t

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10. Consider a two particle system with particles having 10. m1 m2 ; ;
masses m1 and m2. If the first particle is pushed d /
towards the centre of mass through a distance d, by ] ,
what distance should the second particle be moved, ?
so as to keep the centre of mass at the same position?
m2 m1 m1 m2 m1 m1
(1) m d (1) m d (2) m m d (3) m d (4) d
(2) m m d (3) m d (4) d 1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2

11. A thief is running away on a straight road on a 11. 9 m/s

jeep moving with a speed of 9 m/s. A police man , 10 m/s
chases him on a motor cycle moving at a speed ; {
of 10 m/s. If the instantaneous separation of jeep 100 m } ;
from the motor cycle is 100 m, how long will it
take for the policemen to catch the thief (1) 1 (2) 19
(1) 1 second (2) 19 second
(3) 90 second (4) 100 second (3) 90 (4) 100
12. A flat plate moves normally with a speed v 1 12. v1 , {
towards a horizontal jet of water of uniform area ( )
of cross-section. The jet discharges water at the V ] v2
rate of volume V per second at a speed of v2. The ? ]
density of water is . Assume that water splashes ]
along the surface of the plate at right angles to the :-
original motion. The magnitude of the force acting
(1) Vv1 (2) V(v1 + v2)
on the plate due to the jet of water is :-
(1) Vv1 (2) V(v1 + v2)
V 2 V
V 2 V (3) v (4) (v1 + v2)2
(3) v1 (4) (v1 + v2)2 v1 v 2 1 v2
v1 v 2 v2
13. For increasing the length by 0.5 mm in a steel 13. 2 2 ,
wire of length 2 m and area of cross-section 2mm2, 0.5
the force required is [Y for steel = 2.2 × 10 11 N/m2] [ , Y = 2.2 × 10 11 2
]
5 4
(1) 1.1 × 105 N (2) 1.1 × 104 N (1) 1.1 × 10 N (2) 1.1 × 10 N
3
(3) 1.1 × 103 N (4) 1.1 × 102 N (3) 1.1 × 10 N (4) 1.1 × 102 N
14. A projectile can have the same range R for two 14. ; R,
angles of projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of ;
flight in the two cases, then what is the product t1 t2 ] ?
of two times of flight?
(1) t1t 2 R2 (2) t1t 2 R (1) t1t 2 R2 (2) t1t 2 R
1 1 1 1
(3) t1t 2 (4) t1t 2 (3) t1t 2 (4) t1t 2
R R2 R R2
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 5/36

15. A body is allowed to fall on the ground from a 15. h1 ; h2
height h 1. If it is to rebound to a height h2 then % ] :
the coefficient of restitution is :
h2 h2 h1 h1
h2 h2 h1 h1 (1) h (2) h1 (3) h (4) h2
(1) h (2) h (3) h (4) h 1 2
1 1 2 2
16. A force vector applied on a mass is represented 16. F 6iˆ 8ˆj 10kˆ
as F 6iˆ 8ˆj 10kˆ and accelerates with 1m/s 2. ] 1m/s2
What will be the mass of the body in kg. ( )
(1) 10 2 (2) 20 (3) 2 10 (4) 10 (1) 10 2 (2) 20 (3) 2 10 (4) 10
17. A cylinder of 10 kg is sliding in a plane with an 17. 10 kg , ( ){
initial velocity of 10 m/s. If the coefficient of 10 / ; ,
friction between the surface and cylinder is 0.5 ? 0.5 , : ; ;
then before stopping, it will cover. (g = 10 m/s2) (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m (1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m
18. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of 18.
the same material and same length is shown in the =
figure. The thickest wire is represented by the line
Load
Load D
D
C
C
B
B
A
A

O Elongation
O Elong ation
(1) OD (2) OC (3) OB (4) OA
(1) OD (2) OC (3) OB (4) OA
19. A boy of mass 40 kg is running on the rough wooden 19. 40 kg , , [
plank with acceleration of 4 m/s2 which is present of 4 m/s2 [ {
rough horizontal surface. Then minimum coefficient , /; ?
of friction between plank and surface so that plank ,
will be in static equilibrium if mass of plank is 40 kg ; 40 kg

(1) 0.33 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.1 (1) 0.33 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.1
20. A uniform square plate of side a and mass m is 20. a m ,
given. Then moment of inertia passing through ,
its vertex and perpendicular to plane is : % &
5 7 1 2 5 7 1 2
(1) ma 2 (2) ma 2 (3) ma 2 (4) ma 2 (1) ma 2 (2) ma 2 (3) ma 2 (4) ma 2
6 12 12 3 6 12 12 3
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21. The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time 21. ;t x y
t are given by x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t, where x and , x = 7t + 4t2 y = 5t, x y
y are in metre and t in seconds. The acceleration t t=5
of particle at t = 5 s is (1) ; (2) 8 m/s2
(1) Zero (2) 8 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2 (4) 40 m/s2 (3) 20 m/s2 (4) 40 m/s2
22. Figure shows the F-x graph. Where F is the force 22. = F-x , F x
applied and x is the distance covered by the body ; ; F
along a straight line path. Given that F is in newton x ,
and x in metre, what is the work done ? F
10
F
10 5
5 0 x
1 2 3 4
0 x –5
1 2 3 4
–5 –10
–10 (1) 10 J (2) 20 J
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J (3) 30 J (4) 40 J (3) 30 J (4) 40 J
23. The amount of work done in forming a soap film 23. 10 × 10
of size 10cm × 10cm is
(Surface tension T = 3×10–2 N/m) ( ; T = 3×10–2 )
–4
(1) 6 × 10–4 J (2) 3 × 10–4 J (1) 6 × 10 (2) 3 × 10–4
(3) 6 × 10–3 J (4) 3 × 10–3 J (3) 6 × 10–3 (4) 3 × 10–3
24. A man weighs 80kg. He stands on a weighing 24. 80kg 5 m/s
scale in a lift that is moving downwards with a
[
uniform velocity of 5 m/s. What would be the
reading on the scale? ?
(1) 800 N (2) 1200 N (3) 0 N (4) 400 N (1) 800 N (2) 1200 N (3) 0 N (4) 400 N

25. A force of Fkˆ acts at position vector r ˆi ˆj . 25. Fkˆ r ˆi ˆj ]

The torque will be-
(1) F(iˆ ˆj) (2) F(iˆ ˆj) (1) F(iˆ ˆj) (2) F(iˆ ˆj)

(3) F(iˆ ˆj) (4) F(iˆ ˆj) (3) F(iˆ ˆj) (4) F(iˆ ˆj)
26. P, Q and R are three balloons ascending with 26. P, Q R % u, 4u 8u
velocities u, 4u and 8u respectively. If stones of ]
the same mass be dropped from each, when they +
are at the same height, then (1) ,
(1) They reach the ground at the same time
(2) P
(2) Stone from P reaches the ground first
(3) Stone from R reaches the ground first (3) R
(4) Stone from Q reaches the ground first (4) Q
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 7/36

27. If the heart pushes 1 cc of blood in one second 27. ; 20000 N/m2 1 1 cc
under pressure 20000 N/m2 the power of heart is , ;
(1) 0.02 W (2) 400 W (1) 0.02 W (2) 400 W
–10
(3) 5 × 10 W (4) 0.2 W (3) 5 × 10–10 W (4) 0.2 W
28. Two capillary tubes P and Q are dipped in water. 28. P Q , P
The height of water level in capillary P is 2/3 to <+ Q 2/3
the height in Q capillary. The ratio of their
diameters is
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
29. The friction acting on upper block is :- 29. ? %&
µ1 = 0.4 2 kg µ1 = 0.4 2 kg
3 kg 10 N 3 kg 10 N
µ2 = 0.5 µ2 = 0.5
(1) 8 N (2) 2N (3) 25 N (4) Zero (1) 8 N (2) 2N (3) 25 N (4) Zero
30. A ring and disc of same mass & radius are rotating 30. , ; ?
about their geometrical axis with same angular
? ? :-
velocity. The ratio of their kinetic energies is :-
1 3 2 1 3 2
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) (1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
2 2 5 2 2 5
31. A body dropped from a height h with an initial 31. h ;
speed zero, strikes the ground with a velocity ; 3 ;
3km/h. Another body of same mass is dropped h u' = 4
from the same height h with an initial speed , ;
u' = 4km/h . Find the final velocity of second body
(1) 3 km/h (2) 4 km/h
with which it strikes the ground
(1) 3 km/h (2) 4 km/h (3) 5 km/h (4) 12 km/h (3) 5 km/h (4) 12 km/h
32. If the water falls from a dam into a turbine wheel 32. 19.6 ,
19.6 m below, then the velocity of water at the ; (g = 9.8 m/s ) 2

turbine is (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 9.8 m/s (2) 19.6 m/s
(1) 9.8 m/s (2) 19.6 m/s
(3) 39.2 m/s (4) 98.0 m/s (3) 39.2 m/s (4) 98.0 m/s
33. The volume of an air bubble becomes three times 33. , >
as it rises from the bottom of a lake to its surface. ;
Assuming atmospheric pressure to be 75 cm of 75 cm ; ? ?
Hg and the density of water to be 1/10 of the
1/10 , >
density of mercury, the depth of the lake is
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m
(3) 15 m (4) 20 m (3) 15 m (4) 20 m
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Major/Page 8/36 , 03032020/Hindi

34. A block of mass 2 kg is released from A on a track 34. 2 kg A ;
that is one quadrant of a circle of radius 1 m. It slide 1m , ;
down the track and reaches B with a speed of 4m/s 4m/s B
and finally stops at C at a distance of 3m from B. B 3m C : ?
The work done against the force of friction is :- :-
A 1m 1m
A

1m 1m
C C
B B
(1) 2 J (2) 5 J (3) 10 J (4) 20 J (1) 2 J (2) 5 J (3) 10 J (4) 20 J
35. An inclined plane makes an angle of 30° with the 35. { 30° , ;
horizontal. A ring rolling down this inclined plane <+ ;
from rest without slipping has a linear acceleration :-
equal to :-
2g g
2g g (1) (2)
(1) (2) 3 2
3 2
g g g g
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 4 3 4
36. A body is projected vertically up with a velocity v 36. v
and after some time it returns to the point from which ; ;
it was projected. The average velocity and average
speed of the body for the total time of flight are
(1) v / 2 v/2
(1) v / 2 and v/2
(2) 0 v/2
(2) 0 and v/2
(3) 0 0
(3) 0 and 0
(4) v / 2 and 0 (4) v / 2 0
37. A cannon ball is fired with a velocity 200 m/sec 37. 60° , 200 m/sec
at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. At the ;
highest point of its flight it explodes into 3 equal
, ,
fragments, one going vertically upwards with a
velocity 100 m/sec, the second one falling 100 m/sec , 100 m/sec
vertically downwards with a velocity 100 m/sec.
The third fragment will be moving with a velocity
(1) 100 m/s in the horizontal direction (1) 100 m/s
(2) 300 m/s in the horizontal direction
(2) 300 m/s
(3) 300 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60°
with the horizontal (3) 300 m/s 60°
(4) 200 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60°
with the horizontal (4) 200 m/s 60°
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03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 9/36

38. A liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The 38. { ,
velocities of the liquid in the two sections, which
have areas of cross-section A1 and A2, are v1 and A1 A2 % v1 v2
v2 respectively. The difference in the levels of the
h
liquid in the two vertical tubes is h then incorrect
option is :- %

h h

A1 v1 A2 A1 v1 A2
v2 v2

(1) The volume of the liquid flowing through the

tube in unit time is A1v1
(1) ; A1v1

(2) v 2 v1 2gh
(2) v 2 v1 2gh
(3) v 22 v12 2gh
2 2
(3) v 2 v1 2gh
(4) [ ,
(4) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is the
same in both sections of the tube

39. The potential energy (in SI units) of a particle of 39. 2 kg {=

mass 2 kg in a conservative field is U = 6x – 8y. (SI units ) U = 6x – 8y ;
If the initial velocity of the particle is
u 1.5 ˆi 2 ˆj } ;
u 1.5 ˆi 2 ˆj then find the total distance travelled
:-
by the particle in first two seconds :-

(1) 9 m (1) 9 m

(2) 15 m (2) 15 m

(3) 12 m (3) 12 m

(4) 10 m (4) 10 m

40. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice 40. [ ?

that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the ; ;
surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface R ?
of the earth. If the radius of the earth is R, the (1) 2R
radius of the planet would be :- (2) 4R
(1) 2R (2) 4R 1
(3) R
4
1 1 1
(3) R (4) R (4) R
4 2 2
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

Major/Page 10/36 , 03032020/Hindi

41. A car travels north with a uniform velocity. It goes 41. , ; +
over a piece of mud which sticks to the tyre. The
particles of the mud, as it leaves the ground are thrown ]
(1) Vertically upwards
(1)
(2) Vertically inwards
(2)
(3) Towards north (3)
(4) Towards south (4)
42. A body of mass m moving with velocity v makes 42. m v , 2m
a head-on electric collision with another body of ,
mass 2 m which is initially at rest. The loss of (m )
kinetic energy of the colliding body (mass m) is
1 1
(1) of its initial kinetic energy (1)
2 2
1 1
(2) of its initial kinetic energy (2)
9 9
8 8
(3) of its initial kinetic energy (3)
9 9
1 1
(4) of its initial kinetic energy (4)
4 4
43. [ML2T–3] is the dimension of :- 43. [ML2T–3] :-
(1) Work (1)
(2) Power (2)
(3) Force (3)
(4) Momentum (4)
44. A wheel completes 2000 revolutions to cover the 44. 9.5 ; 2000
9.5 km. distance then the diameter of the wheel is , :-
(1) 1.5 m (1) 1.5 m
(2) 1.5 cm (2) 1.5 cm
(3) 7.5 cm (3) 7.5 cm
(4) 7.5 m (4) 7.5 m
45. A body of mass m rises to height h = R/5 from the 45. m h = R/5
earth's surface where R is radius of earth, the ; %
increase in potential energy is : (R )
4 4
(1) mgh (2) mgh (1) mgh (2) mgh
5 5
5 6 5 6
(3) mgh (4) mgh (3) mgh (4) mgh
6 7 6 7
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03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 11/36

46. Which of the following compounds is used for 46. ;
water softening ? , ?
(1) Ca3(PO4) 2 (1) Ca3(PO4) 2
(2) CaSO4 (2) CaSO4
(3) Na6P6O18 (3) Na6P6O18
(4) Na2HPO4 (4) Na2HPO4
47. Strongest H bond is present in :- 47. H :-
(1) HCl (2) HF (1) HCl (2) HF
(3) H2O (4) NH3 (3) H2O (4) NH3
48. Which Pnicogen has maximum value of EA :- 48. EA
(1) Cl (2) N (3) O (4) P (1) Cl (2) N (3) O (4) P
49. A curve is plotted between volume (L) of n moles 49. n , (L)
of gas against temperature (ºC) at a constant (ºC) /;
pressure. Nature of curve is :- :-
(1) Parabola (1) ;
(2) Straight line passing through origin (2)
(3) Straight line with positive intercept on y-axis (3) y- / %[ ;
(4) Straight line with negative intercept on y-axis (4) y- %[ ;
50. If an electron in H-atom has an energy of 50. H- –78.4 KCal mol–1
–78.4 KCal mol–1. The orbit in which the electron :-
is present in :- (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
51. H2O2 acts as ..... :- 51. H2O2 .......... :-
(1) An oxidising agent (1)
(2) Reducing agent (2)
(3) Both oxidising & reducing agent (3)
(4) Neither oxidising nor reducing agent (4)
52. ˆ O bond angle is maximum in :-
The O N 52. ˆ O
O N :-

(1) N2O (2) NO2 (1) N2O (2) NO2

(3) NO21 (4) NO3 1 (3) NO21 (4) NO3 1

53. In the compound M-O-H, the M-O bond will be 53. ; /; ; M-O-H M-O ; :-
broken in aqueous medium if :-
(1) M O (EN) < O H (EN)
(1) (EN) of M and O < (EN) of O and H
(2) M O (EN) = O H (EN)
(2) (EN) of M and O = (EN) of O and H
(3) M O (EN) > O H (EN)
(3) (EN) of M and O > (EN) of O and H
(4) can not be predicted according to (EN) difference (4) EN
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

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54. A gas can be liquefied when :- 54. ] :-
(1) Its temperature is above critical temperature and (1)
applied pressure is below critical pressure
(2) Its temperature is above critical temperature and (2)
applied pressure is above critical pressure
(3) Its temperature is below critical temperature and (3)
applied pressure is above critical pressure
(4) Its temperature is at critical temperature and (4) ;
applied pressure is below critical pressure
55. If E1, E2 and E3 represent respectively the kinetic energy 55. , ], , , ,
of an electron, an alpha particle, and a proton each having % E1, E2 E3 /;
same de-Broglie wavelength then:- :-
(1) E1 > E3 > E2 (2) E2 > E3 > E1 (1) E1 > E3 > E2 (2) E2 > E3 > E1
(3) E1 < E3 > E2 (4) E1 = E2 = E3 (3) E1 < E3 > E2 (4) E1 = E2 = E3
56. Which of the following reaction is an example of use 56.
of water gas in the synthesis of other compounds ? ;; ?
1270 k
(1) CH4 + H2O Ni
CO + H2 (1) CH4 + H2O 1270 k
CO + H2
Ni

673 k
(2) CO + H2O catalyst CO2 + H2 (2) CO + H2O 673k
CO2 + H2
1270 k
(3) C n H 2 n 2 nH 2 O Ni
nCO + (2n+1)H2 (3) C n H 2 n 2 nH 2 O 1270 k
nCO + (2n+1)H2
Ni

Co
(4) CO + H2 Catalyst CH3OH (4) CO + H2 Co
CH3OH

57. The shape of XeF3 is :- 57. XeF3 :-

(1) Bent T-shape (2) Pyramidal (1) Bent T-shape (2) Pyramidal
(3) See-Saw (4) Trigonal planar (3) See-Saw (4) Trigonal planar
58. The element having electronic configuration of 14 1 2
58. 4f 5d 6s
4f14 5d1 6s2 belongs to :-
(1) d-block, 12
(1) d-block, 12th group
(2) f-block, 14
(2) f-block, 14th group
(3) f-block, III B group (3) f-block, III B

(4) s-block, 2 nd group (4) s-block, ;

59. 80 ml of O2 takes 2 minutes to pass through a hole. 59. 80 O2 , 2 ;
What volume of SO2 will pass through the hole in 3 SO2
3 minutes ? ?
120 120
(1) ml (2) 120 2 ml (1) ml (2) 120 2 ml
2 2
12 12
(3) ml (4) 12 2 ml (3) ml (4) 12 2 ml
2 2
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 13/36

60. For the auto-ionization of water at 25ºC, 60. 25ºC % ,]
H2O(l) H+(aq.) + OH–(aq.) equilibrium constant H2O(l) H (aq.) + OH (aq.)
+ –
; 10–14
is 10–14. What is Gº for the process (approx.) ? Gº ?
(1) 8 × 104 J (2) 3.5 × 104 J (1) 8 × 104 J (2) 3.5 × 104 J
(3) 104 J (4) None of these (3) 104 J (4)
61. Which species can form intra molecular 61. % (intra molecular) H-
H-bond ? ?
(1) H3BO3 (s) (2) O-nitrophenol (1) H3BO3 (s) (2) O-nitrophenol
(3) NaHCO3 (s) (4) H2SO4 (3) NaHCO3 (s) (4) H2SO4
62. Dipole moment of NF3 is smaller than :- 62. NF3 }/ :-
(1) NH3 (2) CO2 (1) NH3 (2) CO2
(3) BF3 (4) CCl4 (3) BF3 (4) CCl4
63. Correct order of radius :- 63.
– –
(1) F > F > F+ (1) F > F > F+
(2) F– > Cl– > Br– (2) F– > Cl– > Br–
(3) Cl– > Br– > H+ > Li2+ (3) Cl– > Br– > H+ > Li2+
(4) Te2– > I– > Br– > Na+ (4) Te2– > I– > Br– > Na+
64. In which of the following mass is heaviest ? 64. ?
(1) One mol of oxygen (1) ,
(2) One molecule of sulphur trioxide (2) ,
(3) 44g CO2 (3) 44g CO2
(4) 10 mol of H2 (4) H2 10
65. In the combustion of 2g of CH4, 12 KCal of heat 65. 2 CH4 12 KCal CH4
is liberated. The heat of combustion of CH4 is:- :-
(1) –20 KCal (2) –10 KCal (1) –20 KCal (2) –10 KCal
(3) –2.5 KCal (4) –96 KCal (3) –2.5 KCal (4) –96 KCal
66. S2Cl2 is isostructural with :- 66. S2Cl2 :-
(1) H2O2 (2) OF2 (1) H2O2 (2) OF2
(3) SF4 (4) SH2 (3) SF4 (4) SH2
67. Resonance structure can be written for :- 67. , :-
(1) CH4 (2) H2O (1) CH4 (2) H2O
(3) NH3 (4) O3 (3) NH3 (4) O3
68. Which statement is correct for Noble gas :- 68. ; , ; :-
(1) Having maximum IP in the period (1) IP
(2) Having maximum EN in the period (2) EN
(3) Having maximum radius in the period (3)
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) (3)
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

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69. Which of the following when placed in a closed 69. = ;
container and allowed to stand will not attain the given :
equilibrium :
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(1) CaCO3(s)
(1) Pure CaCO3(s)
(2) CaO(s) & CO2(g) with pressure more than Kp (2) CaO(s) CO2(g) Kp
(3) Some CaCO3(s) & CO2(g) with pressure more than Kp (3) CaCO3(s) CO2(g) Kp
(4) CaCO3(s) and CaO (s) (4) CaCO3(s) CaO(s)
70. Calculate P–Cl bond enthalpy :- 70. P–Cl , :-
Hf(PCl3, g) = 306 kJ/mol ] Hf(PCl3, g) = 306 kJ/mol
H atomization (P,s) = 314 kJ/mol H (P,s) = 314 kJ/mol
Hf(Cl, g) = 121 kJ/mol Hf(Cl, g) = 121 kJ/mol
(1) 123.66 kJ/mol (2) 371 kJ/mol (1) 123.66 kJ/mol (2) 371 kJ/mol
(3) 19 kJ/mol (4) None (3) 19 kJ/mol (4)
71. Select the correct order of polarizing power (if their 71. { (
size are comparable) :- ) :-
(1) Na+ > Cu+ (2) K+ > Ag+ (1) Na+ > Cu+ (2) K+ > Ag+
(3) Cd2+ > Ca2+ (4) Au+ < Rb+ (3) Cd2+ > Ca2+ (4) Au+ < Rb+
72. Difference between atomic radii is maximum in which 72. ;
one of following pairs ? ?
(1) Rb, Cs (2) K, Rb (1) Rb, Cs (2) K, Rb
(3) Cs, Fr (4) Na, K (3) Cs, Fr (4) Na, K
73. Given Ka values for NH4 and HCN respectively are 73. NH4 HCN Ka % 5.76 × 10–10
5.76 × 10–10 and 4.8 × 10–10. What is the equilibrium 4.8 × 10–10 ;
constant for the following reaction :- :-
NH 4 (aq) CN (aq) NH 3 (aq) HCN(aq) NH 4 (aq) CN (aq) NH 3 (aq) HCN(aq)
(1) 0.83 (2) 1.2 (1) 0.83 (2) 1.2
(3) 8 × 10 –11
(4) 27.6 × 10–10 (3) 8 × 10–11 (4) 27.6 × 10–10
74. Two samples of HI of 5g each were taken separately 74. % 5L 10L 5g HI
in two vessels of 5L & 10L respectively at very high , HI
temperature. The degree of dissociation of HI will
:-
be:-
(1) Equal in both the vessels (1)
(2) More in the 5L vessel (2) 5L =
(3) More in the 10L vessel (3) 10L =
(4) HI will not dissociate (4) HI
75. 6 × 10–3 mole K2Cr 2 O7 reacts completely with 75. 6 × 10–3 K2Cr2O7, 9 × 10–3 Xn+ %
9 × 10–3 mole Xn+ to give XO3 and Cr+3. The value
XO3 Cr+3 n :-
of n is :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) None (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4)
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03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 15/36

76. Select incorrect order for given property :- 76. :-
(1) solubility : NaNO3 > KNO3 > RbNO3 (1) : NaNO3 > KNO3 > RbNO3
(2) melting point : NaF > KF > RbF (2) : NaF > KF > RbF
(3) covalent caracter order : NaF > KF > RbF (3) : NaF > KF > RbF
(4) Thermal stability : NaNO3 > KNO3 > RbNO3 (4) ; : NaNO3 > KNO3 > RbNO3
77. The correct I.P. order of Zn, Cd, Hg is :- 77. Zn, Cd, Hg I.P. :-
(1) Hg > Zn > Cd (2) Zn > Cd > Hg (1) Hg > Zn > Cd (2) Zn > Cd > Hg
(3) Zn < Cd < Hg (4) Zn > Cd = Hg (3) Zn < Cd < Hg (4) Zn > Cd = Hg
78. M(OH)x has Ksp 4 × 10 and solubility 10–4 M. The
–12
78. M(OH)x Ksp 4 × 10 –12
10–4 M x
value of x is :- :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
79. For the reaction, 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g). The degree 79. ] 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g). HI
of dissociation ( ) of HI is related to equilibrium ( ) ; Kp
constant, Kp by the expression :- :-
1 2 Kp 1 2K p 1 2 Kp 1 2K p
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
2K p 2 Kp 2K p 2 Kp
(3) 1 2K p (4) (3) (4)
1 2 Kp 1 2K p 1 2 Kp
80. At the equilibrium of the reaction, 80. N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) ; N2O4(g)
N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) , the observed molecular 350 K 80 g N2O4(g)
mass of N2O4 is 80 g mol at 350 K. The percentage
–1
350 K :-
of dissociation of N2O4(g) at 350 K is :- (1) 10% (2) 15%
(1) 10% (2) 15% (3) 20% (4) 18% (3) 20% (4) 18%
81. Which of the following combination of atomic orbitals 81. s-
can't produce -bond ? ?
(1) py + py (2) s + px (3) py + pz (4) s + s (1) py + py (2) s + px (3) py + pz (4) s + s
82. The EA of halogen are F = –328, Cl = –349, 82. EA, F = –328, Cl = –349, Br = –324,
Br = –324, I = –295 KJ/mol. The higher value for Cl I = –295 KJ/mol. Cl EA F
as compaired to that F is due to :- :-
(1) Weaker electronic repulsion by Cl (1) Cl
(2) Higher atomic radius of F (2) F
(3) Small electronegativity of F (3) F
(4) More vacant p-Subshell in Cl (4) Cl p- [;
83. What concentration of HCOO– ion is present in a 83. 0.01 M HCOOH (Ka= 1.8 × 10–4) 0.01 M HCl
solution of 0.01 M HCOOH (Ka= 1.8 × 10–4) and HCOO– ?
0.01 M HCl ? (1) 10–2 (2) 1.8 × 10–4
(1) 10–2 (2) 1.8 × 10–4
(3) 1.8 × 10–3 (4) 10–4 (3) 1.8 × 10–3 (4) 10–4
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84. Given I2 + I– I3– 84. I2 + I– I3–
Reaction was started with 1 mol of I2 and 0.5 mol 1L I2 1 mol 0.5 I–
of I– in 1L flask. After equilibrium was reached, ; AgNO3 ;
putting excess of AgNO3 gave 0.25 mol of yellow AgI ( ) 0.25 mol
ppt of AgI. Equilibrium constant of the reaction is:- ; :-
(1) 1.33 (2) 2.66 (3) 2.00 (4) 3.00 (1) 1.33 (2) 2.66 (3) 2.00 (4) 3.00
85. Calculate molality of 80% (w/v) H2SO4 solution, given 85. 80% (w/v) H2SO4 ;
that density of solution is 1.8 g/ml:- ] ? 1.8 g/ml :-
(1) 8.16 (2) 8.6 (3) 1.02 (4) 10.8 (1) 8.16 (2) 8.6 (3) 1.02 (4) 10.8
86. Which of the following species does not exist ? 86. ?
(1) ClF3 (2) XeH2 (3) SOF2 (4) POCl3 (1) ClF3 (2) XeH2 (3) SOF2 (4) POCl3
–
87. Match the correct Ionisation enthalpies and e gain 87. , ,
enthalpy of the following elements :- , :-
Elements H1 H2 H
eg
H
eg
A Most reactive P 419 3051 –48 H1 H2
non metal A P 419 3051 –48
B Most reactive Q 1681 3374 –328
metal B Q 1681 3374 –328

C Least reactive R 738 1451 –40 C R 738 1451 –40

element

D Metal which S 2372 5251 +48 D +2 S 2372 5251 +48

shows +2
oxidation state
(1) A Q, B P,C S, D R (1) A Q, B P,C S, D R
(2) A P, B Q,C R, D S (2) A P, B Q,C R, D S
(3) A R, B Q,C P, D S (3) A R, B Q,C P, D S
(4) A S, B R,C P, D Q (4) A S, B R,C P, D Q
88. The pH of solution obtained by mixing 10 ml of 88. 10 ml, 10 N HCl
–1
10 ml, 10 N NaOH
–1

10–1 N HCl and 10 ml of 10–1 N NaOH is :- pH :-

(1) = 7 (2) > 7 (3) < 7 (4) 8 (1) = 7 (2) > 7 (3) < 7 (4) 8
89. What is the maximum number of electrons in the 89. n + l= 4 ,
possible sub-shells for n + l = 4 ? [; ?
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 16 (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 16
90. The mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with 90. 20 ml, 1 M HCl
20 ml of 1M HCl as per reaction is; , CaCO3 ,;
CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O is :- CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + CO2 + H2 O :-
(1) 2g (2) 1g (3) 28g (4) 14g (1) 2g (2) 1g (3) 28g (4) 14g
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 17/36

91. 91.

Which of the following structures are not related with = ,

above diagram?
(i) Stiff cellulose plates (i)
(ii) Two equal sized flagella (ii)
(iii) Two overlapping shells (iii)
(iv) Proteinaceous pellicle (iv)
(1) i & ii (1) i ii
(2) i, iii & iv (2) i, iii iv
(3) iii & iv (3) iii iv
(4) All of the above (4)

92. 92.

Which of the following character are not related , , = ,

with above given diagram ?
(i) Represents cauliflower mosaic virus (i)
(ii) Have ssRNA (ii)
(iii) Capsomers arranged in polyhedral symmetry (iii) :
(iv) Discovered by Ivanowsky (iv) [ }
(1) ii & iv (1) ii iv
(2) i & iii (2) i iii
(3) i, ii & iv (3) i, ii iv
(4) ii, iii & iv (4) ii, iii iv
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

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93. Read the following statements and select the 93. /; <+;
correct option from options given below :- :-
(A) Whittaker classify the unicellular prokaryotes (A) , ;
in monera kingdom.
(B) Dianoflagellates show rapid multiplication by (B) }
binary fission.
(C) Cell wall of diatoms is made up of silica mainly (C) [; %
in which cellulose particles are embeded.
(D) Slime mould form plasmodium and fruiting body (D)
during unfavourable condition. ;
(E) Diatoms show gametic meiosis during sexual (E) ; ; =.
reproduction.
Options : :
(1) A, B and E is true (1) A, B E ;
(2) A, B and D is true (2) A, B D ;
(3) A, B, C and D is true (3) A, B, C D ;
(4) A, B, C and E is true (4) A, B, C E ;
94. RQ of tripalmitin is :- 94. RQ :-
(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 0.9 (4) 0.7 (1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 0.9 (4) 0.7
95. Which one of the following not a deficiency symptoms 95. 'S' )
due to dificency of 'S' ?
(1) Chlorosis (1)
(2) Necrosis (2) ;
(3) Inhibition of cell division (3)
(4) Delay in flowering (4)
96. Correct order of abundance of oxygen, sulphur, silicon, 96. ] ] ]
nitrogen and hydrogen in the earth crust:- :-
(1) N > H > O > Si > S (1) N > H > O > Si > S
(2) Si > O > S > N > H (2) Si > O > S > N > H
(3) O > Si > H > S > N (3) O > Si > H > S > N
(4) S > O > Si > N > H (4) S > O > Si > N > H
97. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 97.

Column-I Column-II LrEHk -I LrEHk -II

(Name of scientist) (Credit) (oSKkfud uke ) (Js; )
(1) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek Discovery of cell (1) ,UVkWu okWu Y;wou
s gkWd dksf'kdk dh [kkst
(2) Robert Brown Discovery of nucleus (2) jkWcVZ czk mu dsUæd dh [kkst
(3) Matthias Schleiden Cell theory (3) ekfFk;l 'yhMsu dksf'kdk fl)kUr
(4) Rudolf Virchow Cell lineage (4) :MksYQ fopksZ dksf'kdk oa'kkoyh
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 19/36

98. Statement-I :- Meiosis involves two sequential 98. -I :- =.
cycles of nuclear division but only one round of , ;
cytoplasmic division. -II :- =. -I
Statement-II :- Four haploid cells are produced at
the end of meiosis-I. (1)
(1) Both statements are wrong
(2) I
(2) I statement is correct
(3) II statement is correct (3) II
(4) Both statements are correct (4)
99. Location of bulliform cells in grasses :- 99. ( )
(1) Leaf – Adaxial epidermis :-
(1) –
(2) Stem – Hypodermis
(2) –
(3) Leaf – Abaxial epidermis
(3) –
(4) Root – Pericycle (4) –
100. The calyx is gamosepalous in :- 100. ; :-
(1) Pisum and Brassica (1)
(2) Pisum and Solanum (2)
(3) Gloriosa and Aloe (3) ;
(4) Sesbania and Asparagus (4)
101. Which member of mycota act as decomposers of 101. ; ( )
litter and help in mineral cycling ? [ %
(1) Albugo (2) Alternaria (1) (2)
(3) Trichoderma (4) Colletotrichum (3) (4)
102. Which of the following is correctly matched ? 102.
(1) Order – Polymoniales (1) –
(2) Family – Mangifera (2) –
(3) Kingdom – Angiospermae (3) –
(4) Specific epithet – Mangifera indica (4) –
103. Which of following statement is true? 103. ;
(1) Some of the archaebacteria can be present as (1) :
symbiotic organism.
(2) Mad cow disease in cattles occurs by naked RNA (2) RNA
molecules.
(3) Anabaena azollae is considered as biological (3) , ,
species according to biological species concept.
(4) Asexual reproduction in Puccinia occurs by (4) - }
conidiospore.
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

Major/Page 20/36 , 03032020/Hindi

104. Maize root apical meristem gives rise to more than 104. ?
____ new cells per hour :- ?
(1) 200 (2) 20000 (1) 200 (2) 20000
(3) 17,500 (4) 23,600 (3) 17,500 (4) 23,600
105. During synthesis of one molecule of glucose, how 105. ;] RuBP
many ATP molecule is required to regenerate of RuBP ATP ( )
(Regeneration step) (1) 6 (2) 12
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 30 (3) 18 (4) 30
106. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites? 106. ;
(1) Antibiotics (2) Essential oils (1) (2)
(3) Diterpenes (4) Enzymes (3) (4)
107. Read the following statements and find out the 107. <+ ; ;
prokaryotic structure, which is being referred here:-
(A) Extensions of plasma membrane into the cell. (A)
(B) Help in cell wall formation and DNA replication (B) DNA
(C) Also help in respiration, secretion process (C)
(1) Golgi bodies (2) ER (1) ; (2) %
(3) Mesosome (4) Ribosome (3) (4)
108. Mitosis is also known as …A… and meiosis can be 108. =. …A… =.
called as …B… . …B…
(1) (A) Reductional division, (B) Equational division (1) (A) , (B)
(2) (A) Growth division, (B) Equation division (2) (A) , (B)
(3) (A) Equational division, (B) Reductional division (3) (A) , (B)
(4) (A) Equational division, (B) Amitosis (4) (A) , (B)
109. Secondary medullary rays are produced by :- 109. :-
(1) Cambial ring (2) Cork cambium (1) ,/ ; (2) ,/
(3) Apical meristem (4) Protoderm (3) (4)
110. Select the correct matched pair :- 110. ; :-
(1) Brinjal – Epipetalous stamen (1) –
(2) Salvia – Polyadelphous stamen (2) –
(3) Citrus – Diadelphous stamen (3) –
(4) Pea – Epiphyllous stamen (4) –
111. Select the incorrect match pair from the following:- 111. ; :-
(1) Algae fungi – Presence of intervening dikaryotic (1) ; – /;
stage
(2) Sac fungi – Delicious morels and truffles (2) –
(3) Club fungi – Sex organs are absent (3) –
(4) Imperfect fungi – Presence of exogeneous (4) – ;
asexual conidia.
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 21/36

112. Which of the following statements are true 112. , ;
regarding taxonomic aids?
(A) Taxonomic keys can be used for identification of (A) ;
plant and animal both. ,
(B) In botanical garden living and dead both plant
(B)
specimans can be present.
(C) Description of a single taxon is given in
(C) ,
monograph.
(D) In museum living and dead animals as well as plant (D) ;
specimans are present.
(1) A and C (2) A and D (1) A C (2) A D
(3) A, B and C (4) A, C and D (3) A, B C (4) A, C D
113. How many of the following are haploid cells 113. ,
structures ? ] ]
Leaf cell of Azolla, endosperm cell of Pinus, spore ] ]
mother cell of Pteridium, rhizoids of Funaria, capsule ] ]
cell of Riccia, vegetative cell of Ulothrix, gammae of ]
Marchantia, spore mother cell of Funaria (1) (2)
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three (3) % (4)
114. Mo-Fe protein function as enzyme :- 114. Mo-Fe , :-
(1) Nitrogenase (2) Nitrite reductase (1) (2)
(3) Catalase (4) Peroxydase (3) (4)
115. How much energy in terms of ATP equivalents is 115. } 1 ATP
consumed in photosynthetic production of a mole of :
sucrose ? (1) 36 ATP ; (2) 38 ATP ;
(1) 36 ATP equivalent (2) 38 ATP equivalent
(3) 54 ATP equivalent (4) 108 ATP equivalent
(3) 54 ATP ; (4) 108 ATP ;
116. In which lipid, a single fatty acid and galactose is 116. , ]
present along with sphingosine.
(1) Glycolipid (2) Cephalin (1) (2)
(3) Simple lipid (4) Cholesterol (3) (4)
117. Which of the following statements about plasma 117.
membrane is correct?
(1) It consists of 52 percent lipids and 40 percent (1) 52 40
proteins.
(2) Protein content of the membrane is mainly (2) %
consists of phospoglycerides.
(3) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer. (3)
(4) The quasi fluid nature of proteins enables lateral (4)
movement of lipids within overall bilayer.
Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

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118. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 118.
(1) Crossing over takes place during pachytene. (1)
(2) Centriole duplication occurs during S-phase. (2) S-
(3) Parenchymatous cells always remain in G0 phase. (3) G0
(4) Heart muscles normally don't divide. (4) ; ]
119. Primary meristems are :- 119. :-
(1) Apical and cylindrical (1)
(2) Lateral and intercalary (2)
(3) Intercalary and cylindrical (3)
(4) Apical and intercalary (4)
120. Prop roots are :- 120. :-
(1) Supporting roots in maize (1)
(2) Respiratory roots in rhizophora (2)
(3) Supporting roots in banyan tree (3)
(4) Storing roots in carrot (4)
121. Which type of sexual reproduction is found in Volvox 121.
and Fucus ?
(1) Isogamous (1)
(2) Anisogamous (2)
(3) Oogamous (3)
(4) All of these (4)
122. Which of the following is true according to ICBN? 122. ICBN ?
(1) Mangifera indica (1)
(2) Mangifera mangifera L. (2) L.
(3) Mangifera indica L. (3) L.
(4) Mangifera indica L. (4) L.
123. Enzyme concerned with inter-convertion of 123. ] ; ;
optical, geometrical or positional isomers. :-
(1) Isomerases (1)
(2) Ligases (2)
(3) Hydrolases (3)
(4) Lyases (4)
124. C4 plants shows CO2 saturation at about :- 124. C4 CO2 :-
(1) 450 ppm CO2 concentration (1) 450 ppm CO2
(2) 360 ppm CO2 concentration (2) 360 ppm CO2
(3) 230 ppm CO2 concentration (3) 230 ppm CO2
(4) 410 ppm CO2 concentration (4) 410 ppm CO2
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03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 23/36

125. 125.

B B

A A

Above diagram shows the utilisation of different = ;

respiratory substrate, identify A and B. ]A B &
A B A B
(1) Acetyl CoA Dihydroxy Acetone (1) ,flVkby CoA MkbgkbMªk Ds lh
Phosphate (DHAP) ,lhVksu QkWLQsV
(2) Dihydroxy Acetone Acetyl CoA (2) MkbgkbMªksDlh ,flVkby CoA
Phosphate ,lhVksu QkLQsV
(3) Phosphoenol pyruvate Acetyl CoA (3) QkWLQksb ukWy ikb:osV ,flVkby CoA
(4) Acetyl CoA Phosphoenol pyruvate (4) ,flVkby CoA QkWLQksb ukWy ikb:osV

126. Which one of the following statement is incorrect 126.

about polysaccharides? (1)
(1) Cellulose does not contain complex helices, hence
can not hold I2.
(2) ,
(2) Chitin is a homopolymer.
(3) Starch is a heteropolymer.
(3) ,
(4) Inulin is polymer of fructose. (4) ,
127. Which of the following cellular organelles, is not 127. ] % =
considered a part of endomembrane system :-
(1) Golgi complex (2) Peroxisomes (1) (2)
(3) Lysosomes (4) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) ; (4) %
128. The most important site for the synthesis of 128. ]
glycoproteins and glycolipids in plant cells is :- :-
(1) Cell membrane (2) Dictyosomes (1) (2)
(3) Vacuoles (4) Peroxisomes (3) (4)
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129. The fruit walls of nuts commonly have :- 129. :-
(1) Thick and nonlignified cells (1)
(2) Thick and lignified cells (2) ;
(3) Thick and living cells (3)
(4) Thin and living cells (4)

130. 130.

Above floral diagram is not related to :- = :-

(1) Allium (2) Tulip (1) (2)
(3) Aloe (4) Tobacco (3) ; (4)
131. Select the correct statement regarding bryophytes? 131.
(1) Spores are formed before meiosis. (1)
(2) Zygote develops into a gametophyte consisting of
foot, seta and capsule. (2) ; ]
(3) Zygote does not undergo reduction division
immediately. (3)
(4) Rhizoids of Riccia are multicellular and branched. (4) ;
132. Read the following statements carefully and identify 132. /; <+ ;
the correct option regarding the statements from
options given below :- :-
(A) 70 S ribosomes are present in cytoplasm of (A) 70 S ;
bacteria and chloroplast of blue green algae.
(B) Polysome is an inclusion body present in bacteria. (B) ;
(C) Archaebacteria can easily survive in adverse (C)
environmental condition due to their complex cell
wall structure. (D)
(D) Mycoplasma can survive in absence of oxygen.
(E) Most of the bacteria are heterotrophous. (E) %
Options : :
(1) A, B and E are true (2) A, B and D are true (1) A, B E (2) A, B D
(3) C, D and E are true (4) A, D and E are true (3) C, D E (4) A, D E
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03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 25/36

133. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity 133. (pH,
with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature ) ,
and substrate concentration). What do the two axis (X Y) :-
(X and Y) represent :-

Y-axis
Y-axis

X-axis
X-axis

X-axis Y-axis X-v{k Y-v{k

(1) Enzyme activity pH (1) ,atkbe lfØ;rk pH

(2) Enzyme activity Temperature (2) ,atkbe lfØ;rk rkieku

(3) Substrate concentration Enzyme activity (3) fØ;k/kkj lkUæ.k ,atkbe lfØ;rk
(4) pH Enzyme activity (4) pH ,atkbe lfØ;rk

134. Guttation occures in grasses due to :- 134. [; :-

(1) High root pressure (1)
(2) High temperature (2)
(3) High transpiration (3)
(4) Moderate wind velocity (4) /;
135. In photosynthesis a suitable oxidisable compound is 135. , ; ;;
required this statement was given by :- ; ;
(1) Carnelius Van Niel (2) Robert hill (1) (2)
(3) Julius Von Sachs (4) Jan Ingenhousz (3) (4)
136. Which structure of protein is absolutely necessary for 136. ,
the many biological activities?
(1) Primary structure (2) Secondary structure (1) (2)
(3) Tertiary structure (4) Quaternory structure (3) (4)
137. Read the following statements about mitochondrian. 137. <+; :-
(A) Mitochondria are easily visible under (A) ]
microscope without specific staining.
(B) These are the site of aerobic respiration. (B) ;
(C) Mitochondria divide by fission. (C)
(D) These have single stranded DNA molecules. (D) , ; DNA
(1) Only A is incorrect. (1) A
(2) B and D are correct. (2) B D
(3) A, B and C are correct. (3) A, B C
(4) Both A and D are incorrect. (4) A D
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138. Which of the following is not correct about 138.
Svedberg unit? (1)
(1) It stands for the sedimentation coefficient. (2) ? ;{
(2) It is a direct measure of density and size. (3)
(3) It is used for large biomolecules such as
nucleoproteins, in ribosomes. (4) 60S
(4) Large subunit in eukaryotic ribosome exhibits 60S.
139. Transports food materials, usually from leaves to other 139. ; ±
parts of the plant :- :-
(A) In gymnosperm by vessels (A) }
(B) In gymnosperms by albuminous cells and sieve (B) ,
cells
(C) In angiosperms by sieve tube elements, companion
(C) ]
cells and phloem parenchyma.
}
(D) In angiosperms by tracheids and vessels
(D) }
Which of the above statements are correct
?
combination?
(1) A & B (2) B & C (1) A B (2) B C
(3) C & D (4) A & D (3) C D (4) A D

140. K C A G
+ (5) (5) 5 (2) 140. +
K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)
Floral formula belongs to family commonly called:- = :-
(1) Potato (2) Lily (1) (2)
(3) Mustard (4) Grass (3) (4)
141. How many of the following statements are true 141.
regarding pteridophytes?
(i) Sporophylls are non-photosynthetic (i)
(ii) Spores are formed inside the sex organs. (ii)
(iii) Prothallus is independent and mostly (iii) = %
photosynthetic.
(iv) Antherozoids are comma shaped and (iv)
biflagellated. (1) (2)
(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three (3) (4)
142. If fimbriae are removed from a bacteria than 142. ,
movement of bacteria :- :-
(1) will be increased (1) <+
(2) will be stopped (2)
(3) will be decreased (3)
(4) will not be affected (4)
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03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 27/36

143. The porin are proteins that form a huge pore in 143. , , ;
outer membrane of :- :-
(1) All bacteria (1)
(2) All Eukaryotic cells (2) ;
(3) Some bacteria (3)
(4) Golgi body (4) ;
144. How many ATP molecules are produced after 144. , &,
complete oxidation of the molecule of acetyl Co-A ? ATP ?
(1) 15 (2) 18 (1) 15 (2) 18
(3) 12 (4) 30 (3) 12 (4) 30
145. The pathway of water from soil upto xylem :- 145. :-
(1) Soil Root hair Cortex Endodermis (1)
Pericycle Protoxylem Metaxylem : :
(2) Metaxylem Protoxylem Pericycle (2) : :
Cortex Endodermis Soil Root hair
(3) Cortex Root hair Endodermis Pericycle (3) :
Protoxylem Metaxylem :
(4) Pericycle Soil Root hair Cortex (4)
Endodermis Protoxylem Metaxylem : :
146. Which statement is incorrect for tertiary structure of 146. ,
proteins?
(1) Proteins of tertiary structure are highly folded. (1)
(2) It give a globular appearance. (2)
(3) Proteins of tertiary structure are insoluble in water. (3) ;
(4) Majority of proteins in protoplasm exhibit tertiary (4) ;
structure.
147. Nuclear pores don't allow the bi-directional movement 147. ; :-
of :-
(A) (B)
(A) DNA (B) RNA
(C) (D)
(C) Protein (D) Water
(1) B C (2) C D
(1) B and C (2) C and D
(3) A, B and D (4) A only (3) A, B D (4) A

148. Which of the following component of a eukaryotic cell 148. ], ;

in responsible for providing mechanical support motility, ]
maintenance of cell shape ?
(1) Ribosome (2) Nucleus (1) (2)
(3) Cytoskeleton (4) Mitochondria (3) (4)
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149. These are generally absent in the primary phloem 149.
but are found in the secondary :- :-
(1) Sieve tube elements (1)
(2) Companion cells (2)
(3) Phloem parenchyma (3)
(4) Phloem fibres (4)
150. Select the correct matched column :- 150. , :-
Drupe Berry Pepo Pome Hesperidium
Bitter Mªi csjh isi ks ikse gsLisf jfM;e
(1) Mango Tomato Apple Orange
guard (1) vke djsyk VekVj lsc lara jk
Water
(2) Coconut Bringal Pear Lemon (2) ukfj;y cSaxu rjcwt uk'kikrh uhacq
melon
Pome- (3) vkMw yhph ve:n vukj vaxwj
(3) Peach Litchi Guava Grapes
granate (4) [ktwj xsg¡w èkrwjk thjk ewx
a Qyh
(4) Date palm Wheat Datura Cumin Peanut
151. Some gymnosperm have small specialised roots which 151.
are associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria. Name the
gymnosperm and specialised roots.
(1) Sequoia, Tap root (1) ]
(2) Pinus, Coralloid root (2) ]
(3) Cycas, Coralloid root (3) ]
(4) Cedrus, Adventituous root (4) ]
152. According to Whittaker classification photosynthetic 152.
organism are present in :- :-
(1) Two kingdom protista and plantae only (1)
(2) Two kingdom monera and plantae only (2)
(3) Three kingdom monera, protista and plantae only (3) ]
(4) Only are kingdom plantae (4) ,
153. Separation of chlorophyll molecule from green leaf 153.
occurs with the help of :-
(1) PCR (2) X-ray crystalography (1) PCR (2) X-ray
(3) Electrophorosis (4) Paper chromatography (3) (4)
154. In SDP (Short day plant) flowering is induced by:- 154. SDP ) :-
(1) Any duration of light (1)
(2) Photoperiod longer than critical photoperiod. (2)
(3) Photoperiod more than 12 hours (3) 12
(4) Photoperiod less than critical photoperiod (4)
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03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 29/36

155. 155.
B B
A A

C C
Identify the A, B, C in above given figure :- = A, B, C &
(1) A-Xylem, B-Palisade, C-Guard cell (1) A- , B- , C-
(2) A-Pholem, B-Palisade, C-Guard cell (2) A- , B- , C-
(3) A-Palisade, B-Pholem, C-Guard cell (3) A- , B- , C-
(4) A-Guard cell, B-Pholem, C-Epidermis cell (4) A- , B- , C-
156. In a polypeptide and polysaccharides types of bonds 156. ,
are :- :-
(1) Ester bond (1)
(2) Glycosidic bond (2)
(3) Glycosidic bond and ester bond (3) ,
(4) Peptide bond and glycosidic bond respectively (4) %
157. Match the following columns :- 157. , :-

Column-I Column-II LrEHk-I LrEHk-II

(Organelle) (Role) (dks f'kdkax ) (dk;Z)
(A) Mitochondria (i) Photophosphorylation (A) lw=df.kdk (i) çdk'kh; QkWLQksfjyhdj.k
(B) Golgi bodies (ii) Autolysis (B) xkWY thdk; (ii) Loy;u
(C) Chloroplasts (iii) Oxidative phosphorylation (C) gfjryod (iii) vkWDlhdkjh QkWLQksfjyhdj.k
(D) Lysosomes (iv) Cell secretion (D) y;udk; (iv) dksf 'kdk L=ko.k

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii (4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
158. Which of the following is not an event related to 158. ?
telophase? (1) =] [
(1) Chromosomes lose their identity at opposite
spindle poles. (2)
(2) DNA replication is initiated. (3)
(3) Nuclear envelope is assembled around the
clustered chromosomes. (4) ] %
(4) Nucleolus golgi complex and ER reform.
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159. Monocotyledons root :- 159. ; :-
(1) Undergo secondary growth (1)
(2) Pith is very small (2)
(3) Polyarch (3)
(4) Without stele (4)
160. Incorrect match is :- 160. :-
(1) Bulb – Onion (1) –
(2) Corm – Colchicum (2) –
(3) Rhizome – Dracaena (3) –
(4) Cladode – Ruscus (4) –
161. Select the correct sequence in gymnosperm :- 161. , :-
(1) Male gametes Zygote Male gametophyte (1) ; ;
Embryo Seed
(2) Female gametophyte Female gamete
(2) ; ;
Zygote Embryo Seed
(3) Embryo Zygote Male gametes Male
(3) ; ;
gametophyte Seed
(4) Archegonia Female gametophyte Zygote
Embryo Seed (4) ;
162. Which of the following can fix atmospheric CO2 and 162.
N2 both ?
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia (1) (2)
(3) Rhodospirillum (4) Azotobacter (3) (4)
163. How many ATP molecules are used in the formation 163. 3 CO2 RuBP ;
of 3 phosphoglyric acid from RUBP and CO2 ? ATP
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 0 (1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 0
164. The element must be directly involved in the 164. ; ;
metabolism of the plant this statements proved :- :-
(1) The criteria for essentiality of elements (1)
(2) The criteria for essentiality of O2 only (2) O2
(3) The criteria for essentiality toxic events (3) [
(4) The criteria for mineral deficiency (4)
165. Photorespiration is wasteful process because :- 165. , ] :-
(1) No synthesis of sugar (1)
(2) No synthesis of NADPH (2) NADPH
(3) Utilisation of ATP (3) ATP [
(4) All of these (4)
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03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 31/36

166. How many statement are not correct ? 166.
(a) There is a wide diversity in living organisms in our (a)
biosphere.
(b) ; ?
(b) Inorganic compounds like sulphate are also seen
in acid soluble fraction.
(c) R-
(c) Based on the nature of R-group there are many
amino acid.
(d)
(d) Each protein is a polymer of amino acids.
(e) -
(e) Amylose is branched polymer of -glucose
(1) Four (2) One (1) (2)

(3) Three (4) All are correct (3) (4)

167. Read the following statements about interphase :- 167. <+; :-
(A) It lasts more than 95% of the total duration of (A) 95%
the cell cycle.
(B) It begins with the nuclear division. (B)
(C) It is also called resting phase. (C)
(D) G0 phase is always followed by G2 phase (D) G0 G2
(1) A and D are correct (1) A D
(2) B and C are incorrect (2) B C
(3) A and C are correct (3) A C
(4) B and D are correct (4) B D
168. Meiotic anaphase-I differ from mitotic anaphase:- 168. -I, :-
(1) Due to division of centromeres takes place (1) =
(2) Due to separation of sister chromatids (2)
(3) Due to unpairing of homologous chromosomes (3)
(4) Due to more condensation of chromosomes (4)
169. The outermost layer of the primary plant body is 169. ;
usually :- :-
(1) Single layerd, loosely arranged cells – Epidermis (1) ;] <+ –
(2) Multilayered, Oval cells – Endodermis (2) ;] –
(3) Single layered, compactly arranged cells – Epidermis (3) ;] –
(4) Multilayered, compactly arranged cells – Epidermis (4) ;] –
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170. Thorns are found in :- 170. ) :-
(1) Grapevines and Gourds (1) ;
(2) Bougainvillea and Citrus (2)
(3) Opunita and Ruphorbia (3)
(4) Pistia and Eichhornia (4)
171. Select the correct statement from the following :- 171. :-
(1) Red algae commonly known as kelps (1) %
(2) Gemma cups are formed in all mosses (2)
(3) Gametophytes are always non-vascular in (3) ; ;
plant kingdom
(4) Archegonia are absent in Gnetum (4)
172. Which of the following is not observed in Euglena? 172. ,
(1) Two flagella are present (1)
(2) Two nuclei micro and mega are present (2)
(3) Cell wall is completely absent (3)
(4) Contractile vacoule is present (4)
173. NADH + H+ synthesis occurs when :- 173. NADH + H+ :-
(1) Aldehyde changed into acid (1) ,
(2) Acids changes into alcohol
(2) , ,
(3)
(3) Pyruic acid changes into phosphoenol pyruvic acid
(4) Fructose change into dihydroxyacetone phosphate (4)
174. Which of the following sets is of natural plant 174. , ;
harmones ?
(1) NAA, 2,4-D, IPA, BAP
(1) NAA, 2,4-D, IPA, BAP
(2) 2,4,5-T, NAA, IPA
(2) 2,4,5-T, NAA, IPA
(3) IBA, , IAA
(3) IBA, Zeatin, IAA
(4) NAA, Ethephone, 2,4-D (4) NAA, , 2,4-D

175. Primary precursor of Gibberellins is :- 175. :-

(1) Acetyl CoA or mevalonic acid (1) CoA
(2) Methionine (2)
(3) Carotenoid (3)
(4) Tryptophan (4)
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176. Match the column I and II and select the correct 176. -I -II ,
option :- , :-

Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkWye-II

(a) Maltose (i) Substituted methane (a) ekYVkst (i) foLFkkfir ehFksu
(b) Cellulose (ii) -glucose (b) lsyqykst (ii) -Xywdkst
(c) Inulin (iii) -glucose (c) buwyhu (iii) -Xywdkst
(d) Protein (iv) Fructose (d) çksVhu (iv) ÝDVkst
(e) Amino acid (v) Amino acid (e) vehuks vEy (v) vehuks vEy

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v, e-i (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v, e-i
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii, e-v (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii, e-v
177. During which phase does the initiation of the assembly 177.
of mitotic spindle?
(1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase (1) /; (2)
(3) Prophase (4) Telophase (3) (4)
178. Which of the following events marks the start of the 178.
second phase of karyokinesis? ?
(1) Initiation of condensation of chromatin material (1) ±
(2) Alignment of chromosomes on the spindle
(2) /; ,
equator
(3)
(3) Complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope
(4) Duplication of centrosome (4) ;
179. Conjoint type of vascular bundles are common in:- 179. % :-
(1) Roots, stems and leaves (1) ]
(2) Roots only (2)
(3) Stems only (3)
(4) Stem and leaves (4)
180. Alternate type of phyllotaxy is the feature of :- 180. :-
(1) Neem and Alstonia (1)
(2) Guava and Alstonia (2)
(3) Mustard and China rose (3)
(4) Sunflower and Calotropis (4)
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 ,

Leader (MLE, MLF, MLG, MLH, MLSP)

03032020/Hindi , Major/Page 35/36

Read carefully the following instructions : /; <+ :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. ] ,
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. =
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2.
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. The candidates should not leave the 3. = ,
Examination Hall without handing over their
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Ca lculator is 4.
prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5. ,
Regulations of the examination with regard to , }
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
,
Rules and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. =
shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7. =
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days
along with Paper code and Your Form No.

%; = Correction Paper code , Form No. 2

dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in mail
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
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