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CMFAS MODULE 5
(4th Edition)
Mock Exam 2
Mock Exam 2
C10/9.4
1. Which of the following is NOT eligible as collateral under the Revised Code on Collective
Investment Scheme?
A. Bonds
B. Cash
C. Money market instruments
D. Bonds with financial derivatives
C10/3.14
2. XYZ Global Equity adopts the high water mark arrangement for calculating its performance
fee. The scheme’s benchmark is the MSCI World Index and its hurdle rate is the return of the
MSCI World Index. The scheme charges a management fee of 2% and a performance fee of
5%. It is assumed that the management fee and performance fees are calculated based on
year end NAV per unit. At year 3, the returns of fund and benchmark are as follows:
A. $0.0234
B. $0.0226
C. $0.0414
D. $0.0264
C8/5.5
3. Which of the following is true in determining competency of a FA and its representative?
A. FA who uses multi-tiered corporation, should ensure that their reps are competent to
handle at each level.
B. FA should train reps to do well in their own scope of work.
C. FA who offered many products to client regardless if reps are competent.
D. FA should ensure reps are train to provide advice on a wide array of product regardless of
qualifications.
C2/2.2.2
4. Which of the following regarding introducers is true?
C9/4.3.1(a)
5. Representatives can advise client to switch designated investment product, provided:
A. Reps must ask client to sign whether the rep has drawn his attention to cost and
disadvantages associated with the switch.
B. Reps must sign an indemnity form.
C. Reps to pay for all loss due to the switch.
D. Reps must ask client to declare that he is fully informed of all free switching options.
C2/11.2
6. Under which situation, an individual shall cease to be an Appointed Representative in respect
of any type of financial advisory service?
C2/14.3
7. A principal who lodged a certificate with MAS under Notification Procedure shall keep copies
of all information and document for a period of ____from the date of lodgment?
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
C1/4.2.2
8. Which is NOT Investment Management Association of Singapore (IMAS)’s Standard of
Professional Conduct?
A. Business conduct
B. Investment Conduct
C. Client relations
D. Diligence conduct
C2/4.6
9. Which of the following product is NOT an investment product under the ambit of FAA?
C10/3.5
10. A redemption request is considered received on day T, if it is received with all requisite
documents and information by the close of the dealings. What will it be for bonds and money
market schemes?
A. T + 5 business day
B. T + 6 business day
C. T + 4 business day
D. T + 7 business day
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months
C11/2.3.2
12. Which scheme offers a monetisation option to help low income elderly to unlock part of their
housing equity while continuing living in their homes and receive a life long income stream?
C1/3.2
13. Which regulatory function of SGX governs the listings of companies in Singapore?
A. Member Supervision
B. Issuer Regulation
C. Enforcement
D. Risk Management
C6/3.5
16. A Financial Adviser to recommend Structured Deposits,
A. if the client indicates that he may need to withdraw funds prior to the maturity to meet
certain needs.
B. to all high net worth regardless of age.
C. by a trained representative as it involves underlying financial instruments that are
complex and difficult to understand.
D. by a general rule that the more complex a structured deposit, the more educated the
client must be to fully comprehend.
C6/3.7
17. Who can most likely sell Structured Deposits?
C6/4.3.4
18. A FA shall not be required to inquire if there exists any beneficial owner in relation to a
customer that is:
C6/4.3.3
19. Where the customer appoints one or more natural persons to act on his behalf in establishing
business relations, FA shall:
C6/4.3.1
20. A FA shall identify each customer who applies to the FA to establish business relations.
Which of the following information is Not use for verifying such customer?
A. Full name
B. Marital Status
C. Permanent mailing address
D. Identification number
A. Module 8A
B. Module 6A
C. Module 6
D. Module 9A
C4/3.7.11
22. In the case of an Investment Linked Life Policy, the risk of any fall in the value of the
underlying investments during free look period have to be:
C4/3.2
24. “The Notice on Information to Clients and Product Information Disclosure” imposes an
obligation on licensed FAs to disclose to their clients and prospective clients all material
information relating to any designated investment product, including the form and manner in
which information shall be disclosed. Which section of the FAA is this from?
A. Section 25
B. Section 26
C. Section 27
D. Section 36
C3/7.2(d)
25. Section 32 of the FAA requires every licensed FA to maintain a separate account with a bank
for its life insurance broking premiums. Only which circumstances can the money be
withdrawn?
C2/12.1
26. Under the FAA(Cap 110), who can be the Chief Executive Officer of licensed financial
advisers?
C12/6.1.2(b)
27. Which method is for quantifying protection needs to provide for dependants?
C11/2.3.1
28. CPF members using CPF savings to service their housing loans under the Public Housing
Scheme, are also covered by
C11/2.1.1.(a)
29. Who is most likely exempted from Minimum Sum Scheme?
C11/3.3
30. The purpose of Workfare Income Scheme is
C11/2.3.1
31. Public Housing Scheme does not include which of the following?
A. Executive Condominium
B. Design and Build flats
C. Resale flats
D. Private Condominium
C2/4.3(f)
32. Under the First Schedule of the FAA, who is defined as a “excluded financial advisers” and do
not fall within the definition of “financial adviser”?
C1/2
33. Which of the following on MAS’s objectives is Not True?
A. To promote industry best practices and foster a spirit of collaboration and mutual respect
with government and business leaders.
B. Act as a central bank of Singapore
C. Manage the official reserves of Singapore
D. To develop Singapore as an international financial centre
C2/9
34. Representative Notification Framework is about:
A. The onus is on the principal to lodge a notice of intent with MAS to apply for a valid licence
B. The onus is on the principal to accept only fit and proper individuals as their
representatives.
C. The onus is on MAS to take a heavier role to ensure representatives are fit and proper.
D. MAS will issue licences to representative of licensed financial advisers before their names
are listed in the Public Register.
C2/6.1
35. Under the FAA, the Exempt Fund Managers who are exempted from holding a FA’s license to
conduct regulated activities can serve up to how many accredited investors?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 60
C8/6.4
36. Who can be “independent” under the Guidelines on the use of the term “independent” by the
financial advisers?
C4/3.7.3
37. Representative of financial advisers when recommending collective investment scheme
should advise clients that:
C2/6.1
38. Which prerequisites under the FAA, must be met by the Exempt Fund Managers who are
exempted from holding a FA’s license to conduct regulated activities?
C2/9.2
39. Under the new framework is the Public Register of Representatives for representatives
engaged in financial advisory services. Which of the following information is NOT contained in
this Register?
C11/2.4.1b(ii)
40. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A member wanting to invest his CPF Special Account money must open a CPF
Investment Account with one of the approved CPFIS agent banks.
B. Investing CPF Special Account does not require a CPF Investment
Account with any bank.
C. CPF Investment Account is needed to facilitate a member who wants to invest his CPF
Ordinary Account.
D. Each member can maintain only one CPF Investment Account.
C6/4.3.4
41. Under which situation is a financial advisor required to inquire if there exists any beneficial
owner in relation to a customer?
C3/5.2
42. Money collected by the financial adviser from a client under a Collective Investment Scheme
must be handed to the provider by the next business day unless there is special reason to
delay. Which one of the following reasons is considered acceptable?
C2/3.3, 10.1
43. The principle of accountability is to ensure absolute clarity to the investors who would be
accountable for the representative. Which statement is TRUE?
C2/10.4
44. No individual will be allowed to act as a representative or hold himself to be a representative
of a financial adviser unless:
C2/12.1c
45. Which of the criteria to be appointed as a Provisional Representative is false?
C1/2.2c
46. Which of the following Tenets of Effective Regulation issued by MAS, deals with allowing
exercise of supervisory judgment to set higher standards or permit exemptions when merited
by circumstances?
A. Risk Appropriate
B. Shared Responsibility
C. Impact Sensitive
D. Responsive to changes and cycles
C3/15
47. Section 59(2) of the FAA provides that MAS has the power to issue Prohibition Orders.
Which of the following is untrue of Prohibition Orders?
C3/12
48. Section 56(1) of the FAA provides that licensed financial advisers are required to seek
approval from the MAS for the appointment of its Chief Executive Officer via which form?
A. Form 11.
B. Form 12
C. Form 3A
D. Form 3B
C12/5.3.4
49. Which of the following is not regarded as Committed Expenditure?
A. Housing
B. Income tax
C. Insurance Premium
D. Transportation
C3/15.2
50. Which of the effects of a Prohibition Order (PO) issued by MAS is not true?
C1/2.1.4
51. Which of the following statements correctly describes “Notices” and “Guidelines” under the
FAA?
A. Notices are not legally enforceable. Contravention of it is NOT an offence under the
Act.
B. Guidelines are legally enforceable. Contravention of it is an offence under the Act.
C. Notices are good practice and general guides; they do not create any legally
enforceable obligations.
D. Guidelines are good practice and general guides; they do not create any legally
enforceable obligations.
C5/6.5
53. Which of the aspects on “Misconduct of Representatives” is most true?
C8/6.4
54. Under Regulation 21 of the FAR, FA shall use the word "independent" in certain situations.
Which of the following is untrue?
A. It operates free from any direct or indirect restriction relating to any investment product
which is recommended.
B. There is no conflict of interest created by connection to any product provider.
C. It does not receive any commission or other benefit from a product provider which may
create product bias.
D. FA represents less than 4 product providers for each class of investment products.
C8/7.1
55. Guidelines on Applications for Approval of Arrangement under Para 11 of the 1st schedule to
the FAA deals with :
C2/18
58. Any person who is aggrieved by the refusal of MAS under Section 23 of the FAA to enter his
name in the Public Register,
C3/7.3
59. What must financial adviser do if the amount of money received for investment is less than the
amount of money taken from the Insurance Broking Premium Account to invest?
C1/2
60. Which of the following is a mission of Monetary Authority of Singapore?
C1/5.1
61. Which of the following is not an objective of Investment Management Association of Singapore
(IMAS)?
C9/5.4
62. Which fair dealing outcome is to enable the customers to receive clear, relevant and timely
information to make informed decisions?
C2/2
63. Which of the following statements is most correct about the Financial Advisers Regulations
(FAR)?
C5/2.3.2
64. When an introducer agrees to do the introducing job for the financial adviser, he has to comply
with which of the following?
A. The introducer when carrying out introducing activities can perform it as a full time
occupation.
B. The introducer has to state that all advice and opinions given is solely his own opinions.
C. The introducer has to get involved in the provision of the financial advisory service as
provided for by the financial adviser.
D. The introducer has to disclose to all the clients whether or not he will be remunerated by
the financial adviser for carrying out introducing activities.
C2/5.4
65. What is the minimum financial requirement for the grant of a financial adviser’s licence if they
are advising others, either directly or other form, concerning futures contracts or foreign
exchange trading.
A. S$150,000.
B. S$300,000
C. S$400,000.
D. S$500,000.
C2/5.4
66. A licensed financial adviser who contravenes the minimum financial requirement in application
of a licence is guilty and liable to a conviction of a fine not exceeding:
A. S$25,000
B. S$30,000
C. S$50,000
D. S$75,000
A. ILP sub fund that does not offer dealing every business day, it should be valued at
least once a month.
B. ILP sub fund that does not offer dealing every business day, it should not promote such
funds.
C. Property ILP sub fund; a full valuation at least once every quarter.
D. ILP sub fund that invest in structured deposit; at least once every 3 months.
C8/6.1
70. The concept of independence is a important consideration because :-
C2/6.3
71. Define an “Accredited Investor”
C2/8
72. Financial advisers shall use the word “Independent” or any of its derivatives in any language
to promote its services if:
C11/2.3.1(b)(iv)
73. Any member who purchased a property under Public Housing Scheme by making false
statement, the board shall:
C8/8.1
74. Who is considered a “high net worth individual”?
A. S$500,000
B. S$500 million
C. S$5 million
D. USD50,000
C2/6
76. Which category of “exempt persons” who conduct regulated activities or provide financial
advisory services in Singapore are exempted from holding a financial adviser’s licence with a
clientele restrictions of up to 30 qualified or accredited investors?
A. A Merchant Bank
B. Exempt Fund Manager
C. Society registered under the Insurance Act
D. A holder of a Capital Markets Service Licence
C3/9.1
77. Section 34 of the FAA provides that, with regard to the proposed contract of insurance, FA
should not :-
A. Omit to disclose to the insurer any material matter to the proposed contract.
B. Advise the insured to give information on matter that is material
C. Give any written material to the insurer that is false and misleading unless the insured
himself provides such information.
D. At all time ensure that representation and information provided to the insurer is clear
and accurate.
C12/5.3.2
78. What are some of the reasons why you have to find out about the client’s occupation and his
employment status?
C3/17
79. What is the likely offence that the licensee had committed, if it is punishable by a fine not
exceeding $100,000?
A. Negligence committed by a director of a company who fail to comply with the FAA.
B. Non disclosure of suspicious transactions
C. Contravention of the Prohibition Order issued by MAS.
D. Failure to performed enhanced customer due diligence on Politically Exposed
Persons(PEP).
C2/9.2
80. Underpinning the new Framework, Public Register of Representative is established for
representatives engaged in the financing advisory services. What is NOT contained in this
Register for each appointed and provisional representative?
C5/2.2.3(e)
82. Which of the following is disregarded in the register of introducers maintained by the FA?
A. Years in business
B. Name
C. Place of business
D. Contact number
C12/5.3.6(d)
83. Which of the following statements is most accurate given researches done concerning funding
for retirement?
A. Most singles need 35%-45% of their pre-retirement income to maintain the same living
standard living standard after retirement.
B. Most singles need 50%-60% of their pre-retirement income to maintain the same living
standard living standard after retirement.
C. Most singles need 65%-75% of their pre-retirement income to maintain the same living
standard living standard after retirement.
D. Most singles need a least 80% of their pre-retirement income to maintain the same
living standard living standard after retirement.
C8/2.1.1(b)
84. In assessing an application for a FA’s licence, MAS will consider whether the Chief Executive
Officer, Directors of the Applicant have a minimum of ________relevant working experience in
respect of the financial advisory services.
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
C2/4.4(a)
85. Which is NOT the type of financial advisory service regulated under FAA?
A. Advising on corporate finance within the meaning of the Securities and Future Act (Cap
289).
B. Marketing of Unit Trust.
C. Arranging contract of insurance in respect of life policies
D. Advising other, either directly or through publications or writing, whether in electronic,
print or other form, concerning any investment product.
A. Last known transacted price on the organized market on which the investment is quoted.
B. The transacted price where investments are transacted over an organized market at a
best price specified in the product summary.
C. A fair value of the asset.
D. The value given by a person approved by the insurer to qualified to value such assets.
C7/2.1.1
87. MAS 302 Notice is issued because of :
C8/2.1.2(d)
88. Criteria for the grant of a FA’s license, expects the applicant to have a minimum of a few years
proven track record in the financial advisory business. In the case of an applicant who does
not satisfy this record requirement set by MAS, then the Chief Executive Officer should own
not less than ________shareholdings of the applicant.
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
C10/1
89. Which is NOT True of the revised Code on Collective Investment Schemes (Code)?
A. Sets out the best practices on management, operation and marketing of capital markets
products.
B. A breach of this Code will result in MAS revoking or suspending the recognition of the
Scheme.
C. A breach of this Code by a trustee may result in MAS prohibiting the trustee from acting
as a trustee for any new scheme.
D. The Code is non statutory in nature.
A. Insurer to inform existing policyholders of any significant change to be made to the ILP
or ILP sub fund not later than 1 month before the changes take effect.
B. Insurer shall not market any ILP sub find with sales material containing information
updated as of a date more than 12 prior to marketing it.
C. Insurer shall sent to all policyholders the semi-annual report within 4 months from the
last date of the period to which the report relates.
D. Insurer shall sent to all policyholders the Policy Statement within 30 days after each
policy anniversary date.
C12/5.3.4
91. Which is NOT a variable or manageable expenditure?
A. Education
B. Clothing
C. Savings
D. Transportation
C6/10.1
92. Regarding internal policies and compliance on Group Policy, which of the following is true?
A. A Financial Adviser (FA) that is incorporated in Singapore shall develop a group policy
on AML/CFT and extend it to all its branches outside Singapore.
B. Should the branch have inadequate measures, FA should ensure that the branch
adopt its AML/CFT of the Singapore branch.
C. Where the AML/CFT requirements in the host country is different from Singapore, FA
shall require that the overseas branch apply the lower of the two standards where
permissible.
D. Where the AML/CFT requirements in the host country is in conflict with Singapore law,
FA’s Head Office should adopt the host country requirements.
C10/4.1
93. Under Chapter 4 of the Code on Collective Investment Scheme, which is Not true with regard
to the naming requirement for funds that is undesirable or misleading?
C6/8
94. Which of the following is true regarding Record Keeping expected of a FA?
A. A FA shall prepare, maintain and retain documents on all its business relation
transactions with its customers such that MAS may be able to assess to FA’s
transactions.
B. FA can satisfy within a reasonable time frame, enquiry from relevant authorities.
C. FA shall observe a document retention period of at least 6 years following the
termination of business relation.
D. FA need not retain records longer than 5 years if the subject matter is under
investigation.
C12/5.1.3(b)
95. In the event of serious injury and not being able to work, your client’s financial need will NOT
be:
C11/2.1.1(a)
96. All CPF members are required to set aside the Minimum Sum when they attain the age of 55.
However which of the following is allowed an exemption from this scheme?
C6/11.11
98. Which of the following situation is simplified CDD adopted?
C3/5.2
99. Regulation 19 of the FAR in relation to “receipt of client’s money or property” states:-
C6/9 &11.15
100. Which of the following is NOT true regarding suspicious transaction reporting. FAs are :
1 D 26 C 51 D 76 B
2 A 27 D 52 A 77 A
3 A 28 C 53 C 78 A
4 B 29 C 54 D 79 A
5 A 30 A 55 A 80 D
6 D 31 D 56 B 81 D
7 C 32 D 57 B 82 A
8 D 33 A 58 B 83 B
9 A 34 B 59 D 84 C
10 C 35 B 60 D 85 A
11 A 36 C 61 C 86 A
12 C 37 C 62 D 87 A
13 B 38 C 63 C 88 A
14 D 39 C 64 D 89 A
15 B 40 A 65 B 90 C
16 C 41 D 66 A 91 A
17 C 42 C 67 A 92 A
18 A 43 B 68 A 93 C
19 C 44 B 69 C 94 B
20 B 45 D 70 C 95 D
21 A 46 A 71 D 96 A
22 A 47 D 72 C 97 B
23 B 48 A 73 C 98 C
24 A 49 D 74 B 99 C
25 B 50 D 75 B 100 D
Qn 2
Year 3
Above high water mark : Yes ( Yr 2 HWM is 1.03 compared to Yr 3 HWM is 1.07)
Above hurdle : Yes ( fund is 8%; benchmark is 5%)
Hence performance fee = (1.07 – 1.03)% x 5% = $0.002
Management fee = 2.0% X 1.07 = $0.0214
Total fees = $0.002 + $0.0214 = $0.0234