THEORIES OF
Pakikipagpalagayang-loob
PERSONALITY (1)
1. c. Displacement
2. a. The two basic personality
types
3. b. Limited recognition of
temperament motion and
subjective factors.
4. a. Psychodynamic
5. a. Freud
6. b. Interrelated system of
concepts used to explain
personality
7. d. Carl Rogers; Albert
Bandura
8. b. An applicant who is a
feeling extrovert
9. a. May
10. a. A balance use of the
neurotic trends in a neurotic
personality.
11. d. Adler
12. d. Pakikisama
13. a. Anal retentiveness
14. b. Humanistic
15. d. Reciprocal determinism
16. c. Psychoanalytic; humanistic
17. c. Fixed-ratio
18. a. Introverted-neurotic
19. b. Are symbols that appeal to
basic archetypes
20. b. Belief in the concept of
libido, sexual desires, and
biological instincts.
21. d. Situation affects how traits
are exhibited
22. c. Self-efficacy
23. a. Partial Reinforcement
Effect
24. d. Humanist
25. c. Pakikiisa
26. a. Autonomy
27. a. Psychoanalytical
28. b. Personality is acquired
through conditioning and
observational learning.
29. c. Transcendence
30. b. Preconscious
31. c. Alfred Adler
32. c. Public Disgrace
33. b. Ulirat
34. d. Capacity to laugh at
oneself
35. a. Ningasbao
36. b. The self of self-image
37. d. Identification
38. b. Extraversion, Hardiness,
Optimism
39. b. Extraverted feeling
40. c. Basic Anxiety
41. c. Archetypes
42. d. Judgment about the
desirability of traits.
43. d. Its approach is more
empirical than philosophical.
44. c. Cognitive
45. c. Isolation
46. b. Personal Growth
47. c.
theory in terms of its
48. c. Anyone who is making full underlying dynamics.
use of his or her potential 95. c. Imitate the adult’s
49. c. Part of the human condition aggressive behavior
50. b. Humanistic 96. a. Henry feels ill at the sight
51. d. Intrapsychic conflicts or smell of peanut butter
52. d. Stella is a leader where because it once made him
people listen to her. When sick.
people listen to her she
demonstrates leadership.
53. b. Identification and Imitation
54. d. Try to live up to what other
think you should be
55. d. Dispositional
56. c. Organ Dialect
57. c. Secondary Traits
58. b. Introverted thinking
59. b. Shape one’s style of life
60. b. Moving toward
61. c. Marketing
62. d. Superiority
63. c. Inhibition or intolerable
guilt
64. a. A person is either one or
the other.
65. b. Chances of suffering a
heart attack.
66. c. Ideal self
67. c. Psychodynamic
68. b. Secondary thought process
69. a. Social Learning Theory
70. a. Humanistic
71. a. Delay of Reinforcement
72. a. Dangal
73. d. People who lives unusually
effective lives.
74. b. An individual can achieve
self-actualization
75. d. Anally expulsive
76. a. Bayanihan
77. a. Do nothing
78. c. Use shaping
79. d. May
80. a. Personal Tragedy
81. c. The collective unconscious
82. d. Enduring
83. a. Fixed-ratio
84. b. Mitwelt
85. d. Psychoanalytic;
Humanistic
86. d. Behavior Geneticist
87. d. Repression
88. b. Ningas Cogon
89. a. Bob has not learned to
perform addition and is only
learning it in his lesson in
division.
90. d. It emphasizes the
experiencing person to an
accepting environmental
condition.
91. b. Personal construction
92. a. Freud
93. a. Instinctual drift
94. a. Trait theory defines
personality in terms of
behavior, psychoanalytic
ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY accurately than those without 89. b. Influenced by Fritz Perls’
(1) depression. therapeutic technique
1. e. Gymnastics 46. b. Low-energy and Low self- 90. d. Insomnia
2. d. Dissociative fugue esteem 91. b. Opiates
3. d. Discovering that a patient 47. c. Persecutory 92. a. Strange ideations
may be abusing a child and 48. e. Schizoid Personality 93. e. Secondary gain
reporting the abuse to a social Disorder 94. b. Prepared classical
service agency 49. b. 9 months conditioning
4. b. Specific Phobia 50. b. Schizoid Personality 95. c. Dependent Personality
5. b. Psychodynamic Disorder Disorder
6. b. Psychodynamic 51. c. Aversion therapy 96. e. Conversion Disorder
7. b. Blood-injection injury 52. b. Tic disorder 97. b. Avoidant Personality
8. c. Schizoaffective Disorder 53. a. Rational-Emotive Behavior Disorder
9. d. Feeling as though the person Therapy 98. c. Factitious Disorder
himself/herself were two 54. d. Narcissistic Personality 99. b. They are socially punished
different people Disorder for exhibiting signs of anxiety
10. c. Narcissistic 55. e. All of the above 100. e. All of the above
11. c. Alcohol 56. e. Inappropriately sexually
12. e. All of the above seductive or provocative
13. b. Conduct Disorder behavior.
14. c. Obsessive-Compulsive 57. c. Delusions
Personality Disorder 58. e. Managing Personal Care
15. a. Expressed-emotion 59. e. Use of medical
16. c. Borderline Personality 60. c. Constricted pupils
Disorder 61. d. All of the above
17. c. Obsessive-Compulsive 62. b. They conceptualize the
Disorder problem as only physical in
18. a. Anorexia Nervosa nature
19. c. It has medical treatment 63. c. Hand washing
20. c. Schizotypal Personality 64. d. Negative symptoms
Disorder 65. b. Paranoid Personality
21. b. Avoidant Personality Disorder
Disorder 66. b. Anxiety
22. d. Projection 67. d. Social Anxiety Disorder
23. c. It has been definitively 68. b. Self-mutilating Behavior
linked to childhood sexual 69. e. Conduct an interview to
abuse. determine if a patient is
24. a. Autism Spectrum Disorder competent to consent or refuse
25. b. Blood-injection injury medication.
26. a. Bipolar Disorder 70. a. Trichotillomania
27. e. Both A & C 71. b. Borderline Personality
28. d. Concerns about weight gain Disorder
29. e. None of the above 72. c. In-vivo Exposure Therapy
30. b. Acute Stress Disorder And 73. a. Somatic Symptom Disorder
Dissociative Amnesia 74. a. Isolation
31. d. Transference-focused 75. a. Schizotypal Personality
therapy Disorder
32. e. Stereotypic Movement 76. c. Vulnerability-stress
Disorder 77. a. Depressed mood or Loss of
33. e. Voyeuristic Disorder interest/pleasure
34. d. Belief that sex is beneficial 78. b. Obsessive-Compulsive
to health Personality Disorder
35. a. Expressed-emotion 79. b. Systematic desensitization
36. b. Antisocial and imaginal exposure
37. b. PTSD 80. b. Somatic Symptom Disorder
38. d. Cognitive 81. c. Separation Anxiety Disorder
39. a. Conduct Disorder and 82. d. Disregard and violation of
Oppositional Defiant Disorder others’ rights
40. c. Males have a later age of 83. b. The primary goal of the
onset compared to females symptoms is secondary gain
41. c. Patients believe that they (e.g., in this case, financial
have serious underlying illness gain)
42. d. Rational-Emotive Behavior 84. e. Splitting
Therapy 85. c. Suicide
43. d. Intellectual Disability 86. c. Displacement
44. d. All of the above 87. c. Negative symptoms
45. d. They perceive events 88. a. Intrusive image/thoughts
beyond their control less
ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY 38. b. Unconscious anxiety is 73. b. Obsessive-Compulsive
(2) displaced onto a neutral or Disorder
symbolic object. 74. d. Depression
1. d. Natural or synthesized
39. b. Many people with panic 75. b. Somatoform Disorders
product that has psychoactive
disorder feel ashamed of it 76. c. The person may have a real
effects.
and try to hide it from others. physical problem
2. b. Substance withdrawal
40. b. Are often excessively 77. d. Factitious disorders are the
3. a. Substance intoxication
worried about almost all deliberate faking of
4. a. Substance withdrawal
situations. symptoms to gain medical
5. a. The individual fails to
41. b. They believe that worrying attention.
fulfill important obligations at
can help them avoid bad 78. c. Malingering
work, home, or school as a
events by motivating them to 79. a. Psychosomatic Disorder
result of substance use.
engage in problem solving. 80. a. Sensory and Motor Deficits
6. d. Substance dependence
42. b. GABA Receptors 81. c. Three sexual pain
7. c. Tolerance
43. c. Obsessive-Compulsive symptoms
8. d. Alcohol
Disorder 82. b. Complain of chronic
9. c. Blackout
44. b. Constantly thinking about anatomical pain
10. b. Depressant; slows the
cleanliness and contamination 83. c. Women
central nervous system
45. a. Repeatedly checking the 84. a. Challenging the
11. b. Five or more drinks within
locks on all doors. maladaptive interpretations of
a couple of hours
46. d. A person afraid of physical symptoms and teach
12. b. Cocaine
contamination is asked to the client techniques for
13. d. Its rapid, strong effects on
hold a dirty handkerchief for appropriate interpretations
the brain's reward centers
more than an hour. 85. b. BDD clients have an
14. a. Its effects wear off quickly.
47. a. Persecutory Delusions excessive preoccupation with
15. a. Amphetamines
48. c. Delusions of reference the belief that their bodies are
16. a. It resembles a fight or
49. c. Thoughts; perceptions imperfect.
flight response.
50. d. Tactile hallucination 86. c. Genitals
17. d. Caffeine
51. d. Word Salad 87. b. Nightmares
18. c. Anhedonia
52. a. Neologisms 88. b. Dissociative
19. b. Psychomotor retardation;
53. b. Brain abnormalities 89. d. Under stress and Sleep-
psychomotor agitation
associated with schizophrenia deprived
20. a. Delusions; Hallucinations
may not affect women's 90. b. Dissociative
21. b. Major Depressive Disorder
language and thought as 91. a. DID
22. b. Persistent Depressive
much as they do men's 92. a. Alternative Personality
Disorder
because women can use both 93. c. Different genders and
23. d. Major depressive disorder
sides of their brain to different ages
is more severe and less
compensate for problems. 94. b. Males diagnosed with DID
chronic than persistent
54. c. Avolition tend to be more aggressive
depressive disorder.
55. b Anhedonia than females diagnosed with
24. a. Anxiety Disorder
56. b. Schizoaffective Disorder DID.
25. a. Anxious Distress
57. a. Schizophreniform disorder 95. d. Child
26. c. Catatonic features
58. d. Brief psychotic disorder 96. b. Schizophrenia
27. c. Per-partum onset
59. a. Individuals have delusions 97. a. Sexual or Physical Abuse
28. a. Cyclothymic disorder is
that last at least 1 month, but 98. b. Chronic physical or sexual
less severe and more chronic
do not show any other abuse during childhood
than bipolar disorder.
symptoms of schizophrenia. 99. a. Korsakoff’s Syndrome
29. d. A diagnosis of cyclothymic
60. a. Delusional disorder 100. a. Hypochondriasis
disorder requires that the
61. c. Schizotypal Personality 101. c. Dissociative Fugue
person alternates between
Disorder 102. d. The person’s inability to
cycles of hypomania and
62. d. 10 remember specific events,
moderate depression.
63. a. Borderline Personality time periods, or personal
30. b. The length of individual
Disorder information
episodes of bipolar disorder
64. b. Amygdala 103. c. Persons experiencing
varies greatly from one
65. b. Admiration fugue states also suffer with
person to the next
66. c. People with this disorder alternative personalities
31. c. Women and men are
are preoccupied with fantasies 104. a. Antisocial Personality
equally likely to develop
of power and success. Disorder
bipolar disorder.
67. b. Detachment 105. b. Outgrow the symptoms
32. c. Limbic System
68. a. Avoidant Personality of ADHD and lead normal
33. a. Maladaptive responses
Disorder healthy lives
subside once the threat ends,
69. b. Are often workaholics who 106. a. Dopamine
whereas adaptive fear persists
see little need for leisure 107. c. One study showed that
after the threat passes.
activities. some children who received
34. b. Panic Disorder
70. d. Relaxation techniques medication for ADHD
35. b. Agoraphobia
71. c. Schizotypal Personality symptoms did not meet the
36. c. An animal-type phobia
Disorder diagnostic criteria for the
37. d. A natural environment type
72. b. Extreme stress disorder
phobia
108. c. Boys and younger
children
109. b. Dyslexia
110. a. Dyslexia
111. d. Expressive Language
Disorder
112. c. Pervasive
Developmental Disorders
113. a. Gross Motor Skills
114. b. Echolalia
115. d. Mental Retardation
116. b. Hyperactive behavior
117. c. Parent training
alongside short-term medical
treatment.
118. b. Organic brain disorders
119. b. In dementia, the
memory does not return
spontaneously, and may not
respond to memory cues
120. d. Aphasia
121. c. Aphasia
122. d. Palialia; Echolalia
123. b. Apraxia
124. b. Early-onset Type
125. b. Vascular Dementia
126. a. Pick’s Disease
127. c. Parkinson’s Disease
128. d. Delirium
129. c. Anterograde;
Retrograde
130. d. Thalamus; Amnesic
131. b. Vascular Dementia
INDUSTRIAL & 30. d. What to measure and how
ORGANIZATIONAL to measure
PSYCHOLOGY (1) 31. a. More inflated ratings
32. d. Performance-reward
1. c. Potential to upset or lose
33. a. Overestimate Job
employee who aren’t
Satisfaction
promoted
34. d. A moderate amount of
2. c. Ask customers service
social loafing
representatives to fill out
35. d. Sit-down strike
questionnaires related to
36. d. Job-sharing
their training needs.
37. b. Contrast error
3. d. Forced Distribution
38. d. What factors should one
4. a. Introduce certain
consider when developing a
recognition programs to
television advertising
improve employee morale
campaign?
5. a. Self-managed work team
39. b. Demonstration and
6. b. Wage rates
Structured exercises
7. c. Compressed work
40. c. It increases employee
schedule
motivation to participate.
8. b. Situational interviews are
41. c. Halo effect
based on how an applicant
42. b. Added Professional
might behave in a
Development
hypothetical situation
43. a. Effort – Performance
9. c. Organizational Strategic
44. b. Motivated by challenging
Objectives
but achievable goals
10. c. Ratings are higher than
45. b. Conceptual Skills
when rated by supervisors.
46. c. Disputes are open to
11. c. Expectancy
public view as soon as the
12. b. Insufficient Training
involved parties agree to the
13. a. Uses its compensation
arbitration.
system to retain its
47. a. Part-time
employees.
48. c. Situational Interview
14. d. Balancing work and
49. b. Paper and pencil honesty
family life
tests
15. b. Tell me about a time you
50. d. Advisory Committee
showed leadership in a
51. c. They are inclined to refer
difficult situation.
to past experiences and want
16. a. Company policy, type of
opportunities to share them
job applied for, cost of test
52. b. Leniency
17. a. Classrooms must be used
53. a. 4-3-2-5-1
to accommodate a large
54. b. He is not satisfied with
group to be trained
job.
18. b. To have the trainee
55. c. Opportunities for
develop an action plan for
responsibility
implementing the new
56. c. The group is effective.
learning
57. b. When the difference exists
19. a. Behavior
because of a merit system
20. b. Employee competence
58. d. “Can you tell me about a
21. b. Most people are at least
time in the past when you
somewhat satisfied with
used leadership skills to
their jobs most of the time.
handle a difficult situation?
22. c. A productive worker well
59. d. Revise the selection test to
rewarded for performance
eliminate the problem.
will be a happy worker.
60. c. Sequential
23. c. A common purpose
61. b. Cost per employee of the
24. c. Benefits received upon
orientation program
retirement vary by the
62. c. Only 1-3-5
employee’s age and length
63. d. 1. Establish Performance
service
Standards.
25. a. Flexible employee work
2. Measure Actual
schedule
Performance
26. c. Poor person job-fit
3. Compare Measured
27. b. Time required to
Performance against
administer and assess results
Established Standards
28. a. The standards of
4. Take Corrective Action
acceptable performance
64. a. Golem Effect
29. b. Job-related distractions
65. d. Enhance Job Satisfaction
can be minimized
66. d. Work-related; Personal
67. c. Climate of Trust
68. a. Reward Strategy
Alignment
69. b. Social Support
70. a. Methods to use to find
applicants and sources to
target
71. a. “You’ll thrive on
challenging work.”
72. d. Motivation
73. c. The quantity and/or the
quality of documents he
proofreads will increased.
74. a. Doubts that the company
will reinforce the learning
75. b. Defining outcomes
76. d. 360-degree feedback
77. d. Measure of turnover,
productivity movement, and
grievances in each
supervisor’s Department
78. d. Teamwork takes less time
than individual work
79. a. III, IV, I ,V, II
80. c. Zero hours contracts
81. a. Extraversion
82. c. Applicants are tested on
their ability to perform
several tasks crucial to
performing the job of
interest.
83. a. Classrooms allow little
interaction among trainees
84. d. Lecture
85. b. Give written warnings and
suspend temporarily
86. c. Straight ranking
87. a. “I spend most of my day
closely supervising
employees. When I’m not
around, I suspect that they
do as little as possible.”
88. b. Equity
89. d. Transfer of skills and
technical expertise
90. a. Team members monitor
and control each other’s
actions
91. d. Maximum earning
potential is usually greater
with an incentive plan than
traditional merit plan.
92. b. Supervisors, Job Analysts
and Customers
93. c. They are critical of their
environment.
94. d. Putting off dealing with
distasteful problems
95. b. An attractive man
96. a. Lack of ability to pursue
follow-up questions as they
develop
97. a. Teach the trainees self-
management skills
98. d. Group Discussion
99. b. Telecommunicating
100. c. Strength and
weaknesses identified in the
performance appraisal will
be used to determine training
needs
PSYCHOLOGICAL
ASSESSMENT
1. d. 99%
2. a. A portfolio assessment
3. a. The right not to have
privacy invaded
4. d. Dividing the MA by the
CA and Multiplying the
result by 100
5. c. Educational Tests
6. c. Different
7. c. The superficial
characteristics of a test
8. b. Ratio
9. b. False
10. c. The 10-year old child
would obtain a higher ratio
IQ
11. c. Below average
12. b. More reliable than
13. d. It’s multimodal
14. b. The square root of the
variance
15. a. He is concerned with how
well a test measures the
constructs that it claims to
measure.
16. a. -0.80
17. a. Meaningless
18. d. Norms
19. a. 85
20. c. Behavioral evaluation of
test scorers from different
cultural background
21. b. 550
22. a. As regards the three
subjects taken by Carmen,
she performed best in
science.
23. a. Carmen
24. a. The test or test versions
are the same
25. d. Stanine
26. b. Scores of the same test
administered in two different
days
27. d. Equivalent, Delayed
28. d. ANOVA
29. d. Scores are correlated with
scores obtained on another
instrument.
30. d. Data-based predictions
that prove to be correct.
31. a. Inferences must be valid
before the scores can be
reliable
32. b. Range
33. a. Norms
34. a. True
35. b. RPB
36. c. a phi coefficient is used
when establishing
relationship between the
response in the dichotomous
scale among the male and
female respondents.
37. b. is always ordinal in nature
38. b. Similarity; Importance
39. a. As age increases, the
number of friends increases
40. b. They should hire a new
statistician
41. c. A grouped frequency
distribution of test takers
scores
42. b. 11
43. d. Construct
44. a. Too easy
45. b. The degree to which an
operation is similar to other
operations
46. a. Face
47. d. Discriminant
48. b. the emotional principles
of a psychological test
49. c. Correlation Coefficient
50. a. Test-Retest
51. b. Sometimes test-retest
reliability is artificially high
because people remember
how they answered the first
time.
52. a. Criterion Validity
53. c. Distributing norms to
members of target
populations.
54. c. More expensive
55. b. Alfred Binet
56. b. Test difficulty
57. c. Representative of the
group for which they will be
used
58. b. The relationship between
test anxiety and test
performance is indirect.
59. c. 300 males and 300
females
60. b. The development of the
Simon- Binet Intelligence
Test
61. a. It is symmetrical
62. a. James Mckeen Cattell
63. a. IQ and Mental Health
64. c. Construct Validity
65. a. 11 years, 6 months, 28
days
66. b. Testing
67. b. Bender Test
68. b. The standard deviation
69. d. Be aware of the cultural
assumptions on which a test
is based.
70. b. An examination for entry
in a faculty union
71. d. Various sources of error
are part of the assessment
process
72. d. A method of combining
information across studies
73. d. Variables affected by
inflation of range
74. b. Is more technician-like
than psychological
assessment
75. a. Has a time limit designed
to be long enough to allow
all test takers to attempt all
items.
76. b. The needs system
proposed by Murray
77. c. Crystallized; Increase
78. d. Sensitive
79. d. Low Predictive Validity
80. b. Social Intelligence
81. a. Myer’s Briggs Type
Indicator
82. b. Empirically derived and
objective personality test
83. c. Central Tendency Error
84. c. Validity of the item
85. b. Item Discrimination
86. a. Screening large number of
people
87. a. projective test
88. c. 16 Personality Factor Test
89. c. Normative data
90. c. 16 Personality Factor Test
91. a. Validity sets the limit on
test’s reliability
92. c. It was designed for the use
of the illiterate recruits.
93. a. Invalid due to the informal
nature
94. c. High on measure of
internal control
95. ----
96. d. Bandura
97. a. Directly and adequately
answer the referral question
98. a. It measures the
consistency over time or
situation
99. a. Criterion-related Validity
100. a. It is measures the
consistency over time in
situation
101. b. Directive, structured
102. d. 99%
103. c. Public service
examinations in ancient
China
104. a. A delinquency as a
factor affecting the
development of intelligence
105. d. Empirically validating
test scores via research
106. b. Scoring is a heavily
dependent in the judgment of
the scorer
107. d. All of the above
108. a. Legal Decision Making
109. d. The test is appropriate
whose with particular client
in terms of his/her
demographics
110. b. A shorter testing time
111. a. Should not be
interpreted by a computer
112. b. Scoring is heavy
dependent on the judgment
of the scorer
113. c. Compare the cognitive
function of the participants
before and after the two-
month period of taking
blueberry supplement
114. d. Within-subject design
115. d. Both A and B
116. b. Cannot be readily
equated to all other 5 point
differences in percentiles
117. c. Behavioral Observation
118. d. Inconsistent
119. a. Dependability
120. d. Finding the average of
the correlation of each item
with every other item.
121. a. The individual belongs
to the criterion of group
when they do not
122. d. Be clear about the
construct or constructs to be
assessed with the test
123. d. Guesting
124. a. Is a linear process with
one stage following the other
without variation
125. a. A lot of information
about the client can be
collected very quickly
126. b. Increasing the number
of groups increases the
overall sample size required
127. a. People differ in their
tendency to create a
favorable impression of
themselves when answering
test items
128. d. The purpose of
assessment is different
129. a. Appearance, orientation,
affect, thought content and
process, insights
130. a. How we ensure the
sample is normally
distributed
131. d. May indicate a lack of
test validity but may also
reflect intervening effects
unrelated to scholastic
aptitude
132. c. The incorrect scoring of
a psychological test leading
to someone being appointed
who shouldn’t have been
133. a. Quality over Quantity
134. c. High average
135. c. Norms
136. c. RXY
137. a. 1000 Caucasians
138. b. Aid interpretation of the
scores
139. c. Different norms may
apply for the different
purposes for which a test
score is used
140. c. The raw score mean on
intelligence tests has been
increasing over the years
141. a. A place where
assessment are conducted
142. c. Culture free
143. ----
144. c. Wechsler Scales
145. a. Examiner
146. d. Supervisor is
committing the central
tendency error
147. c. He will readily obey the
court as part
148. b. Work samples
149. b. Examinee
STATISTICS
SET 1
1. d. Sampling behavior from
affective domains
2. b. Standards for
Educational and
Psychological Testing
3. a. China, B.C.E.
4. a. Prior to their being
placed into use
5. c. Clinical Assessment
6. b. Alfred Binet
7. d. Dividing the MA by the
CA and multiplying the
result by 100.
8. c. Decision-making
9. c. More expensive
10. d. Psych INFO
SET 2
1. b. Ratio
2. b. False
3. c. The 10-year-old would
obtain a higher ratio IQ.
4. a. 4,3, and 2
5. b. The square root of the
variance
6. d. It is Multimodal
7. b. 68%
8. c. Either too easy or too
hard
9. a. -0.80
10. a. Reduced
SET 3
1. a. Meaningless
2. d. Norms
3. c. Natural Sequences
4. c. representative of the
group for which they will
be used.
5. b. Test Difficulty
6. a. 85
7. d. z scores to T scores
8. c. higher on the WAIS
than on the WAIS-III.
9. b. Items and Persons
10. a. Computer adaptive
SET 4
1. a. Hypothetical entity
2. b. False
3. d. Deviations from
standardized procedures
4. a. Test-Retest
5. d. Delayed alternate form
6. b. More reliable than
7. b. Heterogeneity/size
8. c. allows for the evaluation
of interaction effects.
9. b. 102 and 112
10. a. Less than 8
SET 5
1. b. Evidence supports
inferences from test
scores.
2. d. Construct
3. a. A network of
relationships between
measures
4. b. Educational Tests
5. c. The superficial
characteristics of a test.
6. c. Different
7. a. Simplify the
interpretation and
reporting of test scores.
8. d. The best criterion
measures are usually
available at the time of
testing.
9. d. Accuracy with which
criteria are predicted.
10. c. Classification
SET 6
1. a. Developers
2. c. After the item pool is
generated
3. b. Selected-response items
4. d. Are easier to prepare
5. a. Validity
6. c. 0.50
7. b. False
8. a. Less appropriate than
9. c. To increase the number
of items included in a test
10. d. Personality
SET 7
1. a. Whether testing is
necessary
2. c. Easy availability
3. c. 0.50
4. b. Moderate/Low/High
5. d. Biodata
6. b. Undesirable
7. d. Qualitative Data
Gathering
8. a. Can be a valuable
component in most cases
when assessment is
needed.
9. c. Meaning of test scores
10. d. Never obviated.