PART–A

1. Fill the blank with the correct idiom/phrase

That boy from the town was a ____ in the sleepy village.
(A) Dog out of herd
(B) Sheep from the heap
(C) Fish out of water
(D) Bird from the flock
SA
2. Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
She could not ____the thought of ____the election to her bitter rival.
(A) bear, loosing (B) bare, loosing
MP
(C) bear, losing (D) bare, losing
3. ‘Advice’ is ______.
(A) A verb (B) A noun
(C) An adjective (D) Both a verb and a noun
L
4. Choose the most appropriate phrase from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
The aircraft _____take off as soon as its flight plant was filed.
E
(A) is allowed to (B) will be allowed to
(C) was allowed to (D) has been allowed to
5. Select the most suitable synonym for the word SIMULATE.
(A) Accumulate (B) Smile
TE
(C) Pretend (D) Gamble
6. Select the most suitable synonym for the word PANACEA.
(A) Wonder (B) Elixir
ST
(C) Placebo (D) Honey
7. Select the most suitable antonym for the word CRUDE
(A) Cruel (B) Sophisticated
(C) Malevolent (D) Primeval
8. Select the most suitable antonym for the word HAPHAZARD.
(A) Cumbersome (B) Concocted
PA
(C) Orderly (D) Zigzag
9. Select the pair which shows the same relationship as POLYMER : CELL
(A) Coin : Money (B) Food : Wheat
(C) Chain : Link (D) Fibre : Plastic
PE

10. Choose the most appropriate preposition to complete the sentence:

He is a traitor _____ the country.
(A) for (B) to
R
(C) in (D) of
11. Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?
(A) Calcium (B) Iron
(C) Magnesium (D) Potassium
12. Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?
(A) Silver flsh (B) Jelly fish
(C) Cuttle fish (D) Flying fish

[3] PG-QP–59
13. Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of
which one of the following noble gases?
(A) Argon (B) Xenon
(C) Neon (D) Helium
14. Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO?
(A) Keoladeo National Park (B) Sundarbans National Park
(C) Kaziranga National Park (D) Ranthambore National Park
SA
15. Cooking gas is a mixture of
(A) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide (B) Butane and propane
(C) Carbon dioxide and oxygen (D) Methane and ethylene
16. Find the odd man out:
MP
(A) 6V12 (B) 2H4
(C) 9F18 (D) 3R6
17. For how many times, the hands of a clock are at right angles in a day ?
(A) 24 (B) 22
L
(C) 44 (D) 48
18. Find the missing term 97:89 :: 43: …?
E
(A) 37 (B) 31
(C) 39 (D) 41
19. The value of one US dollar is 65 Indian Rupees today, compared to 60 last year. The Indian Rupee
has ____.
TE

(A) Depressed (B) Depreciated

(C) Appreciated (D) Stabilized
20. 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them play both
hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing neither hockey nor football is:
ST

(A) 2 (B) 17
(C) 13 (D) 3
21. By selling an item for Rs. 198, Souvik made a loss of 12%. By how much should he have raised the
price to make a profit of 8%?
(A) Rs.25 (B) Rs.55
(C) Rs.44 (D) Rs.45
PA

22. A person who is the husband of my son’s sister is my ___.

(A) Nephew (B) Son – in – Law
(C) Son (D) Brother
PE
23. Ram and Ramesh appeared in an interview for two vacancies in the same department. The
probabilities of Ram’s selection is 1/6 and that of Ramesh is 1/8. What is probability that only one of
them will be selected?
(A) 47/48 (B) 1/4 (C) 13/48 (D) 35/48
R
24. A is the father of B. C is the son of D. E is the brother of C while D is the sister of B. How is B related
to E?
(A) Uncle (B) Aunt
(C) Mother (D) Either A or B
25. What will be next leap year after 2096?
(A) 2100 (B) 2101
(C) 2104 (D) 2108

[4] PG-QP–59
 PART–B

26. Determining the relative positions of points on above or beneath the surface of the earth by means of
direct or indirect measurements of distance, direction and elevation is called as ______
(A) Surveying (B) Levelling
(C) Measuring (D) Contouring
27. The underground routes or passages driven through the ground without disturbing overlying soil cover
are called
SA
(A) Bridges (B) Passages
(C) Tunnels (D) Sub-routes
28. What is expansion of GPS
(A) Global position satellite (B) Global perception satellite
MP
(C) Global position system (D) Geographical position system
29. The study of outcrop dimensions doesn’t involve which of the following aspect?
(A) Width (B) Thickness and depth
(C) Dip and strike (D) Rock composition and type
L
30. The survey maps in India, for use of Highway alighnment, related to topography are prepared by:
(A) Geological Survey of India (B) Survey of India
E
(C) NHAI (D) GOI
31. The branch or study which deals with behaviour of rocks under applied forces is called
(A) Soil mechanics (B) Rock mechanics
(C) Lithology (D) Geology
TE

32. The rock mass which is capable of yielding the contained water economically
(A) Aquifer (B) Aquiclude
(C) Aquifuge (D) Aquitard
ST
33. An aquifer can hold water ______ and the state of water is ______.
(A) Permanently, State of flow (B) Temporarily, State of flow
(C) Permanent, State of stagnancy (D) Temporary, State of stagnancy
34. Pick the wrong statement about groundwater.
(A) It is turbid (B) It is odourless
(C) It is free from pathogens (D) It is coloured
PA

35. What is the process of movement downwards of vadose water called?

(A) Infiltration (B) Filtration
(C) Deposition (D) Down-flow
PE
36. What is the water obtained from precipitation called?
(A) Meteoric water
(B) Connate water
(C) Juvenile water
(D) Secondary water
R

37. The study of earthquakes is called

(A) Eathquakology
(B) Tremology
(C) Seismology
(D) Quakegraphy

[5] PG-QP–59
38. What is the characteristic of walls for quake resistant buildings?
(A) Heavy weight (B) As thick as possible
(C) Light weight (D) Acoustic
39. What is the maximum force expressed per unit area, which a stone can withstand without rupturing?
(A) Shear strength (B) Tensile strength
(C) Compressive strength (D) Bending strength
40. Which of the following is not a desirable of a road stone?
SA
(A) Hydrophobic in nature (B) Sufficient hardness and toughness
(C) Durability at the place of use (D) Hydrophilic in nature
41. The property which defines the resistance of a stone to rubbing and grinding action under the wheel of
the traffic is called
MP
(A) Abrasive resistance (B) Crushing resistance
(C) Hardness (D) Specific gravity
42. Common bitumen is generally of which nature?
(A) Anionic (B) Cationic
L
(C) Neutral charge (D) No charge
43. What is the term defining the capacity of a river to transport the material?
E
(A) Gradient (B) Competence
(C) Flow type (D) Fluvial
44. Based on the important category, concrete and fibre glass are the examples of
TE
(A) Ceramics (B) Polymers
(C) Composites (D) Semi-conductors
45. Why Gypsum is added after calcination in the manufacture of Portland cement?
(A) To prevent flash setting (B) To improve the quality of cement
ST
(C) To increase the lime saturation factor (D) None of the mentioned
46. The strength of Vander Waals forces depends upon
(A) Size of the molecule
(B) Molecular structure
(C) Number of electrons present in the molecule
(D) All of the above
PA
47. At what temperature does the water molecules contract?
(A) At 0°C (B) Below 0°C
(C) At 4°C (D) Between 0°C and 4°C
48. Which of the following is the principal factor causeing the properties of nanomaterials to differ
PE
significantly from other materials?
(A) Size distribution (B) Specific surface feature
(C) Quantum size effects (D) All of the above
49. Which of the following is not a common method used for purification?
R

(A) Sublimation (B) Crystallisation

(C) Electrolysis (D) Chromatography
50. The solution which is obtained after filtration is
(A) Suspended solution (B) Clear solution
(C) Colloidal solution (D) None of the mentioned above

[6] PG-QP–59
51. The process of heating a liquid mixture to form vapours and then cooling the vapours to get pure
component is called
(A) Crystallisation (B) Distillation
(C) Chromatography (D) Sublimation
52. Chromatography is the process for identification, purification and separation of components of a
mixture on the basis of
(A) Difference in their boiling point
(B) Difference in their melting point
SA
(C) Difference in their affinity for mobile and stationary phase
(D) Difference in their solubility
53. The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is called
(A) Melting point of liquid (B) Freezing point of liquid
MP
(C) Freezing point of solid (D) All of the mentioned above
54. According to IS code what is the average quantity of water (in lpcd) required for domestic purposes:
(A) 100 (B) 120
(C) 70 (D) 135
L

55. What is the design period for the water treatment unit?
E
(A) 10 years (B) 15 years
(C) 20 years (D) 30 years
56. In water, which type of bacteria has a rod shaped structure?
(A) Bacilli (B) Cocci
TE
(C) Spirilla (D) Vibrio
57. Type of surveying in which the mean surface of the earth is considered as a plane and the spheroidal
shape is neglected called as ______
(A) Topographic Surveying (B) Hydrographic Surveying
ST
(C) Geodetic Surveying (D) Plane Surveying
58. Type of surveying in which the shape of the earth taken into account is ______
(A) Topographic Surveying (B) Hydrographic Surveying
(C) Geodetic Surveying (D) Plane Surveying
59. Which of the following is made in connection with the construction of streets, water supply systems, sewers?
(A) Traverse surveying (B) Hydrographic surveying
PA
(C) Cadastral surveying (D) City surveying
60. What is the length of the revenue chain?
(A) 100 ft (B) 33 ft
(C) 66 ft (D) 50 ft
PE

61. Which line passes through a point, such that plane passing that point and the north and south poles,
intersects with the surface of the earth?
(A) True Meridian (B) Magnetic Meridian
R
(C) Arbitrary Meridian (D) Survey line
62. What is the first principle of surveying?
(A) Part to whole (B) Whole to part
(C) Whole to whole (D) Part to part
63. In which direction latitude of the line is positive?
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) West

[7] PG-QP–59
64. The design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super elevation, gradient is worst affected by
(A) Length of vehicle (B) Width of vehicle
(C) Speed of vehicle (D) Height of vehicle
65. The branch of engineering that deals with improvement of traffic performance, traffic studies and traffic
network is called
(A) Highway engineering (B) Railway engineering
(C) Traffic engineering (D) Traffic management
SA
66. The traffic survey is conducted during
(A) Harvest season
(B) Harvest and lean season
(C) Rainy season
(D) Summer season
MP

67. The pollutant mostly released by automobiles is

(A) CO (B) CO2
(C) O3 (D) CH4
L
68. The first stage in the traffic engineering studies is
(A) Traffic volume studies
E
(B) Spot speed studies
(C) Speed and delay studies
(D) Origin and destination studies
69. The traffic that is prepared based on 365 days of the year is called
TE
(A) Yearly traffic
(B) Annual average daily traffic
(C) Average daily traffic
(D) Average yearly traffic
ST
70. The property of soil by which its state and size changes is called
(A) Activity (B) Sensitivity
(C) Thixotropy (D) Shear strength
71. Sand obtained from river is used as
(A) Course aggregate (B) Fine aggregate
(C) Filling materials (D) Substitute
PA
72. The maximum size of aggregate that can be used in R.C.C is
(A) 10 mm (B) 15 mm
(C) 20 mm (D) 25 mm
73. Bitumen is obtained from
PE

(A) Wood (B) Petroleum

(C) Coal (D) Kerosene
74. Tar is obtained from
R
(A) Wood (B) Petroleum
(C) Coal (D) Kerosene
75. The SI unit of viscosity is
(A) Stoke
(B) Pascal
(C) Pascal second
(D) Dynes

[8] PG-QP–59
76. The property of cement by which it doesn’t expand is called
(A) Fineness (B) Soundness
(C) Setting time (D) Consistency
77. The roads passing through hilly terrain and leading to the villages and towns near hills are called
(A) National highway (B) State highway
(C) Hill road (D) Village road
78. Unit of the rate of heat transfer is
SA
(A) Joule (B) Newton
(C) Pascal (D) Watt
79. Heat transfer takes place according to which law?
(A) Newton’s law of cooling
MP
(B) Second law of thermodynamics
(C) Newton’s second law of motion
(D) First law of thermodynamics
80. Which one of the following forms of water have the highest value of thermal conductivity?
L
(A) Boiling water (B) Steam
(C) Solid ice (D) Melting ice
E
81. If radiant energy E B emitted by the black surface strikes the non-black surface. If non-black surface
has absorptivity α, it will absorb how much radiations?
(A) α E B (B) 2 α E B
(C) 3 α E B (D) 4 α E B
TE

82. In which fluid flow, the motion of fluid particles is irregular?

(A) Turbulent (B) Laminar
(C) One dimensional (D) Two dimensional
ST
83. Conduction plus fluid flow in motion is known as
(A) Radiation (B) Conduction
(C) Convection (D) Heat exchanger
84. Boiling temperature of water in Fahrenheit scale is
(A) 112 (B) 213
(C) 212 (D) 121
PA
85. 1 atm pressure is equal to
(A) 101.3 kPa (B) 760 mm of Hg
(C) 14.69 psi (D) All of the mentioned above
86. Given that both liquid A and liquid B exert the same amount of pressure, what would be the height of
PE
column of liquid A if the density of liquid A is twice the density of liquid B and the height of column of
liquid B is 10 cm?
(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) None of the above
R
87. Flow rate for a process stream is the rate at which material is transported through a carrying pipe. The
above given statement is
(A) Incorrect (B) Correct
(C) Not properly defined (D) None of the mentioned above
88. Material balance equation cannot be applied to
(A) Total moles (B) Mass of an atomic species
(C) Moles of an atomic species (D) All of the mentioned above

[9] PG-QP–59
89. We don`t use volume balance in a chemical process because
(A) Mass is not conserved in a process
(B) Volume is not conserved in a process
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
90. Any arbitrary portion of or whole process that is considered for analysis is called
(A) System (B) Boundary
(C) Surrounding (D) None of the mentioned
SA

91. A system in which all conditions remain constant with time is called
(A) Open system (B) Closed system
(C) Steady state system (D) None of the mentioned
MP
92. The tendency of a deformed solid to regain its actual proportions instantly upon unloading known as
______
(A) Perfectly elastic (B) Delayed elasticity
(C) Inelastic effect (D) Plasticity
L
93. The ability of materials to develop a characteristic behavior under repeated loading known as _____
(A) Toughness (B) Resilience
E
(C) Hardness (D) Fatigue
94. The ability of a material to resist plastic deformation known as ______
(A) Tensile strength (B) Yield strength
(C) Modulus of elasticity (D) Impact strength
TE
95. Which of the following is a point defect in crystals?
(A) Edge dislocation (B) Cracks
(C) Grain boundaries (D) Interstitialcies
96. In crystalline materials, fracture occurs normal to crystallographic planes called ______
ST

(A) Fracture point (B) Cleavage plane

(C) Brittle plane (D) Crystallographic point
97. The fracture resistance of a material is defined as its ______
(A) Fracture strength
(B) Fracture hardness
(C) Fracture toughness
PA
(D) Fracture resilience
98. The process of increasing strength of a material by changing grain size known as ______
(A) Grain boundary strengthening
(B) Work hardening
PE

(C) Solid solution hardening

(D) Precipitation hardening
99. ______ experiences creep at room temperature.
R
(A) Iron (B) Copper
(C) Nickel (D) Lead
100. A small shear force is applied on an element and then removed. If the element regains it’s original
position, what kind of an element can it be?
(A) Solid
(B) Liquid
(C) Fluid
(D) Gaseous

[ 10 ] PG-QP–59