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(0000CMD303118001) *0000CMD303118001*
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL
Test Type : MAJOR ALL INDIA OPEN TEST Test Pattern : NEET-UG
TEST DATE : 16-01-2020
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
Important Instructions /
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3
180 720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
1
7. Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen Only to completely darken the appropriate circle.
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank.
Correct Method (
) Wrong Method ()
9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
OMR
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HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. A scalar quantity is one that : 1.
(1) can never take negative values (1)
(2) must be dimensionless
(2)
(3) does not vary from one point to another in
(3)
space
(4) has the same value for observers with (4)
different orientation of axes
2. In a vernier callipers, 10 divisions of vernier 2.
10
scale coincides with 9 divisions of main scale, 9
0.1 cm
the least count of which is 0.1 cm. If in the
measurement of inner diameter of cylinder
zero of vernier scale lies between 1.3 cm and
1.3 cm 1.4 cm
1.4 cm of main scale and 2nd division of vernier
scale coincides with main scale division then
diameter will be :
(1) 1.30 cm (2) 1.34 cm (1) 1.30 cm (2) 1.34 cm
2 m/s 2 2 m/s2
A A
B B
64 32 8 16 64 32 8 16
(1) N (2) N (3) N (4) N (1) N (2) N (3) N (4) N
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
0000CMD303118001 1/35
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6. Find the acceleration of block B : 6.
B
5 kg A 5 kg A
B 8 kg B 8 kg
5 5
(1) 0 (2) m / s2 (1) 0 (2) m / s2
2 2
5 5 5 5
(3) m / s2 (4) m / s2 (3) m / s2 (4) m / s2
7 14 7 14
7. Two particles A and B initially at rest move 7.
A B,
towards each other under a mutual force of
A
attraction. At the instant when speed of A is v ,
B 2v
v and speed of B is 2v, speed of center of mass
-
of the system is- (1) (2) v
3v 3v
(1) Zero (2) v (3) (4) 3v (3) (4) 3v
2 2
8. A particle of mass m, initially at rest is acted 8. m
upon by a variable force f varying with time t
t. It begins to move with a velocity u after the
u
force stops acting (curve is a semi circle) :- (
) :-
f02 Force f02
(1) u (1) u Force
2m 2m
f0 f0
T 2 T 2
(2) u (2) u
8m 8m
t t
f0 T T f0 T T
(3) u (3) u
4m 4m
f0 T f0 T
(4) u (4) u
2m 2m
9. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular 9. m
r
path of constant radius r such that its tangential
acceleration varies with time as a t = K 2rt 2 at = K2rt2
(K is a constant)
(K )
Select the correct statement :-
(1) Centripetal acceleration remains constant. :-
(2) Power delivered by tangential force will be
(1)
zero.
(2)
(3) Power delivered by Net force will be zero.
(4) Power delivered by centripetal force will (3)
always be zero. (4)
2/35 0000CMD303118001
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10. A ring of mass m is attached to a horizontal 10. m l0
spring of spring constant k and natural length k
l0 . Other end of spring is fixed and ring can
slide on a smooth horizontal rod as shown.
Now the ring is shifted to position B and
released, speed of ring when spring attains it's
B
natural length is :-
:-
2 0 2 0 k
(1)
k
Rod A B (1) A B
3 m 3 m
0 0 k 0
k 0 (2)
(2) 3 m
3 m 53°
53°
3 0 k 3 0 k
(3) (3)
2 m 2 m
k k
(4) 0 (4) 0
m m
11. The adjoining diagram shows the electric lines of 11.
force emerging from a charged body. If the electric A
B
fields at A and B are EA and EB respectively and
EA
EB r
the distance between them is r, then :
A B A B
EB EB
(3) EA = EB (4) EA > (3) EA = EB (4) EA >
r2 r2
12. A sphere of radius R and charge Q is placed 12. R Q
2R
inside a concentric imaginary sphere of radius
2R. The flux associated with the imaginary
sphere is -
-
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q
(1) (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
13. Two equal negative charges –q are fixed at 13. (–q) x-y
(0, –a)
points (0, –a) and (0, a) in the x-y plane. A
(0, a) (2a, 0) +Q
positive charge Q is released from rest at a
Q :-
point (2a, 0). The charge Q will :
(1)
(1) move to the origin and remain at rest there
(2) move to infinity (2)
(3) execute SHM about the origin (3)
(4) execute oscillatory not SHM (4)
Key Filling
0000CMD303118001 3/35
14. Four equal capacitors are connected to a battery 14.
as shown in the adjoining figure. The potential
A
B
of A and B are :
10V
10V + –
+ –
C C C C
C C C C A B
A B
(1) 10
; 0 (2) 0
; 10
(1) 10 V; 0 V (2) 0 V ; 10 V
(3) +5 V ; –5 V (4) –5 V ; +5 V (3) +5
; –5 (4) –5
; +5
15. If power in external resistance R is maximum 15. R
:-
then :- R
R
E r
E r
E2
E 2
(i) R = r (ii) R
(i) R = r (ii) Power in R is 4R
4R
E2
E2 (iii) (iv)
50%
(iii) Input power (iv) Efficiency is 50% 2R
2R
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii)
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) All (3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4)
16. In given circuit current related 2 resistance is 16.
2
10 10
5 5
10V 10V
20V 20V
2 2
(1) 5A (2) 2A (3) Zero (4) 4A (1) 5A (2) 2A (3) (4) 4A
17. Four identical cells of EMF E and internal 17. r
E
resistance r are connected as shown in figure,
find terminal voltage across any one cell :-
:-
E r
E r
r E
r E
r
E r
E
r E
r E
2E 3E
(1) (2) (3) E (4) Zero 2E 3E
3 2 (1) (2) (3) E (4)
3 2
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18. Two particles A and B having equal charges 18.
+6 C, after being accelerated through the same
+6 A B
potential difference, enter in a region of 2 3
uniform magnetic field and describe circular
A
B
paths of radii 2 cm and 3 cm respectively. The
:-
ratio of mass of A to that of B is :-
4 9 1 1
4 9 1 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 9 5 2 3
9 5 2 3
19. Current through ABC and A'B'C' is I. What is 19. ABC A'B'C' I
P
the magentic field at P? BP = PB' = r
BP = PB' = r
(Here C'B'PBC are collinear) :- (C'B'PBC
) :-
C C
I I
A A
I B I B
P P
B' A' B' A'
I I
I I
C' C'
1 2I 0 2I 1 2I 0 2I
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 r 4 r 4 r 4 r
0 I 0 I
(3) (4) zero (3) (4)
4 r 4 r
20. A loop in form of four connected semi-circular 20. xy
wires carrying current I lies in the x-y plane as
I
shown in the figure. The unit vector k̂ is k̂
coming out of the plane of the paper. The
:-
magnetic moment of the current loop is :- y
y
I a x
I a x
a
a
2 ˆ
(1) a2I k̂ (2) 1 a I k
2 ˆ 2
(1) a2I k̂ (2) 1 a I k
2
(3) 1 a 2 I kˆ (4) (2 + 1) a2 I k̂
2
(3) 1 a 2 I kˆ (4) (2 + 1) a2 I k̂
2
0000CMD303118001 5/35
21. A coil has an area of 0.05 m 2 and it has 21.
0.05
2
800
800 turns. It is placed perpendicularly in a 4 × 10 Wb/m
–5 2
magnetic field of strength 4 × 10–5 Wb/m2, it
0.1
90°
is rotated through 90° in 0.1 second. The
average emf induced in the coil is :
(1) 0.056 V (2) 0.046 V (1) 0.056 V (2) 0.046 V
(3) 0.026 V (4) 0.016 V (3) 0.026 V (4) 0.016 V
22. In the circuit shown in figure neglecting source 22.
resistance the voltmeter and ammeter reading
will respectively be :
V V
240V 240V
(1) 0V, 3A (2) 150V, 3A (1) 0V, 3A (2) 150V, 3A
(3) 150V, 6A (4) 0V, 8A (3) 150V, 6A (4) 0V, 8A
23. The value of alternating emf E in the given 23.
E
circuit will be :
VR =80V V L =40V VC =100V VR =80V VL =40V VC=100V
E, 50 Hz E, 50 Hz
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26. Three thin prisms are combined as shown in 26.
figure. The refractive indices of the crown glass
for red, yellow and violet rays are µr, µy and
µr, µy
µv
µv respectively and those for the flint glass are
µ r ', µ y', µ v ' respectively, if there is no net µr', µy', µv'
deviation in the yellow ray then the ratio
A'/A
A'/A will be :-
flint
A A' A
A A' A
crown crown
2(µ 'v µ 'r ) 2(µ y' 1) 2(µ v' µ r' ) 2(µ y' 1)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
(µ v µr ) (µ y 1) (µ v µr ) (µ y 1)
27. In Young's double slit experiment, the phase 27.
difference between the light waves reaching
third bright fringe from the central fringe will ( = 6000 Å)
be ( = 6000 Å) (1) (2) 2
(1) zero (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6 (3) 4 (4) 6
28. A slit of width 'a' illuminated by red light of 28. 'a' 6500 Å
wavelength 6500 Å. The first minimum will fall = 30°
at = 30° if 'a' is equal to - a
(1) 3250 Å (2) 6.5 × 10–4 mm (1) 3250 Å (2) 6.5 × 10–4 mm
(3) 1.3 m (4) 2.6 × 10–4 cm (3) 1.3 m (4) 2.6 × 10–4 cm
29. Three identical bodies of equal mass M each 29. M
are moving along a circle of radius R under the
R
action of their mutual gravitational attraction.
:-
the speed of each body is ;-
GM GM GM GM
(1) (2) (1) (2)
R 3R R 3R
GM GM GM GM
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3R 2R 3R 2R
30. The work function of metal A and B are in the 30.
A B
1 : 2
f
ratio 1 : 2. If light of frequencies f and 2f are
2f
A B
incident on the surfaces of A and B respectively,
the ratio of the maximum kinetic energy of
: (f
2f
A B
photo electrons emitted will be (f and 2f both
frequency greater than threshold frequency of
)
metal A and B) :- (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
0000CMD303118001 7/35
31. The radioactivity of sample is R1 at a time T1 31. T1 R1
T2
and R 2 at a time T 2. If the half life of the R2 T
(T2 – T1)
specimen is T, the number of atoms that have
disintegrated in the time (T 2 – T 1 ) is
:-
proportional to :- (R 2 R1 )
(1) R1T1 = R2T2 (2)
(R 2 R1 ) T
(1) R1T1 = R2T2 (2)
T
R1 R 2
R1 R 2 (3) (4) (R1 – R2)
(3) (4) (R1 – R 2) T
T
32. A star initially has 1040 deuterons. It produces 32.
1040
energy via the processes.
1
H2 + 1H2 1H3 + p 1H
2
+ 1H2 1H3 + p
1
H2 + 1H3 2He4 + n 1H
2
+ 1H3 2He4 + n
The mass of the nuclei are as follows :
M(H2) = 2.014 amu; M(p) = 1.007 amu M(H2) = 2.014 amu; M(p) = 1.007 amu
M(n) = 1.008 amu; M(He4) = 4.001 amu M(n) = 1.008 amu; M(He4) = 4.001 amu
If the average power radiated by the star is
1016 W
10 16 W, the deutron supply of the star is
exhausted in a time of the order of :-
(1) 106 sec (2) 108 sec (1) 106 sec (2) 108 sec
(3) 1012 sec (4) 1016 sec (3) 1012 sec (4) 1016 sec
33. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as 33.
shown in the circuit. The current supplied by
the battery is :-
:-
D1 10 D1 10
D2 D2
5V 5V
(1) 0.75 A (2) 0.43 A (1) 0.75 A (2) 0.43 A
(3) 0.25 A (4) 0.5 A (3) 0.25 A (4) 0.5 A
34. In the case of forward biasing of PN-junction, 34. PN
which one of the following figures correctly
:-
depicts the direction of flow of carriers :-
P + N +
+ P + N
P + N + +
+ P + N + +
+
+
+
+ + (1) (2)
(1) (2)
Vp Vp
Vp Vp
P + N P + N
+ +
P + N P + N + +
+ + + +
+ +
+ +
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Vp Vp
Vp Vp
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35. A transverse wave is described by the equation
x
x
35. y = y0 sin2 ft
y = y0 sin2 ft . The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times wave velocity
if
y 0 y 0
y 0 y 0 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 4 2
4 2
(3) = y0 (4) = 2y0
(3) = y0 (4) = 2y0
2 2 2
36. Two waves represented by y1 = a sin (vt x) 36. y1 = a sin y2 = a cos
(vt x) (vt x)
2
(vt x) are superposed. The
and y2 = a cos
resultant wave has an amplitude equal to :-
:-
(1) Zero (2) 2a (3) a (4) a 2 (1) (2) 2a (3) a (4) a 2
37. A force F acts on a particle having position 37. F ,
r
vector r (with respect to origin). It produces
a torque about origin, choose the correct
option:-
(1) r. 0 and F. 0 (1) r. 0 F. 0
(2) r. 0 and F. 0 (2) r. 0 F. 0
(3) r. 0 and F. 0 (3) r. 0 F. 0
(4) r. 0 and F. 0 F. 0
(4) r. 0
38. The length of an elastic string is x meter when 38.
8N x
the tension is 8N and y meter when the tension 10 N y
is 10 N. The length in metre when the tension
18 N
is 18 N is :-
(1) 4x – 5y (2) 5y – 4x (1) 4x – 5y (2) 5y – 4x
(3) 9x – 4y (4) 4y – 9y (3) 9x – 4y (4) 4y – 9y
39. If a section of soap bubble (of radius R) 39.
R
through its center is considered, then force on
one half due to surface tension is :-
4T 4T
(1) 2RT (2) 4RT (3) R2T (4) (1) 2RT (2) 4RT (3) R2T (4)
R R
40. The heat is flowing through two cylindrical rods 40.
of same material. The diameters of the rods are 1 : 2
in the ratio 1 : 2 and their lengths are in the ratio
2 : 1
2 : 1. If the temperature difference between their
ends is the same, the ratio of rates of flow of
heat through them will be :-
:-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8
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41. Six moles of an ideal gas perfoms cycle shown 41. 6
in figure. If the temperature TA = 600 K, TB = 800 K, T A = 600 K, T B = 800 K, T C = 2200 K
TC = 2200 K and TD = 1200 K, the work done T D = 1200 K
per cycle is :-
:-
P P
B C B C
A D A D
T T
(1) 20 kJ (2) 30 kJ (1) 20 kJ (2) 30 kJ
(3) 40 kJ (4) 60 kJ (3) 40 kJ (4) 60 kJ
42. 1 mole gas expand with temperature according 42.
V = KT2/3
to the relation V = KT2/3. When the temperature
30°C
changes by 30°C, the work done will be :- ?
(1) 10 R (2) 20R (3) 30R (4) 40R (1) 10 R (2) 20R (3) 30R (4) 40R
43. A pendulum clock (fitted with a small heavy bob 43.
(
that is connected with a metal rod) is 5 seconds
) 15°C 5
fast each day at a temperature of 15°C and 30°C 10
10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30°C. The
:-
temperature at which it is designed to give correct
(1) 18°C (2) 20°
time, is :-
(1) 18°C (2) 20° (3) 24°C (4) 25°C (3) 24°C (4) 25°C
44. The total mechanical energy of a particle 44.
E
executing simple harmonic motion is E. When
the displacement is half the amplitude, its
:-
kinetic energy will be :- 3 E E
(1) E (2) E (3) (4)
3 E E 4 2 4
(1) E (2) E (3) (4)
4 2 4
45. Three masses 700 g, 500 g and 400 g are 45. 700 g, 500 g
400 g
suspended at the end of a spring as shown and
are in equilibrium. When the 700 g mass is
700 g
removed, the system oscillates with a period 3 s
500 g
of 3 seconds when the 500 g mass is also
removed, it will oscillate with a period of :-
:-
700 g 700 g
500 g 500 g
400 g 400 g
12 12
(1) 1s (2) 2 s (3) 3 s (4) s (1) 1s (2) 2 s (3) 3 s (4) s
5 5
10/35 0000CMD303118001
46. Given the two concentration of HCN (Ka = 10–9) 46. HCN (Ka = 10–9) 0.1 M
are 0.1 M and 0.001 M respectively. What will 0.001 M
be the ratio of degree of dissociation ?
(1) 1 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.003 (4) 0.01 (1) 1 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.003 (4) 0.01
47. Find number of electrons present in 34g of 47.
34g NH3(g)
NH3(g).
(1) 2NA (2) NA (3) 20 NA (4) 10 NA
(1) 2NA (2) NA (3) 20 NA (4) 10 NA
48. For which of the following species, Bohr's theory 48.
is not applicable
(1) Be+3 (2) Li+2 (3) He+2 (4) H (1) Be+3 (2) Li+2 (3) He+2 (4) H
49. Solid KClO3 is taken in a container maintained 49.
KClO3 1 atm
at constant pressure of 1 atm. Upon heating
following equilibrium is obtained
2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
If H° = 25 kcal/mol and S° = 50 cal/K, at what
H° = 25 kcal/mol S° = 50 cal/K
temperature equilibrium will be established in the
container. (Ignore variation of H° and S° with
temperature.) (H°
S° )
(1) 298 K (2) 500 K (1) 298 K (2) 500 K
(3) 5000 K (4) 300 K (3) 5000 K (4) 300 K
50. How much time is required for complete 50. 4
4 H2O
decomposition of 4 moles of water using
4 ampere current ?
(1) 3.86 × 105 (2) 1.93 × 105
(1) 3.86 × 105 sec (2) 1.93 × 105 sec
(3) 96500 sec (4) 48250 sec (3) 96500 (4) 48250
51. The solubility of CO2 in water increases with 51. CO2
:-
(1) Increase in temperature (1)
(2) Reduction of gas pressure (2)
(3) Increase in gas pressure (3)
(4) Increase in volume (4)
52. 17.4% (w/v) K2SO4 (Mw=174 g/mol) solution at 52. 27°C 17.4%(w/v)K2SO4(Mw=174 g/mol)
27°C is isotonic to 4% (w/v) NaOH solution at 4% NaOH (w/v)
same temperature. If NaOH is 100% ionized, what NaOH 100%
is % ionization of K2SO4 in aqueous solution K2SO4
(1) 20% (2) 60% (3) 100% (4) 50% (1) 20% (2) 60% (3) 100% (4) 50%
53. Co|Co2+(C2)||Co2+(C1)|Co, for this cell, G is 53. Co|Co2+(C2)||Co2+(C1)|Co G
negative if :- :-
(1) C2 > C1 (2) C1 > C2 (1) C2 > C1 (2) C1 > C2
(3) C1 = C2 (4) unpredictable (3) C1 = C2
(4)
54. In Vander Waal's equation of state for a non-ideal 54.
gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular
:-
forces is :-
a
a (1) (V – b) (2) (RT)–1 (3) P 2 (4) RT
(1) (V – b) (2) (RT) –1
(3) P 2 (4) RT V
V
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0000CMD303118001 11/35
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12/35 0000CMD303118001
63. Which orders are correct :- 63. :-
(I) Thermal stability BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4 (I) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO
(II) Basic Nature ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO (II) ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO
(III) Solubility in water LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH
(III)
(IV) Melting point NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl (IV) NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl
(1) (I), (IV) (2) I, II and IV (1) (I), (IV) (2) I, II
IV
(3) II, III (4) All correct (3) II, III (4)
64. Assign the correct code for Column-I & Column-II. 64. -I
-II
Column I Column-II Column I Column II
(Coordination (Central metal (Coordination) (Central metal
compound) atom) compound atom)
(a) Chlorophyll (p) Rhodium
(a) (p) Rhodium
(b) Blood pigment (q) Cobalt (b) (q) Cobalt
(c) Wilkinson catalyst (r) Calcium (r)
(c) Calcium
(d) Vitamin B12 (s) Iron (d)
B12 (s) Iron
(t) Magnesium (t) Magnesium
Code : :
(1) a (t) b (s) c (p) d (q) (1) a (t) b (s) c (p) d (q)
(2) a (r) b (s) c (t) d (p) (2) a (r) b (s) c (t) d (p)
(3) a (s) b (r) c (q) d (p) (3) a (s) b (r) c (q) d (p)
(4) a (r) b (s) c (p) d (q) (4) a (r) b (s) c (p) d (q)
65. Which of the following species can act as 65.
reducing agent ? ?
(1) [Co(CO)4]– (2) [Mn(CO)6] (1) [Co(CO)4]– (2) [Mn(CO)6]
(3) [Mn(CO)5] (4) [Cr(CO)6] (3) [Mn(CO)5] (4) [Cr(CO)6]
66. Which of the following complexes exhibits the 66.
highest paramagnetic behaviour ?
(1) [Co(OX)3]–3 (1) [Co(OX)3]–3
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (2) [Cr(NH3)6]+3
(3) [V (gly)2(OH)2(NH3)2]+ (3) [V (gly)2(OH)2(NH3)2]+
(4) [Fe(en) (bipy) (NH3)2]2+
(4) [Fe(en) (bipy) (NH3)2]2+
Where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine and
gly = glycine, en = ethylendiamine
bipy=bipyridyl)
bipy=bipyridyl)
(At. nos. Ti =22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co= 27) Ti = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
67. On heating KMnO4, one among the following is 67. KMnO4,
not formed-
(1) K2MnO4 (2) O2 (1) K2MnO4 (2) O2
(3) MnO2 (4) MnO (3) MnO2 (4) MnO
68. Anhydrous Na2CO3 is also known as :- 68. Na2CO3
:-
(1) Salt soda (2) Soda ash (1) (2)
(3) Fusion mixture (4) Washing soda (3) (4)
3 (Q) PbS+ O2
2
(Q) PbS+ O2 PbO+SO2 (2) Self reduction
2
PbO+CO2 (3)
(R) PbCO3
(R) PbCO3 PbO+CO2 (3) Calcination
(S) PbO+C Pb+CO (4)
Pb+CO
(S) PbO+C (4) Roasting P Q R S
P Q R S
(1) 2 3 4 1
(1) 2 3 4 1
(2) 2 4 3 1
(2) 2 4 3 1
(3) 4 2 1 3 (3) 4 2 1 3
(4) 4 3 2 1 (4) 4 3 2 1
70. Which of the following reaction can give 70.
hydrogen gas.
(1) Zn + conc. H2SO4 (1) Zn + H2SO4
(2) C + very dil H2SO4 (2) C + H2SO4
(3) Mn + extremely dil HNO3(2%) (3) Mn + HNO3(2%)
(4) Pb + dil HNO3 (4) Pb + HNO3
71. In the clathrates of xenon with water, the nature of 71.
bonding between xenon and water molecule is :
(1) covalent
(2) hydrogen bonding
(3) co-ordinate
(4) dipole-induced dipole interaction
72. XeF6 on partial hydrolysis gives : 72. XeF6
:
(1) XeF2 (2) XeOF4 (1) XeF2 (2) XeOF4
(3) XeO3 (4) XeOF2 (3) XeO3 (4) XeOF2
73. EN of element A is E1 and IP is E2 hence EA will be :- 73. AEN E1IP E2
EA
:-
(1) 2E1 – E2 (2) E1 – E2 (1) 2E1 – E2 (2) E1 – E2
(3) E1 – 2E2 (4) (E1 + E2)/2 (3) E1 – 2E2 (4) (E1 + E2)/2
74. Which of the following order is/are correct : 74.
:
(1) Li < Be < B < C (IE1) (1) Li < Be < B < C (IE1)
(2) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Reducing power in (2) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (
gaseous state)
)
(3) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+ (Ionic mobility (3) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+ (
in aqueous solution) )
(4) S > Se > Te > O [EA] (4) S > Se > Te > O [EA]
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4 (2) 1, 2, 4 (1) 1, 2, 3, 4 (2) 1, 2, 4
(3) 2, 3, 4 (4) 2, 4 (3) 2, 3, 4 (4) 2, 4
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75. In which of the following arrangements the order 75.
is NOT according to the property indicated
?
against it ?
(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (
3+ 2+ + –
(1) Al < Mg < Na < F (Increasing Ionic size) )
(2) Zn > Cd > Hg (Increasing First Ionisation
(2) Zn > Cd > Hg (
Energy)
)
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (Increasing Electron gain
Enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (
is :-
Me Me
H OH Me Cl H OH Me Cl
(1) Me H (2) H (1) Me H (2) H
OH OH
H H
H H
(3) H OH (4) Me (3) H OH (4) Me
HO H Me HO H Me
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79. What is correct acidic strength order of following 79.
compounds ?
COOH COOH
OH OH
(IV) (V) (VI) (V) (VI)
(IV)
(1) I, II, III, IV, V (1) I, II, III, IV, V
(2) I, II, V (2) I, II, V
(3) I, II, III, V
(3) I, II, III, V
(4) I, IV, VI
(4) I, IV, VI
2 isomers
A & B O3 / Zn + H2O A B
82. Both on ozonolysis O+ 82. 2 O3 / Zn + H2O
O+
give same products O O
O O
O
+ H–C–H O
+ H–C–H
Identify isomers A and B :-
A
B
:-
(1) &
(1) &
(2) &
(2) &
CH 2 CH 2
(4) & (4) &
CH2 CH2
83. Which of the following is correct order of 83.
:-
reactivity for :-
O O
NH NH
(2) (2)
Cl Cl
O O
NH NH
(3) (3)
Cl Cl
O O
(4) NH (4) NH
Cl Cl
OH (1) OH
(1) Br
Br
Br (2) Br
(2)
OH OH
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
O O
86. Most reactive toward acid catalyst dehydration 86.
is:-
OH
OH
(1)
(1)
OH
OH
(2)
(2)
HO
HO
(3)
(3)
(4) (4)
OH OH
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87. Consider following reaction :- 87.
-
OCH3 NO2 OCH3 NO2
O O
+
CH3–C–Cl/AlCl3
products +
CH3–C–Cl/AlCl3
(1) (1)
& &
C–CH3 C–CH3
O=C O=C
O O
CH3 CH3
OCH3 OCH3 O OCH3 OCH3 O
C–CH3 C–CH3
(2) (2)
+ +
C=O C=O
CH3 CH3
NO2 NO2
O O
OCH3 OCH3
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A B A B
6 1 6 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
16 16 16 16
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(2) 2 (2) 2
m m+ m+
m
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 0 (4) 0
114. In a dihybrid cross, if one character shows 114.
codominance and other character shows
incomplete dominance. What will be the
?
genotypic ratio in its progenies ?
(1) 9:3:3:1 (2) 3:1:6:2:3:1
(1) 9:3:3:1 (2) 3:1:6:2:3:1
(3) 1:1:1:1:4:2:2:2:2 (4) 1:1:1:1 (3) 1:1:1:1:4:2:2:2:2 (4) 1:1:1:1
115. A child with blood group genotype IA IB is born 115. IA IB
of a man with genotype IAIA. The mother could IAIA
not be a woman of genotype :-
:-
(1) IBI B (2) IBi (3) ii (4) IA IB (1) IBI B (2) IBi (3) ii (4) IA IB
116. 5'GUG UUU ACA GAG AUG3' is a sequence 116. mRNA 5'GUG UUU ACA
of transcribed mRNA. What will be the GAG AUG3'
corresponding sequence of the coding strand
?
of a gene ?
(1) 5' GTG TTT ACA GAG ATG 3'
(1) 5' GTG TTT ACA GAG ATG 3'
(2) 5' CAC AAA TGT CTC TAC 3' (2) 5' CAC AAA TGT CTC TAC 3'
(3) 3' GTG TTT ACA GAG ATG 5' (3) 3' GTG TTT ACA GAG ATG 5'
(4) 3' CAC AAA TGT CTC TAC 5' (4) 3' CAC AAA TGT CTC TAC 5'
117. All of the following are part of a lac operon 117.
except :- :-
(1) Inducer (2) Regulatory gene (1) (2)
(3) Co-repressor (4) Operator gene (3) (4)
118. Select the incorrect match :- 118.
:-
(1) Francis Crick- Postulated the presence of (1) -
an adapter molecule that would on one
hand read the code and other hand would
bind to specific amino acids
(2) Severo Ochoa - Discovered polynucleotide (2) -
phosphorylase which is helpful in RNA
polymerising RNA with defined sequence
in template dependent manner
(3) Taylor and Colleagues - Experimented on
Vicia faba and proved that the DNA in (3)
-
chromosomes also replicates
DNA
semiconservatively
(4) F.Griffith - Experimented on Streptococcus
(4) -
pneumoniae and he found that a living
bacteria could change in physical form in
transformation
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119. All of the following RNAs are synthesise by 119. RNA
RNA polymerase III except:- RNA III
(1) 5s rRNA (2) sn RNA (1) 5s rRNA (2) sn RNA
(3) tRNA (4) hnRNA (3) tRNA (4) hnRNA
120. Which one of the following is used as vector 120. DNA
for cloning genes into several dicot plants :-
?
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (1)
(2) Baculovirus (2)
(3) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(3)
(4) Glomus (4)
121. Which one is wrongly matched ? 121. ?
(1) 1st step of PCR – Denaturation (1) PCR-
(2) 1st clinical gene therapy – AIDS (2) – AIDS
(3) Recognition sequence of
5'GAATTC3',
(3) EcoRI-
EcoRI –5'GAATTC3',
3'CTTAAG 5'
3'CTTAAG 5'
(4) Secondary treatment of STP – Reduce BOD (4) STP
-
BOD
of effluent
122. Which of the following is correctly matched for 122.
the product produced by them ? ?
(1) Trichoderma = Statin (1)
=
(2) Methanobacterium = Biogas
(2) =
(3) Nucleopolyhedrovirus = Antibiotics (3)
=
(4) Saccharomyces = Swiss cheese (4)
=
123. Anabaena and Azospirillum are :- 123.
:-
(1) biofertilizers which are used by farmers (1)
regularly in their fields to replenish soil nutrients
(2) Biocontrol agents which are used by farmers (2)
regularly in their field to control pest
(3) Antibiotic producing microbes to treat (3)
deadly disease such as diphtheria, plague,
and whooping cough
(4) Microbes which are used for commercial (4)
production of ethanol
124. Find the incorrect match related to earthworm :- 124.
:-
(1) Female genital pore 1 pair (1) 1
(2) Spermathecal aperture 4 pairs (2)
4
(3) Male genital pore 1 pair (3) 1
(4) Genital papillae 2 pair (4) 2
125. Read the following statements :- 125. :-
(A) It is estimated that more than 70% of the (A) 70%
world livestock population is in China
(B) Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl (B)
(birds) used for food or for their eggs
(C) In MOET programme an animal is (C) MOET
administered hormones with FSH-like activity
(D) Hilsa and Pomfrets are freshwater fishes (D)
How many above statements are incorrect ? ?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
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P. A. Argemone P. A.
Q. B. Primrose Q. B.
R. C. Lemon R. C.
S. D. Sunflower S. D.
(1) P = C, Q = B, R = A, S = D (1) P = C, Q = B,
=D R = A, S
(2) P = C, Q = A, R = B, S = D (2) P = C, Q = A,
=D R = B, S
(3) P = A, Q = C, R = D, S = B (3) P = A, Q = C,
=B R = D, S
(4) P = D, Q = B, R = A, S = C (4) P = D, Q = B,
=C R = A, S
131. Which of the following pair is incorrect ? 131.
?
(1) Orange – Glandular hair
(1) –
(2) Pome granate – Testa (2) –
(3) Pear – Thalamus (3) –
(4) Mango – Seed (4)
132. + K(5) C G(2)
132. + K(5) C (5) A 5
G(2) (5) A 5
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140. The body size of birds generally large in cold 140.
areas. This is in accordance with :
:-
(1) Allen's rule (2) Gloger's rule (1) (2)
(3) Jordon's rule (4) Bergmann's rule (3) (4)
141. In an area a single banyan tree overshadows 141.
200
200 parthenium grass. Which of the following
is a more meaningful measure of population ?
density ?
(1)
(1) Detritus percent
(2)
(2) Standing crop percent
(3) Total number per unit area (3)
(4) Standing state percent (4)
142. Which of the following statement is not true 142.
?
about endothermal organisms ?
(1)
(1) They have the ability to maintain
homeostasis
(2)
(2) They follow Bergmann's rule and Allen's rule
(3) They may undergo hibernation during
(3)
winter
(4) They are not considered as good host for
(4)
a parasite
143. The international treaty which was signed by 143.
27
27 industrialised countries to protect
:-
stratospheric ozone is known as :- (1)
(1) Johensberg protocol
(2)
(2) Montreal protocol
(3) Stockholm protocol
(3)
(4) Rio-de-Jenerio protocol (4)
144. Which of the following relieves competition:- 144. :-
(1) Resource partitioning (1)
(2) Competitive release (2)
(3) Niche specialisation (3)
(4) All of these (4)
145. Ho w many o f th e fo ll ow in g fu ncti on al
145.
component of ecosy stem change during
?
ecological succession ?
Dominance, Energy usage efficiency, Species
diversity, Vegetation, Stratification, Nutrient
conservation, Productivity, decomposition
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) Three (2) Five (3) Six (4) Four
146. Which of the following is limiting factor for 146.
productivity in deep lake ecosystems ? ?
(1) Nitrogen (2) Sunlight (1) (2)
(3) Carbon (4) Phosphorus
(3) (4)
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147. The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos island 147.
become extinct within decade after goats were
:-
introduced on the island is an example of :-
(1)
(1) Competitive release
(2)
(2) Resource partitioning
(3) Competition direct (3)
(4) Competitive exclusion (4)
148. Identify the correct stat ement from the 148.
?
following ?
(1)
(1) Mammals from colder climates generally have
longer ears and limbs to minimise heat loss
(2)
(2) Organisms maintain homeostasis by
physiological means alone
(3) Success of mammals is largely due to their (3)
ability to maintain constant body
temperature
(4)
(4) A majority of animals and nearly all plants
can maintain a constant internal environment
149. The interphase nucleus does not contains :-
149. :-
(1) Highly extended nucleoprotein fibres (1)
(2) Nucleoplasm (2)
(3) Nucleoli (3)
(4) Highy condensed nucleoprotein fibres (4)
150. 150.
:- :-
A B C D A B C D
Choose the correct option for given diagram
(1) A-Crossing over (1) A-
(2) B-Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(2) B-
(3) C-Homologous pairs of chromosome are
(3) C-
align on the equatorial plate
(4) D-Nucleolus disappear (4) D-
151. Membrane bound cell organelle which helpful 151.
for cell division in animal cell :- :-
(1) Ribosome (2) Centrosome (1) (2)
(3) Mitochondria (4) Nucleolus (3) (4)
152. Choose the incorrect option for the cell wall of 152.
a young plant cell :- :-
(1) Capable of growth
(1)
(2) Gradualy diminishes as the cell matures
(2)
(3) Secondary wall is not form
(3)
(4) Xylan is found in cell wall matrix (4)
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B B
A A
C C
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