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Question Paper Name: Common Law Admission Test CLAT 2015 POST GRADUATE COURSES Actual
Subject Name:
Group Number : 1
Group Id : 2
Group Maximum Duration : 0
Group Minimum Duration : 120
Revisit allowed for view? : No
Revisit allowed for edit? : No
Break time: 0
Group Marks: 150.0
Section Id : 6
Section Number : 1
Section type : Online
Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory
Number of Questions: 50
Number of Questions to be attempted: 50
Section Marks: 50.0
Sub-Section Number: 1
Sub-Section Id: 6
Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes
Options :
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CLAT - 2016
Section : Constitutional Law
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
1
Q.1
The
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Council
of
a
State
having
such
a
Council
shall
not
exceed:
Ans
1.
two-‐third
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
that
State.
2.
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
that
State.
3.
one-‐half
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
that
State.
4.
one-‐third
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
that
State.
Ans
1.
Articles
19
and
21
2.
Articles
20
and
21
3.
Articles
21
and
22
4.
Articles
19
and
20
Ans
1.
Article
134
2.
Article
142
3.
Article
137
4.
Article
135
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
4
Q.4
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
says
that
Law
declared
by
the
Supreme
Court
shall
be
binding
on
all
courts
within
the
territory
of
India?
Ans
1.
Article
142
2.
Article
141
3.
Article
140
4.
Article
146
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
5
Q.5
The
concept
of
curative
petition
was
applied
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
P.A.
Inamdar
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
(2005)
2.
Ashok
Kumar
Thakur
v.
UOI
(2008)
3.
Rupa
Ashok
Hurra
v.
Ashok
Hurra
(2002)
4.
Om
Kumar
v.
UOI
(2002)
Ans
1.
Supreme
Court
2.
Elected
members
of
Parliament
and
State
Legislative
Assemblies
3.
Election
Commission
of
India
4.
Parliament
in
consultation
with
Election
Commission
of
India
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
7
Q.7
Under
which
Article
of
the
Constitution,
a
Commission
to
investigate
the
conditions
of
Backward
Classes
can
be
appointed
by
the
President
of
India?
Ans
1.
Article
340
2.
Article
341
3.
Article
342
4.
Article
16
(4)
Ans
1.
A
law
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
cannot
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
2.
Only
those
laws
which
have
been
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
after
24th
April,
1973
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
3.
A
law
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure,
irrespective
of
the
fact
when
the
law
was
put
in
the
IX
Schedule
4.
Only
those
laws
which
have
been
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
after
10th
May,
1973
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
Ans
1.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
or
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
2.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
and
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
3.
No
person
shall
be
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
4.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
Ans
1.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala,
AIR
1973
SC
1461.
2.
Aruna
Shanbaug
v.
UOI
(2011)
4
SCC
454
3.
Selvi
v.
State
of
Karnataka
(2010)
7
SCC
263
4.
Bachpan
Bachao
Andolan
v.
UOI
(2011)
5
SCC
1
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
11
Q.11
The
conclusive
part
of
Article
31
C,
i.e.
"and
no
law
containing
a
declaration
that
it
is
for
giving
effect
to
such
policy
shall
be
called
in
question
in
any
court
on
the
ground
that
it
does
not
give
effect
to
such
policy"
was
struck
down
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala,
AIR
1973
SC
1461
2.
Bhim
Singh
v.
UOI,
AIR
1981
SC
234
3.
Golak
Nath
v.
State
of
Punjab,
AIR
1967
SC
1643
4.
Minerva
Mills
v.
UOI,
AIR
1980
SC
1789
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
12
Q.12
In
which
case
Articles
323
A
(2)
(d)
and
Article
323
B
(3)
(d)
were
declared
unconstitutional
to
the
extent
they
exclude
the
jurisdiction
of
the
High
Courts
and
the
Supreme
Court
under
Articles
226/227
and
32
of
the
Constitution?
Ans
1.
L.
Chandra
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1997)
2.
I.R.
Coelho
v.
State
of
Tamil
Nadu
(2007)
3.
Maneka
Gandhi
v.
Union
of
India
(1978)
4.
S.P.
Sampath
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1987)
Ans
1.
one
year
2.
till
it
is
revoked
by
the
Parliament
3.
six
months
4.
three
year
Ans
1.
51
Bangladeshi
and
51
Indian
enclaves.
2.
111
Indian
and
111
Bangladeshi
Enclaves.
3.
51
Bangladeshi
and
111
Indian
Enclaves.
4.
111
Bangladeshi
and
51
Indian
Enclaves.
Ans
1.
Rajnath
Singh
v.
Hon'ble
Speaker
Lok
Sabha
(2008)
2.
In
re
Keshav
Singh
case
(1965)
3.
Amrinder
Singh
v.
Punjab
Vidhan
Sabha
(2010)
4.
Raja
Ram
Pal
v.
Hon'ble
Speaker
Lok
Sabha
(2007)
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
16
Q.16
If
any
question
arises
as
to
whether
a
member
of
either
House
of
Parliament
has
become
subject
to
any
of
the
disqualifications
mentioned
in
Clause
(1)
of
Article
102
of
the
Constitution,
the
question
shall
be
referred
for
the
decision
of
the
_______
and
his
decision
shall
be
final.
Ans
1.
Prime
Minister
2.
Vice-‐President
3.
Speaker/Chairman
of
the
House
4.
President
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
17
Q.17
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
puts
obligation
on
the
State
to
promote
with
special
care
the
educational
and
economic
interests
of
the
weaker
sections
of
the
people,
and,
in
particular,
of
the
Scheduled
Castes
and
the
Scheduled
Tribes?
Ans
1.
Article
46
2.
Article
43
3.
Article
45
4.
Article
21-‐A
Ans
1.
proved
misbehavior
or
incapacity
2.
proved
misbehavior
and
misconduct
3.
violation
of
the
Constitution
4.
proved
misbehavior
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
19
Q.19
An
Ordinance
promulgated
by
the
President
under
Article
123
of
the
Constitution
shall
cease
to
operate
at
the
expiration
of
____
from
the
reassembly
of
Parliament,
or,
if
before
the
expiration
of
that
period
resolutions
disapproving
it
are
passed
by
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
and
in
such
case
upon
the
passing
of
the
second
of
those
resolutions;
and
may
be
withdrawn
at
any
time
by
the
President.
Ans
1.
two
months
2.
six
months
3.
six
weeks
4.
one
month
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
20
Q.20
By
which
amendment
to
the
Constitution,
Article
16
(4B)
was
added?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
2001
2.
The
Constitution
(Ninetieth
Amendment)
Act,
2003
3.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐first
Amendment)
Act,
2000
4.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
2000
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
21
Q.21
Which
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
of
India
deals
with
the
provisions
as
to
disqualification
on
ground
of
defection?
Ans
1.
X
2.
VIII
3.
VII
4.
IX
Ans
1.
the
Constitution
(Ninety-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
2003
2.
the
Constitution
(
Eighty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
2001
3.
the
Constitution
(Forty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
1976
4.
the
Constitution
(Eighty-‐sixth
Amendment)
Act,
2002
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
23
Q.23
The
doctrine
of
"occupied
field"
was
applied
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
Union
of
India
v.
Tulsi
Ram
Patel
(1985)
2.
A.
B.
Krishna
v.
State
of
Karnataka
(1998)
3.
I.
R.
Coelho
v.
Union
of
India
(2007)
4.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala
)1973)
Ans
1.
Article
267
2.
Article
266
3.
Article
269
4.
Article
268
Ans
1.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
six
months
elapse
from
the
date
on
which
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
2.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
three
months
elapse
from
the
date
on
which
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
3.
only
in
the
form
in
which
it
is
passed
in
the
joint
sitting
of
both
the
Houses
of
the
State
Legislature.
4.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
one
month
elapses
from
the
date
on
which
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
Ans
1.
two
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
2.
six
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
3.
one
month
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
4.
three
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
Ans
1.
Speaker
of
the
House
2.
Prime
Minister
3.
President
4.
Finance
Minister
Linked
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in
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following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
28
Q.28
By
which
amendment
the
ground
of
"armed
rebellion"
for
imposing
national
emergency
was
substituted
for
the
ground
"internal
disturbance"?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Thirty-‐ninth
Amendment)
Act,
1975
2.
The
Constitution
(Forty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
1976
3.
The
Constitution
(Fiftieth
Amendment)
Act,
1984
4.
The
Constitution
(Forty-‐fourth
Amendment)
Act,
1978
Ans
1.
religion
and
language
2.
language
3.
religion
or
language
4.
religion
Ans
1.
Democratic
Union
v.
Govt.
of
India
(2015)
2.
Ramprakash
v.
State
of
UP
(2013)
3.
Peoples
Union
for
Civil
Liberty
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
(2000)
4.
National
Legal
Services
Authority
v.
Union
of
India
(2014)
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
31
Q.31
In
which
case
the
Supreme
Court
declared
Clauses
(4)
and
(5)
of
Article
368
of
the
Constitution
as
unconstitutional?
Ans
1.
Minerva
Mills
Ltd.
v.
Union
of
India
(1980)
2.
I.R.
Coelho
v.
Union
of
India
(2007)
3.
Indira
Nehru
Gandhi
v.
Raj
Narain
(1976)
4.
L.
Chandra
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1997)
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
32
Q.32
In
which
case
the
Supreme
Court
of
India
held
that
"right
to
life"
does
not
include
"right
to
die"?
Ans
1.
Gian
Kaur
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1996)
2.
State
of
Maharashtra
v.
Maruti
Sripati
(1987)
3.
Mithu
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1983)
4.
P.
Rathinam
v.
Union
of
India
(1994)
Ans
1.
war,
external
aggression
and
armed
rebellion
2.
external
aggression
3.
external
aggression
and
armed
rebellion
4.
external
aggression
and
internal
disturbance
Ans
1.
Article
361
-‐
A
2.
Article
361
3.
Article
361
-‐
B
4.
Article
362
Linked
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option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
35
Q.35
Article
29
(2)
of
the
Constitution
provides
that
"No
citizen
shall
be
denied
admission
into
any
educational
institution
maintained
by
the
State
or
receiving
aid
out
of
State
funds
on
grounds
only
of:
Ans
1.
religion,
race,
caste,
place
of
birth,
language
or
any
of
them.
2.
religion,
race,
caste,
language
or
any
of
them.
3.
race,
caste,
sex,
language
or
any
of
them.
4.
religion
race,
caste,
sex,
language
or
any
of
them.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
36
Q.36
The
joint
sitting
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
in
certain
cases
can
be
called
by
the
President
under
Article:
Ans
1.
107
2.
110
3.
108
4.
109
Ans
1.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
the
States
and
elected
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
Delhi
and
Pondicherry.
2.
Members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
Legislative
Assemblies
of
States
and
Legislative
Assemblies
of
Delhi
and
Pondicherry.
3.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
States
including
National
Capital
Territory
of
Delhi
and
the
Union
Territory
of
Pondicherry.
4.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
and
elected
members
of
Legislative
Assemblies
of
the
States
including
National
Capital
Territory
of
Delhi
and
the
Union
Territory
of
Pondicherry.
Ans
1.
Rudal
Sah
v.
State
of
Bihar
(1983)
2.
PUDR
v.
Union
of
India
(1983)
3.
Nilabati
Behera
v.
State
of
Orissa
(1993)
4.
Maneka
Gandhi
v.
Union
of
India
(1978)
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
39
Q.39
In
which
case
the
Supreme
Court
observed
that
there
is
no
fundamental
right
to
strike?
Ans
1.
Sodan
Hussain
v.
N.D.M.C.
(1989)
2.
Delhi
Police
Non-‐Gazetted
Karamchari
Union
v.
Union
of
India
(1987)
3.
T.
K.
Rangarajan
v.
State
of
Tamil
Nadu
(2003)
4.
Manohar
Lal
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1961)
Ans
1.
Savita
Kumari
v.
Chandigarh
Admn.
2.
Orphan
Society
v.
Delhi
Admn.
3.
Suchita
Srivastava
v.
Chandigarh
Admn.
4.
Suchita
Krishnan
v.
Delhi
Admn.
Ans
1.
Subject
to
the
provisions
of
this
Constitution
2.
Notwithstanding
anything
provided
by
this
Constitution
3.
Except
as
expressly
provided
by
this
Constitution
4.
Subject
to
the
provision
of
Article
311
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
42
Q.42
Under
which
Articles
of
the
Constitution
the
rights
given
therein
are
available
only
to
the
citizens
of
India?
Ans
1.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
17
2.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
21
3.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
29
4.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
25
(2)
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
43
Q.43
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
puts
a
duty
on
every
citizen
of
India
to
renounce
practices
derogatory
to
the
dignity
of
the
woman?
Ans
1.
Article
21
2.
Article
51
A
(g)
3.
Article
51
A
(e)
4.
Article
19
Linked
Answer
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option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
44
Q.44
In
which
case
the
Supreme
Court
upheld
the
use
of
Aadhaar
Card
for
certain
government
schemes?
Ans
1.
K.
S.
Puttaswamy
v.
UOI
2.
Sandeep
v.
UOI
3.
M.
C.
Mehta
v.
UOI
4.
PUDR
v.
UOI
Ans
1.
Article
76
2.
Article
78
3.
Article
79
4.
Article
77
Ans
1.
of
the
High
Court
only
2.
of
the
High
Court
as
well
as
Supreme
Court
3.
neither
of
the
High
Court
nor
of
the
Supreme
Court
4.
of
the
Supreme
Court
only
Linked
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option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
47
Q.47
Which
of
the
following
statement
is
correct?
Ans
1.
Some
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
26.11.1949
and
the
remaining
provisions
came
into
force
on
26.01.1950.
2.
All
the
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
15.08.1947.
3.
Some
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
15.08.1947
and
the
remaining
provisions
came
into
force
on
26.11.1949.
4.
All
the
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
26.01.1950.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
48
Q.48
By
which
amendment
to
the
Constitution,
Article
13
(4)
was
added?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
1971
2.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐fourth
Amendment)
Act,
1971
3.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐ninth
Amendment)
Act,
1972
4.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐third
Amendment)
Act,
1969
Ans
1.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
the
Parliament
2.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
House
of
the
People
3.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
elected
members
of
House
of
the
People
and
Council
of
States
4.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
the
Council
of
States
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
50
Q.50
In
which
case
the
Supreme
Court
upheld
the
Haryana
Panchayati
Raj
Act
prescribing
minimum
educational
qualifications
for
contesting
elections
of
Panchayats?
Ans
1.
Chaudhry
Ranbir
Singh
v.
State
of
Haryana
2.
Ravibala
v.
State
of
Haryana
3.
Rajbala
v.
State
of
Haryana
4.
Chaudhry
Ravi
Singh
v.
State
of
Haryana
Section : Jurisprudence
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
1
Q.1
The
Indian
Penal
Code
is
a:
Ans
1.
customary
code
2.
consolidating
code
3.
refined
code
4.
creative
code
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Keeton
3.
Ihering
4.
Salmond
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
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option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
3
Q.3
"
The
movement
of
progressive
societies
has
hitherto
been
a
movement
from
status
to
contract".
This
was
stated
by:
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Maitland
3.
Savigny
and
Maine
4.
Maine
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
4
Q.4
The
absolutist
theories
of
sovereignty
were
given
by:
Ans
1.
Bodin,
Hobbes
and
Austin
2.
Austin;
Almond
and
Maine
3.
Austin,
Kelsen
and
Maine
4.
Austin;
Bentham
and
Savigny
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
5
Q.5
While
differentiating
between
judicial
and
legislative
creativity,
it
was
stated
that
"the
creative
power
of
the
courts
is
limited
by
existing
legal
material
at
their
command.
They
find
the
material
and
shape
it.
The
legislature
may
manufacture
entirely
new
material".
Who
made
this
statement?
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Allen
3.
Salmond
4.
Austin
Ans
1.
Comte
2.
Hegel
3.
Savigny
4.
Puchta
Ans
1.
Julius
Stone
2.
John
Locke
3.
Kelsen
4.
Ihering
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
8
Q.8
Which
of
the
following
is
said
to
be
"Nine
Points
in
Law"?
Ans
1.
Ownership
2.
Right
3.
Possession
4.
Might
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
9
Q.9
Who
said
that
"Certainty
of
law
is
a
legal
myth"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Salmond
3.
Jerome
Frank
4.
Holmes
Ans
1.
A
righteous
claim
2.
A
legal
claim
3.
A
just
claim
4.
A
moral
claim
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
11
Q.11
According
to
the
"Purpose
theory"
of
personality:
Ans
1.
The
dignity
of
being
a
"juristic
person"
as
having
to
be
conceded
by
the
State.
2.
beneficiary
of
a
foundation
is
a
person.
3.
person
is
applicable
only
to
human
beings.
4.
corporate
entity
is
a
person.
Ans
1.
Intangible
rights
2.
Rights
in
one's
own
things
3.
Tangible
rights
4.
Rights
in
the
things
of
others
Ans
1.
possessio
civilis
2.
practor's
interdicts
3.
possessio
naturales
4.
possessio
interdicts
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
14
Q.14
Which
of
the
following
was
the
famous
work
of
Jermy
Bentham?
Ans
1.
Limits
of
Jurisprudence
Defined
2.
The
Concept
of
Law
3.
The
Spirit
of
Law
4.
Province
of
Law
Determined
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
15
Q.15
According
to
Historical
School,
the
most
important
source
of
law
is:
Ans
1.
Judicial
Precedent
2.
Legislation
3.
Custom
4.
Morality
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
16
Q.16
Who
stated,
"Common
law
is
essentially
judge
made
law"?
Ans
1.
Salmond
2.
Pollock
3.
Holmes
4.
Blackstone
Ans
1.
Effect
of
law
on
international
order
2.
Effect
of
law
on
society
3.
Effect
of
law
on
morality
4.
Effect
of
law
on
religion
Ans
1.
Pure
2.
Natural
3.
Historical
4.
Philosophical
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
19
Q.19
Which
of
the
following
is
not
a
characteristic
of
sovereignty
as
per
Austin's
analysis?
Ans
1.
Essentiality
2.
Indivisibility
3.
Illimitability
4.
Divinity
Ans
1.
Durkheim
2.
Roscoe
Pound
3.
Henry
Marne
4.
Ehrlich
Ans
1.
Ignorance
of
fact
is
no
excuse
2.
Ignorance
of
law
is
excuse
3.
Ignorance
of
law
is
no
excuse
4.
Ignorance
of
fact
is
excuse
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
22
Q.22
Who
was
the
author
of
"The
Province
of
Jurisprudence
Determined"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Dias
3.
Austin
4.
Salmond
Ans
1.
Sovereign
2.
Higher
Legal
Norm
3.
Higher
Moral
Norm
4.
Higher
Social
Norm
Ans
1.
Salmond
2.
Allen
3.
Hegel
4.
Paton
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
25
Q.25
Fill
in
the
blanks
by
choosing
the
correct
option:
_________________
justice
prescribes
equality.
There
has
to
be
equal
distribution
among
equals,
unequal
distribution
among
unequals.
_____________
justice
seeks
to
restore
equality,
when
this
has
been
shaken,
on
the
assumption
that
the
situation
that
has
been
upset
was
distributively
first.
Ans
1.
Distributive,
Corrective
2.
Classic,
Corrective
3.
Particular,
Distributive
4.
Universal,
Classic
Linked
Answer
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in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
26
Q.26
In
India,
which
of
the
following
cannot
logically
be
said
to
be
the
manifestation
of
"VOLKSGEIST"?
Ans
1.
GURUKUL
Education
2.
Community
Labour
(SHRAMDAN)
3.
Untouchability
4.
Panchayat
system
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
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option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
27
Q.27
Who
stated
that
"I
recognize
without
hesitation
that
judges
must
and
do
legislate,
but
they
do
so
only
interstitially;
they
are
confined
from
molar
to
molecular
motions"?
Ans
1.
Justice
Holmes
2.
Grey
3.
Kant
4.
Justice
Cardozo
Ans
1.
Law
is
to
serve
social
purpose
2.
Law
is
a
means
not
an
end
3.
Law
is
the
command
of
the
sovereign
4.
Law
is
a
normative
science
Ans
1.
Population,
Territory,
Sovereignty
and
Divinity
2.
Population,
Territory,
Government
and
Sovereignty
3.
Population,
Sovereignty
and
Territory
and
Equality
4.
Sovereignty,
Government
and
Territory
and
Morality
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
30
Q.30
Savigny,
Salmond
and
Dicey
were
the
main
supporters
of
which
theory
of
personality?
Ans
1.
Organic
theory
2.
Concession
theory
3.
Bracket
theory
4.
Fiction
theory
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
31
Q.31
According
to
Hohfeld
what
is
the
"jural
opposite"
of
power?
Ans
1.
Right
2.
Liability
3.
Disability
4.
Duty
Ans
1.
C.K.
Allen
2.
Kelsen
3.
Upendra
Baxi
4.
Henry
Maine
Linked
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Question:
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most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
33
Q.33
According
to
Hohfeld
if
'X'
has
a
power,
'Y'
has
a
liability.
A
liability
in
'Y'
means
the
absence
of
immunity
in
him.
Therefore,:
Ans
1.
There
is
no
relation
between
power
and
liability.
2.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
contradicts".
3.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
opposites".
4.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
correlatives.
Linked
Answer
Question:
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most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
34
Q.34
Salmond
distinguished
between
"corporeal
possession"
and
"incorporeal
possession".
According
to
him
corporeal
possession
refers
to:
Ans
1.
Possession
of
physical
objects
2.
Possession
of
rights
3.
intention
to
possess
physical
objects
4.
intention
to
possess
rights
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Ihering
3.
Pound
4.
Kelsen
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Duguit
3.
Wurzel
4.
Hegel
Linked
Answer
Question:
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option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
37
Q.37
Who
summarized
Austin's
thesis
by
stating
that
"this,
at
first
sight,
looks
like
a
circular
reasoning.
Law
is
law
since
it
is
made
by
the
Sovereign.
The
Sovereign
is
Sovereign
because
he
makes
the
law"?
Ans
1.
Fuller
2.
Buckland
3.
Holland
4.
Hart
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
38
Q.38
Who
used
the
"social
solidarity"
as
a
criterion
of
the
validity
of
Laws?
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Pound
3.
Kelsen
4.
Ihering
Ans
1.
X
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
2.
The
agent
of
'X'
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
3.
The
agent
of
'X'
and
'Y'
were
in
possession
of
the
rooms.
4.
'Y'
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
Ans
1.
Family
2.
State
3.
Tribe
4.
Clan
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
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the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
41
Q.41
Which
school
regards
the
judge
made
law
as
"an
unauthorized
encroachment
upon
the
powers
of
the
legislators
to
make
law"?
Ans
1.
Realist
school
2.
Historical
school
3.
Sociological
school
4.
Analytical
school
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
42
Q.42
What
is
the
correlative
of
"Immunity",
according
to
Hohfeld?
Ans
1.
Duty
2.
Liability
3.
Disability
4.
Power
Ans
1.
natural
Law
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
2.
analytical
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
3.
historical
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
4.
natural
Law
positivist
and
historical
approaches
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
44
Q.44
Right
to
one's
Reputation
is
a:
Ans
1.
right
in
rem
2.
right
in
personam
3.
an
easement
right
4.
property
right
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
45
Q.45
Cicero
defined
law
as:
Ans
1.
The
highest
reason
implanted
in
nature.
2.
The
aggregate
of
rules
set
by
men
or
politically
superior,
or
sovereign,
to
men
or
politically
subject.
3.
A
social
institution
to
satisfy
social
wants.
4.
The
form
of
the
guarantee
of
the
conditions
of
life
of
society
assured
by
state's
power
of
constraint.
Ans
1.
Ihering
2.
Baker
3.
Savigny
4.
Salmond
Ans
1.
Hohfield
2.
Holmes
3.
Holland
4.
Henry
Maine
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
48
Q.48
Who
is
the
author
of
the
famous
book
"The
Concept
of
Law"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Upendra
Baxi
3.
Austin
4.
Hart
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
49
Q.49
Who
is
called
the
"father
of
English
Jurisprudence"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
John
Austin
3.
Ihering
4.
Justice
Holmes
Ans
1.
Realist
law
theories
2.
Natural
law
theories
3.
Analytical
law
theories
4.
Pure
law
theories
Section : Other Subjects such as Contract , Torts , Criminal Law , International Law, IPR etc
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
1
Q.1
'A'
signs
his
own
name
to
a
bill
of
exchange,
intending
that
it
may
be
believed
that
the
bill
was
drawn
by
another
person
of
the
same
name.
'A'
commits:
Ans
1.
attempt
of
cheating
2.
forgery
3.
attempt
of
forgery
4.
cheating
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
2
Q.2
Article
51
of
the
UN
Charter
saves
which
of
the
following
rights
as
being
inherent?
Ans
1.
Right
to
free
trade
with
member-‐States
2.
Right
to
enter
into
relations
with
other
States
3.
Right
of
self-‐defence
4.
Right
of
self-‐determination
Ans
1.
criminal
breach
of
trust
2.
theft
3.
cheating
4.
forgery
Ans
1.
invention
2.
discovery
3.
observation
4.
finding
Ans
1.
A
cannot
revoke
this
authority.
2.
The
authority
can
be
terminated
after
the
death
of
'A'.
3.
A
can
revoke
this
authority
subsequently.
4.
The
authority
can
be
terminated
on
the
ground
of
insanity
of
'A'.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
6
Q.6
'A'
voluntarily
throws
into
a
river
a
ring
belonging
to
'Z',
with
the
intention
of
thereby
causing
wrongful
loss
to
'Z'.
'A'
has
committed:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
theft
3.
cheating
4.
mischief
Ans
1.
Nine
years
2.
Three
years
3.
Five
years
4.
Seven
years
Ans
1.
can
adopt
another
son
with
the
permission
of
the
Court
2.
cannot
adopt
another
son
3.
can
adopt
another
son
with
the
consent
of
the
adopted
son
4.
can
adopt
another
son
Ans
1.
there
was
contributory
negligence
of
the
boy,
therefore
defendant
is
not
liable.
2.
not
liable
in
negligence
because
possession
of
the
Can
and
money
proved
that
boy
acted
as
a
reasonable
person.
3.
not
liable
in
negligence
as
the
boy
had
made
a
false
statement
and
the
defendant
believed
it
to
be
true.
4.
liable
in
negligence
for
supplying
petrol
to
so
young
a
boy
who
was
not
expected
to
know
the
properties
of
petrol.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
10
Q.10
A,
B,
C,
D,
and
E,
while
carrying
away
property
obtained
by
theft
committed
in
a
house
fired
shots
in
the
air
with
a
view
to
scare
away
the
inmates,
from
pursuing
them.
They
are
guilty
of:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
dacoity
3.
roit
4.
theft
Ans
1.
Fawcett
2.
Brierly
3.
Holland
4.
Grotius
Ans
1.
entitled
to
reimbursement
from
B's
property.
2.
entitled
to
partial
reimbursement
only.
3.
not
entitled
to
any
reimbursement.
4.
entitled
to
reimbursement
at
the
discretion
of
'B'.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
13
Q.13
A'
agrees
to
buy
from
'B'
a
certain
horse.
It
turns
out
that
horse
was
dead
at
the
time
of
the
bargain,
though
neither
party
was
aware
of
the
fact.
The
agreement
is:
Ans
1.
valid
for
claim
of
compensation
2.
voidable
3.
valid
4.
void
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
14
Q.14
An
accused
head
master
of
a
school
threatens
a
lady
teacher
to
sign
certain
blank
papers
and
if
she
does
not
do
so,
he
would
defame
her.
The
head
master
is
guilty
of:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
attempt
to
commit
defamation
3.
criminal
intimidation
4.
robbery
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
15
Q.15
The
essential
tests
for
the
existence
of
international
custom
are:
Ans
1.
uniform
states
practice
and
opinio
juris
sive
necessitatis
2.
ancient
nature
3.
ancient
nature,
uniform
states
practice
and
opinio
juris
sive
necessitatis
4.
ancient
nature,
uniform
states
practice
Ans
1.
Life
of
author
plus
25
Years
after
his/her
death
2.
Full
life
only
3.
Life
of
author
plus
50
Years
after
his/her
death
4.
Life
of
author
plus
60
Years
after
his
/her
death
Ans
1.
Ubi
remedium
ibi
jus
2.
Ubi
jus
ibi
remedium
3.
Respondeat
superior
4.
Damnum
sine
injuria
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
18
Q.18
Emission
Trading
mechanism
is
a
market
based
mechanism
provided
in:
Ans
1.
Warsaw
Amendment,
2013
2.
Kyoto
Protocol,
1997
3.
U.N.
Convention
on
Climate
Change,
1992
4.
Lima
Agreement,
2014
Ans
1.
Hadley
v.
Baxendale
2.
Solomon
v.
Solomon
3.
Harvey
v.
Facie
4.
Carllil
v.
Carbolic
Smoke
Ball
Co.
Ans
1.
The
bailment
is
automatically
terminated.
2.
The
termination
of
bailment
is
at
the
option
of
'A'.
3.
The
bailment
can
be
terminated
at
the
option
of
'B'.
4.
The
bailment
cannot
be
terminated.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
21
Q.21
'A'
inserts
his
finger
into
the
anus
of
a
woman
against
her
will.
Under
which
one
of
the
following
Sections
of
the
Indian
Penal
Code,
1860
'A'
is
punishable?
Ans
1.
Section
377
2.
Section
354
3.
Section
376
4.
Section
509
Ans
1.
Fraudulently
or
dishonestly
2.
Dishonestly
3.
Fraudulently
4.
Fraudulently
and
dishonestly
Ans
1.
Grotius
2.
Holland
3.
Starke
4.
Oppenheim
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
24
Q.24
A'
proposes,
by
letter,
to
sell
a
house
to
'B'
at
a
certain
price.
'B'
accepts
the
proposal
of
'A'
by
posting
a
letter
to
'A'.
Select
the
correct
option:
Ans
1.
There
cannot
be
an
agreement
between
'A'
and
'B'
by
post.
2.
The
communication
of
the
acceptance
is
complete
against
'B'
when
the
letter
is
posted
by
'B'.
3.
The
communication
of
the
acceptance
is
complete
against
'B'
when
the
letter
is
received
by
'A'.
4.
The
communication
of
the
proposal
is
complete
when
letter
of
proposal
was
posted
by
'A'.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
25
Q.25
India
acceded
to
the
International
Covenant
on
Civil
and
Political
Rights
in:
Ans
1.
1972
2.
1966
3.
1979
4.
1976
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
26
Q.26
Under
the
Copyright
Act,
1957
copyright
can
be
granted
to?
Ans
1.
invention
2.
handicrafts
3.
design
of
a
bottle
4.
literary,
dramatic,
musical
and
artistic
work
Ans
1.
Plaintiff's
own
default.
2.
Inevitable
accident.
3.
Act
of
God.
4.
Escape
of
dangerous
things
through
the
unforeseeable
act
of
a
stranger.
Ans
1.
Prosecution
of
the
plaintiff
by
the
defendant.
2.
Damage
to
the
plaintiff
due
to
malicious
prosecution.
3.
Termination
of
the
criminal
case
in
favour
of
the
defendant.
4.
Absence
of
reasonable
and
probable
cause
for
prosecution.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
29
Q.29
Which
one
of
the
following
is
accepted
as
mens
rea
for
constituting
the
offence
of
theft?
Ans
1.
voluntarily
2.
Dishonestly
3.
Fraudulently
4.
knowingly
Ans
1.
Paris
Agreement,
2015
2.
Montreal
Protocol,
1987
3.
U.N.
Convention
on
Biodiversity,
1992
4.
Warsaw
Amendment,
2013
Ans
1.
2010
2.
2012
3.
2013
4.
2006
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
32
Q.32
In
execution
of
a
decree
for
the
maintenance,
salary
of
a
person
can
be
attached
to
the
extent
of:
Ans
1.
two
third
2.
one
half
3.
one
fourth
4.
one
third
Ans
1.
Fitzmaurice
2.
J.G.
Starke
3.
John
Austin
4.
Frederick
Pollock
Ans
1.
he
who
acts
through
others
is
deemed
in
law
as
doing
it
himself.
2.
responsibility
must
not
be
that
of
the
superior.
3.
a
person
is
responsible
for
his
wrongful
acts.
4.
an
agent
is
not
liable
to
principal.
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
35
Q.35
The
International
Criminal
Court
was
established
by:
Ans
1.
Rome
Statute,
1998
2.
UN
Charter,
1945
3.
League
of
Nations,
1919
4.
Hague
Conference,
1907
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
36
Q.36
As
per
The
Copyright
Act
1957,
who
is
not
included
in
the
definition
of
Performer?
Ans
1.
Snake
charmer
2.
Acrobat
3.
Cobbler
4.
Singer
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
37
Q.37
'A'
agrees
to
sell
his
house
worth
Rs.
5
lac
for
Rs.
1000/-‐.
'A'
denies
that
his
consent
to
the
agreement
was
freely
given.
Ans
1.
The
contract
is
void
because
of
inadequacy
of
consideration.
2.
'A'
cannot
take
this
plea
after
the
agreement.
3.
The
court
should
take
into
account
the
inadequacy
of
the
consideration
in
considering
whether
or
not
'A's
consent
was
freely
given.
4.
The
court
cannot
take
into
account
the
inadequacy
of
the
consideration
in
considering
whether
or
not
'A's
consent
was
freely
given.
Ans
1.
Macsarin
2.
Gleevec
3.
Zimmerman
4.
Aspirin
Ans
1.
void
as
to
delivery
of
heroin
and
valid
as
to
delivery
of
rice
2.
void
3.
voidable
4.
valid
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
40
Q.40
An
invention
under
the
Patent
in
India
can
be
protected
for
a
term
of
-‐
Ans
1.
20
Years
2.
50
Years
3.
10
Years
4.
25
Years
Ans
1.
Revanasiddappa
v.
Mallikarjun
AIR
2011
SC
(Supp)
155
2.
Bhaurao
Shanker
Lokhande
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
AIR
1965
SC
1564
3.
Sarla
Mudgal
v.
Union
of
India
AIR
1995
SC
1531
4.
Bharatha
Matha
v.
R.
Vijaya
Renganathan
AIR
2010
SC
2685
Ans
1.
'X'
alone
as
legal
representative
2.
'Y'
alone
as
legal
representative
3.
'X',
'Y'
and
the
husband
of
Y
as
legal
representatives
4.
'X'
and
'Y'
both,
as
legal
representatives
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
43
Q.43
Which
one
of
the
following
essentials
for
seeking
claim
of
patent
is
wrong?
Ans
1.
Compulsory
Licensing
2.
Non-‐obviousness
3.
Novelty
4.
Industrial
Utility
Ans
1.
fault
Liability
2.
negligence
3.
absolute
liability
4.
wrongful
intention
Ans
1.
U.N.
General
Assembly
2.
Security
Council
3.
Economic
and
Social
Council
4.
W.H.O.
Ans
1.
Wrongful
intention
2.
Defamatory
statement
3.
Referring
to
the
Plaintiff
4.
Publication
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
47
Q.47
For
fixing
vicarious
liability
of
master
in
tort
for
the
wrongs
committed
by
servant,
master
servant
relationship
is
determined
on
the
basis
of:
Ans
1.
employment
2.
payment
of
wages
3.
conditions
of
service
4.
control
of
master
over
servant's
acts
Linked
Answer
Question:
Direction:
Choose
the
most
appropriate
option
in
the
following
questions:
Sub
Question
No
:
48
Q.48
Under
the
Indian
Contract
Act,
1872
a
finder
of
goods
is
subject
to
the
same
duties
as
a:
Ans
1.
custodian
2.
owner
3.
bailee
4.
trustee
Ans
1.
The
comment
must
be
an
assertion
of
fact.
2.
The
comment
must
be
fair.
3.
The
matter
commented
on
must
be
of
public
interest.
4.
The
comment
must
not
be
malicious.
Ans
1.
'C'
is
bound
to
repay
Rs.
100/-‐
to
'B'.
2.
C'
is
not
bound
to
repay
Rs.
100/-‐
to
either
'A'
or
'B'
because
'B'
paid
on
his
own.
3.
C'
is
bound
to
pay
Rs.
50/-‐
to
'B'.
4.
C'
is
bound
to
pay
Rs.
100/-‐
each
to
'A'
and
'B'.
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Number of Questions to be attempted: 1
Section Marks: 50
Display Number Panel: Yes
Group All Questions: No
Sub-Section Number: 1
Sub-Section Id: 46113920
Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes
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CLAT 2018 - PG
2. Rights over resources within the territorial waters, continental shelf and exclusive
economic zone, vest in the Union of India, under which provision of the Constitution of
India?
A. Article 297
B. Article 51
C. Article 253
D. Article 260
3. Which of the following is not a special procedure or feature in respect of a Money Bill?
4. Which of the following shall not be eligible for further office under the Government of
India or Government of any State?
A. Article 40
B. Article 21A
1
C. Article 23
D. Article 48
A. Banking
B. Police
C. Rights in land
D. Officers and servants of the High Court
8. In which of the following judgments was it held that the jurisdiction conferred upon the
High Courts under Article 226 and upon the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the
Constitution is part of the inviolable basic structure of the Constitution of India?
10. Which of the following is the correct position in law regarding administration of narco-
analysis techniques, in the light of the judgment in Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) 7
SCC 263?
(i) Compulsory administration constitutes cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment in
the context of Article 21.
(ii) Compulsory administration violates the right against self-incrimination under
Article 20(3).
2
(iii) Compulsory administration may, however, be justifiable in compelling public
interest in combatting terrorist activities.
(iv) Information subsequently discovered with the help of voluntarily administered
narco-analysis results may be admitted in evidence.
11. The Constitution (One Hundred and First) Amendment Act, 2016 was required to be
ratified by the Legislature of not less than one half of the State Legislatures because it
sought to make changes in:
(i) Chapter I of Part XI of the Constitution dealing with legislative relations
between the Union and the States.
(ii) Lists I and II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
(iii) the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution.
(iv) Part XIII of the Constitution dealing with trade, commerce and intercourse
within India.
13. A majority of not less than two-third of the membership of the House concerned is not
necessary for removal of which of the following authority?
3
(iv) National Human Rights Commission
15. Which of the following reason(s) was/were considered necessary for the Constitution
(Seventy-Seventh) Amendment Act, 1995 inserting Article 16(4A)?
(i) Inadequacy of representation of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes
in services in the States.
(ii) Reservation in promotion was held constitutionally impermissible in Indra
Sawhney v. Union of India, AIR 1993 SC 477.
(iii) To prevent qualitative exclusion of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes in services in the States.
(iv) To achieve inter-locking in horizontal and vertical reservation among the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in services in the States.
A. (i) only
B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
16. Which of the following provision(s) applicable to the Supreme Court is/are also
applicable to the High Courts?
(i) Article 124(4).
(ii) Article 124(5).
(iii) Article 129
(iv) Article 144
17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct, regarding the duties and rights of the
Attorney-General for India in performance of his duties?
(i) The Attorney-General for India shall give advice to the Government of
India upon legal matters.
(ii) The Attorney-General for India shall have a right to audience in all Courts
in India.
4
(iii) The Attorney-General for India shall have the right to speak in the
proceedings of either House.
(iv) The Attorney-General for India shall not be liable to any proceedings in
any court in respect of anything said by him in Parliament or any
committee thereof.
18. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is enforceable against private individuals?
(i) Article 17
(ii) Article 23
(iii) Article 24
(iv) Article 21
19. Which of the following procedure was adopted to give effect to the land boundary
agreement between India and Bangladesh in 2015?
A. A law made by Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution of India.
B. The Constitution (100th Amendment) Act.
C. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act.
D. By an executive action.
20. Which of the following statements is incorrect in view of the judgment in Pramati
Educational and Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014) 8 SCC 1?
A. Article 15(5) does not violate the freedom of private unaided educational
institutions under Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution.
B. Articles 15(5) and 21A do not alter the basic structure of the Constitution and are
constitutionally valid.
C. A law made under Article 15(5) of the Constitution shall not be open to
challenge under Article 14, if it treats private aided and unaided educational
institutions alike.
D. Article 15(5), insofar as it is applicable to minority educational institutions
referred to in Article 30(1) of the Constitution, is ultra vires the Constitution.
5
21. From where did the Drafting Committee borrow the expression “except according to
procedure established by law” for Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
A. Irish Constitution
B. Swedish Constitution
C. Australian Constitution
D. Japanese Constitution
22. In which of the following decisions the Supreme Court framed guidelines for
safeguarding the interest of the death row convicts?
23. Which of the following does not follow from the law declared in the National Legal
Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) 5 SCC 438, in respect of rights of the
members of the transgender community?
24. Which of the following were relevant considerations for prohibition on sale of liquor
along national and state highways in State of Tamil Nadu v. K. Balu (2017) 2 SCC 281?
(i) There is no fundamental right under Article 19(1)(g) to trade in liquor.
(ii) Under Article 47, the State is under a duty to raise the level of nutrition,
standard of living and improve public health.
(iii) An exception to permit the sale of liquor along a stretch of the highway which
passes through the limits of city is arbitrary and violative of Article 14.
(iv) Right to life under Article 21 signifies a right to live with human dignity, free of
noxious substances and intoxicants.
6
25. Which of the following reasons led to the setting aside of the practice of ‘talaq-e-
biddat’, triple talaq in Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017) 9 SCC 1?
(i) Section 2 of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 was a pre-
constitutional legislation within the meaning of Article 13(1) and violative of
Article 14 of the Constitution of India on the ground of arbitrariness.
(ii) Section 2 of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 was a pre-
constitutional legislation within the meaning of Article 13(1) and violative of
Article 15 of the Constitution of India, being discriminatory.
(iii) Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 is not a law regulating
triple talaq but the practice of triple talaq was against the basic tenets of the
Holy Quran and no practice against the tenets of Quran was permissible.
(iv) ‘Talaq-e-biddat’ is integral to the religious denomination but the Supreme Court
may injunct this practice as a means for severing matrimonial relationship.
26. Which is the correct position in law on an Ordinance promulgated under Article 123 of
the Constitution of India, following the judgment in Krishna Kumar v. State of Bihar
(2017) 3 SCC 1?
(i) Power conferred upon the President under Article 123 is legislative in character
and the satisfaction of the President is immune from judicial review.
(ii) An Ordinance promulgated under Article 123 must be laid before the
Parliament, which is a mandatory constitutional obligation cast upon the
government.
(iii) An Ordinance promulgated in exercise of powers under Article 213 cannot
create enduring rights in favour of individuals
(iv) Re-promulgation of an Ordinance is a fraud on the Constitution.
7
D. Socially and educationally backward class of citizens
28. In which case, the Supreme Court struck down that part of the Constitution (Forty-second
Amendment) Act, 1976 by which Article 31C was amended?
29. In which among the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the petitioners have
no fundamental right within the meaning of Art 25 or 26 to perform ‘Tandava dance’ in
public streets and public places.
A. Commr. HRE v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC 282
B. Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1963 SC 1638
C. N. Adithayan v. Travancore Devasom Board, (2002) 8 SCC 106
D. Commr. of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta, (2004) 12 SCC 770
31. The idea of single citizenship in India was taken from the
A. British Constitution
B. US Constitution
C. Australian Constitution
D. Weimar Constitution
32. With which amendment was clause 4 to Article 13, Constitution of India, inserted?
33. Which Constitution Amendment Act brought into force the goods and services tax?
A. 98th
B. 99th
C. 100th
D. 101st
8
34. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. The Jammu and Kashmir Code of Criminal Procedure has no provision for
transfer of a case from a Court in Jammu and Kashmir to any Court outside that
State and, therefore, no criminal case can be transferred from the State of
Jammu and Kashmir to any other Court outside that State.
B. Article 370 of the Constitution of India confers merely a “Temporary” status on
the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
C. Article 371-D and Presidential Orders issued thereunder override any other
provision of the Constitution of India.
D. The citizens of India have a fundamental right to reside and settle in any part of
India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
35. Which of the following questions is not relevant in determining the existence of a
constitutional convention?
36. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court issued detailed directions for the
protection of Good Samaritans?
37. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court refused to give any relief to the
petitioner(s) under Article 32?
9
39. Preventive Detention under article 22 of the Constitution can be enforced:
A. Only during the time of communal violence
B. Only when a proclamation of national emergency is made
C. Only when a proclamation of internal emergency is made
D. At any time during peace or war
40. Article 233A was introduced into the Constitution of India to validate the appointments of,
and judgments, etc. delivered by certain District Judges. In which among the following
cases were those appointments invalidated in a writ of Quo-warranto?
42. In which case was it held that the authority which “embarks upon a post-decisional hearing
will naturally proceed with a closed mind and there is hardly any chance of getting a proper
consideration of the representation at such a post-decisional opportunity”?
A. Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax
where the supply of goods, or of services, or both takes place in the course of inter-
State trade or commerce.
B. The tax collected by the Union under Clause (1) of Article 246A shall not be
distributed between the Union and the States.
C. The Goods and Services Tax Council has power to establish a mechanism to
adjudicate any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
10
D. Article 279-A is an entrenched provision under Article 368 of the Constitution of
India.
44. In which of the following cases the reservation for Jats was struck down?
45. Is a writ petition for mandamus maintainable in any of the following cases?
46. For prevention of corruption, provisions have been made under which of the legislations?
(i) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
(ii) The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
(iii) The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
A. (i) only.
B. (i) and (iii) only.
C. (iii) only.
D. (i), (ii) and (iii).
47. The Supreme Court may review the award given by the Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunal
by invoking
A. Article 142
B. Article 131
C. Article 262
D. Article 136
48. For approval or extension of emergency under Article 352 it is required that there should be
11
A. Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total membership of that
House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and
voting.
B. Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a simple majority of members present
and voting.
C. Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total membership of that
House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting
and ratification by not less than one-half of the States.
D. Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total membership of that
House and by a majority of not less than three-fourth of members present and
voting.
12
Juris Set 1 (Qs 51 – 100)
A. Hart
B. Hobbes
C. Kelsen
D. Lon L Fuller
2. Who stated: “The life of law has not been logic; it has been experience”
A. Oliver Holmes
B. Dworkin
C. Hart
D. Roscoe Pound
A. We the People
B. We the Nations
C. We the Peoples
D. We the Founding Nations
A. Austin
B. Roscoe Pound
C. Duguit
D. Auguste Comte
13
7. The concept of Dialectical Materialism is a concept commonly associated with which of the
following Schools of Thought?
A. Marxism
B. Liberal Theory
C. Post Modernism
D. Utilitarianism
8. Who authored, “The Indian School of Synthetic Jurisprudence: An Idea Relating to Its
Purposes”?
A. Kautilya
B. Manu
C. M. J. Sethna
D. UpendraBaxi
A. Ownership
B. Possession
C. Transfer of ownership
D. Atonement
11. Jurisprudence should be ideally divided into censorial and expository jurisprudence. This
view was given by
A. Auguste Comte
B. Bentham
C. Emile Durkheim
D. Holland
12. Law is a combination of Primary and Secondary rules. This principle was propounded by
A. Kelsen
B. Ronald Dworkin
C. Hart
D. Fuller
14
13. As per the Anthropological approach towards the study of Jurisprudence, the Twelve Tables
of Rome may be considered an example of
A. Religious law
B. Divine law
C. Published law
D. Personal command
14. Who made the statement, "Law is uncertain and certainty of law is a legal myth"?
A. Fuller
B. Jerome Frank
C. Llewellyn
D. Holmes
15. As per Kelsen, if a norm remains permanently inefficacious, then it is deprived of its validity.
This is known as
A. Nomodynamics
B. Condition per quam
C. Desuetudo
D. Effective Repeal
18. The famous essay Vom Bneruf was written by Savigny as a reaction to
A. Thibaut’s proposal for a Code on the lines of the Napoleonic Code
B. The King’s proposal for introducing British common law in Germany
C. The Parliament’s proposal to introduce Roman law in Germany
15
D. The revival of Justinian’s Code
19. Who among the following is called as “Darwinian before Darwin”, because of his
contribution to apply the evolutionary principle to the development of the legal system?
A. Gluckman
B. Malinowski
C. Savigny
D. Puchta
20. In his endeavour to discover a pattern of legal development, Maine was led to distinguish
between societies as
A. Static and progressive societies
B. Dependent and independent societies
C. Subjective and objective societies
D. Customary and statutory societies.
22. Which theory of punishment implies “An eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth” approach?
A. Expiatory
B. Preventive
C. Deterrent
D. Retributive
23. As per the rule of English law, a custom to be recognized as law, must be proved to be in
existence since times immemorial. However, for customs that are old and whose time of
origin cannot be ascertained, which year has been fixed as the date before which it must
have started?
A. 1169 AD
B. 1189 AD
C. 1369 AD
D. 1389 AD
24. Which of the following is an accessory right?
A. Easementary rights
B. Ownership rights
C. Right to reputation
16
D. Right to personal security
25. Ownership of goodwill of a business is
A. Corporeal ownership
B. Incorporeal ownership
C. Business ownership
D. Beneficial ownership
26. The law applying to controversies involving non-citizens of Rome was known as
A. Jus civilie
B. Jus gentium
C. Nicomachean ethics
D. Corpus civilie
27. Which one of the following philosophers conceived justice as ‘some sort of equality’ and
divided the concept of justice as ‘corrective justice’ and ‘distributive justice’?
A. Aristotle
B. Rawls
C. Robert Nozick
D. Ronald Dworkin
28. “Sociology of law must begin with the ascertainment of the living law, the concrete which
can be observed and not the abstract”. Who said so?
A. Duguit
B. Ihering
C. Ehrlich
D. Durkheim
29. Who said that, “The law of nature or natural law is the general will of the people who come
together to form an association called State”?
A. Hobbes
B. Locke
C. Rousseau
D. Kant
30. Which one of the following conceived ‘integrative jurisprudence’ as combined jurisprudence
of positivist, naturalist and sociological descriptions and an understanding of the value
components of legal ordering?
A. Jerome Hall
B. John Finnis
C. Clarence Morris
17
D. Leon Duguit
31. De Jure Belli ac Pacis is the celebrated work of-
A. Hugo Grotius
B. Niccolo Machiavelli
C. Samuel Pufendorf
D. Jean Jacques Burlamaqui
32. Which one of the following drafted the hypothetical Case of the Speluncean Explorers?
A. Lon L Fuller
B. Rudolph Stammler
C. John Rawls
D. Clarence Morris
33. Which of the following is not absolute duty according to John Austin?
A. Duties towards lower animals
B. Duties towards community
C. self-regarding duties
D. Duties towards sovereign
34. Who said, "A precedent, therefore, is a judicial decision which contains in itself a principle.
The underlying principle which thus forms its authoritative element is often termed the
ratio decidendi.”?
A. Salmond
B. Keeton
C. Rupert Cross
D. Osborn
35. Which of the following statements does not suit the Hohfeldian analysis of right?
A. Power in ‘X’ means presence of liability upon ‘Y’
B. Immunity in ‘X’ means absence of liability in ‘X’
C. Right in ‘X’ means presence of ‘No-right’ in ‘Y’
D. Liberty in ‘X’ means absence of duty in ‘X’
36. Which of the following is not a circumstance of strengthening the authority of a precedent?
A. Approval of the decision in later cases and by the profession at large
B. Closely divided opinion of the Court
C. Evidence in the report that the issue was fully argued by counsel and the Court took
time to deliberate
D. The decision has stood the test of time
18
37. A rule which says, “the literal sense of words should be adhered to, unless this would lead
to absurdity, in which case the literal meaning may be modified”, can be called
A. Mischief rule
B. Literal rule
C. Golden rule
D. Compromise approach
38. Who defined ownership as ‘a right – indefinite in point of user – unrestricted in point of
disposition – and unlimited in point of duration’?
A. Salmond
B. Austin
C. Marx
D. Glaniville Williams
39. Which of the following is not correct in the context of valid usage?
A. Usage must be so well established as notorious.
B. In case of conflict between usage and law, law prevails.
C. In case of conflict between express provision of a contract and usage, contract
prevails.
D. Usage shall be a reasonable one.
40. “A dictate of right reason, which points out that an act, according as it is or is not in
conformity with rational nature, has in it a quality of moral baseness or moral necessity.”
Who made this observation?
A. Cicero
B. Aristotle
C. Plato
D. Grotius
41. “Private property is robbery, and a state based on private property is a state of robbers who
are fighting for a share of the spoils.” Who made this observation?
A. Lenin
B. Marx
C. Renner
D. Pashukanis
19
constitutional challenge of the same Act, pending before the High Court of Madras what the
latter High Court cannot do with regard to Bombay High Court judgment is
43. Which of the following characteristics of trust is considered as a problematic factor in a legal
system?
A. Group property can be applied for the desired purpose.
B. Pooling up of economic power to neutralise competition.
C. Enables endowments and gifts by vesting rights in trustees.
D. Helps in settling family property in favour of the vulnerable.
45. Which of the following is not correct about the will theory of contract?
A. It believes in the dictum of status to contract.
B. It puts emphasis on expectations reasonably aroused by conduct rather than state
of mind.
C. It relies on person’s mind which can be proved only from his own evidence or by
inferences from his conduct.
D. It leads to such a subjective view of mistake that the security of transactions is
thereby imperilled.
46. “The suppression of vice is as much the law’s business as the suppression of subversive
activities.” Who made this observation?
A. H L A Hart
B. J S Mill
C. Lord Devlin
D. James Stephens
47. Which of the following is not correct about the Critical Legal School?
A. It strongly believes in the inescapable power of the intellectual climate’s search for
value neutrality.
20
B. It shows the way in which the legal system works at many different levels to shape
popular consciousness towards accepting the legitimacy of the status quo.
C. It rejects formalism.
D. Its central thrust of attack is on legal liberalism.
48. Which of the following propositions do not suit the approaches of American Realism?
A. It is a combination of the analytical positivist and sociological approaches.
B. It lays emphasis on empirical study of the behaviour of judges.
C. It distrusts the sufficiency of legal rules and concepts as descriptive of what Courts
do.
D. It combines the ‘is’ and ‘ought’ aspects in the study of law and how it works.
49. Who stated that, “Law is the sum of the conditions of social life in the widest sense of the
term, as secured by the power of the State through the means of external compulsion.”
A. Roscoe Pound
B. Jeremy Bentham
C. Ehrlich
D. Ihering
50. Which of the following is not emphasised by Katherine Bartlette as a part of feminist legal
research?
A. Asking the woman question
B. Consciousness –raising
C. Difference theory
D. Positionality
21
LLM General Set 1 Qs 101 – 150)
1. In which case was it observed that “The dividing line between an administrative power and
a quasi-judicial power is quite thin and is being gradually obliterated”?
2. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the Wednesbury rule was
applicable in administrative actions?
A. Indian Railway Construction Co. Ltd. v. Ajay Kumar, (2003) 4 SCC 579
B. Shrilekha Vidyarthi v. State of U.P., AIR 1991 SC 537
C. State of Punjab v. V.K. Khanna, AIR 2001 SC 343
D. A.N. Parasuraman v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1990 SC 40
3. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
is not correct?
4. Which one of the following has powers similar to those of a Court having power to issue a
writ of certiorari under the express statutory provisions?
5. Which one of the following statements with regard to a Commission of Inquiry is incorrect?
22
6. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Right to Information Act, 2005 is
not correct?
7. Which among the following was the first case before the Supreme Court of India where
the constitutionality of death penalty was challenged?
A. Rajendra Prasad v. State of U. P.
B. Jagmohan Singh v. State of U. P.
C. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
D. Machhi Singh and Others v. State of Punjab
8. Which among the following is/are not true with respect to the decision of the Supreme
Court of India in Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India (AIR 1996 SC 2715)?
i. This was a PIL against the pollution caused by discharge of untreated effluent from
tanneries and other industries.
ii. The Court refused to recognise that a balance must be struck between the economy
and the environment.
iii. The Court accepted the traditional concept that development and ecology are
opposed to each other.
iv. The Court reviewed the development of the concept of sustainable development in
the international sphere.
v. The Supreme Court held that the precautionary principle and the polluter pays
principle are part of International environmental law and not of municipal law.
A. Only i, iii and v
B. Only ii, iii and v
C. Only iii, iv and v
D. Only iv and v
23
D. Unless there is a contract to the contrary, death of a partner will
automatically lead to the dissolution of the partnership.
10. In which among the following cases did the Supreme Court observe:
“We cannot allow our judicial thinking to be constricted by reference to the law as it
prevails in England or for that matter, in any other foreign country. We no longer need
the crutches of a foreign legal order.”
11. Which among the following authorities is vested with the power to investigate on matters of
professional misconduct committed by a Chartered Accountant or a Chartered Accountant’s Firm
under Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013?
12. Which among the following is not true with respect to negotiable instruments?
13. In which case did the Supreme Court place the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage
Board v. A. Rajappa before the Chief Justice of India for reconsideration by a larger
bench?
24
D. A.K. Roy v. Union of India, [1982] 1 SCC 271.
A. On equal footing.
B. Like angels do.
C. Repay without delay.
D. Return promptly.
A. Registration.
B. Naturalisation.
C. Birth.
D. Descent.
17. Which of the following writs can be used against a person believed to be holding a public
office, he is not entitled to hold?
A. Writ of mandamus.
B. Writ of certiorari.
C. Writ of prohibition.
D. Writ of quo warranto.
25
B. only to judicial, quasi judicial and administrative proceedings but not to
the law making procedure.
C. only to judicial proceedings.
D. to all judicial, quasi judicial, administrative and law making procedures.
19. What is the minimum number of judges required to constitute a Constitution Bench in the
Supreme Court of India?
A. Five.
B. Three.
C. Seven.
D. Nine.
A. An agreement.
B. A contract.
C. A sacrament.
D. A pious obligation.
22. A supplied to B, a minor, provisions such as wheat flour, rice and other food stuffs.
A. Since a minor's contract is void, A cannot recover the price of the provisions
from B.
B. A can recover the price from B as there is an agreement between A and B.
C. A is not entitled to recover the money as he voluntarily supplied the provisions
knowing that B was a minor.
D. Since the provisions supplied constituted necessaries, A can recover the
money.
26
23. A, from Kerala, writes a letter to B who lives in Delhi requesting the supply of certain goods
at a certain price. While accepting the offer by writing a letter on his printed letterhead B
writes at the top of the letterhead, "Subject to the jurisdiction of Delhi Courts." Later a
dispute arises and A files an action in Kerala.
A. A cannot file legal proceedings in Kerala since B has clearly indicated that
the jurisdiction is restricted to Delhi courts.
B. The agreement is void as it tends to defeat the legal process.
C. Since B has written the words at the top of his letterhead, they do not
become part of the contract and hence A is free to file the action in any
court which has jurisdiction.
D. Since the letterhead is part of the agreement of acceptance, the agreement
is enforceable.
24. A, a cultivator of green tea, agrees with B that he would not grow tea for a period of five
years in consideration of which B agrees to pay him Rs. 25,000/-
A. The agreement is valid.
B. The agreement is valid as the consideration is adequate.
C. The agreement is void as it is in restraint of trade.
D. The agreement is voidable at the option of A.
25. A entrusted his car to B for plying it as a taxi. B employed C as a cleaner. B gave the taxi to C
for taking a driving test and to obtain a driving licence. C while giving the driving test
seriously injured D. D filed a case against A, the owner of the vehicle.
A. A is not liable as he had neither permitted nor authorised C to drive the car.
B. A is liable because B was acting as his agent in giving the vehicle to C for taking it
for driving test.
C. A is liable because the accident happened during the course of employment.
D. A is liable because C was giving the driving test for the licence of A
26. A transport company issued a circular to all its drivers that they should not compete or
obstruct other buses plying in the route. Driver A, in contravention of the express
prohibition, obstructed another bus and while doing so met with an accident in which B was
injured.
A. The company is not liable as it had expressly prohibited the drivers from
competing and obstructing other buses.
B. The company is liable as the accident happened in the course of
employment.
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C. The company is not liable because the driver had disobeyed the company's
instructions and thereby acted outside the course of employment.
D. The company is not liable because the driver had not acted for the benefit
of the employer, the company.
27. A was riding his bicycle on a rainy day on a road which had no street lights. He came in
contact with a live wire lying on the road which was inundated with water and got
electrocuted. A's wife brought an action against the Electricity Board for negligence.
A. The Board is not liable as the accident happened because of the negligence
of the cyclist.
B. The Board is not liable as the accident happened because of the negligence
of a third party, as the Board argued that a third party tried to siphon off
the electricity illegally, and negligently left the wire on the road.
C. The Board is not liable because of the rain and storm, and as such, it was an
Act of God.
D. The Board is liable as supplying electricity is an inherently dangerous act,
and as such, the Board is absolutely liable.
28. The Supreme Court in Indian Medical Association v. V P Shanta, (1995) 6 SCC 651, has held
that:
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A. the law made by the Parliament or the State Legislature under delegated
authority from the Constitution.
D. the law declared by the judiciary while deciding cases brought before it.
30. The doctrine of 'Acting under Dictation' is applied in the case of:
A. Abuse of discretion
B. Failure to exercise discretion
C. Unreasonable exercise of discretion
D. Arbitrary exercise of discretion
Directions: The question below consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion’ (A)
and another as ‘Reason’ (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the
answers to these items from the codes given below.
32. Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to poor.
Codes:
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33. A, a singer, enters into a contract with B, the manager of a theatre, to sing at his theatre
two nights every week during the following two months, and B agrees to pay Rupees 100/-
for each night's performance. On the sixth night A wilfully absents herself from the theatre.
34. Under which provision of the Companies Act, 2013, will members be liable for a reduction of the
statutory minimum number of members, in the Company?
A. Sec. 3A
B. Sec. 7
C. Sec. 3
D. Sec. 4
35. Mohit lends Rs. One Lakh to Som where Narain was the surety. The contract in this
transaction provided that the liability of Narain is limited to Rs. 50,000/-. The contract is:
A. void
B. irregular
C. voidable
D. valid
36. The right of an accused to be defended by a legal practitioner of his/her choice commences
when:
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37. The transfer of 'spes successionis' under the Transfer of Property Act is
A. void ab initio
B. voidable
C. perfectly valid
D. valid only if approved by the court .
38. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds for which a loan of Rs 3 crores is raised
39. The rule of Daniels v Davison (1809) 16 Ves 249, has been given a statutory shape in the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882, under, which of the following titles?
40. Under which of the following laws is the remedy of restitution of conjugal rights not
available?
A. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B. Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872
C. Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936
D. Special Marriage Act, 1954
41. H and W, both professing Muslim faith marry under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. In
course of time they are blessed with two sons and two daughters. The eldest child, S1 was
very successful and made a lot of money while the rest of the family members were in dire
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financial circumstances. He maintained a separate habitation, refused to share his money
and executed a Will of his total property in favour of a trust before his death at the age of
44 excluding completely his younger siblings and old parents. The Will would be
A. valid only to the extent of 1/3rd of his total property.
B. void as 2/3rd of his property must go by intestate succession.
C. valid as he can make a Will of his total property.
D. valid as he died a bachelor .
42. A 35 years old Hindu bachelor (single man) adopts a 14 years old girl under the Hindu
Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956. Such adoption under the law is:
A. valid
B. void
C. voidable
D. irregular.
44. The first of the major laws for the protection of environment, to be promulgated in India
was the:
A. Water Act.
B. Air Act.
C. Environmental Act.
D. Noise Pollution Rule.
45. What does the term ISSN displayed on Journals stand for?
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B. International Standard Serial Number
C. Index of Standard Serial Numbers
D. Indexed Standard and Sequential Numbers
46. The fundamental principle of non-refoulement in International Law is applied in relation to:
A. Terrorists
B. Drug traffickers
C. Smugglers
D. Refugees
47. The last trial by jury held in a criminal case in India was that of
A. Rustom v. State of Gujarat
B. Ascentia Dawes v. Crown
C. Lily v. State of Bombay
D. K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
48. The Right to Education Act 2009 (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to:
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50. The Supreme Court of India recognised ‘transgenders’ as ‘third gender with all rights’ in the
case of:
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