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co

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1. The combined correction for 6. If backsight and foresight distance

curvature and refraction for a are balanced
distance of 3400 m will be nearly (1) The difference in elevation
A. 0.2 m B. 0.4 m between two points can be directly
C. 0.6 m D. 0.8 m calculated by taking difference of the
Ans. D two readings
2. A 100 m tape is suspended between (2) No correction for the inclination of
the ends under a pull of 200 N. If the the line of sight is necessary
weight of the tape is 30 N, the correct A. 1 only
distance between the tape ends will B. 2 only
be nearly C. Both 1 and 2
A. 100.5 m B. 100.3 m D. Neither 1 nor 2
C. 100.1 m D. 99.9 m Ans. C
Ans. D 7. A railway curve of 1350 m radius is to
3. In horizontal distance measurement, be set out to connect two tangents. If
the basic formula for distance in the design speed is 110 kmph and the
stadia techeometry has an additive rate of change of acceleration is 0.3
constant. An anallatic lens is inserted m/s3, the shift of the circular curve
in the techeometer to make this will be nearly
additive constant zero. This lens is A. 0.18 m B. 0.16 m
A. Convex lens inserted between C. 0.14 m D. 0.12 m
object glass and diaphragm Ans. B
B. Plano-convex lens between object 8. A theodolite is called a transit theodo-
glass and diaphragm lite, when its telescope can be
C. Plano-convex lens between revolved through a complete
diaphragm and eye piece revolution about its
D. Convex lens inserted between A. Vertical axis in an inclined plane
diaphragm and eye piece B. Horizontal axis in an inclined
Ans. A plane
4. If the LMT is 8h 12m 16s AM at 38° 45’ C. Vertical axis in a horizontal plane
W longitude, the GMT will be D. Horizontal axis in a vertical plane
A. 11h 12m 16s AM Ans. D
B. 10h 47m 16s AM 9. Stalactites and stalagmites are
C. 9h 29m 46s AM features of
D. 5h 29m 46s AM A. Stream erosion developed in
Ans. B limestone region by specific chemical
5. A section line AB appears to be 10.16 reaction
cm on a photograph for which the B. Ground water deposition in caves
focal length is 16 cm. The formed by precipitation from
corresponding line measures 2.54 cm dripping water rich in calcium
on a map, which is to a scale carbonate
1/50,000. The terrain has an average C. Marine erosion and deposition
elevation of 200 m above mean sea formed along coastal regions by
level. The flying altitude of the aircraft selective erosion followed by
above mean sea level during deposition by waves
photograph will be D. A centripetal drainage in which
A. 1800 m B. 2000 m streams from difference directions
C. 2200 m D. 2400 m flow towards a common central basin
Ans. C Ans. B

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10. Which of the following statements Reaction time for overtaking = 2 sec
with reference to isogonic line are Acceleration = 2.5 kmph/sec
correct in magnetic declination? The safe overtaking sight distance on
(1) It is drawn through the points of a two-way traffic road way be nearly
same declination A. 646 m B. 556 m
(2) It does not form complete great C. 466 m D. 376 m
circle Ans. D
(3) It radiates from north and south 15. Which one of the following statements
magnetic regions and follow irregular is correct?
paths A. The ratio of load on wheel to
A. 1 and 2 only contact area or area of imprint is
B. 1 and 3 only called as contact pressure
C. 2 and 3 only B. The ratio of load on wheel to
D. 1, 2 and 3 contact pressure is called as rigidity
factor
Ans. B
C. The value of rigidity factor is more
11. Mountains resulting from the
than three for an average tyre
depression or elevation of blocks of
pressure of 7 kg/cm2
the earth crust on a large scale due to
D. Rigidity factor does not depend
faulting and these elevated structures
upon the degree of tension developed
are commonly called
in wall so types
A. Fault block mountains
Ans. A
B. Volcanic mountains
16. Which one of the following is not the
C. Relict mountains
correct type of critical load position in
D. Residual mountains
pavement slab design for the load on
Ans. A
the pavement surface?
12. A little gap is left between the head of A. Interior loading
the glaciated valley and the mass of B. Edge loading
the glacier ice. This gap is known as C. Eccentric loading
A. Bergs-chrund D. Corner loading
B. Arete Ans. C
C. Horn 17. Which of the following statements are
D. Cirque correct regarding Westergaard’s
Ans. A concept for temperature stresses?
13. The sight distance available on a road (1) During the day, the top of the
to a driver at any instance depends on pavement slab gets heated under the
(1) Features of the road ahead sun light when the bottom of the slab
(2) Height of the driver’s eye above becomes hot
the road surface (2) During summer season as the
(3) Height of the object above the mean temperature of the slab
road surface increases, the concrete pavement
A. 1 and 2 only expands towards the expansion joints
B. 1 and 3 only (3) Due to frictional force at the
C. 2 and 3 only interface, compressive stress is
D. 1, 2 and 3 developed at the bottom of the slab
Ans. C as it tends to expand
14. Consider the following data : A. 1 and 2 only
Design speed = 96 kmph B. 2 and 3 only
Speed of overtaken vehicle = 80 C. 1 and 3 only
kmph D. 1, 2 and 3

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Ans. B
18. Which of the following advantages are
correct regarding Poly-centric shape
tunnel?
(1) it can be conveniently used for
road and railway traffic
(2) The number of centres and
lengths of radii cannot be fixed
(3) It can resist external and internal
pressure due to its arch action
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
19. Which one of the following statement
is correct regarding Journal friction?
A. Caused due to the wave action of
rails
B. The amount does not depend
upon the type of bearing
C. For roller bearings, it varies from
0.5 to 1.0 kg per tonne
D. For coupled boxes, it lubricates by
hard grease from 0.5 kg to 1.0 kg per
tonne
Ans. *
20. For the construction of a 640 m long
B.G. railway track by using a sleeper
density of M + 5, and the length of
each rail is 12.8 m, the number of
sleepers required will be
A. 1000 B. 900
C. 800 D. 700
Ans. B
21. Which one of the following statement
is correct regarding ballast used for
railway tracks?
A. The minimum depth of ballast for
B.G. section is 20 cm – 25 cm
B. The quantity for one metre length
of track is 0.53 m3 for B.G. section
C. For M.G. section the width of
ballast is 1.83 m
D. The minimum depth of ballast for
N.G. section is 10 cm
Ans. B
22. Which one of the following statement
is correct?
4
A. The radius of transition raises from
infinity to a selected minimum in
order of attain full super-elevation
and curvature gradually
B. The compound curve is an arc of
circle
C. The radius of transition curve is
constant for entire length
D. The horizontal curves are provided
whenever there is a change in
gradient
Ans. A
23. A cross-over occur between two
Metre Gauge parallel tracks of same
crossing number 1 in 12 with straight
intermediate portion between the
reverse curves and the distance
between the centres of tracks is 3.5
m. If the value of G is 1 m, the
intermediate straight distance will be
nearly
A. 12 m B. 15 m
C. 18 m D. 21 m
Ans. C
24. Which one of the following is the
correct standard for provision of
curves on railway track?
A. Cant excess on B.G. shall not be
allowed to exceed 105 mm
B. Minimum radius of vertical curves
for group A, Broad Gauge track is
4,000 m
C. The minimum value of super-
elevation according to Railway Board
is 1/10th of gauge
D. The speed potential of curve is
given by formula E = V2/127 R where,
E is super-elevation in mm
Ans. B
Direction :
Each of the next Six (06) items consists of
two statements, one labelled as the
‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement
(II)’. You are to examine these two
statements carefully and select the
answers to these items using the codes
given below:
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Codes : 30. Statement (I) : Geodetic survey

A. Both statement (I) and Statement cannot be done for works requiring
(II) are individually true and high precision.
Statement (II) is the correct Statement (II) : The curvature of
explanation of Statement (I) earth is accounted for measurements
B. Both Statement (I) and Statement in Geodetic survey.
(II) are individually true but Ans. D
Statement (II) is not the correct 31. When the deposit of efflorescence is
explanation of Statement (I) more than 10% but less than 50% of
C. Statement (I) is true but the exposed area of the brick, the
Statement (II) is false presence of efflorescence is
D. Statement (I) is false but A. Moderate B. Slight
Statement (II) is true C. Heavy D. Serious
25. Statement (I) : Finer grinding of Ans. A
cement results in early development 32. Mohs scale is used for stones to
of strength. determine
Statement (II) : The finer the A. Flakiness index B. Durability
cement, the higher is the rate of C. Strength D. Hardness
hydration. Ans. D
Ans. A 33. Which of the following conditions are
26 Statement (I) : Pozzolana is added to recommended for using sulphate
cement to increase early strength. resisting cement?
Statement (II) : It reduces the heat (1) Concrete to be used in foundation
of hydration. and basement, where soil is not
Ans. D infested with sulphates
27. Statement (I) : Coarser the particles, (2) Concrete used for fabrication of
less is optimum moisture content pipes which are likely to be buried in
Statement (II) : The specific surface marshy region or sulphate bearing
area of coarser particle is less. soils
Ans. A (3) Concrete to be used in the
28. Statement (I) : A reverse curve construction of sewage treatment
consists of two arcs with their centres works
of curvature on opposite sides of the A. 2 and 3 only
curve. B. 1 and 2 only
Statement (II) : Super-elevation can C. 1 and 3 only
be provided conveniently at the D. 1, 2 and 3
intersection point of the two arcs. Ans. A
Ans. A 34. Which one of the following cements is
29. Statement (I) : The counter interval a deliquescent?
depends upon the nature of the A. Quick setting Portland cement
ground-whether it is undulating or B. White and Coloured cement
flat. C. Calcium Chloride cement
Statement (II) : In a hilly terrain or D. Water Repellent Cement
undulating ground a smaller interval Ans. C
is adopted, otherwise the contours 35. Consider the following data for
will come too close for plotting due to. concrete with mild exposure:
Ans. C Water-cement ratio = 0.50
Water = 191.6 litre
The required cement content will be

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A. 561 kg/m3 41. Which one of the following light

B. 472 kg/m3 weight element will be added to
C. 383 kg/m3 enhance the protective properties for
D. 294 kg/m3 X-ray shielding mortars?
Ans. C A. Sodium B. Potassium
36. The strength of a fully matured C. Lithium D. Calcium
concrete sample is 500 kg/cm2. When Ans. A
cured at an average temperature of 42. Which one of the following stone is
20°C in day, 10°C in night, datum produced by moulding a mixture of
temperature T0 is –11°C. If Plowman iron slag and Portland cement?
constants A is 32 and B is 54, the A. Imperial stone
strength of identical concrete at 7 B. Garlic stone
days will be nearly C. Ransom stone
A. 333 kg/cm2 B. 312 kg/cm2 D. Victoria stone
C. 272 kg/cm2 D. 243 kg/cm2 Ans. B
Ans. A 43. When a round bar material with
37. A sample of concrete is prepared by diameter of 37.5 mm, length of 2.4
using 500 g of cement with water m, Young’s modulus of 110 GN/m2
cement ratio of 0.55 and 240 N/mm2 and shear modulus of 42 GN/m2 is
intrinsic strength of gel. The stretched for 2.5 mm, its Bulk
theoretical strength of concrete on modulus will be nearly
full hydration will be nearly A. 104 GN/m2
A. 148 N/mm2 B. 126 N/mm2 B. 96 GN/m2
2
C. 104 N/mm D. 82 N/mm2 C. 84 GN/m2
Ans. C D. 76 GN/m2
38. The cement and water slurry coming Ans. B
on the top and setting on the surface 44. A punch of 20 mm diameter is used
is called to punch a hole in 8 mm thick plate.
A. Crazing If the force required to create a hole
B. Efflorescence is 110 kN, the average shear stress in
C. Sulphate deterioration the plate will be nearly
D. Laitance A. 410 MPa B. 320 MPa
Ans. D C. 220 MPa D. 140 MPa
39. Polymer concrete is most suitable for Ans. C
A. Sewage disposal works 45. A reinforced concrete circular section
B. Mass concreting works of 50,000 mm2 cross-sectional area
C. Insulating exterior walls of an air- carries 6 reinforcing bars whose total
conditioned building area is 500 mm2. If the concrete is
D. Road repair works not be stressed more than 3.5 MPa
Ans. D and modular ratio for steel and
40. Which one of the following limes will concrete is 18, the safe load the
be used for finishing coat in plastering column can carry will be nearly
and white washing? A. 225 kN B. 205 kN
A. Semi Hydraulic lime C. 180 kN D. 160 kN
B. Kankar lime Ans. B
C. Magnesium/Dolomitic lime 46. The strain energy U stored due to
D. Eminently Hydraulic lime bending of the cantilever beam due to
Ans. C point load at the free and will be

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W2l3 B.  xx − yy

A.
6 EI
C.  xx + yy
W2l2
B.
6 EI D.  xx yy
W3l3 Ans. D
C.
36 EI 51. The deflection δ of the closed coil
W2l3 helical spring is
D.
36 EI WR2n
A.
Where: W = Concentrated load 8 Cd3
l = Length of a cantilever 64 WR3n
B.
EI = Flexural rigidity Cd4
Ans. A
128 WR3n
47. A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and C.
Cd2
15 mm thick is subjected to a tensile
load of 30 kN. If Poisson’s ratio is 0.25 64 WR2n
D.
and Young’s modulus is 200 GPa, an Cd2
increases in volume will be Where: W is the axial load
A. 160 mm3 B. 150 mm3 R is the number of turns of coil
C. 140 mm3 D. 130 mm3 C is the modulus of rigidity
Ans. B d is the diameter of the wire of the
48. A bolt is under an axial thrust of 9.6 coil
kN together with a transverse force of Ans. B
4.8 kN. If factor of safety is 3, yield 52. A closely-coiled helical spring of
strength of bolt material is 270 round steel wire 5 mm in diameter
N/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio is 0.3, its having 12 complete coils of 50 mm
diameter as per maximum principal mean diameter is subjected to an
stress theory will be nearly axial load of 100 N. If modulus of
A. 13 mm B. 15 mm rigidity is 80 GPa, the deflection of the
C. 17 mm D. 19 mm spring will be
Ans. A A. 36 mm B. 32 mm
49. In a material the principal stresses C. 28 mm D. 24 mm
are 60 MN/m2, 48 MN/m2 and –36 Ans. D
MN/m2. When the values of E = 200 53. A hollow shaft of external and internal
1 diameters as 100 mm and 40 mm
GN/m2 and = 0.3 , the total strain
3 respectively is transmitting power at
energy per unit volume will be nearly 120 rpm. If the shearing stress is not
A. 43.5 kNm/m3 B. 35.5 kNm/m3 to exceed 50 MPa, the power the shaft
C. 27.5 kNm/m 3
D. 19.5 kNm/m3 can transmit will be
Ans. D A. 100 kW B. 120 kW
50. At a point in a two dimensional stress C. 140 kW D. 160 kW
system, the normal stress on two Ans. B
mutually perpendicular planes are σ xx 54. A circular beam of 100 mm diameter
and σyy and shear stress is τxy. One of is subjected to a shear force of 30 kN.
the principal stress will become zero The maximum shear stress will be
when the value of shear stress τxy is nearly
(
A.  xx yy ) A. 5.1 MPa
C. 7.5 MPa
B. 6.3 MPa
D. 8.7 MPa

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Ans. A at free end B. The point C is mid-point

55. A cantilever beam AB as shown in
figure is subjected to a point load of
12 kN over a span of 6 m with E = 2
× 105 N/mm2 and Ixx = 6 × 107 mm4.
The deflection at the free end will be
of AB and the moment of inertia of AC
is twice that of CB. The deflection at
the-free end will be

Pl3 Pl3
A. B.
3EI 48 EI

A. 80 mm B. 72 mm 5 Pl3 9 Pl3
C. D.
C. 64 mm D. 56 mm 96 EI 48 EI
Ans. B Ans. D
56. A floor has to carry a load of 12 60. A beam of uniform cross-section,
kN/m2. The floor is supported on simply supported at ends carries a
rectangular joists each 100 mm wide, concentrated load W at midspan. If
300 mm deep and 5 m long. If the ends of the beam are fixed and
maximum stress in the joists should only load P is applied at the midspan
not exceed 8 MN/m2, the centre to such that the deflection at the centre
centre distance of joists will be remains the same, the value of the
A. 430 mm B. 400 mm load P will be
C. 360 mm D. 320 mm A. 6W B. 4W
Ans. D C. 2W D. W
57. A simply supported wooden beam Ans. B
100 mm wide, 250 mm deep and 3 m 61. A Persian wheel with an average
long is carrying a uniformly discharge of 230 litre/minute irrigates
distributed load of 40 kN/m. The 1 hectare wheat crop in 50 hours. The
maximum shear stress will be average depth of irrigation will be
A. 2.4 MPa B. 2.8 MPa nearly
C. 3.2 MPa D. 3.6 MPa A. 4 cm B. 5 cm
Ans. D C. 6 cm D. 7 cm
58. A simply supported beam of span 8m Ans. *
carries a uniformly distributed load of 62. Which one of the following is not the
24 kN/m run over the whole span. main cause for soil salinity and
The beam is propped at the middle of sodicity?
the span. The values of E = 200 × 106 A. Irrigation mismanagement
kN/m2 and I = 20 × 10–5 m4. The B. Poor land levelling
amount by which the prop should C. Use of heavy machinery, resulting
yield in order to make all three in no soil compaction
reactions equal will be nearly D. Leaching without adequate drain-
A. 20 mm B. 15 mm age
C. 10 mm D. 5 mm Ans. C
Ans. B 63. Which one of the following is not the
59. A cantilever beam ACB has end A major factor influencing seepage from
fixed and subjected to a point load P a canal?

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A. Characteristics of the soil A. Capillary fringe

traversed by the canal system B. Water table
B. Area wetted by the canal C. Yadose water zone
C. Locations of the canal D. Confining bed
D. Frequencies of canal usage Ans. C
Ans. D 68. Which of the following chemical
64. Which of the following are the causes parameters are associated with the
of failure of weirs? organic content of water?
1. Rupture of floor due to uplift 1. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
2. Rupture of floor due to suction 2. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD)
caused by standing wave 3. Total Organic Carbon (TOC) and
3. Scour on the upstream and down- Total Oxygen Demand (TOD)
stream of the weir A. 1 and 2 only
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3 only Ans. A
Ans. B 69. When chlorine is dissolved in water, it
65. Which of the following are the reacts to form hypochlorous acid and
principal factors influencing the hypochlorite ions. At pH <5, chlorine
choice of a particular method of exits in water as
lining? A. Elemental or molecular chlorine
1. Availability and cost of the material B. Remains in the form of
at the site or within easy reach hypochlorous acid
2. Velocity of flow in the channel C. Remains in the form of
3. Cost of maintenance hypochlorite ions
A. 1 and 2 only D. Remains in the form of both
B. 1 and 3 only hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite
C. 1, 2 and 3 ions
D. 2 and 3 only Ans. A
Ans. B 70. Reactive substances are
66. Which of the following are the A. Unstable under normal conditions.
objectives for river training? They can cause explosions and/or
1. High flood discharge may pass liberate toxic fumes, gases, and
safely and quickly through the reach vapors when mixed with water
2. To make the river course stable B. Easily ignited and burn vigorously
and reduce bank erosion to minimum and persistently
3. To check flow through canal C. Liquids with pH less than 2 or
4. To provide a sufficient draft for greater than 12.5, and those that
navigation as well as good course for are capable of corroding metal
it containers
A. 1, 2 and 3 only D. Harmful or fatal when ingested or
B. 1, 3 and 4 only absorbed
C. 1, 2 and 4 only Ans. A
D. 2, 3 and 4 only 71. The noise value of sound waves
Ans. C deepness upon:
67. The transition region between un- 1. The frequency of sound waves
saturated zone and saturated zone is 2. The intensity of sound waves
called

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3. The time of exposure of sound changes in hear beat rate and blood
waves pressure
A. 1 and 2 only 2. Various glandular charges such as
B. 1 and 3 only increased output of adrenaline
C. 2 and 3 only evidenced by chemical changes in
D. 1, 2 and 3 blood
Ans. B 3. Slow, deep breathing
72. Which one of the following type of A. 1 and 2 only
treatments will be used for B. 1 and 3 only
neutralization of alkaline effluent? C. 2 and 3 only
A. Lime stone treatment D. 1, 2 and 3
B. Caustic lime treatment Ans. D
C. Carbon dioxide treatment 77. Electrostatic precipitators are used
D. Hydrochloric acid treatment for removal of:
Ans. C 1. Gaseous contaminants
73. Flocculation is the process of 2. Liquid contaminates
A. Gently mixing the water and 3. Particulate contaminates
coagulant allowing the formation of A. 1 only B. 2 only
large particles of floc C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
B. Removing relativity large floating Ans. D
and suspended debris 78. Which one of the following type of
C. Flow, which is slowed enough so ecology is dealt with autecology?
that gravity will cause the floc to A. Synecology
settle B. Community ecology
D. Mixture of solids and liquids C. Ecosystem ecology
collected from the settling tank are D. Individual species ecology
dewatered and disposed of Ans. D
Ans. A 79. A soil sample has a porosity of 40%,
74. In solid waste management, waste and the specific gravity of solid is
utilization is achievedby 2.70. If the soil is 50% saturated, the
A. Recover, Reclamation and unit weight will be nearly
Reproduce A. 22 kN/m3 B. 20 kN/m3
B. Reuse, Reclamation and Recycling C. 18 kN/m3 D. 16 kN/m3
C. Recover, Recycling and Reproduce Ans. C
D. Reuse, Reproduce and Recycling 80. Oven dry mass of a pat of clay is 10.8
Ans. A gm and mass of mercury displaced on
75. The frequency range for hearing the immersion is 84.2 gm. If the specific
sound by a human ear is in the range gravity of solids is 2.72 and the
of density of the mercury is 13.6 g/cm3,
A. 20 Hz – 20 kHz the shrinkage limit of the soil will be
B. 10 Hz – 20 kHz nearly
C. 20 Hz – 20 kHz A. 12% B. 15%
D. 10 Hz – 20 Hz C. 18% D. 21%
Ans. C Ans. D
76. Phycological responses 81. The suitability number of backfill for
accompanying response and other D50 = 1 mm, D20 = 0.5 mm and D10 =
noise exposures include: 0.08 mm will be nearly
1. A vascular response characteristic A. 16 B. 18
by peripheral vasoconstriction, C. 20 D. 22

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Ans. D Ans. C
82. The porosity of a soil n is 87. A 30 cm square bearing plate settles
e e by 8 mm in the plate load test on
A. B.
1+e 1–e cohesionless soil when the intensity
e +1 e–1 of loading is 180 kN/m2. The
C. D.
e e settlement of a shallow foundation of
Where : e = Void ratio 1.5 m square under the same
Ans. A intensity of loading will be nearly
83. A coarse-grained soil has a void ratio A. 30 mm B. 26 mm
of 0.78 and specific gravity as 2.67. C 22 mm D. 18 mm
The critical gradient at which a quick Ans. C
sand condition occurs will be 88. When the observed value of N
A. 0.62 B. 0.74 exceeds 15, the corrected penetration
C. 0.82 D. 0.94 number Nc as per Terzaghi and Peck
Ans. B recommendation in the silty fine
84. Which of the following assumptions of sands will be
the Rankine theory of lateral earth 1 1
A. 15 – (NR – 15) B. 15 – (NR + 15)
pressure are correct? 2 2
1. The soil mass is semi-infinite, 1
C. 15 + (NR – 15)
1
D. 15 + (NR + 15)
homogeneous, dry and cohesion-less 2 2
2. The ground surface is a plane Where : N = Penetration number,
which may be horizontal or inclined and NR = Recorded value
3. The wall yields about the base and Ans. C
thus satisfies the deformation 89. A canal of 4 m deep has side slopes
condition for plastic equilibrium of 1 : 1. The properties of the soil are
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only c = 15 kN/m2, ϕ = 15°, e = 0.76 and
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 3 only G = 2.7. Taylor’s stability number for
Ans. B that sudden drawdown = 0.136. The
85. The ratio of the horizontal stress to factor of safety with respect to
the vertical stress is called coefficient cohesion in the case of sudden
of drawdown will be
A. Active earth pressure A. 0.64 B. 1.43
B. Passive earth pressure C. 2.22 D. 3.01
C. Earth pressure Ans. B
D. Plastic earth pressure 90. The stability or shear strength of fine-
Ans. C grained soils can be increased by
86. A bed consists of compressible clay of draining them with the passage of
4 m thickness with pervious sand on direct current through them. This
top and impervious rock at the process is known as
bottom. In a consolidation test on an A. Electro-osmosis
undisturbed specimen of clay from B. Zeta potential
this deposit 90% settlement was C. Electro-chemical hardening
reached in 4 hours. The time for the D. Consolidation
building founded over this deposit to Ans. A
reach 90% of its final settlement will 91. Two wheel loads 200 kN and 80 kN
be spaced at 2 m apart move on the span
A. 91 years B. 82 years of girder of 16 m. If any wheel load
C. 73 years D. 64 years can lead the other, the maximum

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bending moment that can occur at a 96. A cable is suspended between two
section of 6 m from the left end will points 75 m apart at the same level.
be It carries a uniformly distributed load
A. 1050 kNm B. 990 kNm of 12-5 kN per horizontal meter. If the
C. 870 kNm D. 750 kNm maximum tension in the cable is
Ans. B limited to 1000 kN, the minimum
92. A beam of length I is fixed at its both central dip be neraly
ends and carries two concentrated A. 14 m B. 12 m
1 C. 10 m D. 8 m
loads of W each at a distance of
3 Ans. C
from both ends. The fixed end 97. A tie bar 50 mm × 8 mm is to carry a
moment at A will be loads of 80 kN. A specimen of the
–Wl –2Wl same quality steel of cross-sectional
A. B.
3 9 area is 250 mm2. For a maximum load
–6Wl –4Wl of 125 kN carried by the specimen,
C. D. the factor of safety in the design will
15 27
be
Ans. B
93. The natural frequency of a mass m at A. 3.0 B. 2.5
C. 2.0 D. 1.5
the end of the cantilever beam of
negligible mass with usual notations Ans. B
98. Hanger connections are made when
will be
1 1 A. Beam as well as girder is meeting
1  3El  2 1  6El  2 at different level. A plate or hanger
A. B.  3 
2  mL3    mL  is interposed between the beam and
1 1 the girder and finally interconnected
1  6El  2 1  3El  2 by means of angle cleats or bolts
C.  3  D.  3 
2  mL    mL  and rods.
Ans. A B. Beam as well as girder is meeting
94. The simple oscillator under idealized at same level. A plate is interposed
conditions of no-damping, once between the beam and the girder
excited will oscillate indefinitely with C. The beams are meeting at
constant amplitude at its frequency f different levels. A hanger is
will be interposed between the beams and
1 m 1 k finally interconnected by means of
A. B.
2 k  m angle cleats or bots and rods
D. The girders are meeting at same
1 k 1 m
C. D. level. A plate is interposed between
2 m  k
the girders and finally interconnected
Ans. C
by means of bolts and rods.
95. A cable carrying a load of 10 kN/m
Ans. D
run of horizontal span is stretched
99. The splicing of a column becomes
between supports of 100 m apart. If
necessary, where
the supports are at same level and
A. The available length of structural
central dip of 8 m, the ratio of
steel section is less than the required
greatest and least tensions in the
length of the column
cable will be
B. Section remains same throughout
A. 1.05 B. 1.35
at the floors
C. 1.65 D. 1.95
C. Only riveted columns are to be
Ans. A
designed

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D. Splices should be designed to Ans. B

carry axial loads only 104. As per Indian Railway Board, the
Ans. A impact factor I (also known as
100. A tie bar 50 mm × 8 mm is to carry a coefficient of dynamic augment, CDA)
load of 80 kN. A specimen of same in steel girders for single track span
quality steel of cross-sectional area is is
250 mm2. If the maximum load  8 
A. 0.15 +  1.0
carried by the specimen is 125 kN,  6 + L 
the gauge length will be  6 
B. 0.75 +  1.0
A. 133 mm B. 126 mm
 8 + L 
C. 113 mm D. 106 mm
 6 
Ans. C C. 0.15 +  1.0
 8 + L 
101. The strength of a column depends on
which of the following imperfections?  8 
D. 0.75 +  1.0
1. The material being isotropic and  6 + L 
homogenous Where : L is span
2. Geometric variations of columns Ans. A
3. Eccentricity of load 105. An ISHB 300 with plastic section
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 and 3 only modulus of 921.68×103 mm3, flange
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only width of 250 mm, the yield stress of
Ans. B 250 N/mm2 is embedded in a pocket
102. Which of the following types of base to develop its strength with M 25
failures occur in the beam-column concrete in design of beam-column.
connections? The required depth will be nearly
1. Failure by lateral-torsional buck- A. 475 mm B. 425 mm
ling C. 375 mm D. 325 mm
2. Failure by combined instability in Ans. *
both the principal directions 106. In beam-columns or eccentric loaded
3. Failure by combined twisting and columns, an elastic critical stress in
bending on the torsionally weak compression fCC is
section E 2E
A. B.
4. Failure by combined twisting and  2
bending when plane of bending does
E 2E
not contain the shear centre C. D.
2 
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Where : E = Modulus of elasticity of
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
steel
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
λ = Slenderness ratio in the plane of
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
bending
Ans. *
Ans. B
103. In a design of beam columns, the
107. A square of side a is placed such that
values of plastic section ratio βb = 1,
its diagonal is horizontal. The shape
the plastic sectional modulus Zpz
factor of the square will be
= 3948812 mm3, the yield stress fy =
250 N/mm2 and critical moment of Mcr
= 16866 × 106 N.mm. The non-
dimensional lateral torsional
slenderness ratio will be nearly
A. 0.141 B. 0.242
C. 0.323 D. 0.424

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A. 3.2 B. 2.0 and torsional moment of 6 kNm. The

C. 1.5 D. 1.0 equivalent value of shear will be
Ans. B A. 128 kN B. 116 kN
108. Which one of the following is the C. 104 kN D. 92 kN
correct assumption made in Ans. A
evaluation of fully plastic moment? 112. As per IS-456:2000, the value of
A. The upper and lower yield maximum compression strain in
stresses and the modulus of concrete in axial compression for limit
elasticity have different values in state of collapse is
compression and tension A. 0.001 B. 0.002
B. The material is homogeneous and C. 0.003 D. 0.004
isotropic in both the elastic and Ans. B
plastic states 113. The positive bending moment
C. There will be resultant axial force coefficient at the middle of the end-
on the beam span of a continuous one way slab is
D. Some layers of the material are w w  w w 
A.  l + d L2 B.  l + d L2
not free to expand and contract  10 12   9 10 
longitudinally and laterally under
w w  w w 
stress C.  l + d L2 D.  l + d L2
 12 16   9 12 
Ans. B
109. As per IS-456:2000, cracking of Where : wl = Live load
concrete in tension zone cannot be Wd = Dead load
avoided but can be limited by Ans. A
1. Adhering to the codal requirements 114. Which of the following are the general
of minimum steel area design requirements of retaining
2. Proper and prolonged curing of wall?
concrete 1. The factor of safety against sliding
3. Increasing water cement ratio to should be at least 1.5
increase workability 2. The factor of safety against over-
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only turning should be at least 2.0
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 3. The bearing pressure at toe should
Ans. A be less than the bearing capacity of
110. Which of the following assumptions the soil
are made with respect of Euler’s 4. The length of retaining wall to be
theory applied to columns? cast in one go should not exceed 10
1. The section of the column is m otherwise cracks may develop
uniform A. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. The length of the column is very B. 1, 3 and 4 only
large compared to the lateral C. 1, 2 and 4 only
dimensions D. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. The direct stress is large when Ans. A
compared with the bending stress 115. Which of the following are the
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 only desirable properties for efficient
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only functioning in design for movement
Ans. A joint of water tank?
111. A rectangular beam with b = 200 mm 1. The joint should accommodate
and effective depth d = 300 mm is repeated movement of the structure
subjected to limit state shear of 80 kN without loss of water-tightness

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2. The design should provide for D. Resistance of cement

exclusion of grit and debris which Ans. C
would prevent the closing of the joint 120. Which of the following assumptions
3. The material used in the are correct for the lateral torsional
construction of movement joints buckling of an I-section beam?
should not slump unduly in hot 1. The beam is initially distorted
weather or become brittle in cold 2. Its behavior is elastic
weather 3. It is loaded by equal and opposite
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only end moments in the plane of the web
C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only
Ans. A C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
116. A simply supported beam having 200 Ans. *
mm width and 450 mm effective 121. In an excavation of 3,00 cub.mtr of
depth supports a total uniformly common earth for a can be effectively
distributed load of 2,00,000 N. The employed on the job. If an output of a man
is taken as 100 cub.mtr per day,. The
nominal shear stress will be nearly
duration of excavation activity will be
A. 0.8 N/mm2 B. 1.1 N/mm2
2
A. 5 days
C. 1.8 N/mm D. 2.2 N/mm2 B. 6 days
Ans. B C. 7 days
117. Which of the following are correct for D. 8 days
cover to reinforcement? Ans. A
1. The reinforcement shall have a 122. The project plan for construction
minimum clear cover of 20 mm or 1. Clearly defines project’s scope of work.
diameter of such bar whichever is It breaks down project objective into clear,
identifiable, attainable and verifiable goals
more
2. Identifies critical activities, thus
2. At each end of reinforcing bar not
enabling management of projects by
less than 25 mm nor less than twice exceptions
the diameter of such bar 3. provides the basis for co-ordinating the
3. Increased cover thickness may be efforts of clients, consultants, architects,
provide when surface of concrete is designers, quality surveyors, specialists,
exposed to the action of harmful suppliers, contractors and project staff.
chemicals A. 1 and 2 only
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans. B
Ans. C
118. A beam of size 250 mm width and 460 123. Which one of the following techniques in
mm effective depth is subjected to not covered in Project Network Analysis?
limit state moment of 146 kNm. If M A. Critical Path Method
20 grade concrete and Fe 415 steel B. Program Evaluation and Review
are used, the area of steel required C. Procedure Network Analysis
will be D. Measurement Book
A. 432 mm2 B. 935 mm2 Ans. D
124. Which of the following statements are
C. 1100 mm2 D. 1235 mm2
correct for Network Critical path?
Ans. C
1. The path of critical activities, which links
119. Air permeability method is used to the start and end events is critical path
determine 2. It is the path of activities having zero
A. Soundness of cement float
B. Setting time 3. It is the path of events having zero slack
C. Fineness of cement

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4. The sum of the duration of the critical cost at the time of purchase and the
activities along a critical path gives the remaining amount in 10 annual equal
duration of the project instalment of Rs. 2, 50, 000 each. If rate
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 of interest is 18%, compounded annually
B. 1, 2 and 3 only the present worth of the machine will be
C. 1 and 4 only A. Rs. 17,01,00
D. 2, 3 and 4 only B. Rs. 16,22,500
Ans. A C. Rs. 15,43,00
125. Independent float is an amount of time by D. Rs. 14,64,500
which the start of an activity may be Ans. *
delayed without affecting 129. Which of the following relations are correct
1. the preceding or the following activity for determining different components of a
2. the start of a following activity bid price?
3. the completion of the project 1. Bid price = Direct cost + Indirect cost +
A. 1 only Mark up amount
B. 2 only 2. Direct cost = Project overheads +
C. 3 only Common plant and equipment cost +
D. 1, 2 and 3 Common work men cost
Ans. D 3. Mark up amount = Profit + Contingency
126. Consider the following activity for the total + Allowances for risks + General
project: overheads
Activity Immediate Duration A. 1, 2 and 3
Predecessors (Days) B. 1 and 2 only
A – 10 C. 1 and 3 only
B – 9 D. 2 and 3 only
C A 9 Ans. *
D A 8 130. Resource smoothing is
E B 7 A. An optimization and economical
F B 11 utilization of resources
G D, E 5 B. An adjustment of resources with out
affecting project duration
To total project duration for the critical C. A gradual increase in resources
path will be D. A gradual decrease in resources
A. 25 days Ans. A
B. 23 days 131. In PERT technique, the time estimate of
C. 21 days activities and probability of their
D. 19 days occurrence follow
Ans. B A. Binomial distribution
127. By performing which of the following B. Normal distribution
functions the construction manager can C. Poisson distribution
achieve the project goals? D. β distribution
1. Envisioning the task ahead Ans. D
2. Setting targets and monitoring 132. Indirect cost due to accidents includes
performance A. Legal charges
3. Motivating the work force B. Medial expenses for the injured
4. Building the line supervisors team C. Compensation amount to the injured
A. 1, 2 and 4 only D. Over time payment to make up the loss
B. 1, 2 and 3 only of time
C. 1, 3 and 4 only Ans. A
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 133. An oil of specific gravity 0.9 contained in a
Ans. A vessel. At a point the height of oil is 40 m
128. The cost of the machine is Rs. 20, 00, 000, and for the density of water = 1000 kg/m3,
and if it is purchased under instalment the corresponding height of water at the
basis; the company has to pay 25% of the point will be

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A. 28 m C. Specific energy is asymptotic to the

B. 32 m vertical axis
C. 36 m D. At critical depth the specific energy is
D. 40 m maximum
Ans. C Ans. A
134. When speed changes in case of centrifugal 139. Which one of the following statement is
pump, which of the following points are correct regarding critical state of flow
correct? through a channel section?
1. The shape of the velocity triangle will A. Specific energy is a minimum for a
remain same given discharge
2. Various angles will remains same B. Specific energy is a maximum for a
3. Magnitude of velocity will change given discharge
proportionately C. The Froude number is greater than two
A. 1 and 2 only D. The discharge is a minimum for a given
B. 1 and 3 only specific force
C. 2 and 3 only Ans. A
D. 1, 2 and 3 140. Which one of the following statement is
Ans. D correct regarding centrifugal pumps?
135. Which one of the following is the use of A. The discharge is fluctuating and
flow net analysis in fluid mechanics? pulsating
A. To determine the streamlines and B. It is used for large discharge through
equipotential lines smaller heads
B. To determine downward lift pressure C. The efficiency is low
above hydraulic structure D. It runs at low speed
C. To determine the viscosity for given Ans. B
boundaries of flow 141. A hydraulic press has a ram of 300 mm
D. To design the hydraulic structure diameter and a plunger of 45 mm
Ans. D diameter. When the force applied at the
136. A jet propelled aircraft is flying at a speed plunger is 50 N, the weight lifted by the
of 1100 km/hour at t = 20°C, k = 1.4 and hydraulic press will be nearly
R = 287 J/kg K. The Mach number at point A. 2133 N
on the jet will nearly B. 2223 N
A. 0.3 C. 2316 N
B. 0.5 D. 2406 N
C. 0.7 Ans. B
D. 0.9 142. Hydraulic efficiency of Francis turbine is
Ans. D A. Directly proportional to velocity of whirl
137. When the drag force becomes equal to the at inlet and inversely proportional to net
weight of the body, the acceleration head on turbine
ceases and the net external force acting in B. Directly proportional to velocity of
the body becomes whirl at inlet and net head on turbine
A. Zero and the body will move at constant C. Inversely proportional to velocity of
speed whirl at inlet and net hear on turbine
B. Light and the body will move forward D. Inversely proportional to velocity of
C. Zero and the body will move fast whirl at inlet and directly proportional to
D. High and the body will move at constant net head on turbine
speed Ans. B
Ans. A 143. A turbine develops 7225kW power under a
138. Which one of the following statements is head of 25 m at 135 rpm. The specific
correct regarding flow in open channel? speed of the turbine will be nearly
A. The curve for kinetic energy is parabola A. 245 rpm
B. The curve for potential energy is a B. 225 rpm
parabola C. 205 rpm
D. 185 rpm

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Ans. C Ans. A
144. Which one of the following is an example 147. Which one of the following is not a basic
of bodies where both drag and lift forces requirement for any well screen?
are produced? A. Resistance to corrosion, incrustation
A. Hydrofiles and deterioration
B. A tall chimney exposed to wind B. Enough structural strength to prevent
C. Flow of water past a bridge pier collapse
D. Motion of aeroplanes, submarines, C. Suitability for excessive movement of
torpedoes sand into the well
Ans. D D. Minimum resistance to flow of water
145. The relative humidity h is a measure of into the well.
air’s capacity, at its existing temperature, Ans. C
to absorb further moisture, and is defined 148. Which one of the following methods is not
by the realtion the category of Geophysical methods of
e sub-surface investigation?
A.  100 A. Electrical resistivity method
es
B. Electric logging
es C. Gamma-ray logging
B.  100
e D. Electrical response surveying
2es Ans. D
C.  100 149. In which of the following industries, the
es
water requirement in kilo literes per unit of
2e production is very high?
D.  100
es A. Paper industry
Where: e = vapour pressure B. Steel industry
es = saturation vapour pressure C. Sugar industry
Ans. A D. Fertilizer industry
146. Which one of the following is not a major Ans. A
deterrent in water harvesting through 150. In drip irrigation system, which one of the
water tanks? following emitters is not based on
A. Deforestation mainly due to population definitions by American Society of
pressure in the catchments of tank Agricultural Engineering (ASAE)?
systems A. Emitter
B. Siltation B. Pulsating emitter
C. Lack of maintenance and repairs and C. Long path emitter
breaches of tank embarkments D. Multi-outlet emitter
D. Shallow depth of water tanks Ans. B

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