1. The nurse is taking a history of a client who has had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) in the past.

To determine whether the

client currently is experiencing difficulty, which symptom would the nurse ask the client about?
a. Hematuria
b. Urinary incontinence
c. Urinary retention
d. Decreased force in the stream of urine

2. A client with prostatitis following a kidney infection has received instructions on management of the condition at home and
prevention of recurrence. Which
statement by the client indicates that the instructions have been understood?
a. “I need to keep fluid intake to a minimum to decrease the need to urinate.”
b. “I should exercise as much as possible to stimulate circulation.”
c. “I will take warm sitz baths and analgesics for comfort.”
d. “I can stop taking antibiotics when the pain subsides.”

3. The organism responsible for causing syphilis is classified as a

a. virus
b. fungus
c. rickettsia
d. spirochete

4. The typical chancre of syphilis appears as

a. a grouping of small, tender pimples.
b. an elevated wart.
c. a painless, moist ulcer.
d. an itching, crusted area

5. Which information about pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) would the nurse appropriately include when teaching sexually
active young adults?
a. The single most obvious symptom of PID is severe pelvic pain.
b. PID is an infection of the uterus and Fallopian tubes.
c. Vaginal discharge is scant but with a foul odor.
d. PID can result in infertility due to inflammation and scarring.

6. Which treatments are used in the management of PID? (Select all that apply.)
a. Antibiotics
b. Analgesics
c. Bed rest
d. IV fluids
e. Douches
f. Sitz baths

7. Benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units IM, is prescribed as treatment for an adult client with primary syphilis. The
intramuscular injection is administered in
a. the deltoid.
b. the upper outer quadrant of the buttock.
c. the quadriceps lateralis of the thigh.
d. the midlateral aspect of the thigh.

8. A 45-year-old female client makes a clinic appointment for a routine gynecologic examination. The position of choice for a client
undergoing a vaginal examination is the:
a. Sims' position.
b. lithotomy position.
c. genupectoral position.
d. dorsal recumbent position.

9. Which information should be included in a teaching plan for a client with prostatitis?
a. Massage prostate gland daily
b. Limit alcohol intake
c. Expect difficulty in initiating urination
d. Restrict fluid intake to 1500 ml daily

10. Which symptom should the nurse interpret as requiring a check for endometrial cancer?
a. Postmenopausal bleeding
b. Persistent leukorrhea
c. Painful sexual intercourse
d. Intermittent amenorrhea

11. How should the nurse interpret the leakage of fecal matter from the vagina of a client with advanced cancer?
a. Anal sphincter has been impaired
b. Cancer has metastasized to the GI tract
c. Rectovaginal fistula has developed
d. Rectum is being compressed by the tumor mass

12. A woman attending a health fair tells the nurse that her breasts have always gotten very tender during the week before her
period but that one breast has stayed sore for the last 2 months. Which is the most appropriate advice for the nurse to give?
a. “Wear a good support bra to bed for a few nights and see if the pain is relieved.”
b. “Decrease the salt in your diet, the pain probably is due to fluid retention.”
c. “Try taking an OTC anti-inflammatory like ibuprofen for the pain.”
d. “You should see your health care provider and have the breast checked.”

13. A client with human papillomavirus (HPV) is being treated by a colposcopy. The client asks the nurse if this procedure is
really necessary. The nurse explains that the procedure to treat the warts is important be cause HPV can lead to
a. infertility.
b. cervical cancer.
c. pelvic inflammatory disease.
d. rectal cancer.

14. A client with BPH is being treated with terazosin(Hytrin) 2 mg at bedtime. The nurse should monitor the client's
a. urinary nitrites.
b. white blood cell count.
c. blood pressure.
d. pulse.

15. The nurse anticipates that a client with prostatic hypertrophy will most likely report having experienced which of the
following symptoms?
a. Voiding at less frequent intervals.
b. Difficulty starting the flow of urine.
c. Painful urination.
d. Increased force of the urine stream.

16. Which client with breast cancer is a candidate for treatment with Tamoxifen?
a. A 32-year-old client with a lumpectomy for a small tumor and no sign of spread
b. A 58-year-old client with negative estrogen receptor (ER) status
c. A 41-year-old client with metastatic disease
d. A 66-year-old client with estrogen sensitive disease

17. Following teaching about PID, which statement by a client indicates that clarification is needed?
a. “Infertility and ectopic pregnancy are complications of PID.”
b. “A risk factor for PID is insertion of an intrauterine device (IUD).”
c. “Untreated PID can lead to septicemia.”
d. “PID is most often due to fungal overgrowth.”

18. Which is a sign of a trichomonas vaginal infection?

a. Thick, white, cheesy discharge
b. Relapsing, low-grade fever
 c. Vomiting without nausea
d. Thin, bubbly, green-tinged malodorous discharge

19. Which finding on the physical examination of a 68-year-old, postmenopausal woman would cause suspicion of disease?
a. Amenorrhea
b. Sparse pubic hair
c. Dry vaginal mucous membrane
d. Palpable ovary

20. Which instruction should the nurse include when instructing a client on the use of Flagyl?
a. “Do not drink alcohol while taking medication.”
b. “Douche daily while taking the medication.”
c. “Discontinue other medications until course of Flagyl is complete.”
d. “Do not use a spermicide while on the medication.”

21. Once sperm are produced by the testes they move into and mature in the
a. seminiferous tubes c. vas deferens
b. penis d. epididymis

22. The purpose of the urethra is to

a. carry only urine
b. carry only semen
c. carry a mixture of semen and urine
d. carry both semen and urine but not at the same time

23. The menstrual cycle is triggered each month by

a. the release of blood from the uterus
b. the buildup of the lining of the uterus
c. hormones
d. sexual intercourse

24. Female infertility can be caused by hormonal problems, blocked fallopian tubes, and
a. a cold c. irregular menstrual cycles
b. lack of appetite d. STDs

25. Sexual feelings are normal and necessary

a. for reproduction to occur
b. for the heart and lungs to function properly
c. for an ovum to be released from a female’s ovary each month
d. for teens to become adults.

26. When sexual feelings occur, it is important to

a. consciously choose to act responsibly
b. go to a quiet place and talk about what you are feeling with your partner
c. explore the feelings and do what feels best
d. see a doctor

27. The external male reproductive organs consist of the penis, testes, and
a. urethra c. scrotum
b. prostate d. seminal visicle

28. The external female reproductive organs include

a. the vagina, the clitoris, and the mons pubis c. the vaginal opening, the labia majora, and the
clitoris
b. the hymen, the vaginal opening, and the uterus d. the hymen, the ovaries, and the clitoris

29. Semen leaves the male body when the penis is erect and
a. urination occurs c. excitement occurs
 b. evacuation occurs d. ejaculation occurs

30. The menstrual cycle is a result of

a. the female body preparing to give birth c. the female body preparing for pregnancy
b. the female body preparing to produce milk d. the female body preparing for old age

31. A 25 year old patient is inquiring about the methods or ways to detect cancer earlier. The nurse least likely identifies this
method by stating:
A. Annual chest x-ray.
B. Annual Pap smear for sexually active women only.
C. Annual digital rectal examination for persons over age 40.
D. Yearly physical and blood examination

32. The removal of entire breast, pectoralis major and minor muscles and neck lymph nodes which is followed by skin
grafting is a procedure called:
A. Simple mastectomy
B. Modified radical mastectomy
C. Radiation therapy
D. Radical mastectomy

33. Breast self examination (BSE) is one of the ways to detect breast cancer earlier. The nurse is conducting a health teaching
to female clients in a clinic. During evaluation the clients are asked to state what they learned. Which of the following
statement made by a client needs further teaching about BSE?
A. “BSE is done after menstruation.”
B. “BSE palpation is done by starting at the center going to the periphery in a circular motion.”
C. “BSE can be done in either supine or standing position.”
D. “BSE should start from age 20.”

34. Surgical procedure to treat breast cancer involves the removal of the entire breast, pectoralis major muscle and the
axillary lymph nodes is:
A. Simple mastectomy
B. Modified radical mastectomy
C. Halstead Surgery
D. Radical mastectomy

35. While being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in the right breast, the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between a
benign tumor and a malignant tumor. The nurse explains that a benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that benign
tumors
a. do not cause damage to adjacent tissue.
b. do not spread to other tissues and organs.
c. are simply an overgrowth of normal cells.
d. frequently recur in the same site.

36. External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with endometrial cancer. The nurse teaches the patient that an important
measure to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation is to
a. test all stools for the presence of blood.
b. inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.
c. perform perianal care with sitz baths and meticulous cleaning.
d. maintain a high-residue, high-fat diet.

37. A 40-year-old divorced mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic cancer of the ovary. The nurse
finds the patient crying, and she tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. The
most appropriate response by the nurse is
a. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?"
b. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children."
c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well, not worry about your children."
d. "Perhaps your ex-husband will take the children when you can't care for them."
38. A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid and electrolyte
imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
a. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
b. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
c. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
d. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips

39. Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the purpose
of performing the examination is to discover:
a. cancerous lumps.
b. areas of thickness or fullness.
c. changes from previous self-examinations.
d. fibrocystic masses.

40. A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the
client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
a. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
b. Spontaneous abortion at age 19
c. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
d. Human papillomavirus infection at age 32

41. Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The average age of the women in the
group is 47. Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
a. perform breast self-examination annually.
b. have a mammogram annually.
c. have a hormonal receptor assay annually.
d. have a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years.
42. Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that
women get mammograms:
a. yearly after age 40.
b. after the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter.
c. after the first menstrual period and annually thereafter.
d. every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter.
43. Client complains of severe vulvar pruritus and a yellow-green, malodorous vaginal discharge. The nurse recognizes that the
symptoms suggest
a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomoniasis

44. Which of following is usually the initial clinical manifestation of gonorrhea in men?
a. Impotence
b. Scrotal pain
c. Penile lesion
d. Urethral discharge

45. The nurse is evaluating a female clients understanding of how to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Which of the
following statements indicates that the client understands how to protect herself?
a. "I will be sure my partner uses a condom."
b. "I need to be sure to take my birth control pills."
c. "I will always douche after sexual intercourse.
d) "I will be sure to take antibiotics to prevent STD."

46. . A delivery room nurse was unable to perform newborn care to a neonate. In the history of the postpartum mother, she
recently was diagnosed with gonococcal infection that was untreated. Which of the following will most likely to occur in the
neonate?
a. The neonate will have bleeding problems due to lack of vitamin K
b. The neonate will develop ophthalmia neonatorum
 c. The neonate will not have any medical problems
d. The neonate will develop respiratory failure
47. Cristina Yap, a 30-year-old female came to a clinic due to burning sensation in the genital area. The physician diagnosed her
with non-gonococcal urethritis. The nurse knows that the most likely etiologic agent of non-gonococcal urethritis is
a. Neiserria gonorrhea c. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Haemophilus ducreyi

Situation: A 24-year-old male presents to the OPD with a 3 day history of burning sensation on urination which progressed to
the development of purulent, yellowish-to-greenish urethral discharge. The nurse suspects of STD.
48. On laboratory examination, the diagnosis of gonorrhea is confirmed by which of the following on the report of the staining
result?
a. Gram negative intracellular diplocci c. Numerous spirochetes
b. Gram positive extracellular diplococci d. Gram negative extracellular diplococci

49. The nurse knows that the easiest factor to break in the infectious process to prevent STD spread would be
a.Reservior c. Agent
b.Mode of transmission d. Portal of entry
50. The prevention and control of STD is made difficult by
a. Lack of drugs specific for STD c. No government program on STD
b. Self-medication of infected persons d. Lack of better laboratory facility
51. Nurse is very active in contact tracing and epidemiologic treatment of all gonococcal identified contacts to prevent
a. Development of resistant strain c. Non venereal transmission
b. Asymptomatic infection d. Re-infection
52. The patient made the following statement to the nurse. Which statement would need reinforcement of health teachings?
a. I need to take drugs for prophylaxis the next time I do it
b. Gonorrhea does not confer lifelong immunity
c. The disease can also be transmitted through other means
d. I will finish the prescribed medication to prevent resistance of microorganism

53. A female client with gonorrhea informs the nurse that she had sexual intercourse with her boyfriend and asks the nurse
“Would he experience any symptoms? The nurse responds that in males, the initial manifestation is
a. Impotence
b. Scrotal swelling
c. Sterility
d. Dysuria
Situation: Mr. Larry Hipolito, a 25 y/o male came to an out-patient clinic complaining of pain over the hypogastrium & yellowish
discharge from his urethra. A diagnosis of gonorrhea is made.
54. Since Larry has gonorrhea, he most likely has which of these symptoms?
a. a maculo-papular rash on the pubic area
b. a painless ulcer on the penis
c. wart-like lesions on the scrotum
d. pain upon urination
55. Larry was instructed to remain in the clinic for at least 30 minutes so that adverse reactions to the medication can be
detected. Which of these comments made by Larry is indicative of an adverse reaction to the specific drug?
a. “My chest feels tight”
b. “I need to go to the bathroom.”
c. “I need a glass of water.”
d. “My hands are shaky.”
56. Characteristic lesion of primary syphilis is
a. chancroid
b. condyloma lata
c. gumma
d. chancre
57. A client is suspected of having late-stage syphilis. When obtaining a health history, the nurse recognizes that the statement
by the client that would most support this diagnosis would be
a. “I noticed a wart on my penis.”
b. “I have sores all over my mouth.”
 c. “I have been losing a lot of hair lately.”
d. “I’m having trouble keeping my balance.”

58. A nurse is discussing daily activities with a client. Which of the following activities puts the client at risk for altering the
normal pH of her vagina?
a. Consuming over four cups of coffee per day.
b. Having sexual intercourse during the menstrual cycle.
c. Douching unless instructed to do so by the health care provider.
d. Using tampons during the menstrual cycle.

59. A client is prescribed oral metronidazole (Flagyl) for treatment of bacterial vaginosis. What should the nurse instruct the
client to avoid during treatment and for 24 hours thereafter?
a. Douching.
b. Sexual intercourse.
c. Hot tub baths.
d. Alcohol consumption.

60. A postmenopausal woman is worried about pain in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. The nurse's first course of
action is to:
a. Do a breast examination and report the results to the physician.
b. Explain that pain is caused by hormonal fluctuations.
c. Reassure the client that pain is not a symptom of breast cancer.
d. Teach the client the correct procedure for breast self-examination (BSE).

61. The nurse teaches a female client that the best time in the menstrual cycle to examine the breasts is during the:
a. Week that ovulation occurs.
b. Week that menstruation occurs.
c. First week after menstruation.
d. Week before menstruation occurs.

62. A female with bilateral breast implants asks if she still needs to do breast examinations because she does not know what to
feel for. Which of the following is the nurse's best response?
a. “Have your partner assess your breasts on a regular basis.”
b. “I will show you the correct technique as I do the breast examination.”
c. “A breast examination is very difficult when you have had implant surgery.”
d. “You need to have a mammogram instead.”

63. The client states that she has noticed that her bra fits more snugly at certain times of the month. She asks the nurse if this is
a sign of breast disease. The nurse should base the reply to this client on the knowledge that:
a. Benign cysts tend to cause the breasts to vary in size.
b. It is normal for the breasts to increase in size before menstruation begins.
c. A change in breast size warrants further investigation.
d. Differences in breast size are related to normal growth and development.

64. A 76-year-old client tells the nurse that she has lived long and does not need mammograms. Which is the nurse's best
response?
a. “Having a mammogram when you are older is less painful.”
b. “The incidence of breast cancer increases with age.”
c. “We need to consider your family history of breast cancer first.”
d. “It will be sufficient if you perform breast examinations monthly.”

65. After the surgeon met with a client to obtain the client's informed consent for a modified radical mastectomy, the client
asks the nurse many questions about breast reconstruction that the nurse cannot to answer. The nurse should:
a. Inform the surgeon that the client has questions about reconstruction before she signs the consent.
b. Inform the client that she should concentrate on recovering from the mastectomy first.
c. Inform the client that she can have a consultation with the plastic surgeon in a few weeks.
d. Inform the client she can ask the surgeon these questions later when the surgeon makes rounds.
66. Prior to surgery for a modified radical mastectomy, the client is extremely anxious and asks many questions. Which of the
following approaches would offer the best guide for the nurse to answer these questions.
a. Tell the client as much as she wants to know and is able to understand.
b. Delay discussing the client's questions with her until she is convalescing.
c. Delay discussing the client's questions with her until her apprehension subsides.
d. Explain to the client that she should discuss her questions first with the physician.

67. Atropine sulfate is included in the preoperative prescriptions for a client undergoing a modified radical mastectomy. The
expected outcome is to:
a. promote general muscular relaxation.
b. decrease pulse and respiratory rates.
c. decrease nausea.
d. inhibit oral and respiratory secretions.

68. During the postoperative period after a modified radical mastectomy, the client confides in the nurse that she thinks she
got breast cancer because she had an abortion and she did not tell her husband. The best response by the nurse is which of the
following?
a. “Cancer is not a punishment; it is a disease.”
b. “You might feel better if you confided in your husband.”
c. “Tell me more about your feelings about this.”
d. “I can have the social worker talk to you if you would like.”

69. Following a modified radical mastectomy, a client has an incisional drainage tube attached to Hemovac suction. The nurse
determines the suction is effective when:
a. The intrathoracic pressure is decreased, and the client breathes easier.
b. There is an increased collateral lymphatic flow toward the operative area.
c. Accumulated serum and blood in the operative area are removed.
d. No adhesions are formed between the skin and chest wall in the operative area.

70. Which of the following positions would be best for a client's right arm when she returns to her room after a right modified
radical mastectomy with multiple lymph node excisions?
a. Across her chest wall.
b. At her side at the same level as her body.
c. In the position that affords her the greatest comfort without placing pressure on the incision.
d. On pillows, with her hand higher than her elbow and her elbow higher than her shoulder.

71. A client develops lymphedema after a left mastectomy with lymph node dissection. Which of the following should be
included in the discharge teaching plan? Select all that apply.
1. Do not allow blood pressures or blood draws in the affected arm.
2. Avoid application of sunscreen on the left arm.
3. Use an electric razor for shaving.
4. Immobilize the left arm.
5. Elevate the left arm.
6. Perform hand pump exercises.

72. The client with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex) 20 mg daily. The client states she does not like taking
medicine and asks the nurse if the tamoxifen is really worth taking. The nurse's best response is which of the following?
a. “This drug is part of your chemotherapy program.”
b. “This drug has been found to decrease metastatic breast cancer.”
c. “This drug will act as an estrogen in your breast tissue.”
d. “This drug will prevent hot flashes since you cannot take hormone replacement.”

73. A client undergoing chemotherapy after a modified radical mastectomy asks the nurse questions about breast prosthesis
and wigs. After answering the questions directly, the nurse should also:
a. Provide a list of resources, including the local breast cancer support group.
b. Offer a referral to the social worker.
c. Call the home health care agency.
d. Contact the plastic surgeon.
74. A client is to have radiation therapy after a modified radical mastectomy. The nurse should teach the client to care for the
skin at the site of therapy by:
a. Washing the area with water.
b. Exposing the area to dry heat.
c. Applying an ointment to the area.
d. Using talcum powder on the area.

75. The nurse should teach a client that a normal local tissue response to radiation following surgery for breast cancer is:
a. Atrophy of the skin.
b. Scattered pustule formation.
c. Redness of the surface tissue.
d. Sloughing of two layers of skin.

76. The nurse is providing discharge instructions about preventing infection to a client who had a modified radical mastectomy.
Which of the following will be most effective in preventing infection?
a. Wear protective gloves when gardening.
b. Avoid crowded areas.
c. Keep cuticles cut.
d. Remove underarm hair with a sharp razor.

77. An adult male client has been unable to void for the past 12 hours. The best method for the nurse to use when assessing for
bladder distention in a male client is to check for:
a. A rounded swelling above the pubis.
b. Dullness in the lower left quadrant.
c. Rebound tenderness below the symphysis.
d. Urine discharge from the urethral meatus.

78. When emptying the client's bladder during a urinary catheterization, the nurse should allow the urine to drain from the
bladder slowly to prevent:
a. Renal failure.
b. Abdominal cramping.
c. Possible shock.
d. Atrophy of bladder musculature.

79. The primary reason for lubricating the urinary catheter generously before inserting the catheter into a male client is that
this technique helps reduce:
a. Spasms at the orifice of the bladder.
b. Friction along the urethra when the catheter is being inserted.
c. The number of organisms gaining entrance to the bladder.
d. The formation of encrustations that may occur at the end of the catheter.

80. The primary reason for taping an indwelling catheter laterally to the thigh of a male client is to:
a. Eliminate pressure at the penoscrotal angle.
b. Prevent the catheter from kinking in the urethra.
c. Prevent accidental catheter removal.
d. Allow the client to turn without kinking the catheter.

81. Many older men with prostatic hypertrophy do not seek medical attention until urinary obstruction is almost complete. One
reason for this delay in seeking attention is that these men may:
a. Feel too self-conscious to seek help when reproductive organs are involved.
b. Expect that it is normal to have to live with some urinary problems as they grow older.
c. Fear that sexual indiscretions in earlier life may be the cause of their problem.
d. Have little discomfort in relation to the amount of pathology because responses to pain stimuli fade with age.

82. When caring for a client with a history of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), the nurse should do which of the following?
Select all that apply.
1. Provide privacy and time for the client to void.
2. Monitor intake and output.
3. Catheterize the client for postvoid residual urine.
4. Ask the client if he has urinary retention.
5. Test the urine for hematuria.

83. The nurse should specifically assess a client with prostatic hypertrophy for which of the following?
a. Voiding at less frequent intervals.
b. Difficulty starting the flow of urine.
c. Painful urination.
d. Increased force of the urine stream.

84. A client is scheduled to undergo transurethral resection of the prostate. The procedure is to be done under spinal
anesthesia. Postoperatively, the nurse should assess the client for:
a. Seizures.
b. Cardiac arrest.
c. Renal shutdown.
d. Respiratory paralysis.

85. A client with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is being treated with terazosin (Hytrin) 2 mg at bedtime. The nurse should
monitor the client's:
a. Urine nitrites.
b. White blood cell count.
c. Blood pressure.
d. Pulse.

86. A client, who had a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), has a three-way indwelling urinary catheter with
continuous bladder irrigation. In which of the following circumstances should the nurse increase the flow rate of the continuous
bladder irrigation?
a. When drainage is continuous but slow.
b. When drainage appears cloudy and dark yellow.
c. When drainage becomes bright red.
d. When there is no drainage of urine and irrigating solution.

87. A nursing assistant tells the nurse, “I think the client is confused. He keeps telling me he has to void, but that isn't possible
because he has a catheter in place that is draining well.” Which of the following responses would be most appropriate for the
nurse to make?
a. “His catheter is probably plugged. I'll irrigate it.”
b. “That's a common problem after prostate surgery. The client only imagines the urge to void.”
c. “The urge to void is usually created by the large catheter, and he may be having some bladder spasms.”
d. “I think he may be somewhat confused.”

88. The nurse is preparing a 45-year-old female for a vaginal examination. The nurse should place the client in which position?
a. Sims' position.
b. Lithotomy position.
c. Genupectoral position.
d. Dorsal recumbent position.

89. A client asks the nurse to explain the meaning of her abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) smear result of atypical squamous cells.
Which of the following concepts should the nurse include in the response? An atypical Pap smear means that
a. Abnormal viral cells were found in the smear.
b. Cancer cells were found in the smear.
c. The Pap smear alone is not very important diagnostically because there are many false-positive results.
d. The cells could cause various conditions and help identify a problem early.

90. Which of the following is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

a. Sexual experiences with one partner.
b. Sedentary lifestyle.
c. Obesity.
d. Adolescent pregnancy.
91. A woman tells the nurse that “there's been a lot of cancer in my family.” The nurse should instruct the client to report which
possible sign of cervical cancer?
a. Pain.
b. Leg edema.
c. Urinary and rectal symptoms.
d. Light bleeding or watery vaginal discharge.

92. A 30-year-old female client asks the nurse about douching. What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
a. Douching during menstruation is safe.
b. Daily douching will decrease vaginal odor.
c. Perfumed douches are recommended to decrease odors.
d. Douching removes natural mucus and changes the balance of normal vaginal flora.

93. A young woman will receive 6 months of chemotherapy for cervical cancer. She is a single parent of two young children and
can no longer work. The nurse contacts a social worker to help plan continuing care. The client states, “I feel overwhelmed.
How can the social worker help me?” Which responses by the nurse about the role of the social worker are appropriate? Select
all that apply.
1. “The social worker is a part of a multidisciplinary team that provides care for clients with cancer.”
2. “The social worker can assist in locating resources and programs to assist you during your treatment.”
3. “Based on your financial situation and need to care for your children, the social worker can help you identify needed
resources at
this time.”
4. “Your entire family will be included in the treatment plan. Your needs and those of your children will be assessed and
determined
so that referrals can be made to appropriate resources.”
5. “The social worker can authorize temporary funds to help you with child care and to pay your bills while you are sick.”

94. The husband of a client with cervical cancer says to the nurse, “The doctor told my wife that her cancer is curable. Is he just
trying to make us feel better?” Which would be the nurse's most accurate response?
a. “When cervical cancer is detected early and treated aggressively, the cure rate is almost 100%.”
b. “The 5-year survival rate is about 75%, which makes the odds pretty good.”
c. “Saying a cancer is curable means that 50% of all women with the cancer survive at least 5 years.”
d. “Cancers of the female reproductive tract tend to be slow growing and respond well to treatment.”

95. A client with suspected cervical cancer is undergoing a colposcopy with conization. The nurse gives instructions to the client
about her menstrual periods, emphasizing that:
a. Her periods will return to normal after 6 months.
b. Her next two or three periods may be heavier and more prolonged than usual.
c. Her next two or three periods will be lighter than normal.
d. She may skip her next two periods.

96. A client with cervical cancer is undergoing internal radium implant therapy. A lead-lined container and a pair of long forceps
are kept in the client's hospital room for:
a. Disposal of emesis or other bodily secretions.
b. Handling of a dislodged radiation source.
c. Disposal of the client's eating utensils.
d. Storage of the radiation dose.

97. The mother of a client who has a radium implant asks why so many nurses are involved in her daughter's care. She states,
“The doctor said I can be in the room for up to 2 hours each day, but the nurses say they're restricted to 30 minutes.” The nurse
explains that this variation is based on the fact that nurses:
a. Touch the client, which increases their exposure to radiation.
b. Work with many clients and could carry infection to a client receiving radiation therapy, if exposure is prolonged.
c. Work with radiation on an ongoing basis, while visitors have infrequent exposure to radiation.
d. Are at greater risk from the radiation because they are younger than the mother.
98. A client with human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is being treated by a colposcopy. The client asks the nurse if this
procedure is really necessary. The nurse explains that the procedure to treat the warts is important because HPV can lead to:
a. Infertility.
b. Cervical cancer.
c. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
d. Rectal cancer.

99. Which of the following should be included in the nursing care for a client with cervical cancer who has an internal radium
implant in place?
a. Offer the bedpan every 2 hours.
b. Provide perineal care twice daily.
c. Check the position of the applicator hourly.
d. Offer a low-residue diet.

100. The nurse should carefully observe a client with internal radium implants for typical adverse effects associated with
radiation therapy to the cervix. These effects include:
a. Severe vaginal itching.
b. Confusion.
c. High fever in the afternoon or evening.
d. Nausea and a foul vaginal discharge.