The Gate Question Bank in Mechanical Engg PDF

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GATE QUESTION BANK

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GATE QUESTION BANK Contents
Contents
Subject Name Topic Name Page No.
#1. Mathematics 1-148
1 Linear Algebra 1 – 28
2 Probability & Distribution 29 – 57
3 Numerical Methods 58 – 73
4 Calculus 74 – 112
5 Differential Equations 113 – 131
6 Complex Variables 132 – 143
7 Laplace Transform 144 – 148
ww
#2. Engineering Mechanics
8 Statics
149 – 162
149 – 155
w. E
#3.
9
Strength of Materials
Dynamics 156 – 162
163 – 187
asy10
11
Simple Stress and Strain
Shear Force and Bending Moment
163 – 168
169 – 171
12
13 En
Stresses in Beams
Deflection of Beams
172 – 174
175 – 179
14
15
16
Torsion
Mohr's Circle gi
Strain Energy Method nee
180 – 182
183 – 184
185
17 Columns and Struts 186 – 187
#4. Thermodynamics rin 188 – 225

18
19
Basic Thermodynamics
Irreversibility & Availability
g.n188 – 195
196
20
21
22
Properties of Pure Substances
Work, Heat & Entropy
Psychrometrics
197 – 198
199 – 204
205 – 209
et
23 Power Engineering 210 – 217
24 Refrigeration 218 – 222
25 Internal Combustion Engines 223 – 225
#5. Theory of Machines 226 – 248

26 Mechanisms 226 – 233
27 Gear Trains 234 – 237
28 Flywheel 238 – 240
29 Vibration 241 – 248
#6. Machine Design 249 – 267

30 Design of Static Loading 249 – 251
31 Design for Dynamic Loading 252 – 254
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GATE QUESTION BANK Contents
32 Design of Joints 255 – 258

33 Design of Shaft and Shaft Component 259
34 Design of Bearing 260 -261
35 Design of Brakes and Clutches 262 – 264
36 Design of Spur Gears 265 – 267
#7. Fluid Mechanics 268 - 291

37 Fluid Properties 268
38 Fluid Statics 269 – 270
39 Fluid Kinematics 271 – 275
40 Fluid Dynamics 276 – 279
41 Boundary Layer 280 – 282
ww 42
43
Flow through Pipes
Hydraulic Machines
283 – 286
287 – 291
w. E
#8. Heat Transfer
44 Conduction
292 – 311
292 – 298
asy45
46
Convection
Radiation
299 – 303
304 – 307
47
En
Heat Exchanger 308 – 311
#9. Manufacturing Engineering

48
49
50
Casting
gi
Engineering Materials
Forming process nee

312 – 350
312 – 314
315 – 320
321 – 325
51
52
Joining Process
Machining and Machine Tool Operations rin 326 – 329
330 – 343
53
54
Metrology and Inspection
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) g.n 344 – 347
348 – 350
#10. Industrial Engineering

55 Production Planning and Control
351 – 371
351 – 353
et
56 Inventory Control 354 – 359
57 Operation Research 360 – 371
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THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, Keshava Krupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
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GATE QUESTION BANK Mathematics
Linear Algebra
ME – 2005 5. Match the items in columns I and II.
1. Which one of the following is an Column I Column II
P. Singular 1. Determinant is not
Eigenvector of the matrix[ ]? matrix defined
Q. Non-square 2. Determinant is
matrix always one
R. Real 3. Determinant is
(A) [ ] (C) [ ] symmetric zero
matrix
S. Orthogonal 4. Eigen values are
ww
matrix always real
(B) [ ] (D) [ ] 5. Eigen values are
not defined
2. w. E
A is a 3 4 real matrix and Ax=B is an
(A) P - 3 Q - 1 R - 4 S - 2
(B) P - 2 Q - 3 R - 4 S - 1
(C) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 5 S - 4
asy
inconsistent system of equations. The
highest possible rank of A is
ME – 2007
(D) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 2 S - 1
(A) 1
(B) 2
En (C) 3
(D) 4 6. The number of linearly independent
ME – 2006
3. gi
Multiplication of matrices E and F is G.
Matrices E and G are
Eigenvectors of 0
nee
(A) 0
(B) 1
1 is
(C) 2
(D) Infinite
os
E [ sin
sin
os ] and
7.
r
If a square matrix A is real and symmetric,
ing
then the Eigenvalues
(A) are always real
G [ ]. What is the matrix F?
.ne
(B) are always real and positive
(C) are always real and non-negative
os
(A) [ sin
sin
sin
os
os
]
ME – 2008
t
(D) occur in complex conjugate pairs
(B) [ os sin ] 8. The Eigenvectors of the matrix 0 1 are
os sin written in the form 0 1 and 0 1. What is

(C) [ sin os ]
a + b?
sin os (A) 0 (C) 1
(D) [ os sin ] (B) 1/2 (D) 2
4. Eigen values of a matrix 9. The matrix [ ] has one Eigenvalue

p
S 0 1are 5 and 1. What are the
equal to 3. The sum of the other two
Eigenvalues of the matrix = SS? Eigenvalues is
(A) 1 and 25 (C) 5 and 1 (A) p (C) p – 2
(B) 6 and 4 (D) 2 and 10 (B) p – 1 (D) p – 3
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THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, KeshavaKrupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
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10. For what value of a, if any, will the ME – 2012

following system of equations in x, y and z 15. For the matrix A=0 1 , one of the
have a solution
x y normalized Eigenvectors is given as
x y z
x y z
(A) (√ ) (C) (√ )
√
(A) Any real number
(B) 0
(C) 1
(B) (√ ) (D) ( )
√ √
(D) There is no such value
16. x + 2y + z =4
ME – 2009
2x + y + 2z =5
11.
ww
For a matrix,M- *
x
+, the transpose
x–y+z=1
The system of algebraic equations given
w. E
of the matrix is equal to the inverse of the
matrix ,M- ,M- . The value of x is
above has
(A) a unique algebraic equation of x = 1,
y = 1 and z = 1
(A) (
(B) asy
given by
)
( ⁄ )
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
(B) only the two solutions of ( x = 1,
y = 1, z = 1) and ( x = 2, y = 1, z = 0)
ME – 2010 En (C) infinite number of solutions.

(D) No feasible solution.
(A) 2
0
3
gi
12. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix
1 is
(C) 2 3
ME – 2013
nee
17. The Eigenvalues of a symmetric matrix
are all
(B) 2 3 (D) 2 3
r
(A) Complex with non –zero positive
imaginary part.
ing
(B) Complex with non – zero negative
ME – 2011
13. Consider the following system of
imaginary part.
(C) Real .ne
equations:
x
x
x
x
x
x x
18.
(D) Pure imaginary.
t
Choose correct set of functions, which are
linearly dependent.
The system has (A) sin x sin x n os x
(A) A unique solution (B) os x sin x n t n x
(B) No solution (C) os x sin x n os x
(C) Infinite number of solutions (D) os x sin x n os x
(D) Five solutions ME – 2014
14. Eigen values of a real symmetric matrix 19. Given that the determinant of the matrix
are always
[ ] is 12 , the determinant of
(A) Positive (C) Negative
(B) Real (D) Complex
the matrix [ ] is
(A) (B) (C) (D)

th th th


20. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix 2. Consider a non-homogeneous system of

0 1 is linear equations representing
mathematically an over-determined
(A) {– } (C) 2 3 system. Such a system will be
(A) consistent having a unique solution
(B) {– } (D) 2 3
(B) consistent having many solutions
(C) inconsistent having a unique solution
21. Consider a 3×3 real symmetric matrix S (D) inconsistent having no solution
such that two of its Eigenvalues are
with respective Eigenvectors 3. Consider the matrices , - , - and
x y
, - . The order of , ( ) - will be
[x ] [y ] If then x y + x y +x y
(A) (2 × 2) (C) (4 × 3)
wwx y
equals
(A) a (C) ab
(B) (3 × 3 (D) (3 × 4
22.
w. E
(B) b (D) 0
Which one of the following equations is a

CE – 2006
4. Solution for the system defined by the set
of equations 4y + 3z = 8; 2x – z = 2 and
asy
correct identity for arbitrary 3×3 real
matrices P, Q and R?
3x + 2y = 5 is
(A) x = 0; y =1; z = ⁄
(A) (
(B) ( En )
) (B) x = 0; y = ⁄ ; z = 2
(C) x = 1; y = ⁄ ; z = 2
(C) et
(D) (
(
gi
)
) et et
5.
(D) non – existent
nee
For the given matrix A = [ ],
CE – 2005
1. Consider the system of equations (
( ) ( ) where is s l r Let
)
r
Eigen values are
ing
one of the Eigen values is 3. The other two
( ) e n Eigen -pair of an Eigenvalue

and its corresponding Eigenvector for
(A)
(B)
.ne
(C)
(D)
real matrix A. Let I be a (n × n) unit
matrix. Which one of the following
statement is NOT correct?
(A) For a homogeneous n × n system of
CE – 2007
6. The minimum and the maximum t
Eigenvalue of the matrix [ ]are 2
linear equations,(A ) X = 0 having
a nontrivial solution the rank of and 6, respectively. What is the other
(A ) is less than n. Eigenvalue?
(B) For matrix , m being a positive (A) (C)
integer, ( ) will be the Eigen - (B) (D)
pair for all i.
7. For what values of and the following
(C) If = then | | = 1 for all i.
simultaneous equations have an infinite
(D) If = A then is real for all i.
of solutions?
X + Y + Z = 5; X + 3Y + 3Z = 9;
X+2Y+ Z
(A) 2, 7 (C) 8, 3
(B) 3, 8 (D) 7, 2
th th th

i i
8. The inverse of the m trix 0 1 is 14. The inverse of the matrix 0 1
i i
(A) 0 1 (C) 0 1 is
( ) i i
(B) 0 1 (D) 0 1 0 1
i i
i i
( ) 0 1
CE – 2008 i i
9. The product of matrices ( ) is ( ) i i
0 1
i i
(A) (C)
i i
(B) (D) PQ ( ) 0 1
i i
10. The Eigenvalue of the matrix
CE – 2012
ww
[P] = 0 1 are
15. The Eigenvalues of matrix 0 1 are
(A) and 8 (C) n
(A) 2.42 and 6.86
(B) and 5 (D) n
11.
w. E
The following simultaneous equation
x+y+z=3
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.48 and 13.53
4.70 and 6.86
6.86 and 9.50
asy
x + 2y + 3z = 4
x + 4y + kz = 6 CE – 2013
16. There is no value of x that can
equal to
En
will NOT have a unique solution for k
simultaneously satisfy both the given
gi
(A) 0 (C) 6 equations. Therefore, find the ‘le st
(B) 5 (D) 7 squares error’ solution to the two
CE – 2009 nee
equations, i.e., find the value of x that
minimizes the sum of squares of the
12. A square matrix B is skew-symmetric if
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
r
errors in the two equations.
2x = 3 and 4x = 1
ing
CE – 2011
17. What is the minimum number of
.ne
multiplications involved in computing the
13. [A] is square matrix which is neither
symmetric nor skew-symmetric and , -
is its transpose. The sum and difference of
these matrices are defined as
t
matrix product PQR? Matrix P has 4 rows
and 2 columns, matrix Q has 2 rows and
4 columns, and matrix R has 4 rows and 1
column. __________
[S] = [A] + , - and [D] = [A] , - ,
CE – 2014
respectively. Which of the following
statements is TRUE? 18. Given the matrices J = [ ] n
(A) Both [S] and [D] are symmetric
(B) Both [S] and [D] are skew-symmetric
(C) [S] is skew-symmetric and [D] is K [ ], the product K JK is
symmetric
(D) [S] is symmetric and [D] is skew
19. The sum of Eigenvalues of the matrix, [M]
symmetric
is, where [M] = [ ]
(A) 915 (C) 1640

(B) 1355 (D) 2180
th th th

4. Let A be a 4x4 matrix with Eigenvalues

20. The determinant of matrix [ ] –5, –2, 1, 4. Which of the following is an
I
Eigenvalue of 0 1, where I is the 4x4
I
is ____________ identity matrix?
(A) (C)
21. The rank of the matrix (B) (D)
[ ] is ________________ CS – 2007
5. Consider the set of (column) vectors
defined by X={xR3 x1+x2+x3=0, where
CS – 2005
XT =[x1, x2, x3]T }. Which of the following is
1. Consider the following system of
ww
equations
variables x x n x
in three real
TRUE?
(A) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a basis for
the subspace X.
x
x
w. E
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
(B) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a linearly
independent set, but it does not span
X and therefore, is not a basis of X.
asy
This system of equation has
(A) no solution
(C) X is not the subspace for R3
(D) None of the above
En
(B) a unique solution
(C) more than one but a finite number of
CS – 2008
2.
gi
solutions
(D) an infinite number of solutions
What are the Eigenvalues of the following

6. The following system of
x
x
nee
x
x
x
x
x x x
2 2 matrix?
0 1 r ing
Has unique solution. The only possible
value (s) for is/ are
(A)
(B) n
n (C)
(D)
n
n
(A) 0
(B) either 0 or 1
.ne
CS – 2006
3. F is an n x n real matrix. b is an n
vector. Suppose there are two nx1
real
7.
(C) one of 0,1, 1
(D) any real number except 5
t
How many of the following matrices have
vectors, u and v such that u  v , and
an Eigenvalue 1?
Fu=b, Fv=b. Which one of the following
statement is false? 0 1 0 1 0 1 n 0 1
(A) Determinant of F is zero (A) One (C) three
(B) There are infinite number of (B) two (D) four
solutions to Fx=b
CS – 2010
(C) There is an x  0 such that Fx=0
8. Consider the following matrix
(D) F must have two identical rows
A=[ ]
x y
If the Eigen values of A are 4 and 8, then
(A) x = 4, y = 10 (C) x = 3, y = 9
(B) x = 5, y = 8 (D) x = 4, y = 10
th th th

CS – 2011 13. The value of the dot product of the

9. Consider the matrix as given below Eigenvectors corresponding to any pair of
different Eigenvalues of a 4-by-4
[ ] symmetric positive definite matrix is
__________.
Which one of the following options
provides the CORRECT values of the
14. If the matrix A is such that
Eigenvalues of the matrix?
(A) 1, 4, 3 (C) 7, 3, 2 [ ], -
(B) 3, 7, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3
Then the determinant of A is equal to
CS – 2012 __________.
10. Let A be the 2 2 matrix with elements
ww and .
Then the Eigenvalues of the matrix
15. The product of the non – zero Eigenvalues
of the matrix
w. E
are
(A) 1024 and
(B) 1024√ and √ is __________.
(D)asy
(C) √ n
√ n
√
√
[ ]
CS – 2013
En 16. Which one of the following statements is
TRUE about every n n matrix with only
equal [
gi
11. Which one of
x x
y y
z z
the following does NOT
]
real eigenvalues?
nee
(A) If the trace of the matrix is positive
and the determinant of the matrix is
(A) |
x(x
y(y
z(z
) x
) y
) z
| rnegative, at least one of its
ing
eigenvalues is negative.
(B) If the trace of the matrix is positive,
(B) |
x
y
x
y | .ne
all its eigenvalues are positive.
(C) If the determinant of the matrix is
(C) |
z
x y
y z
z
z
x
y
z
y
z |
positive.
t
positive, all its eigenvalues are
(D) If the product of the trace and

determinant of the matrix is positive,
x y x y all its eigenvalues are positive.
(D) | y z y z |
z z ECE – 2005
1. Given an orthogonal matrix
CS – 2014
12. Consider the following system of A= [ ]. , - is
equations:
x y
⁄
x z
⁄
x y z (A) [ ]
⁄
x y z ⁄
The number of solutions for this system is
__________.
th th th

⁄
⁄ 6. The rank of the matrix [ ]
(B) [ ]
⁄
⁄ (A) 0 (C) 2
(B) 1 (D) 3
(C) [ ]
ECE – 2007
7. It is given that X1 , X2 …… M are M non-
⁄
zero, orthogonal vectors. The dimension
⁄
(D) [ ] of the vector space spanned by the 2M
⁄
⁄ vector X1 , X2 … XM , X1 , X2 … XM is
(A) 2M
⁄ (B) M+1
ww
2. Let, A=0 1 and = 0 1.
(C) M
Then (a + b)=
(D) dependent on the choice of X1 , X2 …
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
3.
w. E
(B) ⁄
Given the matrix 0

(D)
1 the
⁄
ECE – 2008
XM.
asy
Eigenvector is
8. The system of linear equations
4x + 2y = 7, 2x + y = 6 has
(A) 0 1
(B) 0 1 En (C) 0
(D) 0
1
1
(A) a unique solution
(B) no solution
ECE – 2006
4.
gi
For the matrix 0 1 , the Eigenvalue 9.
(C) an infinite number of solutions
nee
(D) exactly two distinct solutions
All the four entries of the 2 x 2 matrix

corresponding
0 1 is
to the Eigenvector
r
P = 0p
p p
ing
p 1 are non-zero, and one of
its Eigenvalues is zero. Which of the
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8 (A) p p p p .ne
following statements is true?
5. The Eigenvalues and the corresponding

Eigenvectors of a 2 2 matrix are given
by
(B) p p
(C) p p
(D) p p
p p
p p
p p
t
Eigenvalue Eigenvector ECE – 2009
=8 v =0 1 10. The Eigen values of the following matrix
are
=4 v =0 1
The matrix is [ ]
(A) 0 1 (C) 0 1 (A) 3, 3 + 5j, 6 j

(B) 6 + 5j, 3 + j, 3 j
(B) 0 1 (D) 0 1
(C) 3 + j, 3 j, 5 + j
(D) 3, 1 + 3j, 1 3j
th th th

ECE – 2010 ECE – 2014

11. The Eigenvalues of a skew-symmetric 16. For matrices of same dimension M, N and
matrix are scalar c, which one of these properties
(A) Always zero DOES NOT ALWAYS hold?
(B) Always pure imaginary (A) (M ) M
(C) Either zero or pure imaginary (B) ( M ) (M)
(D) Always real (C) (M N) M N
(D) MN NM
ECE – 2011
12. The system of equations 17. A real (4 × 4) matrix A satisfies the
x y z equation I where 𝐼 is the (4 × 4)
x y z identity matrix. The positive Eigenvalue
ww
x y z
has NO solution for values of n
of A is _____.
w. E
given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18. Consider the matrix
asy
ECE\EE\IN – 2012
J
13.
En
Given that A = 0
the value of A3 is
1 and I = 0 1, [ ]
Which is obtained by reversing the order
(B) 19A + 30gi

(A) 15 A + 12 I (C) 17 A + 15 I
(D) 17A +21
of the columns of the identity matrix I .
nee
Let I J where is a non-
negative real number. The value of for
which det(P) = 0 is _____.
ECE – 2013
14. The minimum Eigenvalue of the following
matrix is 19. r ing
The determinant of matrix A is 5 and the
determinant of matrix B is 40. The
[ ]
.ne
determinant of matrix AB is ________.
15.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Let A be a m n matrix and B be a n m

20.
( )4 5 (
t
The system of linear equations
)h s
matrix. It is given that (A) a unique solution

Determinant(I ) determinant (B) infinitely many solutions
(I ) where I is the k k identity (C) no solution
matrix. Using the above property, the (D) exactly two solutions
determinant of the matrix given below is
21. Which one of the following statements is
[ ] NOT true for a square matrix A?
(A) If A is upper triangular, the
(A) 2 (C) 8 Eigenvalues of A are the diagonal
(B) 5 (D) 16 elements of it
(B) If A is real symmetric, the Eigenvalues
of A are always real and positive
th th th

(C) If A is real, the Eigenvalues of A and

are always the same (A) [ ] [ ]
(D) If all the principal minors of A are
positive, all the Eigenvalues of A are (B) [ ] [ ] [ ]
also positive
22. The maximum value of the determinant (C) [ ] [ ] [ ]

among all 2×2 real symmetric matrices
with trace 14 is ___. (D) [ ] [ ] [ ]
EE – 2005
5. The following vector is linearly
1.
ww
If R = [
(A) , -
] , then top row of
(C) , -
is dependent upon the solution to the
previous problem
w. E
(B) , - (D) , - (A) [ ] (C) [ ]
2.
asy
For the matrix p = [
the Eigenvalues is equal to 2 . Which of

] , one of (B) [ ] (D) [ ]
En
the following is an Eigenvector?
EE – 2007
6. X = [x , x . . . . x - is an n-tuple non-zero
(A) [
(B) [
]
]
gi (C) [
(D) [ ]
] vector. The n n matrix V = X
nee
(A) Has rank zero (C) Is orthogonal
(B) Has rank 1 (D) Has rank n
3. In the matrix equation Px = q, which of

7.
r
The linear operation L(x) is defined by
ing
the cross product L(x) = b x, where
b =[0 1 0- and x =[x x x - are three
the following is necessary condition for
the existence of at least one solution for
dimensional vectors. The
.ne
of this operation satisfies
matrix M
the unknown vector x

(A) Augmented matrix [P/Q] must have
the same rank as matrix P
(B) Vector q must have only non-zero
x
L(x) = M [ x ]
x t
Then the Eigenvalues of M are
elements (A) 0, +1, 1 (C) i, i, 1
(C) Matrix P must be singular (B) 1, 1, 1 (D) i, i, 0
(D) Matrix P must be square 8. Let x and y be two vectors in a 3
dimensional space and <x, y> denote
EE – 2006 their dot product. Then the determinant
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 4 xx xy
det 0 y x yy 1
and 5.
(A) is zero when x and y are linearly
P=[ ] ,Q=[ ] ,R=[ ] are independent
(B) is positive when x and y are linearly
three vectors independent
4. An orthogonal set of vectors having a (C) is non-zero for all non-zero x and y
span that contains P,Q, R is (D) is zero only when either x or y is zero
th th th

Statement for Linked Questions 9 and 10. (A) A A+ A = A (C) A+ A = 

Cayley-Hamilton Theorem states that a (B) (AA+ ) = A A+ (D) A A+ A = A+
square matrix satisfies its own
characteristic equation. Consider a 14. Let P be a real orthogonal matrix. x⃗
matrix. is a real vector [x x - with length
A=0 1 ⃗x (x x ) . Then, which one of the

following statements is correct?
9. A satisfies the relation
(A) x⃗ ⃗x where at least one
(A) A + 3 + 2 =0
vector satisfies x⃗ x⃗
(B) A + 2A + 2 = 0
2
(B) x⃗ ⃗x for all vectors x⃗
(C) (A+ ) (A 2) = 0
(C) x⃗ ⃗x where at least one
(D) exp (A) = 0
vector satisfies x⃗ x⃗
10. ww equals
(A) 511 A + 510 
(D) No relationship can be established
between x⃗ and x⃗
w. E
(B) 309 A + 104 
(C) 154 A + 155 
EE – 2009
15. The trace and determinant of a
asy
(D) exp (9A) matrix are known to be –2 and –35
respe tively It’s Eigenv lues re
EE – 2008
En
11. If the rank of a ( ) matrix Q is 4, then
(A) –30 and –5
(B) –37 and –1
(C) –7 and 5
(D) 17.5 and –2
correct?
gi
which one of the following statements is
(A) Q will have four linearly independent

rows and four linearly independent
EE – 2010
x nee
16. For the set of equations
x x x =2
columns
(B) Q will have four linearly independent
rows and five linearly independent
x
r x x x =6
ing
The following statement is true
(A) Only the trivial solution
columns
(C) Q will be invertible
x x x
.ne
x = 0 exists
(B) There are no solutions
12.
(D) Q will be invertible
The characteristic equation of a ( )

t
(C) A unique non-trivial solution exists
(D) Multiple non-trivial solutions exist
matrix P is defined as
17. An Eigenvector of [ ] is
() = | P| =    =0
If I denotes identity matrix, then the (A) , - (C) , -
inverse of matrix P will be (B) , - (D) , -
(A) ( I)
(B) ( I) EE – 2011
(C) ( I) 18. The matrix[A] = 0 1 is decomposed
(D) ( I)
into a product of a lower triangular
matrix [L] and an upper triangular matrix
13. A is m n full rank matrix with m > n and
[U]. The properly decomposed [L] and [U]
 is an identity matrix. Let matrix matrices respectively are
A+ = ( ) , then, which one of the
(A) 0 1 and 0 1
following statements is FALSE?
th th th

(B) 0 1 and 0 1 23. Two matrices A and B are given below:

p q p q pr qs
0 1 [ ]
(C) 0 1 and 0 1 r s pr qs r s
If the rank of matrix A is N, then the rank
(D) 0 1 and 0 1
of matrix B is
(A) N (C) N
EE – 2013 (B) N (D) N
x
19. The equation 0 1 0x 1 0 1 has
IN – 2005
(A) No solution
x 1. Identify which one of the following is an
(B) Only one solution 0x 1 0 1.
Eigenvector of the matrix A = 0 1?
(C) Non – zero unique solution
ww
(A) [ 1 1]T (C) [1 1]T
(D) Multiple solution (B) [3 1]T (D) [ 2 1]T
20. A matrix has Eigenvalues – 1 and – 2. The
w. E
corresponding Eigenvectors are 0
1 respectively. The matrix is

1 and
2. Let A be a 3 3 matrix with rank 2. Then
AX = 0 has
(A) only the trivial solution X = 0
asy
0
(B) one independent solution
(A) 0 1 (C) 0 1 (C) two independent solutions
(B) 0
En 1 (D) 0 1
(D) three independent solutions
EE – 2014
x y
gi
21. Given a system of equations:
z
IN – 2006
nee
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 3
and 4
A system of linear simultaneous
x y z
Which of the following is true regarding
its solutions? r ing
equations is given as Ax=B where
(A) The system has a unique solution for

any given and
[
.ne
] n [ ]
(B) The system will have infinitely many

solutions for any given and
(C) Whether or not a solution exists
depends on the given and
3. The rank of matrix A is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
t
(D) The system would have no solution 4. Which of the following statements is true?
for any values of and (A) x is a null vector
(B) x is unique
22. Which one of the following statements is (C) x does not exist
true for all real symmetric matrices? (D) x has infinitely many values
(A) All the eigenvalues are real.
(B) All the eigenvalues are positive. 5. For a given matrix A, it is observed
(C) All the eigenvalues are distinct. that
(D) Sum of all the eigenvalues is zero.
0 1 0 1 n 0 1 0 1
Then matrix A is
th th th

 2 1  1 0   1 1  10. Let P 0 be a 3 3 real matrix. There exist

(A) A      linearly independent vectors x and y such
1 1  0 2 1 2
that Px = 0 and Py = 0. The dimension of
1 1  1 0  2 1
(B) A     
the range space of P is
1 2 0 2 1 1 (A) 0 (C) 2
1 1  1 02 1 (B) 1 (D) 3
(C) A   
1 2  0 2 1 1 IN – 2010
0 2 11. X and Y are non-zero square matrices of
(D) A    size n n. If then
1 3
(A) |X| = 0 and |Y| 0
(B) |X| 0 and |Y| = 0
IN – 2007
6.
ww
Let A = [ ] i j n with n
= i. j. Then the rank of A is
n
(C) |X| = 0 and |Y| = 0
(D) |X| 0 and |Y| 0
w. E
(A)
(B)
(C) n
(D) n
12. A real n × n matrix A = [ ] is defined as
follows: {
i i j
otherwise
7.
asy
Let A be an n×n real matrix such that
= I and y be an n- dimensional vector.
The summation of all n Eigenvalues of A is
(A) n(n )
has
En
Then the linear system of equations Ax=Y (B) n(n
(C)
(
)
)( )
gi
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution
(C) more than one but finitely many
independent solutions
(D) n
nee
IN – 2011
(D) Infinitely many independent

solutions
13.
r
The matrix M = [
Eigenvalues ing
. An Eigenvector
] has
IN – 2009
corresponding to the Eigenvalue 5 is
,
.ne
- . One of the Eigenvectors of
8. The matrix P =[ ] rotates a vector
about the axis[ ] by an angle of

the matrix M is
(A) ,
(B) ,
-
-
(C) ,
(D) ,
√
-
-
t
IN – 2013
(A) (C) 14. The dimension of the null space of the
(B) (D)
matrix [ ] is
9. The Eigenvalues of a (2 2) matrix X are
2 and 3. The Eigenvalues of matrix (A) 0 (C) 2
( I) ( I) are (B) 1 (D) 3
(A) (C)
(B) (D) 15. One of Eigenvectors corresponding to the
two Eigenvalues of the matrix 0 1 is
j
(A) [ ] 0 1 (C) [ ] 0 1
j j
(B) 0 1 0 1 j
(D) [ ] 0 1
j
th th th

IN – 2014
16. For the matrix A satisfying the equation
given below, the eigenvalues are
, -[ ] [ ]
(A) ( 𝑗,𝑗) (C) ( )

(B) (1,1,0) (D) (1,0,0)
Answer Keys and Explanations
ME
1. ww
[Ans. A] and G = [ ]
w. E [ ]
Now E × F = G
∴ ,E-
os
[ sin
sin
os ]
( asy
h r teristi equ tions is |
)( )( )
I|
En
∴ Real eigenvalues are 5, 5 other two are
complex
4. [Ans. A]
For S matrix, if Eigenvalues are
(or)
is ( gi
Eigenvector corresponding to
I)
→( ) nee
… … … … … then for
the Eigenvalues will be , ,
matrix,
………
For S matrix, if Eigenvalues are 1 and 5
then for matrix, the Eigenvalues are 1
Verify the options which satisfies relation
(1)
Option (A) satisfies.
5.
r
and 25.
[Ans. A]
ing
2. [Ans. B]
6. [Ans. B] .ne
Given n in onsistent
No (
0
I) (
t
1 Eigenv lues re 2, 2
I) . /
( ⁄ ) No. of L.I Eigenvectors
( ) n ( ⁄ ) (no of v ri les) ( I)
( ( ) minimum of m n)
For inconsistence
( ) ( ⁄ ) 7. [Ans. A]
∴ he highest possi le r nk of is ( I) .
olving for , Let the symmetric and real
3. [Ans. C] matrix be A = 0 1
os sin
Given , E = [ sin os ] Now | |
Which gives ( )
⟹
th th th

⟹
x
Hence real Eigen value. [ ][ ] 0 1
x
8. [Ans. B]
Equating the elements x ⁄
Let 0 1 eigenv lues re n
Eigen vector corresponding to 12. [Ans. A]
is ( I) 0 1 → Eigenv lues re
x
. / .y/ . / Eigenve tor is x x verify the options
By simplifying
K 13. [Ans. C]
. / . / y t king K
ww
Eigen vector corresponding to =2
is ( I)
x
[ ] [ ]
.
w. E / .y/ . /
By simplifying (
K
K
) 4
⁄
5 by
→ [ ]
asy
→ [ ]
taking K
( ) infinite m ny solutions
En ⁄
⁄
14. [Ans. B]
9. [Ans. C] gi
Sum of the diagonal elements = Sum of 15.
Eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix
are always real
nee
[Ans. B]
the Eigenvalues
⟹ 1 + 0 + p = 3+S
⟹ S= p 2 r 0 1 eigenv lues v lue
Eigen vector will be . ing /

10. [Ans. B] Norm lize ve tor
.ne
( ⁄ ) [
[
]
]
t√( )
[√( )
(
(
)
) ]
⁄
→ * √ +
[ ] ⁄
→
√
→ [ ] 16. [Ans. C]
The given system is
If system will h ve solution x y z
x y z
11. [Ans. A] x y z
iven M M → MM I Use Gauss elimination method as follows
Augmented matrix is
th th th

, | - [ | ] So, | |
→ [ | ] | |
(Taking 2 common from each row)

→ [ | ] ( )
nk ( )
nk ( | )
20. [Ans. D]
So, Rank (A) = Rank (A|B) = 2 < n (no. of
variables) 0 1 eigen v lues
17. ww
So, we have infinite number of solutions
[Ans. C]
Eigenve tor is
n
verify for oth
w. E
Suppose the Eigenvalue of matrix A is
( i )(s y) and the Eigenvector is
‘x’ where s the onjug te p ir of
21. [Ans. D]
We know that the Eigenvectors
asy
Eigenvalue and Eigenvector is ̅ n x̅.
So Ax = x … ①
corresponding to distinct Eigenvalues of
real symmetric matrix are orthogonal.
x y
En
and x̅ ̅x̅……②
king tr nspose of equ tion ②
x
x
y
[ ][ ] x y
y
x y x y
x̅
[( )
x̅
gi
x̅ ̅ … ③
x x̅ x ̅
n ̅ is s l r ] 22. [Ans. D]
nee
( )
In case of matrix PQ QP (generally)
x̅ x x̅ ̅x … , -
x̅ x x̅ ̅ x
(x̅ x) ̅ (x̅ x) ( ̅ re s l r )
CE
1.
r
[Ans. C] ing
̅
( x x̅ re Eigenve tors they nnot e zero )
If =
.ne
i.e. A is orthogonal, we can
only s y th t if is n Eigenv lue of
i
i
0
i
Hence Eigenvalue of a symmetric matrix

then
t
also will be an Eigenvalue of A,
which does not necessarily imply that
| | = 1 for all i.
are real 2. [Ans. A]
18. [Ans. C] In an over determined system having
We know that more equations than variables, it is
os x os x sin x necessary to have consistent unique
( ) os x sin x ( ) os x solution, by definition
Hence 1, 1 and 1 are coefficients. They
3. [Ans. A]
are linearly dependent.
With the given order we can say that
19. [Ans. A] order of matrices are as follows:
 3×4
| | Y  4×3
 3×3
th th th

( )  3×3 Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to

P 2×3 an upper triangular matrix to find its
 3×2 rank
P( )  (2×3) (3×3) (3×2)
[ | ]→ [ | ]
2×2
( ( ) )  2×2
→ [ | ]
4. [Ans. D]
The augmented matrix for given system is Now for infinite solution last row must be
completely zero
[ | ]→ [ | ] ie –2=0 n –7=0

ww
n
Then by Gauss elimination procedure
[ | ]→ [ | ] 8. [Ans. A]
w. E → [ | ]
Inverse of 0
0 1
1 is
0 1
asy
( ⁄ ) ∴0 1
( )
0 1
( )
( )
En
( ⁄ )
(
0
)
1
5.
system.
[Ans. B]
gi
∴ olution is non – existent for above
9.
nee
[Ans. B]
( ) P=( )P
∑ = Trace (A)
+ + = Trace (A)
= 2 + ( 1) + 0 = 1
=(
(
r )(
) (I) =
)
ing
Now = 3
∴3+ + =1
10. [Ans. B]
A=0 1 .ne

Only choice (B) satisfies this condition.
Characteristic equation of A is
| |=0
t
6. [Ans. B]  (4 )( 5 ) 2 × 5 =0
∑ = Trace (A)  + 30 = 0
+ + =1+5+1=7 6, 5
Now = 2, = 6
∴ 2+6+ =7 11. [Ans. D]
=3 The augmented matrix for given system is
x
7. [Ans. A] [ | ] 6y7 [ ]
k z
The augmented matrix for given system is
Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to
an upper triangular matrix to find its rank
[ | ]
th th th

17. [Ans. 16]

[ | ]→ M trix , - , - , -
k The product of matrix PQR is
→ , - , - , -
[ | ]
The minimum number of multiplications
involves in computing the matrix product
[ | ] PQR is 16
Now if k
18. [Ans. 23]
Rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 3
∴ Unique solution [ ][ ] [ ] [ ]
If k = 7, rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 2
ww
which is less than number of variables
∴ When K = 7, unique solution is not
possible and only infinite solution is
K JK , -[
, -
] , -
12.
w. E
possible
[Ans. A]
19. [Ans. A]
Sum of Eigenvalues
asy
= Sum of trace/main diagonal elements
A square matrix B is defined as skew- = 215 + 150 + 550
symmetric if and only if = B = 915
13. [Ans. D] En 20. [Ans. 88]
gi
By definition A +
is symmetri
is always symmetric
is lw ys skew symmetri
The determinant of matrix is
nee [ ]
14.
is skew symmetri
[Ans. B] r
→
ing
0 1 =( )
0 1
[
.ne ]
∴ 0
,(
i
i
i)(
i
i
i)
1
i -
0
i
i i
i
1
→
[ ]
t
i i
= 0 1
i i →
15. [Ans. B] [ ]
0 1
Sum of the Eigenvalues = 17 Interchanging Column 1& Column 2 and
Product of the Eigenvalues = taking transpose
From options, 3.48 + 13.53 = 17
(3.48)(13.53) = 47 [ ]
16. [Ans. 0.5]

| |
0.5
th th th

* ( ) ( )+ ( )( )
= ( )
= 1, 6
21. [Ans. 2] ∴ The Eigenvalues of A are 1 and 6
[ ]
3. [Ans. D]
→ Given that Fu =b and Fv =b
If F is non singular, then it has a unique
[ inverse.
( ) ( ) ( )
Now, u = b and v= b
] Since is unique, u = v but it is given
( ) ( ) th t u v his is contradiction. So F
ww
[ ]
must be singular. This means that
(A) Determinant of F is zero is true. Also
CS
w. E
( ) no. of non zero rows = 2
(B) There are infinite number of
solution to Fx= b is true since |F| = 0
(C) here is n su h the is
1.
asy
[Ans. B]
The augmented matrix for the given
also true, since X has infinite number
of solutions., including the X = 0
En
system is [ | ]
solution
(D) F must have 2 identical rows is false,
gi
Using elementary transformation on above
matrix we get,
nee
since a determinant may become
zero, even if two identical columns
are present. It is not necessary that 2
identical rows must be present for
[ | ]
4.
r|F| to become zero.
[Ans. C] ing
→ [ ⁄ |
⁄ ⁄
]
.ne
It is given that Eigenvalues of A is
5, 2, 1, 4
→
[ | ]
Let P = 0
I
I
1
Eigenvalues of P : |
I
tI|
Rank ([A B]) = 3 | |
I
Rank ([A]) = 3
( ) I
Since
I
Rank ([A B]) = Rank ([A]) = number of I
variables, the system has unique solution. Eigenvalue of P is
( 5 +1 ), ( 2+ 1), (1+ 1), (4+1 ),
2. [Ans. B] ( 5 1 ), ( 2 1 ),(1 1), (4 1)
0 1 = 4, 1, 2, 5, 6, 3,0,3
The characteristic equation of this matrix
5. [Ans. B]
is given by |x
X= {x x x +
| I|
= ,x x x - then,
| |
th th th

{ [1, 1, 0]T , [1,0, 1 ]T } is a linearly Only one matrix has an Eigenvalue of 1

independent set because one cannot be which is 0 1
obtained from another by scalar
Correct choice is (A)
multiplication. However (1, 1, 0) and
(1,0, 1) do not span X, since all such 8. [Ans. D]
combinations (x1, x2, x3) such that
x1+ x2+ x3 =0 cannot be expressed as | |
x y
linear combination of (1, 1,0) and ( )( y) x
(1,0, 1) When
( y) x
6. [Ans. D]
y x ( )
The augmented matrix for above system
When
ww
is
[ | ] → [ | ]
(
y
y)
x
x
( )
w. E
→ [ | ]
x
x
y
Solving (1) & (2)
y
asy
Now as long as – 5 0,
rank (A) =rank (A|B) =3
9. [Ans. A]
The Eigenvalues of a upper triangular
En
∴ can be any real value except 5. Closest
correct answer is (D).
matrix are given by its diagonal entries.
∴ Eigenvalues are 1, 4, 3 only
7. [Ans. A] gi
Eigenvalues of 0 1
10.
nee
[Ans. D]
0 1
Eigenvalues of 0
| =0
1
=0,1
r
Eigenvalues of the matrix (A) are the
ing
roots of the characteristic polynomial
given below.
| | =0 | |
.ne
=0
Eigenvalues of 0
| |= 0
= 0, 0
1
(
(
√
)(
)( )
)
t
( ) =0 Eigenvalues of A are √ n √
( ) respectively
= i or 1 So Eigenvalues of
= 1 –i or 1 + i (√ ) n ( √ )
Eigenvalues of 0 1 n
n
| | =0
√ n √
( )( ) =0
( ) =0
= –1, 1
th th th

11. [Ans. A] 15. [Ans. 6]

→ p q
Since 2 nd & 3rd columns have been
Let A =
swapped which introduces a –ve sign
Hence (A) is not equal to the problem [ ]
x
x
12. [Ans. 1]
Let X = x e eigen ve tor
x y x
x z [x ]
x y z By the definition of eigenvector, AX =
x y z x x
x x
ww ugmente m trix is [ ]
[
x
x
] [x ]
x
x
[x ]
w. E [ ]
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
→
→asy →
x
x
n x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
[ En ]
(I) If
x x x
s yx x
→ gi →
nee
x
x
(2) If
x
x
x
Eigenv lue
r
[ ] ∴ Three distinct eigenvalues are 0, 2, 3
→
16. [Ans. A] ing
Product of non zero eigenvalues = 2 × 3 = 6
[ ] .ne
If the trace or determinant of matrix is
positive then it is not necessary that all
( ) ( ) no of v ri
∴ nique solution exists
les
ECE
(D) are not correct t
eigenvalues are positive. So, option (B), (C),
13. [Ans. 0] 1. [Ans. C]

The Eigenvectors corresponding to distinct Since, , -
Eigenvalues of real symmetric matrix are
2. [Ans. A]
orthogonal
We know, =I
14. [Ans. 0] 0 16 7=0 1
[ ]
0 1 0 1
| | ( ) b 1
,  a
Or 2a 0.1b=0,  2a 
10 60
1 1 21 7
 a+b =   
3 60 60 20
th th th

3. [Ans. C] 8. [Ans. B]
0 1 Approach 1:
Given 4x + 2y =7
 (A I)=0 and 2x + y =6
 ( 4 ) (3 ) 2 4=0
4 2 x  7
 2 + 20=0  = 5, 4 2 1y   6
    
 x1 
Putting = 5, 0 1   =0 0 0 x  5
 x2  2 1y   6 
    
 x + 2x = 0 x = 2x
On comparing LHS and RHS
x x
 1= 2 0= 5, which is irrelevant and so no
2 1 solution.
ww
Hence, 0 1 is Eigenvector. Approach 2:
4x + 2y =7
4.
w. E
[Ans. C]
0 1 We know th t it is Eigenvalue
or 2x  y=
2x+y=6
7
2
asy
Then Eigenvector is x x
Verify the options (C) Since both the linear equation represent
parallel set of straight lines, therefore no
5. [Ans. A]
En solution exists.
Approach 3:
or m trix
We know
|
gi 0
|I A|=0
|
1 Rank (A)=1; rank (C)=2,
nee
As Rank (A)
solution exists.
rank (C) therefore no
 2 –I2 +32 =0
 = 4, 8 (Eigenvalues)
For = 4, ( I )=0 1
9.
r
[Ans. C]
ing
Matrix will be singular if any of the
Eigenvalues are zero.
v =0 1
|  |= 0
For = 0, P = 0 .ne
For
v =0
= 8, ( I
1
)=0 1  |p
p
 p p
p
p | =0
p p
t
10. [Ans. D]
6. [Ans. C] Approach1: Eigenvalues exists as complex
conjugate or real
[ ] Approach 2: Eigenvalues are given by
| | =0
[ ]
( )(( ) )=0
( )
 , j j
7. [Ans. C] 11. [Ans. C]

There are M non-zero, orthogonal vectors, Eigenvalue of skew – symmetric matrix is
so there is required M dimension to either zero or pure imaginary.
represent them ’
th th th

12. [Ans. B]
Given equations are x y z et of , - et of [ ]
x y z and x y z
If and ,
then x y z have Infinite solution
16. [Ans. D]
If and , then
Matrix multiplication is not commutative
x y z ( ) no solution
in general.
x y z
If n
17. [Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01
x y z will have solution
Let ‘ ’ e Eigenv lue of ‘ ’ hen ‘ ’ will
x y z
e Eigenv lue of ‘ ’
and will also give solution
13.
ww
[Ans. B]
A. =I=
Using Cauchey Hamilton Theorem,
w. E 0 1
Characteristic Equations is
18. [Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01
asy
By Cayley Hamilton theorem
I I
I J I J
∴
( En I) | |
14. [Ans. A]
gi
I
nee [ ]
→
[
(
]
)
19.
r
[Ans. *] Range 199 to 201
ing
From matrix properties we know that the
determinant of the product is equal to the
[ ] | |
product of the determinants.
.ne
That is if A and B are two matrix with
15.
| | Product of Eigenvalues = 0
∴ Minimum Eigenv lue h s to e ‘ ’
[Ans. B]
then | | | | | |
∴| | | | | |
t
determinant | | n | | respectively,
Let , - [ ] 20. [Ans. B]

→
[ ] [ ]
→
I I [ ] → [ ]
( ) ( | ) no of v r les
Infinitely many solutions
Then AB = [4]; BA [ ]
21. [Ans. B]
Here m = 1, n = 4
And et(I ) et(I ) onsi er 0 1
th th th

whi h is re l symmetri m trix

h r teristi equ tion is | I| =[ ]
( )
∴ Top row of =, -
∴ (not positive)
2. [Ans. D]
( ) is not true
Since matrix is triangular, the Eigenvalues
(A), (C), (D) are true using properties of
are the diagonal elements themselves
Eigenvalues
namely  = 3, 2 & 1.
Corresponding to Eigenvalue  = 2, let
22. [Ans. *] Range 48.9 to 49.1
us find the Eigenvector
Real symmetric matrices are diagnosable
Let the matrix be [A - ] x̂ = 0
ww 0
x
x
1 s tr e is
So determinant is product of diagonal
[ ][x ]
x
x
[ ]
w. E
entries
So | | x x
∴ M ximum v lue of etermin nt
Putting
[
x
in above equation we get,
][x ] [ ]
∴| | asyx x
5x x
x
Which gives the equations,
x =0 . . . . . (i)
EE En x =0
3x = 0
. . . . . (ii)
. . . . . (iii)
1. [Ans. B]
R= [
gi ]
Since eqa (ii) and (iii) are same we have
nee
5x
x =0
x x =0 . . . . . (i)
. . . . . (ii)
j( )
| |
, of tor( )-
| | r
Putting x = k, we get
ing
x = 0, x = k and 5x
x = k
k =0
| |=| |
.ne
∴ Eigenvectorss are of the form
x k
= 1(2 + 3) – 0(4 + 2) – 1 (6 – 2) = 1
Since we need only the top row of
need to find only first column of (R)
, we
which after transpose will become first

x
[ ] * k +
x
i.e. x x x = k : k : 0
t
row adj(A). = :1:0
cof. (1, 1) = + | |=2+3=5 =2:5:0
x
cof. (2, 1) = | |= 3 x
∴ [ ]=[ ] is an Eigenvector of matrix p.
x
cof. (2, 1) = + | |= +1
3. [Ans. A]
∴ cof. (A) = [ ] Rank [P|Q] = Rank [P] is necessary for
existence of at least one solution to
Adj (A) =, of ( )-
x q.
=[ ]
Dividing by |R| = 1 gives

th th th

4. [Ans. A] 
We need to find orthogonal vectors, verify  ( )
the options. i i
Option (A) is orthogonal vectors
8. [Ans. B]
( )( ) xy xy xx x n xy yx
xx xy x xy
Option (B), (C), (D) are not orthogonal | yx y y | |y x y |
x y (x y)
5. [Ans. B]
The vector ( ) is linearly = Positive when x and y are linearly
dependent upon the solution obtained in independent.
ww
Q. No. 4 namely , - and ,
We can easily verify the linearly
dependence as
- 9. [Ans. A]
A=0 1
|w. E |
|A – | = 0
|


| =0
6. asy
[Ans. B]
A will satisfy this equation according to
Cayley Hamilton theorem
hen n
x x
En n m trix
x x
x x x x
xx
x x
x x
i.e.
Multiplying by
I=0
on oth si es we get
*
gi
x x x x x x
Take x common from 1st row,
x common from 2nd row ……
+
10. nee
I
[Ans. A]
=0
I=0
x common from nth row.

It h s r nk ‘ ’ r
To calculate
Start from
derived above ing I = 0 which has
7. [Ans. D]
⃗
k
I
.ne
L(x) = |
= (x )
x x
(
x
|
) ⃗(
k x )
(
(
I)(
I)
I
I t I)
I
x
= x ⃗ =[
x k ]
x ( I)( I)
x
I
L(x) = M [x ]
x ( I) I
Comparing both , we get, I
M=[ ] ( I)
Hence Eigenvalue of M : | M | ( I)
I
| |
 ( ) ( )
th th th

11. [Ans. A] x
If rank of (5 6 ) matrix is 4,then surely x
* + *x + * +
it must have exactly 4 linearly x
independent rows as well as 4 linearly
independent columns.
Argument matrix C =* +
12. [Ans. D]
If characteristic equation is
→ , * +
   =0
Then by Cayley – Hamilton theorem,
I=0 nk ( ) nk( )
= Number of variables = 4
ww
Multiplying by
=
on both sides,
I = ( I)
Since, Rank (A) = Rank(C) < Number of
variables
Hence, system of equations are consistent
13.
w. E
[Ans. D]
Choice (A) = A is correct
and there is multiple non-trivial solution
exists.
Since
asy =A[(
= A[(
)
)
-A
-
17. [Ans. B]
Characteristic equation | I|
Put
Then A [ En
=P
] = A. = A | |
Choice (C)
=
=(
I
gi
)
=  is also correct since
nee
 (1 ) (

)( )
Eigenve tors orrespon ing to is

14. [Ans. B]
Let orthogonal matrix be
(
[
r I)
x
ing
] [x ] [ ]
.ne
os in
P=0 1 x
in os
By Property of orthogonal matrix A 2x x  x x
I
So, x⃗ = [
|| x⃗ || =
x os
x in
x in
x os
]
At x
x
At x
x
x
,x
 x x t
Eigenvectors = c[ ]{Here c is a constant}
√(x os x in ) (x in x os )
|| x⃗ || = √x x 18. [Ans. D]
, - ,L-, - ⟹ Options D is correct
|| x⃗ || = || x̅|| for any vector x̅
19. [Ans. D]
15. [Ans. C] x x … (i)
Trace = Sum of Principle diagonal } (i) n (ii) re s me
x x … (ii)
elements. ∴x x
So it has multiple solutions.
16. [Ans. D]
On writing the equation in the form of
AX =B
th th th

20. [Ans. D] |A I|= | |

Eigen value
i.e., (1 ) (2 )
2
Eigenvectors 0 1 n 0 1 Thus the Eigenvalue are 1, 2.
Let matrix 0 1 If x, y, be the component of Eigenvectors
corresponding to the Eigenv lues we
x x
have
0 10 1 0 1 x
[A- I- 0 1 0y1=0
0 10 1 0 1
For =1, we get the Eigenvector as 0 1
Hence, the answer will be , -
ww 2. [Ans. B]
0 w. E
Solving
1 0 1
AX=0 and (A) = 2
n=3
No. of linearly independent solutions
21. asy
[Ans. B]
= n r
= 3
En
Since there are 2 equations and 3 variables
(unknowns), there will be infinitely many
=1
x y
gi
solutions. If
z x y z
if
x z y
then
For any x and z, there will be a value of y.

∴ Infinitely many solutions
3. [Ans. C]
There are 3 non-zero rows and hence
nee
rank (A) = 3
22. [Ans. A]
For all real symmetric matrices, the
4.
r
[Ans. C]
ing
Rank (A) = 3 (This is Co-efficient matrix)
Rank (A:b) =4(This is Augmented matrix)
Eigenvalues are real (property), they may
be either ve or ve and also may be same.
s r nk( ) r nk (
not exist. .ne ) olution oes
23.
The sum of Eigenvalues necessarily not be
zero.
[Ans. C]
5. [Ans. C]
We know
t
Hen e from the given
p q problem, Eigenvalue & Eigenvector is
0 1 known.
r s
( pplying → p q 1 1
→r s element ry tr nsform tions) X1    , X2  2 , 1  1, 2  2
p q pr qs 1  
[ ] We also know that , where
pr qs r s
∴ hey h ve s me r nk N 1 1
P  X1 X2    
1 2
IN
1 0  1 0 
1. [Ans. B] & D=   
 0 2   0 2
Given: 0 1
Hence
Characteristic equation is,
th th th

 1 1  1 0   2 1  12. [Ans. A]

A       A=[ ]
1 2  0 2 1 1
i if i j
6. [Ans. B] = 0 otherwise.
For n n matrix
A= [ ]=[ ]
A=[ ]
Using elementary transformation
n
[ ] For diagonal matrix Eigenvalues are
diagonal elements itself.
Hence, rank (A) =1 n(n )
∴ n
7.
ww
[Ans. B]
Given I 13. [Ans. B]
w. E
Hence rank (A) = n
Hence AX= Y will have unique solution
If AX = →
From this result [1, 2,
for M
- is also vector
8.
asy
[Ans. C]
14. [Ans. B]
9. [Ans. C]
En
Approach 1:
Dim of null space [A]= nullity of A.
Assume,
∴A (
gi I)
0
(
1
I)
I 0 1
For given A = [
nee
Apply row operations
]
0
0
10
1 0
1
1
0 1 r
→
[
[ ing
]
]
Now | I
|
|
| .ne
(
Approach 2:
)( )=0
→
∴ ( )
[
By rank – nullity theorem

t ]
Eigenvalues of ( I) is = 1, 1/2 Rank [A]+ nullity [A]= no. of columns[A]

Eigenvalues of (X+5I) is = 3, 2 Nullity [A]= 3
Eigenvalues of ( I) (X+5I) is = , ∴ Nullity , -
10. [Ans. D] 15. [Ans. A]

A=| |
11. [Ans. C]
A null matrix can be obtained by Characteristics equation | I|
multiplying either with one null matrix or | |
two singular matrices.
j
j
th th th

j x
[ ] 0x 1 0 1
j
x
x j
j
j x
[ ] 0x 1 0 1
j
x j
x
16. [Ans. C]
A[ ]=[ ]
ww
→| | | | | |
w. E
→| |
(
asy | |
En | | two rows ounter lose thus | |
gi
| |)
=Product of eigenvalues nee

Verify options
Options (C) correct answer r ing
.ne
t
th th th

Probability and Distribution
ME - 2005 ME - 2008
1. A single die is thrown twice. What is the 6. A coin is tossed 4 times. What is the
probability that the sum is neither 8 nor probability of getting heads exactly 3
9? times?
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄ (B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
2. A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items ME - 2009

are chosen randomly from this lot. The 7. The standard deviation of a uniformly
probability that exactly 2 of the chosen distributed random variable between 0
ww
items are defective is
(A) 0.0036
(B) 0.1937
(C) 0.2234
(D) 0.3874
and 1 is
(A) √ (C) ⁄√
w. E
(B) √ (D) √
ME - 2006 8. If three coins are tossed simultaneously,
3. Consider a continuous random variable the probability of getting at least one head
asy
with probability density function
f(t) = 1 + t for 1  t  0
is
(A) 1/8 (C) 1/2
En
= 1 t for 0  t  1
The standard deviation of the random
ME - 2010
(B) 3/8 (D) 7/8
(A) ⁄√
(B) ⁄√
gi
variable is:
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
9. A box contains 2 washers, 3 nuts and 4
nee
bolts. Items are drawn from the box at
random one at a time without
4. A box contains 20 defective items and 80
non-defective items. If two items are
selected at random without replacement,
r
replacement. The probability of drawing
ing
2 washers first followed by 3 nuts and
subsequently the 4 bolts is
what will be the probability that both
items are defective?
(A) 2/315
(B) 1/630
.ne
(C) 1/1260
(D) 1/2520
(A) ⁄
(B)
ME - 2007
⁄
(C)
(D)
⁄
⁄
ME - 2011
t
10. An unbiased coin is tossed five times. The
outcome of each toss is either a head or a
5. Let X and Y be two independent random tail. The probability of getting at least one
variables. Which one of the relations head is________
between expectation (E), variance (Var) (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
and covariance (Cov) given below is
FALSE? ME - 2012
(A) E (XY) = E (X) E (Y) 11. A box contains 4 red balls and 6 black
(B) Cov (X, Y) = 0 balls. Three balls are selected randomly
(C) Var (X + Y) = Var (X) + Var (Y) from the box one after another, without
(D) (X Y ) ( (X)) ( (Y)) replacement. The probability that the
selected set has one red ball and two
black balls is
(A) 1/20 (C) 3/10
(B) 1/12 (D) 1/2
th th th

ME - 2013 the probability of obtaining red colour on

12. Let X be a normal random variable with top face of the dice at least twice is _______
mean 1 and variance 4. The probability
(X ) is 17. A group consists of equal number of men
(A) 0.5 and women. Of this group 20% of the men
(B) Greater than zero and less than 0.5 and 50% of the women are unemployed.
(C) Greater than 0.5 and less than 1.0 If a person is selected at random from this
(D) 1.0 group, the probability of the selected
person being employed is _______
13. The probability that a student knows the
correct answer to a multiple choice 18. A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective
question is . If the student dose not know pieces in a day with associated
ww
the answer, then the student guesses the
answer. The probability of the guessed
probability of 1/6, 2/3 and 1/6,
respectively. The mean value and the
w. E
answer being correct is . Given that the
student has answered the questions
variance of the number of defective pieces
produced by the machine in a day,
respectively, are
asy
correctly, the conditional probability that
the student knows the correct answer is
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(A) 1 and 1/3
(B) 1/3 and 1
(C) 1 and 4/3
(D) 1/3 and 4/3
(B) ⁄
En (D) ⁄ 19. A nationalized bank has found that the
daily balance available in its savings
ME - 2014
gi
14. In the following table x is a discrete
random variable and P(x) is the
accounts follows a normal distribution
nee
with a mean of Rs. 500 and a standard
deviation of Rs. 50. The percentage of
r
probability density. The standard savings account holders, who maintain an
deviation of x is
x 1 2 3 is _______ ing
average daily balance more than Rs. 500
P(x) 0.3 0.6 0.1

(A) 0.18 (C) 0.54 20. .ne
The number of accidents occurring in a
15.
(B) 0.3 (D) 0.6
Box contains 25 parts of which 10 are

defective. Two parts are being drawn
t
plant in a month follows Poisson
distribution with mean as 5.2. The
probability of occurrence of less than 2
accidents in the plant during a randomly
simultaneously in a random manner from selected month is
the box. The probability of both the parts
(A) 0.029 (C) 0.039
being good is (B) 0.034 (D) 0.044
( ) ( )
CE - 2005
( ) ( ) 1. Which one of the following statements is
NOT true?
16. Consider an unbiased cubic dice with (A) The measure of skewness is
opposite faces coloured identically and dependent upon the amount of
each face coloured red, blue or green such dispersion
that each colour appears only two times
on the dice. If the dice is thrown thrice,
th th th

(B) In a symmetric distribution the value CE - 2008

of mean, mode and median are the 5. If probability density function of a random
same variable x is
(C) In a positively skewed distribution x for x nd
f(x) {
mean > median > mode for ny other v lue of x
(D) In a negatively skewed distribution Then, the percentage probability
mode > mean > median P. x / is
(A) 0.247 (C) 24.7
CE - 2006 (B) 2.47 (D) 247
2. A class of first years B. Tech students is
composed of four batches A, B, C and D 6. A person on a trip has a choice between
each consisting of 30 students. It is found private car and public transport. The
wwthat the sessional marks of students in

Engineering Drawing in batch C have a
probability of using a private car is 0.45.
While using the public transport, further
w. E
mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of 2.3.
The mean and standard deviation of the
marks for the entire class are 5.5 and 4.2
choices available are bus and metro out of
which the probability of commuting by a
bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the
asy
respectively. It is decided by the course
instruction to normalize the marks of the
probability, (rounded upto two decimals)
of using a car, bus and metro, respectively
En
students of all batches to have the same
mean and standard deviation as that of
would be
(A) 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25
to
(A) 6.0
gi
the entire class. Due to this, the marks of a
student in batch C are changed from 8.5
(C) 8.0
(B) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.30
(C) 0.45, 0.55 and 0.00
nee
(D) 0.45, 0.35 and 0.20
3.
(B) 7.0 (D) 9.0
There are 25 calculators in a box. Two of

CE - 2009
7. r ing
The standard normal probability function
can be approximated as
them are defective. Suppose 5 calculators
are randomly picked for inspection (i.e. (x )
exp( .ne |x | )
each has the same chance of being
selected). What is the probability that
only one of the defective calculators will
be included in the inspection?
t
Where x = standard normal deviate. If
mean and standard deviation of annual
precipitation are 102 cm and 27 cm
respectively, the probability that the
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ annual precipitation will be between
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
90 cm and 102 cm is
(A) 66.7% (C) 33.3%
CE - 2007
(B) 50.0% (D) 16.7%
4. If the standard deviation of the spot speed
of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and CE - 2010
the mean speed of the vehicles is 8. Two coins are simultaneously tossed. The
33 kmph, the coefficient of variation in probability of two heads simultaneously
speed is appearing is
(A) 0.1517 (C) 0.2666 (A) 1/8 (C) 1/4
(B) 0.1867 (D) 0.3646 (B) 1/6 (D) 1/2
th th th

CE - 2011 14. A traffic office imposes on an average 5

9. There are two containers with one number of penalties daily on traffic
containing 4 red and 3 green balls and the violators. Assume that the number of
other containing 3 blue and 4 green balls. penalties on different days is independent
One ball is drawn at random from each and follows a poisson distribution. The
container. The probability that one of the probability that there will be less than 4
balls is red and the other is blue will be penalties in a day is ____.
(A) 1/7 (C) 12/49
(B) 9/49 (D) 3/7 15. A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four
times in succession and resulted in the
CE - 2012 following outcomes:
10. The annual precipitation data of a city is (i) Head (iii) Head
ww
normally distributed with mean and
standard deviation as 1000mm and
200 mm, respectively. The probability
(ii) Head (iv) Head
The prob bility of obt ining ‘T il’ when
the coin is tossed again is
w. E
that the annual precipitation will be more
than 1200 mm is
(A) 0
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
asy
(A) < 50 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 100 % 16. An observer counts 240 veh/h at a
specific highway location. Assume that
11.
En
In an experiment, positive and negative
values are equally likely to occur. The
the vehicle arrival at the location is
Poisson distributed, the probability of
gi
probability of obtaining at most one
negative value in five trials is
(A) (C)
having one vehicle arriving over a
nee
30-second time interval is ____________
CS - 2005
(B)
CE - 2013
(D)
1.
r ing
Box P has 2 red balls and 3 blue balls and
box Q has 3 red balls and 1 blue ball. A
12. Find the value of such that the function

f(x) is a valid probability density function .ne
ball is selected as follows: (i) select a box
(ii) choose a ball from the selected box
____________________
f(x) (x )( x) for x
otherwise
t
such that each ball in the box is equally
likely to be chosen. The probabilities of
selecting boxes P and Q are 1/3 and 2/3
respectively. Given that a ball selected in
CE - 2014 the above process is red, the probability
13. The probability density function of that it comes from box P is
evaporation E on any day during a year in (A) 4/19 (C) 2/9
a watershed is given by (B) 5/19 (D) 19/30
f( ) { mm d y 2. Let f(x) be the continuous probability

otherwise density function of a random variable X.
The probability that E lies in between 2 The probability that a  X  b , is
and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed (A) f(b a) (C) ∫ f(x)dx
is (in decimal) ______
(B) f(b) f( ) (D) ∫ x f(x)dx
th th th

CS - 2006 CS - 2008
3. For each element in a set of size 2n, an 7. Let X be a random variable following
unbiased coin is tossed. The 2n coin normal distribution with mean +1 and
tosses are independent. An element is variance 4. Let Y be another normal
chosen if the corresponding coin toss variable with mean of 1 and variance
were head. The probability that exactly n unknown If (X ) (Y≥ ) the
elements are chosen is standard deviation of Y is
(A) ( n ⁄ ) (C) ( ⁄ n ) (A) 3 (C) √
(B) ( n ⁄ ) (D) ⁄ (B) 2 (D) 1
8. Aishwarya studies either computer

CS - 2007
science or mathematics every day. If she
Linked Data for Q4 & Q5 are given below.
wwSolve the problems and choose the correct

answers.
studies computer science on a day, then
the probability that she studies
mathematics the next day is 0.6. If she
w. E
Suppose that robot is placed on the
Cartesian plane. At each step it is easy to
move either one unit up or one unit right,
studies mathematics on a day, then the
probability that she studies computer
science the next day is 0.4. Given that
asy
i.e if it is at (i,j) then it can move to either
(i+1,j) or (i,j+1)
Aishwarya studies computer science on
Monday, what is the probability that she
4.
En
How many distinct paths are there for the
robot to reach the point (10,10) starting
studies computer science on Wednesday?
(A) 0.24 (C) 0.4
(A)
(B) 2
gi
from the initial position (0,0)?
20
(C) 210
(D) None of these CS - 2009
9.
(B) 0.36
nee
(D) 0.6
An unbalanced dice (with 6 faces,

5. Suppose that the robot is not allowed to
traverse the line segment from (4,4) to
(5,4). With this constraint, how many r
numbered from 1 to 6) is thrown. The
ing
probability that the face value is odd is
90% of the probability that the face value
distinct paths are there for the robot to
reach (10,10) starting from (0,0)?
.ne
is even. The probability of getting any
even numbered face is the same. If the
(A) 29
(B) 219
(C) . / . /
t
probability that the face is even given that
it is greater than 3 is 0.75, which one of
the following options is closest to the
probability that the face value exceeds 3?
(D) . / . / . /
(A) 0.453 (C) 0.485
6. Suppose we uniformly and randomly (B) 0.468 (D) 0.492
select a permutation from the 20! CS - 2010
ermut tions of ………… Wh t is 10. Consider a company that assembles
the probability that 2 appears at an computers. The probability of a faulty
earlier position than any other even assembly of any computer is p. The
number in the selected permutation? company therefore subjects each
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ computer to a testing process. This
(B) ⁄ (D) none of these testing process gives the correct result for
any computer with a probability of q.
What is the probability of a computer
being declared faulty?
th th th

(A) pq+(1 – p)(1 – q) 15. If two fair coins flipped and at least one of
(B) (1 – q)p the outcomes is known to be a head, what
(C) (1 – p)q is the probability that both outcomes are
(D) pq heads?
(A) 1/3 (C) 1/4
11. What is the probability that a divisor of (B) 1/2 (D) 2/3
is a multiple of ?
(A) 1/625 (C) 12/625 CS - 2012
(B) 4/625 (D) 16/625 16. Suppose a fair six – sided die is rolled
once. If the value on the die is 1,2, or 3 the
12. If the difference between the expectation
die is rolled a second time. What is the
of the square if a random variable ( ,x -)
probability that the some total of value
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and the square if the exopectation of the
that turn up is at least 6?
random variable ( ,x-) is denoted by R,
(A) 10/21 (C) 2/3
then (B) 5/12 (D) 1/6
w. E
(A) R = 0
(B) R< 0
(C) R≥
(D) R > 0 17. Consider a random variable X that takes
values +1 and 1 with probability 0.5
CS - 2011
asy
13. A deck of 5 cards (each carrying a distinct
number from 1 to 5) is shuffled
each. The values of the cumulative
distribution function F(x) at x = and
En
thoroughly. Two cards are then removed
one at a time from the deck. What is the
+1 are
(A) 0 and 0.5 (C) 0.5 and 1
gi
probability that the two cards are
selected with the number on the first card
being one higher than the number on the
(B) 0 and 1
nee
CS - 2013
(D) 0.25 and 0.75
18. Suppose p is the number of cars per

second card?
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄ r ing
minute passing through a certain road
junction between 5 PM and 6 PM, and p
has a Poisson distribution with mean 3.
14. Consider a finite sequence of random
values X = [x1, x2 … xn].Let be the .ne
What is the probability of observing
fewer than 3 cars during any given
me n nd σx be the standard deviation of
X. Let another finite sequence Y of equal
length be derived from this as yi, a*xi+b,
minute in this interval?
(A) ⁄ e
(B) ⁄ e
(C)
(D)
t
⁄ e
⁄ e
where a and b are positive constants. Let
μy be the me n nd σy be the standard CS - 2014
deviation of this sequence. Which one of 19. Suppose you break a stick of unit length
the following statements is INCORRECT? at a point chosen uniformly at random.
(A) Index position of mode of X in X is Then the expected length of the shorter
the same as the index position of stick is ________ .
mode of Y in Y.
(B) Index position of median of X in X is 20. Four fair six – sided dice are rolled. The
the same as the index position of probability that the sum of the results
median of Y in Y. being 22 is x/1296. The value of x is
(C) μy μx + b ____________
(D) σy σx + b
th th th

21. The security system at an IT office is ECE - 2006

composed of 10 computers of which 3. A probability density function is of the
exactly four are working. To check form (x) e || x ( ).
whether the system is functional, the The value of K is
officials inspect four of the computers (A) 0.5 (C) 0.5a
picked at random (without replacement). (B) 1 (D) A
The system is deemed functional if at
least three of the four computers 4. Three Companies X, Y and Z supply
inspected are working. Let the computers to a university. The percentage
probability that the system is deemed of computers supplied by them and the
functional be denoted by p. Then 100p = probability of those being defective are
_____________. tabulated below
22.
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Each of the nine words in the sentence
“The quick brown fox jumps over the l zy
Company % of
computers
Probability
of being
w. E
supplied defective
dog” is written on sep r te piece of X 60% 0.01
paper. These nine pieces of paper are kept Y 30% 0.02
asy
in a box. One of the pieces is drawn at
random from the box. The expected
length of the word drawn is _____________.
Z 10% 0.03
Given that a computer is defective, the
En
(The answer should be rounded to one
decimal place.)
probability that it was supplied by Y is
(A) 0.1 (C) 0.3
23. gi
The probability that a given positive
integer lying between 1 and 100 (both
ECE - 2007
5.
(B) 0.2
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(D) 0.4
If E denotes expectation, the variance of a

inclusive) is NOT divisible by 2, 3 or 5 is
24.
__________.
Let S be a sample space and two mutually

r
random variable X is given by
(A) E[X2] E2[X]
(B) E[X2] + E2[X] ing
(C) E[X2]
(D) E2[X]
exclusive events A and B be such that
∪ S If ( ) denotes the prob bility
6.
.ne
An examination consists of two papers,
of the event, the maximum value of

P(A) P(B) is _______
ECE - 2005
t
Paper1 and Paper2. The probability of
failing in Paper1 is 0.3 and that in Paper2
is 0.2.Given that a student has failed in
Paper2, the probability of failing in
1. A fair dice is rolled twice. The probability paper1 is 0.6. The probability of a student
that an odd number will follow an even failing in both the papers is
number is (A) 0.5 (C) 0.12
(B) 0.18 (D) 0.06
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
2. The value of the integral

1   x2 
2 0
I exp  dx is
 8
(A) 1 (C) 2
(B) (D)
th th th

ECE - 2008 8. (x) exp( |x|) exp( |x|) is

7. The probability density function (PDF) of the probability density function for the
a random variable X is as shown below. real random variable X, over the entire x
PDF axis. M and N are both positive real
1 PDF
numbers. The equation relating M and N
is
(A) 1
1 0 x (B) 2M N=1
11
The -1
corresponding
0
cumulative (C) M + N = 1
distribution function (CDF) has the form (D) M + N = 3
ww (A)
1
CDF ECE - 2009
9. Consider two independent random
variables X and Y with identical
w. E x distributions. The variables X and Y take

value 0, 1 and 2 with probabilities
asy 1 0 1 x
and respectively. What is the
conditional probability
(B)
En 1 CD
C
F
(x y
(A) 0
|x y| )
(C) ⁄
gi
D
F (B) ⁄ (D) 1
1
10.
nee
A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What is the
probability that ONLY the first two tosses
1 0
1 x r
will yield heads?
1
(A)  
2
ing 1
(C)  
10
 2
.ne  2
-1
0 CDF 1
(C) 1 0 2 10
1 1
t
10 10
(B) C2   (D) C2  
 2  2
11. A discrete random variable X takes values

x from 1 to 5 with probabilities as shown in
0 1 the table. A student calculates the mean of
1
X as 3.5 and her teacher calculates the
variance of X as 1.5. Which of the
(D) CDF following statements is true?
1
k P(X=k)
1
1 0.1
0 1 x 2 0.2
1
0 1 3 0.4
1 4 0.2
5 0.1
th th th

(A) Both the student and the teacher are (C) ( (x) (x)) x
right (D) ( (x) (x)) x ≥
(B) Both the student and the teacher are
wrong ECE - 2014
(C) The student is wrong but the teacher 17. In a housing society, half of the families
is right have a single child per family, while the
(D) The student is right but the teacher is remaining half have two children per
wrong family. The probability that a child picked
at random, has a sibling is _____
ECE - 2010
12. A fair coin is tossed independently four 18. Let X X nd X , be independent and
times. The prob bility of the event “the identically distributed random variables
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number of times heads show up is more
th n the number of times t ils show up” is
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
The probability P{X is the largest} is _____
w. E
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
19. Let X be a random variable which is
uniformly chosen from the set of positive
ECE - 2011
asy
13. A fair dice is tossed two times. The
probability that the second toss results in
odd numbers less than 100. The
expectation, E[X], is __________.
(A) 2/36 En
a value that is higher than the first toss is
(C) 5/12
20. An unbiased coin is tossed an infinite
(B) 2/6
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
gi (D) 1/2
number of times. The probability that the
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fourth head appears at the tenth toss is
(A) 0.067
(B) 0.073
(C) 0.082
(D) 0.091
14. A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for
the first time probability that the number
of required tosses is odd , is
21.
r ing
A fair coin is tossed repeatedly till both
head and tail appear at least once. The
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/2
(C) 2/3
(D) 3/4 _______.
.ne
average number of tosses required is
ECE - 2013
15. Let U and V be two independent zero
mean Gaussian random variables of
22.
t
Let X X and X be independent and
identically distributed random variables
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
variances ⁄ and ⁄ respectively. The The probability P{X X X } is ______.
probability ( V ≥ U) is
23. Let X be a zero mean unit variance
(A) 4/9 (C) 2/3
Gaussian random variable. ,|x|- is equal
(B) 1/2 (D) 5/9
to __________
16. Consider two identically distributed zero-
24. Parcels from sender S to receiver R pass
mean random variables U and V . Let the
sequentially through two post-offices.
cumulative distribution functions of U
Each post-office has a probability of
and 2V be F(x) and G(x) respectively.
Then, for all values of x losing an incoming parcel, independently
(A) ( (x) (x)) of all other parcels. Given that a parcel is
lost, the probability that it was lost by the
(B) ( (x) (x)) ≥
second post-office is ____________.
th th th

EE - 2005 EE - 2008
1. If P and Q are two random events, then 5. X is a uniformly distributed random
the following is TRUE variable that takes values between 0 and
(A) Independence of P and Q implies that 1. The value of E{X } will be
probability (P Q) = 0 (A) 0 (C) 1/4
(B) Probability (P ∪ Q)≥ Probability (P) (B) 1/8 (D) 1/2
+Probability (Q)
EE - 2009
(C) If P and Q are mutually exclusive,
6. Assume for simplicity that N people, all
then they must be independent
born in April (a month of 30 days), are
(D) Probability (P Q) Probability (P)
collected in a room. Consider the event of
2. A fair coin is tossed three times in atleast two people in the room being born
ww
succession. If the first toss produces a
head, then the probability of getting
on the same date of the month, even if in
different years, e.g. 1980 and 1985. What
is the smallest N so that the probability of
w. E
exactly two heads in three tosses is
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
this event exceeds 0.5?
(A) 20
(B) 7
(C) 15
(D) 16
EE - 2006
3. asy
Two f ir dice re rolled nd the sum “ r ” EE - 2010
En
of the numbers turned up is considered
(A) Pr (r > 6) =
7. A box contains 4 white balls and 3 red
balls. In succession, two balls are
gi
(B) Pr (r/3 is an integer) =
(C) Pr (r = 8|r/4 is an integer) =
randomly selected and removed from the
nee
box. Given that the first removed ball is
white, the probability that the second
removed ball is red is
(D) Pr (r = 6|r/5 is an integer) =
EE - 2007
r
(A) 1/3
(B) 3/7
ing
(C) 1/2
(D) 4/7
4. A loaded dice has following probability

distribution of occurrences
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
8. .ne
Two independent random variables X and
Dice Value
1
2
Probability
⁄
⁄
, t
Y are uniformly distributed in the interval
-. The probability that max ,
less than 1/2 is
- is
3 ⁄ (A) 3/4 (C) 1/4

(B) 9/16 (D) 2/3
4 ⁄
5 ⁄ EE - 2013
6 ⁄ 9. A continuous random variable x has a
If three identical dice as the above are probability density function
thrown, the probability of occurrence of f(x) e x . Then *x + is
values, 1, 5 and 6 on the three dice is (A) 0.368 (C) 0.632
(A) same as that of occurrence of 3, 4, 5 (B) 0.5 (D) 1.0
(B) same as that of occurrence of 1, 2, 5
(C) 1/128
(D) 5/8
th th th

EE - 2014 IN - 2005
10. A fair coin is tossed n times. The 1. The probability that there are 53 Sundays
probability that the difference between in a randomly chosen leap year is
the number of heads and tails is (n – 3) is (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(A) (C) (B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
(B) (D)
2. A mass of 10 kg is measured with an
11. Consider a dice with the property that the instrument and the readings are normally
probability of a face with n dots showing distributed with respect to the mean of
up is proportional to n. The probability of 10 kg. Given that
the face with three dots showing up is ∫ exp . / d =0.6
√
_______________ and that 60per cent of the readings are
12.
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Let x be a random variable with
probability density function
found to be within 0.05 kg from the mean,
the standard deviation of the data is
w. E
f(x) {
for |x|
for |x|
otherwise 3.
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.04
(C) 0.06
(D) 0.08
The measurements of a source voltage are
asy
The probability P(0.5 < x < 5) is_________ 5.9V, 5.7V and 6.1V. The sample standard
deviation of the readings is
13.
En
Lifetime of an electric bulb is a random
variable with density f(x) kx , where x
(A) 0.013
(B) 0.04
(C) 0.115
(D) 0.2
gi
is measured in years. If the minimum and
maximum lifetimes of bulb are 1 and 2
years respectively, then the value of k
is__________
IN - 2006
4.
nee
You have gone to a cyber-cafe with a
friend. You found that the cyber-café has
14. The mean thickness and variance of

silicon steel laminations are 0.2 mm and
r
only three terminals. All terminals are
ing
unoccupied. You and your friend have to
make a random choice of selecting a
0.02 respectively. The varnish insulation
is applied on both the sides of the .ne
terminal. What is the probability that
both of you will NOT select the same
laminations. The mean thickness of one
side insulation and its variance are
0.1 mm and 0.01 respectively. If the
terminal?
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) 1
t
transformer core is made using 100 such
5. Probability density function p(x) of a
varnish coated laminations, the mean
random variable x is as shown below. The
thickness and variance of the core
value of  is
respectively are
p(x)
(A) 30 mm and 0.22
(B) 30 mm and 2.44
(C) 40 mm and 2.44 α
(D) 40 mm and 0.24
0 α α b α c
(A) c (C)
( )
(B) c (D)
( )
th th th

6. Two dices are rolled simultaneously. The measurements, it can be expected that the
probability that the sum of digits on the number of measurement more than 10.15
top surface of the two dices is even is mm will be
(A) 0.5 (C) 0.167 (A) 230 (C) 15
(B) 0.25 (D) 0.125 (B) 115 (D) 2
IN - 2007 IN - 2011
7. Assume that the duration in minutes of a 12. The box 1 contains chips numbered 3, 6,
telephone conversation follows the 9, 12 and 15. The box 2 contains chips
exponential distribution f(x) = e ,x≥ numbered 6, 11, 16, 21 and 26. Two chips,
one from each box, are drawn at random.
The probability that the conversation will
The numbers written on these chips are
exceed five minutes is
ww
(A)
(B)
e
e
(C)
(D) e
multiplied. The probability for the
product to be an even number is
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
w. E
IN - 2008
8. Consider a Gaussian distributed random
(B) ⁄
IN - 2013
(D) ⁄
asy
variable with zero mean and standard
deviation . The value of its cummulative
13. A continuous random variable X has
probability density f(x) = .
(A) 0 En
distribution function at the origin will be
(C) 1
Then P(X > 1) is
(A) 0.368 (C) 0.632
9.
(B) 0.5
gi (D)
A random variable is uniformly

σ
distributed over the interval 2 to 10. Its

(B) 0.5
nee
IN - 2014
(D) 1.0
14. Given that x is a random variable in the

variance will be
(A)
(B) 6
⁄ (C)
(D) 36
⁄ r
r nge , - with
function ing
prob bility density
the value of the constant k is
IN - 2009
___________________
.ne
10. A screening test is carried out to detect a
certain disease. It is found that 12% of the
positive reports and 15% of the negative
15.
t
The figure shows the schematic of
production process with machines A,B
and C. An input job needs to be pre-
reports are incorrect. Assuming that the processed either by A or by B before it is
probability of a person getting a positive fed to C, from which the final finished
report is 0.01, the probability that a product comes out. The probabilities of
person tested gets an incorrect report is failure of the machines are given as:
(A) 0.0027 (C) 0.1497
(B) 0.0173 (D) 0.2100
IN - 2010
11. The diameters of 10000 ball bearings
were measured. The mean diameter and Assuming independence of failures of the
standard deviation were found to be machines, the probability that a given job
10 mm and 0.05mm respectively. is successfully processed (up to third
Assuming Gaussian distribution of decimal place)is ______________
th th th

ME 4. [Ans. D]
1. [Ans. D] ( oth defective)
( oth defective)
The number of ways coming 8 and 9 are S mple sp ce
(2,6),(3,5),(4,4),(5,3),(6,2),(3,6),(4,5),
(5,4),(6,3)
Total ways =9
So Probability of coming 8 and 9 are 5. [Ans. D]
X and Y are independent
∴ ( ) ( ) ( ) re true
So probability of not coming these
ww 6.
Only (D) is odd one
[Ans. A]
2.
w. E
[Ans. B]
Probability of defective item =
Number of favourable cases are given by
HHHT
HHTH
asy
Probability of not defective item = 1 0.1
= 0.9
HTHH
THHH
En
So, Probability that exactly 2 of the
chosen items are defective
Total number of cases
= 2C1 2C1 2C1 2C1 =16
3.
=
[Ans. B]
gi
( ) ( )
7.
∴ Probability =
nee
[Ans. A]
Mean (t)̅ = ∫ t f(t) dt
∫ t( t)dt ∫ t( t)dt r
A uniform
function
distribution
ing
0,x  a
and density
6
t t
7 6
t t
7
x x  a

f(x)   f  x dx  
b  a .ne
, axb
t
0

0, xb
[ ] [ ]
Density function
 1 a,x  b

f(x)   b  a
Variance = ∫ t f(t)dt  0 a  x,x  b
=∫ t ( t)dt ∫ t ( t)dt b
ab
=∫ (t t )dt ∫ t ( t)dt
 Mean E(x)= x(F(x)) 
x a 2
 Variance = F(x)2  f(x)
2
=0 1 0 1
2
b
b 
 x F(x)  xF(x)
= 2
Standard deviation = √v ri nce x a  x a 

= Put the value of F(x), we get
√ 2
1
b
b 1 
Variance  x dx  x.
2
dx 
x a ba  x a b  a 
th th th

b 2 3
 x3   xL  1 7
     (3  3  1)  
3(b  a) a  2 b  a    2 8
b3  a3 (b2  a2 )2
 
3(b  a) 4 b  a 2 9. [Ans. C]
Probability of drawing 2 washers, first
(b  a)(b2  ab  a2 ) (b  a)2(b  a)2 followed by 3 nuts, and subsequently the
 
3(b  a) 4 b  a
2
4 bolts
4b2  4ab  4a2  3a2  3b2  6ab

12
b2  a2  2ab
 10. [Ans. D]
ww
12
(b  a)2
12
Required probability = . / . /
w. E
Standard deviation = √v ri nce

(b  a)2 11. [Ans. D]

asy
12
(b  a)
Given 4R and 6B
, -
12
En
Given: b=1, a=0
gi
 Standard deviation =
10
12

1
12
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8. [Ans. D]
Let probability of getting atleast one head
= P(H) then
12.
r
[Ans. C]
ing
P (at least one head) = 1 P(no head)
 P(H)=1 P(all tails) .ne
But in all cases, 23=8
 P (H) = 1  
1 7
8 8
X=0
Below X
X=1
(X ) is
t
Alternately (X ) has to be less than 0.5 but
Probability of getting at least one head greater than zero
( ) ( )
13. [Ans. D]
1 7 A event that he knows the correct
1  
8 8 answer
Alternately B event that student answered
From Binomial theorem correctly the question P(B) = ?
Probability of getting at least one head ( ) ( )
pq
( ) ( ) ( )
th th th

( ) No. of employed men = 80% of men = 80

No. of employed women
⏟ ⏟
= 50% of women = 50
he knows e does not know Probability if the selected one person
correct nswer correct nswer being employed
so he guesses = probability of one employed women
+probability of one employed man
( ) ( ) ( ⁄ )
( ) ⁄
( ⁄ )
( ) ⁄ 18. [Ans. A]
14.
ww
[Ans. D]
w. E
x
P(x) 0.3
1 2
0.6
3
0.1
(x)
asy
(x)
x (x)
So from figure
x (x)
En Mean value = 1
V ri nce : μ me n x defective pieces
(
gi
V(x)
x
(x )
(x) ( x (x))
) ( )
, (x)- σ
nee
(
(x μ)
n(n
) (
)
(
) (
)
)
15.
σ
[Ans. A]
√
r( )
ing
19.
.ne
[Ans. *](Range 49 to 51)
16. [Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.27

t
p
orm l distribution
q Given that μ σ
Using Binomial distribution x μ x
z
σ
(x ≥ ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ere x μ , s x gre ter th n -
z
ence prob bility (z )
∫ e dz
17. [Ans. *] Range 0.64 to 0.66 σ√
Let number of men = 100 ∴ of s ving ccount holder
Number of women = 100
th th th

20. [Ans. B] 25 Calculators

Mean m = np = 5.2
me m 2 Defective 23 Non-defective
(x ) e
e
e 5 Calculators
(x )
1 Defective 4 Non-defective
CE p( defective in c lcul tors)
1. [Ans D]
A, B, C are true
(D) is not true. Since in a negatively
ww
skewed distribution
mode > median > mean
4. [Ans. C]
σ
2.
w. E
[Ans. D]
Let the mean and standard deviation of
5.
μ
[Ans. B]
asy
the students of batch C be μ and σ
respectively and the mean and standard
deviation of entire class of first year
Given f(x) = x for x
= 0 else where
En
students be μ and σ respectively
Now given, μ ( x ) ∫ f(x)dx ∫ x dx
σ
gi
and μ
σ nee
=0 1
In order to normalise batch C to entire
class, the normalize score must be
equated
r ing
The probability expressed in percentage
P=
since Z =
Z = =
= 2.469% = 2.47%
.ne
Now Z = =
Equation these two and solving, we get
6. [Ans. A]
Given
P(private car) = 0.45
t
P(bus 1 public transport) = 0.55
=
Since a person has a choice between
 x = 8.969 ≃ 9.0
private car and public transport
P(public transport) = 1 – P(private car)
3. [Ans. B]
= 1 – 0.45 =0.55
Since population is finite, hypergeometric
P(bus) = P(bus public transport)
distribution is applicable
(bus public tr nsport)
(public tr nsport)
= 0.55 × 0.55
= 0.3025 ≃ 0.30
Now P(metro)
= 1 [P(private car) + P(bus)]
= 1 (0.45 + 0.30) = 0.25
th th th

∴ P(private car) = 0.45 12. [Ans. 6]

P(bus) = 0.30 ∫ f(x)dx
and P(metro) = 0.25 ( x x ) x
f(x) {
otherwise
7. [Ans. D] ∴∫ ( x x )dx
ere μ cm; σ cm
x x
( x 102) 6 x7
=P. x /
=P( x ) [ ( ) ( ) ( )]
This area is shown below:
[ ]
ww -0.44
The shades area in above figure is given
[ ]
= w. E
by F(0) –F ( 0.44)
( ) ( ( )( ) )
asy
= 0.5 – 0.3345
= 1.1655 ≃ 16.55%
13. [Ans. 0.4]
8. En
Closest answer is 16.7%
[Ans. C]
( ) ∫ f( )d ∫ d
9.
P(2 heads) =
[Ans. C]
gi nee
( )| ( )
P(one ball is Red & another is blue)

= P(first is Red and second is Blue)
=
14.
r
[Ans. *] Range 0.26 to 0.27
Avg= 5
Let x denote penalty ing
10. [Ans. A]
(x
(x
)
)
(x
(x
)
)
(x )
.ne
Given μ = 1000, σ = 200
We know that Z
When X= 1200, Z
ew (x n)
p(x )
e
e
x
e e
t e
Req. Prob = P (X ) e [ ]
(Z )
( Z )
Less than 50%
15. [Ans. B]
S * T+
11. [Ans. D]
n( )
(X ) (X ) (X ) ( )
n(S)
( ) ( )
16. [Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.28
e ( t)
(n t)
n
th th th

no of vehicles veh km m ke ex ctly ‘ ’ moves nd ‘U’ moves

in any order.
e . /
( ) Similarly to reach (10, 10) from (0,0) the
robot h s to m ke ‘ ’ moves nd ‘U’
= 2.e
moves in any order. The number of ways
= 0.2707
this can be done is same as number of
CS permutations of a word consisting of 10
1. [Ans. A] ‘ ’ s nd ’U’s
P: Event of selecting Box P, Applying formula of permutation with
Q: Event of selecting Box P limited repetitions we get the answer
P(P)=1/3, P(Q)=2/3 as
P(R/P)=2/5, P(R/Q)=3/4
ww P(P/R)=
P(R/P).P(P)
P(R/P).P(P)  P(R/Q)P(Q) 5. [Ans. D]
w. E
2/51/3
2/51/3  3/ 4  2/3
 4/19
The robot can reach (4,4) from (0,0) in
8C ways as argued in previous problem.
4
Now after reaching (4,4) robot is not
2.
asy
[Ans. C]
If f (x) is the continuous probability
allowed to go to (5,4)
Let us count how many paths are there
En
density function of a random variable X
then,
from (0,0) to (10,10) if robot goes from
(4,4) to (5,4) and then we can subtract
(
gi
x b) P(
b
x b)
= f  x  dx

a
this from total number of ways to get the
answer.
nee
Now there are 8C4 ways for robot to reach
(4,4) from (0,0) and then robot takes the
3. [Ans. A]
The probability that exactly n elements
are chosen
r ing
‘U’ move from ( ) to ( ) ow from
(5,4) to (10,10) the robot has to make 5
‘U’ moves nd ‘ ’ moves in ny order
=The probability of getting n heads out of
2n tosses .ne
which can be done in 11! ways
= 11C5 ways
=
=
=
(
( ) . /
) ( )
(Binomial formula)
t
Therefore, the number of ways robot can
move from (0,0) (10,10) via (4,4) – (5,4)
move is
 8   11
8C
4
11C
5 =    
4. [Ans. A]  4 5 
Consider the following diagram No. of ways robot can move from (0,0) to
(3,3) (10,10) without using (4,4) to (5,4) move
is
 20  8   11
       ways
 10   4   5 
(0,0)
which is choice (D)
The robot can move only right or up as
defined in problem. Let us denote right
move by ‘ ’ nd up move by ‘U’ ow to
reach (3, 3), from (0,0) , the robot has to
th th th

6. [Ans. D] 8. [Ans. C]
umber of permut tions with ‘ ’ in the Let C denote computes science study and
first position =19! M denotes maths study.
Number of permutations with ‘ ’ in the P(C on Monday and C on Wednesday)
second position = 10 18! = P(C on Monday, M on Tuesday and C on
(Fill the first space with any of the 10 odd Wednesday)
numbers and the 18 spaces after the 2 + P(C on Monday, C on Tuesday and C on
with 18 of the remaining numbers in 18! Wednesday)
ways) =1 0.6 0.4+ 1 0.4 0.4
umber of permut tions with ‘ ’ in rd = 0.24 + 0.16 = 0.40
position =10 9 17!
9. [Ans. B]
(Fill the first 2 place with 2 of the 10 odd
ww
numbers and then the remaining 17
places with remaining 17 numbers)
It is given that
P (odd) = 0.9 P (even)
Now since 𝜮P(x) = 1
w. E
nd so on until ‘ ’ is in th place. After
that it is not possible to satisfy the given
condition, since there are only 10 odd
∴ P (odd) + P (even) = 1
0.9 P (even) + P (even) = 1
asy
numbers v il ble to fill before the ‘ ’
So the desired number of permutations
P(even) = = 0.5263
Now, it is given that P(any even face) is same
En
which satisfies the given condition is i.e. P(2) = P(4) = P(6)
Now since,
given by =
(
gi …
Now the probability of this happening is
… )
P(even) = P(2) or P(4) or P(6)
= P(2) + P(4) + P(6)
nee
∴ P(2) = P(4) = P(6) = P(even)
= (0.5263)
7.
Which are clearly not choices (A), (B) or (C)
[Ans. A]
r
= 0.1754
It is given that ing
Given μ = 1, σ = 4
and μ = 1,
σ =2
σ is unknown
P(even | face > 3) = 0.75
( )
.ne
= 0.75
t
( )
Given, P(X ) = P (Y ≥ 2 ) ( )
= 0.75
( )
Converting into standard normal variates, ( ) ( )
P(f ce ) = =0.468
.z / = P (z ≥ )
( ) 10. [Ans. A]
.z / = P (z ≥ )
The tree diagram of probabilities is
shown below
(z ) = P (z ≥ ) _____(i)
q decl red f ulty
Now since we know that in standard f ulty
p
normal distribution
q decl red not f ulty
P (z ) = P (z ≥ 1) _____(ii) decl red f ulty
not q
Comparing (i) and (ii) we can say that p
f ulty
=1 σ =3
q decl red not f ulty
From above tree

(decl red f ulty) pq ( q)( p)
th th th

11. [Ans. A]
( )
If b c …
Then, no. of divisors of ( ∪ ) ( t le st one he d)
(x )(y )(z )… ( TT )
iven
∴ o of ivisors of
So required prob bility
( )( )
( )( )
16. [Ans. B]
No. of divisors of which are multiples Required Probability
of = P (getting 6 in the first time)
o of divisors of + P (getting 1 in the first time and getting
ww ( )( ) 5 or 6 in the second time)

+ P (getting 2 in the first time and getting
w. E
∴ equired rob bility
4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
+ P (getting 3 in the first time and getting
3 or 4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
12. asy
[Ans. C]
( ) ( ) ( )
V(x)
En
(x ) , (x)-
Where V(x) is the variance of x,
17. [Ans. C]
The p.d.f of the random variable is
13.
negative, ≥
[Ans. A]
gi
Since variance is σ and hence never
x
nee
P(x) 0.5 0.5
+1
The cumulative distribution function F(x)

is the probability upto x as given below
The five cards are *
Sample space
+
ordered pairs
P (1 card = 2 card + 1)
st nd
x
r
F(x) 0.5 1.0
+1
So correct option is (C) ing

*( )( )( )( )+
18. [Ans. C] .ne
14. [Ans. D]
(k)
e
k t
P is no. of cars per minute travelling.
𝛔y = a 𝛔x is the correct expression
Since variance of constant is zero. For no cars. (i.e. k = 0)
For no cars. P(0) e
15. [Ans. A] So P can be either 0,1,2. (i.e. k = 0,1,2)
Let A be the event of head in one coin. B For k = 1, p(1)=e
be the event of head in second coin.
For k = 2 , P(2)=
The required probability is
* ) ( ∪ )+ Hence
( )| ∪ ) ( ) ( ) ( )
( ∪ )
( ) e e e
( ∪ )
( ) (both coin he ds) 4 5
e
th th th

( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
( ⁄ )
e ( ) ( )
( )
e e ∴ equired prob bility is
( ) ( ∪ ∪ )
19. [Ans. *] Range 0.24 to 0.27
The smaller sticks, therefore, will range in
24. [Ans. 0.25]
length from almost 0 meters upto a
( ∪ ) P(S) = 1
maximum of 0.5 meters, with each length
( ) ( ) ( )
equally possible.
utu lly exclusive ( )
Thus, the average length will be about
( ) ( )
0.25 meters, or about a quarter of the
et ( ) x; ( ) x
20.
ww
stick.
[Ans. 10]
P(A) P(B) = x( x)
Maximum value of y = x ( x)
w. E
22 occurs in following ways
6 6 6 4 w ys
dy
dx
= 2x = 1
( x) x
asy
6 6 5 5 w ys
equired prob bility
x
(max)
x
En ximum v lue of y ( )
21.
gi
[Ans. *] Range 11.85 to 11.95
For functioning 3 need to be working
(function)
ECE
1. nee
[Ans. D]
3 1
r
P(Odd number) 
P(even number )  

6 2
3 1 ing
6 2
.ne
Since events are independent, therefore
22.
p
[Ans. *] Range 3.8 to 3.9

1 1 1
 P(odd/even)   
2 2 4 t
Expected length = Average length of all 2. [Ans. A]
words ( )
I ∫ e dx
√
omp ring with
( )
∫ e dx
σ√
23. [Ans. *] Range 0.259 to 0.261 ut μ
Let A = divisible by 2, B = divisible by 3
and C = divisible by 5, then ∫ e dx …
√ σ
n(A) = 50, n(B) = 33, n(C) = 20 rom nd
n( ) n( ) n( ) x x
n( ) σ
P( ∪ ∪ ) σ
th th th

Put σ in equ tion Probability of failing in paper 2,

P (B) = 0.2
∫ e
√ Probability of failing in paper 1, when
A
student has failed in paper 2, P  0.6
3. [Ans. C] B
 A  P A  B

 P x.dx  1

We know that, P  
 B PB

∴ ( ) ( ) ( )
 Ke .dx  1
ax

 = 0.6 0.2
or ∫ e dx ∫ e dx = 0.12
ww x x,for x  0 


  x for x  0
 7. [Ans. A]
CDF: F x  
x
 PDF dx
w. E

K K
  1
a a
For x<0, F x  

x
  x  1 dx
4. asy
[Ans. D] 0 1
1
conc ve upw rds
En
P (Y/D) =
. / ( )
. / ( )
. / ( ) . / ( ) F0 
1
5.
=
[Ans. A]
gi =0.4
nee
2
For x>0, F x   F0 

x
 x  1
0
dx
1  x2 
var[x]=σ =E[(x x)2]
Where, x=E[x]
x= expected or mean value of X defining
 
r
2  2
 x  concave downwards

ing
Hence the CDF is, shown in the figure (A).
E[X] =

 xf  xdx
x 8. [Ans. A] .ne




  x P xi   x  xi dx
  i 
Given: Px  x   Me2|x|  Ne3|x|

 P  xdx  1
x
t
 xiP xi  
 
   
i
Variance σ is a measure of the spread of Me2|x|  Ne3|x| dx  2 Me2|x|  Ne3|x| dx  1

 0
the values of X from its mean x.
Using relation , E[X+Y]= E[X]+E[Y] By simplifying
2
And E[CX]=CE[X]  M N 1
On var[x]= σ =E[(x x)2] 3
σ = ,X- x2
9. [Ans. B]
= E[X2] [ ,X-]
x+y=2
x y=0
6. [Ans. C] => x =1, y = 1
Probability of failing in paper 1, P(x=1,y=1) = ¼ ¼ = 1/16
P (A) = 0.3
th th th

10. [Ans. C] 14. [Ans. C]

Probability of getting head in first toss = P(no. of tosses is odd)
(no of tosses is …)
Probability of getting head in second toss
P(no. of toss is 1) = P(Head in 1st toss)
= and in all other 8 tosses there should
P(no. of toss is 3) = P(tail in first toss, tail
be tail always.
in second toss and head in third toss)
So probability of getting head in first two
tosses
( )( )( )…………… ( )
P(no. of toss is 5) = P(T,T,T,TH)
= (1/2)10
. / … etc
11. [Ans. B]
So,
ww
Both the teacher and student are wrong
Mean = ∑ k
= 0.1 + 0.4 + 1.2 + 0.8 + 0.5
P(no. of tosses in odd)
w. E = 3.0
E(x2) = ∑ k
⁄
⁄
asy ⁄
⁄
En
Variance(x)= E(x2) – * (x)+ =10.2 9=1.2
12. [Ans. D] gi
P(H, H, H, T) +P (H, H, H, H )
15.
nee
[Ans. B]
( V ≥ V)
= . / . / . / = ( V
*z
r v
V≥ )
ing
v+ Linear combination of
Gaussian random variable is Gaussian
13. [Ans. C]
Total number of cases = 36
∴ (z ≥ )
.ne
and not mean till zero
because both random variables has mean
Favorable cases:
(1, 1)
(6, 1)
(2, 1) (3, 1) (4, 1) (5, 1)
16.
zero hence ( )
Hence Option B is correct
[Ans. D]
t
(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2)
F(x) = P{X x}
(6, 2)
(x) * X x+
(1, 3) (2, 3) (3, 3) (4, 3) (5, 3) x
(6, 3) 2X 3
(1, 4) (2, 4) (3, 4) (4, 4) (5, 4) For positive value of x,
(6, 4) (x) (x) is always greater than zero
(1, 5) (2, 5) (3, 5) (4, 5) (5, 5) For negative value of x
(6, 5) (x) (x)is ve
(1, 6) (2, 6) (3, 6) (4, 6) (5, 6) ut , (x) (x)- x ≥
(6, 6)
Total number of favorable cases
Then probability
th th th

17. [Ans. *] Range 0.65 to 0.68

et ‘ ’ be different types of f milies nd ‘S’ (x) ∑ x (x)
be there siblings.
S …
S S (siblings)
Probability that child chosen at random et S …… (I)
having sibling is 2/3
S …… (II)
18. [Ans. *] Range 0.32 to 0.34 (I II)gives
This is a tricky question, here, X X X
( )S ……
independent and identically distributed
random variables with the uniform
ww
distribution , -. So, they
equiprobable. So X X or X have chances
are
S
S
w. E
being largest are equiprobable.
So, [P {X is largest}] or [P {X is largest}]
or [P {X is largest}] =1
(x)
i.e. The expected number of tosses (after
first head) to get first tail is 2 and same
asy
and P {X is largest} = P {X is largest} =
P {X is largest} can be applicable if first toss results in
tail.
En
∴ *X is l rgest + Hence the average number of tosses is
19.
gi
[Ans. *] Range 49.9 to 50.1
Set of positive odd number less than 100
is 50. As it is a uniform distribution
22.
nee
[Ans. *] Range 0.15 to 0.18
X X X X X X
r
f(x) et z X X X
∴ (x) ∑x f(x) ∑x
(X X X )
ing
(z )
Pdf of z we need to determine. It is the
, … -
convolution of three pdf
.ne
20. [Ans. C]
t
21. [Ans. *] Range 2.9 to 3.1
Let the first toss be head. z z
(z ) ∫ dz |
Let x denotes the number of tosses(after
getting first head) to get first tail.
We can summarize the even as
Event(After x Probability
getting first H) 23. [Ans. *] Range 0.79 to 0.81
T 1 1/2 |x|
,|x|- ∫ e dx
HT 2 1/2 1/2=1/4 √
HHT 3 1/8
nd so on…
th th th

x ∴pr(P ∪ Q) pr(P) + pr(Q)

∫ |x| exp 4 5 dx
√ (D) is true
x since P Q P
∫ |x| exp 4 5 dx n(P Q) n(P)
√
x pr(P Q) pr(P)
∫ x exp 4 5 dx
√ 2. [Ans. B]
x ( )
∫ x exp 4 5 dx P(A|B) =
( )
√
∴ P(2 heads in 3 tosses | first toss is
x
∫ x exp 4 5 dx head)
√ ( he ds in tosses nd first toss in he d)
(first toss is he d)
ww √ [ exp ( x ) dx]
Also, P(first toss is head) =
( he d in tosses nd first toss in he d)
w. E√ , - √ = P(HHT) + P(HTH)
24.
asy
[Ans. *] Range 0.43 to 0.45
Pre flow diagram is
∴ Required probability = =
En
Parcel is
sent to R
Parcel is sent to 4/5 R
3. [Ans. C]
S
gi 4/5
1/5
Parcel is lost
1/5
Parcel is lost
If two fair dices are rolles the probability
nee
distribution of r where r is the sum of the
numbers on each die is given by
Probability that parcel
Probability that parcel is lost by

is lost
r r
2
P(r)
ing
Probability that parcel is lost by
3
.ne
provided that the parcel is lost
4
5
t
EE 6
1. [Ans. D]
(A) is false since of P & Q are 7
independent
8
pr(P Q) = pr(P) pr(Q)
which need not be zero.
9
(B) is false since
pr(P ∪ Q) 10
= pr(P) + pr(Q) – pr(P Q)
(C) is false since independence and 11
mutually exclusion are unrelated
properties. 12
th th th

The above table has been obtained by P(1, 5, 6) = =

taking all different all different ways of
P(3, 4, 5) = =
obtaining a particular sum. For example, a
sum of 5 can be obtained by (1, 4), (2, 3), P(1, 2, 5) = =
(3, 2) and (4, 1). ∴ Choice (C) P(1, 5 and 6) = is correct.
∴ P(x = 5) = 4/36
Now let us consider choice (A)
5. [Ans. C]
Pr(r > 6) = Pr(r ≥ 7)
x is uniformly distributes in [0, 1]
= ∴ Probability density function
= = f(x) = = =1
∴ Choice (A) i.e. pr(r > 6) = 1/6 is wrong. ∴ f(x) = 1 0 < x < 1
ww
Consider choice (B)
pr(r/3 is an integer)
= pr(r = 3) + pr (r = 6) + pr (r = 9)
Now E(x ) = ∫ x f(x)dx
w. E
+ pr (r = 1)
=
∫x dx
=
asy
=
∴ Choice (B) i.e. pr (r/3) is an integer
6. [Ans. B]
Let N people in room. So no. of events that
En
= 5/6 is wrong.
Consider choice (C)
at least two people in room born at same
date
Now,
gi
pr(r/4 is an integer) = pr(r = 4)
+ pr (r = 8) + pr (r = 12) nee
≥
N
Solving, we get N = 7
…
=
= =
+ 7.
r
[Ans. C]
ing
(II is red|I is white)
(II is red nd I is white)
pr(r = 8) =
∴ pr(r = 8 | r/4 is an integer) = =
(I is white)
.ne
(I is white nd II is red)
=
∴ Choice (C) is correct.
(I is white)
t
4. [Ans. C]
Dice value Probability
1
8. [Ans. B]
2 and is the entrie
rectangle
3
The region in which maximum of {x, y} is
4 less than ⁄ is shown below as shaded
region inside this rectangle
5
th th th

y 12. [Ans. *] Range 0.35 to 0.45

( ) ( )
( x ) ∫ f(x)dx
∫ dx ∫ dx ∫ dx
x| x|
( ) ( )
13. [Ans. *] Range 0.4 to 0.5
p .m x,x y- / ∫ f(x) dx by property
ww ∴ ∫ kx dx
w. E k
x
| k ∴k
9.
asy
[Ans. A]
(x ) , e -
14. [Ans. D]
En
∫ e dx IN
,e e - e 1. [Ans. D]
10. [Ans. B]
gi
Let number of heads = x,
Since leap chosen will be random, so, we
assume it being the case of uniform
nee
probability distribution function.
Number of days in a leap year=366 days
∴ Number of tails n x
∴ ifference x (n x)or (n
x n or n x
x) x r
7, (SUN MON) (or) (SAT SUN) are
ing
=52 weeks and 2 days are extra. Out of
If x n n
x n
x n
favorable.
So, Probability of this event=
.ne
If n x n
As x and n are integers, this is not
possible
x or x 2. [Ans. C]
Since the reading taken by the instrument
is normally distributed, hence
t
( )
∴ Probability 0 P(x x ) ∫ e .dx
√
Where, μ e n of the distribution
11. [Ans. *] Range 0.13 to 0.15 σ St nd rd devi tion of the
Let proportionality constant = k distribution.
∴ ( dot) k ( dots) k
Now ∫ exp( )dx
( dots) k √
( dots) k ( dots) k where, n=x 10 (∴μ kg)

( dots) k and from the data given in question
∴k k k k k k ∫ e dx
√
k ∴k On equating, we get 0.05=0.84 σ
∴ rob bility of showing dots k σ
th th th

3. [Ans. D] 8. [Ans. B]
Mean= =5.9 V. By definition of Gaussian distribution,
total area under the curve =1. Hence half
( ̅) ( ̅) ( ̅)
S √ of the area =0.5
V
(closest answer is 0.2) 9. [Ans. A]
P(x)= =
4. [Ans. C] Mean = μ ∫ x (x)dx = ∫ x dx = 6
( ) ( )
Var(x)= ∫ (x μ) (x)dx
1 2
 =∫ (x ) dx =
3 3
5.
ww
[Ans. A] ]

10. [Ans. C]
Probability of incorrect report
w. E
 P(x)dx  1

 Area under triangle =

c
1
α asy 2 11. [Ans. C]

σ mm
6. [Ans. A]En μ mm
Then probability
gi
Probability that the sum of digits of two
dices is even is same either both dices
shows even numbers or odd numbers on
(X
nee
where x
) (
mm
σ
X μ
)
the top of the surface

∴ ( )
Where
( ) ( )
√
r (
e ing
) ( )
( ) Probability of occurring even

number of both the dices
√
e
.ne
( )
( )
Probability of occurring odd
number of both the dices t
So, number of measurement more than
10.15mm
P Total number of measurement
nd ( )
≃
∴ ( )
12. [Ans. D]
7. [Ans. A] For the product to be even, the numbers
from both the boxes should not turn out
∫ f(x) dx=P
to be odd simultaneously.
or ∫ e .dx =P
∴ ( ) ( )( )
or e |
or P = .
th th th

13. [Ans. A]
∫ f(x)dx ∫ e dx
e | e
14. [Ans. 2]
For valid pdf ∫ pdf dx ;
∫ dx ;k
15. [Ans. *] Range 0.890 to 0.899

Probability that job is successfully
processed = ( )( )
ww
w. E
asy
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

Numerical Methods
ME – 2005 ME – 2010
1. Starting from x = 1, one step of Newton – 6. Torque exerted on a flywheel over a cycle
Raphson method in solving the equation is listed in the table. Flywheel energy (in
x³ +3x 7=0 gives the next value (x₁) as J per unit cycle) using impson’s rule is
(A) x₁=0.5 (C) x₁ = .5 Angle (degree) Torque (N-m)
(B) x₁= . 0 (D) x₁=2 0 0
60 1066
2. With a 1 unit change in b, what is the
change in x in the solution of the system 120 323
of equation = 2 .0 0. = 180 0
ww
(A) Zero
(B) 2 units
(C) 50 units
(D) 100 units
240
300
360
323
0
55
3. w. E
ME – 2006
Match the items in columns I and II.
(A) 542
(B) 992.7
(C) 1444
(D) 1986
asy
Column I
(P) Gauss-Seidel
method
Column II
(1) Interpolation ME – 2011
7. The integral ∫ dx, when evaluated by
En
(Q) Forward
Newton-Gauss
(2) Non-linear
differential
using impson’s / rule on two equal
gi
subintervals each of length 1, equals
method equations (A) 1.000 (C) 1.111
(R) Runge-Kutta
method
(3) Numerical
integration nee
(B) 1.098 (D) 1.120
r
(S) Trapezoidal (4) Linear algebraic ME – 2013
(A)
Rule equation
2
8.
Numerical ing
Match the correct pairs.
Order of Fitting
(B)
(C)
2
2
Integration Scheme
. impson’s /
.ne Polynomial
1. First
4.
(D) 2
Equation of the line normal to function

Rule
Q. Trapezoidal Rule 2. Second
. impson’s /
Rule
t
3. Third
f(x) = (x ) at (0 5) is
(A) y = x 5 (C) y = x 5 (A) P – 2 , Q – 1, R – 3
(B) y = x 5 (D) y = x 5 (B) P – 3, Q – 2 , R – 1
(C) P – 1, Q – 2 , R – 3
ME – 2007 (D) P – 3, Q – 1 , R – 2
5. A calculator has accuracy up to 8 digits
2
ME – 2014
after decimal place. The value of  sinxdx
0
9. Using the trapezoidal rule, and dividing
the interval of integration into three equal
when evaluated using this calculator by
sub intervals, the definite integral
trapezoidal method with 8 equal
intervals, to 5 significant digits is ∫ |x|dx is ____________
(A) 0.00000 (C) 0.00500
(B) 1.0000 (D) 0.00025
th th th

10. The value of ∫ . ( ) calculated using “value approximate value”) in the

the Trapezoidal rule with five sub estimate?
intervals is _______ (A) – (C) –
(B) 0 (D)
11. The definite integral ∫ is evaluated
using Trapezoidal rule with a step size of CE – 2007
1. The correct answer is _______ 4. The following equation needs to be
numerically solved using the Newton-
12. The real root of the equation Raphson method
5x 2cosx = 0 (up to two decimal x3 + 4x – 9 = 0 the iterative equation for
accuracy) is _______ the purpose is (k indicates the iteration
13. ww
Consider an ordinary differential
level)
(A) x =
w. E
equation = t .If x =x at t = 0 , the
increment in x calculated using Runge-
Kutta fourth order multi-step method
(B) x
(C) x
=
=x x
asy
with a step size of Δt = 0.2 is
(A) 0.22 (C) 0.66
(D) x =
(B) 0.44
En (D) 0.88
5. Given that one root of the equation
x 10x + 31x – 30 = 0 is 5, the other
CE – 2005
gi
Linked Answer Question 1 and 2
Give a>0, we wish to calculate its
reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton
two roots are
nee
(A) 2 and
(B) 2 and
(C) and
(D) 2 and
1.
Raphson Method for f(x) = 0.
The Newton Raphson algorithm for the

CE – 2008
6. r ing
Three values of x and y are to be fitted in
function will be
(A) x = (x ) .ne
a straight line in the form y = a + bx by
the method of least squares. Given
(B) x
(C) x
= (x
= 2x ax
x )
∑x = 6, ∑y = 2 ∑x =
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
t
and ∑xy =
the values of a and b are respectively
(C) 2 and 1
(D) 3 and 2
(D) x =x x
CE – 2009
2. For a = 7 and starting with x = 0.2 the 7. In the solution of the following set of
first two iteration will be linear equation by Gauss elimination
(A) 0.11, 0.1299 (C) 0.12, 0.1416 using partial pivoting 5x + y + 2z = 34;
(B) 0.12, 0.1392 (D) 0.13, 0.1428 4y – 3z = 12; and 10x – 2y + z = 4; the
pivots for elimination of x and y are
CE – 2006 (A) 10 and 4 (C) 5 and 4
3. A 2nd degree polynomial f(x) has values of (B) 10 and 2 (D) 5 and 4
1, 4 and 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2 respectively.
The integral ∫ f(x) dx is to be estimated
by applying the trapezoidal rule to this
data. What is the error (define as true
th th th

CE – 2010 CE – 2013
8. The table below given values of a function 12. Find the magnitude of the error (correct
F(x) obtained for values of x at intervals to two decimal places) in the estimation
of 0.25. of following integral using impson’s ⁄
x 0 0.25 0.5 0.75 1.0 Rule. Take the step length as 1.___________
F(x) 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
∫ (x 0) dx
The value of the integral of the function
between the limits 0 to using impson’s
rule is CS – 2007
(A) 0.7854 (C) 3.1416 1. Consider the series =
(B) 2.3562 (D) 7.5000
= 0.5 obtained from the Newton-
CE
9. ww
2011
The square root of a number N is to be
Raphson method. The series converges to
(A) 1.5
(B) √2
(C) 1.6
(D) 1.4
w. E
obtained by applying the Newton
Raphson iterations to the equation
CS – 2008
x = 0. If i denotes the iteration
2. The minimum number of equal length
(A) x asy
index, the correct iteration scheme will be
= (x )
subintervals needed to approximate
2
 xe dx
1
En
x
to an accuracy of at least 106
(B) x = (x ) 1 3
(C) x
(D) x
gi
= (x
= (x )
)
using the trapezoidal rule is
(A) 1000e
nee
(B) 1000
(C) 100e
(D) 100
10. he error in f(x)| for a continuous

function estimated with h=0.03 using the
3.
r
The Newton-Raphson iteration
1 R
ing
xn1   xn   can be used to compute
2 xn 
central difference formula
f(x)| =
( ) ( )
is 2 0 .
the
(A) square of R .ne
The values of and ( ) are 19.78 and
500.01, respectively. The corresponding
error in the central difference estimate
(B) reciprocal of R
(C) square root of R
(D) logarithm of R
t
for h = 0.02 is approximately
CS – 2010
(A) . 0 (C) .5 0
(B) .0 0 (D) .0 0 4. Newton-Raphson method is used to
compute a root of the equation
CE – 2012 x 13 = 0 with 3.5 as the initial value.
11. The estimate of ∫ .
.
obtained using The approximation after one iteration is
(A) 3.575 (C) 3.667
impson’s rule with three – point function (B) 3.677 (D) 3.607
evaluation exceeds the exact value by
(A) 0.235 (C) 0.024
(B) 0.068 (D) 0.012
th th th

CS – 2012 (B) Only II

5. The bisection method is applied to (C) Both I and II
compute a zero of the function (D) Neither I nor II
f(x) = x x x in the interval
[1,9]. The method converges to a solution 9. With respect to the numerical evaluation
after ___________ iterations. of the definite integral, = ∫ x dx
(A) 1 (C) 5 where a and b are given, which of the
(B) 3 (D) 7
following statements is/are TRUE?
(I) The value of K obtained using the
CS – 2013
trapezoidal rule is always greater
6. Function f is known at the following
then or equal to the exact value of
points:
ww x
0
f(x)
0
the defined integral
(II) The value of K obtained using the
impson’s rule is always equal to the
w. E
0.3 0.09
exact value of the definite integral
0.6 0.36
(A) I only
0.9 0.81
(B) II only
asy 1.2 1.44

1.5 2.25
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
En 1.8 3.24
2.1 4.41 ECE– 2005
gi
2.4 5.76
2.7 7.29
3.0 9.00
1. Match the following and choose the
nee
correct combination
Group I Group II
(A) Newton- 1. Solving non-
he value of ∫ f(x)dx computed using
the trapezpidal rule is r

Raphson
method
ing linear equations
(A) 8.983
(B) 9.003
(C) 9.017
(D) 9.045
(B) Runge-Kutta
method
.ne
2. Solving linear
simultaneous
CS – 2014
7. The function f(x) = x sin x satisfied the
following equation:
(C) impson’s
Rule
t
equations
3. Solving ordinary
differential
equations
( ) + f(x) + t cos x = 0.
(D) Gauss 4. Numerical
The value of t is _________.
elimination integration
method
8. In the Newton-Raphson method, an initial
5. Interpolation
guess of = 2 made and the sequence
6. Calculation of
x x x .. is obtained for the function
Eigen values
0.75x 2x 2x =0
(A) A-6, B-1, C-5, D-3
Consider the statements
(B) A-1, B-6, C-4, D-3
(I) x = 0.
(II) The method converges to a solution
(C) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
in a finite number of iterations. (D) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1
Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Only I
th th th

ECE– 2007 (B) 2 x x . ..

2. The equation x3 x2+4x 4=0 is to be
solved using the Newton-Raphson (C) 2 x x . ..
method. If x=2 is taken as the initial (D) 2 x x . ..
approximation of the solution, then the
next approximation using this method
7. Match the application to appropriate
will be
numerical method.
(A) 2/3 (C) 1
(B) 4/3 (D) 3/2 Application Numerical
Method
ECE– 2008 P1:Numerical M1:Newton-
3. The recursion relation to solve x= integration Raphson Method
ww using Newton-Raphson method is

(A)
(B)
=e
= e
P2:Solution to a
transcendental
equation
M2:Runge-Kutta
Method
w. E
(C) Xn1  1  Xn 
eXn
1  eXn
P3:Solution to a
system of linear
M : impson’s
1/3-rule
asy X2  eXn 1  Xn   1
(D) Xn1  n
Xn -eXn
equations
P4:Solution to a
differential equation
M4:Gauss
Elimination
ECE– 2011 En Method

(A) P1—M3, P2—M2, P3—M4, P4—M1
4.
gi
A numerical solution of the equation
f(x) = x √x = 0 can be obtained
using Newton – Raphson method. If the
(B) P1—M3, P2—M1, P3—M4, P4—M2
nee
(C) P1—M4, P2—M1, P3—M3, P4—M2
(D) P1—M2, P2—M1, P3—M3, P4—M4
starting value is x = 2 for the iteration,
the value of x that is to be used in the next
step is
8.
r
The series ∑
(A) 2 ln 2 ing
converges to
(C) 2
(A) 0.306
(B) 0.739
(C) 1.694
(D) 2.306
(B) √2
.ne (D) e
ECE– 2013
5. A polynomial
f(x) = a x a x a x a x a
EE– 2007
1. The differential equation t
discretised using Euler’s numerical
= is
with all coefficients positive has integration method with a time step
(A) No real root T > 0. What is the maximum permissible
(B) No negative real root value of T to ensure stability of the
(C) Odd number of real roots solution of the corresponding discrete
(D) At least one positive and one time equation?
negative real root (A) 1 (C)
(B) /2 (D) 2
ECE– 2014
EE– 2008
6. The Taylor expansion of sin x 2 cos x
2. Equation e = 0 is required to be
is
solved using ewton’s method with an
(A) 2 x x . .. initial guess x = . Then, after one
th th th

step of ewton’s method estimate x of EE– 2013

the solution will be given by 7. When the Newton – Raphson method is
(A) 0.71828 (C) 0.20587 applied to solve the equation
(B) 0.36784 (D) 0.00000 f(x) = x 2x = 0 the solution at the
end of the first iteration with the initial
3. A differential equation dx/dt = e u(t) guess value as x = .2 is
has to be solved using trapezoidal rule of (A) 0.82 (C) 0.705
integration with a step size h = 0.01 sec. (B) 0.49 (D) 1.69
Function u(t) indicates a unit step
function. If x(0)= 0, then value of x at EE– 2014
t = 0.01 s will be given by 8. The function ( ) = is to be
(A) 0.00099 (C) 0.0099 solved using Newton-Raphson method. If
ww
(B) 0.00495
EE– 2009
(D) 0.0198 the initial value of is taken as 1.0, then
the absolute error observed at 2nd
iteration is ___________
4.
w. E
Let x 7 = 0. The iterative steps for
the solution using Newton – aphson’s
method is given by
IN– 2006
(A) x
asy = (x )
1. For k = 0 2 . the steps of
Newton-Raphson method for solving a
non-linear equation is given as
(B) x
(C) x En =x
=x
2 5
xk 1  xk  xK2 .
3 3
(D) x
gi
=x (x ) Starting from a suitable initial choice as k
nee
tends to , the iterate tends to
(A) 1.7099 (C) 3.1251
EE– 2011
5. Solution of the variables and for the
following equations is to be obtained by IN– 2007 r
(B) 2.2361
ing
(D) 5.0000
.ne
employing the Newton-Raphson iterative 2. Identify the Newton-Raphson iteration
method scheme for finding the square root of 2.
equation(i) 0x inx 0. = 0
equation(ii) 0x 0x cosx
Assuming the initial values
= .0 the jacobian matrix is
0. = 0
= 0.0 and
(A) x
(B) x
=
= (x
(x
t )
0 0. 0 0. (C) x =
(A) * + (C) * +
0 0. 0 0. (D) x = √2 x
0 0 0 0
(B) * + (D) * +
0 0 0 0
3. The polynomial p(x) = x + x + 2 has
(A) all real roots
6. Roots of the algebraic equation (B) 3 real and 2 complex roots
x x x = 0 are (C) 1 real and 4 complex roots
(A) ( ) (C) (0 0 0) (D) all complex roots
(B) ( j j) (D) ( j j)
th th th

IN– 2008 IN– 2013

4. It is known that two roots of the 8. While numerically solving the differential
nonlinear equation x3 – 6x2 +11x 6 = 0 equation 2xy = 0 y(0) = using
are 1 and 3. The third root will be
Euler’s predictor – corrector (improved
(A) j (C) 2
Euler – Cauchy )method with a step size
(B) j (D) 4
of 0.2, the value of y after the first step is
(A) 1.00 (C) 0.97
IN – 2009
(B) 1.03 (D) 0.96
5. The differential equation = with
x(0) = 0 and the constant 0 is to be IN– 2014
numerically integrated using the forward 9. The iteration step in order to solve for the
Euler method with a constant integration cube roots of a given number N using the
ww
time step T. The maximum value of T such
that the numerical solution of x converges
Newton- aphson’s method is
(A) x =x ( x )
w. E
is
(A) (C) (B) x
(C) x
= (2x
=x (
)
x )
asy
(D) 2
(B)
(D) x = (2x )
IN– 2010
6. En
The velocity v (in m/s) of a moving mass,
gi
starting from rest, is given as
Using Euler’s forward difference method
(also known as Cauchy-Euler method)
=v t.
nee
with a step size of 0.1s, the velocity at 0.2s
evaluates to
(A) 0.01 m/s (C) 0.2 m/s
r ing
(B) 0.1 m/s (D) 1 m/s
.ne
IN– 2011
7. The extremum (minimum or maximum)
point of a function f(x) is to be
( )
t
determined by solving = 0 using the
Newton-Raphson method.
Let f(x) = x x and x = 1 be the initial
guess of x. The value of x after two
iterations (x ) is
(A) 0.0141 (C) 1.4167
(B) 1.4142 (D) 1.5000
th th th

ME y = sin ( ) =
1. [Ans. C] 2
( )
By N-R method , =x – x = y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
( )
f(x) = x x 7 y = sin( ) = 0
 f( ) = 5
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
( )
x =x ( )
y = sin ( )=
 f (x) = x
f ( )= , 7
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
ww
( )
 =1 = (0.5) = .5
y = sin ( )=0
2.
w. E
[Ans. C]
Given x y = 2
.0 x 0.0 y = b
(i)
(ii)
Trapezoidal rule
∫
y
f(x)dx = [(y
)]
y ) 2(y y
asy
Multiply 0.99 is equation (i) and subtract
from equation (ii); we get
∫ sinx dx =
0.70 0 0.70 0
[(0 0)
0.70 0
2(0.70 0
0=0
( .0
En
0.02x = b
0. )x = b (2 0. )
.
6. [Ans. B]
Δx = gi
0.02Δx = Δb
0.02
= 50 units
ower = ω = Area under the curve.
nee h
= [(y y ) (y y y )
3.
4.
[Ans. D]
[Ans. B]
= r [(0
ing
0)
2(y
( 0
y )]
0 55)
Given f(x) = (x
2
f (x) = (x )
) /
=
2(
2.7 /unit cycle.
.ne 2 2 )]
Slope of tangent at point (0, 5)

2
m = (0 ) / =
7. [Ans. C]
x
y=
1
1
t2 3
Slope of normal = 3 x 2
h
(∵ roduct of slopes = 1) ∫ dx = (y y y )
x
Slope of normal at point (0, 5)
y 5 = (x 0) = ( )
2
y= x 5
= .
5. [Ans. A]
8. [Ans. D]
b a 2 0
h= = = By the definition only
n
y = sin(0) = 0
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
th th th

9. [Ans. *] Range 1.10 to 1.12 By intermediate value theorem roots lie

be between 0 and 1.
∫ |x|dx is et x = rad = 57. 2
By Newton Raphson method
h f(x )
∫ ydx = [y 2(y y .) y ] x =x
2 f (x )
2x sin x 2 cos x
y y y y x =
5 2 sin x
x 1 0.33 0.33 1 x = 0.5 2
x = 0.5 25
y 1 0.33 0.333 1 x = 0.5 2
ww
∫ |x|dx =
= . 0
2
2
[ 2(0. 0. )] 13. [Ans. D]
The variation in options are much, so it
10. w. E
[Ans. *] Range 1.74 to 1.76
can be solved by integrating directly
dx
dt
= t
asy2.5 .
h= = 0. ∫ dx = ∫ ( t )dt
5
y 2y 2y 2y
=
.
En
∫ . ln (x)dx = [
[ln(2.5)
2y y
2(ln2. ) 2 ln( . )
]
Δx =
t
2
t|
.
= 2t t|
.
2ln( . )
= .75 gi 2ln( .7) ln( )]
CE nee
Δx = 0.0 0. = 0.
11. [Ans. *]Range 1.1 to 1.2
∫ dx by trapezoidal rule
x
1.
r
[Ans. C]
To calculate using N-R method
ing
rapezoidal rule
Set up the equation as x =
i.e. = a .ne
∫ f(x)dx = [y
h= iven in question
0 1
y 2(y y
2
..y )]
i.e. f(x) =
a=0
a=0
t
x 1 2 3 Now f (x) =
y 1 0.5 0.33
f(x ) = a
∫ dx = [y y 2(y )] f (x ) =
x 2
For N-R method
= [ 0. 2 0.5] x =x
( )
2 ( )
= . ( )
x =x
12. [Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.56
Let f(x) = 5x 2 cos x Simplifying which we get
f (x) = 5 2 sin x x = 2x ax
f(0) = f( ) = 2.
th th th

2. [Ans. B] f(x )
x =x
For a = 7 iteration equation f (x )
Becomes x = 2x 7x (x x )
=x
with x = 0.2 ( x )
x = 2x 7x = 2× 0.2 – 7(0.2) = 0.12 x x x x
and x = 2x 7x = 2× 0.12 7(0. 2) =
( x )
= 0.1392 2x
x =
x
3. [Ans. A]
f(x) = 1, 4, 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2
5. [Ans. A]
respectively
Given
ww
∫ f(x)dx = (f 2f f ) x – 10 x + 31x 30 = 0
(3 points Trapezoidal Rule) One root = 5
Here h = 1 Let the roots be α β and γ of equation
w. E
∫ f(x)dx = (1 + 2(4) + 15) = 12
Approximate value by rapezoidal ule
ax + bx + cx + d = 0
αβγ=
= 12
asy
Since f(x) is second degree polynomial, let
and α β
α βγ = 5
βγ γα =
βγ =
( )
= 30
f(0) = 1
En
f(x) = a0 + a x + a x
 βγ = (i)
gi
a 0 0= Also
a = αβ βγ γα = 5β βγ 5γ = =
f(1) = 4
a a a = nee
 5 (β γ) βγ =
ince βγ = from (i)
 1+ a
a a =
 f(2) = 15
a =
r
5 (β γ)
β γ=5
βγ =
=
ing
a

2a
2a
a = 5
a = 5
olving for β and γ
β (5 β) = .ne
 2a a =
Solving (i) and (ii) a =
f(x) = 1 – x + 4 x
and a =
β 5β
 β = 2 and γ =
=0
Alternative method
t
Now exact value ∫ f(x)dx 5 1 0 31 0
0 5 25 30
=∫ ( x x )dx
1 5 6 0
= *x + = (x 5)(x 5x )=0
Error = exact – Approximate value (x 5)(x 2)(x )=0
x=2 5
= 2=
4. [Ans. A ] 6. [Ans. D]
Y = a + bx
Given f(x) = x x =0
Given
f (x) = x
n= ∑x = ∑y = 2 ∑x = 14
Newton – Raphson formula is
and ∑xy =
th th th

Normal equations are 9. [Ans. A]

∑y = na b∑x f(x )
x =x
∑xy = a∑x b∑x f(x )
Substitute the values and simply x
=x ( )
a= b=2 2x
x
= = [x ]
7. [Ans. A] 2x 2 x
The equation is
5x + y + 2z = 34 10. [Ans. D]
0x + 4y – 3z = 12 Error in central difference formula is
and 10x – 2y + z = (h)
The augmented matrix for gauss This means, error
ww
elimination is
5 2
If error for h = 0.03 is 2
then
0
w. E
[0
0 2
| 2]
Since in the first column maximum

Error for h = 0.02 is approximately
2 0
(0.02)
(0.0 )
0
5 asy
element in absolute value is 10 we need
to exchange row 1 with row 3
2 0 2
11. [Ans. D]
En
( ) .
[0 | 2] → [0 | 2] Exact value of ∫ . dx = .0
0 2 5 2 Using impson’s rule in three – point
gi
So the pivot for eliminating x is a = 10
Now we eliminate x using this pivot
as follows :
0 2
form,
nee
h=
b a
n
=
.5 0.5
2
= 0.5
So,
[0
5
5
2
0
| 2]
2
y 2 r
x 0.5 1 1.5
1 0.67
ing
→
0
[0
0 2 /2
2]
∫ =
=
0.5
[
[2 .ne
0. 7
]
]
Now to eliminate y, we need to compare
the elements in second column at and
below the diagonal element Since a = 4
is already larger in absolute value
= .
t
So, the estimate exceeds the exact value by
Approximate value – Exact value
compares to a = 2 = 1.1116 1.0986
The pivot element for eliminating y is =0.012(approximately)
a = 4 itself.
12. [Ans. *](Range 0.52 to 0.55)
The pivots for eliminating x and y are
Using impson’s ule
respectively 10 and 4
X 0 1 2 3 4
Y 10 11 26 91 266
8. [Ans. A]
I = h(f f 2f f f ) ∫ (x 0)dx
= 0.25( 0. 2 2 = [( 0 2 ) 2(2 ) ( )]
0. 0. 0.5) = 2 5.
= 0.7 5 The value of integral
th th th

x = = 1000 e
∫ (x 0) dx = * 0x+ ( )/
5
3. [Ans. C]
= 0 =2 .
5 x = (x )
Magnitude of error
= 2 5. 2 . = 0.5 At convergence
x =x =α
CS α= (α )
1. [Ans. A] 2α=α+
Given x = + , x = 0.5
2α =
when the series converges x =x =α
ww
α= +
α=
2α = α + R
α=√
α =R
w. E8α = 4α +9
α =
So this iteration will compute the square
root of R
asy
α = = 1.5 4. [Ans. D]
y=x
2. [Ans. A]
En
Here, the function being integrated is
dy
dx
= 2x
f(x) = xe
gi
f (x) = xe + e = e (x + 1)
f’ (x) = xe + e + e = e (x + 2)
f(x)= x
nee
x = .5
= . 07
.
.
r
Since, both are increasing
functions of x, maximum value of f ( ) in
interval 1 2, occurs at = 2 so
5. [Ans. B]
f( ) = 5
ing
max |f ( )| =e (2 2) = e
Truncation Error for trapezoidal rule
f( ) = 5
f( ) 0 f( )
72
0
.ne = 57 7 0
= TE (bound)
=
Where
max |f ( )|
is number of subintervals
x =(
x =(
2
)=5 f(x )
oot lies between and
)=2 f(x ) 0
t 0
= 2
After ' ' interations we get the root
= max |f ( )|
6. [Ans. D]
= (b – a) max |f ( )| 1 2
h
= (2 – 1) [e (2 + 2)] ∫ f(x)dx = [f(0) f( ) 2(∑f )]
2
= e . 0 2(0.0 0.
= [ ]
Now putting = 0 0. . . 7.2 )
( )
.
= [ 5 . ]
=
= 9.045
h=
Now, No. of intervals, =
th th th

7. [Ans. – ] 8 4
x1  2  
Given (x) + f(x) + t cos x = 0 12 3
and f(x) = x sin x
f (x) = x cos x + sin x 3. [Ans. C]
f (x) = x ( sin x) + cos x + cos x Given : f(x)= x e
= 2 cos x – x sin x By Newton Raphson method,
= 2 cos x – f (x) f(x ) x e
x =x =x
2 cos x – f (x) + f(x) +t cos x = 0 f (x ) e
2 cos x = tcos x t = 2 e xn
 1  x n 
1  exn
8. [Ans. A]
f(x) = 0.75x 2x 2x 4. [Ans. C]
ww
f (x) = 2.25x
x =2 f = 2 f =
x 2
x =x
f(x )
f (x )
w. E
x =x
f = f = 2
f
f
=0 f(2) = (2
f (2) =
√2
√
=
) = √2
√
√
and
asy
x =x
f
f
=2 x =2
(√
√
√
)
= .
x =x En
f = 2 f =
f
=0
5. [Ans. D]
gi f
Also, root does not lies between 0 and 1
So, the method diverges if x = 2
nly ( )is true.
f(x) = a x a x a x a x a
If the above equation have complex roots,
nee
then they must be in complex conjugate
pair, because it’s given all co-efficients are
9. [Ans. C]
For value of K if trapezoidal rule is used
r
positive ( they are real )
ing
So if complex roots are even no. (in pair)
then real roots will also be even.
then the value is either greater than
actual value of definite integral and if
ption ( )is wrong
From the equation .ne
ECE
impson’s rule is used then value is exact
Hence both statements are TRUE
roduct of roots =
As no. of roots = 4,
Product of roots < 1
( 0)
t
either one root 0
1. [Ans. C]
(or)
By definition (& the application) of
Product of three roots < 0
various methods
ption ( )is rong.
2. [Ans. B] Now, take option (A),
y(t) =x3 x2 + 4x 4=0 Let us take it is correct .
x0 = 2 Roots are in complex conjugate pairs
f  x0  =
Next approximation x1  x0 
f ' x0 
Product of roots
0
x03  x02  4x0  4 | | | | 0 which is not possible
x1  x0 
3x02  2x0  4 ption (A) is wrong
orrect answer is option ( )
th th th

6. [Ans. A] Now put i=0

sin x 2 cos x ( )
x =
x x
= (x – ) 2( – ) Put x = as given,
2
x = [e ( 2) ]/e
= 0.71828
7. [Ans. B]
8. [Ans. D] 3. [Ans. C]
=e u(t)
∑ = . .. = e
n 2 x
x x
as e = . . . x in
2
EE ww t
1.
w. E
[Ans. D]
Here, =
x
x = ∫ e u(t) dt = ∫ f(t) dt
At t = 0.01, x = Area of trapezoidal
= [f(0) f(0.0 )] =
. .
asy
[ e ]
f(x y) =
= 0.0099
Euler’s method equation is
En
x = x h. f(x y )
x
4. [Ans. A]
( )
x
x
= x h(
=( gi )
h
)x
h
h
x
nee
=x
= x
= *x
( )
+
or stability |
h
|
5. r
[Ans. B]
u(x x ) = 0x sin x ing
0. = 0
since h = Δ here
Δ
v(x x ) = 0x 0x cosx
The Jacobian matrix is .ne
0. = 0
Δ 2
o maximum permissible value of Δ is 2 .
u
x
v
x
u
v
t
[ x x ]
2. [Ans. A]
Here f(x) = e 0x cos x 0sinx
=[ ]
0x sinx 20x 0cosx
f (x) = e
The Newton Raphson iterative equation is The matrix at x = 0 x = is
( )
x =x 0 0
( ) =* +
0 0
f(x ) = e
f’(x ) = e 6. [Ans. D]
x =x x x x =0
–( ) (x )(x )=0
i.e. x =
x =0 x =0
( )
= x= x= j
th th th

7. [Ans. C] Hence, it will have atleast 5 (0+1)= 4

f(x ) complex roots.
x =x
f (x )
( .2) 2( .2) 4. [Ans. C]
= .2 Approach- 1
( .2) 2
= 0.705 Given, x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0
Or (x – 1)(x – 3)(x – 2) = 0
8. [Ans. *] Range 0.05 to 0.07 x= 1, 2, 3.
Clearly, x = 0 is root of the equation
f(x) = e =0 Approach- 2
f (x) = e and x = .0 For ax3 +bx2 + cx +d = 0
Using ewton raphson method If the three roots are p,q,r then
wwx =x
f(x )
f (x )
=
(e .
e.
)
=
e
Sum of the roots= p+q+r= b/a
Product of the roots= pqr= d/a
pq+qr+rp=c/a
w. E
and x = x
f(x )
=
f (x ) e
(e
e
)
5. [Ans. D]
dx x
asy =
e
e
= 0. 7 0. = 0.0
dt
=
f(x, y) =
En
Absolute error at 2nd itteration is
|0 0.0 | = 0.0
x =x h (x y ) = x h(
x
)
IN
1. [Ans. A]
gi =(
nee
h
)x
or stability |
(
h
h
)
|
As k ∞ xk+1 ≈xk
xk = x
x = x
x
r Δ
h
ing
x =5
Δ 2 .ne
t
/
x =5 = 1.70
6. [Ans. A]
2. [Ans. A] dv
Assume x = √ =v t
dt
f(x) = x =0 t v dv
=v t
f(x ) 2 dt
x =x = [x ] 0 0 0 0+0 0. = 0
f (x ) 2 x
0.1 0 0+0.1 0. = 0.0
3. [Ans. C]
Given p(x) = x + x + 2 7. [Ans. C]
There is no sign change, hence at most 0 f(x) = x x
positive root ( rom escarte’s rule of f (x) = x = g(x)
signs) x = initial guess
p( x) = x x+2 g (x) = x
g (x )
There is one sign change, hence at most 1 x =x
negative root ( rom escarte’s rule of g (x )
signs)
th th th

( )
= = .5
g(x )
x =x
g (x )
0.75
= .5
= . 7
8. [Ans. D]
dy
= 2xy x = 0 y = h = 0.2
dx
y =y h. f(x y )
= (0.2)f(0 ) =
ww
and y = y
=
[f(x y ) f(x y )]
(0. )[f(0 ) f(0.2 )]
w. E = 0.
is the value of y after first step, using
Euler’s predictor – corrector method
9.
asy
[Ans. B]
For convergence
x
En
= x =x x= (2x
x
)
x =
gi
x= √
nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

Calculus
ME – 2005 ME – 2006
1. The line integral ∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ of the vector 2x2  7x  3
7. If f( x ) = , then limf(x) will
function ⃗ ( ) 2xyz + ̂ x²z + ̂ k²y ̂ from 5x2  12x  9 x 3
the origin to the point P (1,1,1) be

(A) is 1 (A) ⁄ (C) 0
(B) is Zero (B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
(C) is 1
(D) cannot be determined without 8. Assuming i = 1 and t is a real number,
specifying the path
∫ dt is:
2.
ww
The right circular cone of largest volume
that can be enclosed by a sphere of 1 m
(A)
√
√
(C)
√
w. E
radius has a height of (B) (D) . /
(A) √
(C)
9. Let x denote a real number. Find out the
(B)
3. asy
By a change of variables
(D)
INCORRECT statement
(A) S * + represents the set if all
En
x(u,v) = uv, y(u,v) = v/u is double
integral, the integral f(x,y) changes to
real numbers greater then 3
(B) S * + represents the empty
(A) 2 v/u
(B) 2 u v
gi
f(uv, u/v) ( ). Then, ( )
(C) v²
(D) 1
set
(C) S *
nee
+ represents the
union of set A and set B
(D) S * + represents the set
4. Changing the order of the integration in
the double integral I = ∫ ∫ ( ) r ing
of all real umbers between a and b,
where and b are real number
leads to
I =∫ ∫ ( ) What is q?
ME – 2007
.ne
t
( )
(A) 4y (C) X 10.
(B) 16y² (D) 8 (A) 0 (C)
(B) ⁄ (D) 1
5. ∫ ( ) is equal to
(A) ∫ 11. The area of a triangle formed by the tips
(B) 2∫ of vectors a , b and c is
(C) 2∫ ( ) (A) ( )( )
(D) Zero (B) |( ) ( )|
6. Stoke’ theorem connects (C) | |

(A) A line integral and a surface integral (D) ( )
(B) Surface integral and a volume
integral
(C) A line integral and a volume integral
(D) Gradient of function and its surface
integral
th th th

19. In the Taylor series expansion of ex about

12. If √ √ √ , then x = 2, the coefficient of (x 2)4 is
y (2) = (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(A) 4 or 1 (C) 1 only (B) ⁄ (D) ⁄
(B) 4 only (D) Undefined
20. The divergence of the vector field
13. The minimum value of function y = x2 in (x y) ̂ ( )̂ ( ) ̂ is
the interval [1, 5] is (A) 0 (C) 2
(A) 0 (C) 25 (B) 1 (D) 3
(B) 1 (D) Undefined
21. Let What is at x=2, y=1?
ME – 2008
14.
ww
The length of the curve
between x = 0 and x = 1 is
(A) 0
(B) ln2
(C) 1
(D) 1/ln2
w. E
(A) 0.27
(B) 0.67
(C) 1
(D) 1.22
ME – 2009
22. The area enclosed between the curves
15.
asy
Which of the following integrals is
unbounded?
y2  4x and x2  4y is
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(A) ∫
En (C) ∫
(B) 8 (D) 16
gi
(B) ∫ (D) ∫ 23. The distance between the origin and the
point nearest to it on the surface
16. The directional derivative of the scalar
function f(x, y, z) = x2  2y2  z at the nee
z2  1  xy is
(A) 1
r
(C) √
point P = (1, 1, 2) in the direction of the
vector ⃗ ̂ ̂ is
(B) √ ⁄
ing (D) 2
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 1
24.
.ne
A path AB in the form of one quarter of a
circle of unit radius is shown in the figure.
17. Consider the shaded triangular region P

shown in the figure. What is∬ xydxdy?
y
t
Integration of  x  y  on path AB
2
traversed in a counter-clockwise sense is

Y
B
x+2y=2
1
P x X
A
0 2
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ (A) (C)
(B) ⁄ (D) 1 (B) (D) 1
18. The value of is 25. The divergence of the vector field

( )
̂ ̂ ̂ at a point (1,1,1) is
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
⁄ ⁄ equal to
(B) (D)
(A) 7 (C) 3
(B) 4 (D) 0
th th th

ME – 2010 ME – 2012
26. Velocity vector of a flow field is given as 33. Consider the function ( ) in the
⃗ ̂ .̂ The vorticity vector at interval . At the point x = 0,
(1, 1, 1) is f(x) is
(A) 4 ̂ ̂ (C) ̂ ̂ (A) Continuous and differentiable.
(B) 4 ̂ ̂ (D) ̂ ̂ (B) Non – continuous and differentiable.
(C) Continuous and non – differentiable.
27. The function (D) Neither continuous nor
(A) o o ∀ R differentiable.
∀ R
(B) o o ∀ R 34. . / is
∀ R
ww
(C)
except at x = 3/2
o o ∀ R
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
w. E
(D)
∀
except at x = 2/3
o o ∀
R
R except at x = 3
35. At x = 0, the function f(x) =
(A) A maximum value
(B) A minimum value
has
28.
asy
The value of the integral ∫
∀ R
is
(C) A singularity
(D) A point of inflection
(A) –π
En (C) π
36. For the spherical surface
29.
(B) –π
gi
The parabolic arc √
(D) π
is
revolved around the x-axis. The volume of nee
.
√ √
/
the unit outward
normal vector at the point
the solid of revolution is

(A) π
(B) π
(C) π
(D) π
(A)
(B) r √
√
̂
̂
√
√
̂
̂ ing
ME – 2011
(C) ̂
(D) ̂ ̂ .ne
̂
30. If f(x) is an even function and is a positive
real number, then ∫ ( )dx equals
(A) 0
(B)
(C)
37.
√ √ √
t
The area enclosed between the straight
line y = x and the parabola y = in the
(D) ∫ ( )
x – y plane is
(A) 1/6 (C) 1/3
31. What is equal to? (B) 1/4 (D) 1/2
(A) (C) 0
(B) (D) 1 ME – 2013
38. The following surface integral is to be
32. A series expansion for the function is evaluated over a sphere for the given
(A) steady velocity vector field
defined with respect to a
(B) cartesian coordinate system having i, j and
(C) k as unit base vectors.
∫∫ ( )
(D)
th th th

Where S is the sphere, 45. If a function is continuous at a point,

and n is the outward unit normal vector to (A) the limit of the function may not exist
the sphere. The value of the surface at the point
integral is (B) the function must be derivable at the
(A) π (C) π⁄ point
(B) π (D) π (C) the limit of the function at the point
tends to infinity
39. The value of the definite integral (D) the limit must exist at the point and
∫ √ ( ) is the value of limit should be same as
the value of the function at that point
(A) √ (C) √
(B) √ (D) √ 46. Divergence of the vector field
ww
ME – 2014
̂
(A) 0
̂ ̂ (
(C) 5
) is
40.
w. E
(A) 0
(B) 1
is
(C) 3
(D)Not defined
47.
(B) 3 (D) 6
The value of the integral
41. asy
Which one of the following describes the
∫ (
(A) 3
(
)
) (
(
)
)
(C) 1
̂ ̂ ̂ En
relationship among the three vectors
+
̂ ̂ ̂
+ ̂ ̂ ̂
(B) 0 (D) 2
gi
(A) The vectors are mutually
perpendicular
(B) The vectors are linearly dependent
48. The value of the integral ∫ ∫
nee
is
(A) ( ) (C) ( )
r
(C) The vectors are linearly independent
(D) The vectors are unit vectors (B) ( )
ing (D) . /
42.
(A) 0
. ( )
/ is equal to
(C) 1
CE – 2005
1. Value of the integral ∮ ( .ne ).
43.
(B) 0.5
Curl of vector
(D) 2
( G ’ h o o h
t
Where, c is the square cut from the first
quadrant by the lines x = 1 and y = 1 will
h
⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ line integral into double integral)
(A) ( )̂ ̂ ̂ (A) ⁄ (C) ⁄
(B) ( )̂ ̂ ̂ (B) 1 (D) ⁄
(C) ̂ ̂ ̂
(D) ̂ ̂ ̂ 2. A rail engine accelerates from its
stationary position for 8 seconds and
44. The best approximation of the minimum travels a distance of 280 m. According to
value attained by (100x) for ≥ the Mean Value theorem, the
is _______ speedometer at a certain time during
acceleration must read exactly.
(A) 0 kmph (C) 75 kmph
(B) 8 kmph (D) 126 kmph
th th th

CE – 2006 10. The value of ∫ ∫ ( ) is

3. What is the area common to the circles (A) 13.5 (C) 40.5
o (B) 27.0 (D) 54.0
(A) 0.524 a 2 (C) 1.014 a2
(B) 0.614 a2 (D) 1.228 a2 CE – 2009
11. For a scalar function
4. The directional derivative of f(x, y, z) = + 3 + 2 the gradient at
f(x, y, z) = 2 + 3 + at the point the point P (1, 2, 1) is
P (2, 1, 3) in the direction of the vector
(A) 2 + 6 + 4⃗ (C) 2 + 12 + 4⃗
a= k is
(A) (C) (B) 2 + 12 – 4⃗ (D) √
(B) (D)
ww
CE – 2007
12. For a scalar function
f(x, y, z) = the directional
derivative at the point P(1, 2, 1) in the
5.
w. E
Potential function  is given as
= . When will be the stream
function () with the condition
direction of a vector
(A)
⃗ is
(C) √
asy
 = 0 at x = y = 0?
(A) 2xy (C)
(B) √ (D) 18
(B) +
En (D) 2 CE – 2010
13. A parabolic cable is held between two
6. Evaluate ∫
(A) π
(B) π⁄
gi (C) π⁄
(D) π⁄
supports at the same level. The horizontal
span between the supports is L. The sag at
nee
the mid-span is h. The equation of the
parabola is y = 4h where x is the
7. A velocity is given as
̅ = 5xy + 2 y2 + 3yz2⃗ . The divergence
r ing
horizontal coordinate and y is the vertical
coordinate with the origin at the centre of
of this velocity vector at (1 1 1) is
(A) 9 (C) 14
length of the cable is
.ne
the cable. The expression for the total
(B) 10
CE – 2008
(D) 15 (A) ∫ √
(B) 2∫ √
t
8. The equation + = 0 can be
(C) ∫ √
transformed to + = 0 by substituting
(D) ∫ √
(A) (C) √
(B)
(D) √ . /
14. The  is
(A) 2/3 (C) 3/2
9. The inner (dot) product of two vectors ⃗ (B) 1 (D)
and ⃗ is zero. The angle (degrees)
between in two vectors is 15. Given a function
(A) 0 (C) 90 ( )
(B) 30 (D) 120 The optimal value of f(x, y)
th th th

(A) Is a minimum equal to 10/3 CE – 2013

(B) Is a maximum equal to 10/3 21. The value of ∫ o
(C) Is a minimum equal to 8/3 (A) 0 (C) 1
(D) Is a maximum equal to 8/3 (B) 1/15 (D) 8/3
CE – 2011 CE – 2014
√
16. ∫ ? 22. . / o
√ √
(A) 0 (C) a (A) (C) 1
(B) a/2 (D) 2a (B) (D)
17. Wh ho h o λ such that 23. With reference to the conventional
ww
the function defined below is continuous
π ?
Cartesian (x, y) coordinate system, the
vertices of a triangle have the following
w. E π coordinates:
f(x)={ ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
π
( ) ( ). The area of the
(A) 0 (C) 1
(B)
asy
π (D) π
triangle is equal to
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
18.
En
If ⃗ and ⃗ are two arbitrary vectors with
magnitudes a and b respectively. |⃗ ⃗ |
(A)
(B) ab ⃗ ⃗
gi
will be equal to
– (⃗ ⃗ ) (C) + (⃗ ⃗ )
(D) ab + ⃗ ⃗
24. A particle moves along a curve whose
parametric equation are :
nee and z = 2 sin (5t), where x, y

and z show variations of the distance
CE – 2012
19. For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the
r
covered by the particle (in cm) with time
ing
t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration
of the particle (in cm ) at t = 0 is
sketch, ̅̅̅̅ ̂ ̂ and ̅̅̅̅
R
The area of the parallelogram is
̂ .̂ ___________
.ne
R
Q
25.
t
If {x} is a continuous, real valued random
variable defined over the interval
( ) and its occurrence is defined
by the density function given as:
. /
P ( ) wh ‘ ’ ‘ ’
√
the statistical attributes of the random
O variable {x}. The value of the integral
(A) ad –bc (C) ad + bc ∫
. /
dx is
√
(B) ac+bd (D) ab – cd
(A) 1 (C) π
(B) 0.5 (D) π⁄
20. The infinity series
o o o 26. The expression o

(A) sec (C) o (A) log x (C) x log x
(B) (D) (B) 0 (D)
th th th

CS – 2005 CS – 2010
1 
1. Let G(x)    g(i)xi where |x|<1. 7. What is the value of . / ?
(1  x) i0
2
(A) 0 (C)
What is g(i)?
(B) (D) 1
(A) i (C) 2i
(B) i+1 (D) 2i
CS – 2011
8. Given i = √ , what will be the
CS – 2007
evaluation of the definite integral
2. Consider the following two statements
about the function f(x) =|x|: ∫
P: f(x) is continuous for all real values of x (A) 0 (C) –i
Q: f(x) is differentiable for all real values (B) 2 (D) i
ww
of x
Which of the following is true? CS – 2012
w. E
(A) P is true Q is false
(B) P is false Q is true
(C) Both P and Q are true
9. Consider the function f(x)= sin(x) in the
interval x ,π⁄ π⁄ -. The number and
location(s) of the local minima of this
asy
(D) Both P and Q are false function are
(A) One , at π⁄
CS – 2008
Lim En
x sinx
(B) One , at π⁄
(C) Two , at π⁄ and π
gi
3. equals
x   x cosx (D) Two , at π⁄ and π
(A) 1
(B) 1
(C)
(D)
CS – 2013
nee
10. Which one the following function is
4. Let
P=∑ ∑ r
continuous at x =3?
(A) ( )
ing
.ne
{
where k is a positive integer. Then
(A) (C)
5.
(B) (D)
A point on a curve is said to be extreme if

(B) ( )
(C) ( )
(D) ( )
2
2 t
it is a local minimum or a local maximum.
The number of distinct extrema for the
CS – 2014
curve 3x  16x  24x  37 is
4 3 2
11. Let the function

(A) 0 (C) 2
o
(B) 1 (D) 3 ( ) | (π ) o (π ) (π )|
(π ) o (π ) (π )
CS – 2009
Where 0 1 and ( ) denote the
6. ∫ evaluates to derivation of f with respect to . Which of
(A) 0 (C) ln2 the following statements is/are TRUE?
(B) 1 (D) ln 2 (I) There exists
. / h h ( )
th th th

(II) There exists (A)

. / h h ( )
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II (B)
(D) Neither I nor II
12. A function f (x) is continuous in the

interval [0, 2]. It is known that
(C)
f(0) = f(2) = 1 and f(x) = 1. Which one
of the following statements must be true?
ww
(A) There exists a y in the interval (0,1)
such that f(y) = f(y + 1)
(B) For every y in the interval (0, 1),
(D)
w. E
f(y) = f(2 y)
(C) The maximum value of the function
in the interval (0, 2) is 1
asy
(D) There exists a y in the interval (0, 1)
such that f(y) ( )
ECE – 2006
2. As x is increased from to , the
13. En
If and are 4 – dimensional subspace
function f  x  
ex
1  ex
gi
of a 6 – dimensional vector space V, then
the smallest possible dimension of
is ____________.
(A) monotonically increases
nee
(B) monotonically decreases
(C) increases to a maximum value and
14. If ∫ dx = π, then the value of k

is equal to_______.
r
then decreases
then increases ing

(D) decreases to a minimum value and
15. The value of the integral given below is

3.


0
3
.ne
The integral sin  d is given by
(A) π
o
(C) – π
(A)
(B )
1
2
2
t(C)
(D)
4
3
8
(B) π (D) π 3 3
ECE – 2005 4.   P  ds , where P is a vector, is

1. The derivative of the symmetric function
equal to
drawn in given figure will look like
(A) ∮ P  dl (C) ∮  P  dl
(B) ∮  P dl (D)   Pdv
5. P , where P is a vector, is equal to
(A) P P  P (C) 2P  P
2
(B)  P P
2
(D)  P 2P
th th th

ECE – 2007 ECE – 2008

6. For the function , the linear 12. Consider points P and Q in the x –y plane,
approximation around = 2 is with P=(1,0) and Q=(0,1). The line
(A) (3 x) Q
(B) 1 x integral 2  xdx  ydy  along the


 
P
(C) 3  2 2  1  2 x e 2
  semicircle with the line segment PQ as its
(D) diameter
(A) is 1
7. For x <<1, coth(x) can be (B) is 0
approximated as (C) is 1
(A) x (D) depends on the direction (clockwise
(C)
ww
(B) x2
(D)
13.
or anticlockwise) of the semicircle
In the Taylor series expansion of

8.
w. E
Consider the function f(x) = x – 2.
The maximum value of f(x) in the closed
exp(x)+sin(x) about the point x=π the
coefficient of (x π)2 is
(π)
asy
interval [ 4,4] is (A) (π) (C)
(A) 18 (C) 2.25 (B) (π) (D) (π)
(B) 10 (D) Indeterminate
9. En
Which one of the following function is
14. Which of the following functions would
have only odd powers of x in its Taylor
(A)
(B) e x
gi
strictly bounded?
(C) x
(D)
2
series expansion about the point x=0?
nee
(A) sin(x3)
(B) sin(x )
2
(C) cos(x3)
(D) cos(x2)
10. lim
0
sin   /2

is
15.
r ing
The value of the integral of the function
g(x, y)=4x3+10y4 along the straight line
.ne
segment from the point (0,0) to the point
(A) 0.5 (C) 2 (1,2) in the x y plane is
(B) 1 (D) not defined (A) 33 (C) 40
11. The following Plot shows a function y

which varies linearly with x. The value of 16.
(B) 35
t
(D) 56
For real values of x, the minimum value of

2
the function f(x)=exp(x)+ exp( x) is
the integral I  ydx is 
1
(A) 2 (C) 0.5
Y
(B) 1 (D) 00
3 17. Consider points P and Q in the x-y plane,

with P=(1, 0) and Q= (0, 1).
2
1
h ∫ ( ) along
1
X the semicircle with the line segment PQ as
1 2 3
its diameter
(A) 1.0 (C) 4.0
(A) Is
(B) 2.5 (D) 5.0
(B) Is 0
(C) Is 1
th th th

(D) Depends on the direction 21. If , then has a

(clockwise or anti-clockwise) of the (A) maximum at
semicircle (B) minimum at
(C) maximum at
ECE – 2009
(D) minimum at
18. The Taylor series expansion of
sinx
at x   is given by ECE – 2011
x 
22. Consider a closed surface S surrounding a
(A) 1 
 x  2  ..... volume V. If is the position vector of a
3! point inside S, with ̂ the unit normal of S,
1 
 x  
2
 .....
the value of the integral ∯ ̂⃗ is
ww
(B)
1

3!
x  
2
 .....
(A) 3V
(B) 5V
(C) 10V
(D) 15V
w. E
(C)
(D) 1 
3!
 x   2
 .....
ECE\IN – 2012
23. The direction of vector A is radially
asy 3! outward from the origin, with

where and K is
constant. The value of n for which
19.
En
If a vector field ⃗ is related to another
vector field ⃗ through ⃗ = ⃗ , which . A = 0 is
gi
(A) 2 (C) 1
of the following is true? Note: C and
(B) 2 (D) 0
refer to any closed contour and any
surface whose boundary is C.
(A) ∮ ⃗ ⃗ = ∬ ⃗ ⃗
nee
ECE\EE – 2012
(B) ∮ ⃗ ⃗ =
(C) ∮ ⃗ ⃗ =
∬⃗ ⃗
∬⃗ ⃗
( )
r
24. The maximum value of
[1,6] is ing
in the interval
(D) ∮ ⃗ ⃗ = ∬⃗ ⃗
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 41
(D) 46 .ne
ECE – 2010
20. If ⃗ ̂ ̂ , then ∮ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ over the
ECE – 2013 t
25. The maximum value of unit which the
approximation holds to within
path shown in the figure is
10% error is
(A) (C)
(B) (D)
26. The divergence of the vector field

⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ is
(A) 0 (C) 1
(B) 1/3 (D) 3
√ √
(A) 0 (C) 1
(B) ⁄√ (D) 2√
th th th

27. Consider a vector field ⃗ ( ) The closed 34. The magnitude of the gradient for the
loop line integral ∮ ⃗  can be expressed function ( ) at the
as point (1,1,1) is_______.
(A) ∯( ⃗ )  over the closed
35. The directional derivative of
surface boundary by the loop
( ) ( ) ( )in the direction
(B) ∰(  ⃗ )dv over the closed volume √
bounded by the loop of the unit vector at an angle of with

(C) ∭(  ⃗ )dv over the open volume y axis, is given by ________________.
bounded by the loop
(D) ∬( ⃗ ) over the closed surface EE – 2005
bounded by the loop 1. For the scalar field u = , magnitude
ww
ECE – 2014
of the gradient at the point (1, 3) is
(A) √ ⁄ (C) √
w. E
28. The volume under the surface
z(x, y) = x+y and above the triangle in
the x-y plane defined by
(B) √ ⁄ (D) ⁄
asy
{0 y x and 0 x 12} is______
2. For the function f(x) = , the
maximum occurs when x is equal to
(A) 2 (C) 0
29. For
En
function ( )
the maximum value of the
occurs at
(B) 1 (D) 1
(A)
(B)
o
o
gi (C)
(D) o 3. If S = ∫
nee
(A)
(B) ⁄
⁄
, then S has the value
(C) ⁄
(D) 1
30. The value of . / is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
EE – 2006
4.
r ing
A surface S(x, y) = 2x + 5y – 3 is
31. The maximum value of the function the points that satisfy .ne
integrated once over a path consisting of
32.
( ) ( )
occurs at x =____.
(wh
The maximum value of

) (x+1)2+ (y 1)2 =√ . The integral
evaluates to
(A) 17√
t
(C) √ /17
(B) 17/√ (D) 0
( ) in the interval
0 x 3 is ______.
5. The expression V = ∫ πR ( h ) h
33. For a right angled triangle, if the sum of for the volume of a cone is equal to
the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side (A) ∫ πR ( h )
is kept constant, in order to have
(B) ∫ πR ( h ) h
maximum area of the triangle, the angle
between the hypotenuse and the side is (C) ∫ π ( R) h
(A) 12 (C) 60 (D) ∫ π ( ⁄R)
(B) 36 (D) 45
th th th

EE – 2007 EE – 2010
6. The integral ∫ ( ) o 11. At t = 0, the function ( ) has
equals (A) a minimum
(A) o (C) (1/2) o (B) a discontinuity
(B) 0 (D) (1/2) (C) a point of inflection
(D) a maximum
EE – 2008
7. Consider function f(x)= ( ) where 12. Divergence of the three-dimensional
x is a real number. Then the function has radial vector field is
(A) only one minimum (A) 3 (C) ̂ ̂ ̂
(B) only two minima (B) 1/r (D) ̂( ̂ ̂)
ww
(C) three minima
(D) three maxima 13. The value of the quantity P, where
∫ , is equal to
8. w. E
EE – 2009
f(x, y) is a continuous function defined
over (x, y) [0, 1] [0, 1]. Given the two
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) e
(D) 1/e
asy
constraints, x > and y > , the
volume under f(x, y) is
EE – 2011
(A) ∫
En ∫
√
( )
14. The two vectors [1, 1, 1] and [1, a,
where a = .
√
/, are
],
(B) ∫
(C) ∫
√
gi∫
∫
√
(
(
(
)
)
)
(A)
nee
(B)
(C)
orthonormal
orthogonal
parallel
(D) ∫ ∫ (D) collinear
9. A cubic polynomial with real coefficients 15. r ing

The function f(x) = 2x – has
(A) can possibly have no extrema and no
zero crossings x=5
.ne
(A) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
(B) may have up to three extrema and

upto 2 zero crossings
(C) cannot have more than two extrema
and more than three zero crossings
x= 5
t
(B) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
(C) only a maxima at x = 1

(D) only a minima at x = 1
(D) will always have an equal number of
extrema and zero crossings EE – 2013
16. Given a vector field
10. F(x, y) = ( )̂ ( )̂ ’ , the line integral
line integral over the straight line from ∫ evaluated along a segment on the x-
( ) = (0, 2) to ( ) = (2, 0) axis from x = 1 to x = 2 is
evaluates to (A) 2.33 (C) 2.33
(A) –8 (C) 8 (B) 0 (D) 7
(B) 4 (D) 0
17. The curl of the gradient of the scalar field
defined by
(A)
th th th

(B) 23. ( ) Where f and

(C) ( ) ( ) v are scalar and vector fields respectively.
( ) If h is
(D) (A)
(B)
EE – 2014 (C)
18. Let ( ) . The maximum value of (D)
the function in the interval ( ) is
(A) (C) 24. The minimum value of the function
(B) (D) ( ) 0 in the
interval , - is
19. The line integral of function , in the (A) 20 (C) 16
ww
counterclockwise direction, along the
circle is
(B) 28 (D) 32
w. E
(A)
(B) π
π (C) π
(D) π
IN – 2005
1. A scalar field is given by f = x2/3 + y2/3,
where x and y are the Cartesian
20.
( ) asy
Minimum of the real valued function
( ) occurs at x equal to
coordinates. The derivative of f along the
line y = x directed away from the origin,
(A)
(B) En (C) 1
(D)
at the point (8, 8) is
(A)
√ (C)
gi
√
(B)
√ (D)
nee
21. To evaluate the double integral √
( ⁄ )
∫ .∫ . / / dy, we make the
2. Given a real-valued continuous function
substitution u = (
integral will reduce to
) and . The
r ing
f(t) defined over [0,1],
(A) (C) f(1)
∫ ( ) is
( ) ∫ (∫ ) (B) 0
.ne (D) f(0)
( ) ∫ (∫
( ) ∫ (∫ )
)
3. The value of the integral ∫
(A) 2
(B) does not exist
t (C)
(D)
2
is
4. ̅(t) has a constant magnitude,

If a vector R
( ) ∫ (∫ ) then
̅ ̅
̅
(A) R ̅ R
(C) R ̅
22. A particle, starting from origin at t = 0 s, ̅
̅
̅ ̅
̅
(B) R (D) R R
is traveling along x-axis with velocity
π π
o . / 5. If f = + ……
At t = 3 s, the difference between the + where ai (i = 0 to n) are constants,
distance covered by the particle and the then is
magnitude of displacement from the (A) ⁄ (C) nf
origin is _________ (B) ⁄ (D) n√
th th th

6. The plot of a function f(x) is shown in the (B) once differentiable but not twice
following figure. A possible expression for (C) twice differentiable but not thrice
the function f(x) is (D) thrice differentiable
f(x)
11. For real x, the maximum value of is.
1 (A) 1 (C) √
(B) e 1 (D)
x IN – 2008
0 12. Consider the function y = x2 6x + 9. The
(A) ( ) (C) ( ) maximum value of y obtained when x
ww
(B) . / (D) . / varies over the interval 2 to 5 is
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 9
7.
w. E
IN – 2006
The function
approximated as
( ) is
where is in 13. The expression for x > 0 is equal to
asy
radian. The maximum value of for
which the error due to the approximation
(A) –
(B) x
(C)
(D)
is within
En
(A) 0.1 rad (C) 0.3 rad 14. Given y = + 2x + 10, the value of |
8.
(B) 0.2 rad
gi (D) 0.4 rad
The solution of the integral equation

()
is equal to
nee
(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 12
(D) 13
() ( )∫ ( ) ( ) 15.
r
(A) Indeterminate ing (C) 1
(A) ( () ( )) (B) 0
.ne (D)
(B) (
(C)
(
(
()
()
()
(
(
))
))
( )) IN – 2009
t
16. A sphere of unit radius is centered at the
origin. The unit normal at a point (x, y, z)
( () ( )) on the surface of the sphere is
(D) ( ( ) ( ))
(A) (x, y, z) (C) . /
√ √ √
(B) . /
IN – 2007
√ √ √ (D) . /
√ √ √
9. The value of the integral
∫ ∫ dx dy is. IN – 2010
(C) Π 17. The electric charge density in the region
(A) √π⁄
(D) π⁄ R: is given as
(B) √π
σ( ) , where x and y are in
meters. The total charge (in coulomb)
10. Consider the function f(x) = , where x
contained in the region R is
is real. Then the function f(x) at x = 0 is
(A) π (C) π⁄
(A) continuous but not differentiable
(B) π (D) 0
th th th

18. The integral ∫ . / sin(t) dt 23. A scalar valued function is defined

as ( ) , where A is a
evaluates to
symmetric positive definite matrix with
(A) 6 (C) 1.5
dimension n× n ; b and x are vectors of
(B) 3 (D) 0
dimension n×1. The minimum value of
( ) will occur when x equals
19. The infinite series
(A) ( ) (C) . /
( ) ………… (B) – ( )
converges to (D)
(A) cos (x) (C) sinh(x) 24. Given
(B) sin(x) (D) () ( π)
π
()
ww
o . π /
IN – 2011
The o w
20. The series ∑ ( ) converges
(A) A circle
w. E
for
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B) A multi-loop closed curve
(C) Hyperbola
IN – 2013 asy (D) An ellipse
En
21. For a vector E, which one the following
statement is NOT TRUE?
(A)
(B) If
(C) If
E
E
E
gi E o o
E is called conservative
E is called irrotational
nee
(D) E E -rotational
IN – 2014 r ing
22. A vector is defined as
̂ ̂ ̂
.ne
t
Where ̂ ̂ ̂ are unit vectors in
Cartesian ( ) coordinate system.
The surface integral ∯ f.ds over the
closed surface S of a cube with vertices
having the following coordinates:
(0,0,0),(1,0,0),(1,1,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1),
(1,0,1),(1,1,1),(0,1,1) is________
th th th

ME = 0 o 1
1. [Ans. A]
√ √
Since, potential function of ⃗ is x²yz = 0 1
( ) ( ) ( )
9. [Ans. B]
2. [Ans. D]
o h 10. [Ans. B]
π h π o ( ) ( )
ww
For V to be max
Hence, h
This is of the form . /
Applying L hospital rule
3.
w. E
[Ans. A]
=
( )
. /
(
asy) | | | | =
En =
4. [Ans. A] gi
After changing order ∫ ∫ ( )
11. [Ans. B]
nee
Let the vectors be
5. [Ans. A]
I= ∫ ( )
r
( )(⃗ )(⃗ )
ing
=2∫ [ ∫ ]
.ne
6.
= 2∫
[Ans. A]
A Line integral and a surface integral is
Now Area vector will be perpendicular to
plane of i.e.
will be the required unit vector.
t
And option (A), (D) cannot give a vector
connected by stokes theorem
product
|(⃗ ⃗ ) (⃗ )|
7. [Ans. B]
12. [Ans. B]
Applying ’ Hospital rule, we get
Given: √ √ √
I=
( ) √
I=
( )
8. [Ans. A]
For
∫ 0 1 [ ]
th th th

But y is always greater than x. = ∫ ( )

Hence y= 4 only.
= ∫ ( )
13. [Ans. B] = 0 1
Since interval given is bounded, so
minimum value of functions is 1. =
14. [Ans. D] 18. [Ans. B]

L=
( )
h h ∫√ ( )
Let x= a3 ⇒ a=2
( )
L =∫ (√ ).dx
ww = ( ) |
Now by partial fractions,
(a3 8) = (a 2)(a2+2a+4)
w. E
=1.22
19.
⇒L=
[Ans. C]
=
asy
15. [Ans. D]
To see whether the integrals are bounded Taylor series expansion of f(x) about a is
or unbounded, we need to see that the given by
En
o ’ h h
interval of integration. Let us write down
( ) ( ) ( )
( )
( )
options, gi
the range of the integrands in the 4
A (0,1); B (0,1); C (0, ); D (0, ) nee

Coefficient of (x- )⁴
Now f(x)= ex
⇒ (x)= ex
( )
r
⇒ (a)= ea
Thus, (D) , i.e., ∫ dx is unbounded.
Hence for a=2,
ing ( )
16. [Ans. B]
h o o o Φ 20. [Ans. D]
div {( )̂ ( .ne )̂ ( )̂}
t
⃗⃗
along a vector ⃗ ( Φ)
( ) ( ) ( )
Hence directional derivative is
( ̂ ̂) =3
(grad (x2+2y2+z)).
√
̂ ̂)
(2x ̂ ̂ ̂ ). ( 21. [Ans. C]
=
Hence at (1,1,2),
⇒
Directional derivative =
⇒ ( )
17. [Ans. A]
I = ∬ .dx dy
⇒ ( )
The limit of y is form 0 to and limit
of x from 0 to 2 ( )( )
I =∫ ∫ ∫ . /
th th th

22. [Ans. A] 23. [Ans. A]

Given: Short method:
y2  4x Take a point on the curve z = 1, x = 0,
y=0
x2  4y
Length between origin and this point
√( ) ( ) ( ) =1
(4,4) This is minimum length because all
(0,0) options have length greater than 1.
24. [Ans. B]
x4
  4x Y
16
ww
or x4  64x
or x(x  64)  0
3
B
w. E
or x3  64
or x  4 x = cos 
A
X
 y 4
asy
 Required area = ∫ .√ /
y=sin 
Path is x2  y2  1

En 2 x3 
 2 x3 2   
4
R  e
(x  y)2  1  2sin  cos 

4
 (4)3 2 
3
gi
3 120
64
12
nee
2
 cos2 
  (1  sin2)d  
0  2 0
2
32 16 16  1 1 
  
3 3 3
Alternately
=
r    1
2 2 2 2
Alternately ing
For point where both parabolas cut each
other
Given: x  y  12
Put x=cos  , and y=sin 

2
.ne
y2  4x, x2  4y
 x  4 4x
2
or x2  8 x
 x  y 2  cos2  sin2  2sincos
= 1  sin2
t
or x4  64x
∫ ( )
or x3  64
 x  4,0 ,(4,0)  cos2    1 1
2
      
 Required area  2 0  2 2 2 
4 4
x2  
  4x   dx    1
0 0 4 2 
4
 2 x3  16
 2 x3 2     25. [Ans. C]
 3 120 3
F  3xzi  2xyj  yz2k
⃗ ⃗
th th th

( ) ( ) ( ) √
 3z  2x  2yz
π ∫ π* +
At point (1, 1, 1), divergence =3+2 2=3
π
π( )
26. [Ans. D]
⃗
o ⃗ ⃗ 30. [Ans. D]
̂ ̂ ̂ If f(x) even function
∫ ( ) ∫ ( )
|| ||
31. [Ans. D]
ww o
̂
(
( )̂
) ̂ ̂
Standard limit formulae
27.
w. E
[Ans. C]
32. [Ans. B]
⇒ asy 33. [Ans. C]
En The function is continuous in [ 1, 1]

It is also differentiable in [ 1, 1] except at
1
gi 1 2
x = 0.
nee
Since Left derivative = 1 and
Right derivative = 1 at x = 0
y is continuous for all x R, and

34.
r
[Ans. B]
o
ing
differentiable for all x
since at o o
R, except at
’ h
,
= ( ) /2 =1/2 .ne
Using this standard limit, here a = 1 then
value towards the left and right side of

35. [Ans. D]
( )
t
( )
28. [Ans. D] ( )
( )
∫ , - π
f(x) has a point of inflection at x =0.
29. [Ans. D] 36. [Ans. A]
∫ π ( )
Volume from x = 1 to x = 2, ̂ ̂ ̂
̂ ̂ ̂
∫π
( )
√ √
th th th

̂ 38. [Ans. A]
̂ ̂
√ √ By Gauss Divergence theorem,
√ ̂ √ ̂ ̂
√ √ ∬( ̅ ̅) ∭( )
The unit outward normal vector at point
P is (Surface Integral is transformed to
volume Integral)
( )
( ) ( ) ( )
(√ ̂ √ )̂
̂ ̂
√ √
∭( ) ∭
37.
ww
[Ans. A]
The area enclosed is shown below as
w. E
shaded
π
π
asy ( ) ∬( ̅ ̂) ∭( )
En ( π)
gi ( )
The coordinates of point P and Q is
obtained by solving
y = x and y = simultaneously,
39.
nee
π
[Ans. C]
i.e. x =
⇒ (
⇒
) r ∫(√ ) ( )
Using Integration by parts ing

Now, x = 0 ⇒
and x = 1 ⇒
which is point Q(0,0)
which is point
∫ ∫
.ne
P(1,1)
So required area is
Here,
f=ln(x) and dg=√
and g=
t
∫ ∫ o
∫(√ ) ( )
* + * +
[ ] ∫ ( )
[ ] [ ]
( )
th th th

40. [Ans. A] π
0 o 1
So the minimum value is
[Differentiating both . /
=
o o o w ’
Hospital method]
. / 45. [Ans. D]
o o o o ( ) o
o o
( ) ( )
otherwise it is said to be discontinuous.
41. [Ans. B]
ww
G o
46.
So the most appropriate option is D.
[Ans. C]
|
w. E |
Div
̂ ̂ ̂ ( )
42.
asy
Vectors are linearly dependent
[Ans. B]
En ( )
gi
) (
( ) 47. [Ans. B]
o ( )( )
( )
, ho -
nee
Let
r
( ) ( )
o ( )( )
ing
∫
( ) o ( )
43. [Ans. A] ∫
̂ ̂ ̂
( ) () .ne o
o
o
t
⃗
[ ]
48. [Ans. B]
̂ [ ( ) ( )]
∫ ∫ ∫ |
̂ [ ( ) ( )]
∫ , -
̂[ ( ) ( )]
̂, - ,̂ - ̂, - ∫ ( ) |
( )̂ ( )̂ ( )̂
[ ]
44. [Ans. *] Range 1.00 to 0.94
h o , - , -
π
th th th

CE a =2a cos i.e, cos ⇒

1. [Ans C]
R
G ’ theorem is ( )

∮(  ) ∬( ) ( )
Here I = ∮ ( )
, ∫ ∫ -
∮ (( ) ( ) )
 = xy =∫ ∫ ( o )

= y and = 2y o
∫( )
’ h o w
ww
I= ∫
=∫ ∫
∫ , ( )-
π
. / | |
w. E
=∫ ∫ π
. / (
π π √
)
2.
asy
[Ans. D]
Since the position of rail engine S(t) is
*
π
(
π √
)+
En
continuous and differentiable function
according to Lagrange’s mean value
*
π π √
+
=
gi
theorem more
(t) = v(t) =
( )
m/sec
( ) ( )
nee
(
π √
)
= ×
= 126 kmph
kmph 4.
r
[Ans. C]
f = 2 +3
ing ( )⃗
.ne
Where v(t) is the velocity of the rail
engine.
3. [Ans. D]
h
r=2acos
’ o h
= 4xi + 6yj + 2zk
At P (2, 1, 3)
Directional derivation ̂
t
(i) r = a represents a circle with centre ( )
( )
( ) ‘ ’ √ ( )
(ii) r = 2acos represents a circle ( ) ( ) ( )
symmetric about OX with centre at
√
( ) ‘ ’
The circles are shown in figure below. At
√
h o o o ‘ ’
P 5. [Ans. A]
y Q
Potential function,
π 3
x
O A
th th th

8. [Ans. D]
Put √
Integrating ∫ ∫
 =√
wh o
 =√ …… ( )
⇒
Now given equation is
……….. (ii)
6. [Ans. B] h h h
Let I(α) ∫ dx …( ) ( ) ( )
ww =∫ (
= ∫
) . / = ( √ ) [ from eqn(i)]
w. E
Then Integrating by parts we get,
= 0 ( α o )1
√ (
h
)
=asy
= . / √ ( ( ) )
dI =
En √ (
h
√ )
( ) gi
Integrating, I =
+C=0
o
α
() ( )
nee
h
C=
(α) α
π
r
Now substitute in eqn (ii) we get
h h ing
 ( )
π
h .ne h
I(0) =
But from equation (i), I(0) = ∫
∫ dx =
dx
⇒
⇒
h h t
Which is the desired form
7. [Ans. D]
√ is the correct transformation.
̅=5 +2 + 3y ⃗
(⃗ ) 9. [Ans. C]
̅ ̅=0
= 5y + 4y + 6yz
̅ ̅ o
At(1, 1, 1)
If ̅ ̅ = 0
div ( ) = 5.1 + 4.1 + 6.1.1
= 15  o
Since P and Q are non-zero vectors
 o
 0
th th th

10. [Ans. A] √
Since the limit is a function of x. We first √
√ √
integrate w.r.t. y and then w.r.t. x √
∫ ∫( )
13. [Ans. D]
Length of curve f(x) between x = a and
x = b is given by
∫ ∫( )
∫√ ( )
∫ * +
Here, 4h … … ( )
ww ∫ ( )
= 8h
Since
w. E∫ ( )
and y = h at x =
(As can be seen from equation (i), by
asy
* ( ) ( )+
substituting x = 0 and x = L/2)
(Length of cable)
*
En + =∫ √ . /
11. [Ans. B]
gi nee
ho ∫ √
h
f = + 3 +2
f = grad f = i +j +k
14.
r
[Ans. A]
ing
= i(2x) + j(6y) + k(4z)
The gradient at P(1, 2, 1) is
.ne
12.
= i(2×1) + j(6×2) + k(4 ( ))
= 2i + 12j – 4k
[Ans. B]
15. [Ans. A]
( )
t
( )
⃗
⃗ ̂
⃗ Putting,
⃗
√
o ̂ Given,
( ) . / is the only stationary point.

√
* +
. /
√
th th th

Since the limit is in form of , we can use

* +
. / ’ ho o o o ()
and get
* + λ
. /
Since, π
⇒λ
Since, ⇒λ
We have either a maxima or minima at
. / 18. [Ans. A]
Also since, r=0 1 = 8 > 0, the point ( )

o
ww
. /
o
( ) o o ( )
(w. E
The minimum value is
)
19. [Ans. A]
, o -
asy Area = |̅ ̅ |
̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅
R ( ) ( )
En
So the optimal value of f(x, y) is a | |
16. [Ans. B]
gi
minimum equal to
√
̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅
nee
R
̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅
R
( ) ( ) ̅( )
Let I = ∫
Since ∫ ( )
√
√ √
∫ (
…( )
)
20.
r
[Ans. B]
ing
I=∫
√
(i) + (ii)  2I = ∫
√
…( )
√ √ 21. [Ans. B] .ne
 2I = ∫
2I = |
√ √
∫
o
o
t o
 I = a/2
⇒ o
17. [Ans. C]
For a function f(x) to be continuous, ⇒ ∫ ( )
at x=a
( ) ( ) ∫ ( )
If f(x) is continuous at x=
π λ o * +
. /
[ ]
th th th

( ) ( ) ( )
[ ] | |
Substituting the values we get

( ) ( ) ( )
| |
24. [Ans. 12]
π π
ww ∫ o
w. E
∫
∫
o
o
(
o
o )
( )
∫asy o
o ( )
[ En ] ⇒
( )
22. [Ans. C]
gi Magnitude of acceleration
nee
=√ ( )
⇒
(
(
)
)
25.
r
[Ans. B]
We have
ing
⇒
∫ ( )
.ne
=1+0=1
Hence correct option is (C)
, ow - ∫ ( ) ∫ ( )
t
∫ ( )
23. [Ans. A]
(4, 3)
a
(2, 2)
c
b x ( )μ
(1, 0) 0.5 0.5

o ∆ wh o –ordinate points are
given is given by
th th th

26. [Ans. A]
=
α = =1
Use L – hospital Rule
4. [Ans. A]
α
P=∑ … ( –1)
o
= log x ‘ ’ w h a =1, l=2k 1
P= ( ) ( )
CS =
1. [Ans. B] Q=∑ … k
1 

ww
1  x 
n
r 0
n  1 r
Cr x
1
r

‘ ’
(
w h
) (
k
)
w. E
Putting n=2,

  r1 Cr xr   r1 C1xr

 
1  x 2 r0
21 r
Cr xr
 asy
r 0
  r  1 xr   i  1 xi
r 0

5.
⇒
[Ans. D]
r 0
En i 0 y = 3 – 16 – 24 + 37
gi
(since r is a dummy variable, r can be = 12 48 – 48 x = 0
replaced by i)
nee
x (12 – 48x 48 ) = 0
x = 0 or 12 – 48x – 48 = 0
∑ ()
4x – 4 = 0
g(i) =i+1
=2
r x=
√
√
ing =
√
=
√
.ne
2. [Ans. A]
f(x)= |x| = 36 96x 48
Continuity: In other words, Now at x = 0
f(x) = x o
Since,
≥
x for x< 0
= =0 ,
=
At 2 ± √ also
48 0
t 0 (using
f (x) is continuous for all real values of x calculator)
Differentiability: There are 3 extrema in this function
( ) ( )
( ) 6. [Ans. D]
( )
Since ∫ ( ) =∫ ( )
R h 
I =∫
So |x| is continuous but not differentiable
 ( )
at x=0 =∫
( )
Since tan (A B) =
3. [Ans. A]
⁄
= ⁄
th th th


[ ]
∫
[ ]
 9. [Ans. B]
0 1
∫ f(x) = sin x
0 1 ⇒ ( ) o
 ( ) ⇒ o
( ) ( ) π π π π
∫ [ ]
( ) ( )
  ( )
∫ ∫ At . / gives maximum
ww
=, ( )-
value
At . / gives minimum
w. E
= ln ( sec ) – ln (sec 0)
= ln (√ ) ( )
value
asy
= ln ( )–0= 10. [Ans. A]
For x = , f(x) =
7. [Ans. B]
En
( ) *( ) +
For x = , f(x) = 3 – 1 = 2
For x = 3, f(x) = 2
*
gi ( ) + 11.
nee
(
[Ans. C]
) (
By Mean value theorem

) = f(3)
( ) [
. /
]
12. r
[Ans. A]
ing
Define g(x) = f(x) – f(x + 1) in [0, 1]. g(0)
8. [Ans. D] .ne
is negative and g(1) is positive. By
intermediate value theorem there is
∫
o
o
€( ) h h g(y) = 0
That is f(y) = f(y + 1)
Thus Answer is (A)
t
∫ 13. [Ans. 2]
* w +
* w +
∫ For min maximum non – common
elements must be there
⇒ * +
* + must be common to any 2 elements
of V1
[ ] ( )minimum value = 2
, -( o π π )
th th th

14. [Ans. 4]
∫ | ∫∫
∫ π
o ( )
oπ π o (π)
π o π π
Hence option (A) is correct
∫ ∫( )
ECE
1. [Ans. C]
ww ∫ ∫ (∫ )
w. E o ∫ o dy
dx
 0 for x< 0
asyo
Substituting the limits
π o (π) o ( )
dy
dx
 0 for x> 0
π
En 2. [Ans. A]
∫
gi Given,
nee
 f ' x  
f x 
1  e .e  e
x
ex
1  ex
x 2x

ex
0
1  e  x 2
 
2
= x cos
∫ | ∫∫
3. r
[Ans. C]
ing
1  ex
= π o ( π) π o π ∫
.ne
15.
= π
LHS = I + II = π
[Ans. A]
π π⇒
∫(
Let cos = t ⇒
o ) t
At o
∫ o
π o π
o
∫ o | ∫ ∫ o
∫( ) ∫( )
∫
| |
∫ ( ) ( )
th th th

8. [Ans. A]
Given, f  x   x2  x  2
df  x 
0
dx
4. [Ans. A]  2x 1=0
o ’ h o 1
 x
∬( ) ∮ 2
d2f  x 
 = 2 ve
5. [Ans. D] dx2
From vector triple product So it shows only minima for interval
[ 4, 4], it contains a maximum value that
ww (
Here,
⇒ (
)
)
(
(
)
)
(
(
)
)
will be at x= 4 or x=4
 f( 4)=18 and f(+4)=10
6.
w. E ( ) ( )
9. [Ans. D]
y  f  x  ; x  0, 
asy
[Ans. A]
( )
For strictly bounded, 0  limy  
 x  x0  f' x0   x  x0  f'' x0 
2 x0
En
 f  x0  
1

2
 ...... or 0  lim y  
x
2

gi
 e  (x  2)(e 2
)
 x  2
 x  22  ...... 
2
2
e ......
2
10. nee
[Ans. A]
2
So, y  e x is strictly bounded
 e2  3  x 

 2
(Neglecting higher power of x)

 lim
0
r sin  /2

1  sin  /2  1
1  sin  /2
ing
 lim 
0 2
  /2 

7. [Ans. C]
= lim 
2  0  /2  2
.ne
coth (x)=
x x2 x3
e  1     ..........
x
=
ex  e x
ex  ex
11. [Ans. B] t
Two points on line are ( 1, 0) and (0, 1)
1 2 3 Hence line equation is,
x x2 x3  y y 
ex  1     .......... y   2 1 x  c
1 2 3  x2  x1 
x2 x4 y  x c
1
  ..........
ex  ex 2 4 y  x 1 … ( )
 x x 
e e x3 x5 2 2
x    .......... 5
3 5 I   ydx    x  1dx   2.5
1 1 2
1
or cot h (x)= (Since at x=1,y=2)
x
(Neglecting x2 and higher order)
th th th

12. [Ans. B] 15. [Ans. A]

Taking f(x, y)= xy, we can show that, Given : g  x,y   4x3  10y 4
xdx+ydy, is exact. So, the value of the
The straight line can be expressed as
integral is independent of path
y=2x
(0, 1) Then g(x,y)=4x3+ 10 (2x)4

1 1

4
 
I   4x3  10 2x   dx   4x3  160x4 dx 
0 0
1
 4x4 160 5 
=   x  33
5 0
(1, 0)
 4
ww ∫( ) 16. [Ans. A]
w. E
f(x)= +
(x)= =0 x=0
∫ ∫ (x)= + >0  x R.
asy Hence minimum at x=0

f(0)=1+1=2
[ |
En | ] Alternatively:
For any even function the maxima &
13. [Ans. B]
gi
Let f(x)  ex  sinx
o ’
minima can be found by
A.M. >= GM
nee
=> exp(x) + exp( x) ≥ 2
Hence minimum value = 2
f  x   f a    x  a f'a  
 x  a
2!
2
f''a  17. r
[Ans. B]
ing
where, a=
f  x   f     x   f'  
 x  
2
f'' 
Q
.ne
Coefficient of (x )2 is
f '' 
2
2!
tP
f''   ex  sinx |at x   e

 Coefficient of (x )2=0.5 exp () ∫( )
14. [Ans. A]
∫ ∫
o [ | | ]
Thus, ( )w h o ow
( )w h ow
o ( )w h ow
o ( )w h ow
th th th

18. [Ans. D] 21. [Ans. A]

sinx = x ....
sin (x –π ) y= o
( ) ( )
= (x – π ) – .... o  o
or sin x = (x – π ) –
( ) ( )
... 
( ) ( ) o
or =1 – ....
( )
( )
( ) ( )  = o
or = 1 ....
( )
Since
19. [Ans. D] Therefore, at has a maximum.
ww
∮
o ’ h o
⃗ ⃗ = ∬⃗ ⃗ 22. [Ans. D]
Apply the divergence theorem
w. E
According Stokes Theorem
∮ ⃗ ⃗ =∮ ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗
∯ ⃗ ∭
20.
asy
[Ans. C]
̂ ̂
( )∭
⃗⃗⃗
En ̂ ̂
( and is the position vector)
⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
3
Y gi S R
23. [Ans. A]
nee ̅ ⇒ [ (
̂
)]
̂
r
1 Q
P ⇒
⇒
[ (
( ) ing
)]
.ne
X
√ √
⇒ ( ) ⇒
∮ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
√
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
24.
⇒
[Ans. C]
t
√
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ * + [ ] ( ) , -
√ √ ( ) ( )
= [ along PQ y =1 dy =0] ( ) ⇒
are the stationary points
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ .√ / , - ( )
( ) ( )
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
√
∫√ . / and f(2) = 25 and f(4)=21
√ √
M o ( ) , -
[ ] f(6)=41
∫ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ ∫ .√ / ( )
25. [Ans. B]
∮ ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
⇒
th th th

o 30. [Ans. C]
E o
( )
π
⇒
31. [Ans. *] Range to 0.01
E o o ( ) ( )
26. [Ans. D] ( )
̅ ̂ ̂ ̂ ⇒
⇒
( )
= ( )
ww =1+1+1
=3 o
( )
h
27.
w. E
[Ans. D]
o ’ h o “ h integral of a
32. [Ans. *] Range 5.9 to 6.1
Maximum value is 6
asy
⃗
vector around a closed path L is equal
to the integral of curl of ⃗ over the open
( )
( )
En
∮⃗ ⃗
o
∬(
h o
⃗ )⃗
h ”
(
(
)
)
28.
gi
Volume under the surface
(
nee
(
)
)
∫ ∫ ∫
33.
r
[Ans. C]
ing
Let x (opposite side), y (adjacent side)
and z (hypotenuse side) of a right angled
∫ ∫ ( ) triangle
.ne
∫
∫ * +
t
Given o …
( )( o )
29. [Ans. A]
o o
( )
̇( ) ⇒ ( ) o ⇒
⇒ ( ) o
Since ( ) is negative, maximum value of ⇒
o
f(x) will be where ( )
0( )
1
⇒ ⇒
o oh
⇒ ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ( )( ))
( )
th th th

By trial and error method using options Now at x = 2

π (2) = ( )
= ( )
= 2 <0
34. [Ans. *] Range 6.8 to 7.2 At x = 2 we have a maxima.
⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ = 0 1
̂ ̂ ̂
At (1, 1, 1) ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ 3. [Ans. C]
|⃗ | √ =∫ , - , -
= . /
35.
ww
[Ans. *] Range 2.99 to 3.01
√
( )
√
( )
4. [Ans. D]
⃗
w. E √
At (1, 1), ⃗
(
√
)̂
(̂ ̂ )
√
( )̂ 5. [Ans. D]
We consider options (A) and (D) only
because which contains variable r.
asy
Given unit vector, ̂
So, directional derivative
√
(̂ ̂ ) By integrating (D), we get
π , which is volume of cone.
⇒ ⃗ ̂
En (̂ ̂ )
√
(̂
√
̂ )
6. [Ans. D]
EE
1. [Ans. C]
gi =3
By property of definite integral
nee
∫ ( ) ∫ ( π )
On simplification we get option (D)
Grad u = ̂
At (1, 3) Grad u = √ ,( ⁄ )
⁄
-
7.
r
[Ans. B]
f(x) = ( ) ing
=√
(x) = 2(
=4x( ) =0
)
.ne
2. [Ans. A]
f(x) =
(x) = ( )
points.
(x) = 4[x(2x) +( ) ]
t
x = 0, x = 2 and x = 2 are the stationary
= 4[2 -
= ( ) = 4 [3 -
Putting ( (x) = 0 = 12
( )=0 (0) = < 0, maxima at x = 0
( )=0 (2) =(12)
x = 0 or x = 2 are the stationary points. = 32 > 0, minima at x =
Now, ( 2) =12( )
(x) = ( ) ( )( ) = 32 > 0; minima at x =
= ( ( )) There is only one maxima and only two
= ( ) minima for this function.
At x = 0, (0) = ( )=2
Since (x) = 2 is > 0 at x = 0 we have a
minima.
th th th

8. [Ans. A] = , -
=, ( )-
= ( ) ( ) =1
1
14. [Ans. B]
0 Dot product of two vectors
=1+a+ =0
So orthogonal
√
15. [Ans. C]
∫ ∫ ( ) f(x) =
( )
9. ww
[Ans. C]
( )
( )
So the equation f(x) having only maxima
w. E
( )
( ) 16.
at x = 1
[Ans. B]
asy
( )
( )
̂ ̇̂
10.
En
[Ans. D]
̅=(
̂
̂
̂
̂
̂
̂
(
(
gi )̂
) = (0, 2)
) = (2, 0)
(
Equation of starting line

)̂
=
∫
nee
Along x axis ,y=0,z=0
∫
The integral reduces to zero.

⇒ y = 2 – x , dy = – dx
̅ ̅ =( ) ( ) 17. r
[Ans. D]
ing
Putting
∫̅ ̅ ∫
y = 2 – x and dy = – dx
∫ ( ) C o o
.ne ‘ ’
t
( )
11. [Ans. B] .( )̂ ( )̂
( )̂ /
( )
̂ ̂ ̂
But at is undefined
Discontinuous || ||
( ) ( ) ( )
12. [Ans. A] ̂ ( ) ̂ ( ) ̂ ( )
̂ ̂ ̂
=0
Div ( ) ⃗
̂
=. ̂ ̂ /( ̂ ̂ ̂) 18. [Ans. A]
= 1+1+1= 3 ( ) ( ) ( )
o ( ) ( )
13. [Ans. B] ⇒
M
P=∫
th th th

19. [Ans. B] π
0 . /1
∫⃗
∫ [ ]
⇒ o o π 23. [Ans. A]
( ⃗) ⃗ ⃗
∫ ( )( )( )
( ) ( )
⃗
o
∫ ( ) [ ]
π 24. [Ans. B]
( )
20. [Ans. C] ( ) ⇒
ww
( ) ( )
⇒
⇒( )( )
w. E
( ) ⇒
( )
( ) w , -
For number of values of ( )
⁄ ( )
o ( ) ( )
asy ( ) (
( )
)
( )
M
En ( )
( )
21. [Ans. B]
G
gi IN
1.
nee
[Ans. A]
o
o h o
o
⇒
r ing
⇒ o ( )
Unit vector along y = x is

.ne
t
G ∫ (∫ ) π
̂ o
∫ (∫ ) ̂
√ √
o ̂
22. [Ans. 2] . /. /
( ) √ √
π π π √ √
∫ ∫ o . / . /
√
√
2. [Ans. D]
Using L Hospital Rule., numerator
()
becomes = = ( )
From the graph, distance at
th th th

3. [Ans. B] When
Given integral is, I=∫ ( ) ( )
Let f(x) = so curve of 1/ will be And when
f(x)
( ) ( )
The possible expression for f(x) is
1 . /
7. [Ans. B]
-1 0 1 x
Error,
This curve will be discontinuous at x=0
wwo ’ w o For error to be minimum

( o ) ( )
4.
w. E
[Ans. A]
Let R
̅( ) =K (constant)
|R
̂ z (t) ̂
̅ (t) =x (t) ̂+y (t) + ⇒
⇒
o
asy
i.e., (t) + (t) + (t) = constant.
On analyzing the given (A) option, we find
⇒
√
that R
En
̅(t)
̅( )
will give constant magnitude,
so first differentiation of the integration will √
5.
be zero.
[Ans. C]
gi nee 1
Given :
f=
where,
+ …… +
(i=0 to n) are constant.
G
r o
ing
+
= +(n 1) ……
⇒ .ne
and
(n 1)
=0+
+n
+ ……
⇒
√
√
t
+
⇒ ( )
= , + + -
= nf ⇒
⇒
6. [Ans. B]
8. [Ans. B]
( ) ( )
When () ∫ ( ) …( )
( ) ( ) Differentiating the above equation

When
( ) ( )
th th th

() 14. [Ans. B]
, ()
Given y = x2 + 2x + 10
= 2x + 2
∫ ( ) -
|
From equation (i)

() 15. [Ans. C]
() () By definition
()
⇒ ()
16. [Ans. A]
This is Leibnitz linear equation Unit vector= =xi+yj+zk
wwIntegrating factor I.F = ∫

the solution is
and
17. [Ans. C]
w. E
()
( )
∫ R:
Y
asy 1 +1 X
En
1
, - o
9.
10.
[Ans. D]
[Ans. A]
gi nee
Area =
Total charge = σ
( )
This is a standard question of

differentiability & continuity
=
= r coulomb.
ing
11. [Ans. C]
y=
18. [Ans. B]
We know that .ne
=(
⇒ tan x = 1
Or x =
).(cos x + sin x) = 0
∫ () (
π
) t
( )wh
π
∫ . / . /
y will be maximum at x =
y= 19. [Ans. B]
= = √
Expansion of sin x
........
12. [Ans. C]
y(2) = ( )
20. [Ans. B]
y(5) = ( )
In a G.P ( )
13. [Ans. C] For a G.P to converge
( )
y= ⇒ ⇒ ( )
y= ⇒
th th th

21. [Ans. D]
.E=0 is not irrational (it is solenoidal)
22. [Ans. 1]
From Gauss divergence theorem, we have
∫ ̅ ̅ ∫ ̅ ∫ ̅
∫. /dxdydz
∫ ∫ ∫ ( )
̅ ̂ ̂ ̂
[ ]
23.
ww
⇒
[Ans. C]
24. w. E
[Ans. D]
asy
/
π
En
π
gi
o .
nee
( π )
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

Differential Equations
ME – 2005 (B) degree 1 order 1

1. If x xy n y then (C) degree 2 order 1
(D) degree 2 order 2
what is y
(A) e (C) ⁄
ME – 2007
(B) 1 (D) ⁄
7. The solution of y with initial value
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 2 y (0) = 1 is bounded in the interval
and 3. (A)  x  (C) x  1,x  1
The complete solution of the ordinary (B)   x  1 (D) 2  x  2
ww
y
p
y
qy s
ME – 2008
w. E
x x 8. It is given that + 2y + y = 0, y (0) = 0,
y y(1) = 0. What is y (0.5)?
2. Then, p and q are (A) 0 (C) 0.62
asy
(A) p =3, q = 3
(B) p =3, q = 4
(C) p =4, q = 3
(D) p =4, q = 4
(B) 0.37 (D) 1.13
3.
En
Which of the following is a solution of the
9. Given that ẍ + 3x = 0, and x(0) = 1,
ẋ (0) = 0, what is x(1)?
x
(A)
y
p
y
xgi q y
(C) x ME – 2009
(A) 0.99
(B) 0.16
nee
(C) 0.16
(D) 0.99
(B) x
ME – 2006
(D) x
10.
r
The solution of x
condition y ing s
y x with the
4. For +4
integral is:
+ 3y = , the particular (A) y
.ne (C) y
(A)
(B) ME – 2010
(B) y
t (D) y
(C) 11. The Blasius equation, , is a

(D) +
(A) second order non-linear ordinary
5. The solution of the differential equation
(B) third order non-linear ordinary
dy 2
 2xy  ex with y (0) = 1 is: differential equation
dx (C) third order linear ordinary
(A) (1+ x) (C) (1 x) differential equation
(B) (1+ x) (D) (1 x) (D) mixed order non-linear ordinary
6. The partial differential equation
( ) ( )= 0 has
(A) degree 1 order 2
th th th

ME – 2011 x x
,y- * + ,y-
12. Consider the differential equation t
x x
y x. The general solution with ,y- * + ,y-
t
constant c is
(A) y t n t n 17. If y = f(x) is the solution of with
(B) y t n ( ) the boundary conditions y t
(C) y t n ( ) x at x __________
(D) y t n( )
18. The general solution of the differential
equation os x y with c as a
ww
ME – 2012
13. Consider
x x
the
y
with the boundary
constant, is
(A) y s n x y x
w. E
conditions of y(0) =0 and y(1) = 1. The
complete solution of the differential
(B) t n (
(C) os (
)
)
y
x
(A) x
asy
equation is
(C) s n( )
(D) t n ( ) x
En
(B) s n ( )
(D) s n( ) 19. Consider two solution x(t) = x t and
x t x t of the differential equation
ME – 2013
14. The
u
gi
partial
is a
x
x t
nee
t
x t
x t
|
t su t t
t
(A)
(B)
linear equation of order 2
non – linear equation of order 1 x r x t
t
|
ing
.ne
(C) linear equation of order 1
x t x t
(D) non – linear equation of order 2 The wronskian W(t) =| | t
15. The solution to the differential equation

where k is a constant,
subjected to the boundary conditions
t
(A) 1
(B) 1
s
t (C) 0
(D)
u(0) = 0 and u(L) = U, is 20. The solution of the initial value problem
(A) u (C) u ( ) xy y is
(B) u ( ) (D) u ( ) (A) (C)
(B) (D)
ME – 2014
16. The matrix form of the linear system CE – 2005
x y and x y is 1. Transformation to linear form by
substituting v = y of the equation
x x
,y- * + ,y- + p(t)y = q(t)y ; n > 0 will be
t
x x (A) + (1 n)pv = (1 n)q
,y- * + ,y-
t
th th th

(B) + (1 n)pv = (1+n)q CE – 2007

6. The degree of the differential equation
(C) + (1+n)pv = (1 n)q
+ 2x = 0 is
(D) + (1+n)pv = (1+n)q
(A) 0 (C) 2
(B) 1 (D) 3
2. The solution of
y y , ( ) 7. The solution for the differential equation
in the range x is given by = x y with the condition that y = 1 at
x = 0 is
(A) ( os x s n x)
(A) y = (C) In(y) =
(B) ( os x s n x)
ww
(C)
(D)
( os x
( os x
s n x)
s n x)
(B) In(y) = +4 (D) y =
w. E
CE – 2006
8. A body originally at 600C cools down to
C in 15 minutes when kept in air at a
temperature of 250C. What will be the
3.
asy
A spherical naphthalene ball expanded to
the atmosphere losses volume at a rate
temperature of the body at the end of 30
minutes?
En
proportional to its instantaneous surface
area due to evaporation. If the initial
(A) 35.20C
(B) 31.5 C
0
(C) 28.70C
(D) 150C
gi
diameter of the ball is 2 cm and the
diameter reduces to 1 cm after 3 months,
the ball completely evaporates in
(A) 6 months (C) 12 months
CE – 2008
9.
nee
The general solution of
(A) y = P cos x + Q sin x
+ y = 0 is
4.
(B) 9 months (D) Infinite time
The solution of the differential equation

(B)
(C)
(D)
r y = P cos x
y = P sin x
y=Psn x ing
x xy x given that at x = 1,
10. Solution of = .ne
at x = 1 and y = √ is
y = 0 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A) x
(B) x
y
y t
(C) x
(D) x
y
y
CE – 2009
11. Solution of the differential equation
5. The differential equation = 0.25 y is to be
3y + 2x = 0 represents a family of
solv us ng t b w r mpl t Eul r’s
method with the boundary condition y = 1 at (A) Ellipses (C) circles
x = 0 and with a step size of 1. What would (B) Parabolas (D) hyperbolas
be the value of y at x = 1?
CE – 2010
(A) 1.33 (C) 2.00
12. The order and degree of the differential
(B) 1.67 (D) 2.33
equation + 4 √( ) y = 0 are
respectively
(A) 3 and 2 (C) 3 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 1
th th th

13. The solution to the ordinary differential 2. The following differential equation has
3
equation + 6y = 0 is d2y  dy 
3  4   y2  2  x
(A) y= + dt2  dt 
(B) y= + (A) degree=2, order=1
(C) y= + (B) degree=1, order=2
(D) y= + (C) degree=4, order=3
(D) degree=2, order=3
14. The partial differential equation that can
be formed from z = ax + by + ab has the ECE – 2006
form (w t p n q ) d2y
3. For the differential equation 2
 k2y  0
(A) z = px + qy dx
ww
(B)
(C)
z = px + pq
z = px + qy + pq
the boundary conditions are
(i) y=0 for x=0 and
(ii) y=0 for x=a
w. E
(D) z = qx + pq
The form of non-zero solutions of y
CE – 2011 (where m varies over all integers) are
m x
asy
15. The solution of the differential equation
+ = x, with the condition that y = 1 at
y ∑ sn
m x
x = 1, is
(A) y =
En + (C) y = +
y ∑ os
(B) y = +
CE – 2012
gi (D) y = +
nee
y
y
∑
∑
x
16. The solution of the ordinary differential

equation y=0 for the boundary ECE – 2007
4.
r ing
The solution of the differential equation
condition, y=5 at x = 1 is
(A) y (C) y k2
d2y
dx2 .ne
 y  y 2 under the boundary
(B) y
CE – 2014
17. The integrating
(D) y
for the differential

conditions
(i) y=y1 at x=0 and t
(ii) y=y2 at x=, where k, y1 and y2 are
equation s constants, is
(A) y y y xp( x⁄ ) y
(A) (C)
(B) y y y xp x⁄ y
(B) (D)
(C) y y y s n x⁄ y
(D) y y y xp x⁄ y
ECE – 2005
1. A solution of the following differential
ECE – 2008
equation is given by
5. Which of the following is a solution to the
d2y dy
 5  6y  0 differential equation x t x t
dx2 dx
(A) t
(A) y  e  e (C) y  e  e
2x 3x 2x 3x (C) x t t
(B) x t
(D) x t t
(B) y  e  e (D) y  e  e
2x 3x 2x 3x
th th th

ECE – 2009 ECE– 2011

6. The order of the differential equation 10. The solution of the differential equation
3
d2y  dy  y y is
  y4  et is
dt 2  dt  (A) x (C) y
(A) 1 (C) 3 (B) x (D) y
(B) 2 (D) 4
ECE\EE\IN – 2012
7. Match each differential equation in Group 11. With initial condition x(1) = 0.5, the
I to its family of solution curves from solution of the differential equation,
Group II. t x t is
Group I Group II
(A) x t
ww dy y 1. Circles (C) xt
P. 
dx x (B) x t (D) x
dy y 2. Straight Lines
w. E
Q.
R.
dx
dy x


x
3. Hyperbolas
ECE\IN – 2012
12. Consider the differential equation
S. asy
dx y
dy
dx

x
y
y t
t
y t
t
y t t
(A)
En
P-2, Q-3, R-3, S-1
wt y t | n |
y
(B)
(C)
(D)
gi
P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-1
P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-3
P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-2
nee
(A)
(B)
num r l v lu o
(C)
t
(D) 1
| s
ECE – 2010
8. Consider a differential equation
ECE – 2013
r ing
13. A system described by a linear, constant
y
y x x with the initial condition
s ng Eul r’s rst or r m t o
coefficient, ordinary,
.ne
first order
differential equation has an exact solution
with a step size of 0.1, the value of y
is
(A) 0.01
(B) 0.031
(C) 0.0631
(D) 0.1
given by y t or t
t
when the forcing
function is x(t) and the initial condition is
y(0). If one wishes to modify the system
so that the solution becomes – 2y(t) for
t > 0, we need to
9. A function n x satisfies the differential (A) Change the initial condition to – y(0)
and the forcing function to 2x(t)
equation where L is a
(B) Change the initial condition to 2y(0)
constant. The boundary conditions are: and the forcing function to –x(t)
n and n . The solution to (C) Change the initial condition to
this equation is
j√ y(0) and the forcing function to
(A) n x xp x
j√ x(t)
(B) n x xp x √
(D) Change the initial condition to
(C) n x xp x
– 2y (0) and the forcing function to
(D) n x xp x
– 2x(t)
th th th

ECE – 2014 (B) x t

14. If the characteristic equation of the (C) x t
differential equation (D) x t
y has two equal roots,
EE – 2011
t n t v lu s o r
3. With K as a constant, the possible solution
(A) ±1 (C) ±j
for the first order differential equation
(B) 0,0 (D) ±1/2
is
15. Which ONE of the following is a linear (A) (C)
non-homogeneous differential equation, (D)
(B)
where x and y are the independent and
ww
dependent variables respectively?
(A) xy (C) xy
EE – 2013
4. A function y x x is defined over
16.
w. E
(B)
If z
xy
xy ln xy then
(D) an open interval x = (1,2). At least at one
point in this interval , is exactly
(A) x
asy y (C) x y
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
(B) y
En x (D) y x
EE – 2014
5. The solution for the differential equation
17.
x x
gi
If a and b are constants, the most general
solution of the differential equation
x s n
t
x
neex
|
x w t n t l on t ons x
s
t
(A)
(B)
t
bt
(C)
(D)
bt (A) t
t
r t
(B) s n t ing
os t
18. With initial values y(0) = y (0) = 1, the

(C) s n t
(D) os t t
os t
.ne
solution of the differential equation
y tx s
6. Consider
x x
the
y
t
EE – 2005
1. The solution of the first order differential Which of the following is a solution to this
qu t on x’ t 3x(t), x (0) = x is differential equation for x > 0?
(A) x (t) = x (C) x (t) = x (A) (C) x
(B) x (t) = x (D) x (t) = x (B) x (D) ln x
EE – 2010 IN– 2005

2. For the differential equation 1. The general solution of the differential
equation (D2 4D +4)y = 0, is of the form
x with initial conditions
(given D = d/dx), and C1 and C2 are
x n | , the solution is constants
t (A) C1e2x (C) C1e2x + C2 e2x
(A) x t (B) C1e + C2
2x (D) C1e2x + C2x
th th th

2. urv s or w t urv tur ρ t IN– 2007

any point is equal to cos θ w r θ s t
3 5. The boundary-value problem y λy
angle made by the tangent at that point y y w ll v non-zero
with the positive direction of the x-axis, solut on n only t v lu s o λ r
r gv nρ , where y and y (A) ± ± …
⁄
(B) …
are the first and second derivatives of y
(C) …
with respect to x)
(D) …
(A) circles (C) ellipses
(B) parabolas (D) hyperbolas
IN– 2008
IN– 2006
= 1 + y2. Which one of the following
3.
ww
For an initial value problem
ÿ
y
ẏ y
n ẏ
can be a particular solution of this
differential equation?
w. E
various solutions are written in the
following groups. Match the type of
(A) y = tan (x + 3) (C) x = tan (y + 3)
(B) y = tan x + 3 (D) x = tan y + 3
asy
solution with the correct expression.
Group 1
P. General solution
Group 2
1. 0.1ex
IN– 2010
En
of homogeneous
equations
y with y(0)=1. The value of
gi
Q. Particular integral 2.
R. Total solution
(A cos 10 x
+ B sin 10 x)
3. cos 10 x +
y(1) is
(A)
nee
(B)
(C)
(D)
satisfying boundary 0.1e

conditions
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3
x
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3

IN – 2011
8. r ing
Consider the differential equation
ÿ ẏ y with boundary conditions
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1
.ne
y(0) = 1, y(1) = 0. The value of y(2) is
(A) 1
t
(C) –
4. A linear ordinary differential equation is
(B) (D)
given as
d2y dy
2
 3  2y  δ(t) IN– 2013
dt dt
9. The type of the partial differential
Where  (t) is an impulse input. The
solut on s oun by Eul r’s orw r - equation is
difference method that uses an (A) Parabolic (C) Hyperbolic
integration step h. What is a suitable (B) Elliptic (D) Nonlinear
value of h?
(A) 2.0 (C) 1.0 10. The maximum value of the solution y(t) of
(B) 1.5 (D) 0.2 the differential equation y t ÿ t
with initial conditions ẏ and
y , for t is
(A) 1 (C)
(B) 2 (D) √
th th th

IN– 2014
11. The figure shows the plot of y as a
function of x
x
y
x
y
ww The function shown is the solution of the
w. E
differential equation (assuming all initial
conditions to be zero) is :
asy
(A)
(B) x
(C)
(D)
x
|x|
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

ME 4. [Ans. B]
1. [Ans. D] The given differential equation may be
lnx written as
x y xy
x y y y
lnx ux l ry qu t on s
y y
x x
lnx
omp r ng w g t
x x
∫ ∫
ow x Substituting D=2, we get
y(I.F.) = ∫ x
ww x y ∫ x x
( )
w. E
olv ng bov
utt ng x
n t v lu o
t n n t v lu o y t
5. [Ans. B]
First order equation,

dy
dx
 Py  Q,
asy
x w sy
Where P = 2x and Q =
Since P and Q are functions of x, then
2. [Ans. C]
En
Given equation is Integrating factor,
2
x
p
p
p
gi
y
x
qy
q y
q
I.F. = e  Pdx  e x
Solution is
nee
y ∫ x
y
ts solut on s
um o roots p
y
r 2
yex  x  c
∫
ing x
p
ro u t o roots q
Since, y
(1 + x) e  x2 .ne
,c=1
3.
q
[Ans. C] 6.
y
[Ans. A]
t
Order: The order of a differential equation
Given equation is
y y is the order of the highest derivative
p q appears in the equation
x x
p q y Degree: The degree of a differential
ut p n q equation is the degree of the highest
y order differential coefficient or derivative,
when the differential coefficients are free
from radicals and fraction.
The general solution of differential
y x qu t on o or r ‘n’ must nvolv ‘n’
arbitrary constant.
th th th

7. [Ans. C] y
( )y x …
y x x
v n y Standard form
x
y y
x y …
y x
Where P and Q function of x only and
nt gr t ng x
y solution is given by
y ∫ x
x
nx y ∫
Where, integrating factor (I.F)
r n x
x
y
ww
x
x
x
olut on y x
∫
∫x x x
x
8.
w. E
[Ans. A]
x and x
yx
x
Given condition
y
asy
y y
A.E is, D2+2D+1 =0
y
m 1 En
2=0
m ns t x y
P.I. = 0
ow y
gi
The C.F. is (C1+C2x)e-x
₁
nee
n y ₂ ₂
y ry
r or yx
x
x
ing
9. [Ans. D]
x
.ne
t
ẍ x 11. [Ans. B]
Auxiliary equation is
is third order ( ) and it
m2 + 3 = 0
i.e. m = ±√ is linear, since the product is not
x os√ t sn√ t allowed in linear differential equation
ẋ √ os√ t s n√ t
At t = 0 12. [Ans. D]
1=A y
y x
0=B x
y
x = os √ t ∫ ∫ x
y
x os √ t
x
t n y
10. [Ans. A]
x
Given differential equation is y t n. /
y
x y x
x
th th th

13. [Ans. A] 17. [Ans. *] Range 34 to 36

y y y
x x y
x x x
y n y y
Choice (A) satisfies the initial condition as x
well as equation as shown below y x
y x tx y
y n y y
tx
y x
lso x y x
x
y tx y
x
ww x
x
x
y
x
x
y
x
x
y
x
18. [Ans. D]
y
x
os x y
w. E
x x x
o y x is the solution to this equation with
Let x y z
y
x
z
x
14. asy
given boundary conditions
[Ans. D]
z
x
os z
15. [Ans. B] En z
x
z
os z
z
os ( )
m
u
m gi s
nee
( ) z
Integrating
t n( )
z
x
x
u
At x=0,
At x=L,
t n(
r
x
z
t n( ) x
y
) ing
x
( )
.ne
t
n 19. [Ans. A]
u x Since the determinant of wronskian
matrix is constant values for, therefore it
is same for both t=0 and t=
Solving we get u = U( ) x t x t
t x t x t
t t
16. [Ans. A]
x
x y
t
y 20. [Ans. B]
x y y
t ∫ ∫ x x ln y x ln
So by observation it is understood that, y
y
x x ln ( ) x y
,y- * + ,y-
t
v ny
n y
th th th

CE y
tx s
1. [Ans. A] x
Given + p(t) y = q(t) y ; n > 0
Given, v = y
v y
n y
t t
y v n
t n y t
Substitution in the differential equation y ( os x sn x)
we get
+ p(t)y = q(t) y 3. [Ans. A]
ww
Multiplying by (1 n) y we get
v
t
p t n y q t n
t
Where, V =
…
w. E
Now since y
v
n pv
= v we get
n q
r
r
r
t
asy
Where p is p (t) and q is q(t)
t t
Substituting in (i) we get
4 r = r )
2. [Ans. A]
y En y
r
y
x
y
( )
gi
x
y t
 dr = kdt
nee
Integration we get
r = kt + C
x
This is a linear differential equation
±
r
At t = 0, r = 1
1= k×0+C
C=1 ing
y r = kt + 1
Now at t = 3 months r = 0.5 cm .ne
t
( )
0.5 = k × 3 + 1
os x sn x
os x 
sn x
os x r t
sn x utt ng r n solv ng g v s
t n
y os x sn x t
n y  t = 6 months
os sn
4. [Ans. A]
sn x os x Given
y
os x sn x x xy – x x y
x
sn x
y
os x x xy x
x
Dividing by x
th th th

y x Hence, here the degree is 1, which is

( )y ( )
x x x power of
Which is a linear first order differential of
the form
y 7. [Ans. D]
y y
x x y
Integrating factor = I.F = ∫ x
This is variable separable form
= ∫ x
= x dx
y × I.F = ∫ .(I.F)dx
x y
yx ∫( )x x ∫ x x ∫ ∫x x
x y
Now at x = 1, y = 0 x
ww
i.e. 0 ×
log y
tx y
x
Cw. E y
log y
asy
x y
x
–x
8. [Ans. B]
y
En x x
θ
= θ θ0) (Newton’s law of cooling)
5. [Ans. C]
y
x
h=1
gi
y y tx
θ θ
nee
∫ =∫
 ln θ θ = kt +
t
Iterative equation for backward (implicit)

Euler methods for above equation would
be
θ θ
θ θ r C.
C.
Given θ = 250C
ing
y y
Now t t
60 = 25 + C.e0
θ
.ne
y
 0.25hy
y
y
y
y
+y =0
θ
C = 35
At t m nut s θ 0C
t
Putting k = 0 in above equation 40 = 25 + 35
0.25h y y +y =0
=
Since, y = 1 and h = 1
±√ Now at t = 30 minutes
0.25 y y +1=0
Θ
y =2
= 25 + 35 ( )
6. [Ans. B] = 25 + 35 × ( ) (s n )
Degree of a differential equation is the = 31.
power of its highest order derivative after ≈ C
the differential equation is made free of
radicals and fractions if any, in derivative
power.
th th th

9. [Ans. A] 12. [Ans. A]

+y=0 y y
√( ) y
+1=0 x x
E sm m ± Removing radicals we get
General solution is
y y
y= [ cos (1 × x) + sin (1 × x)] . / 0( ) y 1
x x
= cosx + sinx
The order is 3 since highest differential
= P cosx + Q sinx
Where P and Q are some constants is
The degree is 2 since power of highest
10. [Ans. D] differential is 2
ww
y
x y
x
y dy = x dx
13. [Ans. C]
y y
y
w. E
∫y y
x
∫ x x x x
Auxiliary equation is
asy
+D–6=0
(D 2) = 0
At x = 1, y = √ D = 3 or D = 2
√
En Solution is y = +
y
C=2
gi
Solution is
x
14. [Ans. C]
nee
Z = ax + by + ab …
p
z
x +y =4
q r x
z
y
b
ing
11. [Ans. A]
3y x
.ne
Substituting a and b in (i) in terms of p
and q we get z = px + qy + pq
y
x
y y
y
x
x x
15. [Ans. D]
y y
x x
x n y
t
∫ y y ∫ x x This is a linear differential equation of the
x form
y y
y wt n x
y x x x
IF = Integrations factor
x y
∫ ∫
x
( ) ( )
Solution is
x y y (IF) = ∫ x
( ) ( )  y. x = ∫ xx x
Which is the equation of a family of ellipses  yx = ∫ x x
 yx = +C
th th th

y= +  sin ka=0

m x
Now y(1) = 1 
  m x
y ∑ sn
x
ot solut on s y
x
4. [Ans. D]
16. [Ans. D] k2D2y= y y2
y  2 1 y2
x
y  D  k2  y  k2
 
y
1
y m1 = 
ww y k
C.F. = C1e  C2 e
x/k x/k
17.
w. E
[Ans. D]
Particular integral (P.I) =
=
∫
y= C1e  C2 e
x/k
At y=y1, x=0
x/k
 y1 = C1+ C2+y2 …
 y2
ECE asy At y=y2 , x=  Hence C1 must be zero

 y1 = C2+y2
1. [Ans. B]
d2y En
dy
 C2 =y1 - y2
dx2
gi
 5  6y  0
dx
A.E. is D2 5D  6  0
 D=2,3
5. nee
[Ans. B]
x
 y=(y1 – y2) exp    + y2
 k
2.
Hence, solution is y  e  e
[Ans. B]
2x 3x
r
x t
t
x t
(D +3) x(t) = 0 ing
3
d2y  dy 
dt2  dt 
3
 4   y2  2  x So, x  t   ke3t , .ne

Order of highest derivative=2
Hence, most appropriate answer is (B) some boundary / initial condition)
t
Hence x  t   2e3t is one solution (for
3. [Ans. A] 6. [Ans. B]
Given, Differential equation, The order of a differential equation is the
d2y order of the highest derivative involving
 k2y  0
dx2 in equation, so answer is 2.
Auxilary equation is The degree of a differential equation is
y the degree of the highest derivative
± involving in equation, so answer is 1.
Let y os x sn x
At x=0, y = 0  A=0 7. [Ans. A]
y sn x P. ∫ ∫
At x=a, y=0  B sin ka=0
log y log x log
B0 otherwise y=0 always
y xw s qu t on o str g t l n
th th th

Q. ∫ ∫ 11. [Ans. C]
log y log x log t x t x=1

∫
y … qu t on o yp rbol t
x
t
R. ∫y y ∫x x ol s xt ∫t t xt
y x Using initial condition, at t = 1, x = 0.5
… qu t on o ypr bol
S. ∫y y ∫x x
xt
x y … Equ t on o r l
12. [Ans. D]
8. [Ans. B]
ww y x
x
y x x
Approach 1:
y t
t
y t
t
y t t
x w. E

y y
x
x y
old y +0.1 ( ) new

Converting to s-domain
s y s sy y sy s y
asy
y s
x y y
s s y s s
0 0 0+0 0+0.1×0=0 s
0. 0 En
=0
0.1+0 0+0.1×0.1=0.01
y s
n nv rs
s s
pl tr ns orm
1 =0.1
gi
0. 0.0 0.2+0.01 0.01+0.21×0.1
2 =0.21
1 =0.031
y t
nee
y t
t
t
t u t
y t
r
The value of y at x= 0.3 is 0.031.
|
9. [Ans. D]
t
ing
Auxiliary equation m
n x
m ±
Approach 2:
y t y t
y t t .ne
olut on n x
Since, n 
t
sides
t
Applying Laplace Transform on both
y
t
Since, n  (hence s y s sy |
t
must be zero)
(sy s y ) y s
Therefore
s y s s sy s y s
The solution is, n x s s
y s
s s s s
10. [Ans. C]
y t t t
Given y and y x t
t t
ln y x y
y t t
When
y t
y y t
t
y t
th th th

y t z
| x ln xy xy x x ln xy x
t y xy
z
ox xy ln xy xy
13. [Ans. D] x
z
Let the differential equation be y xy ln xy xy
y
y t
y t x t z z
t ox y
Apply Laplace transform on both sides x y
y t
2 y t 3 {x t } 17. [Ans. B]
t
x x
sy s y y s x s x
t t
s y s x s y
ww
y s
x s
s
y
s
Pre auxiliary equation is
m m
Pre roots of AE are m .
w. E
Taking inverse Laplace on both sides
{y s } 2
x s
s
3 y {
s
}
Repeated roots are present.
So, most general solution in
y t
asy x t
So if we want
y
y t as a solution both 18.
n t bt
[Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.55
En
x(t) and y(0) has to be multiplied by
Hence change x(t) by
.
x t and y(0) by
E m m
olut ons s y bx
m
…
14.
y
[Ans. A]
gi y
nee
s ng y
bx
b …
y y
r
y y n gv s
x x
The auxiliary equation is
m m
y
n b
x ing
m
± then either
or m EE
tx y
.ne
i.e., roots of the equation are equal to
or
1. [Ans. A]
v n x’ t
i.e. x
t
x (t)
15. [Ans. A]
t
xy is a first order linear
x
equation non omog n ous ∫ ∫ t
x
xy 0 is a first order linear lnx = t
equation (homogeneous) x
r non l n r qu t ons Putting
x
16. [Ans. C] Now putting initial condition x(0) = x
z xy ln xy x
z x
y ln xy xy y y ln xy y
x xy Solution is x = x
i.e. x(t) = x
th th th

2. [Ans. B] 6. [Ans. C]
x x x y xy y
x
t t y y
y
Auxiliary equation m m x x
m m m w subst tut y
(m+4)(m+2)=0 x
m= 2, 4 t nx x x( )
x(t) = x x
n y s ts s
x
x(0) = 1 1= … (1)
IN
| 
1. [Ans. C]
ww
 …
On solving (1) & (2), we get and m m
y
w. E
x(t)= 2 Since there is double root at 2, so general
solution of the given differential equation
3.
asy
[Ans. A]
y x
would be
+
En
Integrate on both sides
2. [Ans. B]
gi
y
v n ρ os θ …
4. [Ans. B]
y
x
nee
n ρ
now y’ t nθ
y
y
…
…
x
p n nt rv l
y
x
r ing
Equating equations (i) and (ii) and using
equation (iii) in equation (ii), we get
.ne
x y os θ= os θ
x
y
x
x
Value is in between 20 and 30
So it is 25
y= .x
Which is equation of a parabola. t
3. [Ans. A]
5. [Ans. C]
A.E.
x
x gv n D= 1+ 10i
t C.F = (A cos10 x + B sin 10 x)
x os t sn t
x n x x
x
sn t os t
t 4. [Ans. C]
x
|
t
5. [Ans. C]
x os t sn t
th th th

6. [Ans. A] Hyperbolic if
Given = 1 + y2 El ps
Compare the given differential equation
Integrating ∫ =∫ x
with standard from A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
Or t n y = x + c
Or y = t n x Parabolic
7. [Ans. C] 10. [Ans. D]

y y t ÿ t
y
x
Auxiliary equation, m + 1 = 0 ±
m= 1 y os x s nx
ww
C.F = y
w. E
y= ẏ
ẏ
sn x os x
y asy
y
En So, y
or m x m
os x s n x
8. [Ans. C] gi y
nee
y
s nx
x
s nx
os x
os x
os x s n x
The solution for the differential equation

is
y
r
y m x
or x
os sn
m xm
ing
y
Now, y
x
and y , placing these
√ √ √
.ne√
values
We get,
y
and
11. [Ans. D]
By back tracking, from option (D)
y
|x| x or x
t
x
= x or x
9. [Ans. A] Integrating
Given partial differential equation is y
∫ ∫ x x or x
x
x t
∫ x x or x
x t x
We know that y or
(x y ) x
or x
is said to be
Parabolic if
th th th

Complex Variables
ME – 2007 ME – 2014
1. If x y and (x, y) are functions with 6. The argument of the complex number
continuous second derivatives, then
where i = √ , is
x y + i (x, y) π
π
can be expressed as an analytic function π 2
of x + i (i = √ ), when 2 π
(A)
7. The integral ∮ y x x y is evaluate
(B)
along the circle x + y traversed in
ww (C)
(D) +
+ + counter clock wise direction. The integral
is equal to
(A) 0 π
w. E
ME – 2008 –
π
4
–
π
4
2
2.
z
asy
The integral ∮ z z evaluated around
the unit circle on the complex plane for
is
8. An analytic function of a complex variable
En
(A) 2πi (C) 2πi
z x + i y is expressed as
z u x y +iv x y
(B) 4πi
ME – 2009
3.
gi (D) 0
An analytic function of a complex variable

where i √
nee
v(x,y) must be
f u(x,y)= 2xy, then
(A) x + y + onst nt
(B) x y + onst nt
z = x + iy is expressed as
f(z) = u(x, y) +iv(x, y) where i = 1 . r
(C) x + y + onst nt
(D) x
ing
y + onst nt
If u = xy, the expression of v should be
(A)
 x  y 2  k (C)
y 2
 x2  k 9.
.ne
An analytic function of a complex variable
z = x + i y is expressed as
(B)
x2
2
y
2
2
 k (D)
2
 x  y 2  k
2
f(z) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y),
where i = √ t
. If u (x, y) = x – y , then
expression for v(x, y) in terms of x, y and
a general constant c would be
ME – 2010 (A) xy + (C) 2xy +
4. The modulus of the complex number
(B) + (D) +
( ) is
(A) 5 (C) 1/√
10. If z is a complex variable, the value of
(B) √ (D) 1/5
∫ is
ME – 2011 (A) i
5. The product of two complex numbers (B) 0.511+1.57i
1 + i and 2 – 5i is (C) i
(A) 7 – 3i (C) 3 – 4i (D) 0.511+1.57i
(B) 3 – 4i (D) 7 + 3i
th th th

CE – 2005 CE – 2011
1. Which one of the following is NOT true for 6. For an analytic function,
complex number and ? f(x + iy) = u(x, y)+iv(x, y), u is given by
̅̅̅̅
(A) =| u = 3x 3y . The expression for v
|
considering K to be a constant is
(B) | + |≤| |+| |
(A) 3y 3x + k (C) 6x 6y+k
(C) | |≤| | | |
(B) 6y – 6x + k (D) 6xy +k
(D) | + | +| |
2| | + 2| |
CE – 2014
2. Consider likely applicable of u hy’s 7. z can be expressed as
integral theorem to evaluate the following (A) i (C) i
ww
integral counter clockwise around the (B) + i (D) + i
unit circle c.
ECE – 2006
w. E ∮s z z
z being a complex variable. The value of I

1. The value
∮| |
of the contour
z in positive sense is
integral
asy
will be
(A) I = 0: singularities set = ϕ
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
En
(B) I = 0: singularities set
=, πn 2 -
2. For the function of a complex variable
(C) I
gi
π/2: singul riti s s t
{ nπ n
(D) None of the above
2 }
W = In Z (where, W = u + jv and
Z = x + jy), the u = constant lines get
nee
mapped in Z-plane as
(A) set of radial straight line
CE – 2006
3. Using Cauchy’s is integral theorem, the
r ing
(B) set of concentric circles
(C) set of confocal hyperbolas
(D) set of confocal ellipses
value of the integral (integration being
taken in counter clockwise direction) ECE – 2007 .ne
∮
(A)
(B)
dz is
4πi
πi
(C)
(D) 1
πi
3.
the integral ∮
t
If the semi-circular contour D of radius 2
is as shown in the figure, then the value of
is
j
CE – 2009
4. The analytic function f(z) = has j2
singularities at
(A) 1 and 1 (C) 1 and i 2
j2
(B) 1 and i (D) i and i
5. The value of the integral ∫ dz

(A) jπ (C) π
(where C is a closed curve given by (B) jπ (D) π
|z| = 1) is
(A) –πi (C)
(B) (D) πi
th th th

ECE – 2008 (A) 2 (C)

4. The residue of the function (B) (D) 2
1
f z  at z=2 is ECE – 2014
z  2 z  22
2
11. C is a closed path in the z-plane given by

(A) (C) |z|=3. The value of the integral
(B) (D) ∮( ) z is
(A) 4π + j2 (C) 4π + j2
5. The equation sin(z)=10 has (B) 4π j2 (D) 4π j2
(A) no real or complex solution
(B) exactly two distinct complex 12. The real part of an analytic function z
solutions where z x + jy is given by cos(𝑥).
ww
(C) a unique solution
(D) an infinite number of complex
The imaginary part of z is
(A) os x (C) sin x
w. E
ECE – 2009
solutions
EE – 2007
(B) sin x (D) sin x
6.
asy
If f(z) =
is given by
+ z , then ∮ z 1. The value of
contour |z-i/2| = 1 is
∮ where C is the
(A) 2π
(B) 2π + En (C) 2πj
(D) 2πj +
(A) 2πi
(B) π
(C) t n z
(D) πi t n z
ECE – 2010
7.
gi
The residues of a complex function
EE – 2011
2.
nee
A point z has been plotted in the complex
plane, as shown in figure below.
(A)
z
and 1
at its poles are
(C) and r ing

nit ir l
(B) and (D) and z
.ne
ECE – 2011
8. The value of the integral ∮
where is the circle |z| is given by
z
lm nit ir l
t lm nit ir l
(A) 0 (C) 4/5

(B) 1/10 (D) 1
ECE\EE\IN – 2012 y
9. If x = √ then the value of x is y
⁄ (C) x
(A)
(B) ⁄ (D) 1 lmlm nit ir l lm nit ir l
10. Given f (z) . If C is a y

counterclockwise path in the z – plane
such that |z+1| =1, the value of
∮ z z is y
th th th

EE – 2013 IN – 2005
3. ∮ z evaluated anticlockwise around 1. Consider the circle | | 2 in the
complex plane (x, y) with z = x + iy. The
the circle |z i| 2 where i √ , is
minimum distant form the origin to the
(A) 4π (C) 2 + π
circle is
(B) (D) 2 +2i
(A) √2 2 (C) √ 4
(B) √ 4 (D) √2
4. Square roots of – i, where i = √ , are
(A) i, i
2. Let ̅, where z is a complex number
(B) os ( ) + i sin ( ) not equal to zero. The z is a solution of
os ( ) + i sin ( ) (A) z (C) z
(B) z (D) z
ww
(C) os ( ) + i sin ( )
os ( ) + i sin ( ) IN – 2006
w. E
(D) os ( ) + i sin (
os ( ) + i sin ( )
)
3. The value of the integral of the complex
function
f(s)
3s  4
EE – 2014 asy (s  1)(s  2)

Along the path s  3is
5.
En
Let S be the set of points in the complex
plane corresponding to the unit circle.
(A) 2j (C) 6j
gi
(B) 4j (D) 8j
(That is, {z: |z| } . Consider the
function f(z)=zz* where z* denotes the
complex conjugate of z. The f(z) maps S to
IN – 2007
4. nee
For the function of a complex variable
r
which one of the following in the complex
plane
(A) unit circle ing
z, the point z=0 is
(A) a pole of order 3
(B) a pole of order 2
(B) horizontal axis line segment from
origin to (1, 0) (C) a pole of order 1
(D) not a singularity.ne
6.
(C) the point (1, 0)
(D) the entire horizontal axis
All the values of the multi-valued complex

5. Let j = √
(A) √j
t
.Then one value of
(C)
is
function , where i √ are (B) 1

(D)
(A) purely imaginary.
(B) real and non-negative. IN – 2008
(C) on the unit circle. 6. A complex variable x+j has its
(D) equal in real and imaginary parts. real part x varying in the range
to + . Which one of the following is
7. Integration of the complex function the locus (shown in thick lines) of 1/Z in
z , in the counter clockwise the complex plane?
direction, around |z 1| = 1, is
(A) πi (C) πi
(B) (D) 2πi
th th th

IN – 2010
m gin ry
m gin ry
10. The contour C in the adjoining figure is
xis
xis
described by x + y . The value of
∮ z is.
l xis l xis
j (Note: √ )
j y
pl n
m gin ry
m gin ry
xis
xis
x
l xis l xis
ww j
j (A) 2πj
(B) 2πj
(C) 4πj
(D) 4πj
7.
w. E
IN – 2009
The value of ∮ where the contour
IN – 2011
11. The contour integral ∮ / with C as
asy
of integration is a simple closed curve
around the origin, is
the counter-clockwise unit circle in the z-
plane is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 2πj En (C)
(D)
(A) 0
(B) 2π
(C) 2π√
(D)
8. gi
If z = x+jy, where x and y are real. The
value of | | is nee
(A) 1
(B) √
(C)
(D)
r ing
9. One of the roots of the equation 𝑥 =j,
where j is positive square root of 1, is .ne
(A) j
(B)
√
+j
(C)
√
j
(D)
√
j
t
th th th

ME 4. [Ans. B]
1. [Ans. B] + 4i + 2i
By definition C-R equation holds 2i + 2i
+ i + 4i
+ 2i
2. [Ans. A] +4
f(z)= has simple pole at z = 0 Modulus = √
Residue of f(z) at z = 0
5. [Ans. A]
lim z z lim os z
+i 2 i
∫ z z 2πi (residue at z = 0)
2 i + 2i i i
3.
ww
[Ans. C]
2πi 2πi
6. [Ans. C]
w. E
Given u=xy
For analytic function
u v
+i
2i
i i
+i
+i
+ 2i + i
i

asy
x y
u v
2
rg (
i
+i
+ i
) t n ( )
and
En
y

x
i
π⁄
2
gi
By Milne Thomson method
Let w = u + iv
dw u v
 i
dz x x
7. [Ans. C]
nee
∫y x x y
dw

u u
i
x y r
y = r sin x
y r os
r os
ingx r sin
or
dz
 y  ix ∮ r sin
.ne
r os
π
Replacing x by z and y by 0, we get
dw
dz
 0  iz
Where, z = x + iy 8.
∮
[Ans. C]
r r
t 2π
2
u v
dw = izdz
x y
z2
Integrating, w  i C v
2 2y
y
Where C is a constant,
2y
z + x v
v m0 i + 1 2
2 y + x v
 (x2  y2  2ixy) u v
  mi 
 2  y x
2x x
y 2  x2
or v  2x
2 + x
2
x x
th th th

v y x 2. [Ans. B]
y x + onst nt
∫s z z z ∫
os z
9. [Ans. C] The poles are at z = n + /2 π
iv n u x y = π/2 π/2 + π/2
v v None of these poles lie inside the unit
v x+ y
x y circle |z| =1
v u v u Hence, sum of residues at poles = 0
y x x y Singularities set = ϕ and
u u 2πi [sum o r si u s o t z t th
v x+ y
y x poles]
2y x + 2x y 2 πi
ww rm ont ing y t rms only llow

v 2 xy + 3. [Ans. A]
10.
w. E
[Ans. B]
z
u hy’s int gr l th or m is
f(a) = ∮ z
asy
∫ ln z| ln i ln i.e. ∮ z 2πi
z
ln + ln i ln Now, ∮ z= ∮
( )
En ln
z
ln
os
+ ln i
+ i sin pplying u hy’s int gr l th or m, using
gi z i i sin π/2 z z
z / i
+ i
(
ln i ln z
i
π
2
ln
i
/
)
nee .2πi ( )/
CE r .2πi 0( )
i
.2πi 0( ) ing
1/
1/
1. [Ans. C]
(A) is true since
̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅
2π
i 4πi .ne
= ̅̅̅̅
=| |
(B) is true by triangle inequality of
complex number
2π
4πi
t
(C) is not true since | |≥| | | | 4. [Ans. D]
(D) is true since z z z
z
| + |2 = ( + ) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
+ z + z z i z+i
= ( + ) (z̅ + z̅ ) The singularities are at z = i and –i
= z̅ + z̅ + z̅ + z̅ i
And | |2 = ( + ) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅ 5. [Ans. C]
= ( + ) (z̅ z̅ ) os 2πz
r ∫
= z̅ + z̅ z̅ + z̅ ii 2z z
Adding (i) and (ii) we get * +
| + |2 + | |2 = 2 z̅ + 2 z̅ ∫
2 *z +
= 2| | + 2| |
th th th

in z is point with in |z|=1(the 7. [Ans. B]

2 i
los urv w n us u hy’s z
+i
integral theorem and say that
Multiplying by conjugates
os 2πz
[2πi ( )] wh r z 2 i i
2 2 z
+i i
[Notice that f(z) is analytic on all points
2i + i
inside |z| ]
2 +
os 2 π /2 + i
[2πi ] 2
2 ( )
+ i
2πi
6. ww
[Ans. D]
ECE
1. [Ans. D]
1

1
w. E
f = u + iv
u = 3x2 – 3y2
For f to be analysis, we have Cauchy-
Given ,
z  4 z  2jz  2j
2
Pole (0, 2) lies inside the circle |z j|=2
asy
Riemann conditions,
u v
i
y u hy’s nt gr l ormul
∮
z +4
z
x
u
En
y
v
ii
|z j| 2
2j 
y x
gi
From (i) we have
x
u
x
v
y
I
nee

2j  2j 2
r
2. [Ans. B]
∫ v
x
∫ x y iv n log
1 ing  y
 u  iv  loge  x  iy   log x2  y2  i tan1  
v
2
+ x
i.e. v = 3x2 + f(x) iii
2
Since, u is constant, therefore
.ne x
Now applying equation (iii) we get

u
y x
v
1
2
x +y

log x2  y2  c 
Which is represented set
of concentric circles.
t
y [ x+
x
3. [Ans. A]
x + y
x ∮ s 2πj sum o r si u
y x Singular points are s =
x
By integrating, Only s= +1 lies inside the given contour
f(x) = 6yx – 3x2 + K lims  1 f s
Residues at s= +1 = S1
Substitute in equation (iii)
1 1
lims  1 
 
v= 3x2 + 6yx – 3x2 + K S1 S 1 2
2
v yx + K
n ∮ s 2πj ( ) πj
s 2
th th th

4. [Ans. A] + z+
(z )
Residue of z=2 is z z
d
lim
z2 dz 
 z  2 f z
2

+
+
d 1  2 1 F(z 2πj + )
lim    lim 
  z  2  z  2 32
z2 dz  2
 z 2 3
7. [Ans. C]
5. [Ans. D] X(z) =
sin z Poles are Z= 0, Z =1, Z=2
Residue at Z=0 is lim
2i
ww 2 i
2 i
Residue at Z =1 is lim
Residue z =2 is lim
w. E
(
ut m
) 2 i 8. [Ans. A]
z+4
m
asy 2 im
2 i √ 2 i 4
∮
z + 4z +
z + 4z +
z
z+2 +
En
m
2
z 2 j will be outside the unit circle
2 i √ 2 i + i√
gi
o th t int gr tion v lu is ‘z ro’
2 2
m
i
i
√
√
i
i i i√
9.
nee
[Ans. A]
i √ x
iz
iz
log
log i + log(
iz log + i (
π
i
√
2nπ)
√ i
)
rty
⟹ log y
x log y
ing
i log i
π
i log
π
x log x
+log
π
2
√
⟹y
log y i i
2
.ne 2
iz i (
z (
π
2
2
2nπ) + log
2nπ) ilog(
( 2
√
√ )
10. [Ans. C]
∫ z z *∫
t z ∫ z+
infinite number of complex solutions

∫ z
sin z has infinite no. of complex 2πj z+
solutions where f (z) =1
6. [Ans. D]
f(z) = + z 11. [Ans. C]
+ z + + z s z 2j
z ∮ z
z z
lim z + 2j 4+ j
+ z+
∮( ) 2πj[ 4 + j 4π + 2j
z
F z 2 π j r si u o
Residue at z = 0 ( 2- order )
th th th

12. [Ans. B]
Suppose that z u x y + iv x y is √ +
analytic then, u and v satisfy the Cauchy o / is outside the unit circle is IV
Riemann equation quadrant
u v u v
n
x y y x 3. [Ans. A]
r u xy os x z 4
u v ∮
z +4
sin x
x y |z i| 2
u v z +4
os x
y x z 4
v sin x z 2i
EE ww For z 2i
Residue at z +2i
1.
w. E
[Ans. B]
Pole (z=i) lies inside the circle. |z-i/2|=1.
Hence
4 4
z + 2i +4i
t z 2i li insi
+2i
∮
asy
z +
z ∮
z+i z i
z
tz
o∮
z
2i li outsi
4
2πi sum o r si u
∮
En z 2 πi i , wh r z - z +4
2πi 2i
2.
2 πi
[Ans. D]
gi 2i
π
4.
nee
4π
[Ans. B]
Let + i √ i
Let + i
Since Z is shown inside the unit circle in I
quadrant, a and B are both +ve and r
Squaring both sides we get
+2 i i
ing
Equating real and imaginary parts
ow
√ +
2 .ne
t
+ i
i wh n 2
i 2
+ + +
Since i
√2
√ + i i
wh n
√2 √2
+ i i i
+i +i ( ) +
o in qu r nt √2 √2 √2 √2
i i
wh n
√2 √2
| | √( ) +( ) i i i
+ + +i + i( ) +
√2 √2 √2 √2
i
√ +( )
+ √ + √2 √2
π π
in √ + os ( ) + i sin ( )
4 4
th th th

or x y
π π r uis o th ir l
os ( ) + i sin ( )
4 4 x + y 4
x 2
5. [Ans. C]
x √2
z zz |z|
n s {z: |z| }
z √2 x √2 2
All point of s will be mapped on the
2. [Ans. C]
point (1, 0)
z z̅
6. [Ans. B] Multiply both the side by z, we get
z z̅ z
z
|z|
ww
z
log z i log
z r l n Non-negative |z| |z| wh r is ngl o z
since |z| is a real quantity so in order to
7.
w. E
[Ans. C]
∫ x x 2πi r s (f(a)) where a is a
satisfy above equation
quantity = 1 and
, (where n = +2 )
has to be real
r
asy
singularity in contour c
|z | n o |z |
king π/2
En
pol s o z z
⁄
nly z li s insi |z | z |z|
s(
gi) lim z
lim
z
z+
z
z
2
z+
3.
z
z
nee
|z|
[Ans. C]
quir int gr tion 2πi
2
πi
r ing
IN
1. [Ans. A] -3
X X
-2 -1
.ne 3
|
+ i
+ i | 2
Radius of the circle is 2 and centre is at
Cx y y
(Cx (
y(n) n n
)y(n))
3s  4
y(n)
1 2
t Cx
C3 =
F(s)  C3  .
CC3
(sC 1)(s  2) s  1 s  2
2
y(n) 3 3
y(n) dz y(n)
+ i By Formula,
y y  z  a  2j
xy ( (
Since, both the poles are enclosed by
n n
contour,
) )
therefore
Value of integral=2πj + 2 2πj πj
For distance to be min. The point P will be
on the line passes through origin and 4. [Ans. B]
centre of the circle. Expand by Laurent series
Slope of line OP = Slope of line OC
𝑥
th th th

5. [Ans. D] 10. [Ans. D]

⁄
⁄ ∮ z=∮ z
tx j ( )
Pole z j ⟹z j
⁄
⁄ Residue at z j ⟹ 2[ j + 2
log x log ( )
∮ z 2πj [sum o r si o pol
⁄ ⁄
log log ( )
2πj 2 4πj
π ⁄
log j
2
π 11. [Ans. C]
log j j
2 z ∮ ⁄
z
/
x
6.
ww
[Ans. B]
x+j
∮( + +
z 2z
+
z
+ ) z
The only pole of z is at z , which lies
w. E x+j
x
x j
x +
within |z|
∫ z z 2πi (residue)
Note: Residue of z at z is coefficient
| asy x +
j
j
x +
j
⁄
of z i.e. 1, here.
En j
|
ption
j
gi lim {
x +
s tis y th ov
x +
}
on itions nee
7. [Ans. A]
u hy’s int gr l ormul is
r ing
∫
.ne
8.
Here a = 0, then f(0) = sin 0 = 0
[Ans. D]
z x + iy
t
p | |= | |
= | |= | |=
9. [Ans. B]
Given x3 = j = e+jπ/2
⁄
x
π π √
x os + j sin +j
2 2
th th th

Laplace Transform
ME – 2007
1. If F (s) is the Laplace transform of
function f (t), then Laplace transform of
t
 f (t) dt is
0
(A) F (s) (C) sF (s) – f (0)
(B) F (s) f (0) (D)
CE – 2009
2. ww
ME – 2009
The inverse Laplace transform of


1
s s
2

1. Laplace transfrm of the function
f(x) = cosh(ax) is
w. E
is
(A) (C) 1 –
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
asy (D) ECE - 2005
1. In what range should Re(s) remain so
ME – 2010
3.
En
The Laplace transform of a function is
that the Laplace transform of the function
exists.
(A)
(B)
gi
. The function
(C)
(D)
is (A)
(B)
ECE – 2006nee
(C)
(D)
ME – 2012
4. The inverse Laplace transform of the
2.
r ing
A solution for the differential equation
x’(t)+2x(t)= (t) with initial condition
.ne
x( )=0 is
function F(s) is given by
(A) (C)
(A) (C) (B) (D)
(B)
ME – 2013
(D)
ECE – 2008
3. Consider the matrix P = *
t + . The
5. The function satisfies the differential
value of eP is
equation and the auxiliary
(A) * +
conditions, . The
Laplace transform of is given by (B) [ ]
(A) (C) (C) [ ]

(B) (D)
(D) [ ]
ME – 2014
6. Laplace transform of is . ECE - 2010
The Laplace transform of 4. The trigonometric Fourier series for the
waveform f(t) shown below contains
th th th

ECE – 2013
9. A system is described by the differential
equation =x(t). Let x(t)
be a rectangular pulse given by
,
Assuming that y(0) = 0 and

(A) Only cosine terms and zero value for the Laplace transform of y(t) is
the dc component
(B) Only cosine terms and a positive
value for the dc component
(C) Only cosine terms and a negative
ww value for the dc component

(D) Only sine terms and a negative value
5.
w. E
for the dc component.
Given
asy
[ ] 10. The maximum value of the solution y(t) of
the differential equation y(t) + ̈
(A) 1
En
then the value of K is
(C) 3
with initial condition ̇
≥
and
(B) 2
ECE– 2011
6. If
gi [ ]
(D) 4
then the initial

(A) 1
nee
(B) 2
ECE – 2014
(C)
(D) √
and final values of f(t) are respectively

(A) 0, 2
(B) 2, 0
(C) 0, 2/7
(D) 2/7, 0
r
11. The unilateral Laplace transform of
ing
. Which one of the following
.ne
is the unilateral Laplace transform of
?
ECE/EE/IN – 2012
7. The unilateral Laplace transform of f(t) is
. The unilateral Laplace transform
of t f(t) is
t
(A) – (C) EE – 2005
12. For the equation
(B) (D)
(t) + 3 (t) + 2x(t) = 5, the solution
x(t) approaches which of the following
8. Consider the differential equation values as t ?
(A) 0 (C) 5
(B) (D) 10
| |
EE – 2014
The numerical value of | is 13. Let be the Laplace
(A) (C) transform of signal x(t). Then, is
(B) (D) (A) 0 (C) 5
(B) 3 (D) 21
th th th

14. Let g: [ [ be a function

defined by g(x) [ ] where [x]
represents the integer part of x. (That is,
it is the largest integer which is less than
or equal to x). The value of the constant
term in the Fourier series expansion of
g(x) is_______

ME 5. [Ans. C]
1. [Ans. A]
ww
From definition,
We know ∫
Taking Laplace transformation on both
2.
w. E
[Ans. C]
1

1 1
 
1
sides
[ ] [ ]
asy
(s  s) s(s  1) s (s  1)
2 ( ) ( )
[ ( ) ( ) ]
( ) ( ) ( )
En [ ]
( )
3. [Ans. A]
gi [ ] 6.
nee
[Ans. D]
r
[ ]
ing
Matching coefficient of
in numerator we get,
s and constant
.ne
CE
1. [Ans. B]
It is the standard result that
t
L (cosh at) =
[ ]
ECE
1. [Ans. A]
4. [Ans. D] [ ]
{ }
2. [Ans. A]
{ } ̇ (t) + 2x (t) = (t)
Taking Laplace transform of both sides ,
we get
th th th

sX(s) X(0) + 2X(s) = 1 cosine terms and a negative value of the

1 dc component.
X(s) =
s2
From Inverse Laplace transform gives, we 5. [Ans. D]
get
[ ]
[ ]
3. [Ans. D ]
eP= [ ]
0 1  [ ]
and P=  
2  3 [ ]
ww
Where = 
s 1 

2 s+3
1

w. E 1 s  3 1 
s  1s  2 2 s

= 

asy s 3
  s  1 s  2 s  1
1
   s  2


6. [Ans. B]

  s
En
 1
2
s  2
s
s  1s  2  Using initial value theorem:
=
 eP
gi
 2 1
 s  1  s  2

1

1 
s  1 s  2  
 nee
 2  2
=[
 s  1 s  2
2

1 
s  2 s  1  
]
r ⁄ ing
=2
.ne
4. [Ans. C]
Since f(t) is an even function, its
trigonometric Fourier series contains
only cosine terms
t
∫ ∫ 7. [Ans. D]
*∫ ∫ +
t
[ ( )]
8. [Ans. D]
[ ]
Therefore, the trigonometric Fourier
series for the waveform f(t) contains only Taking Laplace transform on both the
sides. We have,
th th th

11. [Ans. D]
By Laplace transform property,
[ ]
[ ] ( )
[ ]
| [ ]
12. [Ans. B]
9.
ww
[Ans. B]
Writing in terms of Laplace transform
=5
By taking Laplace transform
(
w. E X(s) =
⁄
asy
( )
En 13. [Ans. B]
gi nee ( ) [ ]
r( )
ing ( )
( ) .ne
10. [Ans. D]
14. [Ans. 0.5] t
∫ ∫ |
For t = Value of constant term = 0.5

+ sin √
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK EM
Statics
ME 2005 F
P
1. Two books of mass 1 kg each are kept on
a table, one over the other. The coefficient
of friction on every pair of contacting
surfaces is 0.3. The lower book is pulled
with a horizontal force F. The minimum
value of F for which slip occurs between
Q R
the two books is
(A) zero (C) 5.74 N (A) 0.5 F (C) 0.73 F
(B) 1.06 N (D) 8.83 N (B) 0.63 F (D) 0.87 F
ME ww
2006
ME
5.
2009
A block weighing 981N is resting on a
2.
w. E
If point A is in equilibrium under the
action of the applied forces, the values of
tensions and are respectively
horizontal surface. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the
asy horizontal surface is = 0.2. A vertical

cable attached to the block provides
partial support as shown. A man can pull
En A
horizontally with a force of 100N. What
will be the tension, T (in N) in the cable if
gi the man is just able to move the block to
nee
the right?
T
(A)
600 N
520 N and 300 N r ing
(B)
(C)
(D)
300 N and 520 N
450 N and 150 N
150 N and 450 N
.ne 100N
3. If a system is in equilibrium and the

position of the system depends upon (A) 176.2
G
t (C) 481.0
many independent variables, the (B) 196.0 (D) 981.0
principle of virtual work states that the
partial derivatives of its total potential ME 2011
energy with respect to each of the 6. A 1 kg block is resting on a surface with
independent variable must be coefficient of friction . A force of
(A) (C) 1.0 0.8 N is applied to the block as shown in
(B) 0 (D) ∞ the figure. The friction force is
0.8 N
ME 2008 1 kg
4. Consider a truss PQR loaded at P with a
force F as shown in the figure. (A) 0 (C) 0.98 N
The tension in the member QR is (B) 0.8 N (D) 1.2N
th th th

.
ME 2012 10. A rigid link PQ is 2 m long and oriented at

Common Data for Q 7 and Q8: to the horizontal as shown in the
Two steel truss member, AC and BC, each figure. The magnitude and direction of
having cross sectional area of 100 mm , velocity and the direction of velocity
are subject to a horizontal force F as are given. The magnitude of (in
shown in figure. All the joints are hinged. m/s) at this instant is
A m s
C
F
ww B (A) 2.14 (C) 1.21
7.
w. E
If F =1kN, magnitude of the vertical
11.
(B) 1.89 (D) 0.96
A two member truss ABC is shown in the
kN isasy
reaction force developed at the point B in
figure. The force (in kN) transmitted in
member AB is _______
(A) 0.63
(B) 0.32
En (C) 1.26
(D) 1.46
8.
gi
The maximum force F in kN that can be
applied at C such that the axial stress in
any of the truss members DOES NOT nee m
k
exceed 100 MPa is

(A) 8.17
(B) 11.15
(C) 14.14
(D) 22.30
r ing
ME 2014 12. .ne
A body of mass (M) 10 kg is initially
9. A block R of mass 100 kg is placed on a
block S of mass 150 kg as shown in the
figure. Block R is tied to the wall by a
massless and inextensible string PQ. If the
t
stationary on a 45° inclined plane as
shown in figure. The coefficient of
dynamic friction between the body and
the plane is 0.5. The body slides down the
coefficient of static friction for all surface plane and attains a velocity of 20 m/s.
is 0.4 the minimum force F(in kN) needed The distance travelled (in meter) by the
to move the block S is body along the plane is _______
(A) 0.69 (C) 0.98

(B) 0.88 (D) 1.37
th th th

.
13. In a statically determinate plane truss, the friction between the floor and the
number of joints (j) and the number of wardrobe, respectively?
members (m) are related by y
(A) j m (C) m j
m
(B) m j (D) m j
m
14. For the truss shown in the figure, the
forces and are 9 kN and 3 kN,
respectively. The force (in kN) in the y
member QS is (A) 490.5 and 0.5
(B) 981 and 0.5
(C) 1000.5 and 0.15
All dimensions are in m
ww (D) 1000.5 and 0.25
w. E 16. A ladder AB of length 5 m and weight (W)

600 N is resting against a wall. Assuming
frictionless contact at the floor (B) and
(A)
asy 11.25 tension
the wall (A), the magnitude of the force P
(in Newton) required to maintain
equilibrium of the ladder is _______
(B)
(C) En 11.25 compression
13.5 tension
15.
(D)
gi 13.5 compression
A wardrobe (mass 100 kg, height 4 m, neem

m
m
width 2 m, depth 1 m), symmetric about
the Y-Y axis, stands on a rough level floor
as shown in the figure. A force P is applied
r ing
at mid-height on the wardrobe so as to tip
it about point Q without slipping. What .ne
m
are the minimum values of the force (in

newton) and the static coefficient of t
th th th

.
Answer Keys & Explanations
1. [Ans. D] olving equation (i and (ii , we get

for each surface is same and
Its free body diagram(m m g
1 3. [Ans. B]
Total potential energy
2 F
= f(independentvariable)
Hence for a system in equilibrium,
N = mg= g N Total potential energy =Constant
mg g Thus, partial derivatives of its total
Equation of motion of 1 potential energy with respect to each of
ww
a
×a
g
towards right
(i
independent variable must be zero
w. E
Equation of motion of 2
F ( ×a
4. [Ans. B]
P
F
asy
F–( g
towards right
a (ii
blocks
En
Now for relative motion between two
Q R
1
N
gi N
’ F nee
tan
x
x
b
1.732 x
mg
’
mg
’ b
r
tan
Taking moment about Q
ing
a
f×x × x
.ne
F g
g
F > 3×0.3×9.8
F > 8.82 N
Let force in the member PQ is
sin
sin
t
F = 8.83N Force in member
QR cos
2. [Ans. A] = 0.634 F
5. [Ans. C]
A T
100 N
600 N
cos cos (i
sin sin (ii W=981 N
th th th

.
Net normal force on block (

N = W T= 981 – T
Frictional force, f g (
Under equilibrium, i.e. when man is just Body R
able to move the block
g (
( Using 2 & 3 in 1,
( ( g ( g g
= g g g ×
–
= k
6. [Ans. B]
ww ×g
×
As theoretical frictional force is more than
10. [Ans. D]
⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
w. E
applied force P,
Hence, F = P = 0.8N.
(
(
(
cos
( )
) (r
( ( cos
(r sin
cos
(
7.
asy
[Ans. A] sin
y and
( sin( (
En × cos × cos
cos(
cos(
*
sin(
sin(
+
gi
sin
sin
sin sin
11. nee
For F = 1kN
( cos cos
r 100
ing
kN
( kN
.ne
8. [Ans. B]
sin
k
sin(
sin
cos
sin(
t
tan
sin(
× 12. [Ans. *]Range 56 to 59

k FBD of body of mass M : -
9. [Ans. D]
g
g
( ody
( ody s
Body S
th th th

.
gsin
a
gcos
Body is in equilibrium along

perpendicular to the Inclined plane
At joint S
g cos
acceleration of body along the plane (a
g sin
a
ww
a
a gsin
gsin
g cos
g cos
a
a w. E × sin
nitial velocity of body

×
m sec
u
× cos cos cos
k
asy
final velocity of body
a= 3.47 m/ sec
m s
We know:-
( En
(
u
×
as
×s
k
s
×
×
gi m
nee
But direction and are different
Hence force in member QS = 11.25
13. [Ans. C]
m j Perfectly frame truss or
statically determinate plane truss
m j Deficient frame
15.
r
tension
[Ans. A] ing
m j Redundant frame
.ne m
m
14. [Ans. A]
At joint P
k
g
t g
ree body diagram
g ×
sin
Now it can be solved by option checking
i.e, and for
sin
×
×
k
sin
th th th

.
16. [Ans. *] Range 399 to 401
ww ×
×
(moment at point
×
×
w. E from equation (
asy
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Dynamics
ME 2005 3. A shell is fired from cannon. At the instant

1. A 1 kg mass of clay, moving with a the shell is just about to leave the barrel,
velocity of 10 m/s, strikes a stationary its velocity relative to the barrel is 3m/s,
wheel and sticks to it. The solid wheel has while the barrel is swinging upwards with
a mass of 20 kg and a radius of 1 m. a constant angular velocity of 2 rad/s. The
assuming that the wheel and the ground magnitude of the absolute velocity of the
are both rigid and that the wheel is set shell is
into pure rolling motion, the angular
velocity of the wheel immediately after
ww
the impact is approximately.
20kg 2rad/s
w. E
1kg
10m/s
+
1m
2m
asy
(A) Zero (C) √ ⁄ rad / s
(A) 3m/s
(B) 4m/s
(C) 5m/s
(D) 7m/s
En
(B) ⁄ rad/s (D) ⁄ rad / s
4. A simple pendulum of length 5m, with a
2.
gi
A elevator (lift) consists of the elevator
cage and a counter weight, of mass m
each. The cage and the counterweight are
bob of mass 1 kg, is in simple harmonic
nee
motion. As it passes through its mean
position, the bob has a speed of 5 m/s.
connected by a chain that passes over a The net force on the bob at the mean
pulley. The pulley is coupled to a motor. It
is desired that the elevator should have a r
position is
(A) zero
ing (C) 5 N
maximum stopping time of t seconds from
a peak speed v. If the inertias of the pulley
5.
(B) 2.5 N
.ne
(D) 25 N
The time variation of the position of a

and the chain are neglected, the minimum
power that the motor must have is
pulley t t t
particle in rectilinear motion is given by
x t. If v is the velocity and a
the acceleration of the particle in
consistent units, the motion started with
(A) v = 0, a = 0 (C) v = 2, a = 0
(B) v = 0, a = 2 (D) v = 2, a = 2
chain
v m
ME 2007
cage
6. A block of mass M is released from point P
m v on a rough inclined plane with inclination
angle shown in the figure below he co
Counter weight
– efficient of friction is f tan then
(A) mv (C) the time taken by the block to reach
(B) (D) another point Q on the inclined plane,
where PQ = s, is
th th th

.
mass of the counterweight, for static

P balance, is
g
P
R Q
Q
(A) √ 0.5m 2.0m

(
(A) 75 kg (C) 225 kg
(B) √ (B) 150 kg (D) 300 kg
(
ww
(C) √
( 10. A straight rod of length L(t), hinged at one
end and freely extensible at the other end,
7.
w. E
(D) √
(
During inelastic collision of two particles,

rotates through an angle (t about the
hinge. At time t, L(t)=1m, ̇ (t =1m/s,
(t = rad and ̇ (t =1 rad/s.The
asy
which one of the following is conserved?
(A) total linear momentum only
magnitude of the velocity at the other end
of the rod is
En
(B) total kinetic energy only
(C) both linear momentum and kinetic
(A) 1 m/s
(B) √ m/s
(C) √ m/s
(D) 2m/s
energy
energy
gi
(D) neither linear momentum nor kinetic ME
11. nee
2009
A uniform rigid rod of mass M and length
ME
8.
2008
A circular disc of radius R rolls without r
L is hinged at one end as shown in the
ing
adjacent figure. A force P is applied at a
distance of 2L/3 from the hinge so that
slipping at a velocity v. The magnitude of
the velocity at point P (see figure) is
.ne
the rod swings to the right. The reaction
at the hinge is
P
2L/3
t L
R 30° V P
(A) –P (C) P/3

(A) √ (C) V/2 (B) 0 (D) 2P/3
(B) √ (D) 2V/√
ME 2010
9. A cantilever type gate hinged at Q is 12. There are two points P and Q on a planar
shown in the figure. P and R are the rigid body. The relative velocity between
centers of gravity of the cantilever part the two points
and the counterweight respectively. The (A) should always be along PQ
mass of the cantilever part is 75 kg. The (B) can be oriented along any direction
th th th

.
(C) should always be perpendicular to 16. A circular solid disc of uniform thickness
PQ 20mm, radius 200mm and mass 20 kg is
(D) should be along QP when the body used as a flywheel. If it rotates at 600
undergoes pure translation rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in
Joules is
ME 2011 (A) 395 (C) 1580
13. A stone with mass of 0.1 kg is catapulted (B) 790 (D) 3160
as shown in the figure. The total force
(in N) exerted by the rubber band as a ME 2013
function of distance x (in m) is given by 17. A link OB is rotating with a constant
x . If the stone is displaced by angular velocity of 2 rad/s in counter
0.1 m from the un-stretched position clockwisre direction and a block is sliding
ww
(x ) of the rubber band, the energy
stored in the rubber band is
radially outward on it with an uniform
velocity of 0.75 m/s respect to the rod , as
w. E shown in the figure below. If OA = 1 m ,

the magnitude of the absolute
acceleration of the block at location A in
asy m/s is
B
En
gi
Stone of
mass 0.1 kg
nee
A
(A) 0.01 J (C) 1 J O

(B) 0.1 J (D) 10 J
r
(A) 3 ing (C) 5
14. The coefficient of restitution of a perfectly
plastic impact is
(B) 4
.ne (D) 6
ME
(A) 0
(B) 1
2012
(C) 2
(D) ∞
18.
t
A pin jointed uniform rigid rod of weight
W and length L is supported horizontally
by an external force F as shown in the
figure below. The force F is suddenly
15. A solid disk of radius r rolls without removed. At the instant of force removal,
slipping on a horizontal floor with angular the magnitude of vertical reaction
velocity and angular acceleration . The developed at the support is
magnitude of the acceleration of the point
of contact on a disc is
F
(A) zero
(B) L
(C) √( (
(D) r (A) Zero (C) W/2
(B) W/4 (D) W
th th th

.
ME 2014 21. A truck accelerates up a 10° incline with a

19. A circular object of radius r rolls without crate of 100 kg. Value of static coefficient
slipping on a horizontal level floor with of friction between the crate and the truck
the center having velocity V. The velocity surface is 0.3. The maximum value unit of
at the point of contact between the object acceleration is (m/ ) of the truck such
and the floor is that the crate does not slide down is
(A) Zero _______
(B) V in the direction of motion
(C) V opposite to the direction of motion 22. A mass m of 100 kg travelling with a
(D) V vertically upward from the floor uniform velocity of 5 m/s along a line
collides with astationary mass m of
20. A block weighing 200 N is in contact with 1000 kg. After the collision, both the
ww
a level plane whose coefficients of static
and kinetic friction are 0.4 and 0.2,
masses travel together with the same
velocity. The coefficient of restitution is
w. E
respectively. The block is acted upon by a
horizontal force (in Newton) P=10t,
where t denotes the time in seconds. The
(A) 0.6
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.01
(D) 0
asy
velocity (in m/s ) of the block attained
after 10 seconds is _______
En
1. [Ans. B]
gi Answer Keys & Explanations
nee
= mv mv mv
By conservation of linear momentum,
mu = (m+M) v
v = 10/21 m/s
r
Final Kinetic energy = 0
ing
Time duration it occurs = t
 Power =
 = v/r = 10/21 1/3 rad/s
.ne
2. [Ans. C] 3. [Ans. C]
r = 2×2 = 4m/sec
vnet =√ = 5 m/s
t
4. [Ans. A]
Force at mean position is zero.
rm s 5m/s
v m
v
m
Power = (rate of doing work or rate of

change of K.E. energy of the system)
Initial Kinetic energy of the system
th th th

.
5. [Ans. D] 9. [Ans. D]
Given, x = t t t For balancing the moments about the
v t t , hinge Q,
75 × m ×
 m s
m = 300kg
and a t
a m s 10. [Ans. D]
L(T) = 1m, ̇ (t) = 1m/s, ̇ (t) = rad
6. [Ans. A]
t= sec
Increase in length of the rod
= L (T) × t = m
ww Mg sin New length = *

Tangential velocity
+m
w. E
Mg cos
Mg sin g cos a
=* + ̇ *
Radial velocity = 1 m/s
+m s
Now sasy
a g sin
ut at
g cos
Resultant velocity = √ * +
But u
t En
√ √
= 2 m/s
7. [Ans. A]
gi ( 11. [Ans. B]
nee
A R
In any collision, linear momentum is

conserved. Kinetic energy is conserved
only in elastic collision whereas in
inelastic collision, kinetic energy is
P
r 2L/3
L
ing G
a
converted into heat, sound or other forms

of energy. Assume reaction at hinge is R,
P
.ne
8. [Ans. A]
P
orque
( ) ( )
t
V
V Linear acceleration,
a
Magnitude of velocity at point P
a ( )
√ cos
Governing Equation,
√ cos
= Ma
√ cos = M (P/M)
√
th th th

.
12. [Ans. C] 16. [Ans. B]
13. [Ans. B] ×(
Energy stored = work done ∫ dx
× ×
∫ x dx [ x ]
rad sec
× ×(
14. [Ans. A]
For, perfectly plastic collision,
co – efficient of restitution = 0 17. [Ans. C]
15. ww
[Ans. A]
Total acceleration f √f
f radial acceleration
f
w. E f
= r
(m s
×
tangential acceleration = 2v
asy
r
× × (m s
f √ (m s
En
Motion of a body can be expressed as sum
of pure rotation and pure translation. 18. [Ans. B]
gi
For no slip condition, translation
acceleration of centre of mass a
Velocity of centre of mass v r
r
Pure translation
It undergoes fixed body rotation about 0
nee
O
W
= O
Io
Pure
rotational
a r
rR
orque ing ( )
ma
v r
.ne
a
v
r
r
Now superimposing the two motions.
a
v
r
r
m(
m
)
ma
________1
t m(r
2(W-R) = mL __________2
By 1 and 2,
(
a a
Linear acceleration of bottom point

r r 19. [Ans. A]
Velocity of bottom point No slipping Zero Relative velocity
Centripetal acceleration of bottom point
=0 20. [Ans. * ] (Range 4.8 to 5.0)
Net acceleration of bottom point = 0 Maximum static friction, f
th th th

.
mg ( mg y
f it starts sliding x
t rate
it starts sliding (just in equilibrium
t f f f
(
Using momentum principal
m a
∫ dt m( f m gsin( m a
f m a m g sin ( (
∫ ( dt m(
m gcos (
ww
∫ ( t dt
g
f
m cos (
f
(
*
w. E t
t+
g
f
Using 1&2,
m a m g sin ( m g cos (
[(
( asy ] (
g a
a [
g cos (
cos (
g sin (
sin ( ]
En m⁄s
a
a m s
21.
gi
m g
22. [Ans. D]
nee
oefficient of restitution
elative velocity of separation
rate
a
relative velocity of approach
ing
After collision, both the masses travel
together with same velocity. So relative
f
.ne
velocity of separation will be zero.
Hence, coefficient of restitution will be
zero
t
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK SOM
Simple Stress & Strain
ME 2005 ME 2007
1. A uniform, slender cylindrical rod is made 5. A 200 × 100 × 50 mm steel block is
of a homogeneous and isotropic material. subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 15
The rod rest on frictionless surface. The MPa.
rod is heated uniformly. If longitudinal The Young’s modulus nd Poisson’s r tio
and thermal stress are represented by of the material are 200 GPa and 0.3
nd respectively, then respectively. The change in the volume of
(A) (C) the block in mm³ is
(B) (D) (A) 85 (C) 100
(B) 90 (D) 110
ME
2. ww
2006
A bar having a cross-sectional area of 700 6. A steel rod of length L and diameter D,
w. E
mm2 is subjected to axial loads at the
positions indicated. The value of stress in
the segment QR is:
fixed at both ends, is uniformly heated to
a temperature rise of  T. The Young’s
modulus is E and the co efficient of linear
63 kN
asy 35 kN 49 kN 21 kN
expansion is α. The therm l stress in the
rod is
En
P Q R S
(A) 0
(B) ∝∆T
(C) E   T
(D) E   TL
3.
(A) 40 MPa
(B) 50 MPa gi (C) 70 MPa
(D) 120 MPa
A steel bar of 40 mm 40 mm square

Linked Answer Questions: Q. 7 – Q. 8
nee
A machine frame shown in the figure
below is subjected to a horizontal force of
cross-section is subjected to an axial
compressive load of 200 kN. If the length
of the bar is 2m and E = 200 GPa, the
r
600 N parallel to z – direction.
y ing
elongation of the bar will be:
(A) 1.25 mm (C) 4.05 mm .ne 500 mm
t
300 mm
(B) 2.70 mm (D) 5.40 mm
4. According to Von-Mises distortion energy

theory, the distortion energy under three
∅30 mm 600N
dimensional state of stress is represented N
by P
(A)
Z X
7. The normal and shear stresses in MPa at
(B) point P are respectively
(A) 67.9 and 56.6 (C) 67.9 and 0.0
(C) (B) 56.6and 67.9 (D) 0.0and 56.6
(D)
th th th

.
8. The maximum principle stress in MPa and 11. A rod of Length L and diameter D is
the orientation of the corresponding subjected to a tensile load P. Which of the
principle plane in degrees are following is sufficient to calculate the
respectively resulting change in diameter?
(A) 32.0 and 29.52 (A) Young’s modulus
(B) 100.0and 60.48 (B) Shear modulus
(C) 32.0and 60.48 (C) Poisson’s r tio
(D) 100.0and 29.52 (D) Both Young’s modulus nd she r
modulus
ME 2008
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 9 ME 2011
and 10 12. A thin cylinder of inner radius 500 mm
ww
A cylindrical container of radius R = 1 m,
wall thickness 1 mm is filled with water
up to a depth of 2 m and suspended along
and thickness 10 mm subjected to an
internal pressure of 5 MPa. The average
circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is
w. E
its upper rim. The density of water is
1000kg/m3 and acceleration due to
(A) 100
(B) 250
(C) 500
(D) 1000
asy
gravity is 10 m/s2. The self-weight of the
cylinder is negligible. The formula for
hoop stress in a thin – walled cylinder can
ME
13.
2012
A solid steel cube constrained on all six
En
be used at all points along the height of
the cylindrical container.
face is heated so that the temperature
rises uniformly by ∆T. If the thermal
gi 1mm
coefficient of the material is α young’s
nee
modulus is E nd the Poisson’s r tio is ,
the thermal stress developed in the cube
2m
1m r
due to heating is
(A) –
∆
∆ ing (C) –
∆
∆
2R
(B) –
.ne (D) –
9. The axial and circumferential stress

( , ) experienced by the cylinder wall
14.
t
A thin walled spherical shell is subjected
to an internal pressure. If the radius of the
shell is increased by 1% and the thickness
at mid-depth (1 m as shown) are is reduced by 1%, with the internal
(A) (10, 10) MPa (C) (10, 5) MPa pressure remaining the same, the
(B) (5, 10) MPa (D) (5, 5) MPa percentage change in the circumferential
(hoop) stress is
10. If the Young’s modulus nd Poisson’s (A) 0 (C) 1.08
ratio of the container material are 100GPa (B) 1 (D) 2.02
and 0.3, respectively, the axial strain in
the cylinder wall at mid-depth is ME 2013
(A) 2 × (C) 15. A rod of length L having uniform cross –
(B) 6 × (D) 1.2 × sectional area A is subjected to a tensile
force P as shown in the figure below. If
the Young’s modulus of the m teri l
varies linearly from E to E along the
th th th

.
length of the rod, the normal stress 19. A 200 mm long, stress free rod at room
developed at the section – SS is temperature is held between two
E S E immovable rigid walls. The temperature
P P of the rod is uniformly raised by 250°C. If
L/2 S the Young’s modulus nd coefficient of
thermal expansion are 200 GPa and
L
1× /°C, respectively, the magnitude
(A) (C) of the longitudinal stress (in MPa)
developed in the rod is ____________.
(B) (D)
20. A steel cube, with all faces free to deform,
16. A longh thin walled cylindrical shell, h s Young’s modulus E Poisson’s r tio ν
ww
closed at both the ends, is subjected to an
internal pressure. The ratio of the hoop
stress (circumferential stress) to
nd coefficient of therm l exp nsion α.
The pressure (hydrostatic stress)
developed within the cube, when it is
isw. E
longitudinal stress developed in the shell
(A) 0.5 (C) 2.0

subjected to a uniform increase in
temper ture ΔT is given by
asy
(B) 1.0 (D) 4.0
(A) 0
α ΔT E
C –
α ΔT E
α ΔT E
v
ME
17.
2014
En
A circul r rod of length ‘L’ nd re of
B
v
D
v
gi
cross-section ‘A’ h s modulus of
el sticity ‘E’ nd coefficient of therm l
exp nsion ‘α’. One end of the rod is fixed
21. If the Poisson's ratio of an elastic material
nee
is 0.4, the ratio of modulus of rigidity to
Young's modulus is ____________.
and other end is free. If the temperature
of the rod is incre sed by ΔT then
(A) stress developed in the rod is E α ΔT
22. r ing
The number of independent elastic
constants required to define the stress-
and strain developed in the rod is
α ΔT
.ne
strain relationship for an isotropic elastic
solid is ____________.
(B) both stress and strain developed in
the rod are zero
(C) stress developed in the rod is zero
23. t
A thin gas cylinder with an internal radius
of 100 mm is subject to an internal
pressure of 10 MPa. The maximum
α ΔT
permissible working stress is restricted to
(D) stress developed in the rod is E α ΔT
100 MPa. The minimum cylinder wall
thickness (in mm) for safe design must be
zero
____________.
18. A metallic rod of 500 mm length and 50

mm diameter, when subjected to a tensile
force of 100 KN at the ends, experiences
an increase in its length by 0.5 mm and a
reduction in its diameter by 0.015 mm.
The Poisson’s r tio of the rod material
is____________.
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] Since rod is fixed at both ends, so thermal

If a body is allowed to expand or contract strain will be zero but there will be
freely with rise or fall in temperature thermal stresses.
then no stress are introduced in body.
i.e. inst ed of 7. [Ans. A]
nd (but strain is not zero) Here, Twisting moment,
T = 600 × 500 × = 300 Nm
2. [Ans. A] Bending momentum,
M = 600×300× =180 Nm
63 35 kN 49 kN 21 kN T = shear stress,
ww
kN
Normal stress.
P Q R S T d
w. Ei. e.
kN
kN i. e. kN
kN
d
T
. MP
asy
Stress = d
M
. MP
=
En N m 8. [Ans. B]
=4×
= 40MPa
N m
gi Maximum principle stress
nee ( ) √( )
3. [Ans. A]
l
PL
EA
. mm
r √(
ing )
4. [Ans. C]
.
√(
.
)
.ne .
5. [Ans. B]
WE know that
t n
MP
t n [ ]
t
Δ
E .
t n [ ] .
Δ .
.
. 9. [Ans. B]
Δ mm Pressure at mid-depth ρgh
= 10³ 10 1=104 N/m2
6. [Ans. C] a= =
Since rod is free to expand, therefore
= 5 106 N/m2
∆L elong tion Lα∆t
=5MPa
∆
str in ∝ ∆t
c= = =10MPa
Thermal stress = E α ∆t
th th th

.
10. [Ans. A] PD
.
tss
Axi l str in is given by Change in hoop stress= 2.0202%
E
Axi l str in t mid depth
. 15. [Ans. A]
Do the force balance. Force at section is P.
P re ction
11. [Ans. D] A Are of cross section
For liner state of stress only two modulus P
of elasticity is required. Independent A
elastic const = E & from which others
can be derived 16. [Ans. C]
pd t
12.
ww
[Ans. B]
Circumferential hoop stress
t pd
w. E
Where P = pressure = 5 MPa
17. [Ans. C]
Strain = change in length ∝ ΔT
Stress = 0 (free to expand, no restraint)
asy
d = diameter = 1000 mm
t = thickness = 10mm 18. [Ans. *] Range 0.29 to 0.31
En MP l ter l str in
longitudi l str in
13. [Ans. A]
L L
gi after
L ΔL nee Δl l
( )
.
.
.
.
.
Let
Δ
L L ∝ ΔT
19.
r
E ∝ ΔT
ing
P K(
L ∝ ΔT
) K( ) MP
.ne
P
P K
K[
L
exp nd by t ylor series
∝ ΔT
]
∝ ΔT
20. [Ans. A]
t
Free expansion. No restriction No stress
in any direction
P K ∝ ΔT
21. [Ans. *]Range 0.35 to 0.36
E ∝ ΔT ∝ ΔTE
P E B
E
E K
G
Thermal stress are compressive so G
∝ ΔT E E .
P
G
.
E
14. [Ans. D]
D 22. [Ans. *]Range 1.9 to 2.1
t Total number of elastic constant are 4 i.e.,
P . D (E, G, K and )
. t
th th th

.
But total number of independent elastic

constants are 2 i.e., [E and ]
Other are inter related by the formula
KG
E G k
K G
23. [Ans. *]Range 1.7 to 1.8

Yield stress (k) in pure shear (torsion)
according to von-Mises criteria
k where
√
un xi l torsion here the yield strength
ww
k
√
. MP
developed MP
w. E
F ctor of s fety n
.
.
asy
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Shear Force and Bending Moment

ME 2005 ME 2007
1. A cantilever beam carriers the anti 3. In a simply – supported beam loaded as
symmetric load shown, where w is the shown below, the maximum bending
peak intensity of the distributed load moment in Nm is
.Qualitatively ,the correct bending 1000 mm
500 mm
moment diagram for this beam is
100 N
B
ww
A 100 mm
L L (A) 25 (C) 35
(B) 30 (D) 60
w. E
(A)
ME
4.
2011
A simple supported beam PQ is loaded by
(B)
asy a moment of 1 kN-m at the mid-span of
the beam as shown is the figure. The
En reaction forces RP and RQ at supports P

and Q respectively are
(C)
gi nee P
1kN-m
Q
(D) (A)
r ing 1m
1 kN downward, 1 kN upward
(B)
(C) .ne
0.5 kN upward, 0.5 kN downward
0.5 kN downward, 0.5 kN upward
2. A Beam is made up of two identical bars ME

(D)
2013
t
1 kN upward, I kN downward
AB and BC by hinging them together at B 5. A simply supported beam of length L is

.The end A is built in (cantilevered) and subjected to a varying distributed load
the end C is simply supported .with the sin x⁄L Nm , where the distance x is
load P acting as shown, the bending measured from the left support. The
moment at A is magnitude of the vertical reaction force in
P N at the left support is
A (A) Zero (C) L
B C
(B) L (D) L
L/2
L L
(A) zero (C) 3PL/2

(B) PL/2 (D) Indeterminate
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] 2. [Ans. B]
Here make hit and trial method. MB = 0
Consider first option (A) of moment x L – P x L/2 = 0
diagram. = P/2
MA = x 2L – P x 3L/2 = PL/2
B
3. [Ans. B]
100 N
A
M = 10 Nm
L L A B
0.5m
ww
V=
At right end B, slope must be zero as there 1m
w. E
is no shear force at B so option A wrong.
Now, consider option (B)
Taking moment about A,
100 × 0.5 + 10 =
asy
Due to symmetric load intensity at left
side too the shear force equal to zero so
slope at left side must be zero. So option
N
En
(B) wrong.
30 Nm
gi 1
20 Nm
nee
A B
r
2
BM diagram
Now, consider option (C)
Here at both the ends, slope is zero means ing
Maximum bending moment =
shear force at both the end is zero and

also when we move from right to left, rate
=
V = 30 Nm
.
.ne
of increase of shear force decrease due to
triangular shape of load intensity and at
middle slope should be maximum and
4. [Ans. A]
P 1 kN-m t Q
there after decreases so in option (C) all
these criterion fulfills. Here (C) is the
correct option.
Assume direction as shown is in figure
o .. i
T king momentum bout
M t
3
As far as (D) option is concerned its Since direction of is negative so our

middle part slope and right most part assumed direction is wrong so
slope is strictly not agreeing with the load downward.
shown.
th th th

.
5. [Ans. B]
As loading is symmetric, reactions are

going to be same.
2R = ∫ wdx ∫ sin ( ) dx
2R =
R=
ww
w. E
asy
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Stresses in Beams
ME 2005
1. A cantilever beam has the square cross ME 2008
section 10 mm x 10mm. It carries a 4. For the component loaded with a force F
transverse load of 10N. Considering only as shown in the figure, the axial stress at
the bottom fibers of the beam ,the correct the corner point P is
representation of the longitudinal
variation of the bending stress is
10N P
10mm L F
ww 1m 1m
10mm
L-b
w. E
(A)
60 MPa
L
(B)
asy 2b
2b
2b
En
60 MPa (A)
(B)
2b (C)
(D)
(C)
gi
400 MPa 5.
nee
The transverse shear stress acting in a
beam of rectangular cross-section,
(D)
400 MPa r
subjected to a transverse shear load, is
ing
(A) variable with maximum at the
bottom of the beam
ME 2006 the beam .ne

(B) variable with maximum at the top of
Statement for Linked Answer Questions

2 & 3:
A simply supported beam of span length 6
m and 75 mm diameter carriers a
(C) uniform
t
(D) variable with maximum at the
neutral axis
uniformly distributed load of 1.5kN/m 6. An axial residual compressive stress due

2. What is the maximum value of bending to a manufacturing process is present on
moment? the outer surface of a rotating shaft
(A) 9 kNm (C) 81 kNm subjected to bending. Under a given
(B) 13.5 kNm (D) 125 kNm bending load. The fatigue life of the shaft
in the presence of the residual
3. What is the maximum value of bending compressive stress is
stress? (A) Decreased
(A) 162.98 MPa (C) 625.95 MPa (B) Increased or decreased, depending
(B) 325.95 MPa (D) 651.90 MPa on the external bending load
(C) Neither decreased nor increased
(D) Increased
th th th

.
ME 2010 8. The maximum magnitude of bending

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 7 & 8: stress (in MPa) is given by
A massless beam has a loading pattern as (A) 60.0 (C) 200.0
shown in the figure. The beam is of (B) 67.5 (D) 225.0
rectangular cross – section with a width
of 30 mm and height of 100mm ME 2014
3000 N m 9. Consider a simply supported beam of
A B length, 50h, with a rectangular cross-
C
section of depth h, and width 2h. The
beam carries a vertical point load P, at its
2000 mm 2000 mm
mid-point. The ratio of the maximum
shear stress to the maximum bending
7.
ww
The maximum bending moment occurs at
(A) Location B
(B) 2675 mm to the right of A
stress in the beam is
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.10
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.01
w. E
(C) 2500 mm to the right of A
(D) 3225 mm to the right of A
asy Answer Keys & Explanations
1. [Ans. A]
En 3. [Ans. A]
gi
The bending moment varies from zero to
10 N-m along the length of the beam from
the centre of the beam.
10N
Bending stress
nee
M ximum lo d dist nce
or Bending moment
ection modulus
A
B C
.
r .
Nm
ing .
M 10 N M
4. [Ans. D]
.ne
M
I
10 M
y
M
I y
F L b
b b
t
MP F L b
Similarly MP b
due to bending
F
2. [Ans. *]
b
Bending moment (B.M)=w x due to xi l force
Where, w=weight /unit length Tot l xi l stress
And L= length of rod F KL b F
B. M . . (x ) b b
F L b Fb
.
Here, L=6m, b b
B. M . kN m FL Fb Fb F L b
b b
th th th

.
5. [Ans. D] N
.
m
. MP
+ Maximum at the
central neutral axis
9. [Ans. D]
P
6. [Ans. D]
P P
Shaft subjective to compressive load
h
h
For bending,
h
stress variation
Max shear stress will be at mid of depth
ww NA
h:--
h
w. E
Strong in compression
b
h
7.
asy
[Ans. C]
3000 N/m F he r force
P
A
En B C
M x. she r stress
FA y
Ib
gi N
A
nee
y
h
h
h
h
S. F. equation at any section x from end A.
x . m
x {for x > 2m}
I
rh h
M x. she r stress
h
ing
b h
8. [Ans. B]
P
h .ne
Maximum bending moment
BM .x x
Beam (m):
m
P
h
Ph
(y
h
)
t
Max. Bending moment will be at middle of
tx .
. . My
M x. Bending stress
N. m I
Ph h
bending stress
M h
P
h
z . bd M x. she r stress P h
.
M x. Bending stress h P
th th th

.
Deflection of Beams
ME 2005 ME 2009
1. Two identical cantilever beams are 3. A frame of two arms of equal length L is
supported as shown, with their free ends shown in the below figure. The flexural
in contact through a rigid roller. After the rigidity of each arm of the frame is EI. The
load P is applied, the free ends will have vertical deflection at the point of
P application of load P is
ww
(A) equal deflections but not
slopes
(B) equal slopes but not
equal
equal
P
w. E
deflections
(C) equal slopes as well as
deflections
equal L
asy
(D) neither equal slopes nor
deflections
equal (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME 2007 En
2.
gi
A uniformly loaded propped cantilever
beam and its free body diagram are
shown below. The reactions are
ME 2011
Linked Data Question 4 and 5.
nee
A triangular-shaped cantilever beam of
uniform-thickness is shown in the figure.
q
r
The young’s modulus if the m teri l of the
ing
beam is E. A concentrated load P is
applied at the free end of the beam.
.ne
l
q
b
t
t P
M
4. The maximum deflection of the beam is

(A) M
(A) (C)
(B) M
(B) (D)
(C) M
(D) M
th th th

.
5. The area moment of inertia about the 9. A force P is applied at a distance x from
neutral axis of a cross-section at a the end of the beam as shown in the
distance x measure from the free end is figure. What would be the value of x so
(A) (C) th t the displ cement t ‘A’ is equ l to
zero?
(B) (D) L
A
ME 2012
6. A cantilever beam of length L is subjected
to a moment M at the free end. The P
P
moment of inertia of the beam cross
section about the neutral axis is I and the
L
young’s modulus is E. the m gnitude of
ww
the maximum deflection is
(A) (C)
(A) 0.5L
(B) 0.25L
(C) 0.33L
(D) 0.66L
w. E
(B) (D) 10. The flexural rigidity (EI) of a cantilever
beam is assumed to be constant over the
ME
7.
2014
asy
A cantilever beam of length, L, with
length of the beam shown in figure. If a
load P and bending moment PL/2 are
En
uniform cross-section and flexural
rigidity, EI, is loaded uniformly by a
applied at the free end of the beam then
the value of the slope at the free end is
is given by
wL
gi
vertical load, w per unit length. The
maximum vertical deflection of the beam
wL nee L
P
PL
PL PL
A
B
EI
wL
EI
C
D
EI
wL
EI
A
B
PLr
EI
ing C
D
EI
PL
8. A frame is subjected to a load P as shown

EI
.ne EI
in the figure. The frame has a constant

flexural rigidity EI. The effect of axial load
is neglected. The deflection at point A due
to the applied load P is
t
L
P
PL PL
A C
EI EI
PL PL
B D
EI EI
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] Alternately
A
2. [Ans. A]
1 q 2 L
P
B L C
+ = qL .. For BC
This is equal to UDL cantilever M P x
Strain energy,
ww
Plus cantilever having lo d t
So Deflection at 2 due to UDL
qL
∫
M dx P L
EI EI
w. E EI
L
EI
For AB, M
Strain energy,
M dy P L
P L
asy
For zero deflection at 2 point two
deflections should equal
∫
EI
Total strain energy,
EI
qL
EI En
EI
L
P L
EI
P L
EI
P L
EI
From (i)
qL
gi qL
nee
Or Deflection
P deflection
PL
P L
EI
Moment M = L qL EI
M
qL qL qL
4. r
[Ans. D]
ing
3. [Ans. D]
Strain Energy,
∫
M dx
M .ne
Px
EI
d y
dn
or M
M
P L x
∫
El
P. x dx
∫
t
LP
Ebt
. xdx
EI P L x E
LP L LP ⁄
.
Ebt Ebt
L PL
L x
P
p
Ebt Ebt
5. [Ans. B]
L At any distance x
Integrating two time and putting x=L, we h= x
get
y=
th th th

.
P
h
b
x
L
l
Area moment of inertia, L
A
= x. B
P
6. [Ans. A] M = PL
ww M
dy
M EI
PL
d
dx
PL EI
d
dx
dy
w. E L
M dx
dy
EI
PL
x C
dy
tx
PL
dx
C
asy
Deflection
BMD dx EI
x tx
slope L
L
dy
dx
|
|
L
EI
PL
En
(Moment of area of BMD)
L
ML PL PL
dx
PL
EI
EI
M
gi L
EI
Chapter Name: Stresses in beams
9.
nee
[Ans. C]
EI EI EI
7. [Ans. A] After transferring force P to A

w
r
We get
ing
wL
L
.ne A
P(L x)
8.
Δ
EI
[Ans. D]
t nd rd deriv tion Displacement at A only due to point load
P
is given by
t (Downward)
Net deflection Displacement at A only due to bending
PL moment
EI (P(L-x) is given by : _________________
A moment will act at point
. .
B due to load P at A A
L
P L Are moment method
moment of B. M. D. re t A
Δ
EI
P L x L
Δ upw rd
EI
Resultant displacement at A is zero
whenΔ B l nces Δ
th th th

.
Δ Δ
PL P L L
EI EI
L L
L L x
L
x L x . L
10. [Ans. B]
P
ww
PL
b
PL
lope t free end in is
w. E
lope t free end in b is
ML
EI
EI
PL L
( )
EI
asy PL
PL
EI
PL
slope
En
slope slope
EI
PL
EI
gi EI
nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Torsion
ME 2005 diameter is 20mm, free length is 40mm
1. A weighing machine consists of a 2 kg pan and the number of active coils is 10. If the
resting on spring. In this condition, with mean coil diameter is reduced to 10mm,
the pan resting on the spring, the length the stiffness of the spring is
of the spring is 200mm. When a mass of approximately
20 kg is placed on the pan, the length of (A) decreased by 8 times
the spring becomes 100 mm. For the (B) decreased by 2 times
spring, the un-deformed length and the (C) increased by 2 times
spring constant k(stiffness) are (D) increased by 8 times
(A) l₀ mm k N m
ME 2009
ww
(B) l₀
(C) l₀
(D) l₀
mm k
mm k
mm k
N m
N m
N m
5. A solid shaft of diameter, d and length L is
fixed at both the ends. A torque, T0 is
2. w. E
The two shafts AB and BC , of equal length
and diameter d and 2d, are made of the
applied at a distance, L/4 from the left
end as shown in the figure given below.
T0
asy
same material they are joined at B
through a shaft coupling, while the ends A
En
and C are built in (cantilevered). A
twisting moment T is applied to the
gi
coupling .If T and T represent twisting
moments at the ends A and C respectively,
then
Coupling
nee
L/4 3L/4
The maximum shear stress in the shaft is

T T
A C
A
d 2d
C B rd
d
T
ing
D
d
T
d
.ne
B
L L
ME 2011
A B C 6. A torque T is applied at the free end of a
(A) T
(B) T
T
T
(C) T
(D) T
T
T t
stepped rod of circular cross-section as
shown in the figure. The shear modulus of
the material of the rod is G. the
ME 2006
expression of d to produce an angular
3. For a circular shaft of diameter d
twist t the free end is
subjected to torque T, the maximum value L L/2
of the shear stress is:
T T T
A C 2d
d d d
T T
B D
d d
ME 2008
4. A compression spring is made of music (A) ( ) (C) ( )
wire of 2mm diameter having a shear
strength and shear modulus of 800 MPa (B) ( ) (D) ( )
and 80 GPa respectively. The mean coil
th th th

.
ME 2012 ME 2014
7. A solid circular shaft needs to be designed 8. Two solid circular shafts of radii and
to transmit a torque of 50N.m. If the are subjected to same torque. The
allowable shear stress of the material is maximum shear stresses developed in the
140MPa, assuming a factor of safety of 2, two shafts are
the minimum allowable design diameter nd . If then is
in mm is
(A) 8 (C) 24
(B) 16 (D) 32
1.
ww[Ans. B]
Let initi l length is without lo d nd
5. [Ans. B]
T0
s
w. E
stiffness is k
F KΔm
1
L/4
L1
d
3L/4
L2
2
g k
asy
g k
.
.
i
ii T1
≈
T0 T2
we get
En
Solving equ i nd ii ,
mm nd k N m
T
T
T
G
T .. i
2. [Ans. C]
gi
Angular deflection in bot shafts are same
l
nee
T∝
L
L r
TL TL
G
T
T
L
d G
T L
d
T
r
T ( )
T
L
ii
T (
L
ing
)
T
T T
From equation (i) and (ii)
T T T .ne
3. [Ans. C]
Let T = torque; d = diameter of shaft and
T
T
T
T
T
t
m ximum v lue of she r stress T
nd T T
m x
T T
she r stress ∝ T
4. [Ans. D] Therefore maximum shear stress in the
Gd shaft will be due to torque
k T
D N
k D r l
( )
k D ( )
k d d
( )
k T
d
th th th

.
6. [Ans. B]
2 1
T G
J r L
TL
{ GJ
T L T
d d
ww TL
d
TL
d
w. E d
TL
G
d [
TL
G
]
7.
asy
[ Ans. B]
En d
T
d
gi
T
nee
d .
So closest = 16 mm r ing
8. [Ans. *] Range 7.9 to 8.1
.ne
Given
Maximum shear stress developed
T
t
in sh ft is given by
d
T T
o
d d
T d d
d T d
( )
th th th

.
Mohr’s Circle
ME 2005 5. If the principal stresses in a plane stress
1. The Mohr’s circle of pl ne stress for problem, are
point in a body is shown .The design is to the magnitude of the maximum shear
be done on the basis of the maximum stress (in MPa) will be
shear stress theory for yielding. Then, (A) 60 (C) 30
yielding will just begin if the designer (B) 50 (D) 20
chooses a ductile material whose yield
strength is ME 2010
MP 6. The state of plane stress at a point is
given by x = MP y = 100 MPa
ww MP
nd xy = 100 MPa.
stress (in MPa) is
(A) 111.8
The maximum shear
(C) 180.3
w. E
(A) 45 MPa (C) 90 MPa
(B) 150.1 (D) 223.6
asy
(B) 50 MPa (D) 100MPa
ME
7.
2012
The state of stress at a point under plane
stress condition is
ME
2.
2008
En
A two dimensional fluid element rotates MP MP nd
gi
like a rigid body. At a point within the
element, the pressure is 1 unit. Radius of
the Mohr’s circle ch r cterizing the st te
of stress at the point, is nee
MP .
The r dius of the Mohr’s circle
representing the given state of stress in
MPa is
(A) 0.5 unit
(B) 0 unit
(C) 1 unit
(D) 2 unit r
(A) 40
(B) 50
ing
(C) 60
(D) 100
3. A solid circular shaft of diameter 100 mm

is subjected to an axial stress of 50 Mpa. It
ME
8.
2014
.ne
The state of stress at a point is given by
is further subjected to a torque of 10
kNm. The maximum principal stress
experienced on the shaft is closest to
MP
t
MP nd
MP . The maximum tensile
stress (in MPa ) at the point is ________
(A) 41 MPa (C) 164 MPa
(B) 82 MPa (D) 204 MPa
ME 2009
4. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is
subjected to a combined bending moment
M and torque, T. The material property to
be used for designing the shaft using the
relation √M T is
(A) ultimate tensile strength (Su)
(B) tensile yield strength (Sy)
(C) torsional yield strength (Ssy)
(D) endurance strength (Se)
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] 4. [Ans. C]
Material subjected to torsion fails by
shear stresses (Ssy)
MP
5. [Ans. C]
Maximum shear stress,
MP
2. [Ans. B] MP
Since the pressure in fluid is of
ww
hydrodynamic type
p p p
normal stress in all directions is same and
6. [Ans. C]
MP MP
w. E
shear stress on any plane is zero.
Hence r dius of Mohr’s circle is zero. √(
MP
asy √(
. MP .
)
En
3. [Ans. B]
gi
p p
7. [Ans. B]
nee √( )
√( )
√ r ing √ MP
.
8. [Ans. *] Range 8.4 to 8.5
.ne
Maximum principal stress
√( )
√(
t
√(
)
)
√( ) . √
.
√ . . MP
th th th

.
Strain Energy Methods

ME 2007 ME 2013
1. A stepped steel shaft shown below is 3. Two threaded bolts A and B of same
subjected to 10 Nm torque. If the modulus material and length are subjected to
of rigidity is 80 GPa, the strain energy in identical tensile load. If the elastic strain
the shaft in N mm is energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of
T = 10 Nm
bolt B and the mean diameter of bolt A is
50 mm 25 mm 12 mm, the mean diameter of bolt B in
mm is
100 mm 100 mm
(A) 16 (C) 36
(A) 4.12 (C) 1.73
(B) 24 (D) 48
(B) 3.46 (D) 0.86
ME
2.
ww
2008
The strain energy stored in the beam with
w. E
flexural rigidity EI and loaded as shown in
the figure is
asy L
P
2L
P
L
En
(A)
(B)
gi (C)
(D) nee
Answer Keys & Explanations r ing
1. [Ans. C]
Strain energy = ∫
Px dx
EI .ne
PL
EI
L
T L
(
Gj J J
) P
EI
∫ x dx
P L
EI
t P
EI
L P L
EI
[( )]
[ ]
3. [Ans. B]
. N mm
( ) ( )
2. [Ans. C] P L E re s me
PL PL
EI EI
d d mm
Total strain energy stored is given by
th th th

.
Columns & Struts
ME 2006
1. A pin-ended column of length L, modulus
of elasticity E and second moment of the
cross-sectional area I is loaded centrically
by a compressive load P. The critical
bucking load( ) is given by
(A) P = (C) P =
(B) P = (D) P =
ME
2. ww
2008
The rod PQ of length L with flexural
w. E
rigidity EI is hinged at both ends. For
what minimum force F is it expected to
buckle?
p
asy
En
gi Q
F
nee
(A)
(B)
√
(C)
(D)
√ r ing
ME 2011 .ne
3. A column has a rectangular cross- section
of 10 mm × 20 mm and a length of 1m.
the slenderness ratio of the column is
t
close to
(A) 200 (C) 477
(B) 346 (D) 1000
ME 2012
4. For a long slender column of uniform
cross section, the ratio of critical buckling
load for the case with both ends clamped
to the case with both ends hinged is
(A) 1 (C) 4
(B) 2 (D) 8
th th th

.
1. [Ans. D]
lenderness r tio
The critical buckling load P for a .
column having length L, modulus of
elasticity E and second moment of cross 4. [Ans. C]
sectional area I is loaded centrically. Euler’s buckling lo d
Condition: Both ends are having pin joint. n El
PE
i.e., hinged L
So n = 1 n = 4 for both end clamped (fixed)
EI EI n= 1 for both end hinged
P n tio
L L
2. ww
[Ans. B]
w. E
Since both ends hinged, therefore Le=L
Buckling load, W =
asy F
En F
Also
gi W=Fcos 45
EI l
EI √ EI nee
F ⁄cos
3. [Ans. B]
L L
r ing
lenderness r tio
Effective length .ne
Le st r dius of gyr tion
Least radius of gyration will be along the
major axis
20
t
10
l ⁄ bh
r √ √ but l
A
r √ . mm
th th th

GATE QUESTION BANK Thermodynamics
Basic Thermodynamics
ME –2005 T
1. A reversible thermodynamic cycle
containing only three processes and
producing work is to be constructed. The
constraints are
(i) there must be one isothermal
process, S
(ii) there must be one isentropic process, Figure 4
(iii) the maximum and minimum cycle According to the first law of
pressures and the clearance volume thermodynamics, equal areas are
ww are fixed, and

(iv) polytropic processes are not allowed.
Then the number of possible cycles
enclosed by
(A) Figures 1 and 2 (C) Figures 1 and 4
(B) Figures 1 and 3 (D) Figures 2 and 3
w. E
(A) 1
are
(B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 ME –2006
2.
asy
The following four figures have been
drawn to represent a fictitious
3 & 4:
A football was inflated to a gauge
planes. En
thermodynamic cycle, on the P-V and T-S pressure of
temperature was
1 bar when the ambient
C. When the game
P
gi started next day, the air temperature at
nee
the stadium was C. Assume that the
volume of the football remains constant at
2500 cm3.
3.
r ing
The amount of heat lost by the air in the
football and the gauge pressure of air in
Figure 1
V
.ne
the football at the stadium respectively is
(A) 30.6 J, 1.94 bar (C) 61.1J , 1.94 bar
T
4. t
(B) 21.8J , 0.93 bar (D) 43.7J ,0.93 bar
Gauge pressure of air to which the ball

must have been originally inflated so that
it would equal 1 bar gauge at the stadium
is
(A) 2.23 bar (C) 1.07 bar
S
Figure 2
(B) 1.94 bar (D) 1.00 bar
P ME –2007
5. Which of the following relationships is
valid only for reversible processes
undergone by a closed system of simple
compressible substance (neglect changes
in kinetic and potential energy)?
V (A) Q U W (C) T S U W
Figure 3
(B) T S U p V (D) Q U p V
th th th

.
ME –2008 of the following statements is TRUE at the

6. In a steady state flow process taking place end of above process?
in a device with a single inlet and a single (A) The internal energy of the gas
outlet, the work done per unit mass flow decreases from its initial value, but
rate is given by w = ∫ v p , where the enthalpy remains constant
(B) The internal energy of the gas
v is the specific volume and p is the
increases from its initial value, but
pressure. The expression for w given
the enthalpy remains constant
above
(C) Both internal energy and enthalpy of
(A) is valid only if the process is both
the gas remain constant
reversible and adiabatic
(D) Both internal energy and enthalpy of
(B) is valid only if the process is both
the gas increase
reversible and isothermal
ww
(C) is valid for any reversible process
(D) is incorrect; it must be
ME –2009
9. A compressor undergoes a reversible,
7.
w. E w =∫ p v
A rigid, insulated tank is initially

steady flow process. The gas at inlet and
outlet of the compressor is designated as
asy
evacuated. The tank is connected with a
supply line through which air (assumed
state 1 and state 2 respectively. Potential
and kinetic energy changes are to be
ignored. The following notation are used:
En
to be ideal gas with constant specific
heats) passes at 1 MPa, 350C . A valve
v = specific volume and P = pressure of
the gas.
gi
connected with the supply line is opened
and the tank is charged with air until the
final pressure inside the tank reaches 1
The specific work required to be supplied
nee
to the compressor for this gas
compression process is
MPa. The final temperature inside the
tank
Air supply line
r
(A) ∫ P v
(B) ∫ v p
(C) v P
ing
(D) P v
P
v
ME –2011
.ne
valve
Tank
10. Heat and work are
(A) Intensive properties
(B) Extensive properties
(C) Point functions
t
(D) Path functions
(A) is greater than

11. The contents of a well – insulated tank are
(B) is less than
heated by a resistor of 23 in which 10 A
(C) is equal to
current is flowing. Consider the tank
(D) may be greater than, less than, or
along with its contents as a
equal to , depending on the
thermodynamic system. The work done
volume of the tank
by the system and the heat transfer to the
system are positive. The rates of heat (Q),
8. A balloon containing an ideal gas is
work (W) and change in internal energy
initially kept in an evacuated and
∆U uring the process in kW are
insulated room. The balloon ruptures and
the gas fills up the entire room. Which one
th th th

.
(A) Q = 0, W = 2. , ∆U 2. power developed in kW by the steam

(B) Q 2. , W , ∆U 2. turbine per kg of steam flow rate, is
(C) Q = 2. , W , ∆U 2.3 (A) 901.2 (C) 17072.5
(D) Q ,W 2. , ∆U 2.3 (B) 911.2 (D) 17082.5
ME –2012 16. The pressure , temperature and velocity

Statement for linked answer Questions of air flowing in a pipe are 5 bar , 500 K
12 & 13: and 50 m/s , respectively. The specific
Air enters an adiabatic nozzle at 300kPa, heats of air at constant pressure and at
500K with a velocity of 10 m/s. It leaves constant volume are 1.005 kJ/kgK and
the nozzle at 100kPa with a velocity of 0.718 kJ/kgK, respectively. Neglect
180m/s. The inlet area is 80cm . The potential energy. If the pressure and
ww
specific heat of air is 1008 J/kg. K
12. The exit temperature of the air is
temperature of the surrounding are 1 bar
300 K, respectively , the available energy
in kJ/kg of the air stream is
w. E
(A) 516K
(B) 532 K
(C) 484 K
(D) 468 K (A) 170
(B) 187
(C) 191
(D) 213
13.
asy
The exit area of the nozzle in cm is
(A) 90.1 (C) 4.4 ME –2014
17. The maximum theoretical work
(B) 56.3
En (D) 12.9
obtainable, when a system interacts to
equilibrium with a reference
ME –2013
gi
14. A cylinder contains 5 m3 of an ideal gas at
a pressure of 1 bar. This gas is
compressed in a reversible isothermal
environment, is called
nee
(A) Entropy
(B) Enthalpy
(C) Exergy
(D) Rothalpy
process till its pressure increases to 5 bar.
The work in kJ required for this process is
(A) 804.7 (C) 981.7
18.
r ing
In a power plant, water (density = 1000
kg/m ) is pumped from 80 kPa to 3 MPa.
(B) 953.2 (D) 1012.2
.ne
The pump has an isentropic efficiency of
0.85. Assuming that the temperature of
15. Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at
inlet and exit of a steam turbine running
under steady state , are as given below :
t
the water remains the same, the specific
work (in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
(A) 0.34 (C) 2.92
Specific Velocity(m/s) (B) 2.48 (D) 3.43
enthalpy
(kJ/kg) 19. 1.5 kg of water is in saturated liquid state
Inlet 3250 180 at 2 bar V . m kg,
steam u . kJ kg, h kJ kg .Heat is
condition added in a constant pressure process till
Exit 2360 5 the temperature of water reaches 400°C
stean (v = 1.5493 m /kg, u = 2967.0 kJ/kg,
condition h = 3277.0 kJ/kg). The heat added (in kJ)
The rate of heat loss from the turbine per in the process is _______
kg of steam flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting
changes in potential energy of steam, the
th th th

.
20. A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of 23. A source at a temperature of 500 K

heat from a reservoir at 1000 K and a provides 1000 kJ of heat. The
certain amount of heat from a reservoir at temperature of environment is 27°C. The
800 K. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir maximum useful work (in kJ) that can be
at 400 K. The net work output (in kJ) of obtained from the heat source is _______
the cycle is
(A) 0.8 (C) 1.4 24. A certain amount of an ideal gas is
(B) 1.0 (D) 2.0 initially at a pressure p and temperature
T . First, it undergoes a constant pressure
21. A pure substance at 8 MPa and 400 °C is process 1-2 such that T = T /4. Then, it
having a specific internal energy of undergoes a constant volume process 2-3
2864 kJ/kg and a specific volume of such that T = T /2. The ratio of the final
ww
0.03432 m /kg. Its specific enthalpy (in
kJ/kg) is _______
volume to the initial volume of the ideal
gas is
(A) 0.25 (C) 1.0
22.
w. E
Which one of the following pairs of
equations describes an irreversible heat
(B) 0.75 (D) 1.5
(A) asy
engine?
an
25. An amount of 100 kW of heat is
transferred through a wall in steady state.
One side of the wall is maintained at
(B)
(C) En an
an
127°C and the other side at 27°C. The
entropy generated (in W/K) due to the
(D) gi an
heat transfer through the wall is _______
nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] 2
2 . 2
One cycle having constant volume process 2
(i) and one cycle having constant . KPa
pressure process (ii) can be formed. Gauge pressure on the day of play
P =194.33 – 101.325
3
= 93kPa = 0.93bar
2
1
4. [Ans. C]
V We know that
(i)
P P V mRT
ww 2 3
1
PV
V
P
V
T
mRT
w. E
Note –
(ii
)
V
Thermodynamic
cycle producing
P
P
T
2.08 bar (absolute)
asy
work is alway’s clockwise cycle.
Gauge pressure =2.08 1.
=1.07 bar
2. [Ans. A]
En
The area enclosed by cycle on P-V
5. [Ans. C]
gi
diagram give net work transfer where as
the area enclosed by cycle on T-S diagram
gives net heat transfer
For reversible processes, by I law
Q
nee
U W
Also by definition of entropy, S
Hence, T s U W
According to first law of thermodynamics
for cycle.
Net heat transfer = Net work transfer 6. r
[Ans. C]
For steady flow,
ing
3. [Ans. D] W= ∫ v p
.ne
P
T
m
2 K, V
PV
RT
. 2
2
2 . 2 kPa
.
7.
process.
[Ans. A]
t
The expression is valid only for reversible
2 . 2 2 The fixed temperature inside the tank is

2 2 given by
. kg γT1 = 1.4 × (350 +273)
As volume is constant, dW =0 = 872.2 K = 599.2 C
Q U m T
. . 8. [Ans. C]
. J Room is insulated so dQ = 0
Room is evacuated so the expansion is
P pressure on the ay o play free expression.
T for free expansion dW = 0
P According to first law of thermodynamics
T
dQ = dU +dW
th th th

.
U V V
h h
According to joules law for ideal gas 2 2
U = f(T) V V
h T T ( )
So T T 2
We know V V
H = U + Pv T T ( )
2
H = U + mRT T K
H = f(T)
dH = 0 13. [Ans. D]
So both internal energy and enthalpy are V V
constant.
R R
9.
ww
[Ans. B]
h u Pv
h u P v v P 14. [Ans. A]
2. cm
w. E
But dQ = du + Pdv
u Q P v
W
W
P v ln
P
P
ln
ln
. kJ
h
h
asyQ p v P v v P
Q v P
∫ v P Q h 15. [Ans. A]
v P
En P. K. W
Applying steady flow energy equation,
W gi
Since K.E. and P.E are constant
∫ v P
Q
nee
w
h
2
.
2
kW⁄kg
gz w
w
h
2
2
gz
10. [Ans. D]
11.
Heat and work are path functions.
[Ans. A]
16. r
[Ans. B]
Available energy ing is difference in
Heat added to the contents of the system.
Q=I R 2 2 W 2. kW
availability
A= h h ( .ne ) T S S
Wall is insulated Q = 0
Work done on the system, W = 2.3 kW
According first law
h
V
h
V
T T
t 2
.
kJ kg
dQ = dU + dW .2 kJ kg
2 2
dU = +2.3 kW T P
T S S T [
R In ] In
T P
12. [Ans. C]
= 15.44 kJ/kg
P kPa A = 201 +1.25 – 15.44 = 187 kJ/kg
V m⁄s
T
17. [Ans. C]
P kPa 18. [Ans. D]

T K
V m⁄s
P P
W ∫ V p
J⁄kgK
th th th

.
22. [Ans. A]
2. 2 kJ kg
For an irreversible heat engine
W 2. 2 Q ,
W
. Also, entropy change for irreversible heat
. kJ kg engine
Q
s
19. [Ans. *] Range 4155 to 4160 T
s , ecause its point unction
Q Q
2
T T
23. [Ans. *]Range 399 to 401

For maximum work, engine should be
ww
Q u P v
h v p
reversible,
So,
Q w. E
s pressure
h h
, Q
2 .
h
2 2 kJ kg
Efficiency of reversible engine
=n
Q
asy
m h h . 2 2 kJ
T
T 2
K
2 K
20. [Ans. C]
K
En K
W
.
gi
Q =2 kJ Q =?
nee W
Q
Q
Q .
kJ
kJ
24. [Ans. B]
H W Q
V r
or constant pressure proces
V T
( ) ing 2
Q =1 kJ
K
T
V
T T
V .ne
We know that for reversible heat engine
change in entropy is always zero
that is S
Q Q Q
V
or constant volume process 2
V
V
V
t
( )
T T T V
2 Q .
V
Q . kJ 25. [Ans. *] Range 80 to 85

W = Q Q Q = 2 . = . kJ
2
21. [Ans. *]Range 3135 to 3140

h u pv Q kw
Q
2 . 2
. kJ kg
K K
T T
th th th

.
Entropy change of face 1 of wall:

Q
S .2
T
ntropy change o ace 2 o wall
Q
S .
T
Entropy change of wall will be zero , due
to steady state
S S S S
S .2 . .
S ,means process of heat flow
through finite temperature difference is
wwirreversible irreversibility is responsible

for entropy generation
So, Ṡ . W K
w. E
asy
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Irreversibility & Availability
ME –2005 r. The work done by a closed system in

1. Nitrogen at an initial state of 10 bar, an adiabatic process is a point
1m and 300 K is expanded isothermally function.
to a final volume of 2m . The p - v - T s. A liquid expands upon freezing when
relation is p v = RT, where a . the slope of its fusion curve on
Pressure-Temperature diagram is
The final pressure
negative.
(A) will be slightly less than 5 bar
(A) R and S (C) Q, R and S
(B) will be slightly more than 5 bar
(B) P and Q (D) P,Q and R
(C) will be exactly 5 bar
ww
(D) cannot be ascertained in the absence
of the value of a. ME –2010
3. Consider the following two processes;
2. w. E
ME –2007
Which combination of the following
statements is correct?
a. A heat source at 1200 K loses 2500
kJ of heat to a sink at 800 K
b. A heat source at 800 K loses 2000 kJ
asy
p. A gas cools upon expansion only
when its Joule-Thomson co-efficient
of heat to a sink at 500 K
Which of the following statements is true?
En
is positive in the temperature range
of expansion.
(A) Process I is more irreversible than
Process II
gi
q. For a system undergoing a process,
its entropy remains constant only
when the process is reversible.
(B) Process II is more irreversible than
Process I
nee
(C) Irreversibility associated in both the
processes are equal

r
(D) Both the processes are reversible
ing
.ne
1. [Ans. B]
(p )V=RT
For Isothermal Process
3. [Ans. B]
i. e.
t
for irreversible process
0
a a
(P )V (P )V Process I
V V Q 2 2
V a a ∮ . 2
P P T 2
V VV V Process II
a a a Q 2 2
2 2 2 ∮ . .
T
process II is more irreversible than
2. [Ans. A] process I
th th th

.
Properties of Pure Substances
ME –2006 ME –2014
1. Given below is an extract from steam 3. A spherical balloon with a diameter of
tables. 10 m, shown in the figure below is used
Temperature
Specific volume( Enthalpy (kJ/kg) for advertisements. The balloon is filled
Saturated Saturated Saturated Saturated
in (bar)
liquid vapour liquid vapour
with helium ( R = 2.08 kJ/kg.K) at
45 0.09593 0.001010 15.26 188.45 2394.8 ambient conditions of 15°C and 100 kPa.
342.24 150 0.001658 0.010337 1610.5 2610.5 Assuming no disturbances due to wind,
Specific enthalpy of water in kJ/kg at 150 the maximum allowable weight (in
bar and 45 C is newton) of balloon material and rope
(A) 203.60 (C) 196.38 required to avoid the fall of the balloon
ww (B) 200.53 (D) 188.45 (R = 0.289 kJ/kg.K) is _______
ME –2007
2. w. E
Water has a critical specific volume of
0.003155 m3/kg. A closed and rigid steel
G T
2
asy
tank of volume 0.025 m3 contains a
mixture of water and steam at 0.1 MPa.
En
The mass of the mixture is 10 kg. The tank
is now slowly heated. The liquid level
inside the tank
(A) will rise
(B) will fall
gi nee
(C) will remain constant
(D) may rise or fall depending on the
amount of heat transferred r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] 3. [Ans. *] Range 5300 to 5330

Specific volume in compressed liquid
region does not change with pressure as
water is incompressible.
U h P V
= 188.45 – 9.593 x 0.0010 w
= 188.44 kJ/kg
h U P V w
= 188.44 + 150 x 100 x 0.00101
= 203.6 kJ/kg
2. ww
[Ans. A] w
upwar thrust
w
V
V
m
w. E .
. 2 m
kg
m ⁄kg w
w Vg
w
Vg
asy
Rigid means volume
Specific Vol.
is constant.
w
=
(
R
P
T
) Vg (
R
P
T
) Vg
En
.
(ν)=
PVg
= . 2 m ⁄kg [ ]
T R R
gi
We are given initially a mixture of water
and steam at 0.117Pa.
After that it is a constant vol.Process. nee
P r
T
g
[
R R
]
Since it is a constant vol heating process. .

Point (2) will touch the saturated liquid
line and hence the liquid level will rise. r 2
] ing
[
.2
(2)
2.
. 2N
N .ne
(1)
0.1MPa
t
V
th th th

.
Work, Heat & Entropy
ME –2006 3. The above cycle is represented on T-S

1. Match items from groups 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. plane by
(A) T
Group 1 Group 2 Group 3 Group 4 Group 5 3
When added Differential Function Phenomenon
to the system,
is
E-Heat G Positive I Exact K Path M Transient
F Work H Negative J Inexact L Point N Boundary
1 2
(A) F – G – J – K – M
S
E–G–I–K–N
(B) T
ww(B) E – G – I – K – M
F–H–I–K–N
(C) F – H – J – L – N
3 2
w. EE–H–I–L–M
(D) E – G – J – K – N
F–H–J–K–M
1
S
2. asy
A 100 W electric bulb was switched on in
(C) T
3
En
a 2.5 m × 3 m × 3 m size thermally
insulated room having a temperature of
2
gi
. The room temperature at the end of
24 hours will be
(A) 2 (C) nee 2
1
S
(B)
ME –2007
(D) (D)
r T
ing
3 1
Common Data Questions: 3 & 4

A thermodynamic cycle with an ideal gas .ne
as working fluid is shown below.
100 kPa
P
3
2
t S
4. If the specific heats of the working fluid

PV = Constant are constant and the value of specific heat
2
ratio γ is . , the thermal e iciency % o
100 kPa 1
the cycle is
(A) 21 (C) 42.6
m V V
(B) 40.9 (D) 59.7
5. A heat transformer is a device that

transfers a part of the heat, supplied to it
at an intermediate temperature, to a high
temperature reservoir while rejecting the
remaining part to a low temperature heat
sink. In such a heat transformer, 100 kJ of
th th th

.
heat is supplied at 350 K. The maximum 6. At the end of the process, which one of
amount of heat in kJ that can be the following situations will be true?
transferred to 400 K, when the rest is (A) superheated vapour will be left in the
rejected to a heat sink at 300 K is system
(A) 12.50 (C) 33.33 (B) no vapour will be left in the system
(B) 14.29 (D) 57.14 (C) a liquid + vapour mixture will be left
in the system
ME –2008 (D) the mixture will exist at a dry
Common Data for Questions 6, 7 and 8: saturate vapour state
In the figure shown, the system is a pure
substance kept in a piston- cylinder 7. The work done by the system during the
arrangement. The system is initially a two- process is
ww
phase mixture containing 1 kg of liquid and
0.03 kg of vapour at a pressure of 100 kPa.
Initially, the piston rests on a set of stops, as
(A) 0.1 kJ
(B) 0.2 kJ
(C) 0.3 kJ
(D) 0.4 kJ
w. E
shown in the figure. A pressure of 200kPa is
required to exactly balance the weight of
the piston and the outside atmospheric
8. The net entropy generation (considering
the system and the thermal reservoir
asy
pressure. Heat transfer takes place into the
system until its volume increases by 50%.
together) during the process is closest to
(A) 7.5 J/K
(B) 7.7 J/K
(C) 8.5 J/K
(D) 10 J/K
En
Heat transfer to the system occurs in such a
manner that the piston, when allowed to 9. A gas expands in a frictionless
gi
move, does so in a very slow (quasi – static
/ quasi – equilibrium) process. The thermal
reservoir from which heat is transferred to
piston
nee
cylinder arrangement. The
expansion process is very slow, and is
resisted by an ambient pressure of
the system has a temperature of .
Average temperature of the system
boundary can be taken as . The heat r
100kPa. During the expansion process,
ing
the pressure of the system (gas) remains
constant at 300kPa. The change in volume
transfer to the system is 1kJ, during which
its entropy increase by 10 J/K.
.ne
of the gas is 0.01m3. The maximum
amount of work that could be utilized
g
Atmospheric
pressure
Piston
from the above process is
(A) 0 kJ
(B) 1 kJ
t
(C) 2 kJ
(D) 3 kJ
10. 2 moles of oxygen are mixed adiabatically

with another 2 moles of oxygen in mixing
Stop
System
chamber, so that the final total pressure
and temperature of the mixture become
same as those of the individual
Specific volume of liquid (vf) and vapour constituents at their initial states. The
(vg) phases, as well as values of saturation universal gas constant is given as R. The
temperatures, are given below. change in entropy due to mixing, per
Pressure Saturation Vf(m3/kg) Vg mole of oxygen, is given by
(kPa) Temperature, (m3/kg)
Tsat ) (A) –R ln2 (C) R ln2
100 100 0.001 0.1 (B) 0 (D) R ln4
200 200 0.0015 0.002
th th th

.
ME –2009 conditions maintained at P and Q. The

11. A frictionless piston-cylinder device condition at the P is 150 kPa and 350 K.
contains a gas initially at 0.8MPa and The temperature at station Q is 300 K.
0.015 m3. It expands quasi-statically at The following are the properties and
constant temperature to a final volume of relations pertaining to air:
0.030 m3. The work output (in kJ) during Specific heat at constant pressure,
this process will be . kJ kgK
(A) 8.32 (C) 554.67 Specific heat at constant volume,
(B) 12.00 (D) 8320.00 . kJ kgK
Characteristic gas constant,R .2 kJ/kgK.
12. If a closed system is undergoing an Enthalpy, h T.
irreversible process, the entropy of the Internal energy, u T.
ww
system
(A) Must increase
(B) Always remains constant
15. If the air has to flow from station P to
w. E
(C) Must decrease
(D) Can increase, decrease or remain
station Q, the maximum possible value of
pressure in kPa at station Q is close to
(A) 50 (C) 128
ME –2010
asy
constant
16.
(B) 87 (D) 150
If the pressure at station Q is 50 kPa, the
En
13. A mono – atomic i eal gas γ . , change in entropy (S S ) in kJ/kgK is
gi
molecular weight = 40) is compressed
adiabatically from 0.1 MPa, 300 K to 0.2
MPa. The universal gas constant is
8.314 kJ k mol K . The work of ME –2012
(A)
(B)
nee
. (C) 0.160
(D) 0.355
compression of the gas (in kJ kg ) is

(A) 29.7
(B) 19.9
(C) 13.3
(D) 0
r
17. An ideal gas of mass m and temperature
ing
T undergoes a reversible isothermal
process from an initial pressure P to final
14. One kilogram of water at room .ne

pressure P . The heat loss using the
process is Q. the entropy change ∆S o the
temperature is brought into contact with
a high temperature thermal reservoir.
The entropy change of the universe is
gas is
(A) mRln( )
(B) mRln( )
t(C) mRln( )
(D) Zero
(A) equal to entropy change of the
reservoir
(B) equal to entropy change of water ME –2014
(C) equal to zero 18. A closed system contains 10 kg of
(D) always positive saturated liquid ammonia at 10°C. Heat
addition required to convert the entire
ME –2011 liquid into saturated vapour at a constant
Common Data Question 15 and 16 pressure is 16.2 MJ. If the entropy of the
In an experimental set-up, airflows saturated liquid is 0.88 kJ/kg.K, the
between two station P and Q entropy (in kJ/kg.K) of saturated vapour
adiabatically. The direction of flows is_______
depends on the pressure and temperature
th th th

.
1. [Ans. D] P
When added Heat Work P
to the .
. ( )
system
Differential Positive Negative
2 . %
Function Inexact Inexact
Phenomenon Path Path 5. [Ans. D]
Boundary Transient Consider maximum heat transfer to 400K
is Q kJ
2. [Ans. D] 400
ww
Heat generated by bulb
= 100 × 24 × 60 × 60 Joule. Q
w. E
Density of the air =1.2 kg/m3
Heat issipate
Volume of the room 2.
V × (T 20)
350
Q=100
asy
Cv of air = .717 kJ/kgK
⟹ 100 × 24 × 60 × 60 = 27 × 0.717 × 300
T2 = En
1000 (T 20) Q Q Q
Q Q
3. [Ans. C] gi
Since 3 1 is adiabatic process, it will be
Apply Clausicus equality
nee
Q Q
T T
Q
T
represented by a straight line on T s
plane. 1 2 is isobaric process, so with
decrease of volume, temperature will also
decrease.
Q r Q [
. kJ
ing
]
We can observe in the pv diagram that

temperature is not constant during any
6. [Ans. A]
Given data: .ne
stage hence options (b) & (d) are rejected
as temperature is constant during the
stage 3 – 1 in both the options which is
Mass of liquid mw = 1kg
Mass of vapour mv = 0.03kg t
Pressure of two-phase mixture = 100 kPa
not possible option (a) is rejected Dryness fraction of the steam
.
because clockwise process in P v diagram x1 = x1 = = 0.029
.
cannot have anticlockwise T-s diagram. Dryness fraction of the steam at 200 kPa
Hence the correct option is (c) (x2)
x v x v
4. [Ans. A]
. 2 . x . 2
The given cycle is Lenoir cycle for which
x .
thermal efficiency is given by
that means, superheated vapour will be
γ( ) left in the system.
Where γ = specific heat ratio = 1.4
th th th

.
7. [Ans. D] R .2 kJ/kg K
W. D. by the system W = W. D. in constant P kPa
volume process + W.D. in constant T k
pressure process P 2 kPa
W P v P v v Work done
. Pv since v . v
mR T T
Where v m v
γ
v v xv ⁄
T P
. . 2 . . ( )
T P
. m kg
T . 2
v . .
K
m kg . .
ww
w . 2 . kJ Work done/kg =
= 2 . kJ⁄kg
Negative sign shows compression work.
.
8.
w. E
[Ans. C]
Net entropy (∆S)univ = (∆S)system +
(∆S)surrounding 14. [Ans. D]
asy
(∆S)univ= 10 8.5 J/K The entropy change of the universe is
always positive.
9. [Ans. C]
En
Maximum amount of work = ∫v p
15. [Ans. B]
Since it talks about maximum possible
gi
= 0.01 (300 100)
= 0.01 200 = 2 kJ
value of pressure hence we take it case of
nee
reversible case.
T s h v p
10. [Ans. B]
Since, ∆Q = 0, therefore S = ∫ s
r T
In ( ) R In ( )
T
P
P
ing
Since it is adiabatic reversible process for
11. [Ans. A]
In isothermal process
the maximum possible value of pressure
at station Q. .ne
W P V ln
= 0.8
V
V
103 0.015 ln (
.
.
)
T
In ( ) R In ( )
T
1.005 In (
P
P
) .2
t In ( )
= 8.317 8.32 kJ P . kPa
Work output . 2 kJ
16. [Ans. C]
12. [Ans. D] By using Tds h V p, after simplify
If a closed system is undergoing an we get:
irreversible process, the entropy of the T P
(S S ) ln ( ) R ln ( )
system can increase, decrease or remain T P
constant.
. ln ( ) .2 ln ( )
13. [Ans. A] =0.160

Gas constant R
̅
R .
R
M
th th th

.
17. [Ans. B]
Q=U+W
U=0
Since isothermal process by ideal gas
Q=W
W = mRT ln ( )
Q T ∆S
T ∆S mRT ln ( )
∆S mRln ( )
18. [Ans. *]Range 6.4 to 6.7
ww
Q
m
T S
S
w. E
.2
. kJ kgK
2 S .
S
asy
. kJ kgK
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Psychrometrics
ME –2005 moisture in kg per kg of dry air will be
1. Various psychrometric processes are approximately
shown in the figure below. (A) 0.002 (C) 0.25
(B) 0.027 (D) 0.75
ME –2006
5 W(kg/kg)
4
4. The statement concern psychrometric
chart.
1
0 1. Constant relative humidity lines are
3 2 uphill straight lines to the right
wwProcess
t
Name of the process
2. Constant wet bulb temperature lines
are downhill straight lines to the
right.
w. E
in Figure
P. 0 1 1.
Chemical
dehumidification
3. Constant specific volume lines are
downhill straight lines to the right.
4. Constant enthalpy lines are
asy
Q. 0 2
R. 0 3
2. Sensible heating
3. Coooling and
coincident with constant wet bulb
temperature lines.
S. 0 4
En dehumidification
4. Humidification
Which of the statements are correct?
(A) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3
T. 0 5
gi with steam
injection
5. Humidification
with water
5.
(B) 1 and 2
nee
Dew point
(D) 2 and 4
temperature is the
temperature at which condensation
injection
The matching pairs are
(A) P 1, Q 2, R 3, S 4, T 5
r
(A) volume
(B) entropy
ing
begins when the air is cooled at constant
(C) pressure
(D) enthalpy
(B) P 2, Q 1, R 3, S 5, T 4
(C) P 2, Q 1, R 3, S 4, T 5 6. .ne
A thin layer of water in a field is formed
2.
(D) P 3, Q 4, R 5, S 1, T 2
Water at 42 is sprayed into a stream of

t
after a farmer has watered it. The
ambient air conditions are: temp 2 C
and relative humidity 5%.
air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb An extract of steam table is given below
temperature of 40 C and a wet bulb Temperature Saturation
temperature of 20 C. The air leaving the pressure (kPa)
spray humidifier is not saturated. Which 0.10
of the following statements is true? 0.26
(A) Air gets cooled and humidified 0.40
(B) Air gets heated and humidified . 0.61
(C) Air gets heated and dehumidified 0.87
(D) Air gets cooled and dehumidified 1.23
1.71
3. For a typical sample of ambient air (at
2 2.34
35 , 75% relative humidity and standard
Neglecting the heat transfer between the
atmospheric pressure), the amount of
water and the ground, the water
th th th

.
temperature in the field after phase 10. Moist air at a pressure of 100 kPa is
equilibrium is reached equals compressed to 500 kPa and then cooled
(A) . (C) . to 35C in an after cooler. The air at the
(B) . (D) . entry to the after cooler is unsaturated
and becomes just saturated at the exit of
ME –2007 the after cooler. The saturation pressure
7. Atmospheric air at a flow rate of 3 kg/s of water at 35C is 5.628 kPa. The partial
(on dry basis) enters a cooling and pressure of water vapour (in kPa) in the
dehumidifying coil with an enthalpy of moist air entering the compressor is
85 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of closest to
19 grams/kg of dry air. The air leaves the (A) 0.57 (C) 2.26
coil with an enthalpy of 43 kJ/kg of dry (B) 1.13 (D) 4.52
ww
air and a humidity ratio of 8 grams/kg of
dry air. If the condensate water leaves the
coil with an enthalpy of 67 kJ/kg, the
ME –2010
11. A moist air sample has dry bulb
isw. E
required cooling capacity of the coil in kw
(A) 75.0 (C) 128.2

temperature o an speci ic
humidity of 11.5 g water vapour per kg
dry air. Assume molecular weight of air as
asy
(B) 123.8 (D) 159.0 28.93. If the saturation vapour pressure
o water at is .2 kPa an the total
8.
En
A building has to be maintained at 2 C
(dry bulb) and . C (wet bulb). The
pressure is 90 kPa, then the relative
humidity (in %) of air sample is
gi
dew point temperature under these
conditions is . C. the outside
temperature is 2 C (dry bulb) and an
internal and external heat transfer
(A) 50.5
nee
(B) 38.5
(C) 56.5
(D) 68.5
ME –2011
coefficients are 8 W/ m K and 23 W/m K
respectively. If the building wall has the
thermal conductivity of 1.2 W/mK. The
r ing
12. If a mass of moist air in an airtight vessel
is heated to a higher temperature, then
(A) specific humidity of the air increases
minimum thickness(in m) of wall
required to prevent condensation is .ne
(B) specific humidity of the air decreases
(C) relative humidity of the air increases
(A) 0.471
(B) 0.407
(C) 0.321
(D) 0.125 t
(D) relative humidity of the air decreases
ME –2012
ME –2008 13. A room contains 35kg of dry air & 0.5kg
9. Air (at atmospheric pressure) at a dry water vapor. The total pressure and
bulb temperature of 40C and wet bulb temperature of air in the room are
temperature of 20C is humidified in an 100kPa and 2 respectively. Given that
air washer operating with continuous the saturation pressure for water at 2 .
water recirculation. The wet bulb is 3.17kPa, the relative humidity of the air
depression (i.e. the difference between in the room is
the dry and wet bulb temperature) at the (A) 67% (C) 83%
exit is 25% of that at the inlet. The dry (B) 55% (D) 71%
bulb temperature at the exit of the air
washer is closest to
(A) 10 oC (C) 25 oC
(B) 20 oC (D) 30 oC
th th th

.
ME –2013 relative humidity of 65%, the absolute

14. The pressure , dry bulb temperature and humidity (in gram) of water vapour per
relative humidity of air in a room are 1 kg of dry air is _______
bar , C and 70% , respectively. If the
saturated steam pressure at C is 16. Moist air at 35°C and 100% relative
4.25kPa, the specific humidity of the room humidity is entering a psychrometric
air in kg water vapour /kg dry air is device and leaving at 25°C and 100%
(A) 0.0083 (C) 0.0191 relative humidity. The name of the device
(B) 0.0101 (D) 0.0232 is
(A) Humidifier
ME –2014 (B) Dehumidifier
15. A sample of moist air at a total pressure of (C) Sensible heater
ww
85 kPa has a dry bulb temperature of
30°C (saturation vapour pressure of
water = 4.24 kPa). If the air sample has a
(D) Sensible cooler
w. E Answer Keys & Explanations

1.
asy
[Ans. B] Now
From table
. Given
2. [Ans. B]
Here,
En t = , t =2 P 2. kPa
Since,
gi
Water sprayed at temperature = 2
twater spray >tDBT so heating and

humidification
P
P
nee
.
.
2.
kPa
Now we have to find the temperature at
which P becomes saturated pressure by
3. [Ans. B] T r
interpolation method
.2ing .
. .
4. [Ans. A]
.
. 2
.ne
5. [Ans. C]
Constant
pressure line 7. [Ans. B]
m .h Q
.
m .h m .
t h
Q m h h m h
T dpt . .
2 . kW
Dew point h kJ⁄kg
temp
kJ
h
kg
Air is cooled at constant pressure to make × .
unsaturated air to saturated one.
× .
6. [Ans. C]
kJ
P Partial pressure of water vapour at h at P
kg
temperature 2
th th th

.
8. [Ans. B] 11. [Ans. B]

To avoid condensation in the building, the P
. 22
inside wall temp should be greater than P P
or equal to DPT P
. . 22
. T 2 P
.01847=
h h 2
18.1849 P .
T 2 .
k .2 P . kPa.
.
P .
H.T from inside air to inside wall = H.T P .2
from inside wall surface to outside air . or . %
ww
2 . . 2
.
12. [Ans. D]
R H Decreases
w. E
.
.
.
.2
asy .
2
m
.
.
%
Heating
9. [Ans. C] En
gi
Wet Bulb Depression at the exit = 0.25
Wet Bulb Depression at the inlet
(DBT - WBT)exit = 0.25 ( DBT - WBT)inlet
13.
nee
[Ans. D ]
Specific humidity
T
10.
Texit = 0.25(40-20) + 20 = 25
[Ans. B]
=
.
r 2 . 22
.
ing .
P
. 2
. 22
P
Assuming that compression is isentropic
in air compressors, the process can be P .
P
2
.ne –P
. 22
P
described on the T-s diagram. The

process in the intercooler is constant
pressure.
P
. 22
. 22
. 22
P
. 22P
2.2
. 22
t kPa
T 2 5.628kPa
P 2.2
RH . or %
P .
˚
3 at 2 P . kPa
1 14. [Ans. C]
S p p
. 22 . 22
p pp
p p
P
But p p . 22
p P
p
. 22 . .2
.
p 1.13kPa . . .2
.
.
th th th

.
15. [Ans. *]Range 19 to 22

Total pressure = P =85 kPa
Saturation vapour pressure of water at
dry bulb temperature of P
.2 kPa
Relative humidity = RH = 65%= 0.65
P
R. H.
P
P . .2 2. kPa
P
solute humi ity w . 22
P P
2.
w . 22
ww w
2.
. 2 kg o water vapour per kg o ry air
. 2
16.
w. E
2 . gram o water vapour per kg o ry air
[Ans. B]
asy
It is a dehumidifier
RH %
En
gi nee
r ing
2
T
Psychrometric chart .ne
t
th th th

.
Power Engineering
ME –2005 (D)
p
1. In the velocity diagram shown below,
u=blade velocity, C=absolute fluid P
velocity and w=relative velocity of fluid
and the subscripts 1 and 2 refer to inlet
and outlet. This diagram is for
u u P
ww
(A)
(B)
(C)
an impulse turbine
a reaction turbine
a centrifugal compressor
ME –2006
3. Determine the correctness or otherwise
of the following Assertion [a] and the
w. E
(D) an axial flow compressor Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: Condenser is an essential
2.
asy
A p-v diagram has been obtained from a
test on a reciprocating compressor.
Which of the following represents that
equipment in a steam power plant.
Reason [r]: For the same mass flow rate
and the same pressure rise, a water pump
diagram?
En requires substantially less power than a
steam compressor.
(A)
P
pgi (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the
nee
correct reason for [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is
P
r
NOT the correct reason for [a].
ing
(C) [a] is true but [r] is false
(D) [a] is false but [r] is true.
(B)
v
4. .ne
Determine the correctness or otherwise
P
p
Reason [r]. t
of the following Assertion [a] and the
Assertion [a]: In a power plant working on

a Rankine cycle, the regenerative feed
water heating improves the efficiency of
P
v
the steam turbine.
Reason [r]: The regenerative feed water
v
heating raises the average temperature of
(C)
p heat addition in the Rankine cycle.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the
P correct reason for [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is
NOT the correct reason for [a].
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
P (D) [a] is false but [r] is true.
v
v
th th th

.
ME –2007
h = 3200kJ/kg
5. Which combination of the following V = 160m/s
statements is correct? = 10m
P = 3MPa
The incorporation of reheater in a steam h = 2600kJ/kg
V = 100m/s
power plant:
= 6m
P: always increases the thermal efficiency P = 70kPa
of the plant. 7. If mass flow rate of steam through the
Q: always increases the dryness fraction turbine is 20kg/s, the power output of the
of steam at condenser inlet. turbine (in MW ) is
R: always increases the mean (A) 12.157 (C) 168.001
temperature of heat addition. (B) 12.941 (D) 168.785
S: always increases the specific work
ww
output.
(A) P and S
(B) Q and S
(C) P, R and S
(D) P,Q,R and S
8. Assume the above turbine to be part of a
simple Rankine cycle. The density of
water at the inlet to the pump is
w. E
ME –2008
6. A thermal power plant operates on a
1000kg/m3. Ignoring kinetic and
potential energy effects, the specific work
asy
regenerative cycle with a single open feed
water heater, as shown in the figure. For
(in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
(A) 0.293
(B) 0.351
(C) 2.930
(D) 3.510
En
the state points shown, the specific
enthalpies are: h1 = 2800 kJ/kg and ME –2010
gi
h2 = 200 kJ/kg. The bleed to the feed
water heater is 20% of the boiler steam
generation rate. The specific enthalpy at
nee
In a steam power plant operating on the
Rankine cycle, steam enters the turbine at
state 3 is 4MPa, 350 and exits at a pressure of 15
Boiler feed
pump Boiler Turbine
r ing
kPa. Then it enters the condenser and
exits as saturated water. Next, a pump
.ne
1 Condenser feeds back the water to the boiler. The
3 2
adiabatic efficiency of the turbine is 90%.
The thermodynamic states of water and
(A) 720 kJ/kg

Open
feedwater
heater
Condensate
extraction pump
(C) 1500 kJ/kg

steam are given in the table.
State t
Steam: 4MPa, Water: 15 kPa
350
(B) 2280 kJ/kg (D) 3000 kJ/kg h
225.94
ME –2009 h (kJ kg ) 3092.5 h
Common Data Questions: 7 & 8 2599.1
The inlet and the outlet conditions of s
steam for an adiabatic steam turbine are s(kJ kg K ) 6.5821 0.7549
as indicated in the notations are as s
usually followed 8.0085
v
v (m kg ) 0.06645 0.001014
v
10.02
th th th

.
h is specific enthalpy, s is specific entropy 13. The values of enthalpy of steam at the
and v the specific volume; subscripts f and inlet and outlet of a steam turbine in a
g denote saturated liquid state and Rankine cycle are 2800 kJ/kg and
saturated vapour state. 1800 kJ/kg respectively. Neglecting pump
9. The net work output (kJ kg ) of the cycle work, the specific steam consumption in
is kg/kW-hour is
(A) 498 (C) 860 (A) 3.60 (C) 0.06
(B) 775 (D) 957 (B) 0.36 (D) 0.01
10. Heat supplied (kJ kg ) to the cycle is 14. A pump handing a liquid raises its
(A) 2372 (C) 2863 pressure form 1 bar to 30 bar. Take the
(B) 2576 (D) 3092 density of the liquid as 990 kg/ . The
ww
ME –2011
Statement for linked answer questions: 11
isentropic specific work done by the
pump in kJ/kg is
(A) 0.10 (C) 2.50
w. E
& 12
The temperature and pressure of air in a
15.
(B) 0.30 (D) 2.93
An ideal Brayton cycle, operating between
asy
large reservoir are 400k and 3 bar
respectively. A converging-diverging
nozzle of exit area 0.005m2 is fitted to the
the pressure limits of 1 bar and 6 bar, has
minimum and maximum temperatures of
En
wall of reservoir shown in figure. The
static pressure of air at the exit section for
300 K and 1500 K. The ratio of specific
heats of the working fluid is 1.4. The
gi
isentropic flow through the nozzle is
50kPa. The characteristic gas constant
and the ratio of specific heats of air are
approximate final temperatures in Kelvin
nee
at the end of the compression and
expansion processes are respectively
(A) 500 and 900 (C) 500 and 500
0.287 kJ/kgK and 1.4 respectively.
r
(B) 900 and 500
ing (D) 900 and 900
ME –2012
.ne
16. Steam enters an adiabatic turbine
Flow from
the reservoir
reservoir
t
operating at steady state with an enthalpy
of 3251.0kJ/kg and leaves as a saturated
mixture at 15 kPa with quality (dryness
fraction) 0.9. The enthalpies of the
Nozzle exit saturated liquid and vapour at 15 kPa are
11. The density of air in kg/ at the nozzle hf = 225.94kJ/kg and hg = 2598.3 kJ/kg
exit is respectively. The mass flow rate of steam
(A) 0.560 (C) 0.727 is 10kg/s. Kinetic and potential energy
(B) 0.600 (D) 0.800 changes are negligible. The power output
of the turbine in MW is
12. The mass flow rate of air through the (A) 6.5 (C) 9.1
nozzle in kg/s is (B) 8.9 (D) 27.0
(A) 1.30 (C) 1.85
(B) 1.77 (D) 2.06
th th th

.
ME –2013 20. The thermal efficiency of an air-standard

Statement for linked answer questions Brayton cycle in terms of pressure ratio
17 & 18: and γ c c is given by
In a simple Brayton cycle, the pressure
ratio is 8 and temperature at the entrance r r
⁄
of compressor and turbine are 300 K and

1400 K, respectively. Both compressor r r
and gas turbine isentropic efficiencies
equal to 0.8 for the gas , assume a 21. In an ideal Brayton cycle, atmospheric air
constant value of (specific heat at (ratio of specific heats, = 1.4,
constant pressure) equal to 1 kJ/kg K and specific heat at constant pressure = 1.005
ratio of specific heat as 1.4. Neglect kJ/kg.K) at 1 bar and 300 K is compressed
ww
changes in kinetic and potential energies.
17. The power required by the compressor in
kW/kg of gas flow rate is
to 8 bar. The maximum temperature in
the cycle is limited to 1280 K. If the heat is
w. E
(A) 194.7
(B) 243.4
(C) 304.3
(D) 378.5
supplied at the rate of 80 MW, the mass
flow rate (in kg/s) of air required in the
cycle is _______
18.
asy
The thermal efficiency of the cycle in
percentage (%) is
22. For a gas turbine power plant, identify the
correct pair of statements.
(A) 24.8
(B) 38.6 En (C) 44.8
(D) 53.1
P. Smaller in size compared to steam
power plant for same power output
ME –2014
gi
19. An ideal reheat Rankine cycle operates
Q. Starts quickly compared to steam
nee
power plant
R. Works on the principle of Rankine cycle
S. Good compatibility with solid fuel
between the pressure limits of 10 kPa and
8 MPa, with reheat being done at 4 MPa.
The temperature of steam at the inlets of
r
(A) P, Q
(B) R, S ing (C) Q, R
(D) P, S
both turbines is 500°C and the enthalpy of
steam is 3185 kJ/kg at the exit of the high
23.
.ne
Steam with specific enthalpy (h) 3214
kJ/kg enters an adiabatic turbine
pressure turbine and 2247 kJ/kg at the
exit of low pressure turbine. The enthalpy
of water at the exit from the pump is 191
t
operating at steady state with a flow rate
10 kg/s. As it expands, at a point where h
is 2920 kJ/kg, 1.5 kg/s is extracted for
kJ/kg. Use the following table for relevant heating purposes. The remaining 8.5 kg/s
data. further expands to the turbine exit, where
Superheated h = 2374 kJ/kg. Neglecting changes in
Steam temperature 500 500 kinetic and potential energies, the net
(°C) power output (in kW) of the turbine is
Pressure (Mpa) 4 8 _______
ν( /kg) 0.08644 0.04177
h(kJ/kg) 3446 3399 24. In a compression ignition engine, the inlet
s(kJ/kg.K) 7.0922 6.7266 air pressure is 1 bar and the pressure at the
Disregarding the pump work, the cycle end of isentropic compression is 32.42 bar.
efficiency (in percentage) is _______ The expansion ratio is 8. Assuming ratio of
speci ic heats γ as . , the air stan ar
efficiency (in percent) is _______
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] c c
h z g h z g W
As u2 and w2>>w1 2 2
Velocity of flow is constant throughout the (or) 3200 × 10 + 10 × 9.81 +
3
stage and the diagram is symmetrical hence

= 2600 × 103+ 6 × 9.81+ W
it is diagram of reaction turbine.
W = 600 × 103+ 39.24 +
2. [Ans. D] = 607839.24 × 20 J/s
At the time of intake, intake valve operates = 12.156 MW.
only when the pressure inside the cylinder
is lower than the atmospheric pressure. And 8. [Ans. C]
ww
appreciable large pressure difference at the
time of suction starting, causing fluttering at
Pump work
hinlet+q = houtlet+Wpump
w. E
initial.
At the time of compression, process
followed is polytropic and continues till
here, q=0
Wpump = hinlet houtlet
W = ∆hpump
asy
pressure exceeds the delivery line pressure
for opening the delivery valve.
Reversible adiabatic
dq = dh Vdp
3. [Ans. B]
En dh=Vdp WP=∫ v p
h V p p
gi
Condenser is on essential equipment in a
steam turbine because it is not economical
to feed steam directly to the boiler.
For same mass flow rate and the same nee
= 2.930 kPa
kPa
pressure rise, a water pump require very

less power because the specific volume of
liquid is very less as compare to specific
r
Alternately
T
ing 1
volume of vapour.
.ne
Boiler
Turbine
4.
5.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. B]
t
Condenser 2
Reheater always increases the dryness S

fraction of steam at condenser inlet. Always
V= kg
increases the specific work output.
Pump work = p p V
6. [Ans. A] = kJ kg
h3 =0.2h1 +h2 0.8 = 2.930kJ/kg
= 560 + 160
= 720 kJ/kg
7. [Ans. A]
c c
h z g Q h z g W
2 2
For adiabatic process , Q = 0
th th th

.
9. [Ans. C] 13. [Ans. A]

1 Specific steam consumption in
T
kg/kw – hr
Boiler
.
2
4
14. [Ans. D]
3 15kPa 2
Work done ν P P
S
P P kJ kg
Turbine work.
h h 2. 2 2. .2kJ kg 2. kJ kg
Actual work=theoretical work x adiabatic
ww
= . .2
Pump work =Vdp
.2 kJ/kg
.
15.
P
[Ans. A]
ar T K
w. E
. kJ/kg
Net work Tur ine work pump work
.2 . . kJ⁄kg.
P
γ .
ar T K
10. asy
[Ans. C]
Bar
h En
Heat supplie Q h
h
h
pump work
T 2
Bar
2.
2 2. kJ kggi
22 . .
nee
11. [Ans. C] S
P kPa, T
Pressure at exit, P
K
kPa
T
T
r P
( )
P ing
Temperature at exit, T
.
T ( ) T
( )
.
.
.ne
T
T 2 . K
Density at exit,
( )
.
T
T
T
( )
. K
.
. t
P T K
. 2 kg m
RT .2 2 .
16. [Ans. B]
12. [Ans. D] V z g
m *h + Q
Velocity at exit, V √2 h h 2
V √2 T T V z g
m *h + W
2
V √2 2 .
V . m s
V V
Mass flow rate,
kJ
m V . 2 . . h 2
kg
2. kg s
h h x hg h
th th th

.
22 . . 2 . 22 . T T T T
kJ T T
2 .
kg . .
W m h h 2 2 . .
. MW 2 . %
17. [Ans. C] 19. [Ans. *]Range 40 to 42

MPa
T MPa
2
T 2
kPa
ww
T w. E P
( )
S
h
h
h at pump exit
h at MPa ,
kJ kg
kJ kg
S
T
T
T
asy P
T . k
h enthalpy at exit o high pressure tur ine
kJ kg
En
h
h
h
h
T
T
T
T T
. h enthalpy at exit of low pressure
turbine 22 kJ kg
T
P ṁ h
gi .2 2 K
h
. h
nee
h at MPa ,
work one
heat supplie
kJ kg
h h h h
P
ṁ
h h T T
.2 2 rh h h h
ing
22
. kJ kg
. .ne
18. [Ans. A]
T
T
P
( )
P
. .
. .
20. [Ans. D]
. %
t
T . 2. 2 K Direct thermal efficiency formula
.
h h
. 21. [Ans. *]Range 105 to 112
h h
T T In Compression, ( )
.
T T T .
T . T . K
.
2. 2 mc T T Q
T .2 K m . 2 .
W W kg
q m .
s
h h h h kg s
h h
th th th

ww
w.E
a syE
ngi
nee
rin
g.n
et

.
22. [Ans. A]
Gas turbine plant is smaller in size as
compared to steam power plant that is why
gas turbine is also used in aircraft. It starts
very quickly because the highly flammable
fuel is used in combustor chamber, after
compression process in chamber fuel is
supplied to burner.
23. [Ans.*]Range 7580 to 7582

Net power output
=m h h m h h
ww 2
Net Power output
2 2 . 2 2
kW
2
24.
w. E
[Ans. *]Range 59 to 61
asy
En
r
r
V
V
r
gi
,r
r
V
V
,r
V
V
nee
r
r
V
V
P
, ( )
P
(
2. 2
)
.
.
r ing
r
.
.
.ne
γr
.
r
r
.
t
. . . .
.
Hence air st e iciency . %
th th th

Refrigeration
ME –2005 the evaporator. The coordinate system

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 1 used in the figure is
and 2: 2
The following table of properties was 3
printed out for saturated liquid and
saturated vapour of ammonia. The titles
for only the first two columns are 4 1
available. All that we know is that the

other columns (columns 3 to 8) contain (A) (C)
data on specific properties, namely, (B) (D)
ww
internal energy(kJ/kg), enthalpy (kJ/kg)
and entropy(kJ/kg.k).
P
ME –2008
5. A cyclic device operates between three
2
0
w. E
(kPa)
190.2
429.6
88.76 0.3657
179.69 0.7114
89.05
180.36
5.6155
5.3309
1299.5
1318.0
1418.0
1442.2
thermal reservoirs, as shown in the
figure. Heat is transferred to/from the
cyclic device. It is assumed that heat
20
40 asy
587.5
1554.9
272.89 1.0408
368.74 1.3574
274.30
371.43
5.0860
4.8662
1332.2
1341.0
1460.2
1470.2
transfer between each thermal reservoir
and the cyclic device takes place across
1.
En
The specific enthalpy data are in columns
(A) 3 and 7 (C) 5 and 7
negligible temperature difference.
Interactions between the cyclic device
2.
gi
(B) 3 and 8 (D) 5 and 8
When saturated liquid at

to 2
C is throttled
the quality at exit will be
and the respective thermal reservoirs that
nee
are shown in the figure are all in the form
of heat transfer.
r
1000K 500K 300K
(A) 0.189 (C) 0.231
(B) 0.212 (D) 0.788
ing50kJ
.ne
100kJ Cyclic 60kJ
3. A vapour absorption refrigeration system device
is a heat pump with three thermal The cyclic device can be
reservoirs as shown in the figure. A
refrigeration effect of 100W is required at
250 K when the heat source available is at
(A) a reversible heat engine
(B) a reversible heat pump or a
reversible refrigerator
t
400 K. Heat rejection occurs at 300K. The (C) an irreversible heat engine
minimum value of heat required (in W) is (D) an irreversible heat pump or an
400K irreversible refrigerator
300K
ME –2009
6. An irreversible heat engine extracts heat
250K from a high temperature source at a rate
(A) 167 (C) 80 of 100kW and rejects heat to a sink at a
(B) 100 (D) 20 rate of 50kW. The entire work output of
the heat engine is used to drive a
4. The vapour compression refrigeration reversible heat pump operating between
cycle is represented as shown in the a set of independent isothermal heat
figure below, with state 1 being the exit of reservoirs at C and . The rate
th th th

.
(in kW) at which the heat pump delivers 9. The power required for the compressor in
heat to its high temperature sink is kW is
(A) 50 (C) 300 (A) 5.94 (C) 7.9
(B) 250 (D) 360 (B) 1.83 (D) 39.5
7. In an ideal vapour compression ME –2014

refrigeration cycle, the specific enthalpy 10. Which one of the following is a CFC
of refrigerant (in kJ/kg) at the following refrigerant?
states is given as: (A) R744 (C) R502
Inlet of condenser: 283 (B) R290 (D) R718
Exit of condenser: 116
Exit of evaporator: 232 11. A heat pump with refrigerant R22 is used
wwThe COP of this cycle is

(A) 2.27
(B) 2.75
(C) 3.27
(D) 3.75
for space heating between temperature
limits o 2 an 2 . The heat
required is 200 MJ/h. Assume specific
w. E
ME –2012
heat of vapour at the time of discharge as
0.98 kJ/kg.K. Other relevant properties
asy
Common Data for Questions 8 and 9:
A refrigerator operates between 120kPa
and 800kPa in an ideal vapor
are given below. The enthalpy (in kJ/kg)
of the refrigerant at isentropic
compressor discharge is _______
En
compression cycle with R - 134 a as the
refrigerant. The refrigerant enters the
Saturation 20 25
gi
compressor as saturated vapor and leaves
the condenser as saturated liquid. The
mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.2
temperature
Pressure
neeSpecific
enthalpy
P MN m
h kJ kg
h kJ kg
0.2448 1.048
177.21 230.07
397.53 413.02
kg/s. properties for R - 134 a are as
follows.
P(kPa) 120 800
r
Specific
entropy
s kJ kg. K
ing
s kJ kg. K
0.9139
1.7841
1.1047
1.7183
Saturated
T
h kJ⁄kg
22.32
22.5
31.31
95.5 12.
.ne
A reversed Carnot cycle refrigerator
maintains a temperature o . The
t
R-134a h kJ⁄kg 237 267.3
s kJ⁄kg . K 0.093 0.354 ambient air temperature is 35°C. The heat
s kJ⁄kg . K 0.95 0.918 gained by the refrigerator at a continuous
Superheated R-134a rate is 2.5kJ/s. The power (in watt)
P(kPa) 800 required to pump this heat out
T 40 continuously is _______
h kJ⁄kg 276.45
s kJ⁄kg . K 0.95
13. Two identical metal blocks L and M
(specific heat = 0.4 kJ/kg.K), each having
8. The rate at which heat is extracted, in kJ/s
a mass of 5 kg, are initially at 313 K. A
from the refrigerated space is
reversible refrigerator extracts heat from
(A) 28.3 (C) 34.4
block L and rejects heat to block M until
(B) 42.9 (D) 14.6
the temperature of block L reaches 293 K.
The final temperature (in K) of block M is
_______
th th th

.
1. [Ans. D] 6. [Ans. C]
h = u + pv; h is always greater than u, but High
just greater than s.
100 kW QK
h 5 & 8; u 3 and 7; s 4 and 6
Engine Pump
2. [Ans. B] 50 kW Q
When saturated liquid at 40 is throttled to low
-20 . The enthalpy remains same. W =Q1 Q2 2 K
i.e. 37.43 = 89.05 + x(1418 – 89.05) =100 50
x = 0.212 =50kW
3. ww
[Ans. C]
C.O.P
Q1= 300 kW
w. E
From question, since refrigeration effect of
100 W is required
So,
2
Alternately
Work output irreversible heat engine,
W= = 100 – 50 =50 kW
asy Work o taine

⟹ Work o taine
2
2
2 W
Reversible heat pump
2
En
300K 400 K 3
(348K)
gi
Q2
Q3
nee
W = 50 KW
HP
Q
Q1
WORK
r ing
(290 K)
1 250K
Now for this amount of work, heat is Q W Q .ne

Also for irreversible heat engine
absorbed from reservoir 3 and rejected to

sink 2.
W
or ( T
or (348 -2
T ∆S
T ∆S
∆S
t
T ∆S
Q ∆ S=
⟹Q W 2 W W
Rate of heat rejection,
Q T ∆S
4. [Ans. D]
= 348 × kW
5. [Ans. A]
Since heat is taken from the high
temperature sources and rejected to low
temperature sink, hence the device is a heat
engine not heat pump. Since, the
temperature differences are negligible, the
engine is reversible.
th th th

.
7. [Ans. A] 10. [Ans. C]

R-744 R M. W
700 + 44
p O
3 2 2 2
4 1 2 2
h R 2 R m n P
m 2 n
2 work done by the compressor | ⌋P
m n
2 condenser heat rejected at constant n + p + q=2 m+2
pressure q H l
throtlling
ww heat addition in evaporator

Given: h2 = 283 kJ/kg
q
H
R 2 R
so no chloro loro car on
m n P
w. E
We know
h3 = 116 kJ/kg = h4 (from ph curve)
h1 = 232 kJ/kg
m
m
n p q 2m 2
|
n
n
⌋P 2
asy
OP
esire e ect
work input
cooling e ect
q
2 q 2 2
En work one y compressor

So p & q is present so H l
So chlorine and Fluorine is present
gi
h
h
2 2
2
h
h
2 2
2.2 11.
So best option is C
nee
T
8. [Ans. A]
r ing 2
9. [Ans. C]
T 2
2a
.ne
3 t
Process 2-3 is isobaric (constant process)
S
4 1 T s h v p
S T s h
h
h 2 kJ⁄kg m .2kg⁄sec s
T
s . kJ⁄kgK Applying between 2 and 2a ,
h h . kJ⁄kgK s s . kJ⁄kgK h
h 2 . kJ⁄kgK ∫ s ∫
T
NRE(kW) m kg⁄sec h h kJ⁄kg
S S ∫ (Assume vapour as ideal
= 0.2(273 – 95.5) = 28.3 kW
W KW m kg⁄sec h h kJ⁄kg gas between 2 and 2a)
T
.2 2 . 2 . kW S S p ln
T
S S S at 2 . kJ kg. K
th th th

.
S S at 2 . kJ kg. k
T
. . . ln
T
T
. ln
2 2
T . k .
h h p T T
h h at 2 . 2 kJ kg
h . 2 . . 2 . kJ kg
12. [Ans. *]Range 370 to 375

OP =
ww 2
2
2
2.
Power input
13.
w. E
Power .

Watt
asyM to
En
L
gi to 2 nee
Heat rejected by block L = heat gained by
block M
M 2 M T
r ing
M
2
M
T .ne
T K
t
th th th

.
Internal Combustion Engines

ME –2005 (A) P – S – 5, R – U – 3, P – S – 1, Q – T – 2
Common Data for Questions 1 & 2: (B) P – S – 1, R – U – 3, P – S – 4, P – T – 2
In two air standard cycles - one operating (C) R – T – 3, P – S – 1, P – T – 4, Q – S – 5
on the Otto and the other on the Brayton (D) P – T – 4, R – S – 3, P – S – 1, P – S – 5
cycle - air is isentropically compressed
from 300 to 450 K. Heat is added to raise ME –2007
the temperature to 600K in the Otto cycle 4. The stroke and bore of a four stroke spark
and to 550K in the Brayton cycle. ignition engine are 250 mm and 200 mm
1. If and are the efficiencies of the respectively. The clearance volume is
Otto and Brayton cycles, then 0.001 m3. If the specific heat ratio   1.4,
ww
(A)
(B)
(C)
=0.25, =0.18
= =0.33
=0.5, =0.45
the air-standard cycle efficiency of the
engine is
w. E
(D) it is not possible to calculate the
efficiencies unless the temperature
(A) 46.40%
(B) 56.10%
(C) 58.20%
(D) 62.80%
2. If asy
after the expansion is given
and are work outputs per unit

ME –2008
5. Which one of the following is NOT a
necessary assumption for the air-
(A) W >WEn
mass, then
standard Otto cycle?
(B) W <W
(C) W = W gi
(D) it is not possible to calculate the
(A) All processes are both internally as
well as externally reversible.
nee
(B) Intake and exhaust processes are
constant volume heat rejection
work outputs unless the temperature
ME –2006
after the expansion is given.
r
processes.
ing
(C) The combustion process is a constant
volume heat addition process.
3. Group I shows different heat addition
processes in power cycles. Likewise, .ne
(D) The working fluid is an ideal gas with
constant specific heats.
Group II shows different heat removal
processes. Group III lists power cycles.
Match items from Groups I, II and III.
ME –2009
6.
t
In an air-standard Otto cycle, the
compression ratio is 10. The condition at
Group I Group II Group III
the beginning of the compression process
P. Pressure S. Pressure 1. Rankine
is 100kPa and 2 C. Heat added at
constant constant cycle
constant volume is 1500 kJ/kg, while
Q. Volume T. Volume 2. Otto
700 kJ/kg of heat is rejected during the
constant constant cycle
other constant volume process in the
R. U. 3. Carnot
cycle. Specific gas constant for air
Temperature Temperature cycle
= 0.287kJ/kgK. The mean effective
constant constant 4. Diesel
pressure (in kPa) of the cycle is
cycle
(A) 103 (C) 515
5. Brayton (B) 310 (D) 1032
cycle
th th th

.
ME –2010 ME –2014
7. A turbo – charged four – stroke direct 9. In an air-standard Otto cycle, air is
injection diesel engine has a displacement supplied at 0.1 MPa and 308 K. The ratio
volume of 0.0259 (25.9 litres). The o the speci ic heats γ an the speci ic
engine has an output of 950 kW at gas constant (R) of air are 1.4 and
2200 rpm. The mean effective pressure(in 288.8 J/kg.K, respectively. If the
MPa)is close to compression ratio is 8 and the maximum
(A) 2 (C) 0.2 temperature in the cycle is 2660 K, the
(B) 1 (D) 0.1 heat (in kJ/kg) supplied to the engine is
_______
ME –2011
8. The crank radius of a single – cylinder I. C. 10. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of
ww
engine is 60 mm and the diameter of the
cylinder is 80 mm. The swept volume of
the cylinder in is
17 and cut-off takes place at 10% of the
stroke. Assuming ratio of specific
heats as 1.4 the air-standard efficiency
w. E
(A) 48
(B) 96
(C) 302
(D) 603
(in percent) is ________

1. [Ans. B]
En
Efficiency of both the cycle i.e. for otto
5. [Ans. B]
Intake process is the constant volume
gi
and brayton is given by
,
heat addition process
nee
Hence (B) is not the right assumption
6. [Ans. D]
Q
3
.
r
Here , P1 = 100kPa
T1 = 27
ing
T
2
Const.
Volum
= 10
Cp =0.287 kJ/kgK .ne
1 Q
S
4 e
1500kJ
t
Pm (V1 V2) = work done = h1 h2
= 1500 700 = 800 kJ
3
2. [Ans. A] 4
kJ P
W .
kg
700kJ
W . kJ kg 2
1
3. [Ans. A] V
4. [Ans. C] Now P1V1 =mRT1

Here, = 0.001 m3 or 100 × 103 × V1 = 1 × 0.287 × 103 × 300
= d2 l= (0.2)2 (0.25)=7.85× or V1 = 0.861
V2 = 0.0861
Compression ratio, r = 1+ = 8.85 Now Pm(0.861-0.0861) = 800
= 58.20% Pm =1032 kPa
th th th

.
Alternately TV TV
Air standard otto cycle V T
( )
3 V T
.
T
P 2 T . K
4
T T 2 K
Heat supplied,
1 Q V V T T
R
V V
V T T
γ
Given: 2 .
2 .
ww =
.
. kJ kg
=
w. E.
.86
10. [Ans. *]Range 58 to 62
P
2
Now V
asy
V
Work one, ∆ h
V
.
.
kJ kg
m kg
P
En
7.
=
[Ans. A]
.
gi 2. kPa
Cutoff = V
nee
Stroke V
cut o
V
V
% o stroke
V
Power = kw
As four stroke
n = = 1100rpm
, V V
V
V
rV
V
.
.
V V
ing
P =
. . .ne
cut o ratio
8.
=2
[Ans. D]
Swept volume
106 N/m2 = 2MPa
.2
V
V
t
. ompression ratio r
2 r
V
r
V
9. [Ans. *]Range 1400 to 1420 . 2.
P
[ ]
r γ
.
2.
.
* +
. 2.
2
. .
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Theory of Machines
Mechanisms
ME –2005 ME – 2006
Common Data for Questions 1. 2& 3: 5. In a four-bar linkage, S denotes the
An instantaneous configuration of a four- shortest link length, L is the longest link
bar mechanism, whose plane is horizontal, length, P and Q are the lengths of other
is shown in the figure below. At this two links. At least one of the three moving
instant, the angular velocity and angular links will rotate by if
acceleration of link O A are ω=8 rad/s (A) S + L ≤ P + Q (C) S + P ≤ L + Q
and = , respectively, and the driving (B) S + L > P + Q (D) S + P > L + Q
torque( )is zero. The link O A is balanced
so that its centre of mass falls at O . 6. Match the items in columns I and II
ww Column I Column II
(P) Higher kinematic (1) Grubler’s
w. E
α
ω
A
mm
mm
pair equation
(Q) Lower kinematic (2) Line contact
pair
τ
o
asy mm
o (R) Quick return
mechanism
( ) Euler’s
equation
1.
En
Which kind of 4 bar mechanism is the
O2ABO4?
(S) Mobility of a
linkage
(4) Planer
gi
(A) Double crank mechanism
(B) Crank rocker mechanism
(C) Double rocker mechanism nee
(5) Shaper
(6) Surface
contact
(A) P – 2 Q – 6 R – 4 S – 3
2.
(D) Parallelogram mechanism
At the instant considered, what is the r ing

(B) P – 6 Q – 2 R – 4 S – 1
(C) P – 6 Q – 2 R – 5 S – 3
magnitude of the angular velocity of O B?
(A) 1 rad/s (C) 8 rad/s
.ne
(D) P – 2 Q – 6 R – 5 S – 1
3.
(B) 3 rad/s (D) rad/s
At the same instant, if the component of

7.
crank mechanism is:
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
t
The number of inversions for a slider
the force at joint A along AB is 30 N, then

the magnitude of the joint reaction at O2
8. For a four-bar linkage in toggle position,
(A) is Zero
the value of mechanical advantage is:
(B) is 30 N
(A) 0.0 (C) 1.0
(C) is 78 N
(B) 0.5 (D) ∞
(D) Cannot be determined from the given
data
ME – 2007
4. The number of degrees of freedom of a Linked Answer Questions: Q.9 - Q.10
planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple A quick return mechanism is shown
revolute joints is below. The crank OS is driven at 2 rev/s
(A) 1 (C) 3 in counter – clockwise direction.
(B) 2 (D) 4
th th th

.
R freedom of the mechanism, using

Grubler’s criterion is
(A) 0 (C) 2
(B) 1 (D) 3
Q
ME – 2009
S 13. Match the approaches given below to
perform stated kinematics / dynamics
O
analysis of machine
500 mm Analysis Approach
P P. Continuous 1. D’ Alembert’s
relative rotation principle
9. ww
If the quick return ratio is 1:2, then the
Q. Velocity and
acceleration
2. Grubler’s
criterion
w. E
length of the crank in mm is
(A) 250
(B) 250√
(C) 500
(D) 500√
R. Mobility
S. Dynamic-static
analysis
3. Grashoff’s law
4. Kennedy’s
theorem
10. asy
The angular speed of PQ in rev/s when
(A) P
(B) P
Q
Q
R
R
S
S
En
the block R attains maximum speed
during forward stroke (stroke with
(C) P
(D) P
Q
Q
R
R
S
S
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄
gi
slower speed) is
(C) 2
(D) 3
14.
nee
A simple quick return mechanism is
shown in the figure. The forward to
return ratio of the quick return
11. The input link O2P of a four bar linkage is
rotated at 2 rad/s in counter clockwise
direction as shown below. The angular
r ing
mechanism is 2:1. If the radius of the
crank O1P is 125mm, then the distance
‘d’(in mm) between the crank centre to
velocity of the coupler PQ in rad/s, at an
instant when O4O2P = 1800, is .ne
lever pivot centre point should be
PQ = O4Q = √ a
O
P t Q
O2P = O2O4 = a d
P O
(A) 144.3 (C) 240.0

O2 O
(B) 216.5 (D) 250.0
(A) 4 (C) 1
(B) 2√ (D) ME – 2010
√
15. For the configuration shown, the angular
velocity of link AB is 10 rad/s
ME – 2008 counterclockwise. The magnitude of the
12. A Planar mechanism has 8 links and 10
relative sliding velocity (in ms ) of
rotary joints. The number of degrees of
slider B with respect to rigid link CD is
th th th

.
D ME – 2011
B
AB = 250 19. For the four-bar linkage shown in the
BC = 250√ figure, the angular velocity of link AB is
AC = 500 1 rad/s. The length of link CD is 1.5 times
the length of link AB. In the configuration
shown, the angular velocity of link CD in
rad/s is
A 60° C
C
B
(A) 0 (C) 1.25
(B) 0.86 (D) 2.50 1 rad/s
16.
ww
Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT A D
w. E
(A) Grashof’s rule states that for a planar
crank – rocker four bar mechanism,
the sum of the shortest and longest
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D)
asy
link lengths cannot be less than the
sum of the remaining two link
20. A double – parallelogram mechanism is
shown in the figure. Note that PQ is a
En
lengths.
(B) Inversions of a mechanism are
single link. The mobility of the mechanism
is
gi
created by fixing different links one
at a time.
(C) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent
motion mechanism. nee
P Q
(D) Gruebler’s criterion assumes

mobility of a planar mechanism to be
one.
r ing
17. Mobility of a statically indeterminate
(A) (B) 0
.ne (C) 1 (D) 2
structure is
(A) ≤
(B) O
(C) 1
(D) ≥
ME – 2012
t
21. A solid disc roll without slipping on a
horizontal floor with angular velocity
and angular acceleration . The
18. There are two points P and Q on a planar magnitude of the acceleration of the point
rigid body. The relative velocity between of contact on the disc is
he two points (A) Zero
(A) should always be along PQ (B) rα
(B) can be oriented along any direction (C) √(rα) + (rω)
(C) should always be perpendicular to (D) rω
PQ
(D) should be along QP when the body 22. In the mechanism given below, if the
undergoes pure translation angular velocity of the eccentric circular
disc is 1 rad/s, the angular velocity
(rad/s) of the follower link for the
instant shown in the figure is
th th th

.
Note :All dimensions are in mm fixed link, the input link, the coupler and
output link respectively. Which one of the
following statements is true about the
input and output links?
25
(A) Both links can execute full circular
motion
(B) Both links cannot execute full
45 5
circular motion
(A) 0.05 (C) 5.0 (C) Only the output link cannot execute
(B) 0.1 (D) 10.0 full circular motion
(D) Only the input link cannot execute
ME – 2013 full circular motion
ww
23. A planar closed kinematic chain is
formed with rigid linksPQ =2.0 m,
QR = 3.0 m, RS =2.5 m and SP =2.7 m
27. A rigid link PQ of length 2 m rotates about
the pinned end Q with a constant angular
w. E
with all revolute joints. The link to be
fixed to obtain a double rocker (rocker –
acceleration of 12 rad/ s . When the
angular velocity of the link is 4 rad/s, the
(A) PQ
asy
rocker ) mechanism is
(B) QR (C) RS (D) SP
magnitude of the resultant acceleration
(in m/s ) of the end P is _______
ME – 2014
En
24. A slider crank mechanism has slider mass
28. Consider a rotating disk cam and a
translating roller follower with zero
gi
of 10 kg, stroke of 0.2 m and rotates with
a uniform angular velocity of 10 rad/s.
The primary inertia forces of the slider
offset. Which one of the following pitch
nee
curves, parameterized by t, lying in the
interval to π is associated with the
are partially balanced by a revolving mass
of 6 kg at the crank, placed at a distance
equal to crank radius. Neglect the mass of
r
maximum translation of the follower
ing
during one full rotation of the cam
rotating about the center at (x, y)=(0, 0) ?
connecting rod and crank. When the
crank angle (with respect to slider axis) is .ne
(A) x (t ) = cos t y (t ) = sin t
(B) x (t ) = cos t y (t ) = sin t
25.
30°, the unbalanced force (in Newton)
normal to the slider axis is _______
An offset slider-crank mechanism is

(C) x(t) = + cost y (t) =
t
(D) x(t) = + cos t y (t) = sin t
sin t
shown in the figure at an instant. 29. A slider-crank mechanism with crank

Conventionally, the Quick Return Ratio radius 60 mm and connecting rod length
(QRR) is considered to be greater than 240 mm is shown in figure. The crank is
one. The value of QRR is _______ rotating with a uniform angular speed of
mm mm 10 rad/s, counter clockwise. For the given
configuration, the speed (in m/s) of the
mm
slider is _______
26. A 4-bar mechanism with all revolute pairs

has link lengths l = 20 mm, l = 40 mm,
l = 50 mm and l = 60 mm. The
suffixes 'f', 'in', 'co' and 'out' denote the
th th th

.
30. A uniform slender rod (8m length and

3kg mass) rotates in a vertical plane
about a horizontal axis 1m from its end as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of the
angular acceleration (in rad/S ) of the
rod at the position shown is
m m
1.
ww
[Ans. B]
Length of link AB =
3. [Ans. B]
30 N
√(
w. E ) + (
I + I
) IAB = 260mm
I + I
A A
asy
Since O2O4 is fixed link.
Hence it will act as crank – rocker
mechanism.
O
R
O
ma = mrω
En
If s + l < p +q and link adjacent to
shortest link is fixed, then it is a crank –
=
R = mrω
2. [Ans. B]
gi
rocker mechanism.
30-R = 0
(Since centre of mass is at O r = )
nee
R = 30
3
I3
4
B
4
4.
r
[Ans. C]
ing
Number of degree of freedom,
n = (l ) J h
A
I2
=( ) ( )
.ne =
C
2
I12 I1
5. [Ans. A]
t
According to Grashoff’s riteria.
S + L ≤ P +Q
I24 O2 O
44
1 6. [Ans. D]
= = 7. [Ans. C]
O
O = 144mm There are four number of inversions for
ω I I ω slider crank mechanism.
= = =
ω I I ( + ) 8 8
8. [Ans. D]
ω = 8 ω = rad⁄s Mechanical advantage
8
Load (output force)
=
Effort (input force)
For a four bar linkage on toggle position,
effort= 0
∴ Mechanical Advantage = ∞
th th th

.
9. [Ans. A] Angular velocity of coupler

√
Wop = = = /
√
π
12. [Ans. B]
r o y Grubler’s criterion
M N F = (L ) j
= (8 ) =
13. [Ans. B]
P
14. [Ans. D]
=
π
ww =
π
cos =
r
r
OP
Q Q
w. E
cos =
r = 250mm
P α
Q
P
10.
asy
[Ans. B]
Maximum speed in forward stroke occurs (
α
) Q
V = 250 En
when QR an QS are perpendicular
2 = 750 =
11. [Ans. C] gi
At the instant i.e, nee
=
Or α =
or α =
–α
∴ =
O4O2P = 8
The linkage is shown in figure
O
r
i.e PO2O1 =
In ∆ PO2O1 ing
√ a √ a
tan =
.ne
P
The
a
velocity
O2
a
diagram for the
And sin
=
=
tan
⁄
=
=
=
t .
configuration is
O2, O4 15. [Ans. D]
450 B
O 2a 250 250√
450
60° 30°
C
P A 500
Velocity of coupler OP is Angle ABC is , hence,

OP = 2a cos = √ = r. ω = . = . m/s
th th th

.
16. [Ans. A] 22. [Ans. B]

Grashof’s rule states that the sum of the I Should be in the line joining I and I .
shortest and longest link for a planar Similarly the link 3 is rolling on link 2.
Crank – rocker four bar mechanism can So the I – center I will be on the line
not be greater than the sum of the perpendicular to the link – 2 .
remaining two link lengths So the point C is the intersection of these
of two loci. Which is the center of the disc.
17. [Ans. A] So ω (I I ) = ω (I I )
Mobility or degree of freedom for a ω =
statically indeterminate structure is ω = . rad/sec
always less than zero.
Locus of
i.e F<0 B
I
ww
∴ only option (A) is negative value
∴ F≤
A D 25
18.
w. E
[Ans. C]
P I 45
C
Locus of
I
asy Q
23. [Ans. C]
En According to Grashof condition

As, we have shortest + longest link < sum
O
gi Planar rigid body

of intermediate lengths
nee
2 + 3 < 2.5 +2.7
5 < 5.2
We get double rocker by fixing link
= Relative velocity between P and Q.
=
Always perpendicular to PQ.
r S ing
opposite to shortest link (PQ)
19. [Ans. D] .
.
.ne
Velocity of link AB = Velocity of link CD
A
ω
ω = D ω
=
.
= P Q
tR
Fix RS
20. [Ans. C]
24. [Ans. *] Range 29 to 31
21. [Ans. D] Crank radius(r) =
Acceleration at point ‘O’ .
= = . m,
a =a +a +a
a and a are linear accelerations Ang. velocity (ω) = rad/s
With same magnitude and opposite in Crank angle ( ) =
direction. Revolving mass for balance, m = 6 kg,
So, unbalanced force normal to slider axis
a =a = rω = mω r sin
r
= . sin = N
th th th

.
25. [Ans. *] Range 1.2 to1.3 29. [Ans. *]Range 0.54 to 0.68
A
mm
mm mm
(position A) rad/sec
Sin = = . S
= ωr = = mm/sec
mm = . m/sec
= elocity of slider
mm
elocity diagram of current configuration
.
(Position )
Sin = = =
ww
A
= .
return
+ 8
+ 8
= .
=( ) +( )
w. E
A forward
t
QRR = =
t
ωQ
ω
=
.
.
. =
= .
.
=
=
+(
+ +
)
26. asy
[Ans. A] =
=
= . m/sec
En
l+s≤ p+q
8
+ =8 +
30. [Ans. *]Range 1.9 to 2.1
I . α = mg. x.
gi
So at least one link goes full revolution
Also shortest link is fixed.
So both input and output execute full
revolution
x = 3m,
nee
I = mL + m ( )
27. [Ans. *] Range 39 to 41

a
=
= .
∴ .
r m 8 + m
m kg m
m α=m ing .8
ω
a
P α= . rad/s
.ne
Q
α
t
a = rα = ( ) = m/s
a = rω = ( ) = m/s
a = √a + a = √ + = m/s
28. [Ans. C]
In this question we have to find maximum
translation of the follower so this can be
found choosing the option which has
highest value of x and y so we can observe
and on the basis of common sense. The
most appropriate answer is C.
th th th

.
Gear Trains
ME – 2005 4. Match the items in columns I and II.
1. In a cam - follower mechanism, the Column I Column II
follower needs to rise through 20 mm (P) Addendum (1) Cam
during of cam rotation, the first (Q) Instantaneous (2) Beam
with a constant acceleration and then Centre of velocity
with a deceleration of the same (R) Section modulus (3) Linkage
magnitude. The initial and final speeds of (S) Prime circle (4) Gear
the follower are zero. The cam rotates at a (A) P - 4 Q – 2 R – 3 S - 1
uniform speed of 300 rpm. The maximum (B) P - 4 Q – 3 R - 2 S - 1
speed of the follower is (C) P – 3 Q – 2 R – 1 S - 4
(A) 0.60 m/s (C) 1.68 m/s
ww
(B) 1.20 m/s (D) 2.40 m/s
ME – 2008
(D) P – 3 Q – 4 R – 1 S - 2
w. E
ME – 2006
Common Data for Questions 2, 3:
A planetary gear train has four gears and
5. In a cam design, the rise motion is given
by a simple harmonic motion (SHM)
s= ( cos ) where h is total rise,
asy
one carrier. Angular velocities of the
gears are , , and respectively.
The carrier rotates with angular
is camshaft angle is the total angle of
the rise interval. The jerk is given by
En
velocity .
Gear 3
(A) ( cos )
Gear 2
45T
gi 20T (B)
nee
(C)
(D)
sin ( )
cos ( )
sin ( )
Carrier 5
ME – 2009
6.
r ing
An epicyclic gear train is shown
Gear 1
15T
Gear 4
40T
.ne
schematically in the adjacent figure
The sun gear 2 on the input shaft is a 20
2. What is the relation between the angular
velocities of Gear 1 and Gear4?
(A) =
t
teeth external gear. The planet gear 3 is a
40 teeth external gear. The ring gear 5 is a
100 teeth internal gear. The ring gear 5 is
fixed and the gear 2 is rotating at 60 rpm
(B) = ccw (ccw = counter-clockwise and cw =
clockwise).
(C) = ( ) The arm 4 attached to the output shaft
(D) = will rotate at
3 4
3. For ω1 = 60 rpm clockwise (cw) when
5
looked from the left, what is the angular
2
velocity of the carrier and its direction so
that Gear 4 rotates in counterclockwise
(ccw) direction at twice the angular
velocity of Gear 1 when looked from the
(A) 10 rpm ccw (C) 12 rpm cw
left?
(B) 10 rpm cw (D) 12 rpm ccw
(A) 130 rpm, cw (C) 256 rpm, cw
(B) 223 rpm, ccw (D) 156 rpm, ccw
th th th

.
ME – 2010 of the gear R is 2 mm, the center distance

7. For the epicyclic gear arrangement shown in mm between gears P and S is
Q
in the figure, ω = rad/s clockwise
(CW) and ω = 8 rad/s counter P S
clockwise (CCW). The angular velocity
ω (in rad/s) is + +
N = Number of R
teeth
for gear i (A) 40 (C) 120
N = (B) 80 (D) 160
5 N =
3 4 N =
N =8
ME – 2014
11. For the given statements:
I. Mating spur gear teeth is an example
ww 2
of higher pair
II. A revolute joint is an example of lower
w. E arm Shaft axis

pair
Indicate the correct answer.
(A)Both I and II are false
(B) I is true and II is false
(A) 0
asy
(B) 70 CW
(C) 140 CCW
(D) 140 CW (C) I is false and II is true
(D) Both I and II are true
8.
En
Tooth interference in an external involute
spur gear pair can be reduced by 12. A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm
gi
(A) Decreasing center distance between
gear pair
(B) Decreasing module
(C) Decreasing pressure angle
and a center distance of 450 mm is used
for a speed reduction of 5:1. The number
nee
of teeth on pinion is _______
13. Gear 2 rotates at 1200 rpm in counter

(D) Increasing number of gear teeth
ME – 2012
r ing
clockwise direction and engages with
Gear 3. Gear 3 and Gear 4 are mounted on
the same shaft. Gear 5 engages with Gear
9. The following are the data for two
crossed helical gears used for speed
.ne
4. The numbers of teeth on Gears 2, 3, 4
and 5 are 20, 40, 15 and 30, respectively.
reduction:
Gear I: pitch circle diameter in the plane
of rotation 80mm and helix angle
Gear II: pitch circle diameter in the plane
The angular speed of Gear 5 is
T t
of rotation 120mm and helix angle .
If the input speed is 1440 rpm. The output
speed in rpm is
(A) 1200 (C) 875
(B) 900 (D) 720
T T
ME – 2013 T
10. A compound gear train with gears P,Q, R (A) 300 rpm counterclockwise
and S has number of teeth 20, 40 , 15, and (B) 300 rpm clockwise
20, respectively. Gears Q and R are (C) 4800 rpm counterclockwise
mounted on the same shaft as shown in (D) 4800 rpm clockwise
the figure below. The diameter of the gear
Q is twice that of the gear R. If the module
th th th

.
14. Which one of the following is used to With increase in pinion to gear speed
convert a rotational motion into a ratio, the minimum number of teeth on
translational motion? the pinion
(A) Bevel gears (A)Increases
(B) Double helical gears (B) Decreases
(C) Worm gears (C)First increases and then decreases
(D) Rack and pinion gears (D)Remains unchanged
15. It is desired to avoid interference in a pair

of spur gears having a 20° pressure angle.
1.
ww
[Ans. B]
Angular velocity ω = = = π
Jerk is given by
Where = ωt
= sin
w. E
Time taken to move = =
= sec
6. [Ans. A]
T = T = T =
asy
During this time, follower moves by
distance 20mm with initial velocity
Condition
1. Arm fixed
–gear 2
rotates with
Arm
0
Gear 2
+1
Gear 3
T
T
Gear 4
T
T
T
T
now;
En u=0
= Ut + at
+1 rotation
2. Arm 0 +x
x
T x
0.01 = +
gi
= 72 m/sec2
a * +
a = 0.01 2 (60)2
fixed-gear 2
rotates with
nee
+x
rotations
3. Adding +
y rotations
y y+x
y
T
x
T
T
y x
Vmax = U + at = 0 + 72
= 1.20 m/sec
r
Given y
 x = y ……………………… ( )
x
ing
=
2. [Ans. A]
= (with respect to arm 5 or
and y+x=
.ne
…………………….. ( )
Solving (1) and (2), we get
carrier 5)
= (with respect to carrier 5)
As ω3 = ω2
∴ =
7. [Ans. C]
y + 5y = 60
 y = 10 rpm ccw
t
1. Give + 2. Give y Total
x rotation rotataion
3. [Ans. D] CW to CW to
ω1 = 60 rpm (Clockwise) gear 2. arm.
ω4 = 120 rpm (Counter clockwise) Arm 0 y y
ω 2 +x y x+y
=
ω 3 N y N
x y x
∴ ω5 = 156 i.e counter clockwise N N
i.e, ω = rpm ccω 4 N y N
x y x
N N
4. [Ans. B] 5 N y N
y
N N
5. [Ans. D] N N
S= * cos + x x
N N
th th th

.
x+y= ( ) 12. [Ans. * ] Range 29 to 31

y= 8 R+r= ( )
Speed of gear 5, D R
m= = ( )
T T
ω = 8 8 d r
8 m= = ( )
= = . t t
Using (2) &(3) in (1)
8. [Ans. D] mT mt
+ =
m
9. [Ans. B] (T + t) =
Gear 8 α =
T T
Gear α = . = ( =N /N )
d = d cos α = 8 cos = t t
√ mm m
d = d cos α = cos . ( t + t) =
ww
N
=
=
d
.8 mm
( t) =
t=
N
Nw. Ed
=
.8
√
13.
t=
[Ans. A]
10.
∴N =
asy
[Ans. B]
rpm
N
N
=
T
T
d
m = = mm
T En N
= N = rpm clock wise
T
d
=
d
T
d
gi
Module of meshing gear pair are equal.
d d
=
d
d
d
Gear 3 and Gear 4 are mounted on the
same shaft
nee
Then,N = N =
N
=
T
rpm clock wise .
= = = = N T
T
d =
T
d = d = ( )=
d =
=
r
N =
ing
rpm anticlock wise
Using 3 in 1,
d = ( )= 14. [Ans. D] .ne
entre distance =
= (
d +d
+
+
d +d
+ + )
motion t
Rack and pinion gears is used to
rotational motion into translational
= 80 15. [Ans. A]
11. [Ans. D]
Spur Gear has a line contact. Lower pair
has surface contact
th th th

.
Flywheel
ME – 2005 2600 J. Assuming that the engine runs at
1. A rotating disc of 1 m diameter has two an average speed of 200 rpm, the polar
eccentric masses of 0.5 kg each at radii of mass moment of inertia (in kg.m ) of a
50 mm and 60 mm at angular positions of flywheel to keep the speed fluctuation
and , respectively. A balancing within ±0.5% of the average speed is
mass of 0.1 kg is to be used to balance the _______
rotor. What is the radial position of the
balancing mass? 7. Consider a flywheel whose mass M is
(A) 50mm (C) 150mm distributed almost equally between a
(B) 120mm (D) 280mm heavy, ring-like rim of radius R and a
concentric disk-like feature of radius R/2.
Other parts of the flywheel, such as
2. ww
ME – 2006
If is the coefficient of speed fluctuation
of a flywheel then the ratio of ωmax / ωmin
spokes, etc, have negligible mass. The best
approximation for α if the moment of
inertia of the flywheel about its axis of
w. E
will be:
(A) (C)
8.
rotation is expressed as αMR , is _______
An annular disc has a mass m, inner

(B)
asy (D)
radius R and outer radius 2R. The disc
rolls on a flat surface without slipping. If
ME – 2007
3.
En
The speed of an engine varies from
the velocity of the center of mass is v, the
kinetic energy of the disc is
gi
210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. During a cycle the
change in kinetic energy is found to be
400 Nm. The inertia of the flywheel in
kgm2 is
(A)
nee
( )
mv
mv
( )
(D)
mv
mv
(A) 0.10 (C) 0.30
4.
(B) 0.20 (D) 0.40
A circular solid of uniform thickness 20

9.
r ing
Torque and angular speed data over one
cycle for a shaft carrying a flywheel are
mm, radius 200mm and mass 20 kg , is
used as a fly wheel. If it rotates at 600 .ne
shown in the figures. The moment of
inertia (in kg.m ) of the flywheel is _______
Torque
rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in
joules is
(A) 395
(B) 790
(C) 1580
(D) 3160
N m
t
π π/ π
ME – 2013 π/ /
5. A flywheel connected to a punching
N m
machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm rad/s
while running at a mean angular speed of Angular speed
20 rad/s. if the total fluctuation of speed
is not exceed to , the mass moment
rad/s
of inertia of the flywheel in kg – is
(A) 25 (C) 100
rad/s
(B) 50 (D) 125
ME – 2014 π/ π π/ π
6. Maximum fluctuation of kinetic energy in
an engine has been calculated to be
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] π
1m = ( . )( )
= N m
5. [Ans. A]
E=Iω
ω ω
= =+ . ( . )= .
ω
= I( ) ( . )
I= =
ww
Let x and y is position of balancing mass
along x and y direction. Resolving forces 6.
.
w. E
along x-axis
. ( cos +
)ω
cos
E = Iω
=I (
π
) (
. + .
)
= .
∴x= asy x
.8 mm
I= . kg m
.
En(
+ . (
sin )ω 7. [Ans. *] Range 0.55 to 0.57
Half of mass is distributed as ring like rim of
∴y= gimm
sin )ω = . ω y
Position of balancing mass

radius R
nee
I = m R = ( )R
m
other half as disc of radius R/

r = √x + y
= √( .8) + (
= . mm
) I r =
m r
ing
m r m ( )
=( ) = [ ]=
mR
2. [Ans. D]
I=I
8
+I
m
.ne
m
= ( )R + R
=
ω ω ω
ω
=
+ =
MR =
( )
mR =
mR
t mR
3. [Ans. A] = = .
e know ∆E = Iω Cs
Here ω = ∆E =
8. [Ans. C]
CS = = = .
∆E = 400N m R
∆
∴I= = = . A
( ) .
4. [Ans. B] P
We know that
E = Iω
Kinetic energy = Iω
mr
= ω And = rω
= R. ω
th th th

.
ω=
R
Moment of Inertia about center
I = m (R + R )
= m ( R + R ) = mR
moment of inertia at periphery at point P
I = mR + m( R) = mR + mR
= mR
Kinetic energy = mR
R
ww
K. E = m
9.
w. E
This is a case of only driving torque acting
asy
on shaft. We do not have anything else on
shaft except fly wheel. So increase in
torque would just go as increase in kinetic
En
energy of flywheel.
In the part where torque is constant, we
apply
T = Iα gi
As torque is constant is constant. we nee
can apply
ω
T=
ω = α(
I(ω ω )
)
r ing
T(
(
)=
)
I(ω ω ) .ne
In π⁄ to π
(π
π
) = I( )
t
π = I( )
π=I
I = 10(3.1415)
= 31.415 kg-m2
In π to π, (Just for verification)
( π π) = I( )
( )
π= I
I= π
= 31.415 kg- m
th th th

.
Vibrations
ME – 2005 6. The differential equation governing the
1. In a spring – mass system, the mass is vibrating system is:
0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is y x
1 kN/m. By introducing a damper, the
frequency of oscillation is found to be k
90% of the original value. What is the m
damping coefficient of the damper? C

(A) 1.2 N.s/m (C) 8.7 N.s/m (A) mẍ + cẋ + k(x y) =
(B) 3.4 N.s/m (D) 12.0 N.s/m (B) m(ẍ ÿ ) + c(ẋ ẏ ) + kx =
(C) mẍ + c(ẋ ẏ ) + kx =
2.
ww
There are four samples P, Q, R, and S, with
natural frequencies 64, 96, 128 and 256 Hz,
respectively. These are mounted on test
ME – 2007
(D) m(ẍ ÿ ) + (cẋ ẏ ) + k(x y) =
w. E
setups for conducting vibration
experiments. If a loud pure note of
frequency 144 Hz is produced by some
7. The equation of motion of a harmonic
oscillator is given by + ω +
asy
instrument, which of the samples will show
the most perceptible induced vibration?
ω
=
x = 0,and the initial conditions at
are ( )= ( ) = . The
(A) P
(B) Q En (C) R
(D) S
amplitude of ( ) after n complete cycle is
ME – 2006 gi
(A) Xe
nee
(B) Xe (
(
√
√
)
) (C) Xe
(D) X
(
√
)
3 & 4:
A vibratory system consists of a mass 12.5
kg, a spring of stiffness 1000 N/m, and a
dashpot with damping coefficient of 15
8.
r ing
The natural frequency of the system
shown below is
.ne
k/2
Ns/m. k
3. The value of critical damping of the
t
m
system is:
(A) 0.223 Ns/m (C) 71.4 Ns/m k/2
(B) 17.88 Ns/m (D) 223.6 Ns/m (A) √ (C) √

4. The value of logarithmic decrement is
(B) √ (D) √
(A) 1.35 (C) 0.68
(B) 1.32 (D) 0.66
9. For an under damped harmonic oscillator,
5. A machine of 250 kg mass is supported on resonance
springs of total stiffness 100 kN/m. Machine (A) occurs when excitation frequency is
has an unbalanced rotating force of 350 N at greater than undamped natural
speed of 3600 rpm. Assuming a damping frequency
factor of 0.15, the value of transmissibility (B) occurs when excitation frequency is
ratio is: less than undamped natural
(A) 0.0531 (C) 0.0162 frequency
(B) 0.9922 (D) 0.0028
th th th

.
(C) occurs when excitation frequency is 14. The rotor shaft of a large electric motor
equal to undamped natural supported between short bearings at both
frequency the end shows a deflection of 1.8mm in
(D) never occurs the middle of the rotor. Assuming the
rotor to be perfectly balanced and
ME – 2008 supported at knife edges at both the ends,
10. A uniform rigid rod of mass m = 1kg and the likely critical speed (in rpm) of the
length L = 1m is hinged at its centre and shaft is
laterally supported at one end by a spring (A) 350 (C) 2810
of spring constant k = 300 N/m. The (B) 705 (D) 4430
natural frequency in rad/s is
(A) 10 (C) 30 ME – 2010
11. ww
(B) 20 (D) 40
The natural frequency of the spring mass

15. A mass m attached to a spring is subjected
to a harmonic force as shown in figure.
The amplitude of the forced motion is
w. E
system shown in the figure is closest to
m=1.4 kg
observed to be 50 mm. The value of m
(in kg) is
k =
asy
(A) 8 Hz
N/m k = N/m
(C) 12 Hz
K = 3000
N
m
F(t) = 100 cos(100 t)
(B) 10 Hz
En (D) 14 Hz
ME – 2009
gi
12. A vehicle suspension system consists of a
spring and a damper. The stiffness of the
(A) 0.1
nee
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.3
(D) 0.5
spring is 3.6kN/m and the damping

constant of the damper is 400Ns/m. If the
mass is 50kg, then the damping factor (d)
16.
r
The natural frequency of a spring – mass
ing
system on earth is ω . The natural
frequency of this system on the moon
and damped natural frequency ( f ),
respectively, are
(g
(A) ω
=g / ) is
.ne
(C) 0.204 ω
(A) 0.471 and 1.19Hz
(B) 0.471 and 7.48Hz
(C) 0.666 and 1.35Hz
(D) 0.666 and 8.50Hz
(B) 0.408 ω
ME – 2011
t
(D) 0.167 ω
17. A mass of 1 kg is attached to two identical

springs each with stiffness k = kN/m
13. An automotive engine weighing 240kg is as shown in the figure. Under frictionless
supported on four springs with linear condition, the natural frequency of the
characteristics. Each of the front two system in Hz is close to
springs have a stiffness of 16MN/m while x
the stiffness of each rear spring is
32MN/m. The engine speed (in rpm), at k
which resonance is likely to occur, is kg
(A) 6040 (C) 1424
k
(B) 3020 (D) 955
(A) 32 (C) 16
(B) 23 (D) 11
th th th

.
18. A disc of mass m is attached to a spring of magnitude 5 kN for seconds. The

stiff-ness k as shown in the fig. The disc amplitude in mm of the resulting free
rolls without slipping on a horizontal vibration is
surface. The nature frequency of vibration (A) 0.5 (C) 5.0
of the system is (B) 1.0 (D) 10.0
k ME – 2014
m
22. Critical damping is the
(A) Largest amount of damping for which
no oscillation occurs in free vibration
√ √ (B) Smallest amount of damping for
(A) (C)
which no oscillation occurs in free
ww
(B) √ (D) √ vibration
(C) Largest amount of damping for which
the motion is simple harmonic in free
w. E
ME – 2012
19. A concentrated mass m is attached at the
centre of a rod length 2L as shown in the
vibration
(D) Smallest amount of damping for
asy
figure. The rod is kept in a horizontal
equilibrium position by a spring of
which the motion is simple harmonic
in free vibration
En
stiffness k. For very small amplitude of
vibration, neglecting the weights of the
23. Consider a cantilever beam, having
negligible mass and uniform flexural
gi
rod and spring, the un-damped natural
frequency of the system is
rigidity, with length 0.01 m. The
nee
frequency of vibration of the beam, with a
0.5 kg mass attached at the free tip, is 100
r
Hz. The flexural rigidity (in N. m ) of the
beam is _______
ing
L L
24.
.ne
In vibration isolation, which one of the
following statements is NOT correct
(A) √
(B) √
(C) √
(D) √
t
regarding Transmissibility (T)?
(A) T is nearly unity at small excitation
frequencies
(B) T can be always reduced by using
higher damping at any excitation
ME – 2013 frequency
20. If two nodes are observed at a frequency (C) T is unity at the frequency ratio of √
of 1800 rpm during whirling of a simply (D) T is infinity at resonance for
supported long slender rotating shaft, the undamped system
first critical speed of the shaft in rpm is
(A) 200 (C) 600 25. What is the natural frequency of the
(B) 450 (D) 900 spring mass system shown below? The
contact between the block and the
21. A single degree of freedom system having inclined plane is frictionless. The mass of
mass 1 kg and stiffness 10 kN/m initially the block is denoted by m and the spring
at rest is subjected to an impulse force of
th th th

.
constants are denoted by k and k as F= cos ( t)

shown below.
m
k
m k c
29. A point mass is executing simple

k +k k k harmonic motion with an amplitude of
(A)√ ( )√
m m 10 mm and frequency of 4 Hz. The
ww
( )√
k +k
m
(D)√
k +k
m
maximum acceleration (m/ s ) of the
mass is _______
26. w. E
Consider a single degree-of-freedom
30. A single degree of freedom system has a
mass of 2 kg, stiffness 8 N/m and viscous
asy
system with viscous damping excited by a
harmonic force. At resonance, the phase
angle (in degree) of the displacement
damping ratio 0.02. The dynamic
magnification factor at an excitation
En
with respect to the exciting force is
frequency of 1.5 rad/s is _______
27.
(A) 0
(B) 45
gi (C) 90
(D) 135
The damping ratio of a single degree of

31. A rigid uniform rod AB of length L and
mass m is hinged at C such that AC = L/3,
nee
CB = 2L/3. Ends A and B are supported
by springs of spring constant k. The
freedom spring-mass-damper system
with mass of 1 kg, stiffness 100 N/m and
viscous damping coefficient of 25 N.s/m is
by r
natural frequency of the system is given
ing
28. A mass-spring-dashpot system with mass k .ne
k
m = 10 kg, spring constant k = 6250 N/m
is excited by a harmonic excitation of
10 cos(25t) N. At the steady state, the
A
L/ L/
t
vibration amplitude of the mass is 40 mm.
The damping coefficient (c, in N.s/m) of k k
(A)√ ( )√
the dashpot is _______ m m
k k
( )√ (D)√
m m
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] 8. [Ans. A]
Given ω = . ω Equivalent K, k = + =
/ /
We know that
ω =ω √ ∴ω = √
. ω =ω √
∴ = . 9. [Ans. B]
Now = Resonance occurs when, ω ω
√
∴c= . √ .
= 8. N s/m
2.
ww
[Ans. C]
Since the natural frequency of R (128Hz)
is close to the frequency produce by any M
=
w. E
instrument(144Hz) therefore sample R
will show the most perceptible induced
vibration.
3.
asy
[Ans. D]
For critical damping,
En
= √mk = √ .
=223.6 Ns/m ω⁄ω
4. [Ans. *] gi
Logarithmic decrement δ =
√
= 0.42
10. [Ans. C]
nee
5. [Ans. C]
ω =√ = rad/s
r ing
ω= = rad/s .ne
T=
√*
√ +*
+ + *
+
+
O
t K = 300 N/m
∴ Transmissibility ratio = 0.0163 Applying torque about hinge ‘O’

mI
6. [Ans. C] α + k[ ] =
Differential equation governing the above k
̈+ =
vibration system is given by m
+ [ ]+ = Angular frequency ω = √
̈ + ( ̇ ̇) + =
=√
7. [Ans. A] ω = 30 rad/s
th th th

.
11. [Ans. B] 14. [Ans. B]

. 8
=
√
. 8
k1 k1 =
√ .8
=
Alternately
When speed of the shaft (  ) is equal to
m natural speed of vibration, it is called
critical speed ( n )
keq = k1+k2 = 5600 N/m
k i.e. = =√
∴f= √ = Hz
π m .
=√ = .8
12.
ww
[Ans. A]
Damping factor =
N=
= 705 rpm
.
.
w. E
=√
=
= .8 8
√
√
.
= .
15. [Ans. A]
k ω m = F/
= √asy ( ) m=
En
= 8. 8 √
= 7.48
( . )
16.
m = . kg
[Ans. A]
13.
Now, ω = πN
[Ans. A]
gi
Therefore N = =
.
.
= . ω=√
nee ∆
As g changes ∆ will also change by same
factor.
k1=16MN/m
k2=32MN/m
240 kg 17. r
[Ans. A]
Natural frequency of the systeming
ω = √
.ne
where ke = k + k = 2k
k2 k2 k1 k1
ω = √
= 2 20
= 40 kN/m
t
=200 rad/s
k
f= √ = Hz
π m
At resonance ω= ωn =√
k = k + k 18. [Ans. C]
= 2(k +k ) I ̈ + Kxr =
= 2(32+16) mr
=96 106 N/m ( + mr ) ̈ + K(r. )r =
ω = √ rad/s mr ̈ + Kr =
K
N= √ rpm ̈+ =
m
N= √ = . rpm Natural frequency = √
th th th

.
19. [Ans. D] 25. [Ans. D]

Equation of motion = mL ̈ + k( L) = System in parallel. Inclination does not
k L matter
̈+ =
mL K k +k
k ω =√ =√
̈ +( ) = m m
m
k
∴w =√ rad/sec 26. [Ans. C]
m
20. [Ans. A]
f=n f n = node
As 2 nodes are observed, n=3
1800 = f
ww
f =
8
=
π
21.
w. E
[Ans. C]
F = ma
a=
asy
= u + at
= m/s π
The phase difference (∅) is equal
= +
En = . m/sec
Now equating the K.E of mass with P.E of
to when
ω = ω for all value of
spring
mv =
( . ) =
gi kx
x
27. [Ans. *] Range 1.24 to 1.26
nee
m =1kg
k=100N/m
c=25Ns/m
x=√
.
= m= mm
r
we know
= mw
ing
22. [Ans. B] = √
.ne
23. [Ans. * ] Range 0.064 to 0.067
f=
π
√
g
= √
g( EI)
π (mg)L
= √
(EI)
π mL 28.
= = .
t
m= 10 kg
( πf) = (EI) k=6250 N/m
mL
( πf) mL
EI = k
ω =√ =√ = rad/sec
[ π( )] . . m
= F = N
= . ω= rad /sec
. Vibration amplitude = A=40 mm
= 0.040 m
24. [Ans. B] F /k
A=
At =√
√[ ( ) ]+( )
T is always irrespective of damping
. =
th th th

.
= . kL mL
= ̈
c = mω
c= . K
̈ =( )
c= Ns/m m
k
ω =
29. [Ans. *]Range 6.3 to 6.4 m
x = a sin ωt
k
ẋ = aω cos ωt ω=√
ẍ = aω sin ωt m
Maximum value = aω
= a. ( πf)
= .( π )
= . m/s
30. ww
w. E
s
m
8
ω =√ =√ =
= . rad⁄s
rad⁄s
= .
asy
Magnification factor
=
√(
En ( ) ) +( )
=
√[
gi .
( ) ] +(
. .
) nee
31.
= . 8
[Ans. D]
r ing
ω
A
.ne
/ω
G
F
F
t
̈
m =I α
L L mL
F ( ) F ( )=* + m( G) + α
k ( ) k ( )=[ + m( ) ] ̈
L L L L mL
k( )( ) k( )( ) = Q̈
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Machine Design
Design of Static Loading
ME 2006
M.
1. According to Von-Mises’ distortion energy
theory, the distortion energy under three
dimensional stress state is represented by
(A)
( )
(B)
N.
( )
(C)
ww
(D)
( )
ME
w. E
2007
( )
(A) P – M, Q – L, R –N
2.
asy
The piston rod of diameter 20 mm and
length 700 mm in a hydraulic cylinder is
(B)
(C)
P – N, Q –M, R – L
P – M, Q – N, R – L
En
subjected to a compressive force of 10 kN
due to the internal pressure. The end
(D) P – N, Q – L, R – M
gi
conditions for the rod may be assumed as
guided at the piston end and hinged at the
other end. The Young’s modulus is
ME
4.
2012
nee
The homogeneous state of stress for a
metal part undergoing plastic
200 GPa. The factor of safety for the deformation is
piston rod is
(A) 0.68 (C) 5.62
T r (
ing )
(B) 2.75 (D) 11.0
.ne
Where the stress component values are in
MPa. Using von Mises yield criterion, the
ME
3.
2011
Match the following criteria of material
failure, under biaxial stresses and
and yield stress , with their
MPa is
(A) 9.50
(B) 16.07
t
value of estimated shear yield stress, in
(C) 28.52
(D) 49.41
corresponding graphic representations:
P. Maximum – normal – stress criterion ME 2013
Q. Maximum – distortion – energy 5. For a ductile material , toughness is a
criterion measure of
R. Maximum – shear – stress criterion (A) Resistance to scratching
L. (B) Ability to absorb energy up to
fracture
(C) Ability to absorb energy till elastic
limit
(D) Resistance to indentation
th th th

.
ME 2014
6. Consider the two states of stress as
shown in configurations I and II in the
figure below. From the standpoint of
distortion energy (von-Mises) criterion,
which one of the following statements is
true?
ww I II
w. E
(A)
(B)
(C)
I yields after II
II Yields after I
Both yield simultaneously
(D)
asy
Nothing can be said about their
relative yielding
7.
En
Which one of following is NOT correct?
(A) Intermediate principal stress is
gi
ignored when applying the maximum
principal stress theory
(B) The maximum shear stress theory nee
gives the most accurate results
amongst all the failure theories
(C) As per the maximum strain energy r ing
theory, failure occurs when the strain
energy per unit volume exceeds a
critical value .ne
(D) As per the maximum distortion energy
theory, failure occurs when the
distortion energy per unit volume
t
exceeds a critical value
th th th

.

1. [Ans. C] ∴ Estim te v lue of she r stress
From Von – Mises distortion theory,
. ( )
. .
( ) .
2. [Ans. A] 5. [Ans. B]
Factor of safety = = 0.68 Area of stress-strain under curve till
( )
fracture
6. [Ans. C]
3. [Ans. C]
Von Mises yield criteria,
4.
ww
P – M, Q – N, R – L.
[Ans. B] √( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
w. E
Given,
nd
Maximum principle stress,
For case – I
asy √( )
∴ √
En √( For case - II
gi
√ .
Similarly, minimum principle stress,
)
nee √
∴
√ .
√( )
So,
r
∴ (C) Both yield simultaneously ing
According to von Mises yield criterion,
permissible value of tensile yield 7. [Ans. B]
.ne
strength,
√ ( )
t
√ . . ( ) . . ( . ) ( . )
.
th th th

.
Design for Dynamic Loading
ME 2006 240MPa respectively. The factor of safety

1. A cylindrical shaft is subjected to an against fatigue endurance as per
alternating stress of 100 MPa. Fatigue oderberg’s criterion is
strength to sustain 1000 cycles is (A) 1.26 (C) 1.45
490 MPa. If the corrected endurance (B) 1.37 (D) 2.00
strength is 70 MPa, estimated shaft life
will be ME 2013
(A) 1071 cycles (C) 281914 cycles 5. A bar is subjected to fluctuating tensile
(B) 15000 cycles (D) 928643 cycles load from 20 kN to 100 kN. The material
has yield strength of 240 MPa and
ME
2.
ww2007
A thin spherical pressure vessel of
200 mm diameter and 1 mm thickness is
endurance limit in reversed bending is
160 MPa. According to the soderberg
principle , the area of cross – section in
w. E
subjected to an internal pressure varying
from 4 to 8 MPa. Assume that the yield,
ultimate, and endurance strength of
mm of the bar for a factor of safety of 2 is
(A) 400 (C) 750
asy
material are 600, 800 and 400 MPa
respectively. The factor of safety as per ME
(B) 600
2014
(D) 1000
(A) 2.0 En
Goodm n’s rel tion is
(C) 1.4
6. In a structure subjected to fatigue loading,
the minimum and maximum stresses
ME
(B) 1.6
2008
gi (D) 1.2 developed in a cycle are 200 MPa and
nee
400 MPa respectively. The value of stress
amplitude (in MPa) is _______
3. An axial residual compressive stress due
to a manufacturing process is present on
the outer surface of a rotating shaft
subjected to bending. Under a given
r ing
bending load, the fatigue life of the shaft
in the presence of the residual .ne
compressive stress is
(A) decreased
(B) increased or decreased, depending
t
on the external bending load
(C) neither decreased nor increased
(D) increased
ME 2009
4. A forged steel link with uniform diameter
of 30mm at the centre is subjected to an
axial force that varies from 40kN in
compression to 160kN in tension. The
tensile ( ), yield ( ) and corrected
endurance ( ) strengths of the steel
material are 600MPa, 420MPa and
th th th

.

1. [Ans. C] 3. [Ans. D]
log A As we c n see from the Gerber’s p r bol
C the endurance strength remains constant
log B at maximum value irrespective of the
compressive load. Where as for tensile
load it decreases sharply with increases
3 6 in and stress in the shaft, its strength
Equation of straight line connecting in fatigue increase.
( log ) and ( log ) Endurance strength
y . . .
ww x
Y– .
At y log
. (x )
w. E
x = 5.43
log
.
.
. (x )
yield strength
asy
Compression
N = 268269
4. [Ans. A]
2. [Ans. B]
En
Stress induced
pr
Dia .d = 30mm
(Tesion)
gi
t
nee
(compression)
Tensile strength
Yield strength
r
Maximum stress,
A ing
( ) mm
.
Minimum stress, .ne
(Tensile)
Equivalent Stresses
A
.
( t ) mm
(Compression)
√ Stress amplitude, ( )
√
. ( . )
Similarly, .
e n stress ( )
Goodman equation
. ( . ) .
n
et . . be n
n . n
n
n . n . n
equ tion of soderberg
th th th

.
. .
5. [Ans. D]
ww (
(
) (
)
)
A mm
6.
w. E
asy
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Design of Joints
ME 2006 4. The resultant shear stress on bolt P is

1. A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld closest to
carries a steady load of 15 kN along the (A) 132 MPa (C) 178 MPa
weld. The shear strength of the weld (B) 159 MPa (D) 195 MPa
material is equal to 200 MPa. The factor
of safety is ME 2010
(A) 2.4 (C) 4.8 5. A bracket (shown in figure) is rigidly
(B) 3.4 (D) 6.8 mounted on wall using four rivets. Each
rivet is 6 mm in diameter and has an
ME 2007 effective length of 12 mm.
2.
ww
A bolted joint is shown below. The
maximum shear stress, in MPa, in the
bolts at A and B, respectively are
32 32
1000 N 20
w. E
20
holes of
C
. mm bolts
6 mm thick
10
40
40
asy B 75
25
20
En A F = 10 kN
12 40 12
gi
(B) 42.5, 242.6
150
(All dimensions in the figure are in mm)
(A) 242.6, 42.5 (C) 42.5, 42.5
(D) 242.6,242.6
Direct shear stress (in MPa) in the most
heavily loaded rivet is
nee
(A) 4.4
(B) 8.8
(C) 17.6
(D) 35.2
ME 2008
Statement for Linked data Question 3 & 4
ME
6.
2012
r ing
A fillet welded joints is subjected to
A steel bar of mm is cantilevered
with two M 12 bolts (P and Q) to support
.ne
transverse loading F as shown in the
figure. Both legs of the fillets are of 10mm
a static load of 4 kN as shown in the
figure.
100 100
1.7m
t
size and the weld length is 30mm. if the
allowable shear stress of the weld is
94MPa, considering the minimum throat
area of the weld, the maximum allowable
400 transverse load in kN is
F
P Q
4 kN F
3. The primary and secondary shear loads
on bolt P, respectively, are (A) 14.44 (C) 19.93
(A) 2 kN, 20 kN (C) 20 kN, 0 kN (B) 17.92 (D) 22.16
(B) 20 kN, 2 kN (D) 0 kN, 20 kN
th th th

.
ME 2013 (A) 83 (C) 167

Common data for questions 7 & 8: (B) 125 (D) 501
A single riveted lap joint of two similar
plates as shown in the figure below has ME 2014
the following geometrical and material 9. For the three bolt system shown in the
details. figure, the bolt material has shear yield
strength of 200 MPa. For a factor of safety
w
of 2, the minimum metric specification
P w P
required for the bolt is
t
t
ww
Width of the plate w =200 mm, thickness
of the plate t = 5 mm, number of rivets
n =3, diameter of the rivet dr = 10mm,
(A) M8
(B) M10
(C) M12
(D) M16
w. E
diameter of the rivet hole dh= 11mm,
allowable tensile stress of the plate
10. A bolt of major diameter 12 mm is
required to clamp two steel plates. Cross
asy
the rivet
allowable shear stress of
bearing stress of the rivet

and allowable
.
sectional area of the threaded portion of
the bolt is 84.3mm .The length of the
7.
En
If the rivets are to be designed to avoid
threaded portion in grip is 30 mm,while
the length of the unthreaded portion in
crushing
(A) 7.50
(B) 15.00
gi failure, the
permissible load P in kN is
(C) 22.50
(D) 30.00
maximum
grip is 8mm.Young's modulus of material
nee
is 200 GPa.The effective stiffness
(inMN/m) of the bolt in the clamped
zone is
8. If the plates are to be designed to avoid
tearing failure , the maximum permissible
r ing
load P in kN is
.ne
t
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] .
o stress
Factor of safety (d )
trength of m teri l
. .
Actu l lo d or strength on m teri l
x stress t A
(in )
(in ) 3. [Ans. A]
(in ) 100 400 100
.
. (in )
1.7m
2. [Ans. *] s
ww
d . d
= 0.84 (10)
= 8.4 mm
r r
w. E holes of . mm bolts s
(P)
4 kN
20
40 asy B
C
6 mm thick
rim ry she r due to

e
40
En A
n
20
gi
rim ry force
150
P = 10 kN
nee
T
Now for secondary load effect of P &
e mm
n
.
r
s r
r s r
r
e
r
ing e
T
( . )
.
r
s
r
s
.ne
.
( x stress t )
(Primary force will act equally in all both)
s
s
s
( )
.
t
{And in bolt B secondary shear force will
not act} 4. [Ans. B]
{so in bolt B stress is due to only primary Resultant shear strain on bolt P
S.F.}
econd ry she r force (due to P and ) = 18 kN (here d = 12 mm)
s
s (r r ) e ( )
s ( )
r r
s s
At point ‘A’
√( ) ( . ) .
th th th

.
5. [Ans. B]
Direct shear stress will be same in all the
rivets.
.
d ( ) A
A
6. [Ans. C]
S = 10mm, l= 30mm, d
Maximum allowable transverse load, d .
(in KN), F = 0.707S This is minimum diameter so nearest
. diameter greater is M10
ww .
. kN
10. [Ans. *]Range 460 to 470
stiffness of thre ded portion
7.
w. E
[Ans. C]
Crushing failure
A E
l
m
.
asy
=3 (
dt
= 22.5 kN
)( )( )
stiffness of unthre ded portion
A E
8. [Ans. C]En l
. m
p (gi
Tearing of plates
d )t
= 200 [200 3(11)] kN
the connection is in series.
nee
o effective stiffness
9. [Ans. B]
he r lo d on e ch bolt
r .
.
ing
.
⁄m .
A .ne
t
th th th

.
Design of Shaft and Shaft Component

ME 2012 ultimate and corrected endurance
1. A solid circular shaft needs to be designed strength of the shaft material are 300
to transmit a torque of 50N.m. If the MPa, 500 MPa and 200 MPa, respectively,
allowable shear stress of the material is then the factor of safety for the shaft is
140MPa, assuming a factor of safety of 2, _______
the minimum allowable design diameter
in mm is 3. A shaft is subjected to pure torsional
(A) 8 (C) 24 moment. The maximum shear stress
(B) 16 (D) 32 developed in the shaft is 100 MPa. The
yield and ultimate strengths of the shaft
ME
2. ww
2014
A rotating steel shaft is supported at the
ends. It is subjected to a point load at the
material in tension are 300 MPa and 450
MPa, respectively. The factor of safety
using maximum distortion energy (von-
w. E
center. The maximum bending stress
developed is 100 MPa. If the yield,
Mises) theory is _______
1. [Ans. B]
En Its fatigue loading case. So we will
T
T ( gi
d (Torsion of shaft Equation)
and in N/mm2)
) d (T is in N – mm, d in mm
compare Alternating stain (100MPa) with
endurance strength (200MPa).
neector of s fety
endur nce strength
Altern ting str in
d mm
d
3.
r
Factor of safety = 200/100 = 2
ing
[Ans. *]Range 1.7 to 1.8
2. [Ans. *]Range 1.9 to 2.1

.ne
Yield stress (k) in pure shear (torsion)
according to von-Mises criteria
Due to rotation of shaft , same point will
have +100 MPa bending stress as well as
bending stress.
o m x Altern ting st in will be
√
where
t
un xi l torsion (here the yield strength)
–( ) .
. √
developed
.
∴ ctor of s ferty n .
th th th

.
Design of Bearing
ME 2005 ME 2011
1. Which one of the following is a criterion 6. Two identical ball bearing P and Q are
in the design of hydrodynamic journal operating at loads 30 kN and 45 kN
bearings? respectively. The ratio of the life of bearing
(A) Sommerfield number P to the life of bearing Q is
(B) Rating life (A) 81/16 (C) 9/4
(C) Specific dynamic capacity (B) 27/8 (D) 3/2
(D) Rotation factor
ME 2014
ME 2007 7. A hydrodynamic journal bearing is
subject to 2000 N load at a rotational
2. A natural feed journal bearing of diameter
ww
50 mm and length 50 mm operating at 20
revolution/s and carries a load of 2 kN.
The viscosity of the lubricant is 20 mPa-s,
speed of 2000 rpm. Both bearing bore
diameter and length are 40 mm. If radial
cle r nce is m nd be ring is
w. E
the radial clearance is 50 m . The
Sommerfield number for the bearing is
(A) 0.062 (C) 0.250
lubricated with an oil having viscosity
0.03 Pa.s, the Sommerfeld number of the
bearing is _______
asy
(B) 0.125 (D) 0.785
8. Ball bearings are rated by a manufacturer
for a life of revolutions. The catalogue
3.
En
A ball bearing operating at a load F has
8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing,
in hours, when the load is doubled to 2F is
rating of a particular bearing is 16 kN. If
the design load is 2 kN, the life of the
(A) 8000
(B) 6000 gi (C) 4000
(D) 1000
bearing will be p×
p is equal to _______
nee
revolutions, where
ME 2008
4. A journal bearing has a shaft diameter of
40mm and a length of 40 mm. the shaft is
rotating at 20 rad/s and the viscosity of
r ing
the lubricant is 20mPa-s. the clearance is
0.020 mm. the loss of torque due to the .ne
viscosity of
approximately:
(A) 0.040 Nm
(B) 0.252 Nm
the lubricant
(C) 0.400 Nm
(D) 0.6562 Nm
is
t
ME 2010
5. A lightly loaded full journal bearing has
journal diameter of 50 mm, bush bore of
50.05 mm and bush length of 20 mm. If
rotational speed of journal is 1200 rpm
and average viscosity of liquid lubricant is
0.03 Pa s, the power loss (in W) will be
(A) 37 (C) 118
(B) 74 (D) 237
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] 5. [Ans. A]
Sommerfield Number, also known as
v . m s
Bearing Characteristic Number,
dv . .
( ).( )
dy .
. m
2. [Ans. B] .
Sommerfield number .
r
( ) . v. . . .
p
Where, r is radius of journal
ww is viscosity of lubricant, N is number of

revolution per second
p is bearing pressure on projected Area
6. [Ans. B]
( )
w. E
C is radial clearance
Therefore.
here
P = Load
( ife)
ife of be ring
( o d)
p
asy
d
(
l
)
. mm ( ife)
[
( o d)
] . or
En
.125
.
7. [Ans. *] Range 0.75 to 0.85

3. [Ans. D]
Life
(
gi
∴ New life =
)
=1000 hrs
(
nee
) ommerfeld umber
w
( )
. ( mm )
d
r
( )
. ( )
4. [Ans. A]
v .
.
( )
ing
c
8. [Ans. *]Range 500 to 540
.ne
force A
= 2.0096 N
.
. . .
Life of bearing p
( )
( )
revolution
= p million resolution
for b ll be ring t
( . dl) p ( ) ( )
Torque = . . . . million resolution
( torque r) . m. p million resolution
th th th

.
Design of Brakes and Clutches
ME 2005
Statement for Linked Answer Questions mm mm
1 & 2:
A band brake consists of a lever attached
to one end of the band. The other end of mm
mm
the band is fixed to the ground. The wheel
450
has a radius of 200 mm and the wrap
angle of the band is . The braking
force applied to the lever is limited to
100N, and the coefficient of friction
between the band and the wheel is 0.5. No
ww
other information is given.
200mm (A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 45
(D) 60
w. E ME
5.
2008
A clutch has outer and inner diameters
asy 100N
100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming
a uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient
En
1m 1m
of friction of liner material 0.4, the torque
carrying capacity of the clutch is
(A) 148 Nm (C) 372 Nm
1.
gi
The maximum tension that can be
generated in the band during braking is
(A) 1200 N (C) 3224 N ME
6.
(B) 196 Nm
nee
2010
(D) 490 Nm
A band brake having band – width of

(B) 2110 N (D) 4420 N
2. The maximum wheel torque that can be

completely braked is
r
80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm,
ing
coefficient of friction of 0.25 and angle of
wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a
(A) 200 N.m
(B) 382 N.m
(C) 604 N.m
(D) 844 N.m
.ne
friction torque of 1000 N m. The
maximum tension (in kN) developed in
ME
3.
2006
A disk clutch is required to transmit 5 kW
at 2000 rpm. The disk has a friction lining
the band is
(A) 1.88
(B) 3.56 t
(C) 6.12
(D) 11.56
with coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. ME 2012

Bore radius of friction lining its equal to 7. Force of 400N is applied to the brake
25 mm. Assume uniform contact pressure drum of 0.5m diameter in a band – brake
of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of system as shown in the figure, where the
the friction lining is wrapping angle is 1800. If the coefficient
(A) 39.4 mm (C) 97.9 mm of friction between the drum and the
(B) 49.5 mm (D) 142.9 mm band is 0.25, the braking torque applied,
in N.m is.
ME 2007
400N
4. A block-brake shown below has a face
width of 300 mm and a mean co-efficient
of friction of 0.25. For an activating force
of 400 N, the braking torque in Nm is
(A) 100.6 (C) 22.1
(B) 54.4 (D) 15.7
th th th

.
ME 2014
8. A disc clutch with a single friction surface
has coefficient of friction equal to 0.3. The
maximum pressure which can be imposed
on the friction material is 1.5 MPa. The
outer diameter of the clutch plate is 200
mm and its internal diameter is 100 mm.
Assuming uniform wear theory for the
clutch plate, the maximum torque (in
N.m) that can be transmitted is _______ rum
9. A drum brake is shown in the figure. The

drum is rotating in anticlockwise 10. A four-wheel vehicle of mass 1000 kg
direction. The coefficient of friction moves uniformly in a straight line with
ww
between drum and shoe is 0.2. The
dimensions shown in the figure are in
mm. The braking torque (in N.m) for the
the wheels revolving at 10 rad/s. The
wheels are identical, each with a radius of
0.2 m. Then a constant braking torque is
w. E
brake shoe is _______ applied to all the wheels and the vehicle
experiences a uniform deceleration. For
the vehicle to stop in 10 s, the braking

torque (in N.m) on each wheel is _______
En
1. [Ans. B]
200 mm gi 100 N nee T
T
T
1m 1m
T
r
.
(r
ing .
)
( )
.
r . mm
.ne
Taking moment about O,
T
T
4. [Ans. C]
A
200 mm
t 400 mm
400 N
T
e e . f
T 150 mm N
T
Maximum tension produced in band is
2110 N Taking moment about A,
2. [Ans. B]
T (T T ) r ∴ re ing torque m
( ) . m
3. [Ans. A] 5. [Ans. B]
According to uniform pressure theory, Using uniform pressure theory torque
P = 1 MPa carrying capacity of clutch is given by
Power transmitted r
T ( )
r
th th th

.
T ( r )( )
( r )
T p( r ) of rum
. . (( ) ( ) )
. . ( )
= 195936 Nmm = 195.936 Nm.
mm
6. [Ans. D]
(T T) T (Frictional Torque) Breaking Torque =
T .
e
ww
T
T( e ). T
m
mm
T
w. E
T ( e
.
.
.
)
10. [Ans. *] Range 9 to 11
m=mass of vehicle =1000 kg
=Angular velocity of wheel = 10 rad/sec
7.
asy
[Ans. B]
T
e .
R = Radius of wheel = 0.2m
linear velocity of wheel = linear velocity
of vehicle
T
T
e
En
.
T
. u . m sec
final velocity of vehicle v
(
(T gi
∴ r ing torque pplied in .m
T)
. )
.
t = 10 sec
V = u + at
nee
0 = 2+a×10
. m sec
After application of brake, vehicle moves:
8.
.

m
r u
( )
s
ing . s
r
r
.
s m
.ne
let braking force at each wheel=B
T ∫ ( r)dr r
∫ rdr *
r
c(r r )
r
+
Total braking force = 4B
against braking force

mu
t
Change in K.E of vehicle = work done
T ( r )(r r )
. . ( )
. ( . . )
. .m 50 = B
m Braking torque at each wheel =
.
9. [Ans. *]Range 63 to 65 m
FBD of lever plus shoe: -
. .
th th th

.
Design of Spur Gears
ME 2006 (A) 6.08 mm, 4 mm

1. Twenty degree full depth involute (B) 6.48 mm, 4.2 mm
profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth (C) 6.28 mm, 4.3 mm
gear are in mesh. If the module is 5 mm, (D) 6.28 mm, 4.1 mm
the center distance between the gear pair
will be 6. Match the type of gears with their most
(A) 140 mm (C) 280 mm appropriate description.
(B) 150 mm (D) 300 mm Type of Description
gear
ME 2007 P Helical 1 Axes non parallel
ww
Common Data Questions 2, 3 & 4
A gear set has a pinion with 20 teeth and Q Spiral
and non intersecting
2 Axes parallel and
w. E
a gear with 40 teeth. The pinion runs at
30 rev/s and transmits a power of 20 kW.
The teeth are on the full – depth R
Bevel
Hypoid
teeth are inclined to
the axis
3 Axes are parallel and
asy
system and have a module of 5 mm. The
length of the line of action is 19 mm.
teeth are parallel to
the axis
2.
in mm is
En
The center distance for the above gear set S Rack and 4 Axes are
pinion perpendicular and
3.
(A) 140
(B) 150
gi (C) 160
(D) 170
The contact ratio of the contacting tooth is nee

intersecting, and
teeth are inclined to
the axis
5 Axes are
(A) 1.21
(B) 1.25
(C) 1.29
(D) 1.33 r ing perpendicular and
used for large speed
reduction
4. The resultant force on the contacting gear
tooth in N is .ne
6 Axes parallel and
one of the gears has
(A) 77.23
(B) 212.20
(C) 225.80
(D) 289.43 (A)
(B)
t
infinite radius
ME 2008
(C)
5. One tooth of a gear having 4 module and
(D)
32 teeth is shown in the figure. Assume
that the gear tooth and the corresponding
7. A spur gear has a module of 3 mm,
tooth space make equal intercepts on the
number of teeth 16, a face width of
pitch circumference. The dimension ‘ ’
36 mm and a pressure angle of 20°. It is
nd ‘b’ respectively re closest to.
transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/s.
a
Taking a velocity factor of 1.5, and a form
factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is
Pitch circle m b about
(A) 32MPa (C) 58MPa
(B) 46 MPa (D) 70 MPa
th th th

.
ME 2009 ME 2014
Statement for Linked data Question 8 & 9 10. A spur pinion of pitch diameter 50 mm
A full depth involute spur pinion of 4 rotates at 200 rad/s and transmits 3 kW
mm module and 21 teeth is to transmit 15 power. The pressure angle of the tooth of
kw at 960 rpm. Its face width is 25 mm
the pinion is 20°. Assuming that only one
8. The tangential force transmitted (in N ) is
pair of the teeth is in contact, the total
(A) 3552 (C) 1776
(B) 2611 (D) 1305 force (in newton) exerted by a tooth of
the pinion on the tooth on a mating gear
9. Given that the tooth geometry factor is is _______
0.32 and the combined effect of dynamic
load and allied factors intensifying the
stress is 1.5; the minimum allowable
ww
stress (in MPa) for the gear material is
(A) 242.0
(B) 166.5
(C) 121.0
(D) 74.0
1. asy
[Ans. A] 5. [Ans. D]
Given m = 4 and T = 32
En
Centre distance =
=
( )
= 140mm
So D = m T
=
2. [Ans. B] gi
Centre distance = (T T) nee
= 128 mm
.
T
mm
( )
3. [Ans. C]
= 150 mm But
r ing
(because tooth thickness = tooth space)
2a = 12.566
Length of line of action = 19 mm
Length of arc of contact
mm
a = 6.28 mm
and b = 4.1 mm
C .ne
cos
circul r pitch
. mm
z
d
length of rc
mm
b
G
m
F
R E
t Pitch circle
cont ct r tion
circul r pitch
. 64
.
A
4. [Ans. *] (Answer key is not matching with
IIT keys) .
P=T ∴A cos .
∴ 3 T. .
T = 106.1 Nm b m A A
Now, T = Ft. γ m ( . )
Here γ mm . m b . mm
. . Addendum = module
=
. Dedendum = . module
∴ esult nt force
th th th

.
6. [Ans. A] Power = Torque Angul r speed

P = Tw = r
P = Tangential force × Radius ×
Radius, r = mm
P= r
Helical
.
9. [Ans. B]
Tooth geometry factor, Y = 0.32
Combined effect of dynamic load and
Spiral bevel allied factor intensifying the stress is
f .
ww Pinion
bYm
f
( )( . )( )
w. E +
.
.
asy Rack
10. [Ans. *] Range 638 to 639
7. [Ans. C]
En
gi
Lewis equation is given as
∇d b ym
F can be calculated as
D = mZ = 3 16 = 48 mm nee
∴
= 1.5, b = 36, y= 0.3, m = 3
F=
= 1.5 36 0.3 3
r
ower
ower
T
( ing
r)
65
Nearest stress in gear tooth taking in
d
.ne
.
8.
ccount some . . .
[Ans. A]
Module, m = 4 mm
T ngeti l force
cos t .
cos( ) cos( )
Number of teeth, T = 21
Speed, N = 960 rpm
Pressure angle,
Face width, b = 25 mm
Full depth involute spur pinion
Transmission of power,
P = 15 kW at 960 rpm
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Fluid Mechanics
Fluid Properties
ME 2006 3. Match Group A with Group B:

1. For a Newtonian fluid Group Group B
(A) Shear stress is proportional to shear
P: Biot 1: Ratio of buoyancy to
strain
number viscous force
(B) Rate of shear stress is proportional
Q: Grashof 2: Ratio of inertia force to
to shear strain
number viscous force
(C) Shear stress is proportional to rate of
R: Prandtl 3: Ratio of momentum to
shear strain
number thermal diffusivities
(D) Rate of shear stress is proportional
S: Reynolds 4: Ratio of internal
to rate of shear strain
ME ww
2014
number thermal resistance to
boundary layer thermal
resistance
2.
w. E
Consider the turbulent flow of a fluid
through a circular pipe of diameter, D.
Identify the correct pair of statements.
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
asy
I. The fluid is well-mixed
II. The fluid is unmixed
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
III.
IV.
En
< 2300
> 2300
(A) I, III
(B) II, IV
gi (C) II, III
(D) I, IV
Answer Keys & Explanations nee

1. [Ans. C] 3.
r
[Ans. A] ing
For a Newtonian fluid, shear stress is
proportional to rate of shear strain. = =
( )
( )
.ne
2. [Ans. D]
=
=
uoy n y or
t
s ous or
We know for turbulent flow of a fluid v om ntum d us v ty
ylond’s numb r = = =
rm l d us v ty
Also, due to turbulent nature of flow, fluid n rt or
will be well mixed. =
s ous ro
th th th

.
Fluid Statics
ME 2005 below. Density of water is 1000 kg/ .
1. A U - tube manometer with a small The minimum mass of the gate in kg per
quantity of mercury is used to measure unit width (perpendicular to the plane of
paper ), required to keep it closed is
the static pressure difference between
two locations A and B in a conical section
5m
through which an incompressible fluid
flows. At a particular flow rate, the
mercury column appears as shown in the (A) 5000 (B) 6600 (C) 7546 (D) 9623
figure. The density of mercury is
13600 kg/ and g =9.81 m/ .Which of ME 2014
ww
the following is correct?
B
4. Water flows through a pipe having an
inner radius of 10 mm at the rate of
36 kg/hr at 25°C. The viscosity of water at
w. E
A
150mm
25°C is 0.001 kg/m.s. The Reynolds
number of the flow is _______
asy 5. For a completely submerged body with

ntr o gr v ty ‘ ’ nd
buoy n y ‘ ’, t
ntr o
ond t on o st b l ty
En will be
(A) G is located below B
p
gi
(A) Flow direction is A to B and
p =20 kPa
(B) Flow direction is B to A and
p p =1.4 kPa
(B) G is located above B
nee
(C) G and B are coincident
(D) Independent of the locations of G & B
(C) Flow direction is A to B and

p p =20 kPa
(D) Flow direction is B to A and
6.
r
A siphon is used to drain water from a
ing
large tank as shown in the figure below.
Assume that the level of water is
maintained constant. Ignore frictional
p p =1.4 kPa
.ne
effect due to viscosity and losses at entry
and exit. At the exit of the siphon, the
ME 2010
2. For the stability of a floating body, under
the influence of gravity alone, which of
the following is TRUE?
velocity of water is
t
(A) Metacentre should be below centre
of gravity.
(B) Metacentre should be above centre
of gravity.
(C) Metacentre and centre of gravity
must lie on the same horizontal line. tum
(D) Metacentre and centre of gravity

must lie on the same vertical line. (A) √ g( )
ME 2013 (B) √ g
3. A hinged gate of length 5 m, inclined at (C) √ g
with the horizontal and with water
mass on its left, is shown in the figure (D) √ g
th th th

.

1. [Ans. A] x = centroid of prism
= = =
B
A
Taking moments about hinge)
F(x mg ( ) os =
150m
m = 9612.88 Kg
4. [Ans. *] Range 635 to 638
PA-PB = g. =13600 9.81 0.15 =

= 20 kPa
ṁ = = = =
As pressure is decreasing from A to B,
2.
ww
So flow direction is A to B.
[Ans. B]
=
m
=
( )
w. E
For stable equilibrium meta centre should
be above centre of gravity. 5. [Ans. A]
=
3.
asy
[Ans. D]
En mg
gi 6. nee
t bl
B has to be located above
[Ans. B]
r ing s p on
mg
.ne
t
tum
Let us solve it by
P and R are open to atmosphere, so gauge
Pressure diagram (here it is triangular
pressure at P and R will be zero
prism)
y pply ng rnoull ’s pr n pl , t nd
R:
m =
= = nd =
=
g
g sn
= g
F = volume of diagram =√ g
= g sn At exist of siphon,
= 61312.5 velocity of water = √ g
th th th

.
Fluid Kinematics
ME 2005 ME 2007
1. A leaf is caught in a whirlpool. At a given 5. Which combination of the following
instant, the leaf is at a distance of 120 m statements about steady incompressible
from the center of the whirlpool. The forced vortex flow is correct?
whirlpool can be described by the P: Shear stress is zero at all points in the
following velocity distribution: flow.
= ( ) m/s and = Q: Vorticity is zero at all points in the flow.
R: Velocity is directly proportional to the
m/s, where r (in meters) is the distance
radius from the centre of the vortex.
from the center of the whirlpool. What
S: Total mechanical energy per unit mass
ww
will be the distance of the leaf from the
center when it has moved through half a
revolution?
is constant in the entire flow field.
(A) P and Q (C) P and R
w. E
(A) 48 m
(B) 64 m
(C) 120 m
(D) 142 m
(B) R and S
ME 2008
(D) P and S
2.
asy
The velocity components in the x and y
directions of a two dimensional potential
6 and 7:
The gap between a moving circular plate
En
flow are u and v, respectively. Then is and a stationary surface is being
continuously reduced, as the circular plate
equal to
(A)
(B)
gi (C)
(D)
comes down at a uniform speed V towards
nee
the stationary bottom surface, as shown in
the figure. In the process, the fluid
ME 2006
3. A two-dimensional flow field has
r
contained between the two plates flows out
ing
radially. The fluid is assumed to be
incompressible and inviscid.
velocities along the x and y directions
given by u = x t and v = 2xyt .ne R
r
Moving circular
plate
respectively, where t is time. The

equation of streamlines is:
(A) = constant
h t V
(B) = constant Stationary

(C) = constant surface
(D) not possible to determine 6. The radial velocity v at any radius r,
when the gap width is h, is
4. In a two-dimensional velocity field with (A) v = (C) v =
velocities u and v along the x and y
(B) v = (D) v =
directions respectively, the convective
acceleration along the x-direction is given
7. The radial component of the fluid
by
acceleration at r = R is
(A) u v (C) u v
(A) (C)
(B) u v (D) v u
(B) (D)
th th th

.
8. For a continuity equation given by ME 2014

⃗ ⃗ = to be valid, where ⃗ is the 12. Consider the following statements
velocity vector, which one of the following regarding streamline(s):
is a necessary condition? (i) It is a continuous line such that the
(A) steady flow tangent at any point on it shows the
(B) irrotational flow velocity vector at that point
(C) inviscid flow (ii) There is no flow across streamlines
(D) incompressible flow (iii) = = s the differential
equation of a streamline, where u, v
ME 2009
and w are velocities in directions x, y
9. You are asked to evaluate assorted fluid
and z, respectively
flows for their suitability in a given
(iv) In an unsteady flow, the path of a
ww
laboratory application. The following
three flow choices, expressed in terms of
the two-dimensional velocity fields in the
particle is a streamline
Which one of the following combinations
w. E
x-y plane, are made available.
P. u = 2y, v = -3x
Q. u = 3xy, v = 0
of the statements is true?
(A) (i), (ii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
asy
R. u = 2x, v = 2y
Which flows(s) should be recommended
13. Consider a velocity field
En
when the application requires the flow to
be incompressible and irrotational?
⃗ = (y ̂ x̂ ), where K is a constant.
The vorticity, , is
(A) P and R
(B) Q gi (C) Q and R
(D) R
nee
(B) K
C
(D) K /2
/
ME 2010
10. Velocity vector of a flow field is given
as ⃗ = xy ̂ x z .̂ The vorticity vector at
r ing
(1, 1, 1) is
(A) ̂ ̂ (C) ̂ ̂ .ne
(B) ̂ ̂
ME 2011
(D) ̂ ̂
11. A streamline and an equipotential line in

t
a flow field
(A) Are parallel to each other
(B) Are perpendicular to each other
(C) Intersect at an acute angle
(D) An identical
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] i.e. =
Given data:
Radial distance(r) = 120m =
Radial velocity distribution of leaf,
= * + m/s 3. [Ans. A]
Given data:
Angular velocity distribution of leaf,
=x t
V0 = * + m/s = xyt
Let = Angle turned by a leaf from 0 =
For = revolutions
ww
(i.e. = radians). The radial
distance of leaf from centre? =
=
w. E
We know, Vr =
radial distance of leaf
= Rate of change of Integrating both sides
ln x = ln y
ln x y = ln
asy
=r =r = Rate of change of
angular displacement of leaf
x y = onst nt
Given
En = * += -------- (1) 4. [Ans. A]
Two dimensional velocity field with
gi =*
Dividing Eq(1) and Eq(2)
+=r -------(2)
velocities u, v and along x and y direction.
nee
Acceleration along x direction,
=
= * + * +
r
= =
r r u
r v =
ing
=
Convective acceleration+ temporal
acceleration
r
dr
Since,
.ne
= 0 for 2-dimensional field,
r
= d
Integrating both sides, we get boundary
limits
therefore
Convective acceleration = u t v
dr 5. [Ans. B]
∫ = ∫ d
r
6. [Ans. A]
[log r ] = [ ]
Given data:
log * += = Let V = Downward velocity of circular
plate (in m/sec)
= R = Radius of circular plate (m)
= = m h = Gap (width) between the moving
plate and stationary plate.
2. [Ans. D] Vr = Radial v lo ty t r d us ‘r’
For two dimensional flow, continuity According to continuity
equation should be satisfied Eq(law of conservation of mass)
ṁ = constant
th th th

.
= 8. [Ans. D]
= n ompr ss bl lu d The basic equation of continuity for fluid
= r flow is given by
= = =
Radial velocity at r = R Now if remains constant, then only we
= = or can write
⃗ . ⃗ =0
7. [Ans. C] i.e, =
let ar = Radial component of acceleration Hence incompressible flow
at r = R.
according to law of conservation of 9. [Ans. D]
ww
energy
m (mass flow rate) = constant (c)
=C
Incompressible flow satisfy continuity
equation
u v
w. E
For incompressible fluid
A.V = constant ( )
x y
=
P. u = y, v = x
asy
Volume flow rate = C
For given instance,
Volume of matter = constant (fixed)
x
y
y
x
Incompressible flow
r
En
= onst nt
Here r and h are variable.
=
d
dt
r
gi
Differentiate w.r.t time(t)
=
Q. u = xy, v =
nee
xy
x y
Compressible flow
* r
* r
r +=
r += r
R. u =
y
x ing
x, v = y
y
Where V = velocity of circular plate
moving down
d
x y
Incompressible flow.ne
r
=
dt
r =
w = (
=
v u
)=
t
For irrotational flow condition is
= = = * + x y
For P: u = y, v = x
= = * +
x y
Differentiate Vr w.r.t “t” w = * +
x y
= =
=
=
(Rotational flow)
= * + , * * += + For Q: u = xy, v =
xy
= = = w = * +
x y
=
= x ot t on l low
For R: u = x, v = y
th th th

.
y x
w = * +
x y
= =
rrot t on l low
10. [Ans. D]
Velocity vector
=| |
xy x z
= [ x z ] [ x z xy ]
ww z
[
x
z
xy ]
y
w. E
= x
=
t , ,
x
zx x
xz x
11.
=
asy
[Ans. B]
12. [Ans. D] En
gi
(i), (ii), (iii) are correct but (iv) in an
unsteady flow, the path of particle is not
streamline
nee
13. [Ans. A]
⃗ = (y ̂ x̂ ), r ing
vort ty = w = [
x
u
y
]
.ne
=[
y
y ]=
t
th th th

.
Fluid Dynamics
ME 2005 ME 2011
1. A venturimeter of 20 mm throat diameter 4. Figure shows the schematic for the
is used to measure the velocity of water in measurement of velocity of air
a horizontal pipe of 40 mm diameter. If (density =1.2 kg/m ) through a constant
the pressure difference between the pipe - area duct using a pitot tube and a water -
and throat sections is found to be 30 kPa tube manometer. The differential head of
then, neglecting frictional losses, the flow water (density = 1000 kg/m ) in the two
velocity is columns of the manometer is 10 mm. take
(A) 0.2 m/s (C) 1.4 m/s acceleration due to gravity as
(B) 1.0 m/s (D) 2.0 m/s 9.8 m/s . The velocity of air in m/s is
ww
ME 2007
Flow
2.
w. E
In a steady flow through a nozzle, the flow
velocity on the nozzle axis is given by
v=u ( ) , where x is the distance
asy
10 mm
along the axis of the nozzle from its inlet
plane and L is the length of the nozzle.
En
The time required for a fluid particle on
the axis to travel from the inlet to the exit
(A)
(B)
gi
lane of the nozzle is
ln
(C)
(D)
(A) 6.4
nee
(B) 9.0
(C) 12.8
(D) 25.6
ME 2010
ME 2012
5. r ing
A large tank with a nozzle attached
contains three immiscible , inviscid fluids
3. A smooth pipe of diameter 200 mm
carries water. The pressure in the pipe at
.ne
as shown. Assuming that the changes in
h1 , h2 and h3 are negligible, the
section S1 (elevation: 10m) is 50 kPa. At
section S2 (elevation: 12m) the pressure
is 20 kPa and velocity is 2 ms . Density
of water is 1000 gm and acceleration
instantaneous discharge velocity is
t
due to gravity is 9.8 ms . Which of the
following is TRUE
(A) flow is from S1 to S2 and head loss is
0.53 m
(B) flow is from S2 to S1 and head loss is (A) √ g ( )
0.53 m
(C) flow is from S1 to S2 and head loss is (B) √ g
1.06 m
(C) √ g ( )
(D) flow is from S2 to S1 and head loss is
1.06 m
(D) √ g ( )
th th th

.
ME 2013 8. For an incompressible flow field, ⃗ , which

6. Water is coming out from a tap and falls one of the following conditions must be
vertically downwards. At the tap opening , satisfied?
the stream diameter is 20mm with (A) ⃗⃗⃗ = (C) ⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ =
uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Acceleration ⃗⃗⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗
(B) (D) ⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ =
due to gravity is 9.81 m/s . Assuming
steady, inviscid flow, constant
atmospheric pressure everywhere and 9. A fluid of dynamic viscosity
neglecting curvature and surface tension 2× kg/ms and density 1 kg/m flows
effects, the diameter in mm of the stream with an average velocity of 1 m/s through
0.5 m below the tap is approximately a long duct of rectangular
(A) 10 (C) 20 (25 mm × 15 mm) cross-section.
ww
(B) 15
ME 2014
(D) 25 Assuming laminar flow, the pressure drop
(in Pa) in the fully developed region per
meter length of the duct is _______
7.
w. E
In a simple concentric shaft-bearing
arrangement, the lubricant flows in the 10. A flow field which has only convective
acceleration is
asy
2 mm gap between the shaft and the
bearing. The flow may be assumed to be a
plane Couette flow with zero pressure
(A) a steady uniform flow
(B) an unsteady uniform flow
En
gradient. The diameter of the shaft is
100 mm and its tangential speed is
(C) a steady non-uniform flow
(D) an unsteady non-uniform flow
gi
10 m/s. The dynamic viscosity of the
lubricant is 0.1 kg/m.s. The frictional
resisting force (in Newton) per 100 mm nee
length of the bearing is _______
r ing
.ne
1. [Ans. D]
We know,
=
A1V1 =A2V2
=
=
=
t
=4
= m/s
h So velocity of flow is 2.0 m/sec
2. [Ans. B]
40mm 20mm
V1,P1 , = =
= = =
pply ng rnoull ’s Equ t on =u ( )

+ + z1 = + + z2 =u ( )
= (for horizontal pipe)
th th th

.
= dt z =z
( )
= g g g
Integrating ∫ = ∫ dt = , =
( )
g g g
*ln ( )+ = g g
= ln = ln =
g g
g g g
3. [Ans. C] g g
pply rnoull ’s t or m
=
= g g
As area is constant. Velocity head will be
ww
same
=
=√ g [ ]
w. E
= m =1.06m
Heat loss occurs in the direction 1-2
6. [Ans. B]
asy
flow is from s1 to s2 and heat loss is
1.06m
4. [Ans. C]
En
Given data
gi
Density of air,
Density of water,
=
=
g/m
g/m
Acceleration due to gravity (g) =9.8 m/s nee z = z
Manometer reading,
= mm = m
Velocity of air =C = √ g
=
r g
=
= ing
v
g
Where Cv = 1
v =
g =v
.ne
w
=
r
(
= ,
),
= =
v =
d v =
v
d v
t
v
= ( ) d =d √ = √ =
v
mm
= ( )= m t rs o r
= √ = 7. [Ans. *]Range 15 to 16
= m/s v
= = = /m
y
5. [Ans. A] = =
= g g g = =
rnoull s qu t on b tw n nd
8. [Ans. A]
z = z ⃗ =
g g g g d v rg n o v lo ty v tor
th th th

.
9. [Ans. *]Range 1.7 to 2.0

Given,
= g/ms, = g/m ,
u = m/s
Duct area = 25 mm 15 mm
Here = Friction factor

=
= = r , = rm t r
= = mm _____________(2)
ww= =
u
w. E=
=
=
=
asy
______________(3)
Substituting eqn. (2) & (3) in (1)
=
En = Pa/m.
10. [Ans. C]
gi
Convective acceleration is that having
acceleration with respect to space nee
Temporal on local acceleration is that
having acceleration with respect to time
A flow field having only convective
r ing
acceleration is steady non uniform flow.
Since it does not depend on time. .ne
t
th th th

.
Boundary Layer
ME 2006 the plate to the drag force on the rear half,

Statement for Linked Answer Questions then
1 & 2: (A) F < 1/2 (C) F = 1
A smooth flat plate with a sharp leading (B) F = 1/2 (D) F > 1
edge is placed along a gas stream flowing at
U = 10 m/s. The thickness of the ME 2010
boundary layer at section r – s is 10 mm, 5. Match the following
the breadth of the plate is 1 m (into the P: Compressible U: Reynolds
paper) and the density of the gas = 1.0 flow number
kg/m3. Assume that the boundary layer is Q: Free surface flow V: Nusselt
ww
thin, two-dimensional, and follows a linear
velocity distribution, u = U (y/ ), at the R: Boundary layer
number
W: Weber
w. E
section r – s, where y is the height from
plate.
q r U
flow
S: Pipe flow
number
X: Froude
number
U
asy T: Heat convection Y: Mach number
Z: Skin friction
p
En s
(A)
coefficient
1.
gi
section q – r is
(A) zero
Flat plate
The mass flow rate (in kg/s) across the
(C) 0.10
(B)
nee
(C)
(D)
2.
(B) 0.05 (D) 0.15
The integrated drag force (in N) on the

6.
r ing
A phenomenon is modeled using n
dimensional variables with k primary
dimensions. The number of non –
plate, between p – s, is:
(A) 0.67 (C) 0.17
(A) .ne
dimensional variables is
(C)
(B) 0.33
ME 2007
3.
(D) zero
A model of a hydraulic turbine is tested at ME 2012

(B) (D)
t
a head of 1/4th of that under which the 7. An incompressible fluid flows over a flat
full scale turbine works. The diameter of plate with zero pressure gradient. The
the model is half of that of the full scale boundary layer thickness is 1mm at a
turbine. If N is the RPM of the full scale location where the Reynolds number is
turbine, then the RPM of the model will be 1000. If the velocity of the fluid alone is
(A) N/4 (C) N increased by a factor of 4, then boundary
(B) N/2 (D) 2N layer thickness at the same location, in
mm will be
4. Consider an incompressible laminar (A) 4 (C) 0.5
boundary layer flow over a flat plate of (B) 2 (D) 0.25
length L, aligned with the direction of an
oncoming uniform free stream. If F is the
ratio of the drag force on the front half of
th th th

.
ME 2014
8. Consider laminar flow of water over a flat
plate of length 1 m. If the boundary layer
thickness at a distance of 0.25 m from the
leading edge of the plate is 8 mm, the
boundary layer thickness (in mm), at a
distance of 0.75 m, is _______
1. [Ans. B] 3. [Ans. C]
ww
ṁ =
= d u
= dy
Applying similarity condition,
√ √
( ) =( )
w. E
= ∫ ydy
= √
=
= asy * +
= √
=
En =
=
= gig/s
4. nee
[Ans. D]
= =
2. [Ans. C]
Integrated drag force (FID)
=∫ =∫ dx
r
Drag force =C
ing
=
√
Where =
= .ne
Where = momentum thickness
=∫ * + dy
, √
Now Drag force on front half
√
t
=∫ * + dy
/ √
=* +
= =
√
= Drag force on rear half
= u / = /
= * + =( )
√
= s y /
Now =
/
th th th

.
7. [Ans. C]
√
= =
( ) √ =√ =√
√
5. [Ans. D] =√
6. [Ans. C]
= √ = = mm
By Buckingham – pie theorem,
Non–dimensional variables, = n – k.
8. [Ans. *] Range 13.5 to 14.2
√x
ww √x
=
√x
= √ =
w. E
asy
En
gi nee
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Flow through Pipes
ME 2006 velocity profile at section B downstream

1. A siphon draws water from a reservoir is
and discharges it out at atmospheric y
y
pressure. Assuming ideal fluid and the
u= , y
reservoir is large, the velocity at point P
y
in the siphon tube is: , y
{
P
3. The ratio /u is
(A) (C)
/ /
ww (B) 1 (D)
/
w. E 4. The ratio (where
pressures at section A and B, respectively,

and are the
(A) √
asy (C) √
nd s t d ns ty o t
(A)
( / )
lu d s
(C)
( ⁄ )
(B) √
En (D) √
(B)
/
(D)
/
2.
gi
The velocity profile in fully developed
laminar flow in a pipe of diameter D is
given by u = u r / , where r is
the radial distance from the center. If the
5.
nee
Consider steady laminar incompressible
axi-symmetric fully developed viscous
flow through a straight circular pipe of
viscosity of the fluid is , the pressure
drop across a length L of the pipe is:
(A) (C)
r ing
constant cross – sectional area at a
Reynolds number of 5. The ratio of inertia
force to viscous force on a fluid particle is
(B) (D)
(A) 5
(B)
(C) 0
(D) ∞ .ne
ME 2007
Linked Answer Questions: Q.3 – Q.4 ME 2009
6. The velocity profile of a fully developed
t
Consider a steady incompressible flow
through a channel as shown below. laminar flow in a straight circular pipe, as
shown in the figure, is given by the
y
expression u (r) = ( )( )
where is a constant. The average

velocity of fluid in the pipe is
R
u(r)
r
x
A B X
The velocity profile is uniform with a
value of u at the inlet section A. The
th th th

.
(A) ( ) (C) ( ) ME 2014

11. For a fully developed flow of water in a
(B) ( ) (D) ( ) pipe having diameter 10 cm, velocity
0.1 m/s and kinematic viscosity
7. Water at C is flowing through a 1.0 km m /s, the value of Darcy friction
long G.I pipe of 200mm diameter at the factor is _______
rate of 0.07 /s. If value of Darcy friction
factor for this pipe is 0.02 and density of 12. Water flows through a 10 mm diameter
water is 1000 kg/ , the pumping power and 250 m long smooth pipe at an
(in kW) required to maintain the flow is average velocity of 0.1 m/s. The density
(A) 1.8 (C) 20.5 and the viscosity of water are 997 kg/m
(B) 17.4 (D) 41.0 and 855× N.s/ m respectively.
ww
ME 2010
Assuming fully-developed flow, the
pressure drop (in Pa) in the pipe is _______
8.
w. E
The maximum velocity of a one –
dimensional incompressible
developed viscous flow, between two
fully
asy
fixed parallel plates, is 6 ms . The mean
velocity ( in ms ) of the flow is
(A) 2
(B) 3
En (C) 4
(D) 5
ME 2012
9.
gi
Oil flows through a 200 mm diameter
horizontal cast iron pipe nee
(friction factor, f = 0.0225) of length 500
m. The volumetric flow rate is 0.2 m /s .
The head loss (in m) due to friction is
r ing
(assume g = 9.81 m/s )
(A) 116.18 (C) 18.22 .ne
(B) 0.116
ME 2013
(D) 232.36
10. For steady, fully developed flow inside a

t
straight pipe of diameter D, neglecting
gr v ty ts, t pr ssur drop p ov r
a length L and the wall shear stress are
related by
(A) = (C) =
(B) = (D) =
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] r
* u=u ( )+
P
r p
u [ ]= r
x
h1 r u
p=u [ ][ ]=
r
h2
3. [Ans. A]
Assume width of channel is b. applying
continuity equation at A and B.
ww
By energy conservation,
Q
w. E
velocity at point Q = √ g
As there is a continuous and uniform flow,
H
H 2
Vm
asy
so velocity of liquid at point Q and P is
same (i.e. Vp=VQ)
u
En
i.e. kinetic energy of water = potential
energy u
A
b =
B
b
mv = mg
= mg
= √ mg
gi nee u
= =
=
=√ g
4.
r
[Ans. C]
pply ng
ing
rnoull ’s qu t on t nd
2. [Ans. D]
By Hagen – Poiseuille law, for steady
g g
=
g
.ne
g
laminar flow in circular pipes

wton’s l w o v s os ty ross s t on
= -----------------(1)
g
=
=
g
t
Shear stress across a section varies = [ ]
w t ‘r’ s
Using the value of from first part of the
= -----------------(2)
question, we get,
For fully developed laminar flow
Eq (1) = Eq (2) =
du p r * +
=
dr x
du p 5. [Ans. A]
= [ ]r
dr x
ynold’s numb r = =
d r p
[u * +] = r
dr x
th th th

.
6. [Ans. A] 9. [Ans. A]
u= ( )( ) =
d =u rdr =
=
= ∫ rdr
g=
dp r d= m
= ∫ ( )( ) rdr
dx
= =
Solving, we get
dp =
= ( )
dx =
Now Q = Area x average velocity =
u = =
wwor u
r
=
dp
( )
dx
10. [Ans. A]
=(
p
)
7. w. E
[Ans. B]
=
x
(
/
)= =
=
asy =
11. [Ans. *] Range 0.06 to 0.07
v=
En
Head loss,
= m/s = =
v
= ( )
=
gi=
= g
=
=
nee
=
= 064
n m t v s os ty
=
= 17.4 kW
12. r
[Ans. *] Range 6800 to 6900
ing
8. [Ans. C]
= m ⁄s
=
.ne
=
= = = m ⁄s
=
= t
th th th

.
Hydraulic Machines
ME 2006 ME 2007
1. A horizontal shaft centrifugal pump lifts 4. Match the items in columns I and II.
water at 65 . The suction nozzle is one Column I Column II
meter below pump centerline. The P : Centrifugal 1 : Axial flow
pressure at this point equal 200 kPa compressor
gauge and velocity is 3 m/s. Steam tables Q : Centrifugal pump 2 : Surging
show saturation pressure at 65 is R : Pelton wheel 3 : Priming
25 kPa, and specific volume of the S : Kaplan turbine 4 : Pure impulse
saturated liquid is 0.001020 m3/ kg. The (A) , , ,
pump Net Positive suction Head (NPSH) (B) , , ,
ww
in meters is: (C)
(D)
,
,
,
,
,
,
w. E 5. The inlet angle of runner blades of a

Francis turbine is 90°. The blades are so
1m
asy P shaped that the tangential component of
velocity at blade outlet is zero. The flow
En velocity remains constant throughout the

blade passage and is equal to half of the
2.
(A) 24
gi (B) 26 (C) 28
A large hydraulic turbine is to generate

(D) 30
blade velocity at runner inlet. The blade
efficiency of the runner is
nee
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 80% (D) 89%
300 kW at 1000 rpm under a head of

40 m. For initial testing, a 1:4 scale model
of the turbine operates under a head of
ME 2008
6. r ing
Water, having a density of 1000 kg/m ,
issues from a nozzle with a velocity of 10
10 m. The power generated by the model
(in kW) will be
.ne
m/s and the jet strikes a bucket mounted
on a Pelton wheel. The wheel rotates at
3.
(A) 2.34 (B) 4.68 (C) 9.38 (D) 18.75
In a Pelton wheel, the bucket peripheral

speed is 10 m/s, the water jet velocity is
t
10 rad/s. The mean diameter of the wheel
is 1 m. The jet is split into two equal
streams by the bucket, such that each
stream is deflected by 120°, as shown in
25 m/s and volumetric flow rate of the jet
the figure. Friction in the bucket may be
is 0.1 / . If the jet deflection angle is
neglected. Magnitude of the torque
and the flow is ideal, the output
exerted by the water on the wheel, per
developed is:
unit mass flow rate of the incoming jet, is
(A) 7.5 kW (C) 22.5 kW
Deflected jet
(B) 15.0 kW (D) 37.5 kW
120°
Incoming jet
120°
Deflected jet
th th th

.
(A) 0 (N.m)/(kg/s) V2 W1
(B) 1.25 (N.m)/(kg/s)
W2 V1
(C) 2.5(N.m)/(kg/s)
(D) 3.75(N.m)/(kg/s)
U
ME 2009 (A) 0 (C) 0.5
7. Consider steady, incompressible and (B) 1 (D) 0.25
irrotational flow through a reducer in a
horizontal pipe where the diameter is ME 2013
reduced from 20cm to 10cm. The 11. In order to have maximum power from a
pressure in the 20cm pipe just upstream pelton turbine , the bucket speed must be
of the reducer is 150 kPa. The fluid has a (A) Equal to the jet speed
(B) Equal to half of the jet speed
ww
vapour pressure of 50kPa and a specific
weight of 5 kN/m3. Neglecting frictional
effects, the maximum discharge (in m3/s)
(C) Equal to twice the jet speed
(D) Independent of the jet speed
w. E
that can pass through the reducer without
causing cavitation is
ME 2014
12. An ideal water jet with volume flow rate
asy
(A) 0.05
(B) 0.16
(C) 0.27
(D) 0.38
of 0.05 m /s strikes a flat plate placed
normal to its path and exerts a force of
ME 2010
8. En
A hydraulic turbine develops 1000 kW
1000 N. Considering the density of water
as 1000 kg/m , the diameter (in mm)of
gi
power for a head of 40m. If the head is
reduced to 20m, the power developed (in
kW) is
13.
the water jet is _______
nee
Steam at a velocity of 10 m/s enters the
impulse turbine stage with symmetrical
(A) 177
(B) 354
(C) 500
(D) 707
r
blading having blade angle 30°. The
ing
enthalpy drop in the stage is 100 kJ. The
nozzle angle is 20°. The maximum blade
ME 2011
9. A pump handling a liquid raises its .ne
efficiency (in percent) is _______
pressure from 1 bar to 30 bar. Take the

density of a liquid as 990 g/m . The
isentropic specific work done by the
pump in kJ/kg is
14.
t
At the inlet of an axial impulse turbine
rotor, the blade linear speed is 25 m/s,
the magnitude of absolute velocity is
100 m/s and the angle between them is
(A) 0.10 (C) 2.50 25°. The relative velocity and the axial
(B) 0.30 (D) 2.93 component of velocity remain the same
between the inlet and outlet of the blades.
ME 2012
The blade inlet and outlet velocity
10. The velocity triangles at the inlet and exit
triangles are shown in the figure.
of the rotor of a turbomachine are shown.
Assuming no losses, the specific work
V denotes the absolute velocity of the
(in J/kg)
fluid. W denotes the relative velocity of
m/s m/s
the fluid and U denotes the blade velocity.
Subscripts 1 and 2 refer to inlet and outlet m/s /
respectively. If = and = , then
m/s
the degree of reaction is
th th th

.
15. Kaplan water turbine is commonly used

when the flow through its runner is
(A) axial and the head available is more
than 100 m
(B) axial and the head available is less
than 10 m
(C) radial and the head available is more
than 100 m
(D) mixed and the head available is about
50 m

1. ww
[Ans. A] = v u os
w. E
Given data
Gauge
= g
reading, = /m
=
=
=
os
=
asy = g ug
4. [Ans. A]
Velocity,
En
Velocity head at inlet,
= m/s
= = m
(P) Centrifugal compressor – Surging
(Q) Centrifugal pump – Priming
=
=
gi =
m / g
/m
5.
(R) Pelton wheel – Pure impulse
nee
(S) Kaplan turbine – Axial flow
[Ans. C]
= = g/m
= = r
Vw1 = u1
ing
.ne
NPSH= Pressure at centre line (gauge Vf1 =Vf2=
V1
reading) + static head (Hs) + Velocity
head * +
= 20.387+1+0.46+2.6 = 24m
Inlet Triangle
Vf2
t
2. [Ans. A] Vf2 = v2
For similar turbines specific power will be
same.
/ = / u1
/ Outlet Triangle
= * + * +
/
Given, v = v =
= * + * + v =v =
= v = v v
3. [Ans. C] =u * + = u
= =
Blade efficiency =
Power developed by pelton wheel
th th th

.
u or = 20
=
u
or v = √ = m/s
= =
s rg , = ( d )v
6. [Ans. D] =
Force exerted by the jet of water on the
= 0.16 m /s
bucket per unit mass flow rate
= v u v u os 8. [Ans. B]
= / g/s ⁄
When v = absolute velocity of jet ⁄
= 10 m/s = ( )
ww
u = velocity of the plate
= r= = nd =
= ( )
⁄
=
w. E
orqu / g/s =
=
r=
m⁄ g/s
9. [Ans. D]
Work done =
=
d
7.
asy
[Ans. B]
Considering potential head difference= 0, 10. [Ans. C]
= / g
i.e
En
z =z For symmetrical velocity, Base of reaction is
=Cgi
pply rnoull ’s t or m
1 Upstream
downstream
11.
0.5.
nee
[Ans. B]
= v u u
2
r
To find speed maximum power
=
=
d =
Q
m
Reducer
2
d = m
= ;
= v
ing
u u
=
1
= v u
.ne
But w = w = 5 (incompressible flow)
=
v = u
u=
=
t
or =
12. [Ans. *] Range 56 to 57
or = m Force exerted by jet normal to the plate
Also, discharge =
Q= AV
Q= ( d ) v = ( d ) v
=
or = ( ) =( )
= = =
or v = (2)
From equation (1) and (2) d =
= d= m
d= mm
th th th

.
13. [Ans. *]Range 85.1 to 89.9

Nozzle angle, =
Maximum blade efficiency = os
= os
=
14. [Ans. *]Range 3250 to 3300

= m/s
= m/s
= m/s
= m/s
u= m/s
ww
Given =
sn = sn
w. E
sn =
=
=
sn
= =
now
= asy =
os =
os os
os
=
En
sp wor =
m/sec
u=
15.
=
[Ans. B]
gi
J/kg.
nee
Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction
turbine. It is of low head, high discharge
and high specific speed turbine r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Heat Transfer
Conduction
ME –2005 (B) convection decreases, while that due

1. A small copper ball of 5 mm diameter at to conduction increases
500 K is dropped into an oil bath whose (C) convection and conduction decreases
temperature is 300 K. The thermal (D) convection and conduction increases
conductivity of copper is 400 W/m.K, its
density 9000 kg/ and its specific heat 5. In a composite slab, the temperature at
385 J/kg.K. If the heat transfer coefficient the interface ( ) between two
is 250 W/ .K and lumped analysis is materials is equal to the average of the
assumed to be valid, the rate of fall of the temperature at the two ends. Assuming
temperature of the ball at the beginning steady one-dimensional heat conduction,
ww
of cooling will be, in K/s,
(A) 8.7 (C) 17.3
which of the following statement is true
about the respective thermal
2.
w. E
(B) 13.9 (D) 27.7
Heat flows through a composite slab, as

conductivities?
asy
shown below. The depth of the slab is 1m.
The k values are in W/m.K. The overall
En
thermal resistance in K/W is
2b b
q gi
k = 0.02
0.5m
k= 0.10
k= 0.04
0.25m
0.5m
1m
(A)
nee
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME – 2007
(A) 17.2 (C) 28.6 r ing

Linked Answer Questions: Q. 6 – Q. 7
Consider steady one-dimensional heat
flow in a plate of 20 mm thickness with a
(B) 21.9 (D) 39.2
.ne
uniform heat generation of 80 MW/m3.
The left and right faces are kept at
3. In a case of one dimensional heat
conduction in a medium with constant
properties, T is the temperature at
position x, at time t. Then is
t
constant temperatures of 1600C and
1200C respectively. The plate has a
constant thermal conductivity of 200
W/mK.
proportional to
6. The location of maximum temperature
(A) (C) within the plate from its left face is
(B) (A) 15 mm (C) 5mm
(D)
(B) 10mm (D) 0mm
ME – 2006 7. The maximum temperature within the

4. With an increase in the thickness of plate in 0C is
insulation around a circular pipe, heat (A) 160 (C) 200
loss to surroundings due to (B) 165 (D) 250
(A) convection increases, while that due
to conduction decreases
th th th

.
ME – 2008
8. Steady two dimensional heat conduction
takes place in the body shown in the and
figure below. The normal temperature
gradients over surfaces P and Q can be Assuming negligible contact resistance
considered to be uniform. The between the wall surfaces, the interface
temperature, T (i C), of the two walls
temperature gradient at surface Q is
will be
equal to 10 K/m. Surfaces P and Q are (A) 0.50 (C) 3.75
maintained at constant temperatures as (B) 2.75 (D) 4.50
shown in the figure, while the remaining
part of the boundary is insulated. The ME – 2010
body has a constant thermal conductivity 10. A fin has 5 mm diameter and 100 mm
wwof 0.1 W/m.K. The values of

surface P are
d at length. The thermal conductivity of fin
material is 400 W/mK. One end of the fin
w. E
y
is i t i ed t
surf ce is exposed to
℃ d its re i i g
bie t ir t ℃
If the convective heat transfer coefficient
asy 2m
surface Q,0 C is 40 W/m2K, the heat loss (in W) from
the fin is
En 1m
Surface P, 100 C
(A) 0.08
(B) 5.0
(C) 7.0
(D) 7.8
(A)
(B)
gi
= 20 K/m,
= 0K/m,
x
= 0 K/m
=10K/m
ME – 2011
nee
11. A pipe of 25 mm diameter carries steam.
The heat transfer coefficient between the
(C)
(D)
= 10 K/m,
= 0K/m,
=10 K/m
= 20 K/m
r
cylinder and surrounding is 5 W/ K. it
ing
is proposed to reduce the heat loss from
the pipe by adding insulation having a
ME – 2009 .ne
thermal conductivity 0f 0.05 W/mK.
Which one of the following statements are
9. Consider steady-state heat conduction
across the thickness in a plane composite
wall (as shown in the figure) exposed to
TRUE?
t
(A) The outer radius of the pipe is equal
to the critical radius.
convection conditions on both sides. (B) The outer radius of the pipe is less
than the critical radius.
(C) Adding the insulation will reduce the
h h
1 2 heat loss.
(D) Adding the insulation will increase
the heat loss.
ME – 2012
12. Which one of the following configurations
has highest effectiveness?
(A) Thin, closely spaced fins
Given: h ⁄ h ⁄ (B) Thin, widely spaced fins
(C) Thick, widely spaced fins
(D) Thick, closely spaced fins
th th th

.
ME – 2013 and specific heat c = 600 J/kgK. The time

13. Consider one – dimensional steady state required in seconds to cool the steel ball
heat conduction, without heat generation, in air from to is
in a plane wall; with boundary conditions (A) 519 (C) 1195
as shown in the figure below. The (B) 931 (D) 2144
conductivity of the wall is given by
k= b ; where and b are positive ME – 2014
constants , and T is temperature. 16. Biot number signifies the ratio of
(A) Convective resistance in the fluid to
conductive resistance in the solid
where (B) Conductive resistance in the solid to
convective resistance in the fluid
ww
As x increases, the temperature gradient
(C) Inertia force to viscous force in the
fluid
(D) buoyancy force to viscous force in the
w. E
(dT/dx) will
(A) Remain constant
(B) Be zero 17.
fluid
Consider one dimensional steady state
asy
(C) Increase
(D) Decrease
heat conduction across a wall (as shown
in figure below) of thickness 30 mm and
14.
En
Consider one – dimensional steady state
thermal conductivity 15 W/m.K.
At x , a constant heat flux,
gi
heat conduction along x – xis ( ≤ x ≤ )
through a plane wall with the boundary
surface (x=0 and x = L) maintained at
temperatures of and 100oC. heat is
q" = 1× W/ is applied. On the
other side of the wall, heat is removed
nee
from the wall by convection with a fluid at
25°C and heat transfer coefficient of 250
generated uniformly throughout the wall.
Choose the CORRECT statement.
(A) The direction of heat transfer will be
r ing
W/ .K. The temperature (in °C), at x = 0
is _______
from the surface at

surface at C.
C to the
.ne
(B) The maximum temperature inside
the wall must be greater than
(C) The temperature distribution is
C.
q
t
linear within the wall.
(D) The temperature distribution is x
symmetric about the mid – plane of
x
the wall.
18. A material P of thickness 1 mm is
15. A steel ball of diameter 60mm is initially sandwiched between two steel slabs, as
in thermal equilibrium at C in a shown in the figure below. A heat flux 10
furnace. It is suddenly removed from the kW/ is supplied to one of the steel
furnace and cooled in ambient air at C slabs as shown. The boundary
, with convective heat transfer coefficient temperatures of the slabs are indicated in
h =20 W/ K. the thermo – physical the figure. Assume thermal conductivity
properties of steel are ; density of this steel is 10 W/m.K. Considering
kg/ , conductivity k = 40 W/mK one-dimensional steady state heat
th th th

.
conduction for the configuration, the 21. As the temperature increases, the thermal
thermal conductivity (k, in W/m.K) of conductivity of a gas
material P is _______ (A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant
q ⁄ P
(D) increases up to a certain temperature
and then decreases
STEEL SLAB
STEEL SLAB
K
22. A plane wall has a thermal conductivity of
All dimensions 1.15 W/m.K. If the inner surface is at
1100°C and the outer surface is at 350°C,
then the design thickness (in meter) of
ww
in mm
the wall to maintain a steady heat flux of

2500 W/ should be _______
20 20
19. w. E
Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner
and outer radii, r and r , respectively,
asy
length, L and thermal conductivity, k. Its
inner and outer surfaces are maintained
at
En
and o , respectively( >
Assuming one-dimensional steady state
).
gi
heat conduction in the radial direction,
the thermal resistance in the wall of the
tube is
nee
r r
( )
( )
r
( )
r
( )
( )
( )
r
r
( )
r
r ing
20. Heat transfer through a composite wall is .ne
shown in figure. Both the sections of the
wall have equal thickness (l). The
conductivity of one section is k and that of
t
the other is 2k. The left face of the wall is
at 600 K and the right face is at 300 K.
e t f ow
The interface temperature (in K) of the

composite wall is _______
th th th

.

1. [Ans. C] 3. [Ans. D]
K = 400 One dimensional heat conduction
= 9000 equation is,
h = 250 x t
∴
=8.33×
4. [Ans. A]
T= ( )e As the insulation thickness increases, the
d h surface area exposed for H.T by
ww
dt
|
|
(
(
)e
) magnitude
convection increases and wall thickness
also increases hence the convection H.T
w. E 5.
increases and conduction H.T reduces.
[Ans. D]
2.
asy
[Ans. C]
|
Q= ( )
( )
En
Resistance diagram
∴
A
gi B C
6.
nee
[Ans. C]
r ing
Now,
⁄
C
x .ne C
⁄
x =0 x=20mm
t
=0
By integrating twice
∴ x2 + C1x + C … (1)
⁄
At x , T=433K
Equivalent resistance between B and C
∴ 2 = 433
At x ×10-3m, T = 393K.
∴ 1 = 2000
⁄ For maximum temperature,
Total resistance =0
= ∴ + C1=0
=25+3.6
x × 10-3 = 5mm
=28.6 ⁄
th th th

.
7. [Ans. B] 11. [Ans. C]

= [putting x × 10-3 in r
equation (1)] h /
8. [Ans. D] r
h
Direction of heat flow is always normal to
surface of constant temperature. So for r r addition of insulation will
surface P1, = 0 k/m reduce heat loss
From energy conservation, Q
Heat rate at P = Heat rate at Q
d d
( ) ( )
dy dx
ww = 20 K/m
r
9.
w. E
[Ans. C]
h
h
12. [Ans. A]
r
t
asy t
Fin effectiveness,
he t tr sfer with fi
En he t tr sfer without fi
And this is highest with thin closely
t) t gi
Under steady state conditions,
( ( )
13.
spaced fins.
nee
[Ans. D]
From energy equation
∴
t
t
t d
(
r
dx dx
dt c
dt
)
c ing
or dx bt
.ne
As x increases, T increases from to
or 20
or 20 t
or 3.826 t
t =
(t
(t
)
)
14.
and
[Ans. B]
decreases
General profile is
t
or t
10. [Ans. B]
h
√ d d
d
m=√ √
(t t )t h( )
( ) 15. [Ans. D]
t h( ) r
u ped ysis r
= 5.008W r
th th th

.
exp ( t) 20. [Ans. *]Range 399 to 401
exp ( t)
Apply log,
x t
t = 2144 s
16. [Ans. B]
( )
iot
Heat transfer through section 1 =heat
17. [Ans. *] Range 620 to 630 transfer through section 2
ww
By energy balance:
q
(
t
)
h ( )
her esist ce of sectio
w. E
(1)
usi g
q h(
(2)
)
(3) her esist ce of sectio
q
asy
h
–
( )
usi g
qt (En )
qt
gi 21.
nee
[Ans. A]
Thermal conductivity of gas
18. [Ans. *]Range 0.09 to 0.11
q r √
increases ing
Hence if temperature increase,
q 22. .ne
[Ans. *] Range 0.33 to 0.35
19. [Ans. C]
x
x
t
1D heat conduction through long ( )
cylindrical tube in radial direction is given x
by : Hence thickness of wall = 0.345 m
( )
e t tr sfer r te
( )
her resist ce
r
her resist ce ( )
r
th th th

.
Convection
ME – 2005 4. The temperature distribution within the
Statement for Linked Answer Questions thermal boundary layer over a heated
1 and 2: isothermal flat plate is given by
An un-insulated air conditioning duct of
rectangular cross section 1m × 0.5 m, ( ) ( ) where d are the
carrying air at C with a velocity of temperatures of plate and free stream
10 m/s, is exposed to an ambient air of respectively, and y is the normal distance
C. Neglect the effect of duct measured from the plate. The local
construction material. For air In the range Nusselt number based on the thermal
of 20- C, data are as follows: boundary layer thickness is given by
ww
Thermal conductivity = 0.025 W/m.K:
viscosity μ s r dt u ber
density=1.2 kg/m3. The laminar flow
(A) 1.33
(B) 1.50
(C) 2.0
(D) 4.64
w. E
Nusselt number is 3.4 for constant wall
temperature conditions and, for turbulent
ME – 2008
5. For the three-dimensional object shown
1.
asy
flow, Nu =0.023 Re0.8Pr0.33
The Reynolds number for the flow is
(A) 444 (C) 4.44
in the figure below, five faces are
insulated. The sixth face (PQRS), which is
(B) 890
En (D) 5.33 105
not insulated, interacts thermally with the
ambient, with a convective heat transfer
2.
gi
The heat transfer per metre length of the
duct , in watts, is
(A) 3.8 (C) 89
coefficient of 10 W/m2.K. The ambient
temperature is
nee
C. Heat is uniformly
generated inside the object at the rate of
100 W/m3. Assuming the face PQRS to be
(B) 5.3 (D) 769
ME – 2007
3. The average heat transfer co-efficient on a
r
at uniform temperature, its steady state
temperature is
ing Q F
thin hot vertical plate suspended in still
air can be determined from observations .ne
of the change in plate temperature with
time as it cools. Assume the plate
temperature to be uniform at any instant P
E
t G
of time and radiation heat exchange with R

the surroundings is negligible. The 2m 2m
ambient temperature is the plate has
a total surface area of 0.1 and a mass of
4 kg. The specific heat of the plate material
S H
is 2.5 kJ/kgK. The convective heat transfer
co-efficient in W/ K, at the instant when 1m
the plate temperature is c and the (A) (C)
change in plate temperature with time (B) (D)
dT/dt = 0.02 K/s, is
(A) 200 (C) 15
(B) 20 (D) 10
th th th

.
6. For flow of fluid over a heated plate, the (D) Small because conduction resistance
following fluid properties are known is far less than convective resistance.
Viscosity = 0.001 Pa.s; specific heat at
constant pressure = 1kJ/kg.K; 9. The ratios of the laminar hydrodynamic
thermal conductivity = 1 W/mK. boundary layer thickness to thermal
The hydrodynamic boundary layer boundary layer thickness of flows of two
thickness at a specified location on the fluids P and Q on a flat plate are ½ and 2
plate is 1 mm. The thermal boundary respectively. The Reynolds numbers are
layer thickness at the same location is based on the plate length for both flows
(A) 0.001 mm (C) 1 mm is . The Prandtl and Nusselt numbers
(B) 0.01 mm (D) 1000 mm for P are 1/8 and 35 respectively. The
prandtl and nusselt numbers for Q are
7. ww
ME – 2009
A coolant fluid at C flows over a
heated flat plate maintained at a constant
respectively.
(A) 8 and 140
(B) 8 and 70
(C) 4 and 70
(D) 4 and 35
w. E
temperature of C. The boundary
layer temperature distribution at a given ME – 2013
asy
location on the plate may be
approximated as T = 30 + 70 exp ( y)
where y (in m) is the distance normal to
Common data for questions 10 and 11:
Water (specific heat , c kJ/kg
K)enters a pipe at a rate of 0.01 kg/s and
En
the plate and T is in °C. If thermal
conductivity of the fluid is 1.0W/mK, the
a temperature of the pipe , of
gi
local convective heat transfer coefficient
(in W/ K) at that location will be
(A) 0.2 (C) 5
diameter 50 mm and length 3m, is
subjected to a wall heat flux q in W/ .
nee
10. If q =2500x, where x is in m and in the
direction of flow (x=0 at the inlet ), the
(B) 1
ME – 2011
(D) 10
r
bulk mean temperature of the water
leaving the pipe in is
(A) 42 ing
(C) 74
8. A spherical steel ball of 12 mm diameter
at initially 1000 K. It is slowly cooled in
(B) 62
.ne
(D) 104
surrounding 300 K. the heat transfer

coefficient between steel ball and the
surrounding is 5 W/ . The thermal
11. If q
t
and the convection heat
transfer coefficient at the pipe outlet is
1000 W/m2K, the temperature in at
conductivity of steel is 20 W/mK. The the inner surface of the pipe at the outlet
temperature difference between center is
and the surface of steel ball is (A) 71 (C) 79
(A) Large because conduction resistance (B) 76 (D) 81
is far higher than the convective
resistance. ME – 2014
(B) Large because conduction resistance 12. The non dimensional fluid temperature
is far less than the convective profile near the surface of convectively
resistance. cooled flat plate is given by
(C) Small because conduction resistance –
b c( )
is far higher than convective
resistance. Where y is measured perpendicular to
the plate, L is the plate length and a, b and
th th th

.
c are arbitrary constants. d are 𝜇=7.25× Ns/ k=0.625W/mK,

wall and ambient temperatures, Pr= 4.85.
respectively . If the thermal conductivity Using Nu=0.023 e r the
of the fluids is k and thewall flux is q'', the convective heat transfer coefficient
Nusselt number (in W/ .K) is _______
u is equ to
( )
15. Consider a two –dimensional laminar
(A) a (C) 2c
flow over a long cylinder as shown in the
(B) b (D) (b c)
figure below.
13. For laminar forced convection over a flat

plate, if the free stream velocity increases
by a factor of 2, the average heat transfer
ww
coefficient
(A) Remains same
w. E
(B) Decreases by a factor of √
(C) Rises by a factor of √
(D) Rises by a factor of 4
The free stream velocity is and the free
stream temperature is lower than the
14. asy
Water flows through a tube of diameter
cylinder surface temperature . The local
heat transfer coefficient is minimum at
En
25 mm at an average velocity of 1.0 m/s.
The properties of water are
point
(A) 1 (C) 3
𝜌=1000 kg/
gi Answer Keys & Explanation
(B) 2
nee
(D) 4
1. [Ans. C]
Equivalent length of duct,
3. r
[Ans. D]
From heat balance equation,ing
(
b
b)
b
b
h (T T0)=mc
where, T0= Ambient temperature .ne
We know that Reynolds number
e 4.
∴ h
[Ans. B]
t ⁄
μ
h
u |
y
e
Where
2. [Ans. D] And y
Because Re> 2000, the flow is turbulent Where Tw is surdace temperature and T∞ is
Nu = 0.023 free-stream temperature.
= 0.023 (4.46 105 )0.8 (0.73)0.33 Nu ( )| y
= 685.6 =
y |y
h
= 1.5
H.T /m length = hA. T = h.p.1.
= 25.58 (2 ) 1( 30 20)
= 769 W
th th th

.
5. [Ans. D] 8. [Ans. D]
Heat generated throughout the volume Biot number
q v
( )
q
q
Heat transfer through PQRS =Heat Since value of biotnumber is very less
generated hence conduction resistance is far less
than convective resistance.
q
( )
9. [Ans. A]
q( )
h ( )
( )
( )
6. ww
[Ans. C]
For P:
w. E
∵ Pr=
(∵ r
μ
)
Prandtl Number =
Nusselt Number =
∵
∵
asy ( r)
(∵ r
⁄
)
∴ ( r) ( )
∵ her
Enbou d ry yer thickness at the ∴
( )
7. [Ans. B] gi
same location = 1 mm.
∴ For Q, Prandtl Number ( )
nee
Since value of Reynold Number is same
for both the number P and Q hence:
( u) (pr)
y
/mK
h ( u)
r
∴ ( u)
( r)
( ) ing
10. [Ans. B]
.ne
Under steady state conditions
Heat transfer by conduction = Heat
transfer by convection
d
̇ h ∫q dx
t ̇ h
∴ – h ̇ h ∫ x( )dx ̇ h
dy
d
(or) – h
dy
d ̇ h ( ) ∫ xdx ̇ h
(or) – ( e ) h( )
dy
d [ ]
(or) – ( e ) h ( )( ) ( )
y
ut y ( )
∴ ( e ) h
or h
ut
h
th th th

.
11. [Ans. D] 13. [Ans. C]

h √v
14. [Ans. *] Range 4600 to 4625
Convection does not matter as we take

outlet section just convection in h h
̇ h q ( )= ̇ h
q ( ) ̇ (h h ) ( ) ( )
( )( )( ) ( )( ) h
Hence convective heat transfer coefficient
( )
= 4613.67
ww
q
where
h(
w
)
temperature at the outlet
15. [Ans. B]
i r bou d ry
w. E q
h
yer
asy
Where h = heat transfer coefficient at the
En
pipe outlet
= 76 + 5 = 81
e ≤
12. [Ans. B]
q
gi d
[ ]
dy nee
For e ≤
ep r tor
separation effect are
negligible and conductors are dominated
(
d
) (
b
)(
y
by cy
)
r
by friction drag, so the local heat transfer
ing
co-efficient is minimum at point 2
dy
d
[ ]
(
(
)[
)b
]
.ne
q
dy
(
q
)b ( )b t
b
( )
q
u
( )
u b
th th th

.
Radiation
ME – 2005 radiating surfaces are diffuse and the

1. A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the medium in the enclosure is non-
centre of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The participating. The fraction of the thermal
diameter of the sphere is 1 m, while the radiation leaving the larger surface and
cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m striking itself is
each. The radiation configuration factor Surface-1
is
(A) 0.375 (C) 0.75
(B) 0.625 (D) 1
2.
ww
The following figure was generated from
experimental data relating spectral black Surface-2
w. E
body emissive power to wavelength at
three temperatures
, and ( )
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 1
asy ME – 2009
En Radiative heat transfer is intended
(
gi
μ )
between the inner surfaces of two very
large isothermal parallel metal plates.
nee
While the upper plate (designated as
plate 1) is a black surface and the warmer
(μ )
The conclusion is that the measurements r
one being maintained at
ing
, the lower
plate ( plate 2) is a diffuse and gray
surface with an emissivity of 0.7 and is
are
(A) correct because the maxima in
kept at
.ne
. Assume that the surfaces
are sufficiently large to form a two-
show the correct trend
(B) correct bec use
satisfied
c ’s w is
(C) wrong because the Stefan Boltzmann

t
surface enclosure and steady state
conditions to exist. Stefan Boltzmann
constant is given as
5.67 .
law is not satisfied
4. The irradiation (in kW/ ) for the upper
(D) wrong because ie ’s disp ce e t
plate (plate 1) is
law is not satisfied
(A) 2.5 (C) 17.0
(B) 3.6 (D) 19.5
ME – 2008
3. A hollow enclosure is formed between 5. If plate 1 is also a diffuse and gray surface
two infinitely long concentric cylinders of with an emissivity value of 0.8, the net
radii 1m and 2m, respectively. Radiative radiation heat exchange (in kW/ )
heat exchange takes place between the between plate 1 and plate 2 is
inner surface of the larger cylinder (A) 17.0 (C) 23.0
(surface-2) and the outer surface of the (B) 19.5 (D) 31.7
smaller cylinder (surface-1). The
th th th

.
ME – 2012 ME – 2014
6. For an opaque surface, the absorptivity 9. A hemispherical furnace of 1 m radius has
( ), transmissivity ( ) and reflectivity ( ) the inner surface emissivity, ( ) of its
are related by the equation: roof maintained at 800 K, while its floor
(A) (C) ( ) is kept at 600 K.
(B) (D) Stefan Boltzmann constant is
⁄ . The net radiative
7. Consider two infinitely long thin heat transfer (in kW) from the roof to the
concentric tubes of circular cross section floor is _______
as shown in figure. If d are the
diameters of inner and outer tubes 10. A solid sphere of radius r = 20 mm is
respectively, then the view factor is placed concentrically inside a hollow
ww
given by sphere of radius r = 30 mm as shown in
the figure.
w. E r
asy r
En The view factor for radiation heat

(A) ( )
(B) ero
gi (C) ( )
(D) ( )
transfer is
nee
( ) ( )
ME – 2013
8. Two large diffuse gray parallel plates
( )
r ing
( )
separated by a small distance , have

surface temperature of 400 K and 300 K.
.ne
If the emissivities of the surfaces are 0.8
and the Stefan – Boltzmann constant is
W/ , the net radiation
heat exchange rate in kW/ between
t
the two plates is
(A) 0.66 (C) 0.99
(B) 0.79 (D) 3.96
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] Irradiation for body 1

( )
1 et
=
=2.5 ⁄
F21+F22 =1
5. [Ans. D]
ww
Since, F22=0, therefore F21=1
Now,
A1F12=A2F21
,
w. E
Now, F11+F12 =1
=( )
̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅ ,
Net heat exchange between A and B
( )
asy
1
*( ) ( )+
En ( ) ( )
2. [Ans. D]
gi
ie ’s disp ce e t law is not satisfied,
i.e., maxT=C
nee
(
(
) (
) (
)
)
Which tells lower for higher
temperature.
r
= 31.7 kW/ ing
3. [Ans. B]
F11+F12 =1
6. [Ans. C] .ne
F21+F22 =1
F11 =0 due to concave surface
F12 =1
Now A1F12 = A2F21
7. [Ans. D]
f f
t
f
F21 = F12
∴ f
F12=1 Also f f
∴ F21 = = And f f
( ) (f )
F21 = 0.5
F22=1 F21 =0.5 f ( )
4. [Ans. A] ∴ f ( )
=
th th th

.
8. [Ans. A]
( )
( )
=0.66 ⁄
9. [Ans. *] Range 24.0 to 25.2

Roof (1) r
Floor (2) r ,
From observation
ww
∴
w. Er
r
(
asy
)
( )
En r ( )
gi Watt
( )
nee
( )
10. [Ans. B]
r ing
r
.ne
r
r
r
t
By summation rule :
For current configuration,

So,
By Reciprocity Theorem :
r
r
r r
r r
( )
th th th

.
Heat Exchanger
ME – 2005 enters the heat exchanger at 102°C, while

1. Hot oil is cooled from 80 to C in an oil the cold fluid has an inlet temperature of
cooler which uses air as the coolant. The 15°C. The overall heat transfer coefficient
air temperature rises from 30 to C. for the heat exchanger is estimated to be
The designer uses a LMTD value of ⁄ and the corresponding heat
C.The type of heat exchanger is transfer surface area is 5 . Neglect heat
(A) parallel flow (C) counter flow transfer between the heat exchanger and
(B) double pipe (D) cross flow the ambient. The heat exchanger is
characterized by the following relation:
ME – 2007 exp( ).
2.
wwIn a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid
e ters t ℃ d co d f uid e ves t
The exit temperature (in C) for the
cold fluid is
w. E
℃ M ss f ow r te of the hot f uid is
1 kg/s and that of the cold fluid is 2 kg/s.
Specific heat of the hot fluid is 10kJ/kgK
(A) 45
(B) 55
(C) 65
(D) 75
asy
and that of the cold fluid is 5 kJ /kgK. The
Log Mean Temperature Difference
ME – 2011
5. In a condenser of a power plant, the
(A) 15 En
( M ) for the he t exch ger i ℃ is
(C) 35
steam condenser at a temperature of
C. the cooling water enters at C and
(B) 30
ME – 2008
gi (D) 45 leaves at
nee
C. the logarithmic mean
temperature difference (LMTD) of the
condenser is
3. The logarithmic mean temperature (A) C (C) C
difference (LMTD) of a counterflow heat
exchanger is C. The cold fluid enters at
(B)
r C
ing
(D) C
C and the hot fluid enters at

Mass flow rate of the cold fluid is twice
that of the hot fluid. Specific heat at
ME – 2012
6. Water (
.ne
g ) at C enters
constant pressure of the hot fluid is twice

that of the cold fluid. The exit
temperature of the cold fluid
flow rate of
enters at
g s. Air (
t
a counterflow heat exchanger with a mass
kJ/kg.K)
C with a mass flow rate of
2.09 kg/s. If the effectiveness of heat
(A) is exchanger of the heat exchanger is 0.8,
(B) is the LMTD (i ) is
(C) is (A) 40 (C) 10
(D) cannot be determined (B) 20 (D) 5
ME – 2009 ME – 2014
4. In a parallel flow heat exchanger 7. In a concentric counter flow heat
operating under steady state, the heat exchanger, water flows through the inner
capacity rates (product of specific heat at tube at 25°C and leaves at 42°C. The
constant pressure and mass flow rate) of engine oil enters at 100°C and flows in the
the hot and cold fluid are equal. The hot annular flow passage. The exit
fluid, flowing at 1 kg/s with Cp= 4kJ/kgK, temperature of the engine oil is 50°C.
th th th

.
Mass flow rate of water and the engine oil (A) a condenser
are 1.5 kg/s and 1 kg/s, respectively. The (B) an evaporator
specific heat of water and oil are (C) a counter flow heat exchanger
4178 J/kg.K and 2130 J/kg.K, (D) a parallel flow heat exchanger
respectively. The effectiveness of this heat
exchanger is ________ 9. A double-pipe counter flow heat
exchanger transfers heat between two
8. In a heat exchanger, it is observed that water stream. Tube side water at 19
= , where is the temperature liter/s is heated from to . Shell
difference between the two single phase side water at 25 liter/s entering at
f uid stre s t o e e d d is the Assume constant properties of water:
temperature difference at the other end. density is 1000 kg/ and specific heat is
ww
This heat exchanger is 4186 J/kgK. The LMTD(in ) is _________
1.
asy
[Ans. D] Which is greater than considered LMTD i.e
En Hence cross flow is better for given

problem.
gi 2. [Ans. B]
nee
Heat capacity of hot fluid = 1 10
= 10 kJ/K sec
Parallel Flow
For parallel flow
( ) ( )
r
Heat capacity of cold fluid = 2 5
ing = 10 kJ/K sec

Since heat capacity is same, so LMTD is
( ) ( )
.ne
difference of temperature at either end
i.e. LMTD =
Which is less than consider LMTD i.e
t hot
cold
3. [Ans. C]
Counter Flow
For counter Flow
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
( )
th th th

.
̇ ̇ The heat exchanger is characterized by the

c following relation
By energy balance ( )
c ( ) c( ) We know for parallel flow

[ ( )]
=
Let, if
( ) ( ) then
[ ]
M
[ ] =
LMTD
NTU
ww (x
x
)
(
(
⁄ )(
⁄ s)
)
w. E i
x
(x
x
)
exp(
exp( )
asy
si ce
The maximum possible heat transfer rate is
En
ow pp yi g hospit ru e
=(4 ⁄ )(
(
)
)
give
gi nee
Actual rate of heat transfer is
=(0.46)(348)=160kW
( )
4. [Ans. B] r ( ⁄ )(
ing )
h
1: Inlet
2: Outlet
h
5. [Ans. B]
.ne
c
c t
Parallel Flow Heal Exchanger
h
g⁄s
⁄ g
Overall transfer coefficient U=1kW/m2K
M
Heat transfer surface area A=5m2
Given:
kJ/s.K. 6. [Ans. C]
Neglect heat transfer between the heat ( ) ( )
exchanger and the ambient.
∴ M
th th th

.
Now effectiveness Shell side water stream:-

Volume flow rate of water,
̇ iter s
s
ss f ow r te of w ter
∴ M ̇
̇
te of he t ost by she side w ter stre
̇ ̇ c( )
7. [Ans. * ]Range 0.65 to 0.67 ̇ ̇
̇ c ̇ ( )
( )
( c )
( )
ww
( c )
Ideal case would be oil reaching 25 at
w. E
outlet
( c) (
( c) (
)
)
M
( ) ( )
asy
8. [Ans. C]
En
9.
gi
Can happen only in counter flow heat
exchanger
[Ans. * ]Range 10.8 to11.2 nee

r ing
.ne
x
t
Tube side water stream:-
Volume flow rate of water,
̇ iter s
s
Mass flow rate of water,
̇ ̇ de sity ( )
epecific he t g
Rate of heat transferred to tube side water
Stream= ̇ ̇ ( )
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Manufacturing Engineering
Engineering Materials
ME – 2005 ME – 2007
1. When the temperature of a solid metal 5. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less
increases. than 0.83% carbon, it is called
(A) strength of the metal decreases but (A) high speed steel
ductility increases (B) hypoeutectoid steel
(B) both strength and ductility of the (C) hypereutectoid steel
metal decreases (D) cast iron
(C) both strength and ductility of the
metal increases ME – 2009
(D) strength of the metal increases but 6. The effective number of lattice points in
ww ductility decreases the unit cell of simple cubic, body

centered cubic, and face centered cubic
2. w. E
ME – 2006
Column I Column II
space lattices, respectively, are
(A) 1,2,2
(B) 1,2,4
(C) 2,3,4
(D) 2,4,4
asy
(P) Charpy test
(Q) Knoop test
(1) Fluidity
(2) Microhardness ME – 2010
En
(R) Spiral test
(S) Cupping test
(3) Formability
(4) Toughness
7. The material property which depends
only on the basic crystal structure is
gi (5) Permeability
(A) P – 4 Q – 5 R – 3 S – 2
(B) P – 3 Q – 5 R – 1 S – 4
(A) fatigue strength
nee
(B) work hardening
(C) fracture strength
(C) P – 2 Q – 4 R – 3 S – 5 (D) elastic constant
(D) P – 4 Q – 2 R – 1 S – 3
ME – 2011 r ing
3. The ultimate tensile strength of a material
is 400 MPa and the elongation up to
8.
.ne
The operation in which oil is permeated
into the pores of a powder metallurgy
maximum load is 35%. If the material
obeys power law of hardening, then the
true stress-true strain relation (stress in
MPa) in the plastic deformation range is :
product is known as
(A) mixing
(B) sintering
(C) impregnation
t
(A) (D) infiltration
(B)
(C) 9. The crystal structure of austenite is
(D) (A) body centered cubic
(B) face centered cubic
4. The main purpose of spheroidising (C) hexagonal closed packed
treatment is to improve (D) body centered tetragonal
(A) hardenability of low carbon steels
(B) machinability of low carbon steels
(C) hardenability of high carbon steels
(D) machinability of high carbon steels
th th th

.
ME – 2012 Point on Description of the Point

10. During normalizing process of steel, the the graph
specimen is heated P 1. Upper Yield Point
(A) between the upper and lower critical Q 2. Ultimate Tensile
temperature and cooled in still air Strength
(B) Above the upper critical R 3. Proportionality Limit
temperature and cooled in furnace
S 4. Elastic Limit
(C) Above the upper critical temperature
and cooled in still air T 5. Lower Yield Point
(D) Between the upper and lower critical U 6. Failure
temperature and cooled in furnace (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4, T-5, U-6
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2, T-6, U-5
ME – 2014 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5, T-2, U-6
ww
11. The process of reheating the martensitic
steel to reduce its brittleness without any
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2, T-3, U-6
w. E
significant loss in its hardness is
(A) normalizing
(B) annealing
(C) quenching
(D) tempering
14. Match the heat treatment processes
(Group A) and their associated effects on
properties (Group B) of medium carbon
12. asy
The relationship between true strain
steel
Group Group B
En
and engineering strain
tension test is given as
in a uniaxial P: Tempering I: Strengthening and
grain refinement
(D)
gi Q: Quenching
nee
R: Annealing
S: Normalizing
II: Inducing toughness
III: Hardening
IV: Softening
(A) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
13. The stress-strain curve for mild steel is

shown in the figure given below. Choose
r ing
(B) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
(C) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
(D) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV
the correct option referring to both figure
and table. .ne
t
tr ss
tr
th th th

.
1. [Ans. A] 10. [Ans. C]

During normalizing process of steel. The
2. [Ans. D] specimen in heated upto above the
upper critical temperature and is then
3. [Ans. B] cooled is still air.
11. [Ans. A]
But at UTS n=
Hence n= = 0.3 12. [Ans. C]
Also
= 400(1+0.35) ∫ ]
ww
Now,
540 = K
= 540 MPa
( )
w. E
K = 774.97
Where, tru str ss

( )
4.
asy
[Ans. D]
tru str [( ) ]
En
Spheroidising improves machinability of
high carbon steels.
13. [Ans. C]
5.
6.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. B]
gi Point on the
nee
Graph
P
Q
Description of the
Point
Proportionality Limit
Elastic Limit
R Upper Yield Point
For a simple cubic unit cell
8 corners have 8 atoms and each atom at
one corner contributes to 8 unit cells. r S
T
ingLower Yield Point
Ultimate Tensile
Strength
tv u r
For body centred cubic,
U
.ne
Failure
effective number = 8 corners + 1 centre
For FCC,
14. [Ans. B]
Tempering Toughness
Quenching Hardening
t
Annealing stress reliving thus softening
effective number = 8 corner + 6 faces Normalizing strengthening and grain
refinement
Hence answer is (1, 2, 4)
7. [Ans. C]
8. [Ans. C]
9. [Ans. B]
Austenite has FCC Crystal structure.
th th th

.
Casting
ME – 2005 4. An expandable pattern is used in

1. A mould has a downsprue whose length is (A) slush casting
20 cm and the cross sectional area at the (B) squeeze casting
base of the downsprue is 1 c . The (C) centrifugal casting
downsprue feeds a horizontal runner (D) investment casting
leading into the mould cavity of volume
1000 c . The time required to fill the ME – 2007
mould cavity will be 5. A 200 mm long down sprue has an area of
(A) 4.05s (C) 6.05s cross – section of 650 where the
(B) 5.05s (D) 7.25s pouring basin meets the down sprue (i.e. at
2. ww
Match the items of List I (Equipment)
the beginning of the down sprue). A
constant head of molten metal is
w. E
with the items of List II (Process) and
select the correct answer using the given
codes.
maintained by the pouring basin. The
molten metal flow rate is 6.5 ×
Considering the end of down sprue to be
/s.
asy
List I (Equipment)
P – Hot Chamber
List II (Process)
1 – Cleaning
open to atmosphere and an acceleration
due to gravity of mm/s , the area of the
En
Machine
Q – Muller 2 – Core making
down sprue in at its end (avoiding
aspiration effect) should be
Baker gi
R – Dielectric
S – Sand Blaster
3 – Die casting
4 – Annealing
nee
Pouring
Basin
5 – Sand mixing
(A) P – 2 Q – 1 R – 4 S – 5
(B) P – 4 Q – 2 R – 3 S – 5 r
650
ing 200 mm
(C) P – 4 Q – 5 R – 1 S – 2
(D) P – 3 Q – 5 R – 2 S – 1
Area of down
sprue at its end .ne
ME – 2006
3. In a sand casting operation, the total
liquid head is maintained constant such
t
(A) 650.0 (C) 290.7
that it is equal to the mould height. The
(B) 350.0 (D) 190.0
time taken to fill the mould with a top
gate is t . If the same mould is filed with a
6. Vo u o u o s ‘l’ and volume of
bottom gate, then the time taken is t .
sph r o r us ‘r’ r qu oth th
Ignore the time required to fill the runner
cube and the sphere are solid and of same
and frictional effects. Assume
material. They are being cast. The ratio of
atmospheric pressure at the top molten
the solidification time of the cube to the
metal surfaces. The relation between t
same of the sphere is
and t is:
(A) t = √ t (C) t = (A) ( ) ( ) (C) ( ) ( )
√
(B) t = 2 t
(D) t = √ t (B) ( ) ( ) (D) ( ) ( )
th th th

.
7. Which of the following engineering ME – 2010

materials is the most suitable material 11. In a gating system, the ratio 1: 2: 4
for hot chamber die casting? represents
(A) low carbon steel (A) sprue base area : runner area : ingate
(B) titanium area
(C) copper (B) pouring basin area : ingate area :
(D) tin runner area
(C) sprue basin area : ingate area :
ME – 2008 casting area
8. While cooling, a cubical casting of side 40 (D) runner area : ingate area : casting
mm undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume area
shrinkage during the liquid state, phase
ww
transition and solid state, respectively.
The volume of metal compensated from
ME – 2011
12. A cubic casting of 50 mm side undergoes
w. E
the riser is
(A) 2%
(B) 7%
(C) 8%
(D) 9%
volumetric solidification shrinkage and
volumetric solid contraction of 4% and
6% respectively. No riser is used. Assume
ME – 2009 asy uniform cooling in all directions. The side

of the cube after solidification and
9.
II.
En
Match the items in Column I and Column contraction is
(A) 48.32 mm (C) 49.94 mm
Column I
Q. Metallic
Chaplets
gi
P. Metallic Chills
Column II
1. Support for the core
2. Reservoir of the
molten metal
13.
(B) 49.90 mm
nee
(D) 49.96 mm
Green sand mould indicates that

(A) polymeric mould has been cured
R. Riser
S. Exothermic
3. Control cooling of
critical sections
4. Progressive
r
(B) mould has been totally dried
ing
(C) mould is green in colour
(D) mould contains moisture
Padding
(A)
solidification
ME – 2013 .ne
(B)
(C)
(D)
t
14. A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 min.
The solidification time in min for a cube of
the same material, which is 8 times
heavier than the original casting , will be
10. Two streams of liquid metal, which are (A) 10 (C) 24
not hot enough to fuse properly result (B) 20 (D) 40
into a casting defect known as
(A) cold shut (C) sand wash ME – 2014
(B) swell (D) scab 15. An aluminum alloy (density 2600 kg/ )
casting is to be produced. A cylindrical
hole of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm
length is made in the casting using sand
core (density 1600 kg/ ). The net
buoyancy force (in Newton) acting on the
core is _______
th th th

.
16. Match the casting defects (Group A) with 19. A cylindrical riser of 6 cm diameter and 6 cm
the probable causes (Group B): height has to be designed for a sand casting
Group A Group B would for producing a steel rectangular plate
P: Hot tears 1: Improper fusion of casting of 7 cm × 10 cm × 2 cm dimensions
two streams of liquid having the total solidification time of 1.36
metal minute. The total solidification time (in
Q: Shrinkage 2: Low permeability of minute) of the riser is _______
the sand mold
R: Blow 3: Volumetric
holes contraction both in
liquid and solid stage
S: Cold Shut 4: Differential cooling
ww rate
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
w. E
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
17.
asy
The hot tearing in a metal casting is due
to
En
(A) high fluidity
(B) high melt temperature
gi
(C) wide range of solidification
temperature
(D) low coefficient of thermal expansion nee
18. A cylinder blind riser with diameter d and
height h, is placed on the top of the mold
r ing
cavity of a closed type sand mold as
shown in the figure. If the riser is of .ne
constant volume, then the rate of
solidification in the user is the least when
the ratio h:d is
t
pru s
s r h
o v ty
(A) 1:2 (C) 1:4

(B) 2:1 (D) 4:1
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] 5. [Ans. C]
vat base=√ h=√ V
=1.9797 m.sec =197.98 cm/sec h

Area at base =1 cm2,
and volume to be filled = 1000 cm3
Time required = = 5.05sec
200mm
2. [Ans. D]
P-3, Q- 5, R -2, S-1 V
3. ww
[Ans. B]
Time taken to fill the mould with top gate
g=
Here, Flow rate = 6.5 × s
t
w. E
Where
√
……
V
V
h = 50 mm
s √ h
asy
r o ou
H = Height of mould
r o t
At down, V √
= 2236.06 mm/s
h
En
t h ht
Given that, h so q o
V
t
√h
√ gi……………
Time taken to fill the mould with bottom

6.
nee
[Ans. D]
V V
gate
t
√
(√h √h ) r ing
Solidification time = ( ) ,
t
√
√h … … … … qu r r to
.ne
( )
From equation (ii) & (iii)

t
t
t t
(
r
) (
(
r
t
) ( )
)
4. [Ans. D]
Expandable pattern is used in investment 7. [Ans. D]
casting.
8. [Ans. B]
The riser can compensate for volume
shrinkange only in the liquid stage and
transition stage and not in the solid state.
Hence volume of metal that needs to be
compensated from the riser = 3 + 4 = 7%
9. [Ans. D]
th th th

.
10. [Ans. A] 16. [Ans. B]

Group A Group B
11. [Ans. A] P: Hot tears Differential cooling rate
Q: Shrinkage Volumetric contraction
12. [Ans. A] both in liquid and solid
Volume of cube after solidification and stage
contraction R: Blow Low permeability of the
V holes sand mold
S: Cold Shut Improper fusion of two
side of cube after contraction streams of liquid metal
17. [Ans. C]
13. ww
[Ans. D]
Green sand mould indicates that mould is
Hot tearing : During solidification of
molten metal in mold cavity due to non-
w. E
not baked or dried. i.e., it contains
moisture
uniform working different contraction
stresses can be developed inside the
casting and due to insufficient of
14.
asy
[Ans. B]
v
collapsibility of mold sand some
contraction stress can be developed in
t ( )
En ( )
Weight is 8 times heavier
casting these stresses can be relieved by
forming hot earns and cracks. So from
V
V gi
V
v 18.
above the most suitable option is C
nee
[Ans. A]
t
r pru s
ing
t
t .ne s r h
t o v ty
ur r o s r h
Volume (V) of Riser = h
u o s
V V
h
15. [Ans. *]Range 7 to 8
for least solidification time, surface area
Buoyancy force
should b u
v
or u
th th th

.
V
h
h
h
19. [Ans. *]Range 2.5 to 4.5

s r vo V h
ww st vo V
w. E
st sur
[
r
]
asy
s r sur r
h
En
ow
gi t
t
[(
V
V
) ( )]
nee
t ( )
r ing
.ne
t
th th th

.
Forming Process
ME – 2005 interface is 0.1. The minimum possible

1. A 2 mm thick metal sheet is to be bent at thickness of the sheet that can be
an angle of one radian with a bend radius produced in a single pass is:
of 100 mm If the stretch factor is 0.5, the (A) 1.0 mm (C) 2.5 mm
bend allowance is (B) 1.5 mm (D) 3.7 mm
2mm
ME – 2007
5. The force requirement in a blanking
1 radian operation of low carbon steel sheet is
5.0 kN. The thickness of the sheet is‘t’ and
ww
(A) 99mm
(B) 100mm
(C) 101mm
(D) 102mm
diameter of the blanked part is ‘ ’. For the
same work material, if the diameter of the
w. E
ME – 2006
blanked part is increased to 1.5 d and
thickness is reduced to 0.4 t, the new
blanking force in kN is
2.
asy
Column I Column II
(A) 3.0
(B) 4.5
(C) 5.0
(D) 8.0
En
(P) Wrinkling (1) Yield point
elongation 6. Match the correct combination for
(S) Earing
gi
(Q) Orange peel (2) Anisotropy
(R) Stretcher strains (3) Large grain size
(4) Insufficient
blank holding force
following metal working processes.
Processes
nee
P : Blanking
Associated state of stress
1. Tension
Q : Stretch 2. Compression
(5) Fine grain size
(6) Excessive blank
holding force
r
Forming
R : Coining
S : Deep
ing
3. Shear
4. Tension and
(A) P – 6 Q – 3 R – 1 S – 2
(B) P – 4 Q – 5 R – 6 S – 1
Drawing
.ne
Compression
5. Tension and Shear
(C) P – 2 Q – 5 R – 3 S – 4
(D) P – 4 Q – 3 R – 1 S – 2
(A)
(B)
(C)
t
3. In a wire drawing operation, diameter of (D)
a steel wire is reduced from 10 mm to 8
mm. The mean flow stress of the material 7. The thickness of a metallic sheet is
is 400 MPa. The ideal force required for reduced from an initial value of 16 mm to
drawing (ignoring friction and redundant a final value of 10 mm in one single pass
work) is: rolling with a pair of cylindrical rollers
(A) 4.48 kN (C) 20.11 kN each of diameter of 400 mm. The bite
(B) 8.97 kN (D) 31.41 kN angle in degree will be
(A) 5.936 (C) 8.936
4. A 4 mm thick sheet is rolled with 300 mm (B) 7.936 (D) 9.936
diameter rolls to reduce thickness
without any change in its width. The
friction coefficient at the work-roll
th th th

.
8. In open – die forging, a disc of diameter shear strength of the sheet is 100 MPa
200 mm and height 60 mm is compressed and penetration to thickness ratio is 0.2.
without any barreling effect. The final Neglect friction.
diameter of the disc is 400 mm. The true 400
strain is
(A) 1.986 (C) 1.386
(B) 1.686 (D) 0.602
ME – 2008
9. In the deep drawing of cups, blanks show
S
a tendency to wrinkle up around the
periphery (flange).
11. Assume force vs displacement curve to be
ww
The most likely cause and remedy of the
phenomenon are, respectively,
rectangular, the work done (in J) is
(A) 100 (C) 250
w. E
(A) Buckling due to circumferential
compression; Increase blank holder
pressure 12.
(B) 200 (D) 300
A shear of 20 mm (S = 20 mm) is now
asy
(B) High blank holder pressure and high
friction; Reduce blank holder
pressure and apply lubricant
provided on the blade. Assuming force vs
displacement curve to be trapezoidal, the
En
(C) High temperature causing increase in
maximum force (in kN) exerted is
(A) 5 (C) 20
gi
circumferential length; Apply coolant
to blank
(D) Buckling due to circumferential
compression; decrease blank holder
(B) 10
nee
ME – 2011
(D) 40
13. The shear strength of a sheet metal is
10.
pressure
In a single pass rolling operation, a 20

r ing
300MPa. The blanking force required to
produce a blank of 100 mm diameter
from a 1.5 mm thick sheet is close to
mm thick plate with plate width of 100
mm, is reduced to 18 mm. The roller
(A) 45 kN
(B) 70 kN .ne
(C) 141 kN
(D) 3500 kN
radius is 250 mm and rotational speed is
10 rpm. The average flow stress for the
plate material is 300 MPa. The power
14. t
The maximum possible draft in cold
rolling of sheet increases with the
required for the rolling operation in kW is (A) increase in coefficient of friction
closest to (B) decrease in coefficient of friction
(A) 15.2 (C) 30.4 (C) decrease in roll radius
(B) 18.2 (D) 45.6 (D) increase in roll velocity
ME – 2010 ME – 2012
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 15. Match the following metal forming
11&12: processes with their associated stresses
In shear cutting operation, a sheet of 5 in the workpiece.
mm thickness is cut along a length of Metal forming process
200 mm. The cutting blade is 400 mm A. Coining
B. Wire Drawing
long (see figure) and zero – shear (S = 0)
C. Blanking
is provided on the edge. The ultimate D. Deep Drawing
th th th

.
Type of Stress ME – 2014

1. Tensile 20. With respect to metal working, match
2. Shear Group A with Group B:
3. Tensile and compressive
4. Compressive Group A Group B
Codes: P: Defect in I: alligatoring
A B C D extrusion
(A) 4 1 2 3 Q: Defect in rolling II: scab
(B) 4 1 3 2 R: Product of skew III: fish tail
(C) 1 2 4 3
rolling
(D) 1 3 2 4
S: Product of rolling IV: seamless tube
16. A solid cylinder of diameter 100 mm and through cluster mill
height 50 mm is forged between two V: thin sheet with
ww
frictionless flat dies to a height of 25 mm.
The percentage change in diameter is
tight tolerance
VI: semi-finished
w. E
(A) 0
(B) 2.07
(C) 20.7
(D) 41.4
balls of ball bearing
(A) P-II, Q-III, R-VI, S-V
(B) P-III, Q-I, R-VI, S-V
17.
asy
In a single pass rolling process using
410mm diameter steel rollers, a strip of
width 140mm and thickness 8mm
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-VI
(D) P-I, Q-II, R-V, S-VI
En
undergoes 10% reduction of thickness.
The angle of bite in radians is
(A) 0.006
(B) 0.031 gi (C) 0.062
(D) 0.600
nee
18. Calculate the punch size in mm, for a
circular blanking operation for which
details are given below r ing
Size of blank
Thickness of the sheet
25mm
2mm
Radial clearance between 0.06mm .ne
punch and die
Dia allowance
(A) 24.83
0.05mm
(C) 25.01
t
(B) 24.89 (D) 25.17
ME – 2013
19. In a rolling process, the state of stress of
the material undergoing deformation is
(A) pure compression
(B) pure shear
(C) compression and shear
(D) tension and shear
th th th

.
1. [Ans. C] 6. [Ans. D]
We know that Blanking – Shear
Bend allowance = t Stretch Forming – Tension
Where R = inside radius of the bend Coining – Compression
=100mm
Deep drawing – tension and compression
bend angle = 1 radian
t = thickness of metal sheet
k = Location of neutral axis from the bottom 7. [Ans. D]
= 0.33 where R < 2t Here, h = initial thickness = 16 mm
= 0.50 where R > 2t h = final thickness = 10 mm
Bend allowance Roll diameter = D = 400 mm
ww t √ ,
2.
w. E
[Ans. D]
Wrinkling – Insufficient blank holding
force
Where
9.826
angle of bite
asy
Orange peel – large grain
Stretcher strains – yield point elongation
8. [Ans. C]
Since volume of disc remains constant
En
Earing – Anisotropy
during the process, Hence
3. [Ans. B]
Given gi nee
Ignoring friction and redundant work
means r
h th
ing
Hence ( )
ru str .ne
=2
Ideal force = 178.51

( )
= 178.51 MPa
⁄ r
9. [Ans. A]
t
10. [Ans. A]
4. [Ans. C]
µ= √ √
t =2.5mm
5. [Ans. A] rp
t τ th sh r str ss
F=τ t 5.0 kN √
w or τ t
τ t = 3 kN
th th th

.
15. [Ans. A]
[ ]
√ 1. Coining Compressive
2. Wire drawing Tensile
3. Blanking Shear
4. Deep drawing Tensile and compressive
⁄ro r
16. [Ans. D]
ot pow r
Since volume remains constant
V V
11. [Ans. A]
h h
τtx
ww
Work done =
J
t h
12. w. E
[Ans. B]
17. [Ans. C]
asy 400
5 En 5 5
20
5 os
os
gi
So 10mm punch should travel to cut the
sheet of 5 mm thickness for 400 mm, nee os (
⁄
)
shear is 20mm. so only 200mm is the

effective length that a punch should travel
to cut 5 mm thick sheet
18.
r
[Ans. A]
Diameter of punch
= Diameter of blank ing radian clearance
s
τ t
t p
.ne
die allowance
13. [Ans. C]
19. [Ans. C]
t
Blanking Force, τ t 20. [Ans. B]
Fish tail is an extrusion defect. (P – III)
3 kN Product of skew rolling is semi – finished
balls of ball bearing. (R – VI)
14. [Ans. A] So, P – III, R – VI
Maximum possible draft
h h
th th th

.
Joining Process
ME – 2005 each sheet is formed. The properties of

1. Spot welding of two 1 mm thick sheets of the metallic sheets are given as:
steel (density=8000kg/ ) is carried out ambient temperature = 293 K
successfully by passing a certain amount melting temperature = 1793 K
of current for 0.1 second through the density = 7000 kg/
electrodes. The resultant weld nugget latent heat of fusion = 300 kJ/kg
formed is 5 mm in diameter and 1.5 mm specific heat = 800 J/kg K
thick. If the latent heat of fusion of steel is Assume:
1400 kJ/kg and the effective resistance in 1) Contact resistance along sheet –
the welding operation in 200 Ω,the sheet interface is 500 micro-ohm and
ww
current passing through the electrodes is
approximately
along electrode – sheet interface is
zero;
w. E
(A) 1480 A
(B) 3300A
(C) 4060 A
(D) 9400A
2) No conductive heat loss through the
bulk sheet materials; and
3) The complete weld fusion zone is at
2.
asy
The strength of a brazed joint
(A) decreases with increase in gap
the melting temperature.
The melting efficiency (in %) of the
En
between the two joining surfaces
(B) increases with increase in gap
process is
(A) 50.37 (C) 70.37
gi
between the two joining surfaces
(C) decreases up to certain gap between
the two joining surfaces beyond 5.
(B) 60.37
nee
(D) 80.37
A direct current welding machine with a

linear power source characteristic
which it increases
(D) increases up to certain gap between
the two joining surfaces beyond
which it decreases
r
provides open circuit voltage of 80 V and
ing
short circuit current of 800 A. During
welding with the machine, the measured
ME – 2006 .ne
arc current is 500 A corresponding to an
arc length of 5.0 mm and the measured
3. In an arc welding process, the voltage and
current are 25 V and 300 A respectively.
The arc heat transfer efficiency is 0.85
arc length of 7.0 mm. t
arc current is 460 A corresponding to an
The linear voltage (E) – arc length (L)

and welding speed is 8 mm/sec. The net characteristic of the welding arc can be
heat input (in J/mm) is: given as (where E is in Volt and L is in
(A) 64 (C) 1103 mm)
(B) 797 (D) 79700 (A) E = 20 + 2L (C) E = 80 + 2L
(B) E = 20 + 8L (D) E = 80 + 8L
ME – 2007
4. Two metallic sheets, each of 2.0 mm 6. Which one of the following is a solid state
thickness, are welded in a lap joint joining process?
configuration by resistance spot welding (A) gas tungsten arc welding
at a welding current of 10 kA and welding (B) resistance spot welding
time of 10 milli second. A spherical fusion (C) friction welding
zone extending up to the full thickness of (D) submerged arc welding
th th th

.
ME – 2008 ME – 2013
7. In arc welding of a butt joint, the welding 11. Match the correct pairs.
speed is to be selected such that highest Processes Characteristics /
cooling rate is achieved. Melting efficiency Applications
and heat transfer efficiency are 0.5 and P. friction 1. non – consumable
0.7, respectively. The area of the weld welding electrode
cross section is 5 and the unit Q. gas metal arc 2. joining of thick
energy required to melt the metal is welding plates
10 J/ . If the welding power is 2 kW, R. Tungsten inert 3. consumable
the welding speed in mm/s is closest to gas welding electrode wire
(A) 4 (B) 14 (C) 24 (D) 34 S. electroslag 4. joining of
welding cylindrical dissimilar
8. ww
ME – 2010
Two pipes of inner diameter 100 mm and
outer diameter 110 mm each are joined
materials
(A) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2
w. E
by flash – butt welding using 30 V power
supply. At the interface, 1 mm of material
(B) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1
(C) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1
(D) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3
asy
melts from each pipe which has a
r s st o
energy is 64.4MJ
Ω th u t t
, then time required
ME – 2014
(A) 1 En
for welding (in s) is
(B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 20
12. In solid-state welding, the contamination
layers between the surfaces to be welded
ME – 2011
9.
gi
Which one among thefollowing welding
are removed by
nee
(A) alcohol
(B) plastic deformation
(C) water jet
processes used non – consumable
electrode?
(A) Gas metal arc welding
13.
r
(D) sand blasting
ing
The major difficulty during welding of
(B) Submerged arc welding
(C) Gas tungsten arc welding
aluminum is due to its
.ne
(A) high tendency of oxidation
(D) Flux coated arc welding
ME – 2012
10. In a DC arc welding operation, the
(C) low melting point
(D) low density
t
(B) high thermal conductivity
voltage-arc length characteristic was

obtained as V where the arc 14. For spot welding of two steel sheets (base
length was varied between 5 mm and 7 metal) each of 3 mm thickness, welding
mm. Here V denotes the arc voltage in current of 10000 A is applied for 0.2 s.
Volts. The arc current was varied from The heat dissipated to the base metal is
400 A to 500 A. Assuming linear power 1000 J. Assuming that the heat required
source characteristic, the open circuit for melting 1 m volume of steel is 20 J
voltage and the short circuit current for and interfacial contact resistance between
the welding operation are sh ts s Ω th vo u )
(A) 45 V, 450 A of weld nugget is _______
(B) 75 V, 750 A
(C) 95 V, 950 A
(D) 150 V, 1500 A
th th th

.
15. Within the Heat Affected Zone (HAZ) in a 16. A butt weld joint is developed on steel
fusion welding process, the work material plates having yield and ultimate tensile
undergoes strength of 500 MPa and 700 MPa,
(A) Microstructural changes but does not respectively. The thickness of the plates is
melt 8 mm and width is 20 mm. Improper
(B) Neither melting nor microstructural selection of welding parameters caused
changes an undercut of 3 mm depth along the
(C) Both melting and microstructural weld. The maximum transverse tensile
changes after solidification load (in kN) carrying capacity of the
(D) Melting and retains the original developed weld joint is _______
microstructure after solidification
ww Answer Keys & Explanations

1.
w. E
[Ans. C]
H.G = H.U
t Vo o u t
tot h t or
= mL + m (
t
)
asy [
]
En
I = 4060 A Efficiency
2. [Ans. D]
gi
Strength increases upto some certain gap
and beyond this strength decreases.
5. nee
[Ans. A]
= 70.38%
3. [Ans. B]
Power generated = VI r
From power source characteristics,
V = 80
ing …
t put
= 797 J/mm
sp V = a + bL …
.ne
Arc voltage Characteristics
4. [Ans. C]
Given, Here, L = 5, I = 500
t
Equating (i) and (ii), we get
a + bL
Current, …
Time, t s But at L = 7, I = 460
Resistance, R=500 × Ω … v
Ambient temperature, From (iii) and (iv), we get b = 2, a = 20
Voltage charge = 20 + 2L
Melting temperature,
Total heat supplied. 6. [Ans. C]

t Friction welding is clearly solid state
welding.
7. [Ans. B]
ss r
Welding power applied = Heating power
needed
th th th

.
2 14. [Ans. *]Range 140 to 160

f = 14 mm/sec t t
Heat dissipated to base metal= 1000J
8. [Ans. C]
Heat requiring for melting
V Ω ; Volume of weld nugget =?
ot h t supp t
V
Heat energy required for welding
t put to th s t
h t put u t
V
( ) t
Vo u o u t
ww
t
15. [Ans. A]
9.
w. E
[Ans. C]
Gas tungsten arc welding uses a non –
consumable electrode made of tungsten.
Heat affected zone (HAZ) is the area of
base material, either a metal or a
thermoplastic, which is not melted and
10.
asy
[Ans. C]
V
has had its microstructure and properties
altered by welding or heat intensive
En V
V
V
V
cutting operations
V
V
V
p
gi
V
r u t vo t
hort r u t urr t
16. [Ans. *]Range 68 to 72
nee
V
V
V
V r ing
V Vo ts
p .ne
11. [Ans. A] t
12. [Ans. B]
Contamination layer between the surface There is an undercut of 3mm
is removed by friction between the solids r
and due to which material will get
localized plastic deformation. So best Maximum transverse load activity on this
option is B. area = 700 MPa
x u tr sv rs t s o
13. [Ans. A]
The major difficulty during welding of
aluminum is due to higher tendency of
oxidation of aluminum. The feature of Al
th ox t o st t s th t’s why
has higher tendency of oxidation.
th th th

.
Machining and Machine Tool Operations
ME – 2005 (D) tool changing cost, non-productive

1. A zigzag cavity in a block of high strength cost, machining cost
alloy is to be finish machined. This can be
carried out by using 4. A 600mm 30mm flat surface of a plate is
to be finish machined on a shaper. The
plate has been fixed with the 600 mm side
along the tool travel direction. If the tool
over-travel at each end of the plate is 20
mm, average cutting speed is 8 m/min,
feed rate is 0.3mm/stroke and the ratio of
ww
(A)
(B)
electric discharge machining
electro-chemical machining
return time to cutting time of the tool is
1 : 2, the time required for machining will
w. E
(C)
(D)
laser beam machining
abrasive flow machining
be
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 12 minutes
(C) 16 minutes
(D) 20 minutes
2.
asy
When 3-2-1 principle is used to support
and locate a three dimensional work-piece
5. Two tools P and Q have signatures
En
during machining, the number of degrees
of freedom that are restricted is
5°- 5°- 6°-6°- 8°- 30°- 0 and
5°- 5°- 7°- 7°- 8°- 15°- 0
(A) 7
(B) 8 gi (C) 9
(D) 10
(both ASA) respectively. They are used to
turn components under the same
nee
machining conditions. If h and h denote
the peak-to-valley heights of surfaces
3. The figure below shows a graph, which
qualitatively relates cutting speed and cost
per piece produced. r
will be ing
produced by the tools P and Q, the ratio
Total Cost
(A)
(B) .ne (C)
(D)
t
Cost per piece
3 ME – 2006
2 6. If each abrasive grain is viewed as a
cutting tool, then which of the following
1 represents the cutting parameters in
common grinding operations?
Cutting Speed (A) Large negative rake angle, low shear
The three curves, 1, 2 and 3 respectively angle and high cutting speed
represent (B) Large positive rake angle, low shear
(A) machining cost, non-productive cost, angle and high cutting speed
tool changing cost (C) Large negative rake angle, high shear
(B) non-productive cost, machining cost, angle and high cutting speed
tool changing cost (D) Zero rake angle, high shear angle and
(C) tool changing cost, machining cost, high cutting speed
non-productive cost
th th th

.
7. Arrange the processes in the increasing depth of cut is 2 mm. The chip thickness
order of their maximum material removal obtained is 0.48mm. If the orthogonal rake
rate. angle is zero and the principle cutting edge
Electrochemical Machining (ECM) angle is 90  , the shear angle in degree is
Ultrasonic Machining (USM) (A) 20.56 (C) 30.56
Electron Beam Machining (EBM) (B) 26.56 (D) 36.56
Laser Beam Machining (LBM) and
Electric Discharge Machining (EDM) 12. In electro discharge machining (EDM), if
(A) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM the thermal conductivity of tool is high and
(B) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM the specific heat of work piece is low, then
(C) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM the tool wear rate and material removal
(D) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM rate are expected to be respectively
ww
Common Data for Questions 8, 9, 10:
In an orthogonal machining operation:
(A) high and high
(B) low and low
(C) high and low
(D) low and high
w. E
Uncut thickness = 0.5mm
Cutting speed = 20m/min
13. In orthogonal turning of medium carbon
steel, the specific machining energy is
asy
Width of cut = 5 mm
Chip thickness = 0.7 mm
Thrust force = 200N
2.0 J/ . The cutting velocity, feed and
depth of cut are 120 m/min, 0.2 mm/rev
and 2 mm respectively. The main cutting
En
Cutting force = 1200 N
Rake angle = 15
force in N is
8.
ssu
gi
r h t’s th ory
The values of shear angle and shear strain, 14.

(A) 40
(B) 80
nee
(C) 400
(D) 800
In orthogonal turning of low carbon steel

respectively, are
(A) 30.3 and 1.98
(B) 30.3 and 4.23
r
pipe with principle cutting edge angle of
ing
90°, the main cutting force is 1000 N and
the feed force is 800 N. The shear angle is
(C) 40.2 and 2.97
(D) 40.2 and 1.65 p oy .ne
25° and orthogonal rake angle is zero.
r h t’s th ory th r t o o
9. The coefficient of friction at the tool-chip

interface is
(A) 0.23 (C) 0.85
cutting tool is
(A) 1.56
t
friction force to normal force acting on the
(C) 0.80
(B) 1.25 (D) 0.64
(B) 0.46 (D) 0.95
15. Match the most suitable manufacturing
10. The percentage of total energy dissipated processes for the following parts.
due to friction at the tool-chip interface is: Parts Manufacturing Processes
(A) 30 % (C) 58 % P : Computer chip 1. Electrochemical
(B) 42 % (D) 70 % Machining
Q : Metal forming 2. Ultrasonic Machining
ME – 2007 dies and molds
11. In orthogonal turning of a low carbon steel R : Turbine blade 3. Electrodischarge
bar of diameter 150 mm with uncoated Machining
carbide tool, the cutting velocity is 90 S : Glass 4. Photochemical
m/min. The feed is 0.24 mm/rev and the Machining
th th th

.
(A) 20. A researcher conducts electrochemical

(B) machining (ECM) on a binary alloy
(C) (density 6000 kg/ ) of iron (atomic
(D) weight 56, valency 2) and metal P (atomic
w ht v y r y’s o st t
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 16 = 96500 coulomb/mole. Volumetric
& 17: material removal rate of the alloy is 50
A low carbon steel bar of 147 mm /sec at a current of 2000 A. The
diameter with a length of 630 mm is being percentage of the metal P in the alloy is
turned with uncoated carbide insert. The closest to
observed tool lives are 24 min and 12 min (A) 40 (C) 15
for cutting velocities of 90 m/min and (B) 25 (D) 79
ww
120 m/min respectively. The feed and
depth of cut are 0.2 mm/rev and 2 mm
respectively. Use the unmachined
21. The figure shows an incomplete schematic
16. w. E
diameter to calculate the cutting velocity.
When tool life is 20 min, the cutting
of a conventional lathe to be used for
cutting threads with, different pitches. The
speed gear box is shown and the feed
(A) 87
(B) 97
asy
velocity in m/min is
(C) 107
(D) 114
gear box is to be placed. P, Q, R and S
denote locations and have no other
significance. Changes in should NOT
17. En
Neglect over – travel or approach of the
affect the pitch of the thread being cut and
gi
tool. When tool life is 20 min, the
machining time in min for a single pass is
(A) 5 (C) 15
changes in
cutting speed.
nee
Motor
should NOT affect the
Spindle
Work piece
Cutting tool
(B) 10
ME – 2008
(D) 20
r P Q
E
R S
ing Half
Nut
Lead screw
18. Internal gear cutting operation can be

performed by .ne
The correct connections and the correct
placement of are given by
(A) milling
(B) shaping with rack cutter
(C) shaping with pinion cutter
between P and Q. t
(A) Q and E are connected. is placed
(B) S and E are connected. is placed

(D) hobbing between R and S.
(C) Q and E are connected. is placed
19. In a single point turning tool, the side rake between Q and E.
angle and orthogonal rake angle are equal. (D) S and E are connected. is placed
is the principle cutting edge angle and its between S and E.
r s ≤ ≤ h h p ows
the orthogonal plane. The value of is Statement for Linked Answer Questions 22
closest to & 23:
(A) 0° (C) 60° Orthogonal turning is performed on a
(B) 45° (D) 90° cylindrical workpiece with shear strength
of 250 MPa. The following conditions are
used: cutting velocity is 180 m/min, feed is
0.20 mm/rev, depth of cut is 3 mm, chip
th th th

.
thickness ratio = 0.5. The orthogonal rake Cutting speed Tool life
s ˚ pp y r h t’s th ory or (m/ min) (minutes)
analysis. 60 81
22. The shear plane angle (in degrees) and the 90 36
shear force respectively are 27. The exponent (n) and constant (k) of the
(A) 52; 320N (C) 28 ; 400 N y or’s too qu t o r
(B) 52; 400N (D) 28 ; 320 N (A) n = 0.5 and k = 540
(B) n = 1 and k = 4860
23. The cutting and frictional forces,
(C) n = 1 and k = 0.74
respectively, are
(D) n = 0.5 and k = 1.155
(A) 568 N ; 387 N (C) 440 N ; 342 N
(B) 565 N ; 381 N (D) 480 N ; 356 N 28. What is the percentage increase in tool life
ww
ME – 2009
24. Friction at the tool-chip interface can be
when the cutting speed is halved?
(A) 50%
(B) 200%
(C) 300%
(D) 400%
w. E
reduced by
(A) decreasing the rake angle ME – 2010
asy
(B) increasing the depth of cut
(C) decreasing the cutting speed.
(D) increasing the cutting speed.
29. or too y or’s too xpo
tool B, n = 0.3 and K = 60. The cutting

t s
0.45 and constant (K) is 90. Similarly for
25. En
Minimum shear strain in orthogonal
speed (in m/min) above which tool A will
have a higher tool life than tool B is
angle is
(A) 0.0
gi
turning with a cutting tool of zero rake
(B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

(A) 26.7
nee
(B) 42.5
(C) 80.7
(D) 142.9
ME – 2011
26. Electrochemical machining is performed
to remove material from an iron surface of machiningr processes ing
30. Match the following non – traditional
with the
20mm × 20mm under the following
conditions:
corresponding
mechanism:
material
.ne removal
Inter electrode gap= 0.2mm

Supply voltage (DC)= 12V
Specific resistance of electrolyte
Atomic weight of Iron= 55.85
Ω
Machining
process
P. Chemical
machining
Mechanism of
1. Erosion
t
material removal
Valency of Iron = 2 Q. Electro – 2. Corrosive reaction

r y’s o st t = 96540 Coulombs chemical
The material removal rate (in g/s) is machining
(A) 0.3471 (C) 34.71 R. Electro 3. Ion displacement
(B) 3.471 (D) 347.1 discharge
machining
Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 27 S. Ultrasonic 4. Fusion and
& 28 machining vaporization
In a machining experiment, tool life was (A) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1
found to vary with the cutting speed in the (B) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 1
following manner: (C) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
(D) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4
th th th

.
31. A single – point cutting tool with 12° rake cut of 4mm. The rotational speed of the
angle is used to machine a steel work – workpiece is 160 rpm. The material
piece. The depth of cut, i.e. uncut thickness removal rate in /s is
is 0.81 mm. The chip thickness under (A) 160 (C) 1600
orthogonal machining condition is 1.8 mm. (B) 167.6 (D) 1675.5
The shear angle is approximately
(A) 22° (C) 56° 36. Two cutting tools are being compared for a
(B) 26° (D) 76° machining operation. The tool life
equations are
ME – 2012 Carbide tool :
32. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance HSS tool :
between the nozzle tip and the work Where V is the cutting speed in m/min and
ww
surface increases, the material removal
rate
(A) Increases continuously
T is the tool life in min. The carbide tool
will provide higher tool life if the cutting
speed in m/min exceeds
w. E
(B) Decreases continuously
(C) Decreases, becomes stable and then
increases
(A) 15.0
(B) 39.4
(C) 49.3
(D) 60.0
asy
(D) Increases, becomes stable and then
decreases
37. During the electrochemical machining
(ECM) of iron (atomic weight = 56,
33.
En
In a single pass drilling operation, a
valency =2) at current of 1000A with 90%
current efficiency, the material removal
gi
through hole of 15 mm diameter is to be
drilled in a steel plate of 50 mm thickness.
Drill spindle speed is 500 rpm, feed is
0.2 mm/rev and drill point angle is .
rate was observed to be 0.26 gm/s. If
nee
Titanium (atomic weight = 48, valency=3)
is machined by the ECM precess at the
current of 2000 A with 90% current
Assuming 2 mm clearance at approach and
exit, the total drill time (in seconds) is
(A) 35.1 (C) 31.2
r ing
efficiency , the expected material removal
rate in gm/s will be
(B) 32.4 (D) 30.1 (A) 0.11
(B) 0.23
.ne
(C) 0.30
(D) 0.52
34. Details pertaining to and orthogonal metal
cutting process are given below:
Chip thickness ratio
Undeformed
0.4
0.6 mm
39: t
Statement for linked answer questions 38 &
In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100 mm

thickness diameter with a feed of 0.25 mm/rev,
Rake angle +10 depth of cut of 4mm and cutting velocity of
Cutting speed 2.5 m/s 90 m/min, it is observed that the main
Mean thickness of 25 microns (tangential) cutting force is perpendicular
Primary shear zone
to the friction force acting at the chip – tool
The shear strain rate in s during the
process is interface. The main (tangential) cutting
(A) 0.1781 (C) 1.0104 force is 1500 N.
(B) 0.7754 (D) 4.397
38. The orthogonal rake angle of the cutting
ME – 2013 tool in degree is
35. A steel bar 200 mm in diameter is turned (A) Zero (C) 5
at a feed of 0.25 mm/ rev with a depth of (B) 3.58 (D) 7.16
th th th

.
39. The normal force acting at the chip – tool 45. Match the Machine Tools (Group A) with
interface in N is the probable Operations (Group B):
(A) 1000 (C) 2000 Group A Group B
(B) 1500 (D) 2500 P:Centre Lathe 1:Slotting
Q:Milling 2: Counter-boring
ME – 2014 R:Grinding 3:Knurling
40. Which one of the following instruments is S:Drilling 4:Dressing
widely used to check and calibrate (A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
geometric features of machine tools during (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
their assembly? (C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(A) Ultrasonic probe (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(B) Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM)
ww
(C) Laser interferometer
(D) Vernier calipers
46. The following four unconventional
machining processes are available in a
shop floor. The most appropriate one to
41.
w. E
The main cutting force acting on a tool
during the turning (orthogonal cutting)
operation of a metal is 400 N. The turning
drill a hole of square cross section of 6 mm
× 6 mm and 25 mm deep is
(A) Abrasive Jet Machining
asy
was performed using 2 mm depth of cut
and 0.1 mm/rev feed rate. The specific
(B) Plasma Arc Machining
(C) Laser Beam Machining
En
cutting pressure (in N/m ) is
(A) 1000 (C) 3000
(D) Electro Discharge Machining
42.
(B) 2000
th
gi (D) 4000
y or’s tool life exponent n is 0.2,

47. A mild steel plate has to be rolled in one pass
nee
such that the final plate thickness is of
the initial thickness, with the entrance speed
and the tool changing time is 1.5 min, then of 10 m/min and roll diameter of 500 mm. If
the tool life(in min) for maximum
production rate is _______ r ing
the plate widens by 2% during rolling, the
exit velocity (in m/min) is ______
43. A metal rod of initial length is subjected

to a drawing process. The length of the rod
48.
.ne
A hole of 20 mm diameter is to be drilled in
a steel block of 40 mm thickness. The
at any instant is given by the expression,
t t where t is the time in
minutes. The true strain rate (in ) at
t
drilling is performed at rotational speed of
400 rpm and feed rate of 0.1 mm/rev. The
required approach and over run of the drill
the end of one minute is ___________ together is equal to the radius of drill. The
drilling time (in minute) is
44. During pure orthogonal turning operation (A) 1.00 (B) 1.25 (C) 1.50 (D) 1.75
of a hollow cylindrical pipe, it is found that
the thickness of the chip produced is 49. A rectangular hole of size 100 mm × 50 mm
0.5 mm. The feed given to the zero degree is to be made on a 5 mm thick sheet of steel
rake angle tool is 0.2 mm/rev. The shear having ultimate tensile strength and shear
strain produced during the operation is strength of 500 MPa and 300 MPa,
_______ respectively. The hole is made by punching
process. Neglecting the effect of clearance,
the punching force (in kN) is
(A) 300 (C) 600
(B) 450 (D) 750
th th th

.
50. The process utilizing mainly thermal twice that in operation 1. The other cutting
energy for removing material is parameters are identical. The ratio of
(A) Ultrasonic Machining maximum uncut chip thicknesses in
(B) Electrochemical Machining operations 1 and 2 is ________
(C) Abrasive Jet Machining
(D) Laser Beam Machining 55. The principle of material removal in
Electrochemical machining is
51. A straight turning operation is carried out (A) Fick's law (C) Kir hho '’s ws
using a single point cutting tool on an AISI (B) Faraday's laws h ’s w
1020 steel rod. The feed is 0.2 mm/rev and
the depth of cut is 0.5 mm. The tool has a 56. Better surface finish is obtained with a
side cutting edge angle of 60°. The uncut large rake angle because
52.
ww
chip thickness (in mm) is _______
A Cutting tool is much harder than the

(A) The area of shear plane decreases
resulting in the decrease in shear
force and cutting force
w. E
work piece. Yet the tool wears out during
the tool-work interaction, because
(B) The tool becomes thinner and the
cutting force is reduced
asy
(A) extra hardness is imparted to the work
piece due to coolant used
(B) oxide layers on the work piece surface
(C) Less heat is accumulated in the
cutting zone
(D) The friction between the chip and the
En
impart extra hardness to it
(C) extra hardness is imparted to the work
tool is less
gi
piece due to severe rate of strain
(D) vibration is induced in the machine
tool
57. In a rolling process, the maximum possible
nee
draft, defined as the difference between
the initial and the final thickness of the
53. Which pair of following statements is

correct for orthogonal cutting using a
r
metal sheet, mainly depends on which pair
ing
of the following parameters?
P: Strain
single-point cutting tool?
P. Reduction in friction angle increases .ne
Q: Strength of the work material
R: Roll diameter
cutting force
Q. Reduction in friction angle decreases
cutting force
R. Reduction in friction angle increases
S: Roll velocity
t
T: Coefficient of friction between roll and
work
(A) Q, S (B) R, T (C) S, T (D) P, R
chip thickness
S. Reduction in friction angle decreases 58. A cast iron block of 200 mm length is being
chip thickness shaped in a shaping machine with a depth
(A) P and R (C) Q and R of cut of 4 mm, feed of 0.25 mm/stroke
(B) P and S (D) Q and S and the tool principal cutting edge angle of
30°. Number of cutting strokes per minute
54. Two separate slab milling operations, 1 is 60. Using specific energy for cutting as
and 2, are performed with identical milling 1.49 J/m , the average power
cutters. The depth of cut in operation 2 is consumption (in watt) is ______
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] 5. [Ans. B]
For making complex shape for higher We know that
strength alloy, electro-chemical h
machining is used because in it no t ot
mechanical force is exerted as well as tool where,
r t
left its impression surfaced.
s utt
utt
2. [Ans. C] Given,
3-2-1 principle is also known as six point
h
location of a three dimensional body. The t ot
ww
bottom is supported against 3 point, the
rear face against 2 point and the side of
h
h t
t ot
ot
w. E
the block rest against single (1) point. So
3-2-1 principle.
6.
h
[Ans. A]
t ot
3.
asy
[Ans. A]
Matching cost= [Matching time × Direct
Large negative rake angle, low shear
angle and high cutting speed.
En
Labour Cost]
So as cutting speed increases, matching 7. [Ans. D]
decreases
gi
time decreases and so matching cost
So as matching cost decreases.

Tool cost
ECM – 104 mm3/min
nee
EDM – 5 x 103 mm3/min
USM – 180 mm3/min
EBM – 10 mm3/min
Tool changing
r
LBM – 5 mm3/min
ing
Cost/piea
cost
Machine cost
8. [Ans. D]
Here, cutting ratio, r
.ne
Cutting
speed
Non- productive cost t
r os
rs
Where, = shear angle
r angle=
t
4. [Ans. B]
No of stroke stro Shear strain = cot +tan 1.65
Time required for 1 stroke
9. [Ans. B]
ro r h t’s th ory
⁄stro Ø λ ,
Cutting time required for 100 stroke
wh r λ r t o
λ
for returning stroke ⁄ µ t λ
total time
th th th

.
10. [Ans. A] 14. [Ans. C]

Total heat generated, λ
Q1 = V = 24000 J/min
V V ortho o
s s
V s or ortho o
V
s
t os λ s s λt
Frictional force, s os
t
F = Fc s os os s
s os
ww
Heat dissipated due to friction,
V
Q2 = 7193.69 J/min
15. [Ans. A]
Computer chip – photochemical
w. E machining
Metal forming dies and mold – electro
discharge machining
11.
asy
[Ans. B]
Given λ
Turbine blade – electro chemical
machining
t En or ortho o
os λ t
utt
s λt
Glass – ultrasonic machining
gi
Uncut chip thickness for turning = s
s
λ
16. [Ans. B]
Here, D = 147 mm, L = 630 mm, f= 0.2
nee
mm/rev, d = 2 mm
Tool life equation, V o st t
h p th ss r t o r
t
t
r
Now, V V
ing
h r t
r os
rs
os
( ) ( )
.ne
t t
s
V
V V
( )
t
12. [Ans. A]
V = 97.07 m / min
Material removal rate Thermal
conductivity of tool 17. [Ans. C]
Tool wear material removal rate V
N = 210.2 rpm
13. [Ans. D]
Matching time, t min.
Cutting force;
V= Cutting velocity t
Specific machining energy = 2.0 J/
V
18. [Ans. C]
Internal gear cutting is performed by
shaping with a pinion cutter.
th th th

.
19. [Ans. D] Now, shear force = shear stress area

Given, F =250 AB width of cut
Also for orthogonal cutting
t s t os t s s
When
s
20. [Ans. B] 0.2

For Iron,
C B
Atomic weight,
V yr
ww
For Metal P,
Atomic weight,
V yr
where AC is incut chip thickness
Now width depth of cut = 3 mm
F= 250 0.426 3
w. E
For alloy,
density, ⁄ ⁄
23.
320 N
[Ans. B]
asy ⁄s
[
os
os
]
En ow y r h t’s th ory
gi
Now, let % of P in alloy= x nee
= 565N
* + = 320 1.77
x V x V
(
(
)
x
)
x
Now
r = tan (
ing
Fv = 565 tan 34 = 381 N
Frictional force F from the figure can be
)
x written as,
.ne
F= FH sin +Fv os = 68+ 381 = 447N
21. [Ans. D]
Taking the engineering of a conventional
lathe, is the back gear arrangement
correct. t
Hence none of the options seems to be
and is the feed gear box(a) and (b) are

then completely wrong.
Now if (c) is true then, if gear ratio of α
is changed the relative velocity of spindle
with respect to load source in changed β-α
and hence pitch is changed. Hence (D) is α
correct. F
22. [Ans. D] N
r os os
t
rs s 24. [Ans. D]
th th th

.
25. [Ans. D] M= molecular weight

During orthogonal machining. v= valency
Shear strain, ot t M.R.R(gm/sec) =
Cutting tool having rake angle
Then ot t
For minimum value of shear strain
= 0.3471
ot t
27. [Ans. A]
os s or to y or’s qu t o
V =C
s os where , V = cutting speed in m/min
os s T = tool life (min)
ww os
os
s
os os
C = constant (Taylors constant)
or
V V
w. E os os ot
or
or ⁄
⁄
asy s t s o
o
o o oth s s
o
En os ot s t
o
y or’s o st t V
|
gi
Therefore is minimum at
Therefore minimum shear strain is nee √
28. [Ans. C]
given by
ot t r ing
When cutting speed is halved
60 ×
26. [Ans. A]
(or) ( )
.ne
We know, R = l/A
where, = resistivity
= special resistance of electrolyte
(or)
(or)
% change in tool life =
t
Ω cm
R = resistance of electrolyte between =
electrodes =3× = 300 %
l = inter electrode gap = 0.2 mm = 0.02 cm
A = electrodes cross- section area 29. [Ans. A]
V ( )
Ω V
Current, I = V/R
V ( )
= 12/0.01 V
= 1200A
Faraday law of electricity, E = M/v
( ) ( )
where, E = equivalent weight
V
th th th

.
30. [Ans. A]
P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1 h r str r t
V os
31. [Ans. B] os t
os
t os
r 0104 /sec
t
r os os 35. [Ans. D]
t
r s os
t t r r ov r t
32.
ww
[Ans. D]
In abrasive jet machining the variation is
as shown 36. [Ans. B]
⁄s
w. E
MRR
Carbide
HSS
asy
En NTD
MRR=Metal removal rate Equate tool life from both equation after
eliminating cutting speed V
33. [Ans. A] gi
NTD= Nozzle tip distance
nee
Substitute in one of equation,
Drill bit
x = 4.5
37.
V
r
[Ans. C] ing
x
V .ne
t
7.5
15 ou s
Work piece
st ov r
r t
p
38. [Ans. A]
st ov r
=35.1 sec
34. [Ans. C]
r=0.4
t
V ⁄s
t τ
r os
t
rs
th th th

.
It is observed that cutting force is t t

̇ ( )
perpendicular to the friction force acting t t t t
at the chip-tool interface then = 0.
̇
sh r or t
= orthogonal rake angle
sh r τ r to 44. [Ans. *] Range 2.8 to 3.0
t ⁄r v
r os
39. [Ans. B] rs
From the previously described diagram
we can get the relation
N= os s y ot t
ww
N – normal force acting at the chip – tool
interface y
ot t
40. w. E
[Ans. C]
Ultrasonic probe - Used a sensor which
45. [Ans. C]
P: Centre Lathe – knurling (diamond
asy
generates a constant signal and also
detect return signals
shape is formed on the cylindrical work
piece)
En
Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM) -
Used to measure physical geometrical
Q: Milling – slotting (this operation
performed only in milling machine)
gi
characteristics of an object
Laser interferometer - Used to check and
calibrate geometric features
R: Grinding – Dressing (Dressing is a
procedure to remove a layer of abrasive
nee
from the surface of
grinding wheel)
Vernier calipers – used to measure
dimension of an object.
r
S: Drilling – Counter boring (is like an
ing
enlarging the dia of already drilled hole)
41. [Ans. B]
r v
46. [Ans. D]
The most appropriate choice is EDM as by .ne
p utt r y pr su
⁄
t taking a square tool it can be
done with lesser time and loss. t
47. [Ans. *] Range 14.6 to 14.8
42. [Ans. *] Range 5.9 to 6.1
t t
n= 0.2, T=1.5 min
Tool life for maximum production
[( ) ] Volume flow rate should be equal
t w v t w v
( ) t w t w v
43. [Ans. *] Range 0.9 to 1.1 v
ru st r t
th th th

.
48. [Ans. B] With increase in shear angle,

t r cutting force decreases (Q)
t chip thickness decreases (S)
So, Q and S
54. [Ans. *]Range 0.70 to 0.72

49. [Ans. B] Max. uncut chip thickness
t √
t F=Feed , Z=Number of teeth

N= rotational speed
ww d= depth of cut,
D= cutter dia
t
w. E so
t
√ √
asy
Force = τ
55. [Ans. B]
The principle of material removal in ECM
τ
En t s r y’s ws
50. [Ans. D]
gi 56. [Ans. A]
As rake angle increase, lip angle
nee
decreases, shear plane area decreases and
hence shear force and cutting force
Ultrasonic machining and Abrasive jet
machining utilizing mechanical energy.
Electrochemical machining utilizing 57.
r
reduced.
[Ans. B] ing
electrochemical energy
Laser Beam machining utilizing thermal
Maximum possible draft
.ne h
51.
energy .
[Ans. *] Range 0.08 to 0.12

work
R = Roll radius
t
coefficient of friction between roll and
Given r v,
58. [Ans. *]Range 295 to 305
Material removal rate,
t s
s
t s
s
52. [Ans. C] Average power consumption,
Extra hardness is imparted to work piece s
due to server rate of strain tt
53. [Ans. D]
Reduction in friction angle increases
shear angle.
th th th

.
Metrology and Inspection

ME – 2005
1. In order to have interference fit, it is
essential that the lower limit of the shaft
Drill
should be spindle
(A) greater than the upper limit of the
P
hole mandrel
sensor
(B) lesser then the upper limit of the
Q
hole
(C) greater than the lower limit of the
hole Drill table
(D) lesser then the lower limit of the hole
2.
ww
ME – 2006
A ring gauges is used to measure
If Rp = RQ> 0, which one of the following
would be consistent with the
w. E
(A) outside diameter but not roundness
(B) roundness but not outside diameter
(C) both outside diameter and
observation?
(A) The drill spindle rotational axis is
asy
roundness
(D) only external threads
coincident with the drill spindle
taper hole axis
(B) The drill spindle rotational axis
ME – 2007
En intersects the drill spindle taper hole
axis at point P
3.
gi
A hole is specified as mm. The
mating shaft has a clearance fit with
minimum clearance of 0.01 mm. The
tolerance on the shaft is 0.04 mm. The
(C) The drill spindle rotational axis is
nee parallel to the drill spindle taper hole

axis
maximum clearance in mm between the
hole and the shaft is
(A) 0.04 (C) 0.10
r
(D) The drill spindle rotational axis
ing
intersects the drill spindle taper hole
axis at point Q.
(B) 0.05 (D) 0.11
ME – 2009
.ne
ME – 2008
4. A displacement sensor (a dial indicator)
measures the lateral displacement of a
mandrel mounted on the taper hole inside
5.
Use the following data: t

What are the upper and lower limits of
the shaft represented by 60 ?
Diameter 60 lies in the diameter step of

a drill spindle. The mandrel axis is an 50 -80mm.
extension of the drill spindle taper hole Fundamental tolerance unit,
axis and the protruding portion of the i = in m = 0.45 ⁄ , where D
mandrel surface is perfectly cylindrical. is the representative size in mm;
Measurements are taken with the sensor Tolerance value for IT8 = 25i.
placed at two positions P and Q as shown u t v t o or ‘ ’
in figure. The readings are recorded as Rx shaft = 5.5
= maximum deflection minus minimum (A) Lower limit = 59.924mm, Upper
deflection, corresponding to sensor Limit = 59.970mm
position at X, over one rotation. (B) Lower limit = 59.954mm, Upper
Limit = 60.000mm
(C) Lower limit = 59.970mm, Upper
Limit = 60.016mm
(D) Lower limit = 60.00mm, Upper Limit
= 60.046mm
th th th

.
ME – 2010 ME – 2013
6. A taper hole is inspected using a CMM, 10. Cylindrical pins of mm diameter
with a probe of 2 mm diameter. At a are electroplated in a shop. Thickness of
height, Z = 10 mm from the bottom, 5 the plating is micron. Neglecting
points are touched and a diameter of gauge tolerances, the size of the GO gage
circle (not compensated for probe size) is in mm to inspect the plated components
obtained as 20 mm. Similarly, a 40 mm is
diameter is obtained at a height Z = 40 (A) 25.042 (C) 25.074
mm. The smaller diameter (in mm) of (B) 25.052 (D) 25.084
hole at Z = 0 is
11. A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread
angle is inspected for its pitch
Z = 40 diameter using 3 – wire method. The
ww diameter of the best size wire in mm is

(A) 0.866
(B) 1.000
(C) 1.154
(D) 2.000
w. E
Z = 20
ME – 2014
12. For the given assembly: 25 H7/g8, match
asy
Z=0
(A) 13.334 (C) 15.442

Group A with Group B
Group A Group B
En
(B) 15.334 (D) 15.542 P. H
Q. IT8
R. IT7
I. Shaft Type
II. Hole Type
III. Hole Tolerance Grade
7. sh t h s
respective givalues
so ∅
of
deviation and tolerance are
(A) 0.025, ±0.008
. The
fundamental
S. g
nee
IV. Shaft Tolerance Grade
(A) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II
(B) P-I, Q-IV, R-III, S-II
(C) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
(B) 0.025, 0.016
(C) 0.009, ± 0.008
(D) 0.009, 0.016
13.
r ing
(D) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
The flatness of a machine bed can be
ME – 2011
measured using
(A) Vernier calipers .ne
8. A hole is of dimension mm. The
corresponding shaft is of dimension
mm. The resulting assembly has
(B) Auto collimator
(C) Height gauge
oo r’s ros opt
(A) loose running fit 14. The diameter of a recessed ring was
(B) close running fit measured by using two spherical balls of
(C) transition fit diameter mmand mm as
(D) interference fit shown in the figure.
ME – 2012
9. In an interchangeable assemble, shafts of
size mm mate with holes of
size mm. The maximum
interference (in microns) in the assembly Recessed
is ring
t r
(A) 40 (C) 20
(B) 30 (D) 10
th th th

.
The distance and condition, the dimension (in mm) of the

. The diameter (D, in, mm) GO plug gauge as per the unilateral
of the ring gauge is _______________ tolerance system is
(A)
15. A GO-No GO plug gauge is to be designed
for measuring a hole of nominal diameter (B)
25 mm with a hole tolerance of ± 0.015 (C)
mm. Considering 10% of work tolerance
(D)
to be the gauge tolerance and no wear

1.
ww
[Ans. A]
For making interference fit, seeing the
figure it is essential that lower limit of
5. [Ans. A]
D=√ = 63.25 mm
i = 0.45 (D)1/3 + 0.001Dµm
w. E
shaft should be greater than upper limit
of hole.
= 1.856 × m=
Tolerance = 25i = 46.4 ×
m
asyUpper limit of Shaft

Fundamental deviation
δ (5.5) D 0.41
En = 30.113 × 10-6
= 0.030 mm (absolute)
High limit = Basic size – Fundamental
gi
Lower limit of shaft
Upper limit of hole
deviation
nee
= 60 – 0.030 = 59.97
Lower limit = High limit – Tolerance
= 59.77 – 0.0464 = 59.924mm
6. r
[Ans. A]
Diameter d = 2 mm. ing
Lower limit of hole
.ne
2.
3.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. C]
Minimum clearance
Z=
40
Z=
∅=
40
∅=
t
= Minimum hole size – Maximum shaft size 20 20
x u sh t s z Z=0
= 40.00 0.01 = 39.99 mm
Tolerance on shaft= 0.04mm x
Minimum shaft size= 39.99 – 0.04 = 39.95
Maximum clearance
= Maximum hole size – Minimum shaft size
= 40.05 39.95
10
= 0.10
4. [Ans. C] x
t
Equal deflection in both sensors means
x
eccentricity parallel to the axis.
x
th th th

.
o t z 13. [Ans. B]
Auto collimator – flatness of machine bed
like lathe
Z= 40 B 40mm
14. [Ans. *] Range 92 to 94
30
20mm 40
Z= 10
A x
10
Z=0 h suppos
7. [Ans. D]
ww
Tolerance = (35 – 0.009) – (35 – 0.025)
= 0.016
Fundamental deviation is the deviation
H=
h
h h
8.
w. E
close to zero line = 0.009,
[Ans. C]
so
h
h
9. asy
Transition fit.
[Ans. C]
h h
h
En
Size of shaft = mm
gi
Size of hole =
+0.040
mm
Hole
+0.030
nee √
√
+0.020
25 mm
Shaft
Maximum interference
0.010 r ing
=0.040 15. [Ans. D]
.ne
10. [Ans. D]
Maximum thickness of plating = 0.03 +
0.002=0.032 mm
Size of Go gauge = 25.02+0.032 = 25.084mm Given
o
t u
Work tolerance = 0.015 – (0.015)

11. [Ans. C] Given gauge tolerance = 10% of work
For thr st w r s v y tolerance
It is asked in unilateral tolerance system
ow r to u
12. [Ans. D]
P. H Hole Type (this symbol made
for hole type shafts)
Q. IT8 Represent shaft tolerance
R. IT7 Represents cut hole tolerance
S. g Shaft Type (small letter used for
shaft).
th th th

.
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)
ME – 2005 ME – 2008
1. The tool of an NC machine has to move Statement for Linked Answer Questions 5
along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10, 10) and 6:
while performing an operation. The In the feed drive of a Point – to – point
center of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one open loop CNC drive, a stepper motor
of the following NC tool path commands rotating at 200 steps/rev drives a table
performs the above mentioned through a gear box and lead screw – nut
operation? mechanism (pitch = 4mm, number of
(A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 starts =1).
(B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
ww
(C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
(D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
The gear ratio = (
given by U = . The stepper motor (driven

) is
2. w. E
Which among the NC operations given
below are continuous path operations?
by voltage pulses from a pulse generator)
executes 1 step/ pulse of the pulse
generator. The frequency of the pulse
asy
Arc Welding (AW) Milling (M)
Drilling (D) Punching in Sheet
train from the pulse generator is f =
10,000 pulses per minute.
En
Laser Cutting of
Metal (P)
Spot Welding
Pulse
Generator
f
Steeper
motor
Gear
Box
Table
Nut
gi
Sheet Metal (LC)
(A) AW, LC and M
(B) AW, D, LC and M
(SW)
5.
nee
The Basic Length Unit (BLU), i.e. , the
Lead
screw
(C) D, LC, P and SW table movement corresponding to 1 pulse

(D) D, LC and SW
r
(A) 0.5 microns
(B) 5 microns
ing
of the pulse generator, is
ME – 2006
3. NC contouring is an example of (C) 50 microns
(D) 500 microns .ne
(A) continuous path positioning
(B) point-to-point positioning
(C) absolute positioning
(D) incremental positioning
6. t
A customer insists on a modification to
change the BLU the CNC drive to 10
microns without changing the table
ME – 2007 speed. The modification can be
4. Which type of motor is NOT used in axis accomplished by
or spindle drives of CNC machine tools? (A) changing U to and reducing f to
(A) induction motor (B) changing U to and increasing f to 2f
(B) dc servo motor
(C) changing U to and keeping f
(C) stepper motor
(D) linear servo motor unchanged
(D) keeping U unchanged and increasing
f to 2f.
th th th

.
7. or r t oo ’s sur w ME – 2012
require 11. A CNC vertical milling machine has to cut
(A) a set of grid points on the surface a straight slot of 10 mm width and 2 mm
(B) a set of grid control points depth by a cutter of 10 mm diameter
(C) four bounding curves defining the between points (0,0) and (100, 100) on
surface the XY plane (dimensions in mm). The
(D) two bounding curves and a set of feed rate used for milling is 50 mm/min.
grid control points Milling time for the slot (in seconds) is
(A) 0 (C) 180
ME – 2009 (B) 170 (D) 240
8. Match the following:
ME – 2014
NC Code Definition
wwP. M05 1. Absolute coordinate

system
12. For machining a rectangular island
represented by coordinates P(0,0),
Q(100,0), R(100,50) and S(0,50) on a
w. E
Q. G01
R. G04
S. G90
2. Dwell
3. Spindle stop
4. Linear interpolation
casting using CNC milling machine, an end
mill with a diameter of 16 mm is used.
The trajectory of the cutter center to
(A)
(B) asy 2
machine the island PQRS is
(A) ( 8, 8), (108, 8), (108, 58),
(C)
(D)
En ( 8,58) , ( 8, 8)
(B) (8,8), (94,8), (94,44), (8,44), (8,8)
9.
gi
Which of the following is the correct data
structure for solid models?
(A) solid part faces edges vertices
(C) ( 8,8), (94,0), (94,44), (8,44),
nee( 8,8)
(D) (0,0), (100,0), (100,50), (50,0), (0,0)
(B) solid part edges faces vertices

(C) vertices
parts
edges faces solid
13.
r
A robot arm PQ with end coordinates
ing
P(0,0) and Q(2,5) rotates counter
clockwise about P in the XY plane by 90°.
(D) vertices faces edges solid
parts Q is .ne
The new coordinate pair of the end point
ME – 2010
10. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91
14.
t
For the CNC part programming, match
X … r r to
Group A with Group B:
(A) circular interpolation in
Group A Group B
counterclockwise direction and
P: circular interpolation, I: G02
incremental dimension
counter clock wise
(B) circular interpolation in
Q: dwell II: G03
counterclockwise direction and
absolute dimension R: circular interpolation, III: G04
(C) circular interpolation in clockwise clock wise
direction and incremental dimension S: point to point countering IV: G00
(D) circular interpolation in clockwise (A) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV
direction and absolute dimension (B) P-I, Q-III, R-II, S-IV
(C) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
(D) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV
th th th

.
1. [Ans. D] 10. [Ans. C]
2. [Ans. A] 11. [Ans. B]

to
3. [Ans. A] =141.42mm
NC contouring is an example of /mm
continuous path of positioning. rt
s
4. [Ans. A]
12. [Ans. A]
5.
ww
[Ans. B] The best option is A because we have to
consider the dimension of cutting tool
6.
w. E
[Ans. A]
Stepper motor 200 steps /rev = 200
pulses/ rev
also we have to take co-ordinate of
cutting tool from (-8,-8).
asy
Pitch = 4mm, no. of start =1, Gear ratio =
En
F=10,000 pulses / mim
pu s s r v o otor rev of
lead screw
gi r st 13. nee
[Ans. B]
os s X
1 pulse =
BLU ------- answer B
Feed = pu s /min =
= 5microns =
[s
r X ing
os ][ ]
/min
For changing BLU = 10 micron
[ ]
.ne
= 0.01 mm
GEAR ratio (U) has to be reduced to ½
pu s s /min
X X
X
X
s
os
t os
s
pu s s
s w
= 5000
So F has to be reduced to F/2.
14. [Ans. A]
G00 – Print to point movement
7. [Ans. B]
G01 – Liner interpolation
G02 – Circular interpolation clock wise
8. [Ans. C]
G03 – Circular Interpolation counter clock
wise
9. [Ans. C]
G04 – dwell for a specific time
Correct data structure for solid models is
given by
vertices edges faces solid parts
th th th

.
GATE QUESTION BANK Industrial Engineering
Production Planning and control
ME – 2005 ME – 2006
1. The distribution of lead-time demand for 5. In an MRP system, component demand is:
an item is as follows: (A) forecasted
Lead time demand Probability (B) established by the master production
80 0.20 schedule
100 0.25 (C) calculated by the MRP system from
120 0.30 the master production schedule
140 0.25 (D) ignored
The re-order level is 1.25 times the
expected value of the lead-time demand. ME – 2008
ww
The service level is
(A) 25% (C) 75%
6. A moving average system is used for
forecasting weekly demand. t and
2.
w. E
(B) 50% (D) 100%
A welding operation is time-studied

t are sequences of forecasts with
parameters m and m , respectively,
where m and m (m > m ) denote the
asy
during which an operator was pace-rated
as 120%. The operator took, on an
number of weeks over which the moving
averages are taken. The actual demand
En
average, 8 minutes for producing the
weld-joint. If a total of 10% allowances
shows a step increase from to at a
certain time. Subsequently,
gi
are allowed for this operation, the
expected standard production rate of the
weld-joint (in units per 8 hour day) is
(A) 45 (C) 55
(A) neither F1(t) nor F2(t) will catch up
neewith the value d2

(B) both sequences F1(t) and F2(t) will
reach d2 in the same period
3.
(B) 50 (D) 60
The sales of a product during the last four

r ing
(C) F1(t) will attain the value d2 before
F2(t)
(D) F2(t) will attain the value d2 before
years were 860, 880, 870 and 890 units.
The forecast for the fourth year was 876
F1(t)
.ne
units. If the forecast for the fifth year,
using simple exponential smoothing, is
equal to the forecast using a three period
ME – 2009
7.
t
Which of the following forecasting
methods takes a fraction of forecast error
moving average, the value of the into account for the next period forecast?
exponential smoothing constant is (A) simple average method
(A) ⁄ (C) ⁄ (B) moving average method
(B) ⁄ (D) ⁄ (C) weighted moving average method
(D) exponential smoothening method
4. An assembly activity is represented on a
Operation Process Chart by the symbol ME – 2010
(A) (C) D 8. Vehicle manufacturing assembly line is an
(B) A (D) O example of
(A) product layout (C) manual layout
(B) process layout (D) fixed layout
th th th

.
9. The demand and forecast for February ME – 2014

are 12000 and 10275, respectively. Using 11. In exponential smoothening method,
single exponential smoothening method which one of the following is true?
(smoothening coefficient = 0.25), forecast (A) 0 ≤ ≤ an high value of is use
for the month of March is for stable demand
(A) 431 (C) 10706 (B) 0 ≤ ≤ an high value of is use
(B) 9587 (D) 11000 for unstable demand
(C) ≥ an high value of is use for
ME – 2012 stable demand
10. Which one of the following is NOT a (D) ≤ 0 an high value of is use for
decision taken during the aggregate unstable demand
production planning stage?
ww(A) Scheduling of machines

(B) Amount of labour to be committed
12. The actual sales of a product in different
months of a particular year are given
below:
w. E
(C) Rate at which production should
happen
(D) Inventory to be carried forward
September 180
October 280
asy November 250

December 190
January 240
En February ?
The forecast of the sales, using the 4-
gi month moving average method, for the
nee
month of February is _______

r ing
1. [Ans. C]
Expected value of lead time demand
Z 0
Service level = 0.74≈
.ne%
X
X
0 0 0
0
00
0
0 0
2. [Ans. A]
Rating factor = 1.2
t
Normal time = 1.2 ×8 = 9.6 minute
Reorder level
= 140 Standard time = 9.6 + 9.6 ×
√ 0 00 0 0 = 10.56 minute/piece
√ Total time available = 8×60 minute
√ 0 So, production rate =
≈ wel joint
ROL
3. [Ans. C]
0 0
X
Reorder level = X Z
0
4. [Ans. D]
th th th

.
5. [Ans. C] Responsibility and stability

In a MRP system, component demand is
calculated by the MRP system from the
master Production Schedule. eman
fore ast
6. [Ans. D]
Since (m2 < m1), weightage of the latest
demand would be more in F2 (t)
Hence it will attain the actual value
earlier. time
ta le
7. [Ans. D] esponsiveness
8. ww
[Ans. A]
And we know that
i e um er of o servation is more in
9.
w. E
[Ans. C]
asy
Smoothed average forecast
period t.
Previous Period forecast
for
Responsiveness indicates that forecast
have a fluctuating or swing pattern used
En
Smoothing Constant
Previous Period demand
for new product and for this value of n is
kept low stability means that forecast
0
= 10706.5 gi
0 25 (12000-10275)
12.
pattern is level or flat, so best option is B.
nee
month moving average
10.
11.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. B]
r0 0 0
ing 0
Fore cast of Sale, For month of February

We know that
= 240
.ne
Where N = number of observation
t
th th th

.
Inventory Control
ME – 2006 4. In a machine shop, pins of 15 mm

1. Consider the following data for an item. diameter are produced at a rate of 1000
Price quoted by a supplier per month and the same is consumed at a
Order quantity Unit price rate of 500 per month.
(units) (Rs.) The production and consumption
< 500 10 continue simultaneously till the maximum
≥ 500 9 inventory is reached. Then inventory is
allowed to reduced to zero due to
Annual demand: 2500 units per year
consumption. The lost size of production
Ordering cost: Rs.100 per order
is 1000. If backlog is not allowed, the
ww
Inventory holding rate: 25% of unit price.
The optimum order quantity (in units) is:
(A) 447 (C) 500
maximum inventory level is
(A) 400 (C) 600
2.
w. E
(B) 471 (D) ≥600
A manufacturing shop processes sheet

5.
(B) 500 (D) 700
The maximum level of inventory of an
asy
metal jobs, wherein each job must pass
through two machines (M1 and M2, in
item is 100 and it is achieved with infinite
replenishment rate. The inventory
En
that order). The processing time
(in hours) for these jobs is:
becomes zero over one and half month
due to consumption at a uniform rate.
M1
gi
Machine Jobs
P Q
15 32 8
R S T U
27 11 16
This cycle continues throughout the year.
Ordering cost is Rs. 100 per order and
nee
inventory carrying cost is Rs. 10 per item
per month. Annual cost (in Rs.) of the
M2 6 19 13 20 14 7
The optimal make-span (in hours) of the
shop is:
r
plan, neglecting material cost, is
(A) 800
(B) 2800 ing (C) 4800
(D) 6800
(A) 120
(B) 115
(C) 109
(D) 79 6. .ne
Capacities of production of an item over 3
ME – 2007
3. The net requirements of an item over 5
t
consecutive months in regular time are
100, 100 and 80 and in overtime are
20, 20 and 40. The demands over those 3
consecutive weeks are 50 – 0 – 15 – 20 – 20. months are 90, 130 and 110. The cost of
The inventory carrying cost and ordering production in regular time and overtime
cost are Re. 1 per item per week and Rs. 100 are respectively Rs. 20 per item and
per order respectively. Starting inventory is Rs. 24 per item. Inventory carrying cost is
zero Use “Least Unit Cost Te hnique “for Rs. 2 per item per month. The levels of
developing the plan. The cost of the plan (in starting and final inventory are nil.
Rs.) is Backorder is not permitted. For minimum
(A) 200 (C) 255 cost of plan, the level of planned
(B) 250 (D) 260 production in overtime in the third month
is
(A) 40 (C) 20
(B) 30 (D) 0
th th th

.
ME – 2008 ME – 2009
7. The product structure of an assembly P is 9. A company uses 2555 units of an item
shown in the figure. annually. Delivery lead time is 8 days. The
Estimated demand for end product P is as recorder point (in number of units) to
follows achieve optimum inventory is
week Demand (A) 7 (C) 56
1 1000 (B) 8 (D) 60
2 1000
3 1000 ME – 2010
4 1000
10. Annual demand for window frames is
5 1200
10000. Each frame costs Rs. 200 and
6 1200
Ignore lead times for assembly and sub- ordering cost is Rs. 300 per order.
ww
assembly. Production capacity (per week)
for component R is the bottleneck
Inventory holding cost is Rs. 40 per frame
per year. The supplier is willing to offer
2% discount if the order quantity is 1000
w. E
operation. Starting with zero inventory,
the smallest capacity that will ensure a
feasible production plan up to week 6 is
or more, and 4% if order quantity is 2000
or more. If the total cost is to be
asy P
minimized, the retailer should
(A) order 200 frames every time
(B) accept 2% discount
En Assembly
(C) accept 4% discount
gi
Sub-Assembly
Q R
11.
(D) order Economic Order Quantity
nee
Little’s law is a relationship between
(A) stock level and lead time in an
S T
r inventory system
ing
(B) waiting time and length of the queue
in a queuing system
(A) 1000
(B) 1200
(C) 2200
(D) 2400
.ne
(C) number of machines and job due
dates in a scheduling problem
8. A set of 5 jobs is to be processed on a

single machine. The processing time
(in days) table below. The holding cost for
t
(D) uncertainty in the activity time and
project completion time
ME – 2011
each job is Rs. K per day
12. The word kanban is most appropriately
Job Processing Time
associated with
P 5 (A) economic order quantity
Q 2
(B) just – in – time production
R 3
(C) capacity planning
S 2
(D) product design
T 1
A schedule that minimizes the total
inventory cost is ME – 2013
(A) T – S – Q – R – P 13. Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a
(B) P – R – S – Q – T rate of 50 per hr and tickets are issued in
(C) T – R – S – Q – P the order of their arrival. The average
(D) P – Q – R – S – T time taken for issuing a ticket is 1 min.
th th th

.
Assuming that customer arrivals form a Process Fixed Cost Variable cost per
poisson process and service times are (in Rs.) piece in (in Rs.)
exponential, the average waiting time in I 20 3
queue in min is II 50 1
(A) 3 (C) 5 III 40 2
(B) 4 (D) 6 IV 10 4
(A) I (C) III
14. In simple exponential smoothing forecasting, (B) II (D) IV
to give higher weightage to recent demand
information, the smoothing constant must be 19. Consider the following data with
close to reference to elementary deterministic
(A) – 1 (C) 0.5 economic order quantity model
15.
ww
(B) Zero (D) 1.0
In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D

Annual demand of an item
Unit price of the item (in Rs.)
Inventory carrying cost per 1.5
100000
10
w. E
point P(5,10) is to be obtained about a
line which passes through the origin and
makes an angle of counter clockwise
unit per year (in Rs.)
Unit order cost (in Rs.) 30
asy
with the X – axis. The coordinates of the
transformed point will be
The total number of economic orders per
year to meet the annual demand is ______
En
(A) (7.5,5)
(B) (10, 5)
(C) (7.5, - 5 )
(D) (10, - 5)
20. A manufacturer can produce 12000
bearing per day. The manufacturer
ME – 2014 gi
16. The jobs arrive at a facility, for service, in
received an order of 8000 bearing per day
nee
from a customer. The cost of holding a
bearing in stock in stock is Rs.0.20 per
a random manner. The probability
distribution of number of arrivals of jobs
in a fixed time interval is r
month. Setup cost per production run is
ing
Rs. 500. Assuming 300 working days in a
year, the frequency of production run
(A) Normal
(B) Poisson
(C) Erlang
(D) Beta
should be
(A) 4.5 days .ne
(C) 6.8 days
17. Jobs arrive at a facility at an average rate

of 5 in an 8 hour shift. The arrival of the
jobs follows Poisson distribution. The
21.
(B) 4.5 months
t
(D) 6.8 months
Demand during lead time with associated

probabilities is shown below:
average service time of a job on the Demand Probability
facility is 40 minutes. The service time 50 0.15
follows exponential distribution. Idle time 70 0.14
(in hours) at the facility per shift will be 75 0.21
⁄ C ⁄ 80 0.20
85 0.30
⁄ 0⁄
Expected demand during lead time is ____
18. A component can be produced by any of 22. At a work station, 5 jobs arrive every
the four processes I, II, III and IV. The minute. The mean time spent on each job
fixed cost and the variable cost for each of in the work station is 1/8 minute. The
the processes are listed below. The most mean steady state number of jobs in the
economical process for producing a batch system is _______
of 100 pieces is
th th th

.

1. [Ans. C] 3. [Ans. B]
Case I: Let EOQ is less than 500 Weeks Qty Carrying Cost
C 0 0 1 50 0
1 2 50 0
√ √ n
1 3 65 30
Case II: Let EOQ is greater than 500 1 4 85 90
C 0 1 5 105 170
4 20 0
√ =√ 471.40
1 5 40 20
which is against the assumption Order Total Limit Cost
ww
When price break occurs
at Q = 447.21
Cost
100
100
Cost
100
100
2
2
w. E at Q = 500 100
100
130
190
2
← unit ost
asy TIC = 1118.03

100
100
100
270
100
120
2.57
5
← Least ost
En TIC = 1062.5
Weeks 1 2 3 4 5
TC gi
TIC at Q = 447.21
C
0 0
C
00
Demand
Order Qty 65
nee
Entering
inventory
50
15
0
0
15
15
0
0
20
40
20
20
0
0
= 1118.03
TIC at Q = 500
TIC = (average inventory) (unit
r
Carrying
cost
15
Order cost 100 0

15 0
ing
0
20
100
0
0
inventory cost) + (No. of order per
year) (cost of order)
Total 115 115 130 130 250
Total ost for the plan s .ne
0
250
=
C C
00
4. [Ans. B]
t p r
t
Hence, quantity to be ordered is 500. p r
p
2. [Ans. B] 000 00 = 500 units
Using Johnson’s algorithm
M1 M2
IN OUT IN OUT
R 0 8 8 21
T 8 19 21 35
S 19 46 46 66
p r
Q 46 78 78 97
U 78 94 97 104 t
P 94 109 109 115
So optimum make – span = 115
th th th

.
5. [Ans. D] 9. [Ans. C]
Maximum inventory 00
Inventory cycle = 1.5 months
um er of y les require per year 2555 Reorder point
unit
month
y les x
months 8
Ordinary cost = 8 × 100 = Rs 800 365 days
Average inventory per cycle = 100/2 = 50
Inventory carrying cost = Rs.10 per item
per month
or x= 56 units
0 per item percycle
Alternately
Total Inventory carrying cost
Reorder point = Safety stock + (delivery
ww
= 50 × 8 × 15 = Rs. 6000
Total ost 00 6000 = 6800 lead time )
6.
w. E
[Ans. B]
For minimum total cost, the entire regular
time production capacity has to be used 10. [Ans. C]
0 ( )
asy
Hence total over time capacity required
0 0 0 00 00 0
Total = purchase cost + holding cost +
ordering cost
= 50
En
20 overtime units will be used up in the
It is a case of inventory with price breaks.
√ √
gi
first 2 months hence 30 overtime units
are needed to fulfill the 3rd month
demand
= 387 units
nee
For Q = 387
Since carrying costs are there, it is T C C C
obvious that to minimize costs, these 30
units shoul e pro u e is month ‘ ’
using overtime capacity.
r 0000
= Rs. 2015492 ing 00 0 00
7. [Ans. C]
For Q = 1000
T C 0000 .ne
00 0
The M.R.P. for R is given by
Week Demand
1 2000
Inventory
P – 2000
0 0 00
= Rs.1983000
For Q = 2000.
t
2 2000 2P – 4000 000
3 2000 3P – 6000 0000 00 0
4 2000 4P – 8000
0 00
5 2400 5P – 10400
00
6 2400 6P – 12800
If 6P 12800 ≥ 0 then the capacity is ept % is ount
feasible
11. [Ans. B]
Minimization, 6P = 12800
Little’s Law is a relationship etween
P 2200
L and W (also L &W )
8. [Ans. A] L W
To minimize the total inventory cost, i.e. L W
the holding cost, the job with the least L – Expected no.of customers in System.
processing time should be done first. W Expected waiting time in system.
th th th

.
L Expected no. of customers in queue C Unit order cost = 30,

W Expected Waiting time in queue.
√
12. [Ans. B]
√ 000
13. [Ans. C]
No. of orders 0
14. [Ans. D]
20. [Ans. C]
15. [Ans. B] Manufacturer can produce 12,000
y bearings /day
(5, 10)
Received order from a customer is 8000
y↔ bearings/day
ww 45
x
(10, 5)
Carrying cost is Rs.0.20/month
s year
Working days are 300/year
w. E 0 Set up cost is Rs. 500/production

Optimal production size is,
16.
asy
[Ans. B]
Arrival pattern of customers: Although
arrival might follow any pattern the
√ √
Consideration 366 days/years
En
frequency employed assumption which D = 000
000
000
gi
support many real world situation is that
arrivals are poison distribution arrival is
random, and random arrival is best
es ri e y oisson’s istri ution
U
nee
00
√
0
17. [Ans. B]
Average rate of providing facility 5 in 8 hrs.
r0
ing
Frequency of the production run,
The average service time = 40 minute
So total time required to provide service 0
p
.ne
= 0
00 mins
= 3.33 hrs.
Ideal time = 8 3.33 = 4.667
000
days
days t
21. [Ans. *]Range 74 to 75
Expected demand during lead time
0 0 0 0 0
18. [Ans. B] 0 0 0
Cost 0 00 0
Cost 0 00 0
Cost 0 00 0 22. [Ans. *]Range 1.62 to 1.70
Cost 0 00 0 L
Mean steady state number of jobs in the
19. [Ans. *] Range 49 to 51
system L
Given, D = Total demand = 100000
⁄
C Inventory carrying cost per unit per
year = 1.5
L
th th th

.
Operations Research
ME – 2005 The number of activities that need to be

Statement for Linked Answer Questions crashed to reduce the project duration by 1
1 & 2: day is
Consider a linear programming problem (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6
with two variables and two constraints.
5. A component can be produced by any of
The objective function is: Maximize
the four processes I, II, III and IV. Process
X +X . The corner points of the feasible
I has a fixed cost of Rs.20 and variable
region are (0, 0), (0, 2), (2, 0) & ( ). cost of Rs. 3 per piece. Process II has a
fixed cost of Rs. 50 and variable cost of Re.
1. If an additional constraint X + X ≤ 5 is
ww
added, the optimal solution is
(A) ( ) (C) ( )
1 per piece. Process III has a fixed cost of
Rs. 40 and variable cost of Rs. 2 per piece.
Process IV has a fixed cost of Rs.10 and
w. E
(B) ( ) (D) (5,0) variable cost of Rs. 4 per piece. If the
company wishes to produce 100 pieces of
2.
asy
Let Y and Y be the decision variables of
the dual and v and v be the slack variables
of the dual of the given linear programming
the component, from economic point of
view it should choose
(A) Process I (C) Process III
En
problem. The optimum dual variables are
(A) Y and Y (C) Y and v
(B) Process II (D) Process IV
3.
(B) Y and v
gi (D) v and v
A company has two factories S1, S2 and two

6. Consider a single server queuing model
nee
with Poisson arrivals ( = 4 / hour) and
exponential service ( = 4 / hour). The
warehouses D1, D2. The supplies from S1 number in the system is restricted to a
and S2 are 50 and 40 units respectively.
Warehouse D1 requires a minimum of 20 r ing
maximum of 10. The probability that a
person who comes in leaves without
units and a maximum of 40 units.
Warehouse D2 requires a minimum of 20
joining the queue is
(A) ⁄
(B) ⁄ 0
.ne
(C) ⁄
(D) ⁄
units and, over and above, it can take as
much as can be supplied. A balanced
transportation problem is to be formulated
for the above situation. The number of
ME – 2006 t
supply points, the number of demand 7 & 8:
points, and the total supply (or total Consider a PERT network for a project
demand) in the balanced transportation involving six tasks (a to f).
problem respectively are Task Predecessor Expected Variance of
(A) 2, 4, 90 (C) 3, 4, 90 task time the task time
(B) 2, 4, 110 (D) 3, 4, 110 (in days) (in ays )
a - 30 25
4. A project has six activities (A to F) with b a 40 64
respective activity durations 7, 5, 6, 6, 8, 4 c a 60 81
days. The network has three paths A B, d b 25 9
C D and E F. All the activities can be e b, c 45 36
crashed with the same crash cost per day. f d, e 20 9
th th th

.
7. The expected completion time of the Item Suppliers

project is: S1 S2 S3
(A) 238 days (C) 171 days
P 110 120 130
(B) 224 days (D) 155 days
Q 115 140 140
8. The standard deviation of the critical path R 125 145 165
of the project is: (A) 350 (C) 385
(A) √ days (C) √ 00 days (B) 360 (D) 395
(B) √ days (D) √ days
12. The number of customers arriving at a
9. The table gives details of an assembly railway reservation counter is Poisson
line. distributed with an arrival rate of eight
ww Work station I II III IV V VI

Total task time 7 9 7 10 9 6
customers per hour. The reservation clerk
at this counter takes six minutes per
customer on an average with an
w. E
at the
workstation
(in minutes)
exponentially distributed service time.
The average number of the customers in
line? asy
What is the line efficiency of the assembly the queue will be
(A) 3
(B) 3.2
(C) 4
(D) 4.2
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
En (C) 80%
(D) 85%
ME – 2008
10.
gi
A stockist wishes to optimize the number
of perishable items he needs to stock in
any month in his store. The demand
Common Data for Questions 13 and 14:
nee
Consider the Linear Programme (LP)
Max 4x + 6y
distribution for this perishable item is:
Demand (in
units)
2 3 4 5 x
x
r
subject to
y≤
y≤ ing
Probability 0.10 0.35 0.35 0.20
The stockist pays Rs.70 for each item and
x y≥0
.ne
13. After introducing slack variables s and t,
he sells each at Rs.90. If the stock is left
unsold in any month, he can sell the item
at Rs.50 each. There is no penalty for
t
the initial basic feasible solution is
represented by the table below (basic
variables are s = 6 and t = 6, and the
objective function value is 0).
unfulfilled demand. To maximize the
expected profit, the optimal stock level is: 4 6 0 0 0
(A) 5 units (C) 3 units S 3 2 1 0 6
(B) 4 units (D) 2 units T 2 3 0 1 6
x y s t RHS
11. A firm is required to procure three items After some simplex iterations, the
(P, Q and R). The prices quoted for these following table is obtained
items (in Rs.) by suppliers S1, S2 and S3 0 0 0 2 12
are given in table. The management policy S 5/3 0 1 1/3 2
requires that each item has to be supplied Y 2/3 1 0 1/3 2
by only one supplier and one supplier x y s t RHS
supply only one item. The minimum total From this, one can conclude that
cost (in Rs.) of procurement to the firm is
th th th

.
(A) The LP has a unique optimal solution 16. For the standard transportation linear
(B) The LP has an optimal solution that program with m sources and n
is not unique destinations and total supply equaling
(C) The LP is infeasible total demand, an optimal solution (lowest
(D) The LP is unbounded cost) with the smallest number of non-
zero xij values (amounts from source i to
14. The dual for the LP is destination j) is desired. The best upper
(A) Min 6u + 6v bound for this number is
subject to (A) mn (C) m + n
u v≥ (B) 2(m + n) (D) m + n 1
u v≥
u v≥0 17. In an M/M/1 queuing system, the number
ww
(B) Max 6u + 6v
subject to
u v≤
of arrivals in an interval of length T is a
Poisson random variable (i.e. the
probability of there being n arrivals in an
w. E
2u + 3v ≤ 6
u v≥0
(C) Max 4u + 6v
interval of length T is
probability density function f(t) of the
. The
uasy
subject to
v≥
inter-arrival time is given by
(A) ( ) (C)
u
Env≥
u, v ≥ 0
(B) (D)
gi
(D) Min 4u + 6v
subject to
u v≤
ME – 2009
nee
Common Data Questions: 18 & 19:
Consider the following PERT network:
2u + 3v ≤ 6
u v≥0
r 3
ing
6
15. For the network below, the objective is to

find the length of the shortest path from
1 2
.ne 5
7
node P to node G. Let dij be the length of

directed arc from node i to node j.
Let sj be the length of the shortest path
from P to node j. Which of the following
4
t
The optimistic time, most likely time and
pessimistic time of all the activities are
equations can be used to find sG?
given in the table below.
Q
Activity Optimistic Most likely Pessimistic
time (days) time (days) time (days)
P G
1–2 1 2 3
1–3 5 6 7
R
1–4 3 5 7
(A) SG = Min(SQ, SR)
(B) SG = Min (SQ dQG, SR dRG) 2–5 5 7 9
(C) SG = Min(SQ+dQG, SR+dRG) 3–5 2 4 6
(D) SG = Min(dQG,dRG) 5–6 4 5 6
4–7 4 6 8
6–7 2 3 4
th th th

.
18. The critical path duration of the network ME – 2010

(in days) is Common Data for Questions 23 and 24:
(A) 11 (C) 17 Four jobs to be processed on a machine as
(B) 14 (D) 18 per data listed in the table.
Job Processing time (in days) Due Date
19. The standard deviation of the critical path 1 4 6
is 2 7 9
(A) 0.33 (C) 0.77 3 2 19
(B) 0.55 (D) 1.66
4 8 17
23. If the Earliest Due Date (EDD) rule is used
20. Six jobs arrived in a sequence as given
to sequence the jobs, the number of jobs
below:
delayed is
ww Jobs
I
II
Processing Time (days)
4
9
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
w. E
III
IV
V
5
10
6
24. Using the Shortest Processing Time (SPT)
rule, total tardiness is
VI
asy 8
Average flow time (in days) for the above
jobs using Shortest Processing Time rule is
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 8
(A) 20.83
En (C) 125.00 25. The project activities, precedence
relationships and durations are described
21.
(B) 23.16
Consider gi
the
(D) 139.00
following
Programming Problem (LPP):
Linear
in the table. The critical path of the
nee
project is
Activity Precedence Duration (in
Maximum z
Subject to x ≤
x ≤
x x
rP
Q
-
- ing
days)
3
4
x x ≤
x ≥0 x ≥0
R
S
P
Q .ne 5
5
(A) The LPP has a unique optimal
solution
(B) The LPP is infeasible
(C) The LPP is unbounded
T
U
V
R,S
R,S
T
t 7
5
2
W U 10
(D) The LPP has multiple optimal
(A) T V (C) U W
solutions
(B) T V (D) U W
22. The expected time of a PERT activity
26. Simplex method of solving linear
in terms of optimistic time ,
programming problem uses
pessimistic time ( ) and most likely time
(A) All the points in the feasible region
is given by (B) Only the corner points of the feasible
(A) = region
(B) = (C) Intermediate points within the
infeasible region
(C) = (D) Only the interior points in the
(D) = feasible region
th th th

.
ME – 2011 30. The critical path for the project is

Common Data for Question 27 and 28: (A) a-b-e-g-h (C) a-d-f-h
One unit of product P1 requires 3 kg of (B) a-c-g-h (D) a-b-c-f-h
resource R1 and 1 kg of resource R2. One
unit of product P2 requires 2 kg of 31. If the duration of activity f alone is
resource R1 and 2 kg of resource R2. The changed from 9 to 10 days, then the
profits per unit by selling product P1 and (A) Critical path remains same and the
P2 are Rs.2000 and Rs.3000 respectively. total duration to complete the
The manufacturer has 90 kg of resource project changes to 19 days.
R1 and 100 kg of resource R2. (B) Critical path and the total duration to
27. The unit worth of resource i.e. dual complete the project remains the
price of resource in Rs/kg is same.
ww
(A) 0
(B) 1350
(C) 1500
(D) 2000
(C) Critical path changes but the
duration to complete the project
remains the same.
28.
w. E
The manufacturer can make a maximum
profit of Rs.
(D) Critical path changes and the total
duration to complete the project
asy
(A) 60000
(B) 135000
(C) 150000
(D) 200000
ME – 2013
changes to 17 days.
29.
En
Cars arrive at a service station according
to oisson’s istri ution with a mean rate
32. A linear programming problem is shown
below:
gi
of 5 per hour. The service time per car is
exponential with a mean of 10 minutes. At
steady state, the average waiting time in
Maximize
nee
Subject to ≤ 0
≤
the queue is
(A) 10 minutes
(B) 20 minutes
(C) 25 minutes
(D) 50 minutes
It has
r ≥0
ing
(A) An unbounded objective function
ME – 2012 .ne
(B) Exactly one optimal solution
(C) Exactly two optimal solutions
Linked Answer Questions Q.30 and Q.31
For a particular project, eight activities
are to be carried out. Their relationships ME – 2014
t
(D) Infinitely many optimal solutions
with other activities and expected 33. If there are m source and n destinations
duration are mentioned in the table in a transportation matrix, the total
below. number of basic variables in a basic
Activity Predecessors Duration (days) feasible solution is
a - 3 (A) m n (C) m n
b a 4 (B) m n (D) m
c a 5
d a 4
e b 2
f d 9
g c, e 6
h f, g 2
th th th

.
34. A project has four activities P, Q, R and S 37. Consider an objective function
as shown below. Z x x x x and the constraints
Normal Predecessor Cost x x ≤
Activity duration slope x x ≤
(days) (Rs./d x ≥0 x ≥0
ay) The maximum value of the objective
P 3 - 500 function is ________
Q 7 P 100
R 4 P 400 38. The total number of decision variables in
S 5 R 200 the objective function of an assignment
The normal cost of the project is problem of size n × n (n jobs and n
Rs. 10,000/- and the overhead cost is machines) is
ww
Rs. 200/- per day. If the project duration
has to be crashed down to 9 days, the
(A) n
(B) 2n
C n
(D) n
w. E
total cost (in Rupees) of the project is
_______ 39. The precedence relations and duration
(in days) of activities of a project network
35.
asy
A minimal spanning tree in network flow
models involves
(A) All the nodes with cycle/loop allowed
are given in the table. The total float (in
days) of activities e and f , respectively,
are
En
(B) All the nodes with cycle/loop not Activity Predecessor Duration
(days)
allowed
nodes
gi
(C) Shortest path between start and end
(D) All the nodes with directed arcs nee

a
b
c
-
-
a
2
4
2
36. Consider the project network, where

numbers along various activities
rd
e
f
b
ing
c
c
3
2
4
represent the normal time. The free float
on activity 4-6 and the project duration,
g
(A) 0 and 4
d, e
.ne
(C) 2 and 3
5
respectively, are (B) 1 and 4

t
(D) 3 and 1
(A) 2, 13 (C) 2, 13
(B) 0, 13 (D) 2, 12
th th th

.
1. [Ans. B] 7. [Ans. D]
3
b d
(0, 5) a 40 25 20
1 2 5 6
4 30 60 45 f
(0, 2) c e
4
(4/3, 4/3)
Critical Path = a e f
= 30 + 60 + 45 + 20 = 155
(0, 2) (0, 5) days
ww
Constant equation
on optimal region
Optimal solution, ( )
≤ no effect
8. [Ans. A]
Standard deviation
2.
w. E
[Ans. B]
9.
√
[Ans. C]
days = √
3.
asy
[Ans. C]
For balance transportation problem,
Line efficiency
00
En
No. of supply points
=m+n–1=2+ 1 =3
00 0%
gi
No. of demand point = 4
Total demand = 50 + 40 = 90
10.
Cycle time = max
nee
[Ans. B]
4. [Ans. C] P(d ≥ ) = probability that the demand
Path
AB
Duration
7 + 5 = 12 r
for Q units or more
ing
arginal profit per unit sol
CD
EF
6 + 6 = 12
8 + 4 = 12
= 0 0 s 0
.ne
=Marginal loss from each unit that is
5.
There are three critical paths. So no.of
activities to be crashed = 3
[Ans. B]
left unsold
p ≥
s 0 0 s 0
0
t
0
0
0
Total cost = fixed cost + (Number of Demand Probability Cumulative
pieces × variable cost) that demand probability
Variable cost of process II is less. at this level
2 0.1 0.1
6. [Ans. A] ≥0
When
3 0.35 0.45 0
0
0
≥0
4 0.35 0.8 0
0
0
≤0
5 0.20 1.00
th th th

.
Hence to maximize profit, optimal stock matrix now, as the revised opportunity
level is 4. cost matrix
11. [Ans. C]
P 5 0 0
P 110 120 130 Q 0 20 0
Q 115 140 140 R 0 10 35

Thus final assignment is
R 125 145 165
Item Suppliers Cost
Step 1: Substract minimum entry in each P 120
column from all the entries on the column. Q 140
ww
P 0 0 0
R
The minimum cost
125
Qw. E 5 20 10
12.
= 120 + 140 +125 = Rs. 385
[Ans. B]
R 15
asy 25 3
Step 2: Substract minimum entry in each
Average number of customer in queue
En
row of job – opportunity cost matrix from
all the entries of the row
0 0
0
gi
0
15
0
5
13. [Ans. B]
nee
Since the relative profit by varying any of
the non basic variable in the second table
does not show any increment, hence the
0 10 20
Step 3: Draw minimum number of
r ing
solution must be optimal. But a change in
the non- basic variable x, gives a relative
horizontal and vertical lines to cover all

zeros. This can be done in 2 line, which is
optima.
.ne
profit of zero. So, the LPP has an alternate
one less than the number of rows (which

is 3). Thus the solution is yet not fixed.
Hence go to steps 4
14. [Ans. A]
t
In matrix form, the dual of the primal
1 Max Z = (4 6) ( )
i.e, Max z = cx
0 0 0 2
subject to Ax < =
0 15 5
b
0 10 20 Min
x>=0
W = yb
Step 4: From the uncovered entries, the
minimum is 5. Thus, substract 5 from all subject : y A > = C
the entries, which are uncovered. Add 5 at is given
y > by
=0
junction of lines. We get the following The dual for the primal is
th th th

.
Min 6u+6v Path

Subject 3u+2v ≥ 4 I. 1-3-5-6- →
2u+3v ≥ 6 II. 1-2-5-6- →
u, v ≥ 0 III. 1- 4 - →
Thus critical path is I
15. [Ans. C] Critical path duration is 18.
The only way to reach G is then by
reaching Q and QG or reaching R and then 19. [Ans. *]
RG. For any Poisson distribution, the
SG = Min(SQ+ dQG, SR + dRG) probability density function f(t) is given
by
16. [Ans. D]
Variance = ( )
ww
In such an L.P.P, m n variables are there
and m + n equations/constraints are
there (satisfying the demand supply
Critical path
1-3
Variance
⁄
w. E
requirements). But one constraint is
removed as total supply equals total
3-5
5-6
6-7
⁄
⁄
⁄
asy
demand. The best upper bound xij values
is (m+n-1). Total varian e
17. [Ans. C]
En ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
18. [Ans. D]
gi 6 6
3 15 15
6
tan ar
nee
erivation √varian e
0
√
r
5 3
0 0
EST LFT
1
2 3
2 2 7
5
5
10 10 6
18 18
7
20. [Ans. A]
Jobs using
ing
Processing Cumulative
4
shortest
Possible
time
(days)
.ne time
(days)
3
EST = earlisest start time
LFT = latest finish time
3
Path along which EST and LFT is equal

time rule
I
III
V
4
5
6
t 4
9
15
are called critical path. VI 8 23
Critical path duration is 18 days II 9 32
Alternately IV 10 42
Activity t t t t verage time flow
1-2 1 2 3 2
0
1-3 5 6 7 6
1-4 3 5 7 5
2-5 5 7 9 7
3-5 2 4 6 4
5-6 4 5 6 5
4-7 4 6 8 6
6-7 2 3 4 3
th th th

.
21. [Ans. D] 25. [Ans. D]

By Graphical method 2 R 5
P T V
5 7
9 3 2
4
8 1 7
Q S U W
x2 5 5 10
7 4
3 6
(2, 6) x2 =6
6 PRUW (i) 3 + 5 + 5 + 10 = 23
5 B QSTV (ii) 4 + 5 + 7 + 2 = 18
4 PRTV (iii) 3 + 5 + 7 + 2 = 17
A = (4, 3)
3 QSUW (iv) 4 + 5 + 5 10 = 24
2 ≤
1 26. [Ans. B]
ww A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 x
1 27. [Ans. A]
w. E
Max.z = 3x1+2x2
At point B, z = 18x1=4
At point A, z=18
28. [Ans. B]
P1 P2 Availability
asy
This means LPP has multiple optimal
solutions because both points have same
R1
R2
3
1
Profit per 2000 3000
2
2
90
100
value.
En unit X Y
22.
23.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. C]
gi Zmax = 2000x + 3000y
nee
B(0, 45)
y
Job (j) 1 2 4 3
Processing time (t )
Completion time(C )
4
4
7
11
8
19
2
21 r ing
A(30, 0)
x
Due Date ( )
Lateness(L )
6 9 17 19
.ne
ve Lateness – Job is completed after due
date
ve Lateness – Job is completed before
→ x
→x
Subject to
y
y
t
due date x y ≤ 0 ≤
jo s elaye
x y ≤ 00 ≤
x y≥0 x y≥0
24. [Ans. D]
Zmax = 2000x + 3000y
Sequence by shortest processing Time
Corner points satisfying both the
(SPT)
constrains are A(30, 0) B(0, 45).
Job Process Job flow Due Tardiness
ZA = 2000 × 30+3000 × 0 = 60,000/-
time time date
ZB = 2000 × 0 + 3000× 45 = 1,35,000/-
3 2 0 19 0
Solution is optimal at B; x =0; y = 45
1 4 6 0
3x + 2y + S1 = 90; 3 × 0 + 2 × 45 + S1
2 7 6 + 7 =13 9 4
= 90 ⟹S1 = 0 i.e., R1 resource is fully
4 8 13+8=21 17 4
utilized.
Total tardiness = 0 + 0 + 4 + 4 = 8
th th th

.
x y 00 0 Feasible region is inside line AD

00 ⟹ 0 Optimal solution occurs at either A or D
i.e., R2 resource is un utilized at lets check
optimality. Hence dual price of R2 is zero. 0 z 0
29. [Ans. D] (0 ) z 0 ( )
Given data: So exactly one optimal solution at D
arrival rate hour
servi e rate hour 33. [Ans. C]
verage waiting time in queue
34. [Ans. *] Range 12490 to 12510
hr 7 days
100/day
ww 0 hr
0 minutes
1
P
3 days
2
Q
4
30.
w. E
[Ans. C]
500/day
R
4 days
400/day
3
S
5 days
200/day
asy
3
4
From Heuristic model,
C First find the critical path
1 2
En 5
6 7 ays
Crash the lowest cost slope from critical
Various path
A BEGH
AH
gi
days
days
path
nee
Therefore,
Crashing a tivity ‘ ’ y ays
will be 10 days
A DFH
a
days
f h is critical path. r ing
Now there are 2 critical paths
i.e., P – Q = 10 days
31. [Ans. A]
If the duration of activity F is changed
P – R – S = 10 days.
.ne
Crashing 2 activities from each critical
path
from 9 to 10 days, critical path remains
same and the project duration will
increase to 19 days.
i e rashing a tivity ‘ ’ y
an rashing a tivity ‘ ’ y t ay
ay
Now the project duration is crashed to 9
32. [Ans. B] days.
Plot constraints So, total cost of the project,
x y 0 0 000 00 ays
x y 00 ays
00 ay 00
(0, 10/7) ay
C
00
D 3x + 7y = 10
(0,1.33)
I 35. [Ans. B]
Spanning tree cyclic property
II
B(10/3,0) Cycle property is the basis for kruskal’s
A A(2,0) algorithm
th th th

.
1. Sort all edges in increasing weight z x x

order. onstraints
2. Consider the edges in order. If the x x ≤
edges does not create a cycle , add it x x ≤
to the spanning tree otherwise x ≥0 x ≥0
discard it, stop , when n-1 edges have Co-ordinate maximum values
been added, because then we must (0, 0) 0
have spanning tree. So best option (4, 0) 12
from above property is B. (0, 2) 18
So the maximum value of objective
36. [Ans. A] function is 18
T T
T
ww
T
2 38. [Ans. A]
2 5
Jo
3
3 a hine
5 T
w. E
2 5 n
T 0 1 3 T 6 7 T
T 0
T T
2 4 T
4
asy T
T
For free float activity on activity 4-6 n n
n
njo s an n ma hines
En
Free float = (EFT –EST) –T ̇ Total number of decision variables n
gi
Project duration 13
39. [Ans. B]
nee T
T
T
T
37. [Ans. *] Range 17 to 19 T 0 a

T
r 0
ing e
f
T
T
x T
T .ne T
T
g
Total float for activity e =

Total float for activity f t
0 x
th th th

ww
w.E
a syE
ngi
nee
rin
g.n
et


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