GRADE V Science Quiz

EASY ROUND

1. If you are burning wood, the reaction will _____________.

A. release energy

B. absorb energy

C. neither absorb nor release energy.

D. connections release and sometimes absorb energy depending are the kind of wood.

Answer: A

2. Which of the following is an infection of the nasal passage?

A. laryngitis B. tonsilitis C. sinusitis D. pharyngitis

Answer: C

3. What feature is shown by ALL insects?

A. External Skeleton B. Two pairs of legs C. Jumping legs D. Stinging mechanism

Answer: A

4. Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are the planets that are nearer to the Sun. What are these planets called?

A. outer planets B. inner planets C. water planets D. earthen planets

Answer: B

5. A boy was shown the bones of an animal’s head. He concluded that it was an animal that eats grass. How did he know
this?

A.The animal had a big mouth. C.The teeth he saw were flat.

B.The animal had a small mouth D.The teeth he saw were pointed.

Answer: C

6. The uterus is just a size of a fist. How can it accommodate a full term baby which weighs more than three kilos?

A. The uterus is elastic. C. The uterus is rounded

B. The uterus is rigid. D. The uterus is elongated

Answer: A

7. Why is fluorescent lamp advisable to use than incandescent lamp?

A. brighter light C. more heat

B. durable and less expensive D. bright light and same amount at same wattage

Answer: A

8. It contains water, urea, nitrogenous waste, salt and other substances which are in excess of what our body needs.

A.blood B.water C.sweat D.urine

Answer: D

9. A girl wants to test the presence of starch in a leaf. Which of the following will she use?

A. Benedicts solution B. Merthiolate solution C. Iodine solution D. sugar solution

Answer: C

10. ____________ occurs in females if no fertilization takes place.

A.Puberty B.Menopause C.Menstruation D.Ovulation

Answer: C
AVERAGE ROUND

1. Some chemicals reactions absorb energy; while others release energy. Of the chemical reactions in burning coal And
exploding fireworks, which will release energy?

A. Burning coal only. C. Both burning coal and exploding fireworks.

B. Exploding fireworks only. D. Neither burning coal nor exploding fireworks.

Answer: C

2. Fossil fuels were formed from the ________________.

A. volcanoes B. gases in the atmosphere C. the remains of living things D. water trapped inside the rocks

Answer: C

3. When the nuclei of hydrogen atoms are forced to combine, tremendous energy is produced. What is this process
called?

A. Nuclear change B. Nuclear fusion C. Nuclear fission D. Nuclear transformation

Answer: B

4. The fertilized egg is called a zygote. What happen to the zygote after fertilization?

A.Ovulate B.Cell divide C.Reproduce D.Become fetus

Answer: D

5. Why are green plants important to animals?

A. Green plants consume food and give off oxygen.

B. Green plants consume food and give off carbon dioxide.

C. Green plants produce food and give off oxygen.

D. Green plants produce food and give off carbon dioxide.

Answer: C

6. Oil and water are substances with different densities. Oil remains floating in water. How can we separate oil and
water?

A.separating funnel B.use a magnet C.decantation D.picking

Answer: A

7. Why is the land warmer than the sea during daytime?

A. There is more land than water on earth.

B. There is more water than land on earth.

C. Land absorbs heat faster than water.

D. Water absorbs heat faster than land.

Answer: C

8. Makahiya or mimosa closes its leaves when touched. What do you call this response to stimuli?

A. Thigmotropism B. Hydrotropism C. Phototropism D. Geotropism

Answer: A

9. Which of the following weather disturbances has the strongest wind near the center?

A. Depression B. Storm C. Monsoon D. Typhoon

Answer: D

10. After taking a bath, you feel cold on coming out of the bathroom. Why does this happen?
A. The surrounding air takes up heat from the towel and the skin.

B. Water vapor in the air condenses on the body and cools.

C. Water on the skin evaporates and cools off the skin.

D. Water on the skin evaporates then condenses to cool off the skin.

Answer: C

DIFFICULT ROUND

1. The following diagrams show a battery and a bulb connected by wires to various materials. Which of the bulb will
lights? ALUMINUM FOIL PLASTIC SPOON BRASS KEY AIR Bulb 1 Bulb 2 Bulb 3 Bulb 4

Answer: 1 and 3 only

2. Respiration involves breathing. You breath so that you can get oxygen from the air into your body. Oxygen is used by
the body cells as burning food. As food “burns”, what are given off as wastes during this process? Write your answer……..

Answer: Carbon Dioxide and Water

3. Using the following illustrations, predict which nails will rust after 24 and 48 hours?

Answer: Test tube Y

4. What body structure protects the lungs from outside harm?

Answer: Rib Cage

5. Bronze is a mixture of two solid metals, copper and tin. What do we call that mixture?

Answer: Alloy

6. How is static electricity produced?

Answer: By Rubbing two objects

7. A device used for appliances like refrigerators and air conditioners to keep temperature evenly is called _________.

Answer: Thermostat

8. Our teeth act as simple machine because they can cut, chew and grind the food we eat. Which simple machine our
teeth can be considered?

Answer: Wedge

9. How can an electromagnet’s strength be increased?

Answer: By increasing the coil’s number of turns.

10. How does a cyclonic wind move in northern hemisphere?

Answer: Counter-Clockwise

CLINCHER ROUND

1. Which is the visible part of the sun?

Answer: Corona
2. Airplanes drop particles of silver iodide or dry ice in the atmosphere. Water vapor sticks to these particles and forms
ice crystals when it is cold. When they fall to the ground, they melt into raindrops. What method is used?
Answer: CLOUD SEEDING
3. The only planet in the solar system that has a day which lasts longer than its year?
Answer: Venus
4. What device first proved that Earth rotates on its axis?
Answer: FOUCAULT PENDULUM
5. When we breathe in we inhale many gases, including oxygen, what happens to the gases that the body can’t use?
Answer: Unwanted gases are exhaled

Second Quarter
Summative Test Number 1
Direction: Read each statement carefully. Choose the letter of the correct
answer.
1. The female reproductive system produces and stores the egg cells or ova. Which of the following is a female
reproductive organ has a function mentioned above?
A. Ovariy C. Testes
B. Egg cell D. Sperm
2. In the class of Mr. Lumbres, he asked his students to describe the uterus. If you were to be asked, what will
be your answer?
A. It serves as a door that keeps the fetus intact.
B. A muscular organ where the fetus is nurtured.
C. It allows the egg cell to travel from the ovary to the uterus.
D. It produces egg cells and secretes hormones.
3. Which of the following are the parts of female reproductive organ?
I. Ovary IV. Penis
II. Uterus V. Vagina
III. Fallopian tube VI. Vas deferens
A. I, II, IV and VI C. I, II, III and V
B. I, II, III and VI D. II, III, IV and V
4. It is the lower part of the uterus that serves as a door that keeps the fetus intact until the end of pregnancy.
What part of the system is being described?
A. Cervix C. Uterus
B. Vagina D. Fallopian tube
5. In your Science book, you found out this statement. The __________ is composed of small coiled tubes
attached to the upper part of the testes. What part of male reproductive organ are you going to write?
A. Testes C. Epididymis
B. Vas deferens D. Seminal vesicle
6. The following are the parts of male reproductive organ, EXCEPT:
I. Penis IV. Penis
II. Epididymis V. Vagina
III. Fallopian tube VI. Vas deferens
A. III and V C. I, III and V
B. I, II, IV and VI D. IV, V and VI
7. The male parent produces the sperm cell. What do you call the male sex hormones?
A. Progesterone C. Estrogen
B. Testosterone D. Insulin
8. Which male reproductive organ is responsible for secreting the semen?
A. Prostate gland C. Foreskin
B. Penis D. Testes
9. Which of the following do boys and girls experience when they reach the age
of puberty?
A. There is a rapid growth in height.
B. Several changes occur in the body.
C. They become more excited and curious to discover new things.
D. All of the above
10. Paolah, a 12-year old girl faced a mirror one morning. She noticed some physical changes on her body.
Which of the following changes did Paolah notice?
A. Appearance of facial hair
B. Voice becomes deeper and lower
C. Larger and stronger muscles
D. Breasts are enlarged
11. The onset of puberty signals the beginning of the adolescence period. In what age bracket does puberty
set in?
A. Between the ages of 6-10
B. Between the ages of 9-13
C. Between the ages of 11-16
D. Between the ages of 18-21
16. Puberty refers to the time when your body begins a process of growth and changes. Which of the following
changes do boys experience during puberty?
A. The muscles become smaller.
B. The breasts are enlarged.
C. The hips become wider.
D. The voice becomes deeper.
17. Aside from physical changes, boys and girls also undergo emotional changes. Which of the following
situation DOES NOT describe emotional changes experienced during puberty?
A. Doesn’t want to have fun and socialize.
B. Experiences mood swings unpredictably.
C. Feel anxious about the way he looks.
D. Thinks that the people around him are a bit unfair.
18. During puberty period, boys and girls are characterized to undergo several changes such as physical,
emotional, mental and social. Which of the following situations describe social changes experienced during
puberty?
A. Experiences mood swings unpredictably.
B. Feel anxious about the way he looks.
C. Likes to work independently.
D. Thinks that adult are mean and inconsiderate.
19. Erwin, a 13-year old boy noticed some physical changes on his body. Which of the following physical
changes did he notice?
A. Enlargement of breasts
B. Hips get bigger
C. Onset menstruation
D. Larger and stronger muscles develop
20. Raymond noticed the appearance of Adam’s apple on his neck. What changes during puberty is being
described?
A. Physical change
B. Social change
C. Intellectual change
D. Emotional change

Second Quarter
Summative Test Number 2
Direction: Read each statement carefully. Choose the letter of the correct answer.
1. Which of the following practices should be AVOIDED?
A. eating nutritious food
B. breathing clean and fresh air
C. using public toilet with extra care
D. engaging in premarital sex
2. Alice likes salty snacks. What would you advise her if you were her friend?
A. eat fruits instead C. consult a physician
B. exercise often D.take a bath everyday.
3. Which of the following is the proper way to prevent a disease of the reproductive system?
A. eat delicious and expensive meals everyday
B. enroll in an aerobics class to keep oneself fit
C. practice personal hygiene all the time
D. consult a family doctor every week
4. Which is a good personal hygiene practice?
A. change underwear as often as necessary
B. use your own underwear
C. wash your reproductive organ with soap and water
D. all of the above
5. You noticed that your older sister appears pale and weak. She has an excessive menstrual flow. What would
you tell her to do?
A. tell her its normal
B. tell her to take medicines
C. tell her to consult a doctor
D. tell her to exercise at once
6. Your teacher talked about the advanced stage of HIV infection. What term is being referred to by your
teacher?
A. Testicular cancer C. Gonorrhea
B. AIDS D. Prostate cancer
7. Diana is suffering from ovarian cancer, an abnormal cells in the ovary begin to multiply out of control and
form a tumor. The following are signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer, EXCEPT.
A. Redness and itching in the vaginal areas
B. abdominal bloating, pressure, and pain
C. abnormal fullness after eating
D. an increase in urination
8. Your cousin Erwin experienced frequent urination, difficulty in urinating, and lower back pain due to due to
old age, prolong period sitting, infection, and unhealthy lifestyle. What ailment of the reproductive system does
he suffered from?
A. Prostate cancer
B. Cryptorchidism
C. Epididymitis
D. Ovarian cyst
9. Percia got irritated from laundry soap and bubble baths. She noticed redness and itching in the vulvar and
vaginal areas. What ailment of the reproductive system does she suffered from?
A. vulvovaginitis C. genital warts
B. Ovarian cyst D. Amenorrhea
10. This is characterized by small, flesh colored lumps in the genital areas.
A. Genital wart C. Prostate cancer
B. Ovarian cyst D. Polycystic ovary syndrome
11. Its occurrence among females signals the start of their reproductive maturity. Which one is it?
A. Appearance of pimples
B. Onset of menstruation
C. Growth of hair in armpits
D. Developing a high-pitched voice
12. Menstruation is a sign that a girl is ______________________.
A. already pregnant.
B. capable of producing offspring
C. no longer capable of becoming pregnant
D. already menopausal.
13. How will you describe menstruation?
A. It is the discharge of blood from the uterine wall.
B. It is the discharge of blood from the ovary.
C. It is the discharge of blood from the fallopian tube.
D. It is the discharge of blood from the vagina.
14. When will there be menstruation?
A. When the egg meets the sperm
B. When the egg reaches the uterus
C. When the egg is released from the ovary
D. When the egg is not fertilized by a sperm.
15. During the menstrual cycle, an egg may be released. This process is called ______________________.
A. Fertilization C. Ovulation
B. Dilation D. Gestation
16. The “period” which occurs in females if no fertilization takes place.
A. Puberty C. Menopause
B. Menstruation D. Ovulation

Directions: From the diagram, choose the correct menstrual phase being described in the following statement.
__________17. The lining of the uterus becomes thin after menstruation. An egg in the ovary continues to
mature. Just before the mid-cycle, the mature egg moves to the surface of the ovary.
__________ 18. The lining of the uterus called endometrium becomes thicker in preparation for implantation of
the fertilized egg. If fertilization does not take place, menstruation happens. The next cycle is then about to
begin.
__________ 19. This happens when fertilization does not occur. The uterine lining begins to break down and
bleeding results. This is called the menstrual flow. The flow lasts from 3 to 7 days.
__________ 20. The mature egg is released. This period is called ovulation. The mature egg then travels from
the ovary to the uterus.
Summative Test
Direction: Read each item carefully then choose the letter of the correct answer.
1. A duck flies 60 meters in 10 seconds. What is the duck’s speed?
A. 600 m/s C. 6 m/s
B. 50 m/s D. 70 m/s
2. A beetle crawls 2 cm/minute for ten minutes. How far did it crawl?
A. 8 centimeters C. 20 centimeters
B. 5 centimeters D. 30 centimeters
3. A force is described as...
A. A push only C. A push or a pull
B. A pull only D. none of the above
4. The basic SI unit of length is the ______.
A. Meter C. inch
B. Foot D. mile
5. A bicycle has an average speed of 2 m/s. This means ____.
A. It can travel 4 meters in 2 seconds
B. In 1 second, it travel 1 meter
C. It takes 2 seconds to travel 1 meter
D. It can travel 2 kilometers in one hour
6. A cyclist travels 40 km in 2 hours, what is his average speed?
A. 80 km/h C. 20 km/h
B. 60 km/h D. 10 km/h
7. What is the basic unit for measuring time?
A. Hour C. second
B. Minute D. month
8. Which of the following affects the motion of an object?
A. Gravity C. force
B. Friction D. all of the above
9. You want to measure how far is the distance of your school to the Brgy hall, what unit of measure is
appropriate to us?
A. cm B. km C. m D. mm
10. What causes the object that moves along a surface to slow down and eventually stop?
A. friction C. gravity
B. energy D. force
14. What is the formula for finding the speed of an object?
A. Speed = distance/time C. speed = force /time
B. Speed = work/ time D. speed = time/distance
15. You are racing a cart down the hallway. If you go 10 meters in 5 seconds, what is your speed? (Remember
speed equals distance divided by time.)
A. 2 meters per second C. 50 meters per second
B. 2 miles per hour D. 5 meters per second
16. Why is it important to use appropriate instrument in measuring?
A. It gives exact measurement.
B. The measurements vary.
C. Using nonstandard measuring instrument will give inaccurate measurement.
D. Both a and c
17. What instrument will you use if you want to measure the length of your pencil?
A. tape measure C. ruler
B. meter stick D. zigzag rule
18. Force is measured in which units?
A. degrees B. meter C. gram D. newton
19. Speed is the rate of motion and expresses as a measurement of distance moved during a period of time.
Which of the following shows the correct unit of speed?
A. meter C. meter per second
B. kilometers per hour D. both B and c
20. Which of the following is the disadvantage/s of using nonstandard measuring instrument like body parts?
A. Using measuring devices give precise and exact measurement.
B. Using nonstandard measuring instrument will give inaccurate measurement.
C. Standards of measurement help people process their data accurately.
D. all of the above
22. A car is sailing from the port. Compared to which reference point is the ship in motion?
A. the sea C. the captain of the ship
B. the port D. the cargo the ship carries
23. Riza is walking along a sidewalk. Which of the following sentence is true?
A. Riza is moving with respect to the building at the corner
B. Riza is moving with respect to another person who is walking beside her.
C. Riza is not moving with respect to the sidewalk
D. Riza is not moving with respect to the sun
24. A biker covers a distance of 150 km in five hours. What is the biker’s speed?
A. 15 km/h B. 30 km/h C. 45 km/h D. 60 km/h
25. Which is an ideal reference point?
A. a colored object
B. a non moving landmark
C. a person running
D. a cloud in the sky

1. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the group?

A. aluminum C. copper
B. plastic D. iron
2. Some materials which allow an electric current to flow through them are called
____________ of electricity.
A. insulators C. conductors
B. convectors D. radiators
3. Materials that block an electric current from flowing are called ____________.
A. insulators C. conductors
B. convectors D. radiators
4. Why are electric wire usually made up of copper?
A. Because copper is a good insulator.
B. Because copper is a good conductor.
C. Because copper is a poor insulator.
D. Because copper is a poor conductor.
5. Which is the best conductor of electricity?
A. aluminum C. gold
B. copper D. silver
6. Which of the following is an insulator?
A. iron C. water
B. rubber D. aluminum
7. The main reason for using aluminum to make cooking pans is because:
A. It is a good conductor of heat.
B. It is a good conductor of electricity.
C. It has a very high density.
D. It is very strong.
8. You can protect yourself from the harmful effects of conductors by using ___________.
A. conductors C. convectors
B. insulators D. radiators
9. Which of the following materials are good conductors of heat?
A. ceramic cups, disposable glass, silver
B. iron nail, silver, copper
C. glass, cloth, paper
D. aluminum, plastic, rubber
10. Which among the following materials is useful in cooking food?
A. ceramic mug C. aluminum casserole
B. metal spoon D. plastic cup
11. Why is electrical wiring usually covered with a layer of plastic?
A. To help electricity flow along the wire
B. To make it look better
C. To save electricity
D. To make it safe
12. What colors are reflected when an object appears black?
A. none C. red and blue
B. all colors D. black
13. Which object would absorb the most light and heat?
A. black shirt C. green leaf
B. red apple D. white car
14. Which object would reflect the most light?
A. black shirt C. green leaf
B. red apple D. white car
15. If red and green lights are shining on a red apple, what happens to the red and green
lights?
A. Both are absorbed.
B. Both are reflected.
C. Red is reflected and green is absorbed.
D. Green is reflected and red is absorbed.
16. When objects absorb light, the energy that was once travelling through the wave is
absorbed into the object and converted to heat, causing the temperature of the object to
__________.
A. fall C. stay the same
B. rise D. keep still
17. White absorbs all colors while black reflects all colors.
A. True C. False
B. Maybe D. Not at all
18. Black and colored objects absorb ___________ than white ones.
A. less heat C. the same amount of heat
B. more heat D. no heat
19. During hot or summer days, people must wear _____________.
A. white or light-colored clothes C. black clothes
B. dark-colored clothes D. any color of clothes
20. Which set of objects are usually black and are more absorbent of heat?
A. carbon paper, roof, bag C. coal, tires, iron, magnet
B. hair, laptop, clothes D. flower, paper, vase
II. Write BCO if the phrases pertain to the ability and effects of black and colored objects
in heat absorption and WO for those of white objects.
_________21. Absorb more heat
_________22. Absorb less heat
_________23. Get warmer more quickly in the sunlight
_________24. Remain cooler to touch in the sunlight
_________25. Dry slower under the sun
_________26. Dry faster under the sun
_________27. Tend to have higher temperature
_________28. Tend to have lower temperature
_________29. Keep the ice from melting
_________30. Make melting process faster
1. Which of the following best describes a rock?
A. Solid and organic material
B. Solid and inorganic material
C. Solid and liquid organic material
D. Liquid and inorganic material
2. In your science activity, you observed that some rock samples are big while others are
small. Your observation clearly shows that the rocks may differ in
________.
A. Color
B. Hardness
C. Shape
D. Size
3. While doing the activity, you observed that some rocks can be scratched by other
rocks. This shows that rocks differ in ________.
A. Size
B. Color
C. Hardness
D. Shape
4. In your science class, you were able to observe that rocks differ in size, color,shape,
texture and hardness. This observation shows that rocks _______.
A. Maybe soft or hard
B. Maybe light or dark – colored
C. Maybe big or small
D. Have different characteristics
5. Which of the following tends to cause physical or mechanical weathering?
A. Animal that burrow in the ground
B. Root of plants growing into the cracks in the rocks
C. Water that sleeps into the pores and cracks of rock
D. All of these
6. Which of the following occurs when acidic water caused the rocks to break producing
clay and soluble salts?
A. Carbonation
B. Oxidation
C. Hydrolysis
D. Erosion

7. How does temperature weather rocks?

A. Rocks are heated and cooled continuously
B. Rocks are cooled tremendously all the time
C. Rocks are heated greatly all the time
D. Rocks are at different temperature
8. Plant serves as agents of weathering. Which of the following statements support this
idea?
A. Falling of leaves cause rocks to break
B. Decaying trunks of plants cause the rocks to break
C. Root of plants that grow in rocks and cause them to break
D. Branches of plant cause the rocks to break when blown by the winds
9. Why do sedimentary rocks are important to geologist and archeologist?
A. They serve as decoration
B. They used it to make a jewel
C. They used it to study the structure of things that existed in the past
D. They serve as collection
10. Which of the following would not be used from rocks and minerals?
A. Jewelry
B. Building
C. Electrical device
D. Ceramics
11. What could be a problem with a monument made from chalk?
A. It wouldn’t float.
B. It couldn’t be shaped.
C. It could crumble over time
D. All of the above
12. When is a wind an agent of erosion?
A. When is breaks rocks into pieces.
B. When it carries rock pieces to other places.
C. When it stops picking up rocks.
D. When it presses down on rocks.
13. Landslides on mountain slopes show the force of
A. Gravity
B. Wind
C. Runoff
D. Running water
14. What makes the water muddy after a heavy rain?
A. The pebbles picked up by water
B. The rainwater turned brown in color.
C. The gravel and sand carried by the water.
D. The fine dust particles dissolved in water.
15. How can trees help prevent erosion?
A. The roots hold the soil firmly together.
B. The trees block the way of running water.
C. The roots absorb the water at once.
D. The roots secrete acid, attacking the rocks.
11. Which best describes a storm surge?
A. expansion of the hurricane’scharacterized eye
B. sudden and rapid increase of theintensity of a storm
C. windstorm characterized by twisting, funnel-shaped cloud
D. onshore rush of water associated with a low-pressure weather system.
12. What causes the monsoon winds in the Philippines?
A. trade winds B. prevailing westerlies
C. polar westerlies D. tilting of earth’s axis
13. What is a squall?
A. abnormal rise of water level B. rapid upward movement of air
C. sudden drop in air pressure D. increase in surfaced wind magnitude
14. Which is the only positive outcome of typhoons?
A. remove pollutants from the air B. remove trash from rivers
C. cause flooding D. fill up dams and replenish water supply
15. What should you do during a typhoon?
A. Seek shelter in a basement or low ground.
B. Stay at home and be updated about the typhoon.
C. Seek high ground due to flooding.
D. Seek shelter in a basement or low ground
16. Which can be greatly damaged by typhoons?
A. forests B. agricultural lands
C. fish farms D. all of the above
17. Which of the following is responsible for issuing public storm warning Signals (PSWS)
regarding the typhoons that enter the Philippine Area of
Responsibility (PAR)?.
A. DSWD B. NDRRMC C. PAGASA D. DepEd
18. Storms need three things to form. Which of the following is NOT included?
A. warm air B. altitude C. high winds D. moisture
19. If the te storm warning signal is number 3, which of the following is the
Impact of the wind?
A. Very heavy to widespread damage B. Moderate to heavy damage
C. Heavy to very heavy damage D. Light to moderate damage
20. What is the weather condition in the eye of a typhoon?
A. fair B. fine C. rainy D. windy
21. Which public storm warning signal is characterized by winds of greater than 100-185
kph?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
22. What do you call the area in the center of a typhoon?
A. current B. depression C. epicenter D. eye
23. Which of the following is the best thing to do before a typhoon.
A. Transfer or keep all home appliances to dry and safer place.
B. Stay in a safe place at home.
C. Do not attempt to cross a flooded area.
D. Do not attempt to use home appliances that were wet by the rain or flood.
24. Why is the moon considered a satellite of Earth?
A. It orbits Earth. C. It keeps Earth on its orbit.
B. It pulls Earth toward it. D. It affects the tides on Earth.
25. Where does the moon get its life?
A. earth B. produces light on its own C. stars D. sun
26. How long does it take the moon to complete its orbit around the earth?
A. one day B. one week C. one month D. one year
27. When Earth is between the moon and the sun, the moon’s phase is most likely a ___________.
A. new moon B. half moon C. quarter moon D. full moon
28. Why does the moon have different phases?
A. It moves around the sun. C. It follows the sun.
B. It moves around Earth. D. Its surface experiences seasons.
29. Which shows the correct sequence of the moon phases?
A. new moon-full moon-half moon, gibbous moon-crescent moon
B. new moon-gibbous moon-full moon-crescent moon, half moon
C. gibbous moon-crescent moon-new moon-full moon, half moon
D. new moon-crescent moon-half moon-quarter moon-full moon
30. Which period describes when the moon appears to be decreasing in size?
A. waning moon B. waxing moon
C. lunar eclipse D. none of these

1. If the motion started its orbit around the Earth from a spot in line with a certain star, it
will return to that same spot in about ______________.
2. If the moon started its orbit from a spot exactly between Earth and the
Sun, it would return to almost the same spot in _______________.
3. A _____________ after the new moon, we see a thin slice of light at the edge of the
moon. This is called the crescent moon.
4. A _____________ after the new moon, we see half of the lighted side of the moon. This is
called the first quarter moon.
5. About a week after the first quarter moon, the Earth is between the moon and the sun.
We see the whole lighted side of the moon which is called _____________.

____________1. What are the two ways of scientists in measuring the time the moon
____________2. completes one revolution around the Earth?
____________3. What term came from the length of time it takes the moon to complete
one revolution around the Earth?
____________4. What month is referred to if the moon started its orbit around the Earth
from a spot in line with a certain star and will return to that same spot in about 27 ½
days?
____________5. What month has 29 ½ days cyclic pattern?
1. What is the Latin name given to the constellation of twins?
A. Aries B. Gemini C. Libra D. Scorpio
2. What is the smallest constellation?
A. Crux C. Cygnus
B. Sagittarius D. Cancer
3. The Big Dipper is a part of which constellation?
A. Aquarius C. Ursa Minor
B. Canis Major D. Ursa Major
4. What is the largest constellation?
A. Andrmeda C. Orion
B. Cygnus D. The Crux
5. Which constellation has Polaris, the North Star?
A. Libra B. Capricorn C. Ursa Major D. Ursa Minor
1. What is the imaginary line where the sky and Earth appear to meet?
A. Polaris B. Horizon C. Sphere D. Poles
2. Which part of the celestial sphere is the sun located?
A. North Celestial Pole C. Celestial Equator
B. South Celestial Pole D. Celestial Sphere
3. How do astronomers use the constellations in the sky?
A. for star gazing C. for mapping regions in the sky
B. for signs of meteorites D. for drawing stick figures

Meaning of Constellation Importance of Constellation

� Star patterns shaped like persons, animals, and inanimate objects
� Groups of stars that form a shape or pattern
� Help form a map of the sky
� Guide of seafarers as they travel across the sea

4. How do constellations help navigators?

A. for lights at sea C. for recording dates
B. for finding directions D. for viewing pleasure
5. Which constellation can help a traveller find the south sky at nightmare.
A. Andromeda C. Crux
B. Cassiopeia D. orion
Column A Column B
1. Big Dipper A. August
2. Pegasus B. November to December
3. Scorpio C. May
4. Scorpio and Pegasus D. April
5. Orion and Big Dipper E. September to October
1. What occurs along very steep slopes when saturation by water and loss of friction with underlying rock cause loose
soil to slip downhill in one huge piece?
A. a slump C. a mudflow
B. a rock fall D. a landslide
2. Which is the most effective agent of erosion?
A. a glaciers C. water
B. a gravity D. wind
3. How do plants break large rocks into smaller pieces?
A. Plant leaves insulate surrounding rocks from extreme temperatures
B. Seeds from plants fall onto and release acidic compounds
C. Stems of plants surround and squeeze rocks.
D. Plant roots grow into cracks in rocks
4. Which of the following factors can affect soil erosion?
I. amount of vegetation in the area
II. speed and amount of running water
III. dryness and size and soil particles
IV. slope of the land
A. I and II only C. I, II and IV only
B. I and III only D. I, II, III and IV
5. Why do sedimentary rocks are important to geologist and archeologist?
A. It serves as decoration
B. They used it to make a jewel
C. They used it to study the structure of things that existed in the past.
D. It serves as collections.
6. Which of the following would not be used from rocks and minerals?
E. Jewelry
F. Building
G. Electrical device
H. Ceramics
7. Chalk is used to write on blackboards because ...
E. It wears away easily.
F. It is permeable.
G. It doesn’t float.
H. It has graphite.
8. Marble is often used for statues or grand buildings because ...
E. It has attractive textures and colors.
F. It splits easily into thin sheets.
G. It wears away easily.
H. All of the above
9. What could be a problem with a monument made from chalk?
E. It wouldn't float
F. It couldn't be shaped
G. It could crumble over time
H. All of the above
10. The government agency that warns the people of an approaching typhoon.
A. PHIVOLCS B. PAGASA C. DENR D. DEPED
11. Typhoon signals are raised according to ________.
a. strength of the wind c. strength and speed of the wind
b. speed of the wind d. none of the above
12. Why are weather bulletin posted and warnings issued by PAGASA?
a. to give people time to prepare
b. to give people to go and a movie
c. to give people time for swimming
d. to give people time to party
13. When classes in all levels are suspended and work in government offices are likewise
suspended, typhoon signals is raised to _____.
a. Signal No. 1 b. Signal No. 2 c. Signal No. 3 d. Signal No. 4
14. Strong winds of 60-100 kph is expected within 24 hours and classes in the
elementary and secondary levels are suspended. It describes ___________.
A. Signal No. 1 b. Signal No. 2 c. Signal No. 3 d. Signal No. 4
15. If Storm Signal No. 4 is raised, the speed of the wind is at least:
a. 85 kph c. 120 kph
b. 100 kph d. 186 kph
17. PAGASA has just raised typhoon signal number three in Metro Manila and neighboring
Northern Luzon provinces. What does this mean?
E. Winds up to 60 kph may be expected in the locality
F. Winds from 60 – 100 kph may be expected within the next 24 hours
G. Winds with a speed of 100 – 185 kph are expected in the area in at least 18 hours
H. Winds with a speed greater than 185kph are expected to hit the area in at least 12
hours
18. Which best describes a storm surge?
E. expansion of the hurricane’s characterized eye
F. sudden and rapid increase of the intensity of a storm
G. windstorm characterized by twisting, funnel-shaped cloud
H. onshore rush of water associated with a low-pressure weather system.
19. What causes the monsoon winds in the Philippines?
A. trade winds B. prevailing westerlies
C. polar westerlies D. tilting of earth’s axis
20. What is a squall?
A. abnormal rise of water level B. rapid upward movement of air
C. sudden drop in air pressure D. increase in surfaced wind
Magnitude
21. Which is the only positive outcome of typhoons?
A. remove pollutants from the air B. remove trash from rivers
C. cause flooding D. fill up dams and replenish water supply
22. What should you do during a typhoon?
A. Seek shelter in a basement or low ground.
B. Stay at home and be updated about the typhoon.
C. Seek high ground due to flooding.
D. Seek shelter in a basement or low ground
23. Which can be greatly damaged by typhoons?
A. forests B. agricultural lands
C. fish farms D. all of the above
24. Which of the following is responsible for issuing public storm warning signals (PSWS)
regarding the typhoons that enter the Philippine Area of Responsibility (PAR)?
A. DSWD B. NDRRMC C. PAGASA D. DepEd
25.Storms need three things to form. Which of the following is NOT included?
A. warm air B. altitude C. high winds D. moisture
26. If the storm warning signal is number 3, which of the following is the impact of the
wind?
A. Very heavy to widespread damage C. Moderate to heavy damage
B. .Heavy to very heavy damage D. Light to moderate damage
27. What is the weather condition in the eye of a typhoon?
A. fair B. fine C. rainy D. windy
28. Which public storm warning signal is characterized by winds of greater than 100-185
kph?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
29. What do you call the area in the center of a typhoon?
A. current B. depression C. epicenter D. eye
30. Which of the following is the best thing to do before a typhoon.
A. Transfer or keep all home appliances to dry and safer place.
B. Stay in a safe place at home.
C. Do not attempt to cross a flooded area.
D. Do not attempt to use home appliances that were wet by the rain or flood.
31. Why is the moon considered a satellite of Earth?
A. It orbits Earth. C.It keeps Earth on its orbit.
B. It pulls Earth toward it. D. It affects the tides on Earth.
32. Where does the moon get its life?
A. earth B. produces light on its own C. stars D. sun
33. How long does it take the moon to complete its orbit around the earth?
A. one day B. one week C. one month D. one year
34. When Earth is between the moon and the sun, the moon’s phase is most likely a ___________.
A. new moon B. half moon C. quarter moon D. full moon
35. Why does the moon have different phases?
A. It moves around the sun. C. It follows the sun.
B. It moves around Earth. D. Its surface experiences seasons.
36. Wich shows the correct sequence of the moon phases?
A. new moon-full moon-half moon, gibbous moon-crescent moon
B. new moon-gibbous moon-full moon-crescent moon, half moon
C. gibbous moon-crescent moon-new moon-full moon, half moon
D. new moon-crescent moon-half moon-quarter moon-full moon
37. Which period describes when the moon appears to be decreasing in size?
A. waning moon B. waxing moon
C. lunar eclipse D. none of these
38. Plant serves as agents of weathering. Which of the following statements support this
idea?
A. Falling of leaves cause rocks to break.
B. Decaying trunks of plants cause the rocks to break.
C. Root of plants that grow in rocks and cause them to break.
D. Branches of plants cause the rocks to break when blown by the winds.
39. Why do sedimentary rocks are important to geologist and archeologist?
A. It serves as decoration
B. They used it to make a jewel
C. They used it to study the structure of things that existed in the past.
D. It serves as collections.
40. Which of the following would not be used from rocks and minerals?
A. Jewelry
B. Building
C. Electrical device
D. ceramics
41. What could be a problem with a monument made from chalk?
A. It wouldn't float
B. It couldn't be shaped
C. It could crumble over time
D. All of the above
42. When a wind an agent of erosion?
A. When it breaks rocks into pieces
B. When it carries rock pieces to other places
C. When it stops picking up rocks
D. When it presses down on rocks
43. Landslides on mountain slopes show the force of _______.
A. Gravity
B. Wind
C. Runoff
D. Running water
44. What makes the water muddy after a heavy rain?
A. The pebbles picked up by water.
B. The rainwater turned brown in color
C. The gravel and sand carried by the water
D. The fine dust particles dissolved in water.
45. How can trees help prevent erosion?
A. The roots hold the soil firmly together
B. The trees block the way of running water
C. The roots absorb the water at once
D. The roots secrete acid, attacking the rocks.
46. When is wind an agent of soil erosion?
A. When it breaks rocks into pieces
B. When it carries rock pieces to other places
C. When it stops picking up rocks
D. When it presses down rocks
47. Landslides on mountain slopes show the force of____________.
A. Gravity
B. Wind
C. Runoff
D. Running water
48. What makes the water muddy after a heavy rain?
A. The pebbles picked up by water.
B. The rainwater turned brown in color.
C. The gravel and sand carried by water.
D. The fine dust particles dissolved in water.
49. Which of the following shows that soil erosion is caused by wind?
A. Sandstorm
B. Muddy water in the field
C. Pile of soil in the river
D. Ashes and dust near Mt. Pinatubo
50. All of these are causes of soil erosion except one.
A. Water
B. Human and animal activities
C. Wind
D. Fire