Chapter 1: INTRODUCTION TO 11.

Electron-holes pairs are produced by

ELECTRONICS A. ionization B. thermal energy
C. recombination D. doping
1. Every known element has
A. the same type of atoms 12. Recombination is when
B. a unique type of atom A. a crystal is formed
C. the same number of atoms B. a positive and a negative ion bond together
D. several different types of atom C. an electron falls into a hole
D. a valence electron becomes a conduction electron
2. An atom consist of
A. one nucleus and only one electron 13. In a semiconductor crystal, the atoms are held
B. one nucleus and one or more electrons together by
C. protons, electrons, and neutrons A. forces of attraction
D. answer b or c B. the interaction of valence electrons
C. covalent bonds
3. The nucleus of an atom is made up to D. answer a, b, c
A. proton and neutrons
B. electrons and protons 14. Each atom in a silicon crystal has
C. electrons A.no valence electrons because all are shared with
D. electrons and protons other atoms
B. Eight valence electrons because all are with
4. The atomic number of silicon is other atoms
A. 8 B. 14 C. Four valence electrons
C. 4 D. 2 D. Four conduction electrons

5. The atomic number of germanium is 15. The current in a semiconductor is produced by

A. 32 B. 4 A. holes only
C. 2 D. 8 B. electrons only
C. both electrons and holes
6. The valence shell in a silicon atom has the number D. negative ions
designation of
A. 1 B. 0 16. In an intrinsic semiconductor
C. 3 D. 2 A. there are no free electrons
B. the free electrons are thermally produced
7. Valence electrons are C. there are only holes
A. in the closet orbit to the nucleus D. there are as many electrons as there are holes
B. in various orbits around the nucleus E. answer b and d
C. in the most distant orbit from the nucleus
D. not associated with a particular atom 17. The difference between an insulator and a
semiconductor is
8. A positive ion is formed when A. a wider energy gap between the valence band and
A. there are more holes than electrons in the outer the conduction band
orbit B. the number of free electrons
B. two atoms bond together C. the atomic structure
C. a valence electron breaks away from the atom D. answers a, b and c
D. an atom gains extra valence electron
18. The process of adding an impurity to an intrinsic
9. The most widely used semiconductive material in semiconductor is called
electronic device is A. atomic modification B. doping
A. silicon B. carbon C. recombination D. ionization
C. germanium D. copper
19. A trivalent impurity is added to silicon to create
10. The energy band in which free electrons exist is A. germanium
the B. an n-type semiconductor
A. first band B. conduction band C. a depletion region
C. second band D. valence band D. a p-type semiconductor

20. The purpose of a pentavalent impurity is to
A. increase the number of free electrons
B. create minority carriers
C. reduce the conductivity of silicon
D. increase the number of holes
21. The majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor
are
A. holes
B. conduction electrons
C. valence electron
D. protons
22. Holes in an n-type semiconductor are
A. minority carriers that are thermally produced
B. majority carriers that are thermally produced
C. minority carriers that are produced by doping
D. majority carriers that are produced by doping
23. A pn junction is formed by
A. ionization
B. the boundary of a p-type and an n-type
material
C. the recombination of electrons and holes
D. the collision of a proton and a neutron
24. The depletion region is created by
A. ionization
B. diffusion
C. recombination
D. answer a, b and c
25. The depletion region is consist of
A. nothing but minority carriers
B. positive and negative ions
C. no majority carriers
D. answer b and c
26. The term bias means
A. a dc voltage is applied to control the operation
of a device
B. neither a, b nor c
C. the ratio of majority carriers to minority carriers
D. the amount of current across a diode
27. To forward-bias a diode
A. an external voltage is applied that is positive at the
anode and negative at the cathode
B. an external voltage applied that is negative at the
anode and positive at the cathode
C. an external voltage is applied that is positive at the
p region and negative at the n region
D. answer a and c
28. When diode is forward-biased
A. the only current is hole current
B. the only current is produced by majority carriers
C. the current is produced by both holes and
electrons
D. the only current is electron current
29. Although current is blocked in reverse bias
A. there is some current due to majority carriers
B. there is very small current due to minority
carriers
C. there is an avalanche current
30. For a silicon diode, the value of the forward-bias
voltage typically
A. must be greater than 0.3 V
B. depends on the width of the depletion region
C. depends on the concentration of majority carriers
D. must be greater than 0.7 V
31. When forward-biased, a diode
A. block current
B. has a high resistance
C. conducts current
D. drops a large voltage
32. When a voltmeter is placed across a forward-
biased diode, it will read a voltage approximately
equal to
A. the diode barrier potential
B. the bias battery voltage
C. the total circuit voltage
D. 0 V
33. A silicon diode is in series with 1.0 kΩ resistor
and a 5 V battery. If the anode is connected to the
positive battery terminal, the cathode voltage with
respect to the negative battery terminal is
A. 0.7 V B. 5.7 V
C. 0.3 V D. 4.3 V
34. The positive lead of an ohmmeter is connected to
the anode of a diode and the negative lead is
connected to the cathode. The diode is
A. reverse-biased
B. forward-biased
C. open
D. faulty
E. answers b and d
Chapter 2: DIODES AND APPLICATIONS 45. A certain power supply filter produces an output
with a ripple of 100 mV peak-to-peak and a dc value
35. The average value of a half-wave rectified voltage of 20 V. The ripple factor is
with a peak value of 200 V is A. 0.005 B. 0.05
A. 127.3 V B. 141 V C. 0.02 D. 0.00005
C. 0 V D. 63.7 V
46. A 60 V peak full-wave rectified voltage is applied
36. When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to the to a capacitor-input filter. If f = 120 Hz. RL = 10 k Ω
input of a half-wave rectifier, the output frequency is and C = 10μF, the ripple voltage is
A. 60 Hz B. 120 Hz A. 0.6 V B. 5.0 V
C. 0 Hz D. 30 Hz C. 6 mV D. 2.88 V

37. The peak value of the input to a half-wave 47. If the load resistance of a capacitor-filtered full-
rectifier is 10V. The approximate peak value of the wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage
output is A. is not affected B. increases
A. 10.7 V B. 9.3 V C. decreases D. has a different frequency
C. 10 V D. 3.18 V
48. Line regulation is determined by
38. For the circuit in Question in Question 3, the A. zener current and load current
diode must be able to withstand a reverse voltage of B. changes in load resistance and output voltage
A. 5 V B. 10 V C. load current
C. 20 V D. 3.18 V D. changes in output voltage and input voltage

39. The average value of a full-wave rectified voltage 49. Load regulations is determined by
with a peak value of 75 V is A. changes in zener current and load current
A. 37.5 V B. 23.9 V B. changes in load current and output voltage
C. 53 V D. 47.8 V C. changes in load current and input voltage
D. changes in load resistance and input voltage
40. When a 60 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to the
input of a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency is 50. A 10 V peak-to-peak sinusoidal voltage is applied
A. 60 Hz B. 120 Hz across a silicon diode and series resistor. The
C. 240 Hz D. 0 Hz maximum voltage across the diode is
A. 0.7 V D. 5 V
41. The total secondary voltage in a center-tapped B. 10 V E. 4.3 V
full-wave rectifier is 125 rms. Neglecting the diode C. 9.3 V
drop, the rms output voltage is
A. 117 V B. 100 V 51. If the input voltage to a voltage tripler has an rms
C. 62.5 V D. 125 V value of 12 V, the dc output voltage is approximately
A. 36 V B. 33.9 V
42. When the peak output voltage is 100 V, the PIV C. 32.4 V D. 50.9 V
for each diode in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is
(neglecting the diode drop) 52. If one of the diode in a bridge full-wave rectifier
A. 100 V B. 141 V opens, the output is
C. 200 V D. 50 V A. one-fourth the amplitude of the input voltage
B. 0 V
43. When the rms output voltage of a bridge full C. 120 Hz voltage
wave rectifier is 20 V, the peak inverse voltage across D. a half-wave rectified voltage
the diodes is (neglecting the diode drop)
A. 28.3 V B. 20 V 53. If you are checking a 60 Hz full-wave bridge
C. 40 V D. 56.6 V rectifier and observe that the output has a 60 Hz
ripple
44. The ideal dc output voltage of a capacitor-input A. the filter capacitor is leaky
filter is equal to B. the transformer secondary is shorted
A. the average value of the rectified voltage C. there is an open diode
B. the rms value of the rectified voltage D. the circuit is working properly
C. the peak value of the rectified voltage
Chapter 3: SPECIAL – PURPOSE DIODES 62. The internal resistance of a photodiode
A. increase with light intensity when forward-biased
54. The cathode of zener diode in a voltage regulator B. decrease with light intensity when forward-
is normally biased
A. more negative than the anode C. increases with light intensity when reverse-biased
B. more positive than the anode D. decrease with light intensity when forward-biased
C. at + 0.7 V
D. grounded 63. A diode that has a negative resistance
characteristics is the
55. If a certain zener diode has a zener voltage of 3.6 A. tunnel diode
V, it operates in B. laser diode
A. avalanche breakdown C. schottky diode
B. zener breakdown D. hot-carrier diode
C. regulated breakdown
D. forward conduction 64. An infrared LED is optically coupled to a
photodiode. When the LED is turned off, the reading
56. For a certain 12 V zener diode, a 10mA change in on an ammeter is series with the reverse-biased
Zener current produces a 0.1 V change in Zener photodiode will
voltage. The zener impedance for this current ranges A. increase
is B. not change
A. 0.1 Ω B. 100 Ω C. fluctuate
C. 10 Ω D. 1 Ω D. decrease

57. The data sheet for a particular zener gives VZ = 65. In order for a system to function properly, the
10 V at IZT = 500 mA. ZZ for these conditions is various types of circuits that make up the system
A. 20 Ω B. 50 Ω must be
C. 10 Ω D. unknown A. properly biased
B. properly connected
58. A no-load condition means that C. properly interfaced
A. the load has infinite resistance D. all of the above
B. the load has zero resistance E. answer a and b
C. answer a and c
D. the output terminal are open

59. A varactor diode exhibits Chapter 4: BIPOLAR JUNCTION

A. a variable capacitance that depends on forward TRANSISTORS
current
B. a variable capacitance that depends on reverse
voltage 66. The three terminals of a bipolar junction
C. a constant capacitance over a range of reverse transistor are
voltages called
D. a variable resistance that depends on reverse A. input, output, ground C. p,n,p
voltage B. base, emitter, collector D. n,p,n

60. An LED 67. In a pnp transistor, the p-region are

A. emits light when forward-biased A. base and emitter
B. emits light when reverse-biased B. base and collector
C. acts as a variable resistance C. emitter and collector
D. senses light when reverse-biased
68. For operation as an amplifier, the base of a npn
61. Compared to a visible red LED, an infrared LED transistor must be
A. produces light with longer wavelength A. 0 V
B. produces light when reverse-biased B. negative with respect to the emitter
C. produces light with shorter wavelengths C. positive with respect to the collector
D. produces only one color of light D. positive with respect to the emitter
69. The emitter current is always 80. If the base-emitter junction is open, the collector
A. greater than the base current voltage is
B. less than the collector current A. floating B. VCC
C. greater than the collector current C. 0 V D. 0.2 V
D. answer a and c

70. The βDC of a transistor is its

A. internal resistance B. power gain Chapter 5: TRANSISTOR BIAS CIRCUITS
C. voltage gain D. current gain

71. If IC is 50 times larger than IB, then βDC is 81. The maximum value of collector current in a
A. 500 B. 0.02 biased transistor is
C. 100 D. 50 A. βDCIB B. IC(sat)
C. greater than IE D. IE - IB
72. The approximate voltage across the forward-
biased base emitter junction of a silicon BJT is 82. Ideally, a dc load line is s straight line drawn on
A. 0.3 V B. 0.7 V the collector characteristics curves between
C. 0 V D. VBB A. the Q-point and saturation
B. VCE(cut off) and IC(sat)
73. The bias condition for a transistor to be used as C. the Q-point and cut-off
linear amplifier is called D. IB = 0 and IB = IC / βDC
A. reverse-reverse B. forward-reverse
C. collector bias D. forward-forward 83. If a sinusoidal voltage is applied to the base of a
biased npn transistor and the resulting sinusoidal
74. If the output of a transistor amplifier is 5 V rms collector voltage is clipped near zero volts, the
and the input is 100 mV rms, the voltage gain is transistor is
A. 50 B. 500 A. being driven into saturation
C. 5 D. 100 B. being driven into cut off
C. operating nonlinearly
75. When operated in cutoff and saturation, the D. answer a and c
transistor acts like E. answer b and c
A. a switch B. a linear amplifier
C. a variable capacitor D. a variable resistor 84. The input resistance at the base of a biased
transistor depends mainly on
76. In cutoff, VCE is A. βDC B. βDC and RE
A. 0 V B. minimum C. RB D. RE
C. maximum D. equal to VCC
E. answer a and b F. answer c and d

77. In saturation, VCE is

A. 0.7 V B. equal to VCC
C. maximum D. minimum

78. To saturate a BJT,

A. IB > IC(sat)/βDC
B. IB = IC(sat)
C. VCC must be at least 10 V
D. the emitter must be grounded
85. In a voltage-divider biased transistor circuit such
79. Once in saturation, a further increase in base as the figure, RIN(base) can generally be neglected in
current will calculation when
A. not affected the collector current A. RIN(base) > 10 R2 B. R1 << R2
B. cause the collector current to decrease C. RIN(base) > R2 D. R2 > 10 RIN(base)
C. cause the collector current to increase
D. turn the transistor off
86. In a certain voltage-divider biased npn transistor, A. a bias resistor is open
VB is 2.95 V. The dc emitter voltage is B. the collector resistor is open
approximately C. the base-emitter junction is open
A. 2.95 V B. 2.25 V D. the emitter resistor is open
C. 0.7 V D. 3.65 V E. answer a and c
F. answer c and d
87. Voltage-divider bias
A. can be essentially independent of βDC Chapter 6: BJT AMPLIFIERS
B. is not widely used
C. cannot be independent of βDC
D. requires fewer components than all the other 95. A small-signal amplifier
methods A. is always a common-emitter amplifier
B. always has an output signal in the mV range
88. The disadvantage of base bias is that C. uses only a small portion of its load line
A. it produces low gain D. goes into saturation once on each input cycle
B. it is very complex
C. it produces high leakage current 96. The parameter hfe corresponds to
D. it is too beta dependent A. βAC B. βDC
C. r’c D. r’e

89. Emitter bias is 97. If the dc emitter current in a certain transistor

A. essentially independent of βDC amplifier is 3 mA, the approximate value of r’e is
B. very dependent of βDC A. 3 Ω B. 3 kΩ
C. provides a stable bias point C. 0.33 kΩ D. 8.33 Ω
D. answer a and c
98. A certain common-emitter amplifier has a voltage
90. In an emitter bias circuit, RE = 2.7 k Ω and VEE gain of 100. If the emitter bypass capacitor is
= 15 V. The emitter current removed,
A. is 180 mA B. is 2.7 mA A. the voltage gain will decrease
C. is 5.3 mA D. cannot be determined B. the voltage gain will increase
C. the circuit will become unstable
91. Collector-feedback bias is D. the Q-point will shift
A. based on the principle of negative feedback
B. based on beta multiplication 99. For a common-collector amplifier, RE = 100 Ω,
C. based on the principle of positive feedback r’e = 10 Ω, and βAC = 150. The ac input resistance at
D. not very stable the base is
A. 16.5 Ω B. 15 kΩ
92. In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the C. 110 Ω D. 1500 Ω
upper voltage-divider resistor (the one connected to
VCC opens, 100. If a 10mV signal is applied to the base of the
A. the transistor burns out emitter follower circuit in Question 5, the output
B. the transistor goes into saturation signal is approximately
C. the transistor goes into cutoff A. 1.5 mV B. 10 mV
D. the supply voltage is too high C. 100 mV D. 150 mV

93. In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the 101.For a common-emitter amplifier, RC = 1.0 kΩ,
lower voltage-divider resistor (the one connected to RE = 390 Ω, and βAC = 75. Assuming the RE is
VCC) opens. completely bypassed at the operating frequency, the
A. the collector current will decrease voltage gain is
B. the transistor may be driven into saturation A. 2.56 B. 66.7
C. the transistor is not affected C. 2.47 D. 75
D. the transistor may be driven into cutoff
102. In the circuit of Question 7, if the frequency is
94. In a voltage-divider biased pnp transistor, there is reduced to the point where XC(bypass) = RE, the voltage
no base current, but the base voltage is approximately gain
correct. The most likely problem(s) is A. remains the same B. is less
C. is greater
112.For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes
103. In a certain emitter-follower circuit, the current constant when VDS exceeds
gain is 50. The power gain is approximately A. 0 V B. Vp
A. 50 AV B. 50 C. VDD D. cutoff
C. 1 D. answer a and b
113.The constant-current area of a FET lies between
104. In a darlington pair configuration, each A. pinch-off and breakdown B. 0 and IDSS
transistor has an ac beta of 125. If RE is 560 Ω, the C. cutoff and saturation D. cutoff and pinch-off
input resistance is
A. 560 Ω B. 70 Ω 114. IDSS is
C. 140 kΩ D. 8.75 MΩ A. the drain current at cutoff
B. the maximum possible drain current
105.The input resistance of a common-base amplifier C. the drain current with the source shorted
is D. the midpoint drain current
A. the same as a CC B. the same as a CE
C. very low D. very high 115. Drain current in the constant-current area
increases when
106.In a common-emitter amplifier with voltage A. the drain-to-source voltage decreases
divider bias, Rin(base) = 68 kΩ, R1 = 33 kΩ, and R2 = B. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases
15 kΩ. The total input resistance is C. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
A. 22.2 kΩ B. 68 kΩ D. the drain-to-source voltage increases
C. 8.95 kΩ D. 12.3 kΩ
116. In a certain FET circuit, VGS = 0 V, VDD = 15 V,
107.A CE amplifier is driving a 10 kΩ load. If RC = IDSS = 15 mA, and RD = 470 Ω. If RD is decreased to
2.2 kΩ and r’e = 10 Ω, the voltage gain is 330 Ω, IDSS is
approximately A. 1 mA B. 10.5 mA
A. 180 B. 220 C. 19.5 mA D. 15 mA
C. 10 D. 1000
117. At cutoff, the JFET channel is
108.The overall gain found in Question 14 can be A. completely closed by the depletion region
expressed in decibels as B. at its wide points
A. 47.0 dB B. 35.6 dB C. extremely narrow
C. 94.1 dB D. 69.8 dB D. reverse-biased

118. A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = - 4 V.

The pinchoff voltage, Vp,
Chapter 7: POWER AMPLIFIERS A. cannot be determined
B. is –4 V
C. depends on VGS
109.The JFET is
D. is + 4 V
A. a unipolar device
B. a voltage-controlled device
119.The JFET in Question 10
C. a current-controlled device
A. is an n channel B. is a p channel
D. answer a and c
C. can be either
E. answer a and b
120. For a certain JFET, IGSS = 10 nA at VGS = 10 V.
110.The channel of a JFET is between the
The input resistance is
A. drain and source B. gate and drain
A. 1 MΩ B. 1000 MΩ
C. input and output D. gate and source
C. 100 MΩ D. 1000 mΩ
111.A JFET always operates with
121.For a certain p-channel JFET, VGS(off) = 8 V. The
A. the gate connected to the source
value of VGS for an approximately midpoint bias is
B. the gate-to-source pn junction forward-biased
A. 2.34 V B. 0 V
C. the gate-to-source pn junction reverse-biased
C. 4 V D. 1.25 V
D. the drain connected to ground
122.A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because
A. of the power rating 131.The value of the current source in Question 4 is
B. the JFET has a pn junction dependent on the
C. MOSFETs do not have a physical channel A. transconductance and gate-to-source voltage
D. the MOSFET has two gates B. dc supply voltage
C. external drain resistance
123.A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its D. answer b and c
data sheet specifies IDSS = 20 mA and VGS(off) = - 5 V.
The value of the drain current 132.A certain common-source amplifier has a voltage
A. is 0 A B. cannot be determined gain of
C. is 20 mA 10. If the source bypass capacitor is removed,
A. the voltage gain will increase
124. An n-channel D-MOSFET with positive VGS is B. the transconductance will increases
operating in C. the voltage gain will decreases
A. the depletion mode B. cutoff D. the Q-point will shift
C. the enhancement mode D. saturation
133.A CS amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ
125.A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has a VGS(th) = - and RD = 820Ω, If gm = 5 mS and Vin = 500 mV, the
2 V. If VGS = 0 V, the drain current is output signal voltage is
A. 0 A B. maximum A. 1.89 V B. 2.05 V
C. IDSS D. ID(on) C. 25 V D. 0.5 V

126.A TMOSFET is a special type of 134.If the load resistance in Question 7 is removed,
A. JFET B. D-MOSFET the output voltage will
C. answer a and c D. E-MOSFET A. stay the same B. decrease
C. increase D. be zero

Chapter 8: FIELD-EFFECT TRANSISTORS 135.A certain common-drain (CD) amplifier with RS

= 1.0 kΩ has a transconductance of 6000 μS. The
voltage gain is
127. In a common-source amplifier, the output
A. 1 B. 0.86
voltage is 180˚ out of phase with the input
C. 0.98 D. 6
A. in phase with the input
B. taken at the source
136.The data sheet for the transistor used in a CD
C. taken at the drain
amplifier specifies IGSS = 5 nA at VGS = 10 V. If the
D. answer a and c
resistor from ate to ground, RG, is 50 MΩ, the total
E. answer a and d input resistance is approximately.
A. 50 MΩ B. 200 MΩ
128.In a certain common-source (CS) amplifier, VDS
C. 40 MΩ D. 20.5 MΩ
= 3.2Vrms and VGS = 280 mVrms. The voltage gain
is
137.The common-gate (CG) amplifier differs from
A. 1 B. 11.4
both the CS and CD configuration in that it has a
C. 8.75 D. 3.2
A. much higher voltage gain
B. much lower voltage gain
129.In a certain CS amplifier, RD = 1.0 kΩ, RS = 560
C. much higher input resistance
Ω, VDD = 10V, and gm = 4500 μS. If the source
D. much lower input resistance
resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is
A. 450 B. 45
138.If you are looking for both good voltage gain and
C. 4.5 D. 2.52
high input resistance, you must use a
A. CS amplifier B. CD amplifier
130. Ideally, the equivalent circuit of a FET contains
C. CG amplifier
A. a current source in series with a resistance
B. a resistance between drain and source terminals
139.For small-signal operation, an n-channel JFET
C. a current source between gate and source terminals
must be biased at
D. a current source between drain and source
A. VGS = 0 V D. VGS = VGS(off)
terminals B. VGS = VGS(off) E. 0V < VGS <+ VGS(off)
C. - VGS(off)<VGS<0V
148.The maximum efficiency of a class A power
140.Two FET amplifier are cascaded. The first stage amplifier is
has a voltage gain of 5 and the second stage has a A. 25% B. 50%
voltage gain of 7. The overall voltage gain is C. 79% D. 98%
A. 35
B. 12 149.The transistor is a class B amplifier are biased
C. dependent on the second stage loading A. into cutoff
B. in saturation
141.If there is an internal open between the drain and C. at midpoint of the load line
source in a CS amplifier, the drain voltage is equal to D. right at cutoff
A. 0 V B. VDD
C. a value less than normal D. VGS 150.Crossover distortion is a problem for
A. class A amplifiers B. class AB amplifiers
C. class B amplifiers D. all of these amplifiers
Chapter 9: FET AMPLIFIERS AND 151.A BJT class B push-pull amplifier with no
SWITCHING CIRCUITS transformer coupling uses
A. two npn transistors
B. two pnp transistors
142.An amplifier that operates in the linear region at C. complementary symmetry transistors
all times is D. none of these
A. Class A B. Class AB
C. Class B D. Class C 152.A current mirror in a push-pull amplifier should
give an ICQ that is
143.A certain class A power amplifier delivers 5 W A. equal to the current in the bias resistors and
to a load with an input signal power of 100 mW. The diodes
power gain is B. twice the current in the bias resistors and diodes
A. 100 B. 50 C. half the current in the bias resistors and diodes
C. 250 D. 5 D. zero
144.The peak current a class A power amplifier can 153.The maximum efficiency of a class B push-pull
deliver to a load depends on the amplifier is
A. maximum rating of the power supply A. 25% B. 50%
B. quiescent current C. 79% D. 98%
C. current in the bias resistor
D. size of the heat sink 154.The output of a certain two-supply class B push
pull amplifier has a VCC of 20 V. If the load
145.For maximum output, a class A power amplifier resistance is 50 Ω, the value of IC(sat) is
must be maintain a value of quiescent current that is A. 5 mA B. 0.4 A
A. one-half the peak load current C. 4 mA D. 40 mA
B. twice the peak load current
C. at least as large as the peak load current 155.The maximum efficiency of a class AB amplifier
D. just above the cutoff value is
A. higher than a class B
146.A certain class A power amplifier has V CEQ = 12 B. the same as class B
V and ICQ = 1 A. The maximum signal power output C. about the same as a class A
is D. slightly less than a class B
A. 6 W B. 12 W
C. 1 W D. 0.707 W 156.The power dissipation of a class C amplifier is
normally
147.The efficiency of a power amplifier is the ratio of A. very low B. very high
the power delivered to the load to the C. the same as a class B D. the same as a class A
A. input signal power
B. power dissipated in the last stage 157.The efficiency of a class C amplifier is
C. power from the dc power supply A. less than class A
D. none of these answer B. less than class B
C. less than class AB 165.An amplifier has the following critical
D. greater than classes A, B, or AB frequencies: 1.2 kHz, 950 Hz, 8 kHz, and 8.5 kHz.
The bandwidth is
158.The transistor in a class C amplifier conducts for A. 7550 Hz B. 7300 Hz
A. more than 180˚ of the input cycle C. 6800 Hz D. 7050 Hz
B. one-half of the input cycle
C. a very small percentage of the input cycle 166.Ideally, the midrange gain of an amplifier
D. all of the input cycle A. increase with frequency
B. decrease with frequency
C. remains constant with frequency
Chapter 10: AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY D. depends on the coupling capacitors
RESPONSE
167.The frequency at which an amplifier’s gain is 1 is
called the
159.The low-frequency response of an amplifier is A. unity-gain frequency
determined in part by B. midrange frequency
A. the voltage gain C. corner frequency
B. the type of transistor D. break frequency
C. the supply voltage
D. the coupling capacitors 168.When the voltage gain of an amplifier is
increased, the bandwidth
160.The high-frequency response of an amplifier is A. is not affected
determined in part by B. increases
A. the gain-bandwidth product C. decreases
B. the bypass capacitor D. becomes distorted
C. the internal transistor capacitances
D. the roll-off 169.If the fr of the transistor used in a certain
amplifier is 75 MHz and the bandwidth is 10 MHz,
161.The bandwidth of an amplifier is determined by the voltage gain must
A. the midrange gain be
B. the critical frequencies A. 750 B. 7.5
C. the roll-off rate C. 10 D. 1
D. the input capacitance
170.In the midrange of an amplifier’s bandwidth, the
162.The gain of a certain amplifier decrease by 6 dB peak output voltage is 6 V. At the lower critical
when the frequency is reduced from 1 kHz to 10 Hz. frequency, the peak output voltage is
The roll-off is A. 3 V B. 3.82 V
A. - 3 dB/decade C. 8.48 V D. 4.24 V
B. - 6 dB/decade
C. - 3 dB/octave 171.At the upper critical frequency, the peak output
D. - 6 dB/octave voltage of a certain amplifier is 10 V. The peak
voltage in the midrange of the amplifier is
163.The gain of a particular amplifier at a given A. 7.07 V B. 6.37 V
frequency decreases by 6 dB when the frequency is C. 14.14 V D. 10 V
doubled. The roll-off is
A. - 12 dB/decade B. - 20 dB/decade 172.In the step response of a noninverting amplifier,
C. - 6 dB/octave D. answer b and c a longer rise time means
A. a narrower bandwidth B. a
164.The miller input capacitance of an amplifier is lower fcl
dependent, in part, on C. a higher fcu D. answer a and b
A. the input coupling capacitor
B. the voltage gain 173.The lower critical frequency of a direct-coupled
C. the bypass capacitor amplifier with no bypass capacitor is
D. none of these A. variable B. 0 Hz
C. dependent on the bias D. none of these
Chapter 11: THYRISTORS 182.The diac is
A. a thyristor
174. A thyristor has B. a bilateral, two terminal device
A. two pn junctions C. like two parallel 4-layer diode in reverse directions
B. three pn junctions D. answer a, b and c
C. four pn junctions
D. only two terminals 183.The triac is
A. like a bi-directional SCR
175.Common types of thyristors includes B. a four-terminal device
A. BJTs and SCRs B. UJTs and PUTs C. not a thyristor
C. FETs and triacs D. diacs and triacs D. answer a and b

176.A 4-layer didoe turns on when the anode to 184.The SCS differs from the SCR because
cathode voltage exceeds A. it does not have a gate terminal
A. 0.7 V B. its holding current is less
B. the gate voltage C. it can handle much higher currents
C. the forward-breakover voltage D. it has two gate terminals
D. the forward-blocking voltage
185.The SCS can be turned on by
177.Once it conducting, a 4-layer diode can be turned A. an anode voltage that exceeds forward-breakover
off by voltage
A. reducing the current below a certain value B. a positive pulse on the anode gate
B. disconnecting the anode voltage C. a negative pulse on the anode gate
C. answer a and b D. either b or c
D. neither answer a nor b
186.The SCS can be turned off by
178.An SCR differs from 4-layer diode because A. a negative pulse on the cathode gate and a positive
A. it has a gate terminal pulse on the anode gate
B. it is not thyristor B. reducing the anode current to below the holding
C. it does not have four layers value
D. it cannot be turned on and off C. answer a and b
D. a positive pulse on the cathode gate and a negative
179.An SCR can be turned off by pulse on the anode gate
A. forced commutation
B. a negative pulse on the gate 187.Which of the following is not a characteristic of
C. anode current interruption the UJT?
D. answer a, b and c A. intrinsic standoff ratio
E. answer a and c B. negative resistance
C. peak-point voltage
180.In the forward-blocking region, the SCR is D. bilateral conduction
A. reverse-biases
B. in the off state 188.The PUT is
C. in the on state A. much like the UJT
D. at the point of breakdown B. not a thyristor
C. triggered on and off by the gate-to-anode
181.The specified value of holding current for an voltage
SCR means that D. not a four-layer device
A. the device will turn on when the anode current
exceeds this value 189.In a phototransistor, base current is
B. the device will turn off when the anode current A. set by bias voltage
falls below this value B. directly proportional to light
C. the device may be damaged if the anode current C. inversely proportional to light
exceeds this value D. not a factor
D. the gate current must be equal or exceeds this
value to turn the device on
Chapter 12: THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER C. 80 db D. 100,000

190.An integrated circuit (IC) op-amp has 200.A certain op-amp has a bias current of 50μA and
A. two inputs and two outputs 49.3μA. The input offset current is
B. one input and one-output A. 700 nA B. 99.3μA
C. two inputs and one output C. 49.7μA D. none of these

191.Which of the following characteristics does not 201.The output of a particular op-amp increases 8 V
necessarily apply to an op-amp? in 12 μs. The slew rate is
A. high gain B. low power A. 96 V/μs B. 0.67 V/ μs
C. high input impedance D. low output impedance C. 1.5 V/μs D. none of the above

192.A differential amplifier 202.The purpose of offset nulling is to

A. is part of an op-amp A. reduce gain
B. has one input and one output B. equalize the input signals
C. has two outputs C. zero the output error voltage
D. answer a and c
203.For an op-amp with negative feedback, the
193.When an op-amp is operated in the single-ended output is
mode, the output is grounded A. equal to the input
A. one input is grounded and a signal is applied to B. increased
the other C. fed back to the inverting input
B. both inputs are connected together D. fed back to the noninverting input
C. the output is not inverted
204.The use of negative feedback
194.In the differential mode, A. reduces the voltage gain of an op-amp
A. opposite polarity signals are applied to the B. makes the op-amp oscillate
inputs C. makes linear operation possible
B. the gain is 1 D. answer a and c
C. the output are different amplitudes
D. only one supply voltage us used 205.Negative feedback
A. increases the input and output impedances
195.In the common mode, B. increases the input impedance and the
A. both inputs are grounded bandwidth
B. the output are connected together C. decreases the output impedance and the bandwidth
C. an identical signal appears on both inputs D. does not affect impedances of bandwidth
D. the output signals are in-phase
206.A certain inverting amplifier has an Ri of 0.1 kΩ
196.Common-mode gain is and an Rf of 100 kΩ. The closed loop gain is
A. very high B. very low A. 100,000 B. 1000
C. always unity D. unpredictable C. 101 D. 100

197.If Av(d) = 3500 and Acm = 0.35, the CMRR is 207.If the feedback resistor in Question 17 is open,
A. 1225 B. 10,000 the voltage gain is
C. 80 dB D. answers b and c A. increases B. decreases
C. is not affected D. depends on Ri
198.With zero volts on both inputs, an op-amp ideally
should have an output equal to 208.A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop
A. the positive supply voltage gain of 25. The op-amp has an open-loop gain of
B. the negative supply voltage 100,000. if another op-amp with an open loop gain of
C. zero 200,000 is substituted in the configuration, the
D. the CMRR closed-loop gain
A. doubles B. drops to 12.5
199.Of the valued listed, the most realistic value for C. remains at 25 D. increases slightly
open loop gain of an op-amp is
A. 1 B. 2000
209.A voltage follower 218.If a certain op-amp has a closed-loop gain of 20
A. has a gain of 1 B. is noninverting and an upper critical frequency of 10 MHz, the gain-
C. has no feedback resistor D. has all of these bandwidth product is
A. 200 MHz B. 10 MHz
210.The bandwidth of an ac amplifier having a lower C. the unity-gain frequency D. answer a and c
critical frequency of 1 kHz and an upper critical
frequency of 10kHz is Chapter 13: BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS
A. 1 kHz B. 9 kHz
C. 10 kHz D. 11 kHz
219.In a zero-level detector, the output changes state
211.The bandwidth of a dc amplifier having an upper when the input
critical frequency of 100 kHz is A. is positive B. is negative
A. 100 kHz B. unknown C. crosses zero D. has a zero rate of change
C. infinity D. 0 kHz
220.The zero-level detector is one application of a
212.The midrange open-loop of an op amp A. comparator B. differentiator
A. extends from lower critical frequency to the upper C. summing amplifier D. diode
critical frequency
B. extends from 0 Hz to the upper critical 221.Noise on the input of a comparator can cause the
frequency output to
C. rolls off at 20 db/decade beginning at 0 Hz A. hang up in one state
D. answers a and c B. go to zero
C. change back and forth erratically between two
213.The frequency at which the open-loop gain is states
equal to 1 is called D. produce the amplified noise signal
A. the upper critical frequency
B. the cutoff frequency 222.The effect the noise can be reduced by
C. the notch frequency A. lowering the supply voltage
D. the unity-gain frequency B. using positive feedback
C. using negative feedback
214.Phase shift through an op-amp is caused by D. using hysteresis
A. the internal RC circuits E. answer b and d
B. the external RC circuits
C. the gain roll-off 223.A comparator with hysteresis
D. negative feedback A. has one trigger point
B. has two trigger points
215.Each RC circuit in an op-amp C. has a variable trigger point
A. causes the gain to roll off at – 6 dB/octave D. is like a magnetic circuit
B. causes the gain to roll off at – 20 db/octave
C. reduces the midrange gain by 3 dB 224.In a comparator with hysteresis
D. answer a and b A. a bias voltage is applied between the two inputs
B. only one supply voltage is used
216.When negative feedback is used, the gain- C. a portion of the output is feedback to the inverting
bandwidth product of an op-amp input
A. increases B. decreases D. a portion of the output is feedback to the
C. stays the same D. fluctuates noninverting input

217.If a certain op-amp has a midrange open-loop 225.Using the output bounding in a comparator
gain of 200,000 and a unity gain frequency of 5 MHz, A. makes faster
the gain bandwidth product is B. keeps the output positive
A. 200,000 Hz C. limits the output levels
B. 1 x 1012 Hz D. stabilizes the output
C. 5,000,000 Hz
D. not determinable from the information 226.A summing amplifier can have
A. only one input
B. only two inputs
C. any number of inputs
227.If the voltage gain for each input of a summing
amplifier with a 4.7 kΩ feedback resistor is unity, the
input resistor must have a value of
A. 4.7 kΩ
B. 4.7 kΩ divided by number of inputs
C. 4.7 kΩ times the number of inputs
228.An average amplifier has five inputs. The ratio
Rf|Ri must be
A. 5 B. 0.2
C. 1
229.In a scaling adder, the input resistors are
A. all the same value
B. all of different values
C. each proportional to the weight of its input
D. related by a factor of two
230.In an integrator, the feedback element is a
A. resistor B. capacitor
C. zener diode D. voltage divider
231.For a step input, the output of an integrator is
A. a pulse B. a triangular waveform
C. a spike D. a ramp
232.The rate of change of an integrator’s output
voltage in response to a step input is set by
A. the RC time constant
B. the amplitude of the step input
C. the current through the capacitor
D. all of these
233.In a differentiator, the feedback element is
A. resistor B. capacitor
C. zener diode D. voltage divider
234.The output of a differentiator is proportional to
A. the RC time constant
B. the rate at which the input is changing
C. the amplitude of the input
D. answer a and b
235.When you apply a triangular waveform to the
input of a differentiator, the output is
A. a dc level
B. an inverted triangular waveform
C. a square waveform
D. the first harmonic of the triangular waveform
Chapter 14: SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP
CIRCUITS
236.To make a basic instrumentation amplifier, it
takes
A. one op-amp with a certain feedback arrangement
B. two op-amps and seven resistors
C. three op-amps and seven capacitors
D. three op-amps and seven resistors
237.Typically, an instrumentation amplifier has an
external resistor used for
A. establishing the input impedance
B. setting the voltage gain
C. setting the current gain
D. interfacing with an instrument
238.Instrumentation amplifiers are used primarily in
A. high-noise environments
B. medical equipment
C. test instruments
D. filter circuits
239.Isolation amplifiers are used primarily in remote,
isolated locations systems that isolate a single signal
from many different signals
A. applications where there are high voltages and
sensitive
B. equipment
C. applications where human safety is a concern
D. answer c and d
240.The three parts of a basic isolation amplifier are
A. amplifier, filter, and power
B. input, output, and coupling
C. input, output, and power
D. gain, attenuation, and offset
241.The stage of most isolation amplifiers are
connected by
A. copper strips B. transformers
C. microwave links D. current loops
242.The characteristics that allows an isolation
amplifier to amplify small signal voltages in the
presence of much greater noise voltages is its
A. CMRR
B. high gain
C. high input impedance
D. magnetic coupling between input and output
243.The term OTA means
A. operational transistor amplifier
B. operational transformer amplifier
C. operational transconductance amplifier
D. output transducer amplifier B. one complete active filter
244.In an OTA, the transconductance is controlled by C. a single RC circuit
A. the dc supply voltage D. the feedback circuit
B. the input signal voltage
C. the manufacturing process 253.A single resistor and a single capacitor can be
D. a bias current connected
to form a filter with a roll-off rate of
245.The voltage gain of an OTA circuit is set by A. - 20 dB/decade
A. a feedback resistor B. - 40 dB/decade
B. the transconductance only C. - 6 dB/octave
C. the transconductance and the load resistor D. answer a and c
D. the bias current and supply voltage
254.A band-pass response has
246.An OTA is basically a A. two critical frequencies
A. voltage-to-current amplifier B. one critical frequency
B. current-to-voltage amplifier C. a flat curve in the passband
C. current-to-current amplifier D. a wide bandwidth
D. voltage-to-voltage amplifier
255.The lower frequency passed by a low-pass filter
247.The operation of a logarithmic amplifier is based is
on A. 1 Hz B. 0 Hz
A. the nonlinear operation of an op-amp C. 10 Hz D. dependent on the critical frequency
B. the logarithmic characteristics of a pn junction
C. the reverse breakdown characteristics of a pn 256.The quality factor (Q) of a band-pass filter
junction depends on
D. the logarithmic charge and discharge of an RC A. the critical frequencies
circuit B. only the bandwidth
C. the center frequency and the bandwidth
248.If the input to a log amplifier is x, the output is D. only the center frequency
proportional to
A. ex B. In x 257.The damping factor of an active filter determines
C. log10x D. 2.3 log10x A. the voltage gain
E. answer a and c F. answer b and d B. the critical frequency
C. the response characteristics
249.If the input to an antilog amplifier is x, the output D. the roll-off rate
is proportional to
A. elnx B. ex 258.A maximally flat frequency response is known as
C. In x D. e-x A. chebyshev B. butterworth
C. Bessel D. colpitts
250.The logarithm of the product of two numbers is
equal to the 259.The damping factor of a filter is set by
A. sum of the two numbers A. the negative feedback circuit
B. sum of the logarithms of each of the numbers B. the positive feedback circuit
C. ratio of the logarithm of the numbers C. the frequency-selective circuit
D. the gain of the op-amp
251.If you subtract In y from In x, you get
A. In x/In y B. (In x)(In y) 260.The number of poles in a filter affect the
C. In(x/y) D. In(y/x) A. voltage gain B. bandwidth
C. center frequency D. roll-off rate

Chapter 15: ACTIVE FILTERS

261.Sallen-Key filters are

252.The term pole in filter terminology refers to A. single-pole circuit
A. a high-gain op-amp B. second-order filters
C. butterworth filters
D. band-pass filters D. a gain around the feedback loop of less than 1

262.When filters are cascaded, the roll-off rate 269.A second condition for oscillation is
A. increases B. decreases A. no gain around the feedback loop
C. does not change B. a gain of 1 around the feedback loop
C. the attenuation of the feedback circuit must be one
third
263.When the low-pass and a high-pass filter are D. the feedback circuit must be capacitive
cascaded to get a band-pass filter, the critical
frequency of the lowpass filter must be
A. equal to the critical frequency of the high-pass 270.In a certain oscillator, AV = 50. The attenuation
filter of the feedback circuit must be
B. less than the critical frequency of the high-pass A. 1 B. 0.01
filter C. 10 D. 0.02
C. greater than critical frequency of the high-pass
filter
271.For an oscillator to properly start, the gain
around the feedback loop must initially be
264.A state-variable filter consist of A. 1 B. less than 1
A. one op-amp with multiple-feedback paths C. greater than 1 D. equal to B
B. a summing amplifier and two integrators
C. a summing amplifier and two differentiators
D. three butterworth stages 272.In a Wien-bridge oscillator, if the resistance in
the positive
A. feedback circuit are decreased, the frequency
265.When the gain of a filter is minimum at its center B. decreases
frequency, it is C. increases
A. a band-pass filter D. remains the same
B. a band-stop filter
C. a notch filter
D. answer b and c 273.The Wien-bridge oscillator’s positive feedback
circuit is
A. an RL circuit B. an LC circuit
Chapter 16: OSCILLATORS C. a voltage divider D. a lead-lag circuit

266.An oscillator differs from an amplifier because 274.A phase-shift oscillator has
A. it has more gain A. three RC circuits B. three LC circuits
B. it requires no input signal C. a T-type circuit D. a π-type circuits
C. it requires no dc supply
D. it always has the same output
275.Colpitts, Clapp, and Hartley are names refer to
A. types of RC oscillation
267.Wien-bridge oscillators are based on B. inventors of the transistor
A. positive feedback C. types of LC oscillators
B. negative feedback D. types of filters
C. the piezoelectric effect
D. high gain
276.An oscillator whose frequency is charged by a
variable dc voltage is known as
268.One condition for oscillation is A. a crystal oscillator B. a VCO
A. a phase shift around the feedback loop of 180˚ C. an Armstrong oscillator D. a piezoelectric device
B. a gain around the feedback loop of one-third
C. a phase shift around the feedback loop of 0˚
277.The main feature of a crystal oscillator is D. maintains a constant IF amplitude
A. economy B. reliability
C. stability D. high frequency
285.In order to handle all combinations of input
voltage polarities, a multiplier must have
278.The operation of a relaxation oscillator is based A. four-quadrant capability
on B. three-quadrant capability
A. the charging and discharging of a capacitor C. four inputs
B. a highly selective resonant circuit D. dual-supply voltages
C. a very stable supply voltage
D. low power consumption
286.The internal attenuation of a multiplier is called
the
279.Which of the following is not an input or output A. transconductance B. scalefactor
of the 555 timer? C. reduction factor
A. threshold B. control voltage
C. clock D. trigger
E. discharged F. reset 287.When the two inputs of a multiplier are
connected together, the device operates as a
A. voltage doubler B. square root circuit
Chapter 17: VOLTAGE REGULATORS C. squaring circuit D. averaging circuit

280.In amplitude modulation, the pattern produced by 288.Amplitude modulation is basically a

the peaks of the carrier signal is called the A. summing of two signals
A. index B. envelope B. multiplication of two signals
C. audio signal D. upper-side frequency C. subtraction of two signals
D. nonlinear process

281.Which of the following is not a part of an AM

superheterodyne receiver? 289.The frequency spectrum of a balanced modulator
A. mixer B. IF amplifier contains
C. DC restorer D. detector A. a sum frequency B. a difference frequency
E. audio amplifier F. local oscillator C. a carrier frequency D. answer a, b, and c
E. answers a and b F. answers b and c

282.In an AM receiver, the local oscillator always

produces a frequency that is above the incoming RF 290.The IF in a receiver is the
by A. sum of the local oscillator frequency and the RF
A. 10.7 kHz B. 455 MHz carrier frequency
C. 10.7 MHz D. 455 kHz local oscillator frequency
B. difference of the local oscillator frequency and
the carrier RF frequency
283.An FM receiver has an IF frequency that is C. difference of the carrier frequency and the audio
A. 88 MHz to 108 MHz frequency
B. 540 kHz to 1640 kHz
C. 455 kHz
D. greater than the IF in an AM receiver 291.When a receiver is tuned from one RF frequency
to another, the IF changes by an amount equal to the
LO (local oscillator) frequency
284.The detector or discriminator in an AM or an FM A. the IF stays the same
receiver B. the LO frequency changes by an amount equal to
A. detects the difference frequency from mixer the audio frequency
B. changes the RF to IF
C. recovers the audio signal
C. both LO and the IF frequencies change B. protection of the load from excessive current
C. to keep the power supply transformer from
burning up
292.The output of the AM detector goes directly to D. to maintain a constant output voltage
the
A. IF amplifier B. mixer
C. audio amplifier D. speaker 299.In a linear regulator, the control transistor is
conducting
A. a small part of the time
293.If the control voltage to a VCO increases, the B. half the time
output frequency C. all of the time
A. decreases D. only when the load current is excessive
B. does not change
C. increases
300.In a switching regulator, the control transistor is
conducting
294.A PLL maintains lock by comparing A. part of the time
A. the phase of two signals B. all of the time
B. the frequency of two signals C. only when the input voltage exceeds a set limit
C. the amplitude of two signals D. only when there is an overload

Chapter 18: BASIC PROGRAMMING 301.The LM317 is an example of an IC

CONCEPTS FOR AUTOMATED TESTING A. three-terminal negative voltage regulator
B. fixed positive voltage regulator
295. In the case of line regulation, C. switching regulator
A. when the temperature varies, the output voltage D. linear regulator
stays constant E. variable positive voltage regulator
B. when the output voltage changes, the load current F. answers b and d only
stays constant G. answers d and e only
C. when the input voltage changes, the output
voltage 302.An external pass transistor is used for
stays constant A. increasing the output voltage
D. when the load changes, the output voltage stays B. improving the regulation
constant C. increasing the current that the regulator can
handle
296.All of the following are parts of a basic voltage D. short circuit protection
regulator
except
A. control element B. sampling circuit
C. voltage-follower D. error detector
E. reference voltage

297.The basic series regulator, Vout is determined by

A. the control element B. the sample circuit
C. the reference voltage D. answers b and c

298.The main purpose of current limiting in a

regulator is
A. protection of the regulator from excessive
current
Chapter 1: BASIC PHYSICAL CONCEPT 7. In a compound:
A. There can be just a single atom of an element.
B. There must always be two or more elements.
1. The atomic number of an element is determined C. The atoms are mixed in with each other but not
by: joined.
A. The number of neutrons. D. There is always a shortage of electrons.
B. The number of protons.
C. The number of neutrons plus the number of
protons. 8. An electrical insulator can be made a conductor:
D. The number of electrons. A. By heating.
B. By cooling.
C. By ionizing.
2. The atomic weight of an element is approximately D. By oxidizing.
determined by:
A. The number of neutrons.
B. The number of protons. 9. Of the following substances, the worst conductor
C. The number of neutrons plus the number of is:
protons. A. Air.
D. The number of electrons. B. Copper.
C. Iron.
D. Salt water.
3. Suppose there is an atom of oxygen, containing
eight protons and eight neutrons in the nucleus, and
two neutrons are added to the nucleus. The resulting 10. Of the following substances, the best conductor
atomic weight is about: is:
A. 8. A. Air.
B. 10. B. Copper.
C. 16. C. Iron.
D. 18. D. Salt water.

4. An ion: 11. Movement of holes in a semiconductor:

A. Is electrically neutral. A. Is like a flow of electrons in the same direction.
B. Has positive electric charge. B. Is possible only if the current is high enough.
C. Has negative electric charge. C. Results in a certain amount of electric current.
D. Might have either a positive or negative charge. D. Causes the material to stop conducting.

5. An isotope: 12. If a material has low resistance:

A. Is electrically neutral. A. It is a good conductor.
B. Has positive electric charge. B. It is a poor conductor.
C. Has negative electric charge. C. The current flows mainly in the form of holes.
D. Might have either a positive or negative charge. D. Current can flow only in one direction.

6. A molecule: 13. A coulomb:

A. Might consist of just a single atom of an
element.
B. Must always contain two or more elements.
C. Always has two or more atoms.
D. Is always electrically charged.
A. Represents a current of one ampere.
B. Flows through a 100-watt light bulb.
C. Is one ampere per second.
D. Is an extremely large number of charge
carriers.
14. A stroke of lightning: Chapter 2: ELECTRICAL UNITS
A. Is caused by a movement of holes in an insulator.
B. Has a very low current.
C. Is a discharge of static electricity. 1. A positive electric pole:
D. Builds up between clouds. A. Has a deficiency of electrons.
B. Has fewer electrons than the negative pole.
C. Has an excess of electrons.
15. The volt is the standard unit of: D. Has more electrons than the negative pole
A. Current.
B. Charge.
C. Electromotive force. 2. An EMF of one volt:
D. Resistance. A. Cannot drive much current through a circuit.
B. Represents a low resistance.
C. Can sometimes produce a large current.
16. If an EMF of one volt is placed across a D. Drops to zero in a short time.
resistance of two ohms, then
the current is:
A. Half an ampere. 3. A potentially lethal electric current is on the order
B. One ampere. of:
C. Two amperes. A. 0.01 mA.
D. One ohm. B. 0.1 mA.
C. 1 mA.
D. 0.1 A.
17. A backwards-working electric motor is best
described as:
A. An inefficient, energy-wasting device. 4. A current of 25 A is most likely drawn by:
B. A motor with the voltage connected the wrong A. A flashlight bulb.
way. B. A typical household.
C. An electric generator. C. A power plant.
D. A magnetic-field generator. D. A clock radio.

18. In some batteries, chemical energy can be 5. A piece of wire has a conductance of 20 siemens.
replenished by: Its resistance is:
A. Connecting it to a light bulb. A. 20 Ω.
B. Charging it. B. 0.5 Ω.
C. Discharging it. C. 0.05 Ω.
D. No means known; when a battery is dead, you D. 0.02 Ω.
have to throw it away.
6. A resistor has a value of 300 ohms. Its conductance
19. A changing magnetic field: is:
A. Produces an electric current in an insulator. A. 3.33 millisiemens.
B. Magnetizes the earth. B. 33.3 millisiemens.
C. Produces a fluctuating electric field. C. 333 microsiemens.
D. Results from a steady electric current. D. 0.333 siemens.

20. Light is converted into electricity: 7. A mile of wire has a conductance of 0.6 siemens.
A. In a dry cell. Then three miles of
B. In a wet cell. the same wire has a conductance of:
C. In an incandescent bulb. A. 1.8 siemens.
D. In a photovoltaic cell. B. 1.8 Ω.
C. 0.2 siemens.
D. Not enough information has been given to answer 14. In the output of a half-wave rectifier:
this. A. Half of the wave is inverted.
B. The effective value is less than that of the
original ac wave.
8. A 2-kW generator will deliver approximately how C. The effective value is the same as that of the
much current, reliably, original ac wave.
at 117 V? D. The effective value is more than that of the
A. 17 mA. original ac wave.
B. 234 mA.
C. 17 A.
D. 234 A. 15. In the output of a full-wave rectifier:
A. The whole wave is inverted.
B. The effective value is less than that of the original
9. A circuit breaker is rated for 15 A at 117 V. This ac wave.
represents approximately how many kilowatts? C. The effective value is the same as that of the
A. 1.76. original ac wave.
B. 1760. D. The effective value is more than that of the
C. 7.8. original ac wave.
D. 0.0078.

16. A low voltage, such as 12 V:

10. You are told that a certain air conditioner is rated A. Is never dangerous.
at 500 Btu. What is B. Is always dangerous.
this in kWh? C. Is dangerous if it is ac, but not if it is dc.
A. 147. D. Can be dangerous under certain conditions.
B. 14.7.
C. 1.47.
D. 0.147. 17. Which of these can represent magnetomotive
force?
A. The volt-turn.
11. Of the following energy units, the one most often B. The ampere-turn.
used to define electrical energy is: C. The gauss.
A. The Btu. D. The gauss-turn.
B. The erg.
C. The foot pound.
D. The kilowatt hour. 18. Which of the following units can represent
magnetic flux density?
A. The volt-turn.
12. The frequency of common household ac in the B. The ampere-turn.
U.S. is: C. The gauss.
A. 60 Hz. D. The gauss-turn.
B. 120 Hz.
C. 50 Hz.
D. 100 Hz. 19. A ferromagnetic material:
A. Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself.
B. Increases the total magnetomotive force around a
13. Half-wave rectification means that: current-carrying wire.
A. Half of the ac wave is inverted. C. Causes an increase in the current in a wire.
B. Half of the ac wave is chopped off. D. Increases the number of ampere-turns in a wire.
C. The whole wave is inverted.
D. The effective value is half the peak value.
20. A coil has 500 turns and carries 75 mA of current. B. The electromagnet meter need not be aligned with
The magnetomotive force will be: the earth’s magnetic field.
A. 37,500 At. C. The permanent-magnet meter has a more sluggish
B. 375 At. coil.
C. 37.5 At. D. The electromagnet meter is more rugged.
D. 3.75 At.

7. An ammeter shunt is useful because:

Chapter 3: MEASURING DEVICES A. It increases meter sensitivity.
B. It makes a meter more physically rugged.
C. It allows for measurement of a wide range of
1. The force between two electrically charged objects currents.
is called: D. It prevents overheating of the meter.
A. Electromagnetic deflection.
B. Electrostatic force.
C. Magnetic force. 8. Voltmeters should generally have:
D. Electroscopic force. A. Large internal resistance.
B. Low internal resistance.
C. Maximum possible sensitivity.
2. The change in the direction of a compass needle, D. Ability to withstand large currents.
when a currentcarrying wire is brought near, is:
A. Electromagnetic deflection.
B. Electrostatic force. 9. To measure power-supply voltage being used by a
C. Magnetic force. circuit, a voltmeter
D. Electroscopic force. A. Is placed in series with the circuit that works from
the supply.
B. Is placed between the negative pole of the supply
3. Suppose a certain current in a galvanometer causes and the circuit working from the supply.
the needle to deflect 20 degrees, and then this current C. Is placed between the positive pole of the supply
is doubled. The needle deflection: and the circuit working from the supply.
A. Will decrease. D. Is placed in parallel with the circuit that works
B. Will stay the same. from the supply.
C. Will increase.
D. Will reverse direction.
10. Which of the following will not cause a major
error in an ohmmeter reading?
4. One important advantage of an electrostatic meter A. A small voltage between points under test.
is that: B. A slight change in switchable internal resistance.
A. It measures very small currents. C. A small change in the resistance to be
B. It will handle large currents. measured.
C. It can detect ac voltages. D. A slight error in range switch selection.
D. It draws a large current from the source.

11. The ohmmeter in Fig. 3-17 shows a reading of

5. A thermocouple: about:
A. Gets warm when current flows through it. A. 33,000 Ω.
B. Is a thin, straight, special wire. B. 3.3 KΩ.
C. Generates dc when exposed to light. C. 330 Ω
D. Generates ac when heated. D. 33 Ω.

6. One advantage of an electromagnet meter over a 12. The main advantage of a FETVM over a
permanent-magnet meter is that: conventional voltmeter is the fact that the FETVM:
A. The electromagnet meter costs much less. A. Can measure lower voltages.
B. Draws less current from the circuit under test. 19. An oscilloscope cannot be used to indicate:
C. Can withstand higher voltages safely. A. Frequency.
D. Is sensitive to ac as well as to dc. B. Wave shape.
C. Energy.
D. Peak signal voltage.
13. Which of the following is not a function of a
fuse?
A. To be sure there is enough current available for 20. The display in Fig. 3-18 could be caused by a
an appliance to work right. voltage of:
B. To make it impossible to use appliances that are A. 6.0 V.
too large for a given circuit. B. 6.6 V.
C. To limit the amount of power that a circuit can C. 7. 0V.
deliver. D. No way to tell; the meter is malfunctioning.
D. To make sure the current is within safe limits.

Chapter 4: BASIC DC CIRCUITS

14. A utility meter’s motor speed works directly
from:
A. The number of ampere hours being used at the 1. Suppose you double the voltage in a simple dc
time. circuit, and cut the resistance in half. The current will
B. The number of watt hours being used at the time. become:
C. The number of watts being used at the time. A. Four times as great.
D. The number of kilowatt hours being used at the B. Twice as great.
time. C. The same as it was before.
D. Half as great.

15. A utility meter’s readout indicates:

A. Voltage. 2. A wiring diagram would most likely be found in:
B. Power. A. An engineer’s general circuit idea notebook.
C. Current. B. An advertisement for an electrical device.
D. Energy. C. The service/repair manual for a radio receiver.
D. A procedural flowchart.

16. A typical frequency counter:

A. Has an analog readout. 3. Given a dc voltage source delivering 24 V and a
B. Is usually accurate to six digits or more. circuit resistance of 3.3 KΩ, what is the current?
C. Works by indirectly measuring current. A. 0.73 A.
D. Works by indirectly measuring voltage. B. 138 A.
C. 138 mA.
D. 7.3 mA.
17. A VU meter is never used for measurement of:
A. Sound.
B. Decibels. 4. Suppose that a circuit has 472 Ω of resistance and
C. Power. the current is 875 mA. Then the source voltage is:
D. Energy. A. 413 V.
B. 0.539 V.
C. 1.85 V.
18. The meter movement in an illumination meter D. None of the above.
measures:
A. Current.
B. Voltage. 5. The dc voltage in a circuit is 550 mV and the
C. Power. current is 7.2 mA. Then the resistance is:
D. Energy. A. 0.76 Ω.
B. 76 Ω.
C. 0.0040 Ω. 12. Suppose six resistors are hooked up in series, and
D. None of the above. each of them has a value of 540 Ω. Then the total
resistance is:
A. 90 Ω.
6. Given a dc voltage source of 3.5 kV and a circuit B. 3.24 KΩ.
resistance of 220 Ω, what is the current? C. 540 Ω.
A. 16 mA. D. None of the above.
B. 6.3 mA.
C. 6.3 A.
D. None of the above. 13. Four resistors are connected in series, each with a
value of 4.0 KΩ. The total resistance is:
A. 1 KΩ.
7. A circuit has a total resistance of 473,332 Ω and B. 4 KΩ.
draws 4.4 mA. The best expression for the voltage of C. 8 KΩ.
the source is: D. 16 KΩ.
A. 2082 V.
B. 110 kV.
C. 2.1 kV. 14. Suppose you have three resistors in parallel, each
D. 2.08266 kV. with a value of 68,000 Ω. Then the total resistance is:
A. 23 Ω.
B. 23 KΩ.
8. A source delivers 12 V and the current is 777 mA. C. 204 Ω.
Then the best expression for the resistance is: D. 0.2 MΩ.
A. 15 Ω.
B. 15.4 Ω.
C. 9.3 Ω. 15. There are three resistors in parallel, with values of
D. 9.32 Ω. 22 Ω, 27Ω, and 33Ω. A 12-V battery is connected
across this combination, as shown in Fig.4-11. What
is the current drawn from the battery by this
9. The voltage is 250 V and the current is 8.0 mA. resistance combination?
The power dissipated by the potentiometer is: A. 1.3 A.
A. 31 mW. B. 15 mA.
B. 31 W. C. 150 mA.
C. 2.0 W. D. 1.5 A.
D. 2.0 mW.

16. Three resistors, with values of 47 Ω, 68 Ω, and 82

10. The voltage from the source is 12 V and the Ω, are connected in series with a 50-V dc generator,
potentiometer is set for 470 Ω. The power is about: as shown in Fig. 4-12. The total power consumed by
A. 310 mW. this network of resistors is:
B. 25.5 mW. A. 250 mW.
C. 39.2 W. B. 13 mW.
D. 3.26 W. C. 13 W.
D. Not determinable from the data given.
11. The current through the potentiometer is 17 mA
and its value is 1.22KΩ. The power is: 17. You have an unlimited supply of 1-W, 100-Ω
A. 0.24 μW. resistors. You need to get a 100- Ω, 10-W resistor.
B. 20.7 W. This can be done most cheaply by means of a series-
C. 20.7 mW. parallel matrix of
D. 350 mW. A. 3 X 3 resistors.
B. 4 X 3 resistors.
C. 4 X 4 resistors.
D. 2 X 5 resistors. 3. In question 2 (Fig. 5-9), the voltage across the
combination of R3 and R4 is:
A. 0.22 V.
18. You have an unlimited supply of 1-W, 1000-Ω B. 0.22 mV.
resistors, and you need a 500-Ω resistance rated at 7 C. 5.0 V.
W or more. This can be done by assembling: D. 3.3 V.
A. Four sets of two 1000-Ω resistors in series, and
connecting these four sets in parallel.
B. Four sets of two 1000-Ω resistors in parallel, and 4. Three resistors are connected in parallel across a
connecting these four sets in series. battery that delivers 15 V. The values are R1 = 470
C. A 3 X 3 series-parallel matrix of 1000-Ω resistors. Ω, R2 = 2.2 KΩ, R3 = 3.3 KΩ -10). The voltage
D. Something other than any of the above. across R2 is:
A. 4.4 V.
B 5.0 V.
19. You have an unlimited supply of 1-W, 1000-Ω C. 15 V.
resistors, and you need to get a 3000-Ω, 5-W D. Not determinable from the data given.
resistance. The best way is to:
A. Make a 2 X 2 series-parallel matrix.
B. Connect three of the resistors in parallel. 5. In the example of question 4 (Fig. 5-10), what is
C. Make a 3 X 3 series-parallel matrix. the current through R2?
D. Do something other than any of the above. A. 6.8 mA.
B. 43 mA.
C. 150 mA.
20. Good engineering practice usually requires that a D. 6.8 A.
series-parallel resistive network be made:
A. From resistors that are all very rugged.
B. From resistors that are all the same. 6. In the example of question 4 (Fig. 5-10), what is
C. From a series combination of resistors in parallel. the total current drawn from the source?
D. From a parallel combination of resistors in series. A. 6.8 mA.
B. 43 mA.
C. 150 mA.
Chapter 5: DIRECT CURRENT CIRCUIT D. 6.8 A.
ANALYSIS

7. In the example of question 4 (Fig. 5-10), suppose

1. In a series-connected string of holiday ornament that resistor R2 opens up. The current through the
bulbs, if one bulb gets shorted out, which of these is other two resistors will:
most likely? A. Increase.
A. All the other bulbs will go out. B. Decrease.
B. The current in the string will go up. C. Drop to zero.
C. The current in the string will go down. D. No change.
D. The current in the string will stay the same.

8. Four resistors are connected in series with a 6.0-V

2. Four resistors are connected in series across a 6.0- supply, with values shown in Fig. 5-9 (the same as
V battery. The values are R1 = 10 Ω, R2 = 20 Ω, R3 = question 2). What is the power dissipated by the
50 Ω, and R4 = 100 Ω as shown in Fig. 5-9. The whole combination?
voltage across R2 is: A. 200 mW.
A. 0.18 V. B. 6.5 mW.
B. 33 mV. C. 200 W.
C. 5.6 mV. D. 6.5 W.
D. 670 mV.
9. In Fig. 5-9, what is the power dissipated by R4? and the battery supplies 30 V. Then the voltage E2 is:
A. 11 mW. A. 4 V.
B. 0.11 W. B. 8 V.
C. 0.2 W. C. 16 V.
D. 6.5 mW. D. Not determinable from the data given.

10. Three resistors are in parallel in the same 16. Refer to Fig. 5-6. Let the resistances each be 3.3
configuration and with the same values as in problem KΩ 12 V. If the plus terminal of a dc voltmeter is
4 (Fig. 5-10). What is the power dissipated by the placed between R1 and R2 (with voltages E1 and E2),
whole set? and the minus terminal of the voltmeter is placed
A. 5.4 W. between R3 and R4 (with voltages E3 and E4), what
B. 5.4 uW. will the meter register?
C. 650 W. A. 0 V.
D. 650 mW. B. 3 V.
C. 6 V.
D. 12 V.
11. In Fig. 5-10, the power dissipated by R1 is:
A. 32 mW.
B. 480 mW. 17. In a voltage divider network, the total resistance:
C. 2.1 W. A. Should be large to minimize current drain.
D. 31 W. B. Should be as small as the power supply will
allow.
C. Is not important.
12. Fill in the blank in the following sentence. In D. Should be such that the current is kept to 100 mA.
either series or a parallel circuit, the sum of the s in
each component is equal to the total provided by the
supply. 18. The maximum voltage output from a voltage
A. Current. divider:
B. Voltage. A. Is a fraction of the power supply voltage.
C. Wattage. B. Depends on the total resistance.
D. Resistance. C. Is equal to the supply voltage.
13. Refer to Fig. 5-5A. Suppose the resistors each D. Depends on the ratio of resistances.
have values of 33 Ω. The battery provides 24 V. The
current I1 is:
A. 1.1 A. 19. Refer to Fig. 5-7. The battery E is 18.0 V.
B. 730 mA. Suppose there are four resistors in the network: R1 =
C. 360 mA. 100 Ω, R2 = 22.0 Ω, R3 = 33.0 Ω, R4 = 47.0 Ω. The
D. Not determinable from the information given. voltage E3 at P3 is:
A. 4.19 V.
B. 13.8 V.
14. Refer to Fig. 5-5B. Let each resistor have a value C. 1.61 V.
of 820 Ω. Suppose the top three resistors all lead to D. 2.94 V.
light bulbs of the exact same wattage. If I1 = 50 mA
and I2 = 70 mA, what is the power dissipated in the
resistor carrying current I4? 20. Refer to Fig. 5-7. The battery is 12 V; you want
A. 33 W. intermediate voltages of 3.0, 6.0 and 9.0 V. Suppose
B. 40 mW. that a maximum of 200 mA is allowed
C. 1.3 W. hrough the network. What values should the
D. It can’t be found using the information given. resistors, R1, R2, R3, and R4 have, respectively?
A. 15 Ω, 30 Ω, 45 Ω, 60 Ω.
B. 60 Ω, 45 Ω, 30 Ω, 15 Ω.
15. Refer to Fig. 5-6. Suppose the resistances R1, R2, C. 15 Ω, 15 Ω, 15 Ω, 15 Ω.
R3, and R4 are in the ratio 1:2:4:8 from left to right,
D. There isn’t enough information to design the
circuit.
Chapter 6: RESISTORS
1. Biasing in an amplifier circuit:
A. Keeps it from oscillating.
B. Matches it to other amplifier stages in a chain.
C. Can be done using voltage dividers.
D. Maximizes current flow.
2. A transistor can be protected from needless
overheating by:
A. Current-limiting resistors.
B. Bleeder resistors.
C. Maximizing the driving power.
D. Shorting out the power supply when the circuit is
off.
3. Bleeder resistors:
A. Are connected across the capacitor in a power
supply.
B. Keep a transistor from drawing too much current.
C. Prevent an amplifier from being overdriven.
D. Optimize the efficiency of an amplifier.
4. Carbon-composition resistors:
A. Can handle lots of power.
B. Have capacitance or inductance along with
resistance.
C. Are comparatively nonreactive.
D. Work better for ac than for dc.
5. The best place to use a wirewound resistor is:
A. In a radio-frequency amplifier.
B. When the resistor doesn’t dissipate much power.
C. In a high-power, radio-frequency circuit.
D. In a high-power, direct-current circuit.
6. A metal-film resistor:
A. Is made using solid carbon/phenolic paste.
B. Has less reactance than a wirewound type.
C. Can dissipate large amounts of power.
D. Has considerable inductance.
7. A meter-sensitivity control in a test instrument
would probably be:
A. A set of switchable, fixed resistors.
B. A linear-taper potentiometer.
C. A logarithmic-taper potentiometer.
D. A wirewound resistor.
8. A volume control in a stereo compact-disc player
would probably be:
A. A set of switchable, fixed resistors.
B. A linear-taper potentiometer.
C. A logarithmic-taper potentiometer.
D. A wirewound resistor.
9. If a sound triples in actual power level,
approximately what is the
decibel increase?
A. 3 dB.
B. 5 dB.
C. 6 dB.
D. 9 dB.
10. Suppose a sound changes in volume by _13 dB. If
the original sound power is 1 W, what is the final
sound power?
A. 13 W.
B. 77 mW.
C. 50 mW.
D. There is not enough information to tell.
11. The sound from a transistor radio is at a level of
50 dB. How many times the threshold of hearing is
this, in terms of actual sound power?
A. 50.
B. 169.
C. 5,000.
D. 100,000.
12. An advantage of a rheostat over a potentiometer
is that:
A. A rheostat can handle higher frequencies.
B. A rheostat is more precise.
C. A rheostat can handle more current.
D. A rheostat works better with dc.
13. A resistor is specified as having a value of 68 Ω,
but is measured with an ohmmeter as 63 Ω. The value
is off by:
A. 7.4 percent. A. 11 Ω.
B. 7.9 percent. B. 110 Ω.
C. 5 percent. C. 22 Ω.
D. 10 percent. D. 220 Ω.

14. Suppose a resistor is rated at 3.3 K Ω, plus or

minus 5 percent. This means it can be expected to 20. A resistor has three bands: gray, red, yellow. This
have a value between: unit can be expected to have a value within
A. 2,970 and 3,630 Ω approximately what range?
B. 3,295 and 3,305 Ω. A. 660 K Ω to 980 K Ω.
C. 3,135 and 3,465 Ω. B. 740 K Ω Ω.
D. 2.8 KΩ Ω. C. 7.4 K Ω Ω.
D. The manufacturer does not make any claim.

15. A package of resistors is rated at 56 Ω, plus or

minus 10 percent. You test them with an ohmmeter. Chapter 7: CELLS AND BATTERIES
Which of the following values indicates a reject?
A. 50.0 Ω. 1. The chemical energy in a battery or cell:
B. 53.0 Ω. A. Is a form of kinetic energy.
C. 59.7 Ω. B. Cannot be replenished once it is gone.
D. 61.1 Ω. C. Changes to kinetic energy when the cell is used.
D. Is caused by electric current.

16. A resistor has a value of 680 Ω, and you expect it

will have to draw 1 mA maximum continuous
current. What power rating is best for this
application?
A. 1/4 W.
B. 1/2 W.
C. I W.
D. 2 W.
17. Suppose a 1-K Ω issipate 1.05 W, and you have
many 1-W resistors of all common values. If there’s
room for 20-percent resistance error, the cheapest
solution is to use:
A. Four 1 K Ω, 1-W resistors in series-parallel.
B. Two 2.2 K Ω -W resistors in parallel.
C. Three 3.3 K Ω, 1-W resistors in parallel.
D. One 1 K Ω, 1-W resistor, since manufacturers
allow for a 10-percent margin of safety.
18. Red, red, red, gold indicates a resistance of:
A. 22 Ω.
B. 220 Ω.
C. 2.2 K Ω.
D. 22 K Ω.
19. The actual resistance of the above unit can be
expected to vary by how much above or below the
specified value?
2. A cell that cannot be recharged is:
A. A dry cell.
B. A wet cell.
C. A primary cell.
D. A secondary cell.
3. A Weston cell is generally used:
A. As a current reference source.
B. As a voltage reference source.
C. As a power reference source.
D. As an energy reference source.
4. The voltage in a battery is:
A. Less than the voltage in a cell of the same kind.
B. The same as the voltage in a cell of the same kind.
C. More than the voltage in a cell of the same
kind.
D. Always a multiple of 1.018 V.
5. A direct short-circuit of a battery can cause:
A. An increase in its voltage.
B. No harm other than a rapid discharge of its energy.
C. The current to drop to zero.
D. An explosion.
6. A cell of 1.5 V supplies 100 mA for seven hours
and twenty minutes, and then it is replaced. It has
supplied: D. A rechargeable flashlight.
A. 7.33 Ah.
B. 733 mAh.
C. 7.33 Wh. 13. Where would you most likely find a lead-acid
D. 733 mWh. battery?
A. In a portable audio cassette player.
B. In a portable video camera/recorder.
7. A 12-V auto battery is rated at 36 Ah. If a 100-W, C. In an LCD wall clock.
12-Vdc bulb is connected across this battery, about D. In a flashlight.
how long will the bulb stay lit, if the battery has been
fully charged?
A. 4 hours and 20 minutes. 14. A cell or battery that keeps up a constant current-
B. 432 hours. delivering capability almost until it dies is said to
C. 3.6 hours. have:
D. 21.6 minutes. A. A large ampere-hour rating.
B. Excellent energy capacity.
C. A flat discharge curve.
8. Alkaline cells: D. Good energy storage per unit volume.
A. Are cheaper than zinc-carbon cells.
B. Are generally better in radios than zinc-carbon
cells. 15. Where might you find a NICAD battery?
C. Have higher voltages than zinc-carbon cells. A. In a satellite.
D. Have shorter shelf lives than zinc-carbon cells. B. In a portable cassette player.
C. In a handheld radio transceiver.
D. In more than one of the above.
9. The energy in a cell or battery depends mainly on:
A. Its physical size.
B. The current drawn from it. 16. A disadvantage of mercury cells and batteries is
C. Its voltage. that:
D. All of the above. A. They don’t last as long as other types.
B. They have a flat discharge curve.
C. They pollute the environment.
10. In which of the following places would a D. They need to be recharged often.
“lantern” battery most likely be found?
A. A heart pacemaker.
B. An electronic calculator. 17. Which kind of battery should never be used until
C. An LCD wall clock. it “dies”?
D. A two-way portable radio. A. Silver-oxide.
B. Lead-acid.
C. Nickel-cadmium.
11. In which of the following places would a D. Mercury.
transistor battery be the best power-source choice?
A. A heart pacemaker.
B. An electronic calculator. 18. The current from a solar panel is increased by:
C. An LCD wristwatch. A. Connecting solar cells in series.
D. A two-way portable radio. B. Using NICAD cells in series with the solar cells.
C. Connecting solar cells in parallel.
D. Using lead-acid cells in series with the solar cells.
12. In which of the following places would you most
likely choose a lithium battery?
A. A microcomputer memory backup. 19. An interactive solar power system:
B. A two-way portable radio. A. Allows a homeowner to sell power to the utility.
C. A portable audio cassette player. B. Lets the batteries recharge at night.
C. Powers lights but not electronic devices.
D. Is totally independent from the utility. B. At a north magnetic pole.
C. Where the lines converge to a point.
D. In charge carriers.
20. One reason why it is impractical to make an
extremely high-voltage battery of cells is that:
A. There’s a danger of electric shock. 7. The magnetic flux around a straight, current-
B. It is impossible to get more than 103.5 V with carrying wire:
electrochemical cells. A. Gets stronger with increasing distance from the
C. The battery would weigh to much. wire.
D. There isn’t any real need for such thing. B. Is strongest near the wire.
C. Does not vary in strength with distance from the
wire.
Chapter 8: MAGNETISM D. Consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
1. The geomagnetic field:
A. Makes the earth like a huge horseshoe magnet. 8. The gauss is a unit of:
B. Runs exactly through the geographic poles. A. Overall magnetic field strength.
C. Is what makes a compass work. B. Ampere-turns.
D. Is what makes an electromagnet work. C. Magnetic flux density.
D. Magnetic power.
2. Geomagnetic lines of flux:
A. Are horizontal at the geomagnetic equator. 9. A unit of overall magnetic field quantity is the:
B. Are vertical at the geomagnetic equator. A. Maxwell.
C. Are always slanted, no matter where you go. B. Gauss.
D. Are exactly symmetrical around the earth, even far C. Tesla.
out into space. D. Ampere-turn.

3. A material that can be permanently magnetized is 10. If a wire coil has 10 turns and carries 500 mA of
generally said to be: current, what is the magnetomotive force in ampere-
A. Magnetic. turns?
B. Electromagnetic. A. 5000.
C. Permanently magnetic. B. 50.
D. Ferromagnetic. C. 5.0.
D. 0.02.
4. The force between a magnet and a piece of
ferromagnetic metal that has not been magnetized: 11. If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries 1.30 A of
A. Can be either repulsive or attractive. current, what is the magnetomotive force in gilberts?
B. Is never repulsive. A. 130.
C. Gets smaller as the magnet gets closer to the B. 76.9.
metal. C. 164.
D. Depends on the geomagnetic field. D. 61.0.

5. Magnetic flux can always be attributed to:
A. Ferromagnetic materials.
B. Aligned atoms.
C. Motion of charged particles.
D. The geomagnetic field.
6. Lines of magnetic flux are said to originate:
A. In atoms of ferromagnetic materials.
12. Which of the following is not generally possible
in a geomagnetic storm?
A. Charged particles streaming out from the sun.
B. Fluctuations in the earth’s magnetic field.
C. Disruption of electrical power transmission.
D. Disruption of microwave radio links.
13. An ac electromagnet: B. Data can be stored and retrieved more quickly
A. Will attract only other magnetized objects. with disks than
B. Will attract pure, unmagnetized iron. with tapes.
C. Will repel other magnetized objects. C. Disks look better.
D. Will either attract or repel permanent magnets, D. Disks are less susceptible to magnetic fields.
depending on the
polarity.
20. A bubble memory is best suited for:
A. A large computer.
14. An advantage of an electromagnet over a B. A home video entertainment system.
permanent magnet is that: C. A portable cassette player.
A. An electromagnet can be switched on and off. D. A magnetic disk.
B. An electromagnet does not have specific polarity.
C. An electromagnet requires no power source.
D. Permanent magnets must always be cylindrical. TEST: PART ONE

1. An application in which an analog meter would

15. A substance with high retentivity is best suited for almost always be preferred over a digital meter is:
making: A. A signal-strength indicator in a radio receiver.
A. An ac electromagnet. B. A meter that shows power-supply voltage.
B. A dc electromagnet. C. A utility watt-hour meter.
C. An electrostatic shield. D. A clock.
D. A permanent magnet. E. A device in which a direct numeric display is
wanted.

16. A relay is connected into a circuit so that a device

gets a signal only when the relay coil carries current. 2. Which of the following statements is false?
The relay is probably: A. The current in a series dc circuit is divided up
A. An ac relay. among the resistances.
B. A dc relay. B. In a parallel dc circuit, the voltage is the same
C. Normally closed. across each component.
D. Normally open. C. In a series dc circuit, the sum of the voltages
across all the components, going once around a
complete circle, is zero.
17. A device that reverses magnetic field polarity to D. The net resistance of a parallel set of resistors is
keep a dc motor rotating is: less than the value of the smallest resistor.
A. A solenoid. E. The total power consumed in a series circuit is the
B. An armature coil. sum of the wattages consumed by each of the
C. A commutator. components.
D. A field coil.

3. The ohm is a unit of:

18. A high tape-recorder motor speed is generally A. Electrical charge quantity.
used for: B. The rate at which charge carriers flow.
A. Voices. C. Opposition to electrical current.
B. Video. D. Electrical conductance.
C. Digital data. E. Potential difference.
D. All of the above.

4. A wiring diagram differs from a schematic

19. An advantage of a magnetic disk, as compared diagram in that:
with magnetic tape, for data storage and retrieval is A. A wiring diagram is less detailed.
that: B. A wiring diagram shows component values.
A. A disk lasts longer. C. A schematic does not show all the
interconnections between the components.
D. A schematic shows pictures of components, while
a wiring diagram shows the electronic symbols.
E. A schematic shows the electronic symbols, while a
wiring diagram shows pictures of the components.
A. Delivered by the power supply.
B. Through any one of the resistances.
C. Flowing out of that point.
D. At any other point.
E. In any single branch of the circuit.

5. Which of the following is a good use, or place, for 11. A loudness meter in a hi-fi system is generally
a wirewound resistor? calibrated in:
A. To dissipate a large amount of dc power. A. Volts.
B. In the input of a radio-frequency amplifier. B. Amperes.
C. In the output of a radio-frequency amplifier. C. Decibels.
D. In an antenna, to limit the transmitter power. D. Watt hours.
E. Between ground and the chassis of a power E. Ohms.
supply. 12. A charged atom is known as:
A. A molecule.
B. An isotope.
6. The number of protons in the nucleus of an C. An ion.
element is the: D. An electron.
A. Electron number. E. A fundamental particle.
B. Atomic number.
C. Valence number.
D. Charge number. 13. A battery delivers 12 V to a bulb. The current in
E. Proton number. the bulb is 3 A. What is the resistance of the bulb?
A. 36 Ω.
B. 4 Ω.
7. A hot-wire ammeter: C. 0.25 Ω.
A. Can measure ac as well as dc. D. 108 Ω.
B. Registers current changes very fast. E. 0.75 Ω.
C. Can indicate very low voltages.
D. Measures electrical energy.
E. Works only when current flows in one direction. 14. Peak values are always:
A. Greater than average values.
B. Less than average values.
8. Which of the following units indicates the rate at C. Greater than or equal to average values.
which energy is expended? D. Less than or equal to average values.
A. The volt. E. Fluctuating.
B. The ampere.
C. The coulomb.
D. The ampere hour. 15. A resistor has a value of 680 ohms, and a
E. The watt. tolerance of plus or minus 5 percent. Which of the
following values indicates a reject?
A. 648 Ω.
9. Which of the following correctly states Ohm’s B. 712 Ω.
Law? C. 699 Ω.
A. Volts equal amperes divided by ohms. D. 636 Ω.
B. Ohms equal amperes divided by volts. E. 707 Ω.
C. Amperes equal ohms divided by volts.
D. Amperes equal ohms times volts.
E. Ohms equal volts divided by amperes. 16. A primitive device for indicating the presence of
an electric current is:
A. An electrometer.
10. The current going into a point in a dc circuit is B. A galvanometer.
always equal to the current: C. A voltmeter.
D. A coulometer. 22. A watt hour meter measures:
E. A wattmeter. A. Voltage.
B. Current.
C. Power.
17. A disadvantage of mercury cells is that they: D. Energy.
A. Pollute the environment when discarded. E. Charge.
B. Supply less voltage than other cells.
C. Can reverse polarity unexpectedly.
D. Must be physically large. 23. Every chemical element has its own unique type
E. Must be kept right-side-up. of particle, called its:
A. Molecule.
B. Electron.
18. A battery supplies 6.0 V to a bulb rated at 12 W. C. Proton.
How much current D. Atom.
does the bulb draw? E. Isotope.
A. 2.0 A. 24. An advantage of a magnetic disk over magnetic
B. 0.5 A. tape for data storage is that:
C. 72 A. A. Data is too closely packed on the tape.
D. 40 mA. B. The disk is immune to the effects of magnetic
E. 72 mA. fields.
C. Data storage and retrieval is faster on disk.
19. Of the following, which is not a common use of a D. Disks store computer data in analog form.
resistor? E. Tapes cannot be used to store digital data.
A. Biasing for a transistor.
B. Voltage division. 25. A 6-V battery is connected across a series
C. Current limiting. combination of resistors. The resistance values are 1,
D. Use as a “dummy” antenna. 2, and 3 Ω. What is the current through the 2- Ω
E. Increasing the charge in a capacitor. A. 1 A.
B. 3 A.
20. When a charge builds up without a flow of C. 12 A.
current, the charge is said to be: D. 24 A.
A. Ionizing. E. 72 A.
B. Atomic.
C. Molecular. 26. A material that has extremely high electrical
D. Electronic. resistance is known as:
E. Static. A. A semiconductor.
B. A paraconductor.
21. The sum of the voltages, going around a dc C. An insulator.
circuit, but not including the power supply, has: D. A resistor.
A. Equal value, and the same polarity, as the supply. E. A diamagnetic substance.
B. A value that depends on the ratio of the
resistances. 27. Primary cells:
C. Different value from, but the same polarity as, the A. Can be used over and over.
supply. B. Have higher voltage than other types of cells.
D. Equal value as, but opposite polarity from, the C. All have exactly 1.500 V.
supply. D. Cannot be recharged.
E. Different value, and opposite polarity, from the E. Are made of zinc and carbon.
supply.

28. A rheostat:
A. Is used in high-voltage and/or high-power dc
circuits.
B. Is ideal for tuning a radio receiver.
C. Is often used as a bleeder resistor.
D. Is better than a potentiometer for low-power
audio.
E. Offers the advantage of having no inductance.
29. A voltage typical of a dry cell is:
A. 12 V.
B. 6 V.
C. 1.5 V.
D. 117 V.
E. 0.15 V.
30. A geomagnetic storm:
A. Causes solar wind.
B. Causes charged particles to bombard the earth.
C. Can disrupt the earth’s magnetic field.
D. Ruins microwave communications.
E. Has no effect near the earth’s poles.
E. The ampere per square meter.
35. A 24-V battery is connected across a set of four
resistors in parallel. Each resistor has a value of 32
ohms. What is the total power dissipated by the
resistors?
A. 0.19 W. B. 3 W.
C. 192 W. D. 0.33 W.
E. 72 W.
36. The main difference between a “lantern” battery
and a “transistor” battery is:
A. The lantern battery has higher voltage.
B. The lantern battery has more energy capacity.
C. Lantern batteries cannot be used with electronic
devices such as
transistor radios.
D. Lantern batteries can be recharged, but transistor
batteries cannot.
E. The lantern battery is more compact.

31. An advantage of an alkaline cell over a zinc- 37. NICAD batteries are most extensively used:
carbon cell is that: A. In disposable flashlights.
A. The alkaline cell provides more voltage. B. In large lanterns.
B. The alkaline cell can be recharged. C. As car batteries.
C. An alkaline cell works at lower temperatures. D. In handheld radio transceivers.
D. The alkaline cell is far less bulky for the same E. In remote garage-door-opener control boxes.
amount of energy capacity.
E. There is no advantage of alkaline over zinc-carbon
cells. 38. A voltmeter should have:
A. Very low internal resistance.
B. Electrostatic plates.
32. A battery delivers 12 V across a set of six 4- Ω C. A sensitive amplifier.
voltage dividing combination. This provides six D. High internal resistance.
different voltages, differing by an increment of: E. The highest possible full-scale value.
A. 1/4 V. B. 1/3 V.
C. 1 V. D. 2 V.
E. 3 V. 39. The purpose of a bleeder resistor is to:
A. Provide bias for a transistor.
B. Serve as a voltage divider.
33. A unit of electrical charge quantity is the: C. Protect people against the danger of electric
A. Volt. B. Ampere. shock.
C. Watt. D. Tesla. D. Reduce the current in a power supply.
E. Coulomb. E. Smooth out the ac ripple in a power supply.

34. A unit of sound volume is: 40. A dc electromagnet:

A. The volt per square meter. A. Has constant polarity.
B. The volt. B. Requires a core with high retentivity.
C. The watt hour. C. Will not attract or repel a permanent magnet.
D. The decibel. D. Has polarity that periodically reverses.
E. Cannot be used to permanently magnetize E. Reduces flux density.
anything.

48. A chemical compound:

41. The rate at which charge carriers flow is A. Consists of two or more atoms.
measured in: B. Contains an unusual number of neutrons.
A. Amperes. B. Coulombs. C. Is technically the same as an ion.
C. Volts D. Watts. D. Has a shortage of electrons.
E. Watt hours. E. Has an excess of electrons.

42. A 12-V battery is connected to a set of three 49. A 6.00-V battery is connected to a parallel
resistors in series. The resistance values are 1,2, and 3 combination of two resistors, whose values are 8.00
ohms. What is the voltage across the 3- Ω Ω Ω. What is the power dissipated in the 8- Ω
A. 1 V. B. 2 V. A. 0.300 W.
C. 4 V. D. 6 V. B. 0.750 W.
43. Nine 90-ohm resistors are connected in a 3x - C. 1.25 W.
parallel network. The total resistance is: D. 1.80 W.
A. 10 Ω. B. 30 Ω. E. 4.50 W.
C. 90 Ω. D. 270 Ω.
E. 810 Ω.
50. The main problem with a bar-graph meter is that:
A. Is isn’t very sensitive.
44. A device commonly used for remote switching of B. It isn’t stable.
wire communications signals is: C. It can’t give a very precise reading.
A. A solenoid. D. You need special training to read it.
B. An electromagnet. E. It shows only peak values.
C. A potentiometer.
D. A photovoltaic cell.
E. A relay. Chapter 9: ALTERNATING CURRENT BASICS

1. Which of the following can vary with ac, but not

45. NICAD memory: with dc?
A. Occurs often when NICADs are misused. A. Power.
B. Indicates that the cell or battery is dead. B. Voltage.
C. Does not occur very often. C. Frequency.
D. Can cause a NICAD to explode. D. Magnitude.
E. Causes NICADs to reverse polarity.
2. The length of time between a point in one cycle
46. A 100-W bulb burns for 100 hours. It has and the same point in the next cycle of an ac wave is
consumed: the:
A. 0.10 kWh. B. 1.00 kWh. A. Frequency.
C. 10.0 kWh. D. 100 kWh. B. Magnitude.
E. 1000 kWh. C. Period.
D. Polarity.

47. A material with high permeability:

A. Increases magnetic field quantity. 3. On a spectrum analyzer, a pure ac signal, having
B. Is necessary if a coil is to produce a magnetic just one frequency component, would look like:
field. A. A single pip.
C. Always has high retentivity. B. A perfect sine wave.
D. Concentrates magnetic lines of flux. C. A square wave.
D. A sawtooth wave. D. Is of interest only to physicists.

4. The period of an ac wave is: 11. If two waves have the same frequency and the
A. The same as the frequency. same amplitude, but opposite phase, the composite
B. Not related to the frequency. wave is:
C. Equal to 1 divided by the frequency. A. Twice the amplitude of either wave alone.
D. Equal to the amplitude divided by the frequency. B. Half the amplitude of either wave alone.
C. A complex waveform, but with the same
frequency as the originals.
5. The sixth harmonic of an ac wave whose period is D. Zero.
0.001 second has a frequency of
A. 0.006 Hz.
B. 167 Hz. 12. If two waves have the same frequency and the
C. 7 kHz. same phase, the composite wave:
D. 6 kHz. A. Has a magnitude equal to the difference between
the two originals.
B. Has a magnitude equal to the sum of the two
6. A degree of phase represents: originals.
A. 6.28 cycles. C. Is complex, with the same frequency as the
B. 57.3 cycles. originals.
C. 1/6.28 cycle. D. Is zero.
D. 1/360 cycle.

13. In a 117-V utility circuit, the peak voltage is:

7. Two waves have the same frequency but differ in A. 82.7 V.
phase by 1/20 cycle. The phase difference in degrees B. 165 V.
is: C. 234 V.
A. 18. D. 331 V.
B. 20.
C. 36.
D. 5.73. 14. In a 117-V utility circuit, the pk-pk voltage is:
A. 82.7 V.
B. 165 V.
8. A signal has a frequency of 1770 Hz. The angular C. 234 V.
frequency is: D. 331 V.
A. 1770 radians per second.
B. 11,120 radians per second.
C. 282 radians per second. 15. In a perfect sine wave, the pk-pk value is:
D. Impossible to determine from the data given. A. Half the peak value.
B. The same as the peak value.
C. 1.414 times the peak value.
9. A triangular wave: D. Twice the peak value.
A. Has a fast rise time and a slow decay time.
B. Has a slow rise time and a fast decay time.
C. Has equal rise and decay rates. 16. If a 45-Vdc battery is connected in series with the
D. Rises and falls abruptly. 117-V utility mains as shown in Fig. 9-15, the peak
voltages will be:
A. + 210 V and - 120 V.
10. Three-phase ac: B. + 162 V and - 72 V.
A. Has waves that add up to three times the originals. C. + 396 V and - 286 V.
B. Has three waves, all of the same magnitude. D. Both equal to 117 V.
C. Is what you get at a common wall outlet.
17. In the situation of question 16, the pk-pk voltage 3. In a small inductance:
will be: A. Energy is stored and released slowly.
A. 117 V. B. The current flow is always large.
B. 210 V. C. The current flow is always small.
C. 331 V. D. Energy is stored and released quickly.
D. 396 V.

4. A ferromagnetic core is placed in an inductor

18. Which one of the following does not affect the mainly to:
power output available A. Increase the current carrying capacity.
from a particular ac generator? B. Increase the inductance.
A. The strength of the magnet. C. Limit the current.
B. The number of turns in the coil. D. Reduce the inductance.
C. The type of natural energy source used.
D. The speed of rotation of the coil or magnet.
5. Inductors in series, assuming there is no mutual
inductance, combine:
19. If a 175-V dc source were connected in series A. Like resistors in parallel.
with the utility mains from a standard wall outlet, the B. Like resistors in series.
result would be: C. Like batteries in series with opposite polarities.
A. Smooth dc. D. In a way unlike any other type of component.
B. Smooth ac.
C. Ac with one peak greater than the other.
D. Pulsating dc. 6. Two inductors are connected in series, without
mutual inductance. Their values are 33 mH and 55
mH. The net inductance of the combination is:
20. An advantage of ac over dc in utility applications A. 1.8 H. B. 22 mH.
is: C. 88 mH. D. 21 mH
A. Ac is easier to transform from one voltage to
another. .
B. Ac is transmitted with lower loss in wires. 7. If the same two inductors (33 mH and 55 mH) are
C. Ac can be easily gotten from dc generators. connected in parallel without mutual inductance, the
D. Ac can be generated with less dangerous by- combination will have a value of:
products. A. 1.8 H. B. 22 mH.
C. 88 mH. D. 21 mH.

Chapter 10: INDUCTANCE

8. Three inductors are connected in series without
1. An inductor works by: mutual inductance. Their values are 4 nH, 140 μH,
A. Charging a piece of wire. and 5 H. For practical purposes, the net inductance
B. Storing energy as a magnetic field. will be very close to:
C. Choking off high-frequency ac. A. 4 nH. B. 140 μH.
D. Introducing resistance into a circuit. C. 5 H. D. None of these

2. Which of the following does not affect the 9. Suppose the three inductors mentioned above are
inductance of a coil? connected in parallel without mutual inductance. The
A. The diameter of the wire. net inductance will be close to:
B. The number of turns. A. 4 nH. B. 140 μH.
C. The type of core material. C. 5 H. D. None of these.
D. The length of the coil. 10. Two inductors, each of 100 μH, are in series. The
coefficient of coupling is 0.40. The net inductance, if
the coil fields reinforce each other, is:
A. 50 μH. B. 120 μH.
C. 200 μH. D. 280 μH.
11. If the coil fields oppose in the foregoing series-
connected arrangement, the net inductance is:
A. 50 μH. B. 120 μH.
C. 200 μH. D. 280 μH.
12. Two inductors, having values of 44 mH and 88
mH, are connected in series with a coefficient of
coupling equal to 1.0 (maximum possible mutual
inductance). If their fields reinforce, the net
inductance (to two significant digits) is:
A. 7.5 mH. B. 132 mH.
C. 190 mH. D. 260 mH.
13. If the fields in the previous situation oppose, the
net inductance will be:
A. 7.5 mH.
B. 132 mH.
C. 190 mH.
D. 260 mH.
14. With permeability tuning, moving the core further
into a solenoidal coil:
A. Increases the inductance.
B. Reduces the inductance
C. Has no effect on the inductance, but increases the
current-carrying capacity of the coil.
D. Raises the frequency.
15. A significant advantage, in some situations, of a
toroidal coil over a solenoid is:
A. The toroid is easier to wind.
B. The solenoid cannot carry as much current.
C. The toroid is easier to tune.
D. The magnetic flux in a toroid is practically all
within the core.
16. A major feature of a pot-core winding is:
A. High current capacity.
B. Large inductance in small volume.
C. Efficiency at very high frequencies.
D. Ease of inductance adjustment.
17. As an inductor core material, air:
A. Has excellent efficiency.
B. Has high permeability.
C. Allows large inductance in a small volume.
D. Has permeability that can vary over a wide range.
18. At a frequency of 400 Hz, the most likely form
for an inductor would be:
A. Air-core. B. Solenoidal.
C. Toroidal. D. Transmission-line.
19. At a frequency of 95 MHz, the best form for an
inductor would be:
A. Air-core. B. Pot core.
C. Either of the above. D. Neither of the above.
20. A transmission-line inductor made from coaxial
cable, having velocity factor of 0.66, and working at
450 MHz, would be shorter than:
A. 16.7 m. B. 11 m.
C. 16.7 cm. D. 11 cm.
Chapter 11: CAPACITANCE
1. Capacitance acts to store electrical energy as:
A. Current.
B. Voltage.
C. A magnetic field.
D. An electric field.
2. As capacitor plate area increases, all other things
being equal:
A. The capacitance increases.
B. The capacitance decreases.
C. The capacitance does not change.
D. The voltage-handling ability increases.
3. As the spacing between plates in a capacitor is
made smaller, all other things being equal:
A. The capacitance increases.
B. The capacitance decreases.
C. The capacitance does not change.
D. The voltage-handling ability increases.
4. A material with a high dielectric constant:
A. Acts to increase capacitance per unit volume.
B. Acts to decrease capacitance per unit volume.
C. Has no effect on capacitance.
D. Causes a capacitor to become polarized.
5. A capacitance of 100 pF is the same as: 14. A disk ceramic capacitor might have a value of:
A. 0.01 μF. B. 0.001 μF. A. 100 pF. B. 33 μF.
C. 0.0001 μF. D. 0. 00001 μF. C. 470 μF. D. 10,000 μF.

6. A capacitance of 0.033 μF is the same as: 15. A paper capacitor might have a value of:
A. 33 pF. B. 330 pF. A. 0.001 pF. B. 0.01 μF.
C. 3300 pF. D. 33,000 pF. C. 100 μF. D. 3300 μF.

7. Five 0.050-μF capacitors are connected in parallel. 16. An air-variable capacitor might have a range of:
The total capacitance is: A. 0.01 μF to 1 μF.
A. 0.010 μF. B. 0.25 μF. B. 1 μF to 100 μF.
C. 0.50 μF. D. 0.025 μF. C. 1 pF to 100 pF.
D. 0.001 pF to 0.1 pF.

8. If the same five capacitors are connected in series,

the total capacitance will be: 17. Which of the following types of capacitors is
A. 0.010 μF. B. 0.25 μF. polarized?
C. 0.50 μF. D. 0.025 μF. A. Paper
B. Mica.
C. Interelectrode.
9. Two capacitors are in series. Their values are 47 D. Electrolytic.
pF and 33 pF. The composite value is:
A. 80 pF. B. 47 pF.
C. 33 pF. D. 19 pF. 18. If a capacitor has a negative temperature
coefficient:
A. Its value decreases as the temperature rises.
10. Two capacitors are in parallel. Their values are 47 B. Its value increases as the temperature rises.
pF and 470 μF. The combination capacitance is: C. Its value does not change with temperature.
A. 47 pF. B. 517 pF. D. It must be connected with the correct polarity.
C. 517 μF. D. 470 μF.

19. A capacitor is rated at 33 pF, plus or minus 10

11. Three capacitors are in parallel. Their values are percent. Which of the following capacitances is
0.0200 μF, 0.0500 μF and 0.10000 μF. The total outside the acceptable range?
capacitance is: A. 30 pF. B. 37 pF.
A. 0.0125 μF. B. 0.170 μF. C. 35 pF. D. 31 pF.
C. 0.1 μF. D. 0.125 μF.

20. A capacitor, rated at 330 pF, shows an actual

12. Air works well as a dielectric mainly because it: value of 317 pF. How many percent off is its value?
A. Has a high dielectric constant. A. 0.039. B. 3.9.
B. Is not physically dense. C. 0.041. D. 4.1.
C. Has low loss.
D. Allows for large capacitance in a small volume.
Chapter 12: PHASE
1. Which of the following is not a general
13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of characteristic of an ac wave?
mica capacitors? A. The wave shape is identical for each cycle.
A. High efficiency. B. The polarity reverses periodically.
B. Small size. C. The electrons always flow in the same direction.
C. Capability to handle high voltages. D. There is a definite frequency.
D. Low loss.
2. A sine wave:
A. Always has the same general appearance.
B. Has instantaneous rise and fall times.
C. Is in the same phase as a cosine wave.
D. Rises very fast, but decays slowly.
3. The derivative of a sine wave:
A. Is shifted in phase by 1⁄2 cycle from the sine
wave.
B. Is a representation of the rate of change.
C. Has instantaneous rise and fall times.
D. Rises very fast, but decays slowly.
B. 0.000273 second.
C. 0.0000631 second.
D. 0.00000631 second.
9. Two waves are in phase coincidence. One has a
peak value of 3 V and the other a peak value of 5 V.
The resultant will be:
A. 8 V peak, in phase with the composites.
B. 2 V peak, in phase with the composites.
C. 8 V peak, in phase opposition with respect to the
composites.
D. 2 V peak, in phase opposition with respect to the
composites.

4. A phase difference of 180 degrees in the circular

model represents: 10. Shifting the phase of an ac sine wave by 90
A. 1/4 revolution. degrees is the same thing as:
B. 1/2 revolution. A. Moving it to the right or left by a full cycle.
C. A full revolution. B. Moving it to the right or left by 1⁄4 cycle.
D. Two full revolutions. C. Turning it upside-down.
D. Leaving it alone.

5. You can add or subtract a certain number of

degrees of phase to or from a wave, and end up with 11. A phase difference of 540 degrees would more
exactly the same wave again. This number is: often be spoken of as:
A. 90. A. An offset of more than one cycle.
B. 180. B. Phase opposition.
C. 270. C. A cycle and a half.
D. 360. D. 1.5 Hz.

6. You can add or subtract a certain number of 12. Two sine waves are in phase opposition. Wave X
degrees of phase to or from a sine wave, and end up has a peak amplitude of 4 V and wave Y has a peak
with an inverted (upside-down) representation of the amplitude of 8 V. The resultant has a peak amplitude
original. This number is: of:
A. 90. A. 4 V, in phase with the composites.
B. 180. B. 4 V, out of phase with the composites.
C. 270. C. 4 V, in phase with wave X.
D. 360. D. 4 V, in phase with wave Y.

7. A wave has a frequency of 300 kHz. One complete 13. If wave X leads wave Y by 45 degrees of phase,
cycle takes: then:
A. 1⁄300 second. A. Wave Y is 1⁄4 cycle ahead of wave X.
B. 0.00333 second. B. Wave Y is 1⁄4 cycle behind wave X.
C. 1⁄3,000 second. C. Wave Y is 1⁄8 cycle behind wave X.
D. 0.00000333 second. D. Wave Y is 1⁄16 cycle ahead of wave X.

8. If a wave has a frequency of 440 Hz, how long 14. If wave X lags wave Y by 1⁄3 cycle, then:
does it take for 10 A. Y is 120 degrees earlier than X.
degrees of phase? B. Y is 90 degrees earlier than X.
A. 0.00273 second. C. Y is 60 degrees earlier than X.
D. Y is 30 degrees earlier than X. C. Decrease to near zero.
D. Be stored in the core material.

15. In the drawing of Fig. 12-12:

A. X lags Y by 45 degrees. 2. As the number of turns in a coil increases, the
B. X leads Y by 45 degrees. reactance:
C. X lags Y by 135 degrees. A. Increases.
D. X leads Y by 135 degrees. B. Decreases.
C. Stays the same.
D. Is stored in the core material.
16. Which of the drawings in Fig. 12-13 represents
the situation of Fig. 12-12?
A. A. B. B. 3. As the frequency of an ac wave gets lower, the
C. C. D. D. value of XL for a particular coil:
A. Increases.
B. Decreases.
17. In vector diagrams such as those of Fig. 12-13, C. Stays the same.
length of the vector represents: D. Depends on the voltage.
A. Average amplitude.
B. Frequency.
C. Phase difference. 4. A coil has an inductance of 100 mH. What is the
D. Peak amplitude. reactance at a frequency of 1000 Hz?
A. 0.628 Ω. B. 6.28 Ω.
C. 62.8 Ω. D. 628 Ω.
18. In vector diagrams such as those of Fig. 12-13,
the angle between two vectors represents:
A. Average amplitude. 5. A coil shows an inductive reactance of 200 Ω
B. Frequency. inductance?
C. Phase difference. A. 0.637 H. B. 628 H.
D. Peak amplitude. C. 63.7 mH. D. 628 mH.

19. In vector diagrams such as those of Fig. 12-13, 6. A coil has an inductance of 400 μH. Its reactance is
the distance from the center of the graph represents: 33 Ω. What is the frequency?
A. Average amplitude. A. 13 kHz. B. 0.013 kHz.
B. Frequency. C. 83 kHz. D. 83 MHz.
C. Phase difference.
D. Peak amplitude.
7. An inductor has XL = 555 Ω f = 132 kHz. What is
L?
A. 670 mH. B. 670 μH.
C. 460 mH. D. 460 μH.
20. In diagrams like those of Fig. 12-13, the
progression of time is sometimes depicted as:
A. Movement to the right. 8. A coil has L = 689 μH at f =990 kHz. What is XL?
B. Movement to the left. A. 682 Ω. B. 4.28 Ω.
C. Rotation counterclockwise. C. 4.28 K Ω. D. 4.28 M Ω.
D. Rotation clockwise.

9. An inductor has L = 88 mH with XL = 100 Ω.

Chapter 13: INDUCTIVE REACTANCE What is f?
1. As the number of turns in a coil increases, the A. 55.3 kHz. B. 55.3 Hz.
current in the coil will eventually: C. 181 kHz. D. 181 Hz.
A. Become very large.
B. Stay the same.
10. Each point in the RL plane:
A. Corresponds to a unique resistance.
B. Corresponds to a unique inductance.
C. Corresponds to a unique combination of
resistance and inductivereactance.
D. Corresponds to a unique combination of resistance
and inductance.
11. If the resistance R and the inductive reactance XL
both vary from zero to unlimited values, but are
always in the ratio 3:1, the points in the RL plane for
all the resulting impedances will fall along:
A. A vector pointing straight up.
B. A vector pointing “east.”
C. A circle.
D. A ray of unlimited length.
12. Each impedance R + jXL:
A. Corresponds to a unique point in the RL plane.
B. Corresponds to a unique inductive reactance.
C. Corresponds to a unique resistance.
D. All of the above.
13. A vector is a quantity that has:
A. Magnitude and direction.
B. Resistance and inductance.
C. Resistance and reactance.
D. Inductance and reactance.
14. In an RL circuit, as the ratio of inductive
reactance to resistance, XL/R, decreases, the phase
angle:
A. Increases.
B. Decreases.
C. Stays the same.
D. Cannot be found.
15. In a purely reactive circuit, the phase angle is:
A. Increasing.
B. Decreasing.
C. 0 degrees.
D. 90 degrees.
16. If the inductive reactance is the same as the
resistance in an RL circuit, the phase angle is:
A. 0 degrees.
B. 45 degrees.
C. 90 degrees.
D. Impossible to find; there’s not enough data given.
17. In Fig. 13-14, the impedance shown is:
A. 8.0. B. 90.
C. 90 + j8.0. D. 8.0 + j90.
18. In Fig. 13-14, note that the R and XL scale
divisions are of different sizes. The phase angle is:
A. About 50 degrees, from the looks of it.
B. 48 degrees, as measured with a protractor.
C. 85 degrees, as calculated trigonometrically.
D. 6.5 degrees, as calculated trigonometrically.
19 An RL circuit consists of a 100-μH inductor and a
100-Ω What is the phase angle at a frequency of 200
kHz?
A. 45.0 degrees.
B. 51.5 degrees.
C. 38.5 degrees.
D. There isn’t enough data to know.
20. An RL circuit has an inductance of 88 mH. The
resistance is 95 Ω. What is the phase angle at 800
Hz?
A. 78 degrees. B. 12 degrees.
C. 43 degrees. D. 47 degrees.
Chapter 14: CAPACITIVE REACTANCE
1. As the size of the plates in a capacitor increases, all
other things being equal:
A. The value of XC increases negatively.
B. The value of XC decreases negatively.
C. The value of XC does not change.
D. You can’t say what happens to XC without more
data.
2. If the dielectric material between the plates of a
capacitor is changed, all other things being equal:
A. The value of XC increases negatively.
B. The value of XC decreases negatively.
C. The value of XC does not change.
D. You can’t say what happens to XC without
more data.
3. As the frequency of a wave gets lower, all other
things being equal, the value of XC for a capacitor:
A. Increases negatively.
B. Decreases negatively. D. Always point straight down.
C. Does not change.
D. Depends on the current.
12. If the resistance R increases in an RC circuit, but
the capacitance and the frequency are nonzero and
4. A capacitor has a value of 330 pF. What is its constant, then the vector in the RC plane will:
capacitive reactance at a frequency of 800 kHz? A. Get longer and rotate clockwise.
A. -1.66 Ω. B. -0.00166 Ω. B. Get longer and rotate counterclockwise.
C. -603 Ω. D. -603 K Ω. C. Get shorter and rotate clockwise.
D. Get shorter and rotate counterclockwise.

5. A capacitor has a reactance of -4.50 Ω

capacitance? 13. Each impedance R - jXC:
A. 9.39 μF. B. 93.9 μF. A. Represents a unique combination of resistance and
C. 7.42 μF. D. 74.2 μF. capacitance.
B. Represents a unique combination of resistance
and reactance.
6. A capacitor has a value of 47 μF. Its reactance is - C. Represents a unique combination of resistance and
47 Ω. What is the frequency? frequency.
A. 72 Hz. B. 7.2 MHz. D. All of the above.
C. 0.000072 Hz. D. 7.2 Hz.

14. In an RC circuit, as the ratio of capacitive

7. A capacitor has XC = -8800 Ω at f = 830 kHz. reactance to resistance, -XC/R, gets closer to zero, the
What is C? phase angle:
A. 2.18 μF. B. 21.8 pF. A. Gets closer to -90 degrees.
C. 0.00218 μF. D. 2.18 pF. B. Gets closer to 0 degrees.
C. Stays the same.
8. A capacitor has C = 166 pF at f = 400 kHz. What is D. Cannot be found.
XC?
A. -2.4 K Ω. B. -2.4 Ω. 15. In a purely resistive circuit, the phase angle is:
C. -2.4 x -6 Ω. D. -2.4 M Ω A. Increasing. B. Decreasing.
. C. 0 degrees. D. -90 degrees.
9. A capacitor has C = 4700 μF and XC = -33 Ω.
What is f? 16. If the ratio of XC/R is 1, the phase angle is:
A. 1.0 Hz. B. 10 Hz. A. 0 degrees.
C. 1.0 kHz. D. 10 kHz. B. -45 degrees.
C. -90 degrees.
10. Each point in the RC plane: D. Impossible to find; there’s not enough data given.
A. Corresponds to a unique inductance.
B. Corresponds to a unique capacitance. 17. In Fig. 14-13, the impedance shown is:
C. Corresponds to a unique combination of resistance A. 8.02 + j323. B. 323 + j8.02.
and capacitance. C. 8.02 - j323. D. 323 - j8.02.
D. Corresponds to a unique combination of
resistance and reactance. 18. In Fig. 14-13, note that the R and XC scale
divisions are not the same size. The phase angle is
A. 1.42 degrees.
11 If R increases in an RC circuit, but XC is always B. About -60 degrees, from the looks of it.
zero, then the vector in the RC plane will: C. -58.9 degrees.
A. Rotate clockwise. D. -88.6 degrees.
B. Rotate counterclockwise.
C. Always point straight towards the right.
19. An RC circuit consists of a 150-pF capacitor and D. An inductance combined with a capacitance.
a 330 Ω resistor in series. What is the phase angle at a
frequency of 1.34 MHz?
A. –67.4 degrees. B. –22.6 degrees. 8. The impedance vector 0 - j22 represents:
C. –24.4 degrees. D. –65.6 degrees. A. A pure resistance.
B. A pure inductance.
C. A pure capacitance.
20. An RC circuit has a capacitance of 0.015 μF. The D. An inductance combined with a resistance.
resistance is 52 Ω. What is the phase angle at 90
kHz?
A. –24 degrees. B. –0.017 degrees. 9. What is the absolute-value impedance of 3.0 - j6.0?
C. –66 degrees. D. None of the above. A. Z = 9.0 Ω.
B. Z = 3.0 Ω.
C. Z = 45 Ω.
Chapter 15: IMPEDANCE AND ADMITTANCE D. Z = 6.7 Ω.

1. The square of an imaginary number:

A. Can never be negative. 10. What is the absolute-value impedance of 50 -
B. Can never be positive. j235?
C. Might be either positive or negative. A. Z = 240 Ω. B. Z = 58,000 Ω.
D. Is equal to j. C. Z = 285 Ω. D. Z = 185 Ω.

2. A complex number: 11. If the center conductor of a coaxial cable is made

A. Is the same thing as an imaginary number. to have smaller diameter, all other things being equal,
B. Has a real part and an imaginary part. what will happen to the Zo of the transmission line?
C. Is one-dimensional. A. It will increase.
D. Is a concept reserved for elite imaginations. B. It will decrease.
C. It will stay the same.
D. There is no way to know.
3. What is the sum of 3 + j7 and 3 - j7?
A. 0 + j0 B. 6 + j14.
C. -6 - j14. D. 0 - j14. 12. If a device is said to have an impedance of Z =
100 Ω, this would most often mean that:
A. R + jX =100 + j0.
4. What is (-5 + j7) - (4 - j5)? B. R + jX = 0 + j100.
A. -1 + j2. B. -9 - j2. C. R + jX = 0 - j100.
C. -1 - j2. D. -9 + j12. D. You need to know more specific information.

5. What is the product (-4 - j7) (6 - j2)? 13. A capacitor has a value of 0.050 μF at 665 kHz.
A. 24 - j14. B. -38 - j34. What is the capacitive susceptance?
C. -24 - j14. D. -24 + j14. A. j4.79. B. -j4.79.
C. j0. 209. D. -j0. 209.
6. What is the magnitude of the vector 18 - j24?
A. 42. B. -42. 14. An inductor has a value of 44 mH at 60 Hz. What
C. 30. D. -30. is the inductive susceptance?
A.. -j0.060. B. j0.060.
7. The impedance vector 5 + j0 represents: C. -j17. D. j17.
A. A pure resistance.
B. A pure inductance. 15. Susceptance and conductance add to form:
C. A pure capacitance. A. Impedance. B. Inductance.
C. Reactance. D. Admittance. the impedance vector:
A. Always points straight up.
B. Always points straight down.
16. Absolute-value impedance is equal to the square C. Always points straight towards the right.
root of: D. None of the above.
A. G2 + B2 B. R2 + X2.
C. Zo. D. Y.
4. A resistor of 150 Ω, a coil with reactance 100 Ω
reactance -200 Ω impedance R + jX?
17. Inductive susceptance is measured in: A. 150 + j100.
A. Ohms. B. Henrys. B. 150 - j200.
C. Farads. D. Siemens. C. 100 - j200.
D. 150 - j100.
18. Capacitive susceptance is:
A. Positive and real valued. 5. A resistor of 330 Ω, a coil of 1.00 μH and a
B. Negative and real valued. capacitor of 200 pF are in series. What is R + jX at
C. Positive and imaginary. 10.0 MHz?
D. Negative and imaginary. A. 330 - j199. B. 300 + j201.
C. 300 + j142. D. 330 - j16.8.
19. Which of the following is false?
A. BC = 1/XC. 6. A coil has an inductance of 3.00 μH and a
B. Complex impedance can be depicted as a vector. resistance of 10.0 Ω winding. A capacitor of 100 pF
C. Characteristic impedance is complex. is in series with this coil. What is R + jX at 10.0
D. G = 1/R. MHz?
A. 10 + j3.00. B. 10 + j29.2.
20. In general, the greater the absolute value of the C. 10 - j97. D. 10 + j348.
impedance in a circuit:
A. The greater the flow of alternating current. 7. A coil has a reactance of 4.00 Ω. What is the
B. The less the flow of alternating current. admittance vector, G + jB, assuming nothing else is
C. The larger the reactance. in the circuit?
D. The larger the resistance. A. 0 + j0.25.
B. 0 + j4.00.
Chapter 16: RLC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS C. 0 – j0.25.
D. 0 + j4.00.
1. A coil and capacitor are connected in series. The
inductive reactance is 250 Ω, and the capacitive
reactance is -300 Ω. What is the net impedance 8. What will happen to the susceptance of a capacitor
vector, R + jX? if the frequency is doubled, all other things being
A. 0 + j550. B. 0 - j50. equal?
C. 250 - j300 D. -300 - j250. A. It will decrease to half its former value.
B. It will not change.
C. It will double.
2. A coil of 25.0 μH and capacitor of 100 pF are D. It will quadruple.
connected in series. The frequency is 5.00 MHz.
What is the impedance vector, R + jX?
A 0 + j467. B. 25 + j100. 9. A coil and capacitor are in parallel, with jBL = -
C. 0 - j467. D. 25 - j100. j0.05 and jBC = j0.03. What is the admittance vector,
assuming that nothing is in series or
parallel with these components?
3. When R = 0 in a series RLC circuit, but the net A. 0 - j0.02. B. 0 - j0.07.
reactance is not zero,
C. 0 + j0.02. D. -0.05 - j0.03. 17. A series circuit has 99.0 Ω Ω reactance. An ac
rms voltage of 117 V is applied to this series
network. What is the current?
10. A coil, resistor, and capacitor are in parallel. The A. 1.18 A. B. 1.13 A.
resistance is 1 Ω the capacitive susceptance is 1.0 C. 0.886 A. D. 0.846 A.
siemens; the inductive susceptance is - 1.0 siemens.
Then the frequency is cut to half its former value.
What will be the admittance vector, G + jB, at the 18. What is the voltage across the reactance in the
new frequency? above example?
A. 1 + j0. B. 1 + jl.5. A. 78.0 V.
C. 1 - jl.5. D. 1 – j2. B. 55.1 V.
C. 99.4 V.
D. 74.4 V.
11. A coil of 3.50 μH and a capacitor of 47.0 pF are
in parallel. The frequency is 9.55 MHz. There is
nothing else in series or parallel with these 19. A parallel circuit has 10 ohms of resistance and
components. What is the admittance vector? 15 Ω of reactance. An ac rms voltage of 20 V is
A. 0 + j0.00282. B. 0 – j0.00194. applied across it. What is the total current?
C. 0 + j0.00194. D. 0 – j0.00758. A. 2.00 A. B. 2.40 A.
C. 1.33 A. D. 0.800 A.

12. A vector pointing “southeast” in the GB plane

would indicate the following: 20. What is the current through the resistance in the
A. Pure conductance, zero susceptance. above example?
B. Conductance and inductive susceptance. A. 2.00 A. B. 2.40 A.
C. Conductance and capacitive susceptance. C. 1.33 A. D. 0.800 A.
D. Pure susceptance, zero conductance.

Chapter 17: POWER RESONANCE AND AC

13. A resistor of 0.0044 siemens, a capacitor whose CIRCUITS
susceptance is 0.035 Siemens, and a coil whose
susceptance is -0.011 siemens are all connected in
parallel. The admittance vector is: 1. The power in a reactance is:
A. 0.0044 + j0.024. B. 0.035 – j0.011. A. Radiated power.
C. -0.011 - j0.035. D. 0.0044 + j0.046. B. True power.
14. A resistor of 100 Ω, a coil of 4.50 μH, and a C. Imaginary power.
capacitor of 220 pF are in parallel. What is the D. Apparent power.
admittance vector at 6.50 MHz?
A. 100 + j0.00354. B. 0.010 + j0.00354. 2. Which of the following is not an example of true
C. 100 – j0.0144. D. 0.010 + j0.0144. power?
A. Power that heats a resistor.
15. The admittance for a circuit, G + jB, is 0.02 + B. Power radiated from an antenna.
j0.20. What is the impedance, R + jX? C. Power in a capacitor.
A. 50 + j5.0. B. 0.495 - j4.95. D. Heat loss in a feed line.
C. 50 - j5.0. D. 0.495 + j4.95.
3. The apparent power in a circuit is 100 watts, and
16. A resistor of 51.0 Ω an inductor of 22.0 μH and a the imaginary power is 40 watts. The true power is:
capacitor of 150 pF are in parallel. The frequency is A. 92 watts.
1.00 MHz. What is the complex impedance, R + jX? B. 100 watts.
A. 51.0 - j14.9. B. 51.0 + j14.9. C. 140 watts.
C. 46.2 - j14.9. D. 46.2 + j14.9. D. Not determinable from this information.
4. Power factor is equal to: B. The resistance.
A. Apparent power divided by true power. C. Minimizing the loss.
B. Imaginary power divided by apparent power. D. The VA power.
C. Imaginary power divided by true power.
D. True power divided by apparent power.
12. Which of the following does not increase the loss
in a transmission line?
5. A circuit has a resistance of 300 W and an A. Reducing the power output of the source.
inductance of 13.5 μH in series at 10.0 MHz. What is B. Increasing the degree of mismatch between the
the power factor? line and the load.
A. 0.334. C. Reducing the diameter of the line conductors.
B. 0.999. D. Raising the frequency.
C. 0.595.
D. It can’t be found from the data given.
13. A problem that standing waves can cause is:
A. Feed line overheating.
6. A series circuit has Z = 88.4 Ω with R = 50.0 Ω B. Excessive power loss.
What is PF? C. Inaccuracy in power measurement.
A. 99.9 percent. B. 56.6 percent. D. All of the above.
C. 60.5 percent. D. 29.5 percent.

14. A coil and capacitor are in series. The inductance

7. A series circuit has R = 53.5 Ω and X = 75.5 Ω. is 88 mH and the capacitance is 1000 pF. What is the
What is PF? resonant frequency?
A. 70.9 percent. B. 81.6 percent. A. 17 kHz. B. 540 Hz.
C. 57.8 percent. D. 63.2 percent. C. 17 MHz. D. 540 kHz.

8. Phase angle is equal to: 15. A coil and capacitor are in parallel, with L = 10.0
A. Arctan Z/R. B. Arctan R/Z. μH and C = 10 pF. What is fo?
C. Arctan R/X. D. Arctan X/R. A. 15.9 kHz. B. 5.04 MHz.
C. 15.9 MHz. D. 50.4 MHz.

9. A wattmeter shows 220 watts of VA power in a

circuit. There is a resistance of 50 Ω in series with a 16. A series-resonant circuit is to be made for 14.1
capacitive reactance of -20 Ω. What is the true MHz. A coil of 13.5 μH is available. What size
power? capacitor is needed?
A. 237 watts. B. 204 watts. A. 0.945 μF. B. 9.45 pF.
C. 88.0 watts. D. 81.6 watts. C. 94.5 pF. D. 945 pF.

10. A wattmeter shows 57 watts of VA power in a 17. A parallel-resonant circuit is to be made for 21.3
circuit. The resistance is known to be 50 Ω, and the MHz. A capacitor of 22.0 pF is available. What size
true power is known to be 40 watts. What is the coil is needed?
absolute-value impedance? A. 2.54 mH. B. 254 μH.
A. 50 Ω C. 25.4 μH. D. 2.54 μH.
B. 57 Ω
C. 71 Ω
D. It can’t be calculated from this data. 18. A 1/4-wave line section is made for 21.1 MHz,
using cable with a velocity factor of 0.800. How
many meters long is it?
11. Which of the following is the most important A. 11.1 m. B. 3.55 m.
consideration in a transmission line? C. 8.87 m. D. 2.84 m.
A. The characteristic impedance.
19. The fourth harmonic of 800 kHz is: 6. Which of the following is false, concerning air
A. 200 kHz. B. 400 kHz. cores versus ferromagnetic cores?
C. 3.20 MHz. D. 4.00 MHz. A. Air concentrates the magnetic lines of flux.
B. Air works at higher frequencies than
ferromagnetics.
20. How long is a 1/2-wave dipole for 3.60 MHz? C. Ferromagnetics are lossier than air.
A. 130 feet. B. 1680 feet. D. A ferromagnetic-core unit needs fewer turns of
C. 39.7 feet. D. 515 feet. wire than an equivalent air-core unit.

Chapter 18: TRANSFORMERS AND 7. Eddy currents cause:

IMPEDANCE MATCHING
1. In a step-up transformer:
A. The primary impedance is greater than the
secondary impedance.
B. The secondary winding is right on top of the
primary.
C. The primary voltage is less than the secondary
voltage.
D. All of the above.
2. The capacitance between the primary and the
secondary windings of a transformer can be
minimized by:
A. Placing the windings on opposite sides of a
toroidal core.
B. Winding the secondary right on top of the primary.
C. Using the highest possible frequency.
D. Using a center tap on the balanced winding.
A. An increase in efficiency.
B. An increase in coupling between windings.
C. An increase in core loss.
D. An increase in usable frequency range.
8. A transformer has 117 V rms across its primary
and 234 V rms across its secondary. If this unit is
reversed, assuming it can be done without damaging
the windings, what will be the voltage at the output?
A. 234 V. B. 468 V.
C. 117 V. D. 58.5 V.
9. The shell method of transformer winding:
A. Provides maximum coupling.
B. Minimizes capacitance between windings.
C. Withstands more voltage than other winding
methods.
D. Has windings far apart but along a common axis.

10. Which of these core types, in general, is best if

3. A transformer steps a voltage down from 117 V to you need a winding inductance of 1.5 H?
6.00 V. What is its primary-to-secondary turns ratio? A. Air core.
A. 1:380. B. 380:1. B. Ferromagnetic solenoid core.
C. 1:19.5. D. 19.5:1. C. Ferromagnetic toroid core.
D. Ferromagnetic pot core.
4. A step-up transformer has a primary-to-secondary
turns ratio of 1:5.00. If 117V rms appears at the 11. An advantage of a toroid core over a solenoid
primary, what is the rms voltage across the core is:
secondary? A. The toroid works at higher frequencies.
A. 23.4 V. B. 585 V. B. The toroid confines the magnetic flux.
C. 117 V. D. 2.93 kV. C. The toroid can work for dc as well as for ac.
D. It’s easier to wind the turns on a toroid.
5. A transformer has a secondary-to-primary turns
ratio of 0.167. This transformer is: 12. High voltage is used in long-distance power
A. A step-up unit. transmission because:
B. A step-down unit. A. It is easier to regulate than low voltage.
C. Neither step-up nor step-down. B. The I2R losses are lower.
D. A reversible unit. C. The electromagnetic fields are stronger.
D. Smaller transformers can be used. C. Zo = 225 Ω D. Zo = 375 Ω

13. In a household circuit, the 234-V power has: 20. If there is reactance at the output of an impedance
A. One phase. B. Two phases. transformer:
C. Three phases. D. Four phases. A. The circuit will not work.
B. There will be an impedance mismatch, no
matter what the turns ratio of the transformer.
14. In a transformer, a center tap would probably be C. A center tap must be used at the secondary.
found in: D. The turns ratio must be changed to obtain a match.
A. The primary winding.
B. The secondary winding.
C. The unbalanced winding. TEST: PART TWO
D. The balanced winding. 1. A series circuit has a resistance of 100 Ω and a
capacitive reactance of -200 Ω. The complex
impedance is:
15. An autotransformer: A. -200 + j100. B. 100 + j200.
A. Works automatically. C. 200 - j100. D. 200 + j100.
B. Has a center-tapped secondary. E. 100 - j200.
C. Has one tapped winding.
D. Is useful only for impedance matching.
2. Mutual inductance causes the net value of a set of
coils to:
16. A transformer has a primary-to-secondary turns A. Cancel out, resulting in zero inductance.
ratio of 2.00:1. The input impedance is 300 Ω B. Be greater than what it would be with no mutual
resistive. What is the output impedance? coupling.
A. 75 Ω C. Be less than what it would be with no mutual
B. 150 Ω coupling.
C. 600 Ω D. Double.
D. 1200 Ω E. Vary, depending on the extent and phase of
mutual coupling.
17. A resistive input impedance of 50 Ω must be
matched to a resistive output impedance of 450 Ω. 3. Refer to Fig. TEST 2-1. Wave A is:
The primary-to-secondary turns ratio of the A. Leading wave B by 90 degrees.
transformer must be: B. Lagging wave B by 90 degrees.
A. 9.00:1. C. Leading wave B by 180 degrees.
B. 3.00:1. D. Lagging wave B by 135 degrees.
C. 1:3.00. E. Lagging wave B by 45 degrees.
D. 1:9.00.

4. A sine wave has a peak value of 30.0 V. Its rms

18. A quarter-wave matching section has a value is:
characteristic impedance of 75.0 Ω. The input A. 21.2 V. B. 30.0 V.
impedance is 50.0 Ω resistive. What is the resistive C. 42.4 V. D. 60.0 V.
output impedance? E. 90.0 V.
A. 150 Ω B. 125 Ω
C. 100 Ω D. 113 Ω
5. Four capacitors are connected in parallel. Their
values are 100 pF each. The net capacitance is:
19. A resistive impedance of 75 Ω must be matched A. 25 pF. B. 50 pF.
to a resistive impedance of 300 Ω. A quarter-wave C. 100 pF. D. 200 pF.
section would need: E. 400 pF.
A. Zo = 188 Ω B. Zo = 150 Ω
6. A transformer has a primary-to-secondary turns 12. A transformer has a step-up turns ratio of 1:3.16.
ratio of exactly 8.88:1. The input voltage is 234 V The output impedance is 499Ω purely resistive. The
rms. The output voltage is: input impedance is:
A. 2.08 kV rms. B. 18.5 kV rms. A. 50.0 Ω B. 158 Ω
C. 2.97 V rms. D. 26.4 V rms. C. 1.58k Ω D. 4.98k Ω
E. 20.8 V rms. E. Not determinable from the data given.

3. The absolute value impedance is:

7. In a series RL circuit, as the resistance becomes A. 34 Ω B. 11 Ω
small compared with the reactance, the angle of lag C. -23 Ω D. 41 Ω
approaches: E. 57 Ω
A. 0 degrees.
B. Lagging wave B by 45 degrees.
C. 45 degrees. 14. A coil has an inductance of 750 μH. The
D. 90 degrees. inductive reactance at 100
E. 180 degrees. kHz is:
F. 360 degrees. A. 75.0 Ω B. 75.0 k Ω
C. 471 Ω D. 47.1 k Ω
E. 212 Ω
8. A transmission line carries 3.50 A of ac current
and 150 V ac. The true power in the line is:
A. 525 W. 15. Two waves are 180 degrees out of phase. This is
B. 42.9 W. a difference of:
C. 1.84 W. A. 1/8 cycle. B. 1/4 cycle.
D. Meaningless; true power is dissipated, not C. 1/2 cycle. D. A full cycle.
transmitted. E. Two full cycles.
E. Variable, depending on standing wave effects.
16. If R denotes resistance and Z denotes absolute-
9. In a parallel configuration, susceptances: value impedance, then R/Z is the:
A. Simply add up. A. True power. B. Imaginary power.
B. Add like capacitances in series. C. Apparent power. D. Absolute-value power.
C. Add like inductances in parallel. E. Power factor.
D. Must be changed to reactances before you can
work with them. 17. Two complex impedances are in series. One is
E. Cancel out. 30+ j50 and the other is 50 - j30. The net impedance
is:
10. A wave has a frequency of 200 kHz. How many A. 80+ j80. B. 20+ j20.
degrees of phase change occur in a microsecond (a C. 20 - j20. D. -20+ j20.
millionth of a second)? E. 80+ j20.
A. 180 degrees. B. 144 degrees.
C. 120 degrees. D. 90 degrees. 18. Two inductors, having values of 140 μH and 1.50
E. 72 degrees. mH, are connected in series. The net inductance is:
A. 141.5 μH. B. 1.64 μH.
11. At a frequency of 2.55 MHz, a 330-pF capacitor C. 0.1415 mH. D. 1.64 mH.
has a reactance of: E. 0.164 mH.
A. -5.28 Ω B. -0.00528 Ω
C. -189 Ω D. -18.9k Ω 19. Which of the following types of capacitor is
E. -0.000189 Ω polarized?
A. Mica.
B. Paper.
C. Electrolytic.
D. Air variable.
E. Ceramic.
20. A toroidal-core coil:
A. Has lower inductance than an air-core coil with
the same number ofturns.
B. Is essentially self-shielding.
C. Works well as a loopstick antenna.
D. Is ideal as a transmission-line transformer.
E. Cannot be used at frequencies below about 10
MHz.
21. The efficiency of a generator:
A. Depends on the driving power source.
B. Is equal to output power divided by driving
power.
C. Depends on the nature of the load.
D. Is equal to driving voltage divided by output
voltage.
E. Is equal to driving current divided by output
current.
22. Admittance is:
A. The reciprocal of reactance.
B. The reciprocal of resistance.
C. A measure of the opposition a circuit offers to ac.
D. A measure of the ease with which a circuit
passes ac.
E. Another expression for absolute-value impedance.
23. The absolute-value impedance Z of a parallel
RLC circuit, where R is the resistance and X is the net
reactance, is found according to the formula:
A. Z = R + X.
B. Z2= R2 + X2.
C. Z2= RX / (R2 + X2).
D. Z = 1/(R2 + X2).
E. Z = R2X2/(R + X).
24. Complex numbers are used to represent
impedance because:
A. Reactance cannot store power.
B. Reactance isn’t a real physical thing.
C. They provide a way to represent what happens
in resistance reactance circuits.
D. Engineers like to work with sophisticated
mathematics.
E. No! Complex numbers aren’t used to represent
impedance.
25. Which of the following does not affect the
capacitance of a capacitor?
A. The mutual surface area of the plates.
B. The dielectric constant of the material between the
plates (within reason).
C. The spacing between the plates (within reason).
D. The amount of overlap between plates.
E. The frequency (within reason).
26. The zero-degree phase point in an ac sine wave is
usually considered to be the instant at which the
amplitude is:
A. Zero and negative-going.
B. At its negative peak.
C. Zero and positive-going.
D. At its positive peak.
E. Any value; it doesn’t matter.
27. The inductance of a coil can be continuously
varied by:
A. Varying the frequency.
B. Varying the net core permeability.
C. Varying the current in the coil.
D. Varying the wavelength.
E. Varying the voltage across the coil.
28. Power factor is defined as the ratio of:
A. True power to VA power.
B. True power to imaginary power.
C. Imaginary power to VA power.
D. Imaginary power to true power.
E. VA power to true power.
29. A 50 Ω feed line needs to be matched to an
antenna with a purely resistive impedance of 200 Ω A
quarter-wave matching section should
have:
A. Zo = 150 Ω B. Zo = 250 Ω
C. Zo = 125 Ω D. Zo = 133 Ω
E. Zo = 100 Ω
30. The vector 40 + j30 represents:
A. 40 Ω resistance and 30 μH inductance.
B. 40 uH inductance and 30 Ω resistance.
C. 40 Ω resistance and 30 Ω inductive reactance.
D. 40 Ω inductive reactance and 30 Ω resistance.
E. 40 uH inductive reactance and 30 Ω resistance.
31. In a series RC circuit, where, R = 300 Ω and XC =
-30 Ω:
A. The current leads the voltage by a few degrees.
B. The current leads the voltage by almost 90
degrees.
C. The voltage leads the current by a few degrees.
D. The voltage leads the current by almost 90
degrees.
E. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees.
32. In a step-down transformer:
A. The primary voltage is greater than the
secondary voltage.
B. The primary impedance is less than the secondary
impedance.
C. The secondary voltage is greater than the primary
voltage.
D. The output frequency is higher than the input
frequency.
E. The output frequency is lower than the input
frequency.
33. A capacitor of 470 pF is in parallel with an
inductor of 4.44 μH. What is the resonant frequency?
A. 3.49 MHz. B. 3.49 kHz.
C. 13.0 MHz. D. 13.0 GHz.
E. Not determinable from the data given.
34. A sine wave contains energy at:
A. Just one frequency.
B. A frequency and its even harmonics.
C. A frequency and its odd harmonics.
D. A frequency and all its harmonics.
E. A frequency and its second harmonic only.
35. Inductive susceptance is:
A. The reciprocal of inductance.
B. Negative imaginary.
C. Equal to capacitive reactance.
D. The reciprocal of capacitive susceptance.
E. A measure of the opposition a coil offers to ac.
36. The rate of change (derivative) of a sine wave is
itself a wave that:
A. Is in phase with the original wave.
B. Is 180 degrees out of phase with the original wave.
C. Leads the original wave by 45 degrees of phase.
D. Lags the original wave by 90 degrees of phase.
E. Leads the original wave by 90 degrees of phase.
37. True power is equal to:
A. VA power plus imaginary power.
B. Imaginary power minus VA power.
C. Vector difference of VA and reactive power.
D. VA power; the two are the same thing.
E. 0.707 times the VA power.
38. Three capacitors are connected in series. Their
values are 47 μF, 68 μF, and 100 μF. The total
capacitance is:
A. 215 μF.
B. Between 68 μF and 100 μF.
C. Between 47 μF and 68 μF.
D. 22 μF.
E. Not determinable from the data given.
39. The reactance of a section of transmission line
depends on all of the following except:
A. The velocity factor of the line.
B. The length of the section.
C. The current in the line.
D. The frequency.
E. The wavelength.
40. When confronted with a parallel RLC circuit and
you need to find the complex impedance:
A. Just add the resistance and reactance to get R jX.
B. Find the net conductance and susceptance, then
convert to resistance and reactance, and add these
to get R jX.
C. Find the net conductance and susceptance, and just
add these together to get R jX.
D. Rearrange the components so they’re in series, and
find the complex impedance of that circuit.
E. Subtract reactance from resistance to get R jX.
41. The illustration in Fig. Test 2-2 shows a vector R
jX representing:
A. XC = 60 Ω and R = 25 Ω
B. XL = 60 Ω and R = 25 Ω
C. XL = 60 μH and R = 25 Ω
D. C = 60 μF and R = 25 Ω
E. L = 60 μH and R = 25 Ω
42. If two sine waves have the same frequency and 49. Three coils are connected in parallel. Each has an
the same amplitude, but they cancel out, the phase inductance of 300μH. There is no mutual inductance.
difference is: The net inductance is:
A. 45 degrees. B. 90 degrees. A. 100 μH. B. 300 μH.
C. 180 degrees. D. 270 degrees. C. 900 μH. D. 17.3 μH.
E. 360 degrees. E. 173 μH.

43. A series circuit has a resistance of 50 Ω and a 50. An inductor shows 100 Ω of reactance at 30.0
capacitive reactance of -37 Ω. The phase angle is: MHz. What is its inductance?
A. 37 degrees. B. 53 degrees. A. 0.531 μH. B. 18.8 mH.
C. -37 degrees. D. -53 degrees. C. 531 μH. D. 18.8 μH.
E. Not determinable from the data given. E. It can’t be found from the data given.

44. A 200 Ω resistor is in series with a coil and CHAPTER 19 INTRODUCTION TO

capacitor; XL = 200 Ω and XC = -100 Ω. The SEMICONDUCTORS
complex impedance is: 1. The term “semiconductor” arises from:
A. j100. B. j200. A. Resistor-like properties of metal oxides.
C. 200 + j100. D. 200 + j200. B. Variable conductive properties of some
E. Not determinable from the data given. materials.
C. The fact that there’s nothing better to call silicon.
D. Insulating properties of silicon and GaAs.
45. The characteristic impedance of a transmission 2. Which of the following is not an advantage of
line: semiconductor devices
A. Is negative imaginary. over vacuum tubes?
B. Is positive imaginary. A. Smaller size.
C. Depends on the frequency. B. Lower working voltage.
D. Depends on the construction of the line. C. Lighter weight.
E. Depends on the length of the line. D. Ability to withstand high voltages.
3. The most common semiconductor among the
46. The period of a wave is 2 X 10-8 second. The following substances is:
frequency is: A. Germanium.
A. 2 X 108 Hz. B. 20 MHz. B. Galena.
C. 50 kHz. D. 50 MHz. C. Silicon.
E. 500 MHz. D. Copper.
4. GaAs is a(n):
A. Compound.
47. A series circuit has a resistance of 600 Ω and a B. Element.
capacitance of 220pF. The phase angle is: C. Conductor.
A. -20 degrees. B. 20 degrees. D. Gas.
C. -70 degrees. D. 70 degrees. 5. A disadvantage of gallium-arsenide devices is that:
E. Not determinable from the data given. A. The charge carriers move fast.
B. The material does not react to ionizing radiation.
C. It is expensive to produce.
48. A capacitor with a negative temperature
D. It must be used at high frequencies.
coefficient:
6. Selenium works especially well in:
A. Works less well as the temperature increases.
A. Photocells.
B. Works better as the temperature increases.
B. High-frequency detectors.
C. Heats up as its value is made larger.
C. Radio-frequency power amplifiers.
D. Cools down as its value is made larger.
D. Voltage regulators.
E. Has increasing capacitance as temperature goes
7. Of the following, which material allows the lowest
down.
forward voltage drop
in a diode?
A. Selenium.
B. Silicon.
C. Copper.
D. Germanium.
8. A CMOS integrated circuit:
A. Can only work at low frequencies.
B. Is susceptible to damage by static.
C. Requires considerable power to function.
D. Needs very high voltage.
9. The purpose of doping is to:
A. Make the charge carriers move faster.
B. Cause holes to flow.
C. Give a semiconductor material certain
properties.
D. Protect devices from damage in case of transients.
10. A semiconductor material is made into N type by:
A. Adding an acceptor impurity.
B. Adding a donor impurity.
C. Injecting electrons.
D. Taking electrons away.
11. Which of the following does not result from
adding an acceptor
impurity?
A. The material becomes P type.
B. Current flows mainly in the form of holes.
C. Most of the carriers have positive electric charge.
D. The substance has an electron surplus.
12. In a P-type material, electrons are:
A. Majority carriers.
B. Minority carriers.
C. Positively charged.
D. Entirely absent.
13. Holes flow from:
A. Minus to plus.
B. Plus to minus.
C. P-type to N-type material.
D. N-type to P-type material.
14. When a P-N junction does not conduct, it is:
A. Reverse biased.
B. Forward biased.
C. Biased past the breaker voltage.
D. In a state of avalanche effect.
15. Holes flow the opposite way from electrons
because:
A. Charge carriers flow continuously.
B. Charge carriers are passed from atom to atom.
C. They have the same polarity.
D. No! Holes flow in the same direction as electrons.
16. If an electron has a charge of -1 unit, a hole has:
A. A charge of -1 unit.
B. No charge.
C. A charge of +1 unit.
D. A charge that depends on the semiconductor type.
17. When a P-N junction is reverse-biased, the
capacitance depends on
all of the following except:
A. The frequency.
B. The width of the depletion region.
C. The cross-sectional area of the junction.
D. The type of semiconductor material.
18. If the reverse bias exceeds the avalanche voltage
in a P-N junction:
A. The junction will be destroyed.
B. The junction will insulate; no current will flow.
C. The junction will conduct current.
D. The capacitance will become extremely high.
19. Avalanche voltage is routinely exceeded when a
P-N junction acts as:
A. Current rectifier.
B. Variable resistor.
C. Variable capacitor.
D. Voltage regulator.
20. An unimportant factor concerning the frequency
at which a P-N
junction will work effectively is:
A. The type of semiconductor material.
B. The cross-sectional area of the junction.
C. The reverse current.
D. The capacitance with reverse bias.
CHAPTER 20 USE OF DIODES
1. When a diode is forward-biased, the anode:
A. Is negative relative to the cathode.
B. Is positive relative to the cathode.
C. Is at the same voltage as the cathode.
D. Alternates between positive and negative relative
to the cathode.
2. If ac is applied to a diode, and the peak ac voltage
never exceeds the
avalanche voltage, then the output is:
A. Ac with half the frequency of the input.
B. Ac with the same frequency as the input.
C. Ac with twice the frequency of the input.
D. None of the above.
3. A crystal set:
A. Can be used to transmit radio signals.
B. Requires a battery with long life.
C. Requires no battery.
D. Is useful for rectifying 60-Hz ac.
4. A diode detector:
A. Is used in power supplies.
B. Is employed in some radio receivers.
C. Is used commonly in high-power radio
transmitters.
D. Changes dc into ac. C. An IMPATT diode.
5. If the output wave in a circuit has the same shape D. None of the above.
as the input wave, 14. A Gunnplexer can be used as a:
then: A. Communications device.
A. The circuit is linear. B. Radio detector.
B. The circuit is said to be detecting. C. Rectifier.
C. The circuit is a mixer. D. Signal mixer.
D. The circuit is a rectifier. 15. The most likely place you would find an LED
6. The two input frequencies of a mixer circuit are would be:
3.522 MHz and 3.977 A. In a rectifier circuit.
MHz. Which of the following frequencies might be B. In a mixer circuit.
used at the output? C. In a digital frequency display.
A. 455 kHz. D. In an oscillator circuit.
B. 886 kHz. 16. Coherent radiation is produced by a:
C. 14.00 MHz. A. Gunn diode.
D. 1.129 MHz. B. Varactor diode.
7. A time-domain display might be found in: C. Rectifier diode.
A. An ammeter. D. Laser diode.
B. A spectrum analyzer. 17. You want a circuit to be stable with a variety of
C. A digital voltmeter. amplifier impedance
D. An oscilloscope. conditions. You might consider a coupler using:
8. Zener voltage is also known as: A. A Gunn diode.
A. Forward breakover voltage. B. An optoisolator.
B. Peak forward voltage. C. A photovoltaic cell.
C. Avalanche voltage. D. A laser diode.
D. Reverse bias. 18. The power from a solar panel depends on all of
9. The forward breakover voltage of a silicon diode the following except:
is: A. The operating frequency of the panel.
A. About 0.3 V. B. The total surface area of the panel.
B. About 0.6 V. C. The number of cells in the panel.
C. About 1.0 V. D. The intensity of the light.
D. Dependent on the method of manufacture. 19. Emission of energy in an IRED is caused by:
10. A diode audio limiter circuit: A. High-frequency radio waves.
A. Is useful for voltage regulation. B. Rectification.
B. Always uses Zener diodes. C. Electron energy-level changes.
C. Rectifies the audio to reduce distortion. D. None of the above.
D. Can cause objectionable signal distortion. 20. A photodiode, when not used as a photovoltaic
11. The capacitance of a varactor varies with: cell, has:
A. Forward voltage. A. Reverse bias.
B. Reverse voltage. B. No bias.
C. Avalanche voltage. C. Forward bias.
D. Forward breakover voltage. D. Negative resistance.
12. The purpose of the I layer in a PIN diode is to: CHAPTER 21 POWER SUPPLY
A. Minimize the diode capacitance. 1. The output of a rectifier is:
B. Optimize the avalanche voltage. A. 60-Hz ac.
C. Reduce the forward breakover voltage. B. Smooth dc.
D. Increase the current through the diode. C. Pulsating dc.
13. Which of these diode types might be found in the D. 120-Hz ac.
oscillator circuit of a 2. Which of the following might not be needed in a
microwave radio transmitter? power supply?
A. A rectifier diode. A. The transformer.
B. A cat whisker. B. The filter.
C. The rectifier. circuit. The dc output voltage is about:
D. All of the above are generally needed. A. 14 V.
3. Of the following appliances, which would need the B. 20 V.
biggest C. 28 V.
transformer? D. 36 V.
A. A clock radio. 11. The ripple frequency from a full-wave rectifier is:
B. A TV broadcast transmitter. A. Twice that from a half-wave circuit.
C. A shortwave radio receiver. B. The same as that from a half-wave circuit.
D. A home TV set. C. Half that from a half-wave circuit.
4. An advantage of full-wave bridge rectification is: D. One-fourth that from a half-wave circuit.
A. It uses the whole transformer secondary for the 12. Which of the following would make the best filter
entire ac input for a power supply?
cycle. A. A capacitor in series.
B. It costs less than other rectifier types. B. A choke in series.
C. It cuts off half of the ac wave cycle. C. A capacitor in series and a choke in parallel.
D. It never needs a regulator. D. A capacitor in parallel and a choke in series.
5. In. a supply designed to provide high power at low 13. If you needed exceptionally good ripple filtering
voltage, the best for a power supply,
rectifier design would probably be: the best approach would be to:
A. Half-wave. A. Connect several capacitors in parallel.
B. Full-wave, center-tap. B. Use a choke-input filter.
C. Bridge. C. Connect several chokes in series.
D. Voltage multiplier. D. Use two capacitor/choke sections one after the
6. The part of a power supply immediately preceding other.
the regulator is: 14. Voltage regulation can be accomplished by a
A. The transformer. Zener diode connected
B. The rectifier. in:
C. The filter. A. Parallel with the filter output, forward-biased.
D. The ac input. B. Parallel with the filter output, reverse-biased.
7. If a half-wave rectifier is used with 117-V rms ac C. Series with the filter output, forward-biased.
(house mains), the D. Series with the filter output, reverse-biased.
average dc output voltage is about: 15. A current surge takes place when a power supply
A. 52.7 V. is first turned on
B. 105 V. because:
C. 117 V. A. The transformer core is suddenly magnetized.
D. 328 V. B. The diodes suddenly start to conduct.
8. If a full-wave bridge circuit is used with a C. The filter capacitor(s) must be initially
transformer whose secondary charged.
provides 50 V rms, the PIV across the diodes is D. Arcing takes place in the power switch.
about: 16. Transient suppression minimizes the chance of:
A. 50 V. A. Diode failure.
B. 70 V. B. Transformer failure.
C. 100 V. C. Filter capacitor failure.
D. 140 V. D. Poor voltage regulation.
9. The principal disadvantage of a voltage multiplier 17. If a fuse blows, and it is replaced with one having
is: a lower current
A. Excessive current. rating, there’s a good chance that:
B. Excessive voltage. A. The power supply will be severely damaged.
C. Insufficient rectification. B. The diodes will not rectify.
D. Poor regulation. C. The fuse will blow out right away.
10. A transformer secondary provides 10 V rms to a D. Transient suppressors won’t work.
voltage-doubler 18. A fuse with nothing but a straight wire inside is
probably: D. More than one of the above.
A. A slow-blow type. 6. With no signal input, a bipolar transistor would
B. A quick-break type. have the least IC when:
C. Of a low current rating. A. The emitter is grounded.
D. Of a high current rating. B. The E-B junction is forward biased.
19. Bleeder resistors are: C. The E-B junction is reverse biased.
A. Connected in parallel with filter capacitors. D. The E-B current is high.
B. Of low ohmic value. 7. When a transistor is conducting as much as it
C. Effective for transient suppression. possibly can, it is said to
D. Effective for surge suppression. be:
20. To service a power supply with which you are not A. In cutoff.
completely familiar, B. In saturation.
you should: C. Forward biased.
A. Install bleeder resistors. D. In avalanche.
B. Use proper fusing. 8. Refer to Fig. 22-12. The best point at which to
C. Leave it alone and have a professional work on operate a transistor as a
it. small-signal amplifier is:
D. Use a voltage regulator. A. A.
CHAPTER 22 BIPOLAR TRANSISTOR B. B.
1. In a PNP circuit, the collector: C. C.
A. Has an arrow pointing inward. D. D.
B. Is positive with respect to the emitter. 9. In Fig. 22-12, the forward-breakover point for the
C. Is biased at a small fraction of the base bias. E-B junction is
D. Is negative with respect to the emitter. nearest to:
2. In many cases, a PNP transistor can be replaced A. No point on this graph.
with an NPN device B. B.
and the circuit will do the same thing, provided that: C. C.
A. The supply polarity is reversed. D. D.
B. The collector and emitter leads are interchanged. 10. In Fig. 22-12, saturation is nearest to point:
C. The arrow is pointing inward. A. A.
D. No! A PNP device cannot be replaced with an B. B.
NPN. C. C.
3. A bipolar transistor has: D. D.
A. Three P-N junctions. 11. In Fig. 22-12, the greatest gain occurs at point:
B. Three semiconductor layers. A. A.
C. Two N-type layers around a P-type layer. B. B.
D. A low avalanche voltage. C. C.
4. In the dual-diode model of an NPN transistor, the D. D.
emitter corresponds 12. In a common-emitter circuit, the gain bandwidth
to: product is:
A. The point where the cathodes are connected A. The frequency at which the gain is 1.
together. B. The frequency at which the gain is 0.707 times its
B. The point where the cathode of one diode is value at 1 MHz.
connected to the anode of C. The frequency at which the gain is greatest.
the other. D. The difference between the frequency at which the
C. The point where the anodes are connected gain is greatest,
together. and the frequency at which the gain is 1.
D. Either of the diode cathodes. 13. The configuration most often used for matching a
5. The current through a transistor depends on: high input
A. EC. impedance to a low output impedance puts signal
B. EB relative to EC. ground at:
C. IB. A. The emitter.
B. The base. B. Transconductance.
C. The collector. C. Gate voltage.
D. Any point; it doesn’t matter. D. Gate bias.
14. The output is in phase with the input in a: 2. In an N-channel JFET, pinchoff occurs when the
A. Common-emitter circuit. gate bias is:
B. Common-base circuit. A. Slightly positive.
C. Common-collector circuit. B. Zero.
D. More than one of the above. C. Slightly negative.
15. The greatest possible amplification is obtained in: D. Very negative.
A. A common-emitter circuit. 3. The current consists mainly of holes when a JFET:
B. A common-base circuit. A. Has a P-type channel.
C. A common-collector circuit. B. Is forward-biased.
D. More than one of the above. C. Is zero-biased.
16. The input is applied to the collector in: D. Is reverse-biased.
A. A common-emitter circuit. 4. A JFET might work better than a bipolar transistor
B. A common-base circuit. in:
C. A common-collector circuit. A. A rectifier.
D. None of the above. B. A radio receiver.
17. The configuration noted for its stability in radio- C. A filter.
frequency power D. A transformer.
amplifiers is the: 5. In a P-channel JFET:
A. Common-emitter circuit. A. The drain is forward-biased.
B. Common-base circuit. B. The gate-source junction is forward biased.
C. Common-collector circuit. C. The drain is negative relative to the source.
D. Emitter-follower circuit. D. The gate must be at dc ground.
18. In a common-base circuit, the output is taken 6. A JFET is sometimes biased at or beyond pinchoff
from the: in:
A. Emitter. A. A power amplifier.
B. Base. B. A rectifier.
C. Collector. C. An oscillator.
D. More than one of the above. D. A weak-signal amplifier.
19. The input signal to a transistor amplifier results in 7. The gate of a JFET has:
saturation during A. Forward bias.
part of the cycle. This produces: B. High impedance.
A. The greatest possible amplification. C. Low reverse resistance.
B. Reduced efficiency. D. Low avalanche voltage.
C. Avalanche effect. 8. A JFET circuit essentially never has:
D. Nonlinear output impedance. A. A pinched-off channel.
20. The gain of a transistor in a common-emitter B. Holes as the majority carriers.
circuit is 100 at a C. A forward-biased P-N junction.
frequency of 1000 Hz. The gain is 70.7 at 335 kHz. D. A high-input impedance.
The gain drops to 1 at 9. When a JFET is pinched off:
210 MHz. The alpha cutoff is: A. dID/dEG is very large with no signal.
A. 1 kHz. B. dID/dEG might vary considerably with no signal.
B. 335 kHz. C. dID/dEG is negative with no signal.
C. 210 MHz. D. dID/dEG is zero with no signal.
D. None of the above. 10. Transconductance is the ratio of:
CHAPTER 23 FET A. A change in drain voltage to a change in source
1. The current through the channel of a JFET is voltage.
directly affected by all of B. A change in drain current to a change in gate
the following except: voltage.
A. Drain voltage. C. A change in gate current to a change in source
voltage. A. Common source.
D. A change in drain current to a change in drain B. Common gate.
voltage. C. Common drain.
11. Characteristic curves for JFETs generally show: D. All of them.
A. Drain voltage as a function of source current. 20. Which of the following circuits generally has the
B. Drain current as a function of gate current. greatest gain?
C. Drain current as a function of drain voltage. A. Common source.
D. Drain voltage as a function of gate current. B. Common gate.
12. A disadvantage of a MOS component is that: C. Common drain.
A. It is easily damaged by static electricity. D. It depends only on bias, not on which electrode is
B. It needs a high input voltage. grounded.
C. It draws a large amount of current. CHAPTER 24 AMPLIFIERS
D. It produces a great deal of electrical noise. 1. The decibel is a unit of:
13. The input impedance of a MOSFET: A. Relative signal strength.
A. Is lower than that of a JFET. B. Voltage.
B. Is lower than that of a bipolar transistor. C. Power.
C. Is between that of a bipolar transistor and a JFET. D. Current.
D. Is extremely high. 2. If a circuit has a voltage-amplification factor of 20,
14. An advantage of MOSFETs over JFETs is that: then the voltage
A. MOSFETs can handle a wider range of gate gain is:
voltages. A. 13 dB.
B. MOSFETs deliver greater output power. B. 20 dB.
C. MOSFETs are more rugged. C. 26 dB.
D. MOSFETs last longer. D. 40 dB.
15. The channel in a zero-biased JFET is normally: 3. A gain of -15 dB in a circuit means that:
A. Pinched off. A. The output signal is stronger than the input.
B. Somewhat open. B. The input signal is stronger than the output.
C. All the way open. C. The input signal is 15 times as strong as the
D. Of P-type semiconductor material. output.
16. When an enhancement-mode MOSFET is at zero D. The output signal is 15 times as strong as the
bias: input.
A. The drain current is high with no signal. 4. A device has a voltage gain of 23 dB. The input
B. The drain current fluctuates with no signal. voltage is 3.3 V. The
C. The drain current is low with no signal. output voltage is:
D. The drain current is zero with no signal. A. 76 V.
17. An enhancement-mode MOSFET can be B. 47 V.
recognized in schematic C. 660 V.
diagrams by: D. Not determinable from the data given.
A. An arrow pointing inward. 5. A power gain of 44 dB is equivalent to an
B. A broken vertical line inside the circle. output/input power ratio of:
C. An arrow pointing outward. A. 44.
D. A solid vertical line inside the circle. B. 160.
18. In a source follower, which of the electrodes of C. 440.
the FET receives the D. 25,000.
input signal? 6. A resistor between the base of an NPN bipolar
A. None of them. transistor and the
B. The source. positive supply voltage is used to:
C. The gate. A. Provide proper bias.
D. The drain. B. Provide a path for the input signal.
19. Which of the following circuits has its output 180 C. Provide a path for the output signal.
degrees out of D. Limit the collector current.
phase with its input? 7. The capacitance values in an amplifier circuit
depend on: 15. A graphic equalizer is a form of:
A. The supply voltage. A. Bias control.
B. The polarity. B. Gain control.
C. The signal strength. C. Tone control.
D. The signal frequency. D. Frequency control.
8. A class-A circuit would not work well as: 16. A disadvantage of transfer coupling, as opposed
A. A stereo hi-fi amplifier. to capacitive
B. A television transmitter PA. coupling, is that:
C. A low-level microphone preamplifier. A. Transformers can’t match impedances.
D. The first stage in a radio receiver. B. Transformers can’t work above audio frequencies.
9. In which of the following FET amplifier types does C. Transformers cost more.
drain current flow for D. Transformers reduce the gain.
50 percent of the signal cycle? 17. A certain bipolar-transistor PA is 66 percent
A. Class A. efficient. The output
B. Class AB1. power is 33 W. The dc collector power input is:
C. Class AB2. A. 22 W.
D. Class B. B. 50 W.
10. Which of the following amplifier types produces C. 2.2 W.
the least distortion of D. None of the above.
the signal waveform? 18. A broadband PA is:
A. Class A. A. Generally easy to use.
B. Class AB1. B. More efficient than a tuned PA.
C. Class AB2. C. Less likely than a tuned PA to amplify unwanted
D. Class B. signals.
11. Which bipolar amplifier type has some distortion D. Usable only at audio frequencies.
in the signal wave, 19. A tuned PA must always be:
with collector current during most, but not all, of the A. Set to work over a wide range of frequencies.
cycle? B. Adjusted for maximum power output.
A. Class A. C. Made as efficient as possible.
B. Class AB1. D. Operated in class C.
C. Class AB2. 20. A loading control in a tuned PA:
D. Class B. A. Provides an impedance match between the bipolar
12. How can a class-B amplifier be made suitable for transistor or FET
hi-fi audio and the load.
applications? B. Allows broadband operation.
A. By increasing the bias. C. Adjusts the resonant frequency.
B. By using two transistors in push-pull. D. Controls the input impedance.
C. By using tuned circuits in the output. CHAPTER 25 OSCILLATORS
D. A class-B amplifier cannot work well for hi-fi 1. Negative feedback in an amplifier:
audio. A. Causes oscillation.
13. How can a class-C amplifier be made linear? B. Increases sensitivity.
A. By reducing the bias. C. Reduces the gain.
B. By increasing the drive. D. Is used in an Armstrong oscillator.
C. By using two transistors in push-pull. 2. Oscillation requires:
D. A class-C amplifier cannot be made linear. A. A common-drain or common-collector circuit.
14. Which of the following amplifier classes B. A stage with gain.
generally needs the most C. A tapped coil.
driving power? D. Negative feedback.
A. Class A. 3. A Colpitts oscillator can be recognized by:
B. Class AB1. A. A split capacitance in the tuned circuit.
C. Class AB2. B. A tapped coil in the tuned circuit.
D. Class B. C. A transformer for the feedback.
D. A common-base or common-gate arrangement. frequency.
4. In an oscillator circuit, the feedback should be: C. Produces a sound that depends on its waveform.
A. As great as possible. D. Uses RC tuning.
B. Kept to a minimum. 13. A varactor diode:
C. Just enough to sustain oscillation. A. Is mechanically flexible.
D. Done through a transformer whose wires can be B. Has high power output.
switched easily. C. Can produce different waveforms.
5. A tapped coil is used in a(n): D. Is good for use in frequency synthesizers.
A. Hartley oscillator. 14. A frequency synthesizer has:
B. Colpitts oscillator. A. High power output.
C. Armstrong oscillator. B. High drift rate.
D. Clapp oscillator. C. Exceptional stability.
6. An RF choke: D. Adjustable waveshape.
A. Passes RF but not dc. 15. A ferromagnetic-core coil is preferred for use in
B. Passes both RF and dc. the tuned circuit of an
C. Passes dc but not RF. RF oscillator:
D. Blocks both dc and RF. A. That must have the best possible stability.
7. Ferromagnetic coil cores are not generally good for B. That must have high power output.
use in RF C. That must work at microwave frequencies.
oscillators because: D. No! Air-core coils work better in RF oscillators.
A. The inductances are too large. 16. If the load impedance for an oscillator is too high:
B. It’s hard to vary the inductance of such a coil. A. The frequency might drift.
C. Such coils are too bulky. B. The power output might be reduced.
D. Air-core coils have better thermal stability. C. The oscillator might fail to start.
8. An oscillator might fail to start for any of the D. It’s not a cause for worry; it can’t be too high.
following reasons except: 17. The bipolar transistors or JFETs in a
A. Low-power-supply voltage. multivibrator are usually
B. Low stage gain. connected in:
C. In-phase feedback. A. Class B.
D. Very low output impedance. B. A common-emitter or common-source
9. An advantage of a crystal-controlled oscillator over arrangement.
a VFO is: C. Class C.
A. Single-frequency operation. D. A common-collector or common-drain
B. Ease of frequency adjustment. arrangement.
C. High output power. 18. The arrangement in the block diagram of Fig. 25-
D. Low drift. 11 represents:
10. The frequency at which a crystal oscillator A. A waveform analyzer.
functions is determined B. An audio oscillator.
mainly by: C. An RF oscillator.
A. The values of the inductor and capacitor. D. A sine-wave generator.
B. The thickness of the crystal. 19. Acoustic feedback in a public-address system:
C. The amount of capacitance across the crystal. A. Is useful for generating RF sine waves.
D. The power-supply voltage. B. Is useful for waveform analysis.
11. The different sounds of musical instruments are C. Can be used to increase the amplifier gain.
primarily the result of: D. Serves no useful purpose.
A. Differences in the waveshape. 20. An IMPATT diode:
B. Differences in frequency. A. Makes a good audio oscillator.
C. Differences in amplitude. B. Can be used for waveform analysis.
D. Differences in phase. C. Is used as a microwave oscillator.
12. A radio-frequency oscillator usually: D. Allows for frequency adjustment of a VCO.
A. Has an irregular waveshape. CHAPTER 26 DATA TRANSMISSION
B. Has most or all of its energy at a single 1. A radio wave has a frequency of 1.55 MHz. The
highest modulating A. AM.
frequency that can be used effectively is about: B. LSB.
A. 1.55 kHz. C. USB.
B. 15.5 kHz. D. FSK.
C. 155 kHz. 10. A spectrum analyzer displays:
D. 1.55 MHz. A. Time as a function of frequency.
2. Morse code is a form of: B. Frequency as a function of time.
A. Digital modulation. C. Signal strength as a function of time.
B. Analog modulation. D. Signal strength as a function of frequency.
C. Phase modulation. 11. The deviation for voice FM signals is usually:
D. dc modulation. A. Plus-or-minus 3 kHz.
3. An advantage of FSK over simple on-off keying B. Plus-or-minus 5 kHz
for RTTY is: C. Plus-or-minus 6 kHz.
A. Better frequency stability. D. Plus-or-minus 10 kHz.
B. Higher speed capability. 12. Wideband FM is preferable to narrowband FM
C. Reduced number of misprints. for music transmission
D. On-off keying is just as good as FSK. because:
4. The maximum AM percentage possible without A. Lower frequencies are heard better.
distortion is: B. Spectrum space is conserved.
A. 33 percent. C. The fidelity is better.
B. 67 percent. D. No! Narrowband FM is better for music.
C. 100 percent. 13. In which mode of PM does the pulse level vary?
D. 150 percent. A. PAM.
5. If an AM signal is modulated with audio having B. PDM.
frequencies up to 5 C. PWM.
kHz, then the complete signal bandwidth will be: D. PFM.
A. 10 kHz. 14. In which PM mode do pulses last for varying
B. 6 kHz. times?
C. 5 kHz. A. PAM.
D. 3 kHz. B. PWM.
6. An AM transmitter using a class-C PA should C. PFM.
employ: D. PCM.
A. Carrier suppression. 15. How many states are commonly used for the
B. High-level modulation. transmission of digitized
C. Lower sideband. voice signals?
D. Single sideband. A. Two.
7. Which of the following modulation methods is B. Four.
used to send teleprinter C. Six.
data over the phone lines? D. Eight.
A. CW. 16. In an SSTV signal, the frame time is:
B. SSB. A. 1/525 second.
C. AM. B. 1/30 second.
D. AFSK. C. 1/8 second.
8. An advantage of SSB over AM is: D. 8 seconds.
A. Higher data transmission rate. 17. The bandwidth of a fax signal is kept narrow by:
B. More effective use of transmitter power. A. Sending the data at a slow rate of speed.
C. Greater bandwidth. B. Limiting the image resolution.
D. Enhanced carrier wave level. C. Limiting the range of shades sent.
9. An SSB suppressed carrier is at 14.335 MHz. The D. Using pulse modulation.
voice data is 18. What is the wavelength of a 21.3-MHz signal?
contained in a band from 14.335-14.338 MHz. The A. 46.2 m.
mode is: B. 14.1 m.
C. 21.0 km. D. FSK.
D. 6.39 km. 8. The S-N/N ratio is a measure of.
19. A coaxial cable: A. Sensitivity.
A. Keeps the signal confined. B. Selectivity.
B. Radiates efficiently. C. Dynamic range.
C. Works well as a transmitting antenna. D. Adjacent-channel rejection.
D. Can pick up signals from outside. 9. The ability of a receiver to perform in the presence
20. An advantage of fiberoptics over cable of strong signals is
communications is: a consequence of its:
A. More sensitivity to noise. A. Sensitivity.
B. Improved antenna efficiency. B. Noise figure.
C. Higher RF output. C. Dynamic range.
D. Simpler and easier maintenance. D. Adjacent-channel rejection.
CHAPTER 27 DATA RECEPTION 10. A receiver that responds to a desired signal, but
1. The reflected wave in a radio signal: not to one very
A. Travels less distance than the direct wave. nearby in frequency, has good:
B. Travels just as far as the direct wave. A. Sensitivity.
C. Travels farther than the direct wave. B. Noise figure.
D. Might travel less far than, just as far as, or farther C. Dynamic range.
than the direct wave. D. Adjacent-channel rejection.
2. The reflected wave: 11. An AM receiver can be used to demodulate FM
A. Arrives in phase with the direct wave. by means of:
B. Arrives out of phase with the direct wave. A. Envelope detection.
C. Arrives in a variable phase compared with the B. Product detection.
direct wave. C. Slope detection.
D. Is horizontally polarized. D. Pulse detection.
3. The ionospheric layer that absorbs radio waves is: 12. An FM detector with built-in limiting is:
A. The D layer. A. A ratio detector.
B. The E layer. B. A discriminator.
C. The F layer. C. An envelope detector.
D. No layers ever absorb radio waves. D. A product detector.
4. The highest layer of the ionosphere is: 13. Time-division multiplex is often done with:
A. The D layer. A. AM.
B. The E layer. B. FM.
C. The F layer. C. FSK.
D. Dependent on the time of day and the solar cycle. D. PM.
5. Radio waves that curve earthward in the lower 14. A continuously variable signal is recovered from
atmosphere are being a signal having
affected by: discrete states by:
A. Troposcatter. A. A ratio detector.
B. The D layer. B. A D/A converter.
C. Ionospheric ducting. C. A product detector.
D. Tropospheric bending. D. An envelope detector.
6. Single-sideband can be demodulated by: 15. Digital modulation is superior to analog
A. An envelope detector. modulation in the sense that:
B. A diode. A. Analog signals have discrete states, while digital
C. A BFO and mixer. ones vary
D. A ratio detector. continuously.
7. A diode and capacitor can be used to detect: B. Digital signals resemble noise less than analog
A. CW. ones.
B. AM. C. Digital signals are easier to use with FM.
C. SSB. D. Digital signals have greater bandwidth.
16. A product detector would most often be used to B. A notebook computer.
receive: C. A battery-powered calculator.
A. AM. D. A low-power audio amplifier.
B. CW. 4. Which type of component is generally not practical
C. FM. for fabrication in an
D. None of the above. IC?
17. To receive UHF signals on a shortwave receiver, A. Resistors.
you would need: B. Inductors.
A. A heterodyne detector. C. Diodes.
B. A product detector. D. Capacitors.
C. An up converter. 5. An op amp usually employs negative feedback to:
D. A down converter. A. Maximize the gain.
18. Image rejection in a superhet receiver is enhanced B. Control the gain.
by: C. Allow oscillation over a wide band of frequencies.
A. Front-end selectivity. D. No! Op amps do not employ negative feedback.
B. A product detector. 6. A channel carries several signals at once. Which
C. A variable LO. type of IC might be
D. A sensitive IF amplifier chain. used to select one of the signals for reception?
19. A low IF is not practical with a single-conversion A. An op amp.
receiver because: B. A timer.
A. Product detection cannot be used. C. A comparator.
B. The image frequency would be too close to the D. A multiplexer/demultiplexer.
incoming-signal 7. Which type of IC is used to determine whether
frequency. voltage levels are the
C. Sensitivity would be impaired. same or not?
D. Adjacent-channel rejection would be poor. A. An op amp.
20. Digital signal processing can be used to B. A timer.
advantage with: C. A comparator.
A. SSB. D. A multiplexer/demultiplexer.
B. SSTV. 8. Which type of digital IC is least susceptible to
C. FSK. noise?
D. Any of the above. A. Transistor-transistor logic.
CHAPTER 28 IC AND DATA STORAGE B. Base-coupled logic.
MEDIA C. Emitter-coupled logic.
1. Because of the small size of ICs compared with D. N-channel-coupled logic.
equivalent circuits 9. Which of the following is not an advantage of
made from discrete components: CMOS?
A. More heat is generated. A. Relative immunity to noise pulses.
B. Higher power output is possible. B. Low-current requirements.
C. Higher switching speeds are attainable. C. Ability to work at high speed.
D. Fewer calculations need be done in a given time. D. Ability to handle high power levels.
2. Which of the following is not an advantage of ICs 10. An absolute limit on IC component density is:
over discrete A. The current levels needed.
components? B. The maximum attainable impedance.
A. Higher component density. C. The size of the semiconductor atoms.
B. Ease of maintenance. D. No! There is no limit on component density.
C. Greater power capability. 11. In a ROM:
D. Lower current consumption. A. It’s easy to get data out and put it in.
3. In which of the following devices would you be B. It’s hard to get data out, but easy to put it in.
least likely to find an C. It’s easy to get data out, but hard to put it in.
integrated circuit as the main component? D. It’s hard to get data out or put it in.
A. A radio broadcast transmitter’s final amplifier. 12. In a RAM:
A. It’s easy to get data out and put it in. A. Triodes work with lower voltages.
B. It’s hard to get data out, but easy to put it in. B. Triodes are more compact.
C. It’s easy to get data out, but hard to put it in. C. Triodes need more voltage.
D. It’s hard to get data out or put it in. D. Triodes don’t need filaments.
13. Which of the following IC types must be 2. The control grid of a tube corresponds to the:
physically removed from the A. Source of an FET.
circuit to have its memory contents changed? B. Collector of a bipolar transistor.
A. EEPROM. C. Anode of a diode.
B. EPROM. D. Gate of an FET.
C. ROM. 3. The intensity of the electron flow in a vacuum tube
D. RAM. depends on all of
14. A kilobyte is: the following except:
A. Equivalent to a novel. A. The gate voltage.
B. About 1,000 bytes. B. The power supply voltage.
C. About 1,000,000 bytes. C. The grid voltage.
D. Equivalent to about one typewritten line. D. The voltage between the cathode and the plate.
15. In magnetic audio tape: 4. Which type of tube maintains constant voltage
A. The tracks are parallel to the edges. drop with changes in
B. The tracks are diagonal. current?
C. The tracks are perpendicular to the edges. A. A triode.
D. The tracks can be oriented at any angle. B. A gas-filled regulator.
16. In magnetic video tape: C. A tetrode.
A. The video tracks are parallel to the edges. D. A pentagrid converter.
B. The video tracks are diagonal. 5. In a tube with a directly heated cathode:
C. The video tracks are perpendicular to the edges. A. The filament is separate from the cathode.
D. The video tracks can be oriented at any angle. B. The grid is connected to the filament.
17. An advantage of magnetic disks over magnetic C. The filament serves as the cathode.
tape is: D. There is no filament.
A. Disks are immune to damage by heat. 6. In a tube with a cold cathode:
B. Tapes are difficult to rewind. A. The filament is separate from the cathode.
C. Disks allow faster data storage and retrieval. B. The grid is connected to the filament.
D. Disks are immune to external magnetic fields. C. The filament serves as the cathode.
18. A typical audio recording tape thickness is: D. There is no filament.
A. 0.001 mil. 7. A screen grid enhances tube operation by:
B. 0.01 mil. A. Decreasing the gain.
C. 0.1 mil. B. Decreasing the plate voltage.
D. 1 mil. C. Decreasing the grid-to-plate capacitance.
19. Compact disks (CDs) are not generally used for D. Pulling excess electrons from the plate.
recording: 8. A tube with three grids is called a:
A. Voices. A. Triode.
B. Music. B. Tetrode.
C. In digital form. C. Pentode.
D. Via magnetic fields. D. Hexode.
20. A reason CDs don’t wear out with repeated 9. A tube type radio receiver:
playback is: A. Is bulky and heavy.
A. The magnetic fields are strong. B. Requires low voltage.
B. Nothing touches the disk. C. Is more sensitive than a transistorized radio.
C. The data is analog. D. All of the above.
D. The magnetic particle density is high. 10. An advantage of a grounded-grid power amplifier
CHAPTER 29 ELECTRON TUBES is:
1. One difference between a triode and an N-channel A. Excellent sensitivity.
FET is that: B. High impedance.
C. Low noise. A. Spiralling electrons.
D. Good stability. B. Low noise output.
11. A heptode tube has: C. High achievable output power.
A. Two grids. D. Magnetic-field intensity.
B. Three grids. 20. In a multicavity klystron, the electrons:
C. Five grids. A. Have variable speed.
D. Seven grids. B. Travel in circles.
12. The electron gun in a CRT is another name for C. Are reflected by the cavities.
its: D. Are drawn out via the cathode.
A. Cathode. CHAPTER 30 BASIC DIGITAL PRINCIPLES
B. Anode. 1. The value of the decimal number 23 in binary form
C. Control grid. is:
D. Screen grid. A. 1011.
13. The electron beam in an electrostatic CRT is bent B. 110111.
by: C. 10111.
A. A magnetic field. D. 11100.
B. An electric field. 2. The binary number 110001 represents the digital
C. A fluctuating current. number:
D. A constant current. A. 49.
14. The horizontal displacement on an oscilloscope B. 25.
CRT screen is C. 21.
usually measured in: D. 13.
A. Frequency per unit division. 3. The fifth digit from the right in a binary number
B. Current per unit division. carries a decimal value
C. Time per unit division. of:
D. Voltage per unit division. A. 64.
15. In a time-domain oscilloscope, the waveform to B. 32.
be analyzed is usually C. 24.
applied to the: D. 16.
A. Control grid plates or coils. 4. The largest possible decimal number that can be
B. Anode plates or coils. represented by six
C. Vertical deflection plates or coils. binary digits (bits) is:
D. Horizontal deflection plates or coils. A. 256.
16. A vidicon camera tube is noted for its: B. 128.
A. Sensitivity. C. 64.
B. Large size. D. 63.
C. Heavy weight. 5. Which of the following voltages could normally
D. Rapid response. represent a 1 in positive
17. In a magnetron, as the frequency is increased: logic?
A. The achievable power output increases. A. 0 V.
B. The achievable power output decreases. B. + 1 V.
C. The output power stays the same. C. + 4 V.
D. The output power increases and decreases D. + 12 V.
alternately. 6. Which of the following voltages might normally
18. The paths of the electrons in a magnetron are represent a 1 in
spirals, rather than negative logic?
straight lines, because of: A. 0 V.
A. The extreme voltage used. B. + 4 V.
B. The longitudinal magnetic flux. C. + 6 V.
C. The bunching-up of the electrons. D. + 12 V.
D. The shapes of the cavities. 7. If X is low, what is the state of X AND Y?
19. A klystron is noted for its: A. There is not enough information to tell.
B. Low. B. The pulse level is going from high to low.
C. High. C. The pulse level is going from low to high.
D. This logic statement makes no sense. D. The pulse level is low.
8. If X is high, what is the state of X NOR Y? 17. The inputs of an R-S flip-flop are known as:
A. There is not enough information to tell. A. Low and high.
B. Low. B. Asynchronous.
C. High. C. Synchronous.
D. This logic statement makes no sense. D. Set and reset.
9. If X and Y are both high, what is the state of X 18. When both inputs of an R-S flip-flop are 0:
NAND Y? A. The outputs stay as they are.
A. There is not enough information to tell. B. Q = 0 and -Q = 1.
B. Low. C. Q = 1 and -Q = 0.
C. High. D. The resulting outputs can be absurd.
D. This logic statement makes no sense. 19. When both inputs of an R-S flip-flop are 1:
10. If X is high and Y is low, what is the state of X A. The outputs stay as they are.
NOT Y? B. Q = 0 and -Q = 1.
A. There is not enough information to tell. C. Q = 1 and -Q = 0.
B. Low. D. The resulting outputs can be absurd.
C. High. 20. A frequency synthesizer makes use of
D. This logic statement makes no sense. A. An OR gate.
11. A logic circuit has four inputs W, X, Y, and Z. B. A divider.
How many possible C. The octal numbering system.
input combinations are there? D. The hexadecimal numbering system.
A. 4. Test: Part Three
B. 8. 1. In a junction FET, the control electrode is usually
C. 16. the:
D. 32. A. Source.
12. Data sent along a single line, one bit after B. Emitter.
another, is called: C. Drain.
A. Serial. D. Base.
B. Synchronous. E. Gate.
C. Parallel. 2. A diode can be used as a frequency multiplier
D. Asynchronous. because of its:
13. If X = 1 and Y = 1, then X + YZ is: A. Junction capacitance.
A. Always 0. B. Nonlinearity.
B. 0 if Z = 0, and 1 if Z = 1. C. Avalanche voltage.
C. 1 if Z = 0, and 0 if Z = 1. D. Forward breakover.
D. Always 1. E. Charge-carrier concentration.
14. If X = 0 and Y = 1, then X(Y + Z) is: 3. Which of the following is not a common form of
A. Always 0. data transmission?
B. 0 if Z = 0, and 1 if Z = 1. A. Parallel modulation.
C. 1 if Z = 0, and 0 if Z = 1. B. Frequency modulation.
D. Always 1. C. Amplitude modulation.
15. An advantage of a J-K over an R-S flip-flop is D. Phase modulation.
that: E. Pulse modulation.
A. The J-K flip-flop is faster. 4. A very brief, high-voltage spike on an ac power
B. The J-K can attain more states. line is called:
C. The J-K always has predictable outputs. A. A surge.
D. No! An R-S flip-flop is superior to a J-K. B. An arc.
16. In positive-edge triggering, the change of state C. A transient.
occurs when: D. An avalanche.
A. The pulse level is high. E. A clamp.
5. Which of the following is not characteristic of an A. The front end of a radio receiver.
oscillator? B. A high-power radio-frequency linear amplifier.
A. Negative feedback. C. A low-level audio amplifier.
B. Good output-to-input coupling. D. A digital computer.
C. Reasonably high transistor gain. E. Antique radios only.
D. Ac output. 13. In an N-type semiconductor, the minority carriers
E. Usefulness as a signal generator. are:
6. Which layer of the ionosphere absorbs radio A. Electrons.
signals below about 7 B. Protons.
MHz during the daylight hours? C. Holes.
A. The F layer. D. Neutrons.
B. The E layer. E. Silicon chips.
C. The D layer. 14. A disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that:
D. The C layer. A. The voltage is excessive.
E. The B layer. B. The current output is low.
7. The beta of a bipolar transistor is its: C. The output is hard to filter.
A. Current amplification factor. D. It needs many diodes.
B. Voltage amplification factor. E. The transformer must have a center tap.
C. Power amplification factor. 15. A power gain of 30 dB is equivalent to an
D. Maximum amplification frequency. amplification factor of:
E. Optimum amplification frequency. A. 0.001.
8. Which type of component is impractical to B. 1/30.
fabricate on a silicon chip? C. 30.
A. A capacitor. D. 1000.
B. A transistor. E. None of the above.
C. A diode. 16. An amplifier has a dc collector power input of
D. An inductor. 300 W, and is 75.0
E. Any component can be fabricated on a silicon percent efficient. The signal output power is:
chip. A. 400 W.
9. The extent to which an oscillator maintains a B. 300 W.
constant frequency is C. 225 W.
called its: D. Variable, depending on the bias.
A. Sensitivity. E. Impossible to determine from this data.
B. Drift ratio. 17. When both N-channel and P-channel transistors
C. Gain. are found in a metaloxide-semiconductor-type
D. Selectivity. integrated circuit, the technology is known as:
E. Stability. A. Transistor-transistor logic.
10. A Zener diode would most likely be used in: B. CMOS.
A. A mixer. C. Bipolar logic.
B. A voltage-controlled oscillator. D. NPNP.
C. A detector. E. PNPN.
D. A power supply regulating circuit. 18. A common-base circuit is commonly employed
E. An oscillator. as:
11. When the bias in an FET stops the flow of A. A microwave oscillator.
current, the condition is B. A low-pass filter.
called: C. A noise generator.
A. Forward breakover. D. A phase-locked loop.
B. Cutoff. E. A radio-frequency power amplifier.
C. Reverse bias. 19. Which of the following devices always uses an IC
D. Pinchoff. as one of its main
E. Avalanche. active components?
12. A vacuum tube would most likely be found in: A. A radio-frequency power amplifier.
B. A digital computer. head with respect to
C. A low-level audio amplifier. the data on a tape can be maximized by making the
D. A power transformer. tracks:
E. An impedance matching network. A. Parallel with the edges of the tape.
20. Which type of amplifier circuit provides the B. Perpendicular to the edges of the tape.
greatest efficiency? C. Slanted with respect to the edges of the tape.
A. Class A. D. Elliptically polarized.
B. Class AB. E. Rectangularly polarized.
C. Class B. 28. A simple power supply filter can be built with:
D. Class C. A. A capacitor in series with the dc output.
E. Any of the above can be as efficient as any other. B. An inductor in parallel with the dc output.
21. ASCII is a form of: C. A rectifier in parallel with the dc output.
A. Video modulation. D. A resistor in series and an inductor in parallel with
B. Diode. the dc output.
C. Teleprinter code. E. A capacitor in parallel with the dc output.
D. Voice modulation. 29. Which of the following bipolar-transistor circuits
E. AM detector. can, in theory,
22. The most stable type of oscillator circuit uses: provide the most amplification?
A. A tapped coil. A. Common emitter.
B. A split capacitor. B. Common base.
C. Negative feedback. C. Common collector.
D. A common-base arrangement. D. Common gate.
E. A quartz crystal. E. Common drain.
23. If the source-gate junction in an FET conducts: 30. Magnetic fields within ICs can store data in a
A. It is a sign of improper bias. device called:
B. The device will work in class C. A. Magnetic media.
C. The device will oscillate. B. IC memory.
D. The device will work in class A. C. Tape memory.
E. The circuit will have good stability. D. Bubble memory.
24. The octal number system uses modulo: E. Random-access memory.
A. 2. 31. An example of a device that commonly oscillates
B. 8. is:
C. 10. A. A rectifier diode.
D. 12. B. A weak-signal diode.
E. 16. C. A Gunn diode.
25. Signal-plus-noise-to-noise ratio (S_N/N) is often D. A Zener diode.
specified when E. An avalanche diode.
stating a receiver’s: 32. In a PNP bipolar transistor:
A. Selectivity. A. The collector is positive relative to the emitter.
B. Stability. B. The collector is at the same voltage as the emitter.
C. Modulation coefficient. C. The collector is negative relative to the emitter.
D. Sensitivity. D. The collector might be either positive or negative
E. Polarization. relative to the
26. In a reverse-biased semiconductor diode, the emitter.
capacitance depends E. The collector must be at ground potential.
on: 33. In a cathode-ray tube (CRT), the term
A. The width of the depletion region. electrostatic deflection means:
B. The reverse current. A. The device is not working correctly.
C. The P:N ratio. B. Static electricity is distorting the image.
D. The gate bias. C. The beam is bent by an electric field.
E. The avalanche voltage. D. The beam is bent by coils carrying a variable
27. The effective speed of a recording or playback current.
E. Nothing! There is no such thing as electrostatic 41. A ratio detector is a circuit for demodulating:
deflection in a CRT. A. AM.
34. Which type of modulation consists of one voice B. PM.
sideband, with a C. FM.
suppressed carrier? D. SSB.
A. AM. E. AFSK.
B. SSB. 42. In a radio-frequency power amplifier using a
C. FM. vacuum tube, stability
D. RTTY. can be enhanced by using a circuit in which the
E. PCM. following electrode is at
35. A type of electron tube that can be used to RF ground potential:
generate microwave A. The cathode.
energy is: B. The plate.
A. A triode. C. The filament.
B. An oscillotron. D. The control grid.
C. A cathode-ray tube. E. The screen grid.
D. A videotron. 43. A method of modulation in which the strength of
E. A magnetron. pulses varies is
36. In an AND gate, the output is high: called:
A. If any input is high. A. Pulse amplitude modulation.
B. Only when all inputs are low. B. Pulse position modulation.
C. If any input is low. C. Pulse frequency modulation.
D. Only when all inputs are high. D. Pulse ratio modulation.
E. Only when the inputs have opposite logic states. E. Pulse width modulation.
37. A voltage-controlled oscillator makes use of: 44. Boolean algebra is:
A. A varactor diode. A. Just like ordinary algebra.
B. A Zener diode. B. A useful tool in digital logic circuit design.
C. Negative feedback. C. Used to calculate the value of an unknown.
D. A split capacitance. D. Used with negative logic only.
E. Adjustable gate or base bias. E. Used with positive logic only.
38. Which of the following is not an advantage of a 45. A voltage-doubler power supply is best for use in:
transistor over a A. Circuits that need low current at high voltage.
vacuum tube? B. Low-voltage devices.
A. Smaller size. C. High-current appliances.
B. Lighter weight. D. All kinds of electronic equipment.
C. Less heat generation. E. Broadcast transmitter power amplifiers.
D. Lower operating voltages. 46. An optoisolator consists of:
E. Higher power-handling capacity. A. Two Zener diodes back to back.
39. An amplifier has an output signal voltage that is B. An LED and a photodiode.
35 times the input C. Two NPN transistors in series.
signal voltage. This is a gain of: D. An NPN transistor followed by a PNP transistor.
A. 15 dB. E. A PNP transistor followed by an NPN transistor.
B. 31 dB. 47. When a semiconductor is reverse-biased with a
C. 35 dB. large enough voltage,
D. 350 dB. it will conduct. This is because of:
E. 700 dB. A. Bias effect.
40. In an exclusive OR gate, the output is high: B. Avalanche effect.
A. If any input is high. C. Forward breakover.
B. Only when all inputs are low. D. An excess of charge carriers.
C. If any input is low. E. Conduction effect.
D. Only when all inputs are high. 48. Synchronizing pulses in a video signal:
E. Only when the inputs have opposite logic states. A. Keep the brightness constant.
B. Keep the contrast constant.
C. Keep the image from tearing or rolling.
D. Ensure that the colors are right.
E. Keep the image in good focus.
49. In an enhancement-mode MOSFET:
A. The channel conducts fully with zero gate bias.
B. The channel conducts partially with zero gate bias.
C. The channel conducts ac but not dc.
D. The channel conducts dc but not ac.
E. The channel does not conduct with zero gate
bias.
50. In a step-up power transformer:
A. The primary voltage is more than the secondary
voltage.
B. The secondary voltage is more than the
primary voltage.
C. The primary and secondary voltages are the same.
D. The secondary must be center-tapped.
E. The primary must be center-tapped.
CHAPTER 31 ACOUSTICS, AUDIO AND HIGH
FIDELITY
1. Acoustics is important in the design of:
A. Amplifier power supplies.
B. Speaker enclosures.
C. Cables that connect components of a hi-fi system
together.
D. Graphic equalizers.
2. Electromagnetic interference to a hi-fi amplifier
can be caused by:
A. A nearby radio broadcast station.
B. Improperly designed receiving antennas.
C. Excessive utility voltage.
D. Improper balance between the left and right
channels.
3. The midrange audio frequencies:
A. Are halfway between the lowest and highest
audible frequencies.
B. Represent sounds whose volume levels are not too
loud or too soft.
C. Are above the treble range but below the bass
range.
D. Are between approximately 0.2 and 2 kHz.
4. An indoor concert hall such that sound reaches
every listener’s ears
perfectly at all audio frequencies requires:
A. A suspended ceiling with acoustical tile
completely covering it.
B. Numerous baffles on the walls and ceiling.
C. A level of engineering beyond reasonable
expectation.
D. Avoidance of excessive background noise.
5. A sound volume change of -3 dB represents:
A. A doubling of acoustic power.
B. A threefold increase in acoustic power.
C. A tenfold increase in acoustic power.
D. No change in acoustic power.
6. A sound whose wavelength is 6in in the air has a
frequency of:
A. 550 Hz.
B. 1100 Hz.
C. 2200 Hz.
D. It is impossible to calculate from this information.
7. A sound wave that travels at 335 m per second has
a frequency of:
A. 335 Hz.
B. 3350 Hz.
C. 33.5 Hz.
D. It is impossible to calculate from this
information.
8. The relative phase of two acoustic waves, as they
arrive at your ears,
can affect:
A. How loud the sound seems.
B. The direction from which the sound seems to be
coming.
C. Both A and B.
D. Neither A nor B.
9. In an acoustic sine wave:
A. The frequency and phase are identical.
B. The sound power is inversely proportional to the
frequency.
C. The sound power is directly proportional to the
frequency.
D. All of the sound power is concentrated at a
single frequency.
10. Vinyl disks are:
A. Susceptible to physical damage.
B. Useful primarily in high-power sound systems.
C. Digital media.
D. Preferred for off-the-air sound recording.
11. If an amplifier introduces severe distortion in the
waveforms of input
signals, then that amplifier is:
A. Not delivering enough power.
B. Operating at the wrong frequency.
C. Operating in a nonlinear fashion.
D. Being underdriven.
12. If a 10-watt amplifier is used with speakers
designed for a 100-watt
amplifier:
A. The speakers are capable of handling the
amplifier output.
B. The amplifier might be damaged by the speakers.
C. Electromagnetic interference is likely to occur.
D. The speakers are likely to produce distortion of the 19. Which of the following media or devices use
sound. digital-to-analog
13. Which of the following frequencies cannot be conversion?
received by an AM/FM A. A CD player.
tuner? B. A speaker.
A. 830 kHz. C. A microphone.
B. 95.7 kHz. D. A vinyl disk.
C. 100.1 MHz. 20. Phase quadrature is sometimes used to:
D. 107.3 MHz. A. Increase the output from a microphone.
14. A woofer: B. Reduce the susceptibility of a hi-fi system to EMI.
A. Is especially useful for reproducing the sounds of C. Create the illusion of four-channel stereo when
barking dogs. there are really
B. Is designed to handle short, intense bursts of only two channels.
sound. D. Convert an analog signal to a digital signal, or
C. Should not be used with a graphic equalizer. vice-versa.
D. Is designed to reproduce low-frequency sounds. CHAPTER 32 WIRELESS AND PERSONAL
15. Suppose you have an amateur radio station and its COMMUNICATIONS
transmitter SYSTEM
causes EMI to your hi-fi system. Which of the 1. A network that employs one powerful central
following would almost computer and several
certainly not help? PCs is called:
A. Buy a radio transmitter that works on the same A. A wireless network.
frequencies with B. A local-area network.
the same power output, but is made by a different C. A client-server network.
manufacturer. D. A peer-to-peer network.
B. Reduce the transmitter output power. 2. Infrared and optical wireless links work best:
C. Use shielded speaker wires in the hi-fi system. A. Over distances exceeding 1000 miles.
D. Move the radio transmitting antenna to a location B. On a line of sight.
farther away from C. At low radio frequencies.
the hi-fi system. D. In situations with high levels of noise.
16. A tape recording head: 3. Which of the following devices or systems is not
A. Converts sound waves to radio signals. generally considered
B. Converts sound waves to fluctuating electric wireless?
current. A. A remote-control garage-door opener.
C. Converts audio-frequency currents to a B. An amateur radio station.
fluctuating magnetic C. A beeper/pager.
field. D. A telephone set that requires a wall jack.
D. Converts direct current to audio-frequency 4. A noise blanker can improve the quality of:
currents. A. Radio reception.
17. A microphone: B. Radio transmission.
A. Converts sound waves to radio signals. C. Infrared reception.
B. Converts sound waves to fluctuating electric D. Infrared transmission.
current. 5. In the United States, a license is required for:
C. Converts audio-frequency currents to a fluctuating A. Receiving on amateur-radio frequencies.
magnetic field. B. Transmitting on amateur-radio frequencies.
D. Converts direct current to audio-frequency C. Using infrared wireless devices.
currents. D. Using a wireless automobile security system.
18. An audio mixer: 6. Noise in a wireless receiver can be minimized by:
A. Cannot match impedances. A. Raising the temperature to very high values.
B. Cannot make an amplifier more powerful. B. Reducing the temperature to very low values.
C. Will eliminate EMI. C. Maximizing the amplification.
D. Allows a microphone to be used as a speaker. D. Minimizing the relative humidity.
7. As the data speed increases in a wireless system, C. Talking about who might be the next president of
all other factors the United States.
being equal: D. Connecting a radio to the Internet.
A. The signal bandwidth increases. 15. An electromagnetic wave can be considered to
B. The signal bandwidth decreases. fall in the shortwave
C. The overall noise level increases. band if its free-space wavelength is:
D. The overall noise level decreases. A. 55 kilometers.
8. The term shortwave, in reference to radio, refers to B. 55 meters.
signals having C. 55 centimeters.
wavelengths of approximately: D. 55 millimeters.
A. 10 to 100 millimeters. 16. In a cellular network, a base station is sometimes
B. 100 millimeters to 1 meter. called a:
C. 1 to 10 meters. A. Transceiver.
D. 10 to 100 meters. B. Cell.
9. In general, as the noise level in a wireless system C. Repeater.
increases: D. Cell phone.
A. Stronger incoming signals are needed to 17. An advantage of conventional hard-wired
overcome it. telephone over cellular is:
B. Weaker signals can be received. A. Privacy.
C. The temperature of the system rises. B. Portability.
D. The bandwidth of the system increases. C. Ease of use in a car.
10. In a spectrum analyzer, the horizontal axis shows: D. LAN topology.
A. Voltage. 18. An advantage of cellular over conventional hard-
B. Power. wired telephone is:
C. Frequency. A. Security.
D. Time. B. Lower cost.
11. A device consisting of a receiver and transmitter C. Mobility.
in the same box is D. Data speed.
called a: 19. Infrared waves are:
A. Modem. A. Longer than radio waves.
B. Transverter. B. Longer than visible-light waves.
C. Transceiver. C. Shorter than visible-light waves.
D. Transponder. D. Inaccurately named; they are really heat rays.
12. The use of direction-finding equipment to 20. The GPS might be useful:
determine the latitude and A. For improving the performance of a LAN.
longitude of a radio transmitter is an example of: B. For increasing the data speed in a wireless system.
A. Radiolocation. C. For minimizing noise in a wireless system.
B. IR wireless. D. To a motorist who is lost.
C. The Global Positioning System. CHAPTER 33 COMPUTERS AND THE
D. Packet radio. INTERNET
13. A LAN in which each user’s computer stores its 1. One megabyte is the same amount of data as:
own data is called: A. 1024 bytes.
A. A wireless LAN. B. 1024 KB.
B. A wide-area LAN. C. 1024 GB.
C. LAN topology. D. 1/1024 KB.
D. A peer-to-peer LAN. 2. The Web would probably work fastest for a user in
14. Which of the following constitutes illegal use of New York at:
ham radio? A. 2:00 a.m. local time on a Tuesday.
A. Selling cars by broadcasting prices to other B. 4:00 p.m. local time on a Wednesday.
hams. C. 12:30 p.m. local time on a Thursday.
B. Talking about the weather and exchanging local D. Any of the above times; it does not matter.
forecasts. 3. Image resolution can be specified in terms of:
A. Megahertz. B. File Transfer Protocol.
B. Color intensity. C. Frequency/Time Processing.
C. Wavelength. D. Federal Trade Program.
D. Dot pitch. 14. A telephone modem contains:
4. A cluster is a unit of: A. An internal hard drive.
A. Frequency on a hard drive. B. A microprocessor.
B. Data on the Internet. C. An A/D converter.
C. Data on a hard drive. D. A printer interface.
D. Bandwidth on the Internet. 15. An asset of a dot-matrix printer is:
5. An example of a mass-storage device is a: A. Low operating cost.
A. Hard drive. B. Excellent image detail.
B. Microprocessor. C. Resemblance to a photocopy machine.
C. Modem. D. Compatibility with most modems.
D. Read-write head. 16. Which of the following types of mass storage
6. The character string sgibilisco@noaa.gov might provide the fastest
represent: access time?
A. A Web site. A. Magnetic tape.
B. The location of data in memory. B. CD-ROM.
C. An e-mail address. C. Flash memory.
D. A computer’s serial number. D. Hard drive.
7. Bits per second (bps) is a unit of: 17. Which of the following is a serial-access
A. Computer memory. medium?
B. Mass storage. A. Computer memory.
C. Image resolution. B. Magnetic tape.
D. Data speed. C. A hard drive.
8. A platter is a: D. CD-ROM.
A. Part of a hard drive. 18. When computer data is sent over long-distance
B. Unit of memory. telephone circuits, the
C. Element of a digital image. digital highs and lows are generally represented by:
D. Semiconductor chip. A. Audio tones.
9. Protocol ensures that: B. A series of clicks.
A. A hard drive runs smoothly. C. Positive and negative direct currents.
B. A monitor reproduces color accurately. D. Pixels.
C. A printer generates a clear image. 19. For animated graphics involving fast motion, you
D. Computers can exchange data. should ideally use:
10. A packet is: A. A laser printer.
A. A computer memory module. B. A hard drive.
B. A unit of 210 bytes. C. Hypertext.
C. A piece of a file sent over the Net. D. A noninterlaced monitor.
D. A picture element in a computer monitor. 20. A thermal printer might be the best type of printer
11. A motherboard contains: for:
A. A microprocessor. A. Someone who travels a lot.
B. An external modem. B. Someone who works with animated graphics.
C. A diskette drive. C. Someone who needs to print huge text documents.
D. A display screen. D. Someone who needs top-quality printouts.
12. Cross-referencing among web pages is done with: CHAPTER 34 ROBOTICS AND ARTIFICIAL
A. Digital signal processing. INTELLIGENCE
B. A modem. 1. An android takes the form of:
C. Internet relay chat (IRC). A. An insect.
D. Links. B. A human body.
13. The abbreviation FTP stands for: C. A simple robot arm.
A. Fast Text Packet. D. Binocular vision.
2. According to Asimov’s three laws, under what B. Epipolar navigation.
circumstances is it all C. Distance measurement.
right for a robot to injure a human being? D. Machine vision.
A. Never. 11. A telechir is used in conjunction with:
B. When the human being specifically requests it. A. An automated guided vehicle.
C. In case of an accident. B. Telepresence.
D. In case the robot controller is infected with a C. An insect robot.
computer virus. D. An autonomous robot.
3. Second-generation robots first were used around 12. An absolute limit to the distance over which
the year: teleoperation is practical
A. 1950. is imposed by:
B. 1960. A. The speed of light.
C. 1970. B. The image resolution of the vision system.
D. 1980. C. The ability of a robot to determine texture.
4. The extent to which a machine vision system can D. All of the above.
differentiate between 13. Rodney Brooks is best known for his work with:
two objects is called the: A. Epipolar navigation.
A. Magnification. B. Binocular vision.
B. Sensitivity. C. Range sensing and plotting.
C. Selectivity. D. Insect robots.
D. Resolution. 14. An asset of epipolar navigation is the fact that it:
5. An automotive robot might best keep itself A. Does not require binaural hearing.
traveling down a specific B. Does not require a computer.
lane of traffic by using: C. Can be done from a single observation frame.
A. Binaural hearing. D. Requires no reference points at all.
B. Epipolar navigation. 15. Spherical coordinates can uniquely define the
C. Edge detection. position of a point in
D. A second-generation end effector. up to:
6. A rule-based system is also known as: A. One dimension.
A. Artificial intelligence. B. Two dimensions.
B. An expert system. C. Three dimensions.
C. An analytical engine. D. Four dimensions.
D. An automated guided vehicle. 16. The number of ways in which a robot arm can
7. A robot that has its own computer, and can work move is known as:
independently of A. Degrees of rotation.
other robots or computers, is called an: B. Degrees of freedom.
A. Android. C. Degrees of arc.
B. Insect robot. D. Coordinate geometry.
C. Automated guided vehicle. 17. The region throughout which a robot arm can
D. Autonomous robot. accomplish tasks is
8. A manipulator is also known as a: called its:
A. Track drive. A. Coordinate geometry.
B. Robot arm. B. Reference axis.
C. Vision system. C. Reference frame.
D. Robot controller. D. Work envelope.
9. An android is well suited for operation in: 18. A robot arm that moves along three independent
A. Extreme weather conditions. axes, each of which
B. Total darkness. is straight and perpendicular to the other two,
C. An assembly line. employs:
D. An environment with children. A. Revolute geometry.
10. Proximity sensing is most closely akin to: B. Spherical coordinate geometry.
A. Direction measurement. C. Cartesian coordinate geometry.
D. Cylindrical coordinate geometry. distracting the driver.
19. A color vision system can use three gray-scale B. Is dangerous.
cameras, equipped C. Keeps the driver’s mind on the road.
with filters that allow which three colors of light to D. Is good because it prevents road rage.
pass? E. Is better than using car speakers.
A. Blue, red, and yellow. 6. A quantitative measure of the ability of a machine
B. Blue, red, and green. vision system to
C. Cyan, magenta, and yellow. detect dim light is its:
D. Orange, green, and violet. A. Selectivity.
20. A robot can determine the steepness of a slope B. Resolution.
using a(n): C. Sensitivity.
A. Epipolar navigation system. D. Field of view.
B. Clinometer. E. Amplitude ratio.
C. End effector. 7. The pitch of an audio sine-wave tone depends on:
D. Manipulator. A. The amplitude of the disturbance.
Test: Part four B. The frequency of the disturbance.
1. A machine vision system that uses two cameras to C. The polarization of the disturbance.
allow a robot to D. The medium through which the sound travels.
sense depth is: E. The waveform of the disturbance.
A. Binaural. 8. Three-dimensional range plotting is generally done
B. Binocular. in:
C. Monaural. A. Linear coordinates.
D. Monocular. B. Rectangular coordinates.
E. High resolution. C. Polar coordinates.
2. A VU meter contains a scale that measures D. Celestial coordinates.
relative: E. Spherical coordinates.
A. Decibels. 9. A form of communications in which either party
B. Current. can “hear” while
C. Voltage. “talking,” thus allowing one party to instantly
D. Power. interrupt the other at any
E. Frequency. time, is called:
3. A fleet of insect robots generally has: A. Half simplex.
A. Low individual intelligence but high group B. Full simplex.
intelligence. C. Half duplex.
B. High individual intelligence but low group D. Full duplex.
intelligence. E. Nothing. There is no such mode of
C. Low individual intelligence and low group communications.
intelligence. 10. Which of the following is an example of wireless
D. High individual intelligence and high group technology?
intelligence. A. The Global Positioning System.
E. None of the above. B. A field-effect transistor.
4. When two or more audio sources drive a single C. A junction diode.
amplifier, it is good D. A carbon-composition resistor.
engineering practice to use: E. Digital-to-analog conversion.
A. A synthesizer. 11. A satellite in a LEO system is usually:
B. An audio-frequency choke. A. At an altitude of 22,300 miles.
C. An audio mixer. B. Geosynchronous.
D. A graphic equalizer. C. In a retrograde orbit.
E. A phase control. D. In a polar orbit.
5. The use of a stereo headset to listen to music while E. Midway between the earth and the moon.
driving: 12. Which consideration is the most important in a hi-
A. Is good because it keeps passengers from fi audio amplifier?
A. Power output. C. Connected in parallel.
B. Efficiency. D. Shielded whenever possible.
C. Linearity. E. Connected in series.
D. Input impedance. 20. A radio antenna receives 50 watts of RF power
E. Output impedance. from a transmitter,
13. The microprocessor in a computer is part of the: and radiates 49 watts of that power into space. Which
A. Random-access memory. of the following
B. Central processing unit. statements is true?
C. Read-only memory. A. The antenna is 98 percent efficient.
D. Hard drive. B. The loss resistance is 1 ohm.
E. Internet controller. C. The loss resistance is 1 percent.
14. An RF transducer is: D. The ground loss is 1 watt.
A. Sensitive only within the range of human hearing. E. The antenna feed line loss is 1 watt.
B. Sensitive only to visible light. 21. The technical expression for robot-arm joint
C. An antenna. flexibility is:
D. An analog-to-digital converter. A. Degrees of rotation.
E. A digital-to-analog converter. B. Radians of rotation.
15. Vacuum tubes might be found in: C. Degrees of flexibility.
A. A portable headset tape player. D. Manipulator flexibility.
B. The amplifier used by a band at a rock concert. E. The work envelope.
C. A meter for measuring sound intensity. 22. In an Internet connection, the receiving computer
D. A robot controller. is also known as
E. A GPS receiver. the:
16. One kilobyte is the same amount of data as: A. Server.
A. 1024 bits. B. Host.
B. 1024 kilobits. C. Peer.
C. 1024 megabits. D. Node.
D. 1024 gigabits. E. Destination.
E. None of the above. 23. The term refresh rate refers to:
17. Hexaphonic sound is not common, but if it were, A. The number of times per second that an image
it would most likely is renewed in a
be used for: computer display.
A. True three-dimensional hi-fi audio B. The number of times per second that a computer
reproduction. memory contents
B. Two-way radio communications. change.
C. Ensuring that an AM/FM tuner can receive at least C. The speed at which files on a hard drive are
six stations. overwritten.
D. Improving the dynamic range of a speaker system. D. The number of bits per second transferred in an
E. Robot control. Internet connection.
18. Range sensing and range plotting are basically the E. The time it takes to recharge a nickel-cadmium
same thing except electrochemical cell.
for the: 24. The “brain” of a computer is the:
A. Light-detecting sensitivity. A. Hard drive.
B. Image resolution. B. Controller.
C. Selectivity. C. Microprocessor.
D. Wavelength at which the system functions. D. CD-ROM.
E. Number of dimensions involved. E. Monitor.
19. In a component-type hi-fi system, cables 25. On a computer hard drive, the circular tracks are
connecting the various units broken into arcs
should be: called:
A. As long as possible. A. Clusters.
B. Single-conductor only. B. Bytes.
C. Sectors. all orders from
D. Divisions. humans:
E. Storage units. A. No matter what.
26. A robot arm moves in three dimensions according B. As long as nobody gets hurt or killed as a
to a polar result.
coordinate scheme with a linear elevation dimension C. As long as the power is on.
added. This is D. Unless its controller is infected with a computer
called: virus.
A. Spherical coordinate geometry. E. As long as it does not cause the robot controller to
B. Rectangular coordinate geometry. crash.
C. Cartesian coordinate geometry. 33. The use of a cell phone is prohibited in a
D. Concentric coordinate geometry. commercial aircraft in flight
E. Cylindrical coordinate geometry. because:
27. In a volatile memory chip: A. It can annoy other passengers.
A. The stored data is retained even when power is B. It can interfere with other people’s cell phones.
removed. C. The interior of the aircraft produces a dangerous
B. The stored data vanishes when power is RF resonant cavity.
removed. D. It won’t work anyhow.
C. The stored data capacity is greater than that of a E. It can interfere with flight instruments and
hard drive. communications.
D. The stored data capacity declines with the passage 34. A satellite can remain over the same spot on the
of time. earth’s surface at all
E. The reliability has deteriorated and the chip should times:
be replaced. A. Only if it orbits at an altitude of 22,300 miles.
28. At low volume levels in an audio amplifier B. Only if it is a member of a LEO fleet.
system, the dynamic range C. Only if its orbit is retrograde.
is limited primarily by the: D. Only if its orbit is polar.
A. Input impedance. E. Never. An orbiting satellite always moves
B. Efficiency. relative to the earth’s
C. Input power. surface.
D. Noise level. 35. Signal-plus-noise-to-noise ratio (S_N/N) is often
E. Frequency. specified when
29. In a wireless system, noise always: stating areceiver’s:
A. Improves the bandwidth. A. Selectivity.
B. Increases data transfer rate. B. Stability.
C. Reduces the transmitted signal power. C. Modulation coefficient.
D. Degrades performance. D. Sensitivity.
E. Makes communication or data transfer impossible. E. Polarization.
30. The noise level in a wireless receiver can be 36. A platter is a part of a device known as:
reduced using: A. A videotape recorder.
A. A more powerful final amplifier. B. A ceramic filter.
B. A grounded-grid configuration. C. Tape memory.
C. Cryotechnology. D. A hard drive.
D. The Global Positioning System. E. A voltage-controlled oscillator.
E. A large antenna. 37. Which type of modulation consists of one voice
31. Image resolution is an important specification in: sideband, with a
A. Oscillators. suppressed carrier?
B. Computer monitors. A. AM.
C. Receiver sensitivity. B. SSB.
D. Rectifier diodes. C. FM.
E. Superheterodyne receivers. D. RTTY.
32. According to Asimov’s laws, a robot must obey E. PCM.
38. In a machine vision system, enhanced sensitivity objects and plot a course in:
often involves a A. The total darkness of the deep ocean.
sacrifice in the: B. A straight line.
A. Image resolution. C. Three-dimensional space.
B. Memory capacity. D. A circular path.
C. Data speed. E. The north and south polar regions only.
D. Short-wavelength response. 46. The term robot generation refers to:
E. Long-wavelength response. A. The time period in which a particular type of
39. A machine hearing system can best identify the robot was
sort of device or developed.
object producing a sound by analyzing the: B. A robot-controlled electric power plant.
A. Distance to the sound source. C. The manufacture of robots by other robots.
B. Direction from which the sound is coming. D. The manufacture of robots by human beings.
C. Duration of the sound. E. The number of times a robot has copied itself.
D. Number of sources from which the sound is 47. Which word best completes the following
coming. sentence? “The human
E. Waveform of the sound. ear/brain perceives sound volume according to the
40. A ratio detector is a circuit for demodulating: _________ of the
A. AM. actual intensity.”
B. HM. A. Sum.
C. FM. B. Product.
D. SSB. C. Square.
E. AFSK. D. Square root.
41. A belt drive might be found in a: E. Logarithm.
A. Synthesized AM/FM tuner. 48. Human eyes can see electromagnetic radiation
B. Robotic vision system. over a wavelength
C. CD player. range of approximately:
D. Graphic equalizer. A. 390 to 750 meters.
E. Turntable. B. 390 to 750 millimeters.
42. A robot can be considered autonomous if: C. 390 to 750 micrometers.
A. It is self-contained. D. 390 to 750 nanometers.
B. It has its own computer system. E. 390 to 750 kilometers.
C. It does not rely on a central computer to receive its 49. The World Wide Web is:
commands. A. Part of the Internet.
D. Conditions A, B, and C are all true. B. A company that manufactures communications
E. Any one of conditions A, B, or C is true. equipment.
43. Sound waves in air consist of: C. An agreement between nations concerning data
A. Fluctuating magnetic fields. protocols.
B. Fluctuating electric fields. D. Another name for the Global Positioning System.
C. Fluctuating electric and magnetic fields. E. A satellite television network.
D. Vibrating electron orbits. 50. Synchronizing pulses in a video signal:
E. Vibrating molecules. A. Keep the brightness constant.
44. An AM/FM hi-fi tuner that derives its frequency B. Keep the contrast constant.
from a quartz crystal C. Keep the image from rolling.
and phase-locking circuits is said to be: D. Ensure that the colors are right.
A. Broadband. E. Keep the image in good focus.
B. Synthesized. Final exam
C. Phased. 1. As the frequency of ac increases in a coil, the
D. Modulated. reactance:
E. Analog. A. Gets larger negatively.
45. Epipolar navigation is a means by which a B. Gets smaller negatively.
machine can locate C. Stays the same.
D. Gets larger positively. E. Better voltage regulation.
E. Gets smaller positively. 9. The output electrode of a bipolar transistor is
2. A beat-frequency oscillator is useful for: usually the:
A. Generating FM. A. Grid.
B. Detecting FM. B. Gate.
C. Generating CW. C. Base.
D. Detecting CW. D. Source.
E. Any of the above. E. Collector.
3. A Colpitts circuit is a form of: 10. The schematic symbol for an op amp is:
A. Amplifier. A. A triangle.
B. Detector. B. A circle.
C. Modulator. C. A circle with a line through it.
D. Oscillator. D. A rectangle.
E. Rectifier. E. A D-shaped figure.
4. The high component density of integrated circuits 11. For a given value of capacitance, as the frequency
acts to: goes down, the
A. Maximize the power output. reactance:
B. Increase the current drain. A. Approaches zero from the negative side.
C. Increase the voltage requirements. B. Gets more and more negative.
D. Increase the operating speed. C. Approaches zero from the positive side.
E. Reduce the frequency range. D. Gets more and more positive.
5. A utility meter generally measures: E. Stays the same.
A. Watts. 12. In a 360-Hz wave, a degree of phase represents:
B. Amperes. A. 1.00 second.
C. Kilowatt hours. B. 1/360 second.
D. Kilowatts. C. 360 milliseconds.
E. Volt hours. D. 7.72 microseconds.
6. High voltages are better than low voltages for E. A quantity you can’t calculate from this data.
long-distance electric 13. A device that converts visible light into dc is:
power transmission because: A. A phototransistor.
A. The lines can better withstand lightning strokes. B. A photovoltaic cell.
B. The magnetic fields are weaker. C. An optovoltaic cell.
C. The electric fields are weaker. D. An optocell.
D. The I2R losses are lower. E. An optoisolator.
E. No. Low voltages are better. 14. Which of the following is not an example of
7. A member of a fleet of robots, all under the control wireless?
of a single central A. The connection between a computer and its
computer and able to communicate only with that monitor.
computer and not with B. A cellular telephone system.
each other, is called: C. The Global Positioning System.
A. An android. D. A beeper.
B. An autonomous robot. E. A LEO satellite system.
C. A dependent robot. 15. A circuit has a battery of 3.0 V and a bulb with a
D. An independent robot. resistance of 12.0
E. An insect robot. ohms. The current through the bulb is:
8. An advantage of a laser printer over a dot-matrix A. 36 A.
printer for computer B. 4.0 A.
applications is: C. 250 mA.
A. Lower cost. D. 40 mA.
B. Superior image quality. E. 36 mA.
C. Greater bandwidth. 16. A small 9-V battery might be used to provide
D. Lower resolution. power to:
A. An electronic calculator. B. Gate.
B. A personal computer. C. Drain.
C. A radio transmitter. D. Source-drain junction.
D. An electric iron. E. Channel.
E. Any of the above. 24. In a rectifier diode, current flows for
17. In an AM voice signal, the audio information is: approximately how much of the
A. Exactly at the carrier frequency. ac cycle?
B. Contained in sidebands. A. 360 degrees.
C. At harmonics of the carrier frequency. B. 270 degrees.
D. Rectified before being impressed onto the carrier. C. 180 degrees.
E. Detected before being impressed onto the carrier. D. 90 degrees.
18. The oscillating frequency of a quartz crystal can E. 45 degrees.
be varied slightly by: 25. A millivolt is:
A. Changing the bias on the transistor. A. 103 V.
B. Changing the voltage across the varactor. B. 10-3 V.
C. Reversing the power supply polarity. C. 106 V.
D. Placing a small variable capacitor across the D. 10-6 V.
crystal. E. 10-9 V.
E. No. The frequency of a crystal cannot be changed 26. The reciprocal of reactance is called:
at all. A. Impedance.
19. When several resistances are connected in series: B. Conductance.
A. The current is the same through each one. C. Resistance.
B. The voltage is the same across each one. D. Admittance.
C. Both A and B are true. E. Susceptance.
D. Neither A nor B is true. 27. Another name for joules per second is:
E. They must all have the same value. A. Volts.
20. In a power supply, resistors are sometimes B. Amperes.
connected in series with C. Ohms.
the diodes in order to: D. Gilberts.
A. Increase the current output. E. Watts.
B. Protect the diodes against surge currents. 28. In a pure inductance:
C. Help the diodes discharge. A. Current lags voltage by 90 degrees.
D. Bleed charge from the filter capacitors. B. Current lags voltage by less than 90 degrees.
E. Regulate the output voltage. C. Current and voltage are in phase.
21. In a purely resistive impedance, there is: D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees.
A. A net capacitance. E. Current leads voltage by 180 degrees.
B. A net inductance. 29. A form of microwave electron tube is:
C. Zero resistance. A. A cavity resonator.
D. Zero reactance. B. A triode.
E. Zero conductance. C. A Klystron.
22. Two 400-μH inductors are connected in series. D. A cathode-ray tube.
There is no mutual E. None of the above.
inductance. The total inductance is: 30. Magnetic lines of flux are generally:
A. 100 μH. A. Parallel with the flow of electric current.
B. 200 μH. B. In the plane of the electric current.
C. 400 μH. C. At right angles to the flow of current.
D. 800 μH. D. At a 45 degree angle to the flow of current.
E. 1.6 mH. E. Impossible to predict as to their direction.
23. The current-carrying part of a field-effect 31. A class-A amplifier conducts during how much of
transistor, analogous to a the input cycle?
garden hose in some ways, is called the: A. Less than 90 degrees.
A. Source. B. 90–180 degrees.
C. 180–270 degrees. D. Power.
D. 270–360 degrees. E. Energy.
E. 360 degrees. 39. A good type of resistor to use in a radio amplifier
32. An advantage of parallel data transfer over serial is:
transfer is: A. Carbon composition.
A. Higher speed. B. Wirewound.
B. Narrower bandwidth. C. Silver mica.
C. Lower frequency. D. Reactive.
D. Higher power. E. Tantalum.
E. Better signal-to-noise ratio. 40. An advantage of machine vision over human
33. One way to keep interelectrode capacitance to a vision is the fact that:
minimum is to: A. Machines can see at wavelengths to which
A. Use only electrolytic capacitors. human eyes are blind.
B. Avoid the use of sheet metal. B. Machine vision systems have equal sensitivity at
C. Use batteries as the source of power. all wavelengths.
D. Keep wire leads short. C. Machine vision can measure pressure.
E. Use air-core transformers. D. Machine vision engineers need not take image
34. One advantage of ac (compared with dc) as a resolution into account.
source of utility power E. Machine vision engineers need not take sensitivity
is that: into account.
A. It can be used at safer voltage levels. 41. A logic circuit has an output 0 when the input is
B. It can be easily stepped up or down in voltage. 1, and vice versa.
C. There is lower transmission line loss. This is:
D. The waveshape can be varied easily. A. A NOR gate.
E. Higher voltages can be used. B. An AND gate.
35. An element of matter: C. A NOT gate.
A. Is a good conductor. D. An XOR gate.
B. Has a unique number of protons. E. An XNOR gate.
C. Is an insulator. 42. A type of FM detector that has its limiter built in
D. Makes a good electronic component. is:
E. Can be fabricated onto an IC chip. A. A balanced modulator.
36. A transformer quadruples the ac voltage. The B. A beat-frequency oscillator.
primary-to-secondary C. An envelope detector.
impedance ratio is therefore: D. A product detector.
A. 1:16. E. A ratio detector.
B. 1:4. 43. Which of the following materials is/are
C. 1:1. commonly used as a
D. 4:1. semiconductor?
E. 16:1. A. Silver-mica.
37. Frequency multiplication is possible with a B. Ferrite.
semiconductor diode C. Gallium arsenide.
because D. Tantalum.
the diode is: E. All of the above.
A. Amplifying. 44. In an NPN bipolar transistor circuit:
B. Detecting. A. The dc collector voltage is negative.
C. Forward-biased. B. The output is taken from the base.
D. Reverse-biased. C. The dc collector voltage is positive.
E. Nonlinear. D. The output is taken from the drain.
38. An ammeter measures: E. Negative feedback must be used.
A. Current. 45. A simple power supply filter can be made using:
B. Voltage. A. A capacitor in parallel with the rectifier output.
C. Resistance. B. A resistor in parallel with the rectifier output.
C. An inductor in parallel with the rectifier output. E. Ohms per ampere.
D. A capacitor in series with the rectifier output. 53. A complementary-metal-oxide-semiconductor
E. A resistor in series with the rectifier output. (CMOS) IC:
46. If an ac admittance contains finite, nonzero A. Employs diodes and NPN transistors on a single
resistance and finite, chip.
nonzero susceptance: B. Employs N-channel and P-channel FETs on a
A. The impedance is a pure resistance. single chip.
B. The impedance is zero. C. Uses two chips connected together in a special
C. The resistance is zero. way.
D. The impedance is complex. D. Uses resistors and PNP transistors on a single
E. No. An ac admittance cannot contain susceptance. chip.
47. Three resistances are in parallel, with values of E. Consists of metal oxide sandwiched between two
100, 200, and 300 layers of P-type
ohms. The current through the 200-ohm resistor is material.
500 mA. What is the 54. A piano sounds different than a saxophone, even
voltage across the whole combination? if the notes are at
A. There isn’t enough information to figure it out. the same frequency, because of a difference in:
B. 400 V. A. Bias.
C. 400 mV. B. Waveform.
D. 100 V. C. Voltage.
E. 100 mV. D. Current.
48. As the frequency of ac increases, the reactance of E. The way you imagine it.
an inductor: 55. Inductances in parallel, assuming there is no
A. Remains constant. mutual inductance, add
B. Becomes small positively. up like:
C. Becomes small negatively. A. Resistances in series.
D. Becomes large negatively. B. Resistances in parallel.
E. Becomes large positively. C. Capacitances in parallel.
49. The rate of change in a quantity is called the: D. Batteries in parallel.
A. Effective value. E. No other type of electrical component.
B. Instantaneous value. 56. A reactance modulator produces:
C. Average value. A. CW.
D. Peak value. B. AM.
E. Derivative. C. SSB.
50. The axis of the geomagnetic field: D. FM.
A. Corresponds exactly with the rotational axis. E. PCM.
B. Is slanted with respect to the rotational axis. 57. Antenna efficiency is:
C. Is perpendicular to the rotational axis. A. Usually more important in transmitting
D. Runs parallel to lines of latitude. systems than in receiving
E. Is circular in shape. systems.
51. One of the main shortcomings of MOSFETs is B. The difference between the input and output
that they: power.
A. Are easily damaged by static electricity. C. A direct function of the noise in a transmitting
B. Require high voltages. system.
C. Consume large amounts of current. D. The proportion of input power that gets converted
D. Have very low gain. into heat.
E. Do not have good sensitivity. E. Highest when the transmitter final amplifier is
52. Resistivity of wire can be specified in: maximally efficient.
A. Volts per ohm. 58. In a parallel-resonant LC circuit, the impedance
B. Ohms per volt. is:
C. Ohms per meter. A. Low and reactive.
D. Amperes per ohm. B. High and reactive.
C. Low and resistive. E. A battery.
D. High and resistive. 66. A resistor has a positive temperature coefficient
E. Any of the above. of 1.00 percent per
59. In a resistance/inductance (RL) series circuit: degree C.If its value is 100 ohms at 20 degrees C,
A. Current lags voltage by 180 degrees. what is its value at 25
B. Current lags voltage by 90 degrees. degrees C?
C. Current lags voltage by less than 90 degrees. A. 100 ohms.
D. Current and voltage are in phase. B. 105 ohms.
E. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees. C. 95 ohms.
60. In three-phase ac, the difference in phase between D. 125 ohms.
any two waves is: E. It can’t be calculated from this data.
A. 30 degrees. 67. A memory that can be easily accessed, but not
B. 45 degrees. written over, is called:
C. 60 degrees. A. RAM.
D. 90 degrees. B. PRAM.
E. 120 degrees. C. CMOS.
61. Electrostatic forces can be measured to directly D. ROM.
indicate: E. CROM.
A. Power. 68. The capacitance between two parallel sheets of
B. Frequency. metal is:
C. Current. A. Directly proportional to the distance between
D. Resistance. them.
E. Voltage. B. Inversely proportional to the distance between
62. A circuit has a complex impedance of 9 + j12. them.
The absolute-value C. Not dependent on the distance between them.
impedance is: D. Inversely proportional to their surface area.
A. 15 ohms. E. Negligible unless the sheets are both gigantic.
B. 9 ohms. 69. The forward base bias in a transistor is increased
C. 12 ohms. until the collector
D. 21 ohms. current levels off. This condition is:
E. Impossible to calculate from this data. A. Cutoff.
63. Three resistors, each of 30 ohms, are connected in B. Saturation.
parallel. The net C. Pinchoff.
resistance is: D. Forward breakover.
A. 90 ohms. E. Avalanche.
B. 60 ohms. 70. An advantage of a LEO communications satellite
C. 33 ohms. system over a
D. 10 ohms. geostationary communications satellite is the fact
E. Impossible to determine from the data given. that:
64. The logical statement X + Y = Y + X depicts: A. The bandwidth is greater.
A. The distributive property. B. The image resolution is superior.
B. The associative property. C. The satellites never change their position in the
C. The commutative property. sky.
D. The de Morgan theorem. D. Large, high-gain antennas are not required.
E. The behavior of a NOR gate. E. The satellites orbit at higher altitudes.
65. A cell that can be recharged, and therefore used 71. A coil has 20 mH of inductance. What is the
again and again, is inductive reactance?
called: A. 20 ohms.
A. A secondary cell. B. 0.05 ohms.
B. A multiple-use cell. C. 50 ohms.
C. A primary cell. D. 20k ohms.
D. A tertiary cell. E. There isn’t enough information given here to
figure it out. feedback from the output of the second stage to the
72. What is an advantage of digital signal processing input of the first
(DSP)? stage, is known as a:
A. Improved signal-to-noise ratio. A. Colpitts circuit.
B. Enhanced fidelity. B. Hartley circuit.
C. Improved intelligibility. C. Multivibrator.
D. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise. D. VCO.
E. All of the foregoing. E. Clapp circuit.
73. A dc voltage-divider network is made using: 80. The main factor that limits the frequency at which
A. Inductors. a P-N junction will
B. Resistors. rectify is the:
C. Capacitors. A. PIV rating.
D. Bipolar transistors. B. Junction capacitance.
E. FETs. C. Junction resistance.
74. The electron volt is a unit of: D. Junction inductance.
A. Voltage. E. Reverse bias current.
B. Current. 81. The henry is a:
C. Power. A. Very small unit.
D. Electric field strength. B. Unit of capacitive reactance.
E. Energy. C. Measure of transistor gain.
75. A transformer has a primary-to-secondary turns D. Unit of phase.
ratio of 10:1. The E. Very large unit.
input is 120V rms ac. The output is: 82. A diode that can be used as a variable capacitance
A. 12 kV rms ac. is a:
B. 1.2 kV rms ac. A. GaAsFET.
C. 120 V rms ac. B. Silicon rectifier.
D. 12 V rms ac. C. Point-contact diode.
E. 1.2 V rms ac. D. Varactor.
76. Wave X leads wave Y by 270 degrees. This E. Germanium detector.
would be better 83. Elements can join together to form:
expressed by saying that: A. Ions.
A. Wave X lags wave Y by 90 degrees. B. Isotopes.
B. Wave X lags wave Y by 180 degrees. C. Nuclei.
C. Wave X lags wave Y by 270 degrees. D. Compounds.
D. Waves X and Y are out of phase. E. Majority carriers.
E. Waves X and Y are in phase. 84. The rms value for an ac wave is also sometimes
77. Which type of amplifier circuit has the transistor called the:
or FET biased exactly A. Absolute value.
at cutoff or pinchoff when there is no signal input? B. Direct-current value.
A. Class-A. C. Effective value.
B. Class-AB. D. Equivalent value.
C. Class-B. E. Reactive value.
D. Class-C. 85. The gigabyte is a unit commonly used as a
E. Class-D. measure of:
78. The term resolution might apply to: A. Data access time.
A. A hi-fi amplifier system. B. Data frequency.
B. A power supply. C. Data transfer speed.
C. A machine vision system. D. Data storage capacity.
D. An NPN bipolar transistor. E. Data communications accuracy.
E. An electrolytic capacitor. 86. In a parallel combination of light bulbs, if one
79. An audio oscillator that uses two amplifiers in bulb socket totally
cascade, with positive shorts out:
A. The circuit had better have a fuse or a circuit B. A circuit has no impedance.
breaker. C. A circuit has no reactance.
B. The other bulbs will burn out. D. The complex impedance is high.
C. The other bulbs will dim slightly, but stay lit. E. The phase angle is 45 degrees.
D. The current drawn from the source will decrease. 94. Binaural machine hearing can be advantageous
E. None of the above. over monaural
87. A common lab multimeter cannot measure: machine hearing because the binaural scheme:
A. Current. A. Allows a robot to measure the frequency of a
B. Frequency. sound.
C. Voltage. B. Allows a robot to determine the amplitude of a
D. Resistance. sound.
E. It can measure any of the above. C. Allows a robot to tell from which direction a
88. In a P-channel JFET: sound is coming.
A. The drain is positive with respect to the source. D. Allows a robot to ascertain the waveform of a
B. The gate must be grounded. sound.
C. The majority carriers are holes. E. Allows a robot to interpret spoken commands.
D. The source receives the input signal. 95. The standard unit of inductance is the:
E. All of the above are true. A. Farad.
89. If you place a bar of iron inside a cylindrical coil B. Henry.
of wire, and then run C. Gilbert.
dc through the wire, you have: D. Gauss.
A. A rheostat. E. Tesla.
B. A permanent magnet. 96. The output of an amplifier circuit is 20 V and the
C. A flux meter. input is 5.0 V. The
D. An electric generator. input and output impedances are identical. The circuit
E. An electromagnet. thus has a gain of:
90. Admittance is a quantity expressing: A. 4 dB.
A. Opposition to dc. B. 6 dB.
B. Opposition to audio signals. C. 12 dB.
C. Ease with which a circuit passes ac. D. -4 dB.
D. The ratio of capacitance to inductance. E. -6 dB.
E. The ratio of reactance to resistance. 97. An example of a device that converts electrical
91. In a common-emitter bipolar-transistor circuit: energy into visible
A. The collector is at signal ground. radiant energy is:
B. The output is taken from the base. A. A photocell.
C. The emitter is at signal ground. B. A phototransistor.
D. The bases of two transistors are connected C. A photovoltaic cell.
together. D. A light-emitting diode.
E. The output is taken from the emitter. E. A speaker.
92. In a certain resistance-capacitance (RC) circuit, 98. What is the function of bleeder resistors in a
the current leads the power supply?
voltage by 45 degrees. The resistance is 50 ohms. A. To regulate the current.
The capacitive B. To regulate the voltage.
reactance is: C. To protect the rectifier diodes against
A. 25 ohms. electromagnetic interference.
B. -25 ohms. D. To protect the rectifier diodes against current
C. 50 ohms. surges.
D. -50 ohms. E. To discharge the filter capacitors after the
E. Impossible to determine from this information. supply is shut off.
93. The VA power is equal to the true power only 99. A resistor of 100 ohms carries 333 mA dc. The
when: power dissipated by
A. A circuit has no resistance. that resistor is:
A. 300 mW.
B. 3.33 W.
C. 33.3 W.
D. 3.33 W.
E. 11.1 W.
100. The data in nonvolatile memory:
A. Is stored on magnetic disks.
B. Consists of analog waveforms.
C. Is retained after the power is removed.
D. Must pass through a modem before it can be
understood by the CPU.
E. Cannot be used by a microprocessor.