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1. Mast cells of connective tissue contain


a) Vasopressin and relaxin, b) Heparin and histamine,
c) Heparin and calcitonin, d) Serotonin and melanin.
2. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of few
cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?
a) Liver cells, b) neurons, c) Malphigian layer of the skin, d) Osteocytes.
3. Proteoglycan in cartilages which is a part of polysaccharide, is
a) Chondroitin, b) Ossein, c) Casein, d)Cartilegan
4. Ligament is a
a) Inelastic white fibrous tissue, b) Modified white fibrous tissue,
c) Modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue, d) None of these above
5. Epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
a) Glandular, b) Ciliated, c) Squamus, d) Cuboidal
6. Which of the following is a transparent tissue?
a) Tendon, b) Fibrous cartilage, c) Hyaline cartilage, d) All of these above
7. Pseudostratified epithelium is found in
a) Vagina, b) Urinary tract, c) Lungs, d) Trachea
8. Largest smooth muscle present in
a) Thigh, b) Uterus of pregnant woman, c) Urethra, d) All of these above
9. The cavities of brain are lined by
a)Cuboidal cells, b) Columnar cells, c) Simple squamous cells, d) Ependymal cells
10. Volkmann’s canals connect
a) Haversian canal with matrix, b) Haversian canal with Haversian canal, c) Haversian canal with
marrow cavity, d) Lacunae
11. A) Vitiligo is a condition in which individual loses its melanocyte cells, B) Vitiligo is an autoimmune
disease, C) Vitiligo is a type of malignant cancer of skin, D) Vitiligo is a condition when blood
supply disrupts in skin. The correct option is, a) only A, b) A and B, c) only C, d) C and D
12. In ileum, which of the following absorbed?
a) Glucose, b) Alcohols, c) Vit-K, d) All of the above.
13. Vitamin-D is synthesized in the skin, by action of sunlight on
a) Cephano-cholesterol, b) 7-hydroxy cholesterol, c) Cholesterol, d) All of the above.
14. If pancreas is removed, the compound remain undigested is
a) Protein, b) Carbohydrate, c) Fat, d) All of the above.
15. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked by an inhibitor
a) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme
pepsin, b) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not
converted by trypsin, c) Gastric will be deficient in chymosin, d) Gastric will be deficient in
pepsinogen.
16. Which one of the following statement is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in
humans?
a) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions
like Na+, b) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into
blood capillaries, c) About 60% of starch hydrolyzed by salivary amylase in our mouth, d) Oxyntic
cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
17. Digestive enzymes are
a) Hydrolases, b) Oxido-reductase, c) Transferases, d) None of these.
18. Maximum percentage of lipid is present in a) chylomicron, b) HDL, c) LDL, d) VLDL
19. Secretin
a) Stimulates enzyme secretion by pancreas, inhibits acid secretion in stomach, stimulates gall

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bladder, b) Stimulates bicarbonates secretion by pancreas, inhibits acid secretion in stomach,


stimulates bicarbonate secretion by liver, c) Stimulates acid secretion in stomach, potentiates
action of CCK, inhibits intestinal movement, d) Stimulates gall bladder, inhibits acid secretion in
stomach, stimulates bicarbonate secretion by pancreas.
20. Brunner’s glands are present in
a) Oesophagus, b) Duodenum, c) Ileum, d) Stomach
21. In humans, sphincter of Oddi is associated with the opening of
a) Hepatopancreatic ampulla, b) Pyloric stomach, c) Oesophagus, d) Common hepatic duct.
22. In the resting person, saturation of haemoglobin as blood leaves the tissue capillaries is
approximately, a) 75%, b) 40%, c) 3%, d) 46%.
23. Which of the followings are required for blood clotting?
a) K+, thromboplastin, b) Ca++, thromboplastin, c) Na+, Ca++, d) K+, prothrombin.
24. What is the common among amylase, rennin and trypsin?
a) all are protein, b) all are produced in stomach,
c) all act at pH below 7, d) all are proteolytic enzyme.
25. The correct match is,
A) Incisor I) Crushing & grinding
B) Canine II) Crushing, grinding & mastication
C) Premolar III) Cutting & biting
D) Molar IV) Tearing & piercing
a) A-II,B-IV, C-I,D-III, b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV,
c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
26. The correct match is,
A) Eupnea I) Painful breathing except upright position
B) Hyperpnea II) No breathing
C) Dyspnea III) Rapid breathing
D) Orthopnea IV) Difficult breathing
V) Normal breathing
a) A-II,B-IV, C-V,D-I, b) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-I,
c) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II, d) A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-I
27. When temperature decreases oxy-Hb curve will become
a) more steep, b) straight, c) parabola, d) all of these
28. Breathing is controlled by
a) hypothalamus, b) medulla oblongata, c)lungs, d) trachea
29. Vital capacity of lungs is
a) TV+IVR+ERV, b) TV+IRV+RV, c) TV+ERV, d) IRV+ERV
30. Pinnaglobin is found in
a) prawn, b) Ascidia, c) Pheretima, d) Pila
31. Which of the following is helpful for erythropoiesis?
a) Cu++, b) Ca++, c) Mg++, d) Fe++
32. During myocardial infarction which of the following changes occurs in the ECG?
a) Flattened T wave, b) Depressed ST segment,
c) Elevated ST segment, d) Increased length of PQ interval.
33. A siderocyte is a RBC containing
a) Russell bodies, b) herring’s bodies, c) schuffner’s dots, d) pappenheimer bodies.
34. Which one is absent in man?
a) Renal portal vein, b) Hypophysial-hypothalamotract, c) Hepatic portal vein, d) All the above.
35. In 1hr adult human heart can pump (in litres)
a) 346, b) 272, c) 304, d) 181

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36. Ringer solution contains


a) Na+ & K+, b) Na+ & Cl-, c) K+ & Cl-, d) Na+ , K+ & Cl-
37. Which of the following coagulating factor of blood is hypothetical?
a) Christmas factor(IX), b) Accelerin(VI), c) Laki lorand factor(VIII), d) Stuart prower factor(X).
38. Ornithin cycle removes two waste products from the blood in liver. These products are
a) CO2 and ammonia, b) ammonia and uric acid, c) CO2 and urea, d) ammonia and urea.
39. The GFR of an healthy adult is
a) 125ml/min, b) 80ml/min, c) 300ml/min, d) 20ml/min.
40. Glucose is mainly absorbed in
a) PCT, b) DCT, c) Henle’s loop, d) nephron
41. Podocyte cells present on
a) outer wall of Bowman’s capsule, b) wall of glomerular capillaries,
c) inner wall of Bowman’s capsule, d) JG apparatus
42. Kidney stones are produced due to deposition of uric acid and
a) silicates, b) calcium carbonate, c) calcium oxalate, d) sodium tartrate
43. The correct match is,
A) Gliding joint I) Between metacarpal & phalanges
B) Hinge joint II) Between carpal bones as well as between tarsal bones
C) Pivot joint III) shoulder, hip
D) Ellipsoid/condyloid joint IV) Between atlas & axis
E) Ball-and-socket joint V) Elbow, knee, ankle

a) A-II,B-IV, C-V,D-I,E-III, b) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-I,E-II


c) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II,E-III, d) A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-I,E-III
44. Which of the following sets of ions are necessary in the chemical events for muscle contraction?
a) Na+ & K+, b) Na+ & Ca++, c) Na+ & Mg++, d) Ca++ , K+ & Mg++
45. Imbalances of certain hormones, deficiencies of calcium and vitamin D are the major causative
factors of
a) rheumatoid arthritis, b) osteoporosis, c) osteoarthritis, d) gouty arthritis.
46. When EDTA is injected into the muscle it combines with Ca++ ions and then
a) contraction occurs, b) little contraction occurs, c) no contraction, d) none of these
47. Alzheimer’s disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of
a) glutamic acid, b) acetylcholine, c) GABA, d) dopamine
48. Arbor vitae is composed of
a) grey matter, b) white matter, c) neuroglial cells, d) both a) and b)
49. A person having Parkinson’s disease shows defective action of which neurotransmitter in brain?
a) Dopamine, b) Seratonin, c) Noradrenalin, d) Encephalin.
50. Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in humans may lead to
a) peptic ulcers, b) hoarse voice,
c) efficient digestion of proteins, d) irregular contraction of diaphragm.
51. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fiber is due to the fact that
a) nerve fibres are insulated by medullary sheath,
b) sodium pump starts operating only at the axon and then continues into the nerve fibre,
c) neurotransmitters are released by the dendrites and not by axon endings,
d) neurotransmitters are released by the axon endings and not by dendrites.
52. Action potential of resting nerve is
a) +120mv, b) +60mv, c) -60mv, d) -80mv.
53. In salutatory conduction of impulse
a) time is conserved, b) energy is conserved, c) both a) and b), d) none of these.

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54. Which kind of waves is generated in brain during deep sleep?


a) Alfa wave, b) Beta wave, c) Delta wave, d) Theta wave.
55. The correct match is,
A) Epilepsy I) Degeneration of neurons in the cerebral cortex
B) Alzheimer’s disease II) Irregular electrical disease in the neurons
C) Parkinson’s disease III) Decreased production of acetylcholine
D) Huntington’s disease IV) Degeneration of dopamine releasing neurons
V) Formation of blood clots in the brain
VI) Inability to recognize objects
a) A-II,B-IV, C-V,D-VI, b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I,
c) A-VI, B-IV, C-I, D-II, d) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
56. Choroid plexus functions to produce
a) lymph, b) endolymph, c) CSF, d) all of these.
57. By which nervous system and of what type the blood is supplied into visceral organs?
a) SNS, voluntary, b) SNS, involuntary, c) PNS, involuntary, d) both SNS and PNS, involuntary.
58. Schneiderian membrane is found in
a) nasal mucosa, b) loop of Henle, c) trachea, d) eye lash.
59. Glaucoma is caused due to
a) damage of retina, b) blockage of Schlemn canal, c) opacity of lens, d) vitreous becomes dry.
60. Rhinoscope is an instrument to examine
a) nose, b) eye, c) ear, d) retina.
61. The number of rod cells in our eye is
a) 142 million, b) 160 million, c) 118 million, d) 115 million
62. Now-a-days cornea transplantation has been done on large scale because of
a) it does not link up with blood vessels, b) it is transparent,
c) it is easily available, d) none of these.
63. Neurosecretory hormones are secreted in pars nervosa and stored in
a) Starling bodies, b) Herring bodies, c) carotid bodies, d) Rathke’s pouch.
64. The Lorain-Levi syndrome is due to
a) hyper functioning of pituitary, b) hypothyroidism, c) hyperthyroidism, d) deficiency of growth
hormone
65. The correct match is,
A) Hypothalamus I) Relaxin
B) Anterior pituitary II) Estrogen
C) Testes III) FSH & LH
D) Ovary IV) Androgen
V) Gonadotropin releasing hormone
a) A-II,B-IV, C-V,D-III, b) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II,
c) A-I, B-V, C-IV, D-II, d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
66. Obesity of face, hyperglycemia and virilism in females is characteristic of
a) Grave’s disease , b) Conn’s disease , c) Cushing’s syndrome, d) Diabetes
67. Estrogen and testosterone are steroid hormones, and most likely bind to
a) membrane ion channels, b) enzyme-linked membrane receptors,
c) G-protein coupled membrane receptors, d) cytoplasmic receptors.
68. Which is not involved as 2nd messenger in Ca2+ mediated hormone action?
a) c-AMP, b) DAG, c) IP3, d) Phospolipase
69. Who is known as ‘Father of endocrinology’?
a) R.H. Whittaker, b) Einthoven, c) Starling, d) Thomas Addison.
70. A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when hi is kept in a carbohydrate

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free diet. It is because


a) fats are catabolized in adipose tissue to form glucose,
b) amino acids are catabolized in kidney to form glucose,
c) amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver,
d) glycogen from muscles is released in blood stream.
71. Conn’s disease is caused by the over-secretion of
a) aldosterone, b) ADH, c) ACTH, d) none of these
72. Which of the following hormone is modified amino acid?
a) Epinephrine, b) Progesterone, c) Prostaglandin, d) Estrogen.
73. Adrenaline directly affects on
a) S. A. node, b) beta cells of Langerhans, c) dorsal root of spinal cord, d) none of these.
74. Match the following phenomenon during the development of an embryo
A) week 4 I) hair development starts
B) week 6 II) eye development starts
C) week 12 III) foot development
D) week 20 IV) gut development starts
V) baby moving starts
a) A-II,B-IV, C-V,D-III, b) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II,
c) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I, d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
75. Ions required for the proper fertilization without any chance for polyspermy are
a) Na+ & K+, b) Na+ & Fe2+, c) Na+ & Ca2+, d) Ca2+ & K+
76. Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months of
pregnancy gave birth to children with,
a) hare-lip, b) underdeveloped eye, c) underdeveloped limbs, d) anemia.
77. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by
a) capacitation, b) release of lysin, c) influx of Na+, d) release of fertilizing.
78. Grey crescent is the area
a) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum, b) at the animal pole,
c) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum, d) at the vegetal pole.
79. The function of the secretion of prostate gland is to
a) inhibit sperm activity, b) attract sperm, c) stimulate sperm activity, d) help in capacitation.
80. Fertilization of sperm & ova takes place in
a) ampulla of oviduct, b) isthmus of oviduct, c) fimbrae of oviduct, d) uterine wall.
81. Which of the following cells provide nutrition to the sperm?
a) Leydig’s cells, b) Granulosa cells, c) Primary germ cells, d) Sertoli cells.
82. The rule of embryonic development was given by
a) Von Baer, b) Mendel, c) Haeckel, d) Darwin.
83. Exflagellation of the sperm during fertilization occurs due to
a) sodium, b) calcium, c) lysosome, d) mitochondria
84. The term antrum is applied to
a) cavity of graffian follicle, b) blastocoel, c) archenteron, d) none of these above.
85. The combined effect of high concentrations of estrogen and progesterone on the hypothalamic
pituitary pathway is the same as:
a) Low concentration of estrogen & progesterone,
b) high concentration of estrogen & progesterone,
c) high concentration of HCG,
d) none of these.
86. Deuterostome condition and indeterminate radial cleavage are the characteristics of
a) chordates and arthropods, b) chordates and echinoderms,

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c) arthropods & echinoderms, d) chordate, arthropods & annelids.


87. Match the gestation period with animals in the table below
A) elephant I) 270 days
B) cat II) 630 days
C) horse III) 335 days
D) monkey IV) 63 days
V) 164 days
a) A-II,B-IV, C-V,D-I, b) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II,
c) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I, d) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-IV
88. Best method of contraception is
a) IUD, b) condom, c) pill, d) rhythmic coitus
89. Amniocentesis is a technique to
a) determine any disease in heart, b) determine any hereditary disease in the embryo,
c) know about the disease of brain, d) none of these.
90. A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the genitals is
caused by the infection of
a) Treponema pallidum, b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae, c) HIV , d) Hepatitis B virus.
91. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter
A-medical termination of pregnancy during first trimester is generally safe,
B- generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years,
C-intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptive,
D-contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent contraception.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a) A & B , b) A & C , c) B & C, d) C & D

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