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A Specially Designed Initiative TALLENTEX 2018 : (10, September 2017)

to Encourage Young Talent by

TALLENTEX

2018
ALLEN'S Talent Encouragement Exam

th
CLASS - 9 (IX)
Duration: 2 Hrs. | Maximum Marks : 320

T 6 6
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Things NOT ALLOWED in EXAM HALL : Blank Paper, clipboard, log table, slide rule, calculator, camera, mobile and
any electronic or electrical gadget. If you are carrying any of these, then keep them at a place specified by invigilator at
your own responsibility.
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal of Booklet until the invigilator instructs to do so.
2. Fill your TALLENTEX Roll No. & Answer Sheet No. in the space provided on the cover page.
3. Carefully fill your PAPER CODE and present CLASS in space provided (Serial No. 6 & 12) of optical response sheet.
4. Please make sure that paper you received is of your class only.
5. Please make sure that the Paper Code Printed on the Test Booklet Cover Page and Inner Pages are the same. In
case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of
Test Booklet.
6. The Answer Sheet is provided to you separately which is a machine readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS). You have
to mark your answers in the ORS by darkening bubble, as per your answer choice, by using black or blue ball point pen.
7. After breaking the Question Paper seal, check there are 12 pages in the booklet. This Question Paper contains
80 MCQs with 4 choices (Subjects: Physics: 15, Chemistry: 15, Biology: 15, Maths: 15 & Mental ability: 20).
8. Think wisely before darkening bubble as there is negative marking for wrong answer. Answer once marked by
pen cannot be cancelled.
9. Marking Scheme:
a. If darkened bubble is RIGHT answer : 4 Marks.
b. If darkened bubble is WRONG answer: -1 Mark (Minus One Mark).
c. If no bubble is darkened in any question: No Mark.
10. If you are found involved in cheating or disturbing others, then your ORS will be cancelled.
11. Do not put any stain on ORS and hand it over back properly to the invigilator.
12. You can take along the question paper after the test is over.
facebook.com/tallentex twitter.com/TALLENTEX www.tallentex.com
2018
CLASS-IX / Paper Code - I

SECTION - A : PHYSICS
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The position of the pole star is located with the help of the ___________ constellation.
(1) Cassiopeia (2) Orion (3) Ursa Major (4) Scorpio
2. If the velocity of a car is increased by 20%, then the minimum distance in which it can be stopped
increases by
(1) 44% (2) 55% (3) 66% (4) 88%
3. The light reflected by a plane mirror may form a real image -
(1) If rays incident on the mirror are converging.
(2) If the object is placed very close to the mirror.
(3) If the rays incident on the mirror are diverging.
(4) Under no circumstances.
4. An athlete runs along a long distance before taking a long jump to increase his-
(1) impulse (2) inertia (3) weight (4) momentum
5. A car moving on a road covers 20 m in the first second and 30 m in the next second with uniform
acceleration. What is its acceleration?

(1) 20 ms–2 (2) 10 ms–2 (3) 30 ms–2 (4) 5 ms–2


6. Mechanical waves (sound waves) in a gas are :
(1) Transverse (2) Longitudinal
(3) Neither transverse nor longitudinal (4) Either transverse or longitudinal
7. Calculate the missing values in the table below:

Place Object Mass Value of Gravity Weight


Earth Bag of flour 2.5kg (i) 25N
Sun Tin of fruit 500g Each kilogram of matter weighs 272N (ii)
Moon Pocket of potatoes 10 kg (iii) 17N
Jupiter Block of Margarine 1kg Each kilogram of matter weighs 25N (iv)

Which of the following answers below represent the correct answers?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(1) 25 10 1.7 137500
(2) 62.5 1.8 10 1.7
(3) 10 62.5 25 10
(4) 10 136 1.7 25

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8. The moon always faces the earth by same side. This phenomenon is called as
(1) Tidal Locking (2) Lunar eclipse (3) Neap Tides (4) Solar eclipse
9. The angle between incident sound wave and surface is 40° as shown in figure. What will be the angle
of reflection?

40°
Incident Reflected
wave wave

(1) 30° (2) 40° (3) 50° (4) 60°


10. The time period of a satellite orbiting very near to the surface of the earth in a circular path will be

approximately: (Take g = 10 m / s2 ) (Radius of earth = 6400 km)


(1) 45 minutes (2) 65 minutes (3) 85 minutes (4) 105 minutes
11. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed -
(1) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(2) very near to the focus of the reflector
(3) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(4) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
12. m/s2 is the unit of
(1) speed (2) acceleration (3) displacement (4) time
13. During a demonstration of Newton’s laws of motion, a student used the setup shown in Figure 1. The
student flicked the index card with a fingertip, and the coin fell straight down into a plastic cup as
shown in Figure 2. Which of these best explains why the coin fell straight down into the cup instead of
remaining on the index card?

Figure 1 Figure 2

(1) The coin was at rest until the card was removed, so it tended to remain in the same location. Once
the card was gone, the unbalanced force of gravity caused the coin to fall.
(2) Moving the card applied an action force on the coin. Since the card was gone, gravity applied a
reaction force on the coin.
(3) The card had less mass than the coin, so a smaller force of gravity acted on the card. The larger
force of gravity on the coin made it fall.
(4) The acceleration of the coin falling into the cup was equal and opposite to the acceleration of the
card.
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14. A water tanker filled up to (2/3)rd of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On sudden application
of the brake, the water in the tank would
(1) move backward (2) move forward (3) be unaffected (4) rise upwards
15. Starting from the same point , two persons A and B starts running in opposite direction on the
circumference of a circle of radius R with a speed of v1 & v2. After how much time, they will meet
again :

pR pR pR v1 + v 2 2 pR
(1) ( v + v ) (2) v + v (3) (4) v + v
1 2 1 2 2pR 1 2

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. The remains of dead plants and animals burried under the earth are called _______.
(1) Fossils (2) Fuels (3) Coal gas (4) None of these
17. Aluminium metal is highly resistant to corrosion because
(1) of the presence of weakly adherant Al 2 O3 layer on metal surface.

(2) of the presence of strongly adherant Al 2 O3 layer on metal surface.

(3) of the presence of weakly adherant Al ( OH ) layer on metal surface.


3

(4) of the presence of strongly adherant Al ( OH )3 layer on metal surface.

18. Which of the following statements about metals is not correct?


(1) They act as reducing agents. (2) They are electropositive.
(3) They do not give up electrons easily. (4) They form basic or amphoteric oxides.
19. Unburnt wax vapours are present in :
(1) Non - luminous zone (2) Luminous zone
(3) Inner dark zone (4) Blue zone
20. Substance which vaporises during burning gives
(1) pressure (2) fuel (3) flame (4) all of these
21. What is the effect of pressure on the boiling point of a liquid ?
(1) Increase in pressure increases boiling point. (2) Decrease in pressure increases boiling point.
(3) No effect of pressure on boiling point. (4) None of these
22. Which is more effective in cooling ?
(1) Water at 0°C (2) Water at 100°C (3) Ice at 0°C (4) All of these
23. 40 gm of sugar is needed to form a saturated solution of 50 gm of water at 298K. Given that solubility
of the sugar is 80gm per 100 gm at this temperature. What will happen if this solution is cooled?
(1) Solubility of sugar in water decreases. (2) Solubility of sugar in water increases.
(3) Solubility of sugar in water remains same. (4) None of the above
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24. Which of the following statements is NOT true ?


(1) True solutions are homogeneous in nature.
(2) Suspensions are heterogeneous in nature.
(3) Solute particles in all colloidal solutions can be separated by filtration.
(4) True solutions are transparent to light.
25. How many of the following are combustible?
Wood, paper, iron nails, kerosene oil, stone piece, straw, charcoal, match sticks, glass
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 3
26. What is the amount of heat required in kJ to change the temperature of 10 kg water from 1ºC to 11ºC ?
[specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 J/g /°C]
(1) 400 kJ (2) 410 kJ (3) 418 kJ (4) 422 kJ
27. Forest fires occur during hot summers because :
(1) Hot air and friction on dried wood is sufficient to raise temperature to its ignition level.
(2) Less water content in soil increases the ignition temperature of wood.
(3) A small fire from a left cigarratte piece or camp fire.
(4) Both (1) and (3)
28. Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons containing
(1) C1-C14 atoms (2) C50-C40 atoms
(3) C15-C20 atoms (4) C1-C40 atoms
29. At Darjeeling, distilled water boils at a temperature
(1) above 373 K (2) above 473 K
(3) below 373 K (4) at 373 K
30. If the concentration of a solution is 15% (m/v) and density of solution is 1.2g/ml then find the concen-
tration of the same solution in (m/m ) ?
(1) 10% (2) 12.5% (3) 15% (4) 17.5%

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Choose the odd combination given below.
(1) Insecticide- Malathion (2) Fungicide - Bordeaux mixture
(3) Weedicide -Calcium ammonium nitrate (4) Fertilizer - Ammonium phosphate
32. Endemic species is
(1) An indicator species for that region
(2) Restricted species
(3) A vulnerable species
(4) Found only in a particular region

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33. Read the given statements about stomata


(a) are structures present in leaf endodermis
(b) consist of two bean shaped guard cells in monocots only
(c) regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange
(d) their guard cells contain chloroplast
Choose the incorrect statements.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
34. Study the diagram of the cell below and select the option that correctly matches the labelled part of
each function listed.

FUNCTIONS
3 1
Control Cell's Cellular
Photosynthesis Protection 2
Activities Respiration
(1) 1 3 2 4
(2) 4 1 3 2 4
(3) 2 3 1 4
(4) 3 2 4 1

35. Which of the following leaves are useful in Silos ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

36. Vermicompost is ecofriendly because


(1) Vermicompost degrade soil quality
(2) Earthworm consume microbes and vermicompost is microbe free
(3) Earthworm consume leftovers and produce vermicompost
(4) Vermicompost makes the soil fertile and does not affect microbes

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37. The place meant for conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitat are
(a) Zoological park (b) Botanical garden (c) Wild life sanctuary (d) National park
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
38. The fusion of male and female gametes usually takes place inside the
(1) Uterus (2) Ovary (3) Fallopian tubes (4) Zygote
39. ‘X’ structure has ossein. ‘X’ belongs to
(1) Connective tissue (2) Muscular tissue (3) Nervous tissue (4) Epithelial tissue
40. Fertigation is the process in which
(1) Less amount of pesticides are needed to grow crops.
(2) Fertilizers are supplied more then manures to grow crops.
(3) Fertilizers are supplied with irrigation.
(4) There is more irrigation to grow crops.
41. Observe the given figure and choose the hormone and its source which have a direct effect on the
body, rather than trigger another gland is

A
B

D
E

Hormone Source
(1) Growth hormone (A)
(2) TSH (B)
(3) Testosterone (D)
(4) ACTH (C)
42. The given box contains some diseases names caused by different pathogens.

Which of the following shows the correct category of diseases and their causative agents?
(1) Bacteria- typhoid, tuberculosis, cholera
(2) Virus- influenza, common cold, athlete's foot
(3) Protozoa- malaria, cholera, athlete's foot
(4) Fungi- typhoid, malaria, athlete's foot

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43. The type of muscles present in our


(1) Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
(2) Intestine are striated and involuntary
(3) Thigh are striated and voluntary
(4) Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres, spindle in shape
44. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Anything less than a complex structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
(2) AV Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a living cell
(3) Centrosome is covered by double layer of plasma membrane
(4) Cell is basic unit of structure and function of all organisms
45. A scientist is comparing two body cells of a multicellular organism. Which of the following is most
likely identical?
(1) Shape of cell walls (2) Number of mitochondria
(3) Shape of cell membranes (4) Number of chromosomes

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
46. If (1011 + 25)2 – (1011 – 25)2 = 10n, then the value of n is
(1) n = 12 (2) n = 14 (3) n = 13 (4) None of these

4x
47. If x2 + 2x + 1 = 0, then the value of is
x + 5x + 1
2

1 4 5
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4)
3 3 3
48. The number 88 is obtained from the number 44 by raising this number by the power of n. What is the
number n ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 8 (4) 16
3 2
49. If y+2 and y–1 are factors of y + 10y + ay + b, then the values of a and b are respectively :
(1) 6 and –8 (2) 7 and –18 (3) –7 and 18 (4) –6 and 18
50. Which of the following number is not a perfect cube?
(1) 343 (2) 512 (3) 1728 (4) 256

p
51. If we write 0.12 in the form , where p and q are integers and q ¹ 0 , then (p + q) is :
q

(1) 21 (2) 20 (3) 102 (4) 101


4 2 2
52. One factor of 8x + 18x + 9 is 2x + 3. The other factor is :
(1) 4x2+4 (2) 4x2– 4 (3) 4x2+3 (4) 3x2+4
53. 10404 - 3 274625 is a prime number the value of this prime number is
(1) 31 (2) 37 (3) 41 (4) 43

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54. The ratio of radii of two cylinders is 3 : 2 and heights are in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of their vol-
umes:

2 6 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
3 8 2
55. In the adjoining figure, l || m, then the value of x is

l
x
143°
m

(1) 50° (2) 53° (3) 63° (4) 43°


56. What is the maximum exterior angle possible for a regular polygon?
(1) 180° (2) 160° (3) 140° (4) 120°

x + y -1 x - y + 3 x - y - 5
57. If = = , then the value of x,y which satisfies given equation is
2 4 1

(1) x = 1, y = -1 (2) x = 1
3, y = - 23 (3) x = 7, y = - 2 3 (4) x = 2 3 , y = - 2 3
58. When a barrel is 30% empty it contains 30 litres more than when it is 30% full. How many litres does
the barrel hold when full?
(1) 60 (2) 75 (3) 90 (4) 100
59 A room is 15 metres long, 4 metres broad and 3 metres high. Find the cost of white washing its four
walls at Rs. 1 per m2.
(1) Rs. 120 (2) Rs. 114 (3) Rs.110 (4) Rs. 104
60. Factors of ab + bc + ax + cx is
(1) ( a + c )( x + b ) (2) ( a - c )( x - b ) (3) ( a + b)( x + c ) (4) ( x + a )( x + b)

SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY


This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Rohit walked 25 meters towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 meters. He then
turned to his left and walked 25 meters. He again turned to his right and walked 15 meters. At what
distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?
(1) 35 meters East (2) 35 meters North
(3) 40 meters East (4) 60 meters East
62. Debu walks towards East, then towards North and turning 45° right walks for a while and lastly turns
towards left. In which direction is he facing now?
(1) North (2) East
(3) South-East (4) North-West
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63. In the following question, three sequences of letters/numerals are given which correspond to each
other in some way. You have to find out the letters/numerals that come in the vacant places marked by
(?). There are given as one of the four alternatives under the question. Mark your answer.
_KNKML _ _ LNMM
13 _ _ 1 2 4 2 _ _ _ _
k_ _ l _ _ m n ? ? ? ?
(1) k, m, n, n (2) k, n, m, m (3) m, k, n, n (4) n, m, k, k
64. Priya is taller than Tiya and shorter than Siya. Riya is shorter than Siya and taller than Priya. Riya is
taller than Diya, who is shorter than Tiya. Arrange them in order of descending heights.
(1) Priya—Siya—Riya—Tiya—Diya (2) Riya—Siya—Priya—Diya—Tiya
(3) Siya—Riya—Priya—Tiya—Diya (4) Siya—Priya—Riya—Diya—Tiya
65. A cube is painted red on two adjacent faces and on one opposite face, yellow on two opposite faces
and green on the remaining face. It is then cut into 64 equal cubes. How many cubes have only one
surface painted red ?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16
66. Count the number of squares in the given

(1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 25 (4) 27


67. If in a certain language ‘JNU’ is written as ‘101714132106’, then how will ‘PUSA’ be written in that
language?
(1) 1611210619080126 (2) 1611210619080162
(3) 1611210619086201 (4) 1161216019080126
68. Figure (X) is embedded in any one of the four alternative figures. Find the figure that contains (X).

X=

(1) (2) (3) (4)

69. What comes in place of question mark in following series.


POQ, SRT, VUW, ?
(1) XYZ (2) XZY (3) YZY (4) YXZ

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70. Choose the box that is simillar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(1) (2) (3) (4)


(X)

(1) 2 and 3 only (2) 1, 3, and 4 only (3) 1 and 4 only (4) All
71. The given equation becomes correct due to the interchange of two signs. One of the four alternatives
under it specifies the interchange of signs in the equation which when made will make the equation
correct. Find the correct alternatives.
4 × 2 + 9 – 24 ÷ 8 = 19
(1) × and + (2) + and – (3) + and ÷ (4) – and ÷
72. Read the following diagram and find how many educated people are employed?

(1) 18 (2) 26 (3) 24 (4) 16


73. Find the missing number in the given figure.

6 2 3 7 2 8 8 6 3

672 943 ?

3 4 7 3 7 9 3 4 0

(1) 523 (2) 325 (3) 352 (4) 732


74. Which of the following combinations of circles best represents Athletes, Sprinters and Marathon run-
ners?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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75. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu’ sister is Reema. Reema’s husband is Rajan. Raghu’s mother is
Lakshmi. Lakshmi’s husband is Rajesh. How is Rajesh related to Rajan?
(1) Uncle (2) Son-in-law (3) Father-in-law (4) Cousin
76. Select a figure from amongst which will continue the same series as established by the fifth problem
figures.

?
= =
(1) (2) ? (3) ? (4)
= ? = ?

77. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rashi said, “He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my
husband.” How is the man on the stage related to Rashi ?
(1) Son (2) Husband (3) Cousin (4) Nephew

78. Find Mirror Image of MALAYALAM

(1) MALAYALAM (2) MA AYA AM (3) (4) MA AYA AM


79. Insert the missing number in the given series :
99, 82, 18, 11, ?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) 9
80. Find the water image of the object given in the question figure denoted by (A) out of the figures given
in the answer figures (1), (2) , (3) and (4) .
Question Figure

(A)
Answer Figures

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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