ENDODONTICS AND PERIODONTOLOGY

1. Which of the following statements regarding sodium hypochlorite used as a root canal irrigating solution is accurate?
A. It is buffered to a pH of 12 to 13, which increases toxicity.
B. It exhibits a chelating action on dentin.
C. It should be used in higher concentrations because of the increased free chlorine available.
D. It is a good wetting agent that permits the solution to flow into canal irregularities.
E. All of the above statements are accurate.

2. The following are true regarding shaping procedures, except:

A. Shaping is performed after cleaning of the apical one third of the canal to ensure patency.
B. Shaping facilitates placement of instruments to the working length by increasing the coronal taper.
C. Shaping permits a more accurate assessment of the apical, cross-sectional canal diameter.
D. Shaping is necessary procedure because calcification occurs from the coronal portion of the canal to the
apex.

3. The result of RCT in establishing patency is:

A. It prevents procedural errors, such as canal blockage and transportation.
B. It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus and increased post operative pain.
C. It enlarges the apical terminus and increases the potential for extrusion of obturating material.
D. It requires insertion of a file 1.0 to 2.0 mm beyond the canal terminus.

4. The most important principle governing the location and outline of the lingual or occlusal opening into the pulp
chamber is:
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. Direct access along straight lines.
C. Complete removal of the roof of the pulp chamber
D. Removal of all caries and defective restorative material.

5. In which of the following conditions are pulps of the involved teeth likely to be vital?
1. Globulomaxillary cysts
2. radicular cysts
3. periapical osteofibrosis (cementoma)
4. traumatic bone cyst
5. fibrous dysplasia
A. 1,3,4 ,5 B. 1,3,5 C. 1 & 4 D. 2,3,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5

6. Which of the following represents the basic constituent of most root canal sealers?
A. Zinc oxide C. Zinc stearate
B. Polyvinyl resin D. Polycarboxylate E. Zinc oxyphosphate

7. Which of the following statements regarding Hedstrom files are accurate?

A. They are manufactured by machining a round cross-sectional wire.
B. They are effective when used in a reaming action.
C. They are safer than K-files, because external signs of stress are more visible as changes in flute design.
D. They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the shaft.
E. None of the above.

8. Which of the following statements regarding pulp stimulation with cold is accurate?
A. It is best accomplished with cardon dioxide snow.
B. It is an accurate assessment of pulp vitality.
C. It directly stimulates the pain fibers in the pulp.
D. It is best determined with a blast of air.

9. A preoperative finding that predisposes to a decreased prognosis is which of the following:

A. The tooth is in hyperocclusion.
B. The pulp is necrotic with no periradicular lesion
C. The pulp is necrotic with a periradicular lesion present.
D. The pulp is vital
E. Treatment is in an elderly patient.

10. Endodontic therapy is contraindicated for a single rooted tooth that has:
A. discoloration
B. an acute apical abscess
C. a chronic abscess and a draining sinus tract
D. a horizontal fracture of the apical third of the root.
E. A vertical fracture of the root and an associated deep periodontal defect

11. Internal resoprtion should be treated by :

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 A. pulpotomy C. extraction
B. pulpectomy D. pulp capping E. periodic recall

12. In shaping and cleansing the canal of a vital maxillary central incisor, a practitioner has inadvertently perforated
the apical foramen. This error can result in each of the following, except:
A. Pain to the patient.
B. Enlargement of the foramen.
C. Trauma to the apical tissue.
D. Necrotic tissue being forced into the apical tissues.

13. A size 30 root canal file is broken 1mm short of the apex in the distofacial canal of a maxillary second molar. The
instrument can neither be removed nor by-passed. The remaining pulp is vital. In this situation, the dentist should
complete the root canal treatment and:
A. amputate the distofacial root.
B. Perform an apicoectomy of the distofacial root
C. Perform an apicoectomy and a retrofill of the distofacial root
D. Place the patient on recall for further evaluation.

14. During a stepback enlargement of the canal space, one reason for recapitulation after each increase in instrument
size is to:
A. maintain coronal curvature of the canal
B. maintain the apical stop for filling with gutta-percha
C. create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with gutta-percha
D. clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by irrigation

15. A barbed roach is most useful for:

A. Removal of cotton, paper points and other objects from the canal.
B. Removal of vital tissue from fine canals.
C. Initial planing of the canal walls.
D. Coronal-orifice enlargement before establishing the correct working length.
E. All of the above.

16. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the following?
A. It reduces diffusion of toxic substance through the tubules.
B. It resists the effects of acid etching of the dentin.
C. It eliminates the need for cavity liner or base.
D. Its bactericidal activity acts against oral microorganisms.

17. The action used for placing K-type file into a canal should resemble:
A. an up-and-down motion
B. a straight apical pressure
C. complete rotation of the instrument with pressure directed apically.
D. a clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure directed apically.

18. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and a metal ceramic crown. Tree
months later, the patient calls and complains of pain, especially on biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the
radiographs. The most probable cause of pain is:
A. a loose crown C. a vertical root fracture
B. psychosomatic D. a premature eccentric contact

19. To remain stable, a rubber dam clamp must contact the anchor tooth gingival to the height of contour. Which
other criterion must the clamp satisfy?
A. All four points must be sharp.
B. All four points must contact the tooth.
C. The bow must be directed to the distal side of the tooth..

20. Which of the following root surfaces is the most likely to be strip-perforated during canal instrumentation of the
mesial root of a mandibular first molar?
A, facial B. lingual C. mesial D. distal

21. Paraformaldehyde-containing obturating materials results in which of the following?

A. Eliminate bacteria that remain in the canals.
B. Mummify tissue remnants in the canals.
C. Reduce post treatment pain.
D. Are below the standard of care for RCT
E. None of the above.

22. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily because of:

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 A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue.
B. Its antimicrobial activity.
C. Its ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation.
D. Its ability to temporarily seal the canal.
E. None of the above.

23. The literature suggests that the majority of vertical root fractures of endodontically treated teeth result from:
A. traumatic occlusion
B. condensation forces during gutta-percha fill
C. locking temporaries into prepared teeth
D. cementing the cast post and core
E. permanent cementing crowns.

24. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another objective is to create a favorable
biologic environment for the process of tissue healing.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
D. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.

25. Extending a no. 10 file with a 0.02 taper 1.0mm beyond the apical foramen will result in which of the following?
A. It opens the apical foramen to a minimum diameter of 0.12mm.
B. It increases postoperative discomfort to occlusal forces.
C. It reduces the percentage of change from a no. 10 file to a no. 15 file by 50%.
D. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for an overfill.

26. When is an application of heater-injected gutta-percha potentially beneficial?

A. When there is an open apex.
B. When there are aberrations or irregularities of the canal.
C. When the clinician cannot master lateral condensation.
D. When the canal are curved and small after preparation.

27. A healthy 8-year old child has fractured permanent central incisor. The pulp is widely exposed and vital. From
radiographs, root ends appear incompletely calcified. The recommended procedure is to:
A. cap the pulp C. perform a pulpotomy
B. extract the tooth D. remove the entire pulp.

28. A radiograph of a maxillary lateral incisor reveals a radiolucent area circumscribing the apex. The tooth does not
respond to vitality tests, and a sinus tract is present. In conjunction with endodontic treatment, the sinus tract
should be treated by:
A. enucleation C. irrigation with sodium hypochlorite
B. cauterization D. none of these. It does not require treatment.

29. Once the root canal is obturated, what usually happens to the organisms that had previously entered periapical
tissues from the canal?
A. They persist and stimulate formulation of a granuloma.
B. They are eliminated by the natural defenses of the body.
C. They re-enter and reinfect the sterile canal unless periapical surgery is performed.
D. They will have been eliminated by various medicaments that were used in the root canal.

30. Which of the following perforation \s has the poorest prognosis?

A. perforation of a furcation area of a molar.
B. Perforation of a midroot area with a small file
C. Perforation slightly apical to the epithelial attachment
D. Perforation slightly coronal to the epithelial attachment
E. Perforation at the apex, 1mm. from its radiographic termination.

31. The mandibular, 2nd molar should be restored with crown after RCT for which of the following reasons?
A. The pulp chamber is relatively large in comparison to the crown, making the tooth susceptible to fracture.
B. The tooth is in close to the insertion of the muscle of mastication, and the percentage of preexisting
fractures is high.
C. There is a tendency for the buccal cusps to shear off under occlusal loading.
D. Providing a post can be placed in the distal root to strengthen the root.

32. A problem with nickel-and-titanium (NiTi) spreaders is which of the following?

A. Tendency to buckle under compaction pressure.
B. Tendency to break during condensation.
C. Creation of greater wedging forces, leading to root fracture.
D. They do not penetrate as deeply as stainless spreaders under equal force.

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33. A fragment of a barbed broach is broken off and wedged in the middle third of a canal in a maxillary incisor. A
radiolucency is present at the apex. The fragment cannot be bypassed or removed. Treatment of choice includes:
1. extracting the tooth
2. preparing and obturating to the point of blockage
3. performing an apicoectomy and retrofilling
4. placing formocresol to permeate and fix necrotic tissue.
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 3 only

34. Erratic and inconsistent results from electric pulp testing may be caused by:
1. saliva on the tooth
2. secondary dentin obliterating the pulp chamber
3. multiple canals presenting various stages of pulp pathosis
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3

35. Which of the following are considerations in coronal pretreatment of an endodontic case?
1. removing caries
2. removing occlusal contacts
3. preventing leakage during therapy
4. providing for secure position of the rubber-dam clamp
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 only E. 2, 3 & 4

36. The most important route of bacteria into the dental pulp is from:
A. General circulation via anachoresis.
B. Exposure to the oral cavity via caries.
C. The gingival sulcus.
D. None of these.

37. The least important factor influencing the pathogenicity of endodontic flora is:
A. Microbial interaction.
B. Endotoxins released after bacterial death.
C. Exotoxins released by living bacteria
D. Enzymes produced by bacteria.

38. Elective endodontic treatment is contraindicated in which of the following?

A. Patient is a borderline diabetic.
B. Patient has had a heart attack within the last 6 months.
C. Patients has had numerous opportunistic infections secondary to HIV infection
D. Patient has an implanted pacemaker.

39. Histologically, the normal dental pulp most closely resembles:

A. nervous tissue D. loose connective tissue
B. endothelial tissue E. dense connective tissue
C. granulomatous tissue

40. Which of the following sensory responses can be elicited from a tooth after root canal therapy?
A. tactile sensation C. sensitivity to EPT
B. thermal sensation D. sensitivity to sweets

41. Extending a no. 10 file with a 0.02 taper 1.0mm beyond the apical foramen will result in which of the following?
A. It opens the apical foramen to a minimum diameter of 0.12mm.
B. It increases postoperative discomfort to occlusal forces.
C. It reduces the percentage of change from a no. 10 file to a no. 15 file by 50%.
D. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for an overfill.

42. Retreatment has the most favorable prognosis during which of the following?
A. When the cause of failure is identified and is correctable.
B. When the patient is asymptomatic.
C. When gutta-percha was used instead of paste.
D. When a surgical microscope is used.

43. In the pulp myelinated nerves function to transmit impulses interpreted as:
1. pain
2. cold
3. proprioception
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 only D. 2 & 3 E. all of them.

44. Sodium hypochlorite may be used effectively as:

1. an antimicrobial agent
2. a tissue solvent
3. a chelating agent
4. an anodyne dressing
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 A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 1 & 3

45. Each of the following are direct advantages of pre-enlarging the radicular space, except:
A. It provides better tactile control of instruments when negotiating a small, curved canal
B. It removes the bulk of tissue and contaminants before apical preparation.
C. It facilitates obturation.
D. It provides a reservoir for the irrigant.
E. None of the above.

46. In which of the following is one-visit root canal treatment not recommended?
A. The pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic
B. The pulp is necrotic and symptomatic.
C. The pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract.
D. The pulp is vital and symptomatic.
E. None of the above.

47. The highest incidence of pulp necrosis is associated with:

A. Class V preparation on root surface C. Partial veneer preparation
B. Inlay preparation D. Full-crown preparation.

48. The response of the pulp to a recently placed amalgam without cavity lining is usually
A. slight-to-moderate inflammation C. slight but increasing severe in time
B. moderate-to-severe inflammation D. none of these.

49. When is endodontic treatment is contraindicated?

A. The patient has no motivation to maintain the tooth.
B. The canal appears to be calcified.
C. Class III mobility and loss of bone support.
D. The tooth needs periodontal crown lengthening before restoration.
E. None of the above.

50. When using the balanced-force technique for canal preparation, which of the following statements is accurate?
A. The cutting stroke involves apical pressure and a counterclockwise rotation.
B. Clockwise rotation balances the tendency of the file to be drawn into the canal during the cutting stroke.
C. Dentin is engaged with a counterclockwise rotation and cut with a 45-to 90-degree, clockwise rotation
D. It requires the use of a crown down technique.

51. Moderate extrusion of obturating materials beyond the apex is undesirable because of which of the following?
A. There is more likelihood of postoperative discomfort.
B. Sealer and gutta-percha cause a severe, inflammatory reaction in periradicular tissue.
C. The prognosis is poorer.
D. All of the above.

52. Premature occlusal contacts of the teeth are most harmful to the periodontium of patient:
A. Consumes high nondetergent diet C. Has maligned teeth
B. Clenches and grinds his teeth D. Wears a partial denture.

53. Radiographically, which of the following statements regarding canals that appear calcified are accurate?
A. They are seldom able to be instrumented.
B. They have a different appearance than the surrounding dentin.
C. They should be opened up with rotary rather than ultrasonic instruments.
D. All of the above.

54. In the older patient, the exit of the canal is:

A. Closer to the radiographic apex.
B. C. easier to detect tactilely
C. Closer to the true apex
D. More variable because of cementum formation

55. The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is characterized by:

1. the formation of cellrests in the periodontal ligament when the sheath’s functions have been accomplished
2. progressive involution, thereby aiding in actual tooth movement during eruption
3. the absence of a stellate reticulum and a stratum intermedium
4. the absence of mitotic ability and thus, stretching as the root grow.
A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4

56. Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
1. fibroclasts 2. osteoblasts 3. macrophages 4. cementoblasts
A. 1,2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 4 only E. all of them.

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57. Although the exact mechanism of formation of calculus is not understood, it is known that the organic matrix of
calculus in humans includes:
A. no living microorganisms C. an abundance of microorganisms
B. a fusospirochetal complex D. only by-products of bacterial metabolism

58. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible to the killing of PMN’s resulting in
the destruction of the periodontal disease?
A. Leukotoxins C. Enzymes
B. Endotoxins D. Polyclonal B lymphocytes activation

59. An infrabony pocket is a periodontal pocket with the epithelial attachment located:
A. coronal to the crest of alveolar bone C. within the alveolar bone
B. apical to mucogingival junction D. apical to the crest of the alveolar bone

60. Pockets of biologically active enzymes in the cytoplasm of polymorphonuclear leucocytes which play an important
role in inflammatory periodontal disease are:
A. Cristae C. endoplasmicreticulum
B. Lysosomes D. lysozymes

61. After subgingival curettage, the expected result would be:

A. increased edema C. deeper gingival sulcus
B. increased tooth mobility D. shallower gingival sulcus

62. Dental plaque arises primarily as a result of enzymatic reactions using which of the following?
A. Glucose and protein C. Sucrose and lipid
B. Sucrose and saliva D. Glucose and saliva

63. The index used for assessment of average severity of periodontal disease in large population groups is:
A. Loe and Silness index C. Russel index
B. Greene and Vermillon index D. Ramfjord index

64. Clinical criteria for diagnosing periodontal and gingival diseases include alteration in the:
1. depth of the gingival sulcus and the level of the epithelial attachment
2. free gingival groove
3. color of gingival tissue
4. contour of gingival tissue.
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 1,2, 3& 4

65. Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include:

1. steroid therapy
2. palliative treatment
3. control of secondary infection
4. application of dilute hydrogen peroxide
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 & 4

66. Bone-fill procedures (new attachment) are most successful in treating:

A. trifurcation involvements
B. deep, two-wall craters
C. narrow, three-wall defects
D. osseous defects with one remaining wall

67. During calculus removal, the surface of the root feels smoothest following scaling with:
A. a hoe D. an unltrasonic instrument
B. periodontal files E. a rotary driven metal scaler
C. a periodontal curet

68. Sulcular brushing is best accomplished by suing a:

A. natural-bristle brush
B. soft 2- or 3- row brush with rounded bristle tips.
C. Brush with angular-cut bristle tips and a soft texture
D. Brush with square-cut bristle tips and a medium texture

69. Which of the following statements regarding guided tissue regeneration (GTR) is false?
A. GTE is an effective adjuncts to treatment of periodontal disease but has limited value in treating
endodontic pathosis.
B. The combined endodontic periodontic lesion has the least favorable prognosis for GTR because of the
relationship of the lesion to the gingival margins.
C. Bioresorbable membranes exhibit results similar to nonresorbable membranes.
D. Evidence suggest that GTR enhances bone formation by preventing contact of connective tissue with the
bone.

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70. The normal gingival sulcus is bounded by the:
A. tooth surface and epithelial covering of attached gingiva.
B. Tooth surface and epithelial covering of free gingiva.
C. Epithelial covering of free and attached gingiva.
D. Free gingival groove and mucogingival junction.
E. Tooth surface and gingival lamina propria.

71. The acute apical abscess is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by which of the following?
A. pulp testing C. presence of swelling
B. radiographic appearance D. degree of mobility

72. Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by which of the following?
A. Pulp testing and radiographic appearance.
B. Pulp testing and nature of symptoms
C. Radiographic appearance and nature of symptoms.
D. Pulp testing, radiographic appearance and nature of symptoms.

73. Acute, apical periodontitis is characterized by which of the following?

A. a focus of neutrophils within the lesion.
B. A focus of granulomatous tissue in the lesion.
C. A focus of lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages in the lesion.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.

74. Tetracycline are used as an anti infective agent in the treatment of periodontal disease because of its added
property of:
A. inhibition of collagenose synthesis
B. inhibition of arachidonic synthesis
C. inhibition of interleukin alpha
D. enhances PMN’s chemotaxis

75. Craters in interseptal bone are best eliminated by:

A. gingivectomy
B. osseous recontouring
C. subgingival curettage
D. interseptal massage with stimulators

76. The primary difference between gingivitis and periodontitis is:

A. bone infection
B. depth of pockets
C. changes in color of the gingiva
D. lack of stippling of the gingiva
E. apical migration of junctional epithelium beyond the CEJ.

77. Gingiva is different from alveolar mucosa in that gingival is:

A. elastic fibers C. muscularis mucosa
B. simple epithelium D. stratified epithelium
E. high connective tissue papillae

78. Which of the following species of streptococci is usually not found in human dental plaque?
A. S. mutans B. S. sanguis C. S. pyogenes D. S. salivarius E. S. mitior (S. mitis)

79. Blood vessels in interdental papillae anastomose freely with:

A. periodontal vessels only C. both periodontal and interalveolar vessels
B. interalveolar vessels only D. none of these.

80. Barriers are used in the management of infrabony defects, except:

A. prevent proliferation of gingival connective tissue and epithelium to the root surface
B. allow long junctional epithelium attachment
C. permit regeneration of periodontal tissues to form a fibrillar attachment from bone to cementum
D. regenerate periodontal collagen fibers

81. The periodontal ligament is vital to the tooth, except:

A. contains nerves and vascular elements
B. provides the cellular elements of bone and cementum
C. furnishes an elastic sling for holding the tooth
D. allows for physiologic movement of the teeth

82. The cribriform plate (alveolar bone proper) reveals minute openings which represent:
A. areas of osteoclastic activity.
B. Regions of hematopoietic activity.
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 C. Resoprtion sites of the spongiosa.
D. Attachment sites of Sharpey’s fibers.
E. Regions for passage of vascular and nerve elements.

83. The junctional epithelium of the dentogingival attachment is characterized by:

A. orthokeratinization.
B. The presence of rete pegs
C. Hemidesmosomes in the cells facing the tooth surface
D. All of these
E. None of these.

84. The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are best described as which of the following?
A. Cementicles C. bone
B. Denticles D. enamel pearls E. mineralized interstitial tissue.

85. Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament is the first to offer resistance to movement of the tooth in an
occlusal direction?
A. alveolar crest C. horizontal
B. interradicular D. oblique E. apical

86. The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by which of the
following?
A. An increase in salivary hyaluronidase
B. An increased number of bacteria in saliva.
C. An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva.
D. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque.

87. Gingivectomy is indicated in the following, except:

A. Leukemic gingival enlargement
B. Idiopathic fibromatosis of the gingiva
C. Dilantin gingival enlargement
D. Nifedipine gingival enlargement

88. Gingival bleeding in chronic gingivitis is due to:

A. Detachment of epithelial attachment from tooth
B. Periodontal ligament is detached
C. Increased capillary fragility due to lack of vitamin C
D. Micro ulceration of crevicular epithelium

89. Unilateral mastication will tend to result in:

A. Greater accumulation of plaque in the unused side
B. Heavier and denser bone support in the unused side
C. Greater accumulation of plaque in the used side
D. Greater degree of periodontal disease in the used side

90. A calcium hydroxide pulpotomy performed on a young, permanent tooth is judged to be successful during which of
the following?
A. When the patient is asymptomatic.
B. When the tooth responds to pulp testing.
C. When normal root development continues.
D. All of the above.

91. Direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with which of the following?
A. Carious exposures C. Calcification in the pulp chamber
B. Mechanical exposures D. All of these.

92. Presence of gutta-percha beyond the apex is usually caused by which of the following?
A. Use of too small master cone.
B. Excessive heating and compaction during warm, vertical condensation.
C. Destruction of the natural apical constriction.
D. All of the above.

93. The main objective of occlusal equilibration in natural dentition is:

A. Increase shearing action in mastication
B. Prevent myofacial pain syndrome
C. Prevent TMJ pain syndrome
D. Achieve a more favorable distribution of forces to the periodontal ligament

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94. Which of the following periodontal diseases show a strong genetic etiologic relationship?
A. Adult periodontitis
B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C. Juvenile periodontitis
D. Gingivitis

95. Lymphokines are produce by which cells:

A. B lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes
D. T lymphocytes

96. The Plaque Index of Silness and Loe measures:

A. area of plaque covering the clinical crown
B. thickness of plaque at the gingival margin
C. colony forming units of gram-negative bacteria
D. weight of plaque obtained from facial surfaces.
E. Weight of plaque obtained from the clinical crown.

97. The primary reason for placing a surgical dressing after a gingivectomy is to:
A. prevent hemorrhage
B. accelerate healing
C. stabilize the teeth
D. retard plaque accumulation
E. none of the above.

98. The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the course of periodontal disease
involves”
A. mostly aerobic bacteria
B. essentially a pure culture
C. bacteria not indigenous to the oral cavity
D. essentially the same organism found in the healthy sulcus.

99. Normally, the free gingiva can be distinguished from the epithelial attachment because the:
A. Underlying connective tissue of the gingiva does not contain lymphoid cells.
B. Epithelium of the epithelial attachment does not have rete pegs
C. Epithelium of the gingiva is not keratinized.
D. Underlying connective tissue of the epithelial attachmentis less vascular.

100. The alveolar bone proper usually consist of:

A. woven bone C. lamellar bone only B.bundle bone only D. bundle bone and lamellar bone.

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