Sample questions

Principles of Software Engineering

1. The ________ team, with user involvement, writes the use cases. business analyst
2. ____________ are those conditions that must be present in order for a use case to start. Pre-conditions
3. ____________describe the state of the system after a use case has run its course. Post-Condition
4. __________ takes care of the system development.
5. Which law states that adding labor to a late software project makes it even later. Brook’s law
6. For a new system development which document should be prepared.
7. Which one of the following gives a graphical view of the various code lines, major release dates, and other
milestones for software delivery. Product Road Map
8. First formal customer evaluation process is called as . ____________ beta testing
9. Project scope is a combination of . ____________
10. The Vision document defines, at a __________ level of abstraction. high level
11.Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes?
12. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?
13. The most important feature of spiral model is . ____________ risk management
14. One of the fault base testing techniques is . ____________ mutation testing
15. Which of the following statements is true about abstract class…
16. The level at which the software uses scarce resources is . ____________ portability
17. Requirements can be refined using . ____________ Prototyping Model

18. The main purpose of integration testing is to find . ____________ interface errors.
19. Software consists of . ____________ encoded information or computer instructions
20. Site for Alpha Testing is . ____________ development site
21. What types of models are created during software requirements analysis? Functional and behavioura
22. A design is said to be a good design if the components are . ____________ Strongly cohesive and
weakly coupled
23. The testing that focuses on the variables is called . ____________ black box testing
24. The Rapid software development model . ____________ based on prototyping and
iterative development
25. Prolonged endurance testing is called . ____________ Soak testing

26. The present popular way to develop innovative new software and features with in a tight deadline.
Hack Days
27. Which of the following is a software metrics?
28. Which of these are reasons for using technical product measures during software development?
provides software engineers with an objective mechanism for assessing software quality
29. One of the most important attributes for a software product metric is that it should be . ____________
easy to compute

30. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics? Morphology Metrics

31. Function Point Computation is given by the formula . ____________ FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 *
sum(Fi)]
32. SMI stands for ____________ Software Maturity Index
33. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software? . Function-related metrics
34. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
35. Which one is not a size measure for software product? Cyclomatic Complexity
36. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user
interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of
technology maturity were paramount. Application composition model

37. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models? Linear
Model &Prototyping
38. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model? It defines a set of negotiation
activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral.
39. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle? Prototyping & Spiral
40. Which one of the following is not a software process quality? Portability

41. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the following is
not one that falls into such category? Translation
42. How many phases are there in Scrum ? Three
43. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).
System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the
environment.

44. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ? Five
45. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ? availability, reliability, safety and security

46. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ? Testability
47. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ? Users of the software
48. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
a)Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility

49. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ? Activity Diagram
50. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of
three perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or view ? Physical
51. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements
Specification (SRS) ? Ambiguous
52. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard
is maintained” ? Complete
53. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if ________________ no subset of individual
requirements described in it conflict with each other

54. Which of the following is included in SRS ? Design Constraints

55. Which of the following is not included in SRS ? Design solutions

56. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10secs of
event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ? Verifiable

Computer Networks
1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it
is called DISTRIBUTED SYSTEM
2. Two devices are in network if_____A PROCESS IN ONE DEVICE IS ABLE TO
EXCHANGE INFO WITH A PROESS IN ANOTHER DEVICE_______
3. Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another network?
OVERLAY NETWORK
4. In computer network nodes are____ORIGINATES/TERMINATES/ROUTES THE
DATA________
5. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in BROADCAST
6. Bluetooth is an example of______PERSONAL AREA NETWORK______
7. A __ROUTER___ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the
routing information included in the packet.
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called______PROTOCOL
STACK______
9. Network congestion occurs_____IN CASE OF TRAFFIC OVERLOADING_______
10. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?VIRTUAL
PRIVATE NETWORK
11. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers,
headers are_______ADDED_____
12. The structure or format of data is called________SYNTAX____
13. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves _____SIMPLEX______
transmission
14. The first Network______ARPANET______
15. The ____MEDIUM___ is the physical path over which a message travels
16. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the
communications field? FCC
17. Which of this is not a network edge device?SWITCH
18. A set of rules that governs data communication____PROTOCOLS________
19) Three or more devices share a link in ____MULTIPOINT____ connection
20. In virtual circuit network, each packet contains______A SHORT VC NUMBER______
21. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) none of the mentioned

Answer:d

22. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery? TRANSPORT

23. Which address identifies a process on a host ? PORT
24. ATM uses the ____ASYNCHRONOUS TIME DIVISION MULTIPLEXING________
25. ATM standard defines how many layers? 3
26. An ATM cell has the payload field of ___48 BYTES_________
27. In frame relay networks, extended address is used _____TO EXTEND THE RANGE OF
DATA LINK CONNECTION IDENTIFIERS_______
28. If link transmits 3000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits,the transmission rate of
circuit this TDM is__32 KBPS__
29. The packet switching mechanism uses ____________
30. Find the minimum bandwidth required for the path in FDM Multiplexing which have
Five devices, and each requiring 4000 Hz and having 200 Hz guard band for each device.
20.8 KHz.
31. The topology which requires multipoint connection ___BUS_________
32. The domain name registers which are accredited by which authority? Internet
Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)
33. The Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
_______

a) Transport layer protocol

b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c

34. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP
network? SIMPLE NETWORK MANAGEMENT PROTOCOL
35. IPv6 addressed have a size of ___128 BITS/16 BYTES___________
36. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks? VIRTUAL
PRIVATE NETWORK
37. In TDM, slots are further divided into ____FRAMES________
38. In the all case of t errors correction, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code
must be
39. The layer that doesn't have The checksum is _____________
40. The Internet checksum is______USED FOR DETECTING CORRUPTION IN A BLOCK OF
DATA___________
Theory of Computation
1.
Correct hierarchical relationship among context- free, right-linear, and context-sensitive language is

right-linear ⊂context-free ⊂context-sensitive

2. In the following grammar :
x::=x⊕y|4
y::=z*yI2
z : : = id
which of the following is true ? Both ⊕ and * are left associative
3. Which of the following CFG's can't be simulated by an FSM ?
S --> aSb | ab
Explanation:
Option
S --> aSb | ab
generates the set {an bn ,n=1,2,3 ....}
which is not regular, Option
S --> Sa | b
is left linear where as option
S --> abX, X --> cY, Y --> d | aX
is right linear.

4. ADG is said to be in Chomsky Form (CNF), if all the productions are of the form A --> BC or
A --> a. Let G be a CFG in CNF. To derive a string of terminals of length x , the number of productions
to be used is
2x-1
5. Which of the following statements is correct?
L (A* B*) ∩ B gives the set A

Explanation:

If we include A and B in a set and if we write A* it means except then A i.e. B same as B* means
except then B i.e.A so if we intersect (A*B*) and B then get A because in any regular language

if we write A-B then A-B=A intersection B' so if we intersect A and B means A-B So intersection of
(A*B*) and B = (BA) intersection B means (BA)-B' and B'=A so (BA) intersection(A)=A
So ans is (C)

6. Assume the statements S1 and S2 given as :

S1 : Given a context free grammarG, there exists an algorithm for determining whether L(G) is
infinite.
S2 : There exists an algorithm to determine whether two context free grammars generate the same
language.
Which of the following is true ?
S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
7. The number of eight-bit strings beginning with either 111 or 101 is ______. 64
8. Which of the following conversion is not possible (algorithmically)?
nondeterministic PDA to deterministic PDA
possible are: regular grammar to context-free grammar
nondeterministic FSA to deterministic FSA

nondeterministic TM to deterministic TM

9. Regular expression for the language L = { w ∈ {0, 1}* | w has no pair of consecutive zeros} is
_______ (1 + 01)* (0 + λ)
10. Recursively enumerable languages are not closed under: Complementation
11. Grammar that produce more than one Parse tree for same sentence is: Ambiguous
12. The finite automata accept the following language: regular language
13. Write regular expression to denote a language L which accepts all the strings which begin or end
with either 00 or 11 [(00+11) (0+1)*] + [( 0 + 1)* (00+11)]
14. Write the regular expression to denote the language L over ? ={ a,b} such that all the string do
not contain the substring “ ab”. b*a*
15. Recognize the CFL for the given CFG.
S-> aB| bA,
A-> a|aS|bAA,
B-> b|bS|aBB
strings contain equal number of a's and equal number of b's.
16. How many strings of length less than 4 contains the language described by the regular
expression (x+y)*y(a+ab)*? 11
Explanation : string of length 0 = 1
string of length 1 = 4
string of length 2 = 3
string of length 3 = 3
17. Which of the following is true?
a) (01)*0 = 0(10)*
b) (0+1)*0(0+1)*1(0+1) = (0+1)*01(0+1)*
c) (0+1)*01(0+1)*+1*0* = (0+1)*
18. A language is regular if and only if __________
accepted by DFA
Explanation : All of above machine can accept regular language but all string accepted by
machine is regular only for DFA.
19. Regular grammar is ______________
context free grammar
Explanation : Regular grammar is subset of context free grammar
20. Let the class of language accepted by finite state machine be L1 and the class of languages
represented by regular expressions be L2 then ____________
L1=L2
Explanation : Finite state machine and regular expression have same power to express a
language.
21. The productions

E—>E+E
E—>E—E
E-->E*E
E —> E / E
E —> id
22. Which of the following is not a regular expression?
a) [(a+b)*-(aa+bb)]*
b) [(0+1)-(0b+a1)*(a+b)]*
c) (01+11+10)*
d) (1+2+0)*(1+2)*

B
23. Regular expression are Type 0 language
24. Which of the following is true?
a) Every subset of a regular set is regular
b) Every finite subset of non-regular set is regular
c) The union of two non regular set is not regular
d) Infinite union of finite set is regular
B
25. L and ~L are recursive enumerable then L is
Recursive
Explanation :If L is recursive enumerable and its complement too if and only if L is recursive
26. Regular expressions are closed under
a)Union
b) Intersection
c) Kleen star
Programming in Java
1. public class Plant {
private String name;
public Plant(String name) { this.name = name; }
public String getName() { return name; }
}
public class Tree extends Plant {
public void growFruit() { }
public void dropLeaves() { }
}
Which statement is true?
2. public class Yikes {
public static void go(Long n) {System.out.println("Long ");}
public static void go(Short n) {System.out.println("Short ");}
public static void go(int n) {System.out.println("int ");}
public static void main(String [] args) {
short y = 6;
long z = 7;
go(y);
go(z);
}
}
int
LONG
What is the result?
3. class One {
public One() { System.out.print(1); }
}
class Two extends One {
public Two() { System.out.print(2); }
}
class Three extends Two {
public Three() { System.out.print(3); }
}
public class Numbers{
public static void main( String[] argv ) { new Three(); }
}
What is the result when this code is executed?
123
4. Which two statements are true of JAVA?
5. public class Barn {
public static void main(String[] args) {
new Barn().go("hi", 1);
new Barn().go("hi", "world", 2);
}
public void go(String... y, int x) {
System.out.print(y[y.length - 1] + " ");
}
}
What is the result?
Exception
6. public void go() {
String o = "";
z:
for(int x = 0; x < 3; x++) {
for(int y = 0; y < 2; y++) {
if(x==1) break;
if(x==2 && y==1) break z;
o = o + x + y;
}
}
System.out.println(o);
}
Non static member cannot be referred from a static member
What is the result when the go() method is invoked?
7. static void test() throws RuntimeException {
try {
System.out.print("test ");
throw new RuntimeException();
}
catch (Exception ex) { System.out.print("exception "); }
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
try { test(); }
catch (RuntimeException ex) { System.out.print("runtime "); }
System.out.print("end ");
}
Test exception end
What is the result?
8. Given:
try {
// some code here
} catch (NullPointerException e1) {
System.out.print("a");
} catch (Exception e2) {
System.out.print("b");
} finally {
System.out.print("c");
}
If some sort of exception is thrown at line 34, which output is possible?

b
9. Given:
// some code here
try {
// some code here
} catch (SomeException se) {
// some code here
} finally {
// some code here
}
Under which three circumstances will the code on line 37 be executed? (Choose three.)
10. Given:
int x = 0;
int y = 10;
do {
y--;
++x;
} while (x < 5);
System.out.print(x + "," + y);
What is the result?
5,5
11. Given a class Repetition:
package utils;
public class Repetition {
public static String twice(String s) { return s + s; }
}
and given another class Demo:
public class Demo {
public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(twice("pizza"));
}
}
Which code should be inserted at line 1 of Demo.java to compile and run Demo to print
"pizzapizza"?
12. Given:
interface Animal { void makeNoise(); }
class Horse implements Animal {
Long weight = 1200L;
public void makeNoise() { System.out.println("whinny"); }
}
public class Icelandic extends Horse {
public void makeNoise() { System.out.println("vinny"); }
public static void main(String[] args) {
Icelandic i1 = new Icelandic();
Icelandic i2 = new Icelandic();
Icelandic i3 = new Icelandic();
i3 = i1; i1 = i2; i2 = null; i3 = i1;
}
}
When line 14 is reached, how many objects are eligible for the garbage collector?
13. Given two files, GrizzlyBear.java and Salmon.java:
package animals.mammals;
public class GrizzlyBear extends Bear {
void hunt() {
Salmon s = findSalmon();
s.consume();
}
}
package animals.fish;
public class Salmon extends Fish {
public void consume() { /* do stuff */ }
}
If both classes are in the correct directories for their packages, and the Mammal class
correctly defines the findSalmon() method, which change allows this code to compile?
14. Given:
String[] elements = { "for", "tea", "too" };
String first = (elements.length > 0) elements[0] : null;
What is the result?
Error: Boolean connot be converted to string
15. A company has a business application that provides its users with many different reports: receivables
reports, payables reports, revenue projects, and so on. The company has just purchased some new, state-of-the-
art, wireless printers, and a programmer has been assigned the task of enhancing all of the reports to use not
only the company's oldprinters, but the new wireless printers as well. When the programmer starts looking into
the application, the programmer discovers that because of the design of the application, it is necessary to make
changes to each report to support the new printers. Which two design concepts most likely explain this
situation? (Choose two.)
16. public class SuperCalc {
protected static int multiply(int a, int b) { return a * b;}
}
and:
public class SubCalc extends SuperCalc{
public static int multiply(int a, int b) {
int c = super.multiply(a, b);
return c;
}
}
and:
SubCalc sc = new SubCalc ();
System.out.println(sc.multiply(3,4));
System.out.println(SubCalc.multiply(2,2));
What is the result?

Non static cannot be refereed from a static

17. Given that t1 is a reference to a live thread, which is true?
18. Runnable r = new Runnable() {
public void run() {
System.out.print("Cat");
}
};
Thread t = new Thread(r) {
public void run() {
System.out.print("Dog");
}
};
t.start();
What is the result?
DOG
19. class One {
void foo() { }
}
class Two extends One {
//insert method here
}
Which three methods, inserted individually at line 14, will correctly complete class Two?
(Choose three.)
20. Given
public interface Status {
/* insert code here */ int MY_VALUE = 10;
}
Which three are valid on line 12? (Choose three.)
21. When we invoke repaint() for a java.awt.Component object, the AWT invokes the method: UPDATE
22. What does the following line of code do?
Textfield text = new Textfield(10); Creates text object that can hold 10 columns of text.
23. Which of the following applet tags is legal to embed an applet class named Test into a Web page?
<applet code = Test.class width = 200 height = 100>
24. Which of the following methods can be used to draw the outline of a square within a java.awt.Component
object?
(1) fillRect()
(2) drawLine()
(3) drawRect()
(4) drawString()
(5) drawPolygon()
1,3,5
25. Which of the following methods can be used to change the size of a java.awt.Component object?
(1) dimension()
(2) setSize()
(3) area()
(4) size()
(5) resize()

2,5
26. Which of the following methods can be used to remove a java.awt.Component object from the display?
Hide()
27. The setBackground() method is part of the following class in java.awt package:
Component
28. Which of these method of String class is used to obtain character at specified index? charAt()
29. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
30. Which of these method of class String is used to obtain length of String object? Length()

Data Structures and Algorithms

1. The number of binary trees with 3 nodes which when traversed in post order gives the
sequence A,B,C is ? 5
2. Binary search tree is an example of complete binary tree with special attributes
_______SEARCH KEY_____
3. Quick sort algorithm is an example of _____ DIVIDE AND CONQUER ALGORITHM_______
4. Which of the following searching techniques do not require the data to be in sorted form
________LINEAR SEARCH____
5. From a complete graph, by removing maximum _______ e - n + 1 ________ edges, we can
construct a spanning tree
6. Prefix notation is also known as _____ POLISH NOTATION_______
7. Minimum number of queues required for priority queue implementation? 2
8. A queue data-structure can be used for ____________
9. A pivot element to partition unsorted list is used in _____QUICKSORT_______
10. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for an undirected graph?
P: Number of odd degree vertices is even
Q: Sum of degrees of all vertices is even
Both P and Q
11. When in order traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would
return _____ FAEKCDHGB _______
12. Which of the following name does not relate to stacks? FIFO LISTS
13. Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm? THERE
MUST BE MECHANISM TO DELETE AND/OR INSERT ELEMENTS IN LIST
14. Which of the following data structures are indexed structures? LINEAR ARRAYS
15. A variable P is called pointer if ___P contains the address of an element in DATA.______
16. The memory address of the first element of an array is called ____ BASE ADDRESS______
17. Which of the following data structure is linear type ? Strings, Lists AND Queues

18. which data structure is used in breadth first search of a graph to hold nodes ? QUEUE
19. A binary tree whose left sub tree and right sub tree differ in height by atmost 1 unit is
called ___AVL TREE_________
20. In a priority queue , insertion and deletion takes place at-----ANY POSITION--------
21 You have to sort a list L consisting of a sorted list followed by a few “random” elements.
Which of the following sorting methods would be especially suitable for such a task?
Insertion sort
22. A technique for direct search is _______HASHING_____
23 The searching technique that takes O (1) time to find a data is _____ HASHING _______
24 A mathematical-model with a collection of operations defined on that model is called
______ ABSTRACT DATA TYPE______
25 The number of interchanges required to sort 5, 1, 6, 2 4 in ascending order using Bubble
Sort is_____
26 ____________
27. A linear list of elements in which deletion can be done from one end (front) and insertion
can take place only at the other end (rear) is known as a _____QUEUE_______
28. A sort which relatively passes through a list to exchange the first element with any
element less than it and then repeats with a new first element is called __QUICK SORT._____
29 The quick sort algorithm exploit ____DIVIDE AND CONQUER _____ design technique
30. The data structure required to evaluate a postfix expression is ___STACK_________
31. The data structure required to check whether an expression contains balanced parenthesis
is ____STACK________
32. The modification of the software product performed after delivery to correct discovered
faults, falls under which category of software maintenance?
33. You have to sort a list L consisting of a sorted list followed by a few “random” elements.
Which of the following sorting methods would be especially suitable for such a task?
INSERTION SORT
34. A technique for direct search is ____HASHING________
35. The searching technique that takes O (1) time to find a data is _______HASHING_____
36. A mathematical-model with a collection of operations defined on that model is
called____ ABSTRACT DATA TYPE ____
37. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as ______TRAVERSAL___
38. A linear list of elements in which deletion can be done from one end (front) and
insertion can take place only at the other end (rear) is known as a _____QUEUE_______
39. A sort which relatively passes through a list to exchange the first element with any
element less than it and then repeats with a new first element is called ___QUICK SORT__
40. The quick sort algorithm exploit _____ DIVIDE AND CONQUER ____ design technique
41. The data structure required to evaluate a postfix expression is _________STACK___
42. The data structure required to check whether an expression contains balanced
parenthesis is
_____ STACK _______
Digital Logic
1. To implement the expression AB'CD + ABC'D+ABCD', it takes one OR gate and ______2
AND gates__.
2. The number of control lines for a 8 – to – 1 multiplexer is ______3______
3. How many Flip-Flops are required for mod–16 counter? 4
4. The Gray code for decimal number 6 is equivalent to _____0101_______
5. The gates required to build a half adder are ___ X-OR GATE AND ONE AND
GATE_________
6. The device which changes from serial data to parallel data is ________ DEMULTIPLEXER
____
7. How many outputs are on a BCD decoder? 10
8. Which digital system translates coded characters into a more useful form? DECODER
9. How many inputs will a decimal-to-BCD encoder have? 10
10. What control signals may be necessary to operate a 1-line-to-16 line decoder? INPUT
FROM A HEXADECIMAL COUNTER
11. One multiplexer can take the place of: SEVERAL SSI LOGIC GATES OR COMBINATIONAL
LOGIC CIRCUITS
12. How many exclusive-NOR gates would be required for an 8-bit comparator circuit? 8
13. A BCD decoder will have how many rows in its truth table? 10
14. When two or more inputs are active simultaneously, the process is called: PRIORITY
ENCODING
15. A binary code that progresses such that only one bit changes between two successive
codes is: GRAY CODE
16. How many inputs are required for a 1-of-16 decoder? 4
17. Which of the following gate is a 2-level logic gate ____________
18. An AND gate will function as OR if ____________
19. An OR gate has 6 inputs. the number of input words in its truth table are
_______64_____
20. Excess-3 code is known as ___SELF COMPLIMENTING CODE OR REFLECTIVE
CODE_________
21. A Boolean function may be transformed into ____ LOGICAL DIAGRAM________
22. A binary variable can take values ______1 / 0 Or Yes / No______
23. Is it possible to find two algebric expressions that specify same function
_____YES_______
24. Any Boolean function can be represented in a _____EQUATION_______
25. Analysis of combinational circuits is ____________ (enables us to determine the
functions that the circuits implement.)
26. Connection from output to one of input gate is ____________
27. Truth table can directly be obtained from ___LOGIC DIAGRAM_________
28. 3x8 decoder will have ______3 INPUT LINES AND 8 OUTPUT LINES______
29. Parity checker is used for _____ ERROR DETECTING CODE OR DATA HAS BEEN
TRANSMITTED ACCURATELY._______
30. Decimal digits are displayed on ____________
Operating Systems
1. Paging is implemented in ____________
2. Page table length register (PLTR) indicates size of _____PAGE TBLE _______
3. When a thread waits indefinitely for some resource, but other threads are actually using
it is called as ________STARVATION____
4. The chunk of a memory is also known as _____WORKING MEMORY/FRAME_______
5. Command interpreter is also known as _____ SHELL._______
6. When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a special type of absolute loader called
__BOOTSTRAP LOADER___ is executed.
7. The primary job of the operating system is to ____MANAGE RESOURSES________
8. In which type of the following OS, the response time is crucial ____REAL TIME
OPERATING SYSTEM________
9. A program in execution is called _____PROCESS_______
10. A page fault occurs _______PAGE IS NOT FOUND IN MEMORY_____
11. Disk scheduling includes deciding _______ THE ORDER IN WHICH DISK ACCESS REQUEST
SHOULD BE MADE_____
12. Which scheduling policy is best suited for time-sharing operating systems
______ROUND ROBIN______
13. Dirty bit is used to show _____ PAGE THAT IS MODIFIED AFTER BEING LOADED IN THE
CACHE MEMORY_______
14. Semophores are used to solve the problem of _______ SYNCHRONIZATION
PROBLEMS_____
15. Problem of thrashing is affected significantly by ____PROGRAM STRUCTURE________
16. An entire path name, consisting of several sub-directory names can contain upto ____
63 CHARACTER________
17. Which file is the batch file that is read while booting a computer? AUTOEXEC.BAT
18. Which command be used to clear the screen and display the operating system prompt
on the first line of the display? CLS
19. To copy the hidden system files of DOS to another disk you can use the command
____SYS________
20. The deleted file in MS-DOS can be recovered if you use the command mention below
immediately, the command is: UNDELETE
21. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system : AT LEAST ONE RESOURCE MUST BE HELD
IN A NON SHARABLE MODE
22. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail : A PROCESS MUST BE HOLDING AT LEAST ONE
RESOURCE AND WAITING TO ACQUIRE ADDITIONAL RESOURCES THAT ARE BEING HELD BY
OTHER PROCESSES
23. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods : TO ENSURE THAT AT LEAST ONE OF THE
NECESSARY CONDITIONS CANNOT HOLD
24. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion : MUST EXIST
25. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion : IS NOT REQUIRED
26. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be
ensured that : ALL OF THESE.

27. the disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its
execution is : LOW RESOURCE UTILIZATION
28. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another
resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it : THEN ALL RESOURCES CURRENTLY
BEING HELD ARE PREEMPTED
29. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to : IMPOSE A TOTAL
ORDERING OF ALL RESOURCE TYPES AND TO DETERMINE WHETHER ONE PRECEDES
ANOTHER IN THE ORDERING
30. Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible?
MUTUAL EXCLUSION
HOLD AND WAIT
NO PREEMPTION
CIRCULAR WAIT
31. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system :
32.For a Hold and wait condition to prevail :
33. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods :
34.For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion :
35. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion :
36.To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be
ensured that ____
37.The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its
execution is : 38.To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and
requests another resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it :
39.One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to :
40.Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible?
DataBase Management Systems
1. A relation is in ...........3NF................ if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an
attribute of other composite key.
2. Fifth Normal form is concerned with _______ JOIN DEPENDENCY_____
3. A table is in the ..........BCNF............. if only candidate keys are the determinants.
4. In 2NF _____NO PARTIAL FUNCTIONAL DEPENDENCIES EXIST_______
5. The normal form that is not necessarily dependency preserving is _____2NF_______
6. The .......4NF.......... is related to the concept of multi-valued dependency.
7. Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design? 3NF
8. Dependency preservation is not guaranteed in _____BCNF_______
9. A relation is ..........1NF......... if every field contains only atomic values that is, no lists or
sets.
10. Tables in second normal form (2NF):
11. Which-one ofthe following statements about normal forms is FALSE?
12. Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on__KEY____
13. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and repetitive
groups: 3NF
14. Which of the following makes the transaction permanent in the database ? COMMIT
15. What are the ways of dealing with deadlock ? ALL OF THE MENTIONED
16. When transaction Ti requests a data item currently held by Tj , Ti is allowed to wait only
if it has a timestamp smaller than that of Tj (that is, Ti is older than Tj ). Otherwise, Ti is
rolled back (dies). This is WAIT-DIE
17. A lock that prevents the use of any tables in the database from one transaction while
another transaction is being processed is called a ____ DATABASE-LEVEL
LOCK ________
18. ____ISOLATION ___ means that data used during the execution of a transaction
cannot be used by a second transaction until the first one is completed.
19. Which of the following is not true about B+ trees?
PERFORMANCE OF B+ TREE DEGRADES AS THE FILE GROWS
20. DBMS periodically suspends all processing and synchronizes its files and journals
through the use of _____CHECKPOINT FACILITY_______
21. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class
database system? DATABASE APPLICATION AND THE DATABASE
22. The following are functions of a DBMS except ___ CREATING AND PROCESSING
FORMS_____ .
23. The different classes of relations created by the technique for preventing modification
anomalies are called: NORMAL FORMS.
24. Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a
row? KEY
25. Which type of entity cannot exist in the database unless another type of entity also
exists in the database, but does not require that the identifier of that other entity be
included as part of its own identifier? WEAK ENTITY
26. Which of the following refers to something that can be identified in the users' work
environment, something that the users want to track? ENTITY
27. Which one of the following symbols is not used in an ERD? CIRCLE
28. ON UPDATE CASCADE ensures which of the following? DATA INTEGRITY
29. When three or more AND and OR conditions are combined, it is easier to use the SQL
keyword(s): BOTH IN AND NOT IN.
30. If both data and database administration exist in an organization, the database
administrator is responsible for which of the following? DATABASE DESIGN
31. Which Process put increased pressure on testers ?
32. According to ISTQB Glossary , the word “bug” is synonymous with ____
DEFECT________
33. Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply
across the test life cycle ? TEST PRINCIPLES AFFECT ACTIVITIES THROUGHOUT
THE TEST LIFE CYCLE.
34. Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships
between testers and developers? EXPLAINING TEST RESULTS IN A NEUTRAL
FASHION.
35. Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to
enable which if the following test objectives ______PREVENTING DEFECTS IN THE
SYSTEM.______
36. According to ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following ? NEGATIVE
CONSEQUENCES THAT COULD OCCUR.
37. A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their
bill-paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to
putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing ? TO
BUILD CONFIDENCE IN THE APPLICATION.
38. Purpose is to discover errors and trying to discover ever conceivable fault or weakness in
a work product – given by ____________
39. Trace the correct order ____________
40. Purpose of traceability matrix ____________ TO ENSURE THAT ALL REQUIREMENTS
DEFINED FOR A SYSTEM ARE TESTED IN THE TEST PROTOCOLS.

Computer Architecture and Organisation

1. Memory unit accessed by content is called______ ASSOCIATIVE MEMORY_______
2. The amount of time required to read a block of data from a disk into memory is
composed of seek time, rotational latency, and transfer time. Rotational latency refers to
_____ THE TIME ITS TAKES FOR THE PLATTER TO MAKE A FULL ROTATION____
3. What characteristic of RAM memory makes it not suitable for permanent storage? IT IS
VOLATILE
4. Computers use addressing mode techniques for _______ ALL THE
ABOVE______________.
5. HEX(2FAOC) is equivalent to____ (001011111010 0000 1100)2_____
6. The idea of cache memory is based ___ ON THE PROPERTY OF LOCALITY OF
REFERENCE______
7. Which of the following is lowest in memory hierarchy? SECONDARY MEMORY
8. The addressing mode used in an instruction of the form ADD X Y, is ___INDEX ______
9. In a memory mapped I/O system, which of the following will not be there? LDA
10. Von Neumann architecture is ___ SISD ______
12. Cache memory acts between____CPU AND RAM _____
13. Generally Dynamic RAM is used as main memory in a computer system as it____HAS
HIGHER SPEED_____
14. Virtual memory consists of __STATIC RAM _______
15. In a program using subroutine call instruction, it is necessary___CLEAR THE
INSTRUCTION REGISTER______
16. Logic XOR operation of (4ACO) H & (B53F) H results FFFF
17. An n-bit microprocessor has ___ N-BIT INSTRUCTION REGISTER______
18. The main memory in a Personal Computer (PC) is made of __CACHE MEMORY AND
STATIC RAM_______
19. The circuit converting binary data in to decimal is___CODE CONVERTER______
20. A three input NOR gate gives logic high output only when__ ALL INPUT ARE
HIGH_______
21. The ALU make use of______ ACCUMULATORS _________ to store intermediate results
22. The instruction, Add #56,r1 _________
23. The DMA transfer is initiated by ___I/O DEVICES__
24. For a cache size of 16KB and a block size of 4 words (1 word= 4 bytes).calculate the
number of blocks in cache. 1024
25. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of the I/O device and the processor we
use___ STATUS FLAGS______
26. The time delay between two successive initiation of memory operation ____MEMORY
CYCLE TIME___ .
27. CPI of an ideal pipelined processor is ___1 clock cycle______
28. RISC(Reduced Instruction Set Computer) contains __microprocessors_______
29. A computer system has 356 instructions. What would be the width of the op-code field?
9 BITS
30. A computer “Comp” executes a program with 100 instructions. “Comp” is enhanced to
provide a speedup of 3 for a 50% of instructions in the program. What will be the overall
speedup achieved in the above scenario?