Classroom Management MCQs (Pedagogy)

1. The main purpose of the supervision of C. Helping teachers becoming more self sufficient
teaching should be the D. Criticizing teacher’s lessons
A. Advancement of pupil welfare Answer is C
B. Proper utilization of school facilities 9. The school policy should be determined by:
C. Carrying out of the curriculum A. The professional educators
D. Achievement of success in examination B. Headmasters
Answer is A C. Citizens d
2. Supervision should be primarily D. Citizens and educators
A. Privative and critical Answer is D
B. Preventive and corrective 10. The chief responsibility of the principal is
C. Constructive and creative A. Organize and administer the guidance
D. Construction and critical programmed
Answer is C B. Provide leadership in instructional plan
3. The basic purpose of supervision is to help C. Maintain school records
A. Teachers in improving methods D. Handle discipline problems
B. Teachers in understanding pupil Answer is B
C. Children learn more effectively 11. Indication of democratic attitude is
D. Teachers in dealing pupils A. Equal rights
Answer is C B. Participation
4. The elementary school teachers are directly C. Cooperation
responsible to the D. All of the above
A. Headmaster Answer is D
B. Deo 12. The history of administration goes back to
C. Parents A. 5000 BC
D. Students B. 4000BC
Answer is A C. 800BC
5. The criticism most frequently leveled at school D. 1000BC
administration is that: Answer is A
A. They like praise 13. Administration means
B. They are to lazy A. To look after
C. They fail to provide leadership B. To protect
D. They do not know teacher C. To run
Answer is C D. To establish
6. The school headmaster are expected to Answer is A
A. Put into operation the course of study 14. The function of educational administration
B. Hold daily meetings and management is
C. Prepare the budget A. Instructional tasks
D. All of the above B. Non instructional tasks
Answer is A C. Both a and b
7. A supervisor is one who D. None
A. Provides friendly help Answer is C
B. Inspects classrooms 15. Provision of good educational environment is
C. Gives directions A. Instructional tasks
D. Criticizes the teaching method B. Non instructional tasks
Answer is A C. Both a and b
8. The effective supervision is indicated by D. None
A. Good relations between teacher and supervisors Answer is A
B. Helping teacher in their teaching
16. Arrangement of physical resources is 24. Respect of opinion is the feature of
A. Instructional tasks A. Instructional administration
B. Non instructional tasks B. Authoritarian administration
C. Both C. Democratic administration
D. None D. Laissez Faire administration
Answer is B Answer is C
17. The main types of administration are 25. Sense of responsibility is not cared in
A. 2 A. Instructional administration
B. 3 B. Authoritarian administration
C. 6 C. Democratic administration
D. 9 D. Laissez Faire administration
Answer is B Answer is D
18. Which is not the type of administration 26. Literal meaning of supervision is
A. Instructional administration A. Superior knowledge and power
B. Authoritarian administration B. Superior knowledge and service
C. Democratic administration C. Superior efforts and services
D. Laissez Faire administration D. None of these
Answer is A Answer is A
27. Supervision is not to control the teacher but
19. Which is not the characteristic of to work cooperatively is the
authoritative administration saying of
A. Rudeness A. Glatthorn
B. Suppression the subordinates B. Hoy and Forsyth
C. Strict discipline C. Harris
D. Sharing D. Glickman
Answer is D Answer is B
20. Authoritative administration is based on 28. In teaching learning process supervision is
A. Dictatorship usually carried out by
B. Mutual sharing A. Principal
C. Non interference B. Teacher
D. None C. Parents
Answer is A D. Society
21. Democratic administration is based on Answer is A
A. Dictatorship 29. Assessment of how well a school is
B. Mutual sharing performing is
C. Non interference A. Administration
D. None B. Supervision
Answer is B C. Inspection
22. Laissez Faire administration is based on D. All of the above
A. Dictatorship Answer is C
B. Mutual sharing 30. According to Fayol, elements of
C. Non interference administration are
D. None A. 4
Answer is C B. 5
23. Boss is right is the feature of C. 5
A. Instructional administration D. 2
B. Authoritarian administration Answer is B
C. Democratic administration
D. Laissez Faire administration
Answer is B
31. According to Gulick and Urwick, elements of 36. Non development budget includes
administration are A. Salaries
A. 7 B. Running expenditures
B. 5 C. Maintenance of building
C. 8 D. All of the above
D. 9 Answer is D
Answer is A 37. New Libraries laboratories etc are
constructed under
A. Development Budget
30. In POSDCORB CO stands for B. Non development budget
A. Cooperation C. Both a and b
B. Collection D. None
C. Coordinating Answer is A
D. Correlation 38. Leadership is the ability
Answer is C A. To influence
31. To make arrangements is the part of B. To motivate
A. Planning C. To achieve organizational goals
B. Organizing D. All of the above
C. Commanding Answer is D
D. Coordinating 39. Staff development means
Answer is B A. Recruiting staff
32. Execution of plans and decisions is the part B. Training staff
of C. Increasing staff
A. Planning D. Decreasing staff
B. Organizing Answer is B
C. Commanding 40. Selecting one course of action among various
D. Coordinating alternatives is
Answer is C A. Planning
33. To bring harmony among all the elements of B. Organizing
program is C. Decision making
A. Planning D. Coordinating
B. Organizing Answer is C
C. Commanding 41. Who is called father of scientific management
D. Coordinating theory
Answer is D A. Fredrick Tylor
34. School Budget includes B. Henry Fayol
A. Development expenditure C. Terry and Franklin
B. Non development expenditure D. Elton Meo
C. Both an and b Answer is A
D. None of a and b 42. Who is the father of operational management
Answer is C theory
35. BM stands for A. Fredrick Tylor
A. Budget Money B. Henry Fayol
B. Budget Monitoring C. Terry and Franklin
C. Budget Materials D. Elton Meo
D. Budget Manual Answer is B
Answer is D
43. All Govt. grants and expenditures are 50. In case of new recruitment the probation
maintained in period is
A. Cash Register A. 3 Years
B. Acquittance Roll B. 5 Years
C. Stock Register C. 8 Years
D. Contingent Register D. 9 Years
Answer is A Answer is A
44. In case of GPF advance , the number of 51. The power delegated throughout an
installments for refunding is organization is
A. 24 A. Control
B. 32 B. Command
C. 65 C. Decentralization
D. 41 D. Centralization
Answer is A Answer is C
45. Developing alternatives is a step of 52. The father of modern theory of management
A. Organization is
B. Planning A. Tyler
C. Direction B. Hery Fayol
D. Control C. Max Weber
Answer is B D. Gullick
46. How funds in a given period will be obtained Answer is B
and spent is 53. The smallest interacting parts of a systems
A. Allocation are
B. Expenditure A. Input
C. Budget B. Component
D. Receipt C. Structure
Answer is C D. Feed back
47. Types of supervision encouraging variety , Answer is B
originality and independent 54. Which pension is granted to civil servant who
experimentation is retires in the age of sixty
A. Preventive A. Superannuation
B. Corrective B. Invalid
C. Creative C. Retiring
D. Construction D. Compensation
Answer is C Answer is A
48. Who advocated bureaucratic theory
A. Campbell
B. Herzberg
C. Henry Fayol
55. All financial transaction of the school
D. Max Weber
occurring from day to day is entered
Answer is D
in
A. Cash Book
B. Stock Register
49. Directing must be consistent with C. Service Book
A. Organizational policies D. Log Book
B. Procedures Answer is A
C. Job descriptions
D. All of the above
Answer is D
56. The process of directing others, towards the 63. Teacher salaries and allowances collectively
accomplishment of some are written in
objectives is A. Cash Register
A. Communication B. Acquaintance Roll
B. Managing C. Contingent Register
C. Leadership Answer is A
D. None 64. To motivate the other to achieve certain goals
Answer is B is
57. Micro planning is done in A. Planning
A. Top Management B. Leading
B. Middle Management C. Controlling
C. Lower Management D. Organizing
D. Middle and Lower Management Answer is B
Answer is D 65. A program of activities which is designed to
58. The ACR cannot be initiated for the period of attain educational ends is
less than A. Learning
A. Two months B. Curriculum
B. Three months C. Instruction
C. Five months D. Syllabus
D. Four months Answer is B
Answer is B 66. Superannuation retirement age in Pakistan is
59. The individual in the group given the task of A. 60 Years
directing and coordinating is B. 65 Years
A. Leader C. 75 Years
B. Supervisor D. 80 Years
C. Instructor Answer is A
D. Guide 67. Pension is given if the retirement is after
Answer is B service of
60. A choice made between two or more A. 25 years
alternative is called B. 30 years
A. Assumption C. 45 years
B. Decision D. 50 years
C. Reporting Answer is A
D. None 68. Person who possesses qualities of leadership
Answer is B is
A. Leader
61. The cash book in maintained by B. Manager
A. DDO C. Administrator
B. EDO D. Officer
C. DEO Answer is A
D. Dy.DEO 69. The process of making judgment is called
Answer is A A. Budgeting
62. Authoritarian model is more suitable for B. Evaluation
A. Confidence C. Demonstration
B. Improvement D. Documentation
C. Achievement Answer is B
D. Discipline
Answer is D
70. The characteristics of good planner are 78. Acquitance roll is used for
A. Optimistic A. Salary disbursement
B. Motivator B. Stock
C. Producer C. Govt . grants
D. All of them D. Expenditures
Answer is D Answer is A
71. What does E and D Rules mean 79. The degree to which organizational resources
A. Efficiency and duty rules contribute to productivity is
B. Efficiency and department rules A. Effectiveness
C. Efficiency and discipline rules B. Efficiency
D. Efficiency and discipline rules C. Out put
Answer is C D. Production
72. A.D.P is an abbreviation of Answer is B
A. Annual development programme 80. All transaction should be entered in which
B. Annual duty programme register
C. Annual division of performance A. Fee
D. Annual debating programme B. Cash
Answer is A C. Funds
73. The power is concentrated in the hands of D. With drawl
one or few people in Answer is B
A. Control
B. Command
C. Decentralization
D. Centralization
81. Coordinating , stimulating and directing the
Answer is D
growth of teacher is the
74. What is central to administration purpose of
A. Organization A. Administration
B. Communication B. Inspection
C. Decision making C. Supervision
D. Coordination D. Management
Answer is C Answer is B
75. In POSDIR, R stands for 82. The concept of inspection was first
A. Reporting introduced in
B. Response reply A. Pakistan
C. Representing B. India
D. Directing C. England
Answer is A D. China
76. S.N.E is an abbreviation of Answer is C
A. Schedule of new experience 83. Budgeting is an estimation of
B. Schedule of new entry A. Income and investment
C. Schedule of new expenditure B. Investment
D. System of new entry C. Income and expenditure
Answer is B D. All of the above
77. The level of school administration can best be Answer is C
judged through
A. Head teacher
B. Beautiful building
C. Learning out comes
D. Teachers students relations
Answer is C
84. The authorized person of staff performance 90. A formal and systematic procedure of getting
is information is?
A. Teacher A. Test
B. Head teacher B. Measurement
C. Student C. Assessment
D. Clerk D. Evaluation
Answer is B Answer is A
85. PPSC MCQs Solved Sample Paper Of 91. The process of obtaining numerical value is?
Headmaster / Deputy Headmaster A. Test
Instrument used for measuring sample of B. Measurement
behavior is? C. Assessment
A. Test D. Evaluation
B. Measurement Answer is B
C. Assessment 92. A sum of questions is?
D. Evaluation A. Test
Answer is A B. Measurement
86. Limited to quantitative description of pupil’s C. Assessment
performance is? D. Evaluation
A. Test Answer is A
B. Measurement 93. The first step in measurement is?
C. Assessment A. Decision of what to measure
D. Evaluation B. Development of the test
Answer is B C. Administering the test
D. None
87. The purpose of the evaluation is to make? Answer is A
A. Decision 94. The purpose of formative evaluation is?
B. Prediction A. Decision of what to measure
C. Judgment B. Development of the test
D. Opinion C. Administering the test
Answer is C D. Monitoring progress of students
88. The purpose of evaluation is to make Answer is D
judgment about educational? 95. To assess achievement at the end of
A. Quantity instruction is?
B. Quality A. Placement Assessment
C. Time period B. Formative Assessment
D. Age C. Summative Assessment
Answer is B D. Diagnostic Assessment
89. Evaluation that monitors learning progress Answer is C
is? 96. Vast of all in scope?
A. Placement evaluation A. Test
B. Formative evaluation B. Measurement
C. Diagnostic evaluation C. Assessment
D. Summative evaluation D. Evaluation
Answer is B Answer is D
97. The least in scope is?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer is A
98. Permanent difficulties in learning are 105. Discrimination value of more than 0.4
investigated in? means
A. Placement Assessment A. Item is good
B. Formative Assessment B. Item is acceptable
C. Summative Assessment C. Item is weak
D. Diagnostic Assessment D. None
Answer is D Answer is B
99. Broader in meaning is? 106. Test involving the construction of certain
A. Aims patterns are called?
B. Objectives A. Intelligence test
C. Instructional objectives B. Performance tests
D. Specific Objectives C. Scholastic test
Answer is A D. None
100. Procedures used to determine person Answer is B
abilities is?
A. Maximum performance test
B. Typical performance test 107. In multiple choice items the stem of the
C. Norm performance test items should be?
D. Criterion performance test A. Large
Answer is A B. Small
101. In norm referenced test the comparison is C. Meaningful
between? D. None
A. Groups Answer is C
B. Individuals 108. Which appropriate verb will you use to
C. Areas make an objective behavioral?
D. Interest A. To know
Answer is B B. To appreciate
102. In which question marking will be more C. To understand
reliable? D. To construct
A. Completion Answer is D
B. Short answer 109. Objectives representing the purposes of
C. Multiple choice question instruction of a teacher are called?
D. Essay A. Performance
Answer is C B. Instructional
103. Facility value of less than 0.20 means? C. Attainment
A. Item is too easy D. None
B. Item is difficult Answer is B
C. Item is acceptable 110. Running description of active behavior of a
D. Item is easy student as observed by the
Answer is B teacher is?
104. Objective type question have advantage A. Anecdotal record
over essay type because such B. Autobiography
questions? C. Interview
A. Are easy to prepare D. None
B. Are eay to solve Answer is A
C. Are easy to mark
D. None
Answer is C
111. A test very popular with class room teacher 118. In a norm referenced test which item is
is? best?
A. True false test A. Item difficulty is near zero
B. Multiple choices B. Item difficulty is near 100
C. Matching C. Item difficulty is near 70
D. Completion test D. Item difficulty is near 50
Answer is B Answer is D
112. Frequently used tools of summative
evaluation are?
A. Test 119. Which question has increasing objectivity of
B. Teacher observation marking?
C. Daily assignment A. Unstructured essay
D. None B. Structured essay
Answer is A C. Short answer
D. Multiple type questions
113. The most commonly used guessing Answer is D
correction formula to predict and 120. The most widely used format on
control is? standardized test in USA is?
A. S=R-W A. Unstructured essay
B. S=R-W/N-1 B. Structured essay
C. S=R-w/2-1 C. Short answer
D. None D. Multiple type questions
Answer is B Answer is D
114. The summative evaluation is? 121. Which questions are difficult to mark with
A. Diagnostic reliability?
B. Certifying judgment A. Unstructured essay
C. Continuous B. Structured essay
D. None C. Short answer
Answer is B D. Multiple type questions
115. The difference between maximum and Answer is A
minimum values is? 122. Projective techniques are used to measure?
A. Mean A. Aptitude
B. Mode B. Intelligence
C. Range C. Knowledge
D. None D. Personality
Answer is C Answer is D
116. The number of score lying in a class interval 123. Test meant for prediction on a certain
is? criterion are called?
A. Mid Point A. Aptitude test
B. Quartile B. Intelligence
C. Class C. Knowledge
D. Frequencies D. Personality
Answer is D Answer is A
117. A multiple choice question is compose of 124. Kuder Richardson method is used to
question referred as? estimate?
A. Stem A. Reliability
B. Destructor B. Validity
C. Foil C. Objectivity
D. Response D. Usability
Answer is A Answer is A
125. Value that divides the data into two equal 132. The alternative name of the table of
parts is? spectification is?
A. Mean A. Test Blue Print
B. Median B. Test Construction
C. Mode C. Test Administration
D. None D. Test Scoring
Answer is B Answer is A
126. The test measures what we intend to 133. Table of specification helps in?
measure. This quality of the test is A. Test development
called? B. Test Construction
A. Reliability C. Test Administration
B. Validity D. Test Scoring
C. Objectivity Answer is A
D. Usability 134. The supply type test item is?
Answer is B A. True / False items
127. The length of a test is an important factor in B. Matching items
obtaining a representative? C. M.C.Q items
A. Mean D. Completion items
B. Median Answer is D
C. Mode 135. Alternative response item is?
D. Sample A. True / False items
Answer is D B. Right / wrong
128. Median of 1,2,4,5,2,3, is ? C. Correct / incorrect
A. 2 D. All above
B. 5 Answer is D
C. 3.5 136. How many columns matching items have?
D. None A. One
Answer is C B. Two
129. The test made to compare the performance C. Four
of student with the other D. Five
students is called? Answer is B
A. Criterion reference 137. The item in the column for which a match is
B. Norm reference sought is?
C. Achievement A. Premise
D. None B. Response
Answer is B C. Destructor
130. The summative evaluation is used? D. None
A. At the end of the program Answer is A
B. At the middle of the program 138. Identifying relationship between two things
C. At the start of the program is demonstrated by?
D. None A. True / False items
Answer is A B. Matching items
131. The appearance of normal curve resembles C. M.C.Q items
with? D. Completion items
A. U Answer is B
B. Bell
C. V
D. None
Answer is B
139. The statement of problem in MCQs is? 146. Which one is not the type of test of test by
A. Premise purpose?
B. Response A. Standardized Test
C. Stem B. Essay Type Test
D. None C. Objective type test
Answer is C D. Norm referenced test
140. The correct option in M.C.Q is? Answer is B
A. Answer 147. The type of the test by method is?
B. Premise A. Standardized Test
C. Response B. Essay Type Test
D. Destructor C. Objective type test
Answer is A D. Norm referenced test
141. The incorrect options in M.C.Q are? Answer is C
A. Answer 148. Student’s performance is compared with
B. Premise other students in?
C. Response A. Standardized Test
D. Destructor B. Essay Type Test
Answer is D C. Objective type test
142. The most widely applicable test item is? D. Norm referenced test
A. True / False items Answer is D
B. Matching items 149. Student performance is compared with
C. M.C.Q items clearly defined learning tasks in?
D. Completion items A. Standardized Test
Answer is C B. Essay Type Test
143. The type of essay item in which contents are C. Criterion reverenced test
limited is? D. Norm referenced test
A. Restricted Response Questions Answer is C
B. Extended Response Questions 150. Test that measure learning outcome of
C. Matching items students is
D. M.C.Q items A. Achievement test
Answer is A B. Aptitude test
144. The ability to select organize, integrate and C. Criterion reverenced test
evaluate ideas is demonstrated D. Norm referenced test
by? Answer is A
A. Restricted Response Questions
B. Extended Response Questions
C. Matching items
D. M.C.Q items
151. The tests designed to predict future
Answer is B
performance is?
145. The Analysis of items is necessary in? A. Achievement test
A. Standardized Test B. Aptitude test
B. Essay Type Test C. Criterion reverenced test
C. Objective type test D. Norm referenced test
D. Norm referenced test Answer is B
Answer is A
152. The founder of modern intelligent tests was?
A. Alfred Binet
B. Stern
C. Gulford
D. None
Answer is A
153. The formula to determine I.Q was presented 159. The quality of test to give same scores when
by? administered at different
A. Alfred Binet occasions is?
B. Stern A. Validity
C. Gulford B. Differentiability
D. None C. Objectivity
Answer is B D. Reliability
154. I.Q of a student having same physical and Answer is D
mental age will be? 160. If the sample of the question in the test is
A. 100 sufficiently large enough, the
B. 120 quality of test is?
C. 50 A. Adequacy
D. 140 B. Differentiability
Answer is A C. Objectivity
155. The I.Q of a student having twelve years D. Reliability
mental age and tem years physical Answer is A
age will be? 161. The quality of test showing ease of time,
A. 100 cost, administration and
B. 120 interpretation is called?
C. 50 A. Usability
D. 140 B. Differentiability
Answer is B C. Objectivity
156. The quality of test that measures what it D. Reliability
claims to measure is? Answer is A
A. Validity 162. Facility index of an item determines?
B. Differentiability A. Ease or difficulty
C. Objectivity B. Discrimination power
D. Reliability C. Objectivity
Answer is A D. Reliability
Answer is A
163. High and low achievers are sorted out by?
157. The characteristic of a test to siscriminate A. Ease or difficulty
between high achievers and low B. Discrimination power
achievers is? C. Objectivity
A. Validity D. Reliability
B. Differentiability Answer is B
C. Objectivity 164. Test item is acceptable which its faculty
D. Reliability index /difficulty level ranges from?
Answer is B A. 30-70 %
158. If the scoring of the test is not effected by B. 70 %
any factor, quality of test is C. 30%
called? D. None
A. Validity Answer is A
B. Differentiability
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is C
165. Test item is very easy when value of faculty
index/ difficulty level is higher
than?
A. 30-70 %
B. 70 %
C. 30%
D. None
Answer is B
166. Test item is very difficult when value of
facility index/ difficulty level is less
than?
A. 30-70 %
B. 70 %
C. 30%
D. None
Answer is C
167. Discrimination power of an item is
acceptable when its value ranges from?
A. 0.30 – 1
B. 1
C. 0.30
D. None
Answer is A
168. Test item discriminates 100% when its value
for discrimination is?
A. 0.30 – 1
B. 1
C. 0.30
D. None
Answer is B
169. Test item cannot discriminate low achievers
and high achievers when its
value is lower than?
A. 0.30 – 1
B. 1
C. 0.30
D. None
Answer is C