SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

1. Hysteresis is the phenomenon in the magnetic circuit by which

a) H lags behind B b) B lags behind H
c) B & H are always same d) setting up a constant flux is done

2. The following figure shows the connection of an ideal transformer with primary to secondary
turn’s ratio of 1:100. The applied primary voltage is 100v (rms), 50H Z, AC. The rms value of
the current I, In ampere, is ………….

a) 15A b) 10A c) 18A d) 20A

3. A 200v/100v, 50HZ transformer is to be excited at 40 HZ from 100v side. For the exciting
current to be the same, the applied voltage should be.
a) 150v b) 80v c) 100v d) 125v

4. A single-phase transformer rated for 220/240v, 50HZ operates at no load at 220v, 40HZ. This
frequency operation at rated voltage results in which one of the following?
a) increase of both eddy-current and hysteresis losses.
b) reduction of both eddy-current and hysteresis losses.
c) reduction of hysteresis loss and increase in eddy-current
d) increase of hysteresis loss and no change in the eddy-current loss

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Both voltage source inverter and current source inverter require feedback diodes.
2. only current source inverter requires feedback diodes.
3. GTOs cannot be used in a current source inverter.
4. only voltage source inverter requited feedback diodes.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2&3 c) 3&4 d) 4only

6. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to

a) reduce the total harmonic distortion with modest filtering
b) minimize the load on the DC side
c) increase the life of the batteries
d) reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics

7. For a step-down d.c. chopper operating with discontinuous load current, what is expression
for the load voltage? (K is ratio of chopper)
𝑉 𝑉
a) 𝑉0 = 𝑉𝑑𝑐 × 𝐾 b) 𝑉0 = 𝑑𝑐⁄𝐾 c) 𝑉0 = 𝑑𝑐⁄(1 − 𝐾 ) d) 𝑉0 = 𝑉𝑑𝑐 (1 − 𝐾 )

8. In the circuit shown, an ideal switch S is operated at 100kH Z with a duty ratio of 50%. Given
that is ∆𝑖𝑐 1.6 A peak-to-peak and I0 is 5A dc, the peak current in S is

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 1|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

a) 6.6A b) 5.0A c) 5.8A d) 4.2A

9. A freewheeling diode in phase-controlled rectifiers

a) enables inverter operation b) is responsible for additional reactive power
c) improves the line power factor d) is responsible for additional harmonics

10. In the circuit of adjacent figure the diode connects the ac source to a pure inductance L. The
diode conducts for

a) 90° b) 180° c) 270° d) 360°

𝑑𝑖
11. The reverse recovery time of a diode is 6𝜇𝑠 rate of fall 𝑑𝑡 is 30 𝐴⁄𝜇𝑠. The stored charge of the
diode is a) 45µsb) 135µs c) 270µs d) 540µs

12. Turn on time of an SCR can be reduced by using a

a) rectangular pulse of high amplitude and narrow width
b) rectangular pulse of low amplitude and wide width
c) triangular pulse d) trapezoidal pulse

13. A thyristor can be switched from a non-conducting state to a conducting state by applying:
𝑑𝑣
1. Voltage more than forward break over voltage 2. A voltage with high 𝑑𝑡
3. positive gate current with positive anode voltage
4. negative gate current with positive anode voltage
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

14. A voltmeter gives 180 oscillations per minute when connected to the rotor of an induction
motor. The stator frequency is 60HZ. The slip of the motor is
a) 2% b) 2.5% c) 4% d) 5%

15. Which of the following parameters in an induction motor influences the magnetizing
reactance to the maximum extent
a) axial length of the rotor stack b) axial length of the stator stack
c) radial length of air gap d) no. of slots on the stator

16. The voltage actually used for setting up of the useful flux in the air gap of a 3-phase induction
motor is a) =applied voltage b) >applied voltage
c) <applied voltage d) =rotor induced EMF

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 2|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

17. The phase sequence of a three-phase alternator will reverse if

a) The field current is reversed keeping the direction of rotation same
b) The field current remains the same but the direction of rotation is reversed
c) The field current is reversed and the number of poles is doubled
d) The number of poles is doubled without reversing the field current

18. Hydro-generators are generally employed to run at ----------rpm.

a) 500 b) 1000 c) 1500 d) 3000

19. A 4-pole generator is running at 1800rpm. The frequency and time period of the emf
generated in its coils are respectively
a) 50HZ , 0.02sec. b) 40HZ, 0.025sec. c) 60HZ, 0.0166sec d) 2400HZ, 1/2400sec.

20. Which one of the following methods would give a higher than actual value of regulation of an
alternator?
a) ZPF method b) MMF method c) EMF method d) ASA method

21. The speed-torque characteristics of a series motor is a/an

a) straight line with +ve slope b) parabola
c) straight line passing through original d) Hyperbola

22. A triangular mmf wave is produced in the air gap of an electric machine. Such a wave is
produced by
a) stator of an induction machine b) rotor of a synchronous machine
c) stator of a dc machine d) rotor of a dc machine

23. In dc machines, the field-flux axis and armature-mmf are respectively along
a) direct axis and indirect axis b) direct axis and inter-polar axis
c) quadrature axis and direct axis d) quadrature axis and inter polar axis

24. In a DC generator with lap connected winding, the number of brushes required is equal to
a) always equal to zero b) number of pairs of poles
c) half the number of poles d) number of poles

25. 𝑜𝑙𝑑
𝑍𝑝𝑢 is the per unit impedance on the power base 𝑆𝐵𝑜𝑙𝑑 and voltage base 𝑉𝐵𝑜𝑙𝑑 . What would be
the per unit impedance on the new power base 𝑆𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑤 and voltage base 𝑉𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑤 ?
2 2
𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝐵 𝑆 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑉 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑜𝑙𝑑
𝑛𝑒𝑤
𝑆𝐵 𝑉 𝑜𝑙𝑑
a) 𝑍𝑝𝑢 = 𝑍𝑝𝑢 [𝐵 ] . b) 𝑍𝑝𝑢 = 𝑍𝑝𝑢 [𝑉𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑤 ] .
𝑆 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑉 𝑜𝑙𝑑
𝐵 𝐵 𝑆𝐵𝑜𝑙𝑑
𝐵
𝑛𝑒𝑤
𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑆𝐵 𝑉𝐵𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑆𝐵𝑜𝑙𝑑
𝑉𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑤
c)𝑍𝑝𝑢 = 𝑍𝑝𝑢 𝑜𝑙𝑑 [ ]. d) 𝑍𝑝𝑢 = 𝑍𝑝𝑢 [ 𝑉 𝑜𝑙𝑑 ].
𝑆𝐵 𝑉𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑛𝑒𝑤
𝑆𝐵 𝐵

26. If a combination of HRC fuse and a circuit breaker is employed, the circuit breaker operates
for a) short-circuit current. b) low over load currents.
c) under all abnormal currents d) the combination is newer employed in practice.

27. ACSR is used in place of copper in over head lines because of

a) higher current carrying capacity b) being lighter in weight
c) economy d) higher tensile strength

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 3|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

28. Which type of insulators are used on 132kv transmission lines?

a) pin type b) disc type c) shackle type d) pin & shackle type

29. The diameter of each strand is d then the diameter of n-layer stranded conductor will be
a) (2n+1)d b) 3(n+1)d c) (2n-1)d d)3(n-1)d

30. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Ice on conductors increases skin effect. b) Wind pressure reduces corona effect.
c) Wind pressure is taken to act at perpendicular to that for ice.
d) Ice on conductors reduces sag.

31. Gross head of an hydroelectric power station is

a) the difference of water level between the level in the storage and tail race.
b) the height of water level in the river where the tail race is provided.
c) the height of water level in the river where the storage is provided.
d) all of the above.

32. Hydrograph is similar to

a) load duration curve b) mass curve
c) energy load curve d) chronological load curve

33. The average load factor of thermal power plant in INDIA is

a) 39.9 b) 49.9 c) 59.9 d) 60.91

34. In a thermal power plant, the feed water coming to the economizer is heated using
a) HP steam b) LP steam c) direct heat in the furnace d) flue gases

35. Calorific value of coal largely depends upon

a) ash content b) size of coal particles c) moisture content d) volatile matter

36. The artificial draught is usually designed to produce

a) more draught b) less smoke c) low temperature of chimney gas d) all

37. Graphite is used in nuclear power plant as a

a) fuel b) coolant c) moderator d) electrode

38. A CANDU reactor uses

a) highly enriched uranium as fuel and light water as moderator and coolant
b) natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as moderator and coolant.
c) enriched uranium as fuel and ordinary water as moderator and cooler.
d) only fertile material.

39. Gas cooled reactor

a) uses CO2 or helium as coolant and graphite as the moderator
b) uses coolant at pressure of 14-28kg/cm2 and at temperature of 700-8000C
c) uses heavy water as coolant as well as moderator.
d) both a & b

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 4|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

40. The injection of VARs is required to

a) compensate for line losses b) get a good voltage profile
c) increase the voltage at the receiving end d) all of the above

41. The incremental cost characteristics of two generators delivering a total load of 200MW are
as follows:
𝑑𝐹1 𝑑𝐹2
=2.0+0.01P 1 =1.6+0.02P2
𝑑𝑃1 𝑑𝑃 2
What should be the values of P1 and P2, for economic operation?
a) P1=P2=100MW b) P1=80MW, P2=120MW
c) P1=200MW, P2=0 d) P1=120MW, P2=80MW

42. Which of the following heating element can give the highest temperature in resistance heating
a) nichrome b) Silicon carbide c) Copper d) Nickel-Cr-Fe alloy

43. In a resistance furnace, the atmosphere is

a) Oxidizing b) Deoxidizing c) Reducing d) Neutral

44. The voltage used for the main railways is

a) 600-750v b) 750-1500v c) 1500-3000v d) 15kv

45. Quadrilateral speed-time curve is the close approximation for

a) urban service b) suburban service
c) urban/suburban service d) main line service

46. The value of the coefficient of the adhesion will be high when rails are
a) wet b) cleaned with sand c) greased d) sprayed with oil

47. Specific energy consumption becomes

a) more when the distance between the spots is more
b) more with the higher values of acceleration (or retardation)
c) more with high train resistance d) less with the increase in crest speed

48. In the circuit shown, the power supplied by the voltage source is

a) 5w b) 10w c) 100w d) 0w

49. For the circuit shown in the figure, the Thevenin’s equivalent voltage (in volts) across
terminals a-b is

a) 8v b) 20v c) 15v d) 10v

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 5|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

50. Consider the following properties of a particular network theorem:

1. The theorem is not concerned with type of elements
2. The theorem is only based on the two Kirchoff’s laws
3. The reference directions of the branch voltages and currents are arbitrary except that they
have to satisfies Kirchoff’s laws.
Which one of the following theorem has the above characteristics?
a) Thevenin’s theorem b) Norton’s theorem
c) Tellegen’s theorem d) Super position theorem

51. An AC source is delivering power to a complex load ZL=4+j3. The maximum power is
transferred if the source impedance is
a) 4Ω b) (4-j3) Ω c) j3 Ω d) (4+j3) Ω

52. If a unit step current is passed through a capacitor what will be the voltage across the
capacitor a) 0 b) a step function
c) a ramp function d) an impulse function

53. For the network shown below, the current i(t) is

a) 2𝑒 −2(𝑡−3) 𝑢(𝑡 − 3) b) 0.5𝑒 −2(𝑡−3) 𝑢(𝑡)

c) 2𝑒 −(𝑡−3) 𝑢(𝑡 − 3) d) 2𝑒 −(𝑡−3) 𝑢(𝑡)

54. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

𝑅2 1
a) A series RLC circuit over damped when 4𝐿2 > 𝐿𝐶
b) The unit of the real part of the complex frequency is neper/sec
c) If F(s) is the Laplace Transform of f(t) then f(s) and f(t) are known as inverse functions
d) If f(t) and its first derivative are Laplace Transferrable then the initial value of f(t) is given
by lim 𝑓(𝑡) = lim 𝑆𝐹(𝑠)
𝑡→0 𝑠→∞

55. What is the expression for h12 in respect of the network shown below

𝑍 −𝑍 𝑍 +𝑍 𝑍 +𝑍 𝑍 −𝑍
a) 𝑍2 +𝑍1 b) 𝑍1 −𝑍2 c) 𝑍1 −𝑍2 d) 𝑍1 +𝑍2
1 2 2 1 1 2 1 2

56. In the case of ABCD parameters, if all the impedances in the network are doubled, then
a) A, B, C, and D are doubled. b) A &D remain unchanged, C is halved and ‘D’ is doubled.
c) A and B are doubled, C and D are uncharged.
d) A and D are unchanged, C is doubled and ‘B’ is halved.

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 6|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

57. Introduction of integral action in the forward path of a unity feedback system results in a
a) Marginally stable system b) System with no steady state error
c) System with increased stability margin d) System with better speed of response.

58. A closed loop system has the characteristics equation given by

S3+kS2+ (k+2)s+3=0 for this system to be stable, which one of the following conditions
should be satisfied.
a) 0<k<0.5 b) 0.5<k<1 c) 0<k<1 d) k>1

59. The gain Margin of a unity feedback control system with the open loop transfer function
(𝑠+1)
𝐺 (𝑠) = 𝑠 2 is a) 0 b) 1⁄ c) √2 d) ∞
√2

60. The transfer function of two compensators are given below

10(𝑠+1) 𝑠+10
𝐾1 = (𝑠+10)
, 𝐾2 = 10(𝑠+1). Which of the following statement is correct?
a) k1 is a lead compensator and k2 is a lag compensator
b) k1 is a lag compensator and k2 is a lead compensator
c) both are lead compensators d) both are lag compensators

61. Two identical first order systems have been cascaded non-inter actively. The unit step
response of the system will be
a) over damped b) under damped c) Undamped d) critical damped

62. The inter section of Asymptotes of root loci of a system with open-loop transfer function.
𝐾
𝐺 (𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 𝑆(𝑆+1)(𝑆+3) is a) 1.44 b) 1.33 c) -1.44 d) -1.33

1
63. The phase angle for the transfer function 𝐺 (𝑠) = (1+𝑠𝑇)3 at corner frequency
a) -450 b) -900 c) -1350 d) -2700

64. The system derived by the following state equations

0 1 0
𝑋̇ = [ ] 𝑋 + [ ] 𝑢, 𝑌 = [1 1]𝑋 is
2 −3 1
a) is completely controllable and completely observable
b) is not controllable c) is not observable d) none

65. An advantage of a permanent magnet moving coil instrument is that it is

a) free from friction error b) has low (torque/weight of the moving parts) ratio
c) has high (torque/weight of the moving parts) ratio d) can be used on both AC and DC

66. A DC ammeter has a resistance of 0.1Ω and its current range is 0-100A. If the range is to be
extended to 0 – 500A, then meter requires the following shunt resistance
a) 0.010 Ω b) 0.011 Ω c) 0.025 Ω d) 1.0 Ω

67. Match the following

List-I List-II
A) resistance in the milliohm range i. Schering bridge
B) low values of capacitance ii. Kelvin double bridge

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 7|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

C) Comparison of resistances which are nearly equal iii. Hay’s bridge

D) Inductance of the coil with a large time constant iv. Carey-foster bridge
a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv),D-(iii) d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

68. A Potentiometer is basically.

a) deflection as well as null type instrument b) Null type instrument
c) deflection type instrument d) A digital instrument

69. A stationary closed lissajous pattern on an oscilloscope has 3 horizontal tangencies and 2
vertical tangencies for a horizontal input with frequency 3kH Z. The frequency of the vertical
input is a)2kHZ b) 1.5kHZ c) 4.5kHZ d) 3kHZ

70. A metal strain guage has guage factor of two, it’s normal resistance is 120Ω
It under goes a strain of 10 -5, the value of change of resistance in response to the strain is
a) 240 b) 2 × 10−5 Ω c) 2.5 × 10−3 Ω d) 1.2 × 10−3 Ω

71. A cascade of three identical modulo-5 counters has an overall modulus of

a) 625 b) 25 c) 5 d) 125

72. The no. of comparisons carried out in a 4bit flash type A/D converter is
a) 16 b) 4 c) 15 d) 3

73. The output ‘f’ of the 4 to 1 MUX shown in fig is

a) X+Y b) X-Y c) X.Y d) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅

𝑋+𝑌

74. The minimum no. of NAND gates required to implement NOR gate is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

75. The current through the Zener diode in the given circuit is

a) 33mA b) 3.3mA c) 2mA d) 0mA

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 8|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

76. In an R-C coupled common Emitter Amplifier Which of the following is true
a) both coupling and by pass capacitances affect the high frequency response
b) coupling capacitance affects the low frequency response and by pass capacitance effects
the low frequency response
c) coupling capacitance effects the low frequency response and by pass capacitance affects the
high frequency response
d) both coupling & by pass capacitance affect the low frequency response

77. The nature of feedback in the op-amp circuit shown is

a) voltage-current feedback b) current-voltage feedback

c) voltage-voltage feedback d) current-current feedback

78. In a Microprocessor, the address of the next instruction to be excuted, is stored in

a) stack pointer b) Address latch c) program counter d) general purpose register

79. Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt

a) TRAP b) INTR c) RST7.5 d) RST3

80. A Hartley oscillator is used for generating

a) very low frequency oscillation b) radio frequency oscillation
c) micro wave oscillation d) Audio-frequency oscillation

81. His early years in/journalism coincided to/ the authoritarian phase/of the ruling congress
a) His early years in b) journalism coincided
c) The authoritarian phase d) no error

82. Don’t look ………… on him

a) by b) for c) on d) down

83. I ……………….. a song at the concert yesterday

a) am singing b) sung c) sang d) will sing

84. He was born into …………………. Poor family

a) a b) an c) the d) none

85. Which country is hosting the 2017 Asia-pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC) summit?
a) India b) Indonesia c) Vietnam d) Malaysia

86. Which committee has constituted by the union Government to continuously monitor the
solutions to air pollution?
a) Bhure lal committee b) Sumitha Narain Committee
c) C.K. Mishra Committee d) Harsh Vardhan committee

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 9|P a ge

 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST- 15 (100Marks, 2Hrs)

87. Who has won the 2017 women’s singles National Badminton championship?
a) PV sindhu b) prajakta sawant c) Shriyanshi d) saina nehwal

88. Which among the following is/are false?

1. For qualifying to the loksabha, a person must be at least 25 years of age
2. A person can be a member of both Loksabha and Rajyasabha
3. A person belong to scheduled caste (or) schedule Tribe can contest elections from a general
seat also, and not just for the reserved seat
4. If a member of either of the houses votes against the directions given by his party, he can
be deemed to be disqualified. a) only b) only 2&4 c) only3 d) only2

89. How many days are there in X weeks X days?

a) 7X2 b) 14X c) 8X d) 7

90. A Library has an Average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average
number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is
a) 250 b) 276 c) 280 d) 285

91. How much does a watch lose per day if its hands coincide every 64 minutes.
8 5
a) 32 11 𝑚𝑖𝑛 b) 36 11 𝑚𝑖𝑛 c) 90min d) 96min

92. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percentage?
2 1
a) 66 3 b) 100 c) 105 3 d) 120

93. Etunagaram wild life sanctuary situated in the district of

a) Karimnagar b) Warangal c) Khammam d) Ranga Reddy

94. What is the literacy rate in Telangana

a) 59.11% b) 66.46% c) 69.26% d) 72.08%

95. Which town in Telangana is called “Coal Town in South India”

a) Ramagundem b) Bellampalle c) Kothagudem d) Siddippet

96. Kuntala water fall is located in which district?

a) Mahabubnagar b) Warangal c) Adilabad d) Khammam

97. Where is RAM is located?

a) Expansion Board b) External drive c) Mother Board d) All the above

98. Full form of URL is a) Uniform resource link b) uniform registered link
c) unified resource link d) Uniform resource locator

99. Where the saved files stored in computer.

a) RAM b) Hard disk c) Cache d) Any of the above

100. Which type of software is an operating system?

a) unity software b) system software c) Application software d) Firm ware software

SAIMEDHA Hyderabad | Tirupati | Vijayawada | Cell : 9494941234 , www.saimedha.com 10 | P a g e