BIT BANK 2019

SIDDHARTH INSTITUTE OF ENGINEERING &TECHNOLOGY:: PUTTUR

ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATON ENGINEERING
WIRELESS COMMUNICATION
BITBANK

UNIT –I
INTRODUCTION TO WIRELESS COMMUNICATIONS

1. 3G W-CDMA is also known as [ ]

A) UMTS B) DECT
C) DCS-1800 D) ETACS
2. Commonly used mode for 3G networks is [ ]
A) TDMA B) FDMA
C) TDD D) FDD
3. The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is [ ]
A) 5MHz B) 2MHz
C) 500 KHz D) 100 KHz
4. CDMA2000 1xEV provides high speed data access with channel allocation of [ ]
A) 5MHz B) 50 MHz
C) 1.25 MHz D) 4MHz
5. In TD-SDMA, there is a frame of __milliseconds and the frame is divided into ___ time slots. [ ]
A) 5, 7 B) 7, 5
C) 2, 5 D) 5, 2
6. The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by [ ]
A) Assigning different group of channels B) using transmitters with different power level
C) Using different antennas D) All of the above
7. Radio capacity may be increased in cellular concept by [ ]
A) Increase in radio spectrum B) increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
C) both a and b D) None of the above
8. The shape for the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is [ ]
A) Circular B) Square
C) Oval D) Hexagon
9. Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because [ ]
A) It uses the maximum area for coverage B) Fewer number of cells is required
C) It approximates circular radiation pattern D) All of the above
10. Centre excited hexagonal cells use [ ]
A) Sectored directional antennas B) Omni directional antennas
C) Yagiuda antennas D) None of the above
11. Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is [ ]
A) The traffic carried by whole network
B) The traffic carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area of a cell.
C) Expressed in Erlang /MHz /km2
D) both b) and c)
12. The advantage of using frequency reuse is [ ]
A) Increased capacity B) same spectrum may be allocated to other network
C) Limited spectrum is required D) All of the above
13. The strategies acquired for channel assignment are [ ]
A) Fixed B) Regular

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 1

 BIT BANK 2019

C) Dynamic D) both a) and b)

14. In a fixed channel assignment strategy, if all the assigned channels are occupied, the call [ ]
A) Gets transferred to another cell B) Is kept on waiting
C) Gets blocked D) All of the above
15. In a fixed channel assignment strategy [ ]
A) Each cell is assigned a predetermined set of frequencies
B) The call is served by unused channels of the cell
C) The call gets blocked if all the channels of the cell are occupied
D) All of the above.
16. In a dynamic channel assignment strategy, [ ]
A) Voice channels are not permanently assigned
B) The serving base station requests for a channel from MSC
C) MSC allocates the channel according to the predetermined algorithm
D) All of the above
17. Advantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is [ ]
A) Blocking is reduced B) Capacity of the system is increased
C) both a) and b) D) None of the above
18. Disadvantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is [ ]
A) More storage required B) Calculations and analysis is increased
C) Both a) and b) D) None of the above
19. The total number of duplex channels C, can be used as a measure of capacity and is given by [ ]
A) C = M/N B) C= MN
C) C = M k N D) C = Mk/ N
20. In Handoff [ ]
A) Process of transferring the call to the new base station B) transfers the call
C) New channel allocation is done D) All of the above
21. Delay in handoffs is caused due to [ ]
A) Week signal conditions B) Unavailability of the channel
C) High traffic conditions D) All of the above
22. Inter system Handoffs are done [ ]
A) When mobile station moves in two cellular systems with different MSC
B) When mobile station moves between two cellular systems
C) When mobile station receives more power from other base station than the serving BS
D) All of the above.
23. When a fraction of assigned channel is reserved for handoffs, it is [ ]
A) Guard channel concept B) Dynamic channel assignment
C) Fixed channel assignment D) None of the above
24. While handoffs, the termination of call may be avoided by [ ]
A) Providing Guard channel B) both a) and b)
C) Queuing of handoffs D) None of the above
25. Dwell time is the time for [ ]
A) A call within the cell B) waiting for channel allocation
C) Hand off D) none of the above
26. Dwell time depends upon [ ]
A) Interference B) Distance between the subscriber and the base station
C) Propagation of call D) All of the above
27. In Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO), the handoff takes place when [ ]
A) The power received by the mobile station from other base station > the serving base station

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 2

 BIT BANK 2019

B) The channel allocated is not available

C) The mobile station has no signal
D) All of the above
28. Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO) provides [ ]
A) Faster handoffs B) MSC need not monitor the signal strength
C) Suitability for frequent handoffs D) All of the above.
29. Trunking in a cellular network refers to [ ]
A) Termination of a call
B) Spectrum unavailability
C) Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
D) All of the above
30. When all of the radio channels are in use in a trunking system [ ]
A) The user is blocked B) The queue may be provided
C) The access to the system is denied D) All of the above
31. Umbrella cell approach [ ]
A) Uses large and small cells
B) Uses different antenna heights
C) Used for high speed users with large coverage area & low speed users with small coverage area
D) All of the above.
32. Interference in cellular systems is caused by [ ]
A) Two base stations operating in same frequency band
B) Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
C) Leakage of energy signals by non-cellular systems into cellular frequency band
D All of the above
33. Interference in frequency bands may lead to [ ]
A) Cross talks B) Blocked calls
C) Missed calls D) All of the above
34. Co- channel reuse ratio depends upon [ ]
A) Radius of the cell B) Distance between the centers of the co channel cells
C) Frequency allocation of nearest cells D) both a) and b)
35. Increase in Co- channel reuse ratio indicates [ ]
A) Better transmission quality B) larger capacity
C) Low co-channel interference D) both a) and c)
36. Grade of service refers to [ ]
A) Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
B) Ability of a user to access trunked system during busy hour
C) Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
D) High speed users with large coverage area
37. Traffic intensity is expressed in [ ]
A) Erlangs /MHz /km2 B) λ/ sec.
C) Erlangs D) dB/sec
38. The techniques used to improve the capacity of cellular systems are [ ]
A) Splitting B) Coverage zone approach
C) Sectoring D) All of the above
39. What is intersystem handoff? [ ]
A) During a course of a call B) Soft & hard handoff
C) Hard handoff D) none of the above
40. Which type of handoff used in CDMA? [ ]

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 3

 BIT BANK 2019

A) Soft handoff B) Soft & hard handoff

C) Hard handoff D) none of the above

SIDDHARTH INSTITUTE OF ENGINEERING &TECHNOLOGY:: PUTTUR

ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATON ENGINEERING
WIRELESS COMMUNICATION
BITBANK

UNIT –II
Mobile Radio Propagation

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 4

 BIT BANK 2019

1. What is the source for performance degradation? [ ]

A) Thermal noise B) Man-made noise C) Natural noise D) All
2. The received power is attenuated by a factor called [ ]
A) Path loss B) Free space loss C) Both A) and B) D) Kinetic loss
3. Scintillation describes the fading caused by [ ]
A) Atmospheric changes B) Physical changes C) Thermal noise D) Propagating effects
4. Large scale fading refers to the attenuation in [ ]
A) Amplitude B) Phase C) Signal power D) None of the above
5. Small scale refers to changes in [ ]
A) Amplitude B) Phase C) frequency D) Time
6. Small scale fading manifests due to [ ]
A) Signal dispersion B) Time variant behavior C) Scattering D) None
7. The parameters used to describe large scale fading are [ ]
A) Reference distance B) Path loss exponent
C) Standard deviation of random variable D) All of the above
8. Small scale fading occurs due to [ ]
A) Doppler spread B) Time delay C) doppler shift D) rms delay
9. What are the types of small scale fading that occurs due to Doppler shift? [ ]
A) Slow fading B) Fast fading C) Rayleigh fading D) Ricean fading
10. The effective isotropic radiated power is defined as [ ]
A) PtGt B) PtGr C) PtPr D) PrGt
11. Fading is caused due to [ ]
A) Multi path propagation B) Obstacles
C) Frequency variations at the source D) Variation in amplitude and phase at receiver
12 Coherence time refers to [ ]
A) Time required to attain a call with the busy base station
B) Time required for synchronization between the transmitter and the receiver
C) Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
D) None of the above
13. Fading is due to shadowing is [ ]
A) Fading due to large obstructions
B) Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
C) Small coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
D) Both A) and B)
14. Deep fade is [ ]
A) Strong destructive interference B) Drop in signal to noise ratio
C) Temporary failure of message transfer D) Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
15. Doppler spread refers to [ ]
A) Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel B) Temporary failure of message transfer
C) Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints D) All of the above

16. Coherence time is [ ]

A) Directly proportional to Doppler spread B) Indirectly proportional to Doppler spread
C) Directly proportional to square of Doppler spread D) Directly proportional to twice of Doppler spread
17. Small scale multipath propagation is caused due to waves with [ ]
A) Different propagation delays B) Different amplitudes
C) Different phase D) None of the above
WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 5
 BIT BANK 2019

18. The effects of small scale propagation are [ ]

A) Changes in signal strength B) Random frequency modulation
C) Time dispersion D) All of the above
19. Impulse response of a multipath channel is determined by the fact that [ ]
A) Mobile radio channel may be modeled as linear filter B) Impulse response is time varying
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
20. The received signal from a multipath channel is expressed as [ ]
A) convolution of transmitted signal and impulse response
B) addition of transmitted signal and impulse response
C) subtraction of transmitted signal and impulse response
D) none of the above
21. Direct RF pulse system helps in calculating [ ]
A) impulse response in frequency domain B) impulse response in phase domain
C) power delay of the channel D) all of the above
22. The techniques used for small scale multipath measurements are [ ]
A) Direct RF pulse system B) Spread spectrum sliding correlator channel sounding
C) Frequency domain channel sounding D) All
23. The power delay profile helps in determining [ ]
A) Excess delay B) rms delay spread C) excess delay spread D) all of the above
24. Coherence Bandwidth is [ ]
A) channel that passes all spectral components with equal gain B) the bandwidth of modulated signal
C) channel that passes all spectral components with linear phase D) both A) and C)
25. Types of small scaling based on Doppler spread are [ ]
A) Fast fading B) Frequency non selective fading
C) Flat fading D) Frequency selective fading
26. Flat fading or frequency non selective fading is a type of [ ]
A) Multipath delay spread small scale fading B) Doppler spread small scale fading
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
27. In frequency selective fading, the [ ]
A) Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is less than bandwidth of transmitted channel
B) Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is more than bandwidth of transmitted channel
C) Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is equal to bandwidth of transmitted channel
D) None of these
28. If coherence time of the channel is smaller than the symbol period of the transmitted signal,
it is [ ]
A) Fast fading B) Slow fading
C) Frequency selective fading D) Frequency non selective fading
29. The purpose of a Repeater is [ ]
A) to amplify B) to attenuate C) to reradiate D) to store
30. The natural phenomenon caused by reflected and scattered propagation paths is [ ]
A) Fading B) scattering C) delay spread D) reflection
31. The parameters that describe the time varyinh nature of the channel in the small scale region are
[ ]
A) Doppler spread, Coherence time B) Doppler spread, mean excess delay
C) Coherence time & mean excess delay D) Doppler spread & Bandwidth
32. The angle at which no reflection occurs in the medium of origin is called [ ]
A) Acute angle B) Brewester angle C) Triangle D) None
33. The multipath channel parameters that can be determined from a power

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 6

 BIT BANK 2019

delay profile are [ ]

A) mean excess delay B) rms delay spread C) excess delay spread D) All
34. The phenomenon of Diffraction is explained by _____________ [ ]
A) Huygens principle B) Alberts principle C) Friis space equation D) None
35. The small scale variations of a mobile radio signal can be directly related to [ ]
the _________________ of the mobile radio channel.
A) Step response B) Impulse response C) Rayleigh distribution D) None
36. Processing Gain, PG is given by [ ]
A) 2Rc/Rbb B) 2Tbb/Tc C) 2Rc/2Tbb D) Both A) and B)
37. Doppler spread, BD is given by [ ]
A) Vfc/C B) VC/fc C) VTc/2 D) None
38. _____________ is used to characterize the channel in the frequency domain [ ]
A) Bandwidth B) Delay spread C) Coherence Bandwidth D) None
39. A signal undergoes Slow fading if [ ]
A) Ts<<Tc & Bs>> Bd B) Ts ==Tc & Bs >> Bd
C) Ts <<Tc & Bs == Bd D) Ts >>Tc & Bs << Bd
40. A signal undergoes frequency selective fading if [
]
A) Bs>Bc & Ts<στ B) Bs=Bc & Ts<στ C) Bs>Bc & Ts=στ D) Bs<Bc & Ts<στ

SIDDHARTH INSTITUTE OF ENGINEERING &TECHNOLOGY:: PUTTUR

ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATON ENGINEERING
WIRELESS COMMUNICATION
BITBANK
UNIT-III
EQUALIZERS AND DIVERSITY TECHNIQUES
1) ISI Refers [ ]
A) Intermodal System Interference B) Intramodal System Interference
C) Inter symbol Interference D) Inter System Interference
2) Channel coding improves the small-scale link performance by adding [ ]

A) Result Data Bits B) Input Data Bits

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 7
 BIT BANK 2019

C) Output Data Bits D) Redundant Data Bits

3) How many types of channel Codes [ ]
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
4) In equalization f* (t) denotes [ ]
A) Conjugate of F(T) B)Fourier Transform of F(T)
C) Laplace Transform of F(T) D) Complex Conjugate of F(T)
5) The output of the equalizer d^ (t) is [ ]

A)X(n) + nb(n) heq (n) B) X(n) g(n) + nb(n) heq (n)

C) X(n) + nb(n) D) X(n) + nb(n) heq (n)
6) In a communication Receiver equalizers have prediction error as [ ]
A) e(n) = d(n) – [ x(n) + nb(n) heq (n) ] B) e(n) = d(n) – [ x(n) g(n) + heq (n) ]
C) e(n) = d(n) – [x(n) g(n)+ nb(n) heq (n) ] D) e(n) = d(n) – [ g(n) + heq (n) ]
7) In survey of Equalization LTE denotes [ ]
A) Linear time Equalizer B) Linear transversal Equalizer
C) Life time Equalizer D) Linear tapped Equalizer
8) The mean squared Error in a Communication Receiver denotes as [ ]
2
A) E [│e (n)│ ] B) E [ │e(n)│]
C) E [│e (n)│4] D) √ (e(n)).
9) In a linear Equalizer C n* denotes [ ]
A) Coefficient of filter B) Constant
C) Complex filter coefficient D) Complex conjugate coefficient
10) In a linear Equalizer F ( ejωT) denotes [ ]
A) Frequency of input B) Channel response frequency
C) Complex frequency D) Instantaneous frequency.
11) How many nonlinear methods used in 2G and 3G systems? [ ]
A) 4 B) 3
C) 2 D) 5.
12) What is rate of Convergence in Algorithm of Adaptive Equalization [ ]
A) Number of Constants Required For the Algorithm
B) Number of Redundant Required For the Algorithm
C) Number of Iterations Required For the Algorithm
D) Number of Calculations Required For the Algorithm.
13) In LMS Algorithm ‘α ‘ denotes [ ]
A) Constant B) Input Value
B) C) Output Value D) Step Size
14) In DFE what denotes ‘FFF’ [ ]
A) Fast Forward Filter B) Finite Forward Filter
C) Feed Forward Filter D) Frequency Forward Filter.
15) In LMS Gradient DFE the number of multiply operations is [ ]
A) N+1 B) 2N+1
C) N – 1 D) 2N-1
16) In Kalman RLS the number of multiply operations is [ ]
A) 2 N2 + 4N B) 4N2 + 4N
C) 2 N2 + 4.5 N D) 2.5 N2 + 4.5N
17) In RLS the Wn* denotes [ ]
A) Gain Vector B) Constant
C) Optimal Vector D) Optimal Tap Gain Vector.

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 8

 BIT BANK 2019

18) A Fractionally spaced equalizer is based on [ ]

A) Sampling of Incoming Signal by Nyquist Rate
B) Sampling of Incoming Signal by Bit Rate
C) Incoming Signal with Rate
D) Output Rate.
19) What is ‘Г ‘in the Diversity Techniques [ ]
A) Constant B) Vector
C) Mean SNR of Each Branch D) Output Rate
20) In diversity techniques the ‘ γM’ is given by [ ]
A) γM = rM / 2 NT B) γM = rM 2 / 2 NT
C) γM = rM 2 / NT D) γM = rM 4 / 2 NT .
21) In polarization Diversity the average value of signal loss ‘L’ [ ]
A) L = (a/ x +b) B) L = (a2/ x +b)
C) L = (a/ x2 +b) D) L = (a2/ x +b2)
22) In a RAKE receiver the range of delays that a particular correlator can search is called [ ]
A) Output Window B) Input Window
C) Search Window D) Opening Window
23) In a RAKE receiver the overall gain Z1 is given by [ ]
A) Z1 = m=1ΣM αm B) Z1 = m=1ΣM αm Zm
C) Z1 = m=1ΣM Zm D)) Z1 = m=1ΣM αm / Zm.
24) In Maximal Ratio Combining the signals from all of the M branches are weighted according to[ ]
A) Combined Signal Voltage to Noise Power Ratio
B) Individual Signal Voltage to Noise Power
C) Partial Signal Voltage to Noise Power Ratio
D) None of the Above.
25) Maximal Ratio Combining produces [ ]
A) Output SNR = Sum of Combining SNR’s B) Input SNR = Sum of Individual SNR’s
C) Output SNR = Sum of Individual SNR’s D) Input SNR = Sum of Combining SNR’s
26) In Maximal Ratio Combiner the detector having input as [ ]
A) Zm B) αm
C) γM D) Gm
27) Maximal Ratio Combiner gives [ ]
A) Best Statically Reduction of Fading Any Known Linear Diversity Combiner
B) Best Statically Reduction of Fading Any Unknown Linear Diversity Combiner
C) Best Statically Reduction of Fading Any Known Nonlinear Diversity Combiner
D) Best Statically Reduction of Fading Any Unknown Nonlinear Diversity Combiner
28) The equal Gain Combining [ ]
A) The Signals Are One By One Received On Each Branch.
B) The Signals Are Simultaneously Received On Each Branch.
C) The Signals Are Combined Received On Each Branch.
D) The Signals Are Individually Received On Each Branch.
29) In equal Gain Combining the branch weights are all set to [ ]
A) α B) 0
C) 1/2 D) Unity.
30) In a RAKE receiver the αm denotes [ ]
A) αm = Zm2 / m=1ΣM Zm2 B) αm = Zm / m=1Σ M
Zm2

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 9

 BIT BANK 2019

C) αm = Zm D) αm = Zm2
31) The total noise power NT is given by [ ]
M M
A) NT = N i=1Σ Gi2 B) NT = i=1Σ Gi2
C) NT = N Gi2 D) NT = i=1ΣM Gi
32) In RLS the ‘λ’ denotes [ ]
A) Coefficient B) Constant
C) Wavelength of Signal D) Coefficient of Weighting
33) In Switching Diversity Method it is applicable in to [ ]
A) DPSK B) BPSK
C) PSK D) QPSK
34) Which type of Oscillator in Switching Diversity Method? [ ]
A) Colpitt’s Oscillator B) Bridge Oscillator
C) Hartely Oscillator D) Free-Running Oscillator
35) By Switching Diversity Method it is applicable in to [ ]
A) DPSK B) BPSK
C) PSK D) QPSK
36) For VHF, UHF and microwave/mobile radio applications which diversity is not suitable? [ ]
A) Maximal-ratio B) Equal-gain
C) both a and b D) Switching Method.
37) In low-speed, large-deviation digital FM which method is used. [ ]
A) Switching Diversity B) Maximal-ratio
C) Equal-gain D) both a and b
38) Most frequently used diversity technique in wireless communication systems. [ ]
A) Maximal-ratio B) Switching or Selection
C) Equal-gain D) Polarization diversity
39) Which diversity is simple and economically implemented in cheap? [ ]
A) Polarization-Diversity B) Maximal-Ratio
C) Space Diversity D) Equal-Gain
40) Space- diversity reception methods can be classified in to how many categories? [ ]
A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5
SIDDHARTH INSTITUTE OF ENGINEERING &TECHNOLOGY:: PUTTUR
ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATON ENGINEERING
WIRELESS COMMUNICATION
BITBANK
UNIT-IV
MULTI CARRIER MODULATION

1) In Data transmission using Multiple Carriers the number of stream is chosen to make symbol time on
each sub stream much------------------- the delay spread of the channel. [ ]
a) Equals b) Less than c) Greater than d) 0
2) In multicarrier transmitter the data rate for each with Sub channel [ ]
a) RN = N/R b) RN = R N c) RN = N + R d) RN = R/N
3) In multicarrier transmitter the bit stream is divided in N Sub stream via [ ]
a) Parallel to Serial Converter c) Both a and b
b) Serial to Parallel Converter d) None of the above
4) In transmitted signal s(t) = I = 0∑N-1si g(t) Cos (2πfit + φ i) ‘ Si ‘denotes [ ]

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 10

 BIT BANK 2019

a) Constant b) Symbol c) Complex Symbol d) Complex conjugate

5) The channel gain ‘αi’ = ----------------- [ ]
a) αi = |H (fi )| b) αi = H (fi ) c) αi = |H (f (t))| d) αi = H f (t)
6) Total required bandwidth for non-overlapping sub channels is [ ]
a) B = N ( 1-β-e)/ TN b) B = N ( 1+β+e)/ TN c) B = N ( 1+β+e) TN d) B = N TN
7) The total system bandwidth with overlapping Sub channels is [ ]
a) B = TN b) B = TN / N c) B = TN N d) B = N / TN
8) In multicarrier system β denotes [ ]
a) Multiple factor b) Constant c) roll off factor d) null factor
9) The received SNR is γi = ------------------ [ ]
2 2
a) γi = αi PI /N0 BN b) γi = αi PI /N0 BN c) γi = αi PI /N0 d) γi = αi PI /N0
10) In frequency Equalization the flat fading ( αi ) on the ith sub channel is basically ------------in the
receiver. [ ]
a) Multiplied b) Converted c) Inverted d) Cancel
11) In frequency equalization the resultant signal power is [ ]
a) Pi b) Pi2 c) Pi +1 d) Pi<1
12) The N-point DFT of X [n] is defined as [ ]
(2πni)/ N 2 (2πN)/n
a) DFT {X[n] }= x[i] Δ1/(√N) X[n] e c) DFT{X[n] } = x[i] Δ1/ (N ) X[n] e i
b) DFT {X[n] } = x[i] Δ 1/(N) X[n] e (2π)/ N d) DFT{X[n] } = x[i] Δ(√N) X[n] e (2πni)/ N
13) The y [n] of Discrete Time Convolution of the input of the channel impulse response is [ ]
a) y [n] = k ∑ h[k] b) y [n] = k ∑h[k]X[k] c)y [n] = k∑ h[k] X[n-k] d) y[n] = k ∑ X [n-k]
14) The N-point circular Convolution of X[n] and h[n] is defined as [ ]
a) y [n] = k ∑ h[k] X [n-k] N c) y [n] = k ∑ X [n-k]
b) y [n] = k ∑ h[k] X [n-k] d) y [n] = k ∑ h[k]
15) In a Cyclic Prefix the DT channel length µ +1 = [ ]
a)TM b) TM TS c) TM + TS d) TM /TS
16) In a Cyclic Prefix rate of reduction [ ]
a) N/ µ +N b) N( µ +N) c) N( µ N) d) µ N
17) In OFDM the input data _______in to blocks of size N refers to as an OFDM symbol [ ]
a) Multiplied b) added c) divided d) Subtracted
18) A cyclic prefix ____________to each OFDM Symbol to induce circular Convolution of the input
and channel impulse response [ ]
a) Multiplied b) added c) divided d) Subtracted
19) What is the benefit of Cyclic Prefix [ ]
a) Reduction of Size b) accurate c) Cost d) fast result.
20) In OFDM Transmitter______________converter is used at input section [ ]
a) Parallel to Serial b) Serial to Parallel c) Digital to Analog d) Analog to Digital
21) In OFDM receiver _______________ converter is used at input section [ ]
a) Parallel to Serial b) Serial to Parallel c) Digital to Analog d) Analog to Digital
22) In receiver of OFDM the ________________type of demodulation is done [ ]
a) QAM b) PAM c) PCM d) PTM
23) For Continuous Time OFDM the frequency equalization having noise is scale by [ ]
a) H (i) b) 1+ H (i) c) 1/ H (i) d) 1- H (i)
24) In Matrix Representation of OFDM the V[n] denotes [ ]
a) Input b) output c) noise d) result of matrix
25) What is the matrix form of OFDM [ ]
a) Y = Hx- V b) Y = Hx/V c) Y = Hx d) Y = Hx+ V
26) In Matrix Representation of OFDM ‘A’ denotes [ ]

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 11

 BIT BANK 2019

a) Matrix of Eigen values of H҃ c) Eigen values of H҃

b) Diagonal matrix of Eigen values of H҃ d) values of H҃
27) The DFF operation of x[n] can be represented by the matrix multiplication [ ]
a) Y = Qx b) Y = Q/x c) X = Qx d) X = Q/x
28) If ‘V’ eigenvector of H’ and λ is Eigen value then [ ]
a) λ = H b) λ V= H c) λ = H V d) λ V= H V
29) The Singular value of decomposition of ‘H’ can be written as [ ]
a) H = Σ VH b) H =U Σ VH c) H = U d) H = U Σ V
30) In vector coding the filter transmitted vector is [ ]
a) X = V b) X = V+1 c) x= V X d) x= V +X
31) In vector coding the filter received vector is [ ]
a) Y = UHy b) Y = UH-1 y c) Y = UH + y d) Y = UH - y

32) In vector coding ‘H ‘ is obtained by appending ‘μ’ extra symbols to each block of N data symbols these
are called_______________ [ ]
a) Vectors b) Multiple vectors c) vector code words d)code words
33) The complexity of finding the SVD of the N X ( N + μ ) matrix H ________with N [ ]
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Multiplied d) divided
34) In H = U Σ VH ‘Σ’ denotes [ ]
a) Diagonal Matrix b) Matrix c) Value of Matrix d)SUM
35) The data rate of Adaptive loading [ ]
a) R = BN b) R = BN iiγi<γkΣ log (γi) c)R = BN iiγi>γkΣ log (γi/ γk)
b) R = BN b) R = BN iiγi<γkΣ log (γi) d) R = BN + 1
36) In Adaptive loading the ‘γk’ denotes [ ]
a) Cutoff fade length b) constant c) multiplier d) Cutoff value
37) The capacity for Adaptive loading [ ]
a) C = iiγi>γ0Σ BN c) C = iiγi>γ0Σ BN log (γi/ γ0 )
b) C = iiγi>γ0Σ BN log (γi) d) C = iiγi>γ0Σ BN
38) The X[n] for Known h[n] is Cyclic Prefix is [ ]
a) X[n] = IDFT { Y(I) } c) X[n] = DFT { Y(I) }
b) X[n] = IDFT { Y(I)/ H [I] } d) X[n] = DFT { Y(I)/ H [I] }
39) The ISI is eliminated by this condition in data transmission [ ]
a) BN = BC b) BN>> BC c) BN<< BC d) BN>BC
40) The symbol time ‘ TN’ in data transmission [ ]
a) TN = (1+ β) BN b) TN = (1+ β)/ BN c) TN = β BN d) TN = β/BN

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 12

 BIT BANK 2019

SIDDHARTH INSTITUTE OF ENGINEERING &TECHNOLOGY:: PUTTUR

ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATON ENGINEERING
WIRELESS COMMUNICATION
BITBANK
UNIT-V
WIRELESS NETWORKING

1. The type of access used in GSM technology is [ ]

A) TDMA B) CDMA C) FDMA/TDMA D) OFDMA
2. The accessing technique that shares the bandwidth in Time is [ ]
A) TDMA B) CDMA C) FDMA/TDMA D) OFDMA
B) ATM is a ______________ technique [ ]
A) Synchronous B) multiplexing C) demultiplexing D) none
4. ATM stands for [ ]
A) Asynchronous transfer mode B) Asynchronous timing mode
C) Automated transfer mode D) none
5. An example of shared mobile data network is [ ]

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 13

 BIT BANK 2019

A) ARDIS B) CDPD C) SS7 D) CDMA 2000

6. Radio LAN operates in [ ]
A) 8.89GHz B) 5.89GHz C) 6.7GHz D) 9.1GHz
7. LAN that operates at ISM band is [ ]
A) SSLAN B) CSLAN C) SILAN D) ISLAN
8. FCS stands for [ ]
A) Frame cyclic sequence B) Frame check series
C) Frame check sequence D) Frame cyclic series
9. SSAP contains ___________ number of bits [ ]
A) 7 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8
10. STA services consist of ______________ [ ]
A) Privacy B) authentication C) deauthentication D) all
11. Typical coverage area of wireless LAN has a diameter of [ ]

A) 30-40m B) 60-70m C) 100-300m D) 100-150m

12. IR data transmission uses ________ modulation [ ]

A) Intensity B) amplitude C) frequency D) phase

13. Direct sequence spread spectrum(DSSS) is allocated as_____ [ ]

A) FDMA B) TDMA C) CDMA (D) SDMA

14. SDP stands for [ ]

A) Source discovery protocol B) source data protocol

C) Service data protocol D) service discovery protocol

15. The lowest defined layer of Bluetooth specification is [ ]

A) Base band B) Bluetooth radio C) RF COMM D) none

16. Wireless LAN operates at [ ]

A) Physical layer B) network layer

C) Data link layer D) Physical layer & Data link layer

17. Wireless LAN uses which protocol….. [ ]

A) IEEE 802.11 B) IEEE 802.1.1

C) IEEE 802 D) IEEE 802.1.1.3

18. .LAN protocol architecture consists of how many layers [ ]

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 14

 BIT BANK 2019

19. If I/G= 0 [ ]

A) Individual B) group C) interfacing D) gateway

20. The combination of both DSAP & SSAP values forms [ ]

A) LLC field B) MAC control C) I/G D) CRC

21. The sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such as Walsh tables is [ ]

A) TDMA B) CDMA C) FDMA D) TDMA

22. Duplexing that provides two distinct bands of frequencies is [ ]

A) FDD B) SDMA C) FDMA D) TDMA

23. TDMA is a multiple access technique that has [ ]

A) Different users in different time slots
B) Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
C) Each user is assigned a unique code sequence
D) Each signal is modulated with frequency modulation technique
24. In TDMA, the user occupies the __________ bandwidth during transmission. [ ]
A) whole B) half C) 3/4 D) none
25. TDMA allows the user to have [ ]
A) Use of same frequency channel for same time slot
B) Use of same frequency channel for different time slot
C) Use of same time slot for different frequency channel
D) Use of different time slot for different frequency channel
26. GSM is an example of [ ]
A) TDMA cellular systems B)FDMA cellular systems
C) CDMA cellular systems D) SDMA cellular systems
27. TDMA is employed with a TDMA frame that has preamble. The preamble contains Address of
base station and subscribers [ ]
A) Synchronization information B) Frequency allotted
C) Coded sequence D) ESN
28. CDMA is [ ]
A) Spread spectrum technology
B) Using same communication medium
C) every user stays at a certain narrowband channel at a specific time period
D) each user has unique PN code
29. Global Positioning System uses [ ]
A) CDMA B) TDMA C) SDMA D) FDMA
30. CDMA is advantageous over other Spread Spectrum techniques for [ ]
A) The privacy due to unique codes B) It rejects narrow band interference
C) Resistance to multi path fading D) Its ability to frequency reuse
31. The wide band usage in CDMA helps in [ ]
A) Increased immunity to interference B) Increased immunity to jamming
C) Multiple user access D) Different spectrum allocation in different time slots

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 15

 BIT BANK 2019

32. The advantages of using a CDMA technique over other spread spectrum techniques are [ ]
A) Increased capacity B) Easier handoff
C) Better measure of security D) Multiple users occupy different spectrum at a time
33. FHMA is [ ]
A) Spread spectrum technology B) Using same communication medium
C) Every user has assigned unique frequency slot D) each user has unique PN code
34. Packet radio refers to [ ]
A) Multiple users on single channel
B)Single user on multiple channels as per demand
C) Multiple users on multiple channels at different time slots
D) Multiple users with coding techniques
35. Disadvantages of packet radio are [ ]
A) Induced delays B) Low spectral efficiency C) Large spectrum required D) Both A) and B)
36. Pure ALOHA is a [ ]
A) Random access protocol B) Scheduled access protocol
C) Hybrid access protocol D) Demand access protocol
37. The increase in number of users in PURE ALOHA causes [ ]
A) Increase in delay B) Increase in probability of collision
C) Increase in spectrum D) Decrease in delay
38. SDMA technique employs [ ]
A) Smart antenna technology B) Use of spatial locations of mobile units within the cell
C) More battery consumption D) Android Technology
39. The advantage of using SDMA over other spread spectrum technique is [ ]
A) Mobile station battery consumption is low B) Reduced spectral efficiency
C) Increased spectral efficiency D) Both A) and B) are correct
40. The increased capacity of SDMA due to [ ]
A) focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams
B) smart antennas pointing towards mobile stations
C) use of different frequencies at same time slot
D) both A) and B) are correct

Prepared by : P.SAI KUSUMA,M.PRASANTH, MVSS BABU

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION & NETWORKING Page 16