Regd.

Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019)

(Syllabus of the Test : Science and Mathematics of Class X)

Roll No. : __________________ Test Booklet Code : A

Time : 2 Hrs. Max. Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are remarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 75 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken to appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is: Which one of the following is linear in Geometry ?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) SO2 Q.12.    
(2) CO2
(3) NO2
(4) KO2
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019 Sample Paper

SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. Hydrogen bomb is based on (1) Due west (2) Due east
(1) Thermonuclear fission reaction (3) Due south (4) Vertically downward
(2) Thermonuclear fusion reaction 4. V-I graphs for two wires plotted at a given
(3) Thermionic emission temperature are as shown below. For common
potential difference applied across them,
(4) Chemical substitution reaction
V
2. Which of the following is an incorrect representation
of angle of incidence ( i) and angle of reflection wire 1
( r)? (Symbols have their usual meanings)
wire 2

C F I
(1)
i P (1) More power is consumed in wire 1
r
(2) More power is consumed in wire 2
(3) More current flows in wire 1
(4) Same current flows in both the wires
i F C
(2) 5. The reading of ammeter in the given circuit will be
r P
15 

4
3 15 
C F 10 V + 4
–
(3) i P 15 
r
A
(1) 2 A
r (2) 1 A
i
(3) 4 A
(4) P (4) 3.5 A
F C
6. Difference between an AC generator and a DC
generator is that
3. A straight wire carrying current vertically upward is (1) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC
placed in a uniform magnetic field directed generator has permanent magnet
northwards. The wire will experience a magnetic force
(2) DC generator generates an alternating voltage
N
(3) AC generator generates a constant voltage
W E (4) AC generator has slip rings while the DC
S generator has a split ring type commutator

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Sample Paper Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019

7. A light incident at an interface at an angle 60° is (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
refracted into another medium at an angle 30°. If
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
its speed in the first medium is C, then its speed
in the second medium is 12. The temperature difference between the surface
water and the deeper sections of sea is exploited
(1) 2C (2) 2C
to obtain
C C
(3) (4) (1) Tidal energy
2 3
(2) Wave energy
8. Focal length of a concave lens is 10 cm. Where
should a real object be placed in front of it so that (3) Ocean thermal energy
1 (4) Hydro-power
an image of magnification is formed?
4
13. The magnetic field pattern that corresponds to that
(1) 15 cm (2) 30 cm around a current carrying straight wire is
(3) 20 cm (4) 7.5 cm
9. Power dissipated across the resistor X is
1.5 V
(1) (2)
3

3
 X
3 3
(3) (4)
3
(1) 18.7 W (2) 0.187 W
14. Choose the correct statement among the following.
(3) 35.2 W (4) 0.352 W
10. Choose the incorrect statement among the (1) Magnetic field is stronger where field lines are
following. farther apart
(1) Electric power can be transmitted over long (2) Direct current changes its direction periodically
distances without much loss of energy using (3) Magnetic field around a current carrying
AC solenoid is similar to that around a bar magnet
(2) Alternating current changes its direction
(4) Fleming's left hand rule gives the direction of
periodically
induced current
(3) Electric fuse is connected in series with the
15. Find the equivalent resistance between points A
circuit
and B, if each resistor is of resistance r.
(4) The earth wire provides a low resistance path
A
for the excess current flowing in the circuit
11. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Hot springs (i) Solar panel
b. Silicon (ii) Nuclear energy
c. Uranium (iii) Biogas
d. Methane (iv) Geothermal energy B

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Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019 Sample Paper

4r 2r 21. Elements A, B and C represent a Dobereiner's

(1) (2)
3 3 triad. If atomic masses of A and B are 7 u and
r 23 u respectively, then the atomic mass of element
(3) (4) r 'C' will be
3
16. Which of the following solutions is most basic in (1) 30 u (2) 35 u
nature? (3) 39 u (4) 42 u
(1) Solution A with pH = 8 22. Fe2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Fe
(2) Solution B with pH = 9 Which of the following statements is incorrect for
(3) Solution C with pH = 10 above reaction?
(4) Solution D with pH = 6 (1) Fe2O3 is getting reduced
17. Anmol is a student of class 10. While playing (2) Al is getting oxidised
football he got his arm fractured. Doctor used a
chemical substance 'X' with water for supporting his (3) Fe2O3 is an oxidising agent
fractured bone. After few hours 'X' is converted into (4) Al2O3 is reducing agent
'Y' which is a hard solid. 'X' and 'Y' respectively are 23. An amphoteric oxide ‘X’ reacts with aqueous NaOH
(1) Plaster of Paris and Baking soda to form sodium aluminate. Identify the product
(2) Gypsum and Plaster of Paris when ‘X’ reacts with hydrochloric acid
(3) Plaster of Paris and Gypsum (1) NaCl (2) AlCl3
(4) Baking soda and Plaster of Paris (3) Al2Cl3 (4) NaAlO2
18. 'A' and 'B' are the two salts which are responsible 24. Which of the following is not a compound of
for the hardness of water. If the size of metal 'X' sodium?
present in salt 'A' is larger than the size of metal (1) Sodium carbonate (2) Sodium amalgam
'Y' present in salt 'B' then which of the following
elements does not belong to the same period as (3) Sodium acetate (4) Sodium sulphate
metal 'Y' in the Modern Periodic Table? 25. An acid present in atmosphere of venus in the form
(1) Na (2) K of yellow clouds reacts with sodium hydroxide to
form
(3) Al (4) Cl
(1) Sodium chloride (2) Sodium carbonate
19. Which of the given elements has the least atomic
radii? (3) Sodium nitrate (4) Sodium sulphate
(1) Na (2) Li 26. Consider the following statements.
(3) Cs (4) Rb I. The oily dirt gets collected in the centre of the
20. Noble gases were discovered late because micelle.
a. They are very inert II. The hydrophobic part of a soap molecule
remains towards water.
b. They are gases
c. They react with oxygen readily Choose the correct option.
d. They are present in very low concentrations in (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
atmosphere incorrect
Which of the above can complete the given (2) Statement II is correct but statement I is
statement correctly? incorrect
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) Both the statements are correct
(3) a & d (4) a & c (4) Both the statements are incorrect

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Sample Paper Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019

27. Combustion of fossil fuel does not evolve 33. Which of the following hormones is/are responsible
(1) Oxides of carbon (2) Oxides of sodium for bending of shoot tip towards light?

(3) Oxides of sulphur (4) Oxides of nitrogen (1) Auxins (2) Cytokinins

28. Match the following. (3) Gibberellins (4) Abscisic acid

Column I Column II 34. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. excretion in

plants.
a. Ethanol (i) Sweet smelling
substance (1) Plants get rid of excess water by transpiration
b. Methanol (ii) Dehydrating agent (2) Some waste is excreted in the soil around
them
c. Sulphuric acid (iii) Lethal
(3) Some waste products are stored as resins and
d. Ester (iv) Organic solvent
gums in phloem
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Some waste products may be stored in leaves
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) that fall off
29. Which of the following metal pairs reacts with very 35. Match the following columns and select the correct
dilute nitric oxide to produce hydrogen? option.
(1) Mg and Na (2) Mg and Mn Column I Column II
(3) Mn and Si (4) Cu and Si a. Nadis (i) Maharashtra
30. The decomposition of iron sulphate results in the b. Kattas (ii) Bihar
formation of
c. Tals (iii) Rajasthan
(1) FeO, SO2 & SO3 (2) Fe2O3, O2 & SO3
d. Pynes (iv) Karnataka
(3) Fe2O3, SO2 & SO3 (4) Fe3O4 & SO3
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
31. Phytoplankton  Snail  Tuna  Dolphin
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
In the above food chain, if 1 J of energy is
available to the secondary consumer then, how (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
much energy was assimilated by the producers? (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) 100 J 36. The longest part of the alimentary canal is
(2) 10 J (1) Oesophagus
(3) 1000 J (2) Large intestine
(4) 0.1 J (3) Small intestine
32. The parts of the floral whorl that produces pollen (4) Stomach
grains are
37. Statement-1: An ecosystem consists of biotic and
P – Filament, Q – Stigma, abiotic components.
R – Style, S – Anther, Statement-2: Temperature, rainfall, wind and
T – Ovary insects are abiotic components.
(1) P, R & T (1) Both the statements are true
(2) P & S (2) Both the statements are false
(3) Q, R & T (3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) R & S (4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true

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Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019 Sample Paper

38. In the sketch diagram given below P, Q, R and S (1) Budding

are blood vessels. (2) Multiple fission
Lungs (3) Binary fission

P (4) Regeneration
Q
41. Which of the following characteristics was selected
by farmers to breed cauliflower from wild cabbage?
Heart
(1) Sterile flowers
(2) Arrested flower development
R S
(3) Short distance between leaves
(4) Swollen parts
Body parts
B
42. Glucose A Pyruvate CO2 + H2O + Energy
Identify the blood vessels which are carrying The reactions A and B occur in
oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood.
(1) Plasma and mitochondria, respectively
Blood vessels (2) Cytoplasm and mitochondria, respectively
Blood vessels
carrying
carrying (3) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria,
deoxygenated
oxygenated blood respectively
blood
(4) Mitochondria and plasma, respectively
(1) P and Q R and S
43. Which of the following statements is correct?
(2) P and R Q and S
(1) The female germ cells are produced in oviducts
(3) Q and S P and R
(2) Zygote gets implanted in the lining of the
(4) Q and R P and S
uterus in human females
39. If the parent plants are having the genotypes RRyy (3) Two eggs are produced by both oviducts every
and rrYY, the number of types of gametes produced month
by both the plants together are
(4) The embryo gets nutrition from placenta which
(1) Two is located in vagina
(2) Four 44. Which of the following hormones is released by the
(3) Six glands located on our excretory organ?
(1) Testosterone
(4) Eight
(2) Insulin
40. Identify the mode of reproduction which is shown
in the given diagram. (3) Thyroxine
(4) Adrenaline
45. Gustatory and olfactory receptors are located in/on
(1) Nose and ear, respectively
(2) Ear and tongue, respectively
(3) Tongue and nose, respectively
(4) Skin and nose, respectively

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Sample Paper Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019

MATHEMATICS
46. The HCF of 66 and 121 is 52. If C(a, b) is the mid-point of the line segment
joining the points A(4, –7) and B(–8, 9), then the
(1) 34 (2) 17
value of (a + b) is
(3) 22 (4) 11
(1) 0 (2) 2
47. The sum of two natural numbers is 30. If their (3) –1 (4) 1
difference is 20, then the product of these two
natural numbers is 53. For any distribution of data, 3 median – mode =

(1) 600 (2) 300 (1) Mean (2) 3 mean

Mean
(3) 125 (4) 50 (3) 2 mean (4)
2
48. If x = 1 is a zero of the polynomial p(x) = x4 – 5x3 54. If the shadow of a pole ‘a’ metres high is ‘a’ metres
– 20x2 + 130x – a, then the value of a is long, then the angle of elevation of the sun is
(1) 29 (2) 47 (1) 45° (2) 60°
(3) 79 (4) 106 (3) 30° (4) 90°
49. If  and  + 1 are the roots of the equation 55. The maximum number of tangents that can be
x2 – 7x + a = 0, then a equals drawn to a circle from a point outside the circle is
(1) 6 (2) 9 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 10 (4) 12 (3) 2 (4) 3
50. The sum of three consecutive terms of an AP is 56. A quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of
72. Then, the middle term is whose zeroes are –4 and –1 respectively, can be

(1) 18 (2) 24 (1) x2 + 4x + 1 (2) x2 – 4x – 1

(3) 36 (4) 48 (3) x2 + 4x – 1 (4) x2 – 4x + 1

57. If the area of a circle is 308 cm2, then its perimeter
51. In ABC, DE || BC. If AD = (x – 3) cm,
is
BD = (x + 5) cm, AE = 25 cm and EC = 35 cm,
then the value of x is (1) 22 2 cm (2) 44 2 cm
A (3) 88 2 cm (4) 66 2 cm
58. If a solid metallic sphere of radius 16 cm is melted
and recast into m spherical solid balls of radius
D E
2 cm, then the value of m is equal to
(1) 128 (2) 512
(3) 256 (4) 228
B C
59. A ladder leaning at an angle of 30° with ground
(1) 15
reaches a window at a height of 7 m. The length
(2) 18 of the ladder is
(3) 21 (1) 7 m (2) 3.5 m
(4) 23 (3) 14 m (4) 7 3 m

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Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019 Sample Paper

60. A card is selected from a deck of 52 cards. 67. The condition for m for which the expression
The probability of its being a black card is –mx 2 + x – 1 cannot be factorized into two linear
factors is
1 1
(1)
3
(2) 1 1
2 (1) m  (2) m 
4 4
1 1
(3) (4) 1 1 1
4 6 (3)   m  (4) m 
4 4 4
61. Which of the following rational numbers is a 68. If the radii of the ends of a frustum of a cone of
non-terminating repeating decimal number? height 12 cm are 7 cm and 2 cm, then the volume
17 29 (in cm3) of the frustum of the cone is
(1) (2) (1) 268 (2) 286
625 1600
15 105 (3) 143 (4) 216
(3) (4)
455 150 sin2 37  cos4 37
69. The value of is
62. If the system of equations ax + 4y = 7 and cos2 53  sin4 53
2x + by = 14 has infinitely many solutions, then 1
(1) 0 (2)
the value of a + b is 2
(1) 7 (2) 2 1
(3) (4) 1
4
(3) 21 (4) 9
70. The number of integers from 100 to 500 which are
63. If a die is thrown once, then the probability of divisible by 5 is
getting a number that divides 36 is
(1) 80 (2) 81
1 5 (3) 79 (4) 78
(1) (2)
6 6 71. A circle is inscribed in a triangle ABC such that it
1 2 touches the sides BC, CA and AB at D, E and F
(3) (4)
2 3 respectively as shown in the figure. If BC = 5 cm
and AB + AC = 13 cm, then AE equals
64. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 7 cm and
central angle 120° is A

154
(1) 152 cm2 (2) cm2
3
F E
128 O
(3) cm2 (4) 128 cm2
3
65. The area enclosed by the points (2, 5), (–3, 5),
B C
(–3, –4) and (2, –4) is D
(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm
(1) 36 sq. units (2) 45 sq. units
(3) 4 cm (4) 6 cm
(3) 40 sq. units (4) 32 sq. units
72. If a, b and c are three natural numbers such that
66. In PQR, if PS is the median, then PQ2 + PR2 is abc = 3600, HCF(a, b, c) = 2, HCF(a, b) = 10,
equal to HCF(b, c) = 2 and HCF(a, c) = 6, then
1 LCM (a, b, c) is equal to
(1) PS2 + QS2 (2) (PS 2  QS 2 )
2 (1) 120 (2) 30
(3) 2(PS2 + QS2) (4) PS2 + 2QS2 (3) 360 (4) 60

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Sample Paper Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019

xi  45 75. If one zero of the cubic polynomial px3 + qx2 + rx

73. If ui  , ui fi  30 and fi  100, where the + s is 2, then the square of the difference of other
10
symbols have their usual meaning, then x is equal two zeroes is
to
q 2  4s 2  4qs  2sp
(1) 33 (2) 38 (1)
p2
(3) 45 (4) 48
q 2  4s 2  4qs  2 ps
74. The expression (2)
p2
2sec2 – sec4 – 2cosec2 + cosec4 is equal to
q 2  4 p2  4 pq  2 ps
2 (3)
⎛ 2 1 ⎞ p2
(1) (sec2 – cosec2)2 (2) ⎜ tan  
⎝ tan2⎠⎟
q 2  4 p 2  4 pq  2 ps
(4)
(3) sin4 + cos4 (4) cot4– tan4 p2

  

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 Test Booklet Code : A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2017-2019)

Answers

1. (2) 16. (3) 31. (1) 46. (4) 61. (3)

2. (3) 17. (3) 32. (2) 47. (3) 62. (4)

3. (1) 18. (2) 33. (1) 48. (4) 63. (2)

4. (2) 19. (2) 34. (3) 49. (4) 64. (2)

5. (2) 20. (3) 35. (3) 50. (2) 65. (2)

6. (4) 21. (3) 36. (3) 51. (4) 66. (3)

7. (4) 22. (4) 37. (3) 52. (3) 67. (2)

8. (2) 23. (2) 38. (3) 53. (3) 68. (1)

9. (2) 24. (2) 39. (1) 54. (1) 69. (4)

10. (4) 25. (4) 40. (2) 55. (3) 70. (2)

11. (3) 26. (1) 41. (1) 56. (3) 71. (3)

12. (3) 27. (2) 42. (2) 57. (2) 72. (4)

13. (3) 28. (4) 43. (2) 58. (2) 73. (4)

14. (3) 29. (2) 44. (4) 59. (3) 74. (4)

15. (2) 30. (3) 45. (3) 60. (2) 75. (3)