Engineer-Deck - New Kumpulan Ukp 2 PDF

TEST – ITEM BANK
FOR DECK OFFICER AND ENGINEER

OFFICER AT OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a
magnetic compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to
the compass bearings?
A. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be

confirmed by other means, when possible. Which of the following
suggested methods would be the most accurate?
A. The ranges of three distinctive shore
objects on the radar
3. What is important to check when transferring
a position from the GPS output to a paper
chart?
A. Any necessary corrections are
applied to convert between the GPS datum
and the chart datum
4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate
when the accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
A. A large HDOP value is displayed
on the screen
5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is

correct for an observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00'
West, when observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is
15°00' South?
A. Figure 4 is correct.
6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine
the latitude of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
A. Calculation 3 is correct.
7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for
the following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time
1200 GMT. Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the
sun: 200°, Intercept correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude -
computed altitude).
A. Figure 2 is correct.
8. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of .
B. Fixed known objects on shore
9. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned

because.
A. Signals begin to blink
10. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following

should be considered?
C. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
11. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on

the visible horizon when .
A. In high latitudes
12. When navigating a vessel, you .

A. Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its
exact position
13. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR
position at that time is LAT 22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which statement
concerning the planets available for evening sights is TRUE?
A. Venus will have a westerly
meridian angle.
14. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
C. Only when fixed aids are not available
15. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude
check.What would the azimuth have to be?
A. 000°T
16. For navigational purposes,each great circle on the Earth has a length of
A. 21, 600 miles
17. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time
would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of
the Sun at LAN?
.
C0728
18. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at
different times and advancing them to a common time is a(n)
B. Running fix
19. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for .
A. Venus
20. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time
would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the
declination of the Sun at LAN?
A. 0659
21. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in
a(n)
B. Estimated position
22. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for .

B. The Moon
23. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium
frequency standards which permit .
C. Each station to only depend on the master for
synchronization and signal ratio
24. Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of
the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later your position is 179°59'E
longitude. Your LMT and date is now .
th
C. 00h 02m on the 6
25. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
C. Estimated position
26. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is
150°. What is the right ascension of the planet?
B. 11 hours
27. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
B. Fix
28. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the
minimum skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal is
receive This is called the
.
A. Skip zone
29. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
B. One
30. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the
A. Index mirror
31. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming
westwar What is your local time?
C. It is 1000, 7 July.
32. The horizon glass of a sextant is
A. Silvered on its half nearer the frame
33. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR
position at that time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which
statement concerning the planets available for morning sights is TRUE?
A. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian
observation.
34. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of

the satellites that your receiver is locked onto?
A. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
35. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude
reads 60° on the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60°
reading is _.
B. 30°
36. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean
time (LMT) is indicated by the .
A. Equation of time
37. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

A. Aero light
38. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required
for a twodimensional fix
C. 3
39. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a .
B. Negative correction
40. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the
apparent Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at
what zone time will the apparent Sun cross the meridian?
C. 1212
41. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you
again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which
statement is TRUE?
C. The drift is 0.25 knot.
42. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a .
A. Positive correction
43. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean
Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent
Sun will cross your meridian at .
A. 11-51-20 ZT
44. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a
threedimensional fix that takes into account altitude?
C. 4
45. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of
index error?
B. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
46. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.
A. fixed known objects on the shore
47. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)
__________.
b. estimated position
48. In the Beaufort Scale of Wind Force, what is the Beaufort number associated with
the wind force known as a "Gale"? This should not be confused with a "Near
Gale" or "Strong Gale"Eight (8)
49. Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi. (Plan and
conduct a passage and determine position ) Before the voyage commences.
50. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

d. All the above
51. What is the correct understanding of the term "Isobar"?An "Isobar" is a line joining
places of equal pressure.
52. What is the correct understanding of the term "Lapse Rate" when used in
Meteorology?The change of the temperature in the atmosphere with height
above sea level.
53. What is the depth of an iceberg below the surface of the sea? The draught of an
iceberg varies with the type of berg and its age.
54. What is the direction of wind associated with an anticyclone (area of high pressure)
in the Northern Hemisphere?Clockwise around the high pressure
55. What is the weather associated with being in the centre of an Anticyclone (a region
of High Pressure)?Light winds and fair weather, sometimes fog.
56. What is understood by the term "Dew point" of the air?The temperature at which
condensation in the air forms into water droplets.
57. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the
accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?A large HDOP value is displayed
on the screen
58. When the temperature of the air increases with height it is known as a
"Temperature Inversion" and may influence the performance of some
instruments on the ship. What should the bridge Officer of the Watch be
prepared to happen?Abnormal ranges of VHF RT and Second Trace Returns on
the radar
59. NGA (NIMA) charts are adopting the metric system in order use the conversion
lable found________
All of the above
86. Whit respect to failure warnings and status indicators,GPS received

A warning of loss of position
All of the above
87. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C
stations is very closely controlled and operates with __________.
A. An atomic time standar
88. The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is
__________.
C. 20 minutes
89. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's
course and speed is a(n) __________.
90. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken
at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.
91. The date is the same all over the world at __________.
B. 1200 GMT
92. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
C. Fix
93. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum
skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal is receive This is called the
__________.
A. Skip zone
94. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
B. One
95. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the
__________.
A. Index mirror
96. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westwar
What is your local time?
D. It is 1000, 7 July.
97. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.

A. Silvered on its half nearer the frame
98. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites
that your receiver is locked onto?
B. Doppler Shifting
99. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on
the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________.
B. 30°
100. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT)
is indicated by the __________.
C. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time unit
101. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

D. Aero light
twodimensional fix?
C. 3
103. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________.
C. Negative correction
104. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun.
If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the
apparent Sun cross the meridian?
C. 1212
105. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again
fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
D. The drift is 0.25 knot.
106. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.
A. Positive correction
107. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If
you are on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your
meridian at __________.
A. 11-51-20 ZT
threedimensional fix that takes into account altitude?
D. 3
109. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index
error?
D. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
110. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is
TRUE?.
C. The observer is in time zone -4.
111. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
A. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
112. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which
may be corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is
B. Prismatic error
113. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily
from
C. Ranges
114. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and
advanced to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Running fi
115. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be
30 knots from 10° on your port bow. To what course and speed must you change?
D. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots
116. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?

A. Prismatic error
117. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the
longitude of the observer is the __________.
B. Meridian angle
118. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the ____
B. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at
zero
119. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to
indicate the __________.
B. Speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
120. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the
transmitting stations as __________.
A. Gains are made over the signal path
B. A result of variation in propagation conditions
121. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.

D. Micrometer drum
122. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?

A. 127°33'E
123. A polyconic projection is based on a __________.

D. Series of cones tangent at selected parallels
124. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the
horizon forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated
about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has __________.
B. Side error
125. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.

B. Should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the
horizon
126. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.

C. South and increasing
127. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the
other during transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of
the induced ignition ?
A. A 3 cm radar.
128. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.

A. The radar of the nearest land
129. In Loran C ___________.
A. The master and secondary stations transmits 8 pulses each
130. In Mercator sailing ________---.

D. DMP = d'lat x Secant Course
131. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______.
E. Only one bearing line is available
132. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________.
A. 1863.07
133. The Decca green zone has ________.

A. 18 lanes
134. A vertical sextant angle gives _________.

A. The height of a bridge above sea level
135. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the
arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is
the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
A. 38?30.8'
136. What will be the d?Long for departure of 66.5? When the ship is on m?Lat of 29
degrees N.
C. 36.8?
137. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______.

C. 80?47'
138. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____.

A. By port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
139. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? Will be _____.

B. Easterly
140. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?S
position?
C. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
141. When calibrating a sextant for Index Error using the Sun the micrometer
reading 'off the arc' was 32.8' and on the arc was 32.0'. What is the index error of the
sextant?
C. 0.8' on the arc
142. In latitude 42 36? N, a ship sails due east from Longitude 26 30? W to longitude
21 12? W . What departure has she made?
D. 235.08 miles
143. To fix the ship's position by horizontal sextant angle you need at least _____.
C. 3 objects
167. The LHA of the body when on the observer's meridian is _______.
D. 270?
144. Your DR latitude is 10?S. A body whose declination in 20?S when setting
makes an angle of 30? At the observer's zenith. What is its azimuth?
B. 330?
145. The chronometer which was losing 8 seconds every day was 4m 48s fast on
GMT on 20th March. What will be the error on 4th April?
A. 5m 48s
146. The method used to plot ship?S position when only one navigational mark is
available and radar cannot be used to find the distance off is called ____________.
A. A running fix
147. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at ___________.

B. 30?N Latitude
148. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT)
is indicated by the __________.
A. Equation of time
149. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in
celestial navigation, it is used to determine __________.
C. Time of local apparent noon
150. 90° - Ho = __________.

A. Sextant altitude
151. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all
almanacs, are for the __________.
C. Centers of the various celestial bodies
152. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an
indeterminate position will result in which situation?
D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
153. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert
conformal projection, __________.
A. A straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle
154. The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip because of
D. Terrestrial refraction
155. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an
indeterminate position will result in which situation?
C. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
156. For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient
than using a Mercator?
A. Plotting radio bearings over a long distance
157. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always
subtract the dip because you are correcting __________.
B. Hs to the sensible horizon
158. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections

for
B. The Moon
159. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________.

B. The Moon
160. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) __________.

A. Plane tangent at one point
161. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified
on the radar by __________.
D. A coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the
light
162. The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial body, caused by
refraction, increases as the __________.
D. Altitude of the body decreases
163. A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast will
be a(n) __________.
B. Arc
164. The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and
transcribed by the daily motion of the body, is called the __________.
B. Parallel of declination
165. With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same
accuracy as a military receiver if __________.
A. Selective availability is set to zero
166. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on

the terrestrial sphere?
D. Declination
167. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the
heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash,
what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
168. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n)
__________.
B. Range line
169. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the Moon is
observed with a sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is
32 feet. The sextant altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. What is the observed altitude?
B. Ho 4°29.1'
170. On 21 January 1981, you observe a back sight of the Sun's lower lim The sextant
altitude (hs) is 121°31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 31 feet
(9.3 meters). What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
B. 58°53.1'
171. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle?
C. Celestial Meridian
172. On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°33.0'.
The temperature is -10°C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The height of eye
is 42 feet. The index error is 1.9' off the ar What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
C. 4°17.0'
173. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 34°30'N
and LAT 31°30'N, which 30 mile scale should be used?
C. 32°45'N to 33°15'N
174. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the __________.

B. Distance to a target
175. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle.
The actual position of the vessel __________.
C. May be inside or outside of the triangle
176. The magnitude of three stars is indicate Which star is the brightest?
B. Altair + 0.9
177. Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the
principal vertical circle to the ____________ .
A. Greenwich celestial meridian
178. You are on course 238°T. To check the course of your vessel you should
observe a celestial body on which bearing?
C. 328°
179. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a
__________
C. Line of position
180. When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your
horizontal accuracy to be better than __________
B. 20 meters
181. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

C. Course made good history
182. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should
provide, at a minimum, __________.
B. A warning of loss of position
183. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy
equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
B. Selective Availability
184. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by

A. DGPS, within a coverage area
185. How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?

a. By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two prominent
fixed shore objects and comparing it with the bearing of the same
objects on the chart
186. Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical?
a. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answer
187. The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions, which of the
following answers reflect its most important functions.
a. All of the answers provided
188. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be allowed
for, when steering a course in a dangerous navigational area. What is the probable
cause of the error?
a. An uncorrected course and speed error.
189. What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to require a
regular evaluation and compass correction?
a. Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure
190. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any
possible compass error?
a. Latitude and Speed
191. What are the two parts of the magnetic compass error?
a. Variation and Deviation
192. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large
angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?
a. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct
position.
193. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?
a. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and
comparing it with the bearing of the same points on the chart
194. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the course
steered?
a. Deviation
195. What action should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take if he is forced to make
a major deviation from the voyage plan?
a. Inform the Master
196. What are the limits of a passage or voyage plan?
a. From berth to berth
197. What is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth?
a. Great Circle
198. What methods could be introduced into a passage plan for continuous
monitoring of the ships position when navigating along a coastline?
a. Parallel Index lines
199. When a ship is steaming along a course line, what is the importance of
determining the set and rate of drift due to wind and current?
a. All of the suggested answers
200. When should voyage planning be done?

a. Prior to leaving the berth
201. Where can a ship expect an act of piracy to take place?

a. All over the world
202. Which of the answers best summarises the information which should be
provided for the bridge Officers of the Watch within an effective Voyage plan.
203. Who is ultimately responsible for the voyage plan?

a. The Master
204. The ECDIS system can operate in how many does ?

a. Five
205. Does, IMO specity special training in use of ECDIS ?

b. Yes
206. Can a raster Chart be displayed in head-up mode on to

c. Yes
207. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determining the
position
d. The course and speed made good should be determint
208. What is the purpose of the “off track” limit

e. Assist in controlling the ship track from planned track
209. Vector chart can ?
f. Can be displayed with any direction up
210. Can raster chart provide navigational warnings ?

Only when used on a RCD
211. What is the definition of a waypoint

g. A way point is a position where the ships course is to
212. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate

methods of determining positions and include which of the following?
A. All of these suggested answers
47. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

A. Yes
48. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for
transiting a canal or river, when under pilot?
A. A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage,
or if the ship is under pilot
49. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a
pilot should be supervised by:
A. A responsible Officer
50. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea)
regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies
to which vessels?
A. All vessels and on all voyages
51. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a
competent bridge team.
52. What is the main purpose of VTS?
A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in
the vicinity.
53. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge
activities over many hours, what management issues should the Master
consider?
A. All of these answers
54. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the
Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is
there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the
ship?
A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under
pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
55. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a
paper chart, what Chart Datum should be selected?
A. WGS84 and plot the readout position directly on the chart
56. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the
following answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects
to be considered when deciding the courses to steer?
C. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased

traffic density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits
57. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
A. Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes
both identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will
happen.
58. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the
ships position by four different methods and they all give slightly different
positions. Which of the following would be considered the most accurate.
B. Gyro compass bearings from two lighthouses
59. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate
decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the
Panama Canal?
A. The Panama Canal Authority
DPK
60. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing
through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your
vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces
down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when
establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
A. Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density;
manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment
(ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards.
61. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees

turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space
either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most suitable
method to make the turn using as little space as possible?
A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder
hard to starboard and full ahead
62. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the
minimum data required by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following
EXCEPT .
D. Tidal currents
63. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display,
as required by IMO/IHO?
C. All of the above
64. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include
C. Vector and raster
65. Raster-scan chart data is .

B. Organized into many separate files
66. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
E. All of the above
67. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?
F. Ship hydrodynamic
information
68. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic
navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the
updates to the ENC by appropriate means, and (3) the additional data
added by the mariner, is called the
C. System electronic navigational chart
69. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed
on ECDIS is the _.
C. Standard display information
70. The level of database information which cannot be removed from

the ECDIS display and consists of information which is required at all
times in all geographic areas and under all circumstances is
the .A. Display base information
71. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?
C. All of the above
74. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the
latest edition of information originated by a government-authorized
hydrographic office and conform to the standards of
(the) .B. International Hydrographic Organization
75. An ECDIS is required to display which information?

D. Hydrographic data
76. When must a passage plan be prepared ?

B. Before the voyage
commences.
77. What should a passage plan include ?
B. The plan should include the entire voyage from
berth to berth.
78. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by

a line drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the
B. Track line
79. How many stages are there in the planning of a safe voyage
Eight
80. What is the IMO definition of ECDIS ?
A system that display hydrographic information in order to assist the safe

navigation
81. What is the purpose of voyage planning ?
To support the bridge team
82. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation

outside of outlying reefs and shoals?
B. General charts
83. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a

pilot should be supervised by:
A. A responsible Officer
84.SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea)
regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies
to which vessels?
A. All vessels and on all voyages
85. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and
followed by a competent bridge team.
213. Which would you consult for information about the general current
circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean?
A. Pilot chart
214. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the
A. Latitude scale near the middle of the track line
215. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06".
The charted depth of an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is
30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming time
from the pier to the obstruction is
01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet
these requirements?
B. 1728
216. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT
approximately the same as the great circle distance?
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere
217. What is the main

purpose of VTS?
A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the
environment in the vicinity.
218. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge
activities over many hours, what management issues should the Master
consider?
219. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the
Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is
there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?
A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot,
when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
220. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication
provides information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions,
anchorages, and marine facilities available in that port?
C. Coast Pilot
221. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the .
B. Speed and direction toward which the
current flows
222. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR.
Good seamanship would require that you have on board, available for
reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT the
C. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
223. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to
steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A?
a.256
224. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a
paper chart, what Chart Datum should be selected?
A. WGS84 and plot the readout position directly on the chart
225. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the
following answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to
be considered when deciding the courses to steer?
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The
distances gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the
loadline limits
DP
A. Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and
includes both identification of the occurrence and the likelihood
that it will happen.
227. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW
plots the ships position by four different methods and they all give
slightly different positions. Which of the following would be considered
the most accurate.
A. Radar ranges from two radar destinctive headlands
228. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate
decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama
Canal?
A. The Panama Canal Authority
229. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important

changes to aids to navigation by means of .
A. Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
230. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by _.

A. All of the above
231. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System i
B. Australia
232. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?

A. The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and
NAVAREA warnings are the same.
DPKP
233. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing
through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your
vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces
down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing
a "safe speed" for your vessel?
234. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees

turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either
side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most suitable method
to make the turn using as little space as possible?
A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway,
rudder hard to starboard and full ahead
235. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked
with the IALA-B Buoyage System?
B. Peru
236. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?

C. New editions are corrected through the date shown on
the title page.
237. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of
important marine information. Which NAVAREAS include the
Indonesian?
A. XI
238. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic
area?
B. Catalog of Charts
239. What publication contains information about the port facilities and
passage entry to port ?
A. World Port Index
P
240. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is .
C. Predicted in Tidal Current Tables

241. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on .
B. Port facilities
242. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as
flashing white with a red sector. The red sector .
B. Indicates a danger area
243. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?

A. Those adopted by the International Maritime
Organization
244. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300,
310 and 330 nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed
if each day is 24 hours long
A. 315 naut. Miles
C. All of the above
If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route
B. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is
exceeded
248. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the

latest edition of information originated by a government-authorized
hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the) .
B. International Hydrographic Organization

C. Hydrographic data
PK
250. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea
voyage if the ship is in open waters ?
C. At least every 30 minutes
251. What chart should be used when navigating ?

A. The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
252. Define the required interval between position fixes.

A. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or
into danger by the effects of wind, tide or current
253. The latest edition of a chart can be found from .

C. The latest cumulative notices to mariners
254. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out .

D. One to two hours prior sailing
255. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian
Embassy. Which of these publications would you consult?
B. D. Guide to Port Entry
256. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration
when planning a passage in coastal waters?
C. Choice of ocean route
257. A voyage passage plan is made from .

C. Berth to berth
258. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock
using vertical letters. This indicates the .
C. Rock is dry at high waterDP
259. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains
constant,the ships are on:
B Collision courses
260. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in

1912, the ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is
C. 7.4 and 7.8 to 1

261. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must
be
All the above
262. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is
marked on the chart. By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility
is very goo What action would you take?
. B. Call Master.
263. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
C. On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the
direction of traffic flow
264. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the
International Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time.
What is the date and time at Greenwich when the vessel crosses the
line?
B. 2100, 24 January
265. The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in
the height of the water is called the .
C. Stand of the tide
266. Spring tides are tides that .
A. Have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
267. Mean high water is the reference plane used for .
B. Heights above water of land features
such as lights
268. The range of tide is the _ .
C. Difference between the heights of high and low tide
269. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features
on most charts is .
B. Mean high water
270. Charted depth is the .

C. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
DPK
271. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in
the tide tables is .
B. The same as that used for the charts of

the locality
272. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate .
C. Two depth
273. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what
type of tides will occur?
C. Neap
274. Priming of the tides occurs
C. When the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full
and third Quarter
275. Region grooves traffic for ships does range TSS Traffic in
shore's lines, traffic corresponds to that region is
C. Range of Traffic
276. Lines which shall follow for the ships to entering or outer an area
D. Leading lines
277. All bridge member shall attended if there is available changing to

passage plan
C. All the above
278. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get navigations
with extra caution is
C. Precautionary area
279. Which stages following Apraisal stage of
passage planning :
E. Planning, execution and monitoring
280. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by

classification indeed is : A. Caution Area
B. No Go Area
281. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow before ship
arriving at way point's is :
C. Wheel Over Point
outside of outlying reefs and shoals
B. Coastal charts
283. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?
B. A known position
284. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that .
C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the
Earth's surface
285. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's

clocks are on the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks
be changed to maintain the proper zone time?
C. 67°30'W
286. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?
C. They have a decreased range
from normal.
287. Safe water buoys may show ONLY .
D. White lights
288. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master

gyrocompass. They are .
A. Accurate only in the Polar regions
289. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are called
C. Isogonic lines
290. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears
185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead
ahea This indicates that you(r) .
B. Course is in error
291. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic

compass
B. Turns counterclockwise to port
292. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart .

A. On the compass rose
293. What is an advantage of the magnetic
compass aboard vessels?
C. It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.
294. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center,
and the heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in
relation to the flash, what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
295. Magnetic compass deviation .
B. Is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north

296. Deviation in a compass is caused by the .
A. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
297. Magnetic variation changes with a change in .

C. The vessel's position
298. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth.
299. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in .
C. Geographical location
300. Variation is the angular measurement between .

B. Compass north and true north
301. A relative bearing is always measured from .

A. The vessel's head
302. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and .
B. Annual rate of variation change

A. At the start of the
sea voyage.
B. Before the voyagecommences.

B. The plan should include the entire voyage from
berth to berth.
305. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart

by a line drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the
B. Track line
outside of outlying reefs and shoals?
C. Coastal charts
307. Which would you consult for information about the general
current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean?
A. Pilot chart
309.
You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The
charted depth of an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30
feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming time
from the pier to the obstruction is 01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD
+4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet
these requirements?
B. 1728
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
311. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication
provides information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions,
anchorages, and marine facilities available in that port?
C. Coast Pilot
B. Speed and direction toward which the
current flows
313. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR.
Good seamanship would require that you have on board, available for
reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT the .
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to
steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A?
° B. 256°
315. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important

changes to aids to navigation by means of .

C. All of the above
317. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System
in
B. Australia

319. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked

with the IALA-B Buoyage System?
C. Peru
C. New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.
321. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of

important marine information. Which NAVAREAS include the
Indonesian?
A. XI
322. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic
area?
323. Wind velocity varies .
A. Directly with the temperature of the air mass
B. Directly with the pressure gradient
324. What wind reverses directions seasonally?
A. Monsoon winds
325. What wind reverses directions seasonally?
A. Monsoon winds
326. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific
coast of Mexico,
particularly during the colder months, is called .
A. Tehuantepecer
327. What will a veering wind do?
A. Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere
328. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the Northern
Hemisphere, this would indicate that it will .
B. Shift in a counterclockwise manner
329. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the Northern
Hemisphere this indicates that the wind will .
A. Shift in a clockwise manner
330. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh n'ly
wind blowing.
As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter
B. Steeper waves, closer together
331. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night than an
adjacent water
area?
F. Land breeze
332. A katabatic wind blows .

C. Down an incline due to cooling of the ai
333. The most common form of solid precipitation is

B. Snow
334. A cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo- or the suffix –nimbus is
C. Rain-producing
335. What air masses generally move eastward, toward Europe?
C. Maritime polar
Atlantic
336. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knot
G. Beaufort force 12
337. In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient lines would indicate
___________
C. High winds
338. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the
pressure diminishes. The winds along these gradients are diverted by
the Earth's rotation toward the east and are known as the .
H. Prevailing westerlies
339. Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and sometimes
violent, while storms along a warm front
B. produce precipitation over a large area, and are
sometimes violent.
340. Which of the following statements describes what happens when
the sun heats water and land?
B. Water heats more slowly than
land does.
341. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of
frontal weather systems over the North American continent?
C. Prevailing westerlies
342. In the doldrums you will NOT have .
C. Steep pressure gradient
343. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.
A. Gnomonic
344. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating

GMT
345. A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called?
Great circle
346. If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour
circle passing through a heavenly body • s called:
Local hour angle
347. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?
The date line
348. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?
Ionosphere
349. What is the true shape of the earth?
an oblate spheroid
350. The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called :
perihelion
351. Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called:
Vertical circles
352. Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured
eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called:
Zone time
353. the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the
earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is called:
Calculated zenith distance

354. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?
The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the
intermediate course is
355. Right ascension is measured:
Westward from aries
356. What are planets which are closer to the sun called?
Inferior planets
357. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?
direct
358. Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time?
yes
359. A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun?
Inferior planets
360. The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg.
below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when the
Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called :
civil twilight
361. When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is
below the horizon, it is called:
a. twilight
362. In which case is augmentation necessary:
Sun
363. What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears
to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting in
the west called?
Diurnal motion
364. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?
Axis
365. What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from
the observer's meridian called?
Local mean time
366. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:

Isogonic line
367. When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the
three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be
in opposition
368. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:
Middle latitude
369. When is a body said to be circumpolar?

Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90
370. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:

b. both <Option 2>and <Option 3>
stars
371. At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is
23.5 deg
372. At the horizon, refraction:
Is maximum
373. Refraction correction must always be:

Subtracted
374. Which of these is an inferior planet?
Mercury
375. How many time zones are there?
12
376. The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea
is called:
None of the other options
377. The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible
horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called:
Dip
378. What is the maximum declination of the sun?
23 deg 26.7min N or S
379. A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial
poles is known as
Meridian
380. Which of these is a morning and evening star?

Venus
381. What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as?
Parallel track sailing
382. A chronometer is said to be loosing if :

if it is slow one day and fast the next day.
383. When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is
called
index error
384. What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects?

Azimuth circle
385. The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance
between two objects is known as :
Horizontal sextant angle
386. What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north
declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and shortest
night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere?
Summer solstice
387. What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ?

none of the other options
388. When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is
called :
error of perpendicularity
389. When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances
run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial
observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called :
DR
390. Fix at is pelorus used for?
Taking bearing
391. Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides?

Moon
392. What charts are used for coasting, pilotage waters and plotting waypoints
Large scale
393. Ship's speed through water is measured in

Knots
394. How often is a chart catalogue published?

Annually
395. How often are cumulative lists published ?

Twice a year
396. How often are chart corrections published
Monthly
397. How often are nautical almanacs published ?

Annually
398. Distance on a chart is measured using :

Latitude scale
399. Which are the two reasons which cause ocean currents?
Wind-drift currents and pressure gradient
400. What does the lower figure represent?

Mean resultant
401. A ship is being overtaken by another ship while

proceeding along a river. What should be the
required procedure?
The overtaking vessel should request permission from the other ship by
sounding two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts on the whistle
or by direct VHF contact.
402. According to rule 13 of the International

Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea,
what is the definition of "an overtaking vessel"?
When coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5
degrees abaft her beam.
403. Sailing vessel when meeting another sailing vessel. This depends on the
direction of the wind relative to each vessel. In the situation shown here, which
sailing vessel (A or B) must keep out of the way of the other?
A. Sailing vessel A must keep out of the way of sailing vessel
404. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display
c. two masthead lights in a vertical line
405. A man is reported to have fallen overboard and the Officer of the Watch
releases the lifebuoy and starts a man overboard manoeuvre, who are the first
persons onboard he should inform?
Master and Engine Room
406. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as
to pass on the power-driven vessel's port side. The overtaken vessel will have to
move to facilitate passage. The sailing vessel is the __________.
d. give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by two
short blasts
407. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________

.three all-round red lights
408. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel
All of the above
409. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel __________
is altering course to starboard
410. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel __________.
is altering course to port
411. Can the OOW be the sole lookout?
During daylight when visibility and traffic allows
412. How can a new officer, just boarding a ship, ensure that he knows the location
and operation of all navigational and safety equipment and take account of the
operating limitations of such equipment?
By asking other officers and practicing with the use of the equipment
413. If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100 metres, will
manoeuvring and warning signals, as defined by rule 34 of the International
regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, be given on one or both whistles?
They shall be given on one whistle only.
414. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way

vessel indicates that the vessel __________.
is turning to starboard
415. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one short blast?
When overtaking in a narrow channel
416. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
A vessel on pilotage duty
417. Rule 12 of the International Collision Regulations prescribes the action to be

taken by a sailing vessel when meeting another sailing vessel. This depends on the
direction of the wind relative to each vessel. In the situation shown here, which
sailing vessel (A or B) must keep out of the way of the other?
Sailing vessel A must keep out of the way of sailing vessel B.
418. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all voyages
419. The bridge Officer of the Watch (OOW) is plotting the ship's position in the
chartroom, when the ship is in collision with a fishing vessel. Why would the OOW
be held responsible for the collision?
Under the Rules a proper lookout should be maintained at all times and by all
available means
420. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all voyages
421. The bridge Officer of the Watch (OOW) is plotting the ship's position in the
chartroom, when the ship is in collision with a fishing vessel. Why would the OOW
be held responsible for the collision?
Under the Rules a proper lookout should be maintained at all times and by all
available means
422. The following vessels are all required to make the same sound signal when in or
near an area of restricted visibility: a vessel not under command; a vessel restricted
in her ability to manoeuvre; a vessel constrained by her draught / a sailing vessel; a
vessel engaged in fishing; a vessel engaged in towing or pushing another vessel.
What is that signal?
One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not more than
two minutes.
423. The lights displayed here indicate that this is one of two types of vessel. What
are the two options?
A power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length, length of
tow under 200 metres, towing vessel and tow restricted in their ability to
manoeuvre, seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel underway, more than 50
metres in length, or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead
light, restricted in her ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on.
424. The ship is drifting in the open sea with a temporary engine breakdown. The
ship is equipped with GPS navigation equipment. What should the bridge Officer of
the Watch do in this situation?
All of the possible answers.
425. The vessel is steaming off the coast when the engine room informs the bridge it
must stop engines immediately. Shortly afterwards they informed the bridge they
would need a least three hours to fix it. Which of the following actions would be the
most suitable taken by the bridge?
Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and determine how the ship is
drifting and the probable position after three hours.
426. The vessel is to anchor with Pilot onboard. Which of the suggested answers
most accurately define the main duties of the Officer of the Watch on bridge?
Assist the Master and pilot and monitor the ships position.
427. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either
vessel means __________.
"I am altering course to port"
428. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal
which could be sounded by a __________.
vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
429. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of
two prolonged followed by one short blast?
When overtaking in a narrow channel
430. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without
changing course. Vessel "A" __________.
will not sound any whistle signals
431. What are the additional duties required by the Officer of the Watch when
navigating in fog?
Sound fog signal, effective radar watch reporting ship movements to Master and
keep a good lookout for ships and fog signals.
432. What are the immediate duties of the bridge Officer of the Watch when the ship
suddenly runs into a fog bank?
Commence sounding the fog signal, engines on standby, call the Master and
lookout, if not already on duty
433. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?
A cylinder
434. What do the shapes that this vessel is displaying tell us about her?
That she is not under command.
435. What is correct UTC in this example? Approx. Pos: N49°51' W35°23', zone +2,
Local Time 0900.
11 00
436. What is the colour and characteristic of a "towing light", as defined in the
International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?
Yellow, fixed, seen over an arc of 135 degrees and so arranged as to display 67.5
degrees from right aft on each side of the vessel.
437. What is the main purpose of VTS?

Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the
vicinity.
438. What is the situation of this vessel?

This vessel is not under command, but is making way through the water.
439. What sound signal shall be used on ship's whistle when there is a man
overboard?
3 long blasts repeatedly
440. What would the Second Officer report to the Master when entering an area
where the visibility is reduced to 2 n.miles?
The Second Officer would report to the Master that the visibility is reduced to
probable range of 2 n.miles and the engines are on standby.
441. When is the Officer of the Watch officially relieved of his responsibilities of
being in charge of the watch?
When the Master informs the Officer of the Watch that he is taking over the
"con" (watch responsibilities)
442. When should operational checks on navigation equipment be done?

When preparing for sea and entering port and at regular intervals during the
voyage
443. When steering by autopilot, how often should manual steering be checked?
At least once a watch
444. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the
vessels means __________.
"I am altering my course to port"
445. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her draft
in relation to the available depth of water.
446. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals?

The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
447. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?
A vessel constrained by her draft
448. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short
blasts?
A vessel being towed
449. You are in an area of restricted visibility and hear this signal. It is repeated at
two minute intervals. What does it indicate?
That there is another vessel nearby, that she is underway, but stopped and making
no way through the water.
450. You are in an area of restricted visibility, close to a port. You hear this signal.
What vessel does it come from and what additional information does the signal
provide?
A vessel at anchor, more than 100 metres in length. She is sounding the
additional signal to give warning of her position.
451. You are in an area of restricted visibility. You hear this sound signal. What
does it mean?
That there is a vessel in distress nearby.
452. You are in open water and clear conditions. You are approaching the pilot
station when you hear this signal from a vessel ahead of you. What does it signify?
That the vessel is operating astern propulsion.
453. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This vessel is
sighted directly ahead. The distance is closing slowly. What action will you take
under the International Collision Regulations and why?
I will keep out of her way. I am the overtaking vessel and am obliged to keep
clear under rule 13.
sighted on the port bow on a steady bearing. What kind of vessel is it and what will
your action be?
This is a sailing vessel underway, seen head-on. It is my responsibility to keep
clear under rule 18 and I will take appropriate avoiding action.
sighted wide on the port bow. It's bearing is opening, but its distance is closing
rapidly. Which of the following is a correct assessment of the situation and the
action to be taken?
Risk of collision is deemed not to exist and I will maintain my course and speed.
I will continue to monitor the situation.
456. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. You observe this
vessel, directly ahead, on a steady bearing, with the distance closing steadily. What
can you tell about this vessel from the lights it is displaying?
This vessel is not under command and is not making way through the water. I
cannot tell its aspect.
457. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. You sight these
lights on the port bow, on a steady bearing. The distance is closing. What are you
looking at and what action will you take in compliance with the International
Regulations for Preventing Collision at Sea?
This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length,
length of tow under 200 metres and the tow, both being restricted in their ability
to manoeuvre, seen from the starboard side. Under rule 18, I am required to keep
clear and will take appropriate avoiding action.
458. You are on a sailing vessel, underway in open water. This vessel is sighted on
the starboard bow, on a steady bearing and the distance is closing. By the
International Regulations for the Preventing Collisions at Sea, what action will you
follow?
By Rule 18, a power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of a
sailing vessel. I will maintain my course and speed, but will continue to monitor
situation to ensure the other vessel takes avoiding action.
459. You are on a tug and are towing an unmanned barge. You are restricted in your
ability to manoeuvre. The total length of the tow is 219 metres. What daylight
signals are required by the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at
Sea?
A diamond shape, where it can best be seen shall be displayed on the tug and the
tow. Three shapes shall also be displayed in a vertical line, the upper and lower
being balls and the middle one a diamond. Diamond shape
460. You are proceeding along a coastal route when you hear this signal. The
visibility is severely restricted. What does the signal mean?
There is a vessel aground in the vicinity. She is more than 100 metres in length.
She is sounding an additional warning to approaching vessels that they are
"running into danger".
461. You are proceeding along a narrow channel and approaching a bend, on the
inside shore of which is a large hill, which obsures your view further up channel.
What sound signal will you make to indicate your presence to any vessel that is
behind the obstructing hill?
One prolonged blast.
462. You are proceeding along a narrow channel behind another vessel. You have a
higher speed and have signalled your intention to the vessel ahead that you intend to
overtake him on his port side. The vessel responds with this sound signal. What
does it mean?
That the vessel is indicating her agreement with my proposed manoeuvre.
463. You are proceeding along a narrow channel in front of another vessel, both
heading for port. You hear this signal from the vessel behind you. What does it
mean?
I intend to overtake you on your starboard side.
464. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel
astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention
to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding
one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order
465. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass
along the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention?
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
466. The lights displayed here indicate that this is one of two types of vessel. What
are the two options?
A power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length, length of

tow under 200 metres, towing vessel and tow restricted in their ability to manoeuvre,
seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel underway, more than 50 metres in length, or
less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light, restricted in her
ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on.
467..
The lights here show those that must be exhibited
by a vessel engaged in towing, as per rule 24 of the
International Collision Regulations. But how long
is the tow behind this vessel?
A. It exceeds 200 metres
468. This vessel is encountered at the mouth of a river

which leads to your discharge port. What do the
various shapes tell you?
1. This is a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations. The two

balls in a vertical line indicate the side on which an obstruction exists; the
two diamonds in a vertical line indicate the side on which it is safe to
pass; the ball / diamond / /ball in a vertical line indiacte that the vessel is
restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.
469. You are approaching a port in a snowstorm. You hear this signal. What kind
of vessel is it and what is it doing?
7. It comes from a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

470. You are close to the entrance to a port in thick fog.You hear the following
signal What does it mean?
That there is a vessel aground in the vicinity
471. This vessel is sighted ahead and slightly to port. What is her situation? What
will
you do?
This is a vessel not under command at anchor.
472. What are we seeing here?
8. A sailing vessel, seen from astern, where the edges of her sidelights are
both visible.
473. What is happening here?

These are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the
additional volutary signals for hauling nets.
474. What is the description for a sidelight, as shown in

Rule 21 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?
A green light on the starboard side and red light on the port side, showing an
unbroken light over an arc of 112.5 degree, from right ahead to 22.5 degrees
abaft the beam on the respective side.
475.
What signal may be given by sound and by light to
indicate that a vessel fails to understand the
intentions or actions of another vessel, or is in
doubt that sufficient action is being taken by the
other to avoid collision?
9. Five short and rapid blasts (flashes).
476. What type of vessel is this and from what

direction are you seeing it?
10.This is a vessel engaged in fishing other than trawling, making way

through the water, with outlying gear extending more than 150m in the
direction of the all-round white light. I am looking at her port side.
477.
What, by definition in the International Collision
Regulations, is a "vessel restricted in her ability
to manoeuvre"?
11.A vessel which from the nature of her work is restricted in her ability to
manoeuvre as required by the Rules and is therefore unable to keep out of
the way of another vessel.
478
You hear this signal from the vessel behind you.

What does it mean?
1. I am faster than you. Get out of the way.
478. To navigate a ship safely and support the bridge team, it is essential that the
passage plan is made
a. from berth to berth
479. When changes are made in a passage plan, who should be consulted and
briefed to ensure the revised plan is understood
a. Master
480. The correct order to follow while planning a passage would be

a. plan, monitor, execute, appraise.
481. In preparing a passage plan the effects of squat must be borne in mind, as
under keel clearance gets reduced. Which of these factors will cause the vessel to
squat?
a. Speed
482. Which of these are used to steer a ship by keeping a conspicuous object
lying ahead of the track?
a. A bearing line
483. What is a routeing measure aimed at the separation of opposing streams of
traffic by establishing traffic lanes called?
a. Traffic separation scheme
484. What is the purpose of Ship Reporting Systems?
a. To ensure all ships are complying with regulators
485. In which Publication can information on ship reporting be found?

a. Ship Routeing
486. In which publication can information on VTS be found?

a. Routeing Charts
487. Who is responsible to ensure that bridge watch manning levels are at all
times safe for the prevailing circumstances and conditions?
a. Navigating Officer
488. From where can the maneuvering characteristics of the vessel be obtained
a. Ships' particulars
489. Duties of the OOW also include one for the following
a. People working on deck
490. Where should notices be posted when work is being carried out on
aerials/sound signaling apparatus
a. Cargo Office
491. Which of the following should not used for collision avoidance?
a. Manual Radar potting
492. When must the position marked on the navigation chart be erased?
a. End of the voyage
493. When should operational checks on navigational equipment be carried out?

a. When preparing for sea and prior port entry
494. How often must manual steering be tested ?
a. When there has been a steering failure
495. How would the OOW be provide with an immediate check as to whether
engine orders are being followed
a. Telegraph
496. Who publishes the chart catalogue?

a. Hydrographer to the navy
497. When transiting along the coast it is advisable to use:

a. Charts of the hydrographic office of the relevant country
498. When planning ocean passages, which of these publications are useful?
a. Ocean passages of the world
499. Where can monthly information on ocean routeing, currents, wind, ice
limits and carious meteorological Information be obtained from
a. Notices to mariners
500. In which publication can characteristics be found?

a. Ship's routeing
501. Information obtained from harbour authorities are called:

a. Local warnings
502. In which publication will you find information pertaining to the general
interest of the Mariner?
a. Mariner's handbook
503. What is the shortest distance between any two points on a sphere?
a. Great circle
504. Who finally shoulders the responsibility for passage planning?

a. Second officer
505. Areas which the ship cannot go safely are shown by highlighting or cross-
hatching on a chart - What are these areas called?
a. No go areas
506. What is the line drawn on the chart around the no-go areas at a distance
such that, any part of the ship being navigated will not pass?
a. Margin of safety
507. What do you call the area where the ship can safely navigate ?
a. Safe water
508. On what type of charts would you draw coastal and estuarial tracks?
a. Medium scale charts
509. What type of courses are laid on a Mercator Chart?

a. True courses
510. Bearings picked up from a chart are:

a. True bearings
511. Which method is useful in monitoring cross track tendency in both poor and
good visibility…
a. Parallel indexing
512. What is a position shown on the chart, where a planned change of status
will occur?
a. Waypoint
513. When a ship reaches a point, beyond which it will not be possible to do
other than proceed ahead, then, it is called:
a. Last waypoint
514. Which of these publications are not used in a passage plan?
a. P & I guidelines
515. At what stage of a passage plan should light for making landfall and
primary/secondary position fixing methods be identified?
a. At the planning stage
516. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving

through the water, having been steaming through a shallow water channel
for several miles. The sheer may be strong and unexpected and is due to
what reason?
A. The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move
forward and cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
517. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and
there is little wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be
considered the best use of the tugs and at which position?
A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case the vessel's
movement towards the berth requires reducing by the tug pulling off.
518. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own
engines and assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be
connected to assist the ship in maintaining its course in the centre of the
channel?
A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
519. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when
moving in shallow water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of
the vessel through the water. If the speed through the water is HALVED
what will be the change in the affect of "Squat"
C. There will be a significant change in the reduction of

underkeel clearance, but the amount varies from ship to ship
520. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water
at full ahead throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions,
is now to make a complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the
turn. Would there be any difference in the size (diameter) of the turning
circle?
C. Yes, it will be much larger turning circle at half ahea
521. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard
pull exerted by the tug be the same at any speed?
A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be
expected that there will be a reduced pull exerted by the tug
522. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot
beam current.
At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the
draught and at the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the
draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the
first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the second if
the draught is the same?
A. 150 tonnes
523. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the
principle reasons creating the effects of squat?
A. There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease of
water pressure around the ship's hull
524. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the
channel and approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be
required to safely round the bend and what other effects could be
expected in this situation?
A. The heading should be carefully monitored, some port
rudder may be required to start the swing, though starboard
rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection.
525. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the
power requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways
without changing the heading? Both tugs have similar bollard pull
and are of conventional propulsion.
A. Much greater power on the forward tug than on the
after tug while monitoring the gyro heading
526. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to
manoeuvre, can be decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship
it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position of the tug relative to
the ship, for this adverse affect to be found?
C. The most dangerous position is where the tug has made
fast the towing spring and is then moving ahead of the larger
vessel.
527. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past
the rudder. If the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in
deep water, and then the engines are stopped, how much lift force remains?
A. About 20 %
528. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How
much "lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
A. About 10 %
529. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel
Clearance will reduce to about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the
following answers most accurately summarizes the aspects to be
considered when deciding a suitable speed?
A. All of the suggested answers
530. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots
which suddenly increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force
exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
C. The force will be Doubled
531. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a
sideways motion to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would
the "pivot point" be considered to be located?
C. At a position on the centreline, about 1/6 of the

ship's length aft of the bow.
532. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?
B. A rudder with equal rudder area forward and aft of the turning
axis, theturning axis being at the geometrical centre of
the rudder area
533. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when
used to assist in the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
C. The use of the tug's wire instead

of the ship's towing spring
534. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is
directionally unstable"?
B. When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will
continue on a straight course
535. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag
force When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains
if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)
B. About 10 %.
536. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night
you have been in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life
in the water. What would you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
537. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your
vessel. What immediate action should you take?
C. Send out a distress message on their behalf.
538. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when
it is in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds.
What is the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
B. Attempt to stop the ingress of water by listing the
ship over and bringing the damaged area of the hull
out of the water.
539. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels
involved in a collision. What will your actions be following the collision?
A. Make sure your vessel + crew are safe and
then offer your assistance to the other vessel
540. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel
has the required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general
alarm on board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation,
what other immediate steps should be taken?
A. Complete soundings of all
compartments to determine the
number of compartments floode Check
the vessels stability limitations within
its statutory loadline requirements to
determine if still adequate.
541. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other

vessel. As Master responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is
the first step to take?
A. Organise someone to assess the extent of damage
and the residual stability of the vessel
542. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme

and receives a navigational warning of another vessel progressing the
wrong way within the scheme. What actions should be taken on the
bridge, if any?
A. Use the Arpa for early identification of all other
ship movements within the traffic lane and give rogue vessel
a wide berth
543. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall .

C. Show a day-shape of two diamonds in a vertical line
544. A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing or otherwise restricted

in its ability to maneuver, sounds her fog signal at intervals of not
B. More than two minutes
545. You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog signal of
another vessel about 20° on your starboard bow. Risk of collision
may exist. You should
B. Reduce your speed to bare steerageway
546. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during daylight?
A. One black ball
547. You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see around the
bend because of the height of the bank. You should .
E. Sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds duration
548. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in length, at

anchor?
B. She must show all-round white lights forward and aft
549. Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a
lantern exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision
F. A 6-meter motorboat
550. Barges being towed at night

A. Must be lighted at all times
551. You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead showing both the
red and green sidelights. The required action to take would be to
G. Alter your course to starboard

552. You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, and one short blast
in succession. What is the meaning of this signal?
C. A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position.
553. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must show which light(s) at night?
A. A white light over a red light and anchor lights
554. A vessel which is fishing is required to show sidelights and a stern light only
when
C. Underway and making way
555. What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision?

C. The action must be positive and made in ample time.
556. In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You know that
she is also propelled by machinery if she shows .
B. A black cone
557. . Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is not in any
way disable Another vessel is approaching you on your starboard beam.
Which statement is TRUE?
B. Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
558. Vessels engaged in fishing may show the additional signals
described in Annex II to the Rules when they are .
C. In close proximity to other vessels engaged in fishing
559. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and higher than
her identifying lights?
C. A 100-meter vessel not under command
560. While underway in a narrow channel, a vessel should stay .
B. To the starboard side of the channel
561. Vessels of less than what length may not impede the passage of other
vessels which can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or
fairway?
B. 20 meters
562. A lantern combining the sidelights and stern light MAY be shown on a
B. 20-meter vessel engaged in fishing and making
way
563. The lights required by the Rules must be shown .
C. ONLY from sunset to
sunrise
564. Which vessel may carry her sidelights and stern light in a combined
lantern on the mast?
A. An 18-meter sailing
vessel
565. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where
other vessels may be hidden by an obstruction shall
C. Sound a prolonged blast
566. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving

through the water, having been steaming through a shallow water channel
for several miles. The sheer may be strong and unexpected and is due to
what reason?
A. The large volume of water dragged behind the
vessel continues to move forward and cause a
strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
567. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and
there is little wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be
considered the best use of the tugs and at which position?
A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case
the vessel's movement towards the berth requires
reducing by the tug pulling off.
568. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own
engines and assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be
connected to assist the ship in maintaining its course in the centre of the
channel?
A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
569. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when
moving in shallow water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of
the vessel through the water. If the speed through the water is HALVED
what will be the change in the affect of "Squat"
A. The squat effect will be reduced to a
quarter of its original value
570. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water
at full ahead throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions,
is now to make a complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the
turn. Would there be any difference in the size (diameter) of the turning
circle?
A. No, the diameter of the turning
circle would be almost the same.
571. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard
pull exerted by the tug be the same at any speed?
A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be
expected that there will be a reduced pull exerted by the tug
572. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1

knot beam current.
At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the
draught and at the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the
draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the
first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the second if
the draught is the same?
A. 150 tonnes
573. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the
principle reasons creating the effects of squat?
A. There is an increase in the water velocity and a
decrease of water pressure around the ship's hull
574. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the
channel and approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be
required to safely round the bend and what other effects could be
expected in this situation?
A. The heading should be carefully monitored, some port
rudder may be required to start the swing, though starboard
rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection.
575. In the situation illustrated,what should be the distribution of the
power requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways
without changing the heading? Both tugs have similar bollard pull
and are of conventional propulsion.
A. Much greater power on the forward tug than on the
after tug while monitoring the gyro heading
576. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution
of the tugs to maintain the ship sideways motion with only minor
changes in the ship's heading?
A. Considerably more power on the aft tug than the
forward tug, while monitoring the ship's gyro heading
577. It has been established by experience that the most successful
method of double banking two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one
of the following methods. Select which answer is considered the most
successful metho
A. When both vessels are underway, fig. 1
578. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen
overboar Which of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate
action when the person is still close to the vessel?
B. Scharnow Turn
579. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to
manoeuvre, can be decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship
it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position of the tug relative to
the ship, for this adverse affect to be found?
A. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches
the bow rounding the forward shoulder of the larger vessel.
580. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past

the rudder. If the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in
deep water, and then the engines are stopped, how much lift force remains?
A. About 2%
581. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How
much "lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
A. About 10%
582. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel
Clearance will reduce to about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the
following answers most accurately summarizes the aspects to be
considered when deciding a suitable speed?
A. All of the suggested answers
583. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots
which suddenly increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force
exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
A. The force will be Quadrupled
584. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a
sideways motion to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would
the "pivot point" be considered to be located?
A. At a position outside the hull of the ship itself
585. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?
A. A rudder with part of the rudder area forward of the turning
axis, therefore reducing the load on the steering motor.
586. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when
used to assist in the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
A. The position of the tug relative
to the ship's pivot point
587. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is
directionally unstable"?
A. The ship requires continual application of the
rudder to maintain a steady course
588. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag
force When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains
if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?
A. About 80 %
589. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an
effect known as "Squat". Which of the following statements most
accurately specify the results of squat on the vessel?
A. There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel
clearance and a possible change of trim.
590. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what
would be the best system of connecting the tow?
A. Wire from a deep sea tug
connected to the ship's
anchor chain.
591. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for
your vessel to maintain during this operation?
A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
592. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going
astern?
A. Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern
and the rudder post
593. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going
ahead?
A. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
594. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a

ship through narrow waters would be considered the most effective in the
event of loosing steering power?
A. The tug made fast on a line through the centre
lead astern. (figure 4).
595. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
A. Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship
596. Which are the four main elements of a radar system?
Transmitter, servo link, antenna, target
597. Which of these factors govern the echo presentation?

All of these.
598. How is attenuation affected when using waves of shorter wavelength?

a. Attenuation is greater
599. What is the ability of a radar set to clearly distinguish two targets, on the
same range and slightly different bearings, as two separate targets on the PPI
known as?
a. Range discrimination
600. Which control on the radar is used to suppress clutter?

a. Anti- clutter
601. What is used to control the amplification of echoes received

a. Brilliance
602. What is used as a portable, plotting device which is clamped on top of the
radar screen?
a. Plotting sheet
603. Which of these glues only a bearing and not a range?
a. Racon
604. Which of these is a result of true motion display?

a. Course, speed and aspect of any target obtained only by plotting of
triangle of relative velocities
605. What is used to warn the observer if any distinguishable target closes to a
range or transits a zone chosen by the observer?
a. Guard rings and zones
606. What can be used on the radar screen to eliminate automatic plotting in
selected areas?
a. Guard zones
607. Which are the two most important input information required to
operate the ARPA accurately?.
a. Speed and heading

608. What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked?
a. True vector
609. What is the rate at which two moving objects approach or separate from
each other called?
a. Relative movement
610. Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search and rescue operation?
a. Master
611. Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard

structures like the Samson posts etc. What are such areas known as?
a. Blind sectors
612. When two tracked targets are very close to each other, the data of one
target shifts over to the other target. What is this called?
a. Plotting
What does this control on the radar indicate?

613. (see
figure)
a. Transmitted power monitor.
614. What is this on the PPI? (see figure)
a. Clearing bearing.
615. What is no.4 ? (see figure)
.
a. Modulator.
616. What type of spurious echoes are these? (see

figure)
a. Multiple echoes.
617. What does the above diagram indicate? (see figure)
a. Bearing discrimination.
618. What is this mark? (see figure)
a. Racon
a. CRT
620. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
a. Between 1 - 2 miles
b. Between 2 - 2.2
miles
a. Between 1 - 2 miles
622. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?
C. Now or passedl;
623. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
a. Target A

a. Less than 1 mile
625. In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the quantity S is:
a. The speed of the radar waves
626. The purpose of radar is to enable:
a. The range and bearing of objects to be obtained
627. Radar uses pulse transmission in order to:
a. detect close range targets

628. Radar does not transmit continuously
because it would:
a. reduce the life of components
629. Target ranges are obtained from:
A.the range marker
630. Targets echoes appear along a line called

the :
a. heading marker
631. A reference for target bearings is provided by

a line on the radar screen called the :
a. heading marker
632. The unit which radiates the radar pulse is the:
a. scanner
633. The main component in the display unit is

the :
a. cathode ray unit
634. The main component of the transmitter is

the:
a. power supply
635. The purpose of the transmitter unit is to :
a. detect the returning
radar pulses
The magnetron sends the R.F. pulses

636. The transmitter P.R.F. is determined
to the :
by the :
D. trigger unit
637. The transmitted pulse length is

determined by the action of the :
a. magnetron
638.
a. display unit
639. The unit which sends returning ragets
echoes to the receiver is the:
a. scanner unit
640. The function of the waueguide is to :

a. generate the R.F. pulses
641. The purpose of the TM cell is to :
a. protect the receiver during transmission
642. The commonest type of radar scanner is the :
a. Horizontal slotted waveguide
643. The purpose of the anodes in the CRT. is

to :
a. attract the electrons to the screen
.
644. Positions obtain by radar :
a. should only be used in restricted visibility
645. Radar navigational techniques should :
D. only be used in poor visibility

646. 3
3
4. If parts of an adjacent coastline do not
show on the radar, one possible reason is
the :
a. presence of horizontal radar shadow sectors
647. An aid to identifying land features at

long range is:
a. a chart with topographic details

648. A radar fix at long range from land should
a. be used in preference to other methods.
649. The preferred method of radar position

fixing for greatest accuracy is :
a. taking a radar range and radar bearing

650. A useful aid to identifying land at long
range is :
D. the calculation of distance to the radar horizon

651. . If the highest part of the coast is not the
first target detected, the most likely
reason is :
c.That scanner is positioned too low

652. The use of radar ranges in preference to radar bearings for position fixing is because :
a. they are more accurate
653. The best land target to use for radar

ranging is :
a. a small rock
654. The best land target to use for a radar bearing is :

a. a large headland
655. When choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, if possible,
avoid :
a. small isolated features
656. A radar presentation feature which can

often be used to advantage for position
fixing is :
D. relative motion
657. 3 Edges of land should be avoided if

possible when position fixing by radar
because of :
a. the effect of vertical beamwidth
658. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods
of determining positions and include which of the following?
A. All of these suggested answers
659. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

A. YesDPK
660. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum
data required by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT .
H. Tidal currents
661. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as
required by IMO/IHO?
C. All of the above
662. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include
C. Vector and raster
663. Raster-scan chart data is .
B. Organized into many separate files
664. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
C. All of the above
665. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?
C. Ship hydrodynamic
information
666. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic
navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the
ENC by appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by the mariner, is
called the
C. System electronic navigational chart
667. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on
ECDIS is the _.
I. Standard display information
668. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the
ECDIS display and consists of information which is required at all times in all
geographic areas and under all circumstances is the .
A. Display base information
DPK
C. All of the above
A. If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route
J. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
672. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest

edition of information originated by a government-authorized hydrographic
office and conform to the standards of (the) .
K. International Hydrographic Organization
673. An ECDIS is required to display which information
B. Hydrographic data
C. All of the above
A. If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route
B. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
677. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest

edition of information originated by a government-authorized hydrographic
office and conform to the standards of (the)
B. International Hydrographic Organization
B. Hydrographic data
679. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Determine true bearing and distance between two geographical points
Determine magnetic compass deviation
680. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous
12 hours
681. A typical ECDIS “base display” shows the following information

Coastline seamarks and traffic separation schemes
682. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage
if the ship is in open waters ?

A. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger
by the effects of wind, tide or current
685. What is the main purpose the zoom funtion : to select appropriate chart scale to the
actual situation
686. The highnest level of commercial navigation accuracy is provided by : DGPS, whitin a
coverage area
687. which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satelites does a GPS receiver
need in order to provider an exact three demincional position ? : Two
688. with respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receiver should provide at a
minimum : None of the above
689. which data must ECDIS be able to record at one minute intervals : Course made good
history
690. the typical operating range of automatic identifitation system (AIS) at sea is nominaly :
20nm
691. before using a pre-progammed ECDIS route, what should you do ? : Check all route data
throughly
692. what is the effect of sailing in “course mode” ? : Ships course will not be corrected for
off set, but the course wil be Adjusted towards the nearest waypoint
693. the paths of intented travel between three or more point is the : Bearing
694. if own ships position in errorneus on an ECDIS system, what is the result ? : all position,
direction and courses taken from the ECDIS are errorneus
695. you are ploting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How
should this current be treated in determining the positon ? : The course and speed made good
should be determined and used to advance the LOP
696. An ECDIS is required to display which information ? :

Soundings
697. When the route planning process is completed,what should then be done ? : validate and
check all route data
698. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform ? : transformation of
local datum to WGS-’84 datum
699. What is the purpose of the “off track” limit ? : assist in controlling the ship track from
planned track
700. What is the most important thing to know about computerized systems ? : their functions
701. With respect to failure warnings and status indications,GPS receivers should provide,at a
minimum : A warning of losse of position
702. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one minute intervals ? : Course made good
history
703. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from
several satelite simultaneusly? : Continuous
704. How can the ships course change be described in detail ? : by specifying ships present
and future heading
705. As a licensed merchant marine officer you are expected to : All of the above
706. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous : 12
hours
707. What does a navigator who user and ECDIS require ? : Good navigation knowledge
and a professional job attitude
708. Does,IMO specify special training in use of ECDIS ? :

YES
709. An ECDIS is required to display which information ? :

Depth contours
710. When own ships position input to ECDIS is wrong,what is the result ? :
ECDIS will give warning
711. How many stages are there in the planning of a safe voyage
h. Four
712. What is the IMO definition of ECDIS ?
A system that display hydrographic information in order to assist the safe navigation
713. What is the purpose of voyage planning ?

i. To support the bridge team
j. To satisfy STCW regulations
k. To meet company regulations
l. I Don’t Know
714. A balanced rudder has some of the rudder area forward of the rudder axis. About how
much area should this be to call it a balanced rudder?
It should be about 20%
715. A ship is equipped with a right-handed fixed pitch propeller, which when going from Full
Ahead to Full Astern will make the ship sheer to starboard. Can anything be done to reduce
this change in heading?
The rudder can be put to Hard to Port to reduce the water flow to the right side of
the propeller
716. A ship is passing through a narrow channel and keeping to the starboard side of the
fairway, as illustrated. What could be expected in this situation?
The ship will suffer bank rejection and the bow will be pushed away from the bank
717. A ship is steaming at "Full Ahead" when the engines are changed to "Full Astern".
Would this reversal of engines produce the same results in deep water as in shallow water
(where the under keel clearance is equal to about half the draught)?
The effectiveness of the rudder and propeller are greatly reduced and therefore the results will
be considerably different
718. A ship normally turns (swings) around a point which is not the centre of gravity. What is
this point normally called?
Pivot Point
719. A ship turns around a point known as the "pivot point". Where is the position of this
invisible point when the ship is stopped and "dead" in the water?
At about same position as the centre of gravity of the ship
720. A tug is moving towards the bow of the ship to make fast and is in the vicinity of the
ship's shoulder, as illustrated. What specific danger should be considered when making this
approach to the bow?
The tug may be turned across the bow of the ship and also suffer a lose of stability with a
danger of being turned over if touched by the ship
721. How can the effects of Squat be minimized, when a ship is proceeding in shallow water?
Maintain a slow speed just sufficient to maintain steerage
722. If a ship requires 2 nautical miles to stop in the water from a "crash stop" when
proceeding at full ahead in deep water. What will the stopping distance be in shallow water?
A greater distance
723. Who is responsible for the number and the position of any tugs to be used during a
mooring operation?
The Master, with consideration of the advice of the pilot
724. You are sailing in shallow water with a 15% Under Keel Clearance. Turning the ship
around, what space do you need compared to deep water?
Need more space than normal
725. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR DRAUGHT"
given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Air draught is given by C on the figure
726. Ships vary considerably in design and underwater shape, but does the ship's trim
ever have any influence on its steering abilities? a. Yes, the ship often steers better
if trimmed by the stern
727. The engines are going astern and the ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots
with the rudder hard to starboard. What effect will this have on the ship's progress? a.
This will give the stern a lift force to starboard
728. The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think this is the
angle that the rudder is most effective?
a. No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees, this is because
the rudder is "stalling" at 35 degrees angle
729. Two ships are meeting in a restricted channel as illustrated. Which of the
following actions would be the most suitable to take on both vessels as they
approach and pass each other?
a. Slow down if possible without losing steerage and be prepared for prompt
application of rudder to counteract any swing as they approach and pass each
other
730. The ship's engine is going astern and the ship is picking up sternway. The
rudder is amidships and the ship has a single, right-handed, fixed pitch propeller.
What would be expected to happen?
a. The ship will probably start to change heading to starboard and stern
speed will increase
731. The ship has a right-handed propeller and is swinging to starboard when the
engines are slow ahead and the rudder is to starboard. The engines are stopped
and the rate of swing rapidly slows down. How could the swing to starboard be
maintained without the ship making much headway.
b. By applying the rudder hard over to starboard and going ahead on the
engines.
732. The ship has completed a 360 degree turn at full speed in deep water. The ship is
now to repeat the turn at full speed in shallow water. What will be the difference in
the turning circle diameter?
a. The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water
733. The ship is sailing in shallow water with reduced Under Keel Clearance. If the
ship is steaming with the engines at full RPM, what would be the speed in
comparison to the speed achieved in deep water?
a. Slower than deep water
734. The ship is required to be stopped in the water as quickly as possible, but without
major changes to the ship's heading. What is the most effective method to achieve
this?
a. The use of the rudder hard over both sides combined with reducing engine
power, a method known as "high frequency rudder cycling"
735. The ship is starting to slow down after steaming at full ahead speed. What will
happen to the position of the "pivot point"?
a. It will move aft as the ship slows down
736. The ship is steaming at Full Ahead when the engines are reversed to "Full
Astern" to stop the ship. The ship has a single, right-handed fixed pitch propeller.
What would be the anticipated reaction of the ship, if there is no wind or current?
a. The ship will probably sheer to starboard and gradually lose headway
737. The ship is to berth alongside a quay in calm conditions of no wind or current.
The ship has a single fixed pitch right handed propeller. Which angle of approach
would be considered the most favourable?
a. No. 2
738. The rudder is in the hard over position with the propeller stopped and the ship
turning slowly. On a ship with a single fixed pitch right handed propeller and no
thrusters, what can be done to make the ship increase the speed of turn without
significantly increasing the forward speed of the ship?
a. Give the engines a short kick ahead
739. The ship's rudder is full over when the ship's engines are full ahead. Will the
turning effect (lift force) of the rudder be changed when the engine is stopped?
a. Yes, the lift force will be dramatically reduced when the engines are
stopped
740. The vessel is in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If the engine speed is
reduced during the turn, will there be any change in the turning diameter
a. Yes, the turning diameter will increase if the speed is reduced
741. Two ships travelling in opposite directions are to pass each other in a narrow
river, as illustrated. Explain what is likely to happen as they pass each other?
a. Due to interaction, the bows will repel each other, and then when
alongside each other the two ships will be sucked together and finally the
sterns will be repelled as they start to pass clear
742. Two vessels are meeting each other in confined waters. What would be the
effects of interaction between the two vessels as they approach each other?
a. The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other
743. What depth of water would be considered as "Shallow Water" in relationship to a

change of the ships manoeuvring characteristics?
a. When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 50% of the draught of the
ship
744. What is the correct understanding of the term "a ship with good Directional
Stability"?
a. A ship which when the rudder is left amidships, it will continue on
approximately a straight course
745. What is the correct understanding of the term "bank effect"? If a ship was
approaching the bank at an angle, what would be the effect on the ship? a. The
vessel's bow is pushed away from the bank
746. What would be the correct definition of the term "Squat"?

a. Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance and the possible change of trim
of a ship when it moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water
pressure
747. What would be the effects of a ship passing into shallow water?
a. The ship is less responsive to both rudder and propeller
748. When a ship is lying at anchor in a tidal area using both forward anchors, to what
particular aspect should the officer of the watch be paying special attention?
a. When the ship swings to the tide the direction of swing should be controlled to
avoid the anchor cables becoming wrapped round each other
749. Who is responsible for the number and the position of any tugs to be used during
a mooring operation?
a. The Master, with consideration of the advice of the pilot
750. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located when the ship is
proceeding at full speed ahead and there is no wind or current?
a. At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow
751. Which of the following answers correctly specify the following most common
rudders? a) UNBALANCED, b) BALANCED, c) SEMI-BALANCED and d)
UNDERHUNG BALANCED. i.e. The number in the picture is related to the letter
adjacent to the name of the rudder
a. 1 = a, 2 = b, 3 = c and 4 = d
752. Which of the following hull shapes would normally provide a directionally stable
ship?
a. A long ship with a narrow beam
753. Which type of vessel suffers from the greatest squat effects?
a. Vessel with a high Block Coefficient
754. A reference for target bearings is provided by a line on the radar screen called
the :
a. heading marker
755. In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the quantity S is

d. The range scale in use
756. Radar does not transmit continuously because it would:

b. reduce the life of components / Prevent detection of targets
757. Radar uses pulse transmission in order to:

c. detect close range targets
758. Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard structures
like the Samson posts etc. What are such areas known as?
a. Blind sectors
759. Target ranges are obtained from:

a. the range marker
760. Targets echoes appear along a line called the :

d. centre line
761. The function of the waueguide is to :

d. block the transmitter during reception / Conduct pulses to and from the
scanner
762. The main component in the display unit is the:

a. scanner
763. The main component of the transmitter is the:
a. Antenna / Magnetron
764. The purpose of radar is to enable:

d. The range and bearing of objects to be obtained
765. The purpose of the transmitter unit is to :

b. detect the returning radar pulses
766. The transmitter P.R.F. is determined by the :

a. delay line
767. The unit which radiates the radar pulse is the:

d. transmitter
768. The unit which sends returning ragets echoes to the receiver is the:
b. transmitter unit
769. What does the above diagram indicate? (see figure)
d. Bearing discrimination.
770. What does this control on the radar indicate? (see figure)
d. Performance monitor.
771. What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked?
b. True vector

d. CRT

c. Modulator

c. Less than 0.9 miles

c. Less than 0.9 mile

d. Between 4 - 5 miles
777. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

c. Now or passed / Between 11-20 minutes
778. What is this mark? (see figure)

b. Racon / Ramark
779. What is this on the PPI? (see figure)

a. Raymark
780. What type of spurious echoes are these? (see figure)

a. Multiple echoes
781. When two tracked targets are very close to each other, the data of one target
shifts over to the other target. What is this called?
b. Target swap
782. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

c. Target A
783. Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search and rescue operation?
c. The second in command (CH. Officer)
784. vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo

deck will be assigned the class notation:
a. Ro-Ro◄
785. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required

for a vessel with machinery aft is:
Three◄
786. The transverse curve of the deck is called:

a. Camber◄
787. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the:

a. Inside of the Plating ◄
788. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery
space of a crude tanker is called:
a. A Cofferdam◄
789. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called:

a. Sheer◄
790. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one

side to a depth, h. measured from the bottom is:
a. 0.33 h◄
791. Istortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called"

a. Racking◄
792. Panting stresses are most severe:

a. Forward◄
793. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses

are liable to occur is:
a. Loaded, head sea◄
794. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good

system of:
a. Deck Girders◄
795. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is

stiffened to resist:
a. Panting & Racking◄
796. The connection of frames and beams at deck level
between the bulkheads is designed to resist:
a. Racking◄
797. A vessel in the condition shown in figure will be:
a. Hogging◄
798. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a

vessel's:
a. Layout◄
799. The connecting plate between a side frame and a

transverse deck beam is called a:
a. Knee ◄
800. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run

through it is called a:
a. Duct Keel ◄
801. The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the:

a. Sheer Strake ◄
802. The athwartships cross section structure shown in the

given Figure is a:
a. Flat Plate Keel ◄
803. When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in:

a. Tension ◄
804. The Figure shows a:

a. Bulwark Stanchion ◄
805. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates

is called a:
a. Shell Expansion Plan ◄
806. In Figure shown, the section marked 4 is:
a. A Flat Bar ◄
807. A vertically welded shell joint is called a:

a. Joint ◄
808. In the Figure shown, the items marked 6 are:
a. Bilge Brackets ◄
809. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be constructed wi
a. Scuppers ◄
810. Water is drained from an exposed deck by:

a. Freeing Ports ◄
811. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by:
a. Chocks◄
812. The type of framing shown in the drawing of this ship cross section is:
a. Longitudinal
813. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by fitting:
a. Pillars ◄
814. The type of weld shown in Figure is a:
a. Butt ◄ (seharusnya Tee Joint)

815. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to resist:
a. Panting ◄
816. The item of structure numbered 9 in the given Figure is a:
a. Panting Stringer ◄
817. A perforated flat is part of the structure in the:
a. Fore Peak
818. The pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker is called a:
a. Spurling ◄
819. The item of structure numbered 10 in the Figure given is a:
a. Bracket
820.
The item of structure numbered 11 in the given Figure is a:

a. Bulkhead
821. The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a:

a. Frame
822. The type of rudder in the Figure is:
a. Unbalanced ◄
823. The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a:
a. Gudgeon ◄
824. The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the:
a. Transom Floor
825. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the:
a. Summer Draught ◄
826. The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the:
a. Summer Allowance ◄
827. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the:

a. Winter Draught
828. The steel section shown here will be used to construct a:

a. Bulkhead √
829. In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propeller will

move in one revolution of the shaft is the:
a. Pitch √
830. When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be:

a. Zero √ ◄
831. The intact volume of a vessel above the waterline is

called:
a. Reserve Buoyancy √ ◄
832. A stiff vessel will have a GM which is:

a. Large √ ◄
833. Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the:

a. Main Deck to the Waterline √ ◄
834. A GZ curve is used to determine:

a. Stability √ ◄
835. The weight a vessel can carry is called the:

a. Deadweight √
836. The horizontal distance between the forces of Buoyancy and Gravity acting on a vessel when heeled by w
called the:
a. Righting Lever √

a. Forward √
838. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from the bottom is:
a. 0.33 h √
839. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist:
a. Panting & Pounding √
840. 557.Distortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called:
7 a. Racking √
841. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is:
a. In ballast, head sea √
842. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:

a. Deck Girders √
843. A vessel in the condition shown here is:

a. Hogging √
844. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is designed to resist:
a. Racking √

a. Camber √
846. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft is:
a. Three √

a. Inside of the Plating √

a. Sheer √
849. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the class notation:
a. Container √
850. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is called:
a. A Cofferdam √
851. The type of weld shown here is a:

a. Fillet √
852. The athwartships cross section structure shown here is a:

a. Flat Plate Keel √
853. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a:

a. Shell Expansion Plan √
854. He item marked 5 is a:

a. Frame √
855. This drawing shows a:
a. Bulwark Stanchion √
856. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to resist:
a. Pounding √

a. Sheer Strake √
858. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's:

a. Tank Capacities √
859. In the figure, the items marked 6 are:
a. Bilge Brackets √

a. Butt √
861. The connecting plate between a side frame and a

transverse deck beam is called a:
a. Knee √
862. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a:

a. Duct Keel √
863. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be constructed wi
a. Sills √
864. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by Fitting:

a. Deck Girders √

A. Compression √

a. Freeing Ports √
867. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by.

a. Brackets √

a. Fresh Water Allowance √
869. The vertical distance top to top between the load line
marks S and F is the:
a. Fresh Water Allowance √
870. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the:
a. Statutory Freeboard √
871. The item of structure numbered 12 is a:
a. Stern Bearing √
a. Wash Plate √

a. Double Bottom √

a. Gudgeon √
a. Transom Floor √

a. Breast Hook √

a. Keel Plate √
878. The item of the structure numbered 9 is a:
a. Panting Stringer √
879. A 6-men inflatable liferaft shall be carried as far forward as is reasonable and practicable.
Where is the best stowing position?
Aft of the forecastle
880. A davit-launched liferaft on board a ship is so arranged to be boarded by its full

complement of persons in less than:
3 min
881. A floating liferaft is capable of withstanding repeated jumps on to it from a height of at

least:
4,50 m
882. A lifebuoy is constructed to withstand a drop into the water from a height of:
30 m
883. A lifebuoy light is capable of working at minimum for a period of, and has a luminous
intensity of:
2 h, 2 candela (about 1,7 mile range at normal meteorological sight)
884. A lifejacket has sufficient buoyancy and stability to lift the mouth of an unconscious
person at a minimum of:
120 mm above the water (in calm water)
885. A lifejacket is so constructed that a person can correctly don it within a period of:
1 Min
886. A lifejacket must not sustain burning or continue melting after being totally enveloped in
a fire for a period of:
2 sec
887. A lifejacket should be provided with:

A whistle and a light
888. A person wearing a thermal protective aid shall be able:
to wear a lifejacket inside
889. A person wearing an adult lifejacket shall be able:

to swim a short distance through the water and board a survival craft
890. A person wearing an anti-exposure suit shall be able to:

perform all duties associated with abandonment, assist others and operate a rescue boat
891. A person wearing lifejacket or immersion suit, shall be able to turn from a face-down to a
face-up position in not more than:
5 seconds
892. According to SOLAS, every persons assigned to crew the rescue boat or assigned to the
marine evacuation system party shall be provided with:
An immersion suit or an anti-exposure suit
893. An evacuation-slide must be capable:

of being deployed by one person
894. An immersion suit is constructed such that it can be unpacked and donned within:
2 min
895. An immersion suit is:

Not allowing undue ingress of water after a jump from a heoght of not less than 4.5 m into
the water
896. An immersion suit which has its own buoyancy is fitted with:
A light plus a whistle
897. An immersion suit will not sustain burning or continue melting after being totally
enveloped in a fire for a period of:
2 sec
898. An inflatable lifejacket has:

2 separate compartments
899. An inflatable lifejacket will inflate:
Either automatically on immersion or by a single manual motion or by mouth
900. An inflatable liferaft accommodating 6 persons is fitted with:

1 entrance fitted with semi-rigid boarding ramp
901. Give the meaning of the following symbol:
child's lifejacket
Davit launched liferaft

Liferaft
904. Give the meaning of the following symbole:
Lifebuoy with light

905. Give the meaning of this symbol:
Lifebuoy
lifebuoy with light and smoke

Lifebuoy with line

908. Having boarded the liferaft, how do you release the painter?
Cut it with the safety knife stowed on the exterior of the canopy close to the painter
attachment point
909. How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack? 2
910. How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack? 1
911. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack? 6
912. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack? 3
913. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack? 4
914. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack? 4
915. How many thermal protective aids are carried in each liferaft?
10% of the number of persons the liferaft is designed to carry, or two, whichever is more
916. How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft marked SOLAS B PACK?
Not less than 10000 Kj
917. How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft?

Not less than 10000 kJ
918. How much water per person is provided in a liferaft equipped with a desalting apparatus?
1 litre
919. How much water per person is provided in a liferaft not equipped with a desalting
apparatus?
1.5 litre
920. How should the hook be released from a davit lowered liferaft?
Just prior to reaching the water, the lanyard should be pulled. This sets the hook which will
automatically release once the raft is waterborne
921. How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with a hydrostatic release be secured
to the ship?
Secured via a weak link to a secure part of the ship
922. If conditions permit, which is the best way to board a liferaft that is floating close to the
ship?
Use a rope ladder close to the raft to climb down and board
923. In the life raft, the manually controlled inside lamp must be capable of working at
minimum for a period of:
12 h
924. In which way shall a survivor be hauled out of the sea?

Horizontal
925. On a dark night with a clear atmosphere, the outside manually controlled lamp of a
liferaft is visible at minimum at a distance of:
2 mile
926. On board a ship, how many lifebuoys can you expect to be fitted with a self-igniting
light ?
Half of the total number of lifebuoys provided on board
927. The breaking strength of the painter in a liferaft permitted to accommodate 6 persons is at
least:
7.5 kN
928. The breaking strength of the painter in a liferaft permitted to accommodate 15 persons is
at least:
10 kN
929. The container for an inflatable liferafts shall be made:

watertight, as far as possible,except for drain holes in the container bottom
930. The grabline of a lifebuoy has a length of:

4 times the outer diameter of the lifebuoy
931. The main buoyancy chamber of an inflatable liferaft must be divided into:
2 compartments
932. the minimum number of lifebuoys required on a cargo ship depends on

the length of the ship
933. The outside manually controlled lamp of a liferaft must be capable of working at
minimum for a period of:
12 h
934. The rescue quoit of a liferaft is attached to a buoyant line whose length is at least:
30 m
935. The stability and strength of a liferaft when loaded with its full complement of persons
and equipment is such that it can be towed in calm water at speeds of up to: 3 knots
936. The weak link of a float-free arrangement for liferafts must break under a strain of: 2,2
kN ± 0,4 kN
937. The wearer of a lifejacket can jump into the water without injury and without damaging
the jacket from a height of at least:
4,50 m
938. Wearing an immersion suit when abandon ship is effective permits the person:
to jump from a height of 4.5m into the water without being injured or damaging the suit
939. What equipment is provided in a liferaft to help you keep warm in cold weather?
The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to help insulation, inaddition to
the thermal protective aids (10% of complement, minimum 2)
940. What is a hydrostatic release unit?

A unit which automatically releases the liferaft/lifeboat at a depth of approx 4 metres.
941. What is the first thing you are doing when having a lifeboat drill?
Put on the life jacket
942. What is the greatest interest of the "help" position ? It lessens the survivor's heat escape
943. What is the main characteristic of the weak link in a float-free arrangement for inflatable
liferafts?
be of sufficient strength to permit to pull the painter from the container and the inflation of
the liferaft
944. What is the meaning of this symbol ?
Immersion suit
945. What is the minimum length of the buoyant lifeline that is fitted to a lifebuoy which is
stowed at a distance of 10 metres above the waterline (light condition)?
30 metres
946. What method shall be used when hauling survivors out of the sea (state of survivors is
critical)?
Using nets
947. What shall a rescue person use if he has to jump into the water in order to assist a
survivor?
Survival suit and lifeline
948. What will you bring in a lifeboat if the ship is abondoned?

Warm clothes, blankets and lifevests.
949. What will you do when all the fresh water in the survival craft is finished or about to
finish?
Start collecting rain water
950. Which item among those below is included in the normal equipment of every liferaft Two
sponges
951. Which of air and water is the fluid that transfers the greatest amount of heat during the
same time, given that the fluid is not flowing along the immersed body Water
952. Which of the following actions should be done before throwing this type of inflatable
liferaft over the side?
Check that the painter is made fast to a secure point and that the sea below is clear
953. Which of the following features is required for an anti-exposure suit ?

is fitted with a light and a whistle
954. Which one of the following requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to present
SOLAS regulations ?
not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignition lights.
955. Which one of the listed requirements regarding inflatable liferafts corresponds to present
regulations? Every liferaft shall be so constructed that:
be prevented from pressure exceeding twice the working pressure, either by relief valves or
by limited gas supply
956. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-jackets corresponds to present
SOLAS regulations ? A life-jacket shall be so constructed that:
it allows the wearer to jump from height of at least 4.5 m into the water without injury and
without damaging the life-jacket
957. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of liferafts corresponds to
present SOLAS regulations?
Liferafts shall be stowed with its painter permanently attached to the ship
958. Which part of the float-free arrangement for inflatable liferafts is made to provide a
connection between the ship and the liferaft?
the painter
959. Which part of the float-free arrangement for inflatable liferafts is made to release the
liferaft after being automatically inflated during the ship is sinking?
The weak link
960. Which part of the fresh water quantity provided for each person the liferaft is permitted to
accommodate may be replaced by a de-salting apparatus?
0,5 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 2 day
961. You have abandoned ship in a liferaft. In most cases, which of the following actions
should you generally take?
Organise a lookout system. Join up with other survival craft if possible. Stream the sea
anchor
962. You have abandoned ship in a liferaft. Which of the following actions should you take?
Organize a lookout system and join up with other survival craft if possible. You should also
stream the sea anchor
963. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the
body. Most damage occurs at the points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the
treatment of electrical burns?
a. Place sterile dressing over the burn and secure with a bandage.
964. A casualty suddenly loses consciousness and falls to the ground letting out a
strange cry. The pasient is red-blue in the face and froth may appear around the
mouth. You are witnessing a major epileptic attack. What should you do? a. Loose
tight clothing, ask all unnecessary bystanders to leave and carefully place something
soft under the head. If casualty is unconscious, place the person in Recovery
position.
965. A faint is a brief loss of consciousness of no more than momentary duration

caused by a temporary reduction in the flow of blood to the brain.How to prevent
anyone from fainting? a. Tell the person to sit down and lean forward with the head
between the knees taking deep breaths.
966. Abdominal Thrust is the name on a technique which involves applying a series of
thrusts to the upper abdomen in an attempt to force air out of a choking casualty's
lungs. How to perform this technique? a. Stand behind the casualty. Clench your fist
with the tumb inwards in the center of upper abdomen. Grasp your fist with your
other hand and pull quickly inwards.
967. After checked for open airway, given the first two inflations and checked the
pulse to make sure that the heart is beating, what is the rate of inflations given until
natural breathing is restored ?
a. 12 - 16 times per minute
968. If a person has been overcome by fumes from toxic cargoes such as acetone
cyanohydrin and has ceased breathing, you would:
a. Wait for a resuscitator to be brought from the ship's first aid locker and use it?
969. If a person is in a state of shock, what of the following is the correct thing of you
to do? a. Treat and reassure the casualty and stay with the person at all times.
970. If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the
casualty's heart stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform External Chest
Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the complete rate when
performing ECC?
a. Complete 30 compressions at the rate of 100 compressions per minute
Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the rythm when performing
M-T-M in combination with ECC with one First Aider only ? a. 15 compressions
followed by 2 full ventilations.

Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. When performing ECC, where do
you place your hand on the casualty's body? b. Place the heel of your hand on the
top of the heart position. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand.
973. In which way may intake of poisonous material occur?b. By inhalation.
974. Inflatable splints are made in various sizes and are shaped to the upper and
lower limbs. What is the advantages of an inflatable splint? a. It is more easy to give
correct pressure to the fractured/injured area, and the control of swelling and
bleeding is more easy to observe.
975. It is important that a compress is done correctly. One of the alternative signs ,
after completed compress bandage, shows that the bandage may be to tight. Which
one? a. Swelling below the bandage and heavy pain.
976. Shock is a manifestation of changes in which the circulation fails because either
pressure or volume of circulating blood has fallen to a dangerous level. What is the
skin colour of a patient in shock?
a. Pale or grey.
977. The passage of electrical current through the body may result in severe and
sometimes fatal injuries. You are witness to man getting electric current through his
body and is stuck to the dangerous area. It is impossible to switch off the current by
any main switch. How to break the
current safely? a. Stand on dry insulating material and pull the person away with
isolating material.
978. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of the injury. What is the
correct thing to do for minor burns and scalds? a. Place the injured part under slowly
running cold water for at least 10 minutes, but preferably until the pain is gone. If no
water is available, use any cold, harmless liquid.
979. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should
be placed in the Recovery Position. Why is this position so important? a. The
position ensures that an open airway is maintained.
980. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should
be placed in the Recovery Position. What is the Recovery Position?
a. As shown in figure 1.
981. Unfortunately a fish hook has entered someone's finger. The barb of the hook is
even inside the skin. How to remove the fish hook? a. Push the hook through the
skin until the barb protrudes, then cut the hook between the barb and the skin and
gently withdraw the hook.
982. Unfortunately an insect has become lodged in the ear. How to remove the insect?
a. Gently flood the casualty's ear with terpid water so that the insect will float out.
983. What do you call the method used for bone-soft part injuries? a. ICE-method.
984. What does the abbreviation ABC mean in first aid? a. Air, Breathing, Circulation.
985. What is one of the dangerous states a survivor may suffer from?a.
Hypothermia
986. What will you serve seafarers who has been exposed to cold? a. Warm nutritious
drinks.
987. What will you serve seafarers who have been exposed to heat?
a. Cold drinks and salt.
988. Which muscle is the most persevering one in the body? a. The heart.
989. Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the nose?
a. Sitting on a chair, leaning forward, with two fingers pressing the nose together.
990. You are witnessing someone about to faint. What are the symptoms ?
a. The person may be very pale, and pulse is slow at first and weak.
991. You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a resuscitation situation. What is the
rythm of resuscitation with two First Aiders? a. 5 compressions after every 1 inflation
992. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to
return. The first report you make should be to the…….
IMigration Servies.
993. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by :

The fastest means available.
994. All necessary information for the next port of call should be:
Procured before departure from a port.
995. It is masters responsibility to ensure that?.

Concerned personnal carry out the on-board traing progamme effectively.
996. Identify 4 of the five steps in team formation and development ?.

Forming,storming,norming and performing.
997. If master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessels interest full and
proper attention he should?.
Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company.
998. Master of every ship must provide?.

A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer
Ashore.
999. Onboard training should be organized in such a way that:

It is an integral part of the overall training plan.
1000. Prior to ordering stores for any department?.

The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items required.
1001. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained in order to?.
Control the ships budget.
1002. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the
USCG requires:96 hours notice of arrival.
1003. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible
treatment?.
For ships clearance to take place quikly and without complications
1004. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to..?.

Draw one line through the entry,rewrite,and initial the correction.
1005. The responsible person for maintaining butget on board normally is:
Master.
1006. To be an effective communicator in a team ?

.Never listen by yourself.
1007. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:
Undestanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides.
1008. To help turn individual into becoming a team player we would need to ?.
Train them in one task at a time.
1009. The office phone, fax, telex, and after office hours telephone numbers can be
found in ?.
The ships emergency contingency manual.
1010. To help create and manage diversity in a team you need to?.
Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions.
1011. The roles and responsibilities of a team includes?.

Assimilating diversity.
1012. The majority of conventions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which
of the three main categories?.
Maritime safety, Prevention of marine pollution, liability and compensation.
1013. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency

phone..?.
All accidents where crew are injured or killed.
1014. Which of the following is not a type of team?

.Individual.
1015. Which of these is an Advantage of teamwork?.

Can provide support.
1016. Which of these is Disadvantage of teamwork?.

More time is taken to performthe task.
1017. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accommodation

areas?.
To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic
condition.
1018. Why is it important to have good relationship on board a vessel?.

It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew.
1019. What individual or group behaviours might lead to an effective team?.

Able to listen to feedback.
1020. Where will you normally find the ships documents including crew passports
and crew passport and CDC on board a vessel?.Ships Office.
1021. When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying
effective team decision making?.
Decision reached by voting or by consensus.
1022. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ships documents?
.Master.
1023. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested:
a. Every week
1024. "During a bomb search, which of the following is an important principle to follow?"
a. Do not touch any suspicious packages
1025. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release
system,precautions to ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room due to a
mistake are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken?
The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.
1026. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be
serviced:
a. Every 12 months.
1027. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this information
recorded in the OLB?
a. Every three months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness
1028. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
a. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years
1029. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is equipped
with fire detectors. What requirements of testing and checking of the detectors are to be
observed?
a. All the mentioned alternatives.
1030. The best way to identify an IED is to?

a. Recognize its components.
1031. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows: a. length =
480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm
1032. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of:
a. Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
1033. This device can detect a package of drugs inside a large delivery of ship’s stores. What is
it?
a. Pallet scanner
1034. "What do crew, visitors and contractors all have in common?"

a. They all have opportunity to smuggle drugs.
1035. What is an IED?
a. A homemade bomb
1036. What is the purpose of the Ship Security Plan?

a. Protect your ship from risks posed by security threats or incidents.
1037. When handling drugs…

a. Wear skin protection and a facemask.
1038. When is a visitor onboard required to present an ID?

a. "On SECURITY Level 1, 2 & 3"
1039. Which of the following areas may be possible restricted areas? (Review all answers)
a. All alternative
1040. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present

regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1)
b. All the life-buoys shall be placed in holders with quick-release arrangement
1041. Which of these are indications that a parcel is suspicious?

a. "The parcel is addressed to no one in particular, arrives unexpectedly and seems
heavy for its size."
1042. Which of these are indicators that an individual may be a drug smuggler?
a. The individual wears bulky or out of season clothing.
1043. Which of these weapons are widely available and commonly used by criminals and
terrorists to further their aims?
a. Gun
1044. Which of these types of information is considered sensitive?
a. Voyage itinerary and departure and arrival times.
1045. Which of these actions should crew take if a suspicious object that may be a bomb is
located during a search?
a. Confirm with their search partner that the object found is suspicious.
1046. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to
present regulations?
a. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire
retardant material
1047. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving
appliances correspond to present regulations?
c. At least one member of the crew shall hold a repairman certificate for life-saving
equipment
1048. Which Security Levels requires the highest security alert?
a. Security Level 3
1049. Which statement about IED’s is true?
a. All IED’s have four common components.
1050. Which type of equipment can be used to detect explosives? a. Particulate
detector
1051............................................................................................................................ Yang bertugas
tanggung jawab semua peralatan keselamatan yang ada diatas kapal adalah
Mualim III
1052. Yang tidak termasuk setifikat sesuai dengan ISM Code adalah : CLC
1053. How can an azimuth or bearing be indicated by signal flags?
a. The letter A + three numerals.

1054. Signals are often used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue
operations to direct ships towards a casualty. This aircraft flies
across your stern, rocking his wings. What is the meaning of the signal?
a. The assistance of your vessel is no longer required.
1055. Visual signals are used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to
directships towards a casualty. The signals shown here are part of a sequence. What
does it indicate?
a. The aircraft is directing a vessel towards the casualty.
1056. What does this flag mean?
a. I diver down; keep well clear at slow speed.
1057. What does this signal hoist mean?

a. I require immediate assistance.
1058. What does this two flag hoist signal indicate?
a. I am in distress and require immediate assistance.

b. Keep clear. I have divers down.
c. I require medical assistance.
d. (On a vessel alongside) You should proceed at
slow speed when passing me.
1059. What is the two letter signal, to be used by flags,

radiotelephony or radiotelegraphy, meaning "Calling All
Ships".
a. CQ
1060. What letter is represented by this flag and what is it's meaning when displayed by
a vessel in port?
a. P - All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to
sea.
1061. You are approaching the port entrance. What do these lights mean?
a. Vessels may proceed - two-way traffic.
1062. You are proceeding up a river, with berths on both banks. You see this flag hoist
on a vessel moored on a berth ahead. What does it mean?
a. You should proceed at slow speed when passing me.
b. Caution! I have an anchor down.
c. My engine is disabled.
d. I am about to depart the berth.
1063. Which flag means ? "I have a diver down, keep well clear at slow speed."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag 2
c. Flag 1
d. Flag 3
1064. Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am maneuvering with difficulty."
a. Flag 3
b. Flag 2
c. Flag 4
d. Flag 1
1065. Which flag means ? "I am taking in, or discharging, or carrying dangerous
goods."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag 3
Flag 2
c. Flag 1
1066. Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am engaged in pair trawling."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag 2
c. Flag 3
d. Flag 1
1067. Which flag means ? "My vessel is 'healthy-and I request free pratique."
a. Flag 3
b. Flag 4
c. Flag 2
d. Flag 1
1068. Which flag means ? "I require a tug. When made by fishing vessels operating in
close proximity on the fishing grounds, it means: am shooting my nets."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag 1
c. Flag 2
d. Flag 3
1069. Which flag means ? "You are running into clanger."

a. Flag 4
b. Flag 2
c. Flag 3
d. Flag 1
1070. Which flag means ? "Stop carrying out your intentions and watch for my signals."
a. Flag 1
b. Flag 4
c. Flag 2
d. Flag 3
1071. Which flag means ? "I require assistance."
a. Flag 3
b. Flag 2
c. Flag 4
d. Flag 1
1072. Which flag means ? "I am operating astern propulsion."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag 1
c. Flag 2
d. Flag 3
1073. Which flag means ? "I wish to communicate with you."
a. Flag 3
b. Flag 1
c. Flag 4
d. Flag 2
1074. Which flag means ? "I am disabled. Communicate with me."
a. Flag 1
b. Flag 4
c. Flag 3
d. Flag 2
1075. Which flag means ? "I am altering my course to starboard."
a. Flag 3
b. Flag 1
c. Flag 2
d. Flag 4
1076. Which flag means ?" You should stop your vessel instantly."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag 1
c. Flag 3
d. Flag 2
1077. Which flag means ? "I am on fire and have dangerous cargo on board, keep well
clear of me?'
a. Flag 2
b. Flag 3
c. Flag 4
d. Flag 1
1078. Which flag means? "I have a pilot on board."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag 3
c. Flag 2
d. Flag 1
1079. Which flag means?"' am altering my course to port."
a. Flag 2
b. Flag 1
c. Flag 4
d. Flag 3
1080. Which flag means? "I require a pilot. When made byfishing vessels operating in
close proximity on the fishing grounds it means: I am hauling nets."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag 2
c. Flag 3
d. Flag 1
1081. Which flag means? "My vessel is

stopped and making no way through the
water."
a. Flag 3
b. Flag 2
c. Flag 4
d. Flag 1
1082. Which flag means? "Man overboard."
a. Flag 2
b. Flag 3
c. Flag 4
d. Flag 1
1083. Which flag means? "In harbour. All persons should report on board as the vessel
is about to proceed to sea. At sea, it may be used by fishing
vessels to mean: My nets have come fast upon an obstruction."
a. Flag 4
b. Flag I
c. Flag 3
d. Flag 2
1084. Which flag means?"' I am dragging my anchor."
a. Flag 2
b. Flag 4
c. Flag 3
d. Flag 1
1085. Which flag means? "I require a medical assistance."
a. Flag 3
b. Flag 4
c. Flag 2
d. Flag 1
1086. Which flag means? "No ( negative )."
a. Flag 2
b. Flag 4
c. Flag 1
d. Flag 3
1087. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?
a. Charlie
b. Juliet
c. Lima
d. Uniform
a. Foxtrot
b. Charlie
c. Golf
d. Delta
a. Hotel
b. Kilo
c. Echo
d. Tango
a. Charlie
b. Foxtrot
c. Lima
d. Alfa
a. Whisky
b. Golf
c. Papa
d. Yankee
a. Hotel
b. Juliet
c. Victor
d. Xray
a. Zulu
b. Papa
c. India
d. Mike
a. Lima
b. Juliet
c. Romeo
d. Bravo
a. Oscar
b. Kilo
c. Quebec
d. Sierra
a. Echo
b. Hotel
c. Lima
d. Alfa
a. Mike
b. Uniform
c. Whisky
d. Foxtrot

a. November
b. Oscar
c. India
d. Golf
a. Uniform
b. Papa
c. Yankee
d. Oscar
a. Papa
b. Hotel
c. Alfa
d. Juliet
a. Quebec
b. Oscar
c. India
d. Victor
a. Romeo
b. Zulu
c. Tango
d. Xray
a. Whisky
b. Sierra
c. Lima
d. Papa
a. Golf
b. Juliet
c. Tango
d. Hotel
a. Uniform
b. Lima
c. November
d. Mike
a. Yankee
b. Whisky
c. Mike
d. Victor
a. Whisky
b. Echo
c. Elena
d. Charlie
a. Oscar
b. Yankee
c. Yankee
d. Xray
a. Echo
b. Oscar
c. Yankee
d. Foxtrot
a. Lima
b. Foxtrot
c. Zulu
d. Uniform
1111. Which flag group means "Vessel indicated is reported as requiring assistance in
lat..long..(or bearing. from lace indicated, distance..)." ?
a. A
b. D
c. C
d. B
1112. Which flag group means "Do not pass too close to me." ?
a. A
b. D
c. B
d. C
1113. Which flag group means You should proceed at slow speed when passing me or
vessels making this signal." ?
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. C
1114. Which flag group means "I require health clearance" ?
a. A
b. C
c. B
d. D
1115. Which flag group means Interrogative or the significance of the previous group
should be read as a question" ?
a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C
1116. Which flag group means "Light vessel out of position" ?
a. C
b. D
c. A
d. B
1117. Which flag group means I is it not safe to fire a rocker?
a. B
b. C
c. A
d. D
1118. Which flag group means " You appear not to be complying with the traffic
separation scheme ?
a. D
b. B
c. A
d. C
1119. Which flag group means "I am ( or vessel indicated is ) in charge or coordinating
a search" ?
a. C
b. A
c. D
d. B
1120. Which flag group means "Look-out for a rocket-line" ?
a. A
b. D
c. B
d. C
1121. Which flag group means "I am going to communicate with your station by means
of the International Code of Signals"
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
1122. Which flag group means "I am in distress and require immediate assistance ?
a. D
b. B
c. C
d. A
1123. Which flag group means "You should proceed with great caution; Submarines are
exercising in this area" ?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
1124. Which flag group means "The groups which follow are from the International
Code of Signals"?
a. D
b. B
c. C
d. A
1125. Which flag group means "I am calibrating radio direction finder or adjusting
compasses" ?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. B
1126. Which flag group means "The words which follow are in plain language ?
a. A
b. D
c. B
d. C
1127. Which flag group means Have you a doctor " ?
a. C
b. B
c. A
d. D
1128. Which flag group means "What is the name or identity signal of your vessel" ?
a. A
b. C
c. B
d. D
1129. Which flag group means "I am engaged in submarine survey work ( underwater
operations }. Keep well clear of me at slow speed." ?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D
1130. Which flag group means "I wish to communicate with you by VHF channel 16" ?
a. D
b. B
c. C
d. A
1131. Which flag group means "You should keep away from me or the vessel
indicated" ?
a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C
1132. In what operations would a ship showing this flag be engaged ?
a. Escorting a submerged submarine

b. Diving operations
c. Minesweeping
d. Fishing with purse seine gear
1133. What type of vessel is this?
a. A trawler
b. Any type of fishing vessel
c. A vessel at anchor
d. A vessel not under command
1134. What sort of vessel would display this day signal ?
a. A sailing vessel which is aground

b. A vessel engaged in underwater demolition work
c. A vessel which is in distress and
requesting assistance
d. A fishing vessel with gear fast to a
rock and at anchor
1135. What type of vessel shows these shapes?
a. A tug and tow

b. A vessel restricted in ability to
manoeuvre
c. A vessel not under command
d. A tug and tow where the length of
tow exceeds 200m
1136. Which is the correct day signal for a vessel engaged in hydrographic surveying ?
a. Day signal A
b. Day signal D
c. Day signal B
1137. A bulk carrier loading to summer marks would load to

a. The top of the summer load line mark
1138. A good indicator of the possibility of cargo damage on a bulk carrier is
a. Disallowing cargo interests on board
1139. After a fresh water rinse, presence of salt in the hold of a bulk carrier can be
tested
a. By carrying out silver nitrate tests which should turn milky in the presence
of chlorides
1140. During the draft survey it is noticed that the vessel is trimmed outside the limits of
its trim correction tables. Immediate actions should be to:
a. Bring the vessel to within the trim limits imposed by the tank sounding
tables prior to carrying out the survey
1141. Hague-Visby rules are applicable to
a. Contracts of carriage evidenced by a bill of lading
1142. If the cargo loading rate on a bulk carrier exceeds the de-ballasting rate and
thereby affecting the hull stresses, the OOW must
a. Notify the terminal representative and ask him to stop loading for a while
1143. If the temperature of bulk coal cargo during voyage is noted to be above 55 degree
Celsius, the recommended procedure is to
a. Seal the hold and monitor the cargo using suitable instruments
1144. It is common practice for all bulk carriers to be trimmed and levelled on
completion of loading, so as to:
a. Reduce the possibilities of the cargo shifting at sea
1145. Loading rates of bulk iron ore must be controlled so that:
a. The vessel can manage with de-ballasting operations
1146. On a Bulk Carrier, which of these statements is correct?
a. Steel slabs must never be permitted to rest directly against any part of the
ship's structure
1147. The maximum possibility of sea water entering the cargo hold of a bulk carrier is
through:
a. Hatch covers and coamings
1148. The recommended way to stow steel wire rod coils on a bulk carrier is
a. With their cores aligned fore and aft
1149. Under way to discharging port temperature tests indicate fire in a hold loaded with
coal. What is the first action to be taken?
a. Fill the hold with water
1150. When accurate draft readings are required, it is recommended to read both port
and starboard drafts. This is because:
a. The vessel may appear up right but may have a slight list causing
difference in the port and starboard actual drafts
1151. When loading a bulk carrier at a high loading rate, the vessel will experience
highest tension in bottom structure:
a. During loading of heavy cargo in midship section
1152. When loading, it is recommended not to drop iron ore cargo from a height into the
cargo hold bottom because this can cause:
a. Damage to the tank top and double bottom internals
1153. A cargo of steel dwarf and borings (waste steel material from industrial processes)
carried on a Bulk Carrier is particularly liable to?
a. Oxygen depletion in the cargo space and self-heating of the cargo
1154. Bulk coal cargoes may produce methane and carbon monoxide gases, their main
feature being that both these gases are
a. Flammable and heavier than air
1155. Cargo sweat is generally caused when
a. Warm and moist air is introduced into a cooler cargo hold
1156. Carrying coal with a high sulphur content in bulk could result in
a. Corrosion of steelwork in the cargo holds if the cargo becomes wet
1157. The main problem when a dry bulk cargo develops a flow state is that
a. The cargo shifts easily causing major stability problems
1158. The term cargo sweat refers to
a. Condensation of moisture directly onto the cargo
1159. Ventilation of steel cargoes carried on a bulk carrier should be carried out
a. When passing from a cool to a relatively warm climate
1160. When carried in bulk, which of the following cargoes is most likely to liquefy due
to compression and/or vibrations?
a. Iron ore concentrates
1161. When carrying dry bulk cargoes, a low angle of repose indicates that
a. The cargo is more liable to shift than cargo with a high angle of repose
1162. With respect to carriage of heavy metal cargoes in bulk, the term liquefaction
means that
a. The cargo may suffer moisture migration and become semi-liquid near the
top of the stow
1163. A Combination Carrier is:
a. A ship designed to carry either oil or solid bulk cargoes.
1164. A partly loaded bulk cargo space, whilst the vessel is at sea, may be entered:
a. Under no circumstances except possibly in an emergency.
1165. A stevedore is working in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier while completing
discharge of a concentrate cargo. You suddenly notice that he appears to be taken pill.
You should:
a. Assume problem due to lack of oxygen and/or toxic gas and rescue with
self-contained breathing apparatus.
1166. A very dusty cargo is to be loaded in bulk on your vessel. You should:
a. Ensure that all cranes, deck storerooms etc. are fully closed to prevent
entry of dust.
1167. After completion of cleaning and testing of the bilge spaces in a cargo hold of a
bulk carrier, it should be checked that the:
a. Drain plate over bilge has been fitted and then covered with burlap.
1168. After completion of discharging coal with a high sulphur content from a bulk
carrier, cargo holds should be inspected and checked for:
a. Areas of corrosion.
1169. After discharge of a bulk cargo by grabs and bulldozers (bob cats), you should
carefully check:
a. Access ladders for any signs of damage.
1170. After discharge of a bulk cargo by grabs, tank tops and lower hopper side plating
must be checked for:
a. Damage and possible leaks
1171. Before starting to ballast double bottom tanks with sea water, the officer
responsible for the operation must ensure that:
a. Correct valves have been opened, air ventilators are open and ballasting
plan has been agreed.
1172. Cargo holds are usually swept completely prior to washing on a bulk carrier. This
is carried out so that:
a. Cargo residues will not clog the bilge lines and associated suctions and
valves.
1173. During bulk cargo operations, it is required by International regulations that:
a. Ship's personnel must continuously monitor cargo operations.
1174. During cargo watch keeping on a bulk carrier, it is required under International
regulations that:
a. The vessel's draughts must be frequently checked and recorded.
1175. For which of the following reasons would a bulk carrier cargo hold inspection be
most likely to fail?
a. Loose rust all around the cargo hold
1176. In a side rolling hatch cover arrangement of a bulk carrier, wedging ensures that:
a. The compression bar on one panel fits against the seal on the opposite
panel.
1177. It is important to remove all traces of salt after washing the cargo holds of a bulk
carrier, because:
a. Salt encourages the corrosion of steelwork.
1178. On a bulk carrier at the completion of loading and before closing hatch covers,
the track ways must be:
a. Swept and checked clear of obstructions.
1179. On a bulk carrier scheduled to load sugar, the cargo holds will certainly fail a pre-
loading inspection if there are signs of:
a. Rust stains on the tank top plating.
1180. On a bulk carrier, provided it is considered safe to do so, the most effective
method of cleaning a cargo hold that contained grain is to:
a. Sweep and clean cargo holds from the top down as discharge progresses
followed by a final wash.
1181. Prior starting the ballasting of tanks on a bulk carrier in extremely cold
conditions, it must be checked that:
a. All air ventilators are open and free from ice build- up.
1182. Prior to loading of steel coils in a bulk carrier, all cargo hatch covers must be
tested in the presence of a surveyor. In preparation for this test all hatch covers should
be:
a. Fully secured to sea going condition with all cleats in place.
1183. Prior to opening side-rolling hatch covers of a bulk carrier, it must be ensured that:
a. Cross wedges have been removed.
1184. Prior to starting the ballasting operations on a bulk carrier, the responsible officer
must check:
a. That all air pipes are open and that the pipeline and valve system is
correctly set up.
1185. Prior to starting the hatch cleaning operations on a bulk carrier, a responsible
officer of the ship must carry out a:
a. Risk Assessment, Permit to work /enter and tool-box talk.
1186. Prior using ship’s cranes for loading cargo on a bulk carrier, the crane operator
must ensure that:
a. Crane controls are operational, limit switches are functioning properly and
weights to be lifted are within the SWL of the crane
1187. The cargo residues inside the hold space of a bulk carrier is least likely to remain
hidden within:
a. Upper sections of ship's frames
1188. The most practical means for inspection of the upper parts of a cargo hold in a
bulk carrier is by the use of:
a. Deck crane and basket.
1189. The used dunnage of a bulk carrier is classified under MARPOL:
a. Garbage
1190. Under international regulations entries be made with regard to the disposal of bulk
cargo residues into the sea in the ships:
a. Garbage record book.
1191. Upon completion of ballasting operations on a bulk carrier, it must be ensured
that:
a. All valves have been closed, tank ventilators are in open position and
sounding pipe caps replaced.
1192. Upon completion of discharging cargo on a bulk carrier by using grabs, the most
important item to check before closing a hatch cover is to:
a. Check that hatch coaming and sealing bar have not been damaged by grab
contact
1193. What are the people probably doing in the picture?
a. The people are hosing down the cargo hold to clean it.
1194. What is shown in the picture, a crane or a derrick using what loading gear?
a. A deck crane using grabs.
1195. When ballasting double-bottom tanks on a bulk carrier, the responsible officer
must:
a. Avoid ballasting all tanks together including fore peak tank (FP) and after
peak (AP) tank..
1196. When carrying grain in the hold space of a bulk carrier, the type of paint to be
used should be:
a. Paints approved for use in cargo spaces that may carry edible cargoes.
1197. When carrying high sulphur coal on a bulk carrier, the areas of a cargo hold that
are most prone to corrosion are:
a. All steelwork with which the cargo is in contact.
1198. When discharging a bulk cargo, it is required by international regulations that:
a. The vessel must not be excessively trimmed.
1199. When preparing a previously ballasted hold of a bulk carrier for cargo, it must be
checked that:
a. The ballast lines must be blanked off and the bilge lines opened and tested.
1200. When washing a cargo hold of a bulk carrier prior to loading a cargo of steel
products, it is usual practice to carry out a fresh water wash after the sea water wash.
This is carried out to:
a. Remove all traces of salt that could possibly contaminate the steel cargo.
1201. When washing down during hatch cleaning operations, the officer responsible for
the operation must ensure that:
a. The plan has been agreed to keep the wash water to a minimum.
1202. With a bulk ship in port, when it would it normally be permissible allowed to
start painting over-side only after:
a. Chief officer has given a written permission to the bosun to start the work.
1203. You have just witnessed a crew member collapse inside a cargo hold. You should:
a. Raise the alarm and wait for the rescue party to arrive.
1204. To conform with "best practise", can you drive a crane and stand-by for a
colleague who has entered a cargo tank at the same time?
a. Yes, if I have radio contact with the man inside the tank.
1205. What do the letters IMDG stand for?
a. International Maritime Dangerous Goods.
1206. What do you understand by the term "Slewing"?
a. Turning or rotating a crane boom.
1207. What general background colour is used on warning signs that indicate emergency
or first-aid features, or indicate a safe condition?
a. Green.
1208. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SWL" as stamped on lifting gear around
the ship?
a. Safe Working Load.
1209. What might safely be used to prevent a load swinging when lifted by a crane?
a. Guide or tag lines, tended from a safe location.
1210. What should you know about the emergency stops on deck?
a. Where they are located and how to operate them.
1211. Who is authorised to operate lifting equipment around the ship?
a. Those ship's personnel who have been assessed as competent and are duly
authorised to do so by the master as per the procedures as outlined in the
ship's SMS system.
1212. You are driving a crane and the signalman on deck gives this signal. What does it
mean? (Hand signals as per the Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant
Seamen).
a. Danger, or emergency stop!
1213. You have been assigned to enter a hold and check the general cargo stowed in it,
as part of an on-passage monitoring procedure. What must be in place before you can
do that?
a. The necessary permits, based on valid atmospheric and other applicable
tests.
1214. For general cargo, thorough hold preparation is required. This is mainly to ensure
that:
A. bilges are clean and working
1215. Ballast lines to deep tanks should be:

A. blanked prior to loading dry cargo in them
1216. The principal reason for cargo segregation is to:

A. keep apart cargo that should not be mixed
1217. Cargo sweat may be anticipated when:

A. the dewpoint of ventilation air is above that in the hold
1218. The primary reason for ventilating holds is to:

A. maintain cargo in the optimum condition
1219. Prior to loading a refrigerated cargo scrupulous preparations are required. The
most vital precaution is:
A. chilling units set to maximum cooling
1220. When carrying refrigerated cargo, while on passage the most important
monitoring is:
A. regular temperature checks
1221. Which of the following is not a primary purpose for using dunnage?
A. To prevent chafage on cargo
1222. Which of the following refrigerated cargoes is not compatible for carriage in the
same conditions as the others listed?
A. Butter

A. Large

A. Zero

A. Deadweight

A. Stability
1227. The intact volume of a vessel above the waterline is called:

A. Reserve Buoyancy

A. Main Deck to the Waterline
1229. The horizontal distance between the forces of Buoyancy and Gravity acting on a
vessel when heeled by wind or waves is called the:
A. Righting Lever
1230. When loading vehicles for carriage, the fuel tanks should be:
A. carrying a minimum of fuel
1231. After a partial discharge and prior to sailing, it is important to:

A. carry out a cargo survey
1232. Railway Iron as far as possible should be stowed

A. fore & aft
1233. Dangerous cargo on a pallet should be stowed:

A. In a secure container
1234. When Timber Deck cargo has been loaded, the stowage should be such that:
A. access is maintained to the hatches
1235. The IMO regulations for Timber Deck Cargoes require:

A. a taut lifeline on the ship's C/L
1236. When deck cargo is loaded it is important to:

A. maintain access to moorings
1237. Deck cargo stowage should:

A. allow unobstructed view from Bridge
1238. Containers on Deck are secured:

A. with twistlocks, rods and chains
1239. Containers may NOT contain:

A. livestock
1240. When planning a container cargo, the cargo officer should ensure that:
A. containers carrying dangerous cargo are separated from each other
1241. Prior to preparing and cleaning holds in preparation for bulk cargo it is important
to:
A. increase ventilation
1242. When planning to load a coal bulk cargo, you should:

A. blank off the hold ventilation system
1243. When planning to load an iron ore bulk cargo:
A. sea water flooding must be available
1244. Cargoes referenced within the IMDG code may be anticipated to be:
A. of a hazardous nature
1245. The angle of repose of a bulk cargo is defined as:

A. the smallest angle from the horizontal to which a substance can be raised without
it shifting
1246. Guideline requirements for the carriage of bulk grain state that:
A. following a cargo shift, the maximum heel must be no ore than 12°
1247. The carriage of bulk grain cargo should be carried out as directed under the rules
of:
A. the SOLAS (IMO) Grain Rules
1248. Possible shifts of grain cargo may be controlled by:

A. "saucers-filled with bagged grain
1249. During loading of dangerous goods a package is dropped. Despite damaging the
packaging the product can be clearly seen and is not damaged. What should be
A. Reject the package
1250. Full reference and details relating to dangerous goods will be found in which
document?
A. IMDG Code
1251. During loading dangerous goods, the documentation is incomplete regarding

stowage and classification details. The deck officer should:
A. obtain full documentation before loading
1252. During cargo operations winch operators should:

A. have a clear view of the work area
1253. Portable lights should be removed from work areas after use. The most important
reason is to:
A. reduce the safety hazard
1254. Planning for a heavy lift, the preferred derrick type would be:
A. Velle
1255. When operating Union Purchase lifts:

A. angles between married runners should exceed 90°
1256. MacGregor style steel hatch covers are secured against unwanted movement by:
A. eccentric wheel locking pins
1257. Rigging a Jumbo Derrick for a heavy lift, which of the following is standard
practice?
A. To put winches in double gear
1258. What type of vessel is most likely to be fitted with a Ring Main cargo system?
A. Product Carrier
1259. Which of the following cargoes would be most likely to be discharged using
positive displacement reciprocating cargo pumps?
A. Gas
1260. Eductors are used within oil tanker cargo operations for:
A. cargo stripping
1261. The final valve between the ship's side and the onshore terminal is called the:
A. Manifold Valve
1262. In a 250,000 tonne VLCC, how many tonnes would typically be discharged by a
single main cargo pump?
A. 2,000 tonnes
1263. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is the maximum concentration of a substance that
should be present in:
A. an atmospheric sample
1264. When crew are working in confined spaces that have been cleared of hazardous
materials, ventilation should be provided:
A. continuously
1265. Prior to entering a space the oxygen level should be shown to be at least:
A. 21%
1266. Bale capacity compared to grain capacity is:

A. less
1267. A cargo plan would NOT include:

A. loading and discharge equipment details
1268. How much space would 300 tonnes of Tea with a stowage factor of 3.0 take up, if
it had a broken stowage factor of 10%?
A. 990 cubic metres
1269. Ullage is the term used to describe:

A. the vertical space above a liquid cargo
1270. The Stowage Factor is the:
A. volume per unit of weight
1271. A bulk carrier has to complete loading at a draft of 10 metres. The current amidship drafts are
9.96 metres (port side) and 9.98 metres (starboard side). The sinkage remaining to maximum draft
is:
0.03 metres
1272. A bulk carrier is loading to complete at a draught of 10.00m when in salt water. She is
currently floating in dock water and the Dock Water Allowance (DWA) is 80 mm. Her maximum
draught at completion of loading should be
10.08 metres
1273. A draft survey is carried out on a bulk carrier to calculate:

The quantity of bulk cargo loaded or discharged
1274. After completion of discharge of a dry bulk cargo, the CO2 lines in each cargo hold
should be
Blown through with compressed air to ensure that they are clear of any cargo traces
1275. Before a bulk carrier can load a full cargo of grain, what additional stability information
is required?
Grain loading conditions must be shown and the vessel is in possession of a Document of
Authorization
1276. Cargo on a bulk cement carrier is normally discharged by

Using its own pumping system and equipment
1277. How much liferaft capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more than
85 meters in length ?
100% of the complement if it can be readily launched on either side of the ship. If it cannot
be readily launched on either side, 100% must be provided on each side
1278. It is common practice on bulk carriers to fill only one set of ballast tanks at any one time
so as to
Ensure that free surfaces in ballast tanks do not become excessive during the ballasting
operation
1279. Normally, a vessel sails in salt water and therefore salt water draughts are those which are
referred to. If there is a change in density however, this must be taken into account because
the true draughts of the ship will change. Which of the definitions below is that of this
"Fresh Water Allowance"?
The number of millimetres by which a vessel's True Mean Draught changes when she passes
from salt water to fresh water, or vica versa.
1280. Reserve Buoyancy is:
The buoyancy provided by all enclosed spaces above the waterline
1281. The CO2 injection lines into the designated ballast hold of a bulk carrier are sealed Prior
to ballasting the hold
1282. The drain pipe covers fitted on the hatch coamings of a bulk carrier are secured In the
event of a cargo hold fire
1283. The first line of defence against flooding of a bulk carrier is its:
Shell plating
1284. The full name for the BC Code is

The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes
1285. The full name for the IMSBC Code is

The International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargo Code
1286. The hatch cover hydraulic system of a bulk carrier can be damaged by
Dust and cargo particles around the piston seals
1287. The perforated plate cover of the cargo hatch bilges are normally covered with burlap, so
as
To prevent small particles of cargo draining into the bilges
1288. The purpose of the cargo hold ventilator grill is to

Prevent any sparks from entering the hold space
1289. To withstand flooding of any one cargo hold, a bulk carrier constructed after 1 July 1999
can be loaded to:
The Summer load line
1290. What do the letters "TPC" stand for?

Tonnes per Centimetre.
1291. What do you understand by the term "luffing"?

The raising or lowering of a crane jib, moving the head of the crane and therefore a
suspended load horizontally towards or away from the crane.
1292. What facility exists under the ISM Code for the provision of individual control measures
for specific work-related tasks?
The Permit to Work system.
1293. What general background colour is used on warning signs which require a specific
"mandatory" action, such as one which might require the wearing of a safety harness during
a particular work task?
Blue.
1294. What is a "consignee"?
Any person, organization or government entitles to take delivery of a consignment.
1295. What is meant by the term "segregation"?

The planned, separated stowage of cargoes that may react dangerously with each other in
the event of leakage or other damage.
1296. What is of utmost concern when steel cargoes are carried in a bulk carrier?
Bending moments being greatly exceeded in the seagoing condition
1297. What is the name given to the special list of cargo loaded on board a ship that needs to be
prepared for reporting and other administrative purposes?
Manifest.
1298. What is this?

The United Nations Packaging symbol used for Dangerous Goods.
1299. What kinds of checks must be carried out on slings, wires and other items of lifting
equipment before they are used in routine operations?
They must be visually inspected and ascertained, so far as is possible, as being in good
working order and fit for purpose.
1300. What name is given to the inspection and measurements at the end of a bulk carrier's
loading operation, that determines the weight of cargo lifted based on the observed draughts,
any list, hog or sag, the dock water density and the calculation of ballast and consumables on
the vessel?
Draught Survey.
1301. When carrying bulk coal cargo, during the voyage methane and carbon monoxide gases
are measure by
Using the approved sampling ports fitted on each hatch coaming
1302. When loading coal on a Bulk Carrier, the vessel should be provided with
Means for measuring cargo temperatures
1303. Which of these is not used to discharge bulk grain?

Pumps
1304. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow has been left with an excessive
peak height; what could be the result of this situation?
C. Excessive stresses on transverse bulkheads
1305. A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0 centimetres over her maximum loadline
draft after loading; what should be the actions of the master?
A. Order the pumping out of fresh water or ballast until
the maximum allowed loadline is achieved.
1306. A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what
regulations must the vessel comply?
A. IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of
Timber Deck cargoes
1307. During a pre-loading survey prior to loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very
small amount of the previous grain cargo is found in a cargo hold; what is
the significance of this situation?
B. The affected cargo hold should be left empty
1308. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier?

A. Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes athwartship
1309. What are the advantages of ballasting double bottom ballast tanks by gravity
filling on a Bulk Carrier?
A. There is minimum pressure head on the tank top and
pumps are not required
1310. What could happen if a bulk vessel failed to display placards notifying the
crew of the disposal of garbage within and outside Special Areas?
A. The vessel could be detained by port state
control authorities
1311. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
C. The Code of Safe Practice for
Solid Bulk Cargoes
1312. What is essential to ensure that efficient stripping of ballast tanks on a Bulk
Carrier can be achieved?
A. A good stern trim is maintained during de-
ballasting operations
1313. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks on a Bulk Carrier, which are
close to cargo spaces containing grain, are excessively heated?
be heated and damaged
B. The cargo may liquefy
1314. What is the purpose of a draught survey before and after loading on a Bulk Carrier?
B. The calculate the stability of the vessel
1315. What measures should be taken in order to avoid flammable gases forming
on top of coal cargoes on a Bulk Carrier?
A. Ventilation to be carried out as indicated in the IMO solid Bulk
Cargo Code
1316. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a bulk cargo of iron ore on a
Bulk Carrier?
A. Cargo hold bilge suctions must be satisfactorily tested
1317. What publication must be carried on a vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes?
A. IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code or IMO Solid Bulk
1318. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea
on a Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration?
A. Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System (SMS)
for guidance
1319. Which of these covers the rules and regulations for General Average on a
Bulk Carrier?
A. The York Antwerp rules
1320. Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?
A. IMO Grain Rules?
1321. Which special regulations cover transportation of solid Bulk cargoes?
A. IMO Bulk Cargoes Code (BC) and the IMO International Maritime Solid Bulk
Cargo Code( IMSBC)
1322. Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's
cargo holds?
A. Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces
1323. Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes
on Bulk Carriers?
B. Because the vessel may pass under a bridge(s) whilst approaching
or leaving the berth
1324. A container vessel has lost several dangerous goods containers overboard.
The master must report this loss of container incident to:
C. The ship owner.
1325. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on deck of a container vessel, stowed

across several flat rack containers. The most appropriate method for lashing such
cargo would be by:
C. Taking all lashings to the hatch coamings, pillars and lashing bridges.
1326. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard
part of the deck stow are additionally subjected to:
A. The effect of wind on the containers.
1327. Best location to stow containers loaded with Calcium Hypochlorite would
be:
A. On deck, away from sources of heat
1328. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous:
A. When the associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s)
listed in the IMDG Code.
1329. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a
container vessel would be most concerned with:
A. The added weight of icing on container
stacks, leading to loss of GM.
1330. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a
container vessel would be most concerned with:
A. Metacentric height of the
vessel.
1331. For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the
most important document to refer is:
B. The Code for the Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and
Securing.
1332. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of
containers is:
A. Determined by the clauses of the charter-
party.
1333. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to
give guidance for:
B. Securing of deck
1334. The dangers associated with carriage of empty
tank containers is that:
B. They may not be declared as being empty.
1335. The direction of wave encounter that is most likely to cause a parametric
roll condition on large container ships is:
Beam seas
1336. The most appropriate measure to reduce the build-up of ice on containers
during a sea passage is to:
A. Heave to and wait for ambient temperature to rise to safe levels.
1337. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would
be:
A. By internal shift of ballast.
1338. What is the master's position if he is asked to load a container that is
incorrectly manifested, but which is believed to contain dangerous goods, about
which insufficient information is supplied
B. He must load it, but immediately advise his operations
department and request full information.
1339. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container
ships, reference must be made to:
A. The ems Guide.
1340. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG
Code it is not allowed to:
A. Pack and ship the cargo in bags.
1341. A chemical tanker may be granted, by the Government of the receiving Party,
an exemption from carrying out a mandatory prewash provided that the:
C. Vessel temporarily has defective tank cleaning equipment and the
prewash will be carried out at the first available opportunity after repairs
have been completed and the tank will not be loaded or ballasted before
that time.
1342. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash
before leaving port in compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be
discharged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the
effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized
surveyor has reached a level of:
A. 0.1% by weight.
1343. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the
area(s) designated as “Special Areas” are:
B. The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area,
Gulf of Aden, Oman Area of the Arabian Sea, Southern South African
Waters, Antarctic and North-West European Waters.
1344. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been
washed to such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance
previously carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge
rate, ship's speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which
require:
A. That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in
water that is not less than 25 metres deep.
1345. Cargo residues of certain chemical substances are permitted.
C. The volume of the tank does not exceed 1750 cubic metres, the
maximum remaining residues are less than 75 litres and ventilation
is additionally
possible directly down the pumpstack.
1346. Definitive information on whether a particular cargo is classified as a
“Noxious Liquid Substance” (other than products provisionally assessed) can be
obtained from:
C. The product groups within the list of cargoes contained in the Chemical Data
Guide for Bulk Shipment by Water.
1347. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a

low flash or static accumulator product:
C. All lids and other penetrations must be securely closed before
recirculation is commenced.
1348. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category “X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious Liqui
dSubstances, the term “Clean Ballast” as defined in the IBC Code means:
A. Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a
cargo containing a substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been
thoroughly cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been
discharged and the tank emptied in accordance with the appropriate
requirements of Annex II.
1349. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of
repose of 45 degrees; what does this indicate?
A. The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift
1350. A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic metres per metric
tonne (m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are to be loaded what volume will this cargo occupy?
A. 1500 cubic metres ( m3)
1351. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief
officer calculates 9 500 tonnes have been loaded; what should the Master do?
B. Inform Designated Person Ashore( DPA)
1352. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in Australia for Europe; the coal is
declared as having a high moisture content (but less than the transportable moisture
Limit (TML)); what must the Master ensure?
A. All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of water
logged; the bilges can then be pumped out.
1353. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the
Chief Officer to be rusted; what must the Master ensure?
A. Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference numbers of the rusty
coils and so make the Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill.
1354. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ;
the transportable moisture limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the
Master do?
A. Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed

for the carriage of cargo which may liquefy
1355. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and
a transportable moisture limit of 18, what should the Master do?
B. Refuse to load the cargo as the moisture content is outside
acceptable limits
1356. What hazards are associated with the carriage of wood pellets in bulk?
C. Spontaneous combustion and self-heating
1357. What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes have a low angle of repose?
A. Liable to shift
1358. What is the primary hazard associated with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on a Bulk
Carrier?
A. The only possible hazard is associated with
ingress of water into the hold and a loss of stability
1359. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow
characteristics are dependant on what criteria?
C. They are fixed and the cargo has a stowage factor of 0.5 cubic
metres/tone
1360. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with
appropriate instruments to measure the concentration of what gases within the
cargo space?
A. The gases specified in all of these answers
1361. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo of concentrates?

A. When he is fully satisfied that the actual moisture content of the
cargo is less than the Transportable Moisture Limit (TML)
1362. A container full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping
from it. You should:
C. Ensure that the container is stowed on deck.
1363. A typical hazard associated with the carriage of ammonium nitrate is:
B. Environmental pollution.
1364. Although not required by the IMDG Code, on a container vessel, carrying Calcium
Hypochlorite under refrigeration is beneficial so as to:
C. Prevent the cargo temperature increasing into the
danger zone.
1365. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings, turnings and swarf in containers is
generally considered dangerous, because:
B. This type of cargo will corrode the container.

1366. Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished by:
B. Dousing with seawater.
1367. Exposure to moderate concentrations of ammonia may cause:

C. Instant death.
1368. Fire in a container carrying chemicals is difficult to extinguish, because:
A. Heat is often produced due to chemical reactions within the cargo
1369. If a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire, it is recommended:
A. To allow ventilation.
1370. Stack allowable weights on a container vessel should not be exceeded because
this can cause:
C. The GM toys become excessive leading

to high roll accelerations.
1371. The most important consideration, in terms of stress, when planning

stowage of containers on a container vessel would be:
A. Distribution and weight of the containers.
1372. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank
cleaning or deballasting operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either
marine resources or human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate
uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the
discharge into the marine environment". Such substances are:
A. a category "Y" substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II, and a
liquid cargo that is prohibited for carriage in vessels other than type 1
chemical tanker, as defined in the IBC Code
1373. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube Oil Additives, Phthalates and Olefins
and before the loading of "high-spec" cargoes on a chemical tanker, the test that
might be expected to produce unsatisfactory results during initial wall-wash
analysis would be:
A. Hydrocarbons.
1374. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses
are classified as:
B. Category Y
1375. In discussing the properties of Noxious Liquid Substances, the criteria for
defining Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is:
C. The maximum concentration of harmful vapour to which a worker may
be exposed for a period of 15 minutes up to 4 times within any 24 hour
period without adverse respiratory effects.
1376. It is considered especially necessary to continue to ventilate the tank and to
continuously monitor the atmosphere when working inside a cargo compartment
which still contains vegetable oil residues, because:
A. The decomposing residues continue to release hazardous gases, reducing
the levels of oxygen in the tank and making the atmosphere potentially
dangerous.
1377. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‘solidifying substances’ as:
A. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a
melting point of less than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 5°C
above its melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a
substance with a melting point equal to or greater than 15°C which is at a
temperature of less than 10°C above its melting point at the time of
unloading.
1378. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‘high viscosity substance’ as:
A. A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity
equal to or greater than 50 mpa.s at the unloading temperature.
1379. The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous
products (ethyl ether, antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by
prescribing that:
A. They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the
ships hull structure?
1380. Which of the following groups of chemical cargoes is particularly
susceptible to polymerisation, especially through exposure to heat?
A. Monomers.
1381. You are to carry a cargo of Phenol across the North Atlantic in winter time.
What precaution will you take with the double bottom tank located under the cargo
tank containing the Phenol?
A. It should be empty, to avoid cold water contacted the structure around
the product because Phenol has a relatively high melting point.
1382. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a chemical tanker and are about to
clear the lines into the ship. The one particular hazard that must be noted about
this product would be that:
B. It has a relatively low density. Tanks which are close to maximum filling are
especially liable to overflow during the line clearing operation unless the flow of
blowing medium is strictly controlled.
1383. A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart is often used when dealing with
LNG cargoes. What is the main information that can be obtained from a
Mollier diagram?
A. Information about the exact values of the pressure, density, specific
volume and dryness fraction of the vapour when both the enthalpy and
temperature are known.
1384. An important physical property of LNG is the saturation vapour pressure.
What is the IMO definition of the term "saturated vapour pressure"?
C. The pressure at which all of the
vapour returns to the liquid
1385. During a normal voyage heat is transferred to the LNG cargo through the
cargo tank insulation which causes some boil off of the cargo. This boil off
changes the composition of the LNG as more of the lighter components will
vaporise. Which component of the LNG cargo is likely to have a lower than
original percentage on arrival at the discharge port?
A. Methane.
1386. LNG is often considered as an ideal gas when looking at the physical properties
and characteristics. With reference to the physical properties of gas mixtures which
of the given options is the SIGTTO definition of the term 'mole'?
A. The mass that is numerically equal to the
molecular mass.
1387. LNG is one of the liquefied gases transported by sea. What is the IMO's
definition of liquefied gases?
A. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding
2.8 bar absolute at +37.8
C and certain other chemicals
listed in the Gas Codes.
1388. What is the relative liquid density of Methane?

C0.554
1389. Hydrate formation may be a problem with some LPG
cargoes. The hydrates may enter cargo pumps, block lubricating passages,
unbalance impellers and seize bearings. What is the most common practice to
prevent such problems?
A. Inject a small quantity of freezing-point depressant into
the pump.
1390. The densities of most hydrocarbon gas mixtures which evolve from normal
petroleum products are greater than the density of air. What would be the
approximate relative density of a mixture of 50% by volume of air and propane
relative to 100% air?
B. 2.0
1391. What is the main reason that LPG boil-off gas is unsuitable for use in the
vessel's fuel supply?
A. LPG vapour is heavier than air at atmospheric conditions and
represent a risk as they may accumulate in
1392. Which publication contains detailed information, in the form of material safety
data sheets, relating to the chemical and physical properties and associated
hazards of the most commonly transported liquefied gases, in G?
cluding LP
A. The ICS Tanker Safety Guide (Liquefied Gases)
1393. The Critical Temperature is important when dealing with liquefied gas cargoes.
What is the IMO Gas Codes' definition of the term 'Critical Temperature'?
A. It is the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by pressure alone
1394. For what period of time is the protection and environment committee elected?
A. 1 - 2 years.
1395. For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL convention applicable?
A. For all listed vessels.
1396. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable?

A. For all vessels.
1397. How frequent should reports from protection and environmental work be
send to shore based management?
A. Annually.
1398. How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what is the content of annex 1?
A. We find 6 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the
regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
1399. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for: A. 5
years with control every 12 months
B. 2 years with control every 6 months
1400. Are there any exceptions from OPA-90
A. Yes, transit passage through US waters to a non US por
1401. For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request
(OPA-90
A. Unannounced drills at any time
1402. For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer above the age of 18?
. B. Two years.
1403. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately?
A. Report to relevant authorities.
1404. In case of pollution in US waters,do you always have to notify the National
Response Center (OPA-90)
A. Yes, within thirty (30) minutes
1405. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following statement is correct?
A. COTP-zones may have
1406. In US waters "Oil Pollution Act of 1990" was activated in August 1993. What is
the main issue for the introduction of the act?
D. To prevent oil spills in US waters?
1407. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. What do
you understand by the word "Sewage"?
A. Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
1408. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily
water separator which was previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to:
A. 15 ppm
1409. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI)

A. QI is an authorised individual, situated in
the US, and contracted by the owner or
operator of the vessel
1410. What are the functions of a flag state administration?

A. They have responsibility for setting, monitoring and
enforcing standards of safety and pollution prevention on
vessels flying the countries flag
1411. What can lead to "Unlimited responsibility" (OPA-90)
A. Wilful misconduct, gross negligence and violation of Federal
Safety
1412. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?
A. All of the mentioned
1413. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea?
A. It is the SOLAS conventions that take
care of the human safety at
1414. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations?

A. Every person other than the Captain and the members of the
crew or other persons employed or engaged onboard the ship in
the business of that ship.
1415. What is full form of VRP
(OPA-90)
A. Vessel Response Plan
1416. What is SOPEP?
A. A Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency
Plan
1417. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissible under US legislation before
it is defined as intoxication?
A. 0,04 %
1418. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/ bilge water allowed to be
pumped over board during a voyage?
A. 30 litres per nautical mile
1419. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS

convention?
A. Mandatory.
1420. What is the top priority if an incident occurs in US waters

(OPA-90)
A. Safety of ship and crew
1421. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and
above to record machinery space operations.Out of below mentioned operations, it is
compulsory to record:
2. Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil.
1422. .
Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall
be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the
control of machinery space bilges.What kind of
equipment is required in this connection?
Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or
combination of both.
1423. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we

can pump overboard on the sea voyage?
3. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on
the ballast voyage.
1424. For how long time must the printout from the
Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME)
be retained onboard?
4. Three years
1425. .
If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the
water, what would the chemicals do?
5. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water

1426. .
In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall
notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90)
6. Qualified Individual
1427. In which areas is plastic material accepted for
overboard disposal?
7. Not permissible any where.
1428. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is

forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues?
8. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil
residues
1429. 9
. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain
heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you would
like to empty your machinery space bilges. What will be
the correct procedures in this connection?
9. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge
overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment.
1430. . MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an
approved sewage treatment plant certified by the
Administration. During discharge, while vessel is
awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding
water is iscoloured. What kind of action would be
appropriate to take?
10.Stop discharge.
1431. . MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside

"Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left
with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this
prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to land for
disposal into the sea of these materials?
A. This isprohibited
1432. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel in the
Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned
in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground
in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this
prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal?
11.12 miles
1433. Most minor oilspills are caused by:
12.Human error
1434. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July
93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of
discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile)
was changed to:
13.30 litters per nautical mile
1435. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90)
14.Every report or message must be logged including time and date
1436. . Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out

at least (OPA-90):
15.Once a month
1437. 1
. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be
fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with
Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of machinery
space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of
oily-water mixture to pass through the filter?
A. 15 ppm
1438. 1 Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going

overboard by doing what?
16.Plugging the scuppers
1439. The OPA-90 notification requirement is:
17.Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill
1440. . What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used

in the Oil Pollution Regulations?
All the other alternatives
1441. . What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL

Annex 1?
18.Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm
1442. . What is the best way to avoid pollution from smalloil-

spills aboard a ship?
19.Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship
1443. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an

oilspill on the water?
The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
1444. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil

Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ?
20.To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations
1445. . What should you do with the ashes from your

vessels incinerator which had burned garbage
containing plastics?
21.Discharge to a shore facility only
1446. What would be the preferred colour to use

when maintaining the paint on shell, plating,
structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine
room?
22.White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and
dealt with.
1447. . When a pollution incident occurs there is a

plan for actions to be undertaken. State which
following priority sequences to be considered:
23.Stop pumps - report - clean up?
1448. . Which of the connections you are shown, are the

dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-
connection) for discharging of sewage ?
24. 4
1449. 2 Which of the following would be considered
pollution, when discharged overboard, under the US
water pollution laws?
A. All of the mentioned
1450. 3 Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge

Water" overboard?
25.15 PPM
1451. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

26.It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill
1452. . Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any
potential polluting operation?
A. To avoid pollution.
1453. 3 You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast

of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you
allowed to dump food waste overboard?
A. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard
1454. 3 You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast

of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump
empty glass bottles overboard ?
27.Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
1455. You
3 are onboard a vessel off the West African
coast. You want to dump a mixture of food
waste, glass bottles and floating packing
materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off
the coast would you have to be?
B. 12 nautical miles off the coast
1456. 3 You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US
when you notice oil on the water around your
vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and:
28.Notify the US Coast Guard

1457. The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed within special areas unless, with
exemption of processed engine room bilge water, unless certain conditions are satisfied.
Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?
a. II, IV, V, VII, VIII
1458. Mat entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part I (machinery space
operations) about the condition of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control system ?
a. The time when the system was started and the time when the system was
stopped
1459. Handling fuel oils without proper care can lead to

a. Overflow, pollution and gas formation.
1460. Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require

that……should personalty supervise all bunkering operations.
a. The chief engineer
1461. Bunkering procedures for all ships require that communication should be
maintained with the shorelbarge staff in charge of the transfer ?
a. Continuous
1462. Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch be
informed prior to the starting of bunkering. This is because ……
a. The bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put
on stand-by.
1463. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained
because
a. The oily water separator filters were found dirty.
1464. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained
because
a. An oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge
water separator.
1465. “Parametric Rollin” on a container ship results in:
A large unstable roll motion suddenly occurring in head or stern seas.
1466. A ‘free flow system’ with reference to an oil tanker means:

A vessel without ordinary bottom lines where the cargo flows from tank to tank through
bulkhead valves.
1467. A common cause for the weakening of a turnbuckle on container vessels is:
Pitting
1468. A common problem associated with twist-locks is:

Left hand and right hand types exist, causing uncertainty whether a fitting is locked or
open
1469. A large GM on a container ship will result in:

Quick rolling period and increasing angles of roll.
1470. A loaded VLCC ship is stopped and Not Under Command in open sea and is observed to
be drifting towards the SSE at a rate of two (2) knots. Will the direction and rate of drift be
the same for the ship if it was in ballast condition?
No, the drift in ballast condition may be quite different
1471. A partially loaded ship is steaming slowly ahead in shallow, confined waters as illustrated
in the diagram. Which of the suggested answers are the most critical external influences
experienced by the vessel?
All of the suggested answers are critical
1472. A ship moving through heavy seas is affected by the water pressure at the bows causing
an effect known as "Panting". What structure in the forward region of the ship combats the
effects of Panting?
Panting beams and stringers
1473. After completing all pre-starting checks on the flue gas plant, the first thing that the
operator would do is to:
Open the flue gas isolating valve.
1474. As per SOLAS a fast rescue boats shall be capable of:

Manoeuvring for at least 4 hrs at a speed of 20 knots in calm water
1475. As per SOLAS every fast rescue boat shall be provided with:
Thermal protective aids for at least 10% of the persons the boat is permitted to
accommodate or two, which ever is greater
1476. As per SOLAS requirement fast rescue boats shall be constructed in such a way that:
They are self righting or capable of being readily righted by its crew
1477. As per SOLAS the Inert Gas System of an oil tanker must deliver the inert gas with a
maximum level of oxygen of:
Not more than 5% by volume.
1478. At the design phase of a container ship, the loss of strength resulting from the large deck
openings are compensated by:
Large deck beams longitudinally and athwartships at the sides and ends of hatches.
1479. Before departing the berth to ensure the stability of a RoRo vessel which if the following
should be completed
Close all Ramps and hatch covers
1480. By what means can we monitor and control the integrity of the hull?
Automatic detection systems, television surveillance and patrolling of ro-ro cargo spaces
1481. Car decks on board ro-ro passenger ships are nomally closed during sea passage. Why are
passengers not allowed to be on the car-deck during sailing?
In case of an emergency situation it can be difficult for passengers to escape. Vehicles,
lorries, trailers and other cargo are maybe lashed and it is a substantial chance for
passengers to get injured. Vehicles and other cargo might also shift when the ship is
rolling.
1482. Container ships without hatch covers are deemed to comply with the International
Convention on Load line Rules after:
An International Load Line Exemption certificate is issued in accordance to Article 6.
1483. During Crude Oil Washing, those areas of the cargo tank which are not directly struck by
the oil jet from the tank washing machines are referred to as:
Shadow areas.
1484. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins.

What information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions?
The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
1485. Fast rescue boats construction should be:

Rigid, inflated or rigid / inflated
1486. Fast rescue boats shall be capable of carrying:

At least 5 seated persons and a person lying down
1487. Fast rescue boats shall be stowed and kept in a state of continuous readiness for
launching:
In less than 5 minutes
1488. From which locations is it normally possible to close watertight doors?
Watertight doors can be closed adjacent to the door and remotely from bridge and also
one emergency remote control station
1489. How are the officers informed of the ship's stability in damaged conditions?
By permanently exhibited damage control plans
1490. How are the surfaces of ro-ro vehicle decks and ramps treated?
With non-skid paints
1491. How can an approximate value of the initial transverse Metacentric Height (GM) be
found from the Curve of Statical Stability (GZ curve)?
Drawing a tangent to the curve through the origin and erecting a perpendicular through
the angle of heel of 57.3 degrees
1492. How long should it take to release at least two thirds of the charge of CO2 that is
provided for a ro-ro cargo space protected with a fixed carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing
system?
Not more than 10 minutes
1493. How many crews are required to be trained and regularly drilled in all aspects of fast
rescue boats in various conditions, including righting after capsizing?
At least 2
1494. How many fast rescue boats are required to be carried by a passenger ship of 500 GRT
and above?
At least one of the rescue boats shall be a fast rescue boat
1495. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?
Same number as beds in the cabin
1496. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons and
above?
Two, one on each side of the ship
1497. How often shall liferafts be serviced?

At intervals not exceeding 12 months
1498. How should cargo hold ventilation be carried out on a Ro-Ro vessel loading or
discharging cargoes?
With the ventilation fans set to ‘exhaust'
1499. How should lashing belts be stowed on board a RoRo vessel? According to their Safe
Working Load (SWL)
1500. If a twist lock is found cracked at the base, it should be:

Removed from service.
1501. If the general alarm is sounding and evacuation of the ship is required. What is the best
way to ensure that all passengers are aware of the situation?
Inform the passengers through Public Address system. Crew with designated emergency
duties should proceed to their cabin section and search all cabins. Guide and evacuate
passengers. If the area is inaccessible report to their superior or the bridge.
1502. In context of cargo oil depth and ullage measurements, the abbreviation UTI stands for:
Ullage Temperature Interface.
1503. In oil cargo calculations, ASTM table 53A/B is used for:

Finding the density of oil at 15°C from the given density at observed temperature.
1504. Is it required to have supplementary emergency electric lighting on board passenger ships?
Yes, all passenger public spaces and alleyways shall be provided with supplementary
electric lighting
1505. It is considered essential that container ships should have a large ballast capacity and high
powered ballast pumps, because:
These are required for trimming the ships and offsetting longitudinal bending moments.
1506. It is not possible to install double stacking cones on container ships which has: Loaded
out-of-gauge containers.
1507. Maximum shearing forces are likely to occur on an oil tanker:

At the bulkhead between empty and full tank
1508. Most search patterns consists of:

Parallel track covering a rectangular area
1509. Normally, a twist lock should be greased:

Between the twistlock cone and associated housing
1510. OIf container lashings fail at sea, the normal procedure for the vessel would be to: Enter
the number and type of failed equipment into the lashing equipment file on board
1511. On a RoRo vessel carrying no more than 36 passengers, what is the minimum capacity of
the ventilation system protecting standard cargo spaces intended for carriage of motor
vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion
6 air changes per hour
1512. On a Ro-Ro vessel what would be the effect of a small GM?

A slow roll period
1513. On a RoRo vessel why is it important to ensure the vessel is correctly trimmed prior to
commencing cargo operations
To ensure the angle between the Ramp and the Quay are in acceptable limits
1514. On a RoRo vessel, how should additional lashings be applied to vehicles if they do not
have sufficient lashing points? As detailed in the instructions provided by the manufacturer
or shipper
1515. On a RoRo vessel, if the Manufacturer and shipper of a vehicle have not provided
instructions and the vehicle does not have fixed lasing points what can be used to secure the
lashings
The wheel apertures, or other suitable fixed point on the vehicle
1516. On a RoRo vessel, what danger is associated with damaged expanded metal gratings on
loading ramps?
Vehicles' tyres may be damaged during cargo operations
1517. On a RoRo vessel, what is of major concern when a shallow draught ro-ro vessel is in
river transit in high winds ?
Air draught
1518. On a RoRo vessel, when cargo has shifted at sea, what could help in reducing
acceleration forces?
Operating anti-heeling devices
1519. On a RoRo vessel, when loading Double Stacked containers on Maffi Trailers how many
twist locks should have used between the 2 containers
One on every corner 4 in total
1520. On a RoRo vessel, where is the best place to find information on loading ramp limitations?
In the loading ramp manual
1521. On a RoRo vessel, where on board a ship will cargoes experience the least accelerations?
At the intersection of the fore and aft, athwartships and vertical axes of the ship
1522. On a RoRo vessel, which of the following can cause an unplanned list at sea? Ballast
water exchange
1523. On board a crude oil tanker, guidance on the washing system and equipment along with
the applicable operating procedures, can be found in:
The Operating and Equipment (COW) Manual.
1524. On oil tankers, Cargo tanks can be isolated from machinery spaces by:
All the answers are good
1525. On the bridge of a RoRo vessel, which of the following doors have no open/closed bridge
indicator requirements?
Doors leading into the engine room
1526. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on board which
type of ship?
Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
1527. Parallel sweep search in a co-ordinated manner is achieved when?

All facilities proceed with same speed
1528. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for children.
In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or
at the muster stations?
5% extra
1529. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied
reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-righting?
The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is empty of
people
1530. Segregated Ballast Tanks on an oil tanker may best be defined as:
Tanks which are completely separate from cargo or fuel oil systems, being permanently
allocated to the carriage of ballast and fitted with their own pumps and associated piping
1531. SOLAS requires the tank coatings in dedicated seawater ballast tanks on oil tankers to be
of:
Preferably any light colour.
1532. Tanks lids and other access points on an oil tanker are usually shaped round so as to:
Avoid localized stress points at any corners.
1533. The ‘buckling’ of strength members of an oil tanker results due to high: Compressive
forces
1534. The chemical characteristics of effluent water from an inert gas scrubber and the
condensate which collects in the deck mains would be:
Acidic in nature.
1535. The design features of a container ship with pronounced bow flare, a wide flat transom
stern and wall sided amidships section contribute to:
Parametric Rolling
1536. The first tier of under-deck containers, on a non-cellular container vessel, are usually
loaded:
Onto dunnage laid fore and aft over the tank top.
1537. The function of double stacking cones on container vessels is:

To link adjacent container stacks together particularly those in line with buttresses.
1538. The function of the scrubber within an Inert Gas system is: To quench, cool and clean the
flue gas.
1539. The limitations of a Cargo Securing Manual of a container vessel may include the fact
that:
They are drafted whilst the ship is still under construction and need to be checked against
the ship's 'as completed' condition in order to be fully reliable.
1540. The longitudinal bending moments caused by cargo distribution on an oil tanker need to
be taken into consideration:
During loading, discharging and on loaded passage
1541. The main factor when determining the way containers must be lashed is by: Referring to
the cargo securing manual.
1542. The main function of a buttress on a container ship is

To support container stacks in a non-cellular cargo hold.
1543. The main function of twist-locks is:

To couple containers vertically.
1544. The main movements experienced by a container ship, which will create the largest
forces exerted on the container frames and lashings, are:
Rolling, Pitching and Heaving.
1545. The method to avoid adverse effects of free surface on an oil tanker with full liquid cargo
would be to ensure that:
There are at least two longitudinal bulkheads and a large initial GM
1546. The one particular hazard to be taken care against, when using portable steam driven
blowers for ventilating oil cargo tanks is:
That the exhaust does not vent into the cargo tank, in order to prevent possible build-up
of static electricity.
1547. The primary purpose of the water seal within an inert gas system is:
To prevent the passage of petroleum gases back to the machinery spaces.
1548. The proper funtioning of a bridge fitting on containers is prevented due to:
Buckling
1549. The purpose of having corrugations in the bulkheads of cargo tanks of an oil tanker is to:
Provide strength, but with clean and clear surfaces within the tank.
1550. The purpose of the ‘mud box’ fitted on a tanker is to:

Restrict any particles and solids entering the pipeline system.
1551. The purpose of the decanting line between two slop tanks, where fitted, is:
To enable most of the recovered oil to be retained in the primary slop tank, while the
cleaner part of the water will flow into the secondary slop tank, where it can be re-used as
wash-water.
1552. The purpose of the demister unit within the Inert Gas System is
To remove water from the IGS stream.
1553. The purpose of the dovetail foundation on container vessels is:

Act as a sliding base for twistlocks.
1554. The residual stability requirements of a container ship state that:

A container ship must always comply with the stability requirements of the International
Loadline Rules.
1555. Twist locks are preferred over cone-based lashing systems on container vessels because:
Cone-based lashing systems are more prone to failure than twistlocks.
1556. What are safety cones used for on a RoRo vessel,?

All of the alternatives
1557. What are the ideal conditions required to satisfactorily conduct an Inclining Experiment?
All of the suggested answers
1558. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?

Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks and holds. Position of controls for
opening and closing of watertight compartments. Arrangement for correction of list due
to flooding.
1559. What are the operational requirements for a fast rescue boat?
It shall be served by a suitable launching appliance to launch and retrieve the boat even
under severe adverse weather conditions
1560. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding
in damaged condition?
Cross flooding arrangement
1561. What can be done to minimize the reduction of GM due to free surface? Reduce the
number of slack tanks.
1562. What extra precautions should be taken by the officers and crew if some of the
passengers are disabled, i.e. using wheelchair, cane, blind etc.?
All passengers that will require extra assistance, also in case of an emergency situation/
evacuation, must be registered in order to allocate crew to assist them if needed.
1563. What has a major adverse effect on the manoeuverability of a RoRo car carrier? Wind
1564. What is a low location lighting system?

A light system powered by battery or fluorescent signs mounted at deck level indicating
the way to the nearest exit
1565. What is a Marine Evacuation System?

Evacuation Chute(s)/Slide(s) and Liferafts
1566. What is most important when using expanded square search?

Accurate navigation
1567. What is the adequate marking of liferafts for passenger ships on short international
voyages?
SOLAS B PACK
1568. What is the anticipated rolling period of a ship with a large initial Transverse Metacentric
Height (GM) and would there be any associated dangers to consider?
Short sharp period of roll associated with breaking lashings and shifting cargo
1569. What is the correct understanding of the tem "Angle of Loll" when applied to ships
stability?
The angle the ship will lie when the ship has a negative GM
1570. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bending moments" when applied to ships?
The longitudinal Bending Moment at any section within the ship is the total moments
tending to alter the longitudinal shape of the ship
1571. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger
ships?
The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
1572. What is the minimum Initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) allowed under the
International Load Line Rules?
0.15 metres
1573. What is the name of this unit?

A hydrostatic release unit
1574. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships?

30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
1575. What is very important to monitor when distributing cargo?

You should always ensure the ship has sufficient stabilty at all times. Cargo shall
preferably be distributed evenly to avoid heavy list/ trim
1576. What must be ensured immediately after lowering and securing the stern ramp on a RoRo
vessel?
Control levers should be locked in the ‘neutral' position
1577. What new stability problems would be caused by having deep double bottom tanks on
double hull oil tankers?
The Metacentric Height (GM) would have to be considered.
1578. What should be observed concerning a ship's water tight integrity?

That all water tight ramps and doors are locked and secured at sea
1579. What special requirements applies to fire alarm signalling systems in passenger ships Fail
safe, Centralized in a continuously manned control station, Remote control of fire doors,
Indication of open or closed fire doors, Reactivation of ventilation, Detector status, Back up
powered
1580. When a ships derrick or crane lifts a weight off the deck of a ship, from which position
can the centre of gravity of the weight be considered to act?
From the head of the derrick or crane
1581. When cargo discharge reaches stripping levels on an oil tanker, it is necessary to reduce
the inert gas pressure so as to:
Minimise blowback.
1582. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel
angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of
heel after flooding but before equalization?
15 degrees
1583. When is sector search most effective?

Position of the search object is accurately known
1584. When is the parallel sweep search used?

When searching large area
1585. When is track line search normally used?

When a vessel or aircraft has disappeared without a trace
1586. When shutting down the flue gas plant, the last step that the operator shall carry out
would be to:
Shut down of inert gas blower.
1587. Where and for what are rubber mats used on board a pure RoRo car carrier?
Under the loading ramp flap to prevent vehicle damage
1588. Where on board a RoRo ship will cargoes experience the greatest accelerations? In the
highest stowage positions to each side of the ship
1589. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger
ships?
From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location
1590. Which of the following appliances are compulsorily in any ro-ro cargo space intended for
the carriage of motor vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion?
At least one portable foam applicator unit
1591. Which of these is not a Cargo Transport Unit under the IMDG Code?
Road tank vehicle
1592. Which one of the following international regulations is normally used when handling
dangerous goods?
IMDG code
1593. Who is normally deciding which search pattern to use?

OSC
1594. Why are all RoRo passenger ships divided into vertical ’zones’?
Vertical zones are fire zones which can be divided from each other with fire doors. In
case of fire, all fire doors in front and aft of the fire will be closed to prevent spreading of
smoke/fire.
1595. With reference to container ships, “TEU” refers to:

Twenty foot equivalent unit.
1596. With reference to oil tanker equipment, the abbreviation VECS stands for:
Vapour Emission Control System.
1597. With reference to the efficiency of cargo pumps on oil tankers, the abbreviation NPSH
stands for:
Net Pressure Suction Head.
1598. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the
class notation:
Ro-Ro
1599. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery
aft is:
Three

Camber

Inside of the Plating
1602. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude
tanker is called:
i. A Cofferdam
a. Sheer
1604. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured
from the bottom is:
a. 0.5 h
1605. Istortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called"
a. Racking
a. Forward
a. In ballast, beam sea
b. Loaded, head sea
1608. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:i
a. Bulkheads
a. Panting & Racking
1610. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is
designed to resist:
a. Racking
1611. A vessel in the condition shown in Figure will be:
Hogging

a. Hydrostatic Information
1613. The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a:
a. Knee

a. Flat Plate Keel

a. Sheer Strake
1616. The athwartships cross section structure
shown in the given Figure is a:
a. Flat Plate Keel

a. Compression
1618. The Figure shows a:
a. Bulwark Stanchion
a. Shell Expansion Plan
1620. In Figure shown, the section marked 4 is:
a. An Offset Bulb
a. Butt
1622. In the Figure shown, the items marked 6

are:
a. Bilge Brackets
1623. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should
be constructed with approved:
a. Sills
b. Freeing Ports
1625. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by:
c. Brackets
1626. The type of framing shown in the drawing

of this ship cross section is:
d. Longitudinal
324. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse

strength is maintained by fitting:
e. Deck Girders
1627. . The type of weld shown in Figure is a:
f. Fillet
1628. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkh
g. Pounding
1629. The item of structure numbered

9 in the given Figure is a
h. Panting Stringer
i. Fore Peak
1631. The pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker is called
a:
j. Spurling
1632. The item of structure numbered 10 in
the Figure given is a:
k. Breast Hook
1633. .
The item of structure numbered 11 in
the given Figure is a:
l. Nash Plate
a. keel Plate
1635. The type of rudder in the Figure is:
b. Semi-balanced
c. Gudgeon
d. Transom Floor
1638. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is
the:
e. Statutory Freeboard
f. Fresh Water Allowance

g. Fresh Water Allowance
1641. The steel section shown here will be
used to construct a:
h. Bulkhead
1642. In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propeller will move in one revolution of the
shaft is the:
i. Pitch
j. Zero
k. Reserve Buoyancy
l. Large
m. Main Deck to the Waterline

n. Stability

o. Deadweight
p. Righting Lever
q. Forward
1651. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from
the bottom is:
r. 0.33 h
s. Panting & Pounding

1653. Distortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called:
t. Heaving
u. Racking
v. In ballast, head sea

1655. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:
w. Deck Girders
1656. A vessel in the condition shown
here is:
x. Hogging
1657. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is designed
to resist:
y. Racking
z. Camber
1659. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery
aft is:
aa. Three
B. Inside of the Plating
ab. Sheer
1662. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the
class notation:
ac. Container
1663. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is
called:
ad. In Escape Trunk

1664. The type of weld shown here is a:
ae. Lap
af. Fillet
1665. The athwartships cross section structure

shown here is a:
ag. Flat Plate Keel

ah. Shell Expansion Plan
1667. He item marked 5 is a:
ai. Frame
1668. This drawing shows a:
aj. Bulwark Stanchion
1669. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead
to resist:
ak. Pounding

al. Sheer Strake

am. Tank Capacities
1369 In the figure, the items marked 6 are:
1672.
an. Bilge Brackets

ao. Butt
1674. The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a:
ap. Knee
aq. Duct Keel
1676. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should
be constructed with approved:
ar. Sills
1677. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by Fitting:
as. Deck Girders

at. Compression
au. Freeing Ports
1680. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by.

av. Brackets
aw.Fresh Water Allowance
ax. Fresh Water Allowance
1683. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is
the:
ay. Statutory Freeboard
az. Stern Bearing

ba. Wash Plate
bb. Double Bottom

bc. Gudgeon
bd. Transom Floor
be. Breast Hook

bf. Keel Plate
1691. The item of the structure numbered 9 is a:
bg. Panting Stringer
1692. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes
of a ship, what will quarter the acceleration forces acting on it?
C. Halving the roll period
1693. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling?
B. By the virtual loss of GM
1694. . What does heaving result in?
B. Shearing of container twistlocks
1695. . What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
A. Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
1696. . What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder?
E. The number of repeated stress cycles
1697. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in

calculating rolling forces?
A. 24 - 30
degrees
1698. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?
B. When twice the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll
period of the ship
1699. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values?
A. When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of
pitch
1700. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship?
A. When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind
direction
1701. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel?
C. Because container stacks on large container vessels are more exposed to
wind forces
1702. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMO
stability criteria cannot be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following?
A. The grain surfaces in some or all of the cargo
spaces must be secured
1703. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what are
the major concerns of the changes in stability?
A. Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and loss
of freeboard forward
1704. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper
ballast tank amidships of a Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do?
A. Inform Designated Person Ashore (DPA) and call in
Classification Society
1705. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 and
carrying cargo of density 1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to
withstand
B. The midships cargo hold
1706. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting
in a large metacentric height (GM)?
A. Have a fast roll period and possibly
suffer racking stresses
1707. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a
C. This hold does not have ventilators
1708. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft
C. The vessel is trimmed by the head on
completion
1709. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on a
bulk carrier indicate?
C. That failure of the shell plating is imminent
1710. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy
item of deck cargo alongside the jetty. You should immediately:
A. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower
weights within vessel and fill small ballast
tank on low side of vessel.
1711. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy
when:
A. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather
tight.
1712. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks Upon completion of
loading, the final level of the water would be at:
A. The top of the summer load line mark.
1713. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to
have: A. A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ Levers).
1714. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be
ensured that:
A. There are minimum free surface moments in
tanks.
1715. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when
it is carrying timber deck cargoes is:
B. SOLAS 74/78.
1716. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of
Heel formula at?
C. Small angles of heel.
1717. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel
can be denoted by the formula:
C. KN - KG x Sin angle of list.
1718. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other
ship types regarding seaworthiness?
C. Their large reserve buoyancy
prevents capsizing
1719. On a roro vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical
accelerations what else must be taken into account when calculating the external
forces acting on a cargo unit?
B. Longitudinal and vertical forces by wind pressure
1720. What special design feature is attributed to roro vessels which are only car carriers?
B. A stern ramp
1721. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily?
B. When wave lengths are equal to twice the ship's length
1722. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel
involved is on fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel?
A. After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew,
if possible your vessel should
standby and offer assistance,
until being relieved of that
obligation by the other vessel.
1723. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when
it is in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds.
What is the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
B. Attempt to stop the ingress
of water by listing the ship
over and bringing the damaged
area of the hull out of the water.
1724. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected
"Man Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there
is one seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back,
calling for assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal
point for any search pattern to be established?
A. Determine when the seaman
was last sighted and concentrate
the search round the course
line between the last
sighting and present position,
taking into account any
prevailing current.
1725. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available
as a reliable means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in
a tidal are What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of
the ship?
A. Display NUC lights and
investigate the tidal flow over the
next 24 hours and the probable drift
of the vessel.
1726. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars
fail completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars.
Should there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your
vessel is equipped with an operational ECDIS
A. Increase the officers on the
bridge to allow greater use
of visual navigation
1727. You are Senior Deck officer / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels
involved in a collision. What will your actions be following the collision?
A. Make sure your vessel +
crew are safe and then offer
your assistance to the other
vesselK
1728. You are senior Deck Officer onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you
have been in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water.
What would you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and
commence searching for any
survivors
1729. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel.
What immediate action should you take?
C. Send out a distress message
on their behalf.
1730. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has
the required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm
on board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what
other immediate steps should be taken?
A. Complete soundings of all compartments to
determine the number of compartments floode
Check the vessels stability limitations within its
statutory loadline requirements to determine if
still adequate.
1731. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As
Master responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take?
A. Organise someone to assess the extent
of damage and the residual stability of the
vessel.
K
1732. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as
Master tell the Master on the other vessel?
B. Explain your actions prior to the
collision and request details of
actions taken by the other vessel
which resulted in the collision
1733. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and
receives a navigational warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way
within the scheme. What actions should be taken on the bridge, if any?
A. Use the Arpa for early
identification of all other ship
movements within the traffic
lane and give rogue vessel a
wide berth
1734. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall .

B. When operating in restricted visibility, sound a whistle signal of
two prolonged and one short blastPKP
1735. A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing or otherwise restricted in its
ability to maneuver, sounds her fog signal at intervals of not .
B. More than two minutes
1736. You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog signal of another
vessel about 20° on your starboard bow. Risk of collision may exist.
You should
B. Reduce your speed to bare steerageway
1737. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during
daylight?
A. One black ball
1738. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during
daylight?
A. One black ball
1739. You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see around the bend
because of the height of the bank. You should .
C. Sound passing signals to any other vessel that may be on the other
side of the bendP
1740. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in length, at anchor?
B. She must show all-round white lights forward and aft.
1741. Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a lantern exhibited
in sufficient time to prevent collision?
C. A 6-meter motorboat
1742. Barges being towed at

night .
A. Must be lighted at all times
1743. You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead showing both the red and
green sidelights. The required action to take would be to
B. Start a radar plot in order to ascertain his course
1744. You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, and one short
blast in succession. What is the meaning of this signal?
C. A vessel is at anchor, warning of her
position.
1745. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must show which light(s) at night? B. A white
light over a red light and anchor lights
1746. A vessel which is fishing is required to show sidelights and a stern light only when
B. Underway and making way

1747. What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision?
C. All of the above
1748. In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You know that she is
also propelled by machinery if she shows .
D. A black cone
1749. Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is not in any
way disable Another vessel is approaching you on your starboard beam.
Which statement is TRUE?
C. You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel restricted in her ability to
maneuver
1750. For identification purposes at night, U.S. Navy submarines on the surface
may display an intermittent flashing light of which color?
B. Red
1751. Vessels engaged in fishing may show the additional signals described in Annex II
to the Rules when they are .
B. Fishing in a traffic separation zone
1752. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance
of:
A. Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
1753. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be
tested:
A. Every week
1754. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release
system, precautions to ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room
due to a mistake are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken?
C. Check the main valve for a potential leakage.
1755. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall
be serviced:
A. Every 12 months.
1756. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is
this information recorded in the OLB?
B. Monthly with signature of person carrying out test
1757. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
C. Turned every 30 months and needs only to be
1758. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine
room is equipped with fire detectors. What requirements of testing and
checking of the detectors are to be observed?
B. Check the detector with heat and/or smoke (in
accordance with instructions in its manual)
1759. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be
proportioned as it follows: A. Length = 480 mm,
breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm
1760. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to

present regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1)
C. All the life-buoys shall be placed in holders with
quick-release arrangement
1761. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances

corresponds to present regulations?
C. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be of such
a colour that they are in
contrast to the surrounding colour
1762. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of
life- saving appliances correspond to present regulations?
A. Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving
appliances in accordance with the regulations shall be
provided
1763. On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation
and lowering whenever practicable) must take place
C. Every 3 months
1764. The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If
25% of the crew - or more - has not participated in such drill during the last
month, what is the time limit to conduct such a drill after the vessel has left a
port?
B. Within 12 hrs
1765. When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched
with their assigned crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water?
A. Every month
1766. When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given
some training and instructions in the use of the ship's fire-fighting
appliances ?
B. As soon as possible
1767. Where do you find minimum drill requirements?

A. In the SOLAS convention and its annex
1768. Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?
A. Instruction in the use of radio life-
saving appliances
1769. Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill?
C. Checking fireman's outfits and other personal
rescue equipmen
1770. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds
to present SOLAS regulation?
A. Each lifeboat shall be launched, and
manoeuvred in the water with its
assigned crew at least once every three
months during an abandon ship drill
1771. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating
crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS?
B. Every month
1772. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated?
B. How to communicate using the hand-held radios
1773. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels
according to SOLAS?
A. Once every month.
1774. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?
A. Once every month
1775. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill?
A. Once every month
1776. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be
performed:
A. Every week
1777. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a
cargo ship participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire drill?
A. Monthly
1778. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and
precautionary routines run and tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance
are normally carried out by dedicated personnel. To ensure safe and appropriate
operation of the pump, would you consider it beneficial that the same dedicated
personnel operate the pump in emergencies?
B. To ensure safe operation of the emergency pump,only dedicated
personnel must be permitted to operate the pump.
1779. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?
A. Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and
lifejackets correctly donned
1780. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship
drill according to SOLAS regulations?
A. Checking that life-jackets are
correctly donned.
1781. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship

drill)?
B. Sen.Off.Deck.
1782. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the
body. Most damage occurs at the points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the
treatment of electrical burns?
A. Place sterile dressing over the burn and secure with a bandage.
1783. A diabetic has eaten too little food and the person may feel dizzy and lightheaded.
The skin becomes pale, with profuse sweathing. Limbs may begin to tremble and
pulse becomes rapid. The urine glucose reaction is negative. What kind of medicine
will the person need as soon as possible?
A. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet.
1784. A person slowly feels more sleepy and thirsty. The skin and slimhinner become very
dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What
kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
A. Insulin.
1785. A severe blow to or a heavy fall on the upper part of the abdomen (solar plexus) can
upset the regularity of breathing. What is the symptoms and signs?
A. Difficulty in breathing in and the casualty may be unable to speak.
1786. A strain occurs when a muscle or group of muscles is over- stretched and possibly
torn, by violent or sudden movement. Strain can be caused by lifting heavy weights
incorrectly. The treatment of strain may be remembered as the word RICE.What is
RICE an abbreviation for?
A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.
1787. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia may be either superficial or
deep, and the affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should be given
a person with frostbite ?
A. Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen hand in persons
opposite armpit...)
1788. Asthma is a distressing condition in which the muscles of the air passage go into
spasm. How can the asthma attacks be triggered off ?
A. Nervous tension,allergy, or none obvious cause.
1789. Chemical burns in eyes or on the skin can cause severe damage. Some chemicals may
be absorbed through the skin and cause widespread and sometimes fatal damage
within the body. What is the first main treatment if someone is a victim of chemical
burns?
A. Remove any contaminated clothing and flood the affected area with slowly
running water. Make sure that the contaminated water drains away freely
and safely.
1790. Due to exposure to heat fatigue, heat stroke and dehydration, what is the maximum
recommended effective temperature (ET) for full work load in enclosed spaces?
A. 30.5°C ET?
1791. How do the human body absorb toxicants?
A. The human body absorb toxicants through respiration, skin and the aliment
channel
1792. How will you treat a seasick person?
A. Leave him in bed or request him to have some fresh air.
1793. In which way may intake of poisoning material occur?
A. By inhaling, skin penetrating, skin absorbing and swallowing
1794. Severe pains in the chest occur when the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the
heart, become too narrow for sufficient oxygenated blood to reach the muscles of the
heart. Normally these attacks only last a few minutes, and the pain stops if the
casualty rests. What kind of medicine to be taken when an Angina Pectoris attack
occurs?
A. Nitro glycerine tablets.
1795. Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g. sea); can cause damage to the
skin and eyes. What is this type of burn called?
A. Radiation burns.
1796. There are three levels of burning, namely:*Superficial *Intermediate*Deep burns
(also called full-thickness burns) A large burn will almost certainly contain areas of all
three grades. How many per cent of the body may be burned before the danger of
shock occurs?
A. 15 percent.
1797. Water Jel is a unique product regarding protection and first aid of burns. Water Jel is
delivered in different sizes. Biggest is a carpet with the size 182cm x 152 cm. What is
the highest temperature the Water Jel carpet is resistant against?
A. 1530 C
1798. What is Hypothermia and how is it cured?
A. Body temperature below 35C / Heat the body
1799. What is the first sign and symptom of a Cardiac Infarction?
A. Sudden crushing, vice-like pain in the centre of the chest.
1800. What is the purpose of a Medico Message?
A. Call an hospital for professional medical assistance by radio when needed.
1801. Which organs absorb oxygen and part with carbon dioxide?
A. The respiratory organs
1802. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that:
.
*b.All information regarding the onboard training is given to the ship manager.
1803. Master of every ship must provide

*a.A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training
officer ashore
1804. Onboard training should be organised in such a way that:

*a.It is an integral part of the overall training plan.
1805. The majority of convensions adopted under the
auspices of IMO fall into which of the three
main categories:
*b..Maritime Safety, STCW, Maritime Security.

c.Safety, Terrorism, ILO.
1806. To maintain good relationship among the crew

on board a vessel, one must be:
*a.Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides.
1807. Why is it important to have good relationship on-

board a vessel?
*a.It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew.
1808. Why is it important to make weekly/routine

rounds in the accomodation areas?
*a. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and
hygienic condition
1809. Which of the Following is not a Type of Team?
a. *d.Individual
1810. Identify 4 of the Five Steps in Team Formation and Development.

a. *b.Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing
1811. Which of these is a Disadvantage of Teamwork?
a. *c.More time is taken to perform the tasks

1812. Which of these is an Advantage of Teamwork?
a. *d.Can provide Support
1813. What Individual or Group Behaviours might lead to an effective Team?

a. *d.Able to listen to feedback
1814. When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when
identifying effective team decision making?
a. *a.Two people always seem to make the decisions
1815. To be an effective communicator in a team

a. *c.Never Listen by yourself
1816. The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes:

a. *c.Quality Management
1817. To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to
a. *c.Monitor their individual performance
1818. To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to

a. *b.Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions
1819. Groupthink is used to describe
a. *a.The positive aspects that accur when a group works together.
1820. Research on working in pairs, teams, or in groups has shown that.

a. *d.Collaborations can be productive
1821. The subject of minority influence refers to?
a. *b.When the minority opinion in not able to sway the majority opinion
1822. Who are free riders ?

a. *b.People who volunteer to give others ride home in situations of potential
drunk driving
1823. Minority influence can
a. *c.Decrease creativity
1824. When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when
identifying effective team decision making?
a. b.Decision reached by voting or by consensus
1825. To be an effective communicator in a team

a. *b.Never Judge your team mates
1826. The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes:

a. *c.Quality Management
1827. To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to :
a. *d.Reward and motivate them
1828. To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to

a. *c.Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions
1829. One finding of the risky shift effect is........

a. *a.That group decisions are often risker when groupthink sets in.
1830. It is through ............. that group members can be inspired, motivated and guided to be
successful and productive.
a. *d.Leadership
1831. Which style of leadership focuses on goals, standard and organization ?

a. *d.Transformational leadership
1832. If immersed in a group that gives a person a sense of anonymity, a
persocould
a. *b.Unleash inhibitions because of deindividuation
1833. The transformational leadership style
a. *a.Encourages group members to transform themselves into better people
1834. Social comparasion theory is offered as one explanation for ........................
a. *b.Pluralistic ignorance
1835. At the horizon refraction is

a. a.0 min
1836. The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is called:
a. c.Observer's visible horizon
1837. What is the average distance of the sun from the earth?
a. b.930million miles
1838. The Prime meridian is at:

a. c.45 deg long
1839. Augmentation at the horizon is

a. b.0.3
1840. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by:
a. The fastest means available
1841. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest
full and proper attention he should:
a. Investigate the matter carefully and report the
findings to the company
1842. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the
USCG requires:
A. 96 hours notice of arrival
1843. Prior to ordering stores for any department;
a. The store inventory should be checked so that you order
only the items requiredPKP
1844. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorder to:
a. Control the ship's budget
1845. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible
treatment:
a. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and
without complications
1846. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be
found in:
a. The Ship's emergency contingency manual
1847. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is:
a. Master
1848. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and
CDC on board a vessel?
i. Ship's Office
1849. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone?
i. All accidents where crew are injured or killed
1850. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?
a. A great leader is only great in certain situations.
1851. In leadership trait theory what is a trait?

a. A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great.
1852. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviourism?

a. Antecedents-behaviour-consequences
DPKP
1853. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader:
A. Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.
1854. A transactional leader is one who:

1. Does deals with people in order to get them to do things the leader wants
1855. What is a transformational leader?

2. A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of a
better future.
1856. What is post-heroic leadership theory?

3. A theory which states that there is too much emphasis on leaders and more
attention should be placed on followers.
1857. What is the social construction of leadership?

L. What counts as good leadership is a construction of the perceptions of
the followers.
1858. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and
emotional aspects of leadership is false?
i. Good leadership involves touching others’ feelings
1859. To many, the word management suggests

ii. Efficiency
1860. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with

iii. Paperwork
1861. This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders.

4. Managers maintain while leaders develop
1862. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is false?
5. Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the right things
1863. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?

6. Leadership and management have some unique functions with an area of
overlap
1864. What best describes the leader-follower relationship?

7. Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts
1865. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as all of
the following excep
8. Cooperative
1866. Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or
“The Company” ?
i. d.The Owner
1867. What is meant by a "Safety Management system" ?
ii. d.A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board to
implement the company safety and environment protection policy.
1868. Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity ?
i. a.A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement
1869. What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM code ?

i. d.A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety
of ship or personnel or to the Environment
1870. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things
include ………….
a. a .continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel including
preparing for emergencies related to safety and environmental protection
1871. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things provide
for …………
a. b.safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment

1872. Safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things
establish …………..
a. a.sources of information concerning operational pollution prevention for joint
departmental use and consultation in case of emergency
1873. The SMS (Safety Management System) should ensure, amongst other things, that
applicable codes, guidelines and standards recommended by
…………..are taken into account.
a. d.All of these.
1874. The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place
a. b.compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations.

1875. All the requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into
account in ship operation through …………………..
a. d.written procedures and work instruction

1876. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into account
in ship operation through written procedures. These requirements include the following
information: …………….
a. a.All of these.
1877. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop, implement
and maintain a system which includes the following
:……………..
a. c.a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to
ensure safe operations and protection of the environment.
1878. Under ISM, the Company should establish ………….to describe how the objectives of
the ISM code willbe achieved.
a. c.a safety and environmental policy

1879. Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental Policy
a. c.known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based as well
as shore based.
1880. The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be
…………..standards required by the ISMcode ?
a. a.set above
1881. A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set above the
standards of the ISM code, should be …………..
a. c.encouraged and supported.

1882. It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company's …………
which forms an integral part of the Safety
Management System ?
a. c.safety management objectives
1883. Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the company
who ………..the ship.
a. d.Has assumed responsibility for the operation of

1884. Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific ship related
activities such as manning, technical support or maintenance ?
a. a.Yes, it is allowed
1885. Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning, technical
support or maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be issued ?
a. a.Only one DOC can be issued to the Company
1886. Under ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is
subcontracted……..
a. c.becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor

1887. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor must be
satisfied that the company is in control of ……………
a. all activities concerning the Safety Management System which have been
subcontracted.
1888. Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority and
interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to and
affecting safety and pollution prevention. How ?
a. By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and

pollution prevention activities for each functional area
1889. Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in order to
carry out his functions ?
a. Adequate resources and shore based support
1890. Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should
include………….
a. monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of each
ship
1891. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ?
a. A master certificate
b. Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control
of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code
1892. Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person ?
a. Every 2 to 3 months
1893. Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the Company's Safety and
Environmental Policy on board ?
a. The Master's
1894. Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively
implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company
a. By the state of cleanliness on board
1895. Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental
policy on board ?
a. The Master
1896. Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the Safety
and Environmental protection policy ?
a. Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from the
implementation as well as encouraging reception of ownership
1897. How can the crew be helped to understand how they personally benefit from the SEP
policy and how could their perception of ownership be encouraged
a. Through regular meetings at which the crew members are encouraged to

participate in the continuous development of the objectives of the SEP
1898. Under ISM, the master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy
and should issue appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and simple manner. How
is this to be done ?
a. By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples
b. Tell what is expected in a casual and amicable way during social gatherings to
officers and crew
1899. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and
instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who will actually
verifythis on board ?
a. The Master
1900. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures and
instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed ?
a. By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their own
Safety Work Book
1901. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and
reporting its deficiencies to ………..
a. the shore based management
1902. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should
include any deficiencies and may include …………..
a. proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the SMS.
1903. Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety, finds a
deficiency in the Safety Management system relevant to the ships operation he
should …………
a. inform the Company.
1904. When is the Master to review the Safety Management System and to report to the
Company ?
a. Prior to change of command
b. The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews
1905. Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Management system ?
a. The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship contains
a clear statement emphasizing the Master's authority
1906. Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies …………….
a. In both normal and extreme circumstances
1907. It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has overriding
responsibility and authority as required …………..
a. by the SOLAS Convention

1908. The Company must be sure that the Master is …………….
a. properly qualified for command.

1909. Verification of the master's qualifications should be done firstly by
…………..
a. interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental
awareness.
1910. The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements relating to
safety and environmental protection by ……………..
a. including such requirements in operating instructions.
b.
1911. For general cargo, thorough hold preparation is required. This is mainly to ensure
that:
B. bilges are clean and working
1912. Ballast lines to deep tanks should be:

B. flooded to keep pumps primed
1913. The principal reason for cargo segregation is to:

B. keep apart cargo that should not be mixed
1914. Cargo sweat may be anticipated when:

B. the dewpoint of ventilation air is lower than in the hold
1915. The primary reason for ventilating holds is to:

B. maintain cargo in the optimum condition
1916. Prior to loading a refrigerated cargo scrupulous preparations are required. The most
vital precaution is:
B. chilling units set to maximum cooling
1917. When carrying refrigerated cargo, while on passage the most important monitoring is:
B. regular temperature checks
1918. Which of the following is not a primary purpose for using dunnage?
B. To prevent chafage on cargo
1919. Which of the following refrigerated cargoes is not compatible for carriage in the
same conditions as the others listed?
B. Butter

B. Large

B. Zero

B. Deadweight

B. Stability

B. Lost Buoyancy

B. Main Deck to the Waterline
B. Righting Lever
1927. When loading vehicles for carriage, the fuel tanks should be:
B. carrying a minimum of fuel
1928. After a partial discharge and prior to sailing, it is important to:

B. secure & shore the remaining cargo
1929. Railway Iron as far as possible should be stowed

B. on deck
1930. Dangerous cargo on a pallet should be stowed:

B. on deck
1931. When Timber Deck cargo has been loaded, the stowage should be such that:
B. there is solid stowage to prevent water from flowing on deck
1932. The IMO regulations for Timber Deck Cargoes require:

B. lifelines to be rigged on the Port & Stbd sides
1933. When deck cargo is loaded it is important to:

B. maintain access to moorings
1934. Deck cargo stowage should:

B. allow unobstructed view from Bridge
1935. Containers on Deck are secured:

B. with twistlocks, rods and chains
1936. Containers may NOT contain:

B. dangerous cargo
1937. When planning a container cargo, the cargo officer should ensure that:
B. Potential ship stresses are calculated
1938. Prior to preparing and cleaning holds in preparation for bulk cargo it is important to:
B. consult the IMO Code of Practice
1939. When planning to load a coal bulk cargo, you should:

B. blank off the hold ventilation system
1940. When planning to load an iron ore bulk cargo:

B. there may be a need to brace the adjacent structure
1941. Cargoes referenced within the IMDG code may be anticipated to be:
B. of a hazardous nature
1942. The angle of repose of a bulk cargo is defined as:

B. the smallest angle from the vertical to which a substance can be raised without it
shifting
1943. Guideline requirements for the carriage of bulk grain state that:
B. following a cargo shift, the maximum heel must be no ore than 12°
1944. The carriage of bulk grain cargo should be carried out as directed under the rules of:
B. the SOLAS (IMO) Grain Rules
1945. Possible shifts of grain cargo may be controlled by:

B. maintaining a low GM
1946. During loading of dangerous goods a package is dropped. Despite damaging the
packaging the product can be clearly seen and is not damaged. What should be done?
B. Reject the package
1947. Full reference and details relating to dangerous goods will be found in which
document?
B. IMDG Code
1948. During loading dangerous goods, the documentation is incomplete regarding

stowage and classification details. The deck officer should:
B. request the missing details before sailing
1949. During cargo operations winch operators should:

B. be able to communicate with one another
1950. Portable lights should be removed from work areas after use. The most important
reason is to:
B. meet SOLAS requirements
1951. Planning for a heavy lift, the preferred derrick type would be:
B. Hallen swinging
1952. When operating Union Purchase lifts:

B. angles between married runners should never exceed 120°
1953. MacGregor style steel hatchcouers are secured against unwanted movement by:
B. side securing lugs
1954. Rigging a Jumbo Derrick for a heavy lift, which of the following is standard
practice?
B. To put winches in double gear
1955. What type of vessel is most likely to be fitted with a Ring Main cargo system?
B. Product Carrier
1956. Which of the following cargoes would be most likely to be discharged using positive
displacement reciprocating cargo pumps?
B. molasses
1957. Eductors are used within oil tanker cargo operations for:
B. cargo stripping
1958. The final value between the ship's side and the onshore terminal is called the:
B. Manifold Valve
1959. In a 250,000 tonne VLCC, how many tonnes would typically be discharged by a
single main cargo pump?
B. 4,000 tonnes
1960. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is the maximum concentration of a substance that
should be present in:
B. an atmospheric sample
1961. When crew are working in confined spaces that have been cleared of hazardous
materials, ventilation should be provided:
B. continuously
1962. Prior to entering a space the oxygen level should be shown to be at least:
B. 20%
1963. Bale capacity compared to grain capacity is:
B. less
1964. A cargo plan would NOT include:

B. loading and discharge equipment details
1965. How much space would 300 tonnes of Tea with a stowage factor of 3.0 take up, if it
had a broken stowage factor of 10%?
B. 990 cubic metres
1966. Ullage is the term used to describe:

B. the vertical space above a liquid cargo
1967. The Stowage Factor is the:

B. volume per unit of weight
1968. The cause for ice accumulation on the ship is due to freezing of sea spray at the
temperature below …………
A. 0 degree C
1969. An occluded depression tends to move ………………..

A. slowly and irregularly.
1970. The Beaufort scale, storm force corresponds to wind ……………

A. force 10 and above.
1971. On the Beaufort scale, hurricane force corresponds to wind ………….

A. force 12.
1972. Frontal depressions moue in families, each depression following its predecessor but
in……………..
A. a slightly lower latitude.
1973. Which of these is the correct weather sequence associated with a "warm front" ?
A. In advance - continuous rain; during the passage - rain almost or completely stops; in
the rear - mainly cloudy and slight rain.
1974. Tropical revolving storms are accompanied by ………………….

A. heavy rains sometimes with thunder and lightning.
1975. In what latitude do tropical revolving storms generally originate ?

A. 0 to 25 degrees.
1976. Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "cold front " ?
A. In advance - fall ; during the passage - sudden rise ; in the rear - rise continues more
slowly.
1977. You are 60 to 120 nautical miles from the centre of a tropical revolving storm. What
barometric changes would you expec?
A. Slight fall with diurnal variations still in evidence.
1978. Wind force 10 correspond to wind speed of ………………….

A. 48 - 55 knots.
1979. In meteorology, isobars are the lines joining places having the same ………
A. pressure.
1980. What weather phenomenon can cause a reduction of radar range due to attenuation ?
A. Fog.
1981. Which of these are 'low clouds" ?

A. Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.
1982. In the vicinity of a tropical revolving storm, a prudent master will first determine
which semicircle his ship is in and then set a course to ………….
A. get away from the dangerous semicircle
1983. You are 10 to 60 nautical miles away from the centre of a tropical revolving storm.
What barometric changes would you expect ?
A. No change.
1984. In meteorology, isotherms are the lines joining places having the same…………
A. temperature.
1985. Which of these are 'Medium clouds’ ?

A. Altocumulus, altostratus.
1986. If the vessel is between latitudes 5 - 20 degrees North, the most likely direction of
movement of a storm is ………….
A. North East..
1987. When in the vicinity of a tropical revolving storm it is important to determination in

which semicircle the ship is situated. In the northern hemisphere which of these
statements is true ?
A. It is not possible to determine if you are in the dangerous semicircle.
1988. The direction of the centre of the tropical revolving storm may be found by Buys
Ballot's law, namely face the wind and ………………
A. the center of the tropical storm will be ahead about a point to the right.
.
1989. Which of these are ''high clouds” ?
A. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
1990. What is the common name for hurricanes, typhoons or cyclones ?

A.
B. Tropical revolving storms.
1991. Trade winds are the general surface wind in which of the following latitudes ?
A. 60-90 degrees
1992. Which of these is the correct sequence of weather associated with a "cold front" ?
A. In advance - no rain ; during the passage - moderate rain ; in the rear - heavy rain.
1993. If depression has a large warm sector, it has a tendency to …………….

A. deepen.
1994. Which of these is correct sequence of visibility associated with a "cold front" ?
A. In advance - usually poor ; during the passage - first bad than good ; in the rear -
usually very good except in showers.
1995. Wich of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "warm front" ?
A. In advance - steady fall ; during the passage - fall ceases ; in the rear - little change or
slow fall.
1996. In a tropical revolving storm, “The eye” is a small central region of ………..
A. comparatively light winds and little clouds.
1997. The eye of the tropical revolving storm is an area with light wind but with seas
that are ……………
A. very high and confused.
1998. Wind force 5 corresponds to wind speed of ……………..

A. 17 - 21 knots.
1999. South Westerlies and Roaring Forties are general surface wind in which of the
following latitudes ?
A. 40 - 60 degrees.
2000. Fast moving high clouds are an indication of …………….

.
A. good weather to come.
2001. A falling barometer is an indication of ………………

A. bad weather to come.
2002. Your ship is 120 to 500 nautical miles from centre of tropical revolving storm.
What barometric changes do would you expect ?
A. Slow increase with the diurnal variation still in evidence.
2003. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the
following request from the bridge, "How is the chain"?
The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the hawse
pipe.
2004. How should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poop that
"It is the tug's wire"??
The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast.
2005. In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel was port
side alongside a jetty?
The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure

In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter "C". Which
bridge instrument would indicate this depth?
Echo Sounder
2006. In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the "Bridge"?
The Bridge is i Indicated by A, in the figure
2007. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probably be used by
the "FORWARD SPRING" when mooring the ship?
The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure
2008. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"?
Midships is indicated by B, in the figure

2009. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" of the ship?
The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure

2010. In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known as the "STERN"?
The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure

2011. In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern of a
vessel, when moored port side alongside a jetty. Which letter shows the direction which would
be used by a "STERN LINE"?
The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure
2012. In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"?
Astern is indicated by D, in the figure

2013. In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH” of the vessel?
Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure
2014. In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"?
The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure
2015. In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"?
The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure
2016. In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run?
The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow
2017. On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by the letter
"A"? It is normally raised by one deck above the main deck
Fo'c's'le or Forecastle
2018. On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of the vessel?
The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure

2019. On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word "DRAUGHT" of
the ship?
Draught is indicated by D, in the figure
2020. On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"?
The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure
2021. Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: When should
training in personal survival techniques be given?
Before being employed
2022. Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given to
prospective seafarers?
Approved training in survival techniques
2023. Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the fundamental
requirement relating to the older ships, which are still in service?
The older ships must be in good condition.

2024. As a result of the new building activities, older ships are no longer required.
The older ship must be cheaper to run than the new builds.
The older ships should be scrapped to make way for the new builds.
2025. What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when the vessel is in the
middle of the ocean?
The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything sighted, or heard, to
the Officer of the Watch
2026. What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations to leave the
berth and go to sea?
Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways
2027. What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooring and
unmooring?
Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires
2028. What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship?

The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities
2029. What is a "Fairlead"?

A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wires to stop them moving
sideward’s and reduces friction and chafing
2030. What is a mooring line?
A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship
2031. What is a ship's "Gangway"?
A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and the shore
2032. What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to
which it was moored?
Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings lines and
just leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside.
2033. What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes during mooring and
unmooring?
Winch
2034. What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor?
A black ball forward where it can best be seen
2035. What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship?
Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits
2036. What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship and shore?
Gangway
2037. What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's main engines?
Bunkers
2038. What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship used to make a
tug fast?
Towing spring
2039. What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture?
Survival suit
2040. What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on the bridge?
The Rate of Turn indicator displays the rate the ship is swinging in degrees per minute
2041. What is the role of a tug in a port?
A tug assists the ships to moor and unmoor

2042. What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"?
"Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects of getting all the people
onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship
2043. What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"?
Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind
2044. What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship?
A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring lines are secured
2045. What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure?

Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure
2046. When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding to an order?
When receiving an order, the order should be repeated back to the person who gave it before
carrying out the order.
2047. When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of the question
"What is the aspect of the other ship"?
The question is requesting some indication of the direction the other ship is heading.
2048. When should the lookout report another vessel?

As soon as it is sighted or heard.
2049. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?
The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure
2050. Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"?

The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into the lifeboats
2051. Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure?
The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure

2052. Which is the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure?
The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure
2053. Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure?
The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure

2054. Which is the "QUAY", in the figure?
The Quay is indicated by A, in the figure
2055. Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure?
The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure
2056. Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFT
BREAST LINE"?
The Aft Breast Line is B, in the figure
2057. Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous?
They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves
2058. With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to lives at sea and
the marine environment?
Bad management and poorly maintained older ships.
2059. Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch?
Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and heavy traffic.
2060. In the figure, which letter gives the correct understanding of the term
"LENGTH OVERALL"?
Length Overall is indicated by B, in the figure

2061. The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases are recommended to be used
when the ship's Officer is verbally talking to whom?
In circumstances described in all of the answers provided
2062. The Second Officer, when on watch on the bridge, is often referred to as the OOW.
What does OOW actually stand for?
Officer of the Watch
2063. What is "AIR DRAUGHT", in the figure?
Air draught is indicated by C, in the figure
2064. What is "FREEBOARD", in the figure?
Freeboard is indicated by B, in the figure

2065. What is "LENGHT OVERALL", in the figure?
Length overall is indicated by B, in the figure

2066. What is the correct understanding of the term "Block Coefficient" as applied to a
ship?
The comparison of the underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular block of the same
extreme dimensions.
2067. Which approved publication should be used by a seafarer to help overcome any
misunderstanding in communications?
The (IMO) Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) booklet
2068. Which is the "CENTRE LINE", in the figure?
The Fore and aft Centreline is indicated by A, in the figure
2069. How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard?
If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout repeatedly, "Man overboard"
2070. Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"?
Normally a small vessel is called a "boat" rather than a "ship", otherwise it is not important.
2071. What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the ladder from twisting?
The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Spreader'
2072. What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the other side"?
Move the pilot ladder to the other side, means: to shift the pilot ladder to the opposite side of
the ship.
2073. What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"?
Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug to the ship
2074. What do you understand by: Bitter end?

Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured within the chain locker
2075. What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor?
Let go the port anchor means: open the port windlass brake
2076. What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the
pilot ladder?
Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the
accommodation ladder and rig the pilot ladder right next to it
2077. What do you understand by: Secure the tug?
Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug

2078. What does the word "pirates" mean?
Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea
2079. What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure?
Draught is D, in the figure
2080. What is the meaning of "make fast"

To secure a rope
2081. What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch the lifeboat?
Lifeboat drill
2082. What is the objective of the merchant navy?
To safely transport goods by sea
2083. What is the room often called where the crew eat their meals?
The crew mess
2084. What is understood by the term "take the helm"?

Take over the steering of the ship.
2085. Where is "AFT", in the figure?
Aft is A, in the figure
2086. Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure?
The Bridge is A, in the figure
2087. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?
The Forecastle is B, in the figure
2088. Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure?
The Port quarter is D, in the figure

2089. Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure?
The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure
2090. Which of these statements is NOT correct ?

Kerosene is good for cleaning the skin.
2091. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage
if the ship is in open waters ?

A. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger
by the effects of wind, tide or current
ships position by four different methods and they all give slightly different
positions. Which of the following would be considered the
B. Gyro compass bearings from two lighthouses
2095. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in
the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
A. The Panama Canal Authorit
2096. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through
the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking
several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects
would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
(ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards
2097. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The
ship has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as
illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little
space as possible?
A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway,
rudder hard to starboard and full ahead

. B. Before the voyage
commences
A. The plan should include the first 72 hours of the sea voyage.
B. The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to
berth
2100. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line
drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the
B. Track line
2101. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of
outlying reefs and shoals?
A. Coastal charts
2103. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The
charted depth of an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you
wish to have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the
obstruction is
01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet
these requirements?
B. 1728
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
2105. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities
over many hours, what management issues should the Master consider?
2106. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist
in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local
knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?
A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot,
when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
2107. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides
information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine
facilities available in that port?
C. Coast Pilot
E. Speed and direction toward which the current flows
2109. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good
seamanship would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all
of the following EXCEPT the .

233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at
13 knots to intercept vessel A?
a.256
2111. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper
chart, what Chart Datum should be selected?
A. WGS84 and plot the
readout position directly on the
chart
2112. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following
answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when
deciding the courses to steer?
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing.
The distances gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's
draught and the loadline limits
A. Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and
includes both identification of the occurrence and the
likelihood that it will happen.
ships position by four different methods and they all give slightly different positions.
Which of the following would be considered the most accurate.
A. Radar ranges from two radar
destinctive headlands
2115. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in
the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
B. The Panama Canal Authority
PK
2116. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to
aids to navigation by means of .

A. All of the above
2118. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in
A. The Philippines
B. Australia
DPKP
2120. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through
the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking
several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects
would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
2121. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The
ship has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as
illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little
space as possible?
C. Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea Rudder hard to port, full astern.
Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has
been made
2122. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the
IALA-B Buoyage System?
C. Peru

C. New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title
page.
2124. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important
marine information. Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
A. XI
2125. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?
2126. What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage
entry to port ?
B. Coast Pilot
The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is .
C. Predicted in Tidal Current

Tables
2127. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on .
B. Port
facilities
2128. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing
white with a red sector. The red sector .
B. Indicates a danger
area
2129. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?
A. Those adopted by the International Maritime
Organization
2130. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide
tables is .
B. The same as that used for the charts of the

locality
2131. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get navigations with extra
caution is
C. Precautionary area
2132. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage

planning : A. Checking, maintain and records
C. Planning, execution and monitoring

2133. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by classification indeed
is :
B. No Go Area
2134. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow before ship arriving at
way point's is :
C. Wheel Over Point

2135. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of
outlying reefs and shoals?
Coastal charts
2136. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?

B. A known
position
2137. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that .
C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's
surface
2138. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's clocks are
on the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain
the proper zone time?
C. 67°30'W
2139. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

C. They have a decreased range from
normal.
2140. Safe water buoys may show ONLY .
C. White lights
2141. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass.
They are .
A. Accurate only in the Polar regionns
2142. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are called
C. Isogonic lines
2143. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears
185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahea
This indicates that you(r) .
B. Course is in error
2144. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass
B. Turns counterclockwise to port

2145. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart .
A. On the compass rose
2146. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass
aboard vessels?
C. It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.

2147. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the
heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash,
what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
2148. Magnetic compass deviation .
B. Is the angular difference between
magnetic north and compass north
2149. Deviation in a compass is caused by the .
A. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
2150. Magnetic variation changes with a change in .
F. The vessel's position
2151. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?

B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth.
2152. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in .
C. Geographical location
2153. Variation is the angular measurement between .
B. Compass north and true north
2154. A relative bearing is always measured from .

A. The vessel's head
2155. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and .
B. Annual rate of variation change
2156. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to
a channel?
a. Select ground stabilized true motion display and alter course so that own ships
true vector passes through the middle of the entrance to the channel.
2157. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a target with
no trail indicate? Note this trail of the echo and not a vector.
a. The target is on the same course and speed as own ship.
2158. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpan
radar is set on a range 12 miles on a course of 314 degrees and owns ship has a vector as shown.
What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?
a. True vectors
2159. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the depth of
water with the depth printed on the chart?
a. Draught of the ship
2160. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?
a. The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously
worldwide.
2161. What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the radar?
a. A few sea returns remaining on the screen.
2162. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the GPS
system?
a. Incorrect height of the antenna.
2163. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with a Racon
not being visible on the radar screen?
a. All of the suggested answers.
2164. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be incorrect, what
would be the most probable cause of the error?
a. The density of the water
2165. Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational system and
has hyperbolae as position lines?
a. Loran C
2166. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the
Arpa for anti-collision purposes
a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water.
2167. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and higher than her identifying lights?
b. A 55-meter vessel trawling
2168. While underway in a narrow channel, a vessel should stay __________.
b. to the starboard side of the channel
2169. Vessels of less than what length may not impede the passage of other vessels which can
safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway?
b. 20 meters
2170. A lantern combining the sidelights and stern light MAY be shown on a __________.
d. 6-meter vessel under oars

2171. The lights required by the Rules must be shown __________.
a. from sunrise to sunset in restricted visibility
2172. Which vessel may carry her sidelights and stern light in a combined lantern on the mast?
2026. An 18-meter sailing vessel
2173. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may be
hidden by an obstruction shall __________.
b. sound a prolonged blast
2174. You are approaching a vessel dredging during the day and see two balls in a vertical line
on the port side of the dredge. These shapes mean that __________.
b. there is an obstruction on the port side of the dredge
2175. Which statement is TRUE concerning the light used to accompany whistle signals?
c. It is used to supplement short blasts of the whistle.
2176. Which vessel must sound her fog signal at intervals not to exceed one minute?
d. A vessel aground
2177. By day, you sight a vessel displaying three shapes in a vertical line. The top and bottom
shapes are balls, and the middle shape is a diamond. It could be a __________.
d. vessel engaged in replenishment at sea

2178. You are heading due east (090°) and observe a vessel's red sidelight on your port beam.
The vessel may be heading __________.
d. southwest (225°)
2179. Which vessel is, by definition, unable to keep out of the way of another vessel?
b. Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
2180. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after masthead lights when underway?
b. A 50-meter power-driven vessel
2181. As defined in the Rules, a towing light is a yellow light having the same characteristics
as a(n) __________.
d. stern light
2182. A vessel underway and making way in fog shall sound every two minutes __________.
a. one prolonged blast
2183. When anchoring a 20-meter vessel at night, you must show __________.
a. one all-round white light
2184. According to the Navigation Rules, all of the following are engaged in fishing EXCEPT a
vessel __________.
d. trolling
2185. When a vessel sounds three short blasts on the whistle, this indicates that __________.
b. her engines are going astern
2186. A vessel is overtaking when she approaches another from more than how many degrees
abaft the beam?
c. 22.5°
2187. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?
c. Whistle and bell only
2188. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?
c. Whistle and bell only
2189. Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-driven vessels except __________.
c. when they are the overtaking vessel
2190. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision?

b. Proper use shall be made of radar equipment to determine risk of collision.
You are fishing at night, and you sight a vessel showing three lights in a vertical
line. The upper and lower lights are red and the middle light is white. Which
statement is TRUE?
a. You must keep out of the way of the other vessel.
2191. Which vessel is to sound a fog signal of one prolonged followed by two short
blasts?
d. All of the above

2192. A vessel may exhibit lights other than those prescribed by the Rules as long as
the additional lights __________.
a. do not interfere with the keeping of a proper look-out
2193. Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly submerged vessel being towed?
c. A diamond shape will be carried at the aftermost extremity of the tow.
2194. Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines, and the vessel is dead in the
water. Which
fog signal should you sound?
b. Two prolonged blasts every two minutes
2195. The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any vessel __________.
c. with propelling machinery in use
2196. If a distress signal is received on board your ship, what should be the first
action that should be taken?
a. Attempt to establish contact with the distressed vessel
2197. The Master arrives on the bridge obviously under the influence of alcohol and
states he is taking over the "con" of the ship. What actions should the Officer of the
Watch (OOW) take in this situation?
a. Attempt to diplomatically avoid taking any actions that would put the
ship or crew into danger and call the Chief Officer for assistance.
2198. The ship is involved in a collision, what is the immediate action by the Officer
of the Watch after the incident has taken place?
a. Sound the General Alarm and stop engines.
2199. What action should be taken by the Officer of the Watch in the event of fire
being reported to the bridge during the 00.00 to 04.00 watch?
2026. Sound the Fire Alarm
2200. What actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship's steering gear
fails?
2201. What can be used to reduce the effect of the state of sea-waves?
a. Vegetable / Fish Oil
2202. What immediate actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship
goes aground on an uncharted shoal in the middle of the ocean?
a. Stop engines and call the Master
2203. What special equipment can often provide assistance in locating a survival craft
or man overboard and in the water?
a. A SART
2204. Which method is used to make a physical connection between a rescue vessel
and a wreck?
a. Rocket line
2205. When the fire alarm signal is sounded every member of the ship's crew shall
immediately proceed to their assigned fire station. Which one of the following signals
is used as fire alarm signal on board cargo ships?
a. Intermittent signals on the ship's alarm bells
2206. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blast followed by one prolonged blast
is sounded by the ship's whistle and alarm bells. What are you to do?
a. Go to your lifeboat station
2207. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blasts followed by one long blast is
sounded by the ship's whistle and the alarm bells. What are you to do?
a. Go to your lifeboat station (muster station).
a. muster station
2209. Identify this symbol:
a. Emergency generator?
2210. If you detect a fire on board the ship, dependent on the situation, which of the
following actions is the first to be taken?
a. Raise the fire alarm.
2211. What alarm signal must be sounded by the alarm bells in case of fire?
a. The signal which is stated in the muster list
2212. What is a contingency plan for ships?
a. Plan for safety preparedness
2213. What is the general emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS ?
a. seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
a. Lifeboat
a. Embarkation ladder
b. Lower lifeboat to water
c. Evacuation slide
d. Davit-launched liferaft
a. Line-throwing appliance
b. Rocket parachute flares
c. Radar transponder
d. Survival craft pyrotecnic distress signals
a. Fasten seat belts
b. Secure hatches
c. Release falls
d. Start air supply
a. Lifebuoy with light and smoke
b. Lifebuoy with line
c. Lifebuoy with light
d. Lifejacket
a. Lifejacket
b. Child`s lifejacket
c. Immersion suit
d. Lifebuoy
2220. What shall you do if you see a person falling into the sea?
a. Throw a lifebuoy over board and report to the bridge immediately.
2221. What signal, if any, is specified in SOLAS as the "Abandon ship" signal ?
a. the "Abandon ship" signal is not specified, only the general emergency
alarm signal is stated
2222. When a fire breaks out in the accommodation, cargo holds or on deck, who is in
charge of the fire fighting operations?
a. The person who is designated in the muster list
2223. When a fire breaks out in the engine room, who is in charge of the fire fighting
operations?
a. The Chief Engineer
2224. When having a fire alarm during normal working hours, what immediate
actions should be taken?
a. Act according to instruction given in the fire plan.
2225. When mustered to an abandon ship drill, what is the first thing you do when
entering the muster station?
a. Put on a life jacket
2226. When you join a new ship, how are you informed about safety rules, alarm
instructions and your own duties in case of an emergency?
a. By muster lists exhibited in conspicuous places
2227. Where can you find what your duties are during a life boat drill?
a. Muster List
2228. Where do you find instructions for tasks and duties in case of an emergency?
a. In the muster list.
2229. On area A1 the function " Reception of shore to ship distress alerts"" is
mainly based on:"
a. the use of VHF DSC
2230. " On area A1 the function "" Reception of shore to ship distress alerts"" is
mainly based on:"
a. The use of VHF DSC
2231. " On area A1 the function "" Transmission and reception of signals for
locating "" is mainly based on:"
a. the use of SART transponders
2232. " On area A1 the function "" Transmission of ship to shore distress alerts""
is mainly based on:"
a. The use of VHF DSC
2233. " On area A2 the function "" Transmission and reception of on scene
communications"" is mainly based on:"
a. The use of MF and/or VHF R/T
a. The use of MF DSC
2235. " On area A3 the function "" Reception of shore to ship distress alerts"" is
mainly based on:"
a. The use of HF DSC and INMARSAT C SAFETYNET
a. The use of MF and/or VHF R/T
a. the use of SART transponders
a. the use of MF and/or VHF R/T
a. The use of SART transponders
a. The use of HF DSC and COSPAS SARSAT Epirbs
2241. “RECEIVED MAYDAY” is used in a:
a. Receipt of a distress alert
2242. A "Standard Format for Search and Rescue Situation Reports" (SITREPs)
should be used by vessels in distress. The SITREP can be compiled as a short form
(urgent essential details). Which of the following information shall be included
when using the "short form"?
a. Weather on-scene.
2243. A Cospas-Sarsat EPIRB can be used in:
a. All sea-areas (A1 to A4)
2244. A distress alert has accidentally been sent with the Inmarsat-C installation.
One should now:
a. Make contact with an RCC
2245. A distress alert on board may only be transmitted on explicit order of:
a. The captain
2246. A distress alert sent by Inmarsat to an RCC is sent via:
a. LES
2247. A distress call has been sent accidentally on your MF DSC equipment.
Which of the following is correct for cancelling the false distress alert?
a. Make broadcast on 2182 kHz ""Mayday all stations…"" and cancel
the false distress alert."
2248. A distress-call received via RCC should:
a. Only be given receipt, if the master has confirmed that assistance
indeed can be given
2249. A distress-call, onboard via RCC, may only be given Receipt if:
a. The O.O.W deems it necessary
2250. A DSC distress alert is received. The message states that communication by
radiotelex is preferred. One preferably uses:
a. FEC mode ARQ mode
2251. A DSC distress alert single frequency call attempt is awaiting
acknowledgement:
a. Automatically repeated after 3 and a half to 4 and a half minutes
2252. A DSC-message of the “safety” category is received from another vessel
on VHF channel 70. Conforming to the GMDSS rules, for the continuation of the
safety traffic, you must change to VHF-channel:
a. 16
2253. A received DSC ‘distress alert’ contains the following information:
“UNDESIGNATED DISTRESS” Of this distress case:
a. The nature of distress is unknown
2254. A SART must, when the vessel sinks:
a. Be taken by the crew to the rescue-boat and turned on manually
2255. A satellite receives the transmissions of the 406 MHz Cospas-Sarsat EPIRB.
The transmissions of the EPIRB will be:
a. Always passed on to a LUT
2256. A ship in distress should transmit the appropriate alarm signal followed by
the distress call and message on one or all of the international distress frequencies.
Which of frequencies is in accordance with the present recommendations?
a. 500 kHz, 2182 kHz and 156.8 MHz
2257. All designated SAR aircraft and civil aircraft carry equipment operating on
the international aeronautical distress frequencies (amplitude modulation). The
aeronautical distress frequencies are?
a. 121.5 MHz and/or 243.0 MHz
2258. An EPIRB has been activated accidentally. Which of the following is
correct for cancelling the false distress alert?
a. Call the nearest coast station and inform it that a false distress alert
has been transmited
2259. At sea red rocket signals are seen. This is not reported by radio. You have to
begin the distress alert procedure via VHF with the term:
a. MAYDAY RELAY
2260. At sea there is a container adrift which can be a danger for navigation. The
call starts with:
a. SECURITE (3x)
2261. Distress MF communications should normally be operated :
a. In J3E mode – on simplex basis
2262. For a “distress alert” via the DSC, the MF-band is used in the frequencies:
a. TX: 2187.5 kHz RX: 2187.5 kHz
2263. How many total frequencies are available for DSC distress alerting?
a. Seven (7).
2264. How will you start a cancelling message after you send by mistake a
distress call on your VHF DSC equipment
a. "All Stations - This is ""SAINT-ROMAIN""""
2265. If one requires medical advice by means of an Inmarsat-C terminal one
should use the following address:
a. 32
2266. If requested by a coastal radio station to participate in a rescue operation,
what is the most important information you may give?
a. Your position, name, call sign and speed
2267. In a distress-situation a MF/HF-DSC transmission is used in the 8MHz
frequency. In this case always:
a. Indicate on what frequency communication will be continued
2268. In radio telephony what is the "URGENCY CALL" which should be used
to indicate that you have a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of
another vessel or person?
a. Pan Pan (3 times)
2269. In radio-telex distress traffic preference is given to FEC because:
a. Everybody can read along
2270. On board an accident happened. Urgent radio-medical advice is needed. We
choose the category:
a. Urgency
2271. On board they want to make a DSC-call with a foreign coast-station. It is an
urgent call. Preferably choose:
a. The national DSC-call frequecies of the coast-station concerned
2272. On board they want to send a safety-call to other vessels. The DSC safety-
call:
a. Has to contain a work-frequency
2273. Onboard the following message is received on the DSC controller: DOO:
245329000 CH16 ; S distress ack 244123000 What station sent the distress
acknowledgement?
a. 245329000
2274. Regular ‘updating’ of a ships’ position in an Inmarsat-C installation is
necessary
a. To have the correct position in case of accidents
2275. Silencing by a station, not in charge of the distress-traffic, is done as
follows:
a. “SEELONCE DISTRESS” followed by the silencing station's call-
sign
2276. The authority to order the use of distress signal or distress alerts is:
a. Only with the master
2277. The distress message is used when the vessel is threatened by a serious and
imminent danger and is in need of immediate assistance. What is the telegraphy
and telephony distress message like?
a. S O S (Telegraphy) / MAYDAY (Telephony)
2278. The DSC-controller display the following: DOO: 244562000 CH16 ; S
distress sinking After receiving this DSC message the following is done
immediately:
a. Listen out on VHF channel 16
2279. The DSC-controller displays the following: DOO: 246321000 CH16 ; S
distress flooding After receiving this DSC message nothing more is
received. Sending receipt on channel 16 does not give any response. One should
first:
a. Send a DSC distress alert relay
2280. The first time you send a DSC distress alert via the HF-band, you prefer
the?
a. 8 MHz band
2281. The frequency 121,5 MHz is used for :
a. SARSAT-COSPAS EPIRBS
2282. The number of frequencies on which a MF/HF-DSC distress alert multi-
frequency call attempt can be transmitted is:
a. 6
2283. The receipt of a distress alert is to be pronounced as followed:
a. Mayday (1x), call-sign of ship in distress (3x) / this is / own call-sign
(3x) / received mayday
2284. The relay of a distress-call by an RCC for coast-station begins with:
a. MAYDAY RELAY (3x)
2285. The safety message announces that a station:
a. Will relay a message concerning an important navigational or
meteorological warning
2286. The Urgency Message from a ship is used to notify other traffic of a
situation where the ship is not in imminent danger, but where the development of
the situation is uncertain and may need assistance in the near future. What is the
telephony urgency message like?
a. PAN-PAN
2287. To announce an important navigational –or meteorological warning via the
VHF-installation, one should use the:
a. Safety call
2288. To get priority with radio-communication, one must notify the coast-station
that the call is:
a. An urgent call
2289. To receive distress alerting and MSI via an Inmarsat-C set vessels must
have:
a. SES or an EGC receiver
2290. Via a coast-station radio medical advice is asked using NBDP. What
command has to be given after ga +?
a. med +
2291. What do you do after receiving a VHF DSC DISTRESS call ?
a. You set watch on VHF channel 16
2292. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC
distress alert is received?
a. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the
radiotelephone frequency that is associated with frquency band on
which the distress alert was received.
2293. What is the emergency channel on VHF?
a. Channel 16
2294. What is the emergency frequency on M.F. (Medium frequency) radio?
a. 2182 Hz
2295. When a coastguard-station wants to send a gale-warning by DSC it will
happen in the category:
a. Safety
2296. When a DSC-message of the ‘distress’ category is received, in order to start
distress alert communication in so far as not indicated in the alert, you will switch
to VHF channel:
a. 16
2297. When may a call for radio medical advice be preceded by the urgency-
signal:
a. In urgent cases
2298. When on HF band a DSC distress alert is received, you have to listen to:
a. The radio telephony distress frequency in the band in which the
DSC distress alert was received
2299. Which of the following channels and modes should be used when initiating
a distress alert transmission?
a. Channel 70 DSC
2300. Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain maritime
assistance ?
a. 39
2301. Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain medical advice ?
a. 32
2302. Which one of the listed items has to be included in a distress message?
a. Identification of the ship.
2303. Which radio frequency/channels are reserved for emergency
communication?
a. 2182 kHz/VHF channel 16
2304. Which type of call will be sent by a ship adrift and needing the assistance of
a tug ? (The weather is not bad and the ship will be aground 24 hours later)
a. Urgent call
2305. Which type of call will be sent by a ship in danger of capsizing and needing
assistance from all vessels in her vicinity ?
a. Distress call
2306. Which type of call will be sent by a ship sighting another ship in distress
which is not itself in position to transmit a distress alert ?
a. Distress relay call
2307. Which type of call will be sent by a ship sighting containers adrift in
vicinity of her position ? (No message about this problem was previously
transmitted via NAVTEX or INMARSAT C SAFETYNET)
a. Safety call
2308. Which VHF channel should be used for intership navigation safety
communications?
a. Ch.13
2309. Which word will precede a distress message ?
a. MAYDAY
2310. Which word will precede a safety message ?
a. SECURITY
2311. Which word will precede an urgency message ?
a. PAN PAN
2312. You have an important navigational or meteorological warning to transmit.
What call should proceed this message when made on the radio telephone?
a. Securite Securite (3 times)
2313. You receive a distress alert on HF Radio. What should you do?
a. Wait three minutes and if no acknowledgement is heard from a coast
station you should relay the alert.
2314. You receive via the 8 MHz a DSC distress alert. The received DSC message
is however distorted. The MMSI as well as the position are illegible. After listening
at the 8 MHz telephone distress frequency, nothing is heard. This is because:
a. Telephone signals in the same frequency band are generally weaker
than DSC signals
2315. You wish to send a DSC-message because of a m.o.b. situation and
assistance by other ships is required. You have to choose the category:
a. Distress
2316. Your vessel is acting as the on scene commander during a distress rescue.
Various vessels are interfering the distress traffic on the VHF. What message
would you use to stop them interfering with this traffic?
a. Seelonce mayday
2317. Your vessel is not in distress and not taking part in a distress operation.
How would you impose radio silence on vessels which are interfering the distress
traffic?
a. Seelonce Distress
2318. You are approaching the port entrance. What do these lights mean?
a. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to
do so.
2319. You are proceeding up a river, with berths on both banks. You see this flag
hoist on a vessel moored on a berth ahead. What does it mean?
a. You should proceed at slow speed when passing me.
2320. "Overshoot" is an expression related to a ship's steering ability. What is the
correct understanding of this expression?
a. It is how many degrees of the compass a ship continues to turn after
applying counter-rudder
2321. Anyone of the crew who is assigned to watch duties in port has a number of
important tasks to carry out. Which one of the listed tasks should be included in the
watchman's duties?
a. Check the moorings for correct tightness and ensure the gangway
remains safe and secure.
2322. Apart from steering the helmsman should also:
a. Regularly check the gyro against the magnetic compass
2323. During restricted visibility, you are posted as bridge lookout and you hear 1
long blast at intervals of about 2 minutes on your port bow. What will you report to
the OOW (officer on watch)?
a. Fog signal of one long blast heard on the port bow at regular
intervals of about 2 minutes
2324. How is a EPIRB (Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon) activated?
a. Most EPIRBs are automatically activated when they enter the water
2325. How should you, as helmsman, give feedback to the OOW (officer on
watch) that his orders are understood?
a. By repeating the order
2326. How will you act if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch)
gives you the order: ”Nothing to port”
2026. Don’t allow the ship to swing at all to port
2327. If the relief for the bridge lookout does not appear at the end of the watch,
when required, what should be the actions of the existing lookout
a. He should inform the Officer of the Watch and wait for instructions
2328. If you are the helmsman on duty, what would be the correct action if the
OOW (officer on watch) gives you the order to: "Change over from Automatic
pilot to Hand steering".
a. Apply the controls to disconnect the Automatic pilot and engage
hand steering. Start steering the vessel using the wheel and confirm
with the OOW the change-over is complete and the course you are
to steer
2329. Under what circumstances should gangway nets be rigged under the
gangway?
a. Whenever the gangway is rigged between ship and shore.
2330. What are the duties of an effective bridge look out?
a. Keeping a constant observation around the ship.
2331. What are the duties of the "Standby Watch keeper" when he is not on the
bridge?
a. Remain in the expected location, available for immediate call from
the bridge
2332. What does the term "Hard a Starboard" or "Hard to Starboard" mean?
a. Put the wheel fully over to starboard.
2333. What is meant by the term "keeping a proper lookout" as applied to the
bridge lookout?
a. Keeping a visual lookout all round the ship and also actively
listening out for audio signals
2334. What is the correct way that the lookout should report the appearance of a
light, in clear visibility, on the port side of the ship in a direction half way between
right ahead and abeam?
a. The lookout should state "Light 4 points to port"
a. Inform the bridge of any new lights when they appear over the
horizon or any other items observed which may affect the ship
2335. What is the meaning of the term "Steady as she goes" when acting as
helmsman?
a. While altering the ships head, the instruction "steady as she goes"
means reduce the ships swing as rapidly as possible and steady on
present course
2336. What will you do if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch)
gives you the order: “Port 20” and after a while the order: "Ease to 10"?
a. Apply 20 degrees of rudder towards port and then after the second
command reduce the wheel to 10 degrees of helm.
2337. What will you do if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch)
gives you the order: ”Starboard ten”
a. Repeat the command back and then turn the wheel to make the
rudder turn 10 degrees to starboard of amidships
2338. When acting as helmsman would you expect the reading of the gyro
compass to be the same as the magnetic compass?
a. Very seldom would they be the same
2339. When you are on watch during a stay in port, what should you always
ensure is ready at the head of the gangway?
a. Life buoy with line.
2340. On the diagram provided, there are four (4) possible directions indicating
the term "AHEAD". Which one is the correct?
a. Ahead is given by A on the figure
2341. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AFT"
shown. Which one is the correct one?
a. Aft is defined as A on the figure
2342. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR
DRAUGHT" given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Air draught is given by D on the figure
2343. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "ASTERN"
shown. Which one is the correct one?
a. Astern is defined as D on the figure
2344. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term
"BOLLARD" given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Bollard is given by D on the figure
"BREADTH" given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Breadth is given by B on the figure
2346. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "CENTRE
LINE" given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Centre line is given by A on the figure
"MIDSHIPS" given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Midships is given by B on the figure
2348. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "QUAY"
given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Quay is given by A on the figure
"STARBOARD QUARTER" given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Starboard quarter is given by C on the figure
"WINDLASS" given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Windlass is given by B on the figure
2351. On the figure there are four (4) possible directions shown by the arrowed
lines. Which one would correctly shows the direction understood by the term
"AFTER SPRING"?
a. After spring is defined as A on the figure
2352. On the figure there are four (4) possible directions, shown by the arrowed
lines, which could be the correct direction associated with the term "HEAD LINE".
Which one is the correct one?
a. Head line is given by B on the figure
2353. On the figure there are four possible definitions of the term "STARBOARD
BOW" given. Which one is the correct one?
a. Starboard bow is given by A on the figure
2354. The diagram shows the direction that a rope runs during a mooring
operation and a possible place where it may break. Where would be considered the
safest position to stand?
a. Outside the blue coloured zone.
2355. The diagram shows the lead of a rope during mooring operations and the
possible point where it may break. Where would be considered the safest place to
be standing?
a. Outside the coloured zone.
2356. The figure shows a cross section through a ship floating in water, with the
hull in red and the seabed below the ship shaded. On the figure there are four (4)
possible definitions of the term "FREEBOARD" given. Which one is the correct
one?
a. Freeboard is given by D on the figure
2357. The figure shows the cross section of a ship floating in water with the hull
coloured in red and the seabed below the vessel shaded. On this figure there are
four (4) possible definitions of the term "UNDERKEEL CLEARANCE" given.
Which one is the correct one?
a. Underkeel clearance is given by A on the figure
2358. What is the correct understanding of the term "boat deck"?
a. The deck where the lifeboats davits are positioned.
2359. What is the correct understanding of the term "boat drill"?
a. Practical exercise for the people on board to practice their duties and
be prepared in the case of an emergency abandon ship.
2360. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bottlescrew"?
a. A bottlescrew is a metal threaded sleeve which adjusts the length
and tension on rigging or stays
2361. What is the correct understanding of the term "FAIRLEAD"?
a. The access point where mooring lines are lead when making fast to
the shore.
2362. What is the correct understanding of the term "gangway"?
a. Portable bridge arrangement between ship and shore, when
alongside.
2363. What is the correct understanding of the term "LEE SIDE"?
a. The lee side is the side of the ship which is facing away from the
wind.
2364. What is the necessary protection when you are rust chipping with air tools?
a. Protective clothing, safety shoes, gloves, goggles, earmuffs.
2365. What items of clothing should be avoided during mooring operations?
a. All of the items specified in the alternative answers.
2366. What kind of safety clothing should be worn during a mooring operation?
a. Helmet, safety shoes, gloves and protective clothes.
2367. What kind of safety equipment must be worn during anchoring?
a. All of the mentioned equipment.
2368. What safety clothing should be worn during an anchoring operation?
a. All of the equipment mentioned in the alternative answers.
2369. What special safety measures are required by a seaman when working aloft
on a stage?
a. Safety harness with a rope secured to a safe point above.
2370. When a vessel arrives at a port to pick up a pilot and enter harbour, there
should be someone required to stand by the anchor forward. How should the anchor
be prepared and ready?
a. The brake securely applied, all cement/covering into the chain
locker and securing arrangements from windlass removed. The
guillotine can remain for removal when ready
2371. When could there be a demonstration of how to start a lifeboat engine?
a. A demonstration could be arranged during a lifeboat drill
2372. When reeving a new wire onto a self-stowing winch drum you should, after
looking at brake arrangement, reeve it to pay out as follows:
a. Direction B
2373. When two ships are lying alongside each other in a ship to ship operation
and one ship is lying at anchor, anchor watch duties must be carried out as follows:
a. Both ships have normal anchor watch responsibility in addition to
watching ship to ship fendering, mooring etc
2374. Which one of the following types of rope is the most dangerous to work
with?
a. Nylon.
2375. If the subject is subject to manning control, which documentation must the master have at
hand?
a. Master's record and Documentation file.
2376. Is a repairman not comprised by the specification of crew under obligation to public
supervision of maritime service?
a. Yes, if engaged by the owner.
2377. What can be the result of public supervision of maritime service of seafarers?
a. It could be any of the alternatives listed.
2378. What is supervision of maritime service of seafarers?
a. Control by the master/employer and public supervisory authority that the
requirements of law or agreement concerning the employee's service on board are
satisfied.
2379. "A" Class divisions in ships are constructed so that they are capable of preventing
the passage of smoke and flame to the end of a standard fire test held for how many
minutes?
60 minutes
2380. A class "D" fire involves what type of material?

Metals
2381. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting equipment available is
water hose with spray jet/spray nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this
fire using water?
The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion.
2382. A fire bulkhead of the "C" class must be constructed of:

Non-combustible material
2383. According to basic principles regarding fire protection the ship is to be divided in
zones by structural and thermal boundaries. (SOLAS II-2/2.2.1)
In main vertical zones
2384. According to European standards (E.N.) fire can be classified…

A, B,C,D
2385. According to their physical state, extinguishing agents may be classified in to:
Solid, liquid and gases
2386. After smoking, cigarettes should be disposed off as follows: Disposed of in an

ashtray, ensuring that it is extinguished
2387. Among the additives used to improve the effectiveness of water in the fight
against fire there are the moisturing ones. What is the task they perform?
They reduce the surface tension of water
2388. Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher?
Black
2389. Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a dry powder
extinguisher? Blue
2390. As a fire fighter, what should you always consider when fighting a fire in a
confined space?
The confined space always has six sides
2391. As a general rule, what is the minimum flash point of an oil used as a liquid fuel
on board?
60ºC
\
2392. As a general rule, where would you expect to find a portable fire extinguisher in
any space?
Near to the entrance to the space
2393. B Class divisions in ships are constructed so that they are capable of preventing
the passage of flame to the end of a standard fire test held for:
30 minutes
2394. Before extinction of an electric fire we need

To disconnect the power source
2395. Besides certain other factors, a BOILOVER takes place: When the container also
contains water
2396. Breathing apparatuses is an important piece of equipment for being able to fight a
fire onboard a vessel. What routine precautions to be observed with regard to use and
maintenance of such equipment?
All the mentioned alternatives.
2397. Could a lift be considered as an escape route from the engine room ?
No
2398. Dry chemical powders extinguish fire by...

Inhibition and smothering
2399. Fire provokes:

Gases, flames, smoke and heat
2400. For which of the following groups of substances or materials is the use of water as
an extinguishing agent dangerous?
Sodium hydrosulphite , potassium hydroxide, magnesium
2401. Fuel oil from a leaking fuel pipe has been collected in a drip tray under the boiler
furnace.The oil is suddenly ignited by a backflash from the boiler burner.The boiler
room is manned and the person present has the choice of various extinguishers. The fire
is purely a surface fire. What would be the preferable extinguisher?
Powder
2402. Generally speaking, what is the value commonly recognised as the maximum
concentration of CO allowed in the breathing air of a breathing apparatus?
20ppm
2403. Generally speaking, what is the value commonly recognised as the maximum
concentration of oil vapours allowed in the breathing air of a breathing apparatus?
5mg/m3
2404. Give the meaning of the following symbol

A class division
A class fire door self closing

Area protected by CO2

Area protected by halon

Area protected by sprinkler

B class fire door self closing

CO2 horn
Fire alarm panel

Fire main with fire valves

Fire station
Flame detector
Foam installation
Foam monitor gun

Foam release station

Gas detector
Heat detector
International shore connection

Manually operated call point

Portable fire extinguisher
Portable foam applicator

Primary means of escape
Push button for fire alarm

Remote controlled fire pumps

Secondary means of escape
Smoke detector
Space protected by foam

Sprinkler horn
Sprinkler section valve

Wheeled fire extinguisher

2433. Having a CO2 alarm during normal working hours, what immediate action should
be taken?
Get out of the engine room as soon as possible.
2434. How do the extinguishing agents act?

by cooling, smothering, combustible suppression, inhibition
2435. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing agent when dealing with
oil fires?
By smothering and also by providing some cooling
2436. How many separate means of escape are provided from each fire zone above the
bulkhead deck?
At least two
2437. Hydrocarbon gas encountered in oil tankers cannot burn in an atmosphere

containing less than approximately what percentage of oxygen (by volume)?
11%
2438. Identify this symbol:
2439. Emergency fire pump?
2440. If a fire starts in the fuel tanks of a vessel, the fire will be ?
A class B fire
2441. If circumstances permit, how should low expansion foam be applied to oil
burning near a bulkhead of the engine room?
The foam should be aimed at the bulkhead behind the fire and allowed to spread out slowly
over the fire.
2442. If you detect a fire on board the ship, dependent on the situation, which of the
following actions is the first to be taken?
Raise the fire alarm.
2443. If you have to carry out hot work close to a smoke detector in the engine room,
what precautions should be taken?
Notify Master, Deck officer and Engineer in charge.The loop for this special sensor to be
switched off and take normal precautions for hot work.
2444. In a liquid fire the surface of which is about 100m²,

Flames are usually higher than the diameter of the fire
2445. In a smoke filled alleyway where will the cleanest air be found, and how should
you proceed out?
Near to the deck, crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible.
2446. In case of a fire inside the Acetylene-line in the ac/ox gas welding equipment,
what action is deemed necessary?
Close the valves on both the Acetylene and the Oxygen bottles.
2447. In case of a fire on the line of an oxyacetylene gas-welding equipment, what
action should be taken?
Close the valves on both bottles, first the acetylene and then the oxygen bottle
2448. In case of fire in the switch board, what kind of extinguisant to be preferred?
CO2
2449. In general what is the proportion of concentrate to water to produce foam?

Between 3% and 6%
2450. In general, what is the best extinguishing agent to put out a class A fire?
Water
2451. In order to extinguish a fire with a portable extinguisher, we must proceed in the
following way:
Maintain a safe distance, apply the extinguishing agent to the base of the flames with the
wind behind us
2452. In order to extinguish a flammable liquid of the same kind as alcohol, we can use:
Anti-alcohol foam
2453. In the fire fighting of fires of a type C with dry chemical powder extinguishers,
the application is performed
in a continuous way so that the powder spray is in the same direction as the one of the flame
2454. In which one of the following an oil, the flash point of which only needs to be
over 43°C, may be used?
In emergency generators
2455. In which ways is heat transmitted?

Conduction, convection and radiation
2456. Mention some important thoughts for what you have to do when you recognise
that fire break out onboard
Report to bridge or duty officer, actuate the fire alarm, call the persons around the fire and
join the fire squad
2457. Monoammonium phosphate used as a dry powder can be effective on which of

the following type of fire?
Solid, liquids, and gases
2458. Oily rags and metal turnings:

Are a fire hazard because they are liable to spontaneous combustion
2459. On a fire patrol at night you see smoke coming from a closed cabin door. What
action should you take first?
Activate the nearest fire alarm button and advise bridge of the location of the fire.
2460. One of the checks during the annual Class survey of the UMS functions is
focusing on cleanliness of the engine room. What is the reason for such a check ?
To reduce the general risk of fire in an unmanned engine room.
2461. Proteinic foams have the feature of being? Of low expansion, viscous and solid,
easily contaminated by hydrocarbons
2462. The aim of fire detection is:

All the answers are correct
2463. The basic components of the self-contained breathing apparatus are…

Mask, bottle, frame, medium pressure valve and low pressure valve
2464. The duty engineer of a UMS ship is approached by a member of the ship's staff,
seeking permission to hang wet working clothes in the engine room to dry. He should:
Not allow the clothes to be hung anywhere in the unmanned machinery spaces
2465. The effectiveness of CO2 as an extinguishing agent is based on:

Combustion suppression
2466. The effectiveness of foam is based on:

smothering and cooling
2467. The engine room is equipped with regular fire hoses and nozzles. What is
important to observe when using water as an extinguisant in the engine room?
2468. The extinguishing agent which can be applied on any fires of class A, B, or C is:
Multipurpose powder
2469. The fire integrity of any bulkhead shall be maintained

At the openings and penetrations
2470. The fire point is

The minimum temperature at which a combustible gives off vapours that may burn in contact
with oxygen in air, and at which combustion persists once the source of ignition has been
removed
2471. The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a
flammable mixture with air is known as the:
Flash point
2472. The main risk for people when using CO2 as an extinguishing agent in a closed
space is: Air suppression
2473. The method of extinction by smothering is based on this basis;
The fire is extinguished by avoiding the contact between the fuel vapours and the oxygen
2474. The necessary elements to create fire are

combustible, oxygen, heat and chain reaction
2475. The presence of smoke represents one of the greatest dangers in the fire fighting.
Why?
It reduces the visibility, provokes panic, is irritating and may be toxic
2476. The pressure in a flexible fire hose must be set up

After it has been laid down
2477. The superstructure and deck houses of passenger ships carrying more than 36
passengers shall be divided into main vertical zones by
Class "A" division
2478. The use of combustible material is restricted in the accommodation spaces in

order to: Contain and suppress fire and explosion in the compartment of origin
2479. To maintain a fire, three conditions need to be met: Oxygen, combustible material
and sufficient temperature for combustion. What subject must be removed to extinguish
the fire?
Either of the mentioned alternatives.
2480. Water is the extinguishing agent which is the most widely employed and its action
as an extinguishing agent is due to a combination of the following phenomena: Cooling,
smothering and dispersion
2481. We must clean the spots of oil on hot surfaces because:

all the answers are correct
2482. Welding and flame cutting are among the factors which give the highest risk of
fire on board ships. Precaution has to be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following
safety rules may be regarded as the most important?
The welder shall have been instructed in the use of the ship's welding plant
2483. What are class "C" bulkheads?

Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials but do not meet any of the
requirements relative to smoke and flame nor limitations relative to temperature rise.
2484. What are the characteristics of CO2?

2485. What are the components of the personal equipment of the fireman's outfit
All the items mentioned
2486. What are the main basic components of a portable extinguisher?
The container, the extinguishing agent, the impulsion system
2487. What are the main components of the atmospherical air?

O2: 21% N2: 78% H2O: traces CO2: traces, Rare gases: traces
2488. What are the three diameters of fire hoses most commonly found on ships?
25, 45, or 70 mm
2489. What class of fire involves gas?

Class C fire
2490. What class of fire involves liquids?
Class B fire
2491. What class of fire is a smouldering fire of wood, textiles, paper and other
carbonaceous materials?
Class A
2492. What is a polar (liquid)?

A liquid that mixes with water
2493. What is class "A" division

Bulkhead constructed of steel, suitably stiffened and insulated so as to be able to meet a
prescribed fire test of one hour duration
2494. What is flashpoint of an oil or liquefied gas?

The flash point for an oil or liquefied gas is the temperature at which it is possible to ignite
the vapour above the liquid
2495. What is the "international shore connection" used for? To connect the ship fire
main to the shore lines
2496. What is the absolutely main purpose with fighting a fire on board?
Rescuing of life
2497. What is the factor that makes the difference between a deflagrating and a
detonating explosion?
The speed of the shock wave created by the initial combustion
2498. What is the inherent danger in welding/cutting in piping containing freon?

Development of nitrous gases?
2499. What is the main advantage of a positive pressure breathing apparatus?

If the face mask has a leak toxic fumes/smoke would still not enter the mask
2500. What is the main criterion generally taken into account to classify portable
extinguishers:
The extinguishing agent
2501. What is the maximum length of a fire zone on any deck?

40 meters
2502. What is the minimum capacity of the portable tank of a portable foam applicator ?
1 litre
2503. What is the minimum necessary condition for the start and permanence of an oil
fuel fire? The temperature is equal to or over the flash point
2504. What is the minimum volume of air contained in the cylinders of a SOLAS
compliant self-contained compressed-air operated breathing apparatus (SCABA)?
1200 litres
2505. What is the most common fixed fire fighting extinguishing system fitted in an
engine room?
A carbon dioxide (CO2) system
2506. What is the name given to a devastating explosion that may occur when a rigid
container containing a liquefied gas is exposed to a very high *temperature?
BLEVE
2507. What is the only reliable way of checking that the CO2 cartridge in a dry powder
extinguisher is full?
Remove the cartridge and weigh it to check that it has the full weight stamped on it
2508. What is the signal actuated by a fire detection system?

A visual and audible alarm signal at the control panel
2509. What is the term used to designate the work that may cause heat, sparks or flames
and that cannot be performed if specific compulsory precautions are not taken in places
where nearby flammable products could be present?
Hot work
2510. What kind of extinguishing-remedy would you choose to put out an electrical fire?
Dry extinguishing remedy.
2511. What kind of fuel will originate a class A fire?

a solid (cardboard or wood…)
2512. What kind of measure is the division of the vessel in upright areas by using
thermic and structural separations?
It is both a prevention and protection measure
2513. What kind of process is a fire?
All the mentioned alternatives
2514. What type of construction material should be avoided regarding fire protection
purposes? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.3)
All combustible materials
2515. What type of fire integrity must be provided for an engine control room ?
A 60
2516. What type of nozzles for fire hoses can be provided aboard ships?
Dual purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating a shutoff
2517. What types of fire extinguishers shall be used in the engine room?
Fire extinguishers equipped for powder or CO2 only.
2518. When at sea, you discover that the bilges in the engine room have a large quantity
of oil residues floating around. What action should you take?
Notify Chief Engineer, find cause of leakage, remedy the leakage and then immediately start
to clean the bilges
2519. When fighting fire, why shall you never pour water into hot fat?
The water will explode into steam causing hot fat to be thrown far away thus possibly
causing severe burns or fire.
2520. Where is the International Shore Connection to be stored?

Easy accessible by the gangway
2521. Where would you find out which fire sections are enclosed by "A" or "B" class
divisions on a ship?
On the Ship's fire control plans
2522. Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in case of a fire?
Extinguishing attempt is started immediately
2523. Which deck is the "bulkhead deck"?

The uppermost deck to which transverse bulkheads are carried
2524. Which element must be removed to extinguish a fire?

All alternatives. It is enough that one of the mentioned elements are removed.
2525. Which of the following actions will most effectively prevent fire in a cabin?
Ensuring that all persons avoid smoking in bed.
2526. Which of the following are frequent causes of fires in accommodation?

1 Smoking in bed. 2 Covering of electric fires with blankets. 3 Overloading electric plugs.
2527. Which of the following hose lengths corresponds best to the most common ones
found onboard?
20 m
2528. Which of the following is a characteristic that is required for a "class A" bulkhead
or deck?
It stops the spreading of smoke and flames during one hour
2529. Which of the following is a combustion reaction?

2530. Which of the following is a precautionary measure to prevent fire in general:

2531. Which of the following may cause a fire in the accommodation spaces?
All the mentioned alternatives
2532. Which of the following measures should be applied when hot work is to be
undertaken in a harbour.
To have a hot-work permit
2533. Which of the following measures should rather be considered as a prevention

measure than as a protection measure?
Restriction in the usage of combustible materials
2534. Which of the following statements applies to fire doors in main vertical zone
bulkheads and stairway enclosures in passenger ships?
All the alternatives are correct
2535. Which of these series of sizes corresponds to the international standard for
nozzles 12 mm, 16 mm and 19 mm
2536. Which one of the following appliances is allowed to burn an oil fuel, the flash
point of which may be a little bit lower than the one used for the main *engine?
The emergency generators
2537. Which one of the following is a limitation on the use of chemical powders?
All the below mentioned alternatives
2538. Which one of the listed fire-extinguishing medium is most effective against an
open oil fire?
Foam
2539. Which one of the listed fire-extinguishing medium is to be preferred to fight a fire
in an electric installation (for example the main switchboard)?
Powder.
2540. Which spaces, in regard to fire protection, shall be separated from the rest of the
ship by thermal and structural boundaries? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.2)
Accommodation
2541. Whilst in the Engine room you hear the CO2 release alarm, what action if any
should you take.
Leave the engine room as quickly as possible, closing all doors behind you.
2542. Why are accommodation spaces separated from the remainder of the ship by
thermal and structural boundaries?
To provide means of escape for the passenger and crew
2543. You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled compartment wearing a breathing
apparatus. At what stage should you start to make your way out of the compartment?
Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much air you used to reach your
work area. Start to return when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve
2544. You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled room, wearing a breathing
apparatus. How would you conduct this search?
Carry out a right or left hand search and proceed carefully, feeling the area in front with the
foot and using the back of the free hand to check the area around.
2545. You are leading a team fighting an interior fire. If you see the colour of the smoke
changing from dark black to grey, what is the most probable reason for that change? The
team is applying water and the temperature is decreasing
2379. Which entries shall the master make in the sea service book or record of service in
connection with supervision of maritime service?
a. Entries regarding the seafarer's service time, vacation days due etc..
2380. Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work on board?
a. Both master and shipping company.
2381. How is a Safety Management Certificate obtained?
a. Ship owner has Document of Compliance issued, and vessel is assessed and holds
all statutory certificates
2382. Under ISM, what is a "non-conformity"?
a. An observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of a
specified requirement
2383. Watch keeping engineers shall have a minimum of knowledge of the vessel's engine
room and operation of its functions prior to being accepted as Engineer on Duty, and shall
acknowledge his familiarization with the equipment by signing a check list listing all units he
shall be able to operate. Minimum knowledge is:
a. He shall have all the knowledge as listed in the other alternatives
2384. What do you understand by the term “Risk Assessment”, and how would this be carried
out on board?
a. Identify the hazards, quantify the risks, put control measures in place, monitor the
work activity and review
2385. What does ISM stand for?
a. The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for
Pollution Prevention
Making use of Risk Assessment as a means to improving safety
2386. What is the period of validity of the Safety Management Certificate
a. 5 years
2387. Which personnel must undergo familiarization training on board
a. Everyone
2388. Which ships does the ISM code apply to
a. All passenger ships, all cargo ships of 500GRT or above
2389. With respect to the ISM, what training in additional to lifeboat and fire drills must be
carried out?
a. Familiarization, and other drills identified as necessary by the ship
2390. Exemption to serve as master on board a NIS ship for Non Norwegian citizens needs to
be given by:
a. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
2391. For whom does the qualification requirements apply?
a. For personnel assigned to shipboard duties.
2392. How is the basic safety manning determined?
a. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate determines the basic safety manning after
an evaluation which includes, inter alia, job specifications and qualification
requirements.
2393. How is the Maritime Employer/Employee Register kept up to date?
a. By reports prepared by the master/employer.
2394. If the subject is subject to manning control, which documentation must the master have at
hand?
b. Master's record and Documentation file.
2395. Is a repairman not comprised by the specification of crew under obligation to public
b. Yes, if engaged by the owner.
2396. Prior to entering service on a vessel in foreign trade for the first time you are required to
have a health certificate not older than?
a. Three months.
2397. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or injured seafarer?
a. He shall arrange for proper, including medical, care.
2398. What can be the result of public supervision of maritime service of sefarers?
b. It could be any of the alternatives listed.
2399. What is an endorsement/qualification document?
a. A document, which together with the national certificate is entitling the holder to
serve in a position for which a certificate of competency is required
2400. What is supervision of maritime service of seafarers?
b. Control by the master/employer and public supervisory authority that the
requirements of law or agreement concerning the employee's service on board are
satisfied.
2401. What must be done before a holder of a Non- Norwegian certificate can serve in a
position for which a certificate of competency is required on NIS ships?
a. A duly completed application with certificate etc. must be made to the public
supervisory authorities as an endorsment/ qualification document
2402. What shall the master do upon the termination of the employment relationship as to
a. Verify that the sefarer has been given his rights according to law or agreement,
make entries in the sea service book or record of service, have a report on seamen
sent to the Maritime Employer/Employee Register.
2403. Where is the master's responsibility for observing the provisions related to supervision of
maritime service stated?
a. In the Act relating to the enrolment of employees onboard ships.
2404. Which document must a foreign master definitely have before his documents may be
considered for public supervision of maritime service?
a. A letter "Exemption from the nationality requirement for foreign shipmasters"
2405. Which documents shall the master submit to the consulate for supervision of maritime
service of a Non- Norwegian rating?
a. Employment agreement, report on seamen and documentation that the seafarer
has the necessary qualifications, health certificate, record of service etc.
2406. Which entries shall the master make in the sea service book or record of service in
connection with supervision of maritime service?
b. Entries regarding the seafarer's service time, vacation days due etc.
2407. Which institution gives regulations concerning certificates of competency for marine
deck and engineer officers?
2408. Who are to pay the expenses in connection with public supervision of maritime service?
a. The employer.
2409. As per the legislation in question, a copy of the provisions, as you know, shall generally
speaking be accessible to the crew. Does this apply as well as to a collective wage agreement?
a. Yes, if an employment agreement refers to the collective wage agreement
2410. At what number of crew members is it mandatory to have an Working Environment
Committee on board?
a. Minimum eight crew members.
2411. Can a Norwegian Consulate execute authority on behalf of the Norwegian Maritime
Directorate (NMD)?
a. A Norwegian Consulate has already duties on behalf of the NMD and the
directorate can in addition instruct a Consulate to act on the directorate's authority.
2412. Can an agreement of employment for service on a NIS ship be verbal or has it to be
confirmed in writing?
a. The company has to ensure that an agreement is always confirmed in writing
2413. Do you confirm that personal safety provisions of the Seamen's Act cannot, as per the
NIS Act, be deviated from in a collective wage agreement?
a. Yes
2414. Does the nationality of the shipowning company have any importance in general to the
application of Norwegian law on NIS ships?
a. No.
2415. Editing (Preparation)of the book "Excerpts from The Norwegian Passenger and Cargo
Ship Legislation, etc. " is done by:
a. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate.
2416. For a person whose hours are not divided into watches, the regular working hours on
board a NIS-ship shall be between:
a. 0600 - 1700 hrs
2417. How does the Norwegian Maritime Directorate keep the master/ shipowners updated on
the new and amended legislation relatives to the book "Excerpts from the Norwegian Passenger
and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc"
a. Through stapled-in supplements in the quarterly NMD magazine "Navigare" and
Ships Documents.
2418. How many Working Environmental committee members should be elected on a ship with
a crew of 13 members?
a. 1 member
2419. How should you, methodically speaking, get to know and to find relevant provisions in
the book "Excerpts Excerpts from the Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc" ?
a. By help of the Headword Register, the Chronological Register, the table of
contents, the tables of contents in the respective provisions, the Preface, etc.
2420. Service as master on board a NIS-ship for non-Norwegian citizens has to be approved by:
2421. Shall a special form for employment agreement be used for service on NIS ships?
a. Yes, on a form prescribed or approved by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate
2422. Ships registered in the Norwegian International Ship Register are subject to public
control in accordance with:
a. The Seaworthiness Act
2423. The book "Excerpts from The Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc."
has notes about whether international regulations have been implented by Norway. Where can
you find these notes?
a. In the main Section numbered VII
2424. To achieve safe maritime operation, the Norwegian Maritime Directorate works in
compliance with:
a. The International Maritime Organization (IMO)
2425. To which Act(s) do(es) the special provisions relating to the seafarers in the NIS Act
chiefly relate?
a. The Act relating to hours of work and the Seamen's Act
2426. To which document does the following clause relate? "The contract is subject to
Norwegian laws and Norwegian courts, but cases concerning the employee's service on the ship
may be brought against the owner before a Norwegian court or before a court in the employee's
country of residence. The agreement as mentioned in the first sentence is not a hindrance to a
case being brought before a court in another country when it ensues from the lugano Convention
that such action shall be permitted"
a. To individual employment agreements for service on NIS ships
2427. To whom do the certification requirements apply on a NIS cargo vessel?
a. To persons in certificated positions as per the manning certificate and certificated
positions of additional manning, if any
2428. To whom working on Norwegian ships does the Seamen's Act in principle apply?
a. To everyone engaged in work on board, except those who only work on board
while the ship is in port
2429. What are the average maximum working hours which may not be exceeded, in a year on
NIS-ships?
a. 2912 hours
2430. What are the duties of the master, specially stated in the NIS act chapter 3?
a. To make a copy of the NIS act and the CBA accessible to the crew if referred to
in a contract
2431. What are the ordinary working hours on NIS ships?
a. Maximum 8 hours per day, or 40 hours per week
2432. What are the prerequisites for a CBA (Collective Bargaining Agreement) to be applied to
service on NIS ships?
a. That the CBA expressly states that it applies to NIS ships and is subject to
Norwegian laws and courts of law unless courts of another country is explicity
mentioned.
2433. What are the prerequisites for a CBA (Collective Bargaining Agreement) to be applied to
service on NIS ships?
a. That the CBA expressly states that it applies to NIS ships and is subject to
Norwegian laws and courts of law unless courts of another country is explicitly
mentioned.
That the shipowner is a Norwegian subject or fulfils other requirements stated in
Norwegian acts
2434. What does it mean in relation to the Seamen's Act that no collective wage agreement
applies to the employment relationship?
a. That the Seamen's Act applies in full
2435. What does normally form the basis for permission to a Non-Norwegian deck or marine
engineer officer to serve in a position for which a certificate of competency is required on NIS
ships?
a. A certificate issued by the authorities of a state which has acceded to the STCW-
Convention
2436. What is the book named: "Excerpts from the Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship
Legislation, etc"?
a. An unofficial translation of "Den norske skipskontrolls regeler" leaving out some
provisions, such as speed limits, relating to local Norwegian waters. (The
authorised Norwegian original applies in cases of discrepancies etc.);
2437. What is the minimum age for a seafarer on a NIS ship (foreign trade)?
a. A person may serve on board as from the 17th. calendar year
2438. Which Act has a provision that reads as follows: " The shipmaster shall take care that a
copy of this Act and of the regulations issued in pursuance of the Act is to be found on board" ?
a. The Seaworthiness Act.
2439. Which law applies to NIS-ships?
a. Norwegian law unless otherwise provided in or pursuant to a statue?
2440. Which provisions concerning holidays must the master ensure that is carried onboard?
a. The Act relating to holydays and Regulations relating to holydays for employees
on ships.
2441. Which provisions generally speaking govern the rights and duties of the employee and
employer on NIS ships?
a. Norwegian Seamen's Act, NIS Act
2442. Which, if any, are the restrictions for trading areas on NIS ship when cargo is concerned?
a. They may not carry cargo between Norwegian ports.
2443. Who are required to have participated in emergency preparedness training on a NIS cargo
ship?
a. All members of the crew
Both master and shipping company.
2444. Who issues an international load line certificate for a NIS cargo vessel of 500 gross tons
and above?
a. The recognized classification society, were the vessel is classified.
2445. Who may through delegation/agreement be given authority to survey a NIS cargo vessel
of 500 gross tons and above (offshore units excepted)?
a. A ship's classification society recognized by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate.
2446. Who shall submit a request for trade certificate for a NIS cargo vessel of less then 500
gross tons?
a. Owner or master
2447. Will an individual contract of engagement for service on NIS ships be legally accepted?
a. Yes, provided it appears, amongst others, the wages and overtimepay and that it is
subject to Norwegian laws and courts, but may be brought before a court in the
employee's country of residence
2448. A master of a Norwegian ship who without sufficient cause refuses to receive onboard
persons whom Norwegian authorities must provide transportation for shall be liable to:
a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
2449. A master or any other person in authority on board treating a person in an improper
manner or fails to prevent his being so treated by other persons onboard shall be liable to:
a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
2450. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall be liable to:
a. Fines or in especially aggravating circumstances to imprisonment for a term not
exceeding three months.
2451. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be liable
to fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to:
a. The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section 65..
2452. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leaves the
ship in distress or other danger while the master still on board shall be liable to
a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
2453. Any shipmaster who in distress or other danger abandons the ship without this being
necessary shall be liable to:
a. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.
2454. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person carried on the ship with anything
which he is entitled to receive in such capacity, or who permits such refusal, shall be liable to:
a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding 1
year if there are especially aggravating circumstances.
2455. Anyone who violates the provisions of Norwegian law or the provisions of regulations
laid down by virtue of Norwegian law, relating to contract of engagements and account book, to
notification to, appearance before, or to the taking of evidence, shall be liable to:
a. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
2456. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes, changes or conceals nationality marks
or registration marks of a registered ship shall be liable to:
a. Fines.
2457. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?
a. For at least two years
2458. How can the master ensure obedience?
a. He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he finds it necessary, but not use
harsher means than the circumstances make necessary.
2459. If the master goes ashore, he is obliged to inform:
a. The deck officer of the highest rank present
2460. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board?
a. If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake an investigation, secure evidence
and take statements, inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime Directorate
2461. Which of the following signal letters states that the ship is registered in NIS?
a. LAPQ4
2462. Who is responsible for ensuring that ratings forming part of a watch and personnel
assisting or performing cargo operations on tankers are properly qualified?
a. It is incumbent on the shipowners and the master to ensure that the requirements
are complied with and documented.
2463. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?
a. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of the
ship.
2464. Are the seafarers entitled to free boat service to exercise their right to go ashore?
a. Where possible the master shall provide such service. Cost and other
circumstances may be taken into consideration. Yes, but only if it is combined
with the agent's use of the same boat.
No, only those listed in the Seamen's Act as dereliction of duty.
2465. Do regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act apply:
a. to both passengers and cargo ships? Yes.
2466. Does the employer have to give a reason for a notice of termination?
a. Yes, if the seafrers demands it
2467. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on board for special reasons?
a. Yes, if the ship, for example, is not in a seaworthy condition for the voyage and
the master fails to take steps to remedy the defects
2468. For how long shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be kept after
their completion?
a. For minimum 3 years
2469. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented?
a. By all the other mentioned alternatives.
2470. How shall the Norwegian Maritime Directorate be informed when a seafarer is seriously
injured on board?
a. By a telecom report followed by a report on a personal injury report form
2471. Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the
Norwegian Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot
work corresponds to these instructions?
a. If the hot work is to be carried out at the bottom of the tank, the entire bottom
shall be thoroughly cleaned and all sediments removed.
a. Before hot work or welding in tanks is started, a complete set of duly signed
check lists and certificates shall be provided.
a. Tanks adjacent to the tank where work is to be carried out shall be cleaned and
free of gas
a. Before the tank is entered, lifeline, rescue harness and compressed air apparatus
shall be ready at the relevant hatch.
a. The entering permit shall be based on the check-list for gas freeing and check-list
for equipment and preparedness.
a. The tank shall be mechanically ventilated as long as there are people inside it.
Norwegian Maritime Directorate. During ongoing inspection on work in cargo tanks, the gas
concentration shall be checked:
a. Every second hour in the first 24 hours.
a. If it is decided that work shall be carried out, the decision and the reason for it
shall be entered in the ship's log book.
2479. Is it the duty of the master to meet personally at a Norwegian Consulate if he is called for
by the head of the Consulate?
a. Yes
2480. Is it the duty of the Master to see to it that legislation and CWA/CBA are available to
seafarers on board?
a. The seafarers shall have available for their use the Seamen's and NIS-acts with
regulations, together with all relevant CWA's/CBA's.
2481. Is the crew entitled to compensation if the master has to reduce the diet during a voyage?
a. Yes
2482. Is there any particular procedure to be followed when dismissing a seafarer?
a. A hearing shall be held before a committee on board.
2483. On what kind of document shall working hours on board ships be kept?
a. On a time sheet arranged by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate
2484. Settlement of disputes, not belonging to the category of the NIS Act, outside Norway
between the master and any of the crew regarding wages, the ship service or the employment
relationships in general shall be brought before:
a. The Norwegian Consulate
2485. Shall every seafarer bring with him a valid health certificate issued as per Norwegian
provisions?
a. Yes
2486. Shall the seafarer receive a statement showing the calculation of his wages?
a. Yes, showing how it has been calculated and with possible deductions.
2487. The restriction of overtime work is that the person shall not be required, under normal
circumstances, to work more than:
a. 14 hours per day
2488. Welding and use of open flames on board tankers in operation are subject to regulation
laid down by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate (Norwegian Ship Control Legislation - NSCL).
Which of the listed requirements regarding washing and gas freeing before hot work in cargo
tanks corresponds to these regulations? (NSCL 22/1294/5).
a. The atmosphere in the tank where hot work is to be carried out, and adjacent tanks
shall be checked immediately prior to commencement of hot work.
2489. What are the average total working hours per week that must be exceeded over a period
of at most one year on board NIS ships?
a. 56 hors
2490. What are the duties of a master if a seafarer gets ill at sea?
a. All the other mentioned alternatives according to the situation
2491. What are the duties of a master if he has to leave a sick or injured seafarer behind in a
foreign port?
a. Notify nearest Norwegian Consulate
2492. What are the duties of the master if a seafarer dies in service on board?
a. The master shall notify next of kin/ Norwegian Consulate - arrange for burial/
repatriation of coffin/ashes - and maritime inquiry
2493. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or injured seafarer?
a. He shall arrange for proper care, including medical care
2494. What is the difference between the Safety Representative and the Working Environment
Committee's area of activity?
a. The Safety Representative's field is the work situation, the committee’s the total
environment, also spare time
2495. What is the main rules as to period of notice of termination as per the Seamen's Act?
a. One month
2496. Which mandatory handbooks for medical treatment shall be carried on board?
a. One control book for special medicines, one approved by Norwegian authorities
medical book ("International Medical Guide for ships") and three pamphlets
regarding first aid.
2497. Which of the below word(s) is defined as follows: "Service on board a ship which gives
the knowledge, insight and skills required for the issue of a certificate or other document referred
to in these regulations"
a. Seagoing service
2498. Which rights does a seafarer who is unfit for work normally have?
a. Care, wages, free passage home
2499. Who is responsible for the storage and use of substances injurious to health on board?
a. The shipping company and the master
2500. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies?
a. A pharmacy authorised or accepted by the Norwegian Board of Health or, if no
such pharnacy is available, the master and a doctor approved by a Norwegian
Consulate shall perform inspection once every 12 months.
2501. During a bomb search, which of the following is an important principle to follow?"
a. Do not touch any suspicious packages
2502. Ship Security Plans all look the same.
a. FALSE
2503. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the
previous __________.
12 hours
2504. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

All of the above
226. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should
provide, at a minimum, __________.
All of the above
2505. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent
to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
Selective Availability
2506. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________.

DGPS, within a coverage area
2507. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from
several satellites simultaneously?
Continuous
2508. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS receiver
need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position?
Four
2509. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at
a minimum, __________.
A warning of loss of position
2510. As a licensed Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to __________.
All of the above
2511. NOAA VHF weather reports are continuously broadcast on VHF channels WX-1, WX-2
and WX-3 on a frequency of __________.
162.55, 162.40, 162.475 mhz
2512. "A contractor is hired to install new navigation equipment onboard your ship
while it’s berthed. For a period of time he’s left unsupervised and photographs
schematics of the ship that he finds rolled up and stored in the corner of a nearby
office. Later, from home, he hacks into the network and prints off information about
the ship’s security procedures. Which of these information security measures would
have prevented his unauthorized access?"
A. "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and a securenetwork
2513. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to
take, on entering an area known for pirate activity?"
D. To transit with maximum safe speed
2514. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-
C stations is very closely controlled and operates with .
E. An atomic time
standar
2515. Which feature,when set to zero,might
allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy
equivalent to precise positioning service
receiver capability
G. Selective availability
2516. How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W at 0 deg?
Straight
2517. The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a celestial body
is called:
azimuth
2518. The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called:
2026. Datum
2519. How do planets move when they are closer to the sun as compared to when they are
further away from the sun?
Faster
2520. What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude shortly
before and after it has crossed the meridian?
Longitude by chronometer
2521. What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of the sun
and the center of that body?
Horizontal parallax
2522. The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg around
the earth is called?
Sidereal period of the moon
2523. The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith contained
between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle passing through that body when
the body is on the observer's rational horizon is
Azimuth
2524. Every day a star rises, sets, culminates:

4 min. earlier
2525. What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages called?
A day
2526. What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ by 90
deg.?
None of the given options
2527. The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the earth's
surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's sensible horizon is
called?
Horizontal parallax of a celestial body.
2528. What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ?
5 1/4 deg
2529. Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are called
celestial meridians
2530. If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is:
added
2531. What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate
equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called?
Mean sun
2532. An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow measurement of

altitude of celestial bodies is called :
artificial horizon
2533. The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the:
first point of aries
2534. To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp =
sin dec x sec lat

2535. The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called:
geographical mile
2536. As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude?

Increases
2537. When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when :
the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles

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TEST – ITEM BANK

FOR DECK OFFICER AND ENGINEER

2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be

5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is

9. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned

10. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following

11. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on

12. When navigating a vessel, you .

22. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for .

34. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of

37. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

50. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

86. Whit respect to failure warnings and status indicators,GPS received

97. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.

101. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

116. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?

121. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.

122. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?

123. A polyconic projection is based on a __________.

125. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.

126. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.

128. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.

130. In Mercator sailing ________---.

E. Only one bearing line is available

133. The Decca green zone has ________.

134. A vertical sextant angle gives _________.

137. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______.

138. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____.

139. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? Will be _____.

147. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at ___________.

150. 90° - Ho = __________.

158. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections

159. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________.

160. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) __________.

166. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on

174. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the __________.

181. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

184. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by

185. How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?

200. When should voyage planning be done?

201. Where can a ship expect an act of piracy to take place?

203. Who is ultimately responsible for the voyage plan?

204. The ECDIS system can operate in how many does ?

205. Does, IMO specity special training in use of ECDIS ?

206. Can a raster Chart be displayed in head-up mode on to

208. What is the purpose of the “off track” limit

210. Can raster chart provide navigational warnings ?

211. What is the definition of a waypoint

212. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate

47. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

C. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased

61. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees

65. Raster-scan chart data is .

E. All of the above

70. The level of database information which cannot be removed from

75. An ECDIS is required to display which information?

76. When must a passage plan be prepared ?

78. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by

80. What is the IMO definition of ECDIS ?

A system that display hydrographic information in order to assist the safe

To support the bridge team

82. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation

83. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a