Section 3.

Animal Nutrition

1.

Any feed constituent or group of feed constituents that aids in the support of life

is nutrient. It may include:

a. Synthetically produced vitamins such as A, D, and E

b. Chemically produced inorganic salts such as Zno, MgSO4, and FeSO4.

c. Biogenically synthesized dl-methionine and L-lysine

Naturally occurring sugar, starch, cellulose and gums

e. all of the above

d. Nam

2.

Digestion is the breaking down of feed particles into suitable products for

absorption

a. May include mechanical forces such as mastication and muscular

contraction of the gastro-intestinal tract.

b. May include chemical processes such as action of HCI produced in the G.I.

tract

C. May include enzymatic action of proteases produced in the GI tract

d. May include enzymatic actions produced by bacteria located in the cecum.

e. All of the above

3. Absorption is the transfer of substance from gastro-intestinal tract to the

circulatory system

a. Occurs primarily in the small and large intestines

b. Vill increase surface area for absorption

C Uccurs primarily in the stomach and intestines

d. All of the above

4. Fats are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents Yield more energy

than carbohydrates or proteins

a. 1.25 times

b. 2.25 times

03 25 times

d 425 times

e None of the above

5. Fats are classified as simple, compound or derived lipids. When hydrolyzed will

yield:

a. Glycolipids and fatty acids

b. Phospholipids and fatty acids

c Phospholipids and glycerol

d. Glycerol and fatty acids

e. None of the Above

Fats function as source of essential fatty acids, such as

a Oleic and linoleic acid

b. Linoleic and linolenic acid

c Arachidonic and oleic acid

d. None of the above

7. Deficiency or abnormal metabolism of fats may result to:

a ketosis

b Acidosis

C Diabetes mellitus

d. All of the above

8. Absorption involves the movement of the basic units from areas of high

concentration to area of low concentration

a Absorption of glucose and proteins occurs primarily in the small intestines

b. Absorption of vitamins and minerals occurs in the large intestine

c. Water is absorbed in the large intestine

d. All of the above

9. Feed is any material of nutritive value fed to animals for the purpose of

sustaining them

a Ground corn

b. Salt

C Vitamin premix

d All of the above

10. Proteins are basically large molecules and are made up of amino acids Amino

acids are either essential or non-essential

a. Essential amino acids must be supplied in the diet because the animal

cannot synthesize them at the rate they are required

b Non-essential amino acids must be supplied in the diet because the animal

can synthesize them at the rate they are required

Essential amino acids are normally synthesized or sufficient in the diet and

need not be supplemented

d. Essential amino acids are normally present in the feeds and may not be

supplemented in the diet

e. None of the above

11 Metabolism is a combination of anabolic and catabolic reactions occurring in the

body with the liberation of energy

a it occurs after glucose, amino acids, vitamins and minerals have been

absorbed into the blood

b. It occurs after carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins and minerals have been

absorbed into the blood

C. It occurs after starch, peptides, vitamins and minerals have been absorbed

into the blood

d. All of the above

12 Water is the cheapest and most abundant nutrient

a Makes up to 65-85% of animal body weight at birth & decreases with

maturity

b. Makes up to 40-50% of animal body weight at birth increases with maturity

C. Has direct relationship with body fat

d. All of the above

13. Water accounts for 90-95% of blood and many tissues contain 70-90% water.

Which of the following statement is not true about water

a. Found in the animal muscles and skin as intracellular water

b.Found in the blood plasma, lymph and cerebrospinal as extra cellular fluids

C Present in urinary and gastrointestinal tract

d Present in feeds as metabolic water

e. All of the above

14 Carbohydrates make up approximately % of plant dry weight and make up the

largest part of animals food supply

a Made up of C (40%), H (7%) and 0 (53%) by molecular weight

b. Made up of C (53%). H (7%), 0 (23%), N (16%) and P (1%) by molecular

weight
C. Made up of C (40%), H (7%), 0 (53%), P (1%) and S (1%) by molecular

weight

d. Made up of C (53%), H (7%), 0 (23%), N (16%), P (1%) and S (1%) by

molecular weight

e. None of the above

15. Macrominerals are normally present at greater level in animal body and an

needed in relatively large amount in the diet Examples of macrominerals are

a Ca and

c Fe and cu

b. Cu and 2n d All of the above

16. Trace minerals are normally present at lower level in animal body and they are

required by the animal in minute amount Examples of trace minerals are:

a Ca and

C . Na and CI

b. Cu and Zn d. All of the above

maintenance

Mineral that play important roles in the skeletal formation and

and thus, found in the bones and teeth

a Calcium

C. Magnesium

b. Iron

d All of the above

18. Minerals occur largely in the fluids and soft tissues to maintain osmotic pressure
and acid-based equilibrium

a Na K and CI

d. Na Cl and Mn

b. Na, P and CI

e. All of the above

C. Na, Cl and Mg

products.

19. Crude protein is composed of true proteins and any nitrogenous

Using Kjeldahl method, crude protein is equivalent to

a %N x 6.25 d. Nx 7.25

b. %N X 5.25 e None of the above

C %N X 4.25

20. Protein quality refers to the amount and ratio of essential amino acids present in

protein feed. Which of the following is not true.

a Fishmeal has higher protein quality than soybean meal

b Skimmilk has higher protein quality than soybean meal

c Soybean meal has higher protein quality than com

d Corn has higher protein quality than skimmilk

e. All of the above

21. Vitamin E is a biological antioxidant

a Vitamin E readily oxidizes itself, thereby minimizing the destruction

by oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids in the intestinal tract and in the

tissues

b. Oxidation of vitamin E prevent oxidation of lipid materials to free radicals

and peroxides within cells thus protecting the cell membrane from
damage

c. Vitamin E neutralizes free radicals and prevent oxidation of lipids within

membranes

d. Vitamin E functions against the adverse effects of oxygen and free radicals

that initiate oxidation of unsaturated phospholipids

e All of the above

2. Poultry are extremely sensitive to vitamin E deficiency Deficiencies of vitamin E

may produce

a Oxidative diathesis

d Encephalomalacia

b Muscular degeneration

e All of the above

c. Reproductive failure

23. Vitamin K functions in the blood coagulation system

a. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma

clotting factors

b: Vitamin K is essential for the degradation of prothrombin and other plasma

clotting factors

c. Vitamin K prevents synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting

factors

d. Vitamin K inhibits synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factors

e None of the above

24. Vitamins are organic compounds of natural food but distinct from carbohydrates,

fats, proteins and water Water soluble vitamins include

a Thiamine and riboflavin

C. Vitamin E and K

b Vitamin A and D

d. All of the above

25. Fat soluble vitamins are stored in appreciable amount in the animal body

However, excess amount of fat soluble vitamins is not excreted in the unine

Examples of fat soluble vitamins are:

a Vitamin A and E

d Pantothenic acid and biotin

b. Thiamine and riboflavin

e. All of the above

c Vitamin C and D

26. Vitamin A helps maintain normal vision in dim light Extreme vitamin A

deficiency may lead to night blindness Such condition is called

a Xeropthalmia

d Agalactia

b. Osteomalacia

e. None of the above

C Encephalomalacia

27. Vitamin D aids in assimilation and utilization of calcium and phosphorus. Lack of

vitamin D results to deficiency of calcium and phosphorus which is characterized

by enlarged joints, bowed legs, knocked knees and beaded ribs in adult

animals, such condition is called

a. Scurvy

d. Encephalomalacia

b. Rickets
e. None of the above

c. Osteomalacia

28. Biotin is necessary for gluconeogenesis and fatty acid synthesis particularly in

carboxylation reactions. Clinical signs of biotin deficiency include:

a Transverse cracking, cracking of the soles and tops of hooves in swine

b. Hairloss and dermatitis in swine

c. Dermal lesions around the beak and eyes in birds

Broken feathering in birds

e. All of the above

29. Folic acid is indispensable in the formation of amino acids and nucleic acids

a. Functions in the one carbon metabolism

b Functions in the two carboni metabolism

c. Functions in the three-carbon metabolism

d. Functions in the four-carbon metabolism

e None of the above

related to the

30. Niacin acts as an active group of different coenzymes which are

citric acid cycle

a. As constituent of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)

b. As constituent of flavin mononucleotide (FMN)

c. As constituent of flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)

d. All of the above

Pantothenic acid functions as CoA and as acyl carrier protein in the body. Signs

of deficiency includes

a Goose-stepping gait in swine d Wasting disease in cattle

b. Curled -toe paralysis in birds e. All of the above

C Perosis in birds

particularly in the

32 Thiamin functions as coenzyme in energy metabolism

transketolation process Deficiency of thiamin produces

a. Beri-beri in human

b. Polyneuritis in birds

C Polioencephalomalacia in cattle

d All of the above

e. None of the above

33. Riboflavin functions as a part of flavoprotein which is involved in the metabolism

of amino acids, fatty acids and carbohydrates. Deficiency of riboflavin results to

a Curled-toe paralysis in birds

b. Encephalomalacia in birds

c All of the above

d None of the above

34. Pyridoxine as a coenzyme form of pyridoxal phosphate is involved in large

number of physiological functions. B6 is involved in the conversion of

a Tryptophan to nicotinic acid

b. Phenylalanine to tyrosine

C Tryptophan to tyrosine

d. Phenylalanine to nicotinic acid

e. None of the above

which is

35. Vitamin containing cyanide group attached to the cobalt atom

responsible for the name cyanocobalamin

a. B

dB 2

b. B₂

e None of the above

c Bo

36. Choline serves as a source of labile methyl groups which facilitates

transmethylation reaction. Choline deficiency causes

a Goose-stepping in swine

b. Slipped lendons in chickens and turkeys

C Cracked hooves in swine

d. All of the above

37 Lack of vitamin C is characterized by swollen, bleeding, ulcerated gums, loose

teeth, malformed and big joints and fragility of the capillaries with resulting

hemon hages through the body. Such conditions is called

a Beri-beri d Dermatitis

b. Scurvy

e None of the above

c. pellagra

38. Utilization of minerals is influenced by several factors such as

a interrelationships among minerals

b. Actual amount of mineral in the diets

c. Mineral status of the animal

d. Form of the mineral

e All of the above

39 in young animals lack of calcium results to enlarged joints, soft and deformed

bones. Such condition is called

a. Rickets

d. None of the above

b. Osteomalacia

e. All of the above

c. Osteoporosis

40. Ideal ratio of calcium and phosphorus in the diet for monogastric animals

a. 11-21

d. 1.5.2 - 2.53

b. 2:1-31

e. None of the above

c. 1.2- 2:3

41. Macromineral found in amino acids, cystine and methionine and in vitamins,

biotin and thiamine

a Calcium

c. Sulfur

e. None of the above

b. Magnesium

d. Phosphorus

42. Micromineral essential for the formation of enzymes related to oxygen transport

and utilization

a Manganese

C. Iron

e All of the above

b lodine

d. Zinc

43 lodine plays role in the production of thyroxine by the thyroid gland. Deficiency in

iodine

a. Goiter

c. Scurvy

e. None of the above

b. Beri-beri

d. Tetany

44. Trace mineral that is component of the vitamin B, molecule

a Cu

C. Mn

e. None of the above

b. Co

d. Mg

45. Farm animals are classified according to type of GI tracts Ruminants include

a. Cattle, carabaos and horses d Cattle, pigs and chicken

b. Cattle carabaos and sheeps 0. None of the above

C.Cattle, carabaos and pigs

46. Non-ruminants are simple stomach animals such as

a Pig, horse and rabbit

C Pig, horse and cattle

b. Pig, horse and goat

d. Pig, horse and sheep

47. Ruminants have only one true gastric stomach but with additional
compartments which evolved for fiber digestion. The true gastric stomach

equivalent in non-ruminants is

a Abomasum

d. Omasum

b. Rumen

e. None of the above

Reticulum

48. Conditions in the rumen responsible for a significant pregastric fermentation

a. Anaerobic environment

b. Constant warm temperature

C Constant food supply

d. Moisture

e. All of the above

49. It is one of the compartments of stomach in ruminants which is round muscular

organ containing many muscular laminae and sometimes called manyplies or

libro

a. Rumen

d Abomasum

b. Reticulum

e. None of the above

COmasum

50. Controlled vomiting where the ingesta is regurgitated back up to the esophagus

and swallowed again for additional remastication

a Mastication

d. Eructation
b. Rumination

e. None of the above

C Regurgitation

51. It corresponds to the true stomach in non-ruminants and is the site of HCl and

pepsin production in the bird

a Crop

d. Small intestine

b. Proventriculus

e. None of the above

C. Ventriculus

52. For absorption to occur, nutrients must be broken down to very small molecules

The basic unit of carbohydrate is:

a Amino acid

d. Sucrose

b. Glucose

e. None of the above

C Glycerol

53. After a mechanical breakdown salivary amylase hydrolyzes nutrient to their

basic units

a Starch to maltose

Starch to volatile fatty acids

Protein to amino acids

d Cellulose to volatile fatty acids

e. All of the above

54. Enzymes produced by pancreas are secreted into the duodenum. Which of the
following is not true

a. Trypsin hydrolyses protein to peptides and amino acids

b. Chymotrypsin hydrolyses protein to peptides and amino acids

C. Carboxypeptidase hydrolyses protein lo peptides and amino acids

d Pepsin hydrolyses protein to peptides and amino acids

e. All of the above

55. Which of the following is not an end product of fiber digestion in ruminants

a Acetic acid

d. Propionic acid

b. Palmitic acid

e. All of the above

c. Butyric acid

56. Feedstuff is generally synonymous with feed except that it is of natural or

artificial origin that has nutritional value when properly added. Example(s) of

feedstuff is (are):

a Hog grower mash

c Fish meal

b Layer mash

d. All of the above

57. Roughages are plant materials which contain greater than 18% CF. These

feeds are suited for animals such as:

a Chicken

o Swine

b Duck

d Carabao
58. Fiber content of a feedstuff is the first consideration in classifying the feeds into

different feed groups. Low-fiber feeds include:

a. Pasture

c. Protein feeds

b. Silage

d All of the above

59. Protein feeds are relatively rich in protein so that when added to cereal grains

will improve performance of the animal. The CP content of protein feeds is:

a. More than 10%

b. More than 15%

c. More than 20%

d More than 30%

e. More than 40%

60. Which of the following is not a concentrated source of mineral elements

a Limestone

d. Oyster shell

b. Tricalcium phosphate e. Salt

c. Dl-methionine

61. Roughages/forages are classified as either succulent, or dry roughages and as

crop residues. Succulent roughages include:

a Hay

C. Soilages

b. Straw

d. Rice hull

62. Has high available energy and can replace 100% of the com in swine and
poultry ration but it contains hydrocyanic acid which limits its usefulness as

animal feed.

a Sorghum

d. Barley

b Rice bran

e. Cassava

0. Sweet potato

63. May be used effectively to replace 75% of cereal grains. Somewhat

unpalatable due to its tannin content.

a Wheat

d Barley

b. Sorghum

е. Сорга

c Rice bran

64. Composed of outer layer of wheat kernel. It has lower energy but higher protein

than rice bran

a. Wheat bran

C. Triticale

b. Corn bran

d Wheat flour

65. Which of the following is not a concentrated source of energy

a. Coconut oil

d. Tallow

b. Lard

e. Peanut meal
c. Corn oil

56. Animal protein containing 80-85% CP but low in isoleucine. It is commonly used

as by-pass protein in ruminants

a Fish meal

b. Blood meal

c Tankage

d. Feather meal

e Meat and bone meal

67. Has the highest nutritive value among plant protein sources. Normally contains

42-48% CP, low in S-containing amino acids and variably low in lysine

a Peanut meal

b Cotton seed meal

C. Rape seed meal

d. Soybean meal

e Corn gluten meal

68. Ipil-ipil leaf meal contains mimosine which limits its usefulness as animal feed.

Fresh cassava tubers contain:

a. Hydrocyanic acid

d. Gossypol

b Goitrogen

e. Glucosinolate

C. Oxalate

69. Animal proteins are very rich in lysine but usually limiting in sulfur containing

amino acids such as

a Cystine
C Leucine

b. Tryptophan

d Theonine

70. Peanut meal contains trypsin inhibitor as do many legumes and they may be

contaminated with molds producing toxin. The most commonly known mycotoxin

in peanut meal is

a Alatoxicoses

d. Aflatoxin

b. Mycosis

e Salmonella

6 Clostridium

CP) but contains

71. Cottonseed meal is a good source of protein (41%

antinutritional factor

a Gossypol

d. Mimosine

b Stearic acid

e Hydrocyanic and acid

C Glucosinolate

72 Feed additive(s) used to improve the digestibility of some feedstuffs under

certain conditions

a Enzymes

CSweeteners

b. Hormones

d. All of the above

73. The protein content of soya meal is influenced by several factors such as:

a Urease activity

C Heat-treatment process

b. Method of oil extraction d Variation in color

74. The feeding value of fishmeal is affected by

a Variation in color

c Nature of raw materials

b. Texture

d All of the above

75. Most abundant organic matter on earth

a Amino acids

d Vitamins

b. Carbohydrates

e None of the above

c. Lipids

76. Predominant nutrient in the body of animals

a Fats

d Vitamins

b Carbohydrates

e None of the above

C Protein

77. The sweetest disaccharide

a Maltose

b Sucrose

C. Mannose
d Lactose

e. None of the above

78. The sweetest monosaccharide

a Glucose

d Xylose

b Fructose

e. None of the above

C. Galactose

79. The most digestible polysaccharide

a Hemicellulose

d. Lignin

b. Cellulose

e. None of the above

C Starch

80. Main carbohydrate source of ruminants

a Lignin

d Starch

b. Hemicellulose

e None of the above

C Cellulose

81. Storage form of carbohydrate in the body

a. Starch

d. Cellobiose

b. Glycogen

e. None of the above

C Glycolipid

82. Nitrogenous compounds made up of amino acids

a. Proteins

d. Vitamins

b. Carbohydrates

e. All of the above

c. Lipids

83 Main basic unit of fats and oils

a. Fatty acid

b. Amino acid

C. Sulfuric acid

d Hydrochloric acid

e. None of the above

84. Chemical substances in feed which support life

a Carbohydrates

d. Vitamins

b. Proteins

e. All of the above

C. Fats

85. Main protein source of ruminants

a Urea

d. High quality protein

b. Ammonia

e. None of the above

C Microbial protein
86. Breakdown of feed nutrients to their basic units

a Absorption

d. Prehension

b. Metabolism

e. None of the above

c. Digestion

87. Main energy source of non-ruminants

a. Starch

d. Cellulose

b. Glycogen

e. None of the above

C. Hemicellulose

88. One kilogram corn with 8.5% CP is equivalent to

a 8.5 grams CP

d. 85 grams CP

b. 0.85 grams CP

e. None of the above

c. 850 grams CP

80 A farmer has plenty of yellow com (8.5% CP, and soya meal (44% CP). How

much soya meal will be needed for a 100 kg mixture containing 14% CP?

a 14 59

c.13.49

e None of the above

b. 15 49

d. 12 59
90. A 100kg ration is deficient in metabolizable energy of 100 kcal How much coco

oil (8600 kcal/kg) be needed to supplement the deficiency?

a 120 kg

e None of the above

b. 120 kg

d. 012 kg

C: 12.0 kg

91 A 100kg ration is deficient in methionine. How much dl-methionine (90%) be

added to supplement the 25% deficiency?

a 28%

c 028 % e None of the above

b 2.8%

d 1.8%

92 A manufacturer recommended inclusion rate for a vitamin premix is 5 kg per ton

of feed. How much vitamin premix will be added to 100 kg feed

a 1.0 kg

c 15 kg

e. None of the above

b0.5 kg

d. 5.0 kg

93. Most limiting amino acid in soybean meal

a Lysine

d Threonine

b. Methionine e None of the above

c Tryptophan
94. End-product of carbohydrate digestion in ruminants

a. Essential fatty acids

d Non-volatile fatty acids

b. Non essential fatty acids

e. All of the above

C. Volatile fatty acids

95. Amino acids which cannot be synthesized at the rate needed by the body

a Lysine

d. Threonine

b. Methionine e. All of the above

c Valine

96. Fat soluble vitamin synthesized by the microflora of the digestive system of

herbivores

a. A

CE

e. None of the above

bD

dK

97. How much CP will a 50 kg soybean meal provides if it contains 48% CP?

a. 24 grams d. 2.4 kg

b 240 grams e . None of the above

c24 kg

98. Mineral content of limestone

a 36% Ca

d. 36% P
b. 16% Ca

e. None of the above

C 16% P

99. Mineral content of tricalcium phosphate

a 24% Ca, 11% P

d. 24% avail P. 11%Ca

b. 24% P. 11% Ca

e. None of the above

C 24% Ca, 11% avail. P

100. Good quality rice bran D1 contains how much CP?

a. 12 - 13,5% CP

d. 11-12% CP

b. 10 - 11,5% CP

e: None of the above

c. 10–12.0%CP

101. Protein feed with 8% N contains how much CP?

a 48%

C 56%

e. None of the above

b: 42%

d. 50 %

102 Antivitamin found in raw egg white which binds biotin, making it unavailable to

animal

a Carotene

d. Mimosine
b. Avidin

e. None of the above

c. Soyin

103. One of the 4 compartments of stomach in ruminants which functions in the

regurgitation of ingesta during rumination:

a. Rumen

d Abomasum .

b. Reticulum

e. None of the above

C. Omasum

104. Part of the small intestine that serves as an active site of digestion because it

receives secretions containing enzymes from the liver, pancreas, and intestinal

walls

a Duodenum

d. All of the above

b. Jejunum

e. None of the above

cleum

105. Part of the large intestine that is well developed in horse and rabbits contains

microorganisms which produce enzymes for fiber digestions

a Cecum

d. All of the Above

b. Colon

e. None of the above

C Rectum
106 Site of HCl and pepsin production in the bird.

a. Crop

d. Small intestine

b. Proventriculus

e. All of the above

c Ventriculus

107 Enzymes produced by microorganisms in the rumen during digestion

a Cellulose

d. Urease

b Trypsin

e. All of the above

c. Pepsin

108. Enzymes produced by pancreas and secreted into the duodenum

a Trypsin

d Ptyalin

b. Rennin

e. All of the above

c Carboxypeptide

Section 4. Animal Products Processing

1. The term that refers to the meat coming from cattle of less than one year of age.

a Beef

C Chevon

e. None of the above

b. Veal

d. Mutton
2. The term refers to the act of slaughtering animals dead of some cause prior to

the time of slaughter

a Fabrication

d. Double killing

b. Hot slaughter

e. None of the above

c. Cold slaughter

3. The process of heating foodstuff, usually a liquid, for a definite temperature and

time, and thereafter cooling it immediately

a Pasteurization

d. Curing

b. Homogenization

e None of the above

c. Clarification

Milk product where the butterfat is replaced with vegetable fat such as

coconut fat or oil

a. full cream milk

d. Skim milk

b Flavored milk

e None of the above

cCondensed milk

5. The following are considered essential amino acids to human diet EXCEPT:

a. Phenylalanine

d. All of the above

b. Methionine
e. None of the above

C Alanine

6. The meat is considered deficient in this mineral

a. Iron

d. All of the above

b. Manganese

e. A and C only

C. Calcium

The considered most variable components of meat because its proportion to the

meat is greatly affected by several factors such as nutrition, age, exercise and

other physiological factors.

a Bone

d. Connective tissues

b. Lean

e. None of the above

c. Fats

8. What is the average amount of water in fresh whole milk?

a 87 %

C. 70 % e. None of the above

b. 95%

d. 80%

9. What is the recommended temperature for chilling meal?

a -15 to 0°C d 2 to 4°C

b. 10 to 15°C e. None of the Above

C. 5 to 10°C

10. The following are the conditions that would warrant animals to be denied for

slaughter EXCEPT

a The animal is pregnant

b. The animal is sick

C. The animal shows lameness

d. The animal is newly injected with anti-biotic

e. None of the above

11. Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE?

a Meat or carcasses contaminated with urine should automatically be

condemned

b. The 'boar taint' odor is not perceptible in meat when the boar is slaughtered

one week after castration

C. The boar taint' odor is manifested only upon sexual maturity of

uncastrated male pig.

d All of the above statements are true

e B and C only

12. The term refers to meat coming from an illegal source.

a Hot meat

d Green meat

b. Short meat

e Red meat

C. Cold meat

13. The term refers to the process of wrapping the carcass with cheesecloth

previously soaked in lukewarm water

a Evisceration

d Singeing

b. Chilling

e. None of the Above

c Shrouding

14. The normal freezing point of fresh milk.

a. -0.545°C

d. 0.454°F

b -0.454°C

e 454°C

c. 0.545°C

15. The test used to determine the fat content of the milk.

a Babcock test

d. Walker method

b. Sediment test

e. Kjeldahl method

c Lactometer test

16. Which of the following is an example of processed product from milk fat?

a. Cheese

d Yoghurt

b Butter

e. None of the above

C Ice cream

17. Lactose is a complex disaccharide made up of

a Glucose glucose d Galactose galactose

b. Glucose + galactose e Fructose galactose

Glucose + fructose

18. The following are basic ingredients in curing meat EXCEPT

a Salt

C. Spices

C and D only

b Sugar

d. Nitrite

19. Which of the following isare) NOT stents) in slaughtering of hogs?

a Scalding

d Scrapping

b. Evisceration

e Splitting

c Flaying

20. Which of the following statements isare) TRUE about meat preservation

a. Meat even in the absence of microorganisms may self-decompose because

of some endogenous enzymes present on it

b. The principle of meat curing can be viewed as a race between penetration

of curing ingredients and proliferation of microorganisms, which ever comes

first will give the result.

The type of microorganisms in meat is equally important as the number of

microbial cells present on it.

d. All of the above statements are true

e Only A and Bare true

21. Which of the following conditions isſare) related to fasting of animais before

slaughter?

a Ease of cleaning and evisceration

b. Thorough bleeding resulting to a bright colored carcass

C Low pH of the resulting meat

d. A and B only

e B and C only

22. The cholesterol in egg can be found in its component(s) namely

a Yolk

d. A and B only

b. Albumen e. None of the above

c Shell

23. The Animal Welfare Law is promulgated under what Republic Act?

a. R. A 711 d. R.A 710

b. R.A. 8584 e. R.A. 712

CRA 8485

24. The following are approved stunning method for hogs EXCEPT:

a Use of stunning gun

b. Use of electric stunner

cUse of carbon dioxide chamber

d. None of the above

e Band C only

25. Carbohydrates are stored in the animal body in the form of

a Starch

d Lactose
b. Fructose

e None of the above

C. Glycogen

26. Which of the following bacteria can cause food intoxication?

a Salmonella typhi

b. Pediococcos cereviaseae

c Clostridium botulinum

d. Acetobacter aceti

e. Listenia monocytogenes

27. The following is(are) chemical component(s) of meat EXCEPT:

a. Water

d. Crude fiber

b. Crude protein

e. None of the above

C. Crude fat

28. Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE about milk?

a. Milk is a good source of calcium

b. Proteins and fats are the principal constituents of fresh milk, which are

about 87% of the milk when combined

C. The nitrogenous substances present in milk are composed of 95% proteins

and 5% non-proteins.

d. All of the above statements are true

e A and C only

29. When a particular hog is severely stressed just prior or during slaughter, which

condition is more prevalent to happen?

a. Dark, firm and dry meat

b. Pale, soft and exudative meat

Bright colored meat

d Normal appearance of meat

e None of the above

30. After the death of the animal, the pH of the meat drops due to conversion of

glycogen reserve of the body into:

a Pyruvic acid

d. Proptonic acid

b. Acetic acid

e. None of the above

C. Glutamic acid

31. Some foreign materials on the meat are removed in the process of

a Straining

d Separation

b. Homogenization

e. All of the above

C. Pasteurization

32. The total solid in milk is determined using:

a. Spectrophotometer d. Ohm meter

b. Lactometer

e. None of the Above

C. Penetrometer

33. Which of the following statements is(are) TRUE about selecting animals for

slaughter?
a. Any age or class of animals can be slaughtered for fresh meat retailing in

the market as long as they are in the market weight

b. Culled sows are good source of meat materials for processing of Christmas

hams

C in a general trend, as the animal within specie gets bigger the dressing

yield gets higher.

d. All of the statements above are true.

e. All of the statements above are false

34. The following are the necessary management practices that should be done

prior to the slaughter of animal EXCEPT:

a Fasting

b. Branding

C. Cleaning of the animals & facilities

d. Letting the animals relax

e. Handling the animals gently

35. The following are basic factors to consider in slaughtering of animals EXCEPT.

a. The cleanliness of the meat produced as well as the health of the animal.

b. Efficiency of meat inspection

C Hygiene of production

d. Adequacy of meal preservation

e. None of the above

36. In large chicken dressing operation, stunning may also be employed before the

bleeding process. Which of the following stunning procedures is commonly used

in stunning of chickens?

a. Use of stunning gun

d. Use of electric stunner

b. Microwave stunning

e. None of the above

c. Use of sledge hammer

37. The average proportion of albumen in chicken eggs.

a 45%

c. 69%

e. 75%

b. 59%

d. 85%

38. Boar taint odor becomes apparent at what age of boars?

a. Around 5 months

c. Around 12 months

b. Around 7 months d. Around 15 months

39. The meat characteristics of steers are more similar to the meat of

a. Stags

b. Cows c. Bulls d Heifer

40. The term entire in animals refers to:

a Uncastrated male animal

b. Castrated male animal

C Female animal which has given birth

d. Female animal which has not yet given birth

e. None of the above

and

than
41. Generally meat from young animals are more

old animals

B. Tender and darker C Tougher and darker

b. Tender and lighter d Tougher and lighter

42. What is the acceptable amount of fat in intact meat preparations?

a 0 to 3% b. 5 to 7% C 8 to 12% d. 30 to 40%

43. When the glycogen reserve at the muscle of the animal is depleted before

slaughter, which is more likely to occur on the resulting meat?

a. The meat would have high pH and therefore pale, soft and exudative

b. The meat would have high pH and therefore dark, firm and dry

The meat would have low pH and therefore pale, soft and exudative.

d. The meat would have low pH and therefore dark, firm and dry.

e. None of the above may happen.

44. During bleeding or sticking the main blood vessels that is cut aside from carotid

artery is:

a. Pulmonary vein

d. Coccygeal artery

b. Pulmonary artery

e Jugular vein

C Femoral artery

45. In scalding hogs and poultry, the temperature of the scalding bath should be in

the range of

for effective removal of scurf, hairs or feathers.

a 100-150°C c. 130-180°C

e 80 - 100°C
b. 100-150°F d. 130-180°F

46. During post-mortem inspection of meat or carcasses, at what temperature the

meat must be heated for 30 minutes if it is adjudged as passed for sterilization?

a. 104°C

c. 115°C e. None of the above

b. 120°C

d. 114°C

47. The following are the reasons for chilling carcasses prior to fabrication EXCEPT

a. To allow the rigor mortis to pass

b. To make the meat more tender and flavorful.

To firm up the meat prior to fabrication.

d. None of the above.

48. Which of the following carcasses is not recommended for aging?

a. Pork

c. Chevone . None of the above

b. Beef

d. Carabeef

49. The basic ingredient in curing used to overcome saltiness and counteract the

toughening of salt

a. Phosphates c. Sugar e. None of the above

b. Ascorbates d Nitrate

50. The ingredient in meat processing used to increase water holding capacity.

a. Phosphatesc Monosodium glutamate e. None of the above

b. Nitrates d. Ascorbates

51. The following are examples of comminuted meat products EXCEPT

a Fresh sausage

d None of the above

b. Hamburger

e B and C only

C. Hot dog

52 The method used to determine amount of casein in milk.

a. Babcock methodd Bromthymol-blue fest

b. Walker methode. None of the above

c. Kjeldahl method

53. Milk is deficient in sulfur containing amino acid such as:

a Methionine C Cystene

e: A and C only

b. Phenylalanine d. All of the above

54. Milk should be cooled to

minimize microbial growth

a 50°F

b. 2°F

or lower as soon as it is milked out to

C. 50°C d. 2°C

55. AT HTST method of pasteurization, the milk is heated at what temperature?

a 165-180°F d. 135-143°F

b. 192-194°F e None of the above

C 145-150°F

56. Which of the following statements is (are) NOT TRUE about candling

characteristics of eggs?
a Bubbly air cell is an indication of staleness and a weak shell membrane or

of tough handling

b. A normal yolk moves freely and cast darker shadow

C. High quality table egg has no germ development

d. An air cell that moves freely to any part of the egg indicates broken inner

membrane

e. None of the above.

57. The process of forcing milk through small openings under high pressure to

reduce fat particle size

a. Pasteurization

d. Homogenization

b Filtration

e. Clarification

c. Straining

58. The form of milk wherein fat or cream is removed.

a. Filled milk

d. Homogenized milk

b. Skimmilk

e. None of the above

c Condensed milk

59. The form of milk wherein fat globules are reduced to smaller size.

a Filled milk

d. Homogenized milk

b. Skimmilk

e. Condensed milk
c. Condensed milk

60 A type of marketing system wherein the farmers or traders bring their animals to

the concentration yard for sale

a Barrio agent system d. Any of the above

b. Cily dealer system

None of the above

C Livestock market system

61. It refers to the edible by-products from the slaughterhouse

a Meat by-products

d. All of the above

b. Meat specialties

e. A and B only

C Vanety meal

e. Lamb

62. The meat coming from sheep is called:

a Chevon

b. Venison d Mutton

63. It refers to fresh milk of high purity to be delivered to the costumer within 36

hours. The number of bacteria is 10,000 or less per ml

a. Purified milk

d. Clarified milk

b. Pasteurized milk

e. None of the above

Certified milk

64. The form of calcium found on eggs

a. CaCO3

c. Ca PC,

b. CaCl2

d. None of the above

65. The following are minerals found on egg shell EXCEPT.

a Calcium d Phosphorus

b. Manganese e. None of the above

C. Magnesium

The nitrogenous components of milk is made up of

a 90% protein and 10% non-protein

b. 80% protein and 20% non-protein

c. 100% protein and 0% non-protein

d 85% protein and 15% non-protein

e. None of the above

67. Around 78.5% of the protein in milk is made up:

a Casein

d. Whey protein

b. Milk serum protein e. None of the above

c Lactose

6B. The average amount of lactose in human milk,

a 1%

C7 %

e. 15%

b. 3%

d 12 %
69. The cheese can be processed from:

a Milk cream d Whey

b. Butter milk e . None of the above

C Skim milk

70. A livestock marketing system wherein a mother company takes the animals

produced and takes care of the processing before final sale to the consumers

a Livestock market scheme

C. Barrio agent scheme

b. Contract growing scheme

d City dealer scheme

71. The curing ingredient that causes withdrawal of water from the meat and causes

plasmolysis of bacterial cells

a Salt

c. Spices e Ascorbates

b. Sugar

d Phosphates

72. The curing ingredient used to develop cured color and flavor.

a Salt

o Spices e. None of the above

b. Sugar

d. Nitrites

73. The maximum safe amount of nitrite residue in finished sausages.

a 100 ppm

c. 250 ppm e 275 ppm

b. 200 ppm
d. 300 ppm

74. The recommended temperature for conventional aging of meat.

a Oto 20°C d 5.0 to 10°C

b. 1.5 to 3 0°C e. 50 to 7.5°C

c. -5.0 to 1.5°C

75. Which of the following is NOT a step in slaughtering cattle?

a Stunning

d Splitting

b. Flaying

e. None of the above

C. Bleeding

Section 5. Poultry Production

The popularity of chicken raising could be attributed to the fact that among the

different poultry species they are:

a. Fast multipliers

b. Quick growers

c Relative efficient feed converters to meat eggs

d All of the above

Cannibalism is a common management problem in raising chicken. It is caused

by overcrowding, unbalanced ration, too much light etc. It would be ultimately

prevented by

a. Growing birds in individual cages

b Debeaking
C Ad libitum feeding

d. All of the above

3. Debeaking or beak trimming is done to prevent cannibalism. This is

recommended for

a Broilers

C. Ducks

b. Egg type chickens d. All of the above

Duck ranks second in popularity among the poultry species in the Philippines

The popularity of duck enterprise is attributed to the high demand for processed

duck egg products such as:

a "Balut"

C Century eggs

b. Salted eggs

d. All of the above

5.

The high cost of production for raising commercial strains of chicken is due

mainly to the high cost of inputs such as:

a Labor

C. Feeds

b Electricity

d. All of the above

6.

The process where fully developed embryo (chicks) breaks out of the egg

a Breaking
0 Hatching

Incubating

d. Brooding

7. The most common roof design adopted by commercial chicken producers

a Shed

C. Semi monitor/monitor

b. Gable

d. All of the above

8.

A collective term for all domestic birds rendering economic services to man Can

also refer to dressed carcass of fowls.

a Poultry

C. Chicken

b. Broilers

d. All of the above

9. An egg-type or dual type female bird that lays egg

a Ready to lay pullet o Hen

b. Layer

d B&C

10. A male fowl one year old or over

a Cockerel

C. Rooster

b. Capon

d. All of the above

11. A young female fowl 4 months of age raised for egg production

a Hen

c Pullet

b. Layer

d. All of the above

12. A meat type chicken commonly raised up to 35-42 days and weighs 1.5-2.0 kg

a Broiler

C. Cull

b. Spent hens

d B&C

13. Old hens that had past their usefulness for commercial egg production)

a. Capon

c Cull

b. Spent hens

d. B&C

14. The projecting mouth part of a chicken and turkey

a. Beak

c. Bill

b. Bile

d. None of the above

15. Place where young chicks/ducklings are cared for after hatching until they have

grown to a point where they will not need anymore additional heat.

a. Pen

C. Brooder

b. Cage
d. Incubator

16. Period where embryonic development takes place outside the body of the hen

a Gestation

c Brooding

b. incubation

d. All of the above

17. The act of laying egg

a. Ovulation

b. Oviposition

C Deposition

d. None of the above

18 Group of eggs layed for successive days,

a Clutch

C Fertile eggs

b. Collection

d None of the above

19. Male of the duck family.

a Rooster

b. Cockerel

c. Drake

d. Gander

20. The scientific name for quail

a Coturnix coturnix japonica

b_ Cotrunix cotrunix japonica

C. Virginia colinianus
d. Olor virginianus

21. The incubation period for chicken eggs

a 18 days b. 21 days C. 28 days d. 24 days

22 Incubation period for ostrich

a. 24

b. 22 c. 42 d. 31

23. Incubation for Mallard Ducks

a 35

b. 21 c. 31 d. 28

24. Recommended length hours for layers to stimulate egg production

a 8-10 b. 12-13 C 14 16 d. 24

25. What is the feed conversion efficiency (FCE) of a broiler having an average final

body weight of 20 kg. after consuming 3.75 kg of feed for 42 days.

a. 1.9

b. 1.8 C 1.88

d. 0.53

26. Which broiler farm is the most efficient given the following CFE values:

a 1.88 b 5 2. C 1.6

d. 30

27. If the dressing percentage for chicken is 70% what should be the dressing

recovery of broilers weighing 2.0 kg liveweight is.

a 1.4 kg

b. 1.5 kg

1.49 d. 1.5kg

28. Scientific name of chicken

a Gallus gallus linn C. Meleagris galiopavo

b. Anas boschas

d. Colinus virginianus

29 The incubation period for quail eggs.

8 14 - 16 days

c. 16-19 days

b 18-21 days

d 21 - 23 days

30. Brooder device whose major function is to keep chicks from going astray

a Curtains

c. Brooder guard

b. Feeders

d. Paper mating

31 An occasional job done during the growing & laying stage to reduce boarders

and ensure efficiency of production

a Flock replacement c Cleaning and disinfection

b Culling

d. None of the above

32. Recommended male to female ratio for egg type chicken breeders.

a 1 10-12

c. 1 5

b. 1.8

d. 1 12-15

33 Recommended brooding temperature for chicken at 1 week of age.

a. 32 - 35°C
c. 30-32°C

b. 35-38°C

d. 28-30°C

34. Floor space requirement for broilers up to market age.

a 1 sq meter/bird

C 2.0 sq ft/bird

b. 1 sq feetbird

d. None of the above

35. Recommended length of light hours for growing chickens to delay sexual

maturity

a 10 hrs/day

c. 14 - 16 hrs/day

b. 12-14 hrs/day

d. 24 hrs/day

Section 6. Swine

1. Feeding gilt with high-energy rations before breeding is called

a. Full feeding

6. Flushing

b. Adlibrium

d. All of the above

Early weaning of pigs is done at:

a 6 week of age

C 10 weeks of age

b 8 weeks of age
d. 4 weeks of age

3. The process of choosing best boars and gilts from the herd: Like the parent of

the next generation.

a. Culling

c Weaning

b Selection

d. A&B

4. The process of transferring one or more pigs from a litter of one sow to another

sow is called

a Transferring

c. Parenting

b Fostering

d. All of the above

Baby pig anemia is brought about by a deficiency of

a Ca

C. Fe

b. P

d. None of the above

6.

Pigs are born with 4 pairs of sharp teeth called

a Baby teeth

c Needle teeth

b. Milk teeth

d Permanent teeth
7

Swine herd can be maintained at high level of efficiency by

a Culling

C. Selling

b. Breeding

d None of the above

8: How many equally spaced rudimentary teals must a good gilt posses

a. At least 4 pairs

C At least 6 pairs

b. At least 5 pairs

d. None of the above

9. Young females swine that has not given birth and usually kept for breeding

a Cow

Sow

b. Gilt

d. Heifer

10. A common method used for swine which consist of piercing outlines of

desirable numbers or figures on the skin inside the ear!

a Tattooing

C Ear notching

b. Branding

d. None of the above

11. The longest breed of pig because of its extra nib is:

a Duroc

cBerkshire
b. Large white d. None of the above

12. To give birth to young pigs

a. Calving

b. Kidding

CFarrowing

d. Pigietting

13. Tattooing of piglets is done on what part of the pig

a. Snout

C Ear

b. Hindleg

d Switch

14. Recommended age of castrating is

a. 3 days

C. 3 weeks

b. 2 weeks

d 8 weeks

15. A castrated pig after sexual maturity is called

a. Slud

b. Boar C. Barrow

d. Stag

16. When is the recommended age to offer creep feed:

a 7 days

b. 30 days c. 21 days

d. 32 days

17. Breed of pig known as the "Red Power":

a. Duroc

C. Tamworth

b. Berkshire

d. Pietrain

18. White breeds of pigs

a Duroc

C. Hampshire

b. Yorkshire

d. None of the above

19. If the average daily gain of the animal is 500 gms per day. How long will it take

a 15 kg pig to reach 85 kg

a. 140 days

C 200 days

b. 150 days

d 180 days

20. If a sow farrowed on July 18, when was it bred?

a March 26

cMarch 12

b. November 9

d November 20

21. Method(s) of identifying piglets

a. Hot iron branding

b. Wing web band

Ear notching

d. Tail docking
22. Breed of swine with six distinct white points in its body

a. Pietrain

c. Duroc

b Poland china

d. None of the above

23. Reasons for castrating pigs.

a. Fast growth rate

b. Befter feed efficiency

C Remove the boar taint

d. Thinner backfat

24. The physical characteristics of a replacement boar should be

a Two big testicle

c. Long body

b Strong legs

d. All of the above

25. Which of the following is an important management practice to prevent navel ill

a Cuf needle teeth

c Inject iron dextran

b. Cut umbilical cord d. Brooding

26. Which of the following is an important management practice to prevent chilling

and hypoglycemia.

a Cut needle teeth

c. Give creep feed

b. Cut umbilical cord

d. Brooding
27. Refers to the number of litters a sow or gilt has had.

a Litter size

C. Litter mate

b. Parity

d. Litter interval

28. Recommended age for iron dextran injection

a. 3 days

c. 30 days

b. 14 days

d. 21 days

29. Weight gain of gilt and young sows during pregnancy

a. 15 kg

b. 60 kg C. 21 kg

d. 41 kg

30. Hogs belong to class.

a Animalia

Suidae

b. Chordata d Mammalia

31. Measurement of gestating stalls

a 0.5 mx 2.13 m

c.0.5 ft x 1.85 ft

b 0.5 ft x 2.13 ft

d. 0.5 mx 1.85 m

32. Technique in heat detection

a Swelling and reddening of the vulva

b Haunch pressure test

C Clear viscous vaginal discharge

d All of the above

Section 7. Beef Cattle Production

1. Characteristics of breeder animals that must not be culled

a A cow which calves every year

b. Produces large amount of milk

c Hiefers which comes to heat

d All of the above

2. Young animal of cattle, usually under one year of age.

a. Calf

Kid

b. Piglets

d. All of the above

3. A female of cattle under three years old which has not produce a calf

a Gilt

C. Heifer

b. Cows

d. None of the above

4. A term used to denote the average length of time in days between successive

calvings

a Calving interval

c Gestation period

b. Estrus cycle

d. None of the above

5. General term for any class of animals of bovine family, genus Bos

a. Cattle

C Bull

b. Cow

d. None of the above

6.

A mating system where the bull is brought in and let loose with the herdo

breeding heifers and cows during the breeding season

a Pasture mating

c. Crossbreeding

b. Hand mating

d. Inbreeding

7. Mature female of cattle, one that has given birth

a Heifers

c Cow

b. Gilts

d. Does

8.

The major beef production systems in the Philippines

a Backyard cattle raising C. Feedlot fattening

b. Ranching

d. All of the above

Any number of cattle under one management, maintained in one premise, and

allowed to associate or come in contact with one another

a Cows
c Herd

b. Breed

d Ranch

10. A system of feeding where feeds are brought to the animals

a Hand feeding

C. Cut-and-carry

b. Grazing

d A and C

11. Act of giving birth in cattle,

a Kidding

b Calving

cFarrowing

d. Laying

12 Sexually mature male cattle

a Cow

c. Bull

b. Boar

d. Buck

13. Restraining an animal with a rope or chain to allow limited movement.

a Grazing

C Cut-and-carry

b. Tethening

d. All of the above

14. The sexual period in females when they are receptive to mating
a. Heat period

c Gestation period

b. Estrus period

d. A and B

15. One to two year old cattle of either sex

a Yearling

C. Cow

b. Calf

d. Sow

16 A mating system where an in-heat cow is brought to the bull or vice versa

a. Inbreeding

C Pasture mating

b Cross breeding

d. Hand mating

_days

17. Average gestation period in cow is about

a 283 days

c. 297 days

b 290 days

d. 304 days

years of

18. Properly grown bulls on the range should be allowed to breed at

age

a One year

c. Three years
b. Two year

d. Four years

19. Estrus normally last for

a 24 hours

b. 6-8 hours

hours for indigenous and Zebu grades!

c. 10 - 12 hours

d. 14 - 16 hours

20. Important aspects of the general disease prevention procedure

a. Strict quarantine program

b. Sanitation

c. Process of early diagnosis of disease

d. All of the above

21. A male cattle castrated after reaching the breeding age

a Steer

Heifer

b. Stag

d Bulls

22. Common name of Glincidia sepium.

a. Makahiya

c. Ipil-ipit

b. Kakawate

d. None of the above

23. What is the moisture content of an air-dry feed.

a 10%
c. 15%

b. 5%

d. None of the above

24. A burdizzo is used for

a. Branding

b. Dehorning

C. Castration

d. All of the above