RMT 6 (NEET) Med UG 2021 Synchronized Code B - (QP) - (15.12.19) PDF

Date: 15 - 12 - 2019
RIIT - Medical-UG
Max. Marks : 720
SYNCHRONIZED NEET - CODE - [B]
Batch: 2021 RAO MAJOR TEST - 6 Max. Time : 3 hours
General Instructions :
(i) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(ii) This paper consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
(iii) There are THREE parts in the question paper.
The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct response.
Part A – PHYSICS (+4, –1) (180 marks) – 45 questions
Part B – CHEMISTRY (+4, –1) (180 marks) – 45 questions
Part C – BIOLOGY (+4, –1) (360 marks) – 90 questions
(iv) Each question has 4 choices (A), (B) ,(C) and(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Candidates
will be awarded FOUR marks each for indicating correct response of each question. ONE
mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
Useful Data.
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol 1 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1 1 calorie = 4.18 Joule
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1 1 amu = 1.67 10–27 kg
Avogadro’s Number Na = 6.023  1023 1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J
34
Planck’s constant h = 6.626  10 J  s
= 6.626  10–27 erg  s
Atomic No: H = 1, D = 1, Li = 3, Na = 11, K = 19, Rb = 37, Cs = 55, F = 9, Ca = 20, He = 2, O = 8, Au = 79, Ni = 28,
Zn = 30, Cu = 29, Cl = 17, Br = 35, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, S = 16, P = 15, C = 6, N = 7, Ag = 47, Be = 4
La = 57, Ce = 58, Pr = 59, Nd = 60, Pm = 61, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Gd = 64, Tb = 65, Dy = 66, Ho = 67, Er = 68, Tm = 69,
Yb = 70, Lu = 71, Ac = 89, Th = 90, Pa = 91, U = 92, Np = 93, Pu = 94, Am = 95, Cm = 96, Bl = 97, Cf = 98, Es = 99, Fm = 100,
Md 101, No = 102, Lr = 103
Atomic Masses: He = 4, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, P = 31, Br = 80, Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56, Mn = 55, Pb = 207, Au = 197,
Ag = 108, F = 19, H = 1, Cl = 35.5, Sn = 118.6, Na = 23, D = 2, Cr = 52, K = 39, Ca = 40, Li = 7, Be = 9, Al = 27, S = 32.1
Name of the Student Roll Number
I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them
…………………………………………………….. ……..……………………………………………………
Signature of the Invigilator
Signature of the Candidate
Rao IIT Academy / MedicalUG / Target2021 / Synchronized / Rao Major Test6 / NEET / CodeB / QP
Physics
Single Correct Questions
1. The density of a liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion is at When the liquid is heated to a temperature

the change in density will be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. If a body of mass initially at rest is acted upon by a force of dynes for then the impulse will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. A mass is hanged to a lower end of spring of natural length and slowly released to achive equilibrium position.

The extenstion in the spring is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. Ice starts forming on the surface of lake and takes 8 hours to form a layer of 1 cm thickness. How much time will it take
to increase the thickness of layer to 2 cm ?
(A) 8 hours (B) less than 8 hours
(C) between 8 to 16 hours (D) More than 16 hours
5. The pressure of a gas is plotted against its absolute temperature for two different constant volumes and

where is plotted on the yaxis and on the xaxis:
(A) The curve for has greater slope than the curve for
(B) The curves for has greater slope than the curve for
(C) The curves must intersect for same point other than
(D) The curves have the same slope and do not intersect
6. A flowerpot falls off a window sill and falls past the window below. It takes 0.5 S to pass through a 2.0 m high window.
Find how high is the window sill from the top of the window ?
(A) 10 cm (B) 7.5 cm (C) 12.5 cm (D) 15 cm
Space for rough use
Rao IIT Academy 1 Website : www.raoiit.com
7. Find the correct statement
(A) In inertial frame we can see real and pseudo forces
(B) In non inertial frame we can see only real forces
(C) In noninertial frame we can see only pseudo force
(D) In noninertial frame we can seen both real and pseudo forces
8. A particle starts moving from the position of rest under a constant acceleration. if it covers a distance in
seconds, what distance will it travel in next seconds?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. A body of mass is projected with muzzle velocity from a tank of mass . What is the recoil
velocity of the tank ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10. When an ideal gas is compressed isothermally then its pressure increases because:
(A) Its potential energy increases
(B) Its kinetic energy increases because
(C) Its number of collisions per unit area with walls of container increases
(D) Molecular energy increases
11. Two projectiles are fired from the same point with same speed at an angle of projection and respectively.
Which one of the following is true?
(A) will be same (B) Range will be same
(C) Landing velocities will be same (D) Time of flight will be same
12. of steam at is passed into of ice at If the latent heat of steam and ice are and

respectively, then the final temperature of the mixture will be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. A particle moves along xaxis as
(A) The acceleration of the particle is
(B) The initial velocity of particle is
(C) The particle is at origin at
(D) Question is vague
14. A black of mass rests on a raugh inclined plane making an angle of with the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction between the black and the plane is The frictional force on the black is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
15. The initial velocity of a particle of mass is A constant force of is applied on the particle.

Initially the particle was at Find the x coordinate of the point where its y coordinate is again zero.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. Graph of velocity vs times is as shown in the figure. Find the acceleration.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17. The rms speed of hydrogen at is The rms speed of oxygen at is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18. A particle is subjected to a force Newton (x in metres) and is launched from the origin with
initial velocity metre per second. Find after how much time the component of velocity vanishes ?
(A) 60 sec (B) 40 sec (C) 20 sec (D) 5 sec
19. A projectile is given an initial velocity of . The cartesian equation of it's path is (Here is unit

vector along horizontal and is unit vector vertically upward)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. A girl after being angry throws her engagement ring from the top of building 12 m height towards her boy friends with
an initial horizontal speed of 5 m/s, speed with which the ring it touches the ground is,
(A) 5 m/s (B) 14.3 m/s (C) 1.5 m/s (D) 16.2 m/s
21. All the surfaces are smooth, strings and pully are ideal. Find the acceleration in mass
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
22. The temperature of equal masses of three different liquids and are and respectively.

The temperature when and are mixed is and when and are mixed is The temperature when
and are mixed is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23. A gas is compressed isothermally, such that work done in this process is . In second case, the same gas is
compressed adiabatically, such that is the work done then
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
24. If water at kept in a container with an open top, is placed in a large evacuated chamber :

(A) All the water will vaporize
(B) All the water will freeze
(C) Part of water will vaporizer and the rest will freeze
(D) Ice, water and water vapor will be formed and reach equilibrium at the triple point
25. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity it reaches a height 'h' If one wishes to triple the maximum height

then the ball thrown with a velocity
(A) (B) (C) (D)
26. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the figure. Density of the gas at point A is
Density at will be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27. The relation between is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
28. A balloon of mass is raising up with an acceleration of . If mass of is removed from the balloon

its acceleration becomes (take, )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
29. A body placed on the surface of a smooth inclined plane reaches the bottom of the plane in time When it is placed

on a rough inclined plane, it reaches the bottom in time In both the cases, the angle of inclination is
same. The coefficient of friction is equal to
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30. A gas is expanded from volume to under three different process. Process is isobaric process, process is
isothermal and process is adiabatic. Let be the change in internal energy of the gas in these
processes then:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
31. A block of mass is held by a string on an inclined plane angle . The tension in the string is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32. Which of the following temperature is the highest?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33. The temperature gradient in a rod of 0.5 m length is . If the temperature of hotter end of the rod is , then

the temperature of the cooler end is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
34. The displacementtime graph of a moving particle with constant accleration is shown. The velocity timegraph is given
by,
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35. An object with a mass 10 kg moves at a constant velocity of 10 m/sec. A constant force then acts for 4 second on the
object and gives it a speed of 2 m/sec in opposite direction. The force acting on the object is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36. Acceleration time graph is given for a rectilinear motion. Find average acceleration in first 10 seconds
(A) (B) (C) (D)
37. Given that the interatomic distance between the molecules of a diatomic gas remains constant, then what is the value
of molar specific heat of the gas ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38. A tiger running 100 m race, accelerates for one third time of the total time and then moves with uniform speed. Then
the total time taken by the tiger to run 100 m if the acceleration of the tiger is 8 m/s2 is:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39. The quantity ( Boltzmann's constant) represents :
(A) Number of moles of the gas (B) Total mass of the gas

(C) Number of molecules in the gas (D) Density of the gas
Space for rough use
40. 5 mole of oxygen is heated at constant volume from to . Given and
. The amount of heat consumed by oxygen is
(A) 100 cal (B) 200 cal (C) 300 cal (D) 400 cal
41.
P momentum
t time
then the time at which force of acts on body (All quantity in SI)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42. A projectile is fired at an angle of the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its heighest point as seen from

the point of projection is _________
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43. The rod having length and is is mass per unit length, what is the tension at a distance from end when force

is acted on the rod.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44. A particle is thrown upward with initial velocity It crosses a point at height at time and Then,

is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45. A balloon with mass is descending down with an acceleration (where ). How much mass should be removed

from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
Chemistry
46. A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated with to get a compound with molecular mass 390.The
number of amino groups present per molecule of the former compound is
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
47. The wavelength of the radiation emitted when in hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity state to stationary state
g
would be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48. The order of basic character of given oxide is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. A compound contains 8% sulphur. The minimum molecular weight of the compound is:
(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 350 (D) 400
50. An electron in Hatom in Mshell on deexcitation to ground state gives .... spectrum lines
(A) 10 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 1
51. How many molecules are absorbed on charcoal surface?

(A) (B) (C) (D)
52. In photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy of photoelectron increases linearly with the
(A) Wavelength of incident light (B) Frequency of light
(C) Velocity of incident light (D) Atomic mass of an element
53. Number of moles of excess reagent left :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54. 100 ml of on heating forms P and (according to reaction ). The volume change in

the reaction is:
(A) an increase of 50ml (B) an increase of 100ml
(C) an increase of 150ml (D) a decrease of 50ml
55. of hydrofluoric acid gas occupies litres of volume at . If the empirical formula of the gas is , then its

molecular formula in the gaseous state will be:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
56. on outer most electron of 2nd period element having and unpaired electron in ground state and excited state

respectively is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
57. Which one is the wrong statement?
(A) deBroglie's wavelength is given by where m = mass of the particle, group
velocity of the particle.
(B) The uncertainty principle is
(C) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
(D) The energy of 2s orbitals is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
58. 1 litre of a gas at NTP weighs 1.97 g. Find the molecular mass of the gas in g/mol?
(A) 44.128 (B) 40 (C) 48 (D) 4.4128
59. The first orbital of is represented by ,where is Bohr's radius. The probability of finding the
electron at a distance , from the nucleus in the region is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60. The correct order of ionic radii is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
61. The electronic configurations of the elements and are given below. Which element has the highest metallic
character?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62. The first four ionisation energy values of an element are and The number of valence in the

element is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63. Which one of the following is smallest in size?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64. Ionic compounds are formed most easily with
(A) Low electron affinity, high ionization energy (B) High electron affinity, high ionization energy
(C) Low electron affinity, low ionization energy (D) High electron affinity, low ionization energy
65. An atom of an Element has electronic configuration which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The valency of element is (B) The element exists as a triatomic molecule
(C) The element is metalloid (D) The element forms basic oxides
Space for rough use
66. The photoelectric emission from the surface starts only when the light incident upon the surface has certain minimum.
(A) Intensity (B) Wavelength (C) Frequency (D) Velocity
67. Suppose of light energy is needed by the interior of human eye to see an object. The photons of green light

needed to see the object are
(A) (B) (C) (D)
68. Dieldrin, an insecticide, contains and . Combustion of of dieldrin gave and
. In a separate analysis, of dieldrin was converted into What is the empirical
formula of Dieldrin ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69. Which of the following pair is isodiaphers
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70. In the reaction, 4 moles of electrons are transferred to 1 mole of . The possible product obtained due to
reduction.
(A) 0.4 mole of (B) 0.5 mole of
(C) 1 mole of (D) 1 mole of
71. The volume of gas obtained of adsorbed from charcoal substance at STP is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)
72. AIR service on Vividh Bharati is transmitted on 219 m band. What is its transmission frequency in Hz?

(A) (B) (C) (D)
73. Which of the following has maximum mass?
(A) 0.1 mol of ammonia (B) 0.1 gmatom of carbon
(C) molecules of (D) 1120 cc of carbondioxide at STP
74. The mineral haematite is Fe2O3 . Haematite ore contains unwanted material called gangue in addition to Fe2O3 . If 5.0
kg of ore contains 2.78 kg of Fe, the percentage purity of Fe2O3 is :
(A) 85.54% (B) 79.43% (C) 89.6% (D) 100%
75. Number of moles of formed in the reaction will be:

(A) (B) (C) (D)
76. Which of the following does not characterize X rays
(A) The radiation can ionize the gas. (B) It causes fluorescence effect on ZnS
(C) Deflected by electronic and magnetic field. (D) Have wavelength shorter than ultraviolet rays
Space for rough use
77. Select incorrect statement.
(A) Kinetic energy of photo electron does not depend upon the wavelength of incident radiation.
(B) Photo electric current depends on intensity of incident radiation and not on frequency.
(C) Shopping potential depends on frequency of radiation and not on intensity
(D) None of these
78. The cause of diagonal relationship is
(A) Similar electronegativities (B) Similar ionic or atomic radii
(C) Similar polarizing power of ion (D) All the three
79. 4 NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) +6H2O( ) when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion.

(A) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced (B) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(C) all the oxygen will be consumed (D) all the ammonia will be consumed
80. According to Bohr's theory the angular momentum of an electron in the fourth orbit is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81. Which of the following requires largest amount of energy
(A) (B)
(C) (D) All requires amount of energy
82. Balance the following equation and choose the quantity which is the sum of the coefficients of the reactants & products
g
:
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 2
83. Total number of electrons present in at STP is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)
84. Pd has exceptional electronic configuration of It belong to

(A) 4th period, group 11 (B) 5th period, group 10
(C) 6th period, group 9 (D) 3rd period gorup 16
85. Which of the following is the correct order of electron gain enthalpy ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
86. Fluorine is the best oxidizing agent because it has
(A) Highest electron affinity (B) Highest
(C) Highest (D) Lowest electron affinity
Space for rough use
87. Which of the ions are isoelectronic?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88. A gas absorbs a photon of and emits at two wavelength. If one the other

(A) (B) (C) (D)
89. A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen contains 20% by mass of hydrogen. What is the total number of molecules present
per gram of the mixture?
(A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) 1.5 × 1023 (C) 7.6 × 1024 (D) 7.528 × 1022
90. Which of the following sequence regarding ionisation potential of coinage metal is correct :
(A) Cu > Ag > Au (B) Cu < Ag < Au (C) Cu > Ag < Au (D) Ag > Cu < Au
Biology
91. Which phylum has a true coelom ?
(A) Cnidaria (B) Mollusca (C) Porifera (D) Annelida
92. Fungus without any mycelium is
(A) Albugo (B) Agaricus (C) Puccinia (D) Saccharomyces
93. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of pteridophyta
(A) They show homospory as well as heterospory
(B) Presence of vascular tissue
(C) Water is required for fertilization
(D) Gametophyte is dependent on sporophyte
94. Organization found in Protists is
(A) Cellular level (B) Tissue level
(C) Protoplasmic level (D) Organ level
95. Which of the following combination is not correct ?
(A) Elasmobranchii Scoliodon (B) Cephalochordata Petromyzon
(C) Mammalian Whale (D) Urochordata Herdmania
96. 'Quacking bog' forming moss is:
(A) Funaria (B) Polytrichum (C) Dawsonia (D) Sphagnum
Space for rough use
97. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are
correct ?
(A) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(B) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
(C) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
(D) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
98. The male & female sex organs in Riccia & Funaria is
(A) Antheridium & Oospore (B) Antheridium & Archegonium resp
(C) Archegonium & Antheridium resp (D) Spongonium & Archegonium
99. Which one is limbless amphibia ?
(A) Bufo (Toad) (B) Rana (Frog) (C) Salamandra (D) Icthyophis
100. Winged pollengrain is the characteristic feature of
(A) Cycas (B) Ephedra (C) Gnetum (D) Pinus
101. Correct order of ear ossicles
(A) incus, stapes, malleus (B) malleus, incus, stapes
(C) malleus, stapes, incus (D) incus, malleus, stapes
102. The most poisonous snake is
(A) Krait (B) Tree snake (C) python (D) Rat snake
103. Which of the following is not Economically important insect?
(A) Apis (B) Bombyx (C) Laccifer (D) Locusta
104. Largest sperm in the plant world is found in __
(A) Banyan (B) Cycas (C) Thuja (D) Funaria
105. Which of the following characteristics are not shown by bony fishes?
I : They are oviparous
II : Their tail is heterocercal
III : They do not have swim bladders
IV : Show sexual dimorphism
(A) I and IV (B) II and III (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV
106. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are placed under kingdom
(A) Protista (B) Monera (C) Algae (D) Plantae
107. To which of the following category do dinosaurs belong?
(A) Reptiles (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds
Space for rough use
108. In Pinus, megaspore on germination forms :
(A) Pollen tube with two motile sperms (B) Endosperm with archegonia
(C) Endosperm with sperms (D) Endosperm with embryo sac
109. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is
(A) presence of skull (B) division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
(C) presence of external segmentation (D) body is covered with an exoskeleton
110. Circinotropous ovule is found in
(A) Opuntia (B) Mustard (C) Pea (D) Polygonum
111. Members of pteridophytes are:
(A) Homosporous (B) Heterosporous
(C) Homosporous or heterosporous (D) None of these
112. Which set of characters is specific to brown algae
(A) Fucoxanthin, chlorophyll a and c (B) Phycobilins, chlorophyll a and c
(C) Floridean starch, chlorophyll a and c (D) Laminarin, chlorophyll a and d
113. The source of algin is
(A) Spirogyra (B) Fucus (C) Gracillaria (D) Gelidium
114. In which triploblastic animals coelom is absent ?
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda
115. The space between the visceral hump and dorsal spongy skin is called______in which______ are present in case of
molluscs
(A) Mantle cavity, gill (B) Body cavity and shell (C) Viscera and shell (D) Shell and Viscera
116. Ovule in gymnosperms is generally:
(A) Anatropous and bitegmic (B) Orthotropous and bitegmic
(C) Orthotropous and unitegmic (D) Anatropous and unitegmic
117. The sweat glands are scanty in
(A) Elephant (B) Man (C) Rabbit (D) Polar bear
118. An example of colonial alga is:
(A) Chlorella (B) Volvox (C) Ulothrix (D) Spirogyra
Space for rough use
119. Which is the wrong statement?
(A) Mycoplasma generates a cell wall when cultured in a suitable nutrient medium.
(B) Rickettsia cannot be cultured on artificial nutrient medium.
(C) Archaebacteria lack peptidoglycan in their cell wall.
(D) Heterocyst is the site of nitrogen fixation in filamentous cyanobacteria.
120. The body of the animal can be divided into identical left and right halves. Which type of symmetry is this?
(A) Asymmetry (B) Bilateral symmetry (C) Radial symmetry (D) Biradial symmetry
121. The jokers of microbiology are
(A) Rickettsia (B) Mycoplasma (C) Archebacteria (D) Cyanobacteria
122. What causes sulphur clouds in temperate climate?
(A) Male gametophytes of pine (B) Male gametes of pine
(C) Volatile resin and turpentine (D) Sulphur bacteria
123. In Arthropods respiratory organs are
(A) Gills (B) Book Gills
(C) Book lungs or Trachea (D) All of these
124. Which of the following animals is a deuterostome?
(A) Starfish (B) Sea anemone (C) Ant (D) Octopus
125. What is correct for Polytrichum and Funaria?
(A) Multicellular and branched rhizoids
(B) Unicellular and unbranched rhizoids
(C) Presence of gemmae cups for vegetative reproduction
(D) Dorsiventral, closely appressed thallus
126. Mollusca is the ______ Largest phylum of Animal kingdom :
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth
127. Fungi lack
(A) Cell wall (B) Mitochondria (C) Plastids (D) Ribosomes
128. Who acts as a connecting link between gymnosperms and angiosperms?
(A) Cycadales (B) Ginkgoales (C) Gnetales (D) None of these
129. Algae and fungi are seperated from one another on the basis of
(A) Habit and habitat (B) Mode of reproduction
(C) Nutrition and cell wall organisation (D) Nature of nucleus and body organisation
Space for rough use
130. The purple sulphur bacteria use hydrogen sulphide and release sulphur but not oxygen. Which of the following agrees
with above observation?
(A) The H2 that reduces CO2 comes form H2S that liberates sulphur
(B) Photosynthesis does not require chlorophyll
(C) Photosynthesis consist of a light and a dark reaction
(D) The H2 which reduces CO2 in photosynthesis comes from H2O that release O2
131. The vector responsible for the transmission of malaria is classified under which phylum
(A) Porifera (B) Annelida (C) Arthropoda (D) None of these
132. Litmus is made from _________
(A) Fungi (B) Bacteria (C) Algae (D) Lichens
133. Living fossil is
(A) Ginkgo biloba (B) Cinelum celva (C) Cycas revoluta (D) Pinus roxburghii
134. Identify the ectoparasite of human?
(A) Tape worm (B) Wuchereria (C) Plasmodium (D) Head lice
135. The main body parts common to all molluscs are the
(A) Foot, Radula and the Mantle (B) Foot, Visceral mass (hump) and mantle
(C) Visceral mass, Mantle, shell (D) Foot, Radula, Visceral mass
136. Select wrong statement
(A) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of Gymno sperms
(B) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and fucoxanthin
(C) Mucor reproduces a sexually only by zoospore formation
Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperm only, absent in
(D)
Angiosperm and Algae
137. The gut of ruminant animals contains
(A) cyanobacteria (B) archaebacteria (C) eubacteria (D) mycoplasma
138. Nematocytes are
(A) Feeding organ (B) Stinging capsule (C) Locomotory organ (D) Foodstoring organ
139. Gemmae are
(A) One celled structures (B) Multi cellular asexual buds
(C) Diploid sporophyte structures (D) Haploid sexual structures
140. The unique event in the lifecycle of angiosperms is
(A) Syngamy (B) Double fertilisation (C) Zooidogamy (D) Heterospory
Space for rough use
141. Virus envelope is known as
(A) Core (B) Capsid (C) Virion (D) Nucleoprotein
142. Which of the following has a spiral shell?
(A) Octopus (B) Pila (C) Unio (D) All of these
143. The motile asexual reproductive unit (spore) is called
(A) Zygospore (B) Aplanospore (C) Hypnospore (D) Zoospore
144. Sporophyte of Funaria is made up of
(A) Apophysis, Theca, Operculum (B) Foot, Seta, Capsule
(C) Egg cell, Venter cell, Neck cell (D) None of these
145. How many organisms given below are autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Trypanosoma,Porphyra,Wolffia,
(A) Four (B) Five (C) Six (D) Three
146. Blind sac body plan is shown by
(A) Roundworms (B) Annelids (C) Coelenterates (D) Arthropods
147. Mark the odd one
(A) Cymbella (B) Gonyaulax (C) Noctiluca (D) Gymnodinium
148. Independent free living, photosynthetic gametophyte is not found in life cycle of __________
(A) Funaria (B) Marchantia (C) Riccia (D) Eucalyptus
149. Pheretima posthuma (earthworm) is highly useful as
(A) Their burrows make the soil loose
(B) They make the soil porous, leave their castings and take organic debris in the soil
(C) They are used as fish meal
(D) They kill the birds due to biomagnification of chlorinated hydrocarbons
150. Which one is false ?
(A) In molluscs, Gills have respiratory and excretory functions
(B) In molluscs, the head has sensory tentacles
(C) Molluscs are dioecious, oviparous with indirect development
(D) None of these
151. Cyanobacteria have typical:
(A) Grampositive type cell wall (B) Gramnegative type cell wall
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Space for rough use
152. Match the column A containing the bacterial type with Column B containing the shape.
Column A Column B
1. Bacillus a. spherical
2. Coccus b. comma
3. Spirillum c. rod
4. Vibrium d. spirilla
(A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 d (B) 1 –d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 a
(C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 a (D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 b
153. When viruses infect a cell they take over the machinery of the host cell to replicate themselves. R.H. Whittaker
classified them in
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Plantae (D) None of these
154. Gram stain is_____
(A) Stain extracted from gram seeds (B) Crystal blue dye used for gram staining
(C) Crystal violet dye (D) gram discovered the stain purple dye
155. Cyanobacteria are classified under
(A) Plantae (B) Monera (C) Protista (D) Algae
156. The lichen which is useful in litmus formation is
(A) Rocella (B) Cladonia (C) Usnea (D) Peltigera
157. The protein coat of a virus is known as
(A) Capsule (B) Glycocalyx (C) Capsid (D) Capsomere
158. Cloaca a common opening for urinary and reproductive tracts is present in
(A) Amphibia (B) Osteichthyes (C) Cyclostomata (D) Chondrichthyes
159. Which of the following groups include only Arthropods?
(A) Prawn, Schistosoma and Planaria (B) Cockroach, Scorpion and Prawn
(C) Pleurobrachia, Neopilina and Scorpion (D) Fasciola, Prawn and Cockroach
160. Cladonia rangiferina is a/an
(A) Algae (B) Fungus (C) Angiosperm (D) Lichen
161. The chemical present in cell wall of phaeophyceae are
(A) Agar, Fucin (B) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Agar, Carrageenin
(C) Agar, Carrageenin (D) Fucin, Algin
Space for rough use
162. Which of the following is a correct statement for bryophytes ?
(A) Gametophyte is haploid & Sporophyte is diploid
(B) They are heterosporous
(C) Rhizoids are present on the dorsal surface of thallus
(D) Gemmae are found in Marchantia
163. Which statement is not true for Angiosperms ?
(A) Ovary matures in to fruit
(B) Xylem has vessels and phloem has companion cells
(C) Angiosperm plant is sporophytic (2n)
(D) Angiosperms have naked ovules
164. Lichen is an association between
(A) Algae & bryophytes symbiotic (B) Alga & fungus symbiotic
(C) Alga & fungus parasitic (D) Alga & gymnosperm symbiotic
165. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) Spores are gametes (B) Spores are always haploid
(C) Gametes are always haploid (D) Spores and gametes are diploid
166. Brown algae are known as

(A) Pyrrophyta (B) Phaeophyta (C) Chrysophyta (D) Chlorophyta
167. Spirogyra is so named because:
(A) The chloroplast is spirally arranged (B) Pyrenoid is spiral
(C) Plasma membrane is spiral (D) Mitochondria are spiral
168. Symbiotic fixing cyanobacteria are present in all except

(A) Anthoceros (B) Azolla (C) Cycas (D) Gnetum
169. Which of the following animal does not persist notochord throughout life
(A) Doliolum (B) Pterophyllum (C) Pristis (D) Myxine
170. In which of the following gametophytes is not independent free living ?
(A) Pteris (B) Pinus (C) Funaria (D) Marchantia
171. In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes are placed in the kingdom
(A) Plantae (B) Monera (C) Protista (D) Animalia
172. Which one is a link between chordates and nonchordates ?
(A) Sphenodon (B) Balanoglossus (C) Crocodilia (D) None of these
Space for rough use
173. The cyanobacteria fix nitrogen in specialized cells known as
(A) Akinetes (B) Endospores (C) Heterocysts (D) Cysts
174. People recovering from long illness are often advised to include the alga Spirulina in their diet because it:
(A) Makes the food easy to digest (B) Is rich in proteins
(C) Has antibiotic properties (D) Restores the intestinal microflora
175. Funaria gametophyte is
(A) Dioecious (B) Heteroecious
(C) Autoecious (D) Monoecious and autoecious
176. The long bones are hollow and connected by air passages these are characteristics of
(A) mammals (B) reptiles
(C) birds (D) all land vertebrates
177. The source of Iodine & Bromine are __________ & _________ respectively.
(A) Polysiphonia, Pseudomonas (B) Laminaria, Fucus
(C) Fucus, Polysiphonia (D) Rhodymenia, Laminaria
178. The number of gills present in Osteichthyes is
(A) 2 pairs (B) 3 pairs (C) 5 pairs (D) 4 pairs
179. Which of the following animals, do not belong to the phylum Mollusca?
(A) Devil fish (B) Cuttle fish (C) Sea hare (D) Sea fan
180. Life cycle of ectocarpus and fucus respectively.
(A) Haplontic, Diplontic (B) Diplontic, Haplontic
(C) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic (D) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
Space for rough use
Syllabus:
Physics: Kinematics, Heat and Thermodynamics, Newtons Laws of Motion
Chemistry: Mole concept, Atomic Structure, Periodic Properties
Biology: Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Animal Kingdom.

RMT 6 (NEET) Med UG 2021 Synchronized Code B - (QP) - (15.12.19) PDF

Caricato da

Informazioni sul documento

Descrizione originale:

Titolo originale

Copyright

Formati disponibili

Condividi questo documento

Condividi o incorpora il documento

Opzioni di condivisione

Hai trovato utile questo documento?

Questo contenuto è inappropriato?

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

RMT 6 (NEET) Med UG 2021 Synchronized Code B - (QP) - (15.12.19) PDF

Caricato da

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

Date: 15 - 12 - 2019

(i) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(iii) There are THREE parts in the question paper.

Part A – PHYSICS (+4, –1) (180 marks) – 45 questions

Part B – CHEMISTRY (+4, –1) (180 marks) – 45 questions

Part C – BIOLOGY (+4, –1) (360 marks) – 90 questions

mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.

Name of the Student Roll Number

1. The density of a liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion is at When the liquid is heated to a temperature

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. If a body of mass initially at rest is acted upon by a force of dynes for then the impulse will be

3. A mass is hanged to a lower end of spring of natural length and slowly released to achive equilibrium position.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5. The pressure of a gas is plotted against its absolute temperature for two different constant volumes and

(A) 10 cm (B) 7.5 cm (C) 12.5 cm (D) 15 cm

12. of steam at is passed into of ice at If the latent heat of steam and ice are and

15. The initial velocity of a particle of mass is A constant force of is applied on the particle.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

17. The rms speed of hydrogen at is The rms speed of oxygen at is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 60 sec (B) 40 sec (C) 20 sec (D) 5 sec

19. A projectile is given an initial velocity of . The cartesian equation of it's path is (Here is unit

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

22. The temperature of equal masses of three different liquids and are and respectively.

24. If water at kept in a container with an open top, is placed in a large evacuated chamber :

25. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity it reaches a height 'h' If one wishes to triple the maximum height

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

27. The relation between is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

28. A balloon of mass is raising up with an acceleration of . If mass of is removed from the balloon

(A) (B) (C) (D)

29. A body placed on the surface of a smooth inclined plane reaches the bottom of the plane in time When it is placed

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

31. A block of mass is held by a string on an inclined plane angle . The tension in the string is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

33. The temperature gradient in a rod of 0.5 m length is . If the temperature of hotter end of the rod is , then

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

39. The quantity ( Boltzmann's constant) represents :

(A) Number of moles of the gas (B) Total mass of the gas

(A) 100 cal (B) 200 cal (C) 300 cal (D) 400 cal

(A) (B) (C) (D)

42. A projectile is fired at an angle of the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its heighest point as seen from

(A) (B) (C) (D)

43. The rod having length and is is mass per unit length, what is the tension at a distance from end when force

(A) (B) (C) (D)

44. A particle is thrown upward with initial velocity It crosses a point at height at time and Then,

(A) (B) (C) (D)

45. A balloon with mass is descending down with an acceleration (where ). How much mass should be removed

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

51. How many molecules are absorbed on charcoal surface?

54. 100 ml of on heating forms P and (according to reaction ). The volume change in

55. of hydrofluoric acid gas occupies litres of volume at . If the empirical formula of the gas is , then its

56. on outer most electron of 2nd period element having and unpaired electron in ground state and excited state

59. The first orbital of is represented by ,where is Bohr's radius. The probability of finding the

electron at a distance , from the nucleus in the region is